Test Bank For Environmental Geology 5th Edition By James Reichard Chapter 1-16

Student name:__________ 1)

Which of the following best describes Uranus?

A) gas giant planet B) supernova C) terrestrial planet D) coronal body E) asteroid

2) In addition to Earth, which other planet has relatively few impact craters due to weathering and erosion processes on the surface?

A) Venus B) Earth is the only planet where weathering and erosion have occurred, erasing evidence of impacts.

C) Mars D) Mercury

3) Which of the following best describes what happened to the dinosaurs about 65 million years ago?

A) A large asteroid impact resulted in global climatic change and the death of the dinosaurs.

B) A large solar flare quickly raised Earth’s temperature to the point where dinosaurs couldn’t survive.

C) A massive volcanic eruption resulted in global cooling, which killed the dinosaurs.

D) The extinction of the dinosaurs 65 million years ago remains a great mystery to scientists.

E) More intelligent mammals began to evolve and competed for limited food resources, ultimately causing dinosaurs to go extinct

4)

What is the primary nuclear reaction that takes place within the sun?

A) Fusion B) Fission C) Radiation D) Nucleation E) Solar wind

5)

Which statement best describes the four outer planets in our solar system?

A) They are large and made of gas.

B) They are large and made of rock.

C) They orbit the Sun much more quickly than the inner planets.

D) They are all the same in size, type of atmosphere, and density.

E) They all have plate tectonics similar to the Earth.

6)

The four inner planets are collectively referred to as what?

A) Terrestrial Planets B) Jovian Planets C) Mercurian Planets D) Venetian Planets E) Habitable Planets

7)

What is the name of the hypothesis proposed for the formation of the solar system?

A) Nebular hypothesis B) Heliocentric hypothesis C) Coronal hypothesis D) Andromeda hypothesis E) Electromagnetic hypothesis

8) Venus is the only planet in the solar system that rotates clockwise, or opposite the other planets. Which of the following is the most accepted scientific explanation for this?

A) Early in the history of the solar system there was a large impact that reversed the direction of Venus’ spin.

B) Venus is denser than the other planets, which causes it to rotate in an opposing direction.

C) Early in the history of the solar system, Earth and Venus were so close to each other that their gravitational attraction caused them to spin in opposing directions.

D) Venus lacks a moon, which causes it to behave differently from the other planets.

E) Venus did not form with the rest of the planets, but was a stray asteroid that was captured by the Sun’s gravitational field.

9)

Which of the following is most true regarding the Big Bang Theory?

A) The universe began expanding from a single point about 14 billion years ago.

B) It resulted from the ignition of an enormous concentration of hydrogen gas.

C) All of the matter in the universe was created in an instant.

D) The theory has been disproved in recent years.

E) The theory applies only to the Milky Way Galaxy.

10) Which of the following refers to the massive and sudden loss of plants and animals relative to the number of new species being added?

A) Mass extinction B) Catastrophism C) Great death D) Fossil depletion E) All of the answers listed here

11) In 1994, scientists witnessed a major impact on a planet, which was a sober reminder that Earth-crossing comets and asteroids pose a serious threat to life on Earth. On which of the following planets did this impact occur?

A) Jupiter B) Saturn C) Mars D) Neptune E) Pluto

12) Which term is used to describe the relatively small area around a star where surface temperatures would allow liquid water to exist?

A) Habitable Zone B) Biosphere C) Terrestrial Region D) Potential Biotic Area E) Hydrosphere

13) Which of the following statements best describes the first life-forms on Earth, which existed about 3.6 billion years ago?

A) Microbial life began at a time when the planet's atmosphere and climate were very different from today.

B) Microbial life began at the same time the Earth turned into a solid.

C) Microbial life evolved rapidly into more complex life forms in only a few hundred million years.

D) The first microbial life forms were restricted to what is now the Middle East.

E) Evidence for the first microbial life forms is found in igneous rocks.

14)

Which of the following statements regarding the Moon is true?

A) It has reduced the wobble in Earth's axis, thereby helping to stabilize Earth's climate.

B) It had an atmosphere at one time that shielded it from asteroid impacts.

C) It has a large magnetic field which that shields the Earth from solar radiation.

D) Its surface is covered mostly with sedimentary rocks.

E) All of the answers listed here.

15)

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Earth’s ozone layer?

A) It is responsible for the greenhouse effect.

B) It is a thin layer of oxygen molecules (O 3), called ozone, found in the Earth's upper atmosphere.

C) It naturally absorbs much of the incoming ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

D) It has been damaged by the use of CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons).

E) The hole in the ozone layer is slowing repairing itself.

16)

Evidence for the nebular hypothesis includes which of the following?

A) The heavily cratered surfaces we see on some planets and moons indicate a period of intense bombardment associated with accretion.

B) Radiometric dating has shown that the Earth, Moon, and asteroids all solidified at approximately the same time.

C) Visual evidence from space telescopes shows that accretion and planetary development is occurring in other parts of the universe.

D) All of the answers listed here are correct.

E) Visual evidence from space telescopes shows that new stars are forming in other parts of the universe.

17)

Which of the following assumptions are inherent in the concept of habitable zones?

A) All life-forms require liquid water.

B) Water is present, in some form, on all planets.

C) The size and energy output of stars with habitable zones will remain constant.

D) Life is present everywhere in the universe.

E) A planet’s gravity must be similar to that of the Earth’s.

18)

Important astronomical forces affecting Earth include all of the following except

A) the Sun radiates energy which warms our planet and drives global climate.

B) volcanoes produce the Earth's oceans.

C) the Moon's gravitational field produces tide currents which carry nutrients.

D) the Earth is occasionally impacted by comets and meteorites.

19)

What are the main chemical components of the Sun?

A) Hydrogen and oxygen B) Hydrogen and helium C) Helium and oxygen D) None of these choices are correct

20)

What is the source of energy inside the Sun?

A) Nuclear fission B) Nuclear fusion C) Radioactive decay D) None of these choices are correct

21)

All of the following are terrestrial planets except

A) Mars.

B) Mercury.

C) Earth.

D) Jupiter.

22)

What is the source of a comet's tail?

A) Melting ice B) Small volcanic eruptions C) Rock smoking as it melts D) Large concentrations of radioactive elements

23)

Where is the main asteroid belt located?

A) Between the Earth and the Moon B) Between Mars and Jupiter C) Between Earth and Mars D) Between Earth and Venus

24)

How large is an asteroid?

A) Smaller than a planet B) Larger than a planet C) Smaller than a typical car or truck D) Usually microscopic

25)

Based on radiometric dating, how old is the solar system?

A) 45,000 - 47,000 years B) 4.5 - 4.7 million years C) 4.5 - 4.7 billion years D) 4.5 - 4.7 trillion years

26)

What is a nebula?

A) A very large solar flare B) Material ejected from a meteor crater C) A type of ancient volcanic eruption D) A rotating cloud of cosmic dust and gas

27)

What are planetesimals?

A) Very small planets B) Very large planets C) Proto-planets formed by accretion D) Asteroids too small to be planets

28)

When was the Moon formed?

A) A long time before the Earth B) A short time before the Earth C) Only a few thousand years ago D) During the heavy bombardment period

29)

What is the direct evidence for intense bombardment associated with accretion?

A) The large number of volcanoes on the Earth B) The large number of meteor craters preserved on the Moon and Mercury C) The large number of earthquakes occurring on the Earth D) The absence of Moonquakes

30)

What is a galaxy?

A) A very long distance measured by the speed of light B) An area of a planet with a large concentration of meteor craters C) A long chain of active volcanoes D) A large grouping or cluster of stars

31)

What does the Big Bang Theory explain?

A) The origin of the Milky Way Galaxy B) The origin of the universe C) The origin of the Moon D) The source of red color on Mars

32)

What is the significance of extremophile bacteria?

A) They may account for the origin of the ozone layer.

B) They may represent the earliest form of life on Earth.

C) They may account for the presence of oxygen on Earth.

D) They may account for the presence of water on Earth.

33)

What is meant by the habitable zone in other solar systems?

A) A narrow zone around a star where liquid water can exist B) A zone with abundant plant growth C) A zone where oxygen is present D) A zone defined by abundant sunlight

34) The idea that complex animal life similar to that on Earth is exceedingly rare in our universe is known as the

A) theory of the ice age.

B) continental drift hypothesis.

C) theory of evolution.

D) rare Earth hypothesis.

35)

Extraterrestrial hazards include all of the following except

A) ultraviolet electromagnetic radiation.

B) build up of ozone in the atmosphere.

C) gamma-ray burst.

D) asteroid impact.

36) What shows up in the geologic record coincident with the end of the heavy bombardment period 3.6 billion years ago?

A) The first dinosaurs B) The first plant life on land C) The first volcanoes D) The first appearance of microbial life

37)

Where is the impact crater that possibly formed the iridium layer located?

A) Yucatan Peninsula of Mexico B) Meteor Crater, Arizona C) In the Mediterranean Sea D) Beneath the Arctic ice cap

38) In addition to the Earth, which of the following places in our solar system is liquid water known to exist?

A) Jupiter's moon Europa and Saturn's moon Enceladus B) Pluto and Mercury C) Mars' moons Phobos and Deimos D) Saturn's moon Titan E) Pluto and Mars

39)

The big bang theory is largely based on which of the following lines of evidence?

A) Light is unable to escape from black holes.

B) Large asteroid impacts occur on planets throughout the Milky Way Galaxy.

C) The galaxies in the universe are all moving outwards from a central point.

D) Galaxies have been found being drawn into black holes.

E) Strong sound waves have been found coming out of old neutron stars.

40) What lines of evidence best explain why scientists know Mars once had liquid water on its surface?

A) All of the answers listed here B) Volcanic eruptions with magmas rich in water C) Water ice, which has been found in the shadows of craters in Mars’ polar regions D) Residual water vapor in Mars’ thin atmosphere, which proves the existence of past oceans E) Large rounded grains in sedimentary rocks that can only be explained by running water

41)

What best explains how a large asteroid impact could lead to a mass extinction?

A) Catastrophic earthquakes B) Large heat pulse followed by an extended period of global cooling C) Large tsunamis D) Strong pressure wave moving outward from the impact crater E) Rapid remove of oxygen from the atmosphere

42) It is now feasible for scientists and engineers to change the trajectory of an Earth-crossing asteroid such that it will not impact our planet. ⊚ ⊚ 43)

Nuclear reactions within the sun release electromagnetic radiation. ⊚ ⊚

44)

true false

true false

Comets are composed primarily of rocky and metallic materials. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D

27) C 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) E 41) B 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE

Student name:__________ 1)

Which of the following elements makeup most of the rocks in Earth’s crust?

A) Silicon and Oxygen B) Iron and Magnesium C) Iron and Calcium D) Silicon and Aluminum E) Carbon and Iron

2) All minerals have a unique combination of internal structure and chemical composition.

The structure and chemistry of minerals determines which of the following?

A) The physical and chemical properties of minerals.

B) Where minerals are found in the crust.

C) The grain size of minerals.

D) Whether minerals form from magma or water.

E) Whether minerals form on the surface or deep within the crust.

3) Which of the following statements best describe what geologists refer to as rock-forming minerals?

A) The few dozen or so minerals that make up most of the rocks in Earth's crust.

B) The minerals found in rocks that are the most durable and hard.

C) Consist of over 4,000 types of minerals that make up most of the rocks in Earth's crust.

D) The minerals that form after a rock has already turned into a solid.

E) The minerals that were present in the original rocks that cooled to form Earth’s crust.

4)

Which of the following is NOT a rock forming mineral or mineral group?

A) Amorphosite B) Feldspar Group C) Quartz D) Calcite E) Clay Mineral Group

5)

Which of the following is NOT true regarding clay minerals?

A) Precipitate out of magmas.

B) Are a rock forming mineral group.

C) Form when feldspar and ferromagnesian minerals break down.

D) Are a major component of soils.

E) Are extremely small compared to sand-sized grains.

6)

Which of the following statements best describes extrusive igneous rocks?

A) Cool on the surface and have a fine-grained texture (small mineral crystals) B) Cool on the surface and have a course-grained texture (large mineral crystals) C) Cool beneath the surface and have a fine-grained texture (small mineral crystals) D) Cool beneath the surface and have a course-grained texture (large mineral crystals)

7) Which of the following terms do geologists use to describe the process whereby rocks are mechanically broken down into smaller pieces?

A) Physical weathering B) Chemical weathering C) Disintegration weathering D) Disaggregation weathering E) Pulverization weathering

8)

Which of the following is an example of how chemical sedimentary rocks form?

A) Precipitation of dissolved ions as a water body evaporates.

B) Hot fluids circulating through rocks deep within the crust.

C) Sandstones that undergo deposition.

D) Weathering of slate.

E) Collision of continental landmasses.

9)

Which of the following is an example of a detrital sedimentary rock?

A) Sandstone B) Marble C) Chert D) Quartzite E) Schist

10)

Which of the following best describes how metamorphic rocks form?

A) Increased pressure and temperature B) Crystallization of magma C) Lithification of sediment D) Precipitation of minerals E) Weathering and erosion

11)

Which of the following best explains how foliated metamorphic rocks form?

A) By increased pressure.

B) By circulation of hot fluids.

C) By hot mantle plumes.

D) By alignment with Earth’s magnetic field.

E) All of the answers listed here.

12) Which of the following best explains why rocks can be used to interpret the geologic past?

A) Different types of rocks form in different types of environments.

B) The minerals in rocks tell us how old rocks are.

C) Rocks contain varying amounts of carbon.

D) The hardness of rocks tells us how old they are.

E) The chemical composition of rocks tells us how old they are.

13) When using rocks to study Earth's history, information about the surface environment is best provided by which of the following types of rock?

A) limestone and shale B) granite and basalt C) schist and slate D) quartzite and marble E) dunite and rhyolite

14) Which of the following best describes what happens when a sedimentary rock is heated to the point it completely melts and later re-crystallizes?

A) It becomes an igneous rock.

B) It becomes a metamorphic rock.

C) It remains a sedimentary rock.

D) This is not a likely or realistic scenario.

15)

Which of the following is NOT a subatomic particle found in the nucleus of atoms?

A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron

16)

Which of the following is NOT a type of chemical reaction that breaks down minerals?

A) Fusion B) Dissolution C) Hydrolysis D) Oxidation E) Reduction

17)

What is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust?

A) Oxygen B) Iron C) Silica D) Aluminum

18)

A mineral has all of the following properties except

A) crystalline.

B) inorganic.

C) liquid.

D) being composed of one or more elements.

19)

What does the term amorphous mean?

A) Inorganic B) Opaque appearance C) Not composed of elements D) Non-crystalline

20)

Why do diamond and graphite have such different physical properties?

A) Different chemical compositions B) Different crystalline structures C) Different electrical properties D) Different optical properties

21)

What is an example of a rock made of only one mineral?

A) Quartzite B) Granite C) Basalt D) Shale

22)

What is rock texture?

A) Hardness of mineral constituents B) Size and shape of mineral constituents C) Number of different mineral constituents D) Crystal structure of mineral constituents

23)

Which are the most common minerals?

A) Carbonates B) Sulfides C) Silicates D) Sulfates

24)

Ferromagnesian minerals are high in

A) calcium and magnesium.

B) calcium and potassium.

C) iron and magnesium.

D) potassium and sodium.

25)

What is the main component of limestone?

A) Calcite B) Quartz C) Olivine D) Pyrite

26)

What type of rock is formed by magma?

A) Metamorphic B) Sedimentary C) Igneous D) None of these choices is correct.

27)

What are the most abundant igneous rocks in the Earth's crust?

A) Diorite and andesite B) Gabbro and rhyolite C) Basalt and granite D) Peridotite and volcanic glass

28)

Frost wedging is a type of

A) chemical weathering.

B) physical weathering.

C) biological weathering.

D) None of these choices is correct.

29)

Which is a type of mineral formed by hydrolysis?

A) Clay minerals B) Sulfide minerals C) Ferromagnesian minerals D) Feldspar

30)

Detrital sedimentary rocks are formed from

A) fossils.

B) chemical precipitates from seawater.

C) pre-existing rock and mineral fragments.

D) lava flows.

31)

What is required to convert sediment into sedimentary rock?

A) Weathering B) Burial beneath the Earth's surface C) Volcanism D) Metamorphism

32)

What rock type is composed of rounded gravel?

A) Conglomerate B) Breccia C) Sandstone D) Shale

33)

What is the most common type of chemical sedimentary rock?

A) Rock salt B) Chert C) Coal D) Limestone

34)

Chalk is a type of

A) sandstone.

B) fossiliferous limestone.

C) agate.

D) coal.

35)

Contact metamorphism occurs as a result of

A) severe folding and faulting.

B) magma.

C) very high pressure.

D) chemical contact with limestone.

36)

What kind of ancient environment is indicated by coal?

A) A swamp B) A beach C) A stream D) A desert

37) Which of the following type of rocks would be most susceptible to being broken down by the weathering process known as dissolution?

A) Extrusive and intrusive igneous B) Chemical sedimentary C) Detrital sedimentary D) Regional metamorphic E) Contact metamorphic

38) Prehistoric humans used the mineral chert to make stone tools. Which of the following physical properties made chert useful for this application?

A) High density B) Highly resistant to chemical weathering C) Very hard and creates sharp edges when broken D) Low density E) Malleable

39) Many types of sedimentary rocks are deposited along the continental shelf. Which of the following best explains why limestones commonly form further offshore compared to other sedimentary rocks?

A) Water has less suspended sediment B) Warmer water temperatures C) Deeper water D) Less commercial fishing E) Cooler water temperatures

40) The Earth is 4.5 billion years old, but the oldest surviving rocks only go back 4.0 billion years. However, geologists have extended the rock record by finding small zircon (ZrSiO4) crystals as old as 4.4 billion years. In which of the following rock types do geologists find these ancient zircon crystals?

A) Extrusive igneous B) Intrusive igneous C) Clastic sedimentary D) Chemical sedimentary

41) The Rock Cycle illustrates how different rock types can be transformed into other rock types. Which of the following best describes the process by which igneous rocks are transformed into metamorphic rocks?

A) Erosion and weathering B) Heat and pressure C) Melting D) Cooling E) Fracturing

42) The Rock Cycle illustrates how different rock types can be transformed into other rock types. Which of the following best describes the process by which igneous rocks are transformed into sedimentary rocks?

A) Erosion and weathering B) Heat and pressure C) Melting D) Cooling E) Fracturing

43) The Rock Cycle illustrates how different rock types can be transformed into other rock types. Which of the following best describes the process by which metamorphic rocks are transformed into igneous rocks?

A) Erosion and weathering B) Extreme heat C) Tension D) Increased pressure E) Fracturing

44) Geologists are able to study processes that form rocks here on Earth and then use this information to help interpret the geologic history of other planets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

45)

Earth’s crustal rocks have a higher density compared to the Earth as a whole. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

All metamorphic rocks have a foliated texture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) The term lava is used to refer to molten rock that makes its way onto Earth’s surface environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) C

27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is the type of force that causes rocks to be extended, or pulled apart?

A) tension B) compression C) shear D) transverse E) gravity

2) What best describes how the behavior of rocks changes when they become deeply buried and placed under high levels of heat and pressure?

A) They become ductile and deform plastically.

B) They become brittle and deform by fracturing.

C) They become harder and develop gravity fractures.

D) They become more resistant to deformation.

E) They begin to transform into metallic minerals.

3) Which of the following provide scientists with evidence that Earth's interior has distinct layers?

A) Behavior of seismic waves traveling through Earth's interior.

B) The effect of the Moon on Earth’s tidal forces and solid rock.

C) Drilling of deep oil and gas wells.

D) Differences in gravity within Earth's interior.

E) Mapping of the deep ocean floor.

4)

Which of the following best describes Earth's outer core?

A) metallic liquid B) metallic solid C) low-density rock D) high-density rock E) pure carbon

5)

Which of the following best describes Earth's mantle?

A) high-density rock B) metallic liquid C) metallic solid D) low-density rock E) pure carbon

6)

Which of the following best describes the source of Earth's internal heat?

A) Internal friction and radioactive decay in Earth’s interior.

B) The sun and residual heat from the planet's formation.

C) The sun and radioactive decay in Earth’s interior.

D) Internal friction and the sun.

E) Internal friction & and heat generated by tidal forces.

7)

During which of the following processes is oceanic crust recycled?

A) subduction B) sea floor spreading C) convection D) mid-ocean rifting E) ocean tides

8)

Which of the following processes drives the movement of tectonic plates?

A) convection cells in the mantle B) gravitational pull of the Moon C) ocean tides D) solar radiation E) all of the answers listed here

9) What best describes why the upper part of the mantle, called the asthenosphere, is important in plate tectonics?

A) It is hot and plastic like, which allows the overlying plates to slide or move.

B) It is the source of metallic minerals that form valuable ore deposits within the plates.

C) It is the place where plates originate.

D) It is the source of carbon that gets transformed into oil and gas within the plates.

E) It is cold and dense, which keeps the oceans in the overlying plates relatively cool.

10) Which of the following lines of evidence was used by Alfred Wegener to support his theory of continental drift?

A) All of the answers listed here.

B) Fit of the continents.

C) Similar rock sequences on different continents.

D) Similar plant & animal fossils on different continents.

E) Glacial deposits on continents in the southern hemisphere.

11) Which of the following types of studies was the most critical in proving that sea-floor spreading actually occurs?

A) Paleomagnetic studies of oceanic crust.

B) Mapping of the ocean floor during World War I. C) Mapping of glacial ice in Greenland & Antarctica.

D) Drilling oil and gas wells on the continental shelves.

E) Studying volcanic eruptions around the Ring of Fire.

12) The Himalaya Mountains are an example of which of the following types of plate boundaries?

A) continental-continental convergence B) continental-oceanic divergence C) oceanic-oceanic convergence D) oceanic-oceanic divergence E) continental-oceanic convergence

13) The San Andreas Fault in California is an example of which of the following types of plate boundaries?

A) transform B) divergent C) convergent D) subduction zone E) transverse

14) At what type of plate boundary would you expect to find new oceanic crust being created?

A) divergent B) convergent C) transform D) subduction Zone E) transverse

15)

At what type of plate boundary would you expect to see compressional forces dominate?

A) convergent B) divergent C) transform D) transverse E) transvergent

16)

At what type of plate boundary would you expect to find a volcanic island arc?

A) oceanic-oceanic convergence B) continental-continental convergence C) continental-oceanic divergence D) continental-continental divergence E) oceanic-oceanic divergence

17)

What is the name for the change in shape that results from rock deformation?

A) Stress B) Strain C) Disruption D) Extrusion

18)

What happens during ductile deformation?

A) No change in shape at all B) Rocks return to their original shape C) Brittle rocks permanently fracture D) The rocks begin to flow

19)

Which two materials comprise the Earth's core?

A) Calcium and magnesium B) Iron and magnesium C) Iron and nickel D) Lead and zinc

20)

What prevents rocks in the mantle from melting?

A) High iron content B) High sulfur content C) Pressure D) Temperature

21)

What is the source of magma that rises to the surface to form igneous rocks?

A) Upper crust B) Lower crust C) Lithosphere D) Asthenosphere

22)

What does circulation of metallic elements in the outer core produce on the Earth?

A) Ice Age episodes B) Global warming C) Greenhouse effect D) The magnetic field

23)

What is the process by which the long-term cooling of Earth takes place?

A) Convection B) Subduction C) Seafloor spreading D) Transform faulting

24) What is the name of the super continent that broke up as a result of plate tectonics to form the modern geography?

A) Laurentia B) Gondwanaland C) Pangaea D) Atlantis

25)

What rock type is associated with seafloor spreading?

A) Basalt B) Andesite C) Rhyolite D) Peridotite

26)

Which two key geologic phenomena are associated with the process of subduction?

A) Tsunamis and landslides B) Earthquakes and volcanoes C) Hurricanes and flooding D) Global warming and sea level rise

27)

What did the phenomenon of polar wandering help explain?

A) Development of the Ice Age B) Movement of polar glaciers C) Movement of the continents D) Global mass extinctions

28)

What happens at a divergent plate tectonic boundary?

A) Seafloor spreading B) Subduction C) Transform faulting D) Continent-continent collision

29)

What happens at a convergent plate tectonic boundary?

A) Hot spot volcanism B) Seafloor spreading C) Subduction D) Transform faulting

30)

What geologic phenomenon creates volcanic features within a tectonic plate?

A) Hot spot B) Spreading center C) Subduction zone D) Transform fault

31)

What is the driving force behind ridge push?

A) Pressure B) Temperature C) Gravity D) Radioactivity

32)

What is the surface feature associated with a divergent tectonic plate boundary?

A) Deep-sea trench B) Mid-ocean ridge or rift valley C) Island arc D) Continental arc

33)

An island arc is associated with which type of geological feature?

A) Transform tectonic plate boundary B) Divergent tectonic plate boundary C) Convergent tectonic plate boundary D) Continent-continent collision

34)

Which type of volcanic rock is associated with a convergent plate boundary?

A) Basalt B) Andesite C) Rhyolite D) Peridotite

35)

What type of plate tectonic boundary is associated with a continental arc?

A) Transform B) Convergent C) Divergent D) Continent-continent collision

36) Which mountain range was formed by the modern day collision of the Indian and Asian tectonic plates?

A) The Alps B) The Urals C) The Himalaya D) The Appalachians

37)

At what type of plate boundary would you expect to see tensional forces dominate?

A) Transvergent B) Transform C) Transverse D) Divergent E) Convergent

38)

At what type of plate boundary would you expect to see shear forces dominate?

A) Transvergent B) Transform C) Transverse D) Divergent E) Convergent

39) Which of the following rock types typically undergo partial melting to form magma that eventually cools to form granitic rocks?

A) Mantle B) Basalt C) Sandstone D) Shale E) Limestone

40)

Which of the following best describes Earth's inner core?

A) Metallic solid B) Low-density rock C) Pure carbon D) Metallic liquid E) High-density rock

41)

When rocks are stressed beyond their elastic limit the deformation becomes permanent. ⊚ ⊚

42)

Earth’s oceanic crust is considerably thicker than continental crust. ⊚ ⊚

43)

true false

Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions are randomly distributed on the Earth. ⊚ ⊚

44)

true false

true false

The geographic location of the magnetic North Pole has varied over geologic time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) B

27) C 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

Which of the following statements is true regarding earthquakes?

A) All of the answers listed here.

B) They represent the sudden release of energy that has accumulated within rocks.

C) They form when brittle rocks exceed their elastic limit.

D) They represent the vibrations that occur as seismic waves travel through rocks.

E) They result in rocks being offset or displaced along faults.

2) Which of the following terms describes the point where energy is released during an earthquake?

A) focus B) epicenter C) fault D) breaking point E) endpoint

3)

Which of the following statements best describes P-waves?

A) Move in a compressional manner and are the fastest type of seismic wave.

B) Move in a compressional manner and are the slowest type of seismic waves.

C) Move in a shearing manner and are the slowest type of seismic wave.

D) Move in a shearing manner and are the fastest type of seismic wave.

E) Move in a penetrating manner along the surface of the Earth.

4)

Which of the following best describes the Mercalli earthquake scale?

A) Is a qualitative measure of earthquake intensity.

B) Is a quantitative measure of earthquake intensity.

C) Measures the amplitude of the strongest surface wave.

D) Measures the amplitude of the strongest P-wave.

E) Measures the amplitude of the strongest S-wave.

5)

Which of the following best describes the Richter and Moment earthquake scales?

A) Measures the amount of ground motion and energy released.

B) Measures the amount of damage at the epicenter.

C) Measures the duration of an earthquake.

D) Measures the amount of elasticity in seismic waves.

E) All of the answers listed here.

6)

The San Andreas fault is associated with which of the following tectonic settings?

A) transform boundary B) convergent boundary C) divergent boundary D) subduction zone E) volcanic arc

7)

Which of the following statements regarding subduction zones is true?

A) All of the answers listed here.

B) Subduction zone earthquakes are associated with compressional stress.

C) Subduction zones are capable of generating extremely powerful earthquakes.

D) The Cascadia fault is part of a subduction zone located in the northwestern United States.

E) Subduction zone earthquakes are associated with convergent plate boundaries.

8) The New Madrid earthquake of 1811 and the Charleston earthquake of 1883 are notable for which of the following reasons?

A) Were relatively large and occurred in the interior of a tectonic plate.

B) Resulted in a very large number of human deaths.

C) Were the only earthquakes to occur in the U.S. during those years.

D) Occurred prior to the development of modern seismographs.

E) Were the first earthquakes in the U.S. since Europeans came to the continent.

9) Which of the following factors do NOT affect the amount of ground shaking during an earthquake?

A) Velocity of different seismic waves.

B) Amount of strain energy released during an earthquake.

C) Focal depth of the earthquake.

D) Type of material seismic waves travel through.

E) Distance to the epicenter.

10)

Which of the following is a secondary hazard associated with earthquakes?

A) all of the answers listed here B) liquefaction C) landslides and open fissures D) tsunamis E) fires

11)

Which of the following is NOT true of tsunamis?

A) Tsunamis are associated with transform fault boundaries.

B) Tsunamis are generated when energy is suddenly transferred to a body of water.

C) The majority of tsunamis form during subduction zone earthquakes.

D) Tsunamis form when the seafloor suddenly moves and displaces seawater.

E) Tsunamis occur in the Pacific Ocean along the Ring of Fire.

12)

Which of the following best describes a seismic gap?

A) A section of an active fault that has not experienced an earthquake for an extended period of time B) A large crack in the ground that opens in response to earthquake activity.

C) The time interval between when an earthquake originates and when it’s felt at distant locations.

D) The time interval between when an earthquake originates and when its aftershocks begin.

E) A portion of a seismograph record where data is missing due to seismic waves being blocked by a mountain range.

13)

Which of the following is true regarding the epicenter of an earthquake?

A) It’s the point on the surface closest to where the strain energy was released.

B) It represents the point where strain energy was initially released.

C) It’s the point where seismic waves have the least amount of energy.

D) It’s the weakest point in a rock body, hence undergoes the greatest amount of damage.

E) It’s the point where seismic waves have the slowest velocity.

14)

Which of the following factors affect the amount of damage caused by an earthquake?

A) All of the answers listed here.

B) Building construction design.

C) Natural vibration frequency and resonance.

D) Amount of ground shaking.

E) Number of secondary hazards.

15)

Which of the following best describes the phenomenon known as wave amplification?

A) Change in ground materials that causes seismic waves to slow down and have more energy.

B) Situation on a seismograph where the P-waves overtake the S-waves.

C) Situation on a seismograph where the S-waves overtake the P-waves.

D) Dangerous situation that occurs when seismic waves encounter electrical transmission lines.

E) Dangerous situation that occurs when seismic waves encounter ocean waves.

16)

Which of the following best describes the phenomenon known as liquefaction?

A) Ground shaking causes saturated sandy materials to behave as a liquid.

B) Ground shaking causes asphalt highways to behave as a liquid.

C) Ground shaking causes rivers to temporarily flow in the opposite direction.

D) Ground shaking causes deep snowfields to instantly turn into liquid water.

E) All of the answers listed here.

17) What best describes the technique known as seismic engineering that is used to reduce the number of deaths caused by earthquakes?

A) Making buildings more resistant to lateral ground forces during an earthquake.

B) Rerouting traffic along major highways prior to an earthquake.

C) Enabling nuclear power plants to continue operating during an earthquake.

D) Building large breakwaters across inlets to prevent tsunamis from reaching the shoreline.

E) Developing ways of preventing earthquakes.

18) What kind of strained earth materials undergo permanent deformation by flowing plastically?

A) Water-saturated B) Brittle C) Ductile D) Laminated

19)

According to the elastic rebound theory, an earthquake occurs when a rock

A) reaches its elastic limit.

B) contracts due to excessive heat.

C) expands due to excessive heat.

D) recrystallizes due to high pressure.

20)

The size of an earthquake is generally related to

A) the amount of ductile deformation.

B) the type of the fault involved.

C) the number of faults involved.

D) the amount of accumulated strain.

21)

All of the following are causes of earthquake activity except

A) sunspot activity.

B) human activity.

C) tectonic activity.

D) volcanic activity.

22)

What is an earthquake epicenter?

A) The farthest location where the earthquake is felt B) The location on the ground surface directly above the focus C) The location directly below the focus D) The location in the subsurface where the earthquake originates

23)

Which type of seismic wave usually causes the most damage to artificial structures?

A) P-waves B) S-waves C) Surface waves D) Refracted waves

24)

What type of machine is used to measure the location of an earthquake epicenter?

A) Tectograph B) Rapidograph C) Spectrograph D) Seismograph

25)

What is the Mercalli intensity scale based on?

A) Measurements with a seismograph B) Human observations C) Volcanic activity D) The magnitude of microearthquakes

26)

What is a Richter magnitude based on?

A) Measurements with a seismograph B) Human observations C) Volcanic activity D) None of these choices are correct

27)

What is a moment magnitude based on?

A) Amount of ground shaking B) Amount of energy released C) Human observations D) Changes in the chemical composition of rocks

28)

Where do the strongest earthquakes usually occur?

A) Along divergent boundaries B) Along convergent boundaries C) Along transform boundaries D) In plate interiors

29)

What is one possible way that the buildup of strain may be avoided?

A) Subduction B) Seafloor spreading C) Excessive volcanism D) Fault creep

30)

The largest earthquake ever recorded in California was located

A) on the San Andreas fault in southern California.

B) on the San Andreas fault in northern California.

C) on a subduction zone in southern California.

D) on a subduction zone in northern California.

31)

Where is the Cascadia subduction zone located?

A) In the Pacific northwest of the U.S. B) In southern California C) Along the west coast of Mexico D) Along the west coast of Alaska

32)

Name an example of a place where intraplate earthquakes have occurred.

A) San Andreas fault seismic zone B) Kobe seismic zone C) New Madrid seismic zone D) Indonesian seismic zone

33)

Generally speaking, the most dangerous earthquakes tend to be

A) large magnitude and at great depth.

B) large magnitude and at shallow depth.

C) small magnitude and at great depth.

D) small magnitude and at shallow depth.

34)

Where does ground amplification of seismic waves often take place?

A) On a mid-ocean ridge B) On a transform fault C) In sedimentary basins D) In mountainous bedrock areas

35)

What causes liquefaction to take place?

A) Surface rupture on a fault B) Ground shaking C) Fires ignited by downed power lines D) Tsunamis

36)

What causes the majority of tsunamis to form?

A) Submarine landslides B) Subduction zone earthquakes C) Volcanic explosions D) Asteroid impacts

37) What is the name for a location on an active fault where strain has not been released for a significant period of time?

A) A shear zone B) A fault scarp C) A g-spot D) Seismic gap

38) Most deaths from earthquakes are caused by the structural failure and/or collapse of buildings. Which of the following best describes why buildings fail in an earthquake?

A) Earthquake waves are attracted to buildings.

B) Roofs become too heavy during an earthquake.

C) Most buildings are not designed to withstand strong lateral (horizontal) forces.

D) Metal columns become brittle and break.

E) Power supply to buildings is cut off.

39) Early warning systems have been installed in some of the major cities that are at high risk from earthquakes. What are most of these early warning systems based on?

A) Differences in frequency of radio waves B) Changing water levels in wells C) Early arrival of less damaging P-waves D) Changes in animal behavior E) Detection of more damaging S-waves

40)

Long-range earthquake predictions are based on which of the following?

A) Animal behavior B) Tide tables and planetary orbits C) Historical earthquake record D) Changing water levels in wells E) All of the answers listed here

41) Many residents in coastal areas are at serious risk of a tsunami, but will not have enough time to reach high ground before the first waves arrive. Which of the following is the best option for reducing this risk?

A) Placing floatation devices around the city B) Rapid evacuation via public transportation C) Creating more bike lanes D) Establishing vertical evacuation sites E) All of the answers listed here

42)

Surface waves do far greater damage to human structures than do body waves.

⊚ ⊚

true false

43) Earthquakes tend to occur in repetitive cycles as rocks accumulate strain energy and then rupture or break. ⊚ ⊚ 44)

true false

All natural earthquakes occur along plate boundaries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) A

27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE

Student name:__________ 1) The nature of volcanic eruptions is closely related to plate tectonics and magma type.

Which of the following best describes basaltic magma?

A) Relatively SiO 2 poor and lower temperature B) Relatively SiO 2 poor and higher temperature C) Relatively SiO 2 rich and lower temperature D) Relatively SiO 2 rich and higher temperature

2) Viscosity is the measure of a fluid's resistance to a flow. Which of the following factors affect the viscosity of magmas?

A) temperature and SiO 2 content B) density and temperature C) elevation and density D) density and water content E) water and SiO 2 content

3) Which of the following factors determine whether a volcanic eruption will be explosive or non-explosive?

A) magma viscosity and gas content B) depth of magma and elevation C) magma viscosity and elevation D) depth of magma and rock fractures E) gas content and rock fractures

4) Which of the following tectonic settings is the most likely to generate an explosive volcanic eruption?

A) subduction zone B) mid-ocean ridge C) oceanic hot-spot D) rift valley E) fold mountain belt

5) Which of the following would most likely result in a lava flow that is hazardous to humans?

A) low viscosity basaltic magma B) high viscosity rhyolitic magma C) high viscosity andesitic magma D) low viscosity andesitic magma E) high viscosity basaltic magma

6) There are two basic types of volcanoes, shield and composite cone. Which of the following best describes composite cone volcanoes?

A) relatively small, erupt andesitic magma, and are highly explosive B) relatively small, erupt basaltic magma, and are highly explosive C) relatively large, erupt andesitic magma, and are non-explosive D) relatively large, erupt basaltic magma, and are highly explosive E) relatively large, erupt basaltic magma, and are non-explosive

7)

Which of the following best explains why some volcanoes erupt so violently?

A) rapid decompression of dissolved gases B) rapid temperature drop as magma reaches the surface environment C) cooling effect of seawater beneath island arc volcanoes D) combustion as nitrogen gas compounds react with atmospheric oxygen E) all of the answers listed here

8)

Which of the following is an example of a hot-spot, or intraplate volcano?

A) Hawaiian Islands B) Mt. St. Helens C) the Ring of Fire D) Mt. Fuji E) Mt. Rainier

9) Water vapor is often the most abundant dissolved gas within magma. What best describes the source of water in gas-rich magmas?

A) Water-rich sediment in subduction zones B) Seepage of seawater into oceanic crustal rocks C) Heavy rainfall in tropical areas D) Shallow groundwater circulating through continental crustal rocks E) All of the answers listed here

10) What best describes the relatively small volcanoes that form when fragments of erupted lava cool and accumulate around a vent?

A) cinder cone B) shield volcano C) composite cone D) lava dome E) fissure dome

11) Which of the following terms is used to describe a large circular depression that forms after an eruption when a magma chamber becomes empty and collapses in on itself?

A) caldera B) crater C) lava pit D) tuff-cone E) sinkhole

12)

What best describes a pyroclastic flow?

A) dry avalanche of hot material B) lava flow that has caught on fire C) hot mudflow D) dense ash fall E) volcanic tsunami that makes landfall

13) Which of the following hazards is LEAST likely to be associated with explosive volcanic eruptions?

A) lava flows B) pyroclastic flows C) tsunamis D) ash fall E) mudflows

14)

Which of the following is NOT a common a problem associated with volcanic ash-fall?

A) forest fires B) destruction of crops C) building collapse D) disruption of air travel E) filling of stream channels

15)

What best explains why volcanic mudflows are so dangerous to humans?

A) They are fairly dense and viscous.

B) They can travel long distances.

C) They move at up to 40 miles per hour (65 km/hr).

D) They act as river of wet concrete.

E) All of the above.

16) Which of the following volcanoes in the U.S. is most notably for having a history of massive mudflows, which today threatens large numbers of people?

A) Mt. Rainier, Washington B) Mt. St. Helens, Washington C) Mt. Shasta, California D) Mt. Spur, Alaska E) Mauna Loa, Hawaii

17)

Which of the following is NOT a tool that scientists use to predict volcanic eruptions?

A) deep drilling and magma sampling B) volcanic gas sampling C) monitoring topographic changes D) seismic monitoring E) monitoring geophysical and groundwater changes

18)

Volcanoes found in the interior of plates are associated with which plate tectonic feature?

A) Divergent boundary B) Convergent boundary C) Transform boundary D) A hot spot

19)

Where are basaltic magmas generated?

A) In the upper crust B) In the lower crust C) In the upper mantle D) In the lower mantle

20)

Oceanic crust is comprised of which kind of rock?

A) Basalt B) Andesite C) Rhyolite D) Diorite

21)

Which kind of magma has the lowest viscosity?

A) Granite B) Rhyolite C) Andesite D) Basalt

22)

Which is the dominant volcanic gas found in andesitic magma?

A) Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) Water D) Hydrogen

23)

What is the cause of volcanic earthquakes?

A) Increased viscosity due to cooling B) Decreased viscosity due to cooling C) Fluid pressure from the magma D) Movement of tectonic plates

24)

What causes volcanic explosions?

A) Escaping volcanic gases B) Increased melting due to high water content C) Breaking of rocks during an earthquake D) Collisions between tectonic plates

25)

What is the name for pulverized rock that is explosively ejected along with magma?

A) Lava B) Pillow basalt C) Flood basalt D) Pyroclastic material

26)

Where is the Columbia River flood basalt located?

A) B) C) D)

27)

In southern California In Oregon and Washington In New Mexico In Florida and Georgia

Shield volcanoes are produced from which type of magma?

A) Basalt B) Andesite C) Rhyolite D) All of these choices are correct

28)

Which type of volcano is characteristic of the Andes Mountains of South America?

A) Shield volcano B) Caldera C) Stratovolcano D) Cinder cone

29)

All of the following are volcanic hazards except

A) lava domes.

B) mudflows.

C) landslides.

D) tsunamis.

30)

Which type of magma produces lava flows which travel the fastest and farthest?

A) Andesite B) Basalt C) Rhyolite D) Granite

31)

Which type of eruption often generates tsunamis?

A) Caldera formation by collapse B) Pyroclastic flow C) Continental flood basalt D) Steam explosion

32)

What was unusual about the 1980 eruption of Mt. St. Helens?

A) A flank eruption occurred B) A lateral blast C) The small size of mudflows that were formed D) The thickness of lava flows produced

33)

What does the collapse of the rising eruption column often produce?

A) B) C) D)

34)

Volcanic mudflows Pyroclastic flows Lateral blasts Tsunamis

What destroyed the Roman town of Pompeii in 79 AD?

A) A landslide B) A mudflow C) An enormous lava flow D) A pyroclastic flow

35)

Which geologic hazard can be triggered by a volcanic landslide?

A) Earthquake B) Steam explosion C) Pyroclastic flow D) Tsunami

36)

What do magmatic earthquakes (harmonic tremors) indicate?

A) An eruption may be imminent.

B) Tectonic plates are colliding.

C) A hot spot is forming.

D) The volcano is extinct and safe.

37)

What can changes in the composition of volcanic gases indicate?

A) Where valuable mineral resources are located B) Magma rising toward the surface C) How much lava will be produced D) Whether or not volcanic mudflows can occur

38) Which of the following tectonic settings is the most likely to generate a nonexplosive volcanic eruption?

A) Subduction zone B) Fold mountain belt C) Transform fault D) Rift valley E) Continental hot spot

39)

Which of the following is an example of a composite cone volcano?

A) African Rift Valley B) Iceland C) Hawaiian Islands D) Mt. Rainier E) All of the answers listed here

40)

Which of the following hazards are commonly associated with composite cone eruptions?

A) Ash fall B) Pyroclastic flow C) Mudflow D) Explosive blast E) All of the answers listed here

41) Volcanic tsunamis can form around volcanic islands during large explosive events or massive landslides. ⊚ ⊚ 42)

Volcanic ash forms when rock particles and lava droplets are ejected skyward. ⊚ ⊚

43)

true false

true false

Attempts at predicting volcanic eruptions have largely been unsuccessful. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) B 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) E 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B

27) A 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) E 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE

Student name:__________ 1) Stability of earth materials on slopes depends on the balance of gravitational and frictional forces. Which of the following does NOT have a measurable effect on the balance between gravity and friction?

A) atmospheric air pressure B) steepness of a slope C) presence of water D) type of rock or sediment that is making up the slope E) types of vegetation on the slope

2) Which of the following is a common triggering mechanism that causes slopes to fail suddenly?

A) all of the answers listed here B) earthquakes C) over-steepening a slope D) heavy rainfall events E) wildfires

3) Which of the following earth materials is most likely to produce a vertical cliff that is fairly stable?

A) crystalline igneous rock such as granite B) alternating layers of sedimentary sandstone and shale C) foliated metamorphic rock such as slate D) loose sedimentary material such as sand and clay E) layers of basaltic (igneous) lava flows

4) Which of the following human activities commonly causes the over-steepening of slopes, which then leads to mass wasting?

A) construction of roads B) drilling of water wells C) logging of trees D) constructing high-rise buildings E) all of the answers listed here

5) Which of the following best explains why excessive amounts of water can destabilize a slope?

A) increases internal pore pressure B) causes too much vegetation growth C) increases chemical weathering of earth materials D) increases erosion of surface materials E) attracts large, heavy animals

6)

What best describes the way in which mass-wasting events are classified?

A) type of material and type of motion B) volume of material and amount of damage C) type of material and amount of damage D) volume of material and type of motion E) tectonic setting and amount of damage

7)

Which of the following best describes a mass wasting event referred to as a fall?

A) material tumbling through air or down a steep slope B) material moving down-slope along a surface C) material moving as a viscous fluid D) mixture of rock and snow

8)

Which of the following best describes a mass wasting event referred to as a slide?

A) material moving down-slope along a surface B) material tumbling through air or down a steep slope C) material moving as a viscous fluid D) mixture of rock and snow

9)

Which of the following best describes a mass wasting event referred to as a flow?

A) material moving as a viscous fluid B) material tumbling through air or down a steep slope C) material moving down-slope along a surface D) mixture of rock and snow

10)

Which of the following forms of mass wasting involves both sliding and flowing?

A) slump B) flow C) slide D) fall E) creep

11) Which of the following forms of mass wasting involves the slow, down slope movement of individual soil and rock particles?

A) creep B) slump C) flow D) slide E) fall

12)

Which of the following best describes why snow avalanches occur?

A) loss of friction along weak layers within a snowpack B) high winds and drifting snow C) low temperatures followed by warmer weather D) melting at the contact between the snow and underlying earth material E) loose, non-cohesive snowpack

13) Unlike mass wasting, gradual subsidence and sudden collapse involve the movement of earth materials without any slope. Sudden collapse is typically caused by which of the following?

A) collapse of caves in limestone rock B) collapse of underground aquifers C) repeated eruption of steam geysers D) repeated eruptions of volcanic ash E) all of the answers listed here

14) The use of engineering controls is one of the two basic methods for minimizing mass wasting hazards. Which of the following is the other basic approach used to minimize mass wasting hazards?

A) avoid building in hazard zones B) hydrologic controls C) government regulations D) geologic controls E) slope control

15) Which of the following engineering controls would be best suited to strengthen a slope that has been over-steepened by cutting into the hillside during highway construction?

A) build a retaining wall B) install rock bolts C) cover the slope with vegetation D) control the flow of water E) build a tunnel

16) Imagine a section of highway with a large outcrop of fractured rock that poses a serious rockfall hazard. Which of the following engineering controls would be the best choice for minimizing the chance of large rocks falling onto the roadway?

A) install rock bolts B) build a retaining wall C) cover the slope with vegetation D) control the flow of water E) install a mesh fence

17) Suppose that engineers are unable to keep earth materials from coming down onto a highway. In this case, which of the following would be the most economical and effective technique for reducing the hazard?

A) build a protective structure B) install a rain sensor C) reroute the highway D) remove the mountain E) close the highway during heavy rains

18)

What is the driving force behind mass wasting?

A) Heat B) Pressure C) Silica content D) Gravity

19)

Which of the following is a triggering mechanism for mass wasting?

A) Drought B) Excessive vegetation C) Heavy rain D) Slope reduction

20)

What is the angle of repose for loose materials?

A) 5 degrees B) 20 degrees C) 35 degrees D) 45 degrees

21)

Which common feature can weaken sedimentary rocks?

A) Bedding B) Fossils C) Foliation D) Coarse interlocking crystals

22) What common material found in the environment can add weight and reduce friction, thereby triggering mass wasting?

A) Lava B) Soil C) Silica D) Water

23)

What feature associated with volcanoes can trigger a mass wasting event?

A) Volcanic steam B) Seismic waves C) Highly viscous magma D) Caldera collapse

24)

Which geologic process contributes to the occurrence of rockfalls?

A) Wetting-drying cycles B) Freeze-thaw cycles C) Development of a talus pile D) Sliding along bedding planes

25) Which common feature often contributes to the occurrence of rockslides in sedimentary rocks?

A) Foliation planes B) Columnar jointing C) Bedding D) The stickiness of mud

26)

Where does solifluction occur?

A) In areas of permafrost B) In extremely arid areas C) Anywhere there is abundant mud D) In a tropical rainforest

27)

Which process contributes to the development of soil creep?

A) Planar surfaces in rock B) Volcanic tremors C) Wetting-drying cycles D) Freeze-thaw cycles

28)

Which type of geologic hazard can be triggered by submarine mass-wasting?

A) Global sea level rise B) A hurricane C) A tsunami D) A volcanic eruption

29)

Land subsidence can be associated with which type of geological feature?

A) A volcanic lake B) A cave C) A lava dome D) A glacial valley

30)

How does removal of water help to stabilize a slope?

A) Helps to remove excessive vegetation B) Aids in slope reduction C) Increases friction D) Decreases friction

31)

What has caused land subsidence in the Houston, Texas area?

A) Withdrawal of subsurface oil and water B) Collapse of an extensive cave system C) Man-made earthquakes D) Collapse of an extinct caldera

32)

What are retaining walls used for?

A) Removal of excess subsurface water B) To strengthen over steepened slopes C) To protect vegetation D) To construct terraces

33)

Rock bolts are used to prevent mass-wasting in what type of material?

A) Loose sand B) Sticky mud C) Loose rock D) Loose soil

34)

Which of the following is a strategy for controlling excess water in an unstable slope?

A) Install subsurface drains B) Divert surface water with berms C) Cover slope with impervious plastic sheeting D) All of these choices are correct

35) Which is a common technique used to control mass-wasting where slopes are oversteepened?

A) Retaining walls B) Rock bolts C) Dewatering D) Terracing

36)

How does vegetation help to stabilize slopes?

A) It increases infiltration.

B) It decreases infiltration.

C) It takes up water.

D) It decreases friction.

37)

Protective structures used to control mass-wasting include all of the following except

A) retaining walls.

B) tunnels.

C) terraces.

D) a covering comprised of a heavy chain mesh.

38) Unlike mass wasting, gradual subsidence and sudden collapse involve the movement of earth materials without any slope. Gradual subsidence is typically caused by which of the following?

A) Slow dissolution of subsurface limestone layers B) All of the answers listed here C) Compaction of pore spaces in fine-grained sediment D) Gradual erosion of underground aquifers E) Rapid dissolution of subsurface limestone layers

39) Which of the following features commonly result from the collapse of underground limestone caverns?

A) Swamps and wetlands B) Unusually curved stream meanders C) Sinkholes D) Unusually straight stream segments E) Rock cliffs

40)

Which of the following hazards are associated with submarine mass wasting?

A) Earthquakes B) Rip currents C) Beach erosion D) Shoreline retreat E) Tsunamis

41) Which of the following best describes a mass wasting event where blocks of rocks tumble down a slope?

A) Jumble fall B) Debris avalanche C) Rock fall D) Rock slide E) Debris slide

42) Which of the following best describes a mixture of rock, earth, plants, and mud moving downslope as a viscous fluid?

A) Debris flow B) Earth slide C) Mudflow D) Debris slide E) Earth flow

43) Highway tunnels are very expensive, but are often times more cost effective over the long-term compared to the cost of repeated repairs and maintenance in areas where mass wasting is difficult to control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) It is nearly impossible for scientists and engineers to predict where slope failure may occur. ⊚ ⊚ 45)

true false

Pumping oil from the subsurface can result in subsidence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) A

27) D 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) A 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

What best describes the basic role of streams in the Earth system?

A) drain water from the landscape and transport sediment B) transport sediment and create valuable gold deposits C) link the atmosphere to the oceans in the hydrologic cycle D) help remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere E) provide water to the interior of continents

2) Which of the following terms is used to describe the volume of water flowing past a specific point in a stream over a given time period?

A) discharge B) flux C) square volume D) specific capacity E) overland flow

3)

Which of the following is NOT part of the hydrologic cycle?

A) sequestration B) evaporation C) transpiration D) infiltration E) overland flow

4) What best explains why groundwater baseflow is important to maintaining a healthy stream ecosystem in humid climates?

A) provides streams with a steady flow of water during dry periods B) removes bacteria and viruses that are harmful to plants and animals C) reduces the intensity and duration of floods D) decreases stream erosion E) provides dissolved ions necessary for plant growth

5)

Which of the following statements best describes losing streams?

A) common in arid regions where some of the stream water flows into the groundwater system.

B) common in arid regions where groundwater flows into streams.

C) common in humid regions where some of the stream water flows into the groundwater system.

D) common in humid regions where groundwater flows into streams.

6)

What best describes a drainage basin?

A) the land area that collects water for a given network of streams.

B) a circular depression in the topography where water accumulates.

C) a circular depression in the topography where sediment accumulates.

D) a part of the landscape where water is rapidly drained away.

E) a part of the landscape that stays above freezing and water remains a liquid.

7)

What best describes the headwaters of a drainage basin?

A) collection of small channels in the upper part of a basin that merge into larger streams.

B) collection of streams that empty into a body of water.

C) those parts of a drainage basin where water infiltrates into the groundwater system.

D) those parts of a drainage basin where groundwater discharge into streams.

E) those parts of a drainage basin that lie above base level.

8) Streams located near the mouth of a river are quite different compared to those near the headwaters. What best characterizes streams near the mouth?

A) low velocity, high discharge, and meandering channels B) low velocity, low discharge, and meandering channels C) high velocity, high discharge, and straight channels D) high velocity, low discharge, and straight channels E) low velocity, high discharge, and straight channels

9)

What best explains why stream valleys become wider over time?

A) meandering streams undercut their banks and cause mass wasting.

B) deposition of sediment creates a valley floor.

C) tectonic uplift causes valleys to widen naturally.

D) stream velocity becomes greater over time.

E) streams get further above base level.

10) In addition to cutting laterally, streams can also cut downward in their channels to form deep valleys and canyons. What best explains how streams can cut downward through solid rock?

A) transported sediment causes abrasion of bedrock.

B) water flowing rapidly over the bedrock causes erosion.

C) acidic water causing chemical weathering of the bedrock.

D) physical weathering of bedrock by freeze and thaw action.

E) occurs in areas where streams encounter weaker layers of bedrock.

11)

Why is hydraulic sorting of sediment important in environmental geology?

A) it produces relatively pure deposits of sand and clay B) it separates those streams that are flood prone from those that are not C) it produces elevated terraces that are lesslikely to be flooded D) it causes streams to reach base level more rapidly E) all of the answers listed here

12) Some rivers naturally carry more water than others. Which of the following best explains why the Amazon River in South America carries 12 times more water than the Mississippi?

A) the Amazon’s drainage basin lies mostly within a tropical rainforest B) the Amazon has a much larger channel C) there is much less human development along the Amazon D) the Amazon is a much longer river E) all of the answers listed here

13)

How do hydrologists measure the severity of floods?

A) the height (stage) above which a stream overflows its banks B) the number of people that are impacted along a floodplain C) the amount of land area that is inundated along a floodplain D) how fast the water rises in the channel E) the amount of land area that collects water from a rain event

14)

What best explains how hydrologists determine the frequency of flooding?

A) calculate recurrence intervals from historical discharge records B) locate the 100-year floodplain on maps C) predictions based on rainfall duration and intensity data D) predictions based on rainfall volume and wind speed data E) predictions based on topographic maps and precipitation data

15)

Which of the following natural factors affect the degree or severity of flooding?

A) rainfall volume and infiltration capacity of the ground B) size of the raindrops and wind speed C) slope of the land and wind speed D) rainfall volume and wind speed E) size of raindrops and slope of the land

16)

What best characterizes downstream flooding?

A) large volume flood that slowly rises and falls B) small volume flood that slowly rises and falls C) fast moving floodwaters that follow small tributaries D) slow moving floodwaters that follow small tributaries E) floodwaters that rapidly rises and falls

17)

Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to dams and reservoirs?

A) dams are generally not effective at flood control and are mainly used to generate electricity.

B) water released from reservoirs is cooler than a natural stream, which harms aquatic ecosystems.

C) sediment is trapped behind dams and slowly fills in reservoirs.

D) reservoirs serve as an important source of fresh water.

E) stream discharge becomes fairly uniform, which harms aquatic ecosystems.

18)

Which of the following are effective ways of reducing the effects of flooding?

A) all of the answers listed here B) channelization C) wetlands restoration D) artificial levees E) erosion controls

19)

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding artificial levees?

A) used to help keep the channel straight so water flows faster B) raises the height a stream must reach before overflowing its banks C) creates the potential for catastrophic flood in areas downstream D) makes flooding worse in areas upstream E) can be made of concrete or earthen materials

20) Which of the following best explains why urbanization has led to larger and more frequent floods?

A) large areas of land are covered with impermeable surfaces B) rainwater tends follow roadways and becomes more concentrated C) heat island effect of cities produces more frequent rains D) rainfall volume is naturally higher over areas where vegetation is more sparse E) irrigation of yards and landscaping

21)

What is an adverse consequence of engineering structures built to control flooding?

A) It allows the stream to be used as a source of water.

B) It allows the stream to be used as a source of food.

C) It allows the stream to be used for transportation.

D) It tends to encourage development in areas which had been avoided due to frequent flooding.

22)

What is the term for the sinuous pathway through which a stream flows?

A) Floodplain B) Channel C) Wetland D) Lake

23)

The term "discharge" refers to

A) the volume of water flowing through the channel per unit time.

B) the speed of water flowing through a channel.

C) the weight of water flowing through a channel.

D) the amount of sediment carried by a stream channel.

24)

What is meant by the "lag-time" on a stream hydrograph?

A) Time between rain events B) Time between floods C) Time between rain event and flood peak D) Time between flood peak and the next rain event

25)

What is meant by the term "baseflow?"

A) The level of flow during a flood B) The level of flow on a floodplain C) The level of flow when fed by groundwater alone D) The speed of water flowing along the base of a channel

26)

What is the term for a topographic high separating two drainage basins?

A) Headwaters B) Mouth C) Delta D) Drainage divide

27)

What is another term for "drainage basin?"

A) Base level B) Watershed C) Floodplain D) Pothole

28)

What is another term for "stream sediment"?

A) Cutbank B) Alluvium C) Colluvium D) Levee

29)

What is evidence for stream abrasion in solid rock?

A) A pothole B) A point bar C) A cutbank D) A meander

30)

What is the term for the lowest level to which a stream can erode?

A) Base flow B) Mouth C) Base level D) Base discharge

31)

What is the name for a deposit formed where a stream enters a lake or ocean?

A) Levee B) Point bar C) Delta D) Alluvial fan

32) What is the term for the pair of ridges on the floodplain running parallel to the stream bank?

A) Point bar B) Stream terrace C) Backswamp D) Levee

33)

How is the percent probability calculated from the recurrence interval (RI)?

A) 10/RI B) 1/RI C) 10 x RI D) 1 x RI

34)

What is meant by the term "infiltration capacity"?

A) The rate of downward movement of water through the soil B) The ability of the ground to absorb water C) The amount of discharge caused by groundwater D) The total amount of water a stream channel can hold during a flood

35)

Which of the following tends to reduce the magnitude of flooding?

A) Increasing intensity and duration of rainfall B) Increasing ground cover by impermeable materials C) Increasing vegetation D) Increasing drainage basin size

36)

Which is another name for a flash flood?

A) Upstream flood B) Downstream flood C) Storm surge D) Earthflow

37)

Which of the following is true about flash floods?

A) Lag time is very long B) Floodplain is very wide C) Generally affects only large regions D) Generally affects only localized areas

38)

What usually causes a downstream flood?

A) Regional accumulations of water upstream B) Localized accumulations of water upstream C) Storm surge during high tide D) Very rapid deltaic sedimentation

39)

Which human activity does not increase the frequency and severity of flooding?

A) Destruction of wetlands B) Construction of bridges and culverts C) Paving surfaces with impermeable materials D) Increasing lag time caused by sewers

40)

All of the following are effective for reducing flood hazards except

A) construction of dams.

B) filling stream channels with excessive sediment.

C) construction of artificial levees.

D) channelization.

41)

Which of the following statements best describes gaining streams?

A) Common in humid regions where groundwater flows into streams B) Common in arid regions where some of the stream water flows into the groundwater system C) Common in humid regions where some of the stream water flows into the groundwater system D) Common in arid regions where groundwater flows into streams

42) Streams located near the mouth of a river are quite different compared to those near the headwaters. What best characterizes streams near the headwaters?

A) Low velocity, high discharge, and straight channels B) Low velocity, low discharge, and meandering channels C) High velocity, low discharge, and straight channels D) Low velocity, high discharge, and meandering channels E) High velocity, high discharge, and straight channels

43)

What best characterizes flash flooding?

A) Fast moving floodwaters that follow small tributaries B) Small volume flood that slowly rises and falls C) Floodwaters that rapidly rise and fall D) Slow moving floodwaters that follow small tributaries E) Large volume flood that slowly rises and falls

44)

What best describes a drainage divide?

A) A part of the landscape where water is rapidly drained away B) Imaginary line in the landscape where water flows to separate steam networks C) A circular depression in the topography where sediment accumulates D) The land area that collects water for a given network of streams E) A part of the landscape that stays above freezing and water remains a liquid

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) D

27) B 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) C 44) B

Student name:__________ 1) There are two basic types of shorelines in terms of plate tectonics: leading edge (active) and trailing edge (passive). Which of the following best describes leading edge shorelines?

A) steep slopes, irregular coastline, restricted beaches B) gentle slopes, straight coastline, broad beaches C) steep slopes, straight coastline, restricted beaches D) gentle slopes, irregular coastline, broad beaches E) steep slopes, irregular coastline, broad beaches

2)

Which of the following best describes the cause of ocean tides?

A) Earth’s spinning motion and gravitational effect of the Moon and Sun. B) Earth’s spinning motion and plate tectonics.

C) Plate tectonics and gravitational effect of the Moon and Sun. D) Prevailing wind direction and gravitational effect of the Moon and Sun. E) Prevailing wind direction and plate tectonics.

3)

Currents out in the open ocean are primarily driven by which of the following?

A) prevailing winds and density differences of the water B) prevailing winds and tides C) shape of the shoreline and tides D) tides and density differences of the water E) shape of the shoreline and prevailing winds

4)

Which of the following are key characteristics of ocean waves?

A) energy travels horizontally and water molecules move in a circular manner B) energy travels in a circular manner and water molecules travel horizontally C) both water molecules and energy travel horizontally D) waves only involve the transmission of energy E) waves only involve the motion of water molecules

5)

What best explains how surf forms along a shoreline?

A) waves beginning to drag on the seafloor and slowing down B) waves beginning to interacting with the tides C) waves beginning to encounter offshore winds D) waves beginning to encounter warmer coastal waters E) waves beginning to interact with rip currents

6)

Which of the following explains why longshore currents develop along shorelines?

A) wave refraction B) rip currents C) tidal currents D) offshore winds E) underwater channels

7)

Why are longshore currents important in environmental geology?

A) cause the beach itself to migrate over time B) pose a hazard to boats and swimmers C) transport heat energy from the tropics to the polar regions D) are important in the formation of offshore oil and gas deposits E) transport nutrients that are important to fisheries

8)

What best describes why irregular shorelines evolve and become straighter over time?

A) waves erode headlands and deposit sediment in coves and bays B) plate tectonics causes uplift of the land, producing a more uniform coastline C) waves smooth out differences in the width of the beach D) continuous sea level rise E) forces that result from Earth spinning on its axis

9) Which of the following is the primary mechanism that causes barrier islands to retreat (migrate) toward the shoreline?

A) storm overwash B) tides C) longshore currents D) beach drift E) rip currents

10) Hurricanes cause a regional rise in sea level (dome of water) that can result in a very dangerous phenomenon known as storm surge. What best explains the cause for this rise in sea level?

A) high winds and lower air pressure within the storm B) shallow water near the shoreline C) convergence of tides and longshore currents D) convergence of high winds and longshore currents E) heavy rains within the storm

11) Which of the following is the energy source that provides power for tropical storms and hurricanes?

A) warm seawater B) converging trade winds C) diverging ocean currents D) converging ocean currents E) diverging trade winds

12) What is the most effective means of minimizing the structural damage that results from the high winds of a hurricane?

A) strap the roof to the frame and board the windows B) elevate the structure and buy insurance C) elevate the structure and board the windows D) build a seawall and strap the roof to the frame E) build a seawall and buy insurance

13) Tsunamis can form in a variety of ways.Which of the following will NOT cause a tsunami?

A) strong winds B) volcanic eruptions C) landslides D) asteroid impacts E) earthquakes

14) Shoreline retreat is a natural process that humans have made worse in recent years.

Which of the following is NOT a major factor in the rate at which shorelines move inland?

A) coastal development B) frequency of storms C) sea-level rise D) disruptions in sediment supply

15) Seawalls are commonly used to stop shoreline retreat. Which of the following is a negative consequence of building a seawall?

A) loss of the beach at high tide B) unwanted deposition on the up-drift side C) unwanted deposition on the down-drift side D) are costly and must be periodically rebuilt E) creates a beach composed of very coarse particles

16) Beach nourishment is a common technique for minimizing shoreline retreat. Which of the following is a negative consequence of beach nourishment?

A) is costly and must be done periodically B) loss of the beach at high tide C) unwanted deposition on the up-drift side D) unwanted deposition on the down-drift side E) excessive algae growth in the surf zone

17) Breakwaters are commonly used in coastal engineering. What is the basic purpose of installing a breakwater?

A) create a quiet area to moor boats and reduce erosion B) keep sediment from filling a navigational channel C) cause sediment to be deposited on the down-drift side D) cause sediment to be deposited on the up-drift side E) increase the amount of sediment moving through the surf zone

18) In which direction do shorelines in the eastern U.S. shift in response to global glacial episodes?

A) Landward B) Seaward C) From north to south D) From south to north

19)

What is the term used for the difference in sea level between high and low tides?

A) Tidal range B) Tidal bulge C) Tidal bore D) Tidal delta

20)

What is meant by wave base?

A) Water depth where waves are first generated B) Water depth affected by a wave C) Average height of waves D) Average height of sea level

21)

What is wave base a measure of?

A) Wave length B) Wave height C) Wave energy D) Wave speed

22)

What is the coastal process that creates longshore drift?

A) Wave refraction B) Wave dispersion C) Wave diffraction D) Wave attenuation

23)

What is a possible extraterrestrial origin for a tsunami?

A) Pull of the Sun's gravity B) Excessive sunspot activity C) A neutron shower D) A meteorite impact

24)

What is meant by the term surf zone?

A) Zone above high-tide level B) Zone between high and low tide C) Zone of breaking waves D) Zone affected by tides

25)

In which direction does sediment within the surf zone move?

A) Higher on the beach B) Lower on the beach C) In the direction of longshore drift D) Opposite the direction of longshore drift

26)

What effect does global sea level rise usually have on a shoreline?

A) Shoreline advance B) Shoreline retreat C) Coastal uplift D) Coastal subsidence

27)

The term barrier island is derived from the fact that

A) they protect the coastline from strong storms.

B) they block lava during volcanic eruptions.

C) they prevent tidal currents from reaching the shoreline.

D) they are barriers to animal migration.

28)

Hurricanes are a coastal hazard for all of the following reasons except

A) strong dangerous winds.

B) heavy rainfall and flooding.

C) storm surge increases flooding and wave erosion.

D) excessive beach development.

29)

Where is the ocean surface during a storm surge?

A) Beneath an area of abnormally high air pressure B) Beneath an area of abnormally low air pressure C) Not confined to any particular area D) The same as normal

30)

Besides precipitation rate, what contributes to inland flooding during a hurricane?

A) Strong tidal currents B) Slow forward movement of the storm C) Ocean currents D) Differences in seawater density

31)

What can cause rainfall intensity to increase as a storm moves inland?

A) The presence of a rainforest B) The presence of a desert C) The presence of lakes and wetlands D) The presence of a rugged or mountainous terrain

32)

Rip currents are caused by large volumes of backwash associated with

A) tsunamis.

B) longshore drift.

C) tidal currents.

D) heavy surf.

33)

What could possibly trigger a more rapid rate of global sea level rise than at present?

A) Increased coal mining B) Decreased fossil fuel combustion C) Collapse of the ice sheets D) The switch to alternative energy sources

34)

What human activity commonly separates a longshore current from its sediment supply?

A) Removal of seawalls and jetties B) Dredging C) Removal of artificial levees D) Removal of dams

35)

What is an adverse consequence of seawall construction?

A) Excessive beach nourishment B) No disruption of longshore drift C) Reflection of wave energy off the seawall prevents sediment from accumulating D) Disruption of shoreline retreat

36)

What is the problem with the use of beach groins?

A) Up-drift areas experience beach starvation B) Natural jetties are formed in up-drift areas C) Down-drift areas experience coastal subsidence D) Down-drift areas will experience beach starvation

37) Drawbacks to beach nourishment as a solution to coastal erosion include all of the following except

A) it is very expensive.

B) it does not address the cause of coastal erosion.

C) it disrupts longshore drift.

D) it is a temporary solution.

38) There are two basic types of shorelines in terms of plate tectonics: leading edge (active) and trailing edge (passive). Which of the following best describes trailing edge shorelines?

A) Gentle slopes, straight coastline, broad beaches B) Steep slopes, irregular coastline, broad beaches C) Steep slopes, irregular coastline, restricted beaches D) Gentle slopes, irregular coastline, broad beaches E) Steep slopes, straight coastline, restricted beaches

39) Jetties are commonly used in coastal engineering. What is the basic purpose of installing a jetty?

A) Keep sediment from filling a navigational channel B) Create a quiet area to moor boats and reduce erosion C) Increase the amount of sediment moving through the surf zone D) Cause sediment to be deposited on the updrift side E) Cause sediment to be deposited on the downdrift side

40) Groins are commonly used in coastal engineering. What is the basic purpose of installing a groin?

A) Keep sediment from filling a navigational channel B) Create a quiet area to moor boats and reduce erosion C) Increase the amount of sediment moving through the surf zone D) Cause sediment to be deposited on the updrift side E) Cause sediment to be deposited on the downdrift side

41) Seawalls are commonly used in coastal engineering. What is the basic purpose of installing a seawall?

A) Keep sediment from filling a navigational channel B) Protect buildings from shoreline retreat C) Increase the amount of sediment moving through the surf zone D) Cause sediment to be deposited on the updrift side E) Cause sediment to be deposited on the downdrift side

42) Over the past 3 million years, sea level has been as much as 400 feet lower and 100 feet higher compared to today. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) Mass wasting hazards are less likely to occur along trailing edge (passive) shoreline than along leading edge (tectonically active) since the slopes are typically much more gentle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) Should you ever find yourself being swept out to sea in a rip current, it is important to immediately try to swim directly back to shore.

⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) B

27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE

Student name:__________ 1)

Which of the following describes why soils are important in environmental geology?

A) soil loss will affect our ability to grow food as the population increases.

B) soil pollution is causing dangerous toxins to enter the food supply.

C) soil erosion worldwide is contributing to sea level rise.

D) soil erosion is affecting the hydrologic cycle and contributing to climate change.

E) all of the answers listed here.

2)

What best describes the basic way in which soils form?

A) physical and chemical weathering of rock B) erosion and deposition of sediment C) breakdown of minerals by ultraviolet radiation D) repeated flooding over long periods of time E) reactions between water and atmospheric oxygen

3)

What describes how topsoil, or A-horizons develop?

A) accumulation of organic matter in the upper soil zone B) clay particles carried downward by infiltrating water C) clay particles that are pulled upwards by plant roots D) repeated flooding over long periods of time E) reactions between water and atmospheric oxygen

4)

Which of the following best describes soil texture?

A) the proportion of sand, silt, and clay particles B) the number of fractures that develop when a soil becomes dry C) whether a soil is pebbly or sandy D) whether a soil is rough or smooth E) the relative amounts of air and water

5)

Which of the following will cause soils to appear bright red or yellow?

A) iron oxide minerals B) quartz minerals C) organic material D) clay minerals E) all of the answers listed here

6)

What would you expect to see when digging vertically downward in a mature soil?

A) horizons of different colors, textures, and composition B) progressively thicker soil horizons C) progressively coarser soil horizons D) uniformly rich, fertile soil E) alternating horizons of soil and rock

7)

Which of the following statements best describes how time impacts soil formation?

A) over time, more distinct soil horizons will form, each with their own characteristics.

B) over time, a soil will become more homogenous.

C) over time, more clay minerals accumulate in the uppermost layer to form topsoil.

D) over time, soils become enriched with air and water.

E) time does not impact soil formation.

8) The topography of the landscape is an important soil forming factor. What topsoil characteristics would you expect to find on a topographic high?

A) well drained and relatively thin B) poorly drained and relatively thick C) iron oxide rich and poorly drained D) iron oxide poor and well drained E) heavily vegetated and well drained

9) A paleosol represents a soil profile that was buried under new sediment. What explains why paleosols are important in environmental geology?

A) represent a distinct, datable time event B) helps geologist locate coal deposits C) provide valuable clues in the study of archaeology D) are particularly well-drained E) organic content is much higher than normal topsoil

10) Soil scientists and engineers classify soils differently.What best describes the basis for how engineers classify soils?

A) physical properties B) soil-forming factors C) geographic location D) thickness and density E) water content

11) Porosity is the term that describes the amount of void space within a material. What explains why porosity is important with respect to soils?

A) provides plant roots access to moisture and oxygen B) makes soils less compactable C) reduces the ability of erosion to strip away topsoil D) provides space for the breakdown of aluminum minerals E) allows iron oxides to accumulate

12)

Which of the following explains why clay-rich soils are less permeable than sandy soils?

A) clay particles are electrically charged and very small.

B) clay soils have greater porosity.

C) sandy soils have greater vegetation cover.

D) sandy soils tend to form in areas with abundant rainfall.

E) pores spaces of clay soils become plugged with sand grains.

13) What explains why the soil property known as shrink-swell is important in environmental geology?

A) causes structural damage in buildings B) greatly enhances the effect of agricultural droughts C) causes soils to become less permeable D) causes soils to become unstable on steep slopes E) prevents farmers from working their fields

14) What explains why the soil property known as ion exchange is important in environmental geology?

A) makes soils fertile by allowing them to store nutrients B) reduces soil erosion in sandy soils C) causes farmers to use more chemicals to control weeds D) leads to the buildup of salts within a soil E) causes soils to compact more easily

15)

Which of the following best describes the root cause of soil loss?

A) removal of natural vegetation B) farmers applying too much fertilizer C) farmers plowing their fields when wet D) fields becoming too dry E) climate change

16) The problem known as sediment pollution is a major environmental issue. Which of the following is a problem associated with sediment pollution?

A) excess sediment in stream channels increases flooding B) too much fertilizer makes soils toxic and unusable C) buildup of heavy metals makes soils toxic and unusable D) compaction reduces crop production E) any pollution that causes crops to become unfit to eat

17)

Which of the following is an effective technique for reducing soil erosion?

A) all of the answers listed here B) no-till farming C) strip cropping D) contour plowing E) terracing

18) Salinization refers to the process where agricultural fields become unusable because of saline water in the soil root zone. What is the basic reason the water becomes too saline?

A) irrigation water applied to the fields dissolves salt crystals within the soil B) use of saline water to irrigate crops builds up salts over time C) plant growth gives off ions, but the salts can’t be flushed from the soil D) ion exchange between rainwater and organic matter in the soil E) all of the answers listed here

19)

Soils are an important resource for all the following reasons except

A) they are the essential medium for growing food.

B) they are a renewable resource.

C) they are a source for building materials.

D) they are a source of aluminum.

20)

Which is an important type of physical weathering?

A) Minerals react with water and change shape.

B) Minerals dissolve in water.

C) Water freezes and expands within pore spaces and fractures.

D) Plant roots excrete organic acids.

21)

What is an important consequence of physical weathering?

A) It destroys harmful bacteria.

B) It removes toxic heavy metals.

C) It purifies groundwater.

D) It increases surface area, exposing more of the rock to chemical reactions.

22)

All of the following are products of chemical weathering except

A) soil organic matter.

B) clay minerals.

C) iron oxides.

D) ions lost in solution.

23)

What is the uppermost organic-rich zone in soil called?

A) A-horizon B) B-horizon C) C-horizon D) R-horizon

24) What is the name of the zone of accumulation which is enriched in clay and other minerals?

A) A-horizon B) B-horizon C) C-horizon D) R-horizon

25)

What is the substance that gives soil a blackish to brownish appearance?

A) Iron oxide B) Clay minerals C) Salts D) Organic matter

26)

Soil texture refers to

A) the amount of sand, silt, and clay-sized material.

B) the amount of organic matter.

C) the tendency for the soil to split in clumps.

D) the amount of iron oxides.

27)

All of the following are soil-forming factors except

A) time.

B) parent material.

C) leaching.

D) organisms.

28) Which soil order is characterized as having an uppermost horizon that is unusually rich in organic matter?

A) Ultisols B) Aridisols C) Gelisols D) Histosols

29)

What is the Unified Soil Classification System based on?

A) Chemical properties B) Organic matter content C) Physical properties D) Soil color

30)

Why is porosity an important soil property?

A) It indicates the amount of water potentially available for plant growth.

B) It indicates the ability of a soil to deform without breaking.

C) It indicates the ability of water to flow through soil.

D) It indicates how well soil particles stick together.

31)

Which texture is generally the most drought resistant soil type?

A) Gravel B) Sand C) Silt D) Clay

32)

The shrink-swell capacity of soil is determined by

A) the type of sand.

B) the type of organic matter.

C) the type of gravel.

D) the type of clay.

33)

What determines the ion exchange capacity of soil?

A) The permeability of the soil B) The compressibility of the soil C) The amount of electrically-charged particles D) The amount of shrink-swell minerals

34)

What is the process which converts atmospheric nitrogen into forms needed by plants?

A) Biological activity B) Chemical weathering C) Physical weathering D) Dissolution

35)

All of the following are useful for increasing soil fertility except A) addition of fertilizer.

B) addition of manure.

C) addition of iron oxide.

D) crop rotation.

36)

Soils are an important source of all of the following except

A) petroleum.

B) aluminum.

C) kaolinite clay.

D) peat.

37)

What is the function of grassed waterways?

A) To increase soil fertility B) To decrease soil fertility C) To increase soil erosion D) To decrease soil erosion

38)

What is the usual cause of soil salinization?

A) Excessive soil erosion B) Heavy irrigation on poorly drained desert soils C) Excessive fertilizer additions D) Overdevelopment of residential areas

39)

What best describes how B-horizons develop?

A) Accumulation of organic matter in the upper soil zone B) Clay particles being pulled upwards by plant roots C) Clay particles being carried downward by infiltrating water D) Reactions between water and atmospheric oxygen E) Repeated flooding over long periods of time

40) Which of the following statements best describes how temperature impacts soil formation?

A) Affects the rate of soil erosion B) Affects the abundance and diversity of organisms C) Affects the rate at which clay minerals accumulate D) Affects how much oxygen can enter the soil E) Affects how much liquid water can enter the soil

41) What best explains why highly compressible soils are a problem in environmental geology?

A) Leads to greater rates of erosion in clay-rich soils B) Causes farmers to use more chemicals to control weeds C) Leads to greater rates of erosion in sand-rich soils D) Compacts more easily, leading to settling problems in buildings E) Leads to the buildup of iron within a soil and reduced soil fertility

42) What best explains why the soil feature known as hardpan is important in environmental geology?

A) Causes soils to compact more easily B) Reduces soil erosion in sandy soils C) Makes soils fertile by allowing them to store nutrients D) Causes farmers to use more chemicals to control weeds E) Limits the ability of roots and water to penetrate the soil

43)

Quartz readily undergoes chemical weathering to form aluminum-rich clay minerals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44)

The O horizon, which is found only in some soil profiles, is an oxygen-rich layer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) A

27) C 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) E 43) FALSE 44) FALSE

Student name:__________ 1) What is the basic mechanism that naturally creates freshwater within the hydrologic cycle?

A) evaporation B) reverse osmosis C) precipitation D) runoff E) infiltration

2)

Where is the majority of Earth's freshwater being stored?

A) glacial ice B) atmosphere C) lakes D) groundwater E) rivers

3)

Which of the following activities use the greatest amount of water in the United States?

A) irrigation and electrical generation B) industrial and municipal supply C) industrial and irrigation D) irrigation and municipal supply E) electrical generation and industrial

4) Due to geology, some regions have to rely entirely on surface water. Which of the following is a common technique used to expand surface water supplies?

A) water diversions B) drilling wells C) cloud seeding D) desalinization E) enhanced evaporation

5) In terms of supplying sufficient quantities of drinking water, which of the following is the most important property of an aquifer?

A) high permeability (conductivity) B) high ion exchange capacity C) low compressibility D) low shrink-swell E) low evaporation

6)

Which of the following earth materials would NOT make for a good aquifer?

A) shale B) sandstone C) fractured granite D) soluble limestone E) sandy sediment

7)

Which of the following statements regarding streams and groundwater is NOT true?

A) when a stream goes dry it means the adjoining aquifer will also go dry.

B) when the water table is higher than a stream channel, groundwater flows into the stream.

C) groundwater baseflow is what allows streams to keep flowing during dry periods.

D) infiltrating water contributes to the supply of groundwater.

E) when the water table becomes lower than a stream channel, the stream can run dry.

8) What best explains why confined aquifers make for a safer water supply compared to unconfined aquifers?

A) unconfined aquifers are open to the surface environment.

B) the water in confined aquifers is naturally filtered.

C) confined aquifers do not have an overlying aquitard for protection.

D) confined aquifers have greater water pressure.

E) unconfined aquifers have greater water pressure.

9)

What best describes the direction that groundwater flows in the subsurface?

A) from areas of high hydraulic head to low hydraulic head B) from areas of infiltration to areas of evaporation C) away from streams and lakes D) from unconfined to confined aquifers E) from saturated to unsaturated aquifers

10)

What is the basic difference between modern water wells and older hand dug wells?

A) older wells are much larger in diameter B) older wells capture a greater amount of rainfall C) modern wells can be used in deserts D) modern wells do not dry up E) older wells do not dry up

11) When water is pumped from a well it creates a cone-of-depression. What is the basic reason this sometimes causes problems?

A) it reverses the natural direction of groundwater flow B) it causes increased pressure within the aquifer C) it causes the water table to become flat D) it slows the natural rate of groundwater flow E) it causes the potentiometric surface to merge with the water table

12)

Which of the following describes the problem known as groundwater mining?

A) falling groundwater levels due to excessive pumping B) removal of aquifer material that reduces the supply of groundwater C) aquifer become too saline in areas of heavy irrigation D) pumping groundwater from one area and transporting it to another E) using groundwater to process large ore deposits

13)

What best describes the problem known as saltwater intrusion?

A) heavy pumping allows saline water to migrate into freshwater aquifers B) disruption of marine ecosystems when freshwater discharges into the ocean C) disposing wastewater from desalinization plants causes hypersaline seawater D) injecting seawater into freshwater aquifers for treatment and storage E) injecting freshwater into saline aquifers for treatment and storage

14)

Which of the following are common water desalinization techniques?

A) distillation and reverse osmosis B) ionization and precipitation C) distillation and precipitation D) ionization and reverse osmosis E) evaporation and ionization

15) Which of the following best describes the environmental problem associated with desalinization?

A) disposing of the concentrated saltwater B) increased water temperatures C) finding an appropriate source of seawater D) finding an appropriate source of freshwater E) acid rain downwind of the plants

16) Xeriscaping is a water conservation technique commonly used in landscaping. What best describes xeriscaping?

A) use of native vegetation B) use of low-evaporation soils C) use of high-water content soils D) replacing porous surface materials with solid surfaces E) use of x-rays to reduce evaporation

17)

Freshwater is an integral part of the hydrologic cycle. How is it produced?

A) Evaporation of the polar ice cap B) Evaporation of saltwater in the oceans C) Melting of glaciers on land D) Melting of icebergs

18) What is the term for water that is intermediate in salinity between freshwater and seawater?

A) Hard water B) Soft water C) Brackish water D) Connate water

19)

What is the most abundant source of freshwater on Earth?

A) The oceans B) Glacial ice C) Streams and lakes D) Groundwater

20)

What is the single greatest use of freshwater in the United States?

A) Electrical power generation B) Irrigation C) Recreation D) Public water supply

21)

Where does the supply of freshwater mainly come from in the United States?

A) Glacial ice B) Ocean water C) Groundwater D) Surface water

22)

Personal indoor water use in the U.S. is dominated by

A) flushing toilets.

B) clothes washing.

C) showers.

D) faucets.

23)

What is a key problem associated with electrical power generation?

A) Excessive surface water consumption B) Excessive groundwater consumption C) Excessive thermal pollution D) Requires expensive desalinization

24)

What is a key problem with reservoirs?

A) They provide a source of fresh water B) They increase the amount of evaporative losses C) They provide better flood control D) They provide a means of generating electricity

25)

Which earth material has the highest porosity?

A) Granular material that is unconsolidated B) Cemented sandstone C) Shale D) Limestone

26)

Which kind of rock often forms caves?

A) Sandstone B) Limestone C) Shale D) Granite

27)

All of the following make good aquifers except

A) sandstone.

B) gravel.

C) sand.

D) shale.

28)

What is the term for a type of rock with low hydraulic conductivity?

A) Aquifer B) Aquitude C) Aquiclude D) Aquitard

29)

Where is the water level in a well drilled into a confined aquifer?

A) Above the top of the confined aquifer B) Below the water table C) At the same level as the water table D) No way to predict

30)

What is the term for a well where water freely flows to the surface?

A) Hydraulic well B) Water-table well C) Artesian well D) Extraction well

31) Which parameter makes it possible to determine the direction groundwater is flowing in the subsurface?

A) Hydraulic conductivity B) Hydraulic gradient C) Hydraulic porosity D) Hydraulic pressure

32)

Which of the following is true about groundwater mining?

A) It is reversible.

B) Water levels in an aquifer get progressively lower over time.

C) Water levels in an aquifer are recharged during wet seasons.

D) Water levels in an aquifer never change.

33) Which of the following is not true about land subsidence associated with groundwater withdrawal?

A) Aquifers compact less than aquitards.

B) It can cause saltwater intrusion.

C) It is never permanent.

D) It decreases pore pressure in aquifers and aquitards.

34)

Why is desalinization attractive as an alternative water-supply source?

A) Lower energy costs B) No waste water disposal problem C) Seawater is very abundant on planet Earth D) Does not harm sensitive ecological systems

35) What is the term for recycled wastewater that has never come in contact with human waste?

A) Graywater B) Greenwater C) Whitewater D) Bluewater

36)

What is the single greatest domestic and commercial use of water?

A) Electric power production B) Toilet flushing C) Rainwater harvesting D) Watering lawns and gardens

37) When water is withdrawn from the subsurface a phenomenon known as land subsidence can occur. Which of the following is the basic cause of this gradual lowering of the land surface?

A) High conductivity of the aquifer B) High water table C) Compressibility of clay layers D) Salt water intrusion E) Excessive weight of buildings in urban areas

38) In spite of growing water shortages, people typically do not conserve water. Which of the following best explains why people commonly don’t conserve?

A) Low cost of water B) Water supply remains uncontaminated C) Ignorance D) Lack of infrastructure E) Resistance to environmental regulations

39) There are many areas of the country in which there is a shortage of fresh water. Which of the following is the least costly option for alleviating a water shortage?

A) Desalinization of seawater B) Conservation C) Dams and reservoirs D) Towing icebergs E) Redistribution of surface water by aqueducts

40) What best describes why desalination of seawater is not more widely used as a means of increasing freshwater supplies?

A) Limited supply of saltwater B) Public fear of contamination C) Major population centers located far inland D) High energy costs E) All of the answers listed here

41)

Groundwater recharge occurs every time it rains. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42)

Solar energy drives the hydrologic cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43)

Desalinization is desirable because it is an energy-efficient process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44)

When groundwater recharge is less than discharge it can cause land subsidence to occur. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) B

27) D 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) D 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

What is a mineral resource?

A) any rock or mineral that is useful to humans.

B) rock body containing economically valuable minerals.

C) minerals that contain useful metals.

D) sand and clay minerals used in construction.

E) any rock or mineral that is non-organic.

2) Which of the following describes the degree to which geologic processes have concentrated a mineral resource above its average concentration in Earth’s crust?

A) enrichment factor B) concentration level C) economic potential D) relative abundance E) geologic factor

3) Which of the following terms describes a rock body where the concentration of a mineral is high enough that it is profitable to mine?

A) ore deposit B) placer deposit C) mineral resource D) mineral deposit E) mother lode

4)

Which of the following statements is true regarding kimberlite pipes?

A) all of the answers listed here B) are produced by small, explosive volcanic eruptions C) sometimes contain diamonds D) originate in the upper mantle E) are relatively rare types of igneous deposits

5)

Which of the following statements is true with respect to layered intrusions?

A) form when crystals settle in a magma chamber B) form in layered sedimentary rocks C) form during high pressure metamorphic events D) form when magma is injected between layers within the crust E) all of the answers listed here

6) Which of the following describes why hydrothermal vein and disseminated deposits are important to society?

A) source of valuable metals such as copper, lead, and gold B) easy to mine because they are found in aquifer materials C) are the primary source of pure sulfur D) sometimes contain diamonds E) are the primary source of water-based minerals such as gypsum

7)

Which of following best describes why asbestos minerals are hazardous to humans?

A) fibrous shape and are chemically resistance B) contain toxic elements and are chemically resistance C) readily dissolves and contains toxic elements D) small size and fibrous shape E) contain toxic elements and was once widely used in society

8) Placers are sedimentary deposits where valuable minerals have been hydraulically sorted.

Which of the following mineral properties are required for hydraulic sorting by streams to be effective?

A) high density and high chemical resistance B) high solubility and high density C) well-rounded shaped and high chemical resistance D) small grain size and well-rounded shape E) large grain size and high solubility

9) Much of the world’s supply of iron comes from banded iron deposits that formed between 1.8 and 2.6 billion years ago. In addition to being a source of iron, why are these deposits important in geology?

A) represent the point in time when free oxygen was becoming more abundant B) provide proof of the first known ice ages C) mark the point in history when marine mammals were first beginning to evolve D) provide evidence of the earliest known sedimentary rocks E) all of the answers listed here

10)

Which of the following statements best describe how evaporite deposits form?

A) minerals precipitating out of a solution.

B) minerals accumulating in soils as water percolates downward.

C) minerals associated with hydrothermal activity.

D) mineral crystals that settle in a magma chamber.

E) minerals that remain within a soil during chemical weathering.

11) Mine tailings represent the waste material from mining operations that must be permanently stored on the land surface. Which of the following is the primary environmental problem associated with mine tailings?

A) air and water pollution B) excess weight causes land subsidence C) excess weight causes small earthquakes D) great height creates aviation hazards E) all of the answers listed here

12)

Which of the following statements are true regarding open-pit mining?

A) all of the answers listed here B) as the pit becomes deeper, the diameter of the hole must decrease C) common technique for extracting low-grade ores D) has lower operating costs and fewer occupational hazards E) involves excavating massive volumes of waste materials

13) Which of the following describes the mineral processing technique whereby a chemical solution percolates through crushed ore and liberates the desired elements?

A) leaching B) smelting C) dredging D) ionization E) hydration

14)

Which of the following statements best describes strategic minerals?

A) minerals a country finds necessary, but must be imported.

B) minerals a country considers essential for its economy.

C) minerals a country exports in a controlled manner for national security reasons.

D) minerals a country considers essential for its national security.

E) minerals used to produce military weapons.

15) Which of the following is NOT an example of a mineral resource being used in a consumptive manner?

A) aluminum for making cans B) phosphorites for making fertilizer C) limestone to make concrete D) graphite to make pencils E) diamond tipped cutting tools

16) Which of the following best describes the primary cause of the environmental problem known as acid-mine drainage?

A) chemical breakdown of sulfide minerals B) use of strong acids during mining operations C) excessive mining regulations D) poorly ventilated underground mines E) all of the answers listed here

17) In addition to lowering the pH of nearby streams, which of the following is an environmental problem associated with acid mine drainage?

A) release of heavy metals into the environment B) erosion of mining tunnels causing land subsidence C) chemical burns of workers due to presence of alkaline minerals D) increased runoff leading to more frequent flooding E) acidic runoff causes aquifer materials to dissolve

18)

What is the key mineral used to make glass?

A) Graphite B) Quartz C) Gypsum D) Kaolinite

19)

What is meant by the term enrichment factor?

A) The amount needed to produce a useful product.

B) The amount found in a useful product.

C) The degree to which a mineral resource is concentrated in the crust.

D) The degree to which a mineral resource is found in a typical rock.

20)

What are ore minerals composed of?

A) Halite B) Gold C) Valuable radioactive elements D) Any valuable element or compound

21)

What distinguishes a mineral reserve from a mineral resource?

A) B) C) D)

22)

Existing technology Economic feasibility Location Politics

Kimberlite pipes are associated with which valuable mineral resource?

A) Diamonds B) Gold C) Silver D) Petroleum

23)

Which type of mineral resource is associated with layered intrusions?

A) Petroleum B) Natural gas C) Metallic minerals D) Diamonds

24)

What is a common source of exceptionally large grains of quartz and feldspar?

A) Pegmatites B) Kimberlites C) Layered intrusions D) Hydrothermal deposits

25)

Hydrothermal deposits typically contain valuable minerals in what form?

A) Oxides B) Sulfides C) Phosphates D) Halides

26)

Which is a type of high-grade deposit containing highly concentrated ore minerals?

A) A disseminated deposit B) A vein deposit C) A country rock D) A pegmatite

27)

Which type of mineral deposit is associated with a black smoker?

A) A massive sulfide deposit B) A vein deposit C) A disseminated deposit D) A layered intrusion

28) Mineral resources produced by regional metamorphism include all of the following except

A) slate.

B) marble.

C) asbestos.

D) shale.

29)

Which process produces relatively pure deposits of gravel, sand, and clay?

A) Hydrothermal activity B) Hydraulic sorting C) Crystal settling D) Regional metamorphism

30)

Which valuable mineral is commonly found as a placer deposit?

A) Limestone B) Rock salt C) Gold D) Quartz

31)

Bauxite is the source for which valuable metal?

A) Aluminum B) Zinc C) Iron D) Nickel

32)

Bricks are commonly produced from which type of deposit?

A) Calcite B) Evaporite C) Laterite D) Pegmatite

33)

"Iron hat" is often a good indicator of which type of buried mineral deposit?

A) Copper oxide B) Copper sulfide C) Copper carbonate D) Copper sulfate

34)

Banded iron formation is mined to produce which valuable commodity?

A) Batteries B) Fertilizer C) Steel D) Brick

35)

Evaporites produce which type of economically valuable commodity?

A) Metallic ores B) Salts C) Bricks D) Fertilizer

36)

Economically valuable deposits of phosphorite are composed of which key mineral?

A) Gypsum B) Calcite C) Apatite D) Asbestos

37)

Which type of mineral is responsible for acid mine drainage?

A) Phosphates B) Carbonates C) Silicates D) Sulfides

38)

Which of the following statements is true regarding rare earth elements?

A) Common elements, but rarely concentrated into economic deposits B) Rare elements found only in deep sea vents C) Rare elements found only in certain types of explosive volcanic eruptions D) Common elements in seawater, but not rocks E) Rare elements found only associated with diamond kimberlite deposits

39) Which of the following statements best describes the main application of the element lithium in modern society?

A) Psychiatric medicines B) Fuel additive for nuclear reactors C) Lightweight rechargeable batteries D) All of the answers listed here E) Lightweight metal for military aircraft

40) Diamond is the hardest known mineral or substance. Which of the following statements best describes why diamond’s extreme hardness is important in modern society?

A) Makes diamond jewelry extremely durable B) Allows diamond-based material to withstand an extreme amount of heat C) Allows diamond-based material to withstand an extreme amount of weight D) All of the answers listed here E) Enables diamond tipped tools to cut through any material

41) The metamorphic rock known as slate has been widely used by humans to make roofing shingles. Which of following properties makes slate useful for this application?

A) Resists physical weathering B) Strong and has high hardness C) Resists chemical weathering D) All of the answers listed here E) Breaks along foliation planes to form thin sheets

42) Which of the following best describes the source of acid in the environmental problem known as acid-mine drainage?

A) Metallic minerals that breakdown and release sulfide (S 2-) ions B) Cyanide acid used in the processing of gold ore C) All of the answers listed here D) Excessive amounts of acid rain that get trapped in underground mines E) Chemical breakdown of silicate (SiO 4) minerals

43) Some minerals are economical to mine at lower concentrations because of their higher value to society and relatively low extraction costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) Once a mineral resource becomes economically viable to mine, it remains that way until the majority of the deposit has been extracted. ⊚ ⊚ 45)

true false

Ore deposits are randomly located around the world. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) B

27) A 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) E 41) D 42) A 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE

Student name:__________ 1)

If energy is the capacity to perform work or transfer heat, what is work?

A) when an object is moved a given distance against some force.

B) when energy is transformed from one form to another.

C) when heat is lost in a mechanical system.

D) when friction is overcome.

E) when energy is used to produce something of value.

2)

Which of the following is true regarding chemical energy?

A) is stored in chemical bonds B) is derived from the nucleus of atoms C) comes from the flow of electrons D) is the same as heat energy E) all of the answers listed here

3)

Which of the following best defines energy efficiency?

A) measures how much of the original energy goes to its intended purpose.

B) the goal for modern society as we transition away from our dependence on fossil fuels.

C) the minimum standard for new appliances.

D) measures the reduction in energy usage for a given application.

E) compares the amount of fossil fuel to renewable energy usage.

4)

Which of the following statements regarding coal is NOT true?

A) carbon content decreases as depth of burial increases B) requires increases in temperature and pressure to transform organic matter into coal C) forms in swamp-like conditions D) originates from decaying plant material E) is found in sedimentary rock sequences

5) Which of the following is an environmental problem associated with society’s use of coal?

A) all of the answers listed here B) greenhouse gas emissions and climate change C) acid rain D) acid mine drainage E) land subsidence

6)

What best describes how petroleum is different than coal?

A) contains considerable amounts of hydrogen B) contains more carbon atoms C) forms only in sedimentary rocks D) is a less concentrated form of energy E) is a less volatile form of energy

7)

What best explains how crude oil is different from natural gas?

A) consists of longer chains of hydrocarbon molecules B) produces less amount of heat C) is found both onshore and in marine deposits D) is a less dense form of energy E) produces less greenhouse gasses

8)

Which of the following is essential in order for petroleum to accumulate in a trap?

A) all of the answers listed here.

B) hydrocarbons must migrate from a source rock.

C) the source rock must generate hydrocarbon molecules.

D) a porous rock to store the hydrocarbon molecules.

E) a low permeability cap rock that prevents the escape of hydrocarbons.

9)

Which of the following statements best describes the oil window?

A) depth interval where temperatures allow oil to form in a source rock.

B) amount of time it takes for oil to migrate from its source rock to a trap.

C) amount of time a particular oil reservoir is capable of producing oil.

D) temperature at which natural gas begins converting to oil.

E) amount of time it takes for oil to form from a source rock.

10)

Approximately how much of the U.S. energy supply consists of fossil fuels?

A) 50% B) 80% C) 60% D) 30% E) 40%

11) Which of the following energy sources makes up the largest percentage of the electricity produced in the United States?

A) Natural gas B) Coal C) Oil D) Renewables E) Nuclear

12)

Which of the following statements regarding the peak oil theory is NOT true?

A) Has yet to be shown to be true for a single nation B) Predicts a production decline will follow a decline in new discoveries C) Is a statistical model developed by a petroleum geologist named Hubbert D) Is based on the fact that oil is a finite resource E) Predicts that world production of conventional crude will eventually peak

13) What is the basic problem or issue with respect to expanding the world’s oil supply in the future?

A) All of the answers listed here.

B) Fewer conventional fields are being found today.

C) Numerous conventional and tight oil deposits must be found to offset production declines of older fields.

D) Remaining deposits are more expensive and difficult to extract.

E) Discoveries of conventional fields peaked in the 1970s.

14)

What represents the most effective strategy for avoiding a future oil crisis?

A) Reduce demand for oil and increase supply of alternative energy sources.

B) Increase conventional oil production from remote and/or protected locations.

C) Switch over from oil to natural gas wherever possible.

D) Increase fuel efficiency of transportation vehicles.

E) Expand supply of oil in strategic reserve.

15)

Which of the following is NOT a replacement for conventional oil?

A) Electricity B) Shale oil C) Natural gas D) Coal liquefaction E) Biofuels

16)

What is the name for the energy stored in an object which is not in motion?

A) Kinetic B) Potential C) Nuclear D) Thermal

17)

How efficient is a typical gasoline engine?

A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 65 percent D) 85 percent

18)

Examples of renewable resources include all of the following except

A) hydro.

B) wind.

C) solar.

D) natural gas.

19)

Why did coal replace wood as the dominant fuel source?

A) It is less expensive to produce.

B) It is more energy dense.

C) It is easier to find.

D) It is easily converted to a liquid.

20)

What is the source of organic material in coal?

A) Land plants B) Marine algae C) Diamonds D) Dinosaurs

21)

What is the highest rank of coal?

A) Lignite B) Sub-bituminous C) Bituminous D) Anthracite

22) What is an adverse environmental impact of the mountaintop removal method of coal mining?

A) Increasing input of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere B) Acid mine drainage C) Permanently altered streams and ecosystems D) Subsidence and collapse of the ground

23)

What is the source of organic matter in petroleum?

A) Land plants B) Metamorphosed coal C) Marine plankton D) Shale containing graphite

24)

Where does most petroleum originate?

A) In organic-rich marine shales B) In a sandy reservoir rock C) In a "leaky" cap rock D) In deeply buried metamorphic rocks

25)

What technique increases oil and gas production from low-permeability source rocks?

A) Seismic exploration B) Hydraulic drilling C) Hydraulic fracturing D) Hydraulic sorting

26)

How is petroleum refined?

A) Sublimation B) Gasification C) Vaporization D) Distillation

27)

What is the main advantage of light crude in comparison to heavy crude oil?

A) Light crude is more viscous.

B) More gasoline can be refined from a barrel of light crude.

C) A barrel of heavy crude costs more.

D) Heavy crude has a higher recovery rate.

28)

What causes a blowout?

A) Too much gas is produced during refining B) A high pressure zone is encountered while drilling C) Oil platforms are destroyed by hurricanes D) Oil platforms are hit by tankers

29)

Which country consumes the greatest amount of energy?

A) United States B) China C) India D) Russia

30)

Which energy resource is used the most in the United States?

A) Gas B) Oil C) Coal D) Solar power

31)

Which resource is most commonly used to produce electricity in the United States?

A) Coal B) Oil C) Natural gas D) Water

32)

When did the peak in U.S. (domestic) conventional oil production occur?

A) 1956 B) 1970 C) 1986 D) 2001

33)

Nonconventional oil sources include all of the following except

A) tar sands.

B) biofuels.

C) liquified natural gas.

D) coal.

34)

What is a major drawback to using natural gas in place of oil?

A) Major changes in auto engines are required.

B) Gas requires larger fuel tanks.

C) Driving range is much longer than oil.

D) The demand for natural gas is much lower.

35) Which of the following forms of energy best describes energy that results from the vibrational motion of atoms?

A) Chemical B) Thermal C) Kinetic D) Nuclear E) Electrical

36) Which of the following forms of energy best describes energy that results from objects in motion?

A) Thermal B) Kinetic C) Nuclear D) Gravitational E) Electrical

37) Which of the following forms of energy best describes energy that results from electrons in motion?

A) Chemical B) Thermal C) Kinetic D) Nuclear E) Electrical

38) Energy conversions take place when energy changes from one form to another. Which of the following is involved in all energy conversions?

A) Heat loss B) Electricity loss C) Decrease in light intensity D) Nuclear radiation E) All of the answers listed here

39) Oil and gas are now being extracted in large quantities directly from organic-rich shales and other sedimentary rocks with low permeability. Which of the following technological advances have made this possible?

A) Seismic surveys and deep-ocean drilling B) Horizontal drilling and hydraulic fracturing C) Hydraulic fracturing and deep-ocean drilling D) High pressure blowout preventers and deep-ocean drilling E) Seismic surveys and high pressure blowout preventers

40)

Nuclear energy is often called radiant energy.

⊚ ⊚ 41)

true false

Economical petroleum traps are geologically rare. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) China, with its large population, has the highest per capita energy consumption in the world. ⊚ ⊚ 43)

Fossil fuels are distributed fairly evenly around the globe. ⊚ ⊚

44)

true false

true false

With respect to conventional oil, the United States reached peak production in the 1970s. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) D

27) B 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) E 38) A 39) B 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1) Synthetic crude oil can be made through a process of liquefying coal. What is the primary problem with using coal to help meet the growing demand for oil?

A) Higher carbon dioxide emissions are needed.

B) Coal reserves are limited.

C) Gasoline cannot be produced from coal.

D) Additional technology is required.

E) New technology is required.

2) In comparison to light crude oil, which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to heavy crude oil?

A) Oil companies prefer heavy crude oil because it is more profitable.

B) Heavy crude oil is more difficult to extract.

C) Refining heavy crude oil is more expensive.

D) Heavy crude oil is more viscous.

E) Most of the remaining oil reserves consist of heavier crudes.

3) Which of the following best explains why carbon dioxide emissions are so much higher using oil sands compared to conventional crude oil?

A) Oil sands require additional energy to produce.

B) Oil sands contain carbon dioxide trapped within the sand.

C) Oil sands are found at higher latitude and naturally contain more carbon dioxide.

D) Oxygen within oil sands readily combines with the carbon.

E) Oil sands naturally contain water.

4)

Which of the following best describes oil shale deposits?

A) Organic-rich source rock that has never been buried deep enough to produce oil B) Crude oil deposit in which the lighter molecules have migrated away C) Shale that is saturated with crude oil, but requires fracturing to extract D) Shale found at higher elevations in the Rocky Mountains E) The primary source of oil in the western United States for the past 100 years

5) The original method of processing oil shale involved crushing the rock and then heating it. What environmental problem did this create that the new method (heating the rock in place) seeks to avoid?

A) Disposing of large volumes of waste rock B) Water pollution C) Carbon dioxide emissions D) Acid rain E) Landslides

6) Gas hydrates represent a potential source of natural gas. Which of the following is the primary reason commercial production is not yet taking place?

A) There is a high potential for the uncontrolled release of gas.

B) Thick, economical deposits have yet to be found.

C) The price of natural gas is presently too high.

D) It produces many undesirable by-products.

E) They are unable to reach deposits on the ocean floor.

7) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the production of corn-based ethanol as an alternative to gasoline in the United States?

A) provides a long-term solution to our energy needs B) production likely results in a net energy loss C) production requires a significant amount of farmland D) it is less energy efficient than gasoline E) it is helping to drive up food prices

8) A pumped-storage system is where water is pumped up into an elevated reservoir, and then allowed to fall to produce electricity. What is the basic reason this system is economical?

A) surplus electricity at night is being used to pump water into reservoir.

B) more electricity is generated than is used in pumping water into the reservoir.

C) it is more efficient to generate electricity when it is generated with gravity.

D) the electricity is being generated with a renewable energy resource.

E) the electricity is being generated with a non-carbon based energy source.

9) Which of the following best describes the major advantages of generating electricity with nuclear power plants?

A) generates electricity on a large scale and does not emit carbon dioxide.

B) there is an infinite supply of uranium and does not emit carbon dioxide.

C) generates electricity on a large scale and is easier to connect to the electrical grid.

D) there is an infinite supply of uranium and is easier to connect to the electrical grid.

E) easier to connect to the electrical grid and does not emit carbon dioxide.

10)

What best describes the major disadvantages of nuclear power?

A) high production costs and lack of long-term waste storage B) high accident rate and public fear C) non-renewable and high production costs D) high accident rate and high production costs E) public fear and non-renewable

11)

What energy transformation takes place when sunlight strikes an ordinary solid object?

A) electromagnetic to thermal (heat) B) electromagnetic to electrical C) nuclear to electrical D) thermal (heat) to nuclear E) electrical to thermal (heat)

12)

What describes the difference between passive and active solar energy designs?

A) active involves some type of mechanical system B) active involves glass windows and trees C) active makes use of gravity heating D) active works on cloudy days E) active works only during the daytime

13)

What best describes the difference between solar thermal and photovoltaic systems?

A) photovoltaic generates electricity only B) solar thermal operates only during the daytime C) photovoltaic generates both heat and electricity D) photovoltaic use electricity and can operate at night E) solar thermal works better in warm climates

14)

Which of the following describes the advantages of wind power over solar?

A) wind turbines can generate power at night and on cloudy days.

B) wind turbines are easier to install than solar panels.

C) wind generated electricity is carbon-free.

D) wind works better in high-density coastal developments.

E) less public resistance to wind turbines than solar panels.

15) What best explains why producing electricity via geothermal energy is restricted geographically?

A) areas where shallow crustal rocks are sufficiently hot are relatively rare.

B) most geothermal areas are far from the electrical grid.

C) most geothermal areas are far from the nearest population center.

D) due to high infrastructure costs, geothermal areas are restricted to developed nations.

E) due to the need for water, geothermal areas must be near a body of water.

16) Which of the following describes the basic way in which electricity is generated using the ocean thermal energy conversion technique, or OTEC?

A) temperature difference between the surface and deep ocean waters B) temperature difference between the incoming and outgoing tides C) the ocean's geothermal energy D) convection cells within the ocean E) heat energy obtained from surface winds blowing across warm ocean waters

17) With respect to the U.S. transportation system, what best explains why electric motors are considered as the most sustainable means of running cars and trains in the future?

A) Fuels for internal combustion engines all produce greenhouse gases.

B) Conventional crude oil will soon be in short supply.

C) Internal combustion engines are too inefficient for the expected growth in population.

D) Reserves of nonconventional fossil fuel are relatively small.

E) Electricity generated by nuclear power is expected to become significantly less expensive.

18) A likely future model for the electrical grid is a decentralized system where power is generated from numerous sources distributed across the grid. What would the primary role of nuclear power be in this model?

A) Provide steady amounts of power to meet baseload demand B) Provide power to run large numbers of wind turbines C) Provide electricity to make hydrogen D) Provide steady power to transportation systems E) Provide the only source of carbon-free electricity

19)

All of the following are alternative energy sources except

A) nuclear.

B) natural gas.

C) wind.

D) tar sands.

20) The United States and China currently rely on fossil fuels for how much of their energy needs?

A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 66 percent D) 90 percent

21)

Which of the following is true about alternative energy sources?

A) Comparatively cheap B) Intermittent in nature C) More energy dense D) Highly concentrated

22)

Synfuels are derived from which natural resource?

A) Coal B) Uranium C) Water D) Solar power

23)

Drawbacks to the use of coal-based alternative fuels include all of the following except

A) it will significantly reduce the life expectancy of coal reserves.

B) it will increase environmental problems already associated with the mining and burning of coal.

C) it will increase demand for conventional crude oil.

D) its production generates large amounts of carbon dioxide.

24)

Bitumen is a type of heavy crude found in which resource?

A) Anthracite B) Coal gas C) Tar sands D) Lignite

25)

What is the principal drawback to the use of tar sands as an energy source?

A) It is not located near the surface and thus amenable to strip mining.

B) No large deposits are present in North America.

C) Large volumes of natural gas are required for processing.

D) Processing may produce carbon dioxide.

26)

What is one of the principal drawbacks of oil shale as an alternative energy source?

A) It cannot be processed in situ.

B) In situ methods cause major disturbance of the land.

C) No oil shale reserves are found in the United States.

D) It expands upon heating, creating a waste disposal problem.

27)

Which natural resource may ultimately limit the development of oil shale deposits?

A) Natural gas B) Water C) Petroleum D) Uranium

28) Which global environmental problem may be worsened by the use of gas hydrates as an energy source?

A) Smog B) Depletion of the ozone layer C) Global warming D) Groundwater depletion

29) Advantages of ethanol over conventional use of gasoline include all of the following except

A) it is carbon-neutral.

B) it is renewable.

C) it can be used to make oxygenated gasoline.

D) it produces more energy than is consumed to make it.

30)

Drawbacks to the use of biofuels include all of the following except

A) increased global warming.

B) increased food prices.

C) increased gas mileage.

D) increased use of farmland for fuel production.

31)

Advantages in the use of hydropower include all of the following except

A) it does not create carbon dioxide.

B) it is renewable.

C) there is little adverse impact to the land.

D) fossil fuels are not required for its use.

32)

Which of the following is not true about nuclear power?

A) It does not generate carbon dioxide.

B) It does not have a significant waste disposal problem.

C) It does not generate acid rain.

D) It does not generate particulate matter.

33)

What fuel source is theoretically used in a fusion-type nuclear reactor?

A) Water B) Carbon dioxide C) Plutonium-239 D) Uranium-238

34)

What material is used to store heat in a concentrated solar power plant?

A) Magma B) Steam C) Molten iron D) Molten salt

35)

Advantages of wind power as an energy source include all of the following except

A) it is renewable.

B) it does not produce carbon dioxide.

C) it is not intermittent.

D) it is easily converted to electricity.

36)

What is the source of heat in geothermal power?

A) Active heating by solar energy B) Radioactive elements inside the Earth C) Coal burning D) Combustion of synfuels

37)

Which of the following is not true about tidal power?

A) It cannot be used to generate electricity.

B) It does not produce carbon dioxide.

C) It is renewable.

D) It requires a high tidal range.

38)

What is the primary problem with the use of battery-powered cars?

A) Excessive carbon dioxide production B) Reduced gas mileage C) Lack of a hydrogen fuel source D) Storing enough electricity

39) Nuclear fusion is often described as having the ability to supply almost unlimited amounts of clean energy. Which of the following best describes the problem that has kept nuclear fusion from being used as an energy source?

A) Containing the high temperature of the reaction B) Storing the large amount of radioactive by products C) Very limited supply of fuel for the reactions D) Fusion is still just theoretical E) All of the answers listed here

40)

Which of the following alternative energy resources are all renewable?

A) Hydro, tidal, and biomass B) Nuclear, coal liquefaction, and oil shale C) Oil sands, coal liquefaction, and gas hydates D) Solar, tidal, and coal liquefaction E) Solar, hydro, and oil shale

41) Although hydroelectricity is a clean and renewable form of energy, the associated use of dams and reservoirs has several undesirable environmental consequences. Which of the following are all undesirable consequences of dams and reservoirs?

A) Creates upstream floods, traps sediment, and raises water temperatures B) Not sustainable, traps sediment, and lowers water temperature C) Blocks migrating fish, traps sediment, and lowers water temperature D) Not sustainable, creates upstream floods, and raises water temperature E) Blocks migrating fish, creates upstream floods, and raises water temperature

42) Which of the following best describes the primary advantages of using nuclear power to generate electricity over wind and solar?

A) Lower construction and operating costs B) Is 100% renewable C) Does not produce any greenhouse gas emissions D) Produces power 24 hours a day E) All of the answers listed here

43) Light crude oil contains a higher proportion of shorter chains of hydrogen and carbon atoms compared to heavy crude oil. ⊚ ⊚ 44)

true false

With respect to geothermal energy, Earth's internal heat escapes evenly though the crust. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) D

27) B 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) TRUE 44) FALSE

Student name:__________ 1) The terms polluted and contaminated have different meanings when it comes to substances put in the environment by human activity. With respect to these substances, what does polluted mean?

A) concentration is high enough to cause harm to living organisms.

B) concentration is above natural levels, but not harmful to living organisms.

C) concentration is above natural levels, but harmful only to humans.

D) concentration is below natural levels and unlikely to harm humans.

E) concentration is simply above the detection limit of modern instruments.

2)

Which of the following pollution sources would be considered to be a non-point source?

A) all of the answers listed here B) pesticides spread on farm fields C) lawn fertilizers in housing developments D) residual oil in parking lots from leaking cars and trucks E) cows on dairy farms

3)

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding groundwater contamination?

A) confined aquifers are highly susceptible to contamination from surface sources.

B) unconfined aquifers are highly susceptible to contamination from surface sources.

C) contaminated groundwater can contaminate streams.

D) it can take thousands of years for an aquifer to flush itself of contaminants.

E) once in an aquifer, contaminants spread out over time, forming a plume.

4)

Which of the following best describes why open dumps in the U.S. were banned in 1983?

A) municipal waste was attracting wild animals and generating air pollution from fires.

B) municipal waste was beginning to contain toxic household chemicals.

C) urban development was making it harder to find suitable dump sites.

D) municipal waste was beginning to contain toxic automobile batteries and tires.

E) people became more educated on the benefits of sanitary landfills.

5)

Which of the following makes up the largest percentage of U.S. municipal waste?

A) paper B) food scraps C) plastics D) yard trimmings E) metals

6)

What explains why leachate is a problem in sanitary landfills?

A) picks up toxic chemicals from municipal waste and causes groundwater contamination.

B) slows down the natural decomposition of municipal waste.

C) mixes with municipal waste and produces poisonous gasses that escape from the landfill.

D) reduces the ability of municipal trash to be compacted.

E) all of the answers listed here.

7) What best explains why municipal governments have focused on waste reduction and recycling programs?

A) Number of landfills has declined, which has increased the cost of waste disposal.

B) Citizens are more educated and now demand more green solutions.

C) Higher fuel prices are making it more expensive to transport waste.

D) Groundwater contamination around landfills is getting worse.

E) Waste reduction and recycling programs are now profitable.

8) Which of the following explains why many household septic systems end up contaminating the shallow groundwater system?

A) all of the answers listed here B) water table is too high for the system to operate properly C) drain field becomes plugged by solids leaving the septic tank D) residents pouring household chemicals down their drains E) permeability of material beneath drain field is too low for proper drainage

9) In addition to secured landfills, hazardous waste can be disposed of through high temperature incineration. What best explains why incineration is a controversial technique?

A) since it’s not 100% effective, some hazardous compounds are released into the air B) flammable compounds in the waste present an explosion hazard C) EPA regulations make incineration unprofitable for municipal governments D) medical wastes present in the material pose a biohazard E) all of the answers listed here

10) Eutrophication and oxygen depletion in natural wasters can be very damaging to stream ecosystems. Which of the following is the primary cause of oxygen depletion in streams?

A) excessive nutrients B) acid rain C) acid mine drainage D) iron oxide runoff E) excessive carbon dioxide

11) Municipal sewage treatment plants are very effective at breaking down human waste prior to discharging the wastewater into rivers. Why then, do so many U.S. plants continue to cause water quality problems in rivers?

A) all of the answers listed here.

B) combined sewage and stormwater systems release raw sewage during large rain events.

C) plants are not very effective at removing heavy metals.

D) plants are not very effective at removing hazardous chemicals.

E) plants are not very effective at removing pharmaceuticals.

12) Which of the following is responsible for the growing hypoxic, or dead zone, problem in the Gulf of Mexico?

A) animal feed lots and agricultural fertilizers used throughout the Midwest.

B) residual oil from roads and parking lots throughout the Midwest.

C) leachate escaping from landfills throughout the Midwest.

D) acid rain falling on urban areas throughout the Midwest.

E) EPA requirement of oxygenated fuels throughout the Midwest.

13) When radioactive isotopes decay they emit radiation that is harmful to humans. Which of the following forms of radiation have the highest energy and ability to penetrate solid materials?

A) gamma rays B) beta particles (electrons) C) alpha particles (helium nuclei) D) microwaves E) ultraviolet waves

14)

What does the term half-life describe?

A) time needed for half of the radioactive atoms in a substance to decay into stable isotopes.

B) time needed for half of the radioactive atoms in a substance to convert into energy.

C) half the time needed for a radioactive substance to become safe.

D) time needed for half the cells in an organism to turn cancerous from radiation damage.

E) half the time needed for cells in a living organism to recover from radiation damage.

15)

Which of the following is NOT an example of low-level radioactive waste?

A) spent nuclear fuel B) contaminated protective clothing C) nuclear reactor water residues D) tools used on nuclear reactors E) remains of laboratory research animals

16) Acid rain has a negative impact on ecosystems and accelerates the chemical weathering of concrete structures and marble building materials. Which of the following compounds released by human activity are responsible for acid rain?

A) sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide B) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide C) sulfur dioxide and carbon dioxide D) ozone and carbon monoxide E) ozone and nitrogen oxide

17) Certain forms of the element mercury move up through the food chain and into humans.

What is primary problem that mercury is known to cause in people?

A) birth defects and loss of cognitive ability in children B) higher incidences of brain cancer C) increased failure of metallic joint replacements D) higher incidences of kidney cancer E) severe hearing loss

18) Radon gas can accumulate in people’s homes and pose a serious lung cancer risk. What is the source of the radon gas?

A) radioactive decay of uranium minerals found in rocks and sediment B) breakdown of natural gas deposits C) byproduct from the breakdown foam insulation used in home construction D) contaminated groundwater surrounding nuclear power plants E) byproduct from the breakdown of asphalt roofing shingles used in home construction

19)

In what year was the Environmental Protection Agency first established?

A) 1810 B) 1933 C) 1945 D) 1970

20) Which piece of federal legislation first eliminated the discharge of raw sewage into the nation's waterways?

A) 1969 National Environmental Policy Act B) 1972 Water Pollution Control Act C) 1976 Resource Conservation and Recovery Act D) 1980 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

21)

What is meant by the term "contamination?"

A) The concentration of a toxic substance is above natural levels.

B) The concentration of a toxic substance is not above natural levels.

C) The concentration of a toxic substance is harmful to humans.

D) The concentration of a toxic substance is harmful to all organisms.

22)

Examples of nonpoint sources of pollution include all of the following except

A) agricultural fields.

B) pipe discharging waste from a factory.

C) parking lots.

D) golf courses.

23)

What is the single greatest source of solid waste?

A) Mining B) Municipalities C) Agriculture D) Industry

24)

Why is electronic waste a problem?

A) It contains toxic PCBs. B) It contains toxic dioxin.

C) It contains toxic heavy metals.

D) It contains lead-based paint.

25)

Scrap tires are a problem for all of the following reasons except

A) they take up landfill space.

B) they make a breeding ground for mosquitoes.

C) they may catch fire and produce toxic smoke.

D) they cannot be recycled.

26)

Strategies for disposing of hazardous liquid wastes include all of the following except

A) deep well injection.

B) secured landfill.

C) composting.

D) high-temperature incineration.

27)

Which is not a key problem associated with the use of septic systems?

A) Contamination of groundwater by harmful pathogens B) Contamination of groundwater by heavy metals C) Contamination of groundwater by phosphorous D) Contamination of groundwater by nitrogen

28)

What organism is used to treat municipal wastewater?

A) Aerobic bacteria B) Green algae C) Red algae D) Freshwater fish

29)

Pollutants derived from agriculture include all of the following except

A) pesticides.

B) PCBs. C) fertilizers.

D) sediments.

30)

What is an adverse effect of sediment pollution?

A) It stimulates excessive growth of algae.

B) It stimulates excessive growth of bacteria.

C) Reduced visibility is detrimental to fish because they cannot see their prey.

D) It stimulates feeding by aquatic organisms.

31)

All of the following are examples of low-level radioactive waste except

A) contaminated reactor water residues.

B) spent fuel rods.

C) contaminated clothing.

D) contaminated cleaning equipment.

32)

Where are high-level radioactive wastes currently stored in the United States?

A) In secured landfills B) In artificial bedrock caverns C) On the sea floor D) Onsite at commercial power plants

33) How long do low-level radioactive wastes have to be stored at disposal sites in the U. S. according to current federal guidelines?

A) 5 years B) 50 years C) 500 years D) 5000 years

34)

What is the principal source of acid rain?

A) Coal-fired and natural gas power plants B) Nuclear power plants C) Volcanic gases D) Methane from oil refineries

35)

Adverse effects of acid rain include all of the following except

A) accelerated chemical weathering of building materials.

B) damage to forests and crops.

C) damage to soils.

D) damage to aquatic organisms.

36)

What is a primary source of mercury fallout in the U.S. today?

A) Testing of nuclear weapons B) No-till agriculture C) Coal-fired power plants D) Launches of spacecraft

37)

Why is radon gas of concern?

A) It is causing depletion of the ozone layer.

B) It is causing global warming.

C) It is a sign of an impending volcanic catastrophe.

D) It causes cancer in humans.

38)

What is the process that results in dangerous buildups of toxic radon gas?

A) Volcanism B) Chemical weathering C) Fossil fuel combustion D) Erosion

39) What best explains the reason for the dramatic reduction in plastic recycling that occurred in 2018?

A) There was a surge in the number of landfills, making recycling less economical.

B) China largely eliminated the import of recycled plastics.

C) Manufacturers stopped using recycled plastics due to lower cost of paper.

D) People found recycling to be too inconvenient.

E) All of the answers listed here are correct.

40)

Which of the following statements regarding plastic consumer products is true?

A) The raw material for making plastics is crude oil.

B) Plastics are sterile and can be used for food storage and medical applications.

C) Low cost of plastics causes much of it to be thrown away.

D) Plastic pollution is now pervasive in the biosphere.

E) All of the answers listed here are correct.

41) Which of the following best describes the environmental problem associated with using rock salt to keep highways free of ice in the winter?

A) Greatly increases the acidity of natural streams B) Causes corrosion and rapid breakdown of stream sediment C) Contaminates streams and shallow aquifers with chloride ions D) Causes increased flooding by adding to stream sediment load E) All of the answers listed here

42) Which of the following statements is true regarding the exposure of humans to radiation in the United States?

A) People are exposed to natural radiation on a daily basis.

B) Health risk from radiation depends on both the amount and intensity of radiation.

C) Workers in some occupations are exposed to higher doses of radiation than others.

D) All of the answers listed here are correct.

E) Radiation sources that emit gamma rays carry the highest risk.

43)

Liquid hazardous wastes are commonly injected into deep, saline aquifers for disposal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) Scrubbers are being used in the U.S. to reduce sulfur dioxide emissions associated with the burning of fossil fuels. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) C

27) B 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) E 41) C 42) D 43) TRUE 44) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

Which of the following statements with respect to Earth’s climate is NOT true?

A) atmospheric carbon dioxide levels are currently well within Earth’s recent operating range.

B) Earth is currently in a strong warming trend.

C) variation in energy output from the Sun is too small to explain current warming.

D) past climate changes have caused societies to collapse.

E) the greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon.

2) Which of the following best explains the effect of greenhouse gases on Earth’s atmosphere?

A) absorb some of the energy Earth radiates out into space.

B) produce more carbon dioxide which generates more plant growth.

C) absorb some of the incoming radiation from the Sun. D) act as a shield that reflects some of the incoming radiation from the Sun. E) allow the atmosphere to hold more water vapor.

3) Which of the following statements regarding carbon dioxide (CO effect is true?

2) and the greenhouse

A) all of the answers listed here.

B) link between CO 2 and the greenhouse effect was proven in the 1800s.

C) CO 2 concentration in the atmosphere is relatively low.

D) global warming from burning fossil fuels was predicted in the 1800s.

E) without CO 2, the average global temperature would be below freezing.

4)

Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

A) nitrogen (N 2) B) methane (CH 4) C) carbon dioxide (CO 2) D) water (H 2O) E) nitrogen oxide (N 2O)

5) There are several long-term changes in Earth’s orbit that affect how heat from the Sun is distributed over the planet. Which of the following describes how the orbit changes from being elliptical to more circular?

A) Eccentricity B) Precession C) Axial tilt D) Axial cyclicity E) Solar obliqueness

6)

Which of the following statements regarding variations in Earth’s orbit is true?

A) even together, they don’t produce enough temperature change to cause an ice age.

B) they can fully account for the recent rise in global temperature.

C) their combined effect on past global temperatures is purely hypothetical.

D) their effect on global temperatures was only recently discovered by NASA scientists.

E) all of the answers listed here.

7)

Which of the following are considered climate feedback mechanisms?

A) greenhouse gases and reflection/adsorption of sunlight B) short-wavelength radiation and ocean circulation C) greenhouse gases and short-wavelength radiation D) short-wavelength radiation and reflection/adsorption of sunlight E) ocean tides and ocean circulation

8) With respect to modeling Earth’s climate system, which of the following best describes global circulation models (GCMs)?

A) accurately simulate the past climate and are used to project the future climate B) simulations of the past climate are too uncertain, thus future projections are fairly meaningless C) are only models, hence cannot accurately simulate something as complicated as climate D) can accurately simulate future temperature increases, but not precipitation E) have too many unknown variables to be used with any degree of certainty

9) What best explains the problem with using sediment layers to determine past climatic conditions?

A) do not provide details on year-to-year variations B) are typically buried and not very accessible C) do not go far enough back in time D) only provide information at a given location as opposed to globally E) do not provide information on igneous and metamorphic rocks

10) What best explains why glacial ice cores are ideal for examining climatic conditions in Earth’s past?

A) provide high-resolution data on both temperature and carbon dioxide B) provide actual atmospheric temperatures going back millions of years C) are not contaminated by volcanic activity D) record both warming and cooling periods E) all of the answers listed here

11)

Ice core data have revealed which of the following?

A) All of the answers listed here are correct.

B) Earth’s climate has been remarkably stable for the past 10,000 years.

C) Current carbon dioxide concentrations are far outside of Earth’s recent operating range.

D) Earth’s climate shows a history of abrupt and rapid changes in temperature.

E) There’s a strong correlation between atmospheric carbon dioxide and temperature.

12) What do climatologists NOT expect to see now that Earth’s climate system has been pushed to a higher energy level?

A) The warming trend to reverse in the near future B) Changing precipitation patterns C) More intense storms D) More record highs E) Less record lows

13) What do climatologists fear might happen if the Earth system crosses a climate threshold?

A) System will enter a period of abrupt and dramatic climate change.

B) Global temperatures will spike.

C) Carbon dioxide will become a major constituent of the atmosphere.

D) Record precipitation levels will cause flooding over most of the continents.

E) Trees will no longer be able to absorb carbon dioxide.

14) Which of the following do climatologists predict will occur as the Earth continues to warm?

A) All of the answers listed here B) More frequent heavy rain and snow events C) More frequent droughts D) Atmosphere will hold more water vapor E) Higher evaporation rates

15) One important consequence of global warming is that Earth’s climatic zones are expected to shift. Which of the following would affect large parts of Earth’s population as winters arrive later and end earlier?

A) Less melt water to sustain streams during the summer months B) Less sunlight during the agricultural growing season C) Shortening of the agricultural growing season D) Increased flooding during the winter months E) Colder winters

16) Sea level is expected to rise due to continued melting of the Antarctic and Greenland ice sheets. Which of the following best describes why climatologists are likely to have underestimated the rate of sea level rise?

A) Ice sheets are melting from within as water flows down through fractures.

B) The volume of ocean water is larger than expected.

C) The volume of ice is larger than expected.

D) The greenhouse effect is more intense than expected.

E) The rate at which ice sheets flow into the ocean is much slower than expected.

17) Ocean acidification is taking place as the oceans absorb some of the additional carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. What is the basic environmental problem that this creates?

A) More difficult for marine organisms to secrete their own protective shells B) Makes it unsafe for humans to go swimming in the ocean C) Increases the rate of evaporation of seawater D) Causes the oceans to become even more saline, thereby reducing ocean circulation E) All of the answers listed here

18) Which of the following best explains why continued warming of the Arctic is expected to greatly accelerate the rate of global warming?

A) Loss of sea ice and thawing of gas hydrates B) Reversal of the Gulf Stream and slowing of the jet stream C) Sea level rise and thawing of gas hydrates D) Reversal of the Gulf Stream and sea level rise E) Slowing of the jet stream and loss of sea ice

19)

Which is not a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Methane C) Radon D) Nitrous oxide

20)

What is the primary driving force behind the Earth's climate system?

A) Gravity B) Decay of radioactive elements C) Solar radiation D) Tidal fluctuations

21)

Who first proved the relationship between carbon dioxide and the greenhouse effect?

A) Louis Agassiz B) Joseph Fourier C) John Tyndall D) Al Gore

22) Who was the first to recognize that large-scale burning of fossil fuels could lead to global warming?

A) Svante Arrhenius B) Louis Agassiz C) James Croll D) Milankovitch

23)

In the Milankovitch model, what is the cause of Earth's Ice Ages?

A) Sunspot activity B) Plate tectonic activity C) Cyclic changes in solar heating D) Changes in ocean circulation

24)

What is a climatic example of negative feedback?

A) Increased amounts of fossil fuel combustion B) Increased amounts of volcanic ash in the atmosphere C) Permafrost melts at a higher rate D) Plants absorb carbon dioxide at a higher rate

25)

What is meant by carbon sequestration?

A) Excessive amounts of carbon dioxide are released into the atmosphere by volcanic activity.

B) Carbon is removed from the surface environment and placed in storage.

C) Carbon is released from melting permafrost.

D) Heat is absorbed by atmospheric carbon dioxide.

26)

What is the key process that sequesters atmospheric carbon dioxide?

A) Absorption by land plants B) Absorption by volcanic gases C) Formation of carbonate sedimentary rocks D) Formation of coal deposits

27)

Which greenhouse gas traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide?

A) Methane B) Nitrous oxide C) Ozone D) Water

28)

Which greenhouse gas is found in great quantities in permafrost soils?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Methane C) Nitrous oxide D) Ozone

29)

Which ocean feature intermittently affects climate in the equatorial Pacific Ocean region?

A) The California current B) The Gulf Stream C) El Nino D) The Hawaiian current

30) What proportion of climatologists are in agreement today that global warming is driven by anthropogenic activity?

A) 5 percent B) 50 percent C) 75 percent D) 97 percent

31)

What does analysis of stable oxygen isotopes in carbonate rocks indicate?

A) The future temperature of Earth's atmosphere B) The past temperature of Earth's atmosphere C) Ancient temperature changes in the oceans D) Future temperature changes in the oceans

32)

What is dendrochronology used to study?

A) Annual growth rings in trees B) Annual growth of corals in tropical regions C) Amount of carbon sequestration by ocean water D) Rate of permafrost depletion

33)

What has been determined by studies of gas bubbles in polar ice sheets?

A) A repetitive pattern of glacial and interglacial cycles over the past 800,000 years B) A poor correlation between atmospheric temperature and carbon dioxide concentration over time C) Decreasing levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide over time D) A good correlation between volcanic gases and sea level change over time

34)

What is the Younger Dryas?

A) A warming event that occurred about 55 million years ago B) Another name for the Little Ice Age C) A gradual warming from 20,000 to 15,000 years ago D) An abrupt cold snap that began about 15,000 years ago

35)

What does a shift to a warmer climate mean?

A) A greater number of warm days compared to the past B) A greater number of warm and cold days compared to the past C) Some warming but also much greater cooling D) More or less the same number of warm and cool days

36)

Which of the following is true about global warming?

A) Climatic zones are shifting from the poles toward the equator.

B) The hottest years on record occurred during the Little Ice Age. C) Nine out of ten of the hottest years on record have occurred since 2000.

D) Overall, there is still a balance in the number of hot and cold years.

37)

What could cause a disruption in thermohaline circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean?

A) Discharge of a large volume of lava from Greenland B) Discharge of a large volume of volcanic ash from Greenland C) Discharge of a large volume of meltwater from Greenland D) Formation of a large volume of gas hydrates in Greenland

38) How much would global sea level rise if all of the remaining glacial ice were to melt today?

A) 2.6 feet B) 26 feet C) 260 feet D) 2600 feet

39) What best explains the problem with using tree-ring data to determine past climatic conditions?

A) Only provide information at a given location as opposed to globally B) Do not provide details on year-to-year variations C) Are rarely preserved and not very accessible D) Do not provide information on igneous and metamorphic rocks E) Do not go far enough back in time

40) Which of the following best explains why the continued loss of Arctic sea ice is expected to accelerate the rate of climate change?

A) Changes ocean circulation patterns B) Changes atmospheric circulation patterns C) All of the answers listed here D) Raises temperature of ocean and releases stored methane from gas hydrates E) Creates a positive feedback that generates even more warming

41) There are many potentially severe consequences of global warming and climate change that can put human civilization at risk. Which of the following is a major risk that humans face due to climate change?

A) Increased damage from storms B) Movement of infectious diseases to higher latitudes C) Disruption of agricultural production D) Flooding of coastal cities E) All of the answers listed here

42) Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to global warming and climate change?

A) The climate has been remarkably steady over the past 10,000 years.

B) Variation in energy output from the Sun is too small to explain the current warming trend.

C) Over the previous 50,000 years the climate has undergone abrupt and dramatic changes.

D) Carbon dioxide levels in the past correlate well with atmospheric temperature.

E) Current greenhouse gas levels are well within the Earth's long-term operating range.

43) Earth’s glacial periods are explained by orbital variations that produce a small temperature change, which is then amplified by changes in carbon dioxide concentrations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) To slow the current warming trend, industrialized nations must reduce their overall rate of greenhouse gas emissions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) C

27) A 28) B 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) E 40) C 41) C 42) E 43) TRUE 44) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

Which trend best describes human population growth?

A) Exponential B) Linear C) Tangential D) Planar E) Unpredictable

2) Which of the following measures do environmentalists suggest may be necessary in order for humans to live in a sustainable manner?

A) Stabilize the population B) Conserve resources C) Reduce per capita consumption of resources D) Develop renewable energy resources E) All of the answers listed here

3) The tragedy of the commons is an important concept related to environmental degradation and human behavior. Which of the following best describes this concept?

A) When the self interest of individuals destroys natural resources being shared by society.

B) When a common disease spreads through society due to poor sanitation.

C) When over population creates living conditions that lower the quality of life.

D) When humans act irrationally during a large-scale natural disaster.

E) When humans overreact to an environmental threat and then limit economic growth.

4) Which of the following refers to the process by which the physical world is examined in a logical manner?

A) Scientific Method B) Elemental Method C) Plausibility Theory D) Inquiry Theory E) Intelligent Design

5) Which term refers to a scientific explanation of data that can be tested in such a way that shows it to be false?

A) Hypothesis B) Uncertainty C) Plausibility D) Educated Guess E) All of the answers listed here

6)

Which of the following in NOT an attribute of a good scientific explanation?

A) Sustainable B) Falsifiable C) Peer-Reviewed D) Consistent with all the data available E) All of the answers listed here

7)

About how many years old is the Earth as shown by science?

A) 4.5 billion B) 10 thousand C) 4.5 trillion D) 4.5 thousand E) 4.5 million

8) Which of the following terms refers to the use of resources in such a way that future generations will have a fair share and inherit a quality environment?

A) Sustainability B) Renewability C) Catastrophism D) Environmentalism E) All of the answers listed here

9) This type of dating uses radioactive elements and their decay products to determine an absolute age for an earth material.

A) Radiometric Dating B) Relative Dating C) Fossilization Timing D) Petrographic Dating E) Superposition

10) How does the ecological footprint for people living in developed (industrialized) nations compare to that of people living in still developing nations?

A) It is greater B) It is smaller C) It is equivalent D) This is not a plausible comparison E) It is not defined for developing nations

11)

How was the geologic time scale developed?

A) By correlating exposed rock sections from around the world.

B) By systematically dividing all of earth history into equally spaced time intervals, similar to the hours and minutes on a clock.

C) By radiometrically dating successive intervals in rock layers.

D) By compiling Biblical and historical records to reconstruct Earth's history.

E) All of the answers listed here.

12) When defining environmental risks, scientists must primarily consider which of the following components?

A) The probability that an event will occur and the expected consequences of that event.

B) The consequences of an event only.

C) The magnitude and consequences of an event.

D) The measures necessary to prevent environmental risks from occurring.

E) Whether an event is even possible.

13)

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of incremental processes?

A) They take place somewhat randomly as discrete events.

B) They generate very small changes with time.

C) They can be difficult to recognize.

D) Deforestation is an example of an incremental process.

E) Climate change is an example of an incremental process.

14)

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding the Earth system?

A) Humans are not capable of affecting the system.

B) It consists of several subsystems.

C) It is dynamic and interactive.

D) It is affected by other bodies in the solar system.

E) Earth’s life forms are dependent on the system.

15) Which term is used to describe the amount of biologically productive land/sea area necessary to support the lifestyle of an individual?

A) Ecological Footprint B) Sustainable Square C) Environmental Area D) Geologic Commons E) Consumption Rate

16) Which of the following are potentially limiting factors associated with food production and distribution?

A) All of the answers listed here B) Water supply and resources C) Mineral resources D) Energy resources E) Topsoil erosion

17) Almost all of the environmental problems discussed in class were ultimately tied to one factor. Which of the following is the root cause of most of our problems?

A) Human population B) Air pollution C) Food production D) Energy production E) Water pollution

18)

The two critical factors that led to the development of Earth's diversity of life are A) the surface temperature of the Earth, and the ability to retain its atmosphere.

B) the amount of solar insolation, and the presence of the Moon.

C) the distance between Sun and Moon, and the effect of the Moon on Earth.

D) the amount of glacial ice, and the number of oceans.

19)

What is meant by the tragedy of the commons?

A) Common people go through tragic environmental problems.

B) The self-interest of people results in the destruction of a common or shared resource.

C) Common societies are disconnected from the natural environment.

D) Environmental problems are very common in nature.

20)

What is a scientific theory?

A) A prediction made about a scientific phenomenon B) A possible explanation that has not yet been tested C) A possible explanation that has been tested and found to be false D) A widely accepted and logical explanation of natural phenomena that has survived rigorous testing

21)

What is the Law of Superposition?

A) Sedimentary rocks are always deposited in horizontal layers B) Sedimentary features are always superimposed on other types of rocks C) Sedimentary layers become progressively older with depth D) Sedimentary layers become progressively younger with depth

22)

Why is pollution considered a geologic hazard?

A) It always involves materials not found in nature.

B) It may involve extraterrestrial phenomena.

C) It directly impacts human health.

D) It involves nonrenewable resources.

23)

What is used to determine the age of a rock in years?

A) Heat B) Gravity C) Solar radiation D) Radioactive elements

24)

Which of the following is not a sporadic geologic process?

A) Eroding of sedimentary rocks B) Landslides C) Earthquakes D) Floods

25)

What is an example of creeping normalcy?

A) Landsliding B) Volcanic activity C) The process of deforestation D) Earthquake activity

26)

What is an interdisciplinary field of study?

A) A study of special environments B) A combination of two or more fields C) Any specialized field in geology D) Any highly specialized field focusing on the environment

27)

What is the downside of specialization?

A) Scientists lose sight of nature as a whole B) Very few jobs exist C) Specialized jobs do not pay well D) None of these choices are correct

28)

What comprises the geosphere?

A) All of the organisms on Earth B) All of the water on Earth C) All of the gases surrounding the Earth D) The solid Earth

29)

Which of the following is not an adverse consequence of deforestation?

A) Increased soil erosion B) Increased landslide activity C) Decreased use of resources per capita D) Decreased plant and animal life

30)

How might deforestation contribute to global warming?

A) Trees no longer prevent soil erosion.

B) Trees no longer remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

C) Trees no longer produce oxygen.

D) Burning of trees increases the heat output of Earth.

31)

Linear growth occurs when the amount added over successive time periods

A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) increases then rapidly decreases.

D) stays the same.

32)

Exponential growth occurs when the amount added over successive time periods

A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) increases then rapidly decreases.

D) stays the same.

33)

What is the projected population of Earth in 2050?

A) 95 million B) 9.5 billion C) 95 billion D) 950 billion

34)

Why didn't human population collapse as predicted by Malthus?

A) His mathematical model was flawed B) The rate of population growth unexpectedly decreased C) Food production increased at an exponential rate D) Food production increased at a linear rate

35)

Why is infinite population growth not possible?

A) Topsoils are being lost at an alarming rate.

B) Water supplies are stretched to the limit in many places.

C) Supplies of crude oil and gas are in decline.

D) All of these choices are correct.

36)

What is meant by the term sustainability?

A) Food production is sustained by fertilizers.

B) A system or process can be maintained for an indefinite period of time.

C) Soils are sustained by conservation measures.

D) Resources are replenished by geological processes.

37)

What is meant by demographic transition?

A) Populations stabilize when birth and death rates are equal.

B) Populations increase when birth rates exceed death rates.

C) Populations decrease when death rates exceed birth rates.

D) Populations decrease as food production is diminished.

38)

Which factors are key to sustainability?

A) Earth's total population B) use of resources per capita C) Total population and use of resources per capita D) None of these choices are correct

39)

What is meant by the term ecological footprint?

A) The total number of ecosystems present on Earth B) The amount of biologically-productive land and sea area needed to support the lifestyle of humans C) The amount of land not affected by human activity D) The amount of coastline inhabited by humans

40)

What is the estimated average ecological footprint of humanity?

A) 6 acres per person B) 60 acres per person C) 600 acres per person D) 6000 acres per person

41)

What is the biggest environmental issue facing humanity?

A) Volcanic eruptions may cause climate change B) Coastlines may be drowned by rising sea levels C) Depletion of local drinking water supplies D) Sustainability

42)

What is the key problem facing sustainability?

A) Economic prosperity is limited by food production.

B) Economic prosperity is limited by money.

C) Economic prosperity is limited by technology.

D) Economic prosperity is based on growth.

43) Which of the following bests describes why the population of Easter Island declined from 10,000 to 1,000 people in a matter of a few generations?

A) Continued eruptions of a volcano occurred that had previously been dormant.

B) Climatic changes made the environment inhospitable.

C) A tsunami (tidal) wave sweep over the island and the population never recovered.

D) The island's natural resources were overused by an expanding population.

E) A large landslide occurred and the population never recovered.

44) Which of the following bests describes the relationship between human activity and the increased algae blooms on Lake Erie?

A) Agricultural runoff of nutrients and draining of the natural swamp B) Lower lake levels due to less rainfall associated with climate change C) Higher lake levels due to increased runoff from urbanization D) Increased nutrient input from Lake Huron E) All of the answers listed here

45)

The biggest environmental issue facing the human race is sustainability. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

A scientific law describes the relationship between several different hypotheses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) As one of many species living on Earth, humans are very limited in their ability to impact the environment.

⊚ ⊚ 48)

true false

In geologic time, humans have existed for only a very brief amount of Earth's history. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) A 2) E 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) B

27) A 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE