Test Bank For Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition By Jason LaPres, Beth Ann Kersten Cha

Test Bank For Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition By Jason LaPres, Beth Ann Kersten Chapter 1-18 Answers are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1

Student name:__________ 1) The term used to describe something pertaining to the internal organs is_________.

A) visceral B) proximal C) peripheral D) deep

2) The term peripheral refers to a structure that is_________.

A) toward the abdominal surface B) away from the body surface C) away from the center of the body D) to the left of the midline

3) The chin is_________ to the mouth, and the knee is_________ to the ankle.

A) anterior; distal B) inferior; distal C) superior; proximal D) inferior; proximal

4) The integumentary system is made up of the_________.

A) bones, ligaments, and cartilage B) hormone-producing glands C) brain, spinal cord, and nerves D) skin, hair, nails, and associated glands

5) A tissue is_________.

A) an organ with specific functions B) organs grouped together C) the structural and functional units of the body D) a group of cells that perform similar functions

6) The lowest level of organization in the body is the_________ level.

A) organ B) tissue C) chemical D) cellular

7) A(n) _________ consists of a group of tissues working together to perform specific

functions.

A) organ B) tissue C) molecule D) organelle

8) The simplest structures in which the processes of life occur are_________.

A) organs B) tissues C) molecules D) cells

9) Blood, the heart, and blood vessels compose the_________ system.

A) cardiovascular B) pulmonary C) lymphatic D) endocrine

10) The study of the structure and organization of the human body is_________.

A) histology B) physiology C) chemistry D) anatomy

11) A feedback mechanism that returns the body to homeostasis is_________.

A) positive feedback B) negative feedback C) hormone feedback D) nervous feedback

12) A negative feedback mechanism contains what three components?

A) A reflex, an effect, and a chemical signal B) A receptor, a reflex, and a chemical signal C) A receptor, an integration center, and an effector D) A chemical signal, an integration center, and a reflex

13) A feedback mechanism that amplifies the stimulus is called _________.

A) positive feedback B) negative feedback C) hormone feedback D) nervous feedback

14) In anatomical terms, the forearm is the_________ region and the fingers are the_________

region.

A) B) C) D)

patellar; plantar antecubital; palmar antebrachial; digital crural; tarsals

15) In anatomical terms, the elbow is the_________ region.

A) axillary B) cubital C) brachial D) pedal

16) The plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions is the_________.

A) sagittal B) transverse (horizontal) C) frontal (coronal) D) paramedian

17) The plane that separates the body into the front and back, or anterior and posterior portions,

is the_________ plane.

A) frontal (coronal) B) median C) sagittal D) transverse (horizontal)

18) A_________ plane is a plane that cut in between the longitudinal and cross-sectional axes.

A) oblique B) median C) sagittal D) transverse (horizontal)

19) Which body cavities are almost completely surrounded by bone?

A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities B) Thoracic and abdominal cavities C) Cranial cavity and vertebral canal D) Thoracic cavity and vertebral canal

20) The mediastinum, pleural, and pericardial cavities are contained within the_________.

A) abdominal cavity B) thoracic cavity C) pelvic cavity D) cranial cavity

21) Which quadrant is the stomach located within?

A) Left upper quadrant B) Lower left quadrant C) Right upper quadrant D) Right lower quadrant

22) All the chemical reactions within a cell or organism are known as_________.

A) anabolic reactions B) catabolic reactions C) metabolism D) maintenance

23) The survival needs of the human body include_________.

A) food, water, and oxygen.

B) food, water, oxygen, body temperature, and atmospheric pressure.

C) food, water, and the appropriate atmosphere containing oxygen and adequate

pressure.

D) food, water, oxygen, and the appropriate environmental conditions.

24) The sacral region of the body is located _________.

A) between the hips on the very lower back B) above the thoracic region C) directly below the cervical region D) between the thoracic and lumbar regions

25) The diaphragm divides the_________.

A) pericardial and pleural cavities B) abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities C) abdominal and pelvic cavities.

D) thoracic cavity and mediastinum.

26) Which of the following is the anatomical term for the back of the knee?

A) Popliteal B) Crural C) Patellar D) Perineal

27) Which of the following is the generic term for the anatomical term coxal?

A) Armpit B) Thigh C) Hip D) Buttock

28) The cephalic region includes the_________.

A) the head and neck B) the shoulders and arms C) the cranial and facial regions D) the cranial and cervical regions

29) The upper and lower limbs compose the _________ portion of the body.

A) distal B) proximal C) axial D) appendicular

30) A_________ plane divides the body into equal left and right portions.

A) sagittal B) median C) coronal D) transverse

31) In anatomical terms, the arm is the _________, and the wrist is the _________ region.

A) antebrachium; cubital B) brachium; carpal C) brachial; cubital D) antebrachium; carpal

32) The thoracic cavity contains which of the following cavities?

A) Cranial, abdominal, pelvic B) Pericardial and pleural C) Cranial, spinal, pelvic D) Thoracic, pleural, pelvic

33) The membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the surfaces of its organs is

the_________.

A) meninges B) pleura C) pericardium D) peritoneum

34) The gallbladder is located in the _________ quadrant.

A) right upper B) right lower C) left upper D) left lower

35) The urinary bladder is located in the _________ region.

A) left inguinal B) epigastric C) hypogastric D) umbilical

36) Digestion breaks down complex molecules into simpler molecules. Select the term that best

describes this process.

A) Anabolism B) Catabolism C) Homeostasis D) Negative Feedback

37) Homeostasis is maintained by self-regulating physiological processes. Select the process that

is primarily responsible for maintaining homeostasis.

A) Anabolism B) Catabolism C) Positive Feedback D) Negative Feedback

38) Gross anatomy can best be studied using a microscope. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Physiology can best be studied using dissections. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) The part of a cell that is most like our organs is the_________.

A) organism B) organic macromolecule C) atom D) organelle

41) An organ system that protects vital organs, produces blood cells, and stores minerals is

the_________ system A) lymphatic B) skeletal C) cardiovascular D) integumentary

42) The pericardium is located _________.

A) in the center of the thoracic cavity, surrounding the heart B) in the superior mediastinum, surrounding the cardiac vessels C) in the abdominal cavity, surrounding the pancreas D) in the abdominal cavity, surrounding the aorta

43) The covering of the lungs is the _________, and they are located in the _________ cavities.

A) visceral pleura; pleural B) parietal pleura; pleural C) visceral pleura; peritoneal D) parietal pleura; peritoneal

44) A lack of _________ would impair the body's ability to maintain homeostasis.

A) food B) water C) oxygen D) All items listed are necessary to maintain homeostasis.

45) A chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder impairs the ability of the body to obtain oxygen.

Eventually, if the body cannot compensate, _________ will be lost.

A) homeostasis B) metabolism C) equilibrium D) energy

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) D

38) FALSE 39) FALSE 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) A

Student name:__________ 46) Anything that has weight and occupies space can be described as_________.

A) an atom B) matter C) a compound D) a molecule

47) There are _________ naturally occurring elements of which _________ are involved in

maintaining life.

A) 96; 22 B) 104; 28 C) 92; 24 D) 58; 34

48) Which of the following is NOT an example of a lipid?

A) Fats B) Amino acids C) Steroids D) Phospholipids

49) Proteins are made up of_________.

A) fats B) amino acids C) nucleotides D) sugars

50) Nucleic acids are made up of_________.

A) fats B) amino acids C) nucleotides D) sugars

51) About 96% of the body consists of what four elements?

A) Oxygen, hydrogen, glucose, and carbon B) Oxygen, hydrogen, carbon, and copper C) Oxygen, hydrogen, carbon, and sodium D) Oxygen, hydrogen, carbon, and nitrogen

52) A chemical formula expresses_________.

A) the chemical composition of a molecule B) the number of atoms for each element in the molecule C) the atoms involved in chemical bonding D) All of the choices are correct.

53) Covalent bonds form when_________.

A) two or more atoms share electrons equally B) a positive ion and a negative ion attract C) two or more molecules share electrons unequally D) two or more atoms share electrons equally and two or more molecules share electrons

unequally

54) To be considered an organic molecule a substance must contain_________.

A) carbon and nitrogen B) carbon and hydrogen C) carbon and oxygen D) oxygen and hydrogen

55) The process used to convert liquid vegetable oils to solids by changing its bonds is

called_________.

A) carbonization B) hydrogenation C) solidification D) oxygenation

56) If an atom has 8 protons and 8 neutrons in its nucleus, and 8 orbiting electrons, its atomic

number would be_________.

A) 24 B) 16 C) 8 D) 12

57) To form an ion, an atom must either donate or receive a(n) _________.

A) electron B) proton C) neutron D) electrons and neutron

58) Hydrogen bonds occur between _________.

A) multiple ions B) nonpolar molecules C) polar molecules D) ions and nonpolar molecules

59) The valence electrons are those_________.

A) active in chemical bonds B) close to the nucleus of the atom C) located in the outermost shell D) located in the innermost shell

60) A saturated fat will have _________.

A) significant numbers of carbon-carbon double bonds B) very few hydrogen atoms C) no carbon to carbon double bonds D) excessive nutrients

61) Lactose, the sugar contained in milk, is an example of a_________.

A) simple sugar B) monosaccharide C) disaccharide D) None of the choices are correct.

62) This chemical structure would be the general representation of _________.

A) B) C) D)

an amino acid a fatty acid a nucleic acid glycerol

63) Enzymes directly act to _________.

A) maintain cell structure B) slow down chemical reactions C) speed up chemical reactions D) supply energy

64) The difference between DNA and RNA is that_________.

A) each contains different sugars B) each has different bases C) each has a difference in the number of strands D) there are differences in sugars, bases, and the number of strands

65) Steroids are a type of _________.

A) protein B) lipid C) sugar D) nucleic acid

66) A substance that cannot be broken down into a simpler substance by chemical means is

a/an_________.

A) element B) compound C) molecule D) nucleic acid

67) The positively charged subatomic particles located in the nucleus of an atom are the

_________.

A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) nucleons

68) The number of protons plus the number of neutrons determines the_________ of an atom.

A) isotope B) valence electrons C) atomic number D) atomic mass

69) Two or more atoms of the SAME element combine to form a(n) _________.

A) isotope B) compound C) molecule D) ion

70) When one atom donates an electron to another atom, the donating atom becomes a_________

charged ion, and the receiving atom becomes a_________ charged ion. These ions are joined together by a/an_________ chemical bond.

A) positively; negatively; ionic B) negatively; positively; ionic C) negatively; positively; covalent D) positively; negatively; hydrogen

71) The element that forms the backbone of organic molecules is_________.

A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) carbon D) nitrogen

72) Which of the following is an organic molecule?

A) B) NaOH C) D)

73) The ionization of a/an_________ releases hydrogen ions and increases the concentration of

hydrogen ions in a solution.

A) acid B) base C) salt D) solvent

74) On the typical pH scale, a pH of _________ indicates the lowest concentration of hydrogen

ions, whereas a pH of _________ indicates the highest concentration of H+.

A) 0; 14 B) 7; 14 C) 14; 0 D) 0; 7

75) A carbohydrate molecule consisting of glucose combined with fructose is a_________.

A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) polysaccharide D) starch

76) The monosaccharide that is the major carbohydrate fuel for body cells is_________.

A) sucrose B) fructose C) galactose D) glucose

77) When the body has excess energy and builds molecules to store it, which molecule do we

build MOST? A) Glycogen B) Glucose C) Triglycerides D) Cholesterol

78) Proteins are composed of subunits called_________ and functional proteins

include_________, which speed up chemical reactions in the body.

A) amino acids; enzymes B) fatty acids; enzymes C) fatty acids; triglycerides D) amino acids; antibodies

79) Select the correct statement.

A) DNA and RNA are double-stranded molecules composed of nucleotides.

B) DNA and RNA are single-stranded molecules with dissimilar nucleotides.

C) DNA contains the genetic code, and RNA carries the coded information to the sites of

protein synthesis.

D) DNA is double-stranded but RNA is single-stranded, although their nucleotides are identical.

80) The molecule that provides immediate energy for cellular processes is_________.

A) glucose B) glycogen C) starch D) adenosine triphosphate

81) Adding additional neutrons to an atom would form _________.

A) an isotope B) an ion C) covalent bonds D) ionic bonds

82) An atom that has 6 electrons in its valence shell will be most likely to _________.

A) donate 2 electrons B) donate 6 electrons C) receive 2 electrons D) receive 6 electrons

83) An ionic bond forms between_________.

A) a cation and another cation B) a cation and an anion C) an anion and another anion D) All of the choices are correct.

84) When placed in water, ionic substances ionize into_________.

A) water molecules B) salts C) hydrogen ions D) electrolytes

85) At a pH of 7, which of the following would be true?

A)

and concentrations would be equal.</p> B) concentration would be greater than concentration.</p> C) concentration would be greater than concentration.</p> D) None of the choices are correct.

86) The form of carbohydrate our bodies use to store reserve energy is _________.

A) disaccharides B) starches C) glycogen D) glucose

87) A monounsaturated fat would have_________.

A) one carbon-carbon double bond in a fatty acid tail B) two fatty acid tails and a phosphate group C) two carbon-carbon double bonds in its fatty acid tails D) four carbon rings

88) A covalent bond between two amino acids is called a(n)_________.

A) protein bond B) ionic bond C) enzyme bond D) peptide bond

89) If there are two forms of atoms for an element that differ only in the number of neutron, the

various forms of the element are referred to as _________ of that element.

A) isotopes B) ions C) molecules D) electrolytes

90) What is the notation that tells the reader the chemical composition of a molecule or

compound?

A) Chemical formula B) Compound formula C) Elemental notation D) Atomic structure

91) What type of formula is shown?

A) B) C) D)

Structural formula Molecular formula Atomic formula Elemental formula

92) What type of chemical formula is shown here?

A) B) C) D)

Structural formula Molecular formula Atomic formula Elemental formula

93) What type of reaction is shown?

A + B → AB A) Synthesis B) Exchange C) Reversible D) Decomposition

94) What type of reaction is shown?

AB + CD → AD + BC A) Synthesis B) Exchange C) Reversible D) Decomposition

95) What type of reaction is shown?

A) B) C) D)

Synthesis Exchange Reversible Decomposition

96) What is the most abundant substance in the human body?

A) Water B) Glucose C) Carbon D) Hydrogen

97) Water molecules are special. But what makes them so special?

A) Polar bonds B) The bend in their structure C) Because they are liquid D) Their abundance

98) What is the term for a substance that causes a resistance to a change in pH? A) Buffer B) Salt C) Base D) Electrolyte

99) How does a buffer help a solution maintain pH? A) A buffer can act like a base if pH is acidic, and it can act like an acid if pH is basic.

B) A buffer releases acid to maintain proper pH. C) A buffer release base to neutralize acid.

D) A buffer forms both cations and anions to counteract acids.

100)

Which of the following is TRUE regarding enzymes?

A) They are proteins.

B) They speed up chemical reactions.

C) They are reusable.

D) All of the choices are correct.

101)

Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?

A) The enzymatic site B) The inhibition site C) The allosteric site D) The active site

102)

What is released when an ATP splits to produce an ADP? A) Energy B) Heat C) <p>Inorganic phosphate ( )</p> D) All of the choices are correct.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) C 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) B 56) C 57) A 58) C 59) C 60) C 61) C 62) A 63) C 64) D 65) B 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) C 73) A 74) C 75) B 76) D 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) D 81) A 82) C

83) B 84) D 85) A 86) C 87) A 88) D 89) A 90) A 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) D 101) D 102) D

Student name:__________ 103)

The numerous short hair-like projections that move things across the surface of cells are_________.

A) microvilli B) flagella C) cilia D) microtubules

104)

Facilitated diffusion requires_________ to occur.

A) energy B) a gradient C) a carrier protein D) a gradient and a carrier protein

105)

A solution which contains a high concentration of salts relative to the cytosol of a cell is a(n)_________.

A) hypotonic solution B) isotonic solution C) hypertonic solution D) hypo-osmotic solution

106)

Diffusion is dependent on_________.

A) a gradient B) the size of the molecule C) random molecule movement D) All of the choices are correct.

107)

A toxin targets the enzymes active in the formation of ATP. Which of the following membrane mechanisms would be limited due to the lack of ATP? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Active transport C) Osmosis D) Facilitated diffusion and active transport

108)

Mitosis is division of the _________. Cytokinesis results in the formation of _________ cells.

A) cytoplasm; 2 B) nucleus; 2 C) cytoplasm; 4 D) nucleus; 4

109)

One key difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis occurs in _________ cells while meiosis only occurs in _________ cells.

A) sex; somatic B) daughter; parent C) somatic; sex D) somatic; nonsex

110)

During what phase of mitosis do the chromosomes form a line along the equator of the cell?

A) Anaphase B) Telophase C) Metaphase D) Prophase

111)

During what phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope disappear and the chromosomes condense?

A) Anaphase B) Telophase C) Metaphase D) Prophase

112)

The paired chromosomes separate and migrate toward the poles of a cell during_________.

A) anaphase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prophase

113)

The_________ are the folds of the inner membrane within a mitochondrion that contain the enzymes for aerobic respiration.

A) mitochondrial centrioles B) mitchondrial reticulum C) mitochondrial cristae D) mitochondrial complexes

114)

The_________ is the organelle that is sometimes referred to as the powerhouse of the cell due to the fact that it produces ATP most efficiently.

A) Golgi complex B) mitochondrion C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

115)

The_________ is the organelle active in most of the lipid and carbohydrate synthesis within the cell.

A) Golgi complex B) mitochondrion C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

116)

The_________ acts as the cell's "post office" by sorting, processing, and packaging materials to be transported within the cell or secreted from the cell.

A) Golgi complex B) mitochondrion C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

117)

_________ contain digestive enzymes, which are used to digest bacteria and worn-out organelles within a cell, in addition to damaged or worn-out cells.

A) Peroxisomes B) Vesicles C) Lysosomes D) Ribosomes

118)

The structure that controls the movement of materials into and out of cells is the_________.

A) nucleus B) cytoplasm C) plasma membrane D) endoplasmic reticulum

119)

The cellular structure that is composed mostly of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins is the_________.

A) nucleus B) plasma membrane C) cytoplasm D) nucleolus

120)

The network of membranes that provide channels for the movement of materials throughout the cytoplasm is the_________.

A) mitochondrion B) Golgi complex C) lysosomes D) endoplasmic reticulum

121)

The_________ are sites of protein synthesis within cells.

A) nucleoli B) vesicles C) lysosomes D) ribosomes

122)

Materials are packaged in vesicles for transport by the_________.

A) mitochondrion B) Golgi complex C) lysosome D) endoplasmic reticulum

123)

If a 5% glucose solution (A) is separated from a 10% glucose solution (B) by a semipermeable membrane that is permeable to both glucose and water, glucose will diffuse from _________, and water will move via osmosis from _________.

A) A to B; A to B B) B to A; A to B C) B to A; B to A D) A to B; B to A

124)

If a blood cell is immersed in a solution that causes water to move out of the cell, the solution is a/an _________ solution.

A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic D) None of the choices are correct.

125)

Substances can enter a cell against the concentration gradient by_________ transport, which is powered by_________.

A) passive; electrolytes B) passive; ATP C) active; electrolytes D) active; ATP

126)

Cellular respiration requires_________ to break down organic nutrients to release energy, which is captured in high energy_________ bonds.

A) oxygen; peptide B) oxygen; phosphate C) carbon dioxide; phosphate D) oxygen; hydrogen

127)

_________ respiration occurs in_________ and produces most of the ATP formed by cellular respiration.

A) Aerobic; mitochondria B) Aerobic; cytoplasm C) Anaerobic; mitochondria D) Anaerobic; cytoplasm

128)

The genetic code of _________ is formed by the sequence of nitrogenous _________ in its nucleotides.

A) RNA; acids B) RNA; sugars C) DNA; bases D) DNA; sugars

129)

What is the primary nutrient used in cellular respiration?

A) Glucose B) Fat C) Protein D) ATP

130)

A person needs to produce ATP faster than they can acquire oxygen through breathing.

What type of cellular respiration will need to be used?

A) Anaerobic respiration B) Aerobic respiration C) Kreb cycle D) Mitochondrial respiration

131)

In_________, the sequence of bases in DNA determines the sequence of bases in mRNA. The process occurs in the_________.

A) mitosis; nucleus B) cytokinesis; cytoplasm C) translation; cytoplasm D) transcription; nucleus

132)

Mitosis produces_________ daughter cells that are genetically_________ the parent cell.

A) two; different from B) four; different from C) four; identical to D) two; identical to

133)

The replication of chromosomes occurs during_________.

A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase

134)

In mitosis, the division of the parent cell occurs by_________ during_________.

A) telekinesis; telophase B) cytokinesis; prophase C) cytokinesis; telophase D) cytokinesis; metaphase

135)

A nucleotide that RNA uses but DNA does not is_________.

A) uracil B) cytocine C) adenine D) thymine

136)

After being produced,_________ provides the blueprint for assembling proteins.

A) mRNA B) rRNA C) mtRNA D) tRNA

137)

How many nucleotides are needed to form a codon?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 20 D) None of the choices are correct.

138)

If you survey a population of cells, most cells will likely be in _________.

A) Metaphase B) Interphase C) Prophase D) Telophase

139)

Sperm are unique amongst human cells because _________.

A) everyone produces them B) they lack nuclei C) they have flagella D) they are produced by mitosis

140)

Which organelle is produced with assistance from the nucleolus?

A) Mitochondrion B) Nucleus C) Ribosome D) Lysosome

141)

Which one of the following is likely to occur if you drink a fluid that is hypertonic, like seawater?

A) The seawater will draw fluid out of the body, making you thirstier than before.

B) The blood will absorb all of the salt, making you thirstier than before.

C) Red blood cells will take on water, making them burst.

D) Nothing; we normally have a lot of salt in our blood.

142)

How many types of cells does the human body have?

A) 300 B) 100 C) 25 D) 4

143)

How many cells does the human body have?

A) 75 trillion B) 100 million C) 25 trillion D) 4 billion

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117) 118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124) 125) 126) 127) 128) 129) 130) 131) 132) 133) 134) 135) 136) 137) 138) 139)

C D C D B B C C D A C B D A C C B D D B B C D B A C A A D D A C A A B B C

140) 141) 142) 143)

C A A A

Student name:__________ 144)

The tissue type that contracts to provide force is _________ tissue.

A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nerve

145)

The tissue type that detects changes and coordinates body functions is _________ tissue.

A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nerve

146)

The tissue type that binds organs together and provides protection and support for the organs is _________ tissue.

A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nerve

147)

The tissue type that covers the body surface, body cavities, and organ surfaces is _________ tissue.

A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nerve

148)

Dense regular connective tissue consists of tightly packed _________.

A) elastic fibers B) reticular fibers C) collagen fibers D) fibroblasts

149)

The connective tissue that helps insulate the body, cushions internal organs, and stores excess nutrient energy is _________ tissue.

A) loose connective B) elastic C) reticular D) adipose

150)

_________ contains short rows of chondrocytes between tightly packed collagen fibers.

A) Elastic cartilage B) Hyaline cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Reticular tissue

151)

The connective tissue with a matrix of calcium salts and some collagen fibers is _________.

A) bone tissue B) fibrocartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) elastic cartilage

152)

In compact bone, bone matrix is arranged in concentric circles around _________, and smaller _________ bring nutrients to osteocytes.

A) lacunae; canaliculi B) central canals; osteons C) lamellae; central canals D) central canals; canaliculi

153)

Cells of _________ muscle tissue have striations with multiple nuclei, and this tissue is _________ in function.

A) cardiac striated muscle; involuntary B) skeletal striated muscle; voluntary C) smooth muscle tissue; voluntary D) skeletal striated muscle; involuntary

154)

Cells of_________ are striated with a single nucleus, and this tissue is_________ in function.

A) cardiac striated muscle; involuntary B) skeletal striated muscle; voluntary C) smooth muscle tissue; voluntary D) skeletal striated muscle; involuntary

155)

Simple squamous epithelium is found in the lungs because _________.

A) it produces serous fluid, which helps trap inhaled particles B) it uses multiple cell layers to protect delicate lung tissue C) it produces collagen fibers, which are important in strengthening lung tissue D) it permits the rapid diffusion of gases into and out of the blood

156)

Which statement about connective tissue membranes is false?

A) Some secrete synovial fluid, which lubricates freely movable joints.

B) Some secrete mucus, which lubricates the external surface of organs.

C) Some can be found around other connective tissues, such as bone tissue and cartilage tissue.

D) Some are tough and fibrous, protecting fragile organs such as the brain.

157)

Glands are formed from _________.

A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) nerve tissue

158)

A carcincoma is a cancer derived from_________ tissue.

A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nerve

159)

A sarcoma is a cancer derived from _________ tissue.

A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) nerve

160)

The bone matrix of compact bone is formed in circular layers called_________.

A) canals B) lamellae C) canaliculi D) lacunae

161)

The mouth, esophagus, and vagina are lined with nonkeratinized_________ epithelium.

A) stratified columnar B) stratified cuboidal C) stratified squamous D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar

162)

Blood is classified as_________.

A) an epithelial tissue B) a connective tissue C) a nerve tissue D) a muscle tissue

163)

Simple_________ epithelium occurs where diffusion, osmosis, and filtration are important functions within body organs.

A) squamous B) cuboidal C) columnar D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar

164)

_________ is located in the intervertebral discs to absorb shock.

A) Dense regular connective tissue B) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Hyaline cartilage

165)

_________ forms the larynx and part of the nose, and provides protective covering on the bone surfaces forming freely movable joints.

A) Dense regular connective tissue B) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Hyaline cartilage

166)

_________ forms the epiglottis and provides the supporting framework for the external

ear.

A) B) C) D)

167)

Dense regular connective tissue Elastic cartilage Fibrocartilage Hyaline cartilage

_________ contains widely spaced collagen and elastic fibers, and is the most abundant connective tissue in the body.

A) Areolar connective tissue B) Reticular tissue C) Adipose tissue D) Dense irregular connective tissue

168)

_________ consists of collagen fibers that are oriented in multiple directions, and is found in the joint capsules and the deep layer of skin.

A) Loose connective tissue B) Reticular tissue C) Dense regular connective tissue D) Dense irregular connective tissue

169)

_________ is the main tissue in ligaments and tendons.

A) Loose connective tissue B) Reticular tissue C) Dense regular connective tissue D) Dense irregular connective tissue

170)

_________ acts as a biological filter in organs like lymph nodes.

A) Loose connective tissue B) Reticular tissue C) Dense regular connective tissue D) Dense irregular connective tissue

171)

_________ are the interconnected bony plates in spongy bone.

A) Trabeculae B) Lamellae C) Canaliculi D) Lacunae

172)

_________ are the tiny, fluid-filled canals that serve as passageways for the movement of materials between osteocytes and the blood supply.

A) Trabeculae B) Lamellae C) Canaliculi D) Lacunae

173)

The osteocytes of bone tissue reside within fluid-filled spaces called _________.

A) Trabeculae B) Lamellae C) Canaliculi D) Lacunae

174)

_________ secrete mucus.

A) Adipocytes B) Reticular cells C) Goblet cells D) Fibroblasts

175)

_________ produce the ground substance and protein fibers in connective tissues.

A) Adipocytes B) Reticular cells C) Goblet cells D) Fibroblasts

176)

_________ is the connective tissue responsible for the storage of fat.

A) Loose connective tissue B) Adipose tissue C) Reticular tissue D) Elastic tissue

177)

Which of the following is NOT a type of protein fiber found in connective tissues?

A) Muscle fibers B) Elastic fibers C) Collagen fibers D) Reticular fibers

178)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of connective tissues?

A) They contain loosely arranged cells.

B) They are attached to a basement membrane.

C) They contain ground substance.

D) They contain protein fibers.

179)

The various types of epithelial tissues are classified by _________.

A) the size and shape of the cells at the free surface B) the number of cell layers and the size of the cells C) the shape of the cells at the free surface and the number of cell layers D) the size and the location of the cells

180)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissues?

A) Cells are closely packed together.

B) They contain blood vessels.

C) They are attached to a basement membrane.

D) They regenerate rapidly by mitosis.

181)

What tissue is comprised of a single layer of square-like cells?

A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) simple columnar epithelium

182)

Which tissue type is found in places such as the kidneys and the secretory portions of some glands?

A) Simple squamous epithelium B) Simple cuboidal epithelium C) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) Simple columnar epithelium

183)

A single layer of flat scale-like cells with a centrally located nucleus describes a_________.

A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) simple columnar epithelium

184)

_________ forms the inner lining of the intestines and is important in the secretion and absorption of substances.

A) Simple squamous epithelium B) Simple cuboidal epithelium C) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) Simple columnar epithelium

185)

_________ forms the inner lining of many respiratory passageways and may include specialized mucus secreting goblet cells.

A) Simple squamous epithelium B) Simple cuboidal epithelium C) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) Simple columnar epithelium

186)

_________ forms the inner lining lining the urinary bladder and is specialized to stretch and return to its original shape.

A) Stratified squamous epithelium B) Transitional epithelium C) Simple cuboidal epithelium D) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

187)

_________ are neuronal processes.

A) Neurons B) Neuroglia C) Dendrites D) Gliomas

188)

_________ are specialized in generating and transmitting nerve impulses.

A) Neurons B) Neuroglia C) Fibroblasts D) Chondrocytes

189)

_________are the functional units of nerve tissue.

A) Neurons B) Neuroglia C) Osteocytes D) Fibroblasts

190)

The cells that nourish, insulate, and protect functional units of nerve tissue are referred to as _________.

A) neurons B) neuroglia C) fibroblasts D) dendrites

191)

_________ is characterized as striated and involuntary.

A) Cardiac striated muscle B) Skeletal striated muscle C) Smooth muscle tissue D) Cardiac striated muscle and skeletal striated muscle

192)

_________ is characterized as striated and voluntary.

A) Cardiac striated muscle B) Skeletal striated muscle C) Smooth muscle tissue D) Cardiac striated muscle and skeletal striated muscle

193)

_________ lack(s) striations and are(is) involuntary.

A) Cardiac striated muscle B) Skeletal striated muscle C) Smooth muscle tissue D) Cardiac striated muscle and skeletal striated muscle

194)

_________ tissue(s) is(are) found in the walls of stomach and intestines; its(their) contractions are slow and involuntary.

A) Cardiac striated muscle B) Skeletal striated muscle C) Smooth muscle tissue D) Cardiac striated muscle and skeletal striated muscle

195)

_________ contain(s) intercalated discs where the cells join together.

A) Cardiac striated muscle B) Skeletal striated muscle C) Smooth muscle tissue D) Cardiac striated muscle and skeletal striated muscle

196)

The membranes that line the cavities of freely movable joints are referred to as _________.

A) serous membranes B) cutaneous membranes C) mucous membranes D) synovial membranes

197)

Epithelial membranes consist of _________.

A) epithelial tissue only B) epithelial tissue overlying loose connective tissue C) epithelial tissue overlying reticular tissue D) epithelial tissue overlying elastic tissue

198)

Connective tissue membranes usually consist of _________.

A) loose connective tissue B) reticular tissue C) elastic tissue D) dense irregular connective tissue

199)

_________ covers the body surface.

A) A serous membrane B) The cutaneous membrane C) A mucous membrane D) A synovial membrane

200)

The membranes that line the tubes or cavities that have openings to the external environment are referred to as _________.

A) serous membranes B) cutaneous membranes C) mucous membranes D) synovial membranes

201)

The membranes that line the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities and most of the internal organs within them are referred to as _________.

A) serous membranes B) cutaneous membranes C) mucous membranes D) synovial membranes

202)

Which of the following cover(s) the brain and spinal cord?

A) Meninges B) Periosteum C) Perichondrium D) Synovial membranes

203)

Which of the following cover(s) the surfaces of bones?

A) Meninges B) Periosteum C) Perichondrium D) Synovial membranes

204)

The brain is comprised of _________.

A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) nerve tissue

205)

Which of the following cell types is found in places such as the brain or the spinal cord?

A) Fibroblasts B) Neurons C) Osteocytes D) Adipocytes

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 144) 145) 146) 147) 148) 149) 150) 151) 152) 153) 154) 155) 156) 157) 158) 159) 160) 161) 162) 163) 164) 165) 166) 167) 168) 169) 170) 171) 172) 173) 174) 175) 176) 177) 178) 179) 180)

C D B A C D C A D B A D B A A B B C B A C D B A D C B A C D C D B A B C B

181) 182) 183) 184) 185) 186) 187) 188) 189) 190) 191) 192) 193) 194) 195) 196) 197) 198) 199) 200) 201) 202) 203) 204) 205)

B B A D C B C A A B A B C C A D B D B C A A B D B

Student name:__________ 206)

The superficial layer (outermost) of the skin is the _________.

A) hypodermis B) subcutaneous tissue C) epidermis D) dermis

207)

The subcutaneous tissue can also be referred to as the _________.

A) hypodermis B) hyperdermis C) epidermis D) dermis

208)

The layer of the epidermis that acts as the foundation providing new cells is the_________.

A) stratum corneum B) stratum basale C) basement membrane D) stratum granulosum

209)

The superficial cells of the_________ are sloughed off and continually replaced.

A) stratum corneum B) stratum basale C) basement membrane D) stratum granulosum

210)

_________ prevents excessive dryness and keeps skin soft and pliable.

A) Water B) Keratin C) The dermal papillae D) Sebum

211)

Accessory structures, such as hair and glands, develop from the_________.

A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous tissue D) None of the choices are correct.

212)

Apocrine sweat glands are located_________.

A) on the soles of the feet and palms of the hands B) in the genital and axillary regions C) on the scalp of the head D) throughout the body

213)

Eccrine sweat glands are located_________.

A) only on the soles of the feet and palms of the hands B) only in the genital and axillary regions C) only on the scalp of the head D) throughout the body

214)

Ceruminous glands are specialized_________ glands.

A) endocrine B) eccrine C) sebaceous D) sweat

215)

If body temperature increases above an individual's set point,_________.

A) sweat is produced by both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands B) blood vessels within the epidermis to dilate C) sweating occurs and blood vessels within the dermis dilate D) sweating occurs and the blood vessels within the dermis constrict

216)

_________ is the yellow-orange skin pigment used to produce vitamin A within the body.

A) hemoglobin B) melanin C) keratin D) beta-carotene

217)

A major difference between the eccrine sweat glands and the apocrine sweat glands is that eccrine sweat glands empty into/onto_________ while apocrine sweat glands empty into/onto_________.

A) the skin surface; a hair follicle B) a hair follicle; the skin surface C) a sebaceous gland; a hair follicle D) a sebaceous gland; the skin surface

218)

Keratin is a_________ that is produced by cells of the epidermis to waterproof the skin and protect against abrasion.

A) protein B) lipid C) carbohydrate D) lipoprotein

219)

The integumentary system includes the_________.

A) skin, glands, and hair B) skin, glands, hair, and nails C) skin and muscles D) skin

220)

Exposure to sunlight stimulates the production of_________.

A) melanin B) vitamin D C) melanin and vitamin D D) more skin cells

221)

The skin consists of a superficial _________ and a underlying _________.

A) dermis; hypodermis B) epidermis; hypodermis C) epidermis; dermis D) dermis; epidermis

222)

The epidermis is formed of _________ epithelium, and its superficial layer consists of dead cells filled with _________.

A) stratified squamous; keratin B) stratified columnar; keratin C) stratified columnar; fat globules D) stratified squamous; fat globules

223)

The skin pigment that provides protection from ultraviolet radiation is_________, and it is produced by_________.

A) carotene; hypodermal cells B) hemoglobin; blood cells C) melanin; dermal cells D) melanin; melanocytes

224)

The _________ layer is composed of dense irregular connective tissue, which is strong and tough due to abundant _________ fibers.

A) reticular; elastic B) reticular; collagen C) papillary; elastic D) subcutaneous tissue; collagen

225)

Adipose tissue in the_________ provides insulation that reduces the body's heat loss or gain.

A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous tissue D) None of the choices are correct.

226)

227)

New cells of the epidermis are continuously formed in the_________.

A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) dermal papillae D) None of the choices are correct.

The_________ lacks blood vessels and must be nourished by materials diffusing from blood vessels within the_________.

A) dermis; subcutaneous tissue B) epidermis; dermis C) epidermis; subcutaneous tissue D) hypodermis; dermis

228)

The hair root is located within a_________, an inward tubular extension of the epidermis within the dermis.

A) dermal papilla B) sebaceous gland C) hair follicle D) None of the choices are correct.

229)

The predominant tissues comprising the subcutaneous tissue are _________ tissue and _________ tissue.

A) dense irregular connective; loose connective B) elastic; dense irregular connective C) elastic; adipose D) loose connective; adipose

230)

Fingernails and toenails are formed of_________.

A) keratinized dermal cells B) keratinized epidermal cells C) keratinized hypodermal cells D) keratin without cells

231)

Glands secreting an oily liquid into hair follicles are_________ glands.

A) sebaceous B) ceruminous C) eccrine sweat D) apocrine sweat

232)

_________ sweat glands occur over all of the body and secrete a watery perspiration to cool the body.

A) Eccrine B) Apocrine C) Sebaceous D) Ceruminous

233)

_________ sweat glands empty their secretions into hair follicles in axillary and genital areas of the body.

A) Eccrine B) Apocrine C) Sebaceous D) Ceruminous

234)

Select the correct statement regarding the exposure of the skin to sunlight.

A) Exposure of the skin to sunlight stimulates the production of keratin.

B) Exposure of the skin to sunlight stimulates the production of vitamin D. C) Exposure of the skin to sunlight helps prevent skin cancer.

D) Exposure of the skin to sunlight helps promote skin elasticity.

235)

Select the correct statement regarding skin functions.

A) When body temperature rises above an individual's set point, blood flow within the dermis increases.

B) The primary function of sweat is to remove waste materials from the blood.

C) Aging is usually associated with increased melanin production.

D) A decrease in blood flow to the skin is associated with a feeling of warmth.

236)

Which of the following substances is found in sweat?

A) Wastes B) Water C) Salts D) All of the other answers are found in sweat.

237)

What physical change is seen when there is an increase in blood flow within the skin?

A) More pink or red coloring B) Tanning C) Cyanosis D) Pale coloring

238)

Which of the following statements about the aging of skin is correct?

A) The skin is extremely thin at birth, thickens as a child grows into adulthood, then thins after 50.

B) There is an increase in sebum production after age 50.

C) The rate of hair growth increases after age 50.

D) There is an increase in collagen fiber and elastic fiber production after age 50.

239)

Which of the following are likely to be destroyed in a third degree burn?

A) Epidermis B) Arrector pili muscles C) Sweat glands D) All of the other answers are correct.

240)

You can feel when your hair is being touched because_________.

A) hairs are made of living epidermal tissue B) hairs are made of living neurons C) hair follicles have neurons associated with them D) the arrector pili muscle detects movement of the hair

241)

Two of the more common skin cancers are_________, which is not as serious, and_________ which is invasive.

A) eccrinoma; apocrinoma B) carcinoma; melanoma C) sebaceoma; melanoma D) melanoma; carcinoma

242)

A condition with a body temperature below 95°F is called _________.

A) hypothermia B) frostbite C) hyperthermia D) fever

243)

_________ is an uncontrolled high body temperature resulting from trauma and environmental factors.

A) hypothermia B) frostbite C) hyperthermia D) fever

244)

Wrinkles, itchy skin, and balding are all common signs of _________.

A) impetigo B) alopecia C) aging D) eczema

245)

The layer directly beneath the skin is called the _________.

A) subcutaneous tissue B) hyperdermis C) epidermis D) dermis

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 206) 207) 208) 209) 210) 211) 212) 213) 214) 215) 216) 217) 218) 219) 220) 221) 222) 223) 224) 225) 226) 227) 228) 229) 230) 231) 232) 233) 234) 235) 236) 237) 238) 239) 240) 241) 242)

C A B A D A B D D C D A A B C C A D B C A B C D B A A B B A D A A D C B A

243) 244) 245)

C C A

Student name:__________ 246)

Skeletal system stores large amounts of _________.

A) vitamins B) antibodies C) calcium salts D) glycogen

247)

Skeletal system functions in all the following EXCEPT the _________.

A) production of vitamins B) formation of blood formed elements C) attachment sites for skeletal muscles D) protection for spinal cord

248)

Sternum is a(n) _________ bone.

A) short B) long C) flat D) irregular

249)

A phalanx in the hand is a(n) _________ bone.

A) short B) long C) flat D) irregular

250)

In an adult, the spaces within spongy bone of the proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur are filled with _________.

A) hyaline cartilage B) compact bone C) red bone marrow D) yellow bone marrow

251)

A long bone consists of a long shaft, called a(n) _________, that extends between two enlarged ends called the _________.

A) diaphysis; articular cartilages B) epiphyses; diaphysis C) compact bone; epiphysial plates D) diaphysis; epiphyses

252)

The shaft of a long bone is referred to as the_________.

A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) osteon D) sinus

253)

The interior of an epiphysis is comprised of _________.

A) compact bone B) spongy bone C) hyaline cartilage D) articular cartilage

254)

Except for regions covered by cartilage tissue, the entire surface of a bone is covered by_________.

A) periosteum B) endosteum C) fibrocartilage D) perichondrium

255)

Yellow bone marrow is composed of _________.

A) blood-forming tissue B) loose connective tissue C) adipose tissue D) cartilage tissue

256)

During endochondral ossification, deposition of calcium salts leads to the death of _________.

A) osteoclasts B) osteoblasts C) osteocytes D) chondrocytes

257)

The muscles of the tongue are attached to the _________.

A) hyoid bone B) mandible C) maxillae D) palatine bones

258)

In the process of endochondral ossification, _________ is(are) replaced by bone.

A) hyaline cartilage B) fibrocartilage C) elastic cartilage D) connective tissue membranes

259)

Most skull bones are formed by_________ ossification, but other bones are formed by_________ ossification.

A) intramembranous; articular cartilage B) endochondral; intramembranous C) endochondral; epiphysial D) intramembranous; endochondral

260)

Cells capable of building bone tissue are_________.

A) osteoclasts B) osteoblasts C) chondrocytes D) chondroblasts

261)

Select the correct statement about bone growth.

A) A bone grows in length as the articular cartilage is replaced with bone.

B) Once growth is complete, a bone will remain the same for life.

C) Osteoblasts deposit the bone matrix in both compact and spongy bone.

D) Osteoclasts deposit the bone matrix in spongy bone.

262)

The appendicular skeleton includes _________.

A) the upper and lower limbs only B) the thoracic cage, the upper limbs, and the lower limbs C) the upper and lower limbs, the pectoral girdles, and the pelvic girdle D) the thoracic cage, the upper and lower limbs, the pectoral girdles, and the pelvic girdle

263)

The major components of the axial skeleton include_________.

A) the skull, the pectoral girdles, and the vertebral column B) the pectoral girdles and the vertebral column C) the skull, the pelvic girdle, and the thoracic cage D) the skull, the vertebral column, and the thoracic cage

264)

A fossa is a(n) _________.

A) rounded or knucklelike process for forming joints B) small, rounded process for attachment of ligaments or tendons C) opening or passageway through a bone D) a small depression

265)

A foramen is a(n) _________.

A) rounded or knucklelike process for forming joints B) small, rounded process for attachment of ligaments or tendons C) opening or passageway through a bone D) small depression

266)

All of the following fuse together to form a coxal bone EXCEPT for the _________.

A) ischium B) pubis C) coccyx D) ilium

267)

The skull bones containing the paranasal sinuses are the_________.

A) maxillae, frontal bone, sphenoid, and ethmoid B) zygomatic bones, frontal bone, sphenoid, and ethmoid C) frontal bone, sphenoid, nasal bones, and maxillae D) maxillae, frontal bone, zygomatic bones, and lacrimal bones

268)

The cranial bone that articulates with the atlas is the_________.

A) sphenoid B) occipital bone C) temporal bone D) parietal bone

269)

The paranasal sinuses serve all of the following purposes EXCEPT for _________.

A) reducing the weight of the skull B) assisting in the sense of smell C) adding resonance to a person's voice D) helping to moisten and purify the air within the paranasal sinuses and the nasal cavity

270)

The prominence of each cheek is formed by the_________.

A) zygomatic bone B) nasal bone C) lacrimal bone D) maxilla

271)

The maxilla forms joints with all of the following facial bones EXCEPT the_________.

A) zygomatic bone B) nasal bone C) lacrimal bone D) mandible

272)

The_________ are rather large, nonossified areas at junctions of an infant's cranial bones.

A) sutures B) articular cartilages C) fibrocartilages D) fontanelles

273)

The parietal bone is joined to the temporal bone by the _________ suture.

A) lambdoid B) coronal C) sagittal D) squamous

274)

The parietal bones are joined to the occipital bone by the _________ suture.

A) lambdoid B) coronal C) sagittal D) squamous

275)

The hyoid bone _________.

A) does not form a joint with any other bone B) forms a joint with the mandible C) forms a joint with with the temporal bones D) forms a joint with the larynx

276)

Transverse foramina are found only in _________.

A) cervical vertebrae B) the sacrum C) lumbar vertebrae D) thoracic vertebrae

277)

Costal facets are found only on _________.

A) cervical vertebrae B) the sacrum C) lumbar vertebrae D) thoracic vertebrae

278)

The _________ has a dens.

A) axis (C2) B) sacrum C) atlas (C1) D) C7 vertebra

279)

There are five _________ vertebrae, seven _________ vertebrae, and twelve _________ vertebrae.

A) lumbar; thoracic; cervical B) lumbar; cervical; thoracic C) cervical; lumbar; thoracic D) cervical; thoracic; lumbar

280)

The head of the rib forms a joint with the costal facet on the _________ of a thoracic vertebra.

A) spinous process B) transverse process C) superior articular facet D) vertebral body

281)

The true ribs _________.

A) are attached directly to the sternum by the costal cartilages B) are not attached to the sternum C) are attached by cartilages to the costal cartilages of the ribs superior to them D) are attached directly to the sternum by dense regular connective tissue

282)

There are _________ pairs of true ribs, _________ pairs of false ribs, and _________ pairs of floating ribs.

A) 7; 7; 2 B) 7; 5; 2 C) 7; 2; 2 D) 8; 3; 2

283)

The thoracic cage is formed by _________.

A) ribs, coxal bones, and costal cartilages B) ribs, costal cartilages, and clavicles C) ribs, costal cartilages, sternum, and thoracic vertebrae D) ribs, costal cartilages, sternum, thoracic vertebrae, and clavicles

284)

The scapula forms a joint with the _________.

A) ribs B) humerus C) sternum D) coxal bone

285)

The clavicle forms joints with the _________.

A) humerus and the ribs B) humerus and the sternum C) scapula and the sternum D) scapula, the sternum, and the humerus

286)

The pectoral girdles are comprised of _________.

A) two scapulae B) two scapulae and two clavicles C) the sternum, two scapulae, and two clavicles D) the sternum and two clavicles

287)

The pelvic girdle is comprised of _________.

A) the coxal bones B) the sacrum and the coxal bones C) the sacrum, the coccyx, and the coxal bones D) the femurs and the coxal bones

288)

The pelvic girdle forms joints with the _________.

A) sacrum, the L5 vertebra, and the femurs B) the L5 vertebra and the femurs C) the coccyx, the L5 vertebra, and the femurs D) the coccyx and the femurs

289)

To form the pelvic girdle, the coxal bones form joints with _________.

A) each other posteriorly and the sacrum anteriorly B) each other anteriorly and the sacrum posteriorly C) the sacrum posteriorly and the femurs laterally D) each other anteriorly and the scapulae posteriorly

290)

The pelvic inlet of the female pelvis is _________.

A) heart-shaped B) oval-shaped C) less than 90o D) more than 90o

291)

The subpubic angle of the male pelvis is _________.

A) heart-shaped B) oval-shaped C) less than 90° D) more than 90°

292)

The trochlea of the humerus forms a joint with the _________.

A) scapula B) radius C) ulna D) clavicle

293)

The _________ of the ulna is the bony point on the posterior surface of the elbow.

A) styloid process B) coronoid process C) trochlea D) olecranon

294)

The head of the humerus forms a joint with the _________ of the scapula.

A) coracoid process B) coronoid process C) acromion D) glenoid cavity

295)

The _________ of the tibia forms the medial prominence of the ankle.

A) medial condyle B) medial malleolus C) tibial tuberosity D) greater trochanter

296)

The tibia articulates with the following bones EXCEPT the _________.

A) talus B) fibula C) femur D) calcaneus

297)

The bones of the foot consist of seven_________, five_________, and fourteen_________.

A) carpal bones; metacarpals; phalanges B) tarsal bones; metatarsals; phalanges C) tarsal bones; metacarpals; phalanges D) metatarsals; tarsal bones; phalanges

298)

In a cartilaginous joint, bones are bound together by _________.

A) a pad of cartilage tissue B) a pad of cartilage tissue or reticular tissue C) a layer of dense regular connective tissue or reticular tissue D) an articular capsule

299)

In a fibrous joint, bones are bound together by _________.

A) a thin band of dense irregular connective tissue B) a pad of cartilage tissue or reticular tissue C) a thin band of dense irregular connective tissue or reticular tissue D) an articular capsule

300)

In a synovial joint, bones are bound together by _________.

A) a pad of cartilage tissue or band of dense irregular connective tissue B) a pad of cartilage tissue or reticular tissue C) a band of dense iregular connective tissue or reticular tissue D) an articular capsule

301)

Sutures are _________ joints containing _________.

A) fibrous; cartilage tissue B) cartilaginous; dense irregular connective tissue C) fibrous; dense irregular connective tissue D) synovial; cartilage tissue

302)

The intervertebral discs joining vertebral bodies are examples of _________ joints.

A) cartilaginous B) fibrous C) synovial D) gomphosis

303)

A cartilaginous joint is usually _________.

A) immovable B) calcified C) slightly movable D) freely movable

304)

A synovial joint is _________.

A) immovable B) calcified C) slightly movable D) freely movable

305)

The pubic symphysis is an example of a _________ joint.

A) cartilaginous B) fibrous C) gomphosis D) synovial

306)

Which of the following is not a feature of a synovial joint?

A) no joint cavity B) articular cartilage C) synovial membrane D) articular capsule

307)

The knee joint is an example of _________ joint.

A) condylar B) saddle C) hinge D) pivot E) ball and socket

308)

The joint between atlas and axis is an example of a _________ joint.

A) condylar B) saddle C) hinge D) pivot E) ball-and-socket

309)

The shoulder joint is an example of a _________ joint.

A) condylar B) saddle C) hinge D) pivot E) ball and socket

310)

The joints between the metacarpals and proximal phalanges are examples of _________ joints.

A) condylar B) pivot C) plane D) hinge

311)

All of the following are cartilaginous joints EXCEPT for the _________.

A) condylar joint B) pubic symphysis C) intervertebral disc D) sacroiliac joint

312)

_________ is a movement that decreases the angle between the bones forming the joint.

A) Flexion B) Abduction C) Adduction D) Extension

313)

_________ is a movement that increases the angle between the bones forming the joint.

A) Flexion B) Abduction C) Adduction D) Extension

314)

_________ is a movement that rotates the forearm and turns the palm superiorly or anteriorly.

A) Dorsiflexion B) Pronation C) Supination D) Plantar flexion

315)

_________ is a movement that extends the foot at the ankle joint, pointing the toes like a ballerina.

A) Dorsiflexion B) Pronation C) Supination D) Plantar flexion

316)

A compound fracture is best described as_________.

A) an incomplete break only on one side of the bone B) a break where the broken bone pierces the skin C) a break where the bone is in multiple fragments D) a break where one bone is forced into another bone

317)

_________ is an autoimmune disorder in which the joint tissues are attacked by the patient's own immune responses.

A) Osteoarthritis B) Osteoporosis C) Osteomyelitis D) Rheumatoid arthritis

318)

Hyperkyphosis is an _________.

A) excessive lumbar curvature of the vertebral column B) excessive thoracic curvature of the vertebral column C) excessive cervical curvature of the vertebral column D) abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column

319)

Scoliosis is an _________.

A) excessive lumbar curvature of the vertebral column B) excessive thoracic curvature of the vertebral column C) excessive cervical curvature of the vertebral column D) abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column

320)

The largest fontanelle, located between the frontal and parietal bones of the newborn infant, is called the_________ fontanelle.

A) anterior B) frontal C) posterior D) sphenoidal

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 246) 247) 248) 249) 250) 251) 252) 253) 254) 255) 256) 257) 258) 259) 260) 261) 262) 263) 264) 265) 266) 267) 268) 269) 270) 271) 272) 273) 274) 275) 276) 277) 278) 279) 280) 281) 282)

C A C B C D B B A C D A A D B C C D D C C A B B A D D D A A A D A B D A B

283) 284) 285) 286) 287) 288) 289) 290) 291) 292) 293) 294) 295) 296) 297) 298) 299) 300) 301) 302) 303) 304) 305) 306) 307) 308) 309) 310) 311) 312) 313) 314) 315) 316) 317) 318) 319) 320)

C B C B B B B B C C D D B D B A A D C A C D A A C D E A A A D C D B D B D A

Student name:__________ 321)

The muscle tissue that can be described as multinucleated, striated, and voluntary is_________.

A) skeletal striated muscle B) smooth muscle tissue C) cardiac striated muscle D) skeletal striated muscle and cardiac striated muscle

322)

The muscle tissue that can be described as involuntary, nonstriated, and having a single nucleus is_________.

A) skeletal striated muscle B) smooth muscle tissue C) cardiac striated muscle D) skeletal striated muscle and cardiac striated muscle

323)

A sustained muscle contraction is referred to as_________.

A) concentric contraction B) eccentric contraction C) fatigued contraction D) tetany

324)

The functional unit of skeletal muscle is_________.

A) myosin B) sarcolemma C) a motor unit D) a sarcomere

325)

The plasma membrane, or phospholipid bilayer, of the skeletal muscle fiber is referred to as the_________.

A) sarcomere B) sarcolemma C) sarcoplasm D) myofibril

326)

The neurotransmitter active in skeletal muscle contraction is_________.

A) acetylcholine B) norepinephrine C) epinephrine D) serotonin

327)

Muscle cells can store oxygen using the pigment_________.

A) hemoglobin B) myosin C) actin D) None of the choices are correct.

328)

The bony attachment of a facial muscle is identified as the_________.

A) insertion B) tendon C) ligament D) origin

329)

The broad sheet of fibrous connective tissue that connects one muscle to another is referred to as the_________.

A) insertion B) aponeurosis C) myofibril D) ligament

330)

A graded response occurs when_________.

A) multiple motor units are activated B) an individual muscle cell undergoes an all-or-none response C) multiple muscles in a group are activated D) None of the choices are correct.

331)

A weight lifter is attempting a new level of weights that are too heavy for him. His muscles contract but can't shorten. This would be an example of what type of contraction?

A) Concentric contraction B) Eccentric contraction C) Isotonic contraction D) Isometric contraction

332)

When breathing, the muscles that surround the thoracic cavity undergo_________ contractions.

A) concentric B) eccentric C) isotonic D) isometric

333)

You've just eaten something sour and pucker your lips in response. This occurs due to the contraction of the_________ muscle.

A) orbicularis oculi B) orbicularis oris C) masseter D) zygomaticus

334)

Which is the prime mover (agonist) used in smiling, when the corners of your moth lift upward?

A) Orbicularis oculi B) Orbicularis oris C) Masseter D) Zygomaticus

335)

To raise the mandible during chewing you would need to contract what two muscles?

A) Masseter and temporalis B) Masseter and buccinators C) Temporalis and buccinators D) Buccinators and platysma

336)

Contraction of the diaphragm results in_________.

A) expiration B) inspiration C) a flat stomach ("sucking in your gut") D) urination

337)

Which of the following muscles is the prime mover of the "hamstrings"?

A) Biceps femoris B) Semitendinous C) Semimembranosus D) Rectus femoris

338)

Muscles that work opposite of the muscles producing a movement are referred to as _________.

A) antagonists B) insertions C) synergists D) None of the choices are correct.

339)

Cramps in a muscle can be caused by_________.

A) a lack of ATP B) ionic imbalances C) a blow to the muscle D) All of the choices are correct.

340)

Fibrosis of muscle tissue is caused by_________.

A) inflammation of the muscle B) replacement of muscle tissue by fibrous connective tissue C) inflammation of the tendons connecting the muscle to bone D) inflammation of the fascia surrounding the muscle

341)

A skeletal muscle contains many fascicles of_________ bound together by_________ connective tissue.

A) muscle fibers; dense irregular B) thick myofilaments; dense irregular C) muscle fibers; loose D) thin myofilaments; dense irregular

342)

Contraction of myofibrils results from_________ cross-bridges pulling_________ myofilaments to the center of a sarcomere.

A) myosin; muscle fibers B) myosin; thick C) actin; myosin D) myosin; thin

343)

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it controls constitute a_________, which contains_________ muscle fibers where precise muscle control is required.

A) motor fascicle; very few B) muscle; many C) motor unit; very few D) motor unit; many

344)

A muscle fiber is stimulated to contract when receptors on the _________ bind with acetylcholine released into the synaptic cleft by the terminal bouton of the _________.

A) motor neuron; sarcolemma B) sarcolemma; motor neuron C) sarcomere; motor neuron D) synaptic vesicles; motor neuron

345)

The accumulation of lactate during strenuous muscle activity results from a deficiency of_________.

A) pyruvic acid B) glucose C) ADP D) oxygen

346)

An all-or-none response to a threshold stimulus is characteristic of_________.

A) individual muscle fibers B) small muscles C) large muscles D) None of the choices are correct.

347)

A muscle's motor units are activated by different thresholds of stimulation, which enables a muscle to exhibit_________.

A) sustained contractions B) graded contractions C) latent contractions D) all-or-none responses

348)

Two muscles of mastication are the_________ and_________.

A) masseter; buccinator B) masseter; platysma C) masseter; temporalis D) masseter; zygomaticus

349)

The superficial muscle that with an inferior attachment on the pubic bone and superior attachment on the tip of the sternum and costal cartilages is the_________.

A) rectus abdominis B) external oblique C) internal oblique D) transversus abdominis

350)

The muscle that abducts and extends the arm is the_________.

A) latissimus dorsi B) pectoralis major C) coracobrachialis D) deltoid

351)

The muscle that extends the forearm is the_________.

A) brachialis B) triceps brachii C) brachioradialis D) biceps brachii

352)

The muscle that extends and rotates the thigh laterally is the_________.

A) psoas major B) adductor magnus C) gluteus maximus D) gluteus medius

353)

Select the three muscles that compose the hamstrings and flex the leg.

A) Biceps femoris, rectus femoris, semitendinosus B) Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus C) Biceps femoris, gracilis, sartorius D) Biceps femoris, vastus medialis, semitendinosus

354)

The_________ has proximal attachments on the condyles of the femur and a distal attachment on the calcaneus, flexes the leg, and plantar flexes the foot.

A) gastrocnemius B) soleus C) peroneus longus D) tibialis anterior

355)

All of the following muscles are attached to the scapula EXCEPT_________.

A) supraspinatous B) latissimus dorsi C) rhomboideus major D) teres minor

356)

In general, muscles on the anterior surface of the arm are_________, and muscles on the anterior surface of the leg are_________.

A) flexors; extensors B) flexors; flexors C) extensors; flexors D) extensors; extensors

357)

Muscle that is trained for endurance would have all of the following adaptations EXCEPT_________.

A) an increased number of mitochondria B) an increased ability to store oxygen inside of muscle cells C) better vascularization, with more capillaries in the muscle D) an increased number of myofibrils in muscle fibers

358)

A graded response of posture muscles such as the gluteus maximus is called_________.

A) atrophy B) hypertrophy C) muscle tone D) maximal stimulus

359)

The deepest of the abdominal muscles is the_________.

A) transversus abdominus B) external oblique C) internal oblique D) rectus abdominus

360)

A cordlike structure that attaches muscles to bone is called a(n) _________.

A) tendon B) aponeurosis C) fascia D) fascicle

361)

A _________ contains a somatic motor neuron and all of the muscle cells that it innervates.

A) motor unit B) sarcomere C) motor end plate D) sarcolemma

362)

Which ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow muscle contraction?

A) B) C) D)

363)

If a group of agonists and antagonists contract at the same time, producing the same force at a joint, what movement will occur?

A) The movement of the agonist B) The movement of the antagonist C) Isotonic movement D) No movement will occur. Both muscle groups will contract isometrically.

364)

365)

Muscles are named based on all of the following EXCEPT _________.

A) amount of force produced B) function or action C) shape D) location

You discover a new muscle that has three bellies and is located in the anterior compartment of the leg. What should you name it?

A) Triceps crurae B) Deltoid crurae C) Triceps femoris D) Trapezius of the leg

366)

A skeletal muscle contains thick myofilaments that are made up of mostly the protein_________.

A) myosin B) actin C) tropomyosin D) troponin

367)

A muscle fiber always contracts_________. This is known as the all-or-none response.

A) completely B) incompletely C) its full length D) None of the choices are correct.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 321) 322) 323) 324) 325) 326) 327) 328) 329) 330) 331) 332) 333) 334) 335) 336) 337) 338) 339) 340) 341) 342) 343) 344) 345) 346) 347) 348) 349) 350) 351) 352) 353) 354) 355) 356) 357)

A B D D B A D D B A D C B D A B A A D B A D C B D A B C A D B C B A B A D

358) 359) 360) 361) 362) 363) 364) 365) 366) 367)

C A A A A D A A A A

Student name:__________ 368)

The motor division of the peripheral nervous system carries action potentials from _________.

A) the CNS to the sensory receptors B) the CNS to the effectors C) the sensory receptors.to the CNS D) the effectors to the CNS

369)

The sensory division of the peripheral nervous system carries action potentials from _________.

A) the CNS to the sensory receptors B) the CNS to the effectors C) the sensory receptors to the CNS D) the effectors to the CNS

370)

The somatic division of the peripheral nervous system is involved in controlling _________.

A) skeletal muscles only B) skeletal muscles, cardiac striated muscle, and smooth muscle tissue C) skeletal muscles, skin, joints, and bones D) cardiac striated muscle, glands, and adipose tissue

371)

The autonomic division of the peripheral nervous system is involved in controlling _________.

A) skeletal muscles only B) skeletal muscles, cardiac striated muscle, and smooth muscle tissue C) skeletal muscles, skin, joints, and bones D) cardiac striated muscle, glands, and adipose tissue

372)

The somatic sensory information is collected by sensory receptors in the _________.

A) skeletal muscles only B) skeletal muscles, cardiac striated muscle, and smooth muscle tissue C) skeletal muscles, skin, joints, and bones D) cardiac striated muscle, glands, and adipose tissue

373)

The central nervous system is comprised of _________.

A) brain and cranial nerves B) brain and spinal cord C) brain, spinal cord, and ganglia D) cranial nerves, spinal nerves, ganglia, and neuroglia

374)

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is comprised of _________.

A) cranial nerves and spinal nerves only B) cranial nerves, spinal nerves, brain, and spinal cord C) cranial nerves, spinal nerves, ganglia, and sensory receptors D) cranial nerves, spinal nerves, ganglia, and spinal cord

375)

Which statement is true regarding the anatomy of the neuron?

A) All axons, dendrites, and nerve cell bodies are myelinated.

B) Some axons, dendrites, and nerve cell bodies are myelinated.

C) Some axons are myelinated; all dendrites and nerve cell bodies are unmyelinated.

D) All axons and dendrites are myelinated; nerve cell bodies are unmyelinated.

376)

The dendrites of a neuron _________.

A) carry impulses toward the nerve cell body B) carry impulses toward the sensory receptors C) carry impulses away from the nerve cell body D) nourish and protect the neuron

377)

The _________ is the portion of a neuron that contains the nucleus and the other usual cytoplasmic organelles.

A) axon B) nerve cell body C) terminal bouton D) myelin sheath

378)

The _________ increases the speed of action potential transmission.

A) axon B) nerve cell body C) terminal bouton D) myelin sheath

379)

The axon _________.

A) carries action potentials toward the nerve cell body B) carries action potentials toward the sensory receptors C) carries action potentials away from the nerve cell body D) nourishes and protects the neuron

380)

_________ form the myelin sheath around axons in PNS. A) Schwann cells B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Ependymal cells E) Microglial cells F) Satellite cells

381)

_________ are involved in the production of cerebrospinal fluid.

A) Schwann cells B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Ependymal cells E) Microglial cells F) Satellite cells

382)

_________ join with the epithelium of blood vessels to form blood-brain barrier in the brain.

A) Schwann cells B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Ependymal cells E) Microglial cells F) Satellite cells

383)

Multipolar neurons are _________.

A) only motor neurons B) only interneurons C) either motor neurons or interneurons D) sensory neurons within the special sense organs E) most sensory neurons except for those found within the special sense organs

384)

Pseudounipolar neurons are _________.

A) only motor neurons B) only interneurons C) either motor neurons or interneurons D) sensory neurons within the special sense organs E) most sensory neurons except for those found within the special sense organs

385)

Bipolar neurons are _________.

A) only motor neurons B) only interneurons C) either motor neurons or interneurons D) sensory neurons within the special sense organs E) most sensory neurons except for those found within the special sense organs

386)

If a neuron is located entirely in the CNS, this neuron is a(n) _________.

A) motor neuron B) sensory neuron C) sensory or motor neuron D) interneuron

387)

A _________ has its cell body and dendrites located within the CNS, while its axon is located in PNS. A) motor neuron B) sensory neuron C) sensory or motor neuron D) interneuron

388)

389)

The nerve cell body of a _________ is located in PNS. A) motor neuron B) sensory neuron C) sensory or motor neuron D) interneuron

During the process of repolarization in a neuron, the _________ flow of ECF along the outside of plasma membrane to become _________ charged.

A) inward; negatively B) inward; positively C) outward; negatively D) outward; positively

causes the

390)

During the process of depolarization in a neuron, the _________ flow of ECF along the outside of plasma membrane to become _________ charged.

A) inward; negatively B) inward; positively C) outward; negatively D) outward; positively

causes the

391)

When a neuron is activated by a threshold stimulus, _________ channels open, which allows these ions to quickly _________.

A) potassium; diffuse out of the neuron B) potassium; diffuse into the neuron C) sodium; diffuse out of the neuron D) sodium; diffuse into the neuron

392)

In a resting neuron, concentrations of _________ are high in the ECF and low in the cytosol, whereas the concentration of _________ is high in the cytosol and low in the ECF. A) sodium and potassium ions; chloride ions B) sodium and chloride ions; potassium ions C) chloride and potassium ions; sodium ions D) potassium ions; sodium and chloride ions

393)

In a resting neuron, the plasma membrane is _________.

A) more permeable to sodium ions than to potassium ions B) more permeable to potassium ions than to sodium ions C) equally permeable to both sodium and potassium ions D) permeable to potassium ions but impermeable to sodium ions

394)

At a synapse, the receptors for the neurotransmitters are located _________.

A) in the synaptic cleft B) on the plasma membrane of the postsynaptic neuron C) on the plasma membrane of the presynaptic neuron D) in the cytosol of the postsynaptic neuron

395)

The _________ releases the neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

A) axon B) nerve cell body C) terminal bouton D) myelin sheath

396)

Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into the blood-filled _________ along the superior midline within the dura mater.

A) dural venous sinus B) subdural space C) epidural space D) subarachnoid space

397)

_________ is the middle membrane of the meninges.

A) Pia mater B) White matter C) Dura mater D) Arachnoid mater

398)

The _________ is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

A) dural venous sinus B) subdural space C) epidural space D) subarachnoid space

399)

_________ is the outermost layer of the meninges.

A) Pia mater B) White matter C) Dura mater D) Arachnoid mater

400)

_________ is the innermost membrane of the meninges.

A) Pia mater B) White matter C) Dura mater D) Arachnoid mater

401)

The _________ is involved in controlling complex learned activities, such as driving.

A) premotor area B) prefrontal area C) posterior language area D) common integrative area E) motor speech area

402)

The _________ controls the ability to speak.

A) premotor area B) prefrontal area C) posterior language area D) common integrative area E) motor speech area

403)

The _________ interprets the meaning of spoken and written language.

A) premotor area B) prefrontal area C) posterior language area D) common integrative area E) motor speech area

404)

The areas identifying sensations from skin stimulation are located in the _________.

A) temporal lobe B) frontal lobe C) occipital lobe D) parietal lobe E) insula

405)

The _________ controls skeletal muscles.

A) primary motor area B) prefrontal area C) posterior language area D) common integrative area

406)

Sensory areas for vision are located in the _________.

A) temporal lobe B) frontal lobe C) occipital lobe D) parietal lobe E) insula

407)

Sensory areas for hearing are located in the _________.

A) temporal lobe B) frontal lobe C) occipital lobe D) parietal lobe E) insula

408)

Brainstem refers to the part of the brain comprised of the _________.

A) cerebellum, medulla oblongata, and pons B) cerebellum, medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain C) medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain D) medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, and diencephalon E) pons, midbrain, and diencephalon

409)

The _________ is a reflex center that controls and coordinates the interaction of skeletal muscles.

A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) midbrain D) pons E) hypothalamus

410)

Which of the following contains the respiratory rhythmicity center?

A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Midbrain D) Pons E) Hypothalamus

411)

Which of the following controls body temperature?

A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Midbrain D) Pons E) Hypothalamus

412)

Which of the following generates and transmits nerve impulses that arouse the cerebrum to wakefulness?

A) Limbic system B) Reticular formation C) Thalamus D) Epithalamus

413)

Which of the following controls appetite and digestive activity?

A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Midbrain D) Pons E) Hypothalamus

414)

Which of the following is involved in sleep and wakefullness?

A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Midbrain D) Pons E) Hypothalamus

415)

Mood disorders, such as depression, are usually a result of malfunction within the _________.

A) limbic system B) reticular formation C) thalamus D) epithalamus

416)

Most of the cerebrospinal fluid is formed within the _________.

A) lateral ventricles B) central canal C) subarachnoid space D) cerebral aqueduct

417)

Which of the following is involved in forming cerebrospinal fluid?

A) Central canal B) Dural venous sinus C) Choroid plexus D) Cerebral aqueduct

418)

Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

A) It provides the brain with buoyancy.

B) It transports ions.

C) It transports neurotransmitters.

D) It transports nutrients and wastes.

419)

The _________ of the spinal cord contain the nerve cell bodies of somatic motor neurons.

A) anterior horns B) lateral horns C) posterior horns D) nerve tracts

420)

The _________ of the spinal cord contain the nerve cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons.

A) anterior horns B) lateral horns C) posterior horns D) nerve tracts

421)

The _________ are bundles of myelinated and unmyelinated axons of interneurons that extend up and down within the spinal cord.

A) anterior horns B) lateral horns C) posterior horns D) nerve tracts

422)

The _________ of the spinal cord contain the interneurons that receive incoming sensory information.

A) anterior horns B) lateral horns C) posterior horns D) nerve tracts

423)

424)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spinal cord?

A) It serves as a reflex center.

B) It interprets the sensory action potentials as sensations.

C) It carries sensory action potentials to the brain.

D) It carries motor action potentials from the brain.

The _________ nerve innervates the organs of respiratory, digestive, and cardiovascular systems within the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

A) vagus B) trigeminal C) abducens D) accessory

425)

The sensory action potentials from teeth and gums are carried to the brain by the _________ nerve.

A) vagus B) trigeminal C) abducens D) accessory

426)

The chewing muscles are controlled by the _________ nerve.

A) vagus B) trigeminal C) abducens D) accessory

427)

The sciatic nerves arise from the _________ plexus.

A) lumbar B) cervical C) brachial D) sacral

428)

Nerves from the _________ plexus innervate the skin and muscles of pectoral girdles and upper limbs.

A) lumbar B) cervical C) brachial D) sacral

429)

The phrenic nerve arises from the _________ plexus.

A) lumbar B) cervical C) brachial D) sacral

430)

The posterior roots of the spinal nerves contain the _________.

A) axons of motor neurons B) axons of sensory neurons C) axons of both sensory and motor neurons D) nerve cell bodies of sensory neurons E) nerve cell bodies of motor neurons

431)

The spinal ganglion contains the _________.

A) axons of motor neurons B) axons of sensory neurons C) axons of both sensory and motor neurons D) nerve cell bodies of sensory neurons E) nerve cell bodies of motor neurons

432)

Which statement is INCORRECT regarding reflexes?

A) The responses of reflexes are always rapid.

B) Both the brain and spinal cord are always involved in every type of reflex.

C) The responses of reflexes are always predictable.

D) The responses of reflexes are always involuntary.

E) Effectors are always involved in the reflexes.

433)

The sympathetic part of the autonomic division _________.

A) controls the skeletal muscles B) carries action potentials to the visceral organs to prepare the body for resting and digesting C) carries action potentials to the visceral organs to prepare the body for fight or flight D) carries sensory information from the visceral organs to the CNS E) carries sensory information from the skeletal muscles to the CNS

434)

The parasympathetic part of autonomic division _________.

A) controls the skeletal muscles B) carries action potentials to the visceral organs to prepare the body for resting and digesting C) carries action potentials to the visceral organs to prepare the body for fight or flight D) carries sensory information from visceral organs to the CNS E) carries sensory information from skeletal muscles to the CNS

435)

The nerve cell bodies of the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the _________.

A) brain only B) spinal cord only C) brain and the spinal cord D) autonomic ganglia located far away from the effectors E) autonomic ganglia located very near or within the effectors

436)

The nerve cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the _________.

A) brain only B) spinal cord only C) brain and the spinal cord D) autonomic ganglia located far away from the effectors E) autonomic ganglia located very near or within the effectors

437)

The nerve cell bodies of the sympathetic postganglionic neurons are located in the _________.

A) brain only B) spinal cord only C) brain and the spinal cord D) autonomic ganglia located far away from the effectors E) autonomic ganglia located very near or within the effectors

438)

The nerve cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are located in the _________.

A) brain only B) spinal cord only C) brain and the spinal cord D) autonomic ganglia located far away from the effectors E) autonomic ganglia located very near or within the effectors

439)

The axons of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons secrete _________.

A) acetylcholine B) norepinephrine C) epinephrine D) acetylcholine or epinephrine E) acetylcholine or norepinephrine

440)

Most of the axons from sympathetic postganglionic neurons secrete _________.

A) acetylcholine B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine or epinephrine D) acetylcholine and norepinephrine

441)

Sympathetic stimulation causes _________.

A) Decreases heart rate and increases secretion of pancreatic enzymes B) dilates bronchioles and stimulates uterine contractions during labor C) Inhibits motility of the digestive tract and constricts the pupil D) Triggers contraction of the bladder wall and increases blood flow to skeletal muscles

442)

Parasympathetic stimulation _________.

A) increases blood supply to both skeletal muscles and digestive organs B) decreases blood supply to both skeletal muscles and digestive organs C) increases blood supply to skeletal muscles and decreases blood supply to digestive organs D) decreases blood supply to skeletal muscles and increases blood supply to digestive organs

443)

_________ is associated with a loss of certain cholinergic neurons in the brain and a reduced ability of neurons to secret acetylcholine.

A) Alzheimer disease B) Parkinson disease C) Multiple sclerosis D) Shingles

444)

_________ is caused by an insufficient delivery of the neurotransmitter dopamine to neurons with the basal nuclei of the cerebrum.

A) Alzheimer disease B) Parkinson disease C) Multiple sclerosis D) Shingles

445)

_________ is a progressive degeneration of the myelin sheath around the axons in the CNS. A) Alzheimer disease B) Parkinson disease C) Multiple sclerosis D) Shingles

446)

The anterior roots of the spinal nerves contain the _________.

A) axons of motor neurons B) axons of sensory neurons C) axons of both sensory and motor neurons D) nerve cell bodies of sensory neurons E) nerve cell bodies of motor neurons

447)

Which of the following is a general function of the nervous system?

A) Detection of internal and external environmental changes B) Secretion of digestive enzymes C) Production of urine D) Production of vitamin D

448)

Which of the following is NOT a general function of the nervous system?

A) Detection of internal and external environmental changes B) Secretion of digestive enzymes C) Organization of the information for immediate and future use D) Initiation of the appropriate actions in response to the changes

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 368) 369) 370) 371) 372) 373) 374) 375) 376) 377) 378) 379) 380) 381) 382) 383) 384) 385) 386) 387) 388) 389) 390) 391) 392) 393) 394) 395) 396) 397) 398) 399) 400) 401) 402) 403) 404)

B C A D C B C C A B D C A D C C E D D A B D A D B B B C A D D C A A E C D

405) 406) 407) 408) 409) 410) 411) 412) 413) 414) 415) 416) 417) 418) 419) 420) 421) 422) 423) 424) 425) 426) 427) 428) 429) 430) 431) 432) 433) 434) 435) 436) 437) 438) 439) 440) 441) 442) 443) 444) 445)

A C A C A B E B E E A A C C A B D C B A B B D C B B D B C B C B D E A B B D A B C

446) 447) 448)

A A B

Student name:__________ 449)

Cranial nerve_________ is responsible for relaying action potentials to neurons within the olfactory tract.

A) I B) II C) VI D) XI

450)

The funnel-like structure of the external ear that is attached to the side of the head is called the_________.

A) tympanic membrane B) channel C) external acoustic meatus D) auricle

451)

The auditory ossicles- the malleus, incus, and stapes- are located in the_________.

A) external ear B) middle ear C) internal ear D) cochlea

452)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a general sense?

A) Heat B) Equilibrium C) Pain D) Pressure

453)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a special sense?

A) Smell B) Vision C) Pain D) Hearing

454)

Which of the following matters most when interpreting sensations?

A) The part of the cerebral cortex that receives the action potentials.

B) The sensory neuron responsible for collecting the stimulus.

C) The type of stimulus itself.

D) How often action potentials are sent to the central nervous system.

455)

The brain's ability to pinpoint where a stimulus occurred in the body is called_________.

A) sensation B) adaptation C) accommodation D) projection

456)

Nociceptors differ from other types of receptors because they _________.

A) do not adapt to stimuli B) are comprised of free nerve endings C) are not found in the skin D) do not send action potentials

457)

Sensory adaptation can be experienced when an olfactory receptor experiences_________.

A) an increasing level of stimulation B) a constant level of stimulation C) a decreasing level of stimulation D) no stimulation

458)

All of the following are mechanoreceptors except_________.

A) tactile corpuscles B) lamellar corpuscles C) cone cells D) sensory neurons wrapped around hair follicles

459)

_________ pain occurs when damage to a visceral organ occurs but the pain is projected to an undamaged part of the body wall or limb.

A) Referred B) Projected C) Sensed D) Adapted

460)

Chemoreceptors require that the chemical they sense to be_________.

A) inhaled into the nose B) placed into the mouth C) dissolved in a liquid D) salty, bitter, sweet, or sour

461)

Taste buds are located in_________, and they are comprised of_________ with microvilli that are used to sense chemicals.

A) lingual papillae; cone cells B) lingual papillae; gustatory epithelial cells C) papillary buds; gustatory epithelial cells D) lingual papillae; cochlear hair cells

462)

The chemoreceptors inside the nose are found_________.

A) within the epithelium lining the inferior nasal conchae B) wrapped around nose hairs C) inside the olfactory bulb D) within the epithelium lining the superior nasal conchae

463)

Another name for the eardrum of the middle ear is the_________.

A) auricle B) tympanic membrane C) cochlea D) external acoustic meatus

464)

From outermost to innermost, which is the correct sequence of structures within the middle ear?

A) Tympanic membrane, incus, malleus, stapes B) Stapes, incus, tympanic membrane, malleus C) Tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes D) Incus, malleus, stapes, tympanic membrane

465)

Which of the following is true of the auditory tube?

A) It allows sound waves to enter the skull from the outside.

B) It adjusts air pressure within the middle ear.

C) It allows action potentials to travel to the brain from the ear.

D) It is where the receptors used for hearing are located.

466)

The middle and internal ear are located inside of the _________.

A) orbits B) superior and middle conchae C) temporal bone D) parietal bone

467)

The cochlear duct contains all of the following except_________.

A) endolymph B) tectorial membrane C) perilymph D) spiral organ

468)

Where are the stereocilia of the hair cells for the sense of hearing located?

A) In contact with the tectorial membrane of the spiral organ.

B) Within the gelatinous layer of the macula.

C) Within the ampullary cupula of the crista ampullaris.

D) In contact with the vestibular membrane of th scala vestibuli.

469)

In hearing, which structure is vibrated last?

A) The basilar membrane B) The perilymph inside the scalae C) The stapes D) The tympanic membrane

470)

Damage to the tympanic membrane will likely cause_________.

A) permanent nerve deafness B) temporary conductive hearing loss C) blindness D) a loss of balance and coordination

471)

Static equilibrium is perceived because gravity pulls on_________, which in turn leads to the movement of the gelatinous later and the bending of hair cell stereocilia.

A) endolymph B) crista ampullaris C) otoliths D) the cerebellum

472)

Tears are produced by the_________ and exit the eye_________.

A) lacrimal sac; medially B) lacrimal gland; medially C) lacrimal sac; laterally D) lacrimal gland; laterally

473)

All of the following are extrinsic muscles of the eyeball except for the_________.

A) superior rectus B) lateral oblique C) lateral rectus D) inferior oblique

474)

The_________ is the opaque, tough part of the eye that protects more delicate structures inside.

A) sclera B) lens C) choroid D) cornea

475)

The choroid contains_________.

A) the pupil B) melanin C) the optic disc D) the cones

476)

The_________ must be flexible for the eye to undergo accommodation for near, intermediate, and distant vision.

A) cornea B) vitreous humor C) lens D) aqueous humor

477)

Cones are the most densely arranged at the_________.

A) optic disc B) fovea centralis C) outer edges of the retina D) anterior chamber

478)

Rods are filled with a pigment called_________, and the lack of it can lead to_________.

A) melanin; nearsightedness B) rhodopsin; color blindness C) rhodopsin; night blindness D) vitreous humor; glaucoma

479)

Which of the following is a function of the vitreous humor?

A) It maintains intraocular pressure.

B) It provides nourishment to the cornea and lens.

C) It holds the retina against the wall of the eye.

D) It maintains the shape of the cornea.

480)

The optic nerves merge to form an X-shaped pattern called the_________.

A) cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) B) optic chiasm C) optic disc D) macula

481)

Children are prone to middle ear infections because the shape of the_________ allows bacteria to more easily enter the middle ear.

A) auditory tube B) external acoustic meatus C) oval window D) round window

482)

Blindness in adults is most often caused by cataracts clouding the_________.

A) fovea centralis B) cornea C) lens D) conjunctiva

483)

What type of receptors are involved in monitoring body position?

A) Proprioceptors B) Baroreceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors

484)

What type of sensory receptor is stimulated when tissues are damaged?

A) nociceptor B) chemoreceptor C) mechanoreceptor D) proprioceptor

485)

Pain in the left chest and left upper limb may be a sign of a _________.

A) heart attack B) stroke C) gallstone D) ulcer

486)

Which of the following is NOT a confirmed basic taste?

A) metallic B) sweet C) bitter D) umami

487)

Hair cells, mechanoreceptors, rods and cones, chemoreceptors, and free nerve endings are all examples of what?

A) Sensory receptors B) Motor neurons C) Interneurons D) Effectors

488)

Deafness that can be overcome by using a hearing aid is called_________ deafness.

A) nerve B) malleolar C) conduction D) convection

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 449) 450) 451) 452) 453) 454) 455) 456) 457) 458) 459) 460) 461) 462) 463) 464) 465) 466) 467) 468) 469) 470) 471) 472) 473) 474) 475) 476) 477) 478) 479) 480) 481) 482) 483) 484) 485)

A D B B C A D A B C A C B D B C B C C A A B C B B A B C B C C B A C A A A

486) 487) 488)

A A C

Student name:__________ 489)

A hormone is a chemical messenger that produces specific responses in_________.

A) all body cells B) only cells of internal organs C) only cells with receptors for that hormone D) only cells adjacent to the endocrine gland secreting the hormone

490)

Endocrine glands differ from exocrine glands because _________.

A) endocrine glands are widespread in the body, while exocrine glands are only found near the body surface B) exocrine glands are made using cuboidal and columnar epithelia, while endocrine glands are not C) exocrine glands have a duct to carry their secretions, while endocrine glands do not D) exocrine glands produce hormones, while endocrine glands do not

491)

_________ are released within a tissue and affect the function of neighboring cells within that tissue.

A) Exocrine secretions B) Neuroendocrine secretions C) Neurotransmitters D) Paracrine signals

492)

_________ are hormones released by neurons and enter the blood for distribution throughout the body.

A) Exocrine secretions B) Neuroendocrine secretions C) Neurotransmitters D) Paracrine signals

493)

_________ hormones bind with an intracellular receptor to form a _________, which activates specific genes.

A) Steroid and thyroid; receptor-hormone complex B) Nonsteroid; receptor-hormone complex C) Steroid and thyroid; DNA-mRNA complex D) Nonsteroid; DNA-mRNA complex

494)

_________ hormones bind to a receptor on the_________, which releases an enzyme that converts ATP into cAMP. A) Steroid and thyroid; nuclear membrane B) Nonsteroid; nuclear membrane C) Steroid and thyroid; plasma membrane D) Nonsteroid; plasma membrane

495)

Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones _________ pass across the plasma membrane; they cause the target cells to _________ that produce the characteristic effects of the hormones.

A) can; synthesize specific proteins B) cannot; synthesize specific proteins C) can; activate or inactivate the cellular enzymes D) cannot; activate or inactivate the cellular enzymes

496)

Nonsteroid hormones _________ pass across the plasma membrane; they cause the target cells to _________ that produce the characteristic effects of the hormones.

A) can; synthesize specific proteins B) cannot; synthesize specific proteins C) can; activate or inactivate the cellular enzymes D) cannot; activate or inactivate the cellular enzymes

497)

Which statement is incorrect? The secretion of a hormone from some endocrine glands is controlled by _________.

A) a hormone secreted by another endocrine gland B) action potentials from the nervous system C) a secretion released by an exocrine gland D) a chemical change in the blood

498)

The secretion of growth hormone is controlled by _________.

A) a releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) a releasing hormone and an inhibiting hormone from hypothalamus C) the concentration of water in body fluids D) action potentials from the hypothalamus

499)

The secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone is controlled by _________.

A) a releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) a releasing hormone and an inhibiting hormone from hypothalamus C) the concentration of water in body fluids D) action potentials from the hypothalamus

500)

The secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone is controlled by _________.

A) a releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) a releasing hormone and an inhibiting hormone from hypothalamus C) the concentration of water in body fluids D) action potentials from the hypothalamus

501)

The secretion of prolactin is controlled by _________.

A) a releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) a releasing hormone and an inhibiting hormone from hypothalamus C) the concentration of water in body fluids D) action potentials from the hypothalamus

502)

The secretion of follicular-stimulating hormone is controlled by _________.

A) a releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) a releasing hormone and an inhibiting hormone from hypothalamus C) the concentration of water in body fluids D) action potentials from the hypothalamus

503)

The secretion of antidiuretic hormone is controlled by _________.

A) a releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) a releasing hormone and an inhibiting hormone from hypothalamus C) the concentration of water in body fluids D) action potentials resulting from stretching of the uterus or stimulation of the nipples

504)

The secretion of oxytocin is controlled by _________.

A) a releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) a releasing hormone and an inhibiting hormone from hypothalamus C) the concentration of water in body fluids D) action potentials resulting from stretching of the uterus or stimulation of the nipples

505)

_________ stimulates the production of sperm in testes.

A) Growth hormone B) Prolactin C) Luteinizing hormone D) Oxytocin E) Follicular-stimulating hormone

506)

_________ stimulates the contraction of mammary glands when nursing infant.

A) Growth hormone B) Prolactin C) Luteinizing hormone D) Oxytocin E) Follicular-stimulating hormone

507)

_________ stimulates milk secretion and maintains milk production by mammary glands.

A) Growth hormone B) Prolactin C) Luteinizing hormone D) Oxytocin E) Follicular-stimulating hormone

508)

_________ stimulates the testes to produce testosterone.

A) Growth hormone B) Prolactin C) Luteinizing hormone D) Oxytocin E) Follicular-stimulating hormone

509)

Which of the following hormones stimulates contractions of uterus during childbirth?

A) Oxytocin B) Prolactin C) Luteinizing hormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

510)

The secretion of _________ is controlled by a _________ mechanism.

A) antidiuretic hormone; positive-feedback B) oxytocin; positive-feedback C) oxytocin; negative-feedback D) antidiuretic hormone; negative-feedback

511)

ADH promotes _________.

A) water excretion by the kidneys B) water retention by the kidneys C) water and sodium excretion by the kidneys D) water and sodium retention by the kidneys

512)

Acromegaly results from the _________.

A) hypersecretion of GH during childhood B) hypersecretion of GH during adulthood C) hypersecretion of GH during childhood and adulthood D) hyposecretion of GH during childhood E) hyposecretion of GH during childhood and adulthood

513)

Pituitary dwarfism is caused by the _________.

A) hypersecretion of GH during childhood B) hypersecretion of GH during adulthood C) hypersecretion of GH during childhood and adulthood D) hyposecretion of GH during childhood E) hyposecretion of GH during childhood and adulthood

514)

_________ results from the hypersecretion of thyroid hormones and is thought to be an autoimmune disorder.

A) Cretinism B) Graves disease C) Myxedema D) Simple goiter

515)

_________ results from a severe hyposecretion of thyroid hormones in infants.

A) Cretinism B) Graves disease C) Myxedema D) Simple goiter

516)

_________ results from a severe hyposecretion of thyroid hormones in adults.

A) Cretinism B) Graves disease C) Myxedema D) Simple goiter

517)

_________ is an enlargement of thyroid gland that results from a deficiency of iodine in the diet.

A) Cretinism B) Graves disease C) Myxedema D) Simple goiter

518)

_________ stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormones.

A) A releasing hormone from hypothalamus B) A releasing hormone from the anterior lobe of pituitary gland C) A releasing hormone from the posterior lobe of pituitary gland D) The action potentials from a nerve

519)

_________ stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin.

A) <p>An increase in blood concentration</p> B) A releasing hormone from the pituitary gland C) <p>A decrease in blood concentration</p> D) The action potentials from a nerve

520)

_________ inhibits deposition by osteoblasts and A) Aldosterone B) Calcitonin C) Thyroid hormones D) Parathyroid hormone

521)

_________ stimulates deposition by osteoblasts and kidneys.</p> A) Aldosterone B) Calcitonin C) Thyroid hormones D) Parathyroid hormone

522)

_________ activates vitamin D. A) B) Parathyroid hormone C) Calcitonin D) Cortisol

excretion by the kidneys.</p>

excretion by the

523)

_________ is(are) the primary factor(s) that determine(s) the basal metabolic rate of the body.

A) Cortisol B) Thyroid hormones C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Growth hormone

524)

_________ is(are) important during infancy and childhood for normal development of the nervous, skeletal, and muscular systems.

A) Cortisol B) Thyroid hormones C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Growth hormone

525)

The secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine is controlled by _________.

A) action potentials for the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division B) action potentials for the sympathetic part of the autonomic division C) a releasing hormone from the pituitary gland D) a change of blood glucose level

526)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the _________.

A) adrenal medulla B) adrenal cortex C) kidneys D) pancreas

527)

_________ prepare(s) the body to meet short-term stress.

A) Calcitonin B) Cortisol C) Thyroid hormones D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

528)

_________ help(s) the body to cope with chronic stress.

A) Calcitonin B) Cortisol C) Thyroid hormones D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

529)

_________ is the hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that stimulates the kidneys to retain _________ and maintains blood volume and blood pressure.

A) Aldosterone; sodium ions B) Cortisol; glucose C) Parathormone; calcium ions D) Aldosterone; potassium ions

530)

Addison disease results from the _________.

A) hypersecretion by the adrenal medulla B) hyposecretion by the adrenal medulla C) hypersecretion by the adrenal cortex D) hyposecretion by the adrenal cortex

531)

Cushing syndrome results from the _________.

A) hypersecretion by the adrenal medulla B) hyposecretion by the adrenal medulla C) hypersecretion by the adrenal cortex D) hyposecretion by the adrenal cortex

532)

_________ is characterized by soft and weak bones that are prone to spontaneous fractures and may lead to the formation of kidney stones.

A) Cushing syndrome B) Addison disease C) Hyperparathyroidism D) Hypoparathyroidism E) Hyperthyroidism

533)

The secretion of cortisol is controlled by _________.

A) action potentials from the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division B) action potentials from the sympathetic part of the autonomic division C) a releasing hormone from the pituitary gland D) a decrease in blood concentration of sodium ions

534)

_________ is characterized by high blood pressure, high blood glucose level, fat accumulation on the trunk, fatigue, and edema.

A) Cushing syndrome B) Addison disease C) Hyperparathyroidism D) Hypoparathyroidism E) Hyperthyroidism

535)

_________ is characterized by a decrease in blood arrest and tetany of skeletal muscles.</p> A) Cushing syndrome B) Addison disease C) Hyperparathyroidism D) Hypoparathyroidism E) Hyperthyroidism

level, which may result in cardiac

536)

Diabetes insipidus is caused by _________.

A) a severe hypersecretion of ADH B) a severe hyposecretion of ADH C) the hyposecretion of insulin due to destruction of beta cells D) a reduction of the insulin receptors on target cells E) a reduction of ADH receptors on the target cells

537)

Type I diabetes mellitus is caused by _________.

A) a severe hypersecretion of ADH B) a severe hyposecretion of ADH C) the hyposecretion of insulin due to destruction of the beta cells D) a reduction of the insulin receptors on target cells E) a reduction of ADH receptors on the target cells

538)

Type II diabetes mellitus is caused by _________.

A) a severe hypersecretion of ADH B) a severe hyposecretion of ADH C) the hyposecretion of insulin due to destruction of the beta cells D) a reduction of the insulin receptors on target cells E) a reduction of ADH receptors on the target cells

539)

_________ is secreted by alpha cells of pancreas, its secretion is stimulated by _________ in blood glucose level.

A) Insulin; an increase B) Insulin; a decrease C) Glucagon, an increase D) Glucagon, a decrease

540)

_________ is secreted by beta cells of pancreas, its secretion is stimulated by _________ in blood glucose level.

A) Insulin; an increase B) Insulin; a decrease C) Glucagon, an increase D) Glucagon, a decrease

541)

The secretion of testosterone is controlled by _________.

A) action potentials from the sympathetic part of the autonomic division B) FSH C) LH D) GH

542)

The secretion of estrogens is controlled by _________.

A) action potentials from the sympathetic part of the autonomic division B) FSH C) LH D) GH

543)

_________ prepare(s) the uterus for receiving a preembryo and maintain(s) the pregnancy.

A) Estrogens B) Progesterone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Testosterone

544)

_________ stimulate(s) the development and maturation of the male reproductive organs and the secondary sex characteristics.

A) Estrogens B) Progesterone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Testosterone

545)

_________ stimulate(s) the development and maturation of the female reproductive organs and the secondary sex characteristics.

A) Estrogens B) Progesterone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Testosterone

546)

The thymus gland is typically _________ in children than adults, and is involved in the maturation of _________.

A) smaller; lymphocytes B) larger; lymphocytes C) smaller; neurons D) larger; neurons

547)

The hormone(s) that regulate(s) wake-sleep cycles is(are) _________ produced by the _________ gland.

A) melatonin; posterior lobe of the pituitary B) thymosins; thymus C) melatonin; pineal D) growth hormone; anterior lobe of the pituitary

548)

The hormone _________ stimulates movement of glucose into body cells and the conversion of glucose into glycogen.

A) cortisol B) glucagon C) epinephrine D) insulin

549)

The hypothalamus regulates hormones from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland using _________, while it regulates the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland using _________.

A) action potentials; hormones B) hormones; action potentials C) hormones; hormones D) action potentials; action potentials

550)

The adrenal androgens _________.

A) contribute to the female sex drive, have no significant effect on adult males B) contribute to the male sex drive, have no significant effect on adult females C) promote the early development of female reproductive organs D) promote the early development of male and female reproductive organs

551)

_________ reduce(s) inflammation.

A) Epinephrine B) Cortisol C) Aldosterone D) Thyroid hormones

552)

_________ maintain(s) the healthy balance of A) Epinephrine B) Cortisol C) Aldosterone D) Thyroid hormones

and

in body fluid.</p>

553)

_________ promote(s) the conversion of noncarbohydrate nutrients to glucose.

A) Epinephrine B) Cortisol C) Aldosterone D) Thyroid hormones

554)

_________ increase(s) metabolic rate and promote(s) protein synthesis.

A) Epinephrine and norepinephrine B) Cortisol C) Growth hormone D) Thyroid hormones

555)

_________ increase(s) metabolic rate and stimulate(s) the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

A) Epinephrine and norepinephrine B) Cortisol C) Growth hormone D) Thyroid hormones

556)

_________ promote(s) protein synthesis, increase(s) the release of fat from adipose tissue, and stimulate(s) the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

A) Epinephrine and norepinephrine B) Cortisol C) Growth hormone D) Thyroid hormones

557)

Ductless glands that release hormones are called _________ glands.

A) endocrine B) exocrine

558)

The endocrine gland located behind the stomach is the _________.

A) adrenal medulla B) adrenal cortex C) kidney D) pancreas

559)

_________ stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormones.

A) TH B) TSH C) TIH D)

560)

<p>An increase in blood _________.

A) calcitonin

concentration stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete

B) C) D) thyroxine

561)

<p>Calcitonin stimulates kidneys.</p> A) osteocytes B) osteoblast C) osteoclasts D) osteoprogenitor cells

562)

deposition by _________ and

excretion by the

The secretion of parathyroid hormone is controlled by _________.

A) action potentials for the parasympathetic part of the autonomic division B) action potentials for the sympathetic part of the autonomic division C) a releasing hormone from the pituitary gland D) a change of blood calcium level

563)

Which hormone increases the blood calcium level?

A) PTH B) Calcitonin C) Thyroid hormones D) Growth hormone

564)

_________ is characterized by weak bones that are prone to spontaneous fractures and kidney stones.

A) Cushing syndrome B) Addison disease C) Hyperparathyroidism D) Hypoparathyroidism E) Hyperthyroidism

565)

The hormone _________ stimulates the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

A) cortisol B) glucagon C) epinephrine D) insulin

566)

The secretion of progesterone is controlled by _________.

A) action potentials from the sympathetic part of the autonomic division B) FSH C) LH D) GH

567)

In males, LH is also known as _________.

A) ICSH B) FSH C) RH D) GH

568)

Testosterone is responsible for all of the following except_________.

A) sleep-wake cycles B) low voice C) sperm production D) maturation of male reproductive organs

569)

All of the following are actions of testosterone. Which one is the PRIMARY action?

A) development of secondary sex characteristics B) low voice C) sperm production D) maturation of male reproductive organs

570)

Which gland produces melatonin?

A) Thymus B) Kidney C) Pineal gland D) Thyroid gland

571)

Which gland produces thymosins?

A) Thymus B) Kidney C) Pineal gland D) Thyroid gland

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 489) 490) 491) 492) 493) 494) 495) 496) 497) 498) 499) 500) 501) 502) 503) 504) 505) 506) 507) 508) 509) 510) 511) 512) 513) 514) 515) 516) 517) 518) 519) 520) 521) 522) 523) 524) 525)

C C D B A D A D C B A A B A C D E D B C A B B B D B A C D B A D B B B B B

526) 527) 528) 529) 530) 531) 532) 533) 534) 535) 536) 537) 538) 539) 540) 541) 542) 543) 544) 545) 546) 547) 548) 549) 550) 551) 552) 553) 554) 555) 556) 557) 558) 559) 560) 561) 562) 563) 564) 565) 566)

A D B A D C C C A D B C D D A C C B D A B C D B A B C B D A C A D B A B D A C B C

567) 568) 569) 570) 571)

A A C C A

Student name:__________ 572)

_________ account for approximately 60% of the plasma proteins and are active in maintaining pH and the osmotic pressure of blood.

A) Fibrinogen B) Globulins C) Albumins D) Fibrin

573)

Males generally have higher RBC counts than females because_________.

A) males are more likely to have anemia B) males have a greater amount of muscle tissue and need extra oxygen carrying ability C) females only make red blood cells in their liver, while adults use both liver and red bone marrow D) females regularly lose blood through menstruation and males have more testosterone

574)

Worn-out red blood cells are removed from circulation by the_________ and_________.

A) liver; spleen B) spleen; kidneys C) liver; kidneys D) kidneys; thymus

575)

White blood cells are derived from cells called_________.

A) hemocytes B) hemocytoblasts C) megakaryoblasts D) erythroblasts

576)

The nutrient(s) required for the production of hemoglobin include_________.

A) iron B) folic acid C) vitamin D) All of the choices are correct.

577)

Within plasma, the transport of nonprotein nitrogen-containing substances is important for the_________.

A) removal of waste products B) maintenance of white blood cells C) maintenance of electrolytes D) regulation of osmosis

578)

A large majority of the proteins found in plasma are produced by the_________.

A) spleen B) liver C) kidneys D) lungs

579)

Polycythemia is a condition characterized by the excessive production of_________.

A) platelets B) leukocytes C) erythrocytes D) All of the choices are correct.

580)

The ion required for coagulation is_________.

A) B) C) D)

581)

The average healthy level hematocrit value in females is _________.

A) 42% B) 60% C) 54% D) 36%

582)

In a given volume of blood, about_________% is plasma and_________% is formed elements.

A) 45; 55 B) 50; 50 C) 55; 45 D) 60; 40

583)

Mature_________ are the most abundant formed elements.

A) erythrocytes B) platelets C) neutrophils D) lymphocytes

584)

A decrease in blood oxygen increases the release of_________ from kidneys and liver, and it stimulates the production of_________ by red bone marrow.

A) folic acid; leukocytes B) erythropoietin; erythrocytes C) erythropoietin; leukocytes D) folic acid; erythrocytes

585)

The hemoglobin within erythrocytes plays a major role in the transport of_________ by the blood.

A) carbon dioxide B) hydrogen ions C) hormones D) oxygen

586)

_________ are the formed elements that help provide a defense against disease organisms.

A) Leukocytes B) Platelets C) Erythrocytes D) Both leukocytes and erythrocytes

587)

Antibodies that attack pathogens are produced by_________.

A) neutrophils B) monocytes C) T lymphocytes D) B lymphocytes E) Plasma cells

588)

_________ release_________ in allergic reactions and when tissues are damaged.

A) Neutrophils; heparin B) Eosinophils; antibodies C) Basophils; histamine D) Monocytes; heparin

589)

_________ are leukocytes that migrate into tissues and become macrophages.

A) Neutrophils B) Basophils C) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes

590)

_________ are leukocytes that neutralize histamine and destroy parasitic worms.

A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes

591)

_________ form a temporary plug to stop bleeding in a broken blood vessel.

A) Neutrophils B) Platelets C) Monocytes D) Basophils

592)

The enzyme_________ converts fibrinogen into strands of_________, which form a blood clot.

A) thromboplastin; thrombin B) prothrombin activator; fibrin C) prostaglandin; prothrombin D) thrombin; fibrin

593)

Blood type AB possesses_________ on the plasma membrane of the erythrocytes.

A) A and B antigens B) anti-A and anti-B antibodies C) no blood typing antigens or antibodies D) None of the choices are correct.

594)

In a blood transfusion, one must consider the_________ of the donor and the_________ of the recipient.

A) antibodies; antigens B) antigens; antibodies C) antibodies; antibodies D) antigens; antigens

595)

A female with blood does not have anti-Rh antibodies unless_________.

A) she has had a previous blood transfusion of type specific blood B) her husband is C) she has had an child D) erythrocytes have previously been introduced into the blood

596)

The preferred blood type for transfusing to a person with blood type is_________, but when it is unavailable, blood type(s)_________ may be used.

A) ; B) ; C) ; D) ; ,

597)

The_________ are two organs that help detect low blood cell numbers and produce hormones to correct the imbalance.

A) liver and spleen B) red bone marrow and gall bladder C) kidneys and liver D) brainstem and heart

598)

Which of the following white blood cells is an agranulocyte?

A) Monocyte B) Basophil C) Neutrophil D) Eosinophil

599)

Which is the most common white blood cell?

A) Basophil B) Lymphocyte C) Monocyte D) Neutrophil

600)

The most abundant chemical in plasma is_________.

A) carbon dioxide B) globulins C) water D) albumin

601)

Platelets become sticky and adhere to each other when exposed to_________.

A) fibrinogen B) collagen in blood vessel wall C) positively charged endothelial cells D) heparin

602)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of clotting proteins?

A) Fibrin, thrombin, prothrombin, fibrinogen B) Fibrinogen, fibrin, prothrombin, thrombin C) Prothrombin, thrombin, prothrombin activator, fibrin D) Prothrombin, thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin

603)

The D antigen is also known as the_________ antigen.

A) Rh B) O C) B D) A

604)

A piece of a clot that moves from where it formed and can block another vessel elsewhere is called a(n)_________.

A) thrombus B) thrombocyte C) embolus D) embocyte

605)

The protein responsible for helping break down clots after they are no longer needed is_________.

A) albumin B) plasmin C) prothrombin activator D) hemoglobin

606)

When incompatible blood types are mixed, the clumping that occurs is termed_________.

A) agglutination B) hemolysis C) sickling D) erythroblastosis

607)

What antibodies are likely found in the blood plasma of a person with type A) Anti-B, Anti-Rh B) Anti-A, Anti-Rh C) Anti-B only D) Anti-A only

blood?

608)

A complete blood cell count that reveals an unusually high number of WBCs might indicate_________.

A) thrombocytopenia B) leukemia C) mononucleosis D) polycythemia

609)

610)

Which of the following formed elements has a typical count of 4,500-10,000 per μl?

A) Lymphocytes B) Platelets C) White blood cells D) Red blood cells

Hemoglobin is comprised of a protein called _________ and an iron-containing pigment called _________.

A) globin; heme B) heme; globin C) hematocrit; heme D) collagen; globin

611)

Agranulocytes are all derived from a_________.

A) hemocytes B) lymphoid stem cell C) myeloid stem cell D) erythroblasts

612)

Which of the following WBCs typically makes up 40–60% of all WBCs? A) Lymphocytes B) Monocytes C) Neutrophils D) Eosinophils

613)

Platelets are produced from cells called_________.

A) hemocytes B) lymphoid stem cell C) myeloid stem cell D) megakaryocytes

614)

There are about_________ platelets in one μl of blood.

A) 4,500–10,000 B) 4.2–5.4 million C) 20,000–100,000 D) 150,000–400,000

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 572) 573) 574) 575) 576) 577) 578) 579) 580) 581) 582) 583) 584) 585) 586) 587) 588) 589) 590) 591) 592) 593) 594) 595) 596) 597) 598) 599) 600) 601) 602) 603) 604) 605) 606) 607) 608)

C D A B D A B C D A C A B D A E C C A B D A B D C C A D C B D A C B A D B

609) 610) 611) 612) 613) 614)

C A B C D D

Student name:__________ 615)

The membranous covering of the heart is the _________, which includes a loosely fitting pericardial sac composed of an inner _________ and an outer _________.

A) epicardium; parietal layer of serous pericardium; fibrous pericardium B) endocardium; parietal layer of serous pericardium; epicardium C) epicardium; fibrous pericardium; parietal layer of serous pericardium D) pericardium; parietal layer of serous pericardium; fibrous pericardium

616)

The pericardial cavity is located between the _________ and the _________.

A) epicardium; parietal layer of serous pericardium B) endocardium; parietal layer of serous pericardium C) epicardium; fibrous pericardium D) fibrous pericardium; parietal layer of serous pericardium

617)

The visceral layer of serous pericardium is also known as _________.

A) epicardium B) endocardium C) fibrous pericardium D) endothelium

618)

The _________ receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) right ventricle

619)

The _________ receives blood from the superior venae cavae and the coronary sinus.

A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) right ventricle

620)

The _________ pumps blood into the aorta.

A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) right ventricle

621)

The _________ pumps blood into the pulmonary trunk.

A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) right ventricle

622)

The left ventricle pumps _________ blood through the _________ valve.

A) deoxygenated; aortic B) oxygenated; aortic C) deoxygenated; pulmonary D) oxygenated; pulmonary

623)

The right ventricle pumps _________ blood through the _________ valve.

A) deoxygenated; aortic B) oxygenated; aortic C) deoxygenated; pulmonary D) oxygenated; pulmonary

624)

The right atrium passes _________ blood through the _________ valve to the right ventricle.

A) deoxygenated; mitral B) oxygenated; mitral C) deoxygenated; tricuspid D) oxygenated; tricuspid

625)

The left atrium passes _________ blood through the _________ valve to the left ventricle.

A) deoxygenated; mitral B) oxygenated; mitral C) deoxygenated; tricuspid D) oxygenated; tricuspid

626)

The _________ valve prevents backflow of blood from the aorta into the _________ ventricle.

A) aortic; left B) aortic; right C) pulmonary; left D) pulmonary; right

627)

The _________ valve prevents backflow of blood from the pulmonary trunk into the _________ ventricle.

A) aortic; left B) aortic; right C) pulmonary; left D) pulmonary; right

628)

The mitral valve prevents backflow of blood from the _________ into the _________.

A) right ventricle; right atrium B) left ventricle; left atrium C) left atrium; left ventricle D) right atrium; right ventricle

629)

The tricuspid valve prevents backflow of blood from the _________ into the _________.

A) right ventricle; right atrium B) left ventricle; left atrium C) left atrium; left ventricle D) right atrium; right ventricle

630)

The _________ receive(s) blood from all of the cardiac veins.

A) coronary sinus B) superior vena cava C) inferior vena cava D) pulmonary veins

631)

Coronary sinus drains venous blood from the cardiac striated muscle into _________.

A) superior vena cava B) inferior vena cava C) right atrium D) left atrium

632)

The _________ receive(s) blood from _________ and supply(supplies) blood to the cardiac striated muscle.

A) coronary sinus; aorta B) coronary sinus; pulmonary arteries C) coronary arteries; pulmonary arteries D) coronary arteries; aorta

633)

The pulmonary circuit carries _________ blood from the _________ to the lungs and returns _________ blood to the _________.

A) oxygenated; right ventricle; deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; left ventricle; deoxygenated; right atrium C) deoxygenated; right ventricle; oxygenated; left atrium D) deoxygenated; left ventricle; oxygenated; right atrium

634)

The pulmonary arteries carry _________ blood to the _________.

A) oxygenated; lungs B) deoxygenated; lungs C) oxygenated; left atrium D) deoxygenated; right atrium

635)

The pulmonary veins carry _________ blood to the _________.

A) oxygenated; lungs B) deoxygenated; lungs C) oxygenated; left atrium D) deoxygenated; right atrium

636)

The systemic circuit carries _________ blood from the _________ to all parts of the body except the lungs and returns _________ blood to the _________.

A) oxygenated; right ventricle; deoxygenated; left atrium B) oxygenated; left ventricle; deoxygenated; right atrium C) deoxygenated; right ventricle; oxygenated; left atrium D) deoxygenated; left ventricle; oxygenated; right atrium

637)

The first heart sound (lub) results from the closing of the _________ valves in the beginning of _________.

A) semilunar; ventricular systole B) semilunar; ventricular diastole C) AV; ventricular systole D) AV; ventricular diastole

638)

The second heart sound (dup) results from the closing of the _________ valves in the beginning of _________.

A) semilunar; ventricular systole B) semilunar; ventricular diastole C) AV; ventricular systole D) AV; ventricular diastole

639)

The contraction phase of a cardiac cycle, known as _________, _________ blood pressure. The relaxation phase of a cardiac cycle, known as _________, _________ blood pressure.

A) systole; decreases; diastole; increases B) diastole; decreases; systole; increases C) systole; increases; diastole; decreases D) diastole; increases; systole; decreases

640)

When the right ventricle contracts, the _________.

A) right atrium always contracts simultaneously B) right atrium may contract or relax C) right atrium always relaxes simultaneously D) left atrium and left ventricle always relax simultaneously

641)

When the right atrium contracts, the _________.

A) right ventricle always contracts simultaneously B) left atrium always contracts simultaneously C) left atrium always relaxes simultaneously D) left atrium and left ventricle always relax simultaneously

642)

When _________, blood pressure within the ventricles increases, which causes the AV valves to close and the semilunar valves to open.

A) the atria contract and the ventricles relax B) the atria relax and the ventricles contract C) both the atria and the ventricles relax D) both the atria and the ventricles contract

643)

When _________, blood is forced into the ventricles.

A) the atria contract and the ventricles relax B) the atria relax and the ventricles contract C) both the atria and the ventricles relax D) both the atria and the ventricles contract

644)

When _________, blood flows passively into the atria and then passively into the ventricles.

A) the atria contract and the ventricles relax B) the atria relax and the ventricles contract C) both the atria and the ventricles relax D) both the atria and the ventricles contract

645)

The _________ is(are) referred to as the pacemaker of the heart.

A) AV node B) SA node C) subendocardiac conducting network D) AV bundle

646)

The ventricles receive action potentials from the _________.

A) AV node B) SA node C) subendocardiac conducting network D) bundle branches

647)

The atria receive the action potentials from the _________.

A) AV node B) SA node C) subendocardiac conducting network D) bundle branches

648)

Which of the following is the correct pathway of the electrical impulses of the conducting system of the heart?

A) AV node → SA node → AV bundle → AV branch → Subendocardiac conducting network B) SA node → AV node → AV bundle → AV branch → Subendocardiac conducting network C) SA node → AV node → AV branch → AV bundle → Subendocardiac conducting network D) SA node → AV bundle → AV node → AV branch → Subendocardiac conducting network

649)

The SA node is located in the _________.

A) right atrium near the junction with the interventricular septum B) left atrium near the junction with the interventricular septum C) right atrium at the junction of the superior vena cava D) right atrium near the junction with the interatrial septum

650)

The T wave of an ECG is produced by the _________.

A) depolarization of the atria B) repolarization of the atria C) depolarization of the ventricles D) repolarization of the ventricles

651)

The P wave of an ECG is produced by the _________.

A) depolarization of the atria B) repolarization of the atria C) depolarization of the ventricles D) repolarization of the ventricles

652)

The QRS complex of an ECG is produced by the _________.

A) depolarization of the atria B) repolarization of the atria C) depolarization of the ventricles D) repolarization of the ventricles

653)

The cardiac output is the _________.

A) volume of blood pumped from both ventricles per heartbeat B) volume of blood pumped from each ventricle per heartbeat C) volume of blood pumped from both ventricles in one minute D) volume of blood pumped from each ventricle in one minute

654)

The cardiac control center is located in the _________.

A) pons B) hypothalamus C) midbrain D) medulla oblongata

655)

The stroke volume is the _________.

A) volume of blood pumped from both ventricles per heartbeat B) volume of blood pumped from each ventricle per heartbeat C) volume of blood pumped from both ventricles in one minute D) volume of blood pumped from each ventricle in one minute

656)

The action potentials from the sympathetic neurons _________, while the action potentials from the parasympathetic neurons _________.

A) increase heart rate and contraction strength; decrease heart rate and contraction strength B) increase heart rate and contraction strength; decrease heart rate but do not affect heart contraction strength C) increase heart rate but do not affect heart contraction strength; decrease heart rate but do not affect heart contraction strength D) decrease heart contraction and contraction strength; increase heart rate and contraction strength

657)

<p>Reduced levels of blood _________.

A) increase both heart rate and contraction strength B) increase heart rate but do not affect heart contraction strength C) decrease both heart rate and contraction strength D) decrease heart rate but do not affect heart contraction strength

658)

<p>Excess levels of blood _________.

A) increase both heart rate and contraction strength B) increase heart rate but do not affect heart contraction strength C) decrease both heart rate and contraction strength D) decrease heart rate but do not affect heart contraction strength

659)

The tunica media is found in _________.

A) arteries only B) arteries and veins only C) arteries, veins, and capillaries D) veins only

660)

Valves are found in some _________.

A) arteries B) arteries and veins C) capillaries D) veins

661)

Arteries contain _________ than veins.

A) more smooth muscle and elastic connective tissue B) more smooth muscle and less elastic connective tissue C) less smooth muscle and more elastic connective tissue D) less smooth muscle and elastic connective tissue

662)

The wall of capillaries consists of _________.

A) an endothelium supported by a layer of areolar connective tissue B) tunica externa and an endothelium supported by a layer of areolar connective tissue C) tunica externa, tunica media, and an endothelium supported by a layer of areolar connective tissue D) a layer of smooth muscle and an endothelium supported by a layer of areolar connective tissue

663)

_________ play an important role in controlling blood flow and blood pressure.

A) Arteries B) Arteries and veins C) Capillaries D) Veins

664)

_________ contain nearly 60% of the total blood volume and are considered as storage areas for blood.

A) Arteries B) Arteries and veins C) Capillaries D) Veins

665)

Precapillary sphincters control the flow of blood from _________.

A) capillary network to venules B) arterioles to capillary network C) arteries to arterioles D) capillary network to arterioles

666)

Exchange of dissolved substances between the blood and the interstitial fluid occurs by _________.

A) diffusion B) diffusion and active transport C) diffusion and filtration D) filtration and active transport

667)

At the arteriolar end of a capillary, fluid moves _________.

A) out of the capillary into the interstitial fluid by osmosis B) out of the capillary into the interstitial fluid by filtration C) from the interstitial fluid into the capillary by osmosis D) from the interstitial fluid into the capillary by filtration

668)

At the venular end of a capillary, fluid moves _________.

A) out of the capillary into the interstitial fluid by osmosis B) out of the capillary into the interstitial fluid by filtration C) from the interstitial fluid into the capillary by osmosis D) from the interstitial fluid into the capillary by filtration

669)

All of the following mechanisms assist veins in returning blood to the heart EXCEPT _________.

A) contractions of skeletal muscles B) ventricular systole C) respiratory movements D) gravity E) venous valves

670)

The systolic blood pressure is the greatest systemic arterial blood pressure during _________.

A) atrial contraction B) atrial relaxation C) ventricular contraction D) ventricular relaxation

671)

The diastolic blood pressure is the lowest systemic arterial blood pressure during _________.

A) atrial contraction B) atrial relaxation C) ventricular contraction D) ventricular relaxation

672)

As arterioles constrict, peripheral resistance _________ and blood pressure _________ accordingly.

A) decreases; decreases B) increases; increases C) decreases; increases D) increases; decreases

673)

As a person's total length of the blood vessels increases, peripheral resistance _________, and the blood pressure _________ accordingly.

A) decreases; decreases B) increases; increases C) decreases; increases D) increases; decreases

674)

An increase in _________ action potential frequency results in a(n) _________ in blood pressure.

A) sympathetic; decrease B) sympathetic; increase C) parasympathetic; decrease D) parasympathetic; increase

675)

The viscera within the pelvis are drained through the_________ vein.

A) hepatic portal B) inferior mesenteric C) internal iliac D) external iliac

676)

In addition to the carotid arteries, the brain is also supplied with blood through the _________.

A) vertebral arteries B) thoracic aorta C) axillary arteries D) posterior intercostal arteries

677)

The artery carrying blood from the abdominal aorta to most of the small intestine is the _________.

A) celiac trunk B) superior mesenteric artery C) inferior mesenteric artery D) common iliac artery

678)

The artery carrying blood from the abdominal aorta to the distal part of the large intestine is the _________.

A) celiac trunk B) superior mesenteric artery C) inferior mesenteric artery D) common iliac artery

679)

The sequence of arteries supplying most of the blood to either knee is _________.

A) abdominal aorta → common iliac artery → external iliac artery → femoral artery → popliteal artery B) abdominal aorta → common iliac artery → internal iliac artery → femoral artery → popliteal artery C) abdominal aorta → internal iliac artery → deep femoral artery → anterior tibial artery → popliteal artery D) abdominal aorta → common iliac artery → deep femoral artery → anterior tibial artery → poplitea artery

680)

The sequence of veins draining most of the blood from either side of the brain is_________.

A) external jugular vein → common jugular vein → superior vena cava → right atrium B) external jugular vein → brachiocephalic vein → superior vena cava → right atrium C) internal jugular vein → superior vena cava → right atrium D) internal jugular vein → brachiocephalic vein → superior vena cava → right atrium

681)

682)

The sequence of veins returning blood from the stomach is_________.

A) gastric veins → liver → hepatic portal vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium B) gastric veins → hepatic vein → liver → inferior vena cava → right atrium C) gastric veins → hepatic portal vein → liver → hepatic vein → inferior vena cava → right atrium D) gastric veins → inferior vena cava → right atrium

The three branches off of the aorta that supply blood to the upper limbs and head are the _________.

A) right common carotid artery, right subclavian artery, and brachiocephalic trunk B) left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery, and brachiocephalic trunk C) brachiocephalic trunk, right subclavian artery, and left subclavian artery D) brachiocephalic trunk, right subclavian artery, and left common carotid artery

683)

The celiac trunk supplies blood to all of the following EXCEPT the _________.

A) small intestine B) stomach C) liver D) spleen

684)

_________ is hardening of arteries resulting from calcium deposits that accumulate in the tunica media of arterial walls.

A) Aneurysm B) Atherosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Phlebitis

685)

_________ is the formation of fatty deposits along the tunica intima of arterial walls.

A) Aneurysm B) Atherosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Phlebitis

686)

Myocardial infarction is usually caused by an obstruction of _________.

A) the aorta B) a pulmonary vein C) a coronary artery D) a cardiac vein

687)

_________ is a rapid heart rate in which the contractions are uncoordinated.

A) Bradycardia B) Tachycardia C) Heart flutter D) Fibrillation

688)

Which of the following is the driving force pushing blood out of the heart?

A) Contractions of skeletal muscles B) Ventricular systole.

C) Respiratory movements D) Gravity E) Venous valves

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 615) 616) 617) 618) 619) 620) 621) 622) 623) 624) 625) 626) 627) 628) 629) 630) 631) 632) 633) 634) 635) 636) 637) 638) 639) 640) 641) 642) 643) 644) 645) 646) 647) 648) 649) 650) 651)

D A A A C B D B C C B A D B A A C D C B C B C B C C B B A C B C B B C D A

652) 653) 654) 655) 656) 657) 658) 659) 660) 661) 662) 663) 664) 665) 666) 667) 668) 669) 670) 671) 672) 673) 674) 675) 676) 677) 678) 679) 680) 681) 682) 683) 684) 685) 686) 687) 688)

C D D B B C C B D A A A D B A B C B C D B B B C A B C A D C B A C B C D B

Student name:__________ 689)

The skin and mucous membranes can be considered as a_________, a part of innate immunity.

A) mechanical barrier B) cellular mechanism C) chemical mediator D) None of these choices are correct.

690)

During bacterial infections, the accumulation of dead cells, immune cells, and chemical mediators that form a thick whitish fluid is called_________.

A) inflammation B) serum C) pus D) detritus

691)

When inflamed, the_________ tonsils are also known as adenoids.

A) palatine B) pharyngeal C) lingual D) adrenal

692)

In adults, the largest lymphoid organ is/are the _________.

A) spleen B) tonsils C) thymus D) lymph nodes

693)

In children born without a thymus, which would be the most serious symptom?

A) A very low population of B lymphocytes.

B) A very low population of T lymphocytes.

C) Elephantiasis of the lower limbs.

D) Poor lymphatic return from the left arm.

694)

An innate, nonspecific defense against the action of viruses that cells infected with viruses can produce is _________.

A) lysozyme B) pepsin C) interferon D) interleukin

695)

The enzyme found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions that acts to destroy bacteria is_________.

A) an interferon B) a lysozyme C) an antibody D) All of these choices are correct.

696)

The first step in a B-cell's defense against a microorganism is to_________.

A) recognize the antigen B) bind to the antigen C) secret antibodies D) undergo mitosis

697)

T- helper cells act in immune pathways by_________.

A) processing antigens B) presenting antigens to other cells C) secreting cytokines D) All of these choices are correct.

698)

B cells that respond to the same antigen and are derived from a single cell are referred to as_________.

A) cytotoxic B) plasma cells C) clones D) antigen presenting cells

699)

There are_________ subtypes of T cells recognized to participate in the immune response.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 5

700)

The antibody primarily active in allergic responses and the activation of basophils is_________.

A) IgA B) IgM C) IgE D) IgD

701)

The antibody that acts as a receptor on the surface of B cell is_________.

A) IgA B) IgM C) IgE D) IgD

702)

The antibody active in agglutination or clumping of antigens is_________.

A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgD

703)

The antibody that is capable of crossing the placental barrier and is responsible for the Rh incompatibility between an Rh negative mother and an Rh positive fetus is_________.

A) IgA B) IgM C) IgG D) IgD

704)

The immunity that one receives from their mother both prenatal and postnatal is referred to as_________.

A) passive natural immunity B) passive artificial immunity C) active natural immunity D) active artificial immunity

705)

Materials moving between body cells and blood capillaries pass through the_________, which surrounds all tissue cells.

A) lymph B) interstitial fluid C) lymphatic capillaries D) None of these choices are correct.

706)

Excess interstitial fluid is collected and returned to the blood by the_________.

A) lymphoid system B) capillaries C) venules D) lymph nodes

707)

_________ in lymphatic vessels and trunks prevent the back flow of lymph.

A) Increased pressure B) Decreased pressure C) Valves D) Osmotic pressure

708)

_________ and respiratory movements move lymph upward through lymphatic vessels and trunks below the heart.

A) Heart contractions B) Movement of internal organs C) Osmotic pressure D) Skeletal muscle contractions

709)

Lymph from most of the body is returned to the blood in the_________ vein.

A) right subclavian B) right brachiocephalic C) left subclavian D) left brachiocephalic

710)

Lymph is filtered and cleansed by the _________ before it is returned to the blood.

A) spleen B) lymph nodes C) thymus D) tonsils

711)

Blood is filtered and cleansed, and erythrocytes are stored in the_________.

A) spleen B) lymph nodes C) thymus D) tonsils

712)

_________ are large phagocytic, pathogen-destroying cells in body tissues.

A) Macrophages B) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Plasma cells

713)

_________, a localized response to infection, attracts leukocytes to the affected tissues to destroy the pathogens.

A) Fever B) Lysozyme release C) Inflammation D) Phagocytosis

714)

Lymphocytes originate in_________ and, after maturation, move into_________ where they divide to produce large populations.

A) red bone marrow; the blood B) red bone marrow; lymphoid organs C) lymphoid organs; red bone marrow D) lymphoid organs; the blood

715)

_________ mature in the thymus gland and release chemicals to destroy pathogens or activate other immune cells.

A) Monocytes B) Neutrophils C) B lymphocytes D) T lymphocytes

716)

Only lymphocytes possessing_________ that can bind with the_________ on an invading pathogen are involved in the immune response against it.

A) receptors; antigens B) antigens; receptors C) receptors; antibodies D) antibodies; receptors

717)

An immune response begins when a_________ is activated by binding to both a foreign antigen and a self antigen on an antigen presenting cell's plasma membrane.

A) killer T lymphocyte B) B lymphocyte C) plasma cell D) helper T lymphocyte

718)

An activated_________ rapidly divides to form a clone of plasma cells, which produce antibodies and memory cells.

A) antigen presenting cell B) T lymphocyte C) B lymphocyte D) macrophage

719)

_________ results when a person receives a vaccine that triggers a primary immune response and leaves memory T and B lymphocytes to initiate an attack if the pathogen reenters the body.

A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired passive immunity D) Artificially acquired active immunity

720)

<p>What structure collects lymph from approximate A) Thoracic duct B) Thoracic trunk C) Cisterna chyli D) Right lymphatic duct

721)

How does vaccination work?

A) It is artificially acquired active immunity produced by exposure to altered antigens via medical treatment.

B) It is artificially acquired passive immunity produced by exposure to altered antigens via medical treatment.

C) It is artificially acquired active immunity produced by exposure to antigens in the environment.

D) It is artificially acquired passive immunity produced by exposure to antigens in the environment.

722)

What must be matched between donor and recipient in organ transplantation?

A) Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) B) Major histocompatibility complexes C) Antibodies D) DNA

723)

Disorders in which the lymphoid system attacks self antigens are called _________.

A) autoimmune diseases B) AIDS C) SCIDS D) lymphomas

of the body?</p>

724)

Which tonsils are located in the nasopharynx?

A) Palatine tonsil B) Pharyngeal tonsil C) Lingual tonsil D) Adrenal tonsil

725)

Which of the following does specific immunity have that nonspecific immunity does not have?

A) Memory B) Leukocytes C) Defensive mechanisms D) Antigen processing

726)

What can potentially attack a transplanted organ?

A) Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) B) Major histocompatibility complexes C) Antibodies D) DNA

727)

A cancer of the white blood cells is called _________.

A) autoimmune cancer B) AIDS C) SCIDS D) lymphoma

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 689) 690) 691) 692) 693) 694) 695) 696) 697) 698) 699) 700) 701) 702) 703) 704) 705) 706) 707) 708) 709) 710) 711) 712) 713) 714) 715) 716) 717) 718) 719) 720) 721) 722) 723) 724) 725)

A C B A B C B A D C B C D B C A B A C D C B A A C B D A D C D A A A A B A

726) 727)

C A

Student name:__________ 728)

From the nasal cavity, air passes, in sequence, through the_________ on the way to the lungs.

A) pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchi B) larynx, pharynx, trachea, and bronchi C) larynx, trachea, pharynx, and bronchi D) pharynx, trachea, larynx, and bronchi

729)

Chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata are not sensitive to _________.

A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) hydrogen ions D) oxygen and carbon dioxide

730)

The part of the respiratory system with the largest internal surface area is the_________.

A) visceral pleura B) bronchi C) pulmonary alveoli D) trachea

731)

The upper respiratory tract consists of the_________.

A) nose and oral cavity B) nose and pharynx C) nose, pharynx, and larynx D) nose, pharynx, larynx, and part of the trachea

732)

The divide between the nasal cavity and the oral cavity is formed by the _________.

A) nasal septum B) nasal conchae C) palate D) olfactory mucosa

733)

Paranasal sinuses can be found in all of these bones EXCEPT _________.

A) sphenoid B) palatine bone C) maxillae D) ethmoid

734)

Which of the following is NOT a function of paranasal sinuses?

A) They lighten the skull.

B) They contain olfactory receptors for the sense of smell.

C) They serve as sound-resonating chambers during speech.

D) They increase nasal cavity surface area.

735)

The_________ project from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity increasing its surface area.

A) nasal bones B) nasal conchae C) palatine tonsils D) palatine bones

736)

The surfactant secreted by special cells in pulmonary alveoli _________.

A) keeps pulmonary alveoli moist B) kills pathogens C) prevents pulmonary alveoli from collapsing D) traps the inhaled particles

737)

The auditory tubes open into the _________.

A) nasal cavity B) oral cavity C) pharynx D) larynx

738)

The auditory tubes _________.

A) contain the receptors for sensing sound waves B) aid in filtering the inhaled air C) aid in moistening the inhaled air D) help equalize the air pressure on each side of the tympanic membrane

739)

The pitch of a sound is determined by the vibration _________.

A) amplitude of vocal folds B) frequency of vocal folds C) amplitude of both vocal folds and vestibular folds D) frequency of both vocal folds and vestibular folds

740)

The glottis is the vocal folds and _________.

A) a cartilage in the larynx B) a cartilage in the pharynx C) the opening between the vocal folds D) the opening within the trachea

741)

The _________ projects anteriorly to form Adam's apple.

A) hyoid bone B) epiglottis C) cricoid cartilage D) thyroid cartilage

742)

The epiglottis _________.

A) prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavity B) prevents food and liquid from entering the pharynx C) prevents food and liquid from entering the larynx D) assists in the production of sound

743)

Each lung has only one _________.

A) bronchiole B) segmental bronchus C) main bronchus D) lobar bronchus

744)

The inhaled air enters each lung lobe through a _________.

A) bronchiole B) segmental bronchus C) main bronchus D) lobar bronchus

745)

_________ play an important role in regulating the airflow through the air passageways.

A) Bronchioles B) Alveolar ducts C) Trachea D) Lobar bronchi

746)

_________ lack(s) cartilage.

A) Bronchioles B) Segmental bonchi C) Trachea D) Lobar bronchi

747)

Microorganisms inhaled into the air passageways are most likely to be destroyed by _________.

A) toxins in respiratory mucus B) gastric juice in stomach C) the cilia whipping them to death D) macrophages in the bronchial tree

748)

Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the larynx?

A) Epiglottis B) Hyoid bone C) Thyroid cartilage D) Vestibular folds

749)

In humans, the right lung consists of_________ lobes while the left has_________ lobes.

A) two; three B) three; four C) three; two D) four; three

750)

Which of the following structures allow the exchange of gases between the inhaled air and the blood?

A) The pulmonary alveoli only B) The pulmonary alveoli and the alveolar ducts only C) The pulmonary alveoli and the bronchioles only D) The pulmonary alveoli, the bronchioles, and the alveolar ducts

751)

_________ and the smaller air passageways are not lined with ciliated mucosae and cannot effectively remove the inhaled particles.

A) The alveolar ducts B) The segmental bronchi C) The bronchioles D) The lobar bronchi

752)

Contraction of the diaphragm _________ intra-alveolar pressure resulting in _________.

A) increases; inspiration B) decreases; inspiration C) increases; expiration D) decreases; expiration

753)

Quiet inspiration requires the _________.

A) contraction of the diaphragm only B) contraction of the diaphragm and the internal intercostals only C) contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostals only D) relaxation of all the respiratory muscles

754)

Quiet expiration requires the _________.

A) contraction of the diaphragm only B) contraction of the diaphragm and the internal intercostals only C) contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostals only D) relaxation of all the respiratory muscles

755)

An increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity _________ the intra-alveolar pressure, which causes _________.

A) increases; inspiration B) decreases; inspiration C) decreases; expiration D) increases; expiration

756)

Forceful inspiration involves the contraction of _________.

A) neck and abdominal muscles B) neck and chest muscles C) internal intercostals and chest muscles D) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles

757)

Forceful expiration involves the contraction of _________.

A) neck and abdominal muscles B) neck and chest muscles C) internal intercostals and chest muscles D) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles

758)

The tidal volume is the volume of air _________.

A) inhaled during a quiet inspiration B) that can be forcefully inhaled after a tidal volume expiration C) that can be forcefully inhaled after a tidal volume inspiration D) that can be forcefully exhaled after a tidal volume expiration E) that can be forcefully exhaled after a tidal volume inspiration

759)

The inspiratory reserve volume is the volume of air _________.

A) inhaled during a quiet inspiration B) that can be forcefully inhaled after a tidal volume expiration C) that can be forcefully inhaled after a tidal volume inspiration D) that can be forcefully exhaled after a tidal volume expiration E) that can be forcefully exhaled after a tidal volume inspiration

760)

The expiratory reserve volume is the volume of air _________.

A) exhaled during a quiet expiration B) that can be forcefully inhaled after a tidal volume expiration C) that can be forcefully inhaled after a tidal volume inspiration D) that can be forcefully exhaled after a tidal volume expiration E) that can be forcefully exhaled after a tidal volume inspiration

761)

The _________ is the maximum volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a maximum forceful inspiration.

A) total lung capacity B) residual volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) vital capacity

762)

The _________ is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximum forceful expiration.

A) total lung capacity B) residual volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) vital capacity

763)

The _________ is responsible for controlling the normal rhythmic cycle of breathing.

A) pontine respiratory group B) dorsal respiratory group C) ventral respiratory group D) hypothalamus

764)

The respiratory centers are located in the _________.

A) pons and medulla oblongata B) hypothalamus and pons C) hypothalamus and medulla oblongata D) midbrain and medulla oblongata

765)

The _________ serves as a center for receiving and integrating sensory input and sending action potentials to another respiratory center to make necessary changes in the breathing pattern.

A) pontine respiratory group B) dorsal respiratory group C) ventral respiratory group D) hypothalamus

766)

The _________ receives input from higher brain centers and sends action potentials to the respiratory centers in the medulla oblongata to modify the breathing pattern.

A) pontine respiratory group B) dorsal respiratory group C) ventral respiratory group D) hypothalamus

767)

The chemoreceptors that send sensory input to the respiratory centers are found in the following locations except the _________.

A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) walls of external carotid arteries D) wall of aortic arch

768)

The rate and depth of breathing are affected by the following factors EXCEPT _________.

A) irritants in the respiratory tract B) changes of blood pH C) <p>an increase in blood concentration</p> D) an increase in body temperature

769)

<p>During systemic gas exchange, _________ from the _________ to the _________.

A) diffuses; interstitial fluid; blood B) diffuses; blood; interstitial fluid C) is moved by active transport; interstitial fluid; blood D) is moved by active transport; blood; interstitial fluid

770)

<p>Most of the in the blood is transported as _________.

A) carbaminohemoglobin B) <p>dissolved in the plasma</p> C) bicarbonate ions D) carbonic anhydrase

771)

<p>About 23% of the in the blood is transported as _________.

A) carbaminohemoglobin B) <p>dissolved in the plasma</p> C) bicarbonate ions D) carbonic anhydrase

772)

<p>Most of the in the blood is transported as _________.

A) oxyhemoglobin B) <p>dissolved in the plasma</p> C) bicarbonate ions D) carbonic anhydrase

773)

_________ results from an insufficient production of surfactant in the pulmonary alveoli, leading to alveolar collapse.

A) Pneumothorax B) Emphysema C) Infant respiratory distress syndrome D) Asthma

774)

_________ results from long-term exposure to airborne irritants; is characterized by a rupture of the pulmonary alveoli, forming large spaces in the lungs.

A) Pneumothorax B) Emphysema C) Infant respiratory distress syndrome D) Asthma

775)

_________ occurs due to a thoracic injury or surgery that allows air to enter the pleural cavity; it causes the affected lung to collapse and become nonfunctional.

A) Pneumothorax B) Emphysema C) Infant respiratory distress syndrome D) Asthma

776)

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in pulmonary alveoli and blood in capillaries occurs by_________.

A) filtration B) active transport C) diffusion D) osmosis

777)

Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to form_________.

A) bicarbonate and hydrogen ions B) carbaminohemoglobin C) carbonic acid D) bicarbonate ions

778)

What is the term for the exchange of gases between air in the pulmonary alveoli and alveolar capillaries?

A) Alveolar gas exchange B) Systemic gas exchange C) Aerobic respiration D) Gas transport E) Pulmonary ventilation

779)

What is the term for the exchange of gases between systemic capillaries and tissue cells?

A) Alveolar gas exchange B) Systemic gas exchange C) Aerobic respiration D) Gas transport E) Pulmonary ventilation

780)

What two processes combined are referred to as external respiration?

A) Breathing and alveolar gas exchange B) Systemic gas exchange and gas transport C) Systemic gas exchange and aerobic respiration D) Gas transport and pulmonary ventilation E) Pulmonary ventilation and systemic gas exchange

781)

What two processes combined are referred to as internal respiration?

A) Breathing and alveolar gas exchange B) Systemic gas exchange and gas transport C) Systemic gas exchange and aerobic respiration D) Gas transport and pulmonary ventilation E) Pulmonary ventilation and systemic gas exchange

782)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?

A) Exchanging gases B) pH regulation C) Nutrient absorption D) Detect odors E) Defensive mechanisms

783)

Which of the following refers to the function of the nasal cavity in respiration?

A) Exchanging gases B) pH regulation C) Nutrient absorption D) Detect odors E) Defensive mechanisms

Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 728) 729) 730) 731) 732) 733) 734) 735) 736) 737) 738) 739) 740) 741) 742) 743) 744) 745) 746) 747) 748) 749) 750) 751) 752) 753) 754) 755) 756) 757) 758) 759) 760) 761) 762) 763) 764)

A A C B C B B B C C D B C D C C D A A B B C A C B C D B B D A C D D B C A

765) 766) 767) 768) 769) 770) 771) 772) 773) 774) 775) 776) 777) 778) 779) 780) 781) 782) 783)

B A B C A C A A C B A C C A B A C C D

Student name:__________ 784)

The alimentary canal is approximately_________ feet long in an adult.

A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 29

785)

An organic compound that the body needs in minute amounts is a_________.

A) mineral B) vitamin C) nutrient D) calorie

786)

The folds in the mucosa and submucosa of the stomach which allow the lining of the stomach to stretch as the stomach fills with food are called_________.

A) gastric rugae B) villi C) microvilli D) All of these choices are correct.

787)

The hormone that stimulates the secretions of the stomach is_________.

A) secretin B) cholecystokinin C) gastrin D) pepsin

788)

_________ is secreted by stomach and is important for the absorption of Vitamin the_________.

A) Pepsin; small intestine B) Intrinsic factor; small intestine C) Intrinsic factor; large intestine D) Gastrin; large intestine

789)

Lipid-rich chyme entering the small intestine stimulates the secretion of_________, which stimulates the pancreas to secrete_________.

A) secretin; digestive enzymes B) gastrin; digestive enzymes C) gastrin; carbonates D) cholecystokinin; digestive enzymes

790)

The_________ part of the_________ division innervates the intestinal mucosa and stimulates the secretion of intestinal enzymes.

A) sympathetic; autonomic B) parasympathetic; autonomic C) somatic; peripheral D) peripheral; autonomic

in

791)

In addition to the secretion of bile, the liver is active in_________.

A) synthesizing blood proteins B) converting nutrients into usable forms C) detoxification D) All of these choices are correct.

792)

One of the nutrients important for the synthesis of DNA and RNA is_________.

A) folic acid B) riboflavin C) vitamin C D) biotin

793)

A nutrient that is required for the synthesis of fatty acids as well as playing a role in aerobic respiration is_________.

A) folic acid B) riboflavin C) vitamin C D) biotin

794)

One of the nutrients active in the synthesis of proteins and antibodies is_________.

A) biotin B) pantothenic acid C) D)

795)

The lipid-soluble vitamin required to prevent the oxidation of vitamin A and maintain plasma membranes is_________.

A) vitamin A B) vitamin C) vitamin D D) vitamin E

796)

The mineral required for healthy nerve function as well as ATP–ADP conversions is_________.

A) chlorine B) magnesium C) potassium D) sulfur

797)

The layers of the alimentary canal, from outside to inside, are the_________.

A) serosa, muscular layer, submucosa and mucosa B) serosa, muscular layer, mucosa and submucosa C) mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, and serosa D) mucosa, muscular layer, submucosa, and serosa

798)

There is a total of_________ deciduous teeth and_________ permanent teeth.

A) 24; 36 B) 20; 32 C) 22; 34 D) 20; 36

799)

The_________ glands secrete a saliva rich in salivary_________.

A) sublingual; mucus B) submandibular; water C) submaxillary; amylase D) parotid; amylase

800)

_________ catalyzes the digestion of starch and glycogen into maltose.

A) Salivary amylase B) Pepsin C) Lipase D) Maltase

801)

Gastric juice secretion is increased by_________ action potentials and the hormone_________, which is produced by the stomach.

A) sympathetic; gastrin B) sympathetic; secretin C) parasympathetic; gastrin D) parasympathetic; secretin

802)

The gastric enzyme_________ is secreted in inactive form and activated by the low pH of gastric juice.

A) rennin B) pepsin C) intrinsic factor D) trypsin

803)

Acid chyme entering the duodenum causes the intestinal mucosa to secrete the hormone_________, which stimulates the secretion of_________ that is rich in bicarbonate ions.

A) secretin; intestinal juice B) secretin; pancreatic juice C) cholecystokinin; pancreatic juice D) cholecystokinin; bile

804)

Bile, which emulsifies fats, is produced by the_________.

A) gallbladder B) pancreas C) small intestine D) liver

805)

Which of the following is NOT part of the alimentary canal?

A) Esophagus B) Pancreas C) Duodenum D) Rectum

806)

Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ to the digestive system?

A) Liver B) Teeth C) Duodenum D) Gallbladder

807)

The hollow space inside of the digestive tract is the_________.

A) lumen B) goblet C) peristaltic space D) mesentery

808)

_________ teeth are used to grasp and tear tough food morsels.

A) incisor B) premolar C) canine D) molar

809)

Teeth that are well suited to biting off food are the_________.

A) incisor teeth B) canine teeth C) premolar teeth D) molar teeth

810)

Much of the mucus in the mouth comes from the_________ gland under the tongue.

A) parotid B) submandibular C) sublingual D) subtastebud

811)

Why is chewing considered part of digestion?

A) The action of chewing rapidly hydrolyzes bonds between glucose molecules.

B) Grinding food into smaller pieces aids digestion by increasing surface area.

C) Food stays in the mouth long enough for glycogen to be broken down and absorbed.

D) Chewing is a form of mixing motion called segmentation.

812)

The region of the tooth where blood vessels and nerves are found is the_________.

A) dentin B) enamel C) root D) pulp cavity

813)

When swallowing, the_________ keeps food from entering the airway.

A) esophagus B) tongue C) epiglottis D) cardiac sphincter

814)

The most superior portion of the stomach is the_________.

A) cardia B) fundus C) body D) pyloric part

815)

Which of the following are found in chyme?

A) Hydrochloric acid B) Pepsin C) Partially digested food D) All of these are found in chyme.

816)

In addition to the typical secretions by the stomach, infants produce_________.

A) pepsin B) gastrin C) rennin D) intrinsic factor

817)

The pancreas is directly attached to the_________, into which it secretes pancreatic juice.

A) stomach B) duodenum C) cecum D) ileum

818)

The duodenum receives secretions from the _________.

A) liver and pancreas B) pancreas only C) liver only D) neither the pancreas nor the liver

819)

People who have had their gallbladder removed will most likely experience which digestive issue?

A) A decreased ability to digest nucleic acids.

B) A decreased ability to digest carbohydrates.

C) A decreased ability to digest lipids.

D) A decreased ability to digest proteins.

820)

Which of the following is NOT an intestinal enzyme?

A) Sucrase B) Pepsin C) Peptidase D) Lactase

821)

Blood traveling to the liver through the hepatic portal vein is_________ in nutrients and_________ in oxygen.

A) higher; higher B) lower; higher C) higher; lower D) lower; lower

822)

Why are lipids and lipid-soluble chemicals coated in protein during absorption?

A) Coating them in protein makes them easier to digest in the stomach.

B) Lipids and lipid-soluble chemicals are not soluble in the watery portion of plasma, but when encased in protein they are.

C) It is a natural function of bile.

D) None of the choices are correct.

823)

Both_________ and_________ catalyze the hydrolysis of proteins into peptides.

A) pepsin; peptidase B) trypsin; peptidase C) pepsin; rennin D) pepsin; trypsin

824)

The enzyme catalyzing the hydrolysis of triglycerides is_________.

A) trypsin B) lipase C) maltase D) lactase

825)

Carbohydrate digestion begins in the_________ and concludes in the_________.

A) mouth; large intestine B) mouth; small intestine C) stomach; large intestine D) small intestine; small intestine

826)

The end products of protein digestion are_________, which are absorbed into the_________ of the intestinal villi.

A) amino acids; capillaries B) monosaccharides; capillaries C) peptides; capillaries D) monoglycerides and fatty acids; lacteals

827)

The end products of lipid digestion are converted into_________ within epithelial cells and move into the_________ of intestinal villi.

A) triglycerides; capillaries B) small fatty acids; capillaries C) chylomicrons; lacteals D) monoglycerides and fatty acids; lacteals

828)

The primary function of the large intestine is the_________.

A) completion of digestion B) completion of digestion and nutrient absorption C) absorption of the end products of digestion D) absorption of water and certain minerals and vitamins

829)

_________ are primarily used as an energy source, but unused quantities are converted into_________ and stored.

A) Amino acids; triglycerides B) Monosaccharides; triglycerides C) Fatty acids; cholesterol D) Monosaccharides; disaccharides

830)

Which of the following is found in feces?

A) Mucus B) Undigested food residues C) Bacteria D) All of the choices are correct.

831)

A nutrient that the body cannot synthesize, but instead must be obtained from food, is said to be_________.

A) vitamins B) essential C) amino acids D) chylomicrons

832)

The only function of the _________ in the digestive process is to transport food.

A) esophagus B) stomach C) large intestine D) small intestine

833)

Which step of cellular respiration occurs within the cytosol?

A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid cycle C) Electron transport chain D) Hydrolysis

834)

Which of the following is an example of chemical digestion?

A) An enzyme hydrolyzes bonds between glucose molecules.

B) Grinding food into smaller pieces.

C) Churning food within the stomach.

D) Segmentation in the small intestine.

835)

What is the role of digestive enzymes?

A) Large, nonabsorbable nutrient molecules into small, absorbable ones.

B) To break down food into feces.

C) To assist chewing.

D) To catalyze reactions between nutrients.

836)

What organs serve as passageways during swallowing but are not involved in processes of mechanical nor chemical digestion?

A) Oral cavity and esophagus B) Oral cavity and pharynx C) Pharynx and esophagus D) Esophagus and stomach

837)

Which step of cellular respiration produces the most ATP? A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid cycle C) Electron transport chain D) Hydrolysis

838)

Which of the following is a disorder caused by crystallization inside the bile storage organ?

A) Gallstones B) IBS C) Periodontal disease D) Diarrhea

839)

Which of the following is a disorder in which feces contain too much water?

A) Constipation B) IBS C) Periodontal disease D) Diarrhea

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 784) 785) 786) 787) 788) 789) 790) 791) 792) 793) 794) 795) 796) 797) 798) 799) 800) 801) 802) 803) 804) 805) 806) 807) 808) 809) 810) 811) 812) 813) 814) 815) 816) 817) 818) 819) 820)

B B A C B D B D A D C D B A B D A C B B D B C A C A C B D C B D C B A C B

821) 822) 823) 824) 825) 826) 827) 828) 829) 830) 831) 832) 833) 834) 835) 836) 837) 838) 839)

C B D B B A C D B D B A A A A C C A D

Student name:__________ 840)

841)

In the _________, nutrients are actively reabsorbed.

A) proximal convoluted tubules B) nephron loops C) distal convoluted tubules D) collecting ducts

The nephrons that play an important role in maintaining water content of the blood are called _________ nephrons.

A) juxtaglomerular B) juxtamedullary C) cortical D) medullary

842)

As it leaves the glomerulus, blood in the efferent glomerular arteriole will next enter _________.

A) interlobar veins B) renal vein C) peritubular capillaries D) segmental veins

843)

Compared to plasma, glomerular filtrate should have _________.

A) a higher concentration of wastes B) the same concentration of wastes C) a lower concentration of wastes D) no wastes at all

844)

Water can be reabsorbed at all regions of the nephron except the _________.

A) ascending limb of nephron loop B) proximal convoluted tubule C) descending limb nephron loop D) distal convoluted tubule

Na+ is always reabsorbed in the_________ but is only reabsorbed in the_________ under hormonal influence.

A) ascending limb of nephron loop; distal convoluted tubule B) ascending limb of nephron loop; proximal convoluted tubule C) descending limb of nephron loop; ascending limb of nephron loop D) descending limb of nephron loop; distal convoluted tubule

845)

846)

Which of the following is the most abundant positively charged ions in extracellular fluids?

A) B) C) D)

847)

Which of the following would be abnormal to see in urine?

A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Urochrome D) Potassium

848)

The functional unit of the kidney is the_________.

A) glomerulus B) renal corpuscle C) renal tubule D) nephron

849)

Under normal conditions _________. would not appear in the glomerular filtrate.

A) uric acid B) creatinine C) protein D) glucose

850)

With a normal glomerular filtration rate, the entire volume of blood in the body will be filtered approximately every ______ minutes.

A) 25 B) 40 C) 60 D) 90

851)

Approximately 65% of tubular reabsorption occurs in the_________.

A) proximal convoluted tubule B) descending limb of the nephron loop C) ascending limb of the nephron loop D) distal convoluted tubule

During reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, most of the Cl− and HCO3− ions are moved by _________ mechanisms.

A) counter transport B) active transport C) passive transport D) osmotic

852)

853)

<p>During reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, most of the amino acids,

glucose, ions, ions, and mechanisms.

A) counter transport B) active transport C) passive transport D) osmotic

ions are removed from the tubular fluid by _________

854)

The primary function of the urinary system is to_________.

A) remove all metabolic wastes from body fluids B) reduce the volume of body fluids C) maintain the volume and composition of body fluids within normal limits D) maintain the balance of plasma and blood cells in blood

855)

A_________ carries urine from a kidney to the urinary bladder.

A) urethra B) ureter C) calyx D) renal papilla

856)

The superficial layer of a kidney is the _________, and it contains the _________.

A) renal cortex; renal corpuscles B) renal medulla; renal corpuscles C) renal medulla; renal tubules D) renal cortex; renal pyramids

857)

The deep layer of a kidney is the _________, and it contains the _________.

A) renal cortex; renal corpuscles B) renal medulla; renal corpuscles C) renal medulla; renal pyramids D) renal cortex; renal pyramids

858)

A nephron consists of the _________.

A) renal corpuscle and the renal tubule B) glomerulus and the renal tubule C) glomerulus, the renal tubule, and the collecting duct D) renal corpuscle, the renal tubule, and the collecting duct

859)

Renal tubule consists of the _________.

A) proximal convoluted tubule and the distal convoluted tubule B) proximal convoluted tubule, the distal convoluted tubule, and the nephron loop C) proximal convoluted tubule, the distal convoluted tubule, the nephron loop, and the collecting duct D) the glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, the distal convoluted tubule, the nephron loop, and the collecting duct

860)

The_________ is a capillary tuft that lies between an afferent arteriole and an efferent arteriole.

A) juxtaglomerular complex B) peritubular capillary C) renal corpuscle D) glomerulus

861)

Urine formation begins when_________ moves some of the water and solutes in blood from the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule.

A) filtration B) osmosis C) diffusion D) active transport

862)

The glomerular filtrate contains the same substances as blood plasma except it lacks _________.

A) glucose B) urea C) proteins D) bicarbonate ions

863)

When the _________ detects a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate it secretes _________ to start the renin-angiotensin mechanism.

A) pituitary gland; ADH B) lungs; angiotensinogen C) juxtaglomerular complex; angiotensin converting enzyme D) juxtaglomerular complex; renin

864)

Angiotensin II raises systemic blood pressure by triggering mechanisms that_________.

A) reduce glomerular filtration rate B) constrict systemic arterioles and increase water retention C) constrict systemic arterioles and increase water excretion D) dilate systemic arterioles and increase glomerular filtration rate

865)

The removal of amine groups from amino acids results in the formation of _________.

A) creatinine B) uric acid C) urea D) ammonia

866)

_________ is a waste product of nucleic acids.

A) Creatinine B) Uric acid C) Urea D) Ammonia

867)

_________ is a waste product of muscle metabolism.

A) Creatinine B) Uric acid C) Urea D) Ammonia

868)

Gout is caused by an abnormally elevated concentration of _________ in the blood.

A) creatinine B) uric acid C) urea D) ammonia

869)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system?

A) It is involved in the production of red blood cells.

B) It is involved in the production of white blood cells.

C) <p>It is involved in regulating blood concentration of D) It is involved in the regulation of blood pressure.

870)

871)

. </p>

The pathway of urine is _________.

A) nephrons → collecting ducts → minor calyces → major calyces → renal pelvis → ureter B) nephrons → collecting ducts → major calyces → minor calyces → renal pelvis → ureter C) nephrons → collecting ducts → renal pelvis → major calyces → minor calyces → ureter D) nephrons → renal pelvis → collecting ducts → major calyces → minor calyces → ureter

The proximal convoluted tubules and the distal convoluted tubules are surrounded by the _________.

A) vasa recta B) peritubular capillaries C) efferent glomerular arterioles D) segmental arteries

872)

The nephron loops and the collecting ducts are surrounded by the _________.

A) vasa recta B) peritubular capillaries C) efferent glomerular arterioles D) segmental arteries

873)

In the process of tubular secretion, _________ are moved from the _________ to the _________.

A) nutrients; tubular fluid; blood B) nutrients; blood; tubular fluid C) unwanted substances; tubular fluid; blood D) unwanted substances; blood; tubular fluid

874)

In the process of tubular reabsorption, _________ are moved from the _________ to the _________.

A) nutrients; tubular fluid; blood B) nutrients; blood; tubular fluid C) unwanted substances; tubular fluid; blood D) unwanted substances; blood; tubular fluid

875)

Tubular secretion of H+ for regulating blood pH takes place in the _________.

A) proximal convoluted tubules B) nephron loops C) distal convoluted tubules D) proximal and distal convoluted tubules

876)

ADH stimulates the water reabsorption by the _________.

A) proximal convoluted tubules B) nephron loops C) distal convoluted tubules D) proximal and distal convoluted tubules

877)

<p>Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of A) proximal convoluted tubules B) nephron loops C) distal convoluted tubules D) proximal and distal convoluted tubules

878)

Which of the following is the function of the collecting ducts?

A) Reabsorption of nutrients B) Secretion of wastes C) <p>Secretion of under the influence of aldosterone</p> D) Reabsorption of water under the influence of ADH

879)

The most abundant nitrogenous waste in urine is _________.

A) creatinine B) uric acid C) urea D) ammonia

880)

The color of urine is due to the presence of _________.

A) creatinine B) uric acid C) urea D) urochrome

881)

The normal pH of urine _________.

A) is always alkaline B) is always acidic C) is always neutral D) ranges from acidic to alkaline

and secretion of

by the _________.

882)

_________ increases the glomerular filtration rate.

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Atrial natriuretic peptide C) Aldosterone D) Angiotensin II

883)

_________ decreases the glomerular filtration rate.

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) The sympathetic division C) Aldosterone D) Angiotensin II

884)

_________ stimulates thirst.

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Atrial natriuretic peptide C) Aldosterone D) Angiotensin II

885)

Renin converts _________.

A) angiotensinogen to angiotensin I B) angiotensin I to angiotensin II C) angiotensin II to angiotensinogen D) angiotensinogen to angiotensin II

886)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts _________.

A) angiotensinogen to angiotensin I B) angiotensin I to angiotensin II C) angiotensin II to angiotensinogen D) angiotensinogen to angiotensin II

887)

Action potentials from sympathetic neurons _________ glomerular filtration rate by causing _________.

A) decrease; constriction of afferent glomerular arterioles B) decrease; constriction of efferent glomerular arterioles C) increase; dilation of afferent glomerular arterioles D) increase; dilation of efferent glomerular arterioles

888)

The detrusor is the _________ the urinary bladder.

A) mucosa of B) smooth muscle of C) external layer of D) opening at the junction between the ureter and

889)

The internal urethral sphincter is the _________ located at the _________ in males.

A) smooth muscle; distal end of the urethra B) skeletal muscle; distal end of the urethra C) smooth muscle; junction of the urinary bladder and the urethra D) skeletal muscle; junction of the urinary bladder and the urethra

890)

The external urethral sphincter is the _________ located at the _________.

A) smooth muscle; proximal to bladder B) smooth muscle; junction of the urinary bladder and the urethra C) skeletal muscle; junction of the urinary bladder and the urethra D) skeletal muscle; exit of the pelvic cavity

891)

When the voluntarily controlled _________ urethral sphincter is _________, micturition occurs.

A) internal; relaxed B) internal; not relaxed C) external; relaxed D) external; not relaxed

892)

When the urinary bladder is filled with 200–400 ml of urine, micturition reflex sends _________ action potentials to cause the _________ urethral sphincter to open (relax).

A) sympathetic; external B) sympathetic; internal C) parasympathetic; external D) parasympathetic; internal

893)

The intake of water is largely regulated by the thirst center located in the _________.

A) midbrain B) pons C) medulla oblongata D) hypothalamus

894)

The thirst center can be activated by _________.

A) ADH B) ANP C) angiotensin II D) aldosterone

895)

The concentration of water in the blood is regulated by controlling the amount of water lost in _________.

A) urine only B) urine and sweat C) urine and feces D) urine, sweat, and feces

896)

Atrial natriuretic peptide _________ in kidneys.

A) <p>stimulates the reabsoprtion of and the secretion of B) <p>stimulates the reabsoprtion of and the secretion of C) <p>inhibits the reabsoprtion of D) <p>stimulates the reabsoprtion of

897)

Proteins are able to act as buffers because their -COOH groups can _________, and their groups can _________.

A) <p>release when pH is elevated; bind when pH is decreased</p> B) <p>bind when pH is decreased; release when pH is elevated</p> C) <p>release when pH is decreased; bind when pH is elevated</p> D) <p>bind or release when pH is decreased or elevated; bind or release when pH is decreased or elevated</p>

898)

An increase in the rate and depth of breathing causes a(n) _________ in blood concentration and a(n) _________ in blood pH. A) increase; increase B) increase; decrease C) decrease; increase D) decrease; decrease

899)

_________ is a bacterial infection of renal pelvis.

A) Cystitis B) Pyelitis C) Diuresis D) Urethritis

900)

Renal calculi are composed of all of the following EXCEPT _________.

A) uric acid B) urea C) calcium salts D) magnesium salts

901)

A_________ is the last structure urine passes through before urine exits the body.

A) urethra B) ureter C) calyx D) renal papilla

Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 840) 841) 842) 843) 844) 845) 846) 847) 848) 849) 850) 851) 852) 853) 854) 855) 856) 857) 858) 859) 860) 861) 862) 863) 864) 865) 866) 867) 868) 869) 870) 871) 872) 873) 874) 875) 876)

A B C B A A C A D C B A C B C B A C A C D A C D B C B A B B A B A D A D C

877) 878) 879) 880) 881) 882) 883) 884) 885) 886) 887) 888) 889) 890) 891) 892) 893) 894) 895) 896) 897) 898) 899) 900) 901)

C D C D D D B D A B A B C D C D D C A C A C B B A

Student name:__________ 902)

The process of cellular division that leads to the daughter cells containing half the genetic material as the original cell is_________.

A) cloning B) mitosis C) meiosis D) None of these choices are correct.

903)

The life stage at which the reproductive organs become capable_________.

A) is birth B) is puberty C) is menopause D) varies between males and females

904)

The secretions of the seminal vesicles aid in reproduction by_________.

A) regulating pH B) lubricating the end of the penis C) activating the "swimming" movements of sperm D) regulating pH and activating the "swimming" movements of sperm

905)

The secretions of the prostate aid in reproduction by_________.

A) regulating pH B) providing transient clotting C) activating the "swimming" movements of sperm D) regulating pH and activating the "swimming" movements of sperm

906)

The end result of spermatogenesis is_________.

A) 1 oocyte and 2 polar bodies B) 3 sperm and 1 polar body C) 4 sperm D) 4 ovum cells

907)

The penis contains_________ columns of erectile tissue that become functional when blood vessels_________.

A) 2; dilate B) 3; dilate C) 2; constrict D) 3; constrict

908)

In the female reproductive system, a(n)_________ is formed due to unequal distribution of the cytoplasm during meiosis.

A) oocyte B) primordial follicle C) polar body D) None of these choices are correct.

909)

The_________ is the muscular layer of the uterus.

A) epimetrium B) endometrium C) myometrium D) perimetrium

910)

The processes of the uterine tubes that sweep the surface of the ovary are the_________.

A) fimbriae B) oviducts C) infundibulum D) None of these choices are correct.

911)

Ovulation is stimulated by a surge of_________.

A) progesterone B) estrogen C) FSH D) LH

912)

_________ stimulates the maturation of the mammary glands so that they can produce milk.

A) Progesterone B) Estrogen C) FSH D) LH

913)

The_________ glands are the functional portion of the mammary glands which produce milk due to stimulation by the hormone_________.

A) lactiferous; oxytocin B) alveolar; oxytocin C) alveolar; prolactin D) lactiferous; prolactin

914)

The effectiveness of birth control methods are measured based upon the percentage of women who do not become pregnant during what period of time?

A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 1 year

915)

Vasectomy and tubal ligation are examples of the_________ method of birth control.

A) barrier B) behavioral C) sterilization D) anti-implantation

916)

The bacteria Treponema pallidum causes_________, a sexually transmitted disease.

A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) genital herpes D) genital warts

917)

Each lobule of a testis contains several highly coiled_________, which produce sperm.

A) seminiferous tubules B) testicular septa C) interstitial tubules D) epididymal tubules

918)

Each spermatogonium divides by_________ to form another spermatogonium and a_________.

A) meiosis; primary spermatocyte B) mitosis; primary spermatocyte C) mitosis; primary spermatogonium D) meiosis; primary spermatogonium

919)

Each _________ that begins meiosis divides into four spermatids, each with 23 chromosomes.

A) primary spermatogonium B) primary spermatocyte C) secondary spermatogonium D) secondary spermatocyte

920)

Sperm mature while slowly moving through the _________.

A) seminiferous tubule B) vas deferens C) epididymis D) ejaculatory duct

921)

Sperm are activated by the secretion from the _________, a doughnut-shaped gland encircling the base of the urethra.

A) seminal vesicle B) bulbourethral gland C) prostate gland D) epididymis

922)

The production of sperm cells is stimulated by the combination of_________ from the pituitary gland and testosterone from_________ in the testes.

A) GnRH; interstitial cells B) luteinizing hormone; interstitial cells C) follicle stimulating hormone; seminiferous tubules D) follicle stimulating hormone; interstitial cells

923)

Male secondary sexual characteristics are produced by_________.

A) FSH B) LH C) GnRH D) testosterone

924)

A female's lifetime supply of_________ is present in her ovaries at birth.

A) secondary follicles B) primary oocytes C) secondary oocytes D) polar bodies

925)

In_________, a primary oocyte divides to form a polar body and a secondary oocyte.

A) mitosis B) meiosis I C) meiosis II D) ovulation

926)

At ovulation, a_________ is released from an ovary and carried by a uterine tube towards the uterus.

A) mature egg cell B) primary oocyte C) secondary follicle D) secondary oocyte

927)

928)

The_________ is the portion of the uterus that protrudes into the vagina.

A) body B) infundibulum C) cervix D) clitoris

After ovulation, the empty follicle becomes a_________ and secretes progesterone under stimulation by_________.

A) corpus luteum; luteinizing hormone B) corpus luteum; follicle stimulating hormone C) secondary follicle; luteinizing hormone D) secondary follicle; follicle stimulating hormone

929)

After ovulation, the high level of_________ inhibits the release of GnRH by the hypothalamus.

A) FSH B) LH C) estrogen D) progesterone

930)

_________ and_________ stimulate the build-up of the endometrium to receive an early embryo.

A) FSH; LH B) Estrogen; progesterone C) LH; progesterone D) FSH; estrogen

931)

Hormonal methods of birth control disrupt the normal regulation of ovarian cycles to prevent_________.

A) ovulation B) cilia in uterine tubes from transporting an oocyte C) sperm from entering uterine tubes D) orgasm

932)

Sperm lack a(n)_________.

A) flagellum B) endoplasmic reticulum C) nucleus D) mitochondria

933)

Which of the following is the correct pathway for sperm to travel out of the body?

A) Epididymis --> urethra --> vas deferens --> ejaculatory duct B) Ejaculatory duct --> epididymis --> vas deferens --> urethra C) Epididymis --> vas deferens --> ejaculatory duct --> urethra D) Urethra --> vas deferens --> epididymis --> ejaculatory duct

934)

Alkaline secretions are made by which male accessory gland(s)?

A) Prostate B) Bulbourethral glands C) Seminal vesicle D) All of the glands produce alkaline secretions.

935)

Testosterone is produced by the_________, under influence of the hormone_________.

A) interstitial cells; LH B) interstitial cells; testosterone C) spermatogonia; LH D) spermatogonia; FSH

936)

At ovulation, a/an_________ is released by the ovary.

A) primordial follicle B) primary oocyte C) secondary oocyte D) ovum

937)

The corpus luteum serves which role?

A) It receives 23 chromosomes during meiosis.

B) It produces progesterone to prepare the uterus.

C) It produces FSH to encourage maturation of follicles.

D) It provides stimulation for the female sexual response.

938)

When does luteinizing hormone peak in females?

A) While a follicle is maturing.

B) While a follicle is in the process of ovulating.

C) When the corpus luteum is secreting progesterone.

D) While menstruation occurs.

939)

In females, follicle stimulating hormone will be increasing when _________.

A) a follicle is maturing B) a follicle is in the process of ovulating C) the corpus luteum is secreting progesterone D) menstruation occurs

940)

Treating menstruation as day 1, on which day should ovulation occur?

A) 1 B) 7 C) 14 D) 21

941)

The testes and ovaries are called the_________.

A) gonads B) gametes C) sperm D) ovum

942)

The scientific name for the sex cells is_________.

A) gonads B) gametes C) follicular cells D) sustentacular cells

943)

Which gland(s) contributes the greatest volume of fluid to the semen?

A) Seminal vesicles B) Prostate C) Bulbo-urethal glands D) Testes

944)

Which gland(s) contributes the least volume of fluid to the semen?

A) Seminal vesicles B) Prostate C) Bulbo-urethal glands D) Testes

945)

The penis becomes erect due to action potentials from the_________ part of the nervous system.

A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) autonomic

946)

Which hormone starts puberty?

A) GnRH B) FSH C) LH D) Testosterone

947)

Which hormone is primarily responsible for secondary sexual characteristics in males?

A) GnRH B) FSH C) LH D) Testosterone

948)

The erectile tissues of the female become engorged with blood due to action potentials from the_________ part of the nervous system.

A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) autonomic

949)

Orgasm is initiated by action potentials from the_________ part of the nervous system.

A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) autonomic

950)

The virus HPV causes what sexually transmitted disease?

A) Gonorrhea B) Genital warts C) Genital herpes D) Chlamydia

Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 902) 903) 904) 905) 906) 907) 908) 909) 910) 911) 912) 913) 914) 915) 916) 917) 918) 919) 920) 921) 922) 923) 924) 925) 926) 927) 928) 929) 930) 931) 932) 933) 934) 935) 936) 937) 938)

C B A D C B C C A D A C D C B A B B C C D D B B D C A D B A B C D A C B B

939) 940) 941) 942) 943) 944) 945) 946) 947) 948) 949) 950)

D C A B A D B A D B A B

Student name:__________ 951)

A secondary oocyte remains viable for about _________ hours, while most sperm remain viable in the female reproductive tract for about _________ hours.

A) 24; 24 B) 24; 48 C) 24; 72 D) 48; 72

952)

The sperm pronucleus and ovum pronucleus unite in fertilization to form a(n) _________, the first cell of the infant-to-be.

A) embryo B) morula C) zygote D) blastocyte

953)

Once a sperm enters a secondary oocyte, _________.

A) mitotic division of the oocyte is triggered B) meiosis I of the oocyte is triggered C) meiosis II of the oocyte is triggered D) other sperm quickly follow into the oocyte

954)

Fertilization usually occurs in the _________.

A) vagina B) uterus C) uterine tube D) ovary

955)

The _________ attaches to the endometrium on about the A) embryo B) morula C) zygote D) blastocyst

956)

Implantation is completed by the _________ day of development.

day of development.</p>

A) B) C) D)

957)

During the process of implantation, the enzymes released from the _________ enable the blastocysts to penetrate the endometrium.

A) placenta B) trophoblast C) acrosomes of sperm D) uterus

958)

The_________ is the stage at which a pre-embryo consists of a solid mass of cells that enters the uterus.

A) trophoblast B) zygote C) blastocyst D) morula

959)

The embryonic stage of development is completed by the _________ week after fertilization.

A) B) C) D)

960)

Embryonic development begins at the start of the _________ week after fertilization.

A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

961)

During embryonic development, the following major events occur except the formation of the _________.

A) germ layers B) extraembryonic membranes C) placenta D) embryoblast

962)

The nervous system is formed from the _________.

A) ectoderm B) mesoderm C) mesenchyme D) endoderm

963)

The _________ is responsible for forming the digestive tract and urinary tract.

A) ectoderm B) mesoderm C) mesenchyme D) endoderm

964)

The _________ develop(s) into the germ layers during the embryonic development.

A) granulosa cells B) embryoblast C) mesenchyme D) trophoblast

965)

The _________ develop(s) into the chorion during the embryonic development.

A) granulosa cells B) embryoblast C) mesenchyme D) trophoblast

966)

The extraembryonic membranes include the following structures EXCEPT the _________.

A) amnion B) chorion C) yolk sac D) embryonic disc E) allantois

967)

The _________ becomes part of the umbilical cord, produces formed elements of blood, and brings umbilical blood vessels to the placenta.

A) amnion B) chorion C) yolk sac D) allantois

968)

The _________ becomes part of the umbilical cord, serves as a shock absorber for the embryo, and produces formed elements of blood and germ cells for the embryo.

A) amnion B) chorion C) yolk sac D) allantois

969)

The placenta is formed of the following structures EXCEPT the _________.

A) chorionic villi B) chorion C) endometrium D) allantois

970)

The placenta serves as an interface between the embryonic and maternal bloods for the exchange of the following substances EXCEPT _________.

A) hormones B) antibodies C) white blood cells D) wastes

971)

During the _________ weeks of development, the eyes and ears reach their final positions and a heartbeat may be detected with a stethoscope.

972)

973)

A)

through

B)

through

C)

through

D)

through

During the _________ weeks of development, the ossification of bones begins.

A)

through

B)

through

C)

through

D)

through

The corpus luteum continues to secrete estrogens and progesterone in early pregnancy due to stimulation by _________.

A) LH B) GnRH C) FSH D) hCG

974)

By about 12 weeks of development, the _________ take(s) over the role of secreting estrogens and progesterone to maintain the uterine lining.

A) ovaries B) placenta C) uterus D) fetus

975)

Pregnancy test detects the presence of _________ in a woman's blood or urine.

A) relaxin B) progesterone C) hCG D) LH

976)

Pressure of the baby's head against the_________ stimulates the secretion of_________, which in turn strengthens and increases the rate of uterine contractions. The intensified contractions lead to even more pressure on the cervix.

A) body of the uterus; oxytocin B) cervix; relaxin C) placenta; estrogens D) cervix; oxytocin

977)

Labor begins when the increasing concentration of _________, which stimulate(s) uterine contractions, reaches a point that overrides the effect of _________, which inhibit(s) uterine contractions.

A) relaxin; estrogens B) relaxin; progesterone C) estrogens; progesterone D) progesterone; estrogens

978)

Most of the blood returning to the right atrium of the fetal heart_________.

A) flows into the right ventricle B) passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium C) passes directly through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta D) is pumped to the lungs

979)

Most of the blood in the right ventricle of the fetal heart _________.

A) flows into the right ventricle B) passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium C) passes directly through the ductus arteriosus into the aortic arch D) is pumped to the lungs

980)

In fetal circulation, the highest concentration of oxygen can be found in the blood within the _________.

A) umbilical vein B) umbilical arteries C) aorta D) ductus arteriosus

981)

After the infant is born, the ductus arteriosus becomes the _________.

A) fossa ovalis B) ligamentum venosum C) ligamentum arteriosum D) round ligament

982)

After the infant is born, the umbilical vein becomes the _________.

A) fossa ovalis B) ligamentum venosum C) ligamentum arteriosum D) round ligament

983)

Because hormones take a few days to show their effects, the initial milk (colostrum) contains higher concentrations of _________ and essentially no _________.

A) protein; fat B) fat; protein C) lactose; fat D) lactose; protein

984)

During pregnancy, _________ interfere with the activity of prolactin so milk secretion does not occur.

A) high blood levels of estrogens and progesterone B) high blood level of hCG C) low blood level inhibin D) high blood level of relaxin

985)

High blood pressure and proteinuria in a pregnant woman are indicators of _________.

A) morning sickness B) ectopic pregnancy C) preeclampsia D) miscarriage

986)

Suckling by an infant triggers a positive-feedback mechanism that maintains lactation by stimulating the _________.

A) hypothalamus to secrete prolactin-releasing hormone B) anterior lobe of the pituitary to secrete prolactin C) posterior lobe of the pituitary to release oxytocin D) contraction of the milk ducts

987)

988)

Which of the following is the healthy genotype of a female?

A) 1 X chromosome, 1 Y chromosome, and 44 autosomes B) 2 X chromosomes and 44 autosomes C) 2 X chromosomes and 21 autosomes D) 4 X chromosomes and 42 autosomes

An example of a genotype would be_________, and an example of a phenotype would be_________.

A) Ff; having freckles B) having freckles; Ff C) genes; alleles D) Ff; ff

989)

If a woman who is a carrier for red-green colorblindness has children with a full color vision man, what are possible outcomes for their children?

A) Red-green colorblind daughters and sons.

B) Red-green colorblind sons, full color vision sons and full color vision daughters.

C) Red-green colorblind daughters, full color vision daughters and full color vision sons.

D) Full color vision daughters and sons.

990)

If a woman who is heterozygous for freckles (Ff) has children with a man who is homozygous for freckles (FF), what are predicted genotypes of their children?

A) FF, Ff, ff</p> B) FF, Ff</p> C) FF, Ff</p> D) FF, ff</p>

991)

A male inherits X-linked traits from_________.

A) only the sperm B) only the ovum C) either the sperm or the ovum D) both the sperm and the ovum

992)

Genetic disorders like Down syndrome are caused by_________.

A) a recessive allele, that if passed on by both parents, causes disease B) genes on the X-chromosome; females express this less often than males C) errors in meiosis that cause a gamete to receive an extra chromosome D) a dominant allele, that if passed on by one or both parents, causes disease

993)

Which of the following is a X-linked genetic disorder?

A) Huntington disease B) Cystic fibrosis C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Hemophilia A

994)

_________ is a genetic disorder that results from one or more missing enzymes needed in cellular respiration.

A) Huntington disease B) Cystic fibrosis C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Hemophilia A

995)

The loss of a pregnancy spontaneously is called a(n) _________.

A) morning sickness B) ectopic pregnancy C) preeclampsia D) miscarriage

Answer Key Test name: chapter 18 951) 952) 953) 954) 955) 956) 957) 958) 959) 960) 961) 962) 963) 964) 965) 966) 967) 968) 969) 970) 971) 972) 973) 974) 975) 976) 977) 978) 979) 980) 981) 982) 983) 984) 985) 986) 987)

C C C C D C B D B C D A D B D D D C D C B A D B C D C B C A C D A A C C B

988) 989) 990) 991) 992) 993) 994) 995)

A B B B C D A D