Test Bank for Cognition Exploring the Science of the Mind Eighth Edition Daniel Reisberg

Test Bank For Cognition Exploring the Science of the Mind Eighth Edition Daniel Reisberg

CHAPTER 1 The Science of the Mind MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following topics is NOT commonly studied within cognitive psychology? a. anger management c. memory b. decision making d. attention ANS: A OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Scope of Cognitive Psychology

2. Cognitive processes are NOT necessary for which daily activity? a. reading a newspaper c. talking on the phone b. studying for a test d. breathing ANS: D OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Scope of Cognitive Psychology

3. Alyssa wants to be a psychologist but is unsure which topic within psychology most interests her. Which of the following topics would be LEAST likely to lead her into cognitive psychology? a. amnesia c. Lyme disease b. language acquisition d. problem-solving strategies ANS: C OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Scope of Cognitive Psychology

4. Consider the sequence ―Betsy wanted to bring Jacob a present. She shook her piggy bank.‖ Most people, after hearing this sequence, believe Betsy was checking her piggy bank to see if she had money to spend on the gift. This inference about Betsy‘s goals depends on the fact that a. our previous knowledge fills in background information whenever we‘re understanding an event or conversation. b. readers are likely to know someone named Jacob. c. English, unlike other languages, requires speakers to mention all of the people involved in an event. d. the individual sentences are short.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Broad Role for Memory

5. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to apply to patient H.M.? a. ―He cannot remember what he did earlier today, including events that took place just an hour ago.‖ b. ―He read this story last month, but he was still surprised by how the story turned out.‖ c. ―Even though he has encountered the nurse many times, he is still unable to recognize her.‖ d. ―He remembered that it was only a week ago that he‘d heard the sad news that his uncle had died.‖ ANS: D OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Amnesia and Memory Loss

6. Research with H.M. provides an illustration for which major theme of the chapter? a. Introspection is an important research tool for cognitive psychologists. b. Cognitive psychology can help us understand a wide range of activities that depend on someone‘s ability to remember. c. Memory is not very important. d. The disruption caused by brain damage depends on how widespread the damage is, and not on the specific sites that are damaged.

ANS: B OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Scope of Cognitive Psychology

7. Patients suffering from clinical amnesia are characterized by a. memory dysfunction. c. inarticulate speech. b. an inability to recognize patterns. d. impaired language comprehension.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Amnesia and Memory Loss

8. The term ―introspection‖ refers to the a. process by which one individual seeks to infer the thoughts of another individual. b. procedure of examining thought processing by monitoring the brain‘s electrical activity. c. process of each person looking within, to observe his or her own thoughts and ideas. d. technique of studying thought by interpreting the symbols used in communication.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Limits of Introspection

9. A participant is asked to look within himself or herself and report on his or her own mental processes. This method is called a. logical inference. c. introspection. b. reconstruction. d. mentalistic study.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Limits of Introspection

10. Of the following, introspection is LEAST useful for studying a. topics that are strongly colored by emotion. b. mental events that are unconscious. c. processes that involve conceptual knowledge. d. events that take a long time to unfold.

ANS: B OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Limits of Introspection

11. Which of the following statements about introspection is FALSE? a. It is the only way to observe conscious events directly. b. It is subjective. c. It provides strong evidence for hypothesis-testing. d. It was a technique used historically to study cognition.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Limits of Introspection

12. Genie wonders why she can never remember the names of new acquaintances. In search of an answer, she examines and reflects on her feelings about meeting new people. Genie is engaged in which process? a. practical rehearsal c. learning history analysis b. introspection d. goal retrieval ANS: B OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Limits of Introspection

13. Introspection was employed as a research tool in the late 1800s because a. it was regarded as the only way to observe the mind‘s contents directly. b. it provided data from individuals without any specialized training. c. conscious events are just as important as unconscious events. d. it provided cognitive psychology‘s first testable claims.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Limits of Introspection

15. Which of the following statements about introspection is FALSE? a. A verbal report based on introspection may provide a distorted picture of mental processes that are nonverbal in nature. b. Different participants might be using different terms to describe similar experiences. c. Introspection provides valuable scientific data, but only after the person doing the introspection has

d.

received many hours of training.

Participants cannot possibly introspect about events that are unconscious.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Limits of Introspection

15. Which of the following statements provides the most serious obstacle to the use of introspection as a source of scientific evidence? a. When facts are provided by introspection, we have no way to assess the facts themselves, independent of the reporter‘s perspective. b. Introspection is only effective for children, because children have not yet learned to inhibit their own self-reports. c. Introspection is a valid method only if the person doing the introspection goes into a trancelike state. d. The process of reporting on one‘s own mental events is too slow to be scientifically useful.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Limits of Introspection

16. In cognition, as in other sciences, we develop claims that can be tested. These claims are generally referred to as a. research proposals. c. statistical comparisons. b. empirical models. d. hypotheses.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.3 | 1.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Limits of Introspection

17. A behaviorist, like John Watson, is LEAST likely to believe which of the following statements? a. Our learning history powerfully influences our behaviors. b. Children are a good source for data. c. The mind is not amenable to scientific inquiry because it is not easily observed. d. When it comes to collecting data, introspection is as valuable as behavior.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.3 | 1.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Years of Behaviorism

18. Historically, the movement known as behaviorism was to a large extent encouraged by scholars‘ concerns regarding a. psychotherapy. b. an exaggerated focus on participants‘ responses. c. research based on introspection. d. a focus on brain mechanisms and a corresponding inattention to mental states.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

19. Behaviorists study organisms‘ a. expectations. b. desires and motivations.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.4

c. d.

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Years of Behaviorism

dreams. responses.

The Years of Behaviorism

20. Of the following, behaviorists argued that ________ were most important in analyzing behavior. a. expectations c. wishes b. beliefs d. learning histories ANS: D OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Years of Behaviorism

21. Which of the following would a classical behaviorist be LEAST likely to study? a. a participant‘s response to a regularly occurring situation b. a participant‘s beliefs c. changes in a participant‘s behavior that follow changes in the environment d. principles that apply equally to human behavior and to the behavior of other species ANS: B

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

The Years of Behaviorism

OBJ:

1.4

MSC: Applying

22. Modern psychology turned away from behaviorism in its classic form for many reasons, including the fact that a. classical behaviorism failed to consider the mental processes underlying cognition. b. humans are more similar to computers than to other species studied in the laboratory. c. psychology rejected behaviorism‘s emphasis on an organism‘s subjective states. d. an organism‘s behavior can be changed by learning.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Years of Behaviorism

23. If Sheila says, ―Pass the salt, please,‖ you are likely to pass her the salt. You‘ll probably respond in the same way if Sheila (a chemistry major) instead asks, ―Could you please hand me the sodium chloride crystals?‖ This observation seems to indicate that our behavior is a. primarily controlled by the physical characteristics of the stimuli we encounter. b. shaped by the literal meanings of the stimuli we encounter. c. determined by simple associations among the stimuli we encounter. d. governed by what the stimuli we encounter mean to us.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Years of Behaviorism

24. The process of taking observable information and inferring a cause is known as a. mentalistic inference. c. cause and effect. b. the transcendental method. d. introspection.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Intellectual Foundations of the Cognitive Revolution OBJ: 1.4 MSC: Remembering 25. One important difference between classical behaviorism and cognitive psychology is that cognitive psychology a. argues that unobservable mental states can be scientifically studied. b. rejects the use of human participants. c. insists on studying topics that can be directly and objectively observed. d. emphasizes the evolutionary roots of human behavior.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Intellectual Foundations of the Cognitive Revolution OBJ: 1.4 MSC: Analyzing 26. Cognitive psychology often relies on the transcendental method, in which a. mental events are explained by referring to events in the central nervous system. b. information from introspection transcends behavioral data. c. researchers seek to infer the properties of unseen events on the basis of the observable effects of those events. d. theories are tested via computer models.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Intellectual Foundations of the Cognitive Revolution OBJ: 1.4 MSC: Remembering 27. The philosopher Immanuel Kant based many of his arguments on transcendental inferences.

A commonplace example of such an inference is a a. physicist inferring what the attributes of the electron must be on the basis of visible effects that the electron causes. b. computer scientist inferring what the attributes of a program must be on the basis of his or her longrange goals for the program‘s functioning. c. biologist inferring how an organism is likely to behave in the future on the basis of assessment of past behaviors. d. behaviorist inferring how a behavior was learned on the basis of a deduction from well-established principles of learning.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Intellectual Foundations of the Cognitive Revolution

OBJ:

1.4

MSC: Analyzing

28. Cognitive psychologists try to make inferences about causes, based on the observed effects. In this way, cognitive psychologists use methods like those commonly employed by a. crime scene investigators. c. chefs. b. garbage collectors. d. construction workers.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Intellectual Foundations of the Cognitive Revolution OBJ: 1.4 MSC: Applying 29. The ―cognitive revolution‖ is named as such because a. the focus changed from behaviors to the processes underlying those behaviors. b. the change was accompanied by violence. c. the focus changed from animals to humans. d. philosophers such as Kant were strongly opposed to the change.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Intellectual Foundations of the Cognitive Revolution OBJ: 1.4 MSC: Understanding 30. The branch of psychology concerned with the scientific study of knowledge is a. cognitive psychology. c. neuropsychology. b. humanistic psychology. d. behaviorism.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Scope of Cognitive Psychology

31. Wilhelm Wundt would be LEAST interested in an individual's a. feelings. c. reaction to a conditioned stimulus. b. perception of temperature. d. recollections.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Limits of Introspection

32. The seminal work of ________ was instrumental in the development of experimental psychology. a. Donald Broadbent c. John Watson b. Wilhelm Wundt d. Immanuel Kant ANS: B OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Limits of Introspection

33. Which technique was commonly used in Wilhelm Wundt's laboratory? a. introspection c. operant conditioning b. physiological analysis d. classical conditioning ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Limits of Introspection

34. What evidence supports Edward Tolman's belief that it is possible for rats to acquire new knowledge? a. development of a cognitive map b. increased physiological response to a reward c. decreased avoidance of punishment d. observational introspection ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Path from Behaviorism to the Cognitive Revolution MSC: Evaluating 35. Who proposed the concept of a "cognitive map"? a. Ulric Neisser b. Frederic Bartlett ANS: D

DIF:

Easy

c. d.

OBJ:

Noam Chomsky Edward Tolman

1.4

REF: The Path from Behaviorism to the Cognitive Revolution MSC: Remembering

OBJ:

1.4

36. For 10 days, a group of rats is simply allowed to explore a maze. On Day 11, food is introduced at a specific location within the maze, and the rats find it. On Day 12, the rats move to the food‘s location just as quickly as rats who had been trained for many days with food in that location. The most plausible explanation for this result is that a. the rats permitted only to explore learned the layout of the maze. b. the reward of food was not sufficient to shape the trained rat's behavior. c. the ability of rats to locate food is innate. d. the rats trained to locate food learned the layout of the maze.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Path from Behaviorism to the Cognitive Revolution MSC: Analyzing

OBJ:

1.4

37. Noam Chomsky criticized ________ and noted that it failed to explain ________. a. Gestalt psychology; visual perception c. behaviorism; language development b. introspection; individual differences d. direct observations; abstract thinking ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Path from Behaviorism to the Cognitive Revolution MSC: Applying

OBJ:

1.4

38. Contemporary cognitive psychologists are MOST interested in examining the relationship between ________ and ________. a. stress hormones; behavior c. introspection; self-awareness b. memory capacity; lifetime achievement d. cognitive processes; behavior ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Research in Cognitive Psychology: The Diversity of Methods OBJ: 1.1 MSC: Analyzing 39. ________ techniques allow us to scrutinize the precise structure and moment-by-moment pattern of activation in the brain. a. Introspection c. Neuroimaging b. Neuropsychological d. Observational ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Research in Cognitive Psychology: The Diversity of Methods OBJ: 1.1 MSC: Remembering 40. A Gestalt psychologist is likely to focus on which of the following? a. individual elements of an experience b. differences in reaction time c. how elements of an experience interact to form new wholes d. objective and subjective experiences ANS: C OBJ: 1.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

European Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

41. A(n) ________ is general knowledge about what is typically involved in a type of situation or event. a. schema c. cognitive map b. response set d. instinct ANS: A OBJ: 1.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

European Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

42. Schemas reflect a(n) ________ that ________ comprehension of a specific experience. a. objective appraisal; inhibits c. pattern of thought; inhibits b. mental framework; facilitates d. habit; facilitates ANS: B OBJ: 1.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

European Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

43. The development of computers facilitated research in cognition by a. suggesting hypotheses that framed the steps of cognition as stages of information processing.

b. c. d.

more accurately capturing reaction time. integrating elements of subjective experiences. discrediting behavioral principles.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Computers and the Cognitive Revolution

44. Who used the language of computer science to describe human cognition? a. Donald Broadbent c. Frederic Bartlett b. Colin Cherry d. Wilhelm Wundt ANS: A OBJ: 1.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Computers and the Cognitive Revolution

45. An information processing approach to understanding cognition does NOT a. propose a sequence of mental operations to explain cognition. b. use computer models to describe cognitive processes. c. describe cognition as processing information in stages. d. rely on behavioral principles to explain specific stimulus-response relationships.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Computers and the Cognitive Revolution

ESSAY 1. You‘ve just ordered your lunch and are waiting for your food to be delivered when your friend Jill says, ―I don‘t understand why you would need to take a whole class on cognitive psychology. It doesn‘t seem that important to our everyday lives.‖ Describe to Jill all the ways she will rely on cognitive processing during this meal.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 1.1

REF: The Scope of Cognitive Psychology MSC: Creating

2. Describe the case of H.M. What does his story tell us about the role that memory plays in our sense of self?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Amnesia and Memory Loss

OBJ:

1.2

3. Compare and contrast the introspection, behaviorist, and cognitive approaches to studying mental activities. Which approach do you find most compelling, and why?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Cognitive Revolution

OBJ:

1.3 | 1.4

4. Mikey is 4 years old and has begun acting out. Every time he throws a tantrum, his mother rushes over to console him. In analyzing this behavior, what sort of factors would most interest a behaviorist? On what factors would a cognitive psychologist using the transcendental method focus? What conclusions will each psychologist reach?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 1.4 | 1.5

REF: The Years of Behaviorism | European Roots of the Cognitive Revolution MSC: Applying

5. Despite the fact that we cannot directly observe mental activity, cognitive psychologists are able to scientifically study these processes. Explain why this is possible by describing Kantian logic. Next, provide at least three measurable variables and explain why they could be reliably used as proxies for mental behavior.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 1.4 | 1.5

REF: European Roots of the Cognitive Revolution MSC: Understanding

6. Describe introspection and then describe two limitations to this method.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Limits of Introspection

OBJ:

1.3

7. Define ―schema.‖ Describe how schemas shape and organize our experiences.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 1.5

REF: European Roots of the Cognitive Revolution MSC: Understanding

8. Cognitive psychologists utilize different methods to understand cognitive processes. Describe three different methods to investigate memory functioning.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 1.1

REF: Research in Cognitive Psychology: The Diversity of Methods MSC: Understanding

CHAPTER 2

The Neural Basis for Cognition LEARNING OBJECTIVES

2.1. Describe the disorder of Capgras syndrome, including the behavioral and neural correlates.

2.2. Explain what we can learn about the relationship between the mind and the brain by studying the effects of brain disorders and trauma.

2.3. Describe the distinct functions of the hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain regions.

2.4. Describe the functions of these subcortical structures: the hypothalamus, the hippocampus, and the amygdala.

2.5. Explain the role that the corpus callosum plays in the brain, and how lesioning that structure affects behavior.

2.6. Explain what is meant by the terms “lateralization” and “localization of function.”

2.7. Describe the various imaging and recording techniques that can be used to study brain activity.

2.8. Explain what is meant by the word “projection” in describing the brain’s “projection areas.”

2.9. Explain the different functions of the motor and sensory areas of cortex.

2.10. Name and describe main parts of a neuron.

2.11. Describe the events that occur at the synapse, and describe the differences between within-cell and between-cell neural communication.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of a person with Capgras syndrome? a. She thinks that her mother has been replaced by a look-alike alien. b. She cannot recognize that her father looks like her father. c. She also has Alzheimer‘s syndrome. d. She has no warm sense of familiarity when she sees a close friend.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Explaining Capgras Syndrome

2. Some researchers explain Capgras syndrome as a. a failure of visual recognition. b. the result of a disconnection between cognitive appraisal and sense of familiarity. c. a subtype of schizophrenia. d. a failure of long-term memory, because patients cannot remember what close family members look like.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

3. Neuroimaging techniques such as PET suggest a link between Capgras syndrome and abnormalities in each of the following brain regions EXCEPT the a. prefrontal cortex. c. temporal lobe. b. amygdala. d. fusiform face area.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

4. For most people, encountering a family member who looks a little bit different may elicit a response like ―He must have gotten a haircut!‖ However, that same experience will elicit a response like ________ from someone with Capgras syndrome. a. ―He lost weight!‖ c. ―He is an impostor!‖ b. ―He is mad at me.‖ d. ―He looks like a hat!‖ ANS: C OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

5. Capgras syndrome suggests there are two parts to recognition. These parts are a. factual and auditory. c. visual and factual. b. factual and emotional. d. visual and auditory.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

6. Capgras syndrome provides an illustration of several important themes in Chapter 2. All of the following are true of Capgras EXCEPT a. damage to a specific part of the brain is likely to produce specific symptoms. b. the brain has many interconnected and interacting systems. c. cognitive disorders often co-occur, such as Alzheimer‘s syndrome and Capgras syndrome. d. damage to the amygdala will result in an inability to recognize impostors.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

7. Capgras syndrome teaches us many things, but is LEAST informative about which of the following? a. the function of the temporal lobe in memory b. the function of the amygdala in people without Capgras syndrome c. the function of the frontal lobe in schizophrenia d. the function of visual area V1 ANS: D OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

8. Capgras syndrome and other cognitive disorders are useful to consider because they a. provide information about normal cognitive functioning.

b. c. d.

highlight the importance of proper nutrition and health care. provide evidence that people with Capgras syndrome need medication. show that all brain damage is irreversible.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

9. Which of the following statements about Phineas Gage is FALSE? a. He had Capgras syndrome. b. A rod went through his face and head, removing part of his frontal lobe. c. His personality changed after his trauma. d. He was able to perform basic cognitive tasks (talking, remembering, etc.) after his trauma.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Study of the Brain

10. Damage to the brain can be caused in many ways, but in general the damage is referred to as a a. stroke. c. syndrome. b. lesion. d. problem.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Data from Neuropsychology

11. Research has suggested that, among its other functions, the amygdala serve as a(n) a. important relay station between the eye and occipital cortex. b. storage location for information received from the skin. c. ―emotional evaluator‖ or threat detector. d. ―index‖ for locating memories in the brain.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

12. Mike has damage to his hindbrain. He is likely to experience problems with which of the following? a. rhythm of breathing, level of alertness, and posture b. complex thought and long-term memory c. planned motor activity d. perception and visual imagery ANS: A OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

13. Lisa has recently suffered a brain injury. Her symptoms include deficits in coordination and interpretation of pain. Which structure is most likely damaged? a. primary motor area c. forebrain b. midbrain d. hindbrain ANS: B OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

15. The cerebral cortex makes up the surface of what brain structure? a. hindbrain c. thalamus b. midbrain d. forebrain ANS: D OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

15. Damage to the ________ is likely to cause problems with precise eye movements. a. forebrain c. hindbrain b. midbrain d. amygdala ANS: B OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

16. Which of the following is included in the limbic system?

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

a. b.

thalamus amygdala

ANS: B OBJ: 2.4

c. d.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

cerebellum hypothalamus Subcortical Structures

17. Commissures are a. blood vessels that carry blood to all areas of the brain. b. brain areas associated with various types of sensory information. c. pockets of oxygen found throughout the brain. d. thick bundles of fibers that allow communication between the brain‘s hemispheres.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Subcortical Structures

18. Most of the brain‘s structures are hidden deep underneath the ________, which is the outer, visible layer. a. cerebellum c. midbrain b. cortex d. hindbrain ANS: B OBJ: 2.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

19. Which of the following structures is NOT visible when viewing an image of an intact brain? a. occipital lobe c. primary motor cortex b. cortex d. amygdala ANS: D OBJ: 2.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

20. Which lobe or cortex is closest to someone‘s forehead? a. frontal c. occipital b. parietal d. temporal ANS: A OBJ: 2.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

21. Which of the following statements about the association cortex is FALSE? a. These areas of the brain are involved in higher-level sensory processing. b. These areas contain specialized subregions. c. There are association areas for both sensory and motor areas. d. The visual association cortex is located in the subcortical parts of the brain.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

The Cerebral Cortex

22. We know that the amygdala is especially activated when someone is looking at an emotional scene. This result on its own does not allow us to make ________ statements. a. causal c. scientific b. important d. functional ANS: A OBJ: 2.4 | 2.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Power of Combining Techniques

23. Lindsie participated in an fMRI experiment. The researchers found high activity levels in visual areas when she was looking at a photograph and similar activity in many of those same areas when she was a. sleeping. b. imagining the scene shown in the photograph. c. drawing the scene shown in the photograph. d. speaking.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.6 | 2.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Localization of Function

24. When a photograph is shown in the right visual field, the signal will be sent to the ________ hemisphere.

a. b.

right left

ANS: B OBJ: 2.5

c. d.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

visual cortical Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

25. Kareena has undergone a split-brain procedure. Her doctor briefly presents the word ―hammer‖ to only her left visual field and then asks her what she saw. Which set of responses is Kareena most likely to give? a. She will say she doesn‘t know what word appeared, but she will be able to draw a picture of the object with her right hand. b. She will say she doesn‘t know what word appeared, but she will be able to draw a picture of the object with her left hand. c. She will say she doesn‘t know what word appeared, and she will not be able to identify the object using either hand. d. She will say ―hammer.‖ ANS: B OBJ: 2.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

26. The corpus callosum serves what major function? a. processing sensory information b. long-term memory ANS: C OBJ: 2.5 | 2.6

c. d.

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Lateralization

communication between hemispheres emotion Lateralization

27. A patient might elect to have split-brain surgery, which involves a. severing the corpus callosum. c. removing one hemisphere of the brain. b. removing the amygdala. d. removing a section of the frontal lobe.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.5 | 2.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

28. The corpus callosum is a large a. muscle. b. neuron.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

c. d.

REF:

Lateralization

commissure. damaged area of the brain.

Lateralization

29. Patients who have epilepsy often experience a decreased seizure frequency after a split-brain procedure. But these patients have also provided evidence for scientists. Specifically, a. this procedure has led to the well-supported notion that someone can be ―left-brained‖ or ―rightbrained.‖ b. research with these patients suggests that there is not significant localization of function in the brain. c. research with these patients suggests that someone cannot live without an intact corpus callosum, indicating its importance in survival and functioning. d. research with these patients has provided evidence for some degree of localization of function of the right and left hemispheres.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.5 | 2.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Lateralization

30. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) uses a strong magnetic pulse to a. record the amount of glucose a specific brain region used during a cognitive task. b. measure the blood flow using blood oxygenation level dependent (BOLD) signals. c. produce a temporary disruption to the brain area, and thus brain function, where it is applied. d. create a detailed ―map‖ of the different brain areas.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Data from Neuroimaging

31. Researchers using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) find activity in the fusiform face area (FFA) when participants view faces. This result on its own tells us that the FFA a. is responsible for recognizing faces. b. is necessary to recognize faces. c. is activity correlated with recognizing faces. d. has no role in recognizing faces.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Data from Neuroimaging

32. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and functional MRI (fMRI) a. are less useful than other types of neuroimaging for the study of brain function. b. create three-dimensional representations of the brain‘s structure and function. c. are useful only for studying features on the outer surface of the brain. d. make self-report data unnecessary.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Data from Neuroimaging

33. A number of techniques have been developed that allow us to examine the activation of specifically defined brain areas. These techniques are called a. fMRI. c. chronometric techniques. b. neuroimaging techniques. d. psychometric assessment.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Data from Neuroimaging

34. A CT or computerized axial tomography scan a. can only be performed on a cadaver. b. uses X-rays to study the living brain‘s anatomy. c. is primarily useful for measuring blood flow in the brain. d. can detect the activity taking place in different brain areas in real time.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Data from Neuroimaging

35. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans show a. continuous details of brain anatomy. b. what a participant is thinking the moment the scan is taken. c. brain areas that are currently consuming a particularly high level of glucose. d. whether a participant is learning something new or remembering prior learning.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Data from Neuroimaging

36. Doctors suspect that Paolo has a tumor in his brain, and they hope to learn the exact position of the tumor. For this purpose, they are likely to rely on a. TMS. c. EEG. b. fMRI. d. MRI. ANS: D OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Data from Neuroimaging

37. The electroencephalogram (EEG) provides an estimate of brain activity by measuring a. glucose consumption. b. blood flow. c. neurotransmitter release. d. electrical signals recorded at the surface of the scalp.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Data from Electrical Recording

38. Researchers have used fMRI to investigate activation in the FFA and the parahippocampal place area (PPA). When participants are shown a picture of a face to one eye and a picture of a house to the other eye (producing binocular rivalry), we expect to see

a. b. c. d.

no increase in activation in either the FFA or the PPA relative to a baseline level of activation. equal activation in the FFA and the PPA. activation only in the brain region linked to the picture in the dominant eye (e.g., if a picture of a face is presented to the dominant eye, then only the FFA will show increased activation). an increase in activation in the FFA when the participant is consciously aware of the face and similarly increased activation in the PPA when the participant is consciously aware of the house.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Power of Combining Techniques

39. Dr. Hout has fMRI evidence that the FFA is especially activated when people are engaged in a face recognition task. As a plausible next research step, she might think about a. combining this result with other evidence before trying to make any cause-and-effect claims. b. confirming the result by measuring activation levels with MRI or a CT scan. c. confirming the exact location of the activation through EEG recording. d. combining this result with other evidence examining FFA activation levels when someone is listening to music.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

40. The primary motor projection area is located a. in the cerebellum. b. in the occipital cortex.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

c. d.

REF:

The Power of Combining Techniques

toward the rear of the frontal lobe. in the midbrain.

Motor Areas

OBJ:

2.8

41. If a researcher applies mild electric current to a specific area of an animal‘s right hemisphere primary motor projection area, which of the following is likely to happen? a. a specific movement of a body part on the right side of the animal b. a specific movement of a body part on the left side of the animal c. a chaotic movement of the entire animal d. no movement at all ANS: B MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Motor Areas

OBJ:

2.8

42. The auditory cortex follows the principle of contralateral control. Thus, the a. right temporal lobe receives most of its input from the left ear. b. right temporal lobe receives most of its input from the right ear. c. right temporal lobe receives equal input from both ears. d. information received by the right temporal lobe depends on whether the listener favors his or her right or left ear.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Sensory Areas

43. The primary motor projection area forms a ―map‖ of the body. The amount of cortical tissue dedicated to different parts of the body correlates with a. the size of the body part. b. the distance of the body part from the brain. c. the precision of movement for the body part. d. The cortical area does not vary; it is the same for all body parts.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Sensory Areas

44. Olivia has sustained damage to the prefrontal area. As a result, she is most likely to have a. neglect syndrome. b. a variety of problems, including problems planning and implementing strategies. c. primarily memory problems. d. primarily language problems.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Association Areas

45. A patient with visual agnosia will probably show an inability to a. remember a list of words heard 1 hour before. b. detect brief flashes of light. c. recall the color of familiar objects (e.g., that stop signs are red). d. identify common objects in plain view.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Association Areas

46. Ben and Quinn both have lesions in their left frontal lobes. Ben has trouble producing speech; Quinn has difficulties comprehending speech. Both Ben and Quinn are likely to receive a diagnosis of a. neglect syndrome. c. agnosia. b. apraxia. d. aphasia.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Association Areas

47. Motor and sensory cortices combined make up what portion of the cerebral cortex? a. less than 5% c. just over 50% b. roughly 25% d. nearly 85% ANS: B OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Association Areas

48. Communication between neurons is ________, while communication within a neuron is ________. a. electrical; chemical c. electrical; neurotransmitter-based b. chemical; electrical d. simple; difficult ANS: B OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Neurons and Glia

49. A neuron is a. a group of cells specialized for a particular type of information storage. b. one of the fibers connecting the eye to the visual cortex. c. one of the individual cells within the nervous system. d. a region within the brain dedicated to a single function.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Neurons and Glia

50. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of glial cells? a. provide support for neurons b. facilitate the development of the nervous system c. release neurotransmitters d. clean up waste ANS: C OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Neurons and Glia

51. When a neuron fires, the portion of the cell that carries the signal to the presynaptic membrane is called the a. dendrite. c. axon. b. cell body. d. nucleus.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Neurons and Glia

52. The ________ contains the metabolic machinery necessary to keep a neuron alive and functioning properly. a. cell body c. axon b. dendrite d. myelin ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Neurons and Glia

OBJ:

2.10

MSC: Remembering

53. Complete the analogy: Incoming is to outgoing as ________ is to ________. a. dendrite; cell body c. axon; cell body b. dendrite; axon d. cell body; axon ANS: B OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Neurons and Glia

54. Which of the following statements about neurons is FALSE? a. Neurons communicate with each other through chemical signals. b. A neuron can have many dendrites. c. Neurons throughout the body have a reasonably consistent shape. d. The axon of one neuron can communicate across the synapse with the dendrite of another neuron.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Neurons and Glia

55. Neuron A communicates with neuron B. The ________ of neuron A releases a signal that activates a(n) ________ of neuron B. a. cell body; soma c. axon terminal; dendrite b. axon terminal; axon terminal d. soma; dendrite ANS: C OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Neurons and Glia

56. A synapse is a. a message sent from one neuron to another. b. part of a neuron‘s cell body. c. made up of the end of one neuron‘s axon, another neuron‘s receiving membrane, and the gap between these two. d. the name of the electric signal that occurs when a cell reaches its threshold.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

The Synapse

OBJ:

2.10

57. A neuron‘s initial, internal response to an incoming signal can vary in size. The ultimate, external response of the cell, however, does not vary in size. If the signal is sent, it is always of the same magnitude. This effect is called the a. whole-firing potential. c. uniform response law. b. all-or-none law. d. threshold potential.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Understanding

Easy

REF:

The Synapse

OBJ:

2.10

58. Neuron X sends a signal that is picked up and processed by Neuron Y. This between-cell communication generally occurs via a. chemical transmission between Neuron X and Neuron Y. b. electrical stimulation of Neuron Y by Neuron X. c. fibers that connect Neuron X and Neuron Y. d. the diffusion of water between Neuron X and Neuron Y. ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

The Synapse

OBJ:

2.11

59. One of the disadvantages of synaptic communication is that it takes time for chemicals to pass from one side of the synapse to another.

Which of the following is a benefit of synaptic transmission? a. It allows a single neuron to compare multiple signals from many sources. b. Chemicals in our food can be broken down to influence between-cell communication. c. It is simple, because each neuron can only receive signals from a single neuron. d. Chemicals are more reliable than electrical energy.

ANS: A MSC: Analyzing

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

The Synapse

OBJ:

2.11

60. At the synapse, a neurotransmitter is released from a ________ and is likely to bind to a ________. a. vesicle; presynaptic membrane c. receptor; presynaptic membrane

b.

vesicle; receptor site

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Understanding

d.

Moderate

REF:

61. A primary function of the thalamus is to a. produce emotional experiences. b. regulate the flow of sensory information.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.4

c. d.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

receptor; vesicle The Synapse

OBJ:

2.11

maintain a constant body temperature. regulate eating behaviors.

Subcortical Structures

62. Compared to computerized axial tomography (CT scans), electroencephalogram (EEG) a. detects changes in blood flow. b. has greater ability to detect brain lesions. c. offers a moment-by-moment recording of brain activity. d. assists in understanding how anatomical structures function.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Data from Electrical Recording

63. A child in preschool is touching a bumpy surface. Tactile signals associated with this activity are received by the ________ lobe. a. frontal c. occipital b. parietal d. temporal ANS: B OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Sensory Areas

64. Damage to Broca‘s area in the brain may result in which of the following? a. detailed dreams c. memory difficulties b. disruption of language use d. visuospatial difficulties ANS: B OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Data from Neuropsychology

65. The largest area of the hindbrain is the ________, which plays a role in ________. a. pons; respiration b. thalamus; processing sensory impulses c. medulla; maintaining a consistent heart rate d. cerebellum; coordinating physical activity ANS: D OBJ: 2.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

66. Visualizing your bedroom results in a. activation in the occipital cortex. b. decreased activation of the cingulate cortex. c. activation of a single neuron. d. increased activation of somatosensory regions.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Understanding

Easy

REF:

Coding

OBJ:

67. All of the following are true of primary projection areas EXCEPT a. they play a key role in movement and sensation. b. the largest parts of the body correspond with the largest projection area. c. the primary motor projection area is located in the frontal lobe. d. the primary projection area for hearing is located in the temporal lobe.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.8 ESSAY

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Association Areas

2.9

1. Describe Capgras syndrome and one possible explanation (physiological or cognitive) for the disorder. What does this disorder tell us about the interactive nature of the brain‘s various parts?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 2.1

REF: The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome MSC: Understanding

2. As it pertains to the development and testing of theories, what are the benefits of studying neuropsychology and neuroscience for cognitive psychologists?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 2.2 | 2.7

REF: The Power of Combining Techniques MSC: Evaluating

3. Is it fair to say that someone is ―left-brained‖ or ―right-brained‖? Why or why not? Give examples to support your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Lateralization

OBJ:

2.3 | 2.4 | 2.6

4. Explain the relevance of studying patients who undergo split-brain procedures in psychology by answering the following questions. a. What area of the brain is lesioned in these patients? Why do these patients elect to have this surgery? b. How does behavior change after the surgery? How does it stay the same? c. What have we learned about the brain and behavior as a result of this procedure?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Lateralization

OBJ:

2.5 | 2.6

5. Compare and contrast the use of fMRI and TMS and describe their applications in psychology. What sort of information does each approach give us? Which technique can be used to make causal statements about the link between brain activity and behavior?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Data from Neuroimaging

OBJ:

2.7

6. Evaluate the use of fMRI to gather information about activity in the brain. What are the advantages and shortcomings of this approach?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Association Areas

OBJ:

2.7

7. Judy has sustained damage to her visual association area, but not her primary association area. Describe the behavioral changes you would expect to see, given this trauma. What behaviors or mental processes would not be affected?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Association Areas

OBJ:

2.8

MSC: Applying 8. Describe the relationship between the cortical area in the primary somatosensory cortex and the corresponding surface area of the body part. Name two parts of the body that have large cortical representations and two that have small representations.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Association Areas

OBJ:

2.9

9. Explain how a signal would be processed and sent from one neuron to another. Include in your answer a description of the relevant components in the cell and synaptic activity.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Neurons and Glia

OBJ:

2.10 | 2.11

10. Many neurons communicate with Neuron X. Describe the process by which Neuron X determines if a message will be sent to Neuron Y. If a message is sent, what possible effects will this signal have on the firing of Neuron Y? ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Neurons and Glia

OBJ:

2.11

11. What regions of the brain show similar activation during related perception and imagery tasks? What regions differ in activation during related perception and imagery tasks?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Localization of Function

OBJ:

2.6

CHAPTER 3

Visual Perception LEARNING OBJECTIVES

3.1. Describe how rods and cones are different from one another.

3.2. Explain how single-cell recordings have been used to understand neural functioning in the visual system.

3.3. Explain how lateral inhibition promotes edge perception.

3.4. Describe what a “receptive field” is and describe the various types of receptive fields.

3.5. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of parallel processing.

3.6. Explain what the “binding problem” is, and some of the mechanisms that contribute to the solution to this problem.

3.7. Describe the evidence indicating the perceiver’s active role in shaping perception of the world.

3.8. Describe the Gestalt principles and how they influence our visual perception.

3.9. Describe the various forms of perceptual constancy, and the role of “unconscious inference” in supporting constancy.

3.10. Discuss the various cues we use to perceive depth.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If visual information conflicts with other information, we usually a. trust the visual input. b. distrust the visual input, as our eyes can play tricks on us. c. trust input from other senses, like auditory input. d. become confused and give up.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Visual System

2. The importance of vision for humans is reflected in the a. close proximity of the eyes to the visual cortex. b. inability of brain damage to disrupt the visual system. c. lack of a ―blind spot‖ in humans. d. relative size of the visual cortex.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Visual System

3. The ________ is the part of the eye involved in transducing light energy into neural energy. a. lens c. pupil b. cornea d. retina ANS: D OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Photoreceptors

4. Which of the following would NOT be considered part of the fovea? a. a cluster of cones in the center of the retina b. the area of the retina found far out in the periphery c. the region of the retina with the greatest acuity d. the area of the retina on which we place a target image in order to see the target clearly ANS: B OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Photoreceptors

5. Which of the following statements does NOT illustrate the difference between rods and cones? a. Rods are sensitive to lower levels of light. b. Only cones are able to discriminate color (hue). c. There are three types of rods (for three different wavelengths of light) and only one type of cone. d. Cones have greater acuity.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Photoreceptors

6. ________ are located primarily in the fovea, while ________ are located primarily in the periphery. a. Cones; rods c. Short-wave cones; long-wave cones b. Rods; cones d. Long-wave cones; short-wave cones ANS: A OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Photoreceptors

7. Which of the following statements about the retina is FALSE? a. There are three types of photoreceptors. b. The axons of ganglion cells form the optic nerve. c. You have a ―blind spot‖ in the retina where there are no rods or cones. d. Bipolar cells have connections with both photoreceptors and ganglion cells.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Photoreceptors

8. Which of the following statements about the visual stimulus, light, is FALSE? a. Light can be described as wavelengths that vary in frequency and amplitude. b. Perceived color (hue) is determined primarily by the wavelength of the incoming light.

c. d.

Our visual system is only able to detect a small proportion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Light perceived as red is associated with longer wavelengths, relative to blue light.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Photoreceptors

9. The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) acts as a. a way station between the eye and the occipital cortex, located in the thalamus. b. an important area in the amygdala, associated with long-term memory. c. a relay station to the amygdala. d. the location in the temporal cortex where auditory information is stored.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Lateral Inhibition

10. A researcher wishes to determine under what circumstances, or in response to what input, a particular neuron fires. A technique well suited to this purpose is a. neuropsychological testing. c. stereotaxis. b. lesion studies. d. single-cell recording.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Single Neurons and Single-Cell Recording

11. Single-cell recordings measure the ________ of individual neurons. a. shape c. release of neurotransmitters b. pattern of firing d. synaptic connections ANS: B OBJ: 3.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Single Neurons and Single-Cell Recording

12. Through single-cell recordings, researchers have identified the ________ neurons in the visual system. a. receptive fields of c. shape of b. connections between d. problems with some ANS: A OBJ: 3.2 | 3.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Single Neurons and Single-Cell Recording

13. Because of its center-surround organization, a neuron that has its entire receptive field (i.e., the center and the surround) exposed to bright light will a. fire rapidly. b. stop firing entirely. c. maintain the same rate of firing as if there were no light presented. d. fire slowly until the light turns off, then begin firing rapidly.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.2 | 3.3 | 3.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Single Neurons and Single-Cell Recording

15. A researcher has identified the receptive field for a neuron and has determined that the receptive field has a center-surround organization. If the researcher were to shine light into the entire receptive field, including both the center and the surrounding areas, we would expect the neuron to a. continue firing at its resting rate. c. decrease its firing rate. b. increase its firing rate. d. cease firing.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.2 | 3.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Multiple Types of Receptive Fields

15. A researcher wishes to define the receptive field for a particular neuron in the visual cortex. To do this, the researcher will need to specify a. the portion of the neuron that receives input from neighboring neurons. b. an area in the visual field within which targets will cause the cell to fire. c. where the neuron is located within the visual cortex. d. the brain area from which the neuron is receiving its input.

ANS: B

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Multiple Types of Receptive Fields

OBJ:

3.2 | 3.4

MSC: Applying

16. Cells detecting the boundary of a surface are subject to less lateral inhibition than cells detecting the center of the same surface. This leads to an effect called a. lateral enhancement. c. the boundary rule. b. edge enhancement. d. the all-or-none law.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Lateral Inhibition

17. Cells A and B receive the same high levels of stimulation, but Cell A shows a lower level of activity relative to Cell B. A likely explanation for this fact is that Cell A a. is defective. b. is receiving input from the edge of a surface, while Cell B is receiving input from a portion of the surface away from the edge. c. is being laterally inhibited by other nearby cells. d. has a higher resting level than Cell B. ANS: C OBJ: 3.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Lateral Inhibition

18. Lateral inhibition leads to which perceptual experience? a. The middle of an object is emphasized. b. The edge of an object is enhanced. c. Edges of objects tend to fade into the background. d. Colors appear brighter next to a textured background.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Lateral Inhibition

19. Patients who have suffered damage to the occipital-parietal pathway (the ―where‖ system) will have difficulties with which of the following tasks? a. visually identifying a toothbrush on the counter in front of them b. describing the function of the toothbrush without touching it c. reaching in the correct direction to retrieve the toothbrush d. describing how to use the toothbrush ANS: C OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

20. Parvo and magno cells a. are similarly sized. b. are linked so that parvo cells trigger firing in magno cells. c. inhibit firing of one another. d. provide input for the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN).

ANS: D OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

21. The specialization evident in visual processing shows that a. the visual system relies on parallel processing. b. all of the various aspects of visual processing occur within the occipital cortex. c. the visual system relies exclusively on serial processing. d. all visual processing occurs in the right hemisphere.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

22. To perceive the visual world, we have to bind various elements of a scene together so that they are perceived in an integrated fashion.

Which of the following is NOT likely to be involved in this process? a. attention b. iconic memory c. spatial position d. different groups of neurons firing in synchrony

ANS: B OBJ: 3.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Visual Maps and Firing Synchrony

23. Which of the following characteristics seems NOT to carry information within the visual system? a. the rate of firing of the neuron c. the chemicals released by the neuron b. the rhythm of the firing of the neuron d. the shape of the neuron ANS: D OBJ: 3.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Visual Maps and Firing Synchrony

24. Visual agnosia is associated with damage to which of the following? a. area V1 b. the ―where‖ system, which carries information from the occipital cortex to the parietal cortex c. the ―what‖ system, which carries information from the occipital cortex to the temporal cortex d. area MT ANS: C OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Remembering

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

25. Julie has sustained damage to the ―what‖ system in her brain. She will likely have difficulty with which of the following tasks? a. remembering where she put her keys c. providing directions to the store b. identifying a chair d. hitting a baseball with a bat ANS: B OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

26. Some people have sustained brain damage and lost the ability to identify color. Other people have sustained damage to a different area of the brain and lost the ability to detect motion. What does this indicate about our visual system? a. Identifying color is more important than identifying motion. b. Perception of motion gets processing priority over perception of other attributes. c. We have specialized areas for processing different kinds of visual information. d. The brain is unable to simultaneously process information in multiple ways.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

27. The primary visual cortex is located a. immediately behind one‘s eyeballs. b. in the middle of the brain, near the thalamus. c. at the part of the cortex that is farthest from the eyes. d. in the parietal lobe.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

28. ________ cells in the LGN are specialized for spatial analysis and form detection, whereas ________ cells are specialized for the detection of motion and depth. a. Magnocellular; parvocellular c. Parvocellular; p-cells b. M-cells; magnocellular d. Parvocellular; magnocellular ANS: D OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

29. Brad is able to read a clock but is unable to see the arms of a clock move from position to position. He is suffering from a. akinetopsia. c. visual neglect. b. change blindness. d. prosopagnosia.

ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

What If . . .

OBJ:

3.5 | 3.6

30. Someone with akinetopsia would have difficulty with all of the following EXCEPT a. crossing the street. c. watching a tennis match. b. pouring a drink. d. recognizing faces.

ANS: D MSC: Analyzing

DIF:

Easy

REF:

What If . . .

OBJ:

3.5 | 3.6

31. Human brains have a distinct division-of-labor strategy. Each task is achieved as a result of multiple brain areas working together. But the work of the various parts of the brain must be compiled into a finished whole. The issue of how this reassembly works is referred to as the a. binding problem. c. reassembly law. b. law of integration. d. synchronize process.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.5 | 3.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Putting the Pieces Back Together

32. Which of the following does NOT provide an example for parallel processing in the visual system? a. Rods and cones function simultaneously in the retina. b. There are magnocellular and parvocellular cells in the LGN. c. Visual information is sent from the retina, to the LGN, to the visual cortex. d. The ―what‖ and ―where‖ streams in the visual association cortex work together.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

33. Which of the following would NOT be considered an advantage of parallel processing in the visual system? a. It is fast. b. Information is processed only once, making it efficient. c. Multiple areas can process the information simultaneously. d. Disparate systems can work together to negotiate an accurate interpretation.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

34. The Necker cube is an ambiguous figure. Which of the following statements regarding the cube is FALSE? a. The drawing does not force perception of the cube in one orientation over the other. b. The lines on the page are neutral in regard to the cube‘s configuration and depth. c. The lines on the page contradict one another, so that the perception has to ―overrule‖ the information given. d. There is more than one perceptual interpretation of the cube‘s orientation.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Form Perception

35. The face/vase example illustrates what important principle of perceptual organization? a. If the input is ambiguous, the image can be interpreted in different ways at different times. b. Illusions do not occur with complex, detailed figures. c. Faces are easier to see than vases, because of the social aspect of human behavior. d. The perceiver does not contribute information to an ambiguous image.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Form Perception

36. Which of the following statements most accurately represents the order of events involved in interpreting a visual stimulus? a. First you perceive the components of the stimulus, then you interpret the overall stimulus. b. First you interpret the overall stimulus, then you perceive the components. c. You perceive the components and interpret the stimulus in a parallel fashion. d. There are not sufficient data to know how this process occurs.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Organization and Features

37. In order to summarize the Gestalt psychologists‘ movement in a few words, one might say, a. ―If you can‘t see it happen, it isn‘t worth studying.‖ b. ―The perceptual whole is different than the sum of its parts.‖ c. ―All that is important happens in the subconscious.‖ d. ―What you see is what you get.‖

ANS: B OBJ: 3.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Form Perception

38. Which of the following sentences best illustrates the effect that Gestalt principles have on perception? a. ―Go beyond the information given.‖ c. ―Think outside the box.‖ b. ―Seeing is believing.‖ d. ―Believing is seeing.‖ ANS: A OBJ: 3.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Form Perception

39. Which of the following is NOT one of the Gestalt principles governing perception? a. good continuation c. proximity b. complexity d. closure ANS: B OBJ: 3.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Organization and Features

40. Jenna sees a picture of a dog standing in front of a tree. The dog is blocking part of Jenna‘s view, so that she cannot see a portion of the tree trunk. Jenna does, however, perceive the tree to have an intact, continuous trunk. Jenna‘s perception reminds us that a. people generally ―fill in‖ missing perceptual information, guided by the Gestalt principles. b. people generally assume that trees have intact trunks. c. people are able to perceive accurately if the scene they are viewing is a familiar one. d. the viewer‘s contribution to perception is evident in the laboratory but not in more realistic settings.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Organization and Features

41. Molly sees a black crow standing on a brightly lit snow field. In this setting, a great deal of light will be reflected off of the crow‘s feathers. Molly will likely perceive the crow as a. gray or even white, because brightness constancy cannot operate in this setting. b. black, thanks to brightness constancy. c. lighter in color than it actually is, because of brightness contrast. d. black, only if she has some direct information about the level of illumination.

ANS: B MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Constancy

OBJ:

3.9

42. Despite the fact that sensory stimuli can change from moment to moment, we perceive the details (color, shape, etc.) of an image to be stable because of a. constancy. c. proximity. b. memory. d. good continuation.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Constancy

OBJ:

3.9

43. Jose is walking toward Dan, who is standing still. As Dan watches Jose move toward him, a series of physical and perceptual events will occur. Which of the following is NOT one of those events? a. The image of Jose will increase on Dan‘s retina. b. Dan will consciously make the effort to calculate Jose‘s distance based on the size of the retinal image. c. Dan will likely perceive no change in Jose‘s height, because of size constancy. d. Dan‘s perception of Jose‘s height will be influenced by Dan‘s perception of how far away Jose is.

ANS: B MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Constancy

OBJ:

3.9

44. If a cat casts a 5 mm image on your retina when it is 10 ft away from you, that same cat will cast an image that is ________ mm when it is 20 ft away from you. a. 5 c. 2.5 b. 10 d. 20 ANS: C MSC: Applying

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Constancy

OBJ:

3.9

45. Visual illusions often occur because of a. errors in retinal transduction. b. the perceiver‘s interpretation of the input.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Understanding

Moderate

c. d.

REF:

optical flaws in the cornea. obstructions in the image.

Illusions

OBJ:

3.9

46. Which of the following statements most accurately describes visual illusions? a. Cognitive principles that generally help us can cause illusions in some cases. b. Illusions are mostly beneficial to perception. c. Illusions will not occur if you know how to avoid them. d. Illusions can occur for shape and size, but not for color or brightness.

ANS: A MSC: Evaluating

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Illusions

OBJ:

3.9

47. One way that we can perceive depth is through our sensitivity to the adjustment our lens is making. This cue would be a. a monocular depth cue. c. interposition. b. a binocular depth cue. d. constancy.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Perception of Depth

48. The fact that your view of one object is blocked by another object can provide information about depth. This depth cue is termed a. interposition. c. good continuance. b. similarity. d. binocular depth cue.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Perception of Depth

49. A horse is blocking the front of a barn door, obstructing your view of the door. This configuration allows you to determine that the horse is closer to you than the barn door is. This is called a. good continuation. c. interposition. b. closure. d. linear perspective.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Perception of Depth

50. Which of the following is NOT considered a monocular cue for depth perception? a. interposition c. texture b. linear perspective d. similarity ANS: D OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Perception of Depth

51. Krista is sitting on a bench, watching the world go by. She notices that the people who are near to her move across her retina more quickly than the cars in the distance move. This effect is called a. optic flow. c. linear perspective. b. motion parallax. d. continuation.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Perception of Depth

52. As you move toward an object, the object gets larger on your retina. This is called a. optic flow. c. similarity. b. motion parallax. d. linear perspective.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

53. The cues to depth perception a. are random. b. generally rely on simple principles of physics. c. change based on one‘s age.

The Perception of Depth

d.

are inconsistent across individuals.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Perception of Depth

54. Shadowing can provide a cue for depth. For example, if a shadow appears on the bottom of a circle, the object appears convex.

However, if the shadow appears on the top of the object, it appears concave. This happens because a. we have a part of the visual cortex that is dedicated to the interpretation of shadows that are at the bottom of an object. b. in the real world, light comes from above more often than from below. c. we were taught in school how to interpret shadows. d. we are born with the ability to discriminate depth through use of shadows.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Perception of Depth

55. It seems inefficient to rely on so many different cues for depth perception. Why, then, do we have so many disparate cues? a. We use different cues in different situations. b. We are born with the ability to use some cues, but others have to be learned. c. Although we have many cues, they are all served by the same neural area, which is efficient. d. Some of the cues are always more accurate than other cues.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Role of Redundancy

56. The observation that different neurons function as dot, edge, and movement detectors suggests that a. different neurons have different receptive fields. b. lateral inhibition is essential in visual processing. c. rods and cones are more complex than initially understood. d. neurons have similar preferences.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Multiple Types of Receptive Fields

57. As you perceive a bus traveling down a street, ________ cells convey information relevant to detailed analysis of form, and ________ cells convey information relevant to movement detection. a. V1; parvocellular c. bipolar; magnocellular b. parvocellular; magnocellular d. V1; bipolar ANS: B OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

58. The action pathway corresponds with the ________ system, while the perception pathway corresponds with the ________ system. a. where; what c. what; where b. distance; evaluation d. evaluation; distance ANS: A OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Parallel Processing in the Visual System

59. Which of the following refers to the problem of reuniting aspects of a scene that were initially processed by distinct brain systems? a. sensory integration problem c. binding problem b. visual perception problem d. integration problem ANS: C OBJ: 3.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Putting the Pieces Back Together

60. It is possible to perceive depth with one eye closed because of a. feature detectors. c. lateral inhibition. b. monocular cues. d. perceptual disparity.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.10 ESSAY

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Perception of Depth

1. Describe the sequence of events through which visual information is processed. Begin by discussing how light is converted into neural energy. Then describe the pathway from the eye to the primary visual cortex. Finally, describe the processing that occurs outside of the primary visual cortex.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Creating

REF:

The Visual System

OBJ:

3.1 | 3.4

2. Describe the method and results of Hubel and Wiesel‘s experiments on the visual system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 3.2

REF: Single Neurons and Single-Cell Recording MSC: Creating

3. Describe the process of lateral inhibition and how it may result in edge enhancement.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Creating

REF:

Lateral Inhibition

OBJ:

3.3

4. Describe the ―what‖ and the ―where‖ streams, making sure to describe the function and location of each stream.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Creating

REF:

Form Perception

OBJ:

3.5

5. Explain the disorder known as akinetopsia, including the biological changes that cause the disorder and the behavioral changes that result.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

What If . . .

OBJ:

3.5 | 3.6

MSC: Understanding

6. It has been argued that the visual system relies on a ―divide and conquer‖ strategy. What does this mean? Provide one example of the organization of the visual system that provides support for your conclusion.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 3.5

REF: Parallel Processing in the Visual System MSC: Analyzing

7. Pick one of the ambiguous figures that was mentioned in the chapter. Describe how this figure is perceived and why it occurs. Make sure to differentiate between the role the stimulus plays and the role the interpreter plays in the perception.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Form Perception

OBJ:

3.7

8. Think of a real-world example in which two people will interpret the same stimulus differently. Describe the example and the factors that contribute to the different interpretations.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Creating

REF:

Form Perception

OBJ:

3.7

9. Explain the Gestalt perspective of form perception by providing examples and descriptions of at least two Gestalt principles.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Creating

REF:

Form Perception

OBJ:

3.8

10. Describe three different cues we can use to perceive depth. What are the advantages to having so many different cues for depth?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 3.10

REF: Parallel Processing in the Visual System MSC: Understanding

11. Describe at least two cues that facilitate perception of distance/depth. Why is redundancy in the visual system advantageous?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 3.10

REF: The Perception of Depth | The Role of Redundancy MSC: Understanding

CHAPTER 4

Recognizing Objects LEARNING OBJECTIVES

4.1. Define the difference between top-down and bottom-up processing.

4.2. Describe how object recognition might begin with a cataloguing of features.

4.3. Describe the research evidence that makes clear the priority of feature detection in our recognition of objects.

4.4. Describe the experimental manipulations that have been found to influence word recognition.

4.5. Describe the evidence making it plain that word recognition is somehow influenced by knowledge of spelling rules.

4.6. Explain the design of a feature net, and how it would account for various phenomena (including errors) in word recognition.

4.7. Consider the benefits and costs of a feature net.

4.8. Compare and contrast the other models of word and object recognition—McClelland and Rumelhart’s model, recognition by components, and recognition via multiple views.

4.9. Explain the concept of “distributed knowledge.”

4.10. Compare and contrast facial recognition with other forms of object recognition.

4.11. Consider how top-down influences can affect object recognition.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ―Bottom-up‖ (or ―data-driven‖) mechanisms are a. the scientific process in which all claims must be rooted in well-established biological evidence. b. mechanisms for which activity is primarily triggered and shaped by the incoming stimulus information. c. mechanisms for which activity is influenced by thoughts provided by the individual. d. the process by which researchers seek to develop new theories by paying close attention to the available data.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Recognition: Some Early Considerations

2. What sort of processing is driven primarily by factors in the environment or in the stimulus? a. top-down c. expectation-based b. bottom-up d. knowledge-driven ANS: B OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Recognition: Some Early Considerations

3. Imagine you are putting together a puzzle. You have a broad idea of what the finished puzzle will look like, and you‘re guided by that idea as you work. Your broad idea is acting as a a. top-down influence. c. foil. b. bottom-up influence. d. distraction.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Recognition: Some Early Considerations

4. Laura suffered brain damage and now has difficulty identifying objects. Specifically, she can see individual features, but has a hard time assembling those features into complex wholes. She is likely suffering from a. prosopagnosia. c. aphasia. b. apperceptive agnosia. d. memory loss.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

What If . . . | The Importance of Features

5. Bob suffered brain damage and now has difficulty recognizing objects. He was shown a clock and was asked to draw it, but he drew only a square. However, when asked to draw a clock from memory, he was able to do it. Bob is likely experiencing a. prosopagnosia. c. aphasia. b. visual agnosia. d. memory loss.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

What If . . . | The Importance of Features

6. It is suggested that features have special status within our visual processing. Which of the following findings does NOT support this hypothesis? a. Figures identified by a single feature are detected easily in visual search tasks. b. People with some forms of agnosia can detect features but cannot combine them. c. Feature recognition seems in some procedures to occur before recognition of objects. d. Targets defined by a combination of features are detected quickly in visual search tasks.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Importance of Features

7. Imagine that researchers have developed a drug that (temporarily) disrupts a person‘s ability to focus his or her attention. Let‘s say that we give this drug to someone, and then ask that person to search through various displays, looking for certain targets. We would expect the drug to a. have minimal impact on visual search strategies. b. be equally disruptive if the person is searching for a target defined by a single feature (e.g., ―Find the red shape‖) or if the person is searching for a target defined by a conjunction of features (e.g., ―Find the shape that is red and round‖). c. disrupt the search for a target defined by a single feature (e.g., ―Find the red shape‖). d. disrupt the search for a target defined by a conjunction of features (e.g., ―Find the shape that is red and round‖).

ANS: D OBJ: 4.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

The Importance of Features

8. A tachistoscope is a device used to a. measure the rate at which a neuron is firing. b. provide precise measurements of reaction time. c. display stimuli for precisely controlled exposure times. d. record the moment-by-moment activities of the brain.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Factors Influencing Recognition

9. A participant reads a list of words that includes the word ―elephant.‖ Later, the participant views another list of words, each of which is presented very briefly, followed by a mask. When the word ―elephant‖ appears in the second list, the participant is more likely to perceive the word ―elephant‖ in comparison to words that have not been recently viewed. This effect is called a. the word-superiority effect. c. working-memory availability. b. the redundancy claim. d. repetition priming.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Factors Influencing Recognition

10. In tachistoscopic studies, a poststimulus mask is usually employed to a. disrupt sensory processing of the stimulus. b. prevent verbalization. c. help the participants maintain proper eye position. d. discourage guessing about the stimulus.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Factors Influencing Recognition

11. In a tachistoscopic procedure, a word is likely to be more difficult to recognize if it a. has been encountered by the participant recently. b. is used frequently in the language. c. has an unusual spelling pattern. d. has been primed by an earlier exposure.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Factors Influencing Recognition

12. Participants are shown a visual stimulus for just 30 ms and are then asked, ―Was there an E or a K in the stimulus?‖ We would expect the best performance if the stimulus is a. BARK. c. BWQK. b. K. d. GKLA. ANS: A OBJ: 4.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Word-Superiority Effect

13. The word-superiority effect refers to the fact that it is easier to recognize a. short (three- or four-letter) words than long words. b. a letter within the context of a word than it is to recognize a letter presented by itself. c. a word presented in a phrase than it is to recognize a word presented by itself. d. words that are frequently used under tachistoscopic conditions.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Word-Superiority Effect

15. In tachistoscopic recognition, participants often make overregularization errors. These are errors in which participants a. perceive a word as pertaining to their personal experiences even when the word is relatively neutral. b. perceive a word as being related to the previous word when in fact it is not. c. are shown a frequently used word but perceive it as an infrequently used word. d. are shown a pattern such as MJLK but perceive it as MILK. ANS: D OBJ: 4.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Degree of Well-Formedness

15. In a tachistoscopic procedure, participants are shown the sequence NACL. Evidence indicates that a. the distinctive letter pattern in the sequence will help participants recognize the sequence. b. the familiarity of the sequence (i.e., the chemical formula for table salt) will confuse participants and therefore disrupt their perception. c. participants are likely to misperceive the sequence, reading it as if it were a common letter pattern, such as NAIL. d. participants will be unable to organize the letters, and therefore they will perceive only some of the sequence‘s features, not the large-scale units.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Degree of Well-Formedness

16. Participants are shown the letter string TPUM for 30 ms and asked to identify what they saw. If they answer incorrectly, which response are they most likely to give? a. P c. TRUM b. OPUM d. TMPU ANS: C OBJ: 4.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Making Errors

17. In many experiments, participants have been shown nonword letter strings, presented very briefly. When asked to identify these strings, participants tend to make specific kinds of errors. How would these errors be best described? a. They are unable to identify any letters if the string is a nonword. b. They identify many of the letters correctly but tend to incorrectly identify the vowels. c. They tend to misidentify strange letter combinations as more-common letter combinations. d. They misidentify more-common letter combinations as less-common letter pairs.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Making Errors

18. A feature net is a a. network of cognitive ―detectors‖ organized in hierarchical layers. b. collective of features used to describe an object‘s form. c. netlike structure of brain cells designed to detect features. d. conceptualization of how features are visually related to one another.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Design of a Feature Net

19. A response threshold is the a. duration for which a word must be displayed in order for a participant to realize it is familiar. b. number of correct responses needed in order for a participant‘s performance to be above average on a task. c. amount of certainty or conviction a participant expresses when selecting a particular response. d. activation level at which a response occurs.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Design of a Feature Net

20. Compared to detectors that have not fired recently, a detector that has fired recently is likely to a. be at a higher position within the network of detectors. b. have a higher response threshold. c. have a higher activation level. d. require more priming in order to fire.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

21. Participants‘ recognition thresholds are a. lower for frequently seen words. b. higher for recently seen words.

ANS: A

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

c. d.

REF:

The Design of a Feature Net

not affected by priming. lower for words with unusual spelling.

The Design of a Feature Net

OBJ:

4.6

MSC: Applying

22. One of the middle layers of a basic feature net contains ________ detectors. a. feature c. center-surround b. letter d. phrase ANS: B OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

23. A bigram detector fires in response to the a. appropriate object weight. b. appropriately shaped curve.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.6

c. d.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Design of a Feature Net

appropriately positioned corner. appropriate letter pair.

The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

24. On one trial of an experiment, a participant is shown the sequence GWXT. On a different trial, the participant is shown the sequence PAFE. On the basis of prior research, we should expect that a. PAFE will be easier to perceive than GWXT because detectors for PA and FE are likely to be well primed. b. the letter sequences will be equally difficult to perceive because neither is a word. c. participants will perceive more of the letters in GWXT because they are likely to confuse PAFE with PACE or SAFE. d. the letter sequences will be equally difficult to perceive because both contain regular bigram patterns.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

25. English nonwords (e.g., ―HICE‖) are easier to perceive than strings of letters not resembling English words (e.g., ―RSFK‖) because a. they are encountered more often. b. bigram detectors for more-common letter combinations fire more readily. c. they are more distinctive. d. word detectors can be quickly created for strings that are nearly words.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

26. The bigram layer of a feature net is a. rigid, so that once it is created it can never be adjusted or modified. b. something with which we are born. c. the same for every language. d. developed with experience.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

27. A vertical line (like the ―l‖ in ―line‖) would likely contribute to the activation of all the following nodes in a feature net EXCEPT a. O c. CK b. K d. CLICK ANS: A OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

28. Participants in a tachistoscopic procedure are shown the sequence CQRN. Participants misperceive this string as CORN. In a feature net account, which of the following statements is LEAST likely to contribute to this effect? a. O is a more frequently used letter in English than is Q. Therefore, the O-detector is better primed. b. CO is a more frequent letter pair in English than CQ. Therefore, the CO-detector is better primed. c. A well-primed bigram detector will fire even if the letter detectors feeding into that bigram detector are firing weakly. d. Feature nets are generally unable to identify nonwords.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Recovery from Confusion

29. We sometimes encounter ambiguous letters when reading handwritten words, but we can still interpret the words. For example, the same shape can be interpreted as an A in CAT but an H in THE. At what level of analysis does the feature net resolve this issue? a. the bigram level c. the feature level b. the geon level d. overregularization ANS: A OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Ambiguous Inputs

30. The bigram CO is more common in English than CQ, and this is one of the factors that makes identifying CORN more likely than identifying CQRN. According to feature nets, how is knowledge of spelling patterns like this stored? a. It is locally represented in the feature net. b. It is not explicitly stored anywhere. c. It is stored in propositional form. d. It is stored in the hippocampus, a brain structure crucial for memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.6 | 4.9

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Distributed Knowledge

31. In a feature net model, knowledge of spelling patterns a. can influence the perception of whole words but not the perception of bigrams. b. is distributed across the model, and therefore the knowledge is detectable only in the overall functioning of the network. c. is locally represented, allowing the network to draw inferences about partially viewed stimuli. d. is overshadowed by the parallel processing employed by the net.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.6 | 4.9

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Distributed Knowledge

32. Which of the following statements about a feature net model is FALSE? a. It seems able to explain most aspects of how we recognize print. b. It seems able to explain most aspects of how we recognize three-dimensional objects. c. It seems able to explain most aspects of how we recognize faces. d. Evidence suggests the net can be influenced by top-down processes.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.6 | 4.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Faces Are Special

33. Recognition errors (like mistaking CQRN for CORN) lead us to what conclusion about feature nets? a. Feature nets are an imperfect system, and thus unlikely to accurately represent our cognitive processing. b. The normal functioning of feature nets usually allows us to identify stimuli, but can also lead to errors. c. Feature nets explain accurate performance, but not errors. d. Feature nets are the only possible explanation for object recognition.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Efficiency versus Accuracy

34. Mistakes in word recognition occur within a feature net model of recognition. One reason for this is that the feature net encourages ________ over ________. a. accuracy; efficiency b. efficiency; accuracy c. laziness; hard work d. bottom-up processing; top-down processing ANS: B OBJ: 4.7

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Efficiency versus Accuracy

35. We could avoid making word-recognition mistakes if we scrutinized each letter on the page. This sort of letter-by-letter reading, though, would be problematic because a. reading would be very slow. b. we do not have the attentional resources to scrutinize every letter. c. the visual system would be overwhelmed.

d.

letters are easy to discriminate from one another.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Efficiency versus Accuracy

36. Which of the following would be considered a benefit of a feature net? a. slow, but cautious, processing b. flexibility to deal with unclear inputs c. Errors are virtually impossible. d. New information will not affect past organization of the net.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Efficiency versus Accuracy

37. This chapter describes in detail one way a feature net can be designed, but other designs may turn out to be preferable. For example, McClelland and Rumelhart‘s model makes use of all the following EXCEPT a. inhibitory connections among the detectors. b. the elimination of feature detectors, relying instead on geon detectors. c. connections allowing detectors at one level in the network to influence detectors at lower levels. d. connections allowing detectors at one level in the network to influence other detectors at the same level.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

38. McClelland and Rumelhart‘s model of word recognition suggests that detectors on separate levels can interact in a bidirectional manner. Biological evidence ________ this notion because ________. a. supports; visual processing is bidirectional b. supports; there is parallel processing in the visual system c. does not support; visual processing is an entirely bottom-up process d. does not support; word recognition does not depend on visual processing ANS: A OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

39. Some models of word recognition include detectors that ________ one another, so that activation of one detector decreases activation in another detector. a. excite c. change b. improve d. inhibit ANS: D OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

40. Biederman‘s recognition by components (RBC) model a. does not rely on a hierarchy of detectors. b. makes use of geon detectors, which in turn trigger detectors for geon assemblies. c. asserts that priming takes place primarily at levels higher than the level of geon detectors. d. can recognize three-dimensional objects provided they are seen from the appropriate viewing angle.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Recognition by Components

41. According to the recognition by components (RBC) model, which of the following is NOT true about geons? a. Geons are simple shapes. b. Geons are viewpoint-independent. c. Geons are always easy to identify. d. Geons are not identifiable if partially obstructed.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

42. The term ―geons‖ is short for a. geometric ions. b. geometric objects.

c. d.

Recognition by Components

geometric examples of objects in space.

It is not short for anything.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Recognition by Components

43. Which of the following statements best describes viewpoint-dependent object recognition? a. An object is memorized faster if it is upright. b. The perceiver must match the current view of an object with a view of the object stored in memory, often using the process of rotation. c. An object will be recognized at the same speed regardless of its orientation. d. Recognition of an object is dependent on how many geons are visible to the viewer.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Recognition via Multiple Views

44. We can often recognize an object even if some of the object‘s parts are hidden from view. Evidence indicates that this recognition from partial viewing will be easiest if a. we can see enough of the object to identify some of its geons. b. we can see at least 20% of the object‘s features. c. the object‘s features are unfamiliar to us, so there is no risk of false alarms. d. the object does not have too many geons.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Recognition via Multiple Views

45. Which of the following models for object recognition emphasizes the role that mental rotation plays in object recognition? a. feature net c. recognition by components b. McClelland and Rumelhart d. multiple views ANS: D OBJ: 4.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Recognition via Multiple Views

46. Evidence from single-cell recording experiments suggests that we might have a cell that responds to pictures of a specific person.

Which of the following statements about that experiment is true? a. The study was done on monkeys, because it is unethical to do such a study on humans. b. The cells responded only to close-up pictures of the target person. c. Most cells responded only to the pictures of the person with short hair, so that the shape of the head was easily visible. d. Some cells responded to pictures of the person regardless of the viewpoint of the photo.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.8 | 4.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Recognition via Multiple Views

47. The form of brain damage identified as prosopagnosia is primarily characterized by an inability to a. recognize faces. b. comprehend written text. c. identify inverted stimuli even though perception of upright stimuli seems normal. d. identify familiar voices.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Faces Are Special

48. Which of the following statements is true about the recognition of inverted faces? a. Recognition of inverted faces is harder than for upright faces. b. Face processing is affected only minimally by inverting the image. c. Inverting a nonliving object, such as a house, produces a bigger deficit in recognition than inverting a face, because we are less familiar with houses. d. Specialist neurons in the parietal cortex rapidly restore a face to its upright position for further processing.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Faces Are Special

49. The fusiform face area (FFA) is known to be an area that is specifically responsive to faces. Which of the following statements is also true about the FFA?

a. b. c. d.

It is primarily thought to be the area used to mentally rotate an inverted face into its upright position for further processing.

It responds only to famous faces (e.g., President Barack Obama).

It is also a crucial area in the processing of features within an object (e.g., edges and curves).

Tasks requiring other subtle distinctions within a category (e.g., identifying different birds or cars) also produce high levels of activation in this area.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Faces Are Special

50. The recognition of faces a. seems to rely on the detection of features and geons, indicating that the recognition by components model can be applied to face recognition. b. resembles other forms of recognition in that our ability to recognize faces is relatively unimpaired by changes in viewing angle or orientation. c. differs from other forms of recognition in that face recognition appears not to be influenced by expectation or knowledge effects. d. is influenced by the face's overall configuration, suggesting that a model based on feature detection will provide a poor explanation of face recognition.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Faces Are Special | Holistic Recognition

51. Which of the following neural areas is especially activated when looking at a face? a. fusiform face area c. lateral geniculate nucleus b. cerebellum d. frontal face area ANS: A OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Holistic Recognition

52. Facial recognition depends on a. perception of the overall configuration of the face. b. identification of the shapes of specific features, such as the nose or the eyes. c. seeing the person from the appropriate distance. d. recognizing the face‘s geons.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Holistic Recognition

53. The term ―top-down processing‖ is sometimes legitimately replaced with the term ―________ processing.‖ a. concept-driven c. repetition-priming b. stimulus-driven d. interactive ANS: A OBJ: 4.11

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Top-Down Influences on Object Recognition

54. Top-down mechanisms suggest that a. upright stimuli are processed faster than inverted stimuli. b. faces are processed faster than other body parts or inanimate objects. c. processing can be driven by knowledge and expectations. d. incoming information about a stimulus activates feature detectors.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.11

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Top-Down Influences on Object Recognition

55. If instructed to identify the briefly presented word ―fish,‖ which of the following hints will likely provide the greatest benefit for identification? a. The word will be presented in capital letters. b. The word is something you can eat. c. The word will be shown for 50 ms. d. The word does not contain an O. ANS: B OBJ: 4.11

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Top-Down Influences on Object Recognition

56. Facial recognition depends on the configuration and spacing of the features, which reflects ________ processing. a. bottom-up c. expectation-based b. holistic d. distributed ANS: B OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Holistic Recognition

57. An experiment requires participants to quickly determine if a target is present. Which of the following tasks is likely to produce the longest reaction time? a. Identifying a small red circle in a field of medium and large red circles. b. Identifying a red vertical line in a field of small red circles and blue horizontal lines. c. Identifying a blue vertical line in a field of red vertical lines. d. Identifying a red vertical line in a field of red horizontal and blue vertical lines.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Importance of Features

58. Knowledge of some sorts is likely to be represented by a broad pattern of activation spread across a network. This reflects a. distributed representation. c. top-down processing. b. local dependence. d. viewpoint independence.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.9

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Distributed Knowledge

59. Which of the following is NOT true of priming effects? a. Priming effects are a change in response to a stimulus caused by exposure to an identical, similar, or related stimulus. b. Identical priming effects are observed across participants. c. Priming effects have the potential to impact the words we perceive. d. Priming effects can meaningfully impact our understanding of situations.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.11

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Benefits of Larger Contexts

60. The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) a. receives activation from the eyes. b. transmits activation directly to the temporal lobes to facilitate object recognition. c. facilitates encoding and memory consolidation. d. processes facial expressions.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

61. We might expect the fusiform face area (FFA) to be damaged in patients with a. associative agnosia. c. anosognosia. b. aphasia. d. prosopagnosia.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Faces Are Special

ESSAY 1. You are driving in your car listening to the radio when a new song by your favorite artist comes on. Describe how top-down and bottom-up processing both contribute to your ability to identify (either correctly or incorrectly) the lyrics of the song.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 4.1

REF: Recognition: Some Early Considerations MSC: Applying

2. A researcher shows a group of participants letter strings for a brief period of time (50 ms) and asks them to identify the letters that they saw. Based on previous research, describe the pattern of performance that is expected by answering the following questions: a. Can participants do this task at all? b. With what sorts of letter strings will their performance be worst? c. If they make mistakes, what sort of mistakes do they make? d. What do these results tells us about object recognition?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Making Errors

OBJ:

4.3

3. In what ways are facial and word recognition similar? In what ways are they different?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Faces Are Special

OBJ:

4.4 | 4.10

4. Consider the word ―harp.‖ Using a classic feature net model, describe how you might recognize this word, even if it was shown only for a few milliseconds.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Design of a Feature Net

OBJ:

4.6

5. Describe the trade-off of efficiency versus accuracy in word recognition. Make sure to reference feature nets in your answer. Why is such a trade-off necessary?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Efficiency versus Accuracy

OBJ:

4.7

6. Explain how the McClelland and Rumelhart model could account for the word-superiority effect.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 4.8

REF: The McClelland and Rumelhart Model MSC: Analyzing

7. Compare and contrast these three models of object recognition: McClelland and Rumelhart‘s model, recognition by components, and recognition via multiple views.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Descendants of the Feature Net

OBJ:

4.8

8. Argue for or against the notion that ―face processing is distinct from other forms of object recognition.‖ Support your perspective by referencing behavioral or neuropsychological evidence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Faces Are Special

OBJ:

4.10

9. Is object recognition viewpoint dependent? Argue for or against this notion by discussing the relevant evidence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Faces Are Special

OBJ:

4.10

10. Describe how top-down influences affect object recognition by focusing on the relationship between letter and word recognition.

Describe at least two examples that were mentioned in the book/lecture, and create one novel example of these top-down influences.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Benefits of Larger Contexts

OBJ:

4.11

CHAPTER 5

Paying Attention LEARNING OBJECTIVES

5.1. Describe what people can hear from the unattended channel in dichotic listening experiments, and also what they do not hear.

5.2. Discuss what inattentional blindness tells us about the interplay between perception and attention.

5.3. Describe the differences between early and late selection theories of attention, and the evidence in support of each.

5.4. Describe how expectation-based priming is distinct from stimulus-based priming.

5.5. Describe how expectation-based priming can produce the selectivity seen in attention experiments.

5.6. Describe how spatial attention is comparable to a spotlight, and how it is different in its functioning from a spotlight.

5.7. Explain what patients with unilateral neglect teach us about attention.

5.8. How does the nature of the resources (specific/general/executive) influence someone’s ability to multitask?

5.9. How does practice influence attentional abilities, and thus performance?

5.10. Describe the advantages and disadvantages associated with automaticity.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When listening to two streams of conversation, the task of shadowing involves a. immediately repeating, word for word, the contents of one of the messages. b. drawing the mirror image of a simple sketch. c. copying the movements of a target individual. d. repeating back, from memory, a message heard minutes earlier.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Dichotic Listening

2. Tasks involving dichotic listening are tasks in which a. two different visual stimuli are presented. b. two different auditory messages are presented, one to each ear. c. participants must identify subthreshold sounds. d. participants must dichotomize sounds into distinct categories.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Dichotic Listening

3. In dichotic listening tasks, most participants are able to a. tell if the unattended channel contained a coherent message or just random words. b. identify physical attributes of the message on the unattended channel. c. concentrate effectively on the attended channel, so they end up detecting nothing on the unattended channel. d. maintain their focus on the attended channel only with considerable difficulty and frequent slips.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Dichotic Listening

4. In dichotic listening experiments, some aspects of the unattended message seem to leak through and are heard despite the participant‘s intention to ignore the message. Which of the following statements reflects what is LEAST likely to leak through? a. material that is easily distinguishable from the attended message in its semantic content b. mention of the participant‘s name c. mention of a topic of personal importance to the participant d. mention of a movie that the participant recently watched ANS: A OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Dichotic Listening

5. A participant who has just participated in an experiment involving dichotic listening is LEAST likely to remember a. whether input in the unattended channel was spoken by a male or a female. b. whether the unattended channel contained nonspeech noises or speech. c. how loud the signal of the attended channel was. d. the meaning of the words presented on the unattended channel.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Dichotic Listening

6. Jillian is participating in an experiment in which she was asked to shadow a message presented to the left ear while simultaneously ignoring a message presented to the right ear. Jillian is LEAST likely to detect which of the following changes in the signals? a. The right ear‘s message is initially presented in a high-pitched voice but is then spoken by a lowpitched voice. b. The participant‘s name is mentioned three times at various points within the right ear‘s message. c. Initially, the right ear‘s message contains a male voice reading a coherent passage, but this is then replaced by the same voice reading a sequence of random words. d. The right ear‘s message is initially presented in a soft voice but is then spoken by a loud voice.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Dichotic Listening

7. Participants are instructed to fixate on a point on a computer screen but to attend to, and report on, a ―‖ sign that appears off to one side for 180 ms. After several trials, the fixation point is unexpectedly replaced by a new shape, but the participants do not notice this change. This is a study of

a. b.

inattentional blindness. neglect syndrome.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

c. d.

REF:

attentional apathy. shadowing.

Inattentional Blindness

8. In a study of visual selection, participants were shown a video of people throwing and catching a ball. Some of the people in the video were wearing white shirts and some were wearing black shirts. Participants were asked to attend only to the group of people wearing white shirts and count the number of times they threw the ball. In this study, participants a. could not ignore the people wearing black. b. reported the total number of times the ball changed hands regardless of whether it was thrown by a person wearing a white shirt or a person wearing a black shirt. c. correctly reported the number of throws made by the people wearing black shirts 50% of the time. d. easily completed the task, but in the process failed to notice some other peculiar events that occurred.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Inattentional Blindness

9. Participants are shown a pair of similar pictures separated by a blank interval. The pictures are identical except for a single aspect (e.g., a man is wearing a hat in one scene but not in the other). In these kinds of tasks, participants often find it hard to detect the change. This phenomenon is known as a. scene identification. c. change blindness. b. change perception. d. change unawareness.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Change Blindness

10. Participants are shown pictures of two alternating scenes that are separated by a brief blank interval. The scenes are identical except for one small detail. In this case, participants find it hard to detect the change. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true? a. This effect occurs only when participants are unaware that there is a change in the scene. b. A similar effect can also be found with movies and in actual live events (where participants fail to detect changes that have been made). c. A similar effect can also be found with movies (where participants fail to detect changes that have been made) but not with actual live events. d. Changes in the center of a scene often take longer to detect than changes in the periphery of a scene.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Change Blindness

11. Change blindness demonstrates that a. perception of an object triggers attention to that object. b. attention cannot be divided between different objects within a scene. c. changes in a scene are easily detected. d. people routinely fail to see things directly in front of their eyes.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

12. Attention seems to be necessary for a. eye movements. b. perceptual priming.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.3

REF:

c. d.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Change Blindness

conscious perception. change blindness.

Early versus Late Selection

13. A ―late selection‖ view of attention suggests that a. only the attended input is analyzed; the unattended input receives little analysis. b. all inputs are processed to a reasonable degree; however, only the attended input reaches consciousness. c. attention can switch back and forth between attended and unattended inputs. d. analysis of an unattended input is greater than that of the attended input.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Early versus Late Selection

15. Studies looking at electrical activity in the brain suggest that the processing steps for attended stimuli and unattended stimuli are a. indistinguishable. b. distinguishable for only 1 ms after stimulus presentation. c. distinguishable as soon as 80 ms after stimulus presentation. d. not distinguishable until at least 150 ms after stimulus presentation.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Early versus Late Selection

15. Recordings from neurons in area V4 of the visual cortex show that the neurons are a. equally responsive to both attended and unattended stimuli. b. more responsive to the physical attributes of unattended stimuli than attended stimuli. c. used primarily in expectation-based priming. d. more responsive to attended inputs than unattended inputs.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Early versus Late Selection

16. In a variety of paradigms, priming the wrong detector leads to slower responding, compared to neutral priming. That is, getting prepared for one target seems to hinder performance for other targets. What does this finding reveal about selective attention? a. Selective attention draws on a limited-capacity system. b. Selective attention seems to have unlimited capacity. c. Expectation-based priming is more effective than stimulus-based priming. d. The cost of priming is inevitable.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Selection via Priming

17. Different forms of priming can be distinguished in several ways. For example, the effects of ________ priming can be observed almost immediately after the relevant cue is provided; in contrast, the effects of ________ priming require a half-second or so to appear after the relevant cue. a. concept-driven; data-driven c. expectation-based; repetition b. stimulus-based; expectation-based d. semantic; repetition ANS: B OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Two Types of Priming

18. In which of the following situations would we expect the fastest response time? a. The stimulus being presented to the participant is identical in form to the stimulus used as the warning signal. b. The stimulus being presented to the participant is markedly different from the stimulus used as the warning signal. c. The stimulus being presented to the participant is the stimulus the participant was expecting. d. The stimulus being presented to the participant is identical in form to the warning signal but is different from the stimulus the participant was expecting.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Two Types of Priming

19. In each trial of an experiment, participants see a warning signal and then, a half-second later, see a pair of letters. The participants press one button if the letters are the same (e.g., W W) and a different button if the letters are different (e.g., P X). In 80% of the trials, the warning signal is identical to the letters that will be shown on that trial. Here are the warning signals and the test stimuli presented on Trial 97 of the procedure: Group 1: warning signal  L; test pair  L L Group 2: warning signal  U; test pair  L L Group 3: warning signal  ; test pair  L L In this setup we should expect the fastest responses from a. Group 3 and the slowest responses from Group 2. b. Group 1 and the slowest responses from Group 3.

c. d.

Group 1 and the slowest responses from Group 2.

Group 1 and no difference between Groups 2 and 3.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Two Types of Priming

20. In a study of spatial attention, participants are shown a neutral cue, a high-validity prime (correctly predicting the location of the target 80% of the time), or a misleading cue to prime the location of an upcoming target. Which of the following statements is true? a. Response times to a neutral cue are faster than response times to a priming cue. b. Response times to a misleading cue are faster than response times to a neutral cue. c. There is no difference in response times between a neutral cue and a misleading cue. d. Response times to a neutral cue are faster than response times to a misleading cue.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Two Types of Priming

21. Priming based on specific expectations about the identity of the upcoming stimulus produces a. no benefit for processing if the expectations are correct but slows processing if the expectations are incorrect. b. a benefit for processing if the expectations are correct but slows processing if the expectations are incorrect. c. a benefit for processing if the expectations are correct but has no effect on processing if the expectations are incorrect. d. the same benefit as stimulus-based repetition priming.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.4 | 5.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Explaining the Costs and Benefits

22. Posner, Snyder, and Davidson (1980) examined spatial attention using arrows as primes. In most of the trials the arrow pointed to the area where the stimulus would appear a moment later, but 20% of the time it did not. They compared reaction times (RTs) for trials when the cue correctly pointed to the stimulus location, for trials when the arrow pointed toward an incorrect position, and for trials with a neutral cue (no arrow). Which of the following statements was NOT supported by their findings? a. RTs were slower when the arrow pointed toward an incorrect location. b. Spatial attention is limited in capacity. c. We can attend to two different locations without a reduction in performance. d. RTs were faster for responses for arrows pointing correctly compared to the neutral condition.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Spatial Attention

23. Some researchers have compared visual attention to a searchlight beam sweeping across the visual field. Which of the following claims about this beam is NOT currently supported by evidence? a. Visual acuity is highest for objects appearing ―within‖ the ―beam.‖ b. Movements of attention can be distinguished from movements of the eye. c. The beam of visual attention can be adjusted by the participant, so that it is sometimes wide and sometimes narrow. d. Stimuli inside the beam of visual attention are primed, promoting their perception.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Attention as a Spotlight

24. Movements of attention are a. always associated with movement of the eyes. b. rarely associated with movement of the eyes. c. dependent on eye movements. d. faster than eye movements.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Attention as a Spotlight

25. Which of the following systems is responsible for achieving and maintaining an alert state in the brain? a. orienting c. executive b. alerting d. vigilant

ANS: B OBJ: 5.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Attention as a Spotlight

26. The frontal lobe has many functions. Which of the following is LEAST strongly associated with the frontal lobe? a. orienting c. executive control b. alerting d. shape processing ANS: D OBJ: 5.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Attention as a Spotlight

27. A patient has suffered brain damage and, as a result, now seems to ignore all information on the left side of her world. If shown words, she reads only the right half of the word; if asked to copy a picture, she copies only the right half. This patient seems to be suffering from a. a hemispherectomy. c. unilateral neglect syndrome. b. right hemiblindness. d. parietal syndrome.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.7

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

28. All of the following statements are true of patients with unilateral neglect syndrome EXCEPT a. In general, they seem to ignore half of the world. b. When their attention is directed toward a particular object, it often stays with that object. c. If an object previously attended to is moved into the ignored half of the world, patients will start to ignore the object. d. When asked to cross out all the letter E‘s on a page, patients with damage to the right parietal lobe will cross out only the E‘s on the right side of the page.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

29. The data from patients with brain damage to circuits controlling attention indicate that a. the brain mechanisms controlling attention are inseparable from the brain mechanisms directly involved in perception. b. multiple brain mechanisms are responsible for the control of attention. c. a single mechanism governs the ability to disengage attention from its current focus and the ability to lock into a new attention focus. d. the mechanisms controlling attention are located primarily in subcortical areas and the midbrain.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

30. The evidence both from unilateral neglect patients and from patients with normal attentional abilities suggests that a. attention is space-based, not object-based. b. attention is object-based, not space-based. c. both space- and object-based attention are important in attention. d. attention becomes space-based only in cases of brain damage.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

31. Patients with unilateral neglect ignore one side of their visual field. This problem illustrates the importance of a. object-based attention. c. memory for objects. b. space-based attention. d. paying attention to objects.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

32. If a participant is asked to perform two activities at the same time, performance will be improved if a. the two activities are plainly different from each other, drawing on different task-specific resources. b. the two activities are partially related, so that resource use can be coordinated. c. both activities require large amounts of task-general resources. d. neither activity involves verbal processing.

ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF:

The Specificity of Resources

OBJ:

5.8

MSC: Applying

33. Participants are asked to listen to a tape-recorded message and to shadow the message as they hear it. Which of the following tasks will be easiest to combine with this shadowing task? a. viewing a series of printed words, followed by a test measuring memory for the words b. simultaneously hearing a tape-recorded message, followed by a test measuring memory for the gist of the second message c. simultaneously hearing a tape-recorded list of words, followed by a test measuring memory for the word list d. viewing a series of pictures, followed by a test measuring memory for the pictures ANS: D OBJ: 5.8

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Specificity of Resources

34. The idea of a ―cognitive budget‖ is used several times in this chapter. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the ―cognitive budget‖? a. One can perform multiple tasks only if the sum of the tasks‘ demands does not exceed the budget. b. The budget can increase markedly through practice. c. Tasks may require fewer resources after practice. d. The budget contains task-specific and task-general resources.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.8 | 5.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Divided Attention

35. The existence of task-general resources is indicated by the fact that a. similar tasks will not interfere with each other. b. if a task has been heavily practiced, it is more likely to cause interference with other tasks. c. some brain lesions disrupt all tasks requiring attention. d. interference between two tasks can sometimes be observed even if the two tasks have few elements in common.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Generality of Resources

36. Which of the following statements is NOT true of executive control? a. It is used to keep current goals active. b. It inhibits distracting thoughts. c. It seems to rely on the prefrontal cortex. d. It is needed for habitual responding but not for goal-directed behaviors.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Executive Control

37. Executive control is likely engaged in all of the following situations EXCEPT when a person a. takes steps to avoid a habitual response. b. is working on ―auto-pilot.‖ c. needs to shift strategy, because the current efforts aren‘t working as hoped. d. chooses to focus on a specific task and avoid distractions.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Executive Control

38. Sometimes we can complete competing tasks at the same time, but sometimes we cannot because the tasks interfere with each other.

Which combination of tasks is likely to cause the LEAST amount of interference? a. tasks that require the same task-specific resources b. tasks that require general resources c. a task that requires general resources and one that requires task-specific resources d. two tasks that require different task-specific resources ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Specificity of Resources | The Generality of Resources OBJ: 5.8 MSC: Applying

39. An experienced driver can drive while holding a relatively complex conversation. This combination of activities is difficult, however, for a novice driver. Which of the following explanations most likely explains the difference? a. The two activities are very different, so the task combination creates no problems with channel segregation. b. Practicing a task leads to a decline in the resource demands for that task. c. The two activities are very different, so they rely on different sets of task-specific resources. d. Practicing the tasks improves confidence in the task.

ANS: B MSC: Evaluating

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Practice

OBJ:

5.9

40. Stroop interference demonstrates that a. word reading is automatized. b. the identification of a stimulus requires few resources. c. practice with a color-naming task leads to automaticity. d. automatic tasks do not exist.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.9 | 5.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Automaticity

41. A participant is shown a series of stimuli and is asked to name the color of the ink in which the stimuli are printed. The eighth stimulus happens to be printed in green ink. We should expect a relatively slow response if the stimulus happens to be a. a series of green X ‘s. c. the participant‘s name printed in green. b. the word ―RED‖ printed in green. d. the word ―GREEN‖ printed in green.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.9 | 5.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Automaticity

42. Which of the following statements is FALSE about automatic tasks? a. They do not require many attentional resources. b. They can usually be combined with other tasks. c. They can act as mental reflexes. d. They require executive control.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.9 | 5.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Automaticity

43. Attention is best characterized as a(n) a. specific brain process, dependent on the parietal lobe. b. single mechanism that functions differently in different circumstances. c. capacity that only comes into being through practice. d. achievement that depends on many different processes.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Where Are the Limits?

44. Sometimes someone notices and perceives an input even though the input is part of a stream of information that the person has been, up to that point, successfully ignoring. A plausible explanation for this is that a. the input the person noticed happens to be a stimulus he or she encounters frequently, and so the relevant detectors were already well primed. b. the input the person noticed did not require any task-general resources. c. executive control allows people to process both the attended and the unattended input. d. the person seems to suffer from an attention disorder.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.4 | 5.5

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Selection via Priming

45. All of the following statements regarding stimulus- and expectation-based priming are true EXCEPT a. Stimulus-based priming of one detector has little or no impact on other detectors. b. Stimulus- and expectation-based priming seem to be associated with virtually identical brain mechanisms. c. Expectation-based priming of one detector seems to decrease the activation level of other detectors. d. Stimulus-based priming is in place almost immediately after the priming stimulus arrives; expectation-based priming is in place only after a brief delay.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Explaining the Costs and Benefits

46. Ada recently joined a running club and completed her first 5-mile run. After the run, she has no recall of what she read in her cognition textbook earlier because she is thinking about how sore her legs are. This is a real-world example of a. inhibited processing of distractors. c. inattentional blindness. b. object-based attentional failure. d. spatial attention failure.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Inattentional Blindness

47. Landry is discussing summer plans with a friend at a busy restaurant. He suddenly notices that someone at a nearby table has mentioned his name, and he shifts his attention to the conversation at that other table. Which of the following is the term often used to describe this experience? a. early selection hypothesis c. attention as a spotlight b. cocktail party effect d. failure of the orienting system ANS: B OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Dichotic Listening

48. Which symptom associated with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) reflects problems with orienting systems? a. failing to finish tasks b. avoiding tasks that require sustained effort c. failing to pay close attention d. interrupting others during conversation ANS: C OBJ: 5.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Attention as a Spotlight

49. Sadiq has a significantly difficult time sustaining attention and completing projects that require sustained effort. These experiences are likely associated with functioning of what system? a. alerting c. executive b. orienting d. dividing ANS: A OBJ: 5.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Attention as a Spotlight

50. A primary difference between early and late selection hypotheses is that in the early selection models, selection of stimuli a. is based on modality. b. occurs just before the stimuli reach consciousness. c. is indiscriminate. d. happens soon after the stimuli arrive.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Early versus Late Selection

ESSAY 1. Describe the dichotic listening procedure and two studies that have manipulated the basic paradigm. What does the dichotic listening evidence tell us about the nature of attention?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Remembering

Dichotic Listening

OBJ:

5.1

2. Compare and contrast inattentional blindness and change blindness. Provide a real-life example of each process.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 5.2

REF: Inattentional Blindness | Change Blindness MSC: Understanding

3. Describe the Posner and Snyder (1975) experiment. What does it tell us about the role that priming plays in attention? What are the costs and benefits of such priming?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Remembering

Two Types of Priming OBJ:

5.3

4. Explain how stimulus-driven and expectation-driven processing contribute to the effect that priming has on attention.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Two Types of Priming OBJ:

5.5

5. Is attention space-based or object-based? Include evidence from patients with unilateral neglect in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Spatial Attention

OBJ:

5.6

6. What does it mean to say that attention is an ―achievement‖ rather than a specific mechanism?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Attention as a Spotlight OBJ:

5.6

7. Lucas suffered a blow to his right parietal lobe and now suffers from unilateral neglect. Answer the following questions about Lucas. a. In general, what behavioral tendencies will he exhibit? b. If Lucas is shaving his face in the morning, what odd outcome might we expect? c. If you ask Lucas to fixate on an object and then move that object to his left visual field, how will he respond?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 5.7

REF: Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions MSC: Applying

8. Imagine you are studying for an upcoming final exam. You take pride, though, in the fact that you always try to do two things at once.

Provide one example of a task that you probably could do successfully while studying and one you could not. Explain your choice of examples.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Divided Attention

OBJ:

5.8

9. Your friend says that she can drive and text on her cell phone at the same time because she has a lot of practice doing both things. Use your knowledge of attention to convince her (using the appropriate psychological terms and evidence) that she should not text and drive at the same time.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 5.8 | 5.9

REF: Divided Attention | The Generality of Resources MSC: Applying

10. You have undoubtedly heard the phrase ―practice makes perfect.‖ Argue for or against this adage by discussing the role that attention plays in behavior, and how that could be modified (or not) via practice.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Practice

OBJ:

5.9

MSC: Evaluating

CHAPTER 6

The Acquisition of Memories and the WorkingMemory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES

6.1. Describe the attributes that distinguish working memory from long-term memory.

6.2. Explain how the serial position curve (and the various factors that influence the curve) supports the notion that working memory and long-term memory are separate storage systems.

6.3. Describe the procedures for the commonly used tests of working-memory capacity.

6.4. Explain what it means to describe working memory as a “status” rather than as a “storage container.”

6.5. Describe the components and organization of Baddeley and Hitch’s working-memory system, including the central executive.

6.6. Compare and contrast maintenance and elaborative rehearsal, including their effects on subsequent memory.

6.7. Define the difference between incidental and intentional learning.

6.8. Describe the impact that level of processing has on memory.

6.9. Explain why it is beneficial to have multiple connections in memory, and how connections can serve as retrieval paths.

6.10. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of memorizing mnemonics.

6.11. Describe the neural correlates of learning and memory, including working memory.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The operations through which we gain new knowledge, retain that knowledge, and later use that knowledge are often divided into three processes. Which of the following is NOT one of those processes? a. retrieval c. deliberation b. acquisition d. storage ANS: C OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Route into Memory

2. Which of these is NOT true for an information-processing view of memory? a. It involves discrete steps. b. Each step within the model has its own characteristic and its own job to do. c. All the steps of the model run in parallel. d. The output of one step provides the input of the next step in the sequence.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Route into Memory

3. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of working memory? a. unlimited storage capacity b. drawn on by a wide range of tasks c. easily accessible d. contents closely associated with the current focus of attention ANS: A OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Updating the Modal Model

4. One difference between working memory and long-term memory is that a. the contents of working memory tend to be in the form of visual images, whereas the contents of long-term memory are often verbal and symbolic. b. damage to the brain can disrupt working memory, but long-term memory seems not to be similarly vulnerable. c. long-term memory has a limited capacity, whereas working memory does not. d. the contents of working memory depend on the content of one‘s current thinking, but the contents of long-term memory do not.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Updating the Modal Model

5. Modern conceptualization of the modal model asserts that information processing involves at least two kinds of memory: working memory and long-term memory (LTM). Working memory a. has the same capacity to hold items as LTM. b. differs from LTM in how easily one can access the stored items. c. uses the same rehearsal mechanisms as LTM. d. has no discernible effect on functioning outside the laboratory.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.1 MSC: Understanding 6. Modern conceptualization of memory asserts that information processing involves at least two kinds of memory: working memory and long-term memory. Long-term memory is a. theoretically unlimited in capacity. b. the active component of working memory. c. not susceptible to forgetting. d. limited in duration.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.1 MSC: Understanding 7. According to the modal model of memory, words presented early in a list are easier to remember than words presented later because a. they are still residing in working memory at the time of the test.

b. c. d.

participants are particularly alert at the beginning of the list presentation. the early words receive more of the participants‘ attention than the later words. the early words suffer from less interference than the later words.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.1 | 6.3 MSC: Understanding 8. Which of the following is the best analogy for long-term memory storage? a. a workbench c. a large library b. a zone of intense activity d. a loading dock outside a warehouse ANS: C OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Connections Promote Retrieval

9. Which of the following is NOT considered a modern change to the modal model of memory? a. Sensory memory receives less emphasis than in the modal model. b. The term ―working memory‖ is preferred over the older term, ―short-term memory.‖ c. Working memory refers to a process more than a storage system. d. Working memory and long-term memory are considered the same construct.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Updating the Modal Model

10. Researchers‘ conceptualization of memory has been revised in recent years, but a few key components remain from the earlier ―modal model.‖ Which of the following is NO LONGER an accepted aspect of memory? a. Working memory holds on to its contents independent of the current focus of the person‘s thoughts. b. Working memory and long-term memory are considered separate memory processes. c. Working memory is fragile and easily disrupted. d. Working memory is limited in capacity.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Function of Working Memory

11. In the past, working memory (WM) was likened to a storage container that would hold current information for a short period of time.

This analogy is problematic in what way? a. The container analogy is too static: WM is capable of more than simply short-term storage. b. WM is more like a filing cabinet with a specific number of slots into which information can be put. c. The size of WM varies across individuals, but a storage container never changes size. d. There is no problem with this analogy.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Function of Working Memory | The Central Executive OBJ: 6.1 | 6.3 MSC: Evaluating 12. Free recall refers to a. word association within a list of words. b. recalling words from a list in any order. c. recognizing words from a list. d. memory that requires few attentional resources.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.2 MSC: Remembering 13. When asked to recall a list of 25 words, participants are likely to remember only some of them. The words they can recall are likely to include a. approximately the last 12 words on the list. b. the first few words on the list and also approximately the last 5 or 6 words on the list. c. approximately the first 12 words on the list. d. words drawn from positions scattered throughout the list.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:

6.2

MSC: Applying

15. Ira is asked to remember the order of a previously presented list of words; the experimenter asks him to recall the words immediately after hearing them. Devon is asked to remember the same list, but his recall is delayed by 20 seconds after the list presentation; during that time, Devon is given no other task to form. We would expect a. little or no difference between Devon‘s performance and Ira‘s. b. that Devon would have poorer memory for the list‘s early words but better memory for words presented later in the list. c. that Devon would have better memory for the entire list. d. that Devon would have poor memory for words at the end of the list.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.2 MSC: Applying 15. In list-learning experiments, participants‘ performance in the pre-recency portion of the curve will be improved by a. employing more common, familiar words. b. presenting the list of words more quickly. c. employing a longer list of words. d. distracting participants for a moment just after the list‘s end.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.2 MSC: Remembering 16. A sudden, loud noise often has the impact of distracting participants long enough to clear the contents of working memory. Imagine that participants hear a list of the names of 20 different fruits, followed by an unexpected loud noise. The effect of the noise will be a. a diminished primacy effect but no impact on how well the other words in the list are remembered. b. diminished performance for the entire list. c. a diminished recency effect and a diminished primacy effect but no impact on how well the other words on the list are remembered. d. a diminished recency effect but no impact on how well the other words in the list are remembered.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.2 MSC: Applying 17. An experimenter reads a list of 30 words to a group of participants at the rate of 1 word per second. This is immediately followed by a free-recall test. A second group of participants hears the same 30 words presented at the faster rate of 2 words per second. We should expect that the group hearing the slower presentation will show improved memory performance for the a. pre-recency portion of the list, but there will be no impact on the recency effect. b. words at the end of the list and diminished performance for the pre-recency portion of the list. c. entire list. d. words at the list‘s end, but there will be no improvement for the words earlier in the list.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.2 MSC: Applying 18. Early estimates of working-memory capacity relied on the digit-span task. The data indicate working-memory capacity to be ________ items. a. 10 to 15 c. around 20 b. 2 or 3 d. around 7 ANS: D DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Digit Span

OBJ:

6.5

19. A participant who is asked to recall a series of numbers chooses to think about the numbers as though they were years (e.g., 2, 0, 1, 6 becomes ―The year I turned 16‖). The participant is organizing information into the memory unit known as a(n) a. sentence. c. image. b. chunk. d. package.

ANS: B MSC: Applying

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Digit Span

OBJ:

6.5

20. When thinking of a list of digits in terms of racing times, one person is found to report up to 79 digits. Evidence suggests that this person a. has a larger working memory than most other participants. b. is well practiced at memory retrieval. c. can remember this information due to a unique chunking strategy. d. does not show the primacy or recency effect.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Understanding

Easy

REF:

Digit Span

OBJ:

6.5

21. Which of the following ways was NOT noted in the textbook as being correlated with working-memory capacity? a. reading comprehension c. tasks that require multitasking b. reasoning skills d. making an eye movement toward a cue ANS: D OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Operation Span

22. In a traditional digit-span task, the capacity of working memory is estimated to be a. approximately one chunk. c. approximately seven chunks. b. approximately three chunks. d. unlimited.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Digit Span

OBJ:

6.5

23. Operation-span measures of working-memory capacity measure the a. number of letters that working memory can store. b. number of sentences that working memory can store. c. rate of transfer of information from working memory into long-term memory. d. efficiency with which working memory operates when it is working.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Operation Span

24. Peter has a higher working-memory capacity than Josh. Given previous correlational evidence, who would you expect performs better on standardized tests, such as intelligence tests? a. Peter b. Josh c. We cannot tell. d. There is no relationship between working-memory capacity and intelligence scores.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Operation Span

25. Current theory suggests that the central executive may be a. used to temporarily store information so that the information can then be processed at a later time by the rehearsal loop. b. the set of processes that govern the selection and timing of other mental steps. c. another lower-level assistant in the working-memory system. d. a kind of guidebook for how to ―run a program‖ in the brain.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Rehearsal Loop

26. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. In models of working memory, the central executive is involved in planning responses and making decisions. b. In models of working memory, the central executive is only a small player compared to the other components of the working memory system. c. In models of working memory, the central executive relies on ―helpers,‖ such as the articulatory rehearsal loop. d. In models of working memory, the central executive is akin to executive control.

ANS: B

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

The Rehearsal Loop | The Central Executive

OBJ:

6.5

MSC: Understanding

27. The helper within the working-memory system that stores visual materials is called the a. visuospatial buffer. c. visuocentral executive. b. rehearsal loop. d. iconic storage.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Working-Memory System

28. Within working memory, ―helpers‖ like the visuospatial buffer and the articulatory rehearsal loop a. can take over some of the lower-level analyses ordinarily performed by the central executive. b. can provide verbal, but not visual, analysis of the memory items. c. provide short-term storage of items likely to be needed soon by the central executive. d. preserve the items to be remembered in their initial sensory form (e.g., visual stimuli are preserved as visual images).

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Rehearsal Loop | The Working-Memory System MSC: Evaluating

OBJ:

6.5

29. You are watching TV when a commercial advertising a new pizza place comes on. You decide you want pizza, so you listen to the restaurant‘s phone number and then recite the number to yourself. Just as you are about to dial, your cell phone rings and you talk on the phone for a few minutes. What is most likely to happen after you finish your call? a. You remember the phone number, so you call and order. b. Out of habit, you call your favorite pizza place (whose number you have memorized), forgetting you wanted to try the new place. c. You think you probably remember the number and try calling, and you are correct. d. You have forgotten the phone number.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Two Types of Rehearsal

30. Participants in an experiment were asked to keep track of the most recent word they had heard that started with a ―G.‖ Therefore, participants should report ―gravy‖ after hearing the sequence ―girl, grump, hat, scissors, whistle, pen, radio, bed, foot, glass, lantern, gravy.‖ Later, participants are asked to report back all the ―G‖ words they heard. We would anticipate a. good recollection of all the words because participants were able to concentrate their attention on the task and rehearsed only one word at a time. b. poor recollection of all the ―G‖ words because the situation invites maintenance rather than elaborative rehearsal. c. good recollection of ―grump,‖ since this word was in the participants‘ thoughts for a long time (while they were waiting for ―glass‖). d. poor recollection of the early words in the list but good recollection of the words in the middle of the list.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Two Types of Rehearsal

31. The strategy of maintenance rehearsal involves a. the repetition of the items to be remembered and the simultaneous consideration of the items‘ meaning. b. a focus on the associations between the items to be remembered and other thoughts and ideas. c. paying attention to the order of items, independent of their meaning. d. the repetition of the items to be remembered, with little attention paid to what the items mean.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Two Types of Rehearsal

32. For most recall tests, the transfer of items into long-term storage is best facilitated by ________ rehearsal. a. maintenance c. recency b. elaborative d. primacy ANS: B OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Two Types of Rehearsal

33. Week after week, Solomon watched his favorite TV show. He never planned to memorize the characters‘ names, and he never took any steps to memorize them. Nonetheless, he soon knew them all. This sort of learning is called a. elaborative. c. accidental. b. intentional. d. incidental.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.6 | 6.7 MSC: Applying 34. Which of the following comes closest to mirroring the effects of maintenance rehearsal? a. Irv is unable to describe the appearance of his wristwatch even though he has owned it for years and looks at it many times each day. b. Mari is unable to recall the name of her first-grade teacher. c. Tony is unable to remember high school algebra even though he did well in his algebra courses. d. Samara has managed, with some effort, to learn the names of her classmates.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.6 | 6.7 MSC: Applying 35. According to the data presented in the textbook, how does the intention to memorize influence how well we learn? a. It influences learning only with shallow processing. b. It influences learning only with deep processing. c. The intention to memorize on its own adds nothing to our ability to learn. d. It improves our ability to learn, regardless of the depth of processing.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.6 | 6.7 MSC: Analyzing 36. Which of the following groups is most likely to remember the material it is studying? a. Group 1 intends to memorize a series of words and, while studying, repeats the words mechanically over and over again. b. Group 2 intends to memorize a series of words and, while studying, pays attention to the exact appearance of the words. c. Group 3 has no intention of memorizing the words and searches the list for spelling errors. d. Group 4 has no intention of memorizing the words and attempts to determine how the words are related to one another.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.6 | 6.7 | 6.8 MSC: Evaluating 37. The intention to learn new material a. requires participants to focus on the meaning of the material to be learned. b. requires participants to repeat the material over and over again. c. leads participants to employ maintenance rehearsal. d. leads participants to approach the material in the fashion they think best for memorization.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.6 | 6.7 | 6.8 MSC: Understanding 38. As a general rule, the intention to learn a. usually leads to worse learning than incidental learning. b. has a direct effect on learning. c. leads all people to adopt the same memory strategies. d. has no direct effect on learning.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.6 | 6.7 | 6.8 MSC: Analyzing

39. A student wishes to memorize an essay so that he will be able to recall the content later. Which of the following is likely to be LEAST helpful to him? a. making certain that he understands the argument contained within the essay b. thinking about why the essay is organized in the way that it is c. repeatedly reading the essay aloud d. trying to construct a paraphrase of the essay‘s content ANS: C OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Mnemonics | Understanding and Memorizing

40. Reading your notes, or the textbook, over and over again is NOT recommended as a study strategy because a. it is an elaborate way to learn information. b. it encourages deep processing. c. it is a passive form of learning. d. you should also be using a highlighter to identify important material.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Cognitive Psychology and Education: How Should I Study?

OBJ: 6.6 | 6.8 MSC: Evaluating 41. Data indicate that, all things being equal, recall performance will be best if materials are encoded with ________ processing. a. shallow c. deep b. intermediate d. sensory ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.8 MSC: Remembering 42. Which of the following is an example of a question that leads to deep processing? a. What is the meaning of the word ―tantalizing‖? b. Are there more vowels or more consonants in the word ―brain‖? c. Can you think of a word that rhymes with ―elephant‖? d. How many syllables are there in the word ―convenient‖?

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing OBJ: 6.8 MSC: Applying 43. Deep processing may lead to improved memory performance because it facilitates retrieval. How exactly does this happen? a. Deep processing forms many connections between the current item and previous knowledge. b. Deep processing causes items to be kept in working memory. c. Deep processing encourages the use of mnemonics. d. Deep processing forms fewer retrieval paths, making the correct path easier to access.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.8 | 6.9

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Connections Promote Retrieval

44. A participant is trying to memorize the word ―parade.‖ To help herself, she thinks about the word within a complicated sentence: ―From their third-floor apartment, they had a great view of all the bands, the cowboys, and the floats in the Thanksgiving parade.‖ This learning strategy will produce a. fine memory performance, but similar performance could be achieved with simpler sentences if they require the participant to think about the meaning of the word. b. poor memory performance because the complicated sentence draws attention away from the target word. c. excellent memory performance because the sentence involves a great deal of maintenance rehearsal. d. excellent memory performance because the strategy requires attention to meaning and provides many memory connections.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.8 | 6.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Role of Meaning and Memory Connections

45. Which of the following most accurately represents the probability an item will be retained (most likely > least likely)? a. deep processing > shallow processing > maintenance rehearsal > deep and elaborate processing

b. c. d.

deep and elaborate processing > deep processing > shallow processing > maintenance rehearsal maintenance rehearsal > shallow processing > deep processing > deep and elaborate processing deep processing > deep and elaborate processing > shallow processing > maintenance rehearsal

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Elaborate Encoding Promotes Retrieval | The Need for Active Encoding OBJ: 6.8 MSC: Analyzing 46. Imagine you are shown the word ―dog‖ and asked one of the following questions about that word. Which of these questions is going to lead to the best memory performance? a. Does it fit into the sentence, ―The ________ enjoyed his dinner‖? b. Does it contain an ―A‖? c. Does it fit into the following sentence: ―The speeding car swung around the corner, music blaring, and screeched to a halt before seeing the ________‖? d. Does it rhyme with ―log‖?

ANS: C OBJ: 6.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Elaborate Encoding Promotes Retrieval

47. A physician has just read an article about a recently developed drug. Which of the following is LEAST important in determining whether the physician will remember the article later? a. The physician read the article carefully to determine whether it was persuasive. b. The physician realized how suggestions within the article could be integrated with other things she already knew. c. The physician expected to need the information later and therefore employed a maintenance memorization strategy that had helped her memorize material in the past. d. The physician quickly saw that the new drug might have multiple uses, so she thought about several circumstances in which she might use it.

ANS: C DIF: OBJ: 6.8 | 6.9 | 6.10

Difficult

REF: Understanding and Memorizing MSC: Applying

48. It is sometimes difficult to predict memory performance outside of the lab because a. some people have foolish ideas about how to proceed when they really want to memorize something. b. memory acquisition depends on previous knowledge, and everyone has different knowledge. c. people differ in their working-memory capacity. d. researchers do not agree on the best ways to test memory.

ANS: B DIF: OBJ: 6.8 | 6.9 | 6.10

Moderate

REF: The Study of Memory Acquisition MSC: Evaluating

49. Which of these is LEAST important for encoding and acquisition? a. memory connections c. organization b. shallow processing d. understanding ANS: B OBJ: 6.8 | 6.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Study of Memory Acquisition

50. A helpful analogy for the encoding and retrieval process in long-term memory is a. cataloguing, the way librarians catalogue new books. b. stacking, the way a waiter stacks plates. c. collating, the way clerks collate their records. d. shaping, the way an artist shapes a new sculpture.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.9

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Connections Promote Retrieval

51. If a participant is asked to recall a previously experienced event, the relevant memory generally must be accessed via a. deep processing. c. a retrieval path. b. elaborative processing. d. the memory index.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.9

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Elaborate Encoding Promotes Retrieval

52. In general, any technique designed to improve memory is referred to as a. a mnemonic strategy. c. the method of repetition. b. the method of loci. d. memory rehearsal.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Mnemonics

OBJ:

6.10

53. In a peg-word system, participants help themselves memorize a group of items by a. forming an elaborate sentence about each of the items to be remembered. b. associating each item with some part of an already memorized framework, or skeleton. c. naming the items to themselves over and over again. d. placing each item in its appropriate semantic category.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Mnemonics

OBJ:

6.10

54. Although mnemonics can be helpful for remembering a small number of specific items (like a grocery list), it does have some drawbacks. One such problem is that a. using a mnemonic involves a trade-off with less attention spent looking for memory connections that can help you understand the material. b. mnemonics work only when remembering up to seven items. c. mnemonics are particularly difficult to remember when specific information is being tested. d. the recall of all items by mnemonics is slow.

ANS: A MSC: Evaluating

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Mnemonics

OBJ:

6.10

55. Is memory for details of rich, complex scenes similar to memory for words? a. Yes; they both require mnemonics for successful retention. b. Yes; organization facilitates memory for both types of stimuli. c. Yes; both types of memory benefit from maintenance rehearsal. d. No; memory connections are important for word memory but not for scene memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Understanding and Memorizing

56. The memorizer plays an important role in memory acquisition. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the chapter as having an effect on long-term memory? a. prior knowledge of the memorizer b. the situation in which the memorizer learned the material c. the rehearsal strategy the memorizer used d. the exact intentions of the memorizer ANS: D OBJ: 6.10

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Contribution of the Memorizer

57. Several researchers have compared brain activity during the learning process for words that were later remembered and words that were later forgotten. Which of the following is consistent with their findings? a. Increased activity in the occipital cortex was associated with better retention. b. Increased activity in the midbrain cortex was associated with better retention. c. Increased activity in the hippocampus was associated with better retention. d. Activity levels in the brain during the learning process were not predictive of subsequent retention.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.11

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Need for Active Encoding

58. Researchers have used fMRI to evaluate the neural areas that are correlated with successful memory functioning. They measured brain activity during encoding, gave participants a memory test, and then a. erased their memories. b. measured neural activity for items that were elaborated. c. compared active neural areas across men and women. d. measured neural activity during retrieval.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.11

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

The Need for Active Encoding

59. One effect of chunking is to a. increase the amount of material that can be held in working memory. b. facilitate the primacy and recency effects. c. group items based on sound. d. encode items based on spatial properties.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Understanding

Easy

REF:

Digit Span

OBJ:

6.5

60. What is the most useful approach to chunking the digit sequence 17761592911? a. 177 615 929 11 c. 1776 1592 911 b. 1776 15929 11 d. 17 76 15 92 911 ANS: C MSC: Applying

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Digit Span

OBJ:

6.5

61. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationships among acquisition, retrieval, and storage processes? a. Acquisition, retrieval, and storage processes turn out to be independent processes, so that weaknesses and flaws in one can routinely be compensated for by adjustments in one of the others. b. The three terms are really just different names for the same process. c. Acquisition is related to storage processes, but not to retrieval processes. d. Acquisition, retrieval, and storage processes are intertwined processes.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Links among Acquisition, Retrieval, and Storage MSC: Understanding

OBJ:

6.1

62. Which of the following approaches is LEAST likely to facilitate retention of academic material? a. reflecting on a lecture‘s main points an hour or so after the lecture b. rereading lecture notes the day before an exam c. considering the relationship between a lecture‘s content and previously understood material d. describing your understanding of novel concepts to a classmate ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Cognitive Psychology and Education: How Should I Study?

OBJ: 6.8 | 6.9 MSC: Applying 63. The primacy effect is associated with ________, and the recency effect is associated with ________. a. short-term memory; long-term memory c. working memory; short-term memory b. long-term memory; recognition memory d. long-term memory; working memory ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? OBJ: 6.2 MSC: Applying ESSAY 1. Imagine you are staring at a photograph of a man‘s face and trying to memorize it for later. Using the modal model, describe how the visual information will be processed and eventually stored in memory.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Updating the Modal Model

OBJ:

2. Why is the term ―working memory‖ now preferred over ―short-term memory‖?

ANS: Answers will vary.

6.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:

6.1

3. Describe the serial position curve and its relevance to the modal memory model. Include in your answer a description of the procedure, traditional findings, and the manipulations that help us understand the processes that lead to the traditional findings.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 6.2

REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? MSC: Evaluating

4. Differentiate between the free recall procedure and the operation-span task. Relate the differences in procedure to the memory systems each test measures.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Easy 6.5

REF: Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two? MSC: Understanding

5. Describe Baddeley‘s working-memory model. Name two cognitive phenomena that are well explained by the model.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 6.5

REF: The Rehearsal Loop | The Working-Memory System MSC: Evaluating

6. Compare and contrast maintenance and elaborative rehearsal by considering their effects on the creation of memory connections.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Two Types of Rehearsal

OBJ:

6.6

7. Are flashcards an effective way to memorize information? Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 6.6 | 6.8 | 6.9

REF: Entering Long-Term Storage: The Need for Engagement MSC: Evaluating

8. Your friend is having a hard time in biology and would like some tips on studying for the class. What advice would you give your friend? Include at least three suggestions based on the information you have learned in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult REF: 6.6 | 6.8 | 6.9 | 6.10

The Role of Meaning and Memory Connections MSC: Creating

9. Describe how previous knowledge or ideas of the memorizer can impact memory and how this can sometimes lead one to make memory errors.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

The Contribution of the Memorizer

OBJ:

6.10

MSC: Applying

10. Bill is given a list of words to memorize for a later test. While he is encoding the words, his brain activity is measured using fMRI. Describe the patterns of activity you would expect to see in Bill‘s brain for words he later remembers and those he later forgets.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Need for Active Encoding

OBJ:

6.11

CHAPTER 7

Interconnections between Acquisition and Retrieval LEARNING OBJECTIVES

7.1. Describe the role of retrieval paths in accessing memories.

7.2. Explain how context-dependent learning reveals the important role of retrieval paths, and the crucial idea that retrieval paths have a “starting point.”

7.3. Describe what encoding specificity tells us about the nature of what is stored in memory.

7.4. Explain how spreading activation helps us explain the effect of memory hints or cues.

7.5. Describe evidence showing the summation of subthreshold activation.

7.6. What evidence makes it clear that familiarity and source memory depend on distinct mental processes?

7.7. How could processing fluency explain implicit memory effects? How could this lead to an illusion of familiarity?

7.8. Explain why familiarity might best be thought of as a decision instead of a feeling.

7.9. Differentiate between retrograde and anterograde amnesia.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When you are trying to access information in long-term memory, you use a a. harmonic search. c. random search strategy. b. retrieval path. d. serial, exhaustive search.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Crucial Role of Retrieval Paths

2. If a memory is like a city you want to travel to, and the retrieval paths you use to find the memory are like highways that lead to that city, which is the best strategy for memorizing? a. avoid building too many highways, because it‘s expensive (i.e., demands too many resources) to build highways b. build numerous highways that reach the city from many directions, so you have multiple ways to remember the answer later c. build toll roads (premium highways) so you can get to the memories as fast as possible with minimal traffic d. invest very little in building highways because you never know which highway will be the best road in the future ANS: B OBJ: 7.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Optimal Learning

3. Establishing a memory connection a. may be of little value if later the connection is not the one you need. b. seems to ―cement‖ a memory in place. c. can occur only for emotional memories. d. encourages intrusion errors, so you should avoid creating these connections.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Crucial Role of Retrieval Paths

4. A researcher hypothesizes that high doses of caffeine can produce context-dependent learning. To confirm this hypothesis, the researcher would need to show that a. participants learn more effectively if they drink several cups of coffee before studying the material to be learned. b. participants‘ recall performance is improved if they are tested soon after drinking several cups of coffee. c. participants who drink a lot of coffee are, in general, likely to do better on memory tests. d. if participants study the material while drinking a great deal of coffee, they will remember the material better if they drink a great deal of coffee while taking the memory test.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Context-Dependent Learning

5. In an experiment, participants learned materials in Room A and were tested in Room B. If they were asked to think about Room A just before taking the test, participants a. performed as well as they would have done had there been no room change. b. performed worse on the test due to dual-task memory disruption. c. performed the same as those participants who were not asked to think about Room A. d. performed worse on the test because this distracting instruction interfered with memory rehearsal.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Context-Dependent Learning

6. Which of the following observations is most likely an illustration of context-dependent learning? a. ―I haven‘t been to Athens in years, but I still remember all the great times I had there!‖ b. ―Mikhail has told me his phone number over and over again, but somehow I can‘t get it into my head.‖ c. ―Last month I went to my 20th high school reunion. I saw people I hadn‘t thought about for years, but the moment I saw them, I was reminded of the things we‘d done together 20 years earlier.‖ d. ―I spent hours studying in the library last night preparing for my history midterm. And it really paid off; I did a great job on the exam.‖

ANS: C OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Context-Dependent Learning

7. Because of the effects of context-dependent learning, students might find it most beneficial to a. use mnemonic devices as a study aid. b. study only when entirely sober. c. focus on their instructor‘s intended meaning rather than the exact words. d. prepare for their examinations under conditions similar to the test conditions.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Context-Dependent Learning

8. Context has an effect on memory a. because it interferes with the retrieval paths. b. only if the information is recalled in the same physical environment where it was learned. c. because it influences how the person thinks of the material to be remembered. d. but not on the way a person perceives a memory.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Context-Dependent Learning

9. A participant is asked, ―In the list of words I showed you earlier, was there a word that rhymed with ‗lake‘?‖ The participant is likely to be well prepared for this sort of memory test if he or she a. used maintenance rehearsal when trying to memorize the words. b. paid attention to the sounds of the words when trying to memorize them. c. paid attention to the appearance of the words when trying to memorize them. d. relied on perceptual fluency when studying the words.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Encoding Specificity

10. Participants are asked to memorize a list of words. In addition to the words themselves, participants will remember some aspects of the context in which the words appeared. This tendency to remember a stimulus within its context is referred to as a. background learning. c. implicit memory. b. multiple encoding. d. encoding specificity.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Encoding Specificity

11. Which of the following statements seems to be the best illustration of encoding specificity? a. Susan is terrible at learning general arguments, although she is excellent at learning more specific claims. b. Susan has learned the principles covered in her psychology class, but she has difficulty remembering the principles in the context of her day-to-day life. c. Susan easily learns material that is meaningful but cannot learn material that is abstract. d. Susan quickly masters new material if she knows some related information, but she has trouble learning new material if the domain is new to her.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Encoding Specificity

12. Theories of spreading activation assume that activating one node will lead to a. activation of nodes selected by the central executive. b. activation of all nodes connected to the one that was activated at first. c. a subset of connected nodes being activated. d. unconnected nodes being suppressed.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Spreading Activation

13. What is the level at which a node in a spreading activation model will fire? a. subthreshold level c. response threshold b. superthreshold d. activation level

ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Spreading Activation

15. Two groups of participants were asked to learn a series of word pairs and were then given a memory test. Both groups were told to remember the second word in each pair and use the first only as an aid to remember the targets. For Group A, the first word was semantically associated with the target word (e.g., dark–light). For Group B, the first word rhymed with the target word (e.g., sight– light). Then, each group was given hints during the memory test. Some of these hints were related to meaning (e.g., ―Was there a word associated with ‗dark‘?‖); some were related to sound (e.g., ―Was there a word associated with ‗sight‘?‖). Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Overall, participants in Group A recalled more words than those in Group B. b. Participants in Group A performed better when given a meaning hint than when given a sound hint. c. Participants in Group B performed better when given a sound hint than when given a meaning hint. d. Participants in Group B performed better when given a meaning hint than when given a sound hint.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.1 | 7.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Retrieval Cues

15. ―Context reinstatement‖ refers to a. improved memory if the materials to be remembered were thought about in a novel context. b. improved memory if we mentally re-create the context that was in place during learning. c. improved memory if the mnemonics used have a similar context to the materials to be remembered. d. impaired memory performance if participants recall the context where the material was learned.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Context-Dependent Learning

16. Participants are asked to memorize a list of words. The eighth word on the list is ―inches,‖ the ninth word is ―meters,‖ and the tenth word is ―feet.‖ In which of the following situations would the participants be most likely to remember the previous exposure to ―feet‖? a. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is ―yards,‖ and the fifth is ―feet.‖ b. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is ―heat,‖ and the fifth is ―feet.‖ c. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is ―hands,‖ and the fifth is ―feet.‖ d. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is ―fight,‖ and the fifth is ―feet.‖ ANS: A OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Semantic Priming

17. A participant is asked to memorize a series of word pairs, including the pair ―heavy–light.‖ The participant is asked a series of questions: ―Was ‗lamp‘ one of the words you saw? Was ‗candle‘ one of the words? Was ‗spark‘ one of the words? Was ‗light‘ one of the words?‖ The participant answers ―no‖ to each of these questions, probably because a. the learning context does not provide adequate support for perceptual encoding. b. the learning context does relatively little to encourage deep processing. c. what was memorized was the idea of ―light‖ as a description of weight, not ―light‖ as illumination. d. the learning context led the participant to think in terms of opposites, while the test context led the participant to think in terms of semantic associates.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Semantic Priming

18. Steve is shown a list of words that includes ―baby.‖ He is then asked to list all the words he can remember from the list, but he does not include ―baby.‖ Steve is later given a lexical decision task in which he has to decide, for each of the letter strings presented, whether the string is an actual word or not. One of the letter strings presented in the lexical decision task, though, is ―baby.‖ Which of the following patterns is most likely to reflect Steve‘s performance on this identification task? a. Steve will say ―baby‖ is a nonword. b. Steve will respond more quickly to ―baby‖ than he would to other words. c. Steve will respond more slowly to ―baby‖ relative to nonwords. d. Steve‘s response time will be about the same to ―baby‖ as to all other items on the test.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Semantic Priming

19. An investigator asks, ―Can you remember what happened last Tuesday at noon while you were sitting in the back room of Jane‘s Restaurant?‖ This is an example of a question relying on a. recognition. c. procedural memory. b. implicit memory. d. recall.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.1 | 7.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Different Forms of Memory Testing

20. Which of the following statements is an example of a recognition test? a. ―Which one of these individuals is the person you saw at the party?‖ b. ―Describe how you spent New Year‘s Eve in 1994.‖ c. ―What is the formula needed for computing the area of a circle?‖ d. ―What political event does this song remind you of ?‖ ANS: A OBJ: 7.1 | 7.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Different Forms of Memory Testing

21. Familiarity (as opposed to source memory) a. is essential for adequate performance on a recall test. b. is established by ―relational‖ or ―elaborative‖ rehearsal. c. is promoted by deep processing. d. provides one of the important sources for recognition.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Familiarity and Source Memory

22. Herbert says, ―I can‘t figure out where I‘ve seen that person before, but I know that I have seen her before!‖ Herbert a. has an episodic memory for the face but no generic memory for the face. b. has a sense of familiarity but no source memory. c. would perform well on a recall test but not on a recognition test. d. seems to have formed interim associations when he last encountered the face.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Familiarity and Source Memory

23. In one study, participants first learn a list of words. Then, in a memory test, participants are asked whether each word was on the earlier list and also whether they ―remember‖ seeing each word or just ―know‖ each was on the list. While participants are making these ―remember/know‖ judgments, an fMRI scan records their brain activity. The results indicate that a. ―remember‖ responses are associated with activity in the rhinal cortex at learning. b. ―know‖ responses are associated with activity in the hippocampus during learning. c. ―remember‖ responses are associated with activity in the hippocampal region during learning. d. ―know‖ responses are associated with anterior parahippocampus activity at learning.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.6

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Familiarity and Source Memory

24. In the ―remember/know‖ paradigm, a response of ―know‖ is NOT a. given when the participant can recall details about the context in which a stimulus was encountered. b. given when a participant thinks the stimulus was previously encountered, but he or she cannot remember any contextual details. c. associated with activity in the parahippocampal area. d. associated with familiarity.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Familiarity and Source Memory

25. Lexical decision tasks require participants to a. remember previously shown items. b. quickly respond ―old‖ or ―new‖ to pictures of items. c. provide the meaning of target words. d. decide whether a letter string is a word or a nonword.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Semantic Priming

26. In many settings, a person experiences a sense of familiarity but no accompanying source memory. This pattern is LEAST likely to lead to a. the person believing that a familiar statement is true, even though he or she cannot remember where

b. c. d.

he or she heard it. the person inaccurately accusing someone of a crime, merely because that person seems familiar. the person‘s preferences changing in favor of the familiar information. explicit recollection of a person‘s name or profession.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Implicit Memory

27. Which of the following tasks is LEAST appropriate as a means of testing implicit memory? a. lexical decision c. direct memory testing b. word-stem completion d. repetition priming ANS: C OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory without Awareness

28. Abigail saw the stimulus ―cla––‖ and was asked to think of a word that began with these letters. This task is called a. a lexical decision. c. semantic priming. b. word-stem completion. d. explicit memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Memory without Awareness

29. Which of the following statements is NOT likely to be an influence of implicit memory? a. Participants know they have encountered the stimulus recently but cannot recall the details of the encounter. b. Participants have a preference for a familiar stimulus in comparison to other, new stimuli. c. Participants find a claim to be more credible merely because they encountered it at some point in the past, even if they have no memory of that encounter. d. Participants remember the circumstances in which they first encountered a stimulus.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Memory without Awareness

30. Which of the following statements regarding explicit memory is FALSE? a. Explicit memory is typically revealed as a priming effect. b. Explicit memory is usually assessed by direct, rather than indirect, testing. c. Explicit memory is usually revealed by specifically asking someone to remember the past. d. Explicit memory is often tested by recall testing or by a standard recognition test.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory without Awareness

31. Which of the following methods seems LEAST likely to be evidence of an implicit memory? a. declaring that George Washington was the first president of the United States b. successfully riding a bike c. believing something is true because you have previously heard it d. classical conditioning ANS: A OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Implicit Memory

32. Like patients with Korsakoff ‘s syndrome, H.M. has difficulty with a. implicit memory tasks. c. familiarity. b. unconscious memory. d. recall.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

What If . . . | Anterograde Amnesia

33. In a lexical decision task, a researcher finds no effect of priming. Which of the following statements is a plausible explanation for this? a. The researcher neglected to tell the participants that some of the test words had been recently encountered. b. Some of the test words were high in frequency, but others were quite low in frequency. c. When the priming words were first presented, participants failed to pay attention to the meaning of the words.

d.

The researcher had waited too long after the exposure that should have produced the priming, and so the implicit memory had faded.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Semantic Priming

34. Which of the following is most like an example of the influence of implicit memory? a. Alejandro was taking a true–false test. He didn‘t know the answer to Question 12, so he skipped it. b. Benji was taking a true–false test. He could not remember the answer to Question 12, but he did his best to reconstruct what the answer might be. c. Dave was taking a true–false test. Not only did Dave remember the answer to Question 12, he also remembered where the answer appeared on the textbook page. d. Markus was taking a multiple-choice test. He was having a hard time with Question 17, but Option D for that question seemed familiar, so he decided that D must be the correct answer.

ANS: D MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

False Fame

OBJ:

7.7

35. Because of the influence of implicit memory, participants judge a. unfamiliar sentences to be more believable. b. familiar sentences to be more believable. c. familiar sentences to be more believable, but only if they heard the sentence from a trustworthy source. d. unfamiliar sentences to be more believable, but only if they have forgotten the source of the familiar sentences.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Implicit Memory and the ―Illusion of Truth‖

36. Which of the following statements about processing fluency is NOT accurate? a. Processing fluency is always associated with improved source memory. b. Exposure to an item can cause it to be processed more fluently in the future. c. Fluency can lead people to correctly identify an object as familiar. d. Fluency can lead people to incorrectly identify an object as familiar.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Processing Fluency

37. If you perceive a stimulus and then later perceive the same stimulus again, you are likely to perceive the stimulus more quickly and more easily the second time. This benefit can be described as a(n) a. context-dependent memory. c. increase in processing fluency. b. explicit memory. d. recognition memory.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Processing Fluency

38. In many circumstances, participants correctly recognize that a stimulus is familiar, but they are mistaken in their beliefs about where and when they encountered the stimulus. This error is referred to as a. source confusion. c. amnesia. b. origin error. d. false identification.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.7 | 7.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Attributing Implicit Memory to the Wrong Source

39. A friend of yours has recently grown a beard. When you encounter him, you realize at once that something about his face has changed, but you are not certain what has changed. We can conclude from this that a. you detected the decrease in fluency in your recognition of your friend‘s face. b. your memory of your friend‘s face is influenced by context-dependent learning. c. you are displaying an instance of source amnesia. d. you are being influenced by the fact that there are fewer men with beards than men without beards.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.7 | 7.8

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Processing Fluency

40. According to the textbook chapter, what would be the most accurate way to describe the subjective feeling of familiarity? a. a feeling directly triggered by a stimulus that had been encountered at some point in the past b. a conclusion you draw about a stimulus, usually in explaining an unexpected level of processing fluency c. an effortful and erroneous process d. a retrieval strategy ANS: B OBJ: 7.8

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

The Nature of Familiarity

41. The famous patient H.M. was unable to remember events he experienced after his brain surgery. The surgery apparently produced a. repression. c. retrograde amnesia. b. anterograde amnesia. d. infantile amnesia.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Amnesia

OBJ:

7.9

42. Mark suffered a blow to the head many weeks ago, causing retrograde amnesia. Which of the following is Mark LEAST likely to remember? a. facts that he learned in the month after his injury, including the layout of the hospital in which he received care b. any explicit memory for an event that took place just after his injury c. specific episodes in the 2 weeks following his injury d. events that took place just prior to his injury ANS: D MSC: Applying

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Amnesia

OBJ:

7.9

43. Theodore has suffered from Korsakoff‘s amnesia for the last decade. Theodore is LEAST likely to do which of the following actions? a. accurately recall events from early childhood b. hold a coherent conversation c. recall events that occurred last month d. recognize people he met 18 years ago ANS: C OBJ: 7.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Anterograde Amnesia

44. H.M. had much of his hippocampus removed to alleviate seizures. An unfortunate side effect was impaired explicit memory, even though later testing revealed that his implicit memory was spared. This result provides one half of a double dissociation. In order to complete the double dissociation, which of the following patients would need to be found? a. a patient with intact implicit memory and intact explicit memory b. a patient with an intact hippocampus and explicit memory deficits c. a patient with intact explicit memory and impaired implicit memory d. a patient with explicit memory intact and a damaged hippocampus ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Disrupted Episodic Memory, but Spared Semantic Memory OBJ: 7.9 MSC: Evaluating 45. Double dissociations in memory are important because they a. provide strong evidence for separate memory systems. b. remain unchallenged by contemporary standards. c. provided early evidence of the extent of H.M.‘s amnesia. d. suggest that damage to any area of the brain will impact all memory functioning.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Disrupted Episodic Memory, but Spared Semantic Memory OBJ: 7.9 MSC: Analyzing 46. Amnesia can provide insight into the role of memory in our everyday lives. For example, if H.M. was having a conversation with a friend and noticed the friend looking off in the distance and smiling, he was most likely to a. attribute the smile to the funny joke he made a few minutes ago. b. not know why his friend was smiling.

c. d.

smile back because H.M. would know the smile was a sign of friendship. forget the conversation immediately, because his attention had been turned to his friend‘s smile.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Anterograde Amnesia

47. Which of the following statements is true about the role the hippocampus plays in memory? a. Hippocampus damage is associated with retrograde amnesia. b. The hippocampus is important only for old memories from months and years back. c. The hippocampus plays an important role in establishing new memories. d. Korsakoff patients have little to no damage in hippocampal areas.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.9

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Anterograde Amnesia

48. Current evidence indicates that patients suffering from Korsakoff‘s amnesia a. show greater disruption in implicit memory than in explicit memory. b. suffer from disruption in both implicit and explicit memory. c. show intact implicit memory with perceptual cues but disrupted implicit memory with conceptual cues. d. have preserved implicit memory despite severe disruption in explicit memory.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Anterograde Amnesia: What Kind of Memory Is Disrupted?

OBJ: 7.9 MSC: Remembering 49. In a classic demonstration, Claparède showed that a. the behavior of a Korsakoff ‘s amnesia patient can be changed by a recent event even though the patient shows no signs of remembering that event. b. Korsakoff ‘s amnesiacs show more severe retrograde amnesia than anterograde amnesia. c. Korsakoff ‘s amnesiacs show an extraordinary ability to recall their plans for the future even though they cannot remember their own pasts. d. the behavior of a Korsakoff ‘s amnesia patient is less well organized than clinicians have theorized.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Anterograde Amnesia: What Kind of Memory Is Disrupted?

OBJ: 7.9 MSC: Remembering 50. H.M. had part of his hippocampus removed. The resulting disruption primarily involved a. anterograde amnesia. c. both retrograde and anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. d. nonverbal disabilities.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.9

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

What If . . . | Anterograde Amnesia

51. Geraldo, a lawyer, has read about a case (Jones v. Arizona) that he thinks will help one of his clients. Geraldo wants to make sure that he remembers to discuss the case with his client, and also wants to remember to bring up the case in his opening statement in court.

His best approach is likely to be to a. repeat to himself, over and over again, ―Don‘t forget Jones v. Arizona.‖ b. reread the summary of the case several times. c. build multiple retrieval paths between the new case and the situations in which he wishes to use it. d. put the case book containing Jones v. Arizona on his desk with all of the other books and hope he finds it when his client arrives and when he writes his opening statement.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.1 | 7.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Optimal Learning

52. Weston is initially unsure how to answer the question ―What is the capital of Wisconsin?‖ When provided with the hint ―It‘s a girl‘s name,‖ Weston quickly recalls that the capital is Madison. Which of the following best explains this? a. There was a strong flow of activation from the Wisconsin nodes to the Madison nodes. b. There was no connection between the Wisconsin nodes and the Madison nodes. c. The Madison node was activated once it received activation from both the Wisconsin and the girl‘s names nodes. d. There was a strong connection between the girl‘s names nodes and the Madison nodes.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.1 | 7.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Retrieval Cues

53. In the ―false fame‖ experiments, participants were asked to read through a list of names, merely pronouncing each name out loud.

Later, participants were shown a second list, and asked which names on this list were the names of the famous people. Some of these names were utterly fictitious but were actually repeats of names that had appeared on the earlier (pronunciation) list. People were most likely to identify a fictitious name as famous if a. the pronunciation task and the famous judgments were separated by at least 24 hours. b. the pronunciation task and the famous judgments were separated by only a few minutes. c. many fictitious names were shown on the second (fame) list. d. the individual had previously completed a famous name identification task.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Understanding

Moderate

REF:

False Fame

OBJ:

7.7

54. Essam completed a name pronunciation task that included famous and nonfamous names. His ability to identify famous names was tested one day after he completed the name pronunciation task. Dane completed the same pronunciation task, and his ability to identify famous names was tested immediately after completing the task. Which finding would be anticipated? a. Dane is more likely to describe famous names as being nonfamous. b. Both Essam and Dane will identify previously seen nonfamous names as being famous. c. Both Essam and Dane are more likely to identify novel nonfamous names as being famous. d. Essam is more likely to describe nonfamous names as being famous.

ANS: D MSC: Applying

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

False Fame

OBJ:

7.7

55. Abby had enjoyed playing with toy cars with her 4-year-old nephew two weeks ago. As a result, she has decided to purchase toy cars for her friend‘s 4-year-old son‘s upcoming birthday. She has no recall of which toy cars her nephew has. She is most likely to select a. toy cars with vibrant colors. b. toy cars in the ―New Arrivals‖ section of the toy store. c. toy cars her nephew has. d. toy cars of varying sizes.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Theoretical Treatments of Implicit Memory

56. The term ―processing pathway‖ refers to a. the steps one goes through in retrieving information from memory. b. the sequences of nodes and connections between nodes that activation flows through. c. the connections between the retina and the occipital cortex. d. the increased ease of recall that results from repeated exposure.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Processing Fluency

ESSAY 1. Considering the influence of context dependence on memory, provide three tips for students (or yourself!) who are studying for an upcoming exam.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 7.1

REF: Learning as Preparation for Retrieval MSC: Applying

2. Your friend asks you what you ate for breakfast yesterday morning. Describe how you might search and retrieve that information by considering how activation might spread through a network.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Spreading Activation

OBJ:

7.4

3. If given a lexical decision task, would you respond faster to the pair ―music–disk‖ or ―dog–rug‖? Explain your answer by including 1) a description of the lexical decision procedure.

2) an explanation of semantic priming.

3) a reference to the spreading activation network.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Semantic Priming

OBJ:

7.4

4. Describe the ―remember/know‖ paradigm by answering the following questions: a. What is the primary task in this paradigm? b. On what process does ―remembering‖ depend? What about ―knowing‖? c. What does this paradigm tell us about the nature of memory?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Familiarity and Source Memory

OBJ:

7.6

5. Describe the case of H.M. Describe two memory tests that H.M. would not be able to complete and two tasks that he might successfully complete. Based on your knowledge of memory, explain why he would show this pattern of results.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 7.6 | 7.7 | 7.9

REF: What If . . . | Anterograde Amnesia MSC: Analyzing

6. Compare and contrast implicit and explicit memory. Include in your discussion a description of the various testing methods that are used to assess each type of memory.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Implicit Memory

OBJ:

7.7

7. Imagine that you are hired at a public relations firm to spread the message that Sour Patch Kids ® are a healthy alternative to vegetables. Using your knowledge of the principles of familiarity, how might you go about convincing people that this is true?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Creating

REF:

Implicit Memory

OBJ:

7.7

8. Imagine you are on a jury and subjected to conflicting eyewitness testimonies. One individual, Paul, says, ―The defendant told me he took the money.‖ The defendant claims that he is innocent, that Paul is misremembering, and that, in fact, their mutual friend Jake is the one who took the money. Given your knowledge of source memory, describe how this mix-up could occur. As a juror, what would you do in this case?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Implicit Memory

OBJ:

7.7

9. Explain the steps that lead to a judgment of familiarity. How might you manipulate those steps to create an illusion of familiarity?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

The Nature of Familiarity

OBJ:

7.7 | 7.8

10. Argue in favor of or against the statement ―Familiarity might be best classified as a conclusion you draw, rather than a feeling.‖ Back up your thesis by including relevant empirical evidence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Nature of Familiarity

OBJ:

7.8

CHAPTER 8

Remembering Complex Events LEARNING OBJECTIVES

8.1. Describe how previous knowledge can help memory, but also may lead to memory errors.

8.2. Summarize the DRM procedure and results and understand its significance for memory errors.

8.3. Explain how schematic knowledge can both help and hurt cognitive functioning.

8.4. Describe the misinformation effect and how it could lead to false memories both in the laboratory and for eyewitnesses.

8.5. Describe the relationship between confidence and accuracy as it relates to memory.

8.6. Describe the three major theories of forgetting and the evidence supporting each theory.

8.7. Explain what, if anything, can be done to improve memory and/or reduce forgetting.

8.8. Explain why memory for self-relevant information might be different than other types of information.

8.9. Explain how emotion influences memory.

8.10. Explain what is meant by “long, long-term memory” and how it does or does not differ from other kinds of memory.

8.11. Is autobiographical memory fundamentally different from other types of memories?

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In a study described in the chapter, participants were asked whether they had seen the videotape of a plane crashing into a building in Amsterdam. Most participants a. said they had seen the videotape, even though there had not actually been a plane crash; they were fooled by the question into thinking there was a crash. b. said they had seen the videotape, even though there was no videotape; they were misled by their general knowledge that important events are often reported with vivid video footage. c. denied ever having heard about the plane crash before; their emotion led to rapid forgetting of this tragic event. d. said, ―no,‖ even though they had been shown the videotape one month earlier.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Memory Errors: Some Initial Examples

2. In a study by Brewer and Treyens (1981), participants waited in an experimenter‘s office for the experiment to begin. After they left the room, they learned that the study was about their memory of that office. This study demonstrated that a. college students do not know what a professor‘s office typically contains. b. people make assumptions using prior knowledge about what an academic office typically contains. c. college students‘ memories are much worse than the memories of other groups in society. d. people tend to notice only those items in the environment that most fit with their expectations.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory Errors: Some Initial Examples

3. Memory errors and distortions have been documented a. only for memory of the exact phrasing of prose material. b. only for memory of unfamiliar material. c. in the recall of complex events. d. only with material that has been reported to participants, not with material that participants have experienced directly.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

4. Which of the following is a potential problem for memory retrieval in relation to memory connections? a. If a memory is connected to too many other memories, it can become overused, so it ―shuts down‖ and is forgotten. b. Establishing a memory connection can often be a lengthy and costly procedure, so memory connections are rare. c. If two memories become linked, bits of information from one memory can be remembered as part of a different memory. d. Memory connections can be established only for traumatic memories.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

5. Connections among our various memories do all of the following EXCEPT a. help us to resist source confusion. b. serve as retrieval paths. c. interweave our various memories, inviting intrusion errors. d. link related memories.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

6. Will has been to the zoo many times, usually with his family but also once on a school field trip. When Will tries to remember the field trip, his recollection is a. likely to include elements imported from memories of other zoo trips. b. unlikely to be influenced by schematic knowledge. c. likely to be highly accurate in its details. d. unlikely to include much perceptual information.

ANS: A

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

OBJ:

8.1

MSC: Applying

7. This chapter argues that the way the details of complex episodes are held together actually leads to errors. Which component of the connection between two complex memories leads to both the successes and errors of memory? a. the length of the connections between the memories b. the number of connections between the two memories c. the number of neurons needed to activate the connection between two memories d. the length of the most important memory connection ANS: B OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

8. Intrusion errors in memory are errors a. in which other knowledge intrudes into the remembered event. b. due to the acquisition stage of memory being interrupted (or intruded on). c. in memory due to brain damage, usually as a result of a blow to the head. d. created when the information that is initially encoded in memory is false.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

9. An important theme emerging from memory research is that memory connections a. are crucial for recognition but are less important for recall. b. increase the amount of time we need to locate a memory in storage. c. make memories easier to locate but can lead to intrusion errors. d. play a role in implicit memory but not in generic memory.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

10. In an experiment discussed in the chapter, members of Group A were asked to read a passage. Members of Group B were asked to read the same passage but were given a prologue that helped their understanding of the passage. When given a recall test a. Group A recalled less of the passage and made more intrusion errors than Group B. b. Group B recalled more of the passage but made more intrusion errors than Group A. c. Group A could recall only the names of the characters in the passage, as the members did not understand its context. d. Group A recalled less of the passage but made the same number of intrusion errors as Group B. ANS: B OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

11. Liz is trying to remember what she read in a textbook chapter, but she inadvertently mixes into her recall her own assumptions about the material covered in the chapter. This is an example of a. the DRM paradigm. c. intrusion errors. b. autobiographical memory. d. implicit memory.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

12. Memory schemas, or schemata, serve as representations of our ________ knowledge. a. innate, or inborn c. semantic, or generic b. specific, or explicit d. episodic, or autobiographical ANS: C OBJ: 8.1 | 8.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Schematic Knowledge

13. Which of the following claims regarding schema-based knowledge is FALSE? a. Gaps in our memory can often be filled by relying on schema-based knowledge. b. Schema-based knowledge often ends up regularizing our recollection of the past. c. Schema-based knowledge relies on recall of specific information within a memory. d. Schema-based knowledge can help guide attention and understanding, so it can help reconstruct parts of an event that we cannot remember.

ANS: C

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Schematic Knowledge

OBJ:

8.1 | 8.3

MSC: Analyzing

15. Repeated exposure to a person or situation will cause memory for specific instances to fade, making it difficult to recall details of any one episode. This can be problematic, but it can also be seen as a good thing. In what way does this process benefit us? a. It makes details of other events easier to retrieve. b. It leads to the creation of general knowledge. c. It keeps our autobiographical memory organized. d. It clears out storage space in our memories that will be needed later for more important information.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.1 | 8.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Schematic Knowledge

15. Bartlett asked British participants to read stories from Native American folklore, and he later asked them to recall details of the stories.

His findings reveal which important idea about memory? a. Memory errors are often the result of attempts to understand what one is learning. b. Apparently forgotten details can often be remembered with appropriate cues. c. The length of connections determines how well a story will be remembered. d. Memory is remarkably good, even for complex stories.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.1 | 8.3

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Schematic Knowledge

16. Which of the following claims is FALSE? Making an effort to understand a situation or story a. can improve memory by providing context. b. can hurt memory by confusing new events with old information. c. can improve memory for gist, but can also encourage intrusion errors. d. does little to affect the quality or quantity of memory.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

17. When presented with a list of words along a theme (e.g., ―bed,‖ ―rest,‖ ―slumber,‖ ―dream,‖ ―tired‖), participants often (mis)recall the theme word as part of the list (e.g., ―sleep‖). This procedure is commonly referred to as the a. missing word illusion. c. DRM procedure. b. word superiority effect. d. misinformation effect.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The DRM Procedure

18. If given the list of the words ―white,‖ ―frost,‖ ―freeze,‖ and ―flake,‖ which word will people be most likely to erroneously report on a later memory test? a. sled c. fall b. bright d. snow ANS: D OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The DRM Procedure

19. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included within a kitchen schema? a. Kitchens almost always contain a refrigerator. b. Kitchens sometimes contain paper towels. c. Some kitchens contain a waffle maker. d. I had breakfast at my kitchen table this morning.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.2 | 8.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Schematic Knowledge

20. Which of the following does the text mention as a significant ―cost‖ of memory errors? a. inaccurate eyewitness testimony b. misremembering where you placed your keys c. forgetting the name of a friend‘s wife d. forgetting the word ―lexicon‖ on a psychology exam ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF:

The Cost of Memory Errors

OBJ:

8.4

MSC: Applying

21. Participants viewed a series of slides depicting an automobile accident. Immediately afterward, half of the participants were asked, ―How fast were the cars going when they hit each other?‖ The other participants were asked, ―How fast were the cars going when they smashed into each other?‖ One week later, all participants were asked more questions about the slides, including whether they had seen any broken glass in the slides. A comparison of the two groups of participants is likely to show that a. participants who were asked the ―smashed‖ question gave higher estimates of speed and were more likely to remember seeing broken glass. b. the groups gave similar estimates of speed, but the ―smashed‖ group was more likely to remember seeing broken glass. c. participants who were asked the ―smashed‖ question gave higher estimates of speed, but the groups gave similar responses to the ―broken glass‖ question. d. the minor contrast in how the groups were questioned had no effect on participants‘ memories.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Planting False Memories

22. After participants have witnessed an event, being asked misleading questions can influence their a. immediate reports of the event as well as their recall of the event if they try to remember it sometime later. b. immediate reports of the event but has little impact on longer-term retention. c. longer-term retention of the event, but not their reports of the event immediately after witnessing it. d. reports of an event only if the questions plant false ideas that are compatible with the participants‘ schemas.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Planting False Memories

23. What are the necessary circumstances to produce false memories in research participants? a. It is not possible to produce completely false memories in participants under any circumstances. b. It would require trauma too severe to be ethically allowable. c. It would require highly suggestible participants and repeated leading questions. d. It would require a few brief interviews.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Planting False Memories

24. The misinformation effect refers to the fact that false information, presented after a participant has encoded an event, can alter the participant‘s subsequent recall of the event. This ―planting‖ of memories a. seems restricted to small memory errors. b. is possible only if done by an authority figure. c. seems possible for remembered actions but not remembered objects. d. can produce memories that are entirely false but nonetheless recalled with confidence.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Planting False Memories

25. The creation of false memories in someone is possible a. only for small details; memory for gist cannot be corrupted. b. only for events that took place long ago; recent events are remembered accurately. c. only for neutral or unimportant events; memories that are emotional are accurate. d. even for the creation of large-scale, entirely false events.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Planting False Memories

26. After Maria witnessed a hit-and-run car accident, a police officer asked her, ―Did you get a good look at the driver‘s glasses as he drove by you?‖ Based on the results of many studies, we expect that if Maria is asked about the driver again a day later, she will be a. able to recall virtually no accurate details about the visual aspects of the event. b. likely to recall that the driver was wearing glasses even if he was not. c. likely to have completely repressed the entire memory. d. likely to have a more accurate memory than she did immediately after the accident because her memories had consolidated overnight while she slept.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Planting False Memories

27. Someone versed in memory research could plant false memories in his or her friends or family. Imagine that you want to perform such an (unethical) act. Which technique is LEAST likely to be effective in planting the false memories? a. repeating the false suggestion several times b. electric shock treatment c. using a plausible false event d. asking the individual to imagine the event ANS: B OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Planting False Memories

28. By using leading questions and misinformation, researchers have been able to a. shape how a real event is remembered, but they have been unable to lead participants into remembering an event that never took place. b. shape how participants remember the sequence of actions in the event, but they have been unable to change how participants remember the details of an event. c. shape how participants remember the people who participated in an event, but they have been unable to influence how participants remember the objects present as an event unfolded. d. alter virtually any aspect of participants‘ memories and have even been able to create memories for entire events that never took place.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Planting False Memories

29. Which of the following claims about memory accuracy is FALSE? a. Participants‘ confidence in their false memories is often just as great as their confidence in their accurate recollections. b. Children may be even more vulnerable to the ―planting‖ of false memories than adults. c. When a participant‘s response is based on a false memory, the response can be just as detailed as it would be if based on an accurate memory. d. Participants are sometimes mistaken in their recollection of an event‘s minor details, but do not create an entirely new false memory.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Planting False Memories

30. The misinformation effect can usually be understood as an example of a. selective amnesia. c. source confusion. b. implicit memory. d. memory decay.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Planting False Memories

31. Shruti and Ryan both witness a car accident; they later discuss what they saw. Unfortunately, Ryan is mistaken about some aspects of the accident, and so part of what he says to Shruti is false. Shruti is less likely to adopt Ryan‘s false memories if a. Shruti tries to remember the accident only after a long delay. b. Shruti knows that Ryan has been highly reliable in the past. c. Ryan repeats his (false) recollection a couple of times. d. Ryan‘s version of events is implausible and contradicts what Shruti believes happened.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Planting False Memories

32. We cannot prevent memory errors, but can they be detected? a. Not always, but high-confidence memories are almost always accurate. b. Yes, they can be detected using hypnosis. c. They can be detected only with expensive fMRI scans. d. Currently there is no reliable way to detect memory errors.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Memory Confidence

33. Which of the following statements about the relationship between eyewitness accuracy and confidence is true? a. There are circumstances in which confidence and accuracy are highly correlated. b. The lower a witness‘s confidence, the more likely it is that his or her memory is accurate. c. When confidence in a memory gets extremely high, it indicates that a memory is probably inaccurate. d. The more times a witness recalls an event, the less certain he or she becomes about their memory.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Memory Confidence

34. An eyewitness to a crime is quite confident that his memory of the crime is correct. In evaluating the eyewitness‘s testimony, the jury should note that a. eyewitness memories are incorrect as often as they are correct. b. memory confidence is sometimes a poor indicator of memory accuracy. c. memory for the generalities of an event is highly correlated with confidence, but memory for detail is unrelated to confidence. d. eyewitnesses tend to assert that they are confident only when their memories are reasonably accurate overall.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Memory Confidence

35. What did researchers find when they attempted to implant a false memory so strong that participants would falsely confess to having committed a criminal act of assault? a. They were unsuccessful because the memories they tried to implant were too emotional. b. They were successful with children but not adults. c. They were successful, but only when participants were questioned under hypnosis. d. They were successful for a substantial number of participants.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Memory Confidence

36. After a witness identifies a suspect, what is the effect of receiving feedback (e.g., ―that's correct‖)? a. The witness becomes more confident in his or her answer. b. The witness‘s memory becomes more accurate. c. The witness becomes more compliant and willing to tell police what they want to hear. d. Having made the identification, the witness is likely to forget what the suspect looks like.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Memory Confidence

37. Merlin learned a magic spell (to scare away a dragon) on January 10. He then used that spell on January 18. The 8-day period between these dates is called the a. retention interval. c. interference period. b. retrieval path. d. memory span.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Causes of Forgetting

38. Which of the following does NOT name a hypothesis concerning why we forget? a. decay c. interference b. hyperthymesia d. retrieval failure ANS: B OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Causes of Forgetting

39. A great deal of forgetting may be caused by an inability (perhaps temporary) to locate target information that is stored in memory.

This sort of forgetting is called a. repression. c. interference. b. retrieval failure. d. state dependency.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Causes of Forgetting

40. Which of the following refers to the hypothesis that memories fade or erode with the passage of time? a. interference c. repression b. decay d. retention interval ANS: B OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Causes of Forgetting

41. Evidence suggests that interference a. accounts for the forgetting of semantic memories but not autobiographical memories. b. probably explains more forgetting than decay does. c. in combination with repression explains virtually all of forgetting. d. occurs for all memories.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Causes of Forgetting

42. Baddeley and Hitch asked rugby players to remember all of the rugby games they had played over the course of a single season.

According to their data, which is the most important factor in determining whether the players will remember a particular game? a. how many other games they have been in since the target game b. how much time has passed since the target game c. whether they were satisfied with their performance in the target game d. whether the game took place during the week or on a weekend ANS: A OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Causes of Forgetting

43. Lexi is describing a movie she recently saw. When it comes time to name the actors, she draws a blank and utters, ―Ugh, I know his name, and it starts with a ‗G.‘ He has been in a bunch of stuff lately. Why can‘t I think of it?‖ Lexi is experiencing a. anti-priming. c. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. b. episodic drop-out. d. retrograde amnesia.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Causes of Forgetting

44. Forgetting is generally ________ over the first few minutes and hours and then ________ over subsequent time periods. a. slow; faster c. slow; very slow b. fast; faster d. fast; slower ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Causes of Forgetting | Long, Long-Term Remembering OBJ: 8.6 | 8.10 MSC: Analyzing 45. Dmitri witnessed a bank robbery but now seems unable to remember what he saw. To improve Dmitri‘s recall, a friend hypnotizes him and asks him, while he is hypnotized, to recall the crime. Research indicates that if questioned while under hypnosis Dmitri will a. give a more elaborate (but not more accurate) account of the crime than he has on other occasions. b. give a more accurate (but not more complete) account of the crime than he has on other occasions. c. be less vulnerable to the effect of leading questions. d. suffer from less retrieval failure.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Undoing Forgetting

46. Which of the following is NOT true of memory? a. Most memories are probably accurate. b. Gaps in memory, such as drawing a blank, can occur. c. Apparently lost memories can be recovered through hypnosis. d. Memory errors can be created by outside sources as well as by ourselves.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.7

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Undoing Forgetting

47. Information that is perceived as relevant to the self is better remembered. This is referred to as the a. ego directive. c. self-reference effect. b. autobiographical perspective advantage. d. self-importance law.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.8

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Remembering

Memory and the Self

48. Of the following, our ―self-schema‖ is LEAST likely to include a. knowledge of how we generally spend our vacations. b. ideas about our political beliefs when young. c. accurate memories about poor grades. d. our usual behaviors.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Memory and the Self

49. In the process of memory consolidation, memories are a. put into the ―back of the mind‖ for their own protection. b. intentionally blurred with other memories. c. second-guessed in favor of memory schemata already in place. d. biologically ―cemented into place.‖ ANS: D OBJ: 8.9

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Memory and Emotion

50. Which of the following is most likely to occur during the recall of everyday, moderately emotional events? a. amnesia b. repression c. flashbulb memory recall d. accurate recall of the most central aspects of the event, but relatively poor recall of the event‘s background details ANS: D OBJ: 8.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Memory and Emotion

51. Flashbulb memories are extremely detailed, vivid memories usually associated with highly emotional events. The accuracy of these memories seems a. vulnerable to error, especially if the memory is discussed frequently. b. unrelated to any factors researchers have tested so far. c. remarkably high, identifying these memories as a special class of episodic recall. d. strongly associated with participants‘ confidence levels, differentiating flashbulb memories from other forms of memories.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Flashbulb Memories

52. Some researchers have suggested that highly painful memories can be repressed. This theory a. is considered to be correct by most researchers. b. is known to be backwards, because it is actually pleasurable memories that are rapidly forgotten. c. is controversial and doubted by many researchers. d. has never been tested.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Traumatic Memories

53. Soldiers sometimes show a pattern referred to as ―battlefield amnesia.‖ The soldier is awake and functioning during the battle, then goes back to camp, gets a night‘s sleep, and then, in the morning, has no memory of the battle. Repression is one explanation for this pattern, but other, less controversial explanations also exist. Which of the following is LEAST likely as a potential explanation for why memories might be encoded poorly during a traumatic event? a. sleep deprivation c. extreme stress b. head injury d. interference ANS: D OBJ: 8.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Traumatic Memories

54. The claim that a memory can be ―repressed‖ refers to a. a painful memory that is stored but cannot be consciously recalled.

b. c. d.

a memory that cannot be recalled because of interference from another memory. a memory of an event that one pretends not to remember. a memory planted during hypnosis.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Traumatic Memories

55. You should be skeptical if someone says they have ―recovered‖ a memory that was once repressed because a. highly emotional events are generally not remembered at all. b. once a memory has been repressed, it is impossible to ―recover‖ it. c. if the memory was important enough to be repressed, it would become a flashbulb memory and therefore unlikely to decay. d. some ―recovered‖ memories turn out to be false memories.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.9

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Traumatic Memories

56. Research on very-long-term remembering indicates that a. memories fade more and more rapidly as the years go by. b. memories of childhood are retained throughout the lifespan; later memories, however, are vulnerable to forgetting. c. if you learn material well enough to retain it for 3 or 4 years, the odds are good that you will continue to remember the material for many more years. d. if you learn material before age 13 or 15, you are unlikely to remember the material in later years; material learned at older ages is retained for longer periods.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Long, Long-Term Remembering

57. Julie can remember accurately what she wore, what she did, and what the weather was like on any day from 1999. She likely has a. autobiographical memory. c. hyperthymesia. b. anterograde amnesia. d. hypernesia.

ANS: C MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

What If . . .

OBJ:

8.10

58. The memory that contains the full recollection of our lives is referred to as ________ memory. a. self-recollection c. emotional perspective b. autobiographical d. personal experience ANS: B OBJ: 8.11

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Autobiographical Memory

ESSAY 1. Describe how schematic knowledge can influence memory. Include in your answer an explanation of how schematic knowledge can be both helpful and damaging to memory.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 8.1 | 8.3

REF: Memory Errors: A Hypothesis | Schematic Knowledge MSC: Evaluating

2. Create your own set of stimuli (at least eight items) that could be used in the DRM procedure to cause false memories. Explain the procedure and your predictions.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy MSC: Creating

REF:

The DRM Procedure

OBJ:

8.2

3. Imagine you are asked to testify at a trial as an expert on eyewitness memory. The defendant is charged with armed robbery, and the prosecution has presented a witness who says that shortly after the crime was committed, she saw the defendant running down the street with a bag in his hands. What would you tell the jury about the accuracy of eyewitness memory in your testimony?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

OBJ:

8.4

4. Quan and Leslie both witnessed a car crash, but their stories do not match. Quan is 10 years old, was in close physical proximity to the accident, and is very confident in his description of the accident. Leslie is 45, was talking on her phone when the accident happened, and is less sure of herself when answering questions. Leslie also mentions that she has seen several car accidents at this intersection and that it is very dangerous. Based on the evidence presented in the chapter, who should be trusted? Include the pros and cons of trusting each witness.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Avoiding Memory Errors

OBJ:

8.4 | 8.5 | 8.9

5. Does the passage of time or interference have a larger impact on forgetting? Support your answer by providing empirical evidence, or by considering the challenges of answering such a question.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:

8.6

6. Explain how the passage of time influences memory, both at shorter durations (hours, days) and longer durations (years, decades).

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Long, Long-Term Remembering

OBJ:

8.6 | 8.10

7. Under hypnosis, Beth provided a detailed account of an emotional event she witnessed. Should the details of her memory be trusted?

Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Undoing Forgetting

OBJ:

8.7 | 8.9

8. Are autobiographical memories very different from other types of memories? Include empirical evidence to support your position.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 8.8 | 8.11

REF: How General Are the Principles of Memory?

MSC: Analyzing

9. After reading a news article about a woman who recovered repressed memories of childhood abuse, your friend starts to think she too may have been abused as a child. Given your knowledge of autobiographical memory, emotions, traumatic memories, and memory errors, what would you tell her?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Autobiographical Memory

OBJ:

8.9

10. Are flashbulb memories different from other kinds of memories? Include in your answer a comparison of how flashbulb memories feel versus the actual data surrounding these memories.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Flashbulb Memories

OBJ:

8.9

CHAPTER 9

Concepts and Generic Knowledge LEARNING OBJECTIVES

9.1. Explain how prototype theory might account for categorization, and why prototype theory leads to a claim of graded membership.

9.2. Describe the evidence supporting the notion that we are inclined to use a “basic” level of categorization.

9.3. Explain how an exemplar model could account for basic categorization evidence.

9.4. Provide examples to illustrate that sometimes typicality is predictive of category membership and sometimes is not.

9.5. Describe the evidence indicating that people have “explanatory theories” for their concepts in addition to prototypes and exemplars for each concept.

9.6. Explain why “similarity” cannot be assessed simply by counting up the shared properties between two objects being compared.

9.7. Describe the neuroscience evidence indicating the need to distinguish different types of mental categories.

9.8. Describe the experiments of Collins and Quillian, and explain what these experiments can and cannot tell us about the organization of knowledge in memory.

9.9. Explain how propositional networks represent knowledge.

9.10. Compare and contrast the ideas of local and distributed representations in mental networks.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. It seems unlikely that mental definitions are used to represent our conceptual knowledge because a. each person has his or her own idea about how concepts should be defined. b. many of our abstract concepts (e.g., justice, love, God) are difficult to define. c. it is easy to find exceptions to any proposed definition. d. most of our concepts are difficult to express in words.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Understanding Concepts

2. Categorization models based on family resemblance rely on a. the definition of each category. b. overlap in the features of the various members of a category. c. the necessary conditions for membership in a category. d. the sufficient conditions for membership in a category.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Family Resemblance

3. When we say, ―There is a family resemblance among all the members of the Martinez family,‖ we mean that a. there is at least one feature shared by all the members of the family. b. there is at least one identifying trait such that if you have that trait, you are certain to be a member of the family. c. any pair of family members will have traits in common, even though there may be no single trait shared by all of the family members. d. there are several features that all members of the family have in common.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Family Resemblance

4. It has been suggested that mental categories have a family-resemblance structure, and usually don‘t have definitions. What is the basis for this claim? a. Categorization is usually a matter of degree, not an all-or-none process. b. Categories constantly add new members. c. Similarity is often subjective. d. A rigid definition is unlikely to be accepted by everyone.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Prototypes and Typicality Effects

5. According to prototype theory, the mental representation for each concept a. is likely to represent an average or ideal for the category‘s members. b. specifies the necessary and sufficient conditions for category membership. c. is located on the boundary of the category. d. lists the perceptual features that are found only in that category.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Prototypes and Typicality Effects

6. According to prototype theory, the prototype selected for comparison is UNLIKELY to be the a. ideal for a category. b. average of various category members. c. same for every person. d. central tendency (middle) of all category members.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Prototypes and Typicality Effects

7. The claim that mental categories have graded membership is most compatible with which of the following claims? a. ―It‘s really hard to be sure if Milo is a dog or not.‖ b. ―Some dogs are ‗doggier‘ than others.‖ c. ―I used to think tomatoes were a vegetable, but I‘ve now learned the truth.‖ d. ―Many people think the Bible is the greatest book ever written.‖

ANS: B OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Prototypes and Graded Membership

8. In Trial 18 of a sentence verification task, participants see the sentence ―A robin is a bird.‖ In Trial 42 they see ―A penguin is a bird.‖ According to prototype theory, we should expect faster responses to a. ―robin‖ because participants more readily see the resemblance between ―robin‖ and the bird prototype. b. ―penguin‖ because penguins are a unique bird and thus easily identified. c. ―robin‖ because it is a shorter word. d. ―penguin‖ because of response priming.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Testing the Prototype Notion

9. If asked to name as many birds as they can, participants are most likely to name a. larger birds (e.g., hawk, owl). b. distinctive birds (e.g., vulture, penguin). c. birds associated with other familiar concepts (e.g., turkey, bald eagle). d. birds resembling the prototype (e.g., robin, sparrow).

ANS: D OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Testing the Prototype Notion

10. Participants are asked which birds they think are ―particularly birdy‖ and which birds are ―not very birdy.‖ We should expect that the birds judged as ―birdiest‖ are birds a. rarely mentioned in a production task. b. appearing infrequently in the participants‘ environment. c. identified quickly in a picture-identification task. d. not likely to be identified as typical.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Testing the Prototype Notion

11. The term ―basic-level category‖ refers to the a. level of categorization regarded by most participants as indisputable. b. most general level of categorization of which participants can think. c. most specific level of categorization of which participants can think. d. most natural level of categorization, which is neither too specific nor too general.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Basic-Level Categories

12. Basic-level categories have which of the following traits? a. If asked to describe an object, participants are not likely to use the basic-level term. b. Basic-level categories are usually represented in the language by a single word. c. Basic-level descriptions are more difficult to remember than more general descriptions. d. Basic-level terms are acquired by children at an older age than either more specific or more general terms.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Basic-Level Categories

13. According to exemplar-based theories of mental categories, participants identify an object by comparing it to a a. prototype. b. single remembered instance of the category. c. definition. d. mental image.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Analogies from Remembered Exemplars

15. An important difference between categorization via exemplars and categorization via prototypes is that according to exemplar theory a. the standard used in a particular category can vary from one occasion to the next.

b. c. d.

one categorizes objects by comparing them to a mentally represented standard. categorization depends on a judgment of resemblance. categories are represented in the mind by a single relatively concrete illustration of the category.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Analogies from Remembered Exemplars

15. Exemplar and prototype theories are similar in the following ways EXCEPT that a. both theories require the triggering of a representation in memory. b. both theories require previous memories to be averaged, or combined, to create the standard for a category. c. both theories require a judgment of resemblance. d. both theories allow judgments of inanimate objects.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.3 | 9.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

A Combination of Exemplars and Prototypes

16. According to prototype theory, ―being typical‖ for a category and ―being a member of the category‖ should go together; if one is true, the other is true. In light of other things you know, which of the following is NOT a problem for this broad claim? a. Whales are more typical of fish than sea lampreys are, but whales aren‘t fish. b. A squashed lemon painted purple isn‘t at all a typical fruit, but it is a fruit. c. A poodle is a more typical dog than a golden retriever, but both are dogs. d. Abraham Lincoln was a typical American president, but he was a president.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Differences between Typicality and Categorization MSC: Applying

OBJ:

9.4

17. Which of the following examples are used to illustrate the idea that in some categories, members retain their category membership even if their appearance changes dramatically? a. robins and penguins c. Miss Piggy and Kermit the Frog b. mutilated lemons and counterfeit money d. John Lennon and Yoko Ono ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: The Differences between Typicality and Categorization MSC: Evaluating

OBJ:

9.4

18. Matt is 5 years old and loves learning about animals. If asked, ―Could you turn a skunk into a raccoon?‖ Matt would most likely say that a. no matter how you changed a skunk‘s behavior or appearance, it would still be a skunk and not a raccoon. b. it is behavior that matters for category identity, so if a skunk learned to act like a raccoon, it would count as a genuine raccoon. c. it is appearance that matters for category identity, so if a skunk were altered to look like a raccoon, it would count as a genuine raccoon. d. it is the combination of behavior and appearance that matters for category identity, so both attributes would have to be changed to turn one organism into another.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Differences between Typicality and Categorization MSC: Applying

OBJ:

9.4 | 9.6

19. In one procedure, participants were asked to judge which was a ―better‖ even number, 4 or 18. The participants a. regarded this task as absurd, and so they disagreed with each other about the ―correct‖ answer. b. offered judgments that show that well-defined categories do not show the graded-membership pattern. c. regarded all of the even numbers as being ―equivalently even.‖ d. made the judgment in a fashion that implied a graded-membership pattern for the category ―even number.‖ ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Differences between Typicality and Categorization MSC: Understanding

OBJ:

9.5

20. Participants know that penguins are not typical birds, but they are certain that penguins are birds. This indicates that judgments about category membership a. depend on a judgment of typicality. b. are not settled entirely by an assessment of typicality. c. rely on comparing the example to a prototype. d. do not conform to the requirements of a definition.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: The Differences between Typicality and Categorization MSC: Evaluating

OBJ:

9.5

21. In making judgments about category membership, participants a. base their judgments entirely on typicality of the stimulus. b. will not judge a stimulus to be in the category unless the stimulus resembles the category prototype. c. often make a distinction between typicality and actual category membership. d. usually base their judgments on factors other than typicality.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: The Differences between Typicality and Categorization MSC: Understanding

OBJ:

9.5

22. A lemon that has been painted red, white, and blue and then run over by a car is still likely to be categorized as a lemon. Which of the following is NOT relevant to why this might be? a. If it grew on a lemon tree, it will be considered a lemon. b. The essential properties for being a lemon are still there. c. Cause-and-effect relationships influence how we think about what an object is and how it is categorized. d. Superficial things like color do not play a role in categorization.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: The Differences between Typicality and Categorization MSC: Analyzing

OBJ:

9.5 | 9.6

23. A mutilated lemon will still be categorized as a lemon, while a counterfeit $20 bill will not be categorized as money. What does this say about categorization? a. Psychologists will never understand categorization. b. Category membership cannot be based on resemblance alone. c. Category membership is based on previously encountered examples. d. Prototype theory is the most accurate theory of categorization.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Complexity of Similarity

24. The text points out that plums and lawn mowers share many traits. This suggests that a. there is a strong resemblance between plums and lawn mowers. b. resemblance is not influenced by shared traits. c. in judging resemblance, we must determine which traits matter and which do not. d. distinctive traits, and not shared traits, determine resemblance judgments.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

The Complexity of Similarity

25. Categorization is plainly influenced by resemblance, but it is also influenced by factors other than resemblance. Which of the following is evidence for the importance of these other factors? a. Many categories have a hierarchical structure. b. Resemblance plays a key role in the use of prototypes but plays no role in the well-documented use of exemplars. c. Resemblance is typically determined by relatively superficial perceptual features, but sometimes categorization depends on deeper essential properties of the category. d. Learning about new categories often happens automatically, even when the learner does not notice that it is happening.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Complexity of Similarity

26. Explanatory theories about our conceptual knowledge differ from prototype theory in that the explanatory theories emphasize a. the importance of specific traits for category members. b. the importance of frequency of view in shaping category judgments. c. a holistic approach to categorization that asks how different concepts are related to each other. d. the fact that, as we learn more about a category, we can explain why the category is useful.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Explanatory Theories

27. Collins and Quillian proposed that conceptual knowledge is represented in the mind through a hierarchy of concepts. In their model, the property ―eats food‖ would be stored a. at a high level, linked to the node within the network that represents all things that eat. b. in a propositional format. c. many times, linked to the node for each of the creatures that eats. d. through a distributed representation.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Remembering

OBJ:

9.5

28. Informal, explanatory ―theories‖ seem to play an important role in our conceptual knowledge. Which of the following statements about the theories involved in conceptual knowledge is FALSE? a. They provide a knowledge base that we can rely on when thinking about an object, event, or category. b. They play a part in determining how easily we learn new concepts. c. They are usually as precise as most scientific theories. d. They often allow us to understand any new facts that we encounter about an object or category.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Explanatory Theories

29. Previous knowledge facilitates categorization in which of the following ways? a. It allows new categories to be learned more rapidly. b. It becomes unnecessary to compare previous examples to the current situation. c. It makes the formation of abstract categories possible. d. It ensures that categorization will be accurate.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Explanatory Theories

30. One study found that if participants were told a new fact about robins, they would also believe that the new fact was true of ducks.

However, if told a new fact about ducks, participants would not extrapolate this information to robins. This suggests that a. participants treat each category member independently (on a case-by-case basis) when applying new beliefs. b. participants are willing to apply inferences from a typical case within a category to the whole category but will not apply inferences from an atypical case to the whole category. c. new knowledge about a member of a category is unstable, leading to a change in a person‘s belief system only on rare occasions. d. beliefs within a theory are less likely to affect typical category members than atypical ones.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Inferences Based on Theories

31. The fMRI evidence suggests that the brain areas that are activated when someone is thinking about inanimate objects will a. be identical to the active areas for animate objects. b. be different from the active areas for animate objects. c. be localized to one hemisphere, while animate objects will be in the same region in the other hemisphere. d. need to directly activate brain areas for animate objects before a categorization decision can be made.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Concepts and the Brain

32. Maxine has sustained brain damage to her left temporal lobe, which influences her ability to categorize efficiently. Which of the following is most likely to describe the problems that Maxine will face? a. She will not be able to categorize objects ever again. b. She will lose the ability to identify members of some categories, but other categories will remain unaffected. c. She will be able to name objects but not be able to describe what the function of the object is. d. She will be able to recognize dogs but not be able to identify individual dogs (―oh, that‘s Dan‘s dog, Milo‖).

ANS: B OBJ: 9.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Concepts and the Brain

33. Collins and Quillian (1969) suggest that information about mental categories is organized a. in vertical patterns. c. in a hierarchy. b. through basic-level information. d. through a distributed representation.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Remembering

OBJ:

9.8

34. Which of the following benefits does a hierarchical network provide? a. Information can be searched for equally quickly across all levels of the network. b. It allows the option for information to be stored at higher levels, reducing redundancy in information storage. c. Information can be stored repeatedly, ensuring accuracy. d. Information is organized according to frequency of use, so that more common representations can be accessed more quickly.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Understanding

OBJ:

9.8

35. When compared to the statement ―A canary is an animal,‖ the reaction time for ―A bird is an animal‖ will be a. faster. b. slower. c. equal. d. unknown; there is not enough information to make a decision.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Remembering

OBJ:

9.8

36. One way to differentiate between concepts like ―Sam has a dog‖ and ―Sam is a dog‖ is to store information a. in propositional networks. b. in prepositional networks. c. through an associate link between ―Sam‖ and ―dog.‖ d. in a linear fashion.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Remembering

OBJ:

9.9

OBJ:

9.9

37. A proposition is generally defined as a. a node in a knowledge network. b. the smallest unit of knowledge that can be true or false. c. the smallest unit of knowledge that is stored. d. the organizational structure of semantic knowledge in memory.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Remembering 38. Which of the following is NOT a proposition?

a. b.

Julie is female.

Julie‘s hair.

c. d.

Julie bikes.

Julie barks.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Applying

OBJ:

9.9

39. The term ―connection weights‖ refers to the a. number of nodes. b. direction of the connections between nodes. c. strength of connections between nodes. d. number of connections between nodes.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

40. Within a parallel distributed processing (PDP) model, the term ―spreading activation‖ refers to the fact that a. activation of one concept will lead to many other nodes that, as a group, represent other concepts. b. thinking refers to a constant state of knowledge, made possible through the appropriate setting of connection weights. c. thinking is a static system, allowing stability in someone‘s cognition. d. nodes become weakened over time.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

41. According to a parallel distributed processing (PDP) model, how is the fact ―Neil Armstrong was an astronaut‖ represented in the mind? a. Neurons that represent Neil Armstrong and astronaut are connected via a synaptic junction. b. Nodes representing Neil Armstrong and astronaut are in close proximity to one another. c. Patterns of connections among many nodes separately represent Neil Armstrong and astronaut, and through learning these patterns have become linked to each other. d. A single node representing Neil Armstrong is connected via a proposition to the word ―astronaut.‖ ANS: C OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

42. Suppose that you learn that cones are responsible for color vision. In any of the network models of knowledge, your learning occurs when the two concepts (cones and color vision) become a. connected more strongly. c. weaker. b. stronger. d. close in proximity.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

43. Imagine that you mistakenly believe that Marie Antoinette was the queen of Austria. You learn later that she was the queen of France.

How will this adjustment in knowledge be represented in a parallel distributed processing (PDP) model? a. The connection between Marie Antoinette and Austria will be erased, and a new connection with France will replace it. b. The connection between Austria and France will be broken. c. The connection between Marie Antoinette and France will become stronger. d. The connection between Austria and France will become stronger.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

44. Propositional networks assume that knowledge is ________; however, other theorists propose that knowledge is actually ________. a. stored by a local representation; distributed b. likely contained within a single node; represented through connections among nodes c. distributed; localized d. distributed; constantly changing ANS: A OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Distributed Processing

45. Conceptual knowledge is impressive and likely contains a. prototypes. c. beliefs. b. exemplars. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Concepts: Putting the Pieces Together

ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast the prototype and exemplar theories of categorization. How do they differ? How are they similar? Does the evidence favor one over the other?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 9.1 | 9.3

REF: A Combination of Exemplars and Prototypes MSC: Evaluating

2. Describe the procedures of the sentence verification task and the production task. Would you expect to see any relationships between the results of these two tasks? Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Testing the Prototype Notion

OBJ:

9.2

3. Are basic-level categories the same as prototypes? Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Basic-Level Categories OBJ:

9.2

4. Typicality is often used to determine category membership, but not always. Provide an example of an object that is typical of a category but does not belong to the category. Using the ideas described in the book, explain why it would not be included in the category despite its similarity to other category members.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 9.4

REF: The Difficulties with Categorizing via Resemblance MSC: Creating

5. The textbook notes that our beliefs influence our categories, and our categories influence our beliefs. Explain what is meant by this by providing an example that supports each assertion.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Inferences Based on Theories

OBJ:

9.6

6. What do evidence from fMRI studies and research on patients with brain damage tell us about the nature of categorization in the mind and brain?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Concepts as Theories

OBJ:

9.7

MSC: Applying 7. Describe the procedure and results of Collins and Quillian‘s (1969) seminal study. What does this study tell us, and what modern updates (if any) should we add to this classic study?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Easy 9.8

REF: Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge MSC: Understanding

8. Describe the basic organization of a propositional network, and provide specific examples of the organization by considering the concept ―chicken.‖ Make sure you include the appropriate propositions in your description.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Propositional Networks OBJ:

9.8 | 9.9

9. Assuming a parallel distributed processing (PDP) framework, describe the process by which the concept ―Mike Tyson is a boxer‖ would be updated to ―Mike Tyson is an actor.‖ ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

The Knowledge Network

OBJ:

9.10

CHAPTER 10

Language LEARNING OBJECTIVES

10.1. Describe the anatomical components of speech production.

10.2. Explain psychological factors that influence speech perception, including segmentation, coarticulation, phonemic restoration, and categorical perception.

10.3. Explain why the rules of syntax are not just a matter of whether an utterance is meaningful or not.

10.4. Explain the difference between prescriptive rules and descriptive rules in language.

10.5. Describe what a garden-path sentence is, and what we can learn from studying this type of sentence.

10.6. Describe the various factors that seem—all at the same time—to influence sentence parsing.

10.7. Describe what prosody is.

10.8. Describe what psycholinguists mean by “pragmatics.”

10.9. Describe the evidence suggesting that humans are biologically prepared to learn language.

10.10.Describe the ways in which animal “languages” seem limited in comparison to human language.

10.11.Describe the hypothesis of linguistic relativity and the status of the claim that language influences thought.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If you put your fingers on your throat and produce a [z] sound, you will feel vibration. This vibration means the [z] sound is a. a fricative. b. nasal. c. dependent on airflow from the nasal cavity. d. voiced.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Production of Speech

2. In some speech sounds, the flow of air out of the lungs is entirely interrupted for a moment; for other sounds, the flow of air is restricted but air continues to flow. This feature of sound production is referred to as a. place of articulation. c. voicing. b. manner of production. d. speech locus.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Production of Speech

3. To produce some sounds, the flow of air out of the lungs is interrupted by the lips; for other sounds, the flow is disrupted by the placement of the tongue and teeth. This feature of sound production is referred to as a. place of articulation. c. voicing. b. manner of production. d. speech locus.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Production of Speech

4. Phonemes that differ in only one production feature sound similar to each other, while phonemes that differ in several production features sound distinct. This suggests all of the following EXCEPT that a. the features of speech production correspond to what listeners hear when listening to speech. b. production and perception are linked. c. errors are more likely when production features are more similar. d. listeners should be able to detect speech sounds simply by isolating individual sounds.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Complexity of Speech Perception

5. The process of ―slicing‖ the stream of speech into successive syllables or words is called a. sound segregation. c. categorical perception. b. speech segmentation. d. articulation.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Complexity of Speech Perception

6. The study of the sounds used in language is usually referred to as a. phonology. c. morphology. b. semantics. d. acoustics.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Phonology

OBJ:

10.2

7. The plural for the word ―pill‖ is pronounced with a [z] sound (it is pronounced ―pillz‖), but the plural for ―pit‖ is pronounced with an [s] sound (―pits‖). This contrast is governed by a rule of a. syntax. c. phonology. b. semantics. d. pragmatics.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Production of Speech

8. In ordinary speech production, the boundaries between syllables or between words are usually a. marked by momentary pauses. b. marked by slight loudness changes. c. marked by slight changes in pitch. d. not marked, so they must be determined by the perceiver.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Complexity of Speech Perception

9. You are flipping through channels on TV when you come upon a French-speaking station. You do not speak French, and you are amazed at how quickly it is spoken. Which of the following factors is most relevant for explaining this reaction? a. You are not able to segment the speech sounds into phonemes, making it sound faster. b. You are not able to produce the speech, therefore you cannot perceive it correctly. c. You do not know the appropriate pronunciation or syntax rules in French. d. French phonemes overlap more than English phonemes, making it sound faster.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Complexity of Speech Perception

10. Speech in a foreign language sounds very fast to a listener with no knowledge of the language. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately explain this fact? a. Coarticulation makes speech seem slower in our own language, but not in a foreign language. b. Unfamiliar listeners lack the skill necessary to segment the speech stream. c. All speech is really an uninterrupted flow of sound. d. Top-down knowledge facilitates how you interpret the words you hear.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Complexity of Speech Perception

11. ―Coarticulation‖ refers to the fact that in producing speech a. the movement of the tongue and lips must be carefully coordinated with the output of air from the lungs. b. phonemes overlap, both in their production and in their sound pattern. c. a single position of the tongue is used for several different speech sounds. d. the tongue must be moved into its appropriate position simultaneously with the positioning of the teeth and lips.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Complexity of Speech Perception

12. The perception of speech is made easier by all of the following EXCEPT that a. there is impressively little variation from one speaker to the next. b. the content of the speech we hear is often predictable on the basis of knowledge external to language. c. the content of the speech we hear is often predictable because of the rules guiding which sounds go together. d. most of the speech we hear employs a relatively small number of words, used over and over again.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Aids to Speech Perception

13. Marcus is talking on the phone to his mother about what he should buy at the grocery store when a garbage truck drives past him. As a result, he is unable to hear what his mom is saying for 3 or 4 seconds. Which of the following is LEAST likely to help him figure out what his mother said? a. previous knowledge of his mother‘s opinions and beliefs b. his memory for the beginning of the sentence she was speaking when cut off c. knowing the conversation was about grocery shopping d. categorical perception ANS: D OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Aids to Speech Perception

15. Often extraneous noise interferes with our ability to hear all the sounds in a stream of speech. If a brief burst of noise prevents a phoneme from being heard (e.g., ―His *ame is Barry‖), what is most likely to occur? a. The listener will not understand the sentence. b. The listener will be able to understand the sentence and will probably not notice that the burst of noise occurred. c. The listener will be able to understand the sentence, will realize that a burst of noise occurred, but probably will not know where the burst occurred.

d.

The listener will be able to understand the sentence, will realize that a burst of noise occurred, and will likely know exactly which phoneme was missing.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Aids to Speech Perception

15. The term ―categorical perception‖ refers to the fact that we are a. better at hearing some categories of sounds than we are at hearing other categories. b. skillful both in identifying categories of sounds and in categorizing the physical characteristics of those sounds. c. better at hearing the difference between sounds from different categories than we are at distinguishing sounds from the same category. d. highly sensitive to variations within a category but less sensitive to the contrast between categories.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Categorical Perception

16. A researcher creates a series of synthetic speech sounds gradually ranging, in uniformly small steps, from a ―ta‖ sound at one extreme to a ―da‖ sound at the other extreme. Participants are asked to identify each of these sounds. The researcher should expect to find that a. as the sounds gradually shift from ―ta‖ to ―da,‖ participants‘ pattern of responding gradually shifts from ―ta‖ to ―da.‖ b. participants identify sounds close to ―ta‖ as ―ta‖ and identify sounds close to ―da‖ as ―da,‖ but they are unable to identify the sounds midway between the two. c. participants‘ identification of the sounds midway between a standard ―ta‖ and a standard ―da‖ is heavily influenced by the identity of the sound they heard just previously. d. participants‘ perceptions of the sounds show an abrupt transition, with all of the sounds closer to ―ta‖ clearly identified as ―ta‖ and all of the sounds closer to ―da‖ clearly identified as ―da.‖ ANS: D OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Categorical Perception

17. The term ―voice-onset time‖ refers to the a. age at which infants begin to produce vocal sounds. b. time that elapses between successive syllables in ordinary speech. c. average length of the pause between two people‘s utterances in a conversation. d. amount of time that elapses between the moment air begins to flow at the start of speech sound and the moment at which voicing begins.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Remembering

Categorical Perception

18. Which of these statements is NOT true of the principles of language? a. A huge number of morphemes, words, and sentences can be created from only a few small units of language. b. The various combinations of units within a language are governed by certain principles (e.g., ―gst‖ is not a usual combination in the English language). c. If a combination of consonants is forbidden in one particular language (e.g., ―tl‖ at the beginning of a word in the English language), then it is also forbidden in every other language. d. In order to be competent speakers of a language, people must know the principles that govern the phonological combinations, as well as the vocabulary and grammar.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

19. In the word ―cats‖ the ―s‖ is a. a morpheme. b. a phoneme.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

c. d.

REF:

Combining Phonemes

a morpheme and a phoneme. neither a morpheme nor a phoneme.

The Organization of Language

20. The smallest units of language that carry meaning are called a. morphemes. c. phonetic elements. b. phonemes. d. words.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Organization of Language

21. The number of phonemes used by the English language is approximately a. 8. c. 150. b. 40. d. several thousand.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Organization of Language

22. For fluent speakers of a language, rules of the language such as how to create new words are often a. deliberately followed by speakers of a language. b. developed through imitation. c. implicit yet are reliably followed by speakers of the language. d. generally ignored.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.4

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Building New Words

23. The claim that ―language is generative‖ is the claim that a. it is always possible to generate new sounds to add to the language. b. the units of language can be combined and recombined to create vast numbers of new linguistic entities. c. language can be used to generate new knowledge and new discoveries. d. scholars have been able to invent an unlimited number of new words, allowing them to express any concept they wish.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Building New Words

24. Rules that describe the proper way to speak, or the way language is supposed to be, are called a. rules of discourse. c. prescriptive rules. b. pragmatic rules. d. syntax rules.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

25. Descriptive rules a. allow us to decide if a particular utterance is ―proper‖ or ―good.‖ b. have the same function as prescriptive rules. c. are mostly used by new speakers who do not yet understand slang or common expressions. d. describe how English is structured.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

26. Which of the following is FALSE about the pattern of linguistic performance? a. Performance often contains errors that the speaker knows how to correct. b. Performance provides a direct assessment of the extent of one‘s linguistic knowledge. c. Performance is influenced by slips, or mistakes, in language. d. Performance often omits language patterns that the speaker is able to use but chooses not to use.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

27. The rules governing the sequence of words in forming phrases and sentences are rules of a. syntax. c. phonology. b. semantics. d. pragmatics.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Syntax

28. Sentences such as ―Colorless green ideas sleep furiously‖ indicate that a. not all sentences need to have a verb phrase.

OBJ:

10.3

b. c. d.

it is possible for a sentence to have an irregular phrase structure. the semantic content of a sentence governs its syntactic form. a sentence can be grammatical even if it is meaningless.

ANS: D MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Syntax

OBJ:

10.3

29. A phrase structure rule is a rule governing a. whether a proposition is expressed as a declarative sentence or as a question. b. whether a proposition is true or false. c. what the constituents must be for any syntactic element of a sentence. d. what contents can be expressed by a sentence.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Phrase Structure

30. Which of the following claims about phrase structure rules is FALSE? a. The rules govern the pattern of branching that is possible in a phrase structure tree. b. The rules determine whether the sentence is true or false. c. Word sequences that break the rules are likely to be judged as ungrammatical. d. The rules identify natural groupings of words within a sentence.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Phrase Structure

31. Which of the following provides an example of phrase structure ambiguity? a. I saw the bear with my binoculars. (Who had the binoculars?) b. He paid a lot for the ball. (Was it a round toy or a formal party?) c. She loves a good whine. (This can be heard as ―a good wine.‖) d. We saw it. (The reference of ―it‖ is unspecified.)

ANS: A OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

The Function of Phrase Structure

32. The fact that languages across the world show the same pattern of regularities leads many researchers to believe that a. the pattern of learning across cultures is similar. b. our vocal muscles determine our language development. c. we have an innate biological heritage stipulating the structure of human language. d. the word order of subject–verb–object occurs in all languages.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Function of Phrase Structure

33. To parse a sentence, one needs to a. figure out the sentence‘s meaning. b. determine whether the sentence is true or false. c. determine the syntactic role of each word in the sentence. d. determine the implications of the sentence.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Sentence Parsing

34. Which of the following is NOT a principle that guides sentence parsing? a. Decisions about the parsing of individual words are not made until the entire sentence has been heard. b. In general, we assume that the sentences we hear will be in the active, not passive, voice. c. Parsing makes use of the small function words (e.g., ―that” and ―which”) to identify the sentence‘s phrase structure. d. The semantics of the sentence are used as an aid in determining the source of the action and the recipient.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Sentence Parsing

35. Which of the following would be considered a garden-path sentence? a. This is it. b. Dogs need cats are silly. c. The woman was terribly happy, but she knew it couldn‘t last for long, because for as long as she could possibly remember everything in her life had ended badly. d. The government plans to raise taxes were defeated.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Garden Paths

36. Garden-path sentences illustrate that a. reading is difficult. b. interpreting a sentence as each word arrives may lead to errors. c. meaning changes depending on the situation. d. we wait until the end of a sentence to interpret the meaning.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Garden Paths

37. In one study of sentence processing, an electroencephalogram (EEG) was used to reveal brain activity while participants heard sentences that were either correct, had a semantic anomaly, or had a statement that contained false information. The evidence from that study suggests that a. electrical activity is the same, regardless of the content of the sentence. b. our previous knowledge of the world influences how we parse sentences. c. errors in syntax are worse than errors of semantics. d. brain activity is at a uniformly high level from the beginning of a sentence until the end.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

38. Parsing is LEAST likely to be influenced by a. semantics. b. statistical probabilities in the language.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

c. d.

REF:

Syntax as a Guide to Parsing

context. prescriptive rules.

Background Knowledge as a Guide to Parsing

39. In some cases factors outside the language (e.g., the setting in which a sentence occurs) can help us understand garden-path sentences.

These factors are referred to as a. syntactic organization. c. wording. b. noun phrasing. d. extralinguistic context.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Extralinguistic Context

40. In speaking, the pattern of pauses and the rise and fall of pitch are technically referred to as a. prosody. c. stress patterns. b. musicality. d. expressiveness.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Prosody

OBJ:

10.7

41. Knowing about how language is ordinarily used is technically called a. pronominalization. c. pragmatics. b. conversational implications. d. psycholinguistics.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Pragmatics

OBJ:

10.8

42. Barbara is 6 years old and has normal intelligence and muscle control, and no evidence of brain damage. However, she has a hard time understanding and producing language, and seems especially slow in detecting and using the regularities of language (such as the fact that ―-ed‖ marks the past tense). She likely has a. Broca‘s aphasia. c. Wernicke‘s aphasia. b. anomia. d. specific language impairment.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Biological Roots of Language

43. Nonfluent aphasia, in which a patient has good language comprehension but disrupted speech production, is typically associated with damage to a. the corpus callosum. c. Wernicke‘s area. b. Broca‘s area. d. the sensorimotor area.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Understanding

Moderate

REF:

Aphasias

OBJ:

10.9

44. Mike suffered damage to the left frontal lobe of his brain and now has a difficult time speaking or writing. Mike most likely has a. Wernicke‘s aphasia. c. Broca‘s aphasia. b. fluent aphasia. d. anomia.

ANS: C MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Aphasias

OBJ:

10.9

45. Stephen and Stephanie both have problems with speech. Stephen‘s disorder is characterized with speech such as ―Um . . . the . . . ahhh . . . I want . . . green . . . it‘s green.‖ Stephanie‘s disorder is characterized with speech such as ―It is easy because . . . boys are looking but they look . . . see the cat is with the boys and machines and purple.‖ Stephen is most likely suffering from ________, while Stephanie is suffering from ________. a. Wernicke‘s aphasia; Broca‘s aphasia b. Wernicke‘s aphasia; specific language impairment c. Broca‘s aphasia; Wernicke‘s aphasia d. specific language impairment; Broca‘s aphasia ANS: C MSC: Evaluating

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Aphasias

OBJ:

10.9

46. Research suggests that genetic factors contribute to language acquisition. For example, some people have an inherited syndrome known as specific language impairment. These people typically a. have underdeveloped muscles needed for speech production. b. have damage to Wernicke‘s area. c. are less likely to learn and use the rules of language. d. also show an impairment in intelligence.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Biology of Language Learning

47. Which of the following is NOT consistent with the idea that children learn language even if their communication with adults is not linguistic? a. Children born deaf without the opportunity to learn sign language invent their own gestural language. b. Children begin the language-learning process with a head start. c. Children have the brain structures in place at birth to facilitate language learning. d. Children learn languages more quickly than adults.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.9

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Biology of Language Learning

48. The text argues that children‘s overregularization errors are caused by a(n) a. immature brain. b. overreliance on a linguistic rule that precedes a mature understanding of when rules apply. c. loss of previous understanding of irregular forms of words. d. lack of (even unconscious) understanding of linguistic rules.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Processes of Language Learning

49. Linguistic rules seem to be the source of children‘s overregularization errors. This sort of error is visible, for example, whenever a child a. uses a regular sequence of words to express an idea even though a different sequence would be

b. c. d.

more effective. sees a squirrel and says, ―There‘s a cat!‖ says, ―I goed‖ or ―He runned.‖ fails to distinguish between similar speech sounds.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Processes of Language Learning

50. Which of the following aspects of human communication is LEAST likely in the communication of other species? a. sounds that are linked to ideas c. a communicative partner b. syntax d. gestures ANS: B OBJ: 10.9 | 10.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Animal Language

51. Research conducted to understand animal language suggests that a. animals do not communicate. b. no animals, besides humans, can learn language. c. some animals may be able to use language at a very basic level (akin to that of a 3- or 4-year-old). d. with enough training, animals can acquire language skills similar to those of a human adult.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Animal Language

52. Young children can learn language in a huge range of environments. Which of the following, however, seems most crucial in supporting normal language learning? a. having another human with whom to communicate b. attending school c. being younger than 5 years old d. being exposed to music ANS: A OBJ: 10.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Animal Language

53. In the 1950s, the anthropologist Benjamin Whorf argued that a person‘s language powerfully and irreversibly determines the possible range of that person‘s thoughts. In subsequent decades, this claim a. has been repeatedly supported, with examples coming from many different content areas. b. has been supported by the discovery that different cultures describe spatial arrangements in different ways and seem unable to learn new ways to describe these arrangements. c. has found little specific support, with the implication that language certainly guides our thoughts but does not influence what it is possible for someone to think. d. seems correct for some domains (e.g., color perception) but not for other domains (e.g., thinking about spatial relations).

ANS: C OBJ: 10.11

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Language and Thought

54. Participant M speaks a language with a variety of color words, while Participant Q speaks a language that only differentiates between light and dark. Who is more likely to have more specific color discrimination? a. Participant M c. They will have equal color perception. b. Participant Q d. We cannot tell based on this evidence.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.11

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Linguistic Relativity

55. There is some evidence that being bilingual has other cognitive advantages. Which of the following is NOT one of those supposed advantages? a. improved executive control b. better at avoiding distraction c. improved ability to switch between tasks d. improved long-term memory for everyday events ANS: D MSC: Analyzing

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Bilingualism

OBJ:

10.11

56. Which of the following is NOT true regarding speech perception? a. It is aided by the fact that we encounter a relatively limited number of words on a daily basis compared with the number of words we can use. b. It differs from other types of perception in that it relies more heavily on bottom-up processes, such as the identification of phonemes. c. It relies on a variety of factors, such as the phonemic restoration effect, to help resolve confusion and ambiguities. d. It can be changed based on the context.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Aids to Speech Perception

57. Although the words ―pool‖ and ―palace‖ both begin with the [p] sound, the actual production of the [p] sound is different due to a process known as a. speech segmentation. c. categorical perception. b. coarticulation. d. speech perception.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

58. The word ―rechecked‖ has a. two morphemes. b. two phonemes.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

c. d.

REF:

The Complexity of Speech Perception

three morphemes. three phonemes.

The Organization of Language

59. How many morphemes does the word ―reachable‖ have? a. two c. four b. three d. five ANS: A OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Organization of Language

60. Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with the idea that background knowledge and context influence sentence parsing? a. People generally parse ambiguous sentences in ways that are consistent with what they know to be true or common in the world. b. People are often momentarily confused when a sentence conflicts with their stereotypes (e.g., the stereotype that secretaries are generally female). c. People cannot comprehend a garden-path sentence once they have been led astray because of the inherent ambiguity in the sentence. d. People are less likely to be confused about the interpretation of an ambiguous sentence if there is a picture present to guide their understanding.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.5 | 10.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Background Knowledge as a Guide to Parsing

61. Which of the following statements is true regarding animal communication systems? a. They are as rich and complex as human languages. b. They are naturally symbolic. c. They are found only in animals who are genetically similar to humans, such as gorillas. d. They do not allow for the production of an unlimited number of unique forms.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Animal Language

62. Which of the following ideas is MOST consistent with Whorf‘s strong claim of linguistic relativity? a. Language determines the types of concepts and thoughts a person can have. b. Language biases the types of concepts and thoughts a person can have. c. Language is one of many factors that influence the types of concepts and thoughts a person can have. d. Language plays an indirect role in the kinds of concepts and thoughts a person can have.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.11

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Linguistic Relativity

63. If Whorf‘s strong claims of linguistic relativity were proven to be correct, which of the following is LEAST likely to be true? a. Two English-speaking children raised in very different socioeconomic environments should develop some different mental categories and ways of thinking, despite both technically speaking English. b. Two children who speak different languages that make similar distinctions between colors should develop similar concepts of ―blue‖ and ―green.‖ c. A child who speaks a language that does not make a distinction between the concepts of ―blue‖ and ―green‖ could learn the distinction with enough practice later in life. d. A child who speaks a language without a linguistic representation for time should not be able to think about the concept of time.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.11

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Linguistic Relativity

64. Some evidence on bilingual children suggests that a bilingual child might find which of the following activities easier than a monolingual child? a. focusing on homework while a younger sibling plays loudly nearby b. memorizing the definitions of a long list of vocabulary words all at once c. reading a garden-path sentence out loud d. segmenting speech in a foreign language ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Bilingualism

OBJ:

10.11

65. Evidence regarding bilingual children suggests that a. bilingual children consistently maintain cognitive advantages over monolingual children across the lifespan. b. bilingual children have larger vocabularies compared to monolingual children. c. bilingualism seems the best way to improve executive control, but more research needs to be done to confirm the finding. d. bilingualism and its effects on cognition need further research, as results on its advantages on cognition have been mixed.

ANS: D DIF: MSC: Understanding

Easy

REF:

Bilingualism

OBJ:

10.11

ESSAY 1. Do chimpanzees have the biological ability to produce language the way that humans do? Consider both the cerebral and anatomical requirements in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Biological Roots of Language

OBJ:

10.1 | 10.9

2. Speech production involves just a few simple elements, yet speech perception is in many ways complex. Describe the factors that contribute to this complexity, and then describe the factors that can facilitate our ability to perceive speech.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Easy 10.2

REF: The Complexity of Speech Perception MSC: Understanding

3. You are enjoying lunch with a friend on a patio one fine spring afternoon. Right in the middle of her sentence, a loud motorcycle speeds by, preventing you from hearing a key word. However, you don‘t notice the obstruction. Explain how this happens, from a speech perception perspective.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Aids to Speech Perception

OBJ:

10.2

4. You take a trip to Mexico with your friend for spring break. You do not speak any Spanish, but your friend has taken one semester.

While out one night, you comment that everyone in Mexico speaks so quickly, but your friend disagrees. Considering the fact that you both hear the same individuals talking, why do you perceive the speech so differently? What factors contribute to your friend‘s perception and to your perception?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 10.11

REF: The Complexity of Speech Perception MSC: Analyzing

5. It is likely that you speak very differently to your grandmother than you do to your friends. Define the rules that govern your language choices, and describe how the situation influences which rules you use.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 10.4

REF: Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules MSC: Applying

6. Explain why a sentence like ―The man who hunts ducks out on the weekends‖ is likely to be initially misinterpreted by many readers.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Garden Paths

OBJ:

10.5

7. Describe the ways that top-down processing contributes to speech perception. How can this occasionally lead us astray?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Sentence Parsing

OBJ:

10.6

8. Compare and contrast the linguistic functions of Broca‘s and Wernicke‘s areas. Include in your discussion the behavioral changes that are associated with damage to the areas.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Biological Roots of Language

OBJ:

10.9

9. Describe the factors that contribute to language learning in children. What factors facilitate language learning? What factors or tendencies can lead to problems?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Biological Roots of Language

OBJ:

10.9

10. A friend of yours is thinking of enrolling his 4-year-old in a bilingual preschool, wherein the children are taught in English and in Mandarin. Would you support this move? Why or why not? Make sure you include empirical evidence in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Biological Roots of Language

OBJ:

10.11

CHAPTER 11

Visual Knowledge LEARNING OBJECTIVES

11.1. Describe the method and evidence from image scanning studies and mental rotation tasks.

11.2. Explain what the results of mental rotation and mental scanning experiments tell us about the nature of mental representations.

11.3. In what ways are mental imagery and pictures similar? How are they different?

11.4. Evaluate the role that demand characteristics might have in experiments of visual imagery.

11.5. Describe the biological and functional parallels between visualizing and vision.

11.6. Explain the difference between visual and spatial imagery.

11.7. Explain how and why people might differ in their imagery experiences.

11.8. Describe how verbal labels influence visual memory.

11.9. Explain why it is beneficial to remember information in more than one form.

11.10.Explain how memory for pictures is similar to memory for other (nonpictorial) stimuli.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A psychologist asks her experimental participants to describe their experiences using mental imagery. The psychologist is collecting a. sentence verification results. c. chronometric evidence. b. self-report data. d. converging evidence.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Introspections about Images

2. When participants are asked to report on their imagery experience, we discover that a. imagery is employed less often than researchers have proposed. b. many individuals prefer not to use mental imagery. c. participants differ widely in how they describe the experience. d. visual imagery is a skill shared by all people.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Introspections about Images

3. Chronometric studies a. are time-measuring techniques used to record how long it takes to complete a mental process. b. have been relatively uninformative for the study of complex mental events. c. have documented the descriptive (languagelike) properties of mental imagery. d. require an understanding of the brain events underlying a particular mental function.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

4. Participants are given a task that requires them to zoom in on a mental image in order to inspect a detail. Evidence indicates that a. the greater the distance to be zoomed, the more time is required. b. the shorter the distance to be zoomed, the more time is required. c. zooming in on an image is a virtually instantaneous process. d. there is no regular relationship between the amount of zoom and the time required.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

5. One group of participants (Group 1) is instructed to imagine a cat, and the participants are then asked several yes/no questions about their image. A second group of participants (Group 2) is instructed simply to think about cats, with no mention of imagery, and the participants are then asked the same yes/no questions. We expect that participants in Group 1 will respond more quickly than participants in Group 2 to which of the following questions? a. Does the cat have a head? c. Is the cat a mammal? b. Does the cat have whiskers? d. Does the cat have claws?

ANS: A OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

6. Studies of image scanning indicate that a. participants‘ scanning rate is slow for short distances but is faster for greater distances. b. there is a linear function linking scanning distances and scanning times. c. the fastest scanning times tend to be obtained with moderate scanning distances. d. participants are able to scan across their images virtually instantaneously.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

7. Matt is shown pictures of two three-dimensional shapes and asked to determine if the shapes are identical, but simply viewed from different angles. Answering this question requires Matt to imagine one of the shapes rotating into (possible) alignment with the other.

Which of the following statements about Matt‘s task is true? a. The larger the required the rotation, the faster responding will be. b. The smaller the required rotation, the slower responding will be. c. The time it takes will be the same, regardless of the required rotation. d. There is a systematic correlation between the required rotation and reaction time.

ANS: D

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:

11.1

MSC: Applying

8. If participants are asked to form a visual image of an object, such as a dog, information that will be prominent in the mental image a. tends to concern aspects that are strongly associated with, or distinctive for, the imaged object. b. matches the pattern of information prominent in a description of the imaged object. c. corresponds well with the information that is prominent in an actual picture. d. is similar to the information prominent in other forms of mental representation.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

9. Which of the following claims is true for a depiction of a cat but NOT for a description of a cat? a. Properties strongly associated with the cat (e.g., whiskers) will be particularly prominent. b. The distinctive features of the cat (e.g., claws) will be particularly prominent. c. Aspects of the cat that are obvious (e.g., the fact that the cat has a body) are likely not to be prominent. d. The cat‘s head will probably be prominent, but the cat‘s claws are likely not to be.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

10. A researcher asks a participant to memorize a city map. On the map, the library and the school are 2 inches apart; the school and the hospital are 4 inches apart. The researcher now instructs the participant to form an image of the map and to scan from the library to the school. The researcher then asks the participant to scan from the school to the hospital. It is most likely true that the scanning time from the school to the hospital is ________ the scanning time between the library and the school. a. half c. the same as b. triple d. double ANS: D OBJ: 11.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

11. Studies of mental rotation indicate that a. participants are able to imagine the rotation of a two-dimensional display but are unable to imagine rotation in depth. b. the greater the degree of rotation required, the more time is needed to imagine the rotation. c. participants seem able to compare objects in mental imagery without bothering to imagine these objects rotated into alignment. d. imagined rotation in depth is appreciably faster than imagined rotation in two dimensions.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Mental Rotation

12. In some studies, participants have been asked to visualize a particular stimulus (e.g., the letter A). If the same stimulus is then presented at low contrast, the prior visualization a. has no effect on the perception of the stimulus. b. primes perception, but no more than when participants were asked to visualize a different letter (e.g., the letter B). c. disrupts perception of the stimulus. d. serves to prime perception of the stimulus.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Imagery and Perception

13. In a study by Segal and Fusella, participants were asked to visualize one stimulus while attempting to detect a different, rather faint, signal that was either visual or auditory in nature. The data indicate that the activity of visualization a. disrupted the detection of a visual signal but had less impact on the detection of an auditory signal. b. served to prime the visual system and the auditory system, promoting the detection of both signals. c. served as a general distracter, disrupting the detection of either a visual or an auditory signal. d. had no impact on the detection of the signal.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Imagery and Perception

15. Bobby wants to be a ―good participant‖ in an experiment, so he tries to perform in a way that will impress the experimenter. Bobby is sensitive to the experiment‘s a. demand character. c. internal validity. b. external validity. d. ecological validity.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Concern about Demand Character

15. In some cases, participants (often unknowingly) change their responses to what they think the experimenter is looking for. Here participants are said to be sensitive to the ________ of the experiment. a. demand character c. implicit hypothesis b. imagined response d. mental weightings ANS: A OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Concern about Demand Character

16. Studies of moment-by-moment brain activity indicate that a. the activity of visualization produces widespread activation of the brain, particularly in the left hemisphere. b. the brain regions needed for visualization do not overlap with the brain regions needed for actual vision. c. when participants are visualizing, activity levels are high in many of the brain regions crucial for visual perception. d. different people employ different brain areas to support their visualizing.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Imagery and Perception

17. Damage to brain areas needed for vision a. usually has little impact on visualizing. b. generally has opposite effects on visualizing and on vision. c. is likely to destroy the patient‘s ability to create detailed images, but leaves other aspects of visualization intact. d. often has disruptive effects for visualizing similar to the disruption observed for visual perception.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Imagery and Perception

18. The technique of transcranial magnetic stimulation employs strong magnetic pulses at a particular site on the scalp. When this technique is applied to the scalp near Area V1, the effect is a. to give the participant rich and detailed hallucinations. b. a temporary disruption of vision but not visual imagery. c. a permanent disruption of visual imagery, and therefore use of the technique is unethical. d. a temporary disruption of vision and visual imagery.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Imagery and Perception

19. Bradley suffers from the pattern termed ―visual neglect.‖ He is asked to imagine that he is looking at the front of his home and to describe everything he can see. His response will be a. detailed for the entire scene. b. more detailed for the left side of the scene. c. more detailed for the right side of the scene. d. based on his schema of a house, not his own house.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Imagery and Perception

20. Evidence from fMRI studies indicates that people show similar patterns of activity in the brain when viewing objects as they do when ________ the objects. a. visualizing c. thinking about the names of b. talking about d. avoiding thinking about ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Visual Imagery and the Brain

OBJ:

11.5

MSC: Understanding

21. The ________ face area of the visual cortex is highly active for faces, while the ________ place area is highly active for places. a. fusiform; fusiform c. parahippocampal; fusiform b. fusiform; parahippocampal d. ventral; dorsal ANS: B OBJ: 11.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Visual Imagery and the Brain

22. ________ imagery is associated with how things look, while ________ imagery is associated with an abstract form or arrangement. a. Spatial; visual c. Spatial; eidetic b. Visual; spatial d. Sensory; perceptual ANS: B OBJ: 11.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Spatial Images and Visual Images

23. Participants are asked to perform an imagery task while simultaneously keeping track of a visual target (a light that is not moving, but varies in brightness). The visual task will a. disrupt the imagery task. b. have no effect on the imagery task. c. disrupt the imagery task if it requires visual imagery but not if the task can be done with spatial imagery. d. cause the images to be less vivid but will have no other effects.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Spatial Images and Visual Images

24. Mona has been blind since birth. Which of the following is most likely true about her imagery abilities? a. Her imagery abilities, like her other senses, are superior to those of sighted individuals. b. Her performance on many imagery tasks is similar to the performance of sighted individuals. c. She will be unable to perform most tasks requiring mental imagery. d. She will be unable to perform mental imagery tasks, unlike participants who lost their sight gradually over time.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Spatial Images and Visual Images

25. Brian‘s brain was damaged because of a stroke, and he has lost the ability to do tasks that require judgments about visual appearance, including tasks requiring him to think about an object‘s color. On the basis of other evidence, Brian a. may still be able to perform normally on spatial tasks. b. will also be unable to do auditory tasks, including tasks requiring him to think about pitch. c. will also be unable to do image scanning. d. will also be unable to perform mental rotation tasks.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Spatial Images and Visual Images

26. Participants‘ self-reports about their imagery vividness a. are often correlated with their performances on visual tasks but not with their performances on spatial tasks. b. are generally uncorrelated with their performances on imagery tasks. c. seem to represent only the manner in which participants describe their imagery and do not represent actual differences in the imagery experience. d. are correlated with the ease with which participants can do mental rotation tasks.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Individual Differences in Imagery

27. The term ―photographic memory‖ is used in many settings. When researchers are discussing highly detailed, fully visual memory, though, they use the term a. super-recognition. c. perfect perception. b. hyperthymnesia. d. eidetic imagery.

ANS: D

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Eidetic Imagery

OBJ:

11.7

MSC: Remembering

28. Hank seems to have eidetic imagery. This means that after viewing a picture for a short amount of time, he will a. be able to describe the spatial layout of the objects shown in the picture. b. be able to describe many tiny details in the picture, as if he were still viewing the picture. c. use mnemonic techniques to describe the gist of the image. d. not be able to remember the image at all.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Eidetic Imagery

29. The textbook considers various arguments concerning the relationship between pictures and percepts. According to the text, pictures are a. depictions, and percepts are descriptions. b. descriptions, and percepts are depictions. c. ambiguous, and percepts are organized and apparently unambiguous. d. organized and thus unambiguous, and percepts are ambiguous.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Images Are Not Pictures

30. Evidence indicates that a. discoveries flow easily from mental imagery provided that the discoveries are compatible with both the image‘s depiction and its reference frame. b. mental imagery rarely serves as a source for creative discovery. c. participants consistently find new and unexpected forms in their own mental images. d. participants have an easier time making discoveries from their own mental images if the discoveries require a shift in the image‘s reference frame.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Images Are Not Pictures

31. The picture of the duck/rabbit is ambiguous. However, consider someone who is inspecting a visual image of this form. If the person does not already know how to reinterpret this picture, the person is unlikely to discover the alternative interpretation by inspecting the image. But hints such as ―Try thinking about the form as facing to the right‖ can help the person to see both aspects of the image. Why would this hint help? a. This hint alters the image‘s reference frame. b. This hint encourages mental rotation. c. This hint alters the depiction. d. This hint acts like a new retrieval pathway for the object.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Images Are Not Pictures

32. Researchers have argued that visual images are created by a. activating large-scale ―templates‖ in long-term memory. b. following ―recipes‖ for the image construction, with the recipes drawn from image files in longterm memory. c. activating the relevant neurons on the retina. d. activating nodes within long-term memory that happen to be associated with sensory information.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Image Information in Long-Term Memory

33. The term ―image file‖ refers to a. the information that can be derived from a close inspection of a mental image. b. the portion of long-term storage that contains all of one‘s knowledge about visual appearances. c. the memory representation of a basic element of visual appearance, such as the representation for ―red‖ or ―circular.‖ d. descriptive information in long-term memory used as the basis for creating an active image.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Image Information in Long-Term Memory

34. The text argues that image files in long-term memory a. are distinctive because special processes (like scanning or zooming) operate on them. b. hold large-scale ―templates‖ indicating how the imaged form looks. c. contain the instructions needed to create a mental image. d. usually contain a picture-like representation of an image.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Image Information in Long-Term Memory

35. When asked to determine which city is farther south, Seattle or Montreal, people are likely to mistakenly say ―Seattle.‖ This is probably because a. people depend on their ―gut feelings‖ when they don‘t know an answer. b. some spatial information is stored in memory in a propositional form rather than an image form. c. people are great at reading visual images and can discover surprising facts in them. d. people are poor at reading visual images, and so images are no help in this type of problem.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

36. In a memory experiment, participants were shown a form that could be interpreted in more than one way. Half the participants were told, ―Here is a picture of the sun.‖ The other participants were told, ―Here is a picture of a ship‘s steering wheel.‖ Some time later, participants were asked to draw the exact visual form they had seen earlier. The data indicate that a. participants‘ visual memories were distinct from their verbal memories, so participants were uninfluenced by the labels. b. participants‘ drawings were biased in a fashion that reflected the labels they had been given earlier. c. the labels had called attention to the ambiguity of the figures, leading to improved memory accuracy. d. participants were able to remember only the labels, not the drawings.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

37. Homer, Lisa, and Moe are asked to remember pairs of words. Homer tries to accomplish this task by rehearsing the words over and over again. Lisa decides to create a narrative combining the words. Finally, Moe decides to imagine the objects interacting in some way. Who is likely to have the WORST memory for the words? a. Homer c. Moe b. Lisa d. They will remember them equally well.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Imagery Helps Memory

38. In memorizing new material, it is helpful if one imagines the items a. interacting with each other in some way. b. in a typical situation. c. close to each other but separated so that each is easily visible. d. one by one so that the items do not blur together.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.9

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

39. According to the dual-coding framework proposed by Paivio, a word like ―chair‖ is ________ than a word like ―faith.‖ a. easier to memorize c. more easily confused with another word b. more difficult to memorize d. easier to identify ANS: A OBJ: 11.9

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Imagery Helps Memory

40. Words that easily evoke imagery, like ―ball,‖ are ________ relative to words like ―hope.‖ a. more easily remembered c. remembered equally as well b. less easily remembered d. unlikely to be remembered ANS: A OBJ: 11.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Imagery Helps Memory

41. In memorizing new material, the pattern of ―dual coding‖ refers to a. the strategy of encoding the material from two separate visual perspectives. b. the process of encoding the material on two separate occasions. c. steps that lead to both a verbal memory and a visual memory. d. the formation of a mental image in which the target item is in two separate relationships with its surrounding context.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Remembering

Moderate

REF:

Dual Coding

OBJ:

11.9

42. Gertrude is shown a picture of a backyard and later asked to replicate the image by drawing it. When compared to the original, her drawing has a ―zoomed-out‖ perspective, and it includes more of the background than the original image actually did. This tendency is called a. wide-angle memory. c. eidetic imagery. b. larger context. d. boundary extension.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.10

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Memory for Pictures

43. Memory for pictures a. tends to be excellent, but rarely includes specific visual details about the pictures. b. shows an influence of schematic knowledge, just like memories of other sorts. c. is not influenced by rehearsal. d. is accurate even for elements of the picture that were not closely attended during the initial encoding.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.10

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Memory for Pictures

44. In one study on picture memory, researchers showed participants pictures of typical scenes, such as a bedroom. In each typical scene there were some unexpected objects (e.g., a washing machine). During the test, participants were shown the same scene with a few changes. Results from this study indicate that a. participants rarely noticed any changes in the scene. b. only changes to the largest objects (e.g. the bed) were noticed. c. changes to the unexpected objects were often noticed. d. changes to the typical objects were usually noticed.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory for Pictures

45. Which of following statements is FALSE about memory for pictures? a. Picture memory benefits from rehearsal. b. Picture memory is affected by schematic knowledge. c. Picture memory can be affected by intrusion errors. d. Picture memory does not show the primacy or recency effect.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Memory for Pictures

46. The concept of boundary extension suggests that a. people understand a picture by means of a perceptual schema. b. schemas influence memory for images, but not as much as they influence memory for verbal information. c. people remember pictures in a ―zoomed-in‖ manner. d. semantic knowledge has no influence on memory for images.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.10

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Memory for Pictures

47. Which of the following sentences would best describe the notion of boundary extension? a. ―Don‘t judge a book by its cover.‖ c. ―Don‘t believe everything you see.‖ b. ―Think about the big picture.‖ d. ―Seeing is believing.‖ ANS: B

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Memory for Pictures

OBJ:

11.10

MSC: Analyzing

48. Boundary extension suggests that, if given a picture of a classroom with a chalkboard, desks, and students, people are likely to a. remember it as less of a close-up than it actually was, adding bookshelves or other objects that routinely appear in classrooms. b. include objects that were not part of the original scene, such as a teacher. c. remember the salient objects, such as desks, but neglect the background, such as the chalkboard. d. remember it with great accuracy.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Memory for Pictures

49. With respect to the storage of images, how are images different from other mental representations? a. They are different in working memory, but not in long-term memory. b. They are not different. c. They are not susceptible to encoding specificity effects. d. Memory for images is more complete relative to memory for other representations.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Diversity of Knowledge

50. Which of the following is true regarding presentation of two different inputs, one to each eye, that cannot be combined by the visual system (also known as binocular-rivalry presentation)? a. You will be aware of the left input first and then the right input (if you are an English speaker), as we are primed to view things on the left first because that is how we read. b. You can be influenced as to which input you will likely see first if you are asked to visualize one of the two inputs beforehand. c. You will be aware of one input for a few moments, then the other input for a few moments, but there is no way to predict which one you will see first. d. You can be influenced to see whichever input you would like first by ignoring demand characteristics.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Imagery and Perception

51. Which of the following statements is true regarding how visual imagery affects the perception of other objects? a. Visual imagery interferes equally with your ability to perceive visual and auditory stimuli. b. Visual imagery can interfere with your ability to perceive auditory information, but not your ability to perceive visual information. c. Visual imagery can either improve or interfere with your ability to perceive visual information, depending on the relationship between what you‘re visualizing and what you‘re trying to perceive. d. Visual imagery does not interact with your ability to perceive.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Imagery and Perception

52. One technique researchers have used to directly test whether demand characteristics are influencing the results of mental scanning tasks is a. to scan the participant‘s brain and to see if areas of the brain associated with imagery are active. b. to explicitly tell participants to not pay attention to any cues that the experimenter may be giving. c. to ask participants to make judgments about spatial layout as if they were looking at an actual picture. d. to ask participants to make judgments about spatial layout without ever mentioning the idea of ―imagery.‖ ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Concern about Demand Character

53. In image-scanning procedures, evidence suggests that demand characteristics are a. likely to be the reason why participants show the pattern of longer response times with longer scans, because participants draw on their knowledge of the world and ―simulate‖ that experience. b. not the likely the cause of why participants show the pattern of longer response times. c. likely to be the reason why participants show the pattern of longer response times with shorter scans, because participants calculate and base their reaction times on how long they expect it would

d.

take to complete the task. not the likely reason why participants show the pattern of longer response times with longer scans, but experiments are unable to rule out the demand character explanation.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Concern about Demand Character

54. An individual suffering from unilateral neglect experiences an impaired ability to do which of the following? a. report the details on the left side of space when describing both what they see in the real world and what they visualize b. report the details on the left side of space when describing what they see in the real world, but show no impairment for reporting the details of the left side of their visualized space c. report the details on the left side of space when describing what they have visualized, but show no impairment for reporting the details of the left side of space in the real world d. report any details of what they are asked to visualize as they are considered ―non-imagers‖ ANS: A OBJ: 11.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Visual Imagery and Brain Disruption

55. Which of the following is true regarding spatial imagery and its relationship to visual imagery? a. Spatial imagery first requires visual imagery to map the spatial layout, but it is then represented as a series of imagined movements. b. Spatial imagery does not rely on the same areas of the brain as visual imagery, so damage to visual areas will not interfere with spatial imagery. c. There is no distinction between spatial imagery and visual imagery. d. Spatial imagery relies on some of the same areas of the brain as visual imagery, so damage to visual areas will impact visual as well as some aspects of spatial imagery.

ANS: B OBJ: 11.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Spatial Images and Visual Images

56. Which of the following statements best describes what is known about spatial imagery in blind individuals? a. Individuals who have been blind since birth do not have spatial imagery because they have never developed an understanding of what items looks like. b. Individuals who become blind later in life have intact spatial imagery because they were previously able to map out a visual layout of space even though they can no longer do so. c. Individuals who have been blind since birth have intact spatial memory, represented by series of imagined movements or some broader cognitive ability about spatial arrangements. d. Individuals who become blind later in life have intact spatial imagery because they can remember what it was like to see and can still visually map a layout of space.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Spatial Images and Visual Images

57. Which of the following findings is most consistent with the propositional theory of knowledge? a. When asked whether San Diego or Reno is farther west, participants respond remarkably accurately, as they can easily conjure a visual representation of a map of the United States for reference. b. When asked whether a mouse has whiskers, participants are slower to respond if they are first asked to imagine a mouse standing next to an elephant. c. When asked to draw a picture from memory, participants tend to show more of the background than was actually present in the original image. d. When asked to draw an ambiguous image from memory, the ambiguity will disappear and will look more like whatever semantic label was given to the image during the original presentation.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

ESSAY 1. Describe the various experimental techniques that psychologists have used to study visual imagery. Include a brief description of the task and the basic findings. Which of these techniques rely on self-report? Describe the strengths and weaknesses of relying on selfreport to study visual imagery.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:

11.1 | 11.2

2. Describe the method and results from one chronometric study of visual imagery. Next, argue for or against the idea that demand characteristics could lead to that pattern of behavior and results.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 11.1 | 11.4

REF: The Concern about Demand Character MSC: Analyzing

3. How do imagery and perception influence and interact with one another? Under what circumstances will they work together to facilitate processing and memory? Under what circumstances will they interfere with one another and potentially hinder processing?

What does this tell us about the nature of imagery?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Imagery and Perception OBJ:

11.3

4. Compare and contrast imagery and perception. In what ways are they similar? How do they differ?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Imagery and Perception OBJ:

11.3

5. David suffers from unilateral neglect. Describe the visual and mental imagery abnormalities that he likely experiences.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 11.5

REF: Visual Imagery and Brain Disruption MSC: Applying

6. Differentiate between visual imagery and spatial imagery by considering the experiences of a blind person. Use a mental rotation task as the basis for your evaluation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Spatial Images and Visual Images

OBJ:

11.6

7. Describe the circumstances under which someone would be classified as having a true ―photographic‖ (or, more precisely, ―eidetic‖) memory.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

How Does Vivid Imagery Matter?

OBJ:

11.7

8. How could one improve his or her visual memory? List the techniques that can be used and describe which approaches are most effective. What does this suggest about the nature of imagery within memory, generally?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Long-Term Visual Memory

OBJ:

11.7 | 11.9

9. Long-term memory (LTM) contains images that can include verbal labels or visual representations. Compare and contrast the effects that these two sources of information have on memory by answering the following questions: a. What sort of memory errors would you expect when verbal labels are stored? Visual representations? b. Why would it be beneficial to have both forms of information in LTM? ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Long-Term Visual Memory

OBJ:

11.8 | 11.9

10. Describe how memory for pictures is similar to other kinds of long-term memories, and then describe how it is different.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Imagery Helps Memory OBJ:

11.10

CHAPTER 12

Judgment and Reasoning LEARNING OBJECTIVES

12.1. Compare and contrast the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic.

12.2. Explain the strategy of attribute substitution.

12.3. Describe the factors that contribute to illusions of covariation, including base-rate neglect.

12.4. Compare and contrast Type 1 and Type 2 thinking.

12.5. Explain how factors like previous knowledge and how the problem is presented influence our thinking and our judgments.

12.6. Identify incidents of confirmation bias in research and real-world settings.

12.7. Describe the logical errors (and successes) that are commonly made when reasoning from syllogisms.

12.8. Describe the Wason four-card task and what the results suggest about logical reasoning.

12.9. Describe how framing a problem can influence the decision-making process.

12.10.Explain the various effects that emotion can have on judgments and decision making.

12.11.Explain what affective forecasting is and how accurate it is.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a frequency judgment? a. ―You‘ve only worn that shirt once since I gave it to you!‖ b. ―I am certain that he is lying.‖ c. ―There certainly are a lot of pizzerias in this neighborhood.‖ d. ―The number of truly caring physicians is getting smaller and smaller.‖ ANS: B OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Attribute Substitution

2. Tonya is trying to decide which candidate to vote for in the upcoming election. The two candidates have similar positions, and Tonya is having a hard time choosing between them. She decides, therefore, simply to vote for the one who looks more like her idea of a ―natural leader.‖ It seems that Tonya is using ________ to make her decision. a. a frequency estimate c. base rates b. attribute substitution d. the availability heuristic ANS: B OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Attribute Substitution

3. Heuristics are strategies that a. sometimes risk error in order to gain efficiency. b. are underused, despite their advantages. c. protect us from overestimating the frequency of real-life events. d. ensure step-by-step procedures for finding correct conclusions.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Availability Heuristic

4. The availability heuristic is a strategy in which a. category frequencies tend to be overestimated. b. people base their estimates of frequency on how easily they can think of examples of the relevant category. c. people judge frequency by referring to their sense of familiarity with the category. d. category frequencies are estimated on the basis of schematic knowledge.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Availability Heuristic

5. ―I can easily think of the names of several dishonest politicians, so I‘m certain there are a lot of dishonest politicians!‖ This is an example of a judgment relying on a. illusory covariation. c. anchoring. b. representativeness. d. the availability heuristic.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Availability Heuristic

6. Many of us overestimate our own popularity. This could be because we surround ourselves with people who like us, rather than with people who do not. Therefore, it is easier for us to think of the names of people who like us than it is to think of the names of our enemies. This overestimation of popularity seems to derive from using a. anchoring. c. the atmosphere pattern. b. base rates. d. the availability heuristic.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Availability Heuristic

7. The availability heuristic a. is a time-consuming strategy, so it is employed by participants only when a judgment requires special care. b. leads us to overestimate frequency if category members are particularly difficult to remember. c. leads us to underestimate frequency because there are usually more category members beyond the ones we recall. d. often, but not always, leads to correct estimates because availability in memory is often correlated with frequency in the world.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Availability Heuristic

8. In several studies, participants have been asked to estimate the frequency of occurrence for various causes of death. The evidence suggests that participants‘ frequency estimates are strongly influenced by a. whether the cause of death was related to natural forces (e.g., lightning, tornado). b. how often the cause of death is discussed in the news media. c. whether the cause of death is associated with prolonged suffering. d. how well the cause of death fits with participants‘ schematic knowledge.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Wide Range of Availability Effects

9. In one experiment, participants were asked to list either 6 or 12 instances in their lives when they were assertive. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the participants who were asked to list only 6 instances? a. Overall, they rated themselves as less assertive. b. They had an easier time fulfilling the task. c. They were given an easier task than the 12-instance participants. d. They relied on the availability heuristic when making their decision.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Wide Range of Availability Effects

10. When we encounter a highly unusual event, we are particularly likely to notice and consider the event. As a consequence a. we are likely to think about how distinctive the event really is, leading us to underestimate the likelihood of this type of event. b. we are likely to think about the event as being in its own special category, so the event will have little impact on our estimates of frequency. c. the event will be easy to recall, leading us to overestimate the likelihood of this type of event. d. the event will be difficult to recall, leading us to underestimate the likelihood of this type of event.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Wide Range of Availability Effects

11. In using the representativeness heuristic, participants a. extrapolate from a sample of evidence if the category is homogeneous but not if the category is heterogeneous. b. are sensitive to the sample size and draw conclusions more readily from a large sample. c. seem to assume that all instances of the category resemble the prototype for that category. d. rely on base rates.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Representativeness Heuristic

12. Which of the following is an example of the gambler‘s fallacy? a. ―I know the chances of winning the lottery are small, but someone has to win it, and I could be the one!‖ b. ―I‘ve gotten a low number the last eight times I‘ve rolled the dice, so a high number is coming up soon!‖ c. ―There‘s an equal chance for any team to win the league‘s championship.‖ d. ―The best strategy at the horse races is to bet in the same way that the crowd is betting.‖ ANS: B OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Representativeness Heuristic

13. An employer interviews a job candidate for 15 minutes. On the basis of this interview, the employer decides that the candidate will perform well in the job, so he hires her. This is a case of a a. sound decision because the employer is making use of available information. b. sound decision because the employer is employing base rates. c. potential error because the employer is assuming that a small sample of information (the interview) is representative of a broader pattern (job performance). d. potential error because the employer is relying on schema-based reasoning rather than deduction.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population MSC: Applying

OBJ:

12.1

15. Megha cannot sleep at night because she is terribly worried about being robbed, even though robberies are extremely rare in her neighborhood. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be contributing to her fear? a. The ―man who story‖ she heard about the friend of a friend getting robbed one night. b. The availability heuristic after hearing about a robbery on the news. c. Memory bias for emotional events. d. Underestimating sample size for the number of robbers in the world.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population MSC: Analyzing

OBJ:

12.2

15. Participants are told, ―Hospital A has an average of 45 births per day; Hospital B has an average of only 15 births per day.‖ The participants are then asked, ―Which hospital is more likely to have a day in which at least 60% of the babies born are female?‖ In answering the question, participants a. seem insensitive to the fact that departures from the average case are more likely with a smaller sample. b. seem insensitive to the fact that departures from the average case are more likely with a larger sample. c. correctly realize that departures from the average case are not dependent on hospital size. d. answer correctly, guided by the law of small numbers.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population MSC: Evaluating

OBJ:

12.2

16. In one study, participants were shown a film about a family on welfare (financial assistance). Prior to viewing the film, half of the participants were told that the film showed a highly unusual case. The other participants were told that the film showed a quite typical case. After viewing the film, participants were asked their opinions about welfare. On the basis of other evidence, we would expect to find that a. both groups of participants were influenced equally by the film. b. neither group of participants was influenced by the film. c. participants who were told that the case was unusual were less influenced by the film than those who viewed the typical case. d. participants who were told that the case was unusual were not influenced by the film.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population MSC: Applying

OBJ:

12.2

17. Before reading about an individual who has been diagnosed with depression, participants are told that the case is not at all typical.

This instruction will a. prevent participants from using the representativeness heuristic. b. encourage participants to use the representativeness heuristic. c. not affect participants‘ spontaneous use of the representativeness heuristic. d. trigger Type 1 reasoning.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population MSC: Understanding

OBJ:

12.2

18. Reasoning from ―man who‖ arguments is usually inappropriate because generalizing from a single case is justified only a. for truly heterogeneous categories. c. when the base rates are unknown. b. when the sample size is adequate. d. for truly homogeneous categories.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population MSC: Understanding 19. The term ―covariation‖ refers in general to

OBJ:

12.2

a. b. c. d.

the relationship between the frequency of objects in the world and their availability in memory. the pattern of evidence leading participants to the gambler‘s fallacy. a cause-and-effect relationship between two variables. the tendency in a pattern of data for observations of one sort to be linked to observations of another sort.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Detecting Covariation

20. People who eat more tomatoes are less likely to get cancer in comparison to people who don‘t eat tomatoes. Which of the following accurately restates this pattern? a. Eating tomatoes covaries positively with cancer risk. b. Eating tomatoes seems to prevent cancer. c. Eating tomatoes covaries negatively with cancer risk. d. Eating more vegetables overall decreases cancer risk.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Detecting Covariation

21. The term ―illusory covariation‖ refers to an error in which participants a. perceive an event as occurring far more often than it actually does. b. perceive two variables as being somehow linked to each other when in fact they are not. c. draw a conclusion on the basis of a biased or small sample of evidence. d. refuse to change their minds even though the available evidence clearly challenges their beliefs.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Illusions of Covariation

22. Illusory covariations can be documented in a. novices, but only when the cases being judged are of low importance for the participants. b. well-trained professionals, but only when the professionals are making judgments outside of their areas of expertise. c. novices but not in experts. d. individuals who have years of training in the domain being judged.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Illusions of Covariation

23. If Tabitha believes that detective television shows are more dramatic than hospital television shows, then confirmation bias would make her more likely to do all of the following EXCEPT a. notice a detective television show that is dramatic. b. overlook a hospital television show that is dramatic. c. have memory schemata that include more examples of dramatic detective television shows than dramatic hospital television shows. d. have memory schemata that include more examples of dramatic hospital television shows than dramatic detective television shows.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Illusions of Covariation

24. A base rate is defined as information a. that helps us to identify which specific candidates have a target property. b. about the broad likelihood of a particular type of event. c. indicating the internal variability of a set or category. d. that can be used to diagnose an individual category member.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Base Rates

OBJ:

12.3

25. Studies indicate that participants a. always neglect base-rate information. b. overutilize base-rate information even if other compelling information is presented. c. make sensible use of base-rate information if no other information is available. d. tend to integrate base-rate information with diagnostic information.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Understanding

Moderate

REF:

Base Rates

OBJ:

12.3

26. Descriptive information that indicates that you are likely to be a member of a category (or fit the stereotype) is referred to as a. the base rate. c. stereotype bias. b. diagnostic information. d. confirmation bias.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Base Rates

OBJ:

12.3

OBJ:

12.3

27. Participants tend NOT to use base-rate information if they are also given a. diagnostic information. b. the prior probabilities. c. statistical information. d. information about the random device used to select the test case.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Understanding

Easy

REF:

Base Rates

28. Lucia reported to her father that she saw a hummingbird in their backyard. Her father, however, knows that hummingbirds are extremely rare in that part of the country. In this situation a. the diagnostic information confirms the base rate. b. the diagnostic information points toward one conclusion, but the base rate points toward a different conclusion. c. the base rate is known, but no diagnostic information is available. d. there are two pieces of diagnostic information but no base-rate information.

ANS: B MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Base Rates

OBJ:

12.3

29. Someone who is insensitive to base rates is likely to have all of the following problems EXCEPT a. a hard time estimating covariation. b. inaccuracy at determining cause-and-effect relationship. c. overreliance on the representative heuristic. d. underuse of diagnostic information.

ANS: D MSC: Evaluating

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Base Rates

OBJ:

12.3

30. Dual-process models state that people a. have two ways of thinking: one is a fast and automatic process, whereas the other is slower but more accurate. b. have two ways of thinking, one involved in heuristics and the other involved in anchoring. c. have two ways of thinking, one involved in the availability heuristic and the other involved in the representative heuristic. d. always take both the base rate and the diagnostic information into consideration when thinking about a situation.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Dual-Process Models

31. It would seem sensible to use ________ when making judgments that are not particularly important and ________ for more crucial decisions, but evidence on the dual-process system suggests this is NOT the case. a. Type 1 thinking; Type 2 thinking c. Type 1 thinking; heuristics b. Type 2 thinking; Type 1 thinking d. Type 2 thinking; heuristics ANS: A OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

32. Data format seems to play an important role in decision making because a. the correct format is more likely to trigger the necessary memory. b. certain formats, like frequencies, are more likely to encourage base-rate use. c. certain formats, like frequencies, are more likely to encourage confirmation bias.

d.

probabilities are easier to understand than proportions.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

33. When thinking about the likelihood of events, humans are better able to make judgments based on information presented as ________ than as ________. a. percentages; fractions c. frequencies; probabilities b. abstract ideas; concrete examples d. probabilities; frequencies ANS: C OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

34. Which of the following is correct regarding dual-process models? a. Both Type 1 and Type 2 thinking provide quick and efficient ways of making a judgment. b. When we know that a judgment is important, we put more emphasis on Type 2 thinking to ensure an accurate outcome. c. Type 2 thinking is more likely to be used if people are given training or cued by the situation. d. Type 2 thinking is more likely to be used in situations where people are distracted or tired.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

35. The law of large numbers implies that larger samples of data are less likely to show accidental patterns; therefore, larger samples are generally more informative. In making judgments about evidence, participants a. seem to understand and respect this law. b. ignore this law even though they do follow other principles of statistics. c. follow this law only if they have been trained in statistics. d. ignore this law in some situations but respect it in other situations.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.5

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Role for Chance

36. Which of the following situations does NOT contain one of the triggers that leads people to pay attention to the quantity of evidence that is present? a. The role of chance or accident is prominent in the problem under scrutiny. b. The participant is scrutinizing a problem that is of great personal importance, so he or she is highly motivated to reason carefully and well. c. The problem under scrutiny makes clear that the available evidence is a sample of data drawn from a larger set of potential observations. d. The problem being considered involves a situation for which the participant has background beliefs emphasizing the role of luck or chance.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Role for Chance

37. Imagine an experiment in which participants were told of a previously unknown tribe living on a Pacific island. Only one member of this tribe had been observed so far, and he was found to be obese. When asked how likely it was that all members of the tribe were obese, participants were unwilling to extrapolate from this single observation. This shows that participants a. were using the representative heuristic. b. had prior beliefs about Pacific islanders. c. are sometimes sensitive to the sample size and can take this into account when making a judgment. d. are unwilling to make a judgment, as they are concerned about making errors.

ANS: C MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Education

OBJ:

12.5

38. Training in statistics a. can increase the likelihood that people will rely on attribute substitution. b. improves participants‘ abilities to make judgments so that judgment errors will be less likely. c. improves participants‘ abilities to make judgments but only when they are trained on the mathematical foundations of statistical analysis. d. provides little benefit away from the statistics course itself.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Understanding

Moderate

REF:

Education

OBJ:

12.5

39. Studies indicate that training in statistics a. has little impact on how participants make judgments outside of the statistics class. b. improves participants‘ understanding of statistical principles but does not teach them how to apply the principles to actual cases. c. helps participants make more accurate judgments, but only if they were explicitly encouraged to apply their statistical knowledge. d. improves participants‘ performance in a variety of judgment problems.

ANS: D DIF: MSC: Understanding

Moderate

REF:

Education

OBJ:

12.5

40. People tend to be more alert and responsive to evidence that supports their preexisting notions and beliefs than to evidence that challenges them. This effect is called a. confirmation bias. c. base-rate error. b. stereotypy. d. the covariation law.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Illusions of Covariation

41. An inductive judgment is one in which a person a. tries to make predictions about upcoming events on the basis of evidence already available. b. tries to make a cause-and-effect judgment about an observed state of affairs. c. begins with a general statement and asks what other specific claims follow from this. d. tries to reason according to the rules of logic.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Confirmation and Disconfirmation

42. Solomon remembers how Jacob acted last weekend and the weekend before that. On the basis of this, Solomon is trying to figure out whether there is a pattern to Jacob‘s actions. Solomon is working on a problem of a. deduction. c. confirmation. b. induction. d. derivation.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Confirmation and Disconfirmation

43. Maritza believes that clowns are evil. She meets two men who are very nice and then learns that they are clowns. Despite this, she does not adjust her belief and continues to think clowns are evil. This is called a. attribute substitution. c. inductive reasoning. b. deductive reasoning. d. belief perseverance.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Belief Perseverance

44. You are reading a political blog and come across the following sentiment: ―Politicians are liars. John is a politician. Therefore, John is a liar.‖ You are most likely to agree that this is a logical argument if you a. already distrusted John. c. are surprised to learn John is a politician. b. are surprised by the claim. d. are relying on Type 1 thinking.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Reasoning about Syllogisms

45. ―All rectangles have four sides. All squares have four sides. Therefore all rectangles are squares.‖ This sequence happens to be invalid, but is a. an example of belief bias. b. an example of a categorical syllogism. c. not a categorical syllogism, because it is invalid. d. an example of conditional reasoning.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Reasoning about Syllogisms

46. Identify one of the premises in the following syllogism: All Dalmatians are dogs. Some Dalmatians have tails. Therefore, some dogs have tails. a. ―All Dalmatians are dogs.‖ c. ―Some dogs have tails.‖ b. ―All Dalmatians have tails.‖ d. ―Some dogs are Dalmations‖ ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Logic

OBJ:

12.7

47. Which of the statements below would complete the following syllogism in a way to make it valid?: All busy people are stressed out.

All professors are busy. a. Therefore, all professors are stressed out. b. Therefore, all busy people are professors. c. Therefore, all stressed-out people are professors. d. Therefore, you should not become a professor.

ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Logic

OBJ:

12.7

48. The four-card task, in which participants must evaluate a rule by deciding which cards to turn over, provides an example of how a. good we are at reasoning about syllogisms. b. good we are at reasoning about most conditional statements. c. poor we are at reasoning about some conditional statements. d. poorly we perform on inductive tasks.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Four-Card Task

49. Evidence from the four-card task suggests that a. people perform poorly on virtual versions of this task. b. performance on the task depends on the form of the problem, and not on the problem‘s specific content. c. performance is equally bad on abstract versions of this task and concrete versions involving a familiar setting. d. people‘s thinking can be improved if a problem contains the right triggers.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Four-Card Task

50. According to the work of Tversky and Kahneman, people are likely to be ________ when dealing with potential losses, and ________ when dealing with potential gains. a. risk seeking; risk averse c. risk seeking; risk seeking b. risk averse; risk seeking d. worried; excited ANS: A OBJ: 12.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Framing of Outcomes

51. Which of the following statements about the effects of emotion on decision making is FALSE? a. People want to minimize regret. b. Bodily reactions (―gut feelings‖) powerfully influence estimates of risk. c. People usually assume the worst and are thus overly cautious. d. People are often bad at forecasting future emotions, and this undermines the quality of decision making.

ANS: C MSC: Analyzing

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Emotion

OBJ:

12.10

52. Jill has a gut feeling about which college she should attend. In Damasio‘s words, by using sensations of arousal, Jill is relying on ________ to make her decision. a. somatic markers c. utility b. rational judgments d. risk aversion ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Emotion

OBJ:

12.10

53. Ravi is shown a picture with many different breeds of dogs and is asked to discover the rule connecting all of the items in the picture.

He believes the rule connecting all of the items is ―must be a living thing,‖ but before he announces his guess, he is allowed to propose a new addition to the picture. If Ravi is searching for disconfirming evidence, which of the following items will he propose? a. a lion c. a plant b. a poodle d. a rock ANS: D OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Confirmation Bias

54. People are more likely to judge a syllogism to be valid if a. they are using Type 2 thinking. b. they have formal training in logic. c. the conclusion in the statement is believed to be true based on prior knowledge. d. the syllogism is phrased in concrete terms.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Belief Bias

OBJ:

12.7

55. ―All dogs are animals. Some animals are pets. Therefore, some dogs are pets.‖ This example is a(n) ________ syllogism that is likely to be endorsed as ________ due to the belief bias. a. valid; false c. invalid; false b. valid; true d. invalid; true ANS: D MSC: Applying

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Belief Bias

OBJ:

12.7

56. In a new version of the Wason four-card task, participants are given the rule: ―If you read the textbook, then you will get an A on the exam.‖ Each card has a YES or NO on one side, indicating whether or not the student has read the textbook, and an exam grade on the other side. Compared with the original version of the task with just numbers and letters, participants should make a. more accurate decisions about which cards to flip over in the new version, likely because the new content makes the problem more concrete and relatable to everyday life. b. less accurate decisions about which cards to flip over in the new version, likely because the new content will make participants more likely to seek out disconfirming evidence. c. less accurate decisions about which cards to flip over in the new version, likely because reasoning about exams will make people nervous and unable to focus on the problem. d. similar decisions about which cards to flip over in the new version, likely because people are equally poor at reasoning about conditional statements regardless of the content.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Four-Card Task

57. Which of the following is the most plausible way to improve performance on the Wason four-card task? a. Reframe the problem so that it uses valid categorical syllogisms instead of conditional statements. b. Encourage participants to flip over all of the cards. c. Change the context of the problem so that the participant imagines he or she is a cop searching a bar for underage drinkers. d. Research suggests that nothing can be done to improve performance on this task.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Four-Card Task

58. On Wednesday, the local weather channel forecast a 25% chance of rain, so Lisa took her umbrella to work. On Friday, the same station reported a 75% chance of no rain, so Lisa left her umbrella at home. The difference in Lisa‘s behavior between Wednesday and Friday illustrates the effect of a. the representativeness heuristic. c. framing. b. the availability heuristic. d. confirmation bias.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.9

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Framing of Outcomes

59. When selecting a course of action framed in terms of either losing lives or saving lives following an epidemic of a serious disease, people typically choose a. the more risky option for lost lives and the less risky option for saved lives.

b. c. d.

the least risky option. the more risky option for saved lives and the less risky option for lost lives. the most risky option.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Framing of Outcomes

60. Samuel is asked to predict how he will feel if he doesn‘t get a promotion at work, a goal he has been working hard to achieve for the past year. Which of the following statements is most likely true regarding his prediction? a. He will underestimate how long his disappointment will last. b. He will overestimate how long his disappointment will last. c. He will make a very accurate estimate of how long his disappointment will last. d. He will not be able to make a very accurate estimate of anything, including whether or not he will feel positive or negative.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.10

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Predicting Emotions

ESSAY 1. Your friend Alex swears that, while driving to school every morning, he gets caught at almost every red light, which of course makes him late for class. You know that it is incredibly unlikely that he actually hits every red light. Assume that Alex isn‘t intentionally lying to you, and consider the factors that might lead him to truly believe that he is unlucky when it comes to red lights.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Judgment

OBJ:

12.1

MSC: Analyzing

2. Describe the availability and representativeness heuristics, and provide real-life examples of each heuristic leading to an error. Explain why we would rely on these heuristics, if errors can (and do) occur.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Judgment

OBJ:

12.1

MSC: Analyzing

3. Your friend Leslie is interested in buying a new car. A consumer magazine says that Car X is the best buy for her budget and needs.

However, Leslie‘s brother bought Car X and hated it. To whom should Leslie listen in this situation? Why might she not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Representativeness Heuristic

OBJ:

12.1

4. Aditi is terribly afraid of flying because she is certain the plane will crash. You know that the chances of a plane crash are exceedingly small, and you try to explain this to her. Given your knowledge of judgment and reasoning, describe the factors (i.e., judgment errors) that are contributing to her fear and give any tips that could help her overcome her fear.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Judgment | Base Rates OBJ:

12.2 | 12.3

5. Compare and contrast Type 1 and Type 2 reasoning. Include in your discussion the benefits and drawbacks to each system, the instances in which each system would be used, and how changing the data format can lead to changes in use.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Dual-Process Models

OBJ:

12.4

6. Molly is a member of the Forest Political Party, and she is certain that every member of the Mountains Political Party is evil and trying to ruin the country. Discuss how tendencies like confirmation bias and belief perseverance contribute to her beliefs and her evaluation of new evidence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Confirmation and Disconfirmation

OBJ:

12.5 | 12.6

7. People often make logical errors. Create a real-world example that illustrates the error in this categorical syllogism: All X are Y. All A are X. Therefore, all A are X. ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Logic

OBJ:

12.7

MSC: Creating

8. Describe the four-card task. In your description, include the following components: a. the basic task b. the type of logic that should govern correct performance on the task c. the typical performance rates and how those are improved by changing components of the task ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Logic

OBJ:

12.8

MSC: Understanding

9. Consider the Asian disease problem. Describe the various ways the problem can be framed and how people typically respond in each situation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Framing of Outcomes

OBJ:

12.9

10. Describe one situation in which your friend Maital might show evidence of risk aversion and another example in which she would show risk seeking.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Framing of Outcomes

OBJ:

12.9

11. Describe the ways that emotion can influence decision making. What tips would you give to a friend (or to yourself) to improve decision making under emotional duress?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Emotion

OBJ:

12.10

MSC: Analyzing

CHAPTER 13

Problem Solving and Intelligence LEARNING OBJECTIVES

13.1. Describe some of the methods that are typically used to solve problems.

13.2. Describe how previous knowledge can improve your ability to solve problems, and also why people seem to underuse analogies.

13.3. Explain the difference between ill-defined and well-defined problems.

13.4. Explain how factors like functional fixedness can hinder problem solving.

13.5. Describe Wallas’s four stages of creative thought and the evidence related to each stage.

13.6. Describe and define “divergent” and “convergent” thinking.

13.7. Define reliability and validity, and assess whether intelligence tests are reliable and valid.

13.8. Describe the evidence for “g,” or general intelligence.

13.9. Describe the differences between fluid and crystallized intelligence.

13.10.Describe some of the talents and capacities not assessed in conventional intelligence testing.

13.11.Explain how the environment and genes influence intelligence, both separately and in combination.

13.12.Define stereotype threat, and explain how it influences test performance.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the states one can reach in solving a problem together are said to make up the a. operators. c. problem definition. b. pathways. d. problem space.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Problem Solving as Search

2. One plan for solving a problem would be to consider every possible option, searching for the best solution. This broad plan is a. usually the best way to proceed for solving complicated problems. b. more effective with ill-defined problems. c. usually ruled out by the sheer number of possible states within the problem space. d. often the only plan available.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Problem Solving as Search

3. A problem-solving heuristic is a. guaranteed to find a problem solution if one exists. b. a strategy that guides a search through the problem space. c. likely to be less effective than a strategy such as hill climbing or means-end analysis. d. needed for unfamiliar problems but not for familiar problems.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Problem Solving as Search

4. Which of the following is a heuristic commonly used in problem solving? a. functional fixedness c. means-end analysis b. regression analysis d. local minimization ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

General Problem-Solving Heuristics

5. Participants‘ use of hill climbing is evident in that a. participants solve problems more quickly if they can divide the problem into smaller subproblems. b. problem solving often gets stalled if a problem requires participants to move briefly away from the goal state in order (ultimately) to reach the goal. c. participants are disrupted in their problem solving if they are asked to think out loud as they proceed. d. participants are often confused unless the problem‘s path constraints are clearly specified.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

General Problem-Solving Heuristics

6. Which problem-solving heuristic is most likely to involve a question such as ―What do I have available to get from my current state to my goal state?‖ a. working backward c. hill climbing b. means-end analysis d. problem-solving set ANS: B OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

General Problem-Solving Heuristics

7. Which of the following is NOT a benefit received from using a means-end analysis to solve a problem? a. It highlights the differences between the current state and the goal state. b. It often leads a person to break a problem into subproblems. c. It can highlight what the next step in the problem solution should be. d. It encourages the person to move away from the goal initially, so as to get to the goal faster.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

General Problem-Solving Heuristics

8. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by visualizing a problem via a mental image? a. The image depicts the problem in a concrete way, and this often makes the problem easier to

b. c. d.

remember.

The image often makes it easy to discern how the elements of the problem are spatially related to one another.

One can routinely make new discoveries about the imaged form, including discoveries that involve an entirely new understanding of the form.

It is usually easy to rearrange the elements of an image to explore other configurations.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Pictures and Diagrams

9. If you are trying to help a friend use analogies in problem solving, which piece of advice should you NOT give? a. Attend to the deep structure of the problem. b. Try to see the mapping between problems you already know and test problems. c. Focus on exactly how the problem is phrased; this will often suggest what the problem solution will be. d. Search your memory for content related to the deep structure of the problem, not surface details.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Problem Solving via Analogy

10. Herbert solved the ―tumor‖ problem by using an analogy with the ―general and fortress‖ problem. In doing this, he realized that ―tumor‖ corresponds to ―fortress,‖ ―radiation‖ corresponds to ―attacking army,‖ and so on. The process of determining these correspondences is called a. translating. c. mapping. b. analogizing. d. parsing.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Problem Solving via Analogy

11. Which of the following is NOT a procedure that makes analogy use more likely? a. Participants are given two analogous problems, rather than just one, before the test problem. b. Participants are given financial bonuses for each one of the test problems they are able to solve. c. Participants are given several training problems and asked to compare the problems to one another. d. Participants are encouraged to work at understanding the solutions of the training problems so that they can explain the solutions later on.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

12. In many studies, participants fail to use analogies as an aid to problem solving. Of the following, which is the most plausible explanation of this fact? a. Participants do not understand the value of analogies, so they do not bother searching for them. b. Participants search their memories based on the surface structure of the problem and thus fail to think of many useful analogies. c. Participants pay too much attention to the deep structure of a problem, and so they fail to see the features that lead to analogy. d. Participants seem unable to use analogies even when explicitly instructed to do so.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

13. In order to teach students to be better problem solvers, we should do all of the following EXCEPT a. teach some of the general-purpose heuristics such as means-end analysis. b. teach students that it is better to memorize related problems rather than understand them. c. provide students with experience in the relevant domains so that they will have a basis from which to draw analogies. d. encourage students to approach their training with attention to deep structure rather than to surface details.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

15. In general, a training procedure will promote subsequent analogy use if the procedure a. helps participants to remember the exact formulation of the training problems.

b. c. d.

focuses on the specific wording used to describe the problem. encourages participants to pay attention to the training problem‘s deep structure. teaches the participants general principles about how analogies function.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

15. Two groups of participants are given sets of training problems to solve. One group of participants is told to try to understand the structure of each problem, while the other group is asked to try to memorize the problems. They are later given test problems. Based on previous evidence, what results would you expect to see at testing? a. The ―memorize‖ group will be faster when solving the problems. b. The ―memorize‖ group will solve more problems. c. The ―structure‖ group will use analogies more often. d. The groups will solve the same number of problems.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

16. Experts have several advantages in problem solving. Which of the following is NOT an advantage that was mentioned in this textbook? a. Experts make better use of general problem-solving heuristics. b. Experts tend to regularly use analogies. c. Experts tend to think of problems in terms of the problem‘s deep structure. d. Experts seem to have more heavily cross-referenced knowledge.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Expert Problem Solvers

17. Expert problem solvers a. focus on the surface of a problem rather than on its deep structure. b. use analogies less often than do novices. c. tend to categorize problems in terms of their deep structure. d. do not need to rely on mapping in their use of analogies.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Expert Problem Solvers

18. People often compare experts to novices. Which of the following claims about this comparison is FALSE? a. Experts become experts for a reason: they started out with better problem-solving strategies, and this allowed them to reach expert levels of performance. b. Experts have a much larger knowledge base, including a large set of exemplars on which they can draw. c. Experts are more familiar with the higher-order patterns common in the area of expertise. d. Expert knowledge is more heavily cross-referenced and is therefore more easily accessible.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Expert Problem Solvers

19. Compared to novices, chess experts are more likely to have a. better memory for the positions of pieces on a chessboard if the pieces are arranged in a fashion that respects the rules of chess. b. better memory for the positions of pieces on a chessboard, no matter how the pieces are arranged. c. better visual memory in general. d. no memory advantage.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Setting Subgoals

20. Experts seem able to break a problem into meaningful chunks. This strategy provides all of the following advantages EXCEPT for a. making it easier to remember the various elements of the problem. b. highlighting the organization of the problem‘s elements, making it easier to see the problem‘s structure. c. helping in the identification of subproblems and therefore in the creation of subgoals. d. drawing the expert‘s attention to the problem‘s microstructure.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Setting Subgoals

21. Experts have an advantage in problem solving and remembering certain information (like the position of chess pieces) for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they a. think of units that can be used to set subgoals. b. create higher-order units that have a purpose. c. avoid getting bogged down in the details by organizing the information. d. are more likely to try to use heuristics to problem-solve than novices.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Setting Subgoals

22. Analogies are a. often misleading, since an analogy depends on a problem‘s surface structure. b. relatively ineffective for solving problems unless the problem is a familiar one. c. an effective way to promote understanding and problem solving. d. relevant only for a narrow set of problems.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Problem Solving via Analogy

23. Studies of analogy use indicate that participants a. use analogies spontaneously in a wide range of problems. b. use analogies only if they are experts in the domain of the problem. c. are more likely to use analogies if there is a superficial resemblance between the problem being solved and the problem serving as the base for the analogy. d. are more likely to use analogies in solving spatial problems than they are in solving verbal problems.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Problem Solving via Analogy

24. Dell, a problem-solving amateur, is trying to solve the ―hobbits and orcs‖ problem, and so she must determine how to move the creatures across a river. Dell is most likely to be helped if she has had earlier experience with a. a problem with a similar structure and which also involved hobbits and orcs. b. a problem with the same structure, but which involved protecting wives from their jealous husbands. c. other problems involving transportation across obstacles. d. problems illustrating the techniques for dealing with river currents.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

25. One way to turn an ill-defined question into a well-defined question is to a. add extra constraints or assumptions to the problem so that it has more structure. b. make the question less specific. c. make the question rhetorical. d. remove any clear or concrete goal state from the problem.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems

26. An ill-defined problem is one in which a. there is more than one path available that will lead to the goal. b. the problem does not have clearly defined subgoals. c. neither analogies nor heuristics will lead to a problem solution. d. the goal and the operations for reaching that goal are not clearly defined.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Remembering

27. Which of the following problems is MOST ill-defined?

Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems

a. b. c. d.

Sarah is trying to think of a way to impress her boss.

Susan is trying to decide which route to take to the soccer game.

Sheila cannot decide whether to go to a movie this evening or study in the library.

Samantha is having trouble solving a crossword puzzle.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems

28. The tendency to be rigid in how one thinks about an object‘s function is called a. mental stickiness. c. functional narrowness. b. functional fixedness. d. narrow focus.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Functional Fixedness

29. It was starting to rain, and Marcus did not have an umbrella or a hat. To keep dry, he held his psychology textbook over his head. In this case, Marcus a. has solved the problem using the hill-climbing heuristic. b. has solved the problem by using functional fixedness. c. has managed to overcome functional fixedness. d. has better defined his problem-solving set.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Functional Fixedness

30. Participants approach a problem with certain assumptions about how the problem should be handled and the sorts of strategies that are likely to be productive. These assumptions are referred to as a. heuristics. c. a problem frame. b. well-definedness. d. a problem-solving set.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

―Thinking outside the Box‖

31. A problem-solving set a. is generally a deterrent to problem solving, so one should seek to approach a problem without a set. b. is an obstacle for novice problem solvers but not for experts. c. is crucial for well-defined problems but cannot help with ill-defined problems. d. often helps because the set leads us to ignore a number of options that obviously will not lead to the goal.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

―Thinking outside the Box‖

32. Eric is trying to solve a problem but has to interrupt his work on the problem in order to attend a meeting. After the meeting, he returns to the problem and immediately solves it. Which of the following is the LEAST likely explanation of Eric‘s revelation? a. Eric had approached the problem without a problem-solving set, and the time he spent in the meeting provided an incubation period during which he developed a set. b. The meeting distracted Eric from the problem, causing him to forget his previous strategies, and therefore allowed him to find a fresh approach to the problem. c. Eric had grown frustrated with the problem, and the frustration was making it hard for him to think productively. The meeting allowed his frustration to fade, so that he was more effective in his efforts after the meeting. d. The interruption had no effect on Eric‘s problem solving; he simply needed a bit more time to figure out the problem, and his return to the problem after the meeting provided that extra time.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.4 | 13.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

―Thinking outside the Box‖

33. Bob works in marketing and wants to be creative at his work. Which of these is LEAST likely to be a prerequisite for his creativity? a. having knowledge about his domain in marketing b. being strongly motivated by external rewards rather than taking pleasure in his work c. being able to ignore criticism and tolerate ambiguous findings d. being willing to take risks and not follow the crowd

ANS: B OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Case Studies of Creativity

34. According to the text, current research indicates that creative problem solving a. draws on mental processes that are distinct from the processes relevant to more ordinary problem solving. b. can be interrupted by divergent thinking. c. seems to draw on heuristics and analogies in the same way that ordinary problem solving does. d. requires unconscious work that goes on after one has consciously put the problem to the side.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Nature of Creativity

35. Which of the following statements about creative people is most correct? a. Creative people seem to be immune to problem-solving obstacles like functional fixedness. b. Creative people have a cognitive architecture that is unlike the architecture for less creative people. c. Creative people typically rely on the same strategies and processes as less creative people. d. Creativity is typically associated with superior visual imagery.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Nature of Creativity

36. ________ is an ability to think about concepts/ideas in a new way. ________ is an ability to see ways in which seemingly different concepts/ideas might be related. a. Divergent thinking; Convergent thinking b. Convergent thinking; Divergent thinking c. Creativity; Convergent thinking d. Illumination; Mapping ANS: A OBJ: 13.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Nature of Creativity

37. Which of the following is one reason why a creative person might be better able to problem-solve than a less creative person? a. Creative people almost always ―think outside of the box.‖ b. Creative people are more likely to step away from the problem and let their mind wander. c. Creative people experience ―Aha!‖ moments more often than less creative people. d. Creative people tend to be experts in their respective domains.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

The Nature of Creativity

38. Many years ago, Wallas argued that creative thought proceeds through four stages. Which of the following is NOT one of these stages? a. illumination c. preparation b. articulation d. incubation ANS: B OBJ: 13.5

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Moment of Illumination

39. According to Wallas‘s theory of creativity, the initial period in which a problem solver gathers information is known as a. verification. c. preparation. b. incubation. d. initialization.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Moment of Illumination

40. As Vanessa worked on the problem, she narrated her progress out loud, saying things like ―No, that option doesn‘t seem to work. No, that doesn‘t work either.‖ Then Vanessa abruptly shouted, ―I think I‘ve got it!‖ These reports seem to capture the phenomenon called a. illumination. c. preparation. b. incubation. d. representation.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

The Moment of Illumination

41. Researchers have tried to study the moment of illumination in the laboratory. The evidence indicates that a. this experience cannot be observed reliably in laboratory conditions. b. there is no systematic relationship between reports of illumination and actual progress in problem solving. c. when participants report an illumination, they are at least as likely to be moving toward a dead end as they are to be moving toward the problem‘s solution. d. when participants report an illumination, they have, in fact, made a discovery that will allow them to solve the problem.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Moment of Illumination

42. A group of participants is interrupted while working on a problem. The participants then spend some time on an unrelated task and, finally, return to the initial problem. Studies of this sort generally show that the a. participants will benefit from the interruption and are more likely to solve the problem when they return to it. b. participants will be disrupted by the interruption and are less likely to solve the problem when they return to it. c. participants will not be affected by the interruption. d. data are mixed, with some studies showing a benefit from the interruption but with many studies showing no effect.

ANS: D MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Incubation

OBJ:

13.5

43. In some procedures, participants are helped by an interruption during their attempts at solving a problem. In explaining this effect, which of the following hypotheses seems LEAST plausible in light of the available evidence? a. The interruption provides an opportunity for participants to gather further information about the problem. b. The interruption provides an opportunity for frustration or fatigue to dissipate. c. The interruption allows participants to forget their earlier approaches to the problem, thus enabling a fresh start. d. The interruption allows an opportunity for participants to use means-end analysis to solve the problem.

ANS: D MSC: Evaluating

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Incubation

OBJ:

13.5

44. Mark scored very well on one portion of the IQ test. Evidence suggests that a. he will likely do less well on other portions of the test. b. he is likely to do well on the entire test. c. we can make no predictions about whether he‘ll do well on other portions of the test. d. he will score similarly if he takes other portions of the test today, but his score will likely be very different if he takes the test in a few months.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

General versus Specialized Intelligence

45. Most modern researchers believe that intelligence can be understood in terms of a. a quadratic function. b. overlapping clusters of specialized forms of intelligence. c. a hierarchical structure. d. a set of distinct abilities, each independent of the others.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

A Hierarchical Model of Intelligence

46. ________ intelligence refers to an ability to think about novel problems, while ________ intelligence refers to acquired knowledge and skills. a. General; specific c. Fluid; crystallized b. Crystallized; fluid d. General; learned ANS: C OBJ: 13.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

47. Melissa is a 35-year-old woman. Over the next few decades, her ________ intelligence will likely increase, while her ________ intelligence will likely decrease. a. crystallized; memory c. fluid; crystallized b. crystallized; fluid d. reasoning ability; vocabulary ANS: B OBJ: 13.9

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

48. Why might someone‘s working memory capacity (WMC) contribute toward general intelligence? a. People with greater WMC seem to have greater processing speeds. b. People with greater WMC seem better able to inhibit irrelevant thoughts and stay focused on a particular task. c. People with less WMC cannot judge the accuracy of their thoughts/memories, so they do not know what they still have left to learn. d. People with greater WMC exhibit longer inspection times because they can hold more information in mind at once.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.8

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Building Blocks of Intelligence

49. Reliability refers to the extent to which a measure is ________, and validity refers to whether a measure is ________. a. consistent; accurately measuring what it is supposed to measure b. accurate; consistently measuring what it is supposed to measure c. correlated with other measures; able to predict related outcomes d. consistently able to predict related outcomes; accurate ANS: A OBJ: 13.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Reliability and Validity

50. Dr. Jean Yuss has created a new test that she claims can measure intelligence with only 15 questions. Dr. Yuss administers this test to Alex three times, and each time Alex scores only 35% on the test. Other tests of intelligence, however, suggest that Alex is quite intelligent. Which of the following is most likely true of this new test? a. The test is not a reliable measure of intelligence, but it is a valid measure. b. The test may be a reliable measure of intelligence, but seems not to be a valid measure. c. The test is both a reliable measure of intelligence and a valid measure. d. The test is neither a reliable measure of intelligence nor a valid measure.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Reliability and Validity

51. A group of people is given a new test that supposedly measures creativity. We later find that their scores on this test are, in fact, correlated with their ability to do well on a separate test requiring ―out of the box‖ solutions. This finding suggests that this test of creativity appears to have relatively high a. accuracy. c. predictive validity. b. test-retest reliability. d. reliability and validity.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Reliability and Validity

52. Which of the following would be a reason to use Raven‘s Progressive Matrices instead of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale to measure the intelligence of an individual? a. The participant is not a native English speaker. b. The participant has low spatial ability. c. The participant is already known to be quite intelligent. d. The participant has never taken an intelligence test before.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.7

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Measuring Intelligence

53. Sam has scored very high on an IQ test. Which of the following is also likely to be true of Sam? a. Sam will also score high on a test of emotional intelligence. b. Sam will spend more time deciding whether a tone is low- or high-pitched than someone with a lower IQ score would.

c. d.

Sam will also score high on a test of working memory capacity.

Sam is likely to be less creative than someone with a lower IQ score.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Intelligence beyond the IQ Test

54. According to the textbook, which of the following is a type of intelligence that is NOT measured by conventional IQ tests? a. general intelligence c. logical-mathematical intelligence b. spatial intelligence d. emotional intelligence ANS: D OBJ: 13.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Intelligence beyond the IQ Test

55. Which of the following is evidence that is most consistent with Howard Gardner‘s theory of multiple intelligences? a. Some people with very low IQ scores nevertheless have specific, extreme talents. b. IQ scores can be influenced by environmental factors (e.g., where someone grew up). c. People who score high on IQ tests also seem to be more emotionally intelligent. d. IQ scores can be influenced by personal beliefs (e.g., endorsement of stereotypes).

ANS: A OBJ: 13.7

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Intelligence beyond the IQ Test

56. Which of the following statements does NOT support the notion that the environment influences intelligence scores? a. Thinking about a stereotype pertaining to one‘s group (e.g., gender, race) can influence how well someone does on an IQ test. b. IQs are more similar among monozygotic twins than among dizygotic twins. c. IQs are lower overall among children who come from impoverished environments. d. Changing the environment can lead to an improvement in IQ score.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.11

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Roots of Intelligence

57. The gradual increase in IQ scores around the world over the past few decades is referred to as the a. Columbus Consequence. c. Flynn effect. b. Gardner Theory. d. global IQ shift.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.11

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Comparisons between Groups

58. People have considered various hypotheses for why there is a difference between the average IQ scores for American Whites and African Americans. Which of the following is NOT an explanation that is supported by evidence? a. Genetic factors give White Americans an advantage on the test. b. Economic factors lead to higher IQ scores among White Americans than Black Americans. c. Stereotype threat causes Black students in America to score lower on intelligence tests. d. IQ scores among Black Americans can be improved by reducing stereotype threat.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.11 | 13.12

DIF:

Easy

REF: Comparisons between Groups MSC: Evaluating

ESSAY 1. Describe two of the strategies for problem solving that were included in the chapter. Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of each approach.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 13.1

REF: General Problem-Solving Heuristics MSC: Analyzing

2. Your friend sets a New Year‘s resolution to ―be happier.‖ Your friend is struggling with the problem, though, of how to achieve this goal. Using the appropriate terminology, explain what kind of problem this is, and how, according to the chapter, your friend might go about solving it.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 13.3

REF: Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems MSC: Evaluating

3. Describe the circumstances under which people who are not experts do and do not make use of analogies when attempting to solve a problem. Explain what prevents people from using analogies to solve problems even when an analogous situation has been recently encountered.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Problem Solving via Analogy

OBJ:

13.2

4. Some theorists propose that problem solving (especially creative solving) proceeds through four stages. What are the four stages?

What evidence supports or challenges claims about these four stages?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Creativity

OBJ:

13.5

MSC: Understanding

5. What is the difference between the fluid and crystallized types of intelligence? How does each change across the lifetime? What factors influence each type of intelligence?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

OBJ:

13.9

6. What is meant by the terms ―reliability‖ and ―validity‖? What evidence helps us understand whether intelligence tests are reliable?

What evidence helps us understand whether the tests are valid?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Measuring Intelligence OBJ:

13.7

7. How are experts different from novices when it comes to solving problems? How might expertise help with problem solving?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Expert Problem Solvers OBJ:

13.7

8. Consider the examples of autistic savants that were described at the beginning of the chapter. Given what you know now, how would you characterize their intellectual abilities? Make sure you use the appropriate terminology in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

What If . . .

OBJ:

13.10

MSC: Evaluating

9. Describe the genetic and environmental factors that influence intelligence. Why is it a mistake to ask, ―How much of your intelligence comes from genes, and how much from the environment?‖

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Roots of Intelligence

OBJ:

13.11

10. Jim and John are monozygotic twins who grew up in the same household. Lauren and Lucas are dizygotic twins who also grew up in the same household. Sally and Sarah are monozygotic twins who grew up in different households. Describe how these three sets of twins will differ genetically and how they will likely differ in terms of intelligence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

The Roots of Intelligence

OBJ:

13.11

CHAPTER 15

Conscious Thought, Unconscious Thought LEARNING OBJECTIVES

15.1. Describe what the cognitive unconscious is, and how it can influence reasoning.

15.2. Provide examples that show why our introspections about cognitive processing cannot always be trusted.

15.3. Describe what amnesia and “blind sight” suggest about the cognitive unconscious.

15.4. Explain the rule of thumb that people are aware of their mental products, but not their mental processes.

15.5. Define metacognition and explain why it is important.

15.6. Describe the requirements for the function termed “executive control,” and describe what this control can achieve.

15.7. Describe the neuronal workspace.

15.8. Explain how the neuronal workspace could support the central executive.

15.9. Describe the role that subjective experience (qualia) might play in consciousness.

15.10.Evaluate the idea that conscious experience provides a justification for action.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A great deal of behind-the-scenes activity is necessary to make possible intellectual achievements like thinking and remembering. This behind-the-scenes activity is referred to by psychologists as a. nuts-and-bolts work. c. subconscious production. b. the cognitive unconscious. d. running the program.

ANS: B OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Cognitive Unconscious

2. In the late 1800s, the young science of psychology a. considered consciousness to be a central concern of the science. b. argued that consciousness could not be studied scientifically. c. studied consciousness by focusing on the biological roots of conscious thought. d. largely ignored the topic of consciousness.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

3. Which of the following is NOT an example of the principle ―We are aware of products but not of processes‖? a. Jeff knew that the stimulus seemed familiar, but he did not know why. b. Jesse believed that the stimulus was ―cake,‖ but he could not tell whether he had seen the stimulus or just inferred it. c. Jeremy suddenly found himself thinking about marriage, and he could not figure out what had brought this idea into his thoughts. d. Jacob wanted to do well on the spelling test, but he did not know the best way to study the words.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

4. Several authors have proposed that we are generally aware of the ________ of our own thoughts even though we are usually unaware of the ________ of thought. a. product; processes b. decision-making processes; products c. implicit mechanisms; explicit mechanisms d. inferences; strategies ANS: A OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

5. Based on what was discussed in the text, which of the following has NOT contributed to our current understanding of consciousness? a. the strengths and weaknesses of introspection and subjective reports b. what is and what is not possible with subliminal perception c. what patients without a neuronal workspace can and cannot do d. what functions are spared and which are disrupted in patients with amnesia ANS: C OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

6. Our unconscious thinking about an event a. tends to be simple and direct, leading us, for example, to think of the event as familiar or preferable. b. can often be quite complex, involving several steps of reasoning and inference. c. can influence us in small ways but seems not to have larger-scale impact. d. is most influential with novel events; with familiar events, we react in a more reflective fashion.

ANS: B OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

7. Researchers have concluded that a. we cannot study consciousness because any tests would be based on subjective introspections. b. there is little to be learned about the unconscious mind because mental events are consistently available to introspection. c. we can learn a lot about the unconscious mind by asking what activities can be done without conscious awareness.

d.

we will eventually be able to study the unconscious mind once neuroimaging techniques have been refined.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

8. Which of these is NOT an example of causal attribution in unconscious thinking? a. Jenny believes she remembers the color of her last birthday cake. b. Louise finds a name familiar, so she believes it belongs to a famous person. c. Abby recognizes the face of a man, so she believes the man was part of a robbery. d. In an experiment, Jane is willing to experience a higher intensity of electric shock, as she believes any adverse reactions are the side effects of a pill that she took prior to the experiment.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.1

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

9. In one study, participants in Group 1 were given a pill and told, ―This pill will make you a bit jumpy, will make your palms sweat, and may give you butterflies in your stomach.‖ Participants in Group 2 were given the same pill, but they were told, ―This pill may make you a little sleepy.‖ In both cases, the pill was a placebo and actually had no effect. All participants were then exposed to electric shocks and were asked to rate how painful each shock had seemed. Given other evidence, we would expect that a. there would be no difference between the two groups. b. the participants would not differ in how they rated the shocks, but participants in Group 2 would end up having more positive feelings about the experiment. c. the participants in Group 2 would rate the shocks as less painful than the participants in Group 1. d. the participants in Group 1 would rate the shocks as less painful than the participants in Group 2.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Unconscious Reasoning

10. Positive feedback increases confidence in memory. In light of the available evidence, which of the following seems the most likely explanation? a. People are reasoning along the lines of ―I was just told I got it right, so I guess I can set aside my doubts about my memory!‖ b. People are reasoning along the lines of ―I was always certain, but it seemed wrong to brag. The feedback, though, makes me feel comfortable saying how sure I am.‖ c. People are reasoning along the lines of ―I‘m not sure I trust the experimenter‘s feedback; maybe the experiment is trying to deceive me. Maybe, then, I should shift my confidence downward just to be careful.‖ d. People are reasoning along the lines of ―I know I got a poor view of the target, but the feedback confirms something I‘ve always believed—that I have a terrific memory!‖ ANS: A OBJ: 15.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

Unconscious Reasoning

11. Which of these is most likely to be true about the process of introspection? a. Introspection acts as a special window, allowing people to report correctly on why they acted the way they did. b. People often show little confidence about their reasoning when they introspect, although their reasoning is mostly correct. c. People can often use their confidence ratings to detect whether their introspections are likely to be correct. d. Introspection often produces mistaken beliefs that arise from plausible after-the-fact inferences.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Mistaken Introspections

12. When asked to introspect about their reasons for making a particular choice, participants a. sometimes offer an explanation with great confidence even though the explanation names factors that were actually irrelevant to their choice. b. can usually specify their reasons and accurately report on the processes used for selecting the reasons. c. often have no idea about their reasons, but if they are able to report their reasons, they are likely to be correct. d. report their reasons in general terms but usually do so with little confidence.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Mistaken Introspections

13. Which of the following is FALSE about introspective reports? a. They are sometimes correct. b. They can be the result of after-the-fact reconstructions. c. They generally feel like inferences. d. They are occasionally wrong.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.2

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Mistaken Introspections

15. Sometimes we reason carefully and deliberately through an argument, scrutinizing each step. In a case of this sort a. all aspects of our thoughts will be conscious even if we are unconscious of our thoughts in other situations. b. the processes of our thoughts, but not the products, will be consciously available. c. our sequence of thoughts depends on an unconscious support structure that guides how we interpret the elements of each thought. d. there are no unconscious processes involved.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.2

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Mistaken Introspections

15. Our thoughts seem to be embedded in a context that is usually not noticed yet serves to define and guide the thoughts. Which of the following seems NOT to be an example of this sort of context? a. Discovery based on mental imagery is influenced by the perceptual reference frame for the image. b. Decisions are guided by how the decision is framed. c. In a selective attention experiment, you‘re unlikely to understand the meaning of the message on the unattended channel. d. Your perception of a word will depend on how you‘ve been primed, whether you remember the primes or not.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.3

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Unconscious Guides to Conscious Thinking

16. Even in cases where we‘re consciously and deliberately working on a problem, our thoughts are influenced by a set. Which of the following is NOT true of sets? a. They can keep us focused. b. They often include unnoticed assumptions. c. They can be an obstacle to problem solving. d. We‘re more likely to make progress if we can approach the problem without a set.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.2

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

Unconscious Guides to Conscious Thinking

17. Patients who have experienced damage to the striate cortex sometimes show a phenomenon known as blind sight. In this case, most patients a. can consciously see where an object is but cannot identify it. b. can consciously report the identity of an object but not where it is located. c. are blind yet incorrectly report that they can see the identity and location of an object. d. often guess correctly in response to what they have seen or where an object is located even though they report that they cannot see it.

ANS: D DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF:

Blind Sight

OBJ:

15.3

18. Erin, who has Korsakoff‘s amnesia, is asked to perform in a memory experiment. Erin is likely to a. be capable of some sorts of learning but do poorly in explicit tests of memory. b. recall explicitly events that she has witnessed but not things that she has done. c. perform well on tests requiring conscious recollection even though her performance is poor if memory is tested indirectly. d. be unable to recall material learned in the past even though she explicitly recognizes the material when she encounters it.

ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Blind Sight

OBJ:

15.3

19. The phrase ―memory without awareness‖ is another way of describing a pattern in which a. explicit memory tests indicate that participants remember an event, but implicit memory tests indicate that they do not remember it. b. implicit memory tests indicate that participants remember an event, but explicit memory tests indicate that they do not remember it. c. recognition tests indicate that participants remember an event, but recall tests indicate that they do not remember it. d. direct memory testing indicates that participants remember an event, but indirect testing indicates that they do not remember it.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Understanding

Moderate

REF:

Blind Sight

OBJ:

15.3

20. A patient with blind sight is likely to show all of the following traits EXCEPT that, if asked to a. walk across the room, he or she does so easily. b. reach toward an object, he or she tends to reach in the appropriate direction. c. reach toward an object, he or she tends to reach with the appropriate hand position (e.g., with the hand open wide if the target is large). d. guess the identity of a visual stimulus (e.g., ―X‖ vs. ―O‖), his or her guesses are consistently correct.

ANS: A MSC: Applying

DIF:

Moderate

REF:

Blind Sight

OBJ:

15.3

21. Blind-sight patients seem able to make many visual discriminations and, when pressed, to locate objects in their visual environment.

Yet these same patients often refuse to walk across a room because they are concerned that they will bump into something. The text suggests that blind-sight patients a. are able to make discriminations only when the stimuli are particularly clear. b. can make discriminations only in controlled laboratory conditions. c. do not feel they have a reason or justification for using the information that is apparently available to them. d. tend to rely on routine rather than use the information that is apparently available to them.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.3 | 15.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Consciousness as Justification for Action

22. People can be influenced by a stimulus even if they are not consciously aware of having been exposed to the stimulus. Which of the following terms refers to this phenomenon? a. placebo effect c. action slips b. subliminal perception d. the mind-body problem ANS: B OBJ: 15.2 | 15.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Subliminal Perception

23. Participants will demonstrate a larger N400 brain wave when they perceive something that violates their expectations. Based on this, which of the following would be the strongest evidence for subliminal perception? a. a large N400 after reading the phrase ―The old man the boat‖ in a book b. a large N400 after overhearing someone say, ―It was a wonderful disaster‖ c. a large N400 after ―Don‘t eat popcorn‖ is flashed on screen at the theater during a movie scene d. a large N400 after seeing a magic trick ANS: C OBJ: 15.2 | 15.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

Subliminal Perception

24. Lisa rides the train to work and always gets off at Stop A. One Saturday she has to go into town, and she rides the same train she takes to work. She is supposed to get off at Stop F, but she starts talking to her mother on the phone and then gets off at Stop A. What does this tell us about unconscious processing? a. Unconscious processing is impossible. b. If not consciously attending to what we are doing, we often rely on habit. c. Unconscious processing only causes problems.

d.

People tend to make the same mistakes over and over again.

ANS: B OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Limits of Unconscious Performance

25. The term ―action slip‖ refers to a. an unintended action as the result of clumsy behavior. b. mistakenly relying on a habitual response when a different response was needed. c. accidents that occur when a patient has blind sight. d. the use of a conscious response rather than an unconscious one, even if it is more time-consuming.

ANS: B OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Limits of Unconscious Performance

26. Which of these tasks is LEAST likely to succeed with a reliance only on unconscious processes? a. a task that can be guided by habits b. a task that involves an already established routine c. a task that elicits strong stimulus-based actions d. a task that has been previously well practiced but needs to be changed for a particular occasion ANS: D OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Limits of Unconscious Performance

27. Which of these is the best example of an action slip? a. Darren was distracted and so took his usual route home from work instead of turning left, as he‘d intended, to go to his friend‘s house. b. David mistakenly pushed over a vase of flowers when he was reaching for his keys. c. Daniel did not check the address of his dentist, as he mistakenly believed he remembered it correctly. d. Derek reread the paragraph to make sure that he fully understood its content, even though he did not learn anything new from this second reading.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Limits of Unconscious Performance

28. Why is unconscious processing sometimes called ―irresistible‖? a. Our unconscious is inflexible, making it difficult to adjust or overrule routines. b. It is an attractive topic for psychologists to study. c. Freud coined the phrase, and it is still in use today. d. There are no limits to what the unconscious can achieve.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

The Limits of Unconscious Performance

29. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by relying on routine? a. Mental tasks run more quickly. b. We can focus attention on other aspects of a task, thus improving performance. c. We can expend less effort in deciding how to execute a task. d. We can consider each decision with greater care.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Understanding

A Role for Control

30. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by practicing a task? a. Only one overall routine needs to be launched instead of several steps in order to complete a task. b. Each step in the task no longer needs to be monitored to decide when to start the next step. c. The task can be completed without the need to pay attention, so that attention can be allocated elsewhere. d. Practice allows the mechanics behind the task to enter conscious awareness.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

A Role for Control

31. In which of the following situations would reliance on routine most benefit performance?

a. b. c. d.

When you‘re performing a task that is familiar and involves few decisions.

When you‘re performing a brand new, unfamiliar task.

When you‘re performing a task that requires frequent choices and adjustments.

When you‘re performing a task for which a routine is available but the current circumstances are ones in which it would be best to avoid the habitual routine.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

A Role for Control

32. The fact that we are unaware of most of our mental processing is a good thing for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that a. we can reliably infer what our mental processes are, so there‘s no need to monitor them. b. awareness of all of our processing would likely send us into information overload. c. in many cases, information about our underlying mental processes would be distracting rather than helpful. d. most tasks would be greatly slowed if we had to sort through all of the underlying processing information.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.4

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

A Role for Control

33. ________ refers to one‘s ability to monitor or control one‘s own mental processes. a. Metacognition c. Cognitive effort b. Metabolism d. Mental control ANS: A OBJ: 15.5

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

Metacognition

34. Billy thinks he understands the information from the textbook very well; however, he fails the quiz on that same material. Billy‘s error results from a failure of a. self-esteem. c. false memories. b. metacognition. d. a problem-solving set.

ANS: B OBJ: 15.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF:

Metacognition

35. Which of the following contributes the LEAST to successful metamemory? a. executive control c. conscious reflection b. self-monitoring d. habitual responding ANS: D OBJ: 15.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Metacognition

36. Biologically, attention seems to a. sustain activity within a neural system but not to link the activity between different neural systems. b. link the activities of different neural systems but not to help sustain the activity within a neural system. c. sustain activity within a neural system as well as link the activities between different neural systems. d. bind together neural systems that do not fire in synchrony.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.6

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

37. The anterior cingulate cortex plays a crucial role in a. regulating attention. b. regulating prefrontal cortex activity. c. binding representations together from different brain areas. d. detecting conflict among brain systems.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.6

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Function of the Neuronal Workspace

38. Which area of the brain is thought to be critical for resolving conflicts among disparate goals? a. occipital lobe c. anterior cingulate cortex

b.

basal ganglia

ANS: C OBJ: 15.6

d.

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

frontal lobe The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

39. Matt has sustained damage to his anterior cingulate cortex. What sort of disruptions in behavior would we expect to see as a result of this damage? a. difficulty with language, making problem solving difficult b. an inability to pay attention to anything in his environment for more than a few seconds c. difficulty overriding default responses produced by well-practiced behaviors d. a form of amnesia ANS: C OBJ: 15.6

DIF: Moderate MSC: Applying

REF:

The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

40. The term ―neural correlates of consciousness‖ refers to the a. changes in the brain that occur when we become conscious of a stimulus. b. subjective experience of how it feels to become conscious of a stimulus. c. area of the brain that is damaged when a person experiences blind sight. d. electrical activity in the brain that occurs when we are unconscious.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

41. In order to detect that a red shape is moving, it is likely that a. the neural system detecting motion and the neural system detecting the color red must both fire in synchrony. b. only the neural system detecting the color red is firing, as motion is automatically detected. c. only the neural system detecting motion is firing, as motion is visually more salient than color. d. the neural system detecting motion and the neural system detecting the color red are both firing but at an asynchronous rate.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

42. In the neuronal workspace hypothesis, workspace neurons a. carry the content (or information) of consciousness. b. dictate the rate at which neurons fire. c. glue together bits of information from different neural systems to create a unified experience. d. detect neural systems that are firing in a fashion that is out of synchrony with each other.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.7

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Remembering

The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

43. Which of the following is LEAST plausible as a benefit of the neuronal workspace? a. It allows us to think of a stimulus or idea long after the trigger for it has been removed. b. It breaks down a unitary experience into its separate components. c. It allows us to detect conflicts if two stimuli are leading toward different and incompatible responses or if the elicited response from a stimulus is incompatible with our goals. d. It allows us to compare neural systems in order to produce new combinations of ideas or novel behaviors.

ANS: B OBJ: 15.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

44. Which of the following is true about brain activity when sleeping? a. The brain is less active during sleep. b. The activities of the various brain areas slow down during sleep. c. During sleep, the brain‘s activities are not coordinated. d. Brain activity during REM sleep is just like brain activity when someone is awake.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

45. Which of the following statements about the role of the neuronal workspace is FALSE? a. The workspace links other active areas of the brain, allowing for the ―executive‖ to make decisions about current processing. b. The workspace allows the executive to detect conflict that may arise from competing demands or goals. c. It allows you to create new ideas and rise above habit. d. It prevents activity from occurring in multiple areas of the brain, to avoid confusion.

ANS: D OBJ: 15.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

46. Which of the following is a way in which the neuronal workspace supports metacognition? a. The workspace enables the individual to maintain mental representations in an active state for prolonged periods of time. b. The workspace can shift the executive‘s attention to more relevant information. c. The workspace will shift attention to material that is more or less fluent depending on one‘s goals. d. The workspace is selective in that it will integrate information that has yet to be learned or is not as well remembered.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

47. One possible difference between a ―sleeping brain‖ and an ―awake brain‖ relates to the neuronal workspace. Which of the following statements most accurately represents this relationship? a. When you are awake, the neuronal workspace allows areas of the brain to communicate with each other, which plausibly gives rise to consciousness. b. The workspace encourages the combination and integration of conflicting information when you are asleep, but not when you are awake. c. Changes in brain activity are monitored by the neuronal workspace when you are asleep, but not when you are awake. d. When you are asleep, the neuronal workspace allows areas of the brain to communicate with each other, which leads to dreaming.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.8

DIF: Moderate MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

48. Which of the following brain structures seems to be especially important for conflict detection in the neuronal workspace? a. thalamus c. amygdala b. hippocampus d. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) ANS: D OBJ: 15.8

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

49. In which of the following brain structures would you expect to see the most change in activity during an action slip? a. neuronal workspace c. primary motor cortex b. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) d. reticular activating system ANS: B OBJ: 15.4 | 15.8

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

50. Which of the following is UNLIKELY to be influenced by an internal sense of processing fluency? a. confidence estimates c. judgments of familiarity b. familiarity estimates d. stereotype threat ANS: D OBJ: 15.9

DIF: Moderate REF: MSC: Understanding

Processing Fluency

51. The text suggests that you will take action based on a memory a. only if you are satisfied that the thought you are having is in fact an actual memory. b. as soon as you recall the gist of the remembered information. c. independently of how you assess the memory. d. only if the content of the memory is consistent with your other beliefs.

ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF:

Consciousness as Justification for Action

OBJ:

15.10

MSC: Remembering

52. Which of the following claims about consciousness and memory seems to be FALSE? a. It is the nature and quality of our conscious experience that persuades us to take information seriously. b. Outside of laboratory circumstances, we are unlikely to be influenced by the workings of implicit memory. c. When our conscious experience is rich and detailed, this persuades us that the presented information is more than a fantasy or chance association. d. When our conscious experience is impoverished, we tend not to take action based on the information gained from that experience.

ANS: B OBJ: 15.10

DIF: Moderate MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Consciousness as Justification for Action

53. There is some suggestion that perceptual information has to be conscious before a person will put that information to use. This suggestion is supported by the observation that a. blind-sight patients refuse to take action based on what they can apparently see. b. blind-sight patients perform reasonably well in some tasks that require visual perception. c. patients with amnesia make guesses about the past, even if not prompted. d. people who are well-practiced in a task can perform the task without thinking about it.

ANS: A OBJ: 15.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Consciousness as Justification for Action

54. Participants in many experiments show clear evidence of implicit memory but fail on comparable tests of explicit memory. Yet the participants could, in principle, rely on their implicit memories to guide their guessing in the explicit test. If they did, they would perform well on the explicit tests. The text suggests that participants fail to do this because a. implicit memories are memories of a sort that cannot be applied to a procedure with direct memory testing. b. implicit memories are not detectable by the participant. c. participants seem to treat their implicit memories as though they were unreliable, and do not trust them to be actual memories. d. participants seem to rely on implicit memories for perceptually based tasks but not for tasks that are more conceptual.

ANS: C OBJ: 15.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Consciousness as Justification for Action

55. Although the text suggests that we know what consciousness is for, most researchers agree that defining consciousness is difficult.

Which of these is LEAST likely to be a part of what consciousness is? a. subjective feelings, such as what apples taste like or what the color green looks like b. automatic responses to strong cues in the environment c. the ability to report and use mental experiences d. the awareness of self, such as individual memories ANS: B OBJ: 15.10

DIF: Difficult REF: MSC: Understanding

Consciousness: What Is Left Unsaid

ESSAY 1. Describe the unconscious support structure that influences cognition and our cognitive products.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 15.1

REF: Unconscious Guides to Conscious Thinking MSC: Understanding

2. What does the available evidence tell us about the nature of introspection? Can people be trusted to know about the mental processes in which they engage? Why or why not? Provide examples to justify your position.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF:

Mistaken Introspections OBJ:

15.2

3. Explain how the experiences of patients with amnesia or blind sight contribute to our understanding of consciousness. Make sure to include in your answer a discussion of the disorders, the paradoxical abilities that the patients exhibit, and what this suggests about consciousness in the rest of us.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF:

Difficult

REF:

Blind Sight

OBJ:

15.3

MSC: Analyzing

4. Describe the benefits and dangers of unconscious processing. How does unconscious processing facilitate cognitive processing in everyday life? How can it lead to errors?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 15.4

REF: Consciousness and Executive Control MSC: Analyzing

5. Some people suggest that unconscious processes are akin to ―mental reflexes.‖ Do you agree? Support your answer with empirical evidence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 15.4

REF: The Limits of Unconscious Performance MSC: Evaluating

6. Your friend Mark thinks he is ready for his big test. Describe metacognition to Mark. What factors are likely to be accurate metacognitive markers? What could be misleading?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF:

Metacognition

OBJ:

15.5

7. How is consciousness represented in the brain? Describe the critical areas and how they interact to lead to conscious awareness.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 15.6

REF: The Many Brain Areas Needed for Consciousness MSC: Analyzing

8. Explain the concept of a ―neuronal workspace‖ as it relates to consciousness. What is the proposal, and how does it explain some of the apparent functions of consciousness?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

The Neuronal Workspace

OBJ:

15.7

9. Explain how the neuronal workspace would account for changes in consciousness associated with sleep.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 15.8

REF: The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control MSC: Analyzing

10. Explain how the neuronal workspace balances both unconscious and conscious processes. Explain how conflicts (e.g., a conflict between one‘s goal and one‘s habit) are addressed by the workspace.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Difficult 15.8

REF: The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control MSC: Analyzing

11. What are ―qualia‖? Does the experience of processing fluency fit the definition of qualia? What might be the function of this particular experience?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF:

Processing Fluency

OBJ:

15.9

12. Patients afflicted with blind sight insist that they are blind and behave accordingly (e.g., they fail to react to visual stimuli).

Nevertheless, they do appear to perceive stimuli and will, for example, reach in the correct region of space for an object that they otherwise claim not to be able to see. What do instances like this suggest about the role of consciousness as it relates to behavior?

Provide another example of cognition in healthy individuals that supports this role.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: OBJ:

Moderate 15.10

REF: Consciousness as Justification for Action MSC: Evaluating