Test Bank For Developmental Science, 8th Edition by Marc H. Bornstein, Michael E. Lamb

Test Bank For Developmental Science, 8E Edited By Marc H. Bornstein, Michael E. Lamb Chapter 1-15 Chapter 1 Multiple Choice Questions The correct answer is bolded and italicized.

1.

To be considered developmental, changes must be: _________________. a. organized, systemic, and successive b. systemic, successive, and dynamic c. temporal, finite, and acute d. contextual, organized, and fluid

2.

What is the focus of the process-relational paradigm? a. Holistic syntheses b. Dynamic integration c. Process d. All of these

3.

Which theory involves four interrelated components of process, person, context, and time? a. Baltes’ Life-span Developmental Theory b. Brandtstädter’s Action Theory of Human Development c. Bronfenbrenner’s Bioecological Theory of Developmental Processes d. Fischer’s Dynamic Coactive Systems Theory

4.

Which theory extends Bronfenbrenner’s model to young people? a. Baltes’ Life-span Developmental Theory b. Spencer’s Phenomenological Variant of Ecological System’s Theory c. Thelen and Smith’s Dynamic Systems Theory d. Fischer’s Dynamic Coactive Systems Theory

5.

According to Baltes’ Life-span Developmental Theory, for a parent, the death of a child is a historical change that would influence their development in which way? a. Normative, age-graded b. Normative, history-graded c. Non-normative life event d. None of these

6.

Which scholar(s) advanced a topic- or variable-specific theory around resilience? a. Masten b. Bornstein c. Goodnow and Lawrence d. Marshall

7.

Collecting data and formulating theory based on what is observed is called: a. Deductive reasoning b. Inductive reasoning c. Trial and error d. The scientific method

8.

What should be the primary tool of developmental science from the relational developmental systems perspective?

e. f. g. h.

Nomothetic Group differential Ideographic None of these

Chapter 2 Multiple Choice Questions The correct answer is bolded and italicized.

2.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of human culture? a. Eusociality b. Symbolic communication c. Cultural diversity d. Social norms

3.

The word for “angry” directly translates to “enojado” in Spanish, but may not capture the exact same underlying concept. This as a clear example of _____ but presents a problem with _______. a. Linguistic equivalence, functional equivalence b. Functional equivalence, external validity c. Cultural equivalence, ecological validity d. External validity, linguistic equivalence

4.

What are some of the key challenges involved in studying cultural differences in human development? a. Conceptualizing culture and measuring cultural differences b. Finding participants from different cultural backgrounds c. Developing culturally sensitive research methods d. All of the above

5.

What is the definition of construct validity? a. The assessment of how well a measurement tool or instrument accurately measures the underlying concept it is intended to assess b. An insider’s perspective on and experiences of their own culture c. The extent to which the findings of a study accurately represent real-world situations, behaviors, or phenomena d. The degree to which indirect or similar translations of words or expressions in different languages convey the same concepts

6.

What has cross-cultural research taught us about the timing and development of children’s learning of number words? a. Children across all cultures learn number words in the same order, but different timing b. Children across all cultures learn number words in the same order and the same timing c. Children learn number words in different orders across cultures, but with the same timing d. Children learn number words in different orders across cultures, and with different timing

7.

What are ways in which developmental science can benefit from greater engagement with cultural diversity? a. Better capturing the full breadth of human diversity b. Establishing more accurate developmental norms c. Informing policies and interventions

d.

All of the above

8.

Which is NOT a defining characteristic of ethnographic work? a. Conjoint analyses b. Participant observation c. Qualitative data collection d. Fieldwork

9.

The assumption that the use of identical research methods will necessarily yield comparable and externally valid data across contexts is also known as what? a. The equivalency assumption b. The deficit assumption c. The universality assumption d. The minority world centrality assumption

10. Malinowski’s assessment of Freudian theories in Melanesia suggested: a. That Freudian principles were culturally shaped and unlikely to be universal b. That Melanesians experienced the Oedipus Complex, just as Europeans c. That the psychosexual stages of development are consistent across cultures d. That Melanesian traditional practices were very similar to practices from psychoanalysis 11. ________ famously posited that children went through four stages of cognitive development: the sensorimotor stage, the preoperational stage, the concrete operational stage, and the formal operational stages a. Jean Piaget b. Lev Vygotsky c. Sigmund Freud d. Bronislaw Malinowski

Multiple Choice Questions for Chapter 3

Note: The correct answer for each question is the first one. The multiplechoice question test banks are also available here as downloadable interactive MCQs that you can integrate into your university's own copies of Moodle or Blackboard.

Statistical conclusion validity refers to the _____: Appropriateness of inferences made from statistical tests.

Inferences about the causal connections of independent and dependent variables.

Degree to which variables represent intended constructs.

Generalizability of study results to other settings, populations, and contexts.

Internal validity refers to the _____: Ability of a study to determine if one or more independent variables causes one or more dependent variables.

Appropriateness of inferences made from statistical tests.

Degree to which variables represent intended constructs.

Generalizability of study results to other settings, populations, and contexts.

Construct validity refers to the _____: How well the measures in a study accurately reflect the constructs that they are measuring.

Appropriateness of inferences made from statistical tests.

Inferences about causal connections of independent and dependent variables.

Generalizability of study results to other settings, populations, and contexts.

External validity refers to the _____: Extent to which the results of studies are applicable to individuals, cultures, communities, settings, treatments, and times different from those existing during the conduct of the study.

Appropriateness of inferences made from statistical tests.

Inferences about the causal connections of independent and dependent variables.

Degree to which variables represent intended constructs.

True Experiments: Both manipulate the independent variable and control for the effects of other variables by random assignment.

Manipulate the independent variable.

Control for the effects of other variables by random assignment.

Have high external validity.

Which of the following best describes cross-sequential designs?

Multiple cohorts are followed over the same time interval.

One cohort is followed over multiple time intervals.

Two cohorts are compared at the same time interval.

One cohort is examined at one time interval.

One of the biggest advantages of multiple linear regression is: It demonstrates whether an independent variable can uniquely predict a dependent variable over and above the contributions made by other independent variables.

It can predict one variable from another.

It can capture positive and negative associations between two variables.

By statistically controlling for confounds, it can determine how one variable causes another.

Which of the following types of measurement validity refers to the extent to which scores on a measure are associated with other variables that the measure is expected to be associated with?

Criterion validity Face validity Content validity Construct validity ___ is a distribution’s center or middle. ____ is how much scores vary in a distribution.

Central tendency, variability Variability, central tendency Median, standard deviation Standard deviation, median A model that estimates the latent continuous trajectory of children’s cognitive development from ages 3-17 is an example of a: Latent growth curve model One-way repeated measures ANOVA

Path Analysis Chi-Square Analysis All of the following are common ways of measuring effect size except: P-values Standardized mean difference-like measures Correlational Measures Confidence Intervals

Chapter 4 Multiple Choice Questions The correct answer is bolded and italicized.

12. Which of the following best describes the goal of developmental psychopathology research? a. To study discrete, mutually exclusive categories of mental disorders b. To understand typical and atypical development across the lifespan c. To produce knowledge that contributes to a general scientific understanding of a topic d. To apply empirical knowledge to the development, evaluation, and implementation of intervention and prevention programs 13. Developmental psychopathology is ________. a. Transdisciplinary b. Multidisciplinary c. Interdisciplinary d. A medical model 14. Which of the following statements is least consistent with the Organizational Perspective of developmental psychopathology? a. Humans actively contribute to their experiences with the environment b. All domains of human development constantly interact with one another c. New abilities emerge from foundational abilities d. Early experiences determine later functioning 15. Research demonstrating that early exposure to physical abuse by a caregiver is associated with the development of various psychopathologies later in life is best represented by which term? a. Equifinality b. Multifinality c. Developmental cascade d. Resilience 16. Which of the following statements does not represent a methodological challenge to research on developmental cascades? a. It is challenging to rule out third variable explanations b. Longitudinal data are necessary c. Repeated, developmentally timed assessments are necessary d. Reliance on person-centered approaches 17. Which statement is TRUE? a. Community-based research partnerships involve community leaders and members in the hypothesis generation stage of scientific research b. Evaluating moderators provides insight into why intervention and prevention programs work c. Randomized controlled trials allow researchers to evaluate causal effects

d.

Secondary intervention programs apply programming to a general population that is not known to be at specific risk

18. Which of the following represents a dimensional perspective to psychopathology? a. Hierarchical Taxonomy of Psychopathology b. International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders d. None of these

Note: The correct answer for each question is the first one. The multiplechoice question test banks are also available here as downloadable interactive MCQs that you can integrate into your university's own copies of Moodle or Blackboard.

Which of the following is an example of a newly emerging research method being utilized by developmental scientists?

Molecular genetics Twin studies Gene therapy Behavioral genetics Which of the following is NOT a type of cell migration that occurs during prenatal development?

Relocation of large groups of cells to a different location Passive displacement of older cells with newer cells Movement of new cells past previously generated cells Cells traveling from proliferative zones to particular brain regions In humans, which of the following processes is complete, for the most part, around the time of birth?

The vast majority of cells are in their adult locations in the brain Myelinization of axons, which helps nerve conduction The size and complexity of the dendrites in the brain All of these Which of the following is an example of functional refinement of the visual cortical over the first year?

The emergence of brain areas responsive to integrated binocular input around 4 months of age The integration of visual and motor areas contributing to early hand-eye coordination after 10 months The activation of color recognition cells at 2 months of age All of these Which of the following social behaviors begin to appear earliest in development?

Face recognition Detecting eye gaze Orienting to name Joint attention Research on infants with early focal injury to the left hemisphere typically find _____ in later language development compared with similar brain damage in adults:

Subtle deficits No differences Profound delays Greater cortical involvement Which of the following cortical areas reaches maturity LATEST in human development?

Prefrontal cortex Left hemisphere language centers Sensory-motor integration areas Temporal lobe pathways

Note: The correct answer for each question is the first one. The multiple-choice question test banks are also available here as downloadable interactive MCQs that you can integrate into your university's own copies of Moodle or Blackboard.

1. Why is motor development important for developmental science?

All of the below For researchers interested in behavior, movement is the target of study.

For researchers interested in basic psychological functions, movement is an integral component of ???.

For researchers interested in change processes, motor behavior is an easily observable marker of change.

2. Spontaneous movements begin ______ and end _______.

In the fetus; at death In the fetus; at birth At birth; in adulthood At birth; at death 3. How does postural control develop?

From the head down From the toes up From the center of the body outward In all body parts at once 4. Which of the following is not one of the behaviors newborns must coordinate to successfully nurse?

Rooting Sucking Breathing Swallowing 5. Which of the following demonstrates the idea that action systems are more functional than anatomical?

Babies can interact with objects with their feet.

Adults can walk on their knees or their feet.

Looking requires planning to inform subsequent looking.

Muscles in the face develop to produce more force for chewing.

6. What does it mean for movements to be “embodied”?

All movements occur in a body and are constrained by the physical and biomechanical constraints of the body People must take into account the movements of other people when making their own movements.

Some bodies are better at performing certain movements than others.

Different functional actions are constrained to particular body parts.

7. What is the primary driver of improvements in motor behavior?

Experience Age Creativity Perception 8. Cultural differences in everyday childrearing routines______________. affect accumulated practice, leading to differences in the form and timing of locomotor skills. have no effect on children’s motor development. affect accumulated practice, but lead to no noticeable differences between children. have no effect on children’s cognitive development.

9. Self-touch always produces what kinds of multimodal information?

Proprioceptive and tactile Olfactory and visual Cognitive and auditory Social and emotional 10. Both walking and running gaits____________ may differ between cultures. involve landing on the heel if people are barefoot. are consistent across individuals. emerge in infancy.

Note: The correct answer for each question is the first one. The multiplechoice question test banks are also available here as downloadable interactive MCQs that you can integrate into your university’s own copies of Moodle or Blackboard.

Which of the following research methods should be considered the strongest with respect to the inferences it permits about perceptual development?

Use of conditioned head rotation in the study of auditory discrimination Comparisons of brain anatomy of infants and children Measurement of single-cell activity in the sensory cortex of adolescents Observations of changes in infant heart rate during the presentation of a novel event Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence (from earliest to latest) of the functional development of the five senses during prenatal development?

Touch, taste, smell, hearing, vision Taste, smell, touch, vision, hearing Smell, touch, taste, hearing, vision Touch, hearing, smell, taste, vision At which of the following ages does synaptic “pruning” tend to peak in humans?

1 year, 11 years Birth, 12 years

7 years, 20 years 7 years, 13 years Research on the development of taste perception in infants has shown that newborns: Exhibit differential reactions to different tastes Prefer bland tastes to strong tastes Learn to pair certain tastes with specific facial expressions Process taste discrimination in the sensory cortex Compared with bottle-fed infants, breast-fed newborns are more likely to orient preferentially and exclusively to the _____ of their own mother: Smell Voice Face Smile Which of the following statements concerning color perception in human infants has been supported empirically (i.e., is true)?

By 3 months, infants possess basically normal color vision Infants are born without the ability to discriminate all colors Newborns have red-green color blindness that typically disappears by 6 months Infants prefer red and yellow hues over blue and green hues Adult levels of visual acuity typically appear in human infants at _____ months of age: 8 2 3 6 Infants reliably perceive depth at 1 month of age using stimulus information provided by _____: Kinetic cues Binocular convergence Static-monocular cues The relative size of objects The study of perceptual development in children is motivated more by _____ than _____ concerns: Practical; philosophical Methodological; theoretical Linguistic; sensory Social; emotional Which of the following senses shows the least amount of deterioration in later life?

Taste Smell Touch Vision Which of the following perceptual abilities exhibits continuity, rather than discontinuity, over the life span?

Configural, rather than featural, face perception Perception of gender differences in faces Recognition of individual faces as familiar Interpretation of emotion states from facial cues

Bjorklund & Darby

Multiple-Choice Questions for Chapter 8: 1. Cross-age correlations are used to assess the stability of IQ. Research has shown that IQ is generally a. highly stable; cross-age correlations with adult IQ are about .70–.80 by 8 or 9 years of age.* b. highly stable, but only for children living in extreme environments (that is, extreme poverty or substantial wealth). c. not highly stable; cross-age correlations never exceed .30–.40 when IQ is assessed over a period of two years or longer. d. not highly stable; IQ is a good predictor of how a person is functioning at a specific time, but is highly variable with situations and thus produces highly different scores when given to the same person at different time, producing cross-age correlations that rarely exceed .30.

2. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to a. the fact that every structure has its genesis in previous structures. b. the modification or distortion of new information in order to incorporate it into current schemes or structures. c. the changing of a current scheme or structure in order to incorporate new information. * d. the tendency to integrate structures into higher order systems of structures.

3. In the Dimensional Change Card Sorting Task, children sort pictures according to one dimension (e.g., by color, “All the blue cards go here”), and then the dimensions change (e.g., sorting by shape, “Now all the flowers go here.”).

Children 3 years of age and younger have a difficult time performing this task when the dimensions change. This task assesses a. b. c. d.

working memory.

ADHD (attention deficit with hyperactivity disorder). metacognition. cognitive flexibility, or task switching. *

4. With respect to cognitive development, plasticity refers to a. the artificiality of learning rote memory tasks. b. the ability to solve problems. c. the generation of new brain cells after birth. d. the ability to change or adapt to novel situations, including the ability to recover from formerly detrimental circumstances. *

5. Spelke has argued that infants are born with a small set of distinct systems of knowledge that have been shaped by natural selection over evolution on which new and flexible skills and knowledge systems (such as reading and arithmetic) are later built. She refers to this as a. b. c. d.

core knowledge. * metacognition. object constancy. representational insight.

6. Piaget's concept of object permanence refers to the a. knowledge that objects exist independent of one's perceptions of and actions on them. * b. knowledge that an inanimate object (i.e., a ball) will remain in a given location when put there, although an animate object (i.e., a rabbit) may not. c. tendency for semantic knowledge of objects to remain permanently in long-term memory. d. ability to memorize the spatial location of permanent objects in the environment.

7. The inability to remember information from early childhood is termed a. retrospective memory. b. infantile amnesia. * c. anterograde amnesia. d. infantile memory.

8. At about 3 years of age, symbolic play increases substantially in complexity, with children engaging with other children in role-playing, called a. object-oriented play. b. child-oriented play. c. sociodramatic play. * d. Symbolic function.

9. Changes across the life span are least apparent for what kind of memory? a. Semantic memory b. Episodic memory c. Implicit memory * d. Prospective memory 10. Children 3 years of age and older typically copy the exact actions of a model, even if many of those actions are obviously irrelevant. This phenomenon is referred to as

a. b. c. d.

deferred imitation. emulation. false belief. overimitation. *

11. Gerald is in his late 70s and has been having trouble remembering associations, such as where he left his car keys and the names of acquaintances. Gerald Is struggling with a. pattern separation. b. relational binding. * c. priming. d. episodic future thought.

Chapter 9 Multiple Choice Questions Note: The correct answer for each question is highlighted. The multiple-choice question test banks are also available here as downloadable interactive MCQs that you can integrate into your university's own copies of Moodle or Blackboard.

1. Which aspect of language involves the development of how one uses language in particular social settings for particular communicative purposes?

Pragmatics Grammar Lexical Phonological

2. Which of the following are true according to constructivist theories?

There is no Universal Grammar.

Adults apply formulas to create utterances.

Children’s productions recast word combinations others have used.

All of the above 3. By 6 months of age, children can ____: distinguish many language sounds or signs. apply simple grammatical rules from their native language. use honorifics correctly. understand over 50 words.

4. Speaking infants start producing consonants typically at _____ months and their first words at _____ months of age, whereas signing babies produce their first

meaningful sign at ____ months: 6; 12; 9 5; 8; 12 12; 18; 20 4; 12; 12

5. Which of the following is true about genes and language development?

Vocabulary is more heritable than grammar.

Language heritability decreases with age.

The heritability of language impairment is 3-5%.

None of the above 6. What population provides the best evidence for a critical period in L1?

Some groups of signers Children with cochlear implants International adoptees Immigrants 7. What factors underlie performance in nonword repetition?

Language exposure Literacy Working memory All of the above 8. Which of these statements accurately describes vocabulary development over one's lifetime?

Vocabulary remains relatively stable after childhood.

A "vocabulary spurt" is often observed in old age.

Vocabulary growth can be exponential, particularly around 18 months.

Vocabulary growth is typically independent from literacy and schooling.

9. Which language skill is mastered the latest?

Politeness Correct generalization of structures Inflectional morphology Phonological rules 10. What theoretical perspective suggests that children comprehend and produce language based on their linguistic experiences?

Generativism Universal Grammar Constructivism or usage-based view Joint Activation theory

Multiple choice questions 1) A developmental characteristic is considered “constitutional” if it is: A) Biologically-based B) Environmentally-based C) Contextually-based D) Culturally-based 2) ________ reflects how easily a person becomes emotionally aroused in response to different situations; ___________refers to how it is modulated.

A) Reactivity; regulation B) Regulation; reactivity C) Inhibition; regulation D) Reactivity; inhibition 3) Sai is a highly active child living in a family that highly values calmness and compliance and he is at risk of developing externalizing problems. This is an example of poor_________: A) Goodness of fit B) Effortful control C) Differential susceptibility D) Emotion regulation 4) The emotions sadness, anger, and joy are examples of emotions within which theoretical framework?

A) Discrete emotions theory B) Constructivist theory C) Functionalist theory D) Circumplex theory 5) The fact that anger can be expressed many different ways is an example of ________; and that different stimuli may lead to anger is an example of _________.

A) Equipotentiality; equifinality B) Equifinality; equipotentiality C) Ontogeny; equifinality D) Equipotentiality; ontogeny 6) Juan is a 14-year-old who engages in a great deal of risky behavior despite being able to logically reason about the downsides of taking risks. What might explain this discrepancy?

A) Developmental timing of the prefrontal cortex and amygdala.

B) Conflicting goals between status with peers and an appreciation of potential risks.

C) Hormonal influences on the dopamine system.

D) All of the above are true.

7) Knowing the social conventions of when and how an emotion is expressed is referred to as: A) Display rules B) Emotion regulation C) Social cognition D) Affective forecasting 8) ________ refers to the sharing of attention with another person during a face-toface interaction; __________involves coordinating attention with a social partner about a shared referent.

A) Primary intersubjectivity; secondary intersubjectivity B) Secondary intersubjectivity; primary intersubjectivity C) Primary intersubjectivity; self-conscious emotions D) Self-conscious emotions; secondary intersubjectivity 9) Lily is 20 months old and has begun exhibiting signs of shame, guilt, and embarrassment when she has done something wrong, and pride when she has done something well. Lily is experiencing: A) Self-conscious emotions B) Display rules C) Social cognition D) Mirror self-recognition 10) Which of the following is NOT a potential issue with the mirror self-recognition task: A) It may underestimate the emergence of a sense of self.

B) Mirrors are a novel tool not present in all cultures.

C) The level of perspective taking to consider the representation of the self may be too advanced for some children, even if they have a sense of self.

D) Child temperament may prevent the application of the rouge.

Chapter 11 Multiple Choice Questions The correct answer is bolded and italicized.

19. At what age do children first start labeling their gender and using gender labels in their speech? a. Between 6 and 12 months b. Between 18 and 24 months c. Between 3 and 5 years d. None of these 20. What contributes to the speed at which individuals discover and adopt gender- and sexuallydiverse identities? a. Access to information and knowledge gains b. Social contagion c. Cognitive development d. All of these 21. What is the most common form of sexual diversity? a. Exclusive same-gender sexuality b. Exclusive heterosexuality c. Nonbinary d. Plural patterns of attraction 22. What are the factors that might contribute to sexual identity change across the life span? a. Changes in intimate relationships (e.g., starting a relationship with a man for the first time) b. Changes in social factors (e.g., increased social acceptance of same-gender sexuality) c. Changes in life circumstances (e.g., moving to a new community, divorce) d. All of the above 23. What term refers to the behavioral expression of gender-typed appearance and/or activities? a. Gender expression b. Gender dysphoria c. Sexual diversity d. Gender mosaicism 24. What is the gender affirmative model of care? a. An approach to support and affirm experienced gender identity and reduce psychological distress b. A form of psychotherapy to reconcile an individual’s religious and sexual identity c. Effortful changes to extinguish same-sex attractions d. Distress due to the discrepancy between birth-assigned gender and felt gender 25. What was found in the largest-ever genetic study of sexual behavior by Ganna et al. (2019)? a. 8–25% of the variance in the likelihood of engaging in same-gender behavior could be attributed to genetic influences b. There were genetic differences between individuals with exclusively same-gender behavior versus “bisexual” or “mostly heterosexual” patterns of behavior c. Different genes differentiated individuals with a reported history of same-gender sexual behavior from individuals with no history of such behavior d. All of these

Chapter 12 Multiple Choice Questions The correct answer is bolded and italicized.

26. What is an early behavioral manifestation of mentalizing skills? a. Teasing b. Helping c. Pretend Play d. All of these 27. What is the purpose of the helper-hinderer paradigm? a. Linguistic equivalence, functional equivalence b. Functional equivalence, external validity c. To examine whether infants have a ‘moral core’ that allows them to evaluate the moral relevance of others’ actions d. External validity, linguistic equivalence 28. In what way do siblings promote child mentalization? a. Arguments between siblings may result in parental interventions, which provide an opportunity to discuss differences in points of view b. Fantasy play with siblings provides an opportunity for practicing mentalizing skills c. Sibling relationships can be emotionally intense, providing an opportunity to understand other children’s thoughts and feelings d. All of the above 29. Research suggests a link between better theory of mind and which of the following? a. Greater sensitivity to criticism b. Greater social anxiety c. Poorer academic outcomes d. Reduced loneliness 30. Parents who focus on the internal states of their toddlers during conversations with them are more likely to foster ______ goals in their children. a. Autonomy-related b. Interdependent c. Socialization-related d. None of these 31. Choose one statement that best describes mind reading. a. Mind reading is a prosocial tool. b. Mind reading is a tool for deception or manipulation of social situations. c. Mind reading is a socially neutral tool. d. None of these

Chapter 13 Multiple Choice Questions The correct answer is bolded and italicized.

32. What is are the four phases (in order) described by Bowlby (1969) in the development of parentinfant attachments? a. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

b. c. d.

Discriminating sociability, indiscriminate social responsiveness, goal-corrected partnership, maintenance of proximity to a discriminated figure by locomotion and signals Infancy, childhood, adolescence, emergent adulthood Indiscriminate social responsiveness, discriminating sociability, maintenance of proximity to a discriminated figure by locomotion and signals, goal-corrected partnership

33. Which procedure was developed by Ainsworth to assess the security of infant-adult attachment? a. Bobo Doll Experiment b. Adult Attachment Interview c. Strange Situation d. Marshmallow Experiment 34. Which statement is FALSE? a. Researchers have documented few differences in the ways boys and girls are treated by their parents in the first years of life b. When children reach school age, parents cease to serve as secure bases as the role of peers becomes more influential c. In adolescence, parent–adolescent conflict is common as children strive for greater independence and equality while parents try to maintain attachments and dependency a. The prefrontal cortex of the brain continues to mature into the 20s 35. Which of the following represent Baumrind’s patterns of parenting? a. Authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, nonconformist b. Authoritarian, authoritative, passive, egalitarian c. Hostility, warmth, control d. Autonomous, dismissive, preoccupied 36. Traditionally, at which age did Western culture assume to be the end of adolescence? a. 16 b. 18 c. 21 d. 25 37. Which scholar coined the term emergent adulthood? a. Baumrind b. Freud c. Main d. Arnett 38. Self-focus, a search for and establishment of identity, awareness of possibilities, and a sense of being in-between developmentally is characteristic of which developmental phase? a. Infancy b. Childhood c. Emergent adulthood d. Adulthood 39. _______ is no longer a defining feature of adulthood for most individuals a. Retirement b. Aging c. Parenthood d. Goal attainment

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which is a type of dyadic peer experience? a. popularity b. peer victimization c. friendship d. peer acceptance 2. What is the difference between dyadic and group peer experiences? a. dyadic experiences involve two peers and group experiences involve more than two peers b. group experiences involve two peers and dyadic experiences involve more than two peers c. dyadic experiences involve cliques and group experiences involve crowds d. dyadic experiences involve crowds and group experiences involve cliques 3. Why are friends similar to each other? a. due to selection or attraction effects b. due to socialization effects c. due to both selection and socialization effects d. none of the above 4. A wide range of behaviors is accepted in what kind of culture? a. independent b. interdependent c. tight d. loose 5. Harming others refers to _____________ violations while ________________ violations involve going against societal expectations and norms. a. moral; conventional b. personal; conventional c. conventional; moral d. moral; personal

Chapter 15 Multiple Choice Questions The correct answer is bolded and italicized.

40. Which term refers to an approach to education that is focused on curiosity, creative thinking, and the use of discovery as a primary motivational approach a. Constructivist education b. Traditionalist education c. Socio-emotional learning d. Mixed-age learning 41. Which scholar proposed that skilled teachers are those who can bring the logical ordering of the subject matters into the psychological world of the developing child through their pedagogy and lesson design? a. Dewey b. Bronfenbrenner c. Erikson d. Skinner 42. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. b. c. d.

Research in the West shows that students’ intrinsic motivation to learn declines over time without repeatedly encountering constructivist teaching practices in schools Students’ social positions in society (e.g., socioeconomic background, ethnic and racial identity, gender identity) play important roles in shaping their experiences and development in school Curricular differentiation is associated with increased achievement, but not motivation, of high-ability students and increased motivation, but not achievement, of lower-ability students None of the above

43. An ecological, developmental perspective of schooling assumes that _______ influence(s) student development in school. a. Student appraisal of their school experience b. Daily activities and reciprocal social interactions between members of a school community c. Student academic-related capacities d. All of the above 44. Which of the following is NOT a contextual level of the school system hypothesized to influence individual development? a. Academic curriculum b. Grouping practices c. Peer interactions d. Schools as organizations 45. Which concept best describes the idea that fit between the school environment and the child’s needs determines if and how schooling influences development? a. My-side bias b. Stage-environment fit c. Culturally responsive teaching d. Professional orchestration