Test Bank For Applying IFRS Standards, 5th Edition Ruth Picker, Leo van der Tas, David Kolitz, Gilad

Testbank to accompany

®

Applying IFRS Standards 5e

Ruth Picker, Kerry Clark, John Dunn, David Kolitz, Gilad Livne, Janice Loftus, Leo van der Tas

Prepared by John Sweeting, Emma Holmes and Elisabetta Barone

John Wiley & Sons, Ltd 2024

Chapter 1 The IASB and its Conceptual Framework

CHAPTER 1 The IASB and its Conceptual Framework

Learning Objectives 1.1 Describe the organisational structure of the key players in setting International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRSs) 1.2

Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why

1.3 Explain the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful 1.4

Discuss the going concern assumption underlying the preparation of financial statements

1.5 Define the basic elements in financial statements – assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses 1.6

Explain the principles for recognising the elements of financial statements

1.7 Distinguish between alternative bases for measuring the elements of financial statements 1.8 Outline concepts of capital.

Multiple Choice Questions

1.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Learning Objective 1.1 Describe the organisational structure of the key players in setting IFRSs: *a.

The International Accounting Standards Board was replaced by the International Standards Committee in 2001. b.

The International Accounting Standards Board is funded by the IASC Foundation. c.

The responsibility for issuing International Financial Reporting Standards lies with the International Accounting Standards Board. d.

Members of the International Accounting Standards Board are appointed by the IFRS Foundation.

2.

Which of the following bodies report to the IFRS Foundation?

Learning Objective 1.1 Describe the organisational structure of the key players in setting IFRSs: a.

The IASB and AASB b.

The IASB, AASB and the IFRS Advisory Council c.

The IASB and the FASB *d.

The IASB and the IFRS Advisory Council

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3.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why a.

The Framework identifies the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful. *b.

The Framework defines principles for accounting recognition, measurement and disclosure. c.

The Framework defines the objective of financial statements. d.

The Framework defines the basic elements of financial statements and the concepts for recognizing and measuring them in financial statements.

4.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why *a.

IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates, and Errors requires that The Framework be followed in the absence of a specific standard or interpretation. b.

IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates, and Errors recommends, but does not require The Framework to be followed in the absence of a specific standard or interpretation. c.

The Framework is used solely by the IASB when considering new accounting issues. d.

The Framework is non-binding guidance which does not have to be followed by preparers of financial statements.

5.

The Framework focuses on: Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why a. privately owned business entities only. *b. business entities only, including private and state owned business entities. c. business entities, although the concepts may be applied to other types of entities, such as not-for profit entities. d. all types of entities, including business entities, government and not-for profit entities.

6.

General Purpose Financial Statements: Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why a. are only necessary for users who do not have the power to obtain information in addition to that contained within the General Purpose Financial Statement. b. provide all the information that users may need to make economic decisions. c. focus on disclosing information relevant to assessing the ability of an entity to generate future cash flows. *d. meet the information needs that are common to all users.

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Chapter 1 The IASB and its Conceptual Framework

7.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in relation to the preparation of financial statements?

Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why a.

General Purpose Financial Statements must be prepared in accordance with accounting standards. b.

General Purpose Financial Statements are reports intended to meet the information needs common to users who are unable to command the preparation of reports tailored so as to specifically meet all their information needs. *c.

The sole objective of a General Purpose Financial Statement is to serve an economic decision making objective. d.

The objective of a General Purpose Financial Statement is to provide information useful to users for making and evaluating decisions about the allocation of scarce resources.

8.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why a.

Information about the variability of profits helps in forecasting future cash flows from an entity’s existing resources. *b.

Performance of an entity is determined solely through examination of the Statement of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income of an entity. c.

An entity’s Statement of Cash Flows provides insight into changes in assets and liability balances during an accounting period. d.

The Statement of Financial Position presents information relating to economic resources, the financial structure of an entity, liquidity and solvency and capacity to adapt to changes in an entity’s environment.

9.

The purpose of the notes to the financial statements is to: Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why a. explain any resources and obligations not recognised in the Statement of Financial Position b. provide information meeting the disclosure requirements under national laws or regulations. c. disclose risks and uncertainties affecting the entity. *d. all of the above.

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10.

Which category of user is most likely to be interested primarily in the Statement of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income of an entity?

Learning Objective 1.2 Describe the purpose of a conceptual framework – who uses it and why a. suppliers and trade creditors *b. shareholders c. employees d. lending institutions

11.

The qualitative qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful to investors identified within The Framework are: Learning Objective 1.3 Explain the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful a.

Relevance, faithful representation, timeliness and comparability b.

Relevance and faithful representation *c.

Relevance, faithful representation, comparability, verifiability, timeliness and understandability d.

Comparability, verifiability, timeliness and understandability

12.

Information that is able to confirm or correct past evaluations that have been made by users of financial information is an example of information that satisfies which of the following characteristics of financial information identified in The Framework?

Learning Objective 1.3 Explain the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful a.

Understandability *b.

Relevance c.

Verifiability d.

Comparability

13.

An asset is defined in the conceptual framework as: Learning Objective 1.3 Explain the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful concepts in the IASB Framework. a. a resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events b. a resource controlled by the entity as a result of future events and from which possible future economic benefits may flow to the entity. c. a resource controlled by the entity from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the entity. *d. a resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events and from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the entity.

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14.

A liability is defined in conceptual framework as: Learning Objective 1.3 Explain the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful concepts in the IASB Framework. a. possible obligation of the entity, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying economic benefits. b. a possible obligation of the entity expected to arise from future events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying economic benefits. *c. a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying economic benefits. d. a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an inflow to the entity of resources embodying economic benefits.

15.

The fundamental qualitative characteristics that make financial information useful for decision-making are: Learning Objective 1.3 Explain the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful.

comparability relevance understandability faithful representation a.

I; b.

II; c.

III; *d.

IV.

16.

II Yes Yes No No

III No No No No

IV No Yes No Yes

The enhancing qualitative characteristics that make financial information useful for decision-making are: Learning Objective 1.3 Explain the qualitative characteristics that make information in financial statements useful.

comparability verifiability timeliness understandability *a.

I; b.

II; c.

III; d.

IV.

17.

I Yes Yes Yes Yes

I Yes Yes Yes Yes

II Yes Yes No No

III No No No No

IV No Yes No Yes

The going concern assumption underlying the preparation of financial statements is also know as: Learning Objective 1.4 Discuss the going concern assumption underlying the preparation of financial statements

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*a. b. c. d.

18.

the continuity assumption the matching principle the prudence principle the historical cost measurement basis

If management intends to liquidate the entity’s operations, financial statements are prepared on the basis of Learning Objective 1.4 Discuss the going concern assumption underlying the preparation of financial statements a. b. *c. d.

Historical cost Historical cost with a note that the entity is about to liquidate Expected liquidation values Financial statements do not have to be prepared.

19.

The IASB conceptual framework for financial reporting describes the basic concepts that underlie financial statements and defines: Learning Objective 1.5 Define the basic elements in financial statements – assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses. a. the principles for measurement; b. disclosure principles; *c. the elements of financial statements d. accounting recognition criteria.

20.

Which of the following income and expense items is NOT recorded initially directly in equity?

Learning Objective 1.5 Define the basic elements in financial statements – assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses *a.

The impairment of goodwill in accordance with IAS 36 Impairment of Assets, where the entity is confident that the factors giving rise to the impairment will reverse in a future period. b.

An increase in the fair values of land & buildings, where the revaluation method is used to account for land & buildings in accordance with IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment. c.

Foreign currency translation adjustments arising on the translation of a foreign operations financial statements from their functional currency in accordance with IAS 21 The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates. d.

None of the above.

21.

Which of the following statements in relation to income is true?

Learning Objective 1.6 Explain the principles for recognising the elements of financial statements *a.

Gains are normally reported separately from revenue in the Statement of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income due to the different probabilities attached to that type of income. b.

The Framework requires that all items of income are reported on a net basis. c.

Gains and revenue are different in nature and therefore are recognised as separate elements of the financial statements per The Framework.

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d.

The Framework defines income as an increase in economic benefits which results in an increase in equity.

22.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in relation to the recognition criteria for elements of the financial statements?

Learning Objective 1.6 Explain the principles for recognising the elements of financial statements a.

Assets are recognised when it is probable that future economic benefits will flow to the entity and the asset has a cost or value that can be measured reliably. b.

Because equity is the arithmetic difference between assets and liabilities, a separate recognition criteria for equity is not needed in The Framework. c.

Liabilities are recognised when it is probable that an outflow of resources embodying economic benefits will result from the settlement of a present obligation and the amount at which settlement will take place can be measured reliably. *d.

Income is recognised when an increase in future economic benefits related to a decrease in an asset or an increase in a liability that has arisen can be measured reliably.

23.

In relation to the concept of recognition of an item in the financial statements: Learning Objective 1.6 Explain the principles for recognising the elements of financial statements a.

Items of equity must satisfy both the probability and measurement criteria before they can be recognised. b.

Assets can only be recognised where there is a high probability of future economic benefits flowing to the entity. c.

Expenses are recognised when a decrease in a future economic benefit related to an increase in an asset or a decrease in a liability has arisen that can be measured reliably. *d.

For items to qualify for recognition in the financial statements as liabilities or income they must first satisfy the definition of an element, and then meet both the probability and measurement requirements in relation to recognition.

24.

In accordance with the conceptual framework, income is recognised in the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income when: Learning Objective 1.6 Explain the principles for recognising the elements of financial statements. a. an decrease in future economic benefits relating to an decrease in an asset or an increase in a liability can be measured reliably. *b. an increase in future economic benefits relating to an increase in an asset or a decrease in a liability can be measured reliably. c. an increase in future economic benefits relating to an increase in an asset can be measured reliably. d. an increase in future economic benefits relating to an decrease in an asset or an increase in a liability can be measured reliably.

25.

Expenses are recognised in the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive

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income when: Learning Objective 1.6 Explain the principles for recognising the elements of financial statements. a. increase in future economic benefits related to a increase in an asset or an increase in a liability can be measured reliably. *b. a decrease in future economic benefits related to a decrease in an asset or an increase in a liability can be measured reliably. c. a decrease in future economic benefits related to a decrease in an asset or a decrease in a liability can be measured reliably. d. none of the options are correct.

26.

In relation to measurement of the elements of financial statements Learning Objective 1.7 Distinguish between alternative bases for measuring the elements of financial statements *a.

The Framework acknowledges that a variety of measurement bases are used to different degrees and in varying combinations in financial statements. b.

The Framework includes detailed concepts and principles for selecting which measurement basis should be used for particular elements of financial statements. c.

Net realisable value is the preferred basis for measurement of assets. d.

The Framework adopts a mixed attribute accounting model

27.

The measurement method most commonly used in the preparation of financial statements is: Learning Objective 1.7 Distinguish between alternative bases for measuring the elements of financial statements: a. present value; b. current cost; c. realisable value; *d. historical cost.

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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Under the Articles of Confederation, who headed Congress? a. No one b. A presiding officer selected from among its members c. A popularly elected president d. A president chosen by the Electoral College e. A three-person presiding cabinet 2. Which of the following is true with regard to the Great Compromise? a. It was advanced by delegates from Georgia. b. It proposed a bicameral legislature with equal representation in the Senate. c. It was presented too late to be considered. d. It was proposed by Delaware. e. It proposed a unicameral legislature in which each state would have one vote.

3. What is one important consequence of the separation of powers in the American political system? a. It can produce policy gridlock. b. It can lead to an all-powerful executive branch. c. It can give too much authority to the unelected judiciary. d. It can hasten the passage of policies. e. It tends to lead to more extreme policies.

4. The Bill of Rights limits the power of which of the following? a. The government over the rights and liberties of individuals b. The national government over the rights of the states c. State governments over the inherent powers of the national government d. National and state governments to tax individuals e. State governments to tax the national government 5. What does the “state of nature” refer to? a. Society without government b. Government without society c. The formation of government along the lines of natural law d. The clash between government and society e. The very highest form of government 6. The Great Compromise resolved the impasse between which of the following two groups? a. Large and small states regarding the executive branch b. Large and small states regarding representation

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c. Northern and Southern states regarding representation d. Northern and Southern states regarding slavery e. Federalists and Antifederalists regarding the executive branch 7. Dividing power between the states and the national government is referred to as what? a. Sovereignty b. Dual legitimacy c. Egalitarianism d. Oligarchy e. Federalism 8. How did Pennsylvania‟s government, which was considered “radically democratic,” differ from other state governments? a. It had no constitution. b. It had no written laws. c. It had no elected officials. d. It had no legislature. e. It had no governor.

9. In the Constitution, what powers have been given exclusively to the states? a. Enumerated b. Reserved c. Concurrent d. Federalist e. Antifederalist 10. The Declaration of Independence listed grievances against which person for violations against political liberties? a. King George II b. King George III c. Queen Elizabeth d. George Washington e. Thomas Jefferson 11. States were granted extra representation based on the number of slaves they held under which of the following? a. The slavery population clause b. The equal population clause c. The three-fifths compromise d. The five-eighths compromise e. The full faith and credit clause

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12. The scope and authority of power that Congress was granted under the Articles of Confederation can best be described as which of the following? a. Narrow b. Broad c. Implied d. Powerful e. All-encompassing 13. Which delegates tended to vote in favor of ratifying the Constitution? a. Farmers b. Slave-owners c. Merchants who lived in cities d. State legislators e. Immigrants from the European continent 14. What was true for amendments under the Articles of Confederation? a. They had to be written in secret. b. They had to be submitted to the national judiciary for approval. c. They had to have the approval of half of the state governors. d. They had to be supported by all thirteen states. e. There was no mechanism to have amendments.

15. Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the motives behind the support that different Framers gave to the U.S. Constitution? a. Most Framers acted out of a mixture of motives, with economic interests playing only a modest role. b. The Framers who did not hold government debt, but owned slaves tended to support the U.S. Constitution. c. The Framers who held debt but did not own slaves tended to oppose the U.S. Constitution. d. The support that different Framers gave to the U.S. Constitution was divided along class lines. e. The Framers acted in a manner that reflected the religious convictions of their respective states.

16. "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal" are the first words of which of the following documents? a. The Constitution of the United States of America b. The Declaration of Independence c. The Magna Carta d. The Emancipation Proclamation e. The Bill of Rights 17. Which of the following was true of the Federalists? a. They supported the new Constitution.

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b. They were mostly rural people from the lower classes. c. They did not attend the Constitutional Convention. d. They supported the status quo. e. They were worried that the national government would be too powerful.

18. In 1776, what was one important reason that colonists regarded independence as desirable? a. They no longer had confidence that the British government would protect their liberties. b. They could no longer afford the price of British exports. c. They had come to reject the philosophy of John Locke. d. They had come to reject British ideas of individual rights. e. They were struggling economically.

19. Which of the following was true of the Antifederalists? a. They lived in urban areas. b. They attended the Constitutional Convention. c. They supported a strong central government. d. They opposed the new Constitution. e. They lived in urban areas and attended the Constitutional Convention.

20. Originally, the Constitutional Convention's purpose was to do which of the following? a. Adopt a new constitution b. Establish a unified foreign policy c. Raise money for a national army to stop Shays's Rebellion d. Revise the Articles of Confederation e. Overturn articles amended by the Second Continental Congress 21. Madison‟s confidence in the usefulness of the separation of powers rested on what assumption? a. The strongest would survive. b. Human nature was basically good. c. No one would purposely seek power. d. Ambitions would counteract each other. e. Government would create virtuous citizens.

22. Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress had the power to do which of the following? a. Establish and control the armed forces b. Compel the states to meet military quotas c. Collect taxes directly from the people d. Regulate interstate and foreign commerce e. Compel states to pay their share of government costs 23. Which group was entirely excluded from ratification of the Constitution?

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a. Women b. Farmers c. Men d. Property owners e. Whites 24. Which of the following was the chief obstacle to the ratification of the Constitution by the states? a. The failure to abolish slavery b. The omission of a bill of rights c. The power it granted to tax d. The lack of court structure below the Supreme Court e. The inclusion of the plural executive 25. Which of the following is the term for the fundamental law undergirding the structure of the government? a. Parliament b. Social contract c. Constitution d. Congress e. Federal system 26. A constitutional amendment can be ratified in which of the following ways? a. A positive vote in conventions in three-fourths of the states b. A positive vote in the legislatures of three-fourths of the states c. A two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress, followed by a positive vote in the legislatures of three-fourths of the states d. The legislatures in two-thirds of the states e. A positive vote in conventions in three-fourths of the states and/or a positive vote in the legislatures of three-fourths of the states 27. In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson's statement that "all men are created equal" is similar to which of the following theorist's belief that government is based on the "consent of the governed"? a. John Locke b. Aristotle c. Karl Marx d. David Hume e. Montesquieu 28. The first draft of the Declaration of Independence was written by whom? a. Benjamin Franklin b. Thomas Paine

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c. John Adams d. Thomas Jefferson e. George Washington 29. The power of the Supreme Court to declare the actions of the other branches of government to be unconstitutional is known as which of the following? a. Judicial review b. Judicial activism c. Judicial ratification d. The supremacy doctrine e. Due process 30. The rights and liberties enjoyed in the United States are primarily stated in which of the following documents? a. The Articles of Confederation b. The Bill of Rights c. The Constitution as originally written d. The Constitution as written and the Bill of Rights e. The Declaration of Independence 31. The fundamental weakness of the Articles of Confederation was which of the following? a. Tax levels that were too high for most Americans b. An overpowering executive c. Congress's lack of power to conduct foreign affairs d. Congress's lack of power to declare war e. The inability of Congress to raise funds 32. During the ratification process, which group favored decentralization to preserve liberty from an overpowering central government? a. Antifederalists b. Federalists c. Whigs d. Tories e. Marxists 33. The Articles of Confederation did which of the following? a. Provided for a bicameral legislature b. Established a strong executive branch c. Allowed the states to retain most of their power d. Created a way to raise taxes to fund an army e. Ended slavery

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34. The selection of senators by state legislatures was intended to serve as a check on which of the following? a. State legislatures b. The Senate c. Popular will d. The president e. Political parties 35. The Declaration of Independence was necessary for which of the following reasons? a. To establish a framework for a new system of government that would allow taxation without representation b. To establish the legitimacy of the new nation in the eyes of foreign governments and the colonists c. To create a delicate balance between federal and state powers d. To identify the reasons the British saw separation from the colonies as necessary e. To demand a separation of church and state 36. The president of the United States is selected by which of the following? a. Direct popular vote b. The U.S. Senate c. The House and Senate combined d. The Electoral College e. The State Legislatures 37. Which of the following is a key difference between the Virginia Plan and the present-day American government? a. The Virginia Plan did not call for three branches of government. b. The Virginia Plan did not divide the legislature into two houses. c. In the Virginia Plan, the president was not elected by the people. d. In the Virginia Plan, none of the legislature was elected by the people. e. In the Virginia Plan, the legislature could not override an executive veto.

38. The goal of the Framers of the U.S. Constitution was to create what type of system? a. A political system in which majority rule was supreme b. A pure democracy modeled after the New England town meeting c. A pluralist democracy ruled by the common people d. An autonomous collective e. A republic based on a system of representation 39. Which of the following was true of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention? a. Very few were members of the upper class. b. Only a few came from professional backgrounds.

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c. Most represented a cross-section of American society. d. Most were senior statesmen with state governmental experience. e. Most were members of the upper class, and a majority came from professional backgrounds.

40. The Constitutional assignment of lawmaking, law-enforcing, and law-interpreting functions to the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, respectively, is known as which of the following? a. The supremacy clause b. Inherent powers c. Direct democracy d. The implied powers clause e. Separation of powers 41. The protest movement of debt-ridden farmers facing foreclosures on their homes and farms was known as which of the following? a. The Boston Tea Party b. The Boston Massacre c. Shays's Rebellion d. Dorr‟s Rebellion e. Boxer Rebellion 42. The Virginia Plan included which of the following? a. It called for a bicameral legislature. b. It worked to the advantage of the small states. c. It provided for the direct election of the president by the people. d. It settled all the controversies. e. It called for Supreme Court justices to select the president.

43. What was the effect of Shays‟s Rebellion on the attendance of delegates at the planned Constitutional Convention of 1787? a. It encouraged attendance because delegates feared the collapse of state governments. b. It encouraged attendance because delegates feared intervention by the British. c. It discouraged attendance because delegates feared a public outcry against any strengthening of the Articles of Confederation. d. It discouraged attendance because delegates feared intervention by the British. e. It discouraged the attendance of delegates who fought in the Revolutionary War. 44. Shays's Rebellion plays an important role in American history for which of the following reasons? a. It represents the first major battle to occur in the Southern colonies during the American Revolution. b. It anticipated the states' rights battle. c. It was the last major battle of the Revolutionary War. d. It made obvious the weaknesses of the government under the Articles of Confederation.

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e. It enabled the colonists to reorganize and gain the upper hand against the British in the Revolutionary War. 45. How many special state conventions had to ratify the U.S. Constitution before it took effect? a. Seven b. Nine c. Ten d. Eleven e. Thirteen 46. The Constitutional Convention of 1787 was brought about by which of the following? a. The ratification of the Treaty of Paris b. A request by President Washington c. The failure of the Articles of Confederation d. The public debate over slavery e. The end of the Revolutionary War 47. In the Constitution, what powers are given exclusively to the national government? a. Enumerated b. Reserved c. Concurrent d. Federalist e. Unitary 48. The Constitution would not have been ratified in several important states if the Federalists had not assured the states of which of the following? a. A ban on the importation of slaves would be a focus of the first Congress. b. Amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect individual liberties against infringement by the national government. c. Amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect the rights of states against infringement by the national government. d. An amendment would be passed to prohibit the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor. e. Slaves who had escaped to free states would not to be returned to their owners in slave states.

49. Under the separation of powers, the U.S. system keeps power among the branches balanced by enabling one branch to counter the actions of another by the use of which of the following? a. Authority b. Checks and balances c. Republicanism d. Due process e. Federalism

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50. The Great Compromise finally allocated representation on the basis of what? a. Population, in both houses b. Equality, in both houses c. Population in the House and equality in the Senate d. Equality in the House and population in the Senate e. State-based quotas 51. What would be the effect of granting the president line-item veto power? a. It would grant the president less power over policy making. b. It would grant the president power to stop unwarranted spending. c. It would not really affect anything. d. It would give Congress much more power. e. It would increase spending overall.

52. During the ratification process, which group held that a reasonable balance of liberty, order, and progress required a strong national government? a. Antifederalists b. Federalists c. Whigs d. Tories e. Marxists 53. What was one primary feature of most early state constitutions? a. A detailed bill of rights b. A plan for land use and improvement c. A strong executive branch d. A disregard for individual rights e. Economic regulation of free markets 54. During the constitutional deliberations, Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison, to sway public opinion, wrote 85 essays known as which of the following? a. The Antifederalist Papers b. Common Sense c. The Federalist Papers d. The Mayflower Compact e. The Pluralist Papers 55. Each state would have had an equal number of votes in the national legislature under which plan? a. Connecticut Plan b. New Jersey Plan c. Maryland Plan d. Virginia Plan

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e. Georgia Plan 56. The New Jersey Plan was a reaction by some states concerned primarily with what feature of the Virginia Plan? a. The legislative veto power would seriously undermine individual states‟ rights. b. A weak central government would grant too much power to rural states. c. A judiciary chosen by the legislature would be too politically biased. d. The power of representation was disproportionally in favor of the more populous states. e. A single executive chosen by the legislature is too volatile.

57. Identify the primary interests of the large states and explain how those interests differed from the small states.

58. Discuss the importance of the Bill of Rights in terms of its role in the ratification process.

59. Identify the various positions on slavery expressed at the constitutional convention and describe the compromises that took place.

60. Identify and explain the major differences between the Article of Confederation and the United States Constitution.

61. Identify the primary interests of the small states and explain how those interests differed from the large states.

62. Compare and contrast the arguments in favor and against the inclusion of a Bill of Rights.

63. Identify and explain the elements of the Articles of Confederation that led it to be a weak and ineffective form of government.

64. Explain how the Constitution deals with social and political equality and describe how this has changed since the Constitution was ratified.

65. Examine the major conflicts of the Constitutional Convention and how they were ultimately resolved.

66. Explain the role that Shay‟s Rebellion played in facilitating constitutional change.

67. Compare and contrast the Virginia plan with the New Jersey plan and explain the Great Compromise.

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Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. e 8. e 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. d 21. d

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22. a 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. d 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. e 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. e 39. e 40. e 41. c 42. a

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43. a 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. c 51. b 52. b 53. a 54. c 55. b 56. d 57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

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64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

67. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Decentralizing power from the federal to state governments, except in critical issues and foreign policy, is generally a reflection of what belief? a. That the courts believe that the executive branch has too much power b. That the legislative branch is attempting to reestablish its power c. That citizens are exerting their power d. That state and local political leaders are more aware of local needs and problems e. That the federal government always makes bad choices when it comes to state and local issues 2. During the 1960s, federal grants to states were increasingly based on what? a. The demands of the individual states b. What state officials perceived to be important state needs c. The power of organized interest groups d. What federal officials perceived to be national needs e. The demands of coalitions of states 3. Which of the following is a requirement in federal legislation that forces state and local governments to comply with certain rules? a. A waiver b. An earmark c. A federal mandate d. A national agenda e. A leverage package 4. A government program that is funded by the national government but run and managed by state governments is emblematic of which of the following? a. Dual federalism b. Cooperative federalism c. Enumerated powers d. Reserved powers e. Mandates 5. Which of the following forms of federalism involves state governments and the national government

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working together to solve the nation‟s problems? a. Collaborative federalism b. Cooperative federalism c. Distinctive federalism d. Dual federalism e. Categorical federalism 6. What are federal mandates? a. They are rules for operation in the Supreme Court. b. They are requirements attached to state laws to dispense state grants. c. They are requirements in federal legislation that force states to comply with federal rules. d. They are regulations enacted by the federal government to regulate grants. e. They are laws that govern unconstitutional acts carried out by the states.

7. What is one challenge of the devolution revolution for state governments? a. States have less control over policy. b. States must contend with funding issues. c. States are constrained by too much federal oversight. d. States are always more generous with programs compared to the federal government. e. States generally have many more resources than the federal government.

8. Which of the following countries does not employ a federal system of government? a. Great Britain b. United States c. India d. Switzerland e. Germany 9. During the time of the Constitutional Convention, why was federalism an appealing compromise? a. It prevented cities and states from being dominated by a single group or faction. b. It maintained state traditions while creating a strong national government to handle common problems. c. It allowed politicians to avoid the issues of slavery and women's suffrage. d. It permitted states to nullify actions of the national government. e. It made the national government the focal point of dissatisfaction.

10. Which of these is a procedure that enables voters to reject a measure adopted by the legislature? a. Initiative b. Referendum c. Recall d. Log-rolling e. Rollback

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11. Which of the following is the power to coin money, create naturalization laws, admit new states, and declare war? a. Implied b. Inferred c. Inherent d. Reserved e. Enumerated 12. What is the doctrine of dual federalism? a. The function of the government is determined by the people. b. The federal government has more functions than the state governments. c. The state governments have more functions than the federal government. d. The state and federal governments have identical functions. e. The state and federal governments have separate functions.

13. Much of President Trump's controversial response to the COVID-19 pandemic was to leave the decisions to the fifty states' governors. Upon reflection, his reasoning would demonstrate which of the following beliefs? a. The federal government has no role when dealing with pandemics. b. The Court should make those decisions. c. Congress should legislate the government's response. d. The World Health Organization (WHO) is the proper agency to respond. e. That power should remain in the hands of the states and their elected officials.

14. In about half of the states, voters can use what procedure to place legislative measures directly on the ballot by getting enough signatures? a. Initiative b. Referendum c. Recall d. Log-rolling e. Rollback 15. What is the system or form of government in which sovereignty is constitutionally divided between the national and state governments? a. Authoritarianism b. Direct Democracy c. Unitary system d. Federalism e. Confederal system 16. Which of the following modern political ideologies has traditionally favored state governments over

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the federal government? a. Liberalism b. Conservatism c. Socialism d. Libertarianism e. Traditionalism 17. Which of the following entities settles conflicts related to power sharing between the states and the national government? a. U.S. President b. Association of state governors c. U.S. Senate d. U.S. Supreme Court e. U.S. House of Representatives 18. The Framers did not include an explicit statement of state powers in the U.S. Constitution. In which amendment was it later added? a. Second Amendment b. Seventh Amendment c. Tenth Amendment d. Fourteenth Amendment e. Nineteenth Amendment 19. Which of the following systems of government allows the central government to make laws that are directly applicable to member states, and those states can choose not to support the laws? a. Unitary b. Federal c. Authoritarian d. Totalitarian e. Confederal 20. What is the primary purpose of the intergovernmental lobby? a. To provide federal jobs b. To increase taxes c. To lower taxes d. To reduce federal spending e. To get more federal money 21. Which of the following powers is not given to the federal government by the Constitution, nor reserved to the states? a. Concurrent powers b. Reserved powers

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c. Implied powers d. Enumerated powers e. Inherent powers 22. What is the constitutional provision that allows federal laws to take precedent over state laws? a. Commerce clause b. Supremacy clause c. 10th Amendment d. Reserve clause e. Elastic clause 23. What is the process of passing on many federal programs to the states called? a. Devolution b. Revolution c. State initiative d. State referendum e. Policy entrepreneurship 24. The advantages of a federal system of government include which of the following? a. All Americans gain the benefit of uniform social services policies in every state. b. The federal government becomes the focal point of political dissatisfaction for most citizens. c. It is more practical to locate most power in one place. d. State governments are frequently testing grounds for new governmental initiatives. e. Smaller political units, such as states and cities, are less likely to be dominated by a single political group.

25. Which term describes a decision by an administrative agency granting another party permission to violate a law or administrative rule that would otherwise apply to it? a. Due Process b. Waiver c. Letter of intent d. Mandate e. Administrative law 26. In a confederation, from what source does the national government derive its power? a. The people b. The states c. The Congress d. The courts e. Organized interests 27. What does the phrase laboratories of democracy mean?

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a. Toxic waste sites, which have been of growing concern over the last four decades b. Taxing Big Pharmacy more because of the universally held belief that they are gouging consumers c. States can try out different policies, which may be adopted by the state or federal government. d. Increasing the number of state schools that teach political science, making a more educated electorate e. A federal initiative to expand the number of clinical laboratories in each state to test for COVID-19.

28. When did the grants-in-aid system begin to grow rapidly? a. In the 20th century b. In the 19th century c. During the Civil War d. Immediately after the U.S. Constitution was ratified e. After September 11, 2001 29. William H. Riker concluded that the main effect of federalism since the Civil War was that it supported which of these? a. Poverty b. Racism c. Corruption d. Fraud e. Sexism 30. In a unitary system of government, the ultimate government authority is located on which of the following levels? a. The state or provincial level b. The local or municipal level c. The regional level d. The national or central level e. The state or provincial level and the local or municipal level 31. Which of the following best describes police power? a. It is the authority to regulate commerce. b. It is reserved for the federal government to fight terrorism. c. It is the states' rights to make laws that are prohibited by the U.S. Constitution in order to regulate markets within their borders. d. It is the power of local police to stop drivers who are speeding. e. It is the states‟ authority to legislate for the protection of the health, welfare, safety, and morals of the people.

32. The push toward devolution has resulted in what? a. Less adherence to government rules and regulations

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b. Much more liberal policies c. Fewer government rules and regulations d. More government rules and regulations e. The states having a surplus of funding 33. Why did the Antifederalists oppose the Constitution originally? a. They felt it empowered state governments. b. They felt it created a bicameral Congress. c. They felt it gave states the power to coin money. d. They didn‟t support the navy that it created. e. They thought it gave too much power to the national government.

34. An interest group with a strong following in only one region of the country would have the best chance of achieving its goals under which type of system? a. Democratic b. Republican c. Federal d. Unitary e. Provincial 35. What is the basic premise of federalism? a. Supreme executive power derives from a mandate from the masses. b. Two or more governments share power and authority over the same land and people. c. Supreme political authority remains with the states. d. The national government has ultimate sovereignty over a country‟s land and people. e. State and local governments may not exercise powers of their own that are independent of the national government.

36. What was an important outcome of Marshall‟s ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)? a. Placed limits on the constitutional powers granted to Congress by refusing McCulloch‟s appeal b. Gave greater power to the states in taxing agents of the federal government, including banks c. Protected newspaper editors who publish stories critical of the federal government d. Restricted the power of the Court in cases involving conflicts between states and the federal government e. Confirmed the supremacy of the federal government in the exercise of the constitutional powers granted to Congress 37. Which of the following systems consists of a league of independent states, each having essentially sovereign powers, and a central government with limited powers? a. Unitary b. Confederal

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c. Federal d. Central e. Bicameral 38. What is the most accurate definition of sovereignty? a. The supreme or ultimate authority b. A relationship between the federal and state governments c. The Supreme Court‟s ability to legislate d. An antiquated notion of the powers of a monarch e. A term coined by Jefferson to describe the relationship of church and state 39. In a federal political system, how is authority distributed? a. It is always vested in a bicameral legislature. b. It is divided between the central government and regional or subdivisional governments. c. It is given to the central government, with no power being granted to the regional governments. d. It is concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government. e. It is exercised by the national government only insofar as these powers are granted by the states.

40. Which type of grant is offered for a specific purpose defined by federal law, such as building an airport or a college dormitory? a. In-kind b. Categorical c. Distributive d. Incentive e. Formulative 41. What was the central question in the McCulloch v. Maryland case? a. If the executive branch had the power to institute a peacetime draft b. If Congress had the power to establish a national bank c. If Congress had the power to regulate commerce along major waterways d. If the Supreme Court had the power to investigate the executive branch e. If it should remove one of its own members from the Supreme Court 42. What does the doctrine of nullification refer to? a. The power of Congress to veto state laws that violate the U.S. Constitution b. The claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating the U.S. Constitution c. The power of the president to veto state laws for violating the U.S. Constitution d. The authority of the president to dissolve Congress and to call for new elections e. The power of the federal government to invalidate state laws on matters of commerce

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43. Which of the following gives Congress the power to regulate trade among the states? a. 10th Amendment b. Commerce clause c. Supremacy clause d. Necessary and proper clause e. Due process clause 44. What are terms set by the national government that states must meet whether they accept federal grants or not? a. De facto orders b. Formulation c. Mandates d. Distributive e. De jure orders 45. In the last sixty years, the fastest-growing grants to states have been what? a. Income security b. Education c. Transportation d. Health care e. Community development 46. California’s Governor Gray Davis was replaced by Arnold Schwarzenegger in 2003

by what method? a. Recall b. Referendum c. Initiative d. Impeachment e. Writ of mandamus.

47. What procedure, which is permitted in over 20 states, permits voters to remove an elected official from office? a. Initiative b. Referendum c. Recall d. Log-rolling e. Rollback 48. What was the first form of grants-in-aid from the national government to the states? a. Cash grants-in-aid b. Block grants

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c. Revenue sharing d. Categorical grants e. Land grants 49. When establishing the Constitution, why were the reserved powers of the states not clearly defined? a. The Framers assumed that the states would exercise authority over that which the federal government could not. b. The national government was developing a detailed list but preferred to first establish a basic foundation. c. The majority of power was to be retained by the people with individual rights taking priority over those of the state governments. d. The issue of slavery prevented a list of specific powers from being drafted by the founders. e. The Framers intended the Supreme Court to evaluate the needs of the states on an ongoing basis.

50. How has the Supreme Court ruled regarding mandates? a. The 10th Amendment provides states and local officials no protection from mandates. b. State and local officials are immune from lawsuits. c. Mandates are unconstitutional. d. Mandates cannot be in conflict with state constitutions. e. Mandates may only be applied to the environmental decisions of the various states.

51. The necessary and proper clause of Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution is also known as which one of the following? a. The supremacy clause b. The confederal system c. The commerce clause d. The unitary system e. The elastic clause 52. Which of the following is the transfer of government power from the national government to state governments? a. Cooperative federalism b. Revolution c. Regression d. Devolution e. Dual federalism 53. As it applies to the states, what does the full faith and credit clause mean? a. It prosecutes individuals who have broken other states' laws. b. It returns persons fleeing justice back to their home state. c. It honors the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states.

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d. It extends to citizens of other states the privileges and immunities of its own citizens. e. It prosecutes individuals who have broken other states' laws and honors the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of other states.

54. In the United States, what are programs such as the interstate highway system and services to the unemployed most accurately considered? a. State functions that operate without any involvement on the part of the federal government b. Federal functions, although state governments pay some of the costs c. State functions that are designated under the Tenth Amendment d. Federal functions that operate without any involvement on the part of state governments e. State functions, although the federal government seeks to regulate them 55. Which of the following metaphors best describes cooperative federalism? a. Layer cake b. Sponge cake c. Fruit cake d. Marble cake e. Bundt cake

56. Compare and contrast block grants and categorical grants.

57. Explain the doctrine of nullification.

58. Compare and contrast dual federalism and cooperative federalism.

59. Explain the purpose and role of grants-in-aid.

60. Explain the concept of sovereignty as it applies to federalism.

61. Compare the relationship of the federal and state governments during the era of dual federalism with the cooperative federalism that emerged during the 1930s.

62. Compare and contrast a unitary system with a federal system of government.

63. Explain how political ideology corresponds to individuals' views on devolution.

64. Describe the outcome of McCulloch v. Maryland and explain the significance of the case.

65. Discuss how modern immigration policy is a challenge to federalism.

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66. Describe the concept of devolution and explain why it can be controversial.

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Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. e 12. e 13. e 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. e 20. e 21. b

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22. b 23. a 24. d 25. b 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. e 32. d 33. e 34. c 35. b 36. e 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. b

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43. b 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. c 48. e 49. a 50. a 51. e 52. d 53. c 54. e 55. d 56. Students' answers may vary.

57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

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64. Students' answers may vary.

65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following best characterizes the southern government established after secession from the Union? a. The government was radically different than the Constitution. b. The government was closely modeled after the Constitution. c. The government was based on direct democracy. d. The government was based on the English parliamentary system. e. The government established a military dictatorship.

2. The notion that individuals should work hard, save their money, and avoid dependence on the state is sometimes referred to as what? a. Protestant ethic b. Progressive spirit c. Doctrine of social Darwinism d. Evolutionary principle e. Labor theory of value 3. Which of the following is a possible explanation for the success of democracy in early America? a. The lack of a national army b. Strict immigration laws c. Low population levels d. Moderate temperatures e. The availability of land 4. Which view of social policy is most popular in American political culture? a. Individualist b. Collectivist c. Marxist d. Reformist e. Traditionalist 5. Who or what do most Americans generally believe determines success in life? a. The individual b. Forces beyond an individual's control

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c. The system of government d. The economic system e. Democracy 6. Which political difference among nations is the most difficult to summarize? a. Constitutional b. Demographic c. Cultural d. Political differences among nations are equally difficult to summarize. e. Religious 7. Which of the following does the United States have that the United Kingdom does not? a. Armed forces b. Independent judiciary c. Written constitution d. Treaties with other nations e. Bicameral legislature 8. Which of the following is a reason why economic inequality is difficult to address in policy making? a. A low degree of class consciousness b. Liberal majorities in Congress c. The Federal Reserve System of Banking d. Citizens' general preference for greater inequality e. A less professionalized Congress that lacks the time to address inequality 9. Which of the following is a patterned and sustained way of thinking about how political and economic life ought to be carried out? a. Political culture b. Civil society c. Individual responsibility d. Civic duty e. Civic competence 10. Which of these has experienced an increase in public support in recent times? a. Newspapers b. Public schools c. Labor unions d. Television news e. The military 11. What was the Swedish sociologist Gunnar Myrdal referring to when he spoke of “America‟s

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dilemma”? a. Religion in politics b. Race relations c. Corporate influence d. Political ignorance e. Economic inequality 12. During the 1730s and 1740s, the political life of the American colonies was transformed by what? a. Industrialization in the north b. War with France c. A religious revivalist movement called the First Great Awakening d. The introduction of slavery e. The American independence movement 13. Which political scientist viewed the culture wars as a myth and argued that most Americans are moderate? a. Alan Abramowitz b. James Stimson c. Morris Fiorina d. Keith Poole e. Howard Rosenthal 14. Why were churches in the United States important in the development of a sense of civic duty and civic competence? a. They indoctrinated citizens to favor the status quo. b. They were in a continuous struggle for survival. c. They provided the major opportunity for citizens to express their political views. d. They were independent of most political pressures. e. They were organized much like a political system.

15. Which principle of American political culture holds that people should generally be able to do whatever they want as long as they do not hurt or cause injury to others? a. Liberty b. Equality c. Civic duty d. Democracy e. Capitalism 16. Since the early 1900s, how has the importance of religion in America changed? a. It fluctuates unpredictably. b. It remains constant. c. The importance is increasing.

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d. The importance is declining. e. It cannot be measured.

17. Which of the following statements about economic equality applies most accurately to Americans? a. A majority of Americans believe that all people should be paid on the basis of their economic needs: “equality of results.” b. A majority of Americans believe that everyone has the right to get ahead: “equality of opportunity.” c. A majority of Americans believe in the preferential treatment of women and minorities in hiring: “equality of access.” d. A majority of Americans believe in the idea of having a limit on what people can earn: “equality of wealth.” e. A majority of Americans believe that citizens who participate in politics should have guaranteed income: “equality of participants.”

18. What is the belief that one can affect government policies? a. Political culture b. Civic duty c. Civil society d. Individual responsibility e. Civic competence 19. Why is civil society important in the United States? a. It is the only way citizens can get involved. b. Organizations teach people how to cooperate, develop community service skills, and increase social capital. c. Widespread participation decreases income inequality. d. It decreases the influence of money in politics. e. It increases party polarization.

20. The relevance and potential impact of religion in American politics were evident in 2002 when a federal court issued a controversial ruling regarding what? a. Prayer in schools b. The use of the Bible in high school literature classes c. The Pledge of Allegiance d. The singing of “God Bless America” e. Religious-based student clubs 21. What was the only institution between 1975 and 2019 to increase American confidence? a. Military b. Newspapers c. Churches

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d. The medical system e. Television news 22. Americans have a comparatively low degree of what? a. Material acquisitiveness b. Social conformity c. Class consciousness d. Geographic mobility e. Capitalist instinct 23. Which political scientist asserts that more Americans are choosing their party affiliations based on the party's positions on moral issues? a. Alan Abramowitz b. James Stimson c. Morris Fiorina d. Keith Poole e. Howard Rosenthal 24. Compared to Europeans, Americans are willing to accept a high level of what? a. Secular leadership b. Unionization c. Taxation d. Economic inequality e. Government regulation of the economy 25. Who explained the rise of capitalism in part by what he called the Protestant ethic? a. Karl Marx b. Milton Friedman c. Max Weber d. Janet Yellen e. John Keynes 26. A political culture develops under what conditions? a. There is a sustained and patterned way of thinking about political and economic life. b. The demographics of a nation suggest the presence of a fairly homogeneous group. c. A constitution creates an orderly society. d. There is a large amount of agreement among the public. e. There is elite guidance in matters related to politics.

27. Which of the following is a consequence of low trust in the government among the public? a. Citizens are more likely to support candidates from the nonincumbent major party.

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b. Citizens are more likely to participate in politics. c. The government is more likely to pass policies. d. The government is more accountable to the people. e. The parties are better able to hold their elected officials accountable.

28. Most Americans consider themselves part of what? a. The lower class b. The middle class c. The upper class d. The silent majority e. The moral majority 29. Which religious movement or group advocated constitutional amendments that would require prayer in public schools and ban abortion? a. The Great Awakening b. The Moral Majority c. The Rainbow Push Coalition d. The Conference of Catholic Bishops e. The Association of Evangelical Churches 30. The distrust of political authority in American political culture has its basis in what? a. English political culture b. Marxism c. Imperialism d. Religious beliefs e. Authoritarian beliefs 31. Which individuals are most likely to experience high levels of social capital? a. Children of well-off parents b. The working poor c. Individuals who join and participate in interest groups d. Older people since they are most likely to vote e. Individuals receiving government assistance 32. What was considered the dominant religious tradition in early America? a. Catholicism b. Protestantism, especially Presbyterianism c. Protestantism, especially Puritanism d. Protestantism, especially Lutheranism e. Protestantism, especially the Church of England 33. Which type of individual would view personal freedom as more important than religion?

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a. Orthodox b. Progressive c. Conservative d. Socialist e. Authoritarian 34. Which of the following adheres to the belief that morality and religion ought to be of decisive

importance? a. Orthodoxy b. Religiosity c. Non-secular d. Conformism e. Conservative 35. What did the U.S. Constitution have to reconcile? a. Protestant work ethic with the existence of a leisure class b. A state sponsored religious establishment with the quest for religious freedom c. Personal liberty with the need for social control d. European traditions with westward expansion e. Constitutional republicanism with direct democracy 36. In what way does the democratic political culture of Sweden differ from that of the United States? a. The Swedes integrate religion more successfully into their politics. b. The Swedes insist on greater citizen participation in government. c. The Swedes allow greater economic inequalities to exist. d. The Swedes resist tendencies toward socialism. e. The Swedes are more deferential than participatory in their politics.

37. Which basic element of U.S. political culture holds that people ought to take community affairs seriously and contribute when able to do so? a. Liberty b. Democracy c. Individualism d. Civic duty e. Populism 38. Which type of individual would view policies based on morality as the most important policy type? a. Orthodox b. Progressive c. Liberal d. Libertarian

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e. Socialist 39. What is the key argument of Robert Putnam? a. Polarization produces inequality. b. Women are more risk-averse and this produces less representation. c. Citizens possess non-attitudes on political issues. d. The more social capital a community has, the greater the level of trust among its members. e. Government always represents citizens' interests.

40. Which principle of American political culture holds that people should generally be accountable for their own actions and well-being? a. Liberty b. Equality c. Civic duty d. Democracy e. Individual responsibility 41. What do most Americans believe primarily motivates public officials? a. Winning elections b. Advancing the common good c. Ability to publicly express their values and beliefs d. Creating good public policy e. Earning a high salary 42. Alexis de Tocqueville argued in Democracy in America that democracy endured in the United States because of geography, laws, and what else? a. “The simplicity of Americans” b. “Extensive commerce with other nations” c. “The cleverly written Constitution of the people” d. “The manners and customs of the people” e. “American love of music and dancing” 43. Since the late 1950s, how has Americans' trust in government changed? a. It has increased. b. It has decreased. c. It has remained consistent. d. It has increased for all groups but youth. e. It has increased for women but decreased for men.

44. Religious diversity developed in the United States due to the absence of what? a. State funding of religious institutions b. Strong state governments

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c. Strong central government d. Established aristocracy e. Charismatic religious leaders 45. Why is there less income inequality in Sweden than in America? a. Workers there are more similar in their talents. b. Employers do not care about profits. c. Swedish political culture believes the government should guarantee a basic standard of living. d. Education levels are much lower in Sweden. e. Political parties are stronger in the United States.

46. Identify and discuss the different ways that people in various countries have thought about equality.

47. Describe the culture war and explain how it impacts American politics.

48. Describe the concept of equality and explain how it impacts American political culture.

49. Compare and contrast the two main cultural classes in the United States: orthodox and progressives.

50. Describe the concept of democracy and explain how it impacts American political culture.

51. How does American political culture differ from that of other countries and what effect does this difference have on American politics?

52. Explain how the absence of an established religion in the United States shapes politics?

53. Describe the concept of civic competence and explain the role it plays in a functional democracy.

54. Explain how American participation in religion has changed since the early 1900s.

55. Analyze how Americans view their nation‟s economic system and discuss their views on equality of results and equality of opportunity.

56. Describe the concept of civil society and explain why it is important for representative democracy.

57. Describe the concept of civic duty and explain how it impacts American political culture.

58. Describe how the American view of equality differs from that of people in other countries and explain how this affects politics in the United States compared to other countries?

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59. Describe the concept of liberty and explain how it impacts American political culture.

60. Describe the concept of individual responsibility and explain how it impacts American political culture.

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Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. e 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. e 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. e 15. a 16. d 17. b 18. e 19. b 20. c 21. a

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22. c 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. e 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. e 41. a 42. d

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43. b 44. a 45. c 46. Students' answers may vary.

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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is often true about Supreme Court rulings involving civil liberties? a. They generally have not been implemented by states. b. They generally are very narrowly focused.

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c. Judges generally are not simply deciding the case at hand, but they are formulating a general rule to cover other similar cases. d. The Supreme Court generally has deferred to the states. e. The Supreme Court generally has deferred to the executive branch.

2. When adopted, the Bill of Rights imposed limits on which of the following? a. National government b. State government c. All levels of government d. All levels of government except national e. Local or municipal governments 3. What is true of civil liberties problems? a. They often involve competing constitutional interests. b. They are generally one-sided debates. c. They generally do not involve important matters. d. They are generally narrow problems. e. They generally do not affect many citizens.

4. What can be said about the way the Supreme Court has balanced the rights of individuals and the power of police in recent years? a. The Supreme Court has pulled back from some of its more sweeping applications of the exclusionary rule. b. The Supreme Court has been more supportive of broadening the rights of individuals at the expense of police power. c. The Supreme Court has generally avoided taking positions on this issue. d. The Supreme Court has not had any consistent position on this. e. The Supreme Court has been even towards police power and individuals' rights.

5. Beginning in 1897, the Supreme Court slowly began to use the protection of “life, liberty, or property” in what clause of the Fourteenth Amendment to incorporate some of the provisions of the Bill of Rights as binding on the states? a. Due process b. Equal protection c. Full faith and credit d. Establishment e. Elastic 6. The Supreme Court denied the Hazelwood High School student newspaper the right to print certain stories based on what logic? a. Young people do not have First Amendment protection against libel. b. The exercise of free expression by students is in violation of state educational codes. c. Schools that allow free expression by students can legally be denied federal funding.

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d. Incitement is never protected speech, even if it originates in a school newspaper. e. The exercise of free expression by students cannot impede the educational mission of the school.

7. What legal principle holds that evidence collected during an unconstitutional search cannot be used in trial? a. Exclusionary rule b. Incorporation clause c. Fifth Amendment d. Equal protection clause e. Selective incorporation 8. Which of the following terms refers to either knowledge of a defamatory statement's falsity or a reckless disregard for the truth? a. Libel b. Actual malice c. Slander d. Symbolic speech e. Prior restraint 9. What is the state required to ensure criminals have according to Gideon v. Wainwright? a. Free speech rights b. Freedom of assembly c. Privacy d. Counsel e. Right to bear arms 10. Cruel and unusual punishment is prohibited by which of the following? a. Due Process b. Judicial review c. Fifth Amendment d. Eighth Amendment e. First Amendment 11. The right of free expression, although not absolute, enjoys a higher status than the other rights granted by the U.S. Constitution. This refers to the freedom from what doctrine? a. Prior restraint b. Existential priority c. Neutrality and clarity d. Least means e. Preferred position

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12. Which of the following is an exception to the exclusionary rule established by the Supreme Court? a. Probable cause does not need to be established in civil matters. b. Potential death penalty cases may disregard all standard evidence rules. c. Good faith exceptions may be made for officers utilizing the incorrect search warrant form. d. The homes of witnesses to a crime may be searched without a warrant. e. Good intention exceptions may be made for veteran officers in felony matters.

13. In a 1947 decision, why did the Supreme Court allow a New Jersey town to fund busing to a parochial school? a. No alternative form of transportation existed. b. Enrollment at that school was open to all. c. The resulting tax burden on the average citizen was negligible. d. Busing was religiously neutral. e. There was no true case and controversy.

14. What does the constitutional doctrine of prior restraint prohibit? a. The government from censoring obscene material b. The government from trying to prevent publication of material by the press except under extraordinary circumstances c. Free speech accompanied by marches, demonstrations, or assembly d. A judge from withholding information about a court case from release to the public or press e. Flag burning as a form of protest 15. Why did the Supreme Court demand that the evidence obtained in Mapp v. Ohio be excluded? a. Police had not obtained a search warrant. b. Police had questioned Mapp in an impolite manner. c. Police had used unnecessary force. d. Police had refused to let Mapp contact her lawyer. e. Police had spied on Mapp with binoculars.

16. In which decision did the Supreme Court rule that the establishment clause forbids prayer, even a nondenominational one, in public schools? a. Everson v. Board of Education b. Engel v. Vitale c. Lemon v. Kurtzman d. Zelman v. Simmons-Harris e. Lee v. Weisman 17. Making false spoken statements about another person is an example of what? a. Slander b. Libel c. De jure harassment

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d. De facto harassment e. Injunction 18. The Bush administration classified those who were captured in Afghanistan and detained on military bases at Guantánamo Bay as which of the following? a. Citizens b. Soldiers c. Unlawful combatants d. Diplomats e. Spokesmen 19. In which decision did the Supreme Court rule that persons charged with a crime have a right to an attorney even if they cannot afford one? a. Gideon v. Wainwright b. Mapp v. Ohio c. Miranda v. Arizona d. United States v. Leon e. Hamdi v. Rumsfeld 20. Which of the following terms is used for certain types of nonverbal activities, such as flag burning that the Supreme Court has ruled is protected under the First Amendment? a. Symbolic speech or expression b. Direct speech c. Fighting words d. Hate speech e. Public speech 21. The historical reference to a “wall of separation” between religion and the state can be found where? a. The Bill of Rights b. A series of debates in the First Congress c. The writings of Thomas Jefferson d. The writings of John Adams e. The Federalist papers 22. A civil liberty is a right to be free of interference by whom or what? a. Other people b. Taxing authorities c. Law enforcement d. Foreign influence e. The government 23. The establishment clause of the First Amendment does which of the following?

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a. Prohibits the government from sponsoring or supporting religious activity b. Establishes Protestantism as the official religion of the United States c. Prevents the government from interfering with the exercise of religion d. Forbids the establishment of restrictions on free speech e. Keeps Congress from making other amendments official without a Supreme Court ruling 24. What must be proved for a public figure to obtain a damage award under libel laws? a. That he or she has access to the public medium to disprove the charge b. That the person making the claim cannot prove it c. That the statement in question contained a reckless disregard for the truth d. That he or she suffered from the falsehood just as much as a private person e. That the statement caused damage, regardless of its truth 25. What did Thomas Jefferson call the purpose of the establishment clause? a. Public accommodation of religion b. A wall of separation c. A bridge of acceptance d. Balance between freedom and restraint e. Protection against religious tyranny 26. What is the term for the practice of law-enforcement officers taking money or valuable property from people suspected of involvement with illegal activity, but not charged with a crime? a. Probable cause b. A public safety exception c. A good faith exception d. Inevitable discovery e. Civil forfeiture 27. The Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of flag burning in which case? a. Chaplinsky v. New Hampshire b. Miller v. California c. Texas v. Johnson d. Reno v. Johnson e. Schenck v. United States 28. What is often true when no strong national mood is discernible? a. The opinions of elites influence judicial thinking. b. Only citizen opinion affects judicial decision making. c. The Supreme Court generally does not rule on matters where there is no strong public opinion. d. The Supreme Court generally defers to the executive branch. e. The Supreme Court generally defers to Congress.

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29. Inciting a crowd to violence is not protected speech because it can lead to which of the following? a. Imminent lawless action b. Prior restraint c. Extra spending by police forces on crowd control d. Obscenity e. Emotional distress 30. Which legal concept would yelling "Fire" in a crowded theater violate? a. Bad tendency rule b. Strict scrutiny test c. Due Process d. Prior restraint e. Clear and present danger test 31. Which 1868 amendment‟s passage allowed the potential for the application of the Bill of Rights to the states, which adds several restrictions on what the states can do? a. Eleventh b. Twelfth c. Thirteenth d. Fourteenth e. Fifteenth 32. The “clear and present danger” test emerged in the Supreme Court‟s decision in which case? a. Chaplinsky v. New Hampshire b. Miller v. California c. Texas v. Johnson d. Reno v. ACLU e. Schenck v. United States 33. Over time, the Supreme Court has used which of the following provisions of the Constitution to apply the specifics of the Bill of Rights to the states? a. Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause b. Fifth Amendment's double jeopardy clause c. Tenth Amendment d. Privileges and immunities clause e. Habeas corpus 34. What standard or threshold is necessary for a search warrant to be issued? a. Probable cause b. Reasonable suspicion c. Articulable suspicion d. Reasonable doubt

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e. Preponderance of evidence 35. What is the requirement that persons under arrest be informed of their legal rights, including right to counsel, known as? a. Equal protection b. Exclusionary rule c. Sphere of privacy d. Miranda rule e. Mapp rule 36. To what does prior restraint refer? a. Closed sessions of hearings by Congress b. Methods used by the government to get terrorists to talk c. Prohibition of judges from legislating from the bench d. Restraining an activity, such as expression, before that activity has actually occurred e. Ability of police to detain people when riots appear imminent 37. The Supreme Court applied the provisions of the Bill of Rights to the states through which of the following processes? a. Emancipation b. Original intent c. Incorporation d. Ratification e. Enumeration 38. A judge‟s order authorizing a search is known as what? a. An inevitable discovery b. The exclusionary rule c. Probable cause d. A search warrant e. Writ of habeas corpus 39. Which of the following was true of the Bill of Rights when it was ratified in 1791? a. It was made up of fifteen amendments. b. It was made up of ten amendments. c. It did not include a provision protecting free speech. d. It applied to the states but not to the national government. e. It was intended to be temporary.

40. What limitation does the exclusionary rule put in place? a. A court can order or constrain an action by an individual. b. Evidence obtained from an illegal search and seizure cannot be used in a trial.

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c. Fighting words can be excluded from constitutional protection. d. People who are biased against a defendant may be excluded from serving on a jury. e. Evidence wrongly excluded at trial may not be used in appellate court later.

41. What does the incorporation doctrine do? a. It provides for congressional oversight into multinational corporations. b. It allows companies to incorporate through government application. c. It provides for government oversight to corporations doing business with the government. d. It extends the provisions of the Bill of Rights to individuals for protection against action by states. e. It provides for federal regulation of the currency and monetary supply.

42. Tinker v. Des Moines School District established constitutional protection for which of the following? a. Silent prayer in public school b. Choice in public restroom facilities for transgender persons c. Right to symbolic speech in schools d. Representational speech e. Censorship of high school newspapers 43. In 2007, the Supreme Court allowed a school principal to punish a student for displaying a flag saying “Bong Hits 4 Jesus” based on what? a. The Court held that it was not within the student‟s freedom of speech to treat the flag in that manner. b. The Court held that the language incited unruly behavior. c. The Court held that the language harmed a religion. d. The Court held that the language endorsed drug use. e. The Court held that the youth do not have freedom of expression.

44. What does the Fourth Amendment prohibit? a. Cruel and unusual punishment b. Involuntary quartering of soldiers c. Double jeopardy d. Unreasonable searches and seizures e. Speedy and public trials 45. In which Supreme Court case did the Court exempt certain companies from providing contraceptive coverage in health insurance if it violates their religious beliefs? a. Burwell v. Hobby Lobby b. Zelman v. Simmons-Harris c. National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius d. Engel v. Vitale e. Lemon v. Kurtzman

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46. How has the Supreme Court usually reacted to wartime curtailments of civil liberties? a. Upholding them b. Rejecting them c. Upholding them at first, then limiting them later d. Rejecting them at first, then reinstating them later e. Avoiding rulings on constitutionality and consigning such issues to the lower federal courts 47. What is true for a person treating the U.S. flag contemptuously? a. They are subject to conviction in federal court. b. They are subject to conviction in state court. c. They are subject to conviction in municipal court. d. They are protected by Fourth Amendment rights. e. They are protected by the right to exercise free speech.

48. Why do conflicts in civil liberties often arise? a. Majoritarian politics is ineffective in resolving crises. b. The U.S. Constitution is vague on issues of individual rights. c. The Bill of Rights lists several competing rights. d. Policy entrepreneurs rarely operate in the civil rights area. e. The Supreme Court has refused to play a leading role in the interpretation of the First Amendment.

49. Which constitutional clause prevents the government from interfering with religious practice? a. Establishment b. Equal protection c. Nondiscrimination d. Free exercise e. Due Process 50. What is one potential virtue of the courts? a. They are more representative of public opinion than the other branches. b. They are more accountable given that they are elected. c. They are more beholden to political action committees that fund the members. d. The courts can facilitate access to government by unpopular political or religious groups that have little access to the legislature. e. The courts typically only rule with the majority.

51. The term “selective incorporation” refers to what process? a. Congress has applied the Bill of Rights to the federal government. b. Congress has applied the Bill of Rights to the states. c. The Supreme Court has applied the Bill of Rights to the federal government.

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d. The Supreme Court has applied the Bill of Rights to the states. e. Congress has applied only fundamental rights to the states.

52. Since 1992, what is the constitutionality of having a member of the clergy offer a prayer or an invocation at a public school graduation ceremony? a. It is unconstitutional. b. It is unconstitutional only if it is read from the Bible. c. It is constitutional. d. It is constitutional if it is not read from the Bible. e. It is constitutional if it is nondenominational.

53. In 1833, the Supreme Court decided the Bill of Rights applied to which level of government? a. Both federal and state governments b. State governments only c. The federal government only d. Both federal and state governments except when overruled by state constitutions e. It depended on which amendment was under review.

54. What is the notification that police must give a person being arrested that she or he has a right to remain silent and a right to legal counsel commonly known as? a. Taking the fifth b. Habeas Corpus c. Miranda rights d. Gideon's Trumpet e. Griswold rights 55. What are the first ten amendments to the Constitution collectively known as? a. Articles of Confederation b. Bill of Rights c. Code of Rights d. Magna Carta e. Rules of law 56. The Patriot Act allowed what constitutionally questionable law enforcement technique to combat terrorists? a. National security letters to subpoena individuals to report for questioning b. Roving wiretaps to track communication on all types of electronic devices c. Torture of detainees suspected of having knowledge of criminal activity d. Seizure of mobile phones of individuals expressing displeasure with the government e. Jurisdictions to allow better oversight for monitoring suspects 57. The Supreme Court‟s current definition of obscenity denies free-speech protection to which kinds of

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materials or activities? a. Those that depict sexuality in a way that is degrading to its subjects b. Those that promote violence against women or children c. Those that lack serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value d. Those that present a clear and present danger to community standards of decency e. Those that do not appeal to the prurient interest 58. Which clause of the Constitution is the basis for the separation of church and state? a. Free exercise b. Supremacy c. Establishment d. Due process e. Necessary and proper

59. Explain the purpose of the Miranda warning or Miranda rights.

60. Explain the difference between the free exercise of religion and the establishment of religion.

61. Discuss how the Supreme Court has used the Fourteenth Amendment to apply the Bill of Rights to the states.

62. Identify the origin and explain the rationale of right to counsel.

63. Identify and describe several types of expression not protected by the First Amendment.

64. Explain the differences between libel and slander.

65. Explain the degree to which civil liberties have been curtailed following events like the 9/11 terrorist attacks.

66. Explain the concept or doctrine of incorporation.

67. Identify and explain the circumstances when evidence must be excluded or thrown out of a criminal trial.

68. Describe and explain the circumstances under which speech may be curtailed or prohibited by the government.

69. Identify and describe the three prongs of the Lemon test.

70. Describe the concept of symbolic speech and explain how it differs from traditional speech.

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Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. e 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. c

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22. e 23. a 24. c 25. b 26. e 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. e 31. d 32. e 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. c

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43. d 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. e 48. c 49. d 50. d 51. d 52. a 53. c 54. c 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

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70. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. In what case did the Supreme Court rule that the section of Defense of Marriage Act that limited spousal recognition under federal law to a man and a woman is unconstitutional? a. United States v. Windsor b. United States v. Spyer c. United States v. Roth d. United States v. Newby e. United States v. Nixon 2. The philosophy of civil disobedience suggests that there is value to what? a. Protesting against laws that are not enforced by civil authorities b. Peacefully violating the law c. Violating all laws with respect to civility d. Protesting in a legal manner, with respect for civil authority e. Using violence when laws are not conducive to civil society 3. President Harry S. Truman issued an executive order in 1948 that ordered the dismantling of the authorized racial segregation of the armed forces. What is this an example of? a. The separate-but-equal doctrine b. Due process c. Racial profiling d. Disenfranchisement e. Desegregation 4. Which of the following did the Fifteenth Amendment do? a. Abolished slavery b. Provide equal protection under the law

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c. Abolished private discrimination d. State that the right to vote shall not be abridged on account of race e. Established due process under the law 5. What position do proponents of affirmative action typically hold? a. Governments and institutions should be color blind. b. Giving everyone the same rights is sufficient to achieve equality. c. Everyone who isn‟t a minority leads a privileged life. d. Not everyone begins life at the same starting line. e. The free market will determine merit.

6. Nationwide legalization of same-sex marriage was the result of which of the following? a. A 2015 Supreme Court decision b. A 2016 federal law c. A 2010 constitutional amendment d. An international treaty on human rights e. A 2015 executive order 7. In what year did all women receive the right to vote nationally? a. 1897 b. 1911 c. 1920 d. 1967 e. 1973 8. In December 1955, who did the police arrest for refusing to give her seat on a bus to a white person? a. Alice Wallace b. Judy Meredith c. Linda Brown d. Rosa Parks e. Elizabeth Marshall 9. The Supreme Court‟s ruling in Bowers v. Hardwick suggested that the right to privacy does not protect what? a. Issues related to the family b. Marriage c. Procreation d. Consensual same-sex sexual activity e. Abortion 10. What is compensatory action? a. Compensatory action is helping disadvantaged people catch up.

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b. Compensatory action is giving money to disadvantaged people. c. Compensatory action is reverse discrimination. d. Compensatory action is giving preference to minorities. e. Compensatory action is giving extra education, training, or services to advantaged people.

11. In what area of the country were women first given the right to vote? a. In more highly populated and economically advanced areas b. In states that were part of the original thirteen colonies c. In the South d. In the Midwest e. In the West 12. Those advocating for women's suffrage, including Susan B. Anthony, were working primarily for what goal? a. The prohibition of the sale and consumption of alcohol b. Women's right to vote c. The prohibition of so-called "marriage laws" giving husbands control over women's property d. Women's right to free public education e. The opportunity to work at male-dominated jobs 13. Which clause of the Fourteenth Amendment has primarily been used to launch progress in civil rights? a. Due process b. Equal protection c. Exclusionary rule d. Supremacy e. Separation 14. What did the U.S. Supreme Court rule in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896)? a. It ruled that African Americans are not persons for the purposes of the Constitution. b. It tried to stop the development of legal racial segregation known as Jim Crow laws. c. It stated that schools may not practice any type of racial segregation. d. It agreed that the separation of races is not a violation of the Constitution. e. It ruled that the practice of slavery must cease before the end of the century.

15. Which of the following statements concerning the right to privacy is correct? a. It is said to emanate from provisions in the Fourteenth Amendment. b. It is not mentioned in the Constitution. c. It is explicitly mentioned in the First and Fifth Amendments. d. It is explicitly mentioned in the First, Second, and Fifth Amendments. e. It is explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution.

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16. In United States v. Windsor, what did the Supreme Court hold? a. Same-sex couples in states with legal same-sex marriage must receive the same federal benefits that heterosexual married couples receive. b. Same-sex marriage is a fundamental right under the Constitution. c. The state may not ban sexual relations between same-sex partners. d. Private organizations may not ban LGBTQ persons from membership. e. Same-sex marriage was outlawed.

17. In this seminal decision, the Supreme Court held that the right to privacy is “broad enough to encompass a woman‟s decision whether or not to terminate a pregnancy.” a. Griswold v. Connecticut b. Webster v. Reproductive Health Services c. Planned Parenthood v. Casey d. Roe v. Wade e. Gonzales v. Carhart 18. In a 2003 case involving admissions practices at the University of Michigan, the Supreme Court reaffirmed its decision in Bakke by rejecting the use of what? a. A numerical goal b. An exact numerical advantage c. A plus factor d. A racial measure e. An ethnic policy mark 19. Since the 1970s, the Supreme Court has tended to apply which standard to cases of gender discrimination? a. Rational basis b. Intermediate scrutiny c. Strict scrutiny d. Necessary and proper e. Reasonable basis 20. In the Slaughter-House Cases (1873), what did the Supreme Court rule? a. The “privileges and immunities” clause of the Fourteenth Amendment did not protect citizens from discriminatory actions by state governments. b. Separate facilities were acceptable as long as they were equal. c. Segregation was unconstitutional. d. Literacy tests were acceptable. e. Juries could be all of one race.

21. Though the civil rights movement focused primarily on the rights of this group, it had what additional effect? a. African Americans; benefiting nearly all minority groups

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b. Women; benefiting LGBTQ Americans as well c. Latinos; benefiting African Americans d. African Americans; strengthening the disenfranchisement of other racial minorities e. Women; strengthening the disenfranchisement of LGBTQ Americans 22. In what case did the Supreme Court declare that states could not prohibit sexual activity between people of the same sex, reversing a 1986 decision that asserted same-sex sexual activity was not a fundamental right? a. Bakke v. California b. Bowers v. Hardwick c. Obergefell v. Hodges d. Lawrence v. Texas e. Shelley v. Kraemer 23. In the 2003 decision of Lawrence v. Texas, the U.S. Supreme Court did which of the following? a. Upheld an existing Texas law that made homosexual conduct a crime b. Overturned laws against sexual activity between same-sex consenting adults in private c. Invalidated antidiscrimination laws that protect the LGBTQ community d. Upheld the Court's previous decision regarding sexual activity between same-sex consenting adults e. Indicated that states could declare sexual activity between same-sex consensual adults a crime 24. The origin of the movement to give more rights to women was? a. The Rights Manifesto b. The Seneca Falls Convention c. The Nineteenth Amendment d. The “Rosie the Riveter” worker e. The Equal Rights Amendment 25. What did the Supreme Court rule in Masterpiece Cakeshop v. Colorado Civil Rights Commission? a. The Court failed to reach an opinion about whether a baker must make a cake for a same-sex couple. b. There is no religious exception, and the baker must make a same-sex couple a cake. c. A baker with a religious objection does not have to make a wedding cake for a same-sex couple. d. The Court did not believe the state had a compelling interest to rule. e. The Court ruled that the baker could refuse service regardless of the reason.

26. Drawing on rulings by the Equal Employment Opportunities Commission, the Supreme Court has tried to define sexual harassment by ruling what? a. It is illegal for someone to request sexual favors as a condition of employment or promotion, and it is illegal for an employee to experience a work environment that has been made hostile or intimidating by a pattern of offensive sexual teasing, jokes, or obscenity.

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b. An employer is not liable if he or she does not know that a subordinate has requested sex in exchange for hiring or promotion. c. A work environment is not deemed hostile or intimidating by a steady pattern of offensive sexual teasing, jokes, or obscenity. d. Employers are strictly liable for a hostile or intimidating work environment even if they did not know about the situation and did nothing about it. e. Sexual harassment claims cannot be made in the absence of at least three witnesses.

27. What was the main reason the Brown family brought a lawsuit against the Board of Education in Topeka, Kansas? a. Linda Brown was not allowed to get a drink of water out of the only drinking fountain at the school because she was not white. b. Linda Brown allowed a black student to sit next to her in the school lunchroom. c. Linda Brown boarded a bus that was for black students only. d. Linda Brown was not allowed to ride the same bus as the white children even though they all went to the same school. e. Linda Brown was refused admittance to a white-only school because she was black.

28. What did Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. advocate to achieve racial justice? a. Violence b. Nonviolent civil disobedience c. Race riots d. Enforcing segregation and creating superior public services for Black persons e. Black militancy 29. Unlike the Civil Rights Act, what does the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) consider? a. The impact on local communities b. Qualifications and standards c. Quotas d. Reverse discrimination e. Undue hardship 30. What did the Supreme Court rule in Fisher v. University of Texas at Austin? a. A university may consider race as one of many factors in admissions decisions to create a diverse group of students. b. A university may not consider race as a factor in admissions. c. A university can only consider race if its student body is more than 80% white. d. A university must implement strict "color-blind" admissions policies and may not ask applicants about their race or ethnicity. e. A university is required to implement racial quotas that reflect demographic patterns in the community.

31. What did the Nineteenth Amendment do?

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a. End racial segregation in the United States b. Abolish slavery c. Eliminate racial restrictions on voting d. Expand the right to vote to women e. Lower the minimum voting age to 18 32. Which amendment established that no state may deny the right to vote on the basis of sex? a. Fifteenth b. Nineteenth c. Twentieth d. Twenty-First e. Twenty-Second 33. The separate-but-equal doctrine contends that separate-but-equal facilities do not violate which of the following? a. The equal protection clause b. The principle of reverse discrimination c. The strict scrutiny standard d. The idea of affirmative action e. The due process of law restriction 34. A university uses an admissions policy that gives special consideration to traditionally disadvantaged groups to overcome the present effects of past discrimination. The university is applying which of the following? a. Affirmative action b. Legislative mandate c. Civil liberties d. Strict scrutiny e. White primaries 35. What does the concept of strict liability imply? a. An employer who was aware of a subordinate‟s wrongdoing cannot be found at fault. b. An employer who was aware of a subordinate‟s wrongdoing must be found at fault unless the wrongdoing was minor. c. An employer who was aware of a subordinate‟s wrongdoing may still be found blameless. d. An employer who was unaware of a subordinate‟s wrongdoing cannot be found at fault. e. An employer who was unaware of a subordinate‟s wrongdoing can still be found at fault.

36. If legislators want to create a law that will pass strict scrutiny, they must be certain that the law does which of the following? a. Be justified by a compelling government interest b. Be broadly tailored to meet multiple government interests

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c. Be rationally related to a government interest d. Be the most restrictive means to accomplish the goal e. Be supported by a large majority of citizens 37. Which of the following is banned by the Civil Rights Act of 1964? a. Only governmental acts of discrimination b. Only discrimination by educational institutions c. Both private and governmental acts of discrimination d. Only discrimination against women and African Americans e. Only private discrimination 38. Which of the following best describes the concept of civil rights? a. Rights generally accorded to all citizens b. Political rights of speech and assembly c. Rights extended to citizens from legislative action d. Guarantees of life, liberty, and property granted to all citizens e. Powers and privileges guaranteed to individuals and protected by the government to ensure equal protection and freedom from discrimination 39. What is the term for the expectation that citizens may not be discriminated against on account of race, gender, or national background and should have an equal chance to succeed in life? a. Equality of opportunity b. Equality of chance c. Equality of outcome d. Equality of circumstance e. Equality of government 40. What is true about the Supreme Court's treatment of LGBTQ rights cases involving government versus private groups? a. The Court has treated the two groups the same. b. The Court has treated the two groups differently. c. The Court has not weighed in on private organizations' treatment of LGBTQ persons. d. The Court does not generally rule on the government's treatment of LGBTQ rights since it involves a political question. e. The Court has been very inconsistent with respect to government and LGBTQ rights.

41. Which of the following terms refers specifically to the rights of all Americans to equal treatment under the law? a. Civil liberties b. Civil rights c. Common law rights d. Inalienable rights

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e. Natural rights 42. The Supreme Court has created three standards of review to determine if a law is discriminatory.

What is the toughest of these standards, requiring that a law be narrowly tailored, called? a. Heightened scrutiny b. Strict scrutiny c. Elevated scrutiny d. Rational basis e. Normal basis 43. What did the Supreme Court rule in Obergefell v. Hodges? a. Same-sex couples have a constitutional right to marry. b. Same-sex couples do not have a constitutional right to marry. c. Same-sex couples can adopt children. d. Same-sex couples must receive the same federal health, tax, and other benefits as heterosexual married couples. e. State laws can ban sexual relations between same-sex partners.

44. What is the difference between de facto and de jure segregation? a. The former results from private choices and the latter from public law. b. The former results from public law and the latter from private choices. c. The former existed in the past and the latter continues in the present. d. The former continues in the present and the latter existed in the past. e. The former deals with perceptions and the latter deals with verified facts.

45. What did the Supreme Court rule in Boy Scouts of American v. Dale? a. Boy Scouts would face economic sanctions if they failed to allow LGBTQ members to join. b. Boy Scouts must allow girls to join as members. c. The Court failed to rule due to a lack of a majority. d. A private organization may not ban LGBTQ persons from its membership. e. A private organization may ban LGBTQ persons from its membership.

46. In which seminal Supreme Court decision did the Court overturn its decision in Bowers by ruling that state laws may not ban sexual relations between same-sex partners? a. Lawrence v. Texas b. Loving v. Virginia c. Bakke v. California d. Johnson v. Texas e. Boy Scouts of America v. Dale 47. Which amendment forbade the states from denying any person "equal protection under the law"? a. Tenth

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b. Twelfth c. Thirteenth d. Fourteenth e. Fifteenth 48. A supporter of equality of opportunity as a way of redressing past civil rights inequities would be most likely to advocate what? a. Color-blind administration of the laws b. Preferential treatment for Black persons c. Comparable-worth pay scales d. Busing for the racial integration of schools e. Affirmative action 49. The verdict of Plessy v. Ferguson directly resulted in which of the following? a. The integration of public schools in the South b. The development of a system of legalized racial segregation c. The end of racial segregation d. A constitutional amendment granting Congress more power to deal authoritatively with racial problems e. A complex system of busing to alleviate the effects of past racism 50. Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution appeared to guarantee equal rights for African American persons but did not? a. First b. Fourteenth c. Twenty-First d. Twenty-Fifth e. Twenty-Sixth 51. What did the Supreme Court rule in Brown v. Board of Education? a. It declared unconstitutional laws creating schools that were separate but obviously unequal. b. It declared unconstitutional laws supporting schools that were separate but unequal in subtle ways. c. It ruled that racially separate schools were inherently unequal and therefore unconstitutional. d. It ruled that schools discriminating on the basis of race could be denied access to federal funds. e. It ruled that segregation was lawful if mandated by a state constitution.

52. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. delivered his famous speech telling the world "I have a dream" during which of the following? a. The signing ceremony of the Civil Rights Act b. The March on Washington

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c. The Woolworth lunch counter sit-in d. The Montgomery bus boycott e. The March on Selma 53. The practice of mandating busing plans to remedy school segregation patterns was approved in which case? a. Brown v. Board of Education b. Engel v. Vitale c. Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenburg Board of Education d. Green v. County School Board of New Kent County e. Plessy v. Ferguson 54. What was the goal or purpose of the 1848 Seneca Falls Convention? a. Promote issues based on the notion that men and women are created equal b. Debate the possibility of seceding from the United States due to restrictions on the slave trade c. Create a women's manifesto discussing temperance, abolition, and suffrage d. Discuss strategies for the abolition of slavery e. Plan strategies that would advance rights for LGBTQ individuals and same-sex couples 55. While the Brown ruling was historic, the ruling itself did little to desegregate schools due to its ambiguous command that schools should desegregate in what way? a. With all deliberate speed b. With all due process c. With extreme prejudice d. With all practical manner e. With all good intent

56. Describe the facts and discuss the effect of the ruling of the case Plessy v. Ferguson.

57. Describe the four developments that made it possible to break the deadlock between the agendasetting and coalition-building aspect of the civil rights movement.

58. Identify and explain the major provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

59. Discuss the role the Supreme Court has had in the expansion of civil rights for LGBTQ persons.

60. Describe how the Supreme Court decided that persons have a right to privacy in Griswold and explain how this ruling affected the Court‟s decision in Roe v. Wade.

61. Explain the Supreme Court‟s decision in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka.

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62. Explain the role of the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments in establishing or promoting racial equality.

63. Explain why the civil rights acts passed from 1865 to 1875 were unsuccessful in enforcing the Civil War Amendments during Reconstruction.

64. Compare and contrast the struggle for women's rights with the struggle for civil rights by African Americans.

65. Explain how civil rights differ from civil liberties.

66. Discuss the decisions made by the Supreme Court in both hindering and expanding the civil rights of racial minorities.

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Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. e 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. a 11. e 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. a

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22. d 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. a 27. e 28. b 29. e 30. a 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. e 36. a 37. c 38. e 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. b

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43. a 44. a 45. e 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. c 54. a 55. a 56. Students' answers may vary.

57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

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64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The contemporary political gender gap refers to the tendency of women to do which of the following? a. Identify more with the Democratic Party than men b. Vote less than men c. Favor female candidates for office over male candidates d. Pay less attention to politics than men e. Vote more for Republican candidates than men 2. What is true about scholarship on the use of heuristics by the American voting public? a. Nonexistent b. Discredited c. In agreement that heuristics allow voters to make good decisions despite being uninformed d. In agreement that heuristics harm democracy e. Conflicted 3. The largest gaps between younger and older voters come from their different attitudes toward what? a. Racial inequality b. Income inequality c. The social safety net d. The government's regulation of appropriate behavior e. Economic and monetary policies 4. How are most modern polls conducted? a. Face-to-face interviews b. The telephone c. Mail surveys d. Radio broadcasts e. Internet websites 5. The partisan anchors of American political ideology are defined by what? a. Positions on social issues and economic issues b. Geographic region and socioeconomic class c. Financial stress and pessimism d. Political party membership

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e. Religious beliefs 6. Which statement is true about Latinx public opinion? a. It looks very similar to other Americans‟ opinions on jobs, education, and foreign policy. b. It looks very similar to other Americans‟ opinions on immigration reform. c. The longer the Latino has lived in the United States, the more it diverges from the rest of the United States. d. It lacks a generational gap. e. The studies on Latino public opinion are too recent to tell.

7. When public opinion shifts, policy tends to do what? a. Remain stable b. Move in the opposite direction c. Follow public opinion d. Follow only the opinion of the political elite e. Follow only the opinion of the general public 8. If properly conducted, a survey of public opinion can accurately capture the opinions of 300 million citizens by surveying as few as how many respondents? a. 100 b. 250 c. 500 d. 1,500 e. 3,000 9. A random sample refers to which of the following? a. Each person in the target population has an equal chance of being selected. b. There is no pre-planning in the selection process. c. Every person in the target population who is encountered is selected. d. Researchers decide how many persons of certain types they need in the survey. e. A computer algorithm.

10. Which of the following best describes the influence of parents over their children's political socialization? a. It only occurs in politically active families. b. It is due to the declining influence of schools and the media. c. It is due to the rise of homeschooling. d. It is because of children seeing their parents as authorities on politics. e. It is due to constant communication and the receptivity of children to their parents' views.

11. What is a reason that public policy often differs from public opinion? a. The U.S. Constitution places many checks on the influence of public opinion.

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b. Public opinion polling tends to express the opinions of a political elite. c. Public opinion is easy to gauge but the effectiveness of public policy is not. d. Public opinion tends to change much slower than public policy. e. Public opinion is rarely informed at the beginning of the policy-making process.

12. American women are more likely to support which of the following? a. Capital punishment b. Restrictions on access to abortions c. Social welfare programs d. Military interventions abroad e. Legislation restricting the rights of minority groups 13. What is the difference between the results of two surveys or samples called? a. Approach error b. Sampling error c. Type one error d. Type two error e. Confidence error 14. Voters assuming that working-class politicians will be more hospitable to working-class concerns is an example of which of the following? a. The limitations of heuristics b. Class warfare c. Identity politics d. Economic voting e. Descriptive representation 15. What characterizes Americans‟ knowledge of politics? a. It is very good. b. Americans are usually caught up on current events, but nothing else. c. Americans are ignorant on most issues and policies. d. Americans know a lot about the workings of the government but not current office holders or events. e. It is better at the local level.

16. As parental and school influences wane in adulthood, which of the following emerges as a more important socialization agent? a. Families b. Political parties c. Historical references d. Interest groups e. Adult peer groups and mass media

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17. What did the first major studies of public opinion and voting published in the 1940s find? a. Most Americans were well informed about politics even though they did not vote regularly. b. Most Americans voted regularly and were well informed about politics. c. A small group of Americans voted but were not well informed about politics. d. A small group of Americans were informed but most Americans were not. e. It was difficult to generalize about Americans when it came to politics.

18. Why is the public's lack of political information a concern? a. It will decrease party loyalty. b. It will increase polarization. c. It will increase bipartisanship. d. It makes it difficult for voters to hold elected officials accountable. e. It increases accountability.

19. What does the impressionable years hypothesis state? a. Young people‟s political attitudes are strongly influenced by what happens in their mid-teens and twenties. b. Important electoral years in American history strongly influence voting patterns afterward. c. Children tend to vote as their parents did. d. People's politics change after events that leave an impression on their memories. e. People all become politically active at the same time.

20. What is an example in which an intense minority is able to exert influence over policy making? a. Gun control b. Taxation c. Animal rights d. Criminal justice e. Foreign policy 21. While occupational differences are narrower than in the 1950s, there are still substantial differences between which groups? a. Working and upper classes b. Businesspeople and artisans c. The very rich and everyone else d. Middle and working classes e. Managers and laborers 22. What is the process by which personal and other background traits influence one‟s views about politics and government? a. Political socialization b. Political identification

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c. Political allocation d. Political positioning e. Political foundation 23. The gender gap in American policy is least pronounced on what issue? a. Abortion b. Helping the poor c. Helping the elderly d. Foreign policy e. Gun control 24. Which statement regarding the voting habits of men and women is correct? a. Both male and female voting reflect very similar points of view. b. The gender gap that is evident between their points of view is new. c. Men are more likely to favor activist policies. d. Women are more likely to favor activist policies. e. Abortion is the largest source of differences between men and women.

25. Which of the following are the major agents of early socialization in the United States? a. Religion and social class b. Family, religion, and political party c. Family, school, community, and peers d. School and social class e. Economics, television, and the internet 26. Which of the following characterizes to the principle of randomness in public opinion polling? a. Every individual sampled decreases the risk of bias error. b. Every individual can choose to participate or decline participation in the opinion poll. c. Every individual in the population is sampled. d. Every individual has a known and equal chance of being sampled. e. Every individual sampled has a unique perspective on the issues.

27. How do elected officials tend to weigh citizens' opinions? a. They tend to give more weight to Independents. b. They tend to give more weight to the poor. c. They tend to give more weight to religious voters. d. They tend to listen to those who participate in politics. e. They do not really give citizens' opinions much consideration.

28. In his analysis of public opinion concerning school vouchers, what did Terry Moe find that citizens supplied with basic information could do? a. They could have an in-depth understanding of the issue.

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b. They could participate in a very knowledgeable debate regarding the issue. c. They could adapt their positions for good, substantive reasons. d. They still could not understand the issue. e. They would become more trusting of the government.

29. The collective attitude of the citizens on a given issue is known as what? a. Public opinion b. Collective action c. Public discord d. Freedom of belief e. Civic debate 30. Jewish voters tend to do which of the following? a. Vote for candidates who are politically conservative b. Vote at a lower rate than Protestants c. Focus almost completely on domestic issues d. Have more liberal views than average on economic and cultural issues e. Have similar views to the overall population on political issues 31. Which of the following best describes the transfer of political attitudes and beliefs? a. It is more likely to occur from children to parents. b. It is more likely to occur from parents to children. c. It is just as likely to occur from children to parents as it is to occur from parents to children. d. It is exceptionally rare in families. e. It never occurs from children to parents.

32. What is one major challenge that nonpartisan elections present to voters? a. There are generally many more candidates on the ballot. b. Local candidates generally raise much more money. c. Voters lack the partisan heuristic, which makes it more difficult to infer candidate positions. d. Voters often are much more polarized on local issues than national ones. e. There are too many open races at the local level.

33. Studies have shown that the government is most responsive to whom? a. The working poor b. Women c. The economic elite d. Minorities e. Evangelicals 34. Which of the following best describes the transfer of political values?

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a. It is most likely to occur through the media. b. It is more likely to occur from families to children. c. It is more likely that children will influence their parents. d. It is exceptionally rare in families. e. It only occurs in small families.

35. Which of the following is the most important principle in sampling? a. The sample size b. Randomness c. Integrity of the pollster d. Prior experience e. Population characteristics 36. Which statement best describes the Framers‟ beliefs on the role of public opinion in government? a. The Framers thought that public opinion should play only a limited and indirect role in making public policy. b. The Framers favored a direct role for the public in policy making. c. The Framers felt that Americans‟ experiences as colonists of Great Britain showed that the public needed to vote on most major issues of government. d. The Framers wanted the United States to be a direct democracy. e. The Framers felt that the public‟s role should be nonexistent.

37. Which of the following are the most important early sources of political socialization? a. Family and the media b. Schools and the media c. Family and political parties d. Family and schools e. Political parties and interest groups 38. Voters who assume a Republican judicial candidate would be tough on crime is an example of what? a. Using heuristics to make decisions b. Political realignment c. Gerrymandering d. Incorrect voting e. Descriptive representation 39. Under what conditions do heuristics allow voters to make the decisions they want to make? a. When they rely on the class background of politicians b. When the lack of information affects their political attitudes c. When they can identify politically relevant actors to understand and follow d. When they are generally well informed about politics e. When they have perfect information

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40. Although early studies of American public opinion and voting found low information levels, they also found that Americans were pretty good at what? a. Working the system to get the policies that they desired b. Contacting candidates on a regular basis c. Basically nothing d. Figuring out which policies and candidates most closely reflected their values and interests e. Explaining the workings of government and major currents in law 41. The Framers knew that in a nation as large and diverse as the United States, there would rarely be any such thing as “public opinion;” instead, there would be what? a. Public delusion b. One determining point of view on most issues c. Many “publics” holding many opinions d. One powerful interest group dominating the debate e. Chaos of opinion 42. If any given voter has an equal chance of being in a survey, the sample is best described as what kind of sample? a. Random b. Stratified quota c. Split d. Scientific e. Bifurcated 43. Which of the following best describes the views of African Americans on issues of social welfare, civil liberties, and foreign policy? a. They are more likely to identify as Republican than whites. b. They are more liberal than whites. c. They are more likely to be politically moderate. d. They are more conservative than whites. e. They are more apolitical than whites.

44. What is a heuristic? a. Research program for learning about policy b. Rational decision in politics c. Voting method used in some states d. Special organization that informs voters e. Information shortcut for making a decision 45. A sample size that is which of the following will more accurately represent the population? a. Neutral

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b. Highly partisan c. Smaller d. Politically knowledgeable e. Random 46. When does policy tend to follow the minority view? a. When the minority is right b. When the minority is well organized and politically engaged c. When the minority is poorly organized d. Never e. Always 47. What is one way the lack of political information can be mitigated by voters? a. Using heuristics b. Through ballot initiatives c. Social media d. Using nonpartisan elections e. Using retention elections 48. In polling, the difference between the sample's results and those that would have been obtained had the entire population been interviewed is known as which of the following? a. A failure of randomness b. A sampling error c. Unlikely to happen at all d. Likely to be very large e. A statistical miscalculation 49. Which of the following factors best determines the accuracy of the sample? a. The randomness of the sample b. Having a smaller sample c. The location of the sample d. The amount of time during which the sample was conducted e. The year the sample is taken 50. On which kinds of issues are elected officials generally more responsive to public opinion? a. Salient issues b. Economic issues c. Social issues d. Cross-cutting issues e. Valence issues

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51. Identify and describe two of the earliest sources of political socialization and another source that grows in importance as Americans reach adulthood.

52. Explain the principle of randomness in polling and connect this principle to at least one other technique or problem in polling.

53. Identify and explain factors that might distort public opinion results collected through opinion polling.

54. Explain why is a random sample important in polling.

55. Describe and explain what early and later studies of public opinion and voting revealed about the American public.

56. Explain the ways in which cell phones have affected polling and why this issue is important.

57. Explain why activists are much more likely to exhibit clear ideological consistency than other members of the public.

58. Explain how political opinions are formed.

59. Describe and explain the concept of the gender gap.

60. Explain the role the Framers thought public opinion should play in government and policy making.

61. Identify and describe what challenges are associated with accurate public opinion polling.

62. Explain how socialization affects partisanship, ideology, and public opinion.

63. Identify and explain under what conditions minority opinions have more influence over public policy.

64. Explain how gender is related to political beliefs and opinions.

65. Describe the difference between polarization and partisan sorting.

66. Explain how race and ethnicity play a major role in shaping political beliefs and public opinion.

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Answer Key 1. a 2. e 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. e 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. e 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. c

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22. a 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. a

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43. b 44. e 45. e 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. Students' answers may vary.

52. Students' answers may vary.

53. Students' answers may vary.

54. Students' answers may vary.

55. Students' answers may vary.

56. Students' answers may vary.

57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Compared with the rest of the population, voting specialists tend to be what? a. Younger and more educated b. Younger and less educated c. Older and more educated d. Older and less educated e. Middle-aged and highly educated 2. What is the general level of voting participation among educated people? a. They vote infrequently but participate in politics in other ways. b. They vote frequently but do not participate in politics in other ways. c. They participate in politics about as much as non-educated people. d. They participate less in politics than non-educated people. e. They participate more in politics than non-educated people.

3. Between 1915 and 1925, the size of the eligible voting population in the United States almost doubled.

What was the primary reason for the increase? a. The Fifteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution was ratified. b. All women were guaranteed the right to vote. c. The grandfather clause, which denied voting rights to Black persons, was ruled unconstitutional. d. Literacy tests for Black persons were ruled unconstitutional. e. Voter registration laws were abolished in seventeen states.

4. What activist group does not like the conflict and tension of partisan campaigns and tends to

reserve their energy for community activities of a more nonpartisan nature, forming and joining organizations to deal with local problems and contacting local officials about these problems? a. Voting specialists b. Communalists c. Single-issue voters d. Campaigners e. Parochial participants 5. All but which of the following were used to deny African Americans the right to vote?

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a. The grandfather clause b. The poll tax c. The literacy test d. The Australian ballot e. The white primary 6. Why do programs that largely benefit young people receive less attention from policy makers

than senior citizens‟ issues? a. Young people vote in the same numbers as seniors. b. Restrictive laws make it almost impossible for younger people to vote. c. Many are away at college and cannot vote. d. Younger people don‟t vote in the same numbers as seniors. e. The number of young voters exceeds seniors by 25%.

7. Which participation group does not vote? a. Parochial participants b. Communalists c. Campaigners d. Voting specialists e. Independents 8. The willingness to engage in partisan competition separates which two voter participation groups? a. Campaigners from complete activists b. Inactive voters from campaigners c. Parochial participants from communalists d. Inactive voters from parochial participants e. Communalists from campaigners 9. Why might voting-eligible population measures of turnout be preferable to voting-age population measures? a. They usually render a lower, more conservative, estimate. b. They round fractions up to the nearest tenth. c. They are derived from representative samples in telephone interviews. d. They are based on census data. e. They remove ineligible voters from the equation.

10. Between 1860 and 1900, what percentage of eligible voters participated in presidential elections? a. It was rarely above 30 percent. b. It was rarely above 40 percent. c. It was usually around 50 percent. d. It was generally comparable to that of today.

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e. It ranged between 65 and 80 percent.

11. In recent years, what is true about the gap between the voting-age population and voting-eligible population? a. It has increased. b. It has remained about the same. c. It has decreased somewhat. d. It has decreased considerably. e. It has not varied in a consistent way.

12. Which nation has the highest voter turnout as a percentage of the voting-age population? a. Belgium b. Italy c. United States d. Sweden e. New Zealand 13. In 1842, a federal law required that all House members be elected by what or whom? a. Popular vote b. State legislators c. Congressional delegations d. Districts e. Counties 14. In which case did the Supreme Court declare that Congress must consider present-day, rather than historical, discrimination when determining which states and localities require federal permission to change their voting laws? a. Smith v. Allwright b. Miranda v. Arizona c. Shelby County v. Holder d. Brown v. Board e. Heller v. Washington, D.C. 15. How does voter turnout as a percentage of the voting-age population in the United States compare to that of other industrialized countries? a. It is easier to measure in the United States. b. It is harder to measure in the United States. c. Voter turnout is less in the United States than in other industrialized countries. d. Voter turnout is greater in the United States than in other industrialized countries. e. The turnout numbers are comparable.

16. Which of the following participation groups avoids both elections and community groups in its

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political activity? a. Voting specialists b. Campaigners c. Communalists d. Parochial participants e. Inactive voters 17. What was the purpose of the grandfather clause in early voter registration laws? a. To prevent black people from voting by forcing them to pay a poll tax b. To prevent black people from voting by forcing them to prove they could read c. To prevent black people from voting by forcing them to provide proof of their grandfathers‟ lineage d. To ensure that black people were not subject to the restrictions that prevented white people from voting e. To ensure that white people were not subject to the restrictions that prevented black people from voting 18. Presidential electors were initially selected by whom? a. State legislatures b. The voters directly c. Federal judges d. The U.S. Senate e. The U.S. House 19. What activist group not only votes but also likes to get involved in campaign activities, is better educated, interested in the conflicts, passions, and struggles of politics, has a clear identification with a political party and is willing to take strong positions? a. Parochial participants b. Single-issue voters c. Communalists d. Voting specialists e. Campaigners 20. According to the U.S. Census Bureau, what percentage of Americans who are eligible to vote are registered to vote? a. 25 percent b. 45 percent c. 70 percent d. 51 percent e. 80 percent 21. What was the practice of keeping African Americans from voting in the southern states‟ primaries through the arbitrary use of registration requirements and intimidation called?

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a. Lost primary b. White primary c. Divergent primary d. Black primary e. Unilateral primary 22. Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution ensured that the residents of the District of Columbia could vote in presidential elections? a. Nineteenth Amendment b. Twentieth Amendment c. Twenty-First Amendment d. Twenty-Second Amendment e. Twenty-Third Amendment 23. Approximately one-ninth of the population are considered activists. They include all the following except which group? a. Single-issue voters b. Voting specialists c. Communalists d. Parochial participants e. Campaigners 24. Which amendment states that “the right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude"? a. Twelfth b. Seventeenth c. Fifteenth d. Twenty-Fifth e. Tenth 25. Which of the following was required by the U.S. Constitution? a. Adult free male suffrage b. Popularly elected presidential electors c. Nonpartisan election commissions d. Popularly elected senators e. Popularly elected House members 26. What is a clause in registration laws allowing people who do not meet registration requirements to vote if they or their ancestors had voted before 1867? a. Grandfather clause b. Nativist clause

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c. Racial superiority clause d. Know-nothing clause e. Murphy clause 27. Voter identification laws have been passed by a majority of states in order to curtail voter

fraud. What have numerous studies and government reports found? a. In-person voter fraud is extremely common. b. Almost one and a half million people were arrested in 2020 for this offense. c. There are other ways to circumvent the voting process. d. In-person voter fraud is rare. e. It has stopped stuffing of the ballot box.

28. What was a government-printed ballot of uniform size and shape that was cast in secret and created to replace the old party-printed ballots cast in public called? a. Cincinnati ballot b. Australian ballot c. English ballot d. Texas ballot e. Greenway ballot 29. By the start of this president‟s administration, suffrage had been extended to include virtually all white male adults. a. John Adams b. Thomas Jefferson c. Andrew Jackson d. James Monroe e. James Madison 30. Why do policy makers tend to respond less to the needs of young people than to those of old people? a. Young people‟s involvement in politics is unconstructive. b. Young people are less involved in politics. c. Young people are immature, and their needs are not actually very important. d. Most of the people who make laws are old. e. Young people tend to be liberal.

31. What activist group does not vote and stays out of election campaigns and civic associations but is willing to contact local officials about specific, often personal, problems? a. Single-issue voters b. Voting specialists c. Communalists d. Parochial participants e. Campaigners

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32. In which case did the Supreme Court declare that political parties selecting candidates for public office may not exclude African Americans from voting in their primary elections? a. Shelby County v. Holder b. Brown v. Board of Education c. Heller v. Washington, D.C. d. Smith v. Allwright e. Miranda v. Arizona 33. Originally, how were presidential electors and senators selected? a. By popular vote b. Only by the states‟ houses c. By a lottery d. By state legislatures e. Only by the states‟ senates 34. How many citizens does the Sentencing Project estimate cannot vote because of a felony conviction? a. 26 million Americans b. 1 million Americans c. 16 million Americans d. 36 million Americans e. 6 million Americans 35. What activist group is comprised of people who vote but do little else; they tend not to have much schooling or income and to be substantially older than the average person? a. Campaigners b. Parochial participants c. Voting specialists d. Communalists e. Single-issue voters 36. In 1856, this state was the last one to require that voters own property to vote. a. South Carolina b. North Carolina c. New Hampshire d. Georgia e. Kentucky 37. Which two groups can be part of the voting-age population but not part of the voting-eligible population? a. Unemployed and naturalized citizens b. Naturalized citizens and noncitizens

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c. Noncitizens and felons d. Felons and naturalized citizens e. Unemployed citizens and felons 38. If we measure the United States‟ voting by Turnout as Percentage of Voting-Age Population and then

by Turnout as Percentage of Registered Voters, what does it demonstrate? a. America is first in Western nations in VAP and first in VEP (voting-eligible population) b. The outcome was ambiguous. c. America is first in Western nations in VAP and fairly high in VEP (voting-eligible population) d. America is last in Western nations in both VAP and VEP (voting-eligible population) e. America is last in Western nations in VAP but fairly high in VEP (voting-eligible population) 39. Campaigners are distinguished from the general population by what? a. Their higher education levels and stronger opinions b. Their lower education levels and stronger opinions c. Their higher education levels and weaker opinions d. Their lower education levels and weaker opinions e. Their lack of party identification and distaste for conflict 40. How does nonvoting political participation among today‟s citizens compare to that of Americans half a century ago? a. It is about equal to the past. b. It is significantly greater than in the past. c. It is somewhat greater than in the past. d. It is significantly less than in the past. e. It is somewhat less than in the past.

41. In the 2020 presidential election, many politicians expressed concern that an increased number of mail-in ballots might lead to corruption. What did academic studies show? a. Vote by mail favors neither party. b. Vote by mail favors the Republicans. c. Vote by mail favors the Democrats. d. Vote by mail favors the Libertarian Party. e. Vote by mail favors the Green Party.

42. The ratification of which amendment to the U.S. Constitution extended voter eligibility to all persons age 18 or older? a. Twenty-Third Amendment b. Twenty-Fourth Amendment c. Twenty-Five Amendment d. Twenty-Sixth Amendment e. Twenty-Seventh Amendment

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43. How do voter turnout rates in America today compare to those in the past? a. They are higher than they were for previous generations. b. They are lower than they were for previous generations. c. They are higher than in most European democracies. d. They are about the same as they were for previous generations. e. They are not recorded by scholars.

44. Youth, low income, and minority status are frequently associated with which of the following participation groups? a. Inactive voters b. Parochial participants c. Communalists d. Campaigners e. Voting specialists 45. Today, what is the average voter turnout in midterm national elections? a. It averages below 50 percent. b. There is no consistent average because midterm turnout experiences extreme fluctuations. c. It averages above 90 percent. d. It ranges between 65 percent and 80 percent. e. It averages below 10 percent.

46. When did African American first vote in large numbers in the South? a. In the 1980s b. After the Voting Rights Act of 1965 c. After World War II d. Early in the 20th century e. Soon after the Civil War

47. Explain the difference between the voting-age population (VAP) and the voting-eligible population (VEP).

48. Identify and explain some of the barriers keeping people from voting.

49. Identify the groups least likely to participate in politics and explain why those groups participate in lower numbers.

50. Explain the arguments in favor and in opposition to voter identification laws.

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51. Identify and describe some of the ways African Americans were discouraged from participating in elections.

52. Describe trends in youth voting since 1972.

53. Identify the groups most likely to participate in politics and explain why those groups participate in greater numbers.

54. Compare and contrast the voter registration procedures of the United States with the procedures in other democracies.

55. Explain how making the distinction between voting-age population and voting-eligible population impacts our understanding of recent elections.

56. Identify and describe the six different classifications of U.S. voters.

57. Identify and describe the primary factors that influence whether or not individuals participate in politics.

58. Define political participation and describe the major forms of political participation in a democracy.

59. Describe the Australian ballot and explain the significance of its adoption in the late 1800s.

60. In the 2016 national election, in addition to voting at the ballot box, three other methods of voting were used in many states. Identify and describe those methods.

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Answer Key 1. d 2. e 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. e 9. e 10. e 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. e 18. a 19. e 20. c 21. b

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22. e 23. a 24. c 25. e 26. a 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. d 34. e 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. e 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. d

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43. b 44. a 45. a 46. b 47. Students' answers may vary.

48. Students' answers may vary.

49. Students' answers may vary.

50. Students' answers may vary.

51. Students' answers may vary.

52. Students' answers may vary.

53. Students' answers may vary.

54. Students' answers may vary.

55. Students' answers may vary.

56. Students' answers may vary.

57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is true of a winner-take-all electoral system? a. The candidate who gets the most votes wins. b. One must get a majority of votes cast to win.

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c. Votes are allocated on a proportional basis. d. Only parties receiving more than 5% of the vote are allocated seats. e. A party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot.

2. Why was the presidential election of 1912 unique? a. The Democratic Party temporarily split in two. b. There were three significant contenders for the presidency. c. Two Roosevelts ran against each other. d. All the major parties opposed progressivism. e. The election was decided in the House of Representatives.

3. Research on party identification has found that about how many self-identified Independents are truly independent? a. Nearly all b. Roughly three quarters c. Roughly half d. Less than half e. Less than a quarter 4. Which of the following best describes George Washington's views on political parties? a. A necessity for the functioning of democracy b. A tradition from colonial times that would always exist c. A threat to national unity and popular government d. A legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government e. A vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past 5. Which party won most presidential elections from 1932, during the Great Depression, through the election of 1964, when the turbulent 1960s created the environment for a major political realignment? a. Democratic b. Whig c. Populist d. Republican e. Libertarian 6. Progressives called for electoral reforms, such as the initiative and the referendum, for what purpose? a. To give Congress a way of controlling the president b. To give citizens a direct say in making laws c. To give courts a system for prosecuting election fraud d. To give governors more power in relation to legislatures e. To give party regulars a say in nominating candidates 7. Which of the following statements about third parties in the United States is true?

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a. They have been relatively inactive throughout the history of presidential elections. b. They generally downplay ideology in favor of winning elections. c. They are discouraged by the election laws in many states. d. They have been increasingly more important in many national elections, most recently in 2004. e. They do not need to meet minimum signature requirements in order to appear on ballots.

8. How often do the national party conventions meet to nominate a presidential candidate? a. Every two years b. Every three years c. Every four years d. Every six years e. Every eight years 9. Who manages the day-to-day work of a political party? a. Precinct captain b. National chairman or chairwoman c. National selectman or selectwoman d. Chief executive officer e. Organizational deputy 10. Which of the following describes the formation of the modern Republican Party? a. It was formed as a response to the Seneca Falls Convention for women‟s rights. b. It was formed from a coalition of antislavery factions. c. It was formed as an outgrowth of the Southern Whigs. d. It was formed as the party supporting Midwestern interests. e. It was formed during the era of good feelings.

11. Which of the following best describes political parties during the period leading up to the Civil War? a. The Whig Party split over the issue of slavery. b. Antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party. c. The Federalist Party experienced a resurgence of support. d. The Whig Party split over the issue of slavery, and the antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party. e. Antislavery factions of many parties coalesced to form the Republican Party, and the Federalist Party experienced a resurgence of support.

12. The American electoral system can be described as both a single-member plurality system and which of the following? a. Unitary-party system b. Two-party system c. Multiparty system

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d. Tri-party system e. Single-party system 13. The decline of political machines was caused in part by what? a. The Supreme Court‟s interpretation of the commerce clause b. The general decline in voter turnout c. The increasing education and sophistication of voters d. Economic depression in major metropolitan areas e. Trends in immigration 14. What kind of party is the Socialist Party? a. Single-issue b. Ideological c. Economic protest d. Factional e. Consensual 15. What is typically the first step in electing candidates? a. Convincing good candidates to run b. Deciding which elections to contest c. Winning the election d. Raising money for the campaign e. Consolidating the party leadership 16. What are super-delegates? a. Elected officials and party leaders who are not required to pledge themselves in advance to a presidential candidate b. Delegates representing special interest caucuses, such as those organized to represent Black or LGBTQ persons. c. Delegates at large who are chosen by a vote of the national party leadership d. Delegates chosen by primary elections and grassroots caucuses e. Delegates who received more than 80% of the vote necessary to achieve their status 17. In most states, how are candidates for office chosen? a. Open elections b. Party leaders c. Primary elections d. Conventions e. Delegations 18. For the most part, a majority of Americans believe that Republicans are better than Democrats at handling which issue?

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a. Health care b. The environment c. Taxes d. Foreign trade e. The economy 19. What was the primary purpose of the Hatch Act? a. To prevent federal civil service employees from voting b. To prevent federal civil service employees from making campaign contributions c. To improve the efficiency of political machines d. To curtail the power of political machines e. To make civil service employees declare loyalty to the president 20. What kind of party is the Populist Party? a. Ideological b. Single-issue c. Economic protest d. Factional e. Consensual 21. Which of the following best describes partisan realignment? a. It is of necessity tied to specific elections. b. It takes place when a substantial group of voters switches party allegiance. c. It takes place when one dominant party replaces another one. d. It took place on schedule in 2012. e. It has been predicted as inevitable in the foreseeable future.

22. National convention delegates, compared with their respective party members, tend to be which of the following? a. More liberal if they are Democrats and more conservative if they are Republicans b. More liberal regardless of party c. More conservative regardless of party d. More conservative if they are Democrats and more liberal if they are Republicans e. Quite similar in most respects, but not so much in terms of occupational prestige 23. What term is used to describe voters adjusting their long-term allegiance from one party to another in response to ideological changes? a. Dealignment b. Centralization c. Liberalization d. Party alignment e. Realignment

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24. The winner-take-all principle can be observed in the United States when which of the following selects the president and vice president? a. Party elders b. Electoral college c. National committee d. Party-in-government e. Voters in each state 25. What is a voter‟s stable, long-term attachment to a political party called? a. Political ideology b. Partisan identification c. Impressionable years d. Social movement e. Social identity 26. What characterizes an open primary? a. Anyone can vote for anyone for office. b. Only members of a party can vote for a nominee. c. Any voter may vote for any party, but they may only vote for one party. d. Voters meet in person and take several ballots to find a consensus candidate. e. Party bosses select the candidate.

27. Which of the following is a group of individuals who join together to choose candidates for elected office, whether by informal group voting or a formal nominating process? a. Interest group b. Political party c. Labor union d. Pluralist group e. Special interest group 28. What is true about the number of Independents in the electorate? a. Independents are the largest group, and their numbers are rising. b. Independents are the smallest group and are declining. c. Independents are about equal in size to both parties. d. Independents are on the rise and number more than Republicans. e. Independents are on the decline but still greater in number than either party.

29. Which of these is an accurate characterization of partisanship? a. It is fairly stable but sometimes does change. b. It never really changes. c. It is unstable and fluctuates a great deal in short periods of time.

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d. It is unstable for women. e. It is more stable for the elderly.

30. During the founding period of U.S. history, how could political parties be characterized? a. National coalitions in which large, raucous party conventions played a major role b. Loose, regional caucuses of political notables c. Instruments through which debate over the legitimacy of the new government could take place d. Bureaucratized, well organized, and well financed e. National coalitions that were well organized by impersonal bureaucracies 31. Which party, as a faction of the Republican Party, was opposed to the patronage system and favored nonpartisan elections at the city level? a. Know-Nothings b. Whigs c. America First d. Jacksonians e. Progressives 32. What perceptions do Americans hold about the two parties? a. They believe the two parties are very good at compromise. b. They see no real difference between the parties. c. They perceive clear differences between the two major parties. d. They perceive the parties as unnecessary. e. They believe the parties help get a significant amount of legislation passed in Congress.

33. The Hatch Act allows federal civil service employees to do what? a. Serve as party officers b. Solicit campaign donations c. Make campaign contributions d. Serve as a delegate to a party convention e. Endorse partisan candidates 34. The system by which legislative seats are awarded to a party in proportion to the number of votes that party wins in an election is called what type of representation? a. Majority b. Proportional c. Bipartisan d. Electoral e. Common 35. What is one of the most important factors shaping the partisanship of young individuals? a. Their parents' partisanship

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b. The church c. Their school d. The news media e. Young individuals don't generally have a party identification.

36. The Republican Party was established to deal with which of the following issues? a. Taxes b. Slavery c. School prayer d. Free trade e. Silver 37. Which of the following statements about the formula by which delegates to the nominating conventions are apportioned is correct? a. Both Democrats and Republicans give extra delegates to large states. b. Both Democrats and Republicans give extra delegates to loyal states. c. The Democrats and Republicans use different formulas. d. The formula reflects a movement to the center by both Democrats and Republicans. e. Formulas have had no noticeable impact on the selection of delegates to the conventions.

38. A political party is a group of individuals who do which of the following? a. Answer strictly to designated party leaders b. Agree on all policy issues c. Obtain positions of official power d. Organize to win elections and operate the government e. Pay monthly dues to a collective organization 39. Political parties used the patronage system to do which of the following? a. Shrink party loyalty b. Gain access to Congress c. Build party loyalty d. Increase party disunity e. Gain access to interest groups 40. What was the distinctive feature of the Jacksonian era of political parties? a. Mass political participation b. Strict registration laws c. The popularity of the caucus system d. The Australian ballot e. Direct election of senators 41. What is a major reason that minor parties or third parties have difficulty competing and winning in the

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United States? a. The electoral rules make it difficult for third parties to gain access to the ballot in states. b. Third parties are well funded but lack a following. c. Third-party candidates generally are too moderate. d. Third parties never have clearly defined messages. e. Third-party supporters are wealthier.

42. Given the U.S. federal system, how do parties in the United States compare to their European counterparts? a. More ideological b. Less ideological c. More aggressive d. More centralized e. More decentralized 43. For the most part, a majority of Americans believe that Democrats are better than Republicans at handling which issue? a. Health care b. Crime c. National defense d. Foreign trade e. The economy 44. What is the purpose of each party‟s congressional campaign committee? a. To nominate a presidential candidate b. To manage party affairs between conventions c. To manage day-to-day party business d. To provide funds to members and would-be members of Congress e. To whip members to support the party position 45. Which of the following is an accurate comparison of today‟s voters to their late nineteenth century counterparts? a. Voters are just as attached to political parties today as they were in the late nineteenth century. b. Voters are more attached to political parties today than they were in the late nineteenth century. c. Voters are less attached to political parties today than they were in the late nineteenth century. d. Due to scant historical data, it is impossible to tell whether voters today are more or less attached to political parties than they were in the late nineteenth century. e. It is currently unknown whether voters today are more or less attached to political parties than they were in the late nineteenth century but improved statistical methods may soon put that knowledge within reach.

46. Which of the following statements best describes the patronage system?

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a. Another name for representation b. Only occurred at the national level c. Ended by the time of the Civil War d. Rewarding faithful followers with government jobs and contracts e. Guarantees mentors for newly elected officials 47. Compared to states with open primaries, which is true for states with closed primaries? a. They tend to have more runoff elections before a winner is determined. b. They tend to have more polarized candidates. c. They tend to have more moderate candidates. d. They tend to have weaker parties. e. They tend to have stronger parties.

48. If party elites and voters disagree on the best choice of presidential candidate, who usually wins? a. The voters will likely get their way. b. The party leaders will likely get their way. c. The party leaders will ax the voters‟ choice before it can come to a vote. d. The party leaders will listen to the voters and back down. e. The voters will listen to the party leaders and back down.

49. What is the implication of the plurality electoral system in the United States? a. The party system will be competitive. b. Successful parties must be a broad-based coalition. c. Politics will be more ideological than they would otherwise be. d. The risk of electoral corruption is less than in Europe. e. Smaller parties have a greater chance of winning at least some seats.

50. In most European countries, how is the chief executive selected? a. A closed election b. An open election c. The equivalent of a Supreme Court d. The legislature e. The voters 51. Primary elections were developed to limit the power of whom or what? a. The people b. Party bosses c. Congress d. The president e. The Supreme Court

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52. What is one way that minor parties can have an influence over politics? a. They can force major parties to adopt or incorporate their issue(s). b. They often win congressional seats. c. They pull the parties to a moderate position. d. They pull the parties to the extreme. e. They have had no major impact on politics.

53. What is the process of attracting key party and interest group figures to a candidate called? a. Open primary b. Caucus c. National convention d. Invisible primary e. Straw poll 54. Which of the following statements about voter behavior is incorrect? a. Typically, a majority of Democrats vote for the Democratic candidate. b. Typically, a majority of Republicans vote for the Republican candidate. c. Typically, a majority of Independents vote for the Independent candidate. d. Typically, a plurality of Independents vote for either the Democratic or Republican candidate. e. Typically, most Independents vote for only the Republican candidate.

55. The adoption of which of the following would permit multiple parties to acquire seats in Congress because representation would be based on the percentage of votes they receive in national elections? a. Divided representation b. Patronage c. Australian ballots d. Proportional representation e. Ticket splitting 56. The main purpose of a political party is to do which of the following in order to control the government and implement its policies? a. Nominate candidates b. Win elections c. Shape the judiciary d. Discuss policy e. Register voters 57. A centralized organization that dominates local politics by controlling elections, sometimes by illegal means, is known as which of the following? a. Central committee b. Campaign committee c. Party machine

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d. Party conference e. Party government

58. Evaluate the degree to which party identification changed among white southerners from 1952 to the present.

59. Compare and contrast American parties with their European counterparts.

60. Explain the pros and cons of the U.S. two-party system.

61. Explain the relationships of the national, state, and local party organizations to each other.

62. Analyze the differences between the modern Democratic Party and the Republican Party on economic issues.

63. Identify and describe the four different types of minor parties in American politics.

64. Evaluate the degree to which party polarization exists and explain its implications for government and politics.

65. Evaluate the ability of third parties to cause change in the U.S. political system.

66. Explain what a party machine is and how such machines generally lost power over time.

67. Identify and describe the obstacles third parties face in the U.S. political and electoral systems.

68. Analyze the differences between the modern Democratic Party and the Republican Party on social issues.

69. Explain the concept of party polarization.

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Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. e 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. d 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. b

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22. a 23. e 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. e 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. e

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43. a 44. d 45. c 46. d 47. e 48. a 49. b 50. d 51. b 52. a 53. d 54. c 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

67. Students' answers may vary.

68. Students' answers may vary.

69. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Why do presidential candidates generally see a positive bump in polls after their party's convention? a. The convention generally gives them sustained, one-sided positive coverage. b. The convention is generally not widely viewed. c. The convention provides both positive and negative coverage of the party's nominee. d. The convention generally leads to supporters of the other party switching their allegiance. e. The convention generally leads to greater polarization.

2. Which of the following best describes the impact the 2010 Citizens United decision has had on the political campaign process? a. It allowed corporate entities to directly coordinate candidate or campaign events. b. It opened the door to negative campaigning on a national level. c. It allowed corporate entities to contribute unlimited amounts to support or oppose candidates. d. It closed the door to super PAC involvement in political campaigns. e. It restricted the contributions of corporate or international donors.

3. Since 1911, the size of the House of Representatives has been fixed at how many members? a. 100 b. 217 c. 400 d. 435 e. 437 4. How can most political ads be described? a. Negative b. Positive c. Neutral or non-partisan d. Related to campaign issues e. Factual

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5. Which of the following statements best describes super PACs? a. They allow foreign corporations to coordinate with and give directly to political campaigns. b. They are political advertising councils that design political campaigns. c. They are limited to raising no more than $10 million per campaign cycle. d. They allow money to be spent on advertising and other political activities. e. They allow America's very wealthy to donate unlimited funds to influence elections and spend money on advertising and other political activities.

6. Since 1964, about what percentage of African Americans typically have voted Democratic? a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80% e. 90% 7. The Constitution spells out in detail the workings of which institution that chooses the president? a. Electoral college b. Federal Election Commission c. House of Representatives d. Senate e. State legislatures 8. Which of these is an example of a positional issue? a. Abortion b. Growing the economy c. Ethics in politics d. Trustworthiness e. Prosperity 9. When is the media‟s influence greatest on voters? a. When people have the least knowledge about an issue b. When people are very well informed about an issue c. When people understand enough about an issue to know that it‟s important but not enough to form a cohesive perspective d. When voters are already extensively familiar with the candidates e. When voters are unfamiliar with the candidates 10. Since the mid-1960s, the incumbent reelection percentage in the House has never dropped below what percentage? a. 60% b. 65%

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c. 75% d. 80% e. 90% 11. What is unlimited money given to political parties but not used to back candidates directly called? a. Hard money b. Soft money c. Issue advocacy d. PAC money e. Independent expenditures 12. Debates have the most influence on which group? a. The disengaged b. The uninformed c. Strong partisans d. Undecided voters e. Third-party voters 13. Which of the following observations illustrates the concept of surge and decline? a. A Democrat was elected president in 1936, and Democrats won seats in the midterm elections of 1938. b. A Democrat was elected president in 2008, and Democrats lost seats in the midterm elections of 2010. c. A Democrat was elected president in 1996, and Republicans won seats in the midterm elections of 2002. d. A Republican was elected president in 1988, and a Democrat was elected president in 1992. e. Beginning in 1992, a Democrat was president for eight years, then a Republican, then another Democrat.

14. What differences are there in the support of young voters and African American voters for the Democratic Party? a. Young voters have consistently and overwhelmingly supported the Democratic Party, while African American voters' support has changed over time. b. Young voters' support for the Democratic Party has recently increased, while African American voters' support has been consistently strong over recent elections. c. Young voters have given low levels of support to the Democratic Party, while African Americans have given high levels of support. d. Young voters have given moderate support to the Democratic Party, while African American support for Democrats has declined in recent elections. e. Young voters' support for the Democratic Party has recently decreased, while African American voters' support has been consistently weak over recent elections.

15. Since the mid-1960s, the incumbent reelection rate has never dropped below what percent in the

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Senate? a. 60% b. 65% c. 75% d. 80% e. 90% 16. What is the most important factor in winning the presidency? a. Partisanship b. The health of the nation c. Candidate character d. Fundraising e. Organization 17. The Supreme Court ruling in Citizens United v. FEC supports which of the following? a. Corporations, unions, and interest groups can fund campaign advertising without limits if it is not coordinated with a campaign. b. Restrictions on campaign language used in negative advertising about other candidates c. Unrestricted advertising by, for, or about political candidates d. The elimination of super PACs e. The unrestricted role of big business in political campaigns and candidate advertising 18. Which group gives the most loyal support to the Democratic Party? a. Young voters b. Women c. African Americans d. Latinos e. Asians 19. Historically, what patterns have emerged regarding women's support of the Democratic Party? a. Women's support of the Democratic Party has increased since the 1990s. b. Women's support of the Democratic Party has declined since the 1970s. c. Women's support of the Democratic Party has remained very high over time. d. Women's support of the Democratic Party has remained very low over a long time period. e. Women's support of the Democratic Party has fluctuated greatly since the 1990s.

20. In Federal Election Commission v. Wisconsin Right to Life, what did the Supreme Court hold? a. McCain-Feingold, a campaign finance law, was constitutional. b. Issue advocacy was not protected by the First Amendment and could be banned. c. Issue advocacy was protected by the First Amendment and could not be banned. d. Speech required money, so campaign finance laws were illegal. e. Candidates could not spend their own money in campaigns.

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21. Originally, how were presidential candidates chosen? a. Lottery b. Conventions c. Congressional caucus d. State legislatures e. Governors 22. How does income shape partisan loyalty? a. Those in the bottom third of income earners generally support the Democratic Party, and those in the upper third generally support the Republican Party. b. Those in the bottom third of income earners generally support the Republican Party, and those in the upper third generally support the Democratic Party. c. Income generally does not show a consistent pattern of partisan support in presidential elections. d. Those in the upper 1% tend to vote for Democrats. e. Middle-income voters tend to support Democrats, and the low-income and wealthy support the Republicans.

23. Why are demographic trends in partisan support important for candidates to understand? a. It can inform campaign strategy, including which groups to attempt to mobilize through campaign appeals. b. There does not tend to be fluctuations in a group's support of the party, so it informs their baseline of support in any given election. c. Converting the other side is easier than mobilizing one's own base, so it can inform who to convert from the opposing party's supporters. d. It does not necessarily inform the candidate since the patterns seem random. e. It helps more in presidential elections than in congressional or state campaigns.

24. What is a major difference between presidential campaigns and congressional campaigns? a. Fewer people vote in presidential elections. b. Presidential incumbents can better serve their constituents. c. Presidential incumbents can more easily avoid responsibility. d. Presidential races are generally more competitive. e. Congressional incumbents are more likely to be defeated.

25. When a popular candidate influences the success of other candidates on the same party ticket, it is called which of the following? a. Partisan effect b. Carry over effect c. Bradley effect d. Incumbent effect e. Coattail effect

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26. When a district is drawn in a bizarre or unusual shape to assist or benefit a candidate, it is called what? a. Malapportioned b. Reapportioned c. Regressed d. Gerrymandered e. Disbarred 27. The federal government provides matching funds, dollar for dollar, for money raised by small donors for what types of elections? a. House elections b. Presidential elections c. Senate elections d. Non-partisan elections e. Midterm elections 28. Which of the following states holds the nation‟s first and most famous caucus that requires people to attend a meeting of about two hours in which they indicate their preferences and then try to convince those who are undecided to join their candidate‟s group? a. Alaska b. Iowa c. New Hampshire d. New Mexico e. South Carolina 29. Most demographic groups favor one party or the other by about what percent? a. 25% or more b. 20% c. 15% d. 10% e. 5% or less 30. Which group, until more recent elections, has been about as loyal to the Democratic Party as African Americans? a. Latinos b. Young Americans c. Jewish Americans d. Women e. Asian Americans 31. The campaign finance law created in the 1970s was the direct byproduct of what?

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a. The Watergate scandal b. The adoption of the Twenty-Sixth Amendment c. Decreasing voter turnout d. Wage and price controls e. The Chicago riots 32. From what source does most of the money for congressional candidates come? a. PACs b. Major corporations c. Small businesses d. Super PACs e. Individuals 33. Approximately what percentage of political ads in 2016 were negative? a. 90% b. 80% c. 60% d. 40% e. 10% 34. Which of the following statements about the role of elections in the enactment of public policy is true? a. Elections generally do not result in shifts in public policy. b. Elections always result in massive shifts in public policy. c. Elections only produced changes in public policy prior to the 1960s. d. Elections result in changes to public policy, but often not swift or quick changes. e. Elections only result in changes to policy when there is a divided government.

35. Why do American elections rarely have a major effect on public policy compared to other countries? a. The U.S. constitutional system was designed to moderate the pace of change. b. Politicians have fewer incentives to pass new policies. c. The Supreme Court slows down the process. d. State governments often slow down the decision making at the federal level. e. The public prefers slower lawmaking generally.

36. What has been the effect of the conventions being held in close proximity to each other? a. They have more influence over voters as viewership is even higher. b. They have less influence because the rapid succession leaves little time for the candidate's message to sink in with voters. c. It drives voter turnout to record highs. d. It disengages the voters. e. It does not really have much effect.

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37. An important part of presidential campaigning is activating voters‟ latent partisanship. What does this entail? a. The demonization of the other party‟s nominees b. Assigning blame for recent failures c. Assigning credit for recent successes d. Reminding party members why they are party members e. Getting voters to switch parties 38. Electoral coattails refers to what? a. The formal attire of presidential candidates b. Coordinated campaigns between different offices in the same party c. Competition between the two main parties d. How more attractive candidates perform better in national elections e. The winning presidential candidate‟s positive effect on congressional elections 39. Why may debates move opinion less than conventions? a. Debates generally have very low viewership. b. Debates are overly negative. c. Conventions are generally later in the election season. d. Debates are later in the election season, and voters at that point often have more crystallized opinions about the candidates. e. Conventions are generally more persuasive than debates.

40. Which of the following statements about campaign advertisements is true? a. They significantly affect voter turnout. b. They are overwhelmingly positive. c. All negative ads provide misinformation. d. Negative ads can provide more information to voters than positive ads. e. There were many fewer ads in recent elections than in the past.

41. From what source does the funding of congressional elections come? a. Public sources only b. Private sources only c. Party sources only d. A combination of public, party, and private sources e. The parties and public sources 42. Ordinary advertising directed at or against a candidate, but not by any candidate‟s wish, is considered what? a. Independent expenditure b. Illegal

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c. Only present at the state level d. Political action e. Soft money 43. Which of the following describes the effect of money on campaigns? a. More important to congressional elections than to presidential elections b. Less important to congressional elections than to presidential elections c. Neither more nor less important to congressional elections than to presidential elections d. Either more or less important to congressional elections than to presidential elections, depending on whether the election is a midterm e. As important to congressional elections as to presidential elections, but in different ways 44. In the 1980 presidential election, many people voted for Ronald Reagan over Jimmy Carter as a vote against Carter‟s job performance. This is an example of what? a. Spin vote b. Retrospective vote c. Prospective vote d. Informed vote e. Inclined vote 45. Which of the following statements about political campaign advertisements is true? a. They work primarily on the uninformed and uneducated. b. They appeal primarily to logic and reason. c. They are predominantly dirty and deceptive. d. They rile up emotions and increase voter turnout. e. A plurality of ads appeals to voters‟ fears.

46. After party caucuses were replaced by national nominating conventions, who wielded the real power in selecting presidential nominees? a. The voters in primary elections b. Local party leaders c. Members of Congress d. Nonpartisan groups that sought to pick the best candidates e. The voters in caucus elections 47. Soft money is obtained by whom or what? a. Political parties b. Incumbents c. Challengers d. Party leaders e. Party leaders‟ PACs

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48. Which of the following best describes the effects of gerrymandering? a. Nonexistent b. More serious than most people realize c. Less serious than many people claim d. About as serious as most people believe e. Often contradictory to expectations 49. Which two states do not use a winner-take-all system in the electoral college? a. California and Ohio b. Nebraska and Maine c. Texas and Delaware d. Michigan and Florida e. Nevada and New Jersey 50. Which of the following best describes what is allowed because of the 2010 Supreme Court decision in Citizens United v. FEC? a. Corporations, unions, and individuals can donate unlimited funds to presidential campaigns. b. Corporations, unions, and individuals can donate unlimited funds to entities that are independent of the candidates. c. Corporations, unions, and individuals can donate unlimited funds to political parties. d. Political parties can create special funds from federal monies to donate to candidates. e. Corporations, unions, and individuals can donate unlimited funds to presidential campaigns as well as to entities that are independent of the candidates.

51. Identify the steps and describe the general process of running for a congressional seat.

52. Explain why a candidate would decide to forgo matching funds in his or her quest for the presidential nomination.

53. Compare and contrast retrospective and prospective voting.

54. Explain how recent campaign finance laws changed the nature of presidential campaigns.

55. Identify and describe the key demographic supporters of the Democratic and Republican parties.

56. Describe the role of political action committees in the election process.

57. Negative advertising in campaigns is very common. Explain why campaigns employ this strategy.

58. Explain the role of fundraising in modern presidential campaigns and compare it to the past.

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59. Explain the incumbency advantage for members of the House and Senate.

60. Discuss the impact of the Supreme Court's decision in Citizens United v. FEC, making note of the rise of super PACs and their effect on campaigns.

61. Explain the difference between positional issues and valence issues.

62. Identify and describe the strategies devised by interest groups and parties to get around campaign finance reform legislation.

63. Explain how does socioeconomic status impacts voter turnout.

64. Identify and describe the legislation that has led to campaign finance reform.

65. Explain why socioeconomic status impacts voter turnout.

66. Identify and describe the differences in the ways that various demographic groups have voted.

67. Explain how American public policy change in response to the pressure and outcome of elections.

68. Explain the extent that advertising matters during a campaign and election.

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Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. e 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. c

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22. a 23. a 24. d 25. e 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. e 30. c 31. a 32. e 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. e 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. a

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43. a 44. b 45. e 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. Students' answers may vary.

52. Students' answers may vary.

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54. Students' answers may vary.

55. Students' answers may vary.

56. Students' answers may vary.

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64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

67. Students' answers may vary.

68. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Some argue that the interest group system is most likely to leave out which of the following groups? a. Low-income Americans b. Workers in the public sector c. Workers in the private sector d. The agriculture industry e. Small business owners 2. Under current law, an individual must register as a lobbyist if he or she spends at least what percent of his or her time lobbying? a. 90% b. 70% c. 50% d. 20% e. 5% 3. When we talk about a lobbyist, we are talking about a person who is which of the following? a. Part of an association of individuals b. Someone who attempts to influence legislation and the administrative decisions of government c. Inevitably associated with one of the two major parties d. A member of Congress who challenges the majority position e. A member of the president's cabinet who argues against any change 4. Purposive incentives are most likely to motivate people who join which of the following groups? a. The Illinois Farm Bureau b. NARAL Pro-Choice America c. Parent Teacher Association (PTA) d. The Ohio Farm Bureau e. The Rotary Club

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5. What are organizations that attract members by appealing to a coherent set of usually controversial principles called? a. Political parties b. Pressure groups c. Splinter groups d. Ideological interest groups e. Out-party groups 6. Which of the following is a behavior of public interest law firms? a. They file lawsuits on behalf of people who have been harmed by some public or private policy. b. They lobby elected officials to change laws in ways favorable to the law firm and its clients. c. They support candidates for office and support their lawyers to be judges. d. They raise money for issue advertisements during campaigns. e. They run candidates for office.

7. The launching of the Chamber of Commerce was an example of an interest group that formed as a result of what? a. Government policy b. The emergence of talented leadership c. The enlargement of governmental responsibilities d. Broad economic developments e. Legislative capitulation 8. Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with which of the following? a. Foreign ambassadors b. Legislators and government officials c. Federal judges d. Business leaders e. Police commissioners and chiefs of police 9. The free-rider problem increases the difficulty of attracting which of the following? a. Young people b. Paying members c. Media attention d. Votes in Congress e. Political moderates 10. Americans are more likely than citizens of other western democracies to join which of the following? a. Labor unions b. Business and trade associations

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c. Charitable organizations d. Religious and civic associations e. Professional organizations 11. The National Organization for Women (NOW) is an example of a feminist organization whose membership incentives are primarily what? a. Material b. Purposive c. Solidary d. Sociological e. Concurrent 12. A benefit that comes from something that could be quantified in monetary terms is known as what kind of incentive? a. Solidary b. Material c. Purposive d. Ideological e. Special interest 13. A person who tries to influence legislation on behalf of an interest group is known as what? a. Free rider b. Community organizer c. Lobbyist d. Organizational strategist e. Campaigner 14. What is the single most important activity of interest groups in the eyes of many lobbyists and academic students of lobbying? a. Delivering large numbers of protestors b. Supplying credible information to legislators c. Providing financial resources d. Interacting with the media e. Providing public relations 15. What is true for tax-exempt organizations that interact with the government? a. Their tax-exempt status can be put in jeopardy for lobbying. b. They are free to lobby. c. They can only lobby the government on the particular issue that concerns their organization. d. There are few regulations for tax-exempt organizations. e. Tax-exempt organizations are never permitted to be involved in policy matters.

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16. What role do interest groups play in educating policy makers about political issues? a. Interest groups are never considered a valid source of information because they are so biased. b. So few people are members of interest groups that any communication policy makers receive from such groups is considered insignificant. c. They are an important source of political information. d. They tend to confuse policy makers and often alienate them. e. They serve to overwhelm policy makers with too much information.

17. Members of a farm bureau are most likely to have joined as a result of what type of incentives? a. Solidary b. Concurrent c. Purposive d. Party e. Material 18. The League of Women Voters is an example of an organization whose membership incentives are primarily what? a. Material b. Purposive c. Concurrent d. Ideological e. Solidary 19. A lobbying firm securing federal money for a university to construct a nutrition center would be an example of what? a. A logroll b. A dovetail c. An earmark d. A scratched back e. A tag line 20. Which of the following best describes how the U.S. Constitution protects interest groups? a. Through the First Amendment's right to "petition the Government for a redress of grievances" b. Through the First Amendment's right to "peaceably assemble" c. Through the Fourth Amendment's protection against illegal search and seizure d. Through the Fifth Amendment's right against self-incrimination e. Through the First Amendment's right to "petition the Government for a redress of grievances" and the First Amendment's right to "peaceably assemble" 21. Which of the following best describes an interest group? a. Any association of individuals b. A group of people who want to gain control of the government

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c. An organization that actively attempts to influence government policy d. Any organization that requires members to pay dues e. An organization set up to support a particular candidate for public office 22. On high salience bills, lobbyists are which of the following? a. Highly influential b. Not likely to affect the outcome very much c. Very few in number d. Just as important as a legislator‟s ideology e. Only relevant if the bill is a form of client politics 23. What are the social rewards that lead people to join political organizations called? a. Purposive incentives b. Material benefits c. Intangible benefits d. Solidary incentives e. De jure incentives 24. What was the major weakness of the Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of 1946? a. It was too strict. b. It required a lot of resources to implement. c. The effort was too much of a burden on interest groups. d. It led to less lobbying. e. There was a lack of enforcement, so some lobbyists even failed to register.

25. Lobbyists are restrained from misrepresenting facts or misleading legislators by what? a. The 1984 Truth-in-Lobbying Law b. The open nature of the lobbying process c. Governmental regulatory agencies such as the FTC (Federal Trade Commission) d. The fear of losing legislators‟ trust and confidence e. Supervision of the federal courts 26. Every organization that benefits other people, even if they are not part of the organization, suffers from what problem? a. Public good b. Incentive c. Ideology d. Free rider e. Control 27. Which of the following describes the effect of the Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of 1946?

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a. It had considerable effect. b. It had a slight impact on lobbying activities. c. It had little practical effect. d. It was effective with respect to the registration of lobbyists. e. It resulted in accurate reporting of interest group finances.

28. A free rider is which of the following? a. An interest group member b. A participant in a social movement c. Someone granted free passage to Washington, DC to demonstrate d. Someone who benefits from the actions of a group without joining it e. A civil rights activist 29. The activity of lobbyists is protected by which of the following amendments? a. First b. Fourth c. Fifth d. Tenth e. Fourteenth 30. In recent years, what grassroots lobbying strategy do interest groups frequently use? a. Insider b. Wholesale c. Collective d. Outsider e. End run 31. Since 1960, the greatest growth in unionization has occurred among which of the following groups? a. Military personnel b. Public employees c. Professional athletes d. Private-sector employees e. Retail employees 32. Most issues lobbied in Congress are lobbied by how many lobbyists? a. A few lobbyists b. Dozens of lobbyists c. Hundreds of lobbyists d. Thousands of lobbyists e. Tens of thousands of lobbyists

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33. Since 1983, labor union membership has declined due to what? a. A shift away from industrial production toward service delivery b. An increase in public service unions c. A loss of America‟s economic influence abroad d. Federal regulations banning unions e. Disinterest among the public 34. Which of these is the fastest-growing type of political action committees (PACs)? a. Connected b. Leadership c. Corporate d. Traditional e. Independent 35. People who join an interest group for solidary incentives are joining for which of the following reasons? a. To improve their economic opportunities b. For a sense of belonging to the group c. For ethical beliefs or ideological reasons d. To obtain political, social, or economic change e. To become a free rider 36. Why are interest groups an important way for people to have their voices heard? a. The large size and diversity of our country b. The centralizing effects of our Constitution c. The small number of nonprofit organizations d. The strength of our political parties e. The high level of responsiveness of Congress 37. Which interest group is an example of an institutional interest? a. League of Women Voters b. Boy Scouts c. Sierra Club d. National Association of Counties e. National Rifle Association 38. How do interest groups use ratings? a. As a measure of success in their lobbying b. As a measure of how liberal or conservative a legislator is c. As a political cue d. As a way to find political allies with other interest groups e. They generally no longer use ratings.

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39. Which of the following statements about a social movement is generally true? a. The more extreme its position, the smaller its size b. The more liberal its position, the larger its size c. The more moderate its position, the smaller its size d. The more purposive its membership incentives, the smaller its size e. It can only take place when courts are open to the prospect of radical change in the law.

40. Which of the following is true of most people who are sympathetic to the aims of a mass-membership interest group? a. They do not join it. b. They join it but do not pay dues. c. They join it, pay dues, but do not participate in its activities. d. They join it, pay dues, and participate in its activities. e. They join it but participate without paying dues.

41. Which of these is an example of an organized interest group? a. Chamber of Commerce b. Adults over 18 c. Democratic Party d. Google e. College Students 42. Someone joining an interest group because they want tangible benefits is joining for which of the following reasons? a. Material incentives b. Solidary incentives c. Purposive incentives d. Philosophical incentives e. Social incentives 43. Why might the increase in political action committees (PACs) reduce the probability that members of Congress can be bought easily? a. There are so many restrictions on PACs. b. PACs have such a poor reputation among legislators. c. PACs are not allowed to communicate directly with members of Congress. d. Members of Congress do not have the time to consider more than one or two points of view. e. Money is available on every side of almost every conceivable issue.

44. Many interest groups employ which of the following, who are hired to represent the group's interests to the government? a. Members of Congress

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b. Members of the White House Executive Office of the President c. Community organizers d. Lobbyists e. Activists 45. Today, approximately what percent of American workers are members of a union? a. 11% b. 21% c. 31% d. 51% e. 71% 46. Which of the following is an example of a legislator following a political cue? a. The legislator responding to public appeals b. The legislator responding to a material incentive c. The legislator responding to an organization due to the promise of campaign donations d. A liberal legislator looking to see whether the AFL-CIO favors a consumer proposal e. A liberal legislator asking for campaign donations 47. Which of these statements best describes today‟s lobbying laws? a. Laxer than ever b. Tighter than ever c. Less relevant than ever d. Too complex to have any particular impact e. Completely without teeth 48. Why do Americans participate in civic associations more frequently than citizens of other countries? a. Americans‟ greater dissatisfaction with the government b. Americans‟ more intense attachment to parties c. Americans‟ European heritage d. Americans' lesser sensitivity to the free-rider problem e. Americans‟ sense of political efficacy and civic duty 49. Which of the following statements regarding the existence of interest groups is true? a. Public interest groups and civil rights make up a large percentage of interest groups lobbying Congress. b. Interest group leaders are from the lower socioeconomic groups. c. Interest groups demonstrate the validity of the elite theory model of the U.S. political system. d. Interest groups can be problematic for democracy because members of the middle or upper classes often dominate them. e. Interest groups are required by the Constitution.

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50. Which of these can remove the tax-exempt status of an organization? a. Internal Revenue Service b. White House c. Congress d. Department of Justice e. Federal Bureau of Investigation 51. Most interest groups have a bias toward which of the following? a. The middle and upper classes b. The working poor c. The common good d. The political right e. The political left 52. Which type of organization would be the least likely to take a firm stance on abortion? a. An organization with lobbyists in Washington b. An organization arising from a social movement c. A material organization d. A purposive organization e. A solidary organization 53. Who are the dominant players in the lobbying market? a. Non-profit organizations b. Social justice organizations c. Business organizations d. Environmental organizations e. Law firms 54. A benefit that comes from serving a cause or principle is known as what kind of incentive? a. Solidary b. Material c. Purposive d. Ideological e. Special interest 55. People who join interest groups for a sense of pleasure, status, or companionship are joining because of what? a. Solidary incentives b. Material incentives c. Purposive incentives d. Party incentives e. Concurrent incentives

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56. The Supreme Court did which of the following to the Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of 1946? a. Expanded it b. Declared it unconstitutional c. Limited it to only direct contact with members of Congress d. Never actually reviewed it e. Amended it 57. The Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of 1946 required groups and individuals seeking to influence legislation to do which of the following? a. Limit their activities to seven pieces of legislation b. Limit their activities to either the House or the Senate c. Prepare and publish written statements of intent d. Register and file quarterly financial reports e. Register, file statements of intent, and limit their activities to one legislative chamber 58. Generally, groups that work toward a common or national good are considered which of the following? a. Organized labor b. Material incentive groups c. Ideological groups d. Solidary incentive groups e. Public interest groups 59. In recent years, private-sector union membership has done which of the following? a. It has plateaued. b. It has completely disappeared. c. It has doubled. d. It has tripled. e. It has declined.

60. How many candidates opted for the public funding system for the 2020 presidential elections? a. zero b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 e. 23, if one counts the primary contenders

61. Compare interest group membership in America to that of other democracies.

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62. Explain the free-rider problem faced by interest groups and discuss how they combat the problem.

63. Identify and describe the tactics used by interest groups to influence political campaigns.

64. Identify and describe the tactics used by interest groups as part of information campaigns.

65. Identify and describe the four factors that have accounted for the increase in interest groups in recent years.

66. Identify and describe some of the major changes in lobbying regulation from 1946 to the present.

67. Identify and describe the tactics used by interest groups to influence policy debates and legislation.

68. Identify and describe the steps must a lobbyist take to follow the law and practice their profession legally.

69. Describe what earmarks are and explain how they are related to interest group politics.

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Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. e 18. e 19. c 20. e 21. c

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22. b 23. d 24. e 25. d 26. d 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. a

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43. e 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. e 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. e 53. c 54. c 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. e 59. e 60. a 61. Students' answers may vary 62. Students' answers may vary 63. Students' answers may vary 64. Students' answers may vary

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65. Students' answers may vary 66. Students' answers may vary 67. Students' answers may vary 68. Students' answers may vary 69. Students' answers may vary

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The power of the media to determine what the government ought to do is referred to as which of the following? a. Framing b. Priming c. Setting the public agenda d. Political socialization e. Content aggregation 2. Framing is best defined as an influence on which of the following? a. Public opinion as a result of the way a story is presented or covered, including the details and context offered in the report b. Public opinion from a story that covers one candidate or policy favorably without providing similar coverage of the other side c. Public opinion as a result of journalists' decisions about which news stories to cover d. Government policy as a result of positive or negative coverage of an issue e. Government activities as a result of media coverage of an issue 3. Most Americans rely on which of the following as their primary source for news? a. The internet b. Radio c. Television d. Facebook e. Twitter 4. Which of the following is a potential problem with concentrated media ownership? a. It may result in government restrictions on competition. b. It may result in a limited watchdog function. c. It may result in too much competition.

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d. It may result in information overload. e. It may result in too much accountability to the public.

5. Compared with the print media, the electronic media are which of the following? a. Less competitive but more strictly regulated b. More competitive but less strictly regulated c. More competitive and more strictly regulated d. Less competitive and less strictly regulated e. Less competitive and completely free of regulation 6. How does the United States restrict the press compared to other democratic nations? a. Usually less than, but sometimes more than b. About as much as c. Much more than d. Much less than e. Usually more than, but sometimes less than 7. From what types of sources do most Americans get their news? a. Extremely liberal sources b. Extremely conservative sources c. Extreme sources that align with their own partisanship d. Moderate sources e. There are no consistent patterns.

8. When the media regularly focus public attention on violent crime, political corruption, or economic woes, they are engaged in which of the following? a. Biased reporting b. Political socialization c. Agenda setting d. Changing public opinion e. Apathy management 9. When does selective exposure occur? a. When citizens only hear one side of an issue: the one they disagree agree with b. When citizens only hear one side of an issue: the one they agree with c. When media outlets only cover one side of a story d. When media outlets do not cover a story at all e. When bloggers get to a story before the traditional media does 10. Why is local newspaper reporting on local politics and government in decline? a. Circulation and advertising revenue are down. b. No one reads newspapers anymore.

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c. National news outlets have replaced local reporting. d. There are too many reporters covering state and local politics to run them in the local papers. e. Local news is not important.

11. Radio, television, wire, and cable are regulated by which of the following? a. The Department of Communications b. The Department of the Treasury c. The Federal Communications Commission d. The Department of Homeland Security e. Themselves, with no government oversight 12. Which of the following media is subject to the greatest amount of government regulation? a. Radio b. Local newspapers c. National newspapers d. The internet e. Magazines 13. When the Supreme Court upheld the right of the police to search newspaper offices, Congress responded by passing legislation that did which of the following? a. Prevented police from conducting such searches without a subpoena b. Made it easier for the police to lawfully conduct future searches c. Forbade such searches, except in special cases d. Completely banned the police from securing records of newspaper offices e. Required police to obtain a search warrant before conducting such searches 14. Which of the following is not usually considered to be a part of the media? a. Newspapers b. Television c. Personal correspondence d. Radio e. The internet 15. What does it mean when the media typically reports presidential elections as horse races? a. They have an instinctive desire to expose scandals. b. They play the roles of gatekeeper, scorekeeper, and watchdog in a presidential campaign. c. They seek opportunities to write background or interpretive stories about issues in the campaign. d. They focus more on the contest itself than on the issues of the campaign. e. They have an instinctive desire to investigate personalities.

16. In which court case did the Supreme Court rule that freedom of the press applies to state governments,

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so they cannot impose prior restraint on newspapers? a. Sullivan v. New York (1985) b. Marbury v. Madison (1804) c. Tinker v. Des Moines (1969) d. Near v. Minnesota (1931) e. New York Times v. Bush (2007) 17. According to Gallup Poll data, about half of Americans feel that the news media have what type of bias? a. Conservative b. Libertarian c. Liberal d. Corporate-leaning e. Undetectable 18. What is one consequence of declining local news coverage? a. There is less public knowledge about local government and less engagement in politics. b. Local government budgets have suffered. c. Local services are overutilized. d. Individuals are even more critical of local government. e. People are even more engaged in local politics.

19. Why might selective exposure be problematic for democracy? a. Citizens are not hearing the other side of issues, and this can increase polarization. b. Media companies lose money. c. Citizens become more informed, which increases engagement. d. Selective exposure makes citizens engage in bipartisanship. e. Selective exposure can lead to less competitive elections.

20. While most of the mass media in the United States is privately owned, which of the following is also correct? a. They are able to regulate large swaths of information flow on the internet. b. The government has cracked down on the use of copyrighted material. c. They have focused most of their energy on monitoring the activities of hate groups. d. They do not operate free of government regulation. e. They operate free of government regulation.

21. Why is the public less trusting of the media today than in 1970? a. The public thinks the press does not focus enough on campaigns. b. The public worries about media consolidation. c. The public finds the media too bland and neutral. d. The public‟s distrust of politicians turns them against politicians‟ endorsement of the media.

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e. Politicians‟ decreased trust in the media.

22. Which of the following refers to the ability of the media to alter the public‟s view on an issue by presenting it in a particular way? a. Agenda setting b. Framing c. Softening d. Sensationalizing e. Investigating 23. A newspaper can print your name and picture under what conditions? a. Only with your consent b. If they are part of a news story of some conceivable public interest c. If it wants to d. Only if you are a public figure e. If it compensates you 24. Why are some people critical of horse-race journalism? a. They feel like the coverage places too much emphasis on personalities. b. They feel like the coverage ignores the importance of issues. c. They feel like the coverage places too much emphasis on public personas. d. They feel like the coverage relies almost entirely on second- and third-hand reporting. e. They feel like the coverage rarely has an impact on the flow of campaign contributions.

25. In New York v. Farber, what did the Supreme Court rule? a. The accused person‟s right to a fair trial does not include the right to compel the production of evidence, except from reporters. b. The accused person‟s right to a fair trial includes the right to compel the production of evidence, but not from reporters. c. The accused person‟s right to a fair trial includes the right to compel the production of evidence, even from reporters. d. The accused person‟s right to a fair trial does not include the right to compel the production of evidence. e. When reporters are involved, the accused person no longer has the right to a fair trial.

26. When the media uncovers public wrongdoing and brings that wrongdoing to the public's attention, it is engaged in which role of the media? a. Entertaining the public b. Socializing new generations c. Providing a political forum d. Making profits e. Setting the public agenda

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27. America has a long tradition of media that can best be described as which of the following? a. Objective b. Centralized c. Government friendly d. Primarily concerned with governmental policy e. Privately owned 28. Available evidence seems to indicate that most journalists and reporters have which of the following? a. Liberal leanings b. Conservative leanings c. Biases in favor of politicians d. No biases at all e. Negative leanings 29. Media framing of public programs in terms of waste and fraud could have what effect? a. It would increase public support for struggling programs. b. It would decrease support for public programs. c. It would likely have no effect. d. It may increase the number of recipients of those programs. e. It would generally result in more funding.

30. Journalists are more likely to identify as which of the following? a. Democrats than Republicans b. Republicans than Democrats c. Republicans than Independents d. Libertarians than Democrats e. Libertarians than Republicans 31. Adults under 30 are least likely to get their news from which of the following? a. Print newspapers b. Television c. The internet d. Radio e. Podcasts 32. Which of the following statements about newspapers during the early years of the republic is true? a. Early newspapers primarily covered English politics and events. b. Early newspapers made little or no attempt to appear objective. c. Early newspapers were supported by paid advertising. d. Early newspapers were read avidly by both the elite and the masses. e. Early newspapers were objective.

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33. States whose capital cities have a vigorous press have less corruption because the media in those states act as what? a. Gatekeepers b. Scorekeepers c. Watchdogs d. Game framers e. Whistleblowers 34. For a newspaper to be found guilty of libeling a public official, the accusing party must do which of the following? a. Prove beyond a reasonable doubt that what was printed was damaging, even if it was printed accidentally b. Sue the reporter who wrote the story and not the newspaper that published it c. Sue the newspaper that published the story and not the reporter who wrote it d. Provide clear and convincing evidence that what was printed was malicious e. Establish that what was printed could have been interpreted in more than one manner 35. The Telecommunications Act of 1996 has allowed which of the following? a. Companies to own more media outlets b. The government to seize stations from defiant companies c. Companies to receive tax benefits from state governments d. The government to fully regulate cable television e. The FCC to raise the national audience reach cap from 35% to 45% 36. Which of the following amendments to the Constitution protects the freedom of the press? a. First Amendment b. Second Amendment c. Fourth Amendment d. Fifth Amendment e. Ninth Amendment 37. In 1934, Congress created which of the following to regulate all forms of electronic media, including radio, television and cable television, cell phones, and wireless networks? a. Central Intelligence Agency b. Federal Communications Commission c. Federal Media Agency d. National Broadcasting Association e. National Broadcasting Commission 38. In what ways do social networking, blogging, and the internet play a role in politics today? a. Politicians at all levels of government office have placed importance on having an internet presence.

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b. The two major-party candidates for president in 1996 were the first to develop political websites for their campaigns. c. Because social networks were intended for friends and families, politicians have limited their presence on these applications. d. Modern political candidates have had limited success using the internet to raise money to fund campaigns. e. While local politicians use social networking successfully, most national politicians do not.

39. In this country, libel laws make it almost impossible to prevent press criticisms of whom? a. Public figures b. The military c. The education system d. Dead persons e. Persons with jobs in the private sector 40. In general, what position has the Supreme Court taken on the government‟s right to compel reporters to divulge information concerning the commission of a crime? a. It has ruled against that right. b. It has upheld that right. c. It has avoided ruling on that right. d. It would like to rule on that right, but no relevant case has ever been brought before it. e. It has ruled in a contradictory manner.

41. What made it possible for the internet to replace TV as many Americans‟ primary news source? a. Competition between internet and traditional media b. The expansion of broadband or high-speed internet connections c. Increased bias in traditional media d. More television being offered through the internet e. Less regulation of the internet compared to other media 42. What effect can newspaper reporting on members of Congress have? a. It increases circulation and readership. b. It leads to voters holding their legislators accountable. c. It has led to Congress cracking down on newspapers. d. It has led to Congress giving newspapers more funding. e. It has resulted in less polarization.

43. The main focus of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 was to do which of the following? a. Attempt to tighten national control over media ownership and product content b. Attempt to deregulate all privately-owned media c. Encourage restrictions on websites d. Relax the rules governing media ownership

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e. Spark an increase in government-owned media outlets 44. Studies have found that which group is more favored by news outlets? a. Incumbents b. Challengers c. Republicans d. Democrats e. Independents 45. Until the 1980‟s ABC, CBS, and NBC held 80% of TV viewership. What changed that? a. Talk radio b. Internet c. PBS d. Cable TV e. Other social media 46. The Federal Communications Commission rarely enforces which of these rules? a. Certain words cannot be used on air. b. Each hour on TV can only contain 16 minutes of commercials. c. Nudity cannot be shown on TV. d. Cable companies cannot show programming containing graphic violence. e. During campaigns, a broadcaster must provide equal access to candidates for office.

47. In places where a local paper has closed, citizens can be characterized by which of these? a. They are neither better nor worse off than they were before. b. They know more about the issues and are more politically active. c. They know more about the issues but are less politically active. d. They are more politically active while knowing less about the issues. e. They know less about the issues and are less politically active.

48. While a majority of newspaper reporters are Democrats and liberals, bias is limited in part by which of the following? a. Journalistic norms of objectivity b. Federal laws c. The conservative bent of media corporation owners d. Newspapers bias against incumbent politicians e. The Fairness Doctrine 49. Media coverage of politics that focuses on polling is known as either horse-race coverage or which of the following types of coverage? a. Gatekeeper b. Watchdog

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c. Scorekeeper d. Whistleblower e. Muckraker 50. Over time, what has happened to the concentration of media ownership due to less strict FCC control? a. It has grown. b. It has shrunk. c. It has remained unchanged. d. It has become unattainable. e. It has disappeared.

51. In comparison with the general public, the national news media tend to be which of these? a. Less likely to have any particular ideological leaning b. More politically moderate c. More liberal d. More conservative e. More intelligent 52. What is the media environment in which people only hear messages they already agree with, also called filter bubbles? a. Echo chamber b. Lightsaber c. Alternate facts d. Meaningful rhetoric e. Delusional interests 53. Which of the following statements about libel laws is correct? a. Laws governing libel are much stricter in Great Britain than in the United States, making it easier for British politicians to sue newspapers for publishing articles that defame or ridicule them. b. Laws governing libel are much stricter in the United States than in Great Britain, making it easier for American politicians to sue newspapers for publishing articles that defame or ridicule them. c. The Official Secrets Act in the United States makes it difficult for reporters to publish stories dealing with national security. d. The Freedom of Information Act in Great Britain makes it easy for reporters to get access to many public documents. e. Laws governing libel in the United States are similar to those in Great Britain.

54. In New York Times v. Sullivan, the Supreme Court ruled that public officials may not win a libel suit unless they can prove not only that the statement was false, but also which of the following? a. It was false to a ludicrous degree.

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b. The writer knew it was false or had a reckless disregard for the truth. c. No reasonable person would have been able to discern its falseness without significant effort. d. Any reasonable person would have been able to discern its falseness without significant effort. e. The writer honestly believed it to be true.

55. Identify and describe some of the reasons for public distrust of the media.

56. Evaluate the concerns over media bias.

57. Explain how the U.S. Constitution protects the press.

58. Explain the concept of agenda setting.

59. Identify and explain the three ways the media affect American politics.

60. Describe selective exposure and explain its consequences in American politics.

61. Discuss how the degree of competition in the media has changed since the early 1980s.

62. Identify and describe the functions of the media in American society.

63. Evaluate the degree to which the media engages in agenda setting.

64. Identify and explain the functions of the media that are essential to the democratic process.

65. Explain the ways the news media affect accountability in the U.S. political system.

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Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. e

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22. b 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. e 27. e 28. a 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. b

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43. d 44. a 45. d 46. b 47. e 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. b 55. Students' answers may vary.

56. Students' answers may vary.

57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the principal work of Congress? a. Deliberation and debate b. Action and debate c. Representation and debate d. Deliberation and representation e. Action and representation 2. Which of these describes a marginal or toss up district? a. Voters frequently change party affiliation. b. The constituency is made up largely of minority groups. c. Voters are not clear as to which candidate is the incumbent. d. Gerrymandering has produced a loose affiliation of interest groups. e. The winner in an election gets less than 55% of the vote.

3. What is pork-barrel legislation? a. Bills that have some tangible benefits to specific constituents but do not tackle broader, more controversial issues b. Agricultural bills that regulate farming c. The most salient issues on the agenda d. Legislation that is often controversial and difficult to pass e. Legislation that commemorates but does not involve action 4. One difference between the House and Senate is the number of members. Because of this, which of the following is true? a. The House will spend much more time on a bill on the floor than the Senate. b. The Senate has more rules to limit discussion of possible legislation. c. A greater number of formal rules are needed to govern activity in the House. d. House members must sit on more committees than senators. e. A constitutional amendment has been introduced to increase the size of the Senate and reduce the size of the House.

5. Since the 1980s, why has the conservative coalition become less important? a. Reapportionment has given moderates an advantage in policy making. b. Rules changes have weakened party discipline. c. Congressional leadership changes hands more frequently. d. Many Southern Democrats in Congress have been replaced by Southern Republicans.

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e. Northern Republicans are more influential.

6. Article I, Section 8 of the U.S. Constitution confers on Congress all but which of the following powers? a. The power to veto bills b. The power to collect taxes c. The power to declare war d. The power to establish courts e. The power to regulate commerce 7. The power of advice and consent on treaties and presidential nominations was given only to which of the following? a. The Secretary of State b. The House of Representatives c. The Supreme Court d. The Senate e. The entire Congress 8. A temporary legislative committee established for a limited time period and for a special purpose is known as which of the following? a. Joint committee b. Conference committee c. Standing committee d. Rules committee e. Select committee 9. The original purpose of the General Accounting Office (GAO), now the Government Accountability Office, was to perform what? a. Research in the Library of Congress b. Audits of financial records c. Evaluations of technological advancements d. Employment application evaluations e. Audits of high-ranking military officers 10. What usually happens to members of Congress who run for reelection? a. They are defeated in primary elections. b. They are defeated in general elections. c. They quit during the campaign. d. They successfully run for reelection. e. They are term-limited and cannot run for reelection.

11. Which of the following is the committee in the House that proposes time limitations on debate for

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bills? a. Debate Committee b. Rules Committee c. House Ways and Means Committee d. Debate and Censure Committee e. Issues Committee 12. Unlike in the House, the scheduling of legislation in the Senate is which of these? a. Controlled by the Rules Committee b. Initiated by means of a discharge petition c. Governed by closed rather than open rules d. Determined by the majority and minority leaders e. Controlled by the Vice President 13. Which of the following statements concerning term limits is incorrect? a. The movement to impose term limits was popular in the 1990s. b. The concept of term limits is popular among the public. c. Many states passed laws to limit the terms of members of Congress. d. Research has shown that term limits have little effect on who gets elected to office. e. The Supreme Court struck down state laws limiting the terms of members of state legislatures.

14. What did the Congressional Accountability Act of 1995 do? a. It created the Office of Compliance that would oversee congressional affairs. b. It created the Ethics Committee in Congress. c. It gave the president and executive branch authority to enforce congressional compliance over federal policies. d. It gave power to Congress to oversee the executive branch. e. It gave power to Congress to oversee the judicial branch.

15. A bill can be introduced in Congress by whom? a. Any member of the majority party b. Any member of Congress c. The president d. Members of the relevant committees only e. Committee chairpersons only 16. How is the Speaker of the House chosen? a. Elected by the country at large b. Elected by whichever party has a majority c. Appointed by the chairs of the standing committees d. Appointed by the Supreme Court e. Appointed by the president

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17. Why was the Office of Compliance created to oversee the law, rather than have the president execute the law? a. The latter may have been unconstitutional. b. The leadership wanted to control the office itself. c. The president did not want the job. d. The former was cheaper. e. Congress wanted to avoid following the law.

18. After being reported by a committee but before being sent to the House floor, bills are sent to which committee to define the conditions under which the bill is to be considered by the House? a. The Appropriations Committee b. The Joint Committee c. The Select Committee d. The Ways and Means Committee e. The Rules Committee 19. What has the majority of research found about the effect of divided government on legislative productivity? a. Divided government reduces productivity. b. Divided governments are no less productive than unified governments. c. Divided government increases productivity. d. Divided government decreases productivity but only when Republicans control the presidency. e. Divided government decreases productivity but only when Democrats control the presidency.

20. The typical public opinion poll shows which of the following? a. Congress is the most popular branch of government. b. Congress is the least popular branch of government. c. Congress is more popular than the president but not the judiciary. d. Congress is more popular than the judiciary but not the president. e. The three branches of government are equally popular.

21. The purpose of a conference committee is to do which of the following? a. Originate appropriations bills b. Set the rules of debate for a bill c. Determine the committee path of a bill d. Reconcile House and Senate versions of a bill e. Override a presidential veto 22. The explanation for congressional voting behavior that assumes members vote to please their colleagues is referred to as what?

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a. Representational b. Conventional c. Organizational d. Attitudinal e. Relational 23. Who primarily serves as the day-to-day leader of the Senate? a. President pro tempore b. Majority leader c. Party whip d. Chairperson of the Policy Committee e. Chairperson of the Judiciary Committee 24. Selection of committee chairpersons in each chamber of Congress is most often based on which of the following? a. The party of the president b. Alternating between male and female leadership c. Seniority d. Balancing power between the two parties e. Longstanding traditions of assigning certain positions to members from certain districts or states 25. The conservative coalition in Congress from the post-World War II era until the 1980s consisted of whom? a. Republicans and Southern Democrats b. Republicans and Midwestern Democrats c. Democrats and Southern Republicans d. Democrats and Western Republicans e. Democrats and Northeastern Republicans 26. Most of the Founders of the American republic believed that most of the power that would be exercised by a national government should be in the hands of which of the following? a. The chief executive b. The judiciary c. The electoral college d. The legislature e. The bureaucracy 27. Politically moderate Americans are which of the following? a. Able to get more out of Congress than extreme partisans b. Less active than ideological extremists, but not by much c. Overwhelmingly politically inactive

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d. Overwhelmingly politically active e. More likely to donate to candidates 28. In addition to formal powers, the Speaker of the House has which of these informal powers? a. The power to assign patronage jobs and office space b. The power to decide salaries for members of Congress c. The power to rule on motions on the floor d. The power to decide benefits for members of Congress e. The power to decide which members will be renominated in the next election cycle 29. The seniority system provides which of the following? a. Members are awarded additional committee assignments in line with their seniority. b. The committee member of the majority party with the longest continuous service normally becomes the committee chairperson. c. Members become party whips in order of seniority. d. Members of the House can be appointed to the Senate to fill vacancies. e. The Speaker of the House is the member of the majority party with the longest continuous service.

30. Which article of the U.S. Constitution details the structure and power of Congress? a. Article I b. Article II c. Article III d. Article IV e. Article V 31. The most important committees in Congress are permanent bodies that possess expertise resulting from their jurisdiction over certain policy areas. These are known as what kind of committees? a. Select committees b. Joint committees c. Conference committees d. Standing committees e. Legislative committees 32. The complexity of the procedure for enacting a law gives the advantage to which of these? a. The bill's party supporters b. The bill's opponents c. The bill's congressional sponsors d. The bill's supporters in the executive branch e. The bill's supporters in the media 33. An important foreign policy power given to Congress includes which of the following?

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a. Borrowing money from other countries b. Declaring war c. Punishing piracy on the high seas d. Raising an army e. Summoning and regulating state militias 34. When the president is a Republican and the Senate is also controlled by Republicans, but the House of Representatives is controlled by Democrats, it demonstrates which of the following? a. Agenda setting b. Divided government c. A joint resolution d. A gerrymander e. A markup 35. In the Senate, how many votes are necessary to invoke cloture and end debate on a bill? a. A simple majority b. 67 c. 75 d. 50 e. 60 36. In the absence of the president of the Senate, who presides over the Senate? a. The Senate majority leader b. The Senate majority whip c. The president pro tempore of the Senate d. The vice president of the United States e. The Speaker of the House 37. Where is most of the power in Congress found? a. The chairpersonship of committees and subcommittees b. Specialized caucuses c. State delegations d. Party leaders e. Caucuses 38. An important domestic power of Congress includes which of the following? a. Spending and regulating commerce b. Establishing post offices and building new monuments c. Establishing the federal court system and selecting judges d. Coining money and using the concept of judicial review e. Establishing rules for selecting judges and borrowing money

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39. The division of Congress into two separate bodies is known as which of the following? a. Cameralism b. Bicameralism c. Unicameralism d. Checks and balances e. The separation of powers 40. How many members are in the U.S. House of Representatives? a. 400 b. 435 c. 535 d. 100 e. 200 41. Under the original U.S. Constitution, members of the House, unlike members of the Senate, were selected in what way? a. By direct elections b. By the president c. By state legislatures d. By primary runoffs e. By the electoral college 42. Where is the substantive work of Congress conducted? a. On the House floor b. On the Senate floor c. In the caucuses d. In floor sessions in both houses e. In the committees in both houses 43. What kind of committee is most likely to deal with a bill near the end of its legislative process? a. Standing b. Select c. Conference d. Joint e. Rejoinder 44. In order to fund programs established by authorization bills, Congress must pass which of the following? a. A budget resolution b. An appropriations bill c. A budget reconciliation d. Authorization vouchers

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e. A continuing resolution 45. The people whom a legislator represents and spends considerable time and effort serving are known as which of the following? a. Delegates b. Trustees c. Constituents d. Representatives e. Members 46. What is a rider? a. A rule that restricts amendments that are not germane b. A bill that "brings home the bacon" to a legislator's district c. A committee consisting of House and Senate members that work on common language for bills d. A strategy found in committee to stall a vote e. An amendment added onto a bill later in the process so it will "ride" to passage 47. A concurrent resolution passed by Congress seeks to do what? a. Censor executive branch officials b. Make significant policy decisions c. Settle housekeeping and procedural matters that affect both houses d. Settle housekeeping and procedural matters that affect only one house e. Reorganize committees in one house 48. The Seventeenth Amendment allowed which of the following positions to be elected by the people? a. Senators b. House of Representatives members c. Majority leader of the Senate d. President e. Speaker of the House 49. Which of the following best describes the typical member of Congress? a. Middle-aged, white, Protestant businessman b. Older, white, Protestant businessman c. Older, white, Catholic lawyer d. Middle-aged, white, Protestant lawyer e. Young, white, communications major 50. A discharge petition is used by the House to do what? a. Make revisions and additions to a bill before it is voted on b. Get a bill that is stalled in committee onto the floor

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c. Amend a bill that has already passed one house but not the other d. Override a presidential veto e. Amend a bill in a manner that will make it quite unpopular 51. Rule 22 was adopted by the Senate to provide a means to cut off debate during a filibuster because senators were which of these? a. Trying to protect the power of individual senators b. Fearful of tying a president‟s hands during a wartime crisis c. Trying to protect their state interests d. Trying to strengthen the power of the courts e. Trying to increase the deficit 52. How can Congress pass a bill over a presidential veto? a. A two-thirds vote in the House and a majority in the Senate b. Majority approval in the Supreme Court c. Two-thirds vote in each house d. Three-fourths vote in each house e. Majority vote in the House and 60 votes in the Senate 53. What is one proposed explanation for why congressional seats have become less marginal? a. The growing strength of the party system makes it less likely for challengers to appeal to average voters. b. Incumbents can use their powers to get programs passed that benefit their districts and themselves. c. Incumbents are less likely than challengers to become associated with the “mess” in Washington. d. Changing demographics have made an increasing number of districts overwhelmingly Democratic or Republican. e. Incumbents are less ideological than challengers and link themselves with Congress as an institution.

54. What is a typical example of pork-barrel legislation? a. The Affordable Care Act b. Dodd-Frank Banking Reform Bill c. Environmental reform and regulation d. A highway bill e. A bill pertaining to sanctions against Iran 55. In most states, who draws congressional district lines? a. A small group of party leaders in the state legislature b. A nonpartisan state panel of commissioners c. A nonpartisan panel elected in special elections

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d. A group of retired judges selected by party leaders e. A forum chaired by the state's U.S. senators 56. The drawing of legislative district boundaries to give one side an advantage is known as which of the following? a. Madison ploy b. Apportionment c. Redistricting d. Reapportionment e. Gerrymandering 57. The overriding political question throughout the evolution of Congress has been what? a. Balance of power between Congress, the executive, and the judiciary b. Distribution of powers within Congress c. Curtailment of presidential activism d. Role of the parties in selecting members e. Rules pertaining to committee assignments

58. Explain the role of political parties in the organization and structure of U.S. Congress.

59. Analyze the demographic makeup of Congress and explain how it compares to the United States as a whole.

60. Identify the functions and explain the purpose of the House Rules Committee.

61. Identify three major staff agencies in Congress and describe explain their functions.

62. Explain the differences between the House of Representatives and the Senate with regard to constituencies, terms of office, powers, and political processes.

63. Explain the purpose of a conference committee.

64. Identify and describe the four types of congressional committees and discuss the functions of each.

65. Explain how the legislative process makes it difficult to pass bills and legislation.

66. Identify and explain the three theories of congressional voting.

67. Explain how the role of committees and subcommittees in the legislative process.

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Answer Key 1. e 2. e 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. e 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. e 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. e 19. b 20. b 21. d

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22. c 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. d 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. a 31. d 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. e 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. e

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43. c 44. b 45. c 46. e 47. c 48. a 49. d 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. d 55. a 56. e 57. b 58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

67. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which kind of veto causes a bill to not become a law if the president does not sign the bill within ten days and Congress has adjourned within that time? a. Pocket b. Line-item c. Presidential d. Bully pulpit e. Discharge 2. From the time of winning office to the time of leaving it, what can be said about the popularity of most recent presidents? a. It has decreased steadily. b. It has decreased except at election time. c. It has increased steadily. d. It has increased except at election time. e. It has revealed no systematic trends.

3. The president has the power to appoint all of the following positions, except for which one? a. Federal District Court and Court of Appeals judges b. Ambassadors c. Cabinet members d. Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives e. U.S. Supreme Court justices 4. The 1948 Marshall Plan and the Tax Reform Act of 1986 illustrate which of the following? a. Unified governments rarely accomplish anything of note. b. A divided government could never have produced them. c. Both were produced by a unified government. d. One was produced by a unified government, and one was produced by a divided government. e. Both were produced by divided governments.

5. Customarily, the members of the president‟s cabinet are which of the following? a. Political rivals

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b. People from outside the government c. Representatives of important constituencies d. Non-experts on various policy issues e. Disconnected from the president‟s campaign 6. A president can issue a pardon in which of the following circumstances? a. For all offenses against the United States, including impeachment b. For all offenses against the United States, except impeachment c. For all offenses against the United States or any state d. For all offenses against the United States, any state, or any locality e. For all offenses against a state, but only after a state's governor has refused to grant a pardon 7. Which important agency in the Executive Office of the President studies the organization and operations of the executive branch, devises plans for reorganizing various departments and agencies, develops ways of getting better information about government programs, and reviews proposals the cabinet departments want included in the president‟s legislative program? a. Council of Economic Advisers (CEA) b. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) c. Office of Technology Assessment (OTA) d. Government Accountability Office (GAO) e. Office of the U.S. Trade Representative (OUSTR) 8. The position of “acting president” was created by what? a. An act of Congress b. Executive reorganization c. The Twenty-Fifth Amendment d. The original U.S. Constitution e. An executive order 9. Executive privilege was limited by the Supreme Court as a consequence of which of the following? a. The Clinton sex scandal b. The Sedition Act c. The Watergate scandal d. Japanese internment e. The Espionage Act 10. Which of the following is true of the Office of Management and Budget? a. It is now called the Bureau of the Budget. b. It directly controls the nation's money supply. c. It publishes the budgets prepared by Congress. d. It helps the president prepare the annual budget. e. It is currently in the Department of the Treasury.

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11. Which of the following amendments to the U.S. Constitution establishes procedures for filling presidential and vice-presidential vacancies and makes provisions for presidential incapacity? a. Eleventh b. Fourteenth c. Nineteenth d. Twenty-First e. Twenty-Fifth 12. According to public opinion research, the president‟s use of the “bully pulpit” tends to do which of these? a. Change opinion throughout the public b. Bolster existing public views c. Influence foreign opinion about America d. Help the president “go public” e. Have no effect 13. Today, senior White House staff members are often drawn from which of the following? a. The president‟s campaign staff b. Professors at ivy league colleges and universities c. Judges in the federal judiciary d. Congress e. The non-partisan civil service 14. Which president was very successful at getting legislation through Congress during the “honeymoon” days of his presidency? a. Harry Truman b. Franklin Roosevelt c. Donald Trump d. Barack Obama e. Bill Clinton 15. Which president was the only U.S. president to resign from office? a. Gerald Ford b. Richard Nixon c. Andrew Jackson d. Bill Clinton e. Donald Trump 16. The first plan suggested at the Constitutional Convention called for the president to be chosen by whom or what? a. State legislatures

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b. The Supreme Court c. Popular election d. The electoral college e. Congress 17. When the Constitutional Convention met in 1787, which of these describes the power of most state governors? a. They weren‟t powerful but could serve long terms. b. They were powerful but could only serve for one year. c. They were popularly elected by the people. d. They could serve long terms and had a lot of power. e. They weren‟t powerful and couldn‟t serve long terms.

18. Which of the following is true of the Executive Office of the President? a. It assists the president in carrying out major duties. b. It is an advisory group made up of the heads of the fifteen major government departments. c. It includes the National Security Agency. d. It helps control the nation's money supply. e. It is led by the Speaker of the House.

19. An obvious and important difference between a president and a prime minister is that the latter always has what? a. Interest group support b. Support in the cabinet c. Support in the military d. Majority support in parliament e. Executive powers 20. Why is it difficult to gauge how successful presidents are with legislation in Congress? a. They never reveal their position on noncontroversial bills. b. They can keep their victory score high by not taking a position on any controversial measure. c. They do not have the power to veto bills passed by Congress. d. They do not have the ability to show their approval or disapproval since they must not sign bills before they can become law. e. They can never overcome the influence of interest group money on congressional votes.

21. Which of these describes the response to James Wilson‟s suggestion at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 that the president be elected by the people? a. Initially received almost no support b. Matched what almost all of the Framers believed; he was merely the first person to say it c. Was immediately ratified d. Was debated by those who feared giving George Washington too much power

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e. Was a non-starter due to leadership objections 22. Which of the following is an example of the president's use of constitutional power? a. Issuing an executive order b. Declaring national emergencies c. Giving the State of the Union message d. Invoking executive privilege e. Declaring war 23. A written declaration that a president may make when signing a bill into law is known as which of the following? a. Executive order b. Executive agreement c. Executive privilege d. Signing declaration e. Signing statement 24. Which of the following is true of a pocket veto? a. It can be used by a president only once during a term of office, although a president can use it twice if he or she serves two terms. b. It can only be used when Congress adjourns for the session within ten days of the bill being submitted to the president. c. It means the legislation cannot be reintroduced in the next Congress. d. It was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 1936. e. It is a veto in which the president does not send a veto message back to Congress.

25. Presidents are now limited to two terms by which amendment? a. Fourteenth Amendment b. Sixteenth Amendment c. Nineteenth Amendment d. Twenty-First Amendment e. Twenty-Second Amendment 26. The Constitution gives the vice president which of the following? a. The job of presiding over the Senate and voting in case of a tie b. Many responsibilities independent of presidential authority c. The job of chief of staff to the president d. The right to use the veto power, with presidential approval e. The job of presiding over the Senate and voting in case of a tie and the right to use the veto power, with presidential approval 27. Cabinet officers are the heads of what?

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a. The major executive departments b. The major governmental commissions c. The major governmental agencies d. Independent agencies and commissions e. The minor governmental agencies 28. A constitutional amendment to clarify the way votes are cast in the Electoral College was necessary because of which of the following? a. There was no way to tell which votes were for president and which were for vice president. b. There was a tie in the electoral votes in the election of 1800. c. Large states did not have fair representation in the Electoral College. d. In three elections, no candidates received a majority of the votes in the Electoral College. e. There was a tie in the electoral votes in the election of 1800 and no way to tell which votes were for president and which were for vice president.

29. When no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral vote, which of the following occurs? a. The current president serves two additional years, and then another general election is held. b. The candidate who receives a plurality of the vote is elected. c. Electors cast a second ballot to determine who is elected. d. The election is decided by the House of Representatives. e. The election goes to the Senate, and a majority is needed there.

30. At the Constitutional Convention, the most frequent concern regarding the presidency focused on what? a. Reelection b. The veto power c. The pardon power d. Appointment powers e. Nominations 31. George Washington limited himself to two terms, and no president served more until whom? a. Ulysses S. Grant b. Woodrow Wilson c. Franklin Roosevelt d. Grover Cleveland e. Dwight Eisenhower 32. The president, in his capacity as head of state, is responsible for which of the following? a. Determining the countries with which the United States will have diplomatic relations b. Engaging in activities that are largely symbolic or ceremonial in nature c. Sending troops into combat

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d. Leading the legislative process by submitting legislation e. Administering the laws 33. Which of the following statements about a president's veto power is most accurate? a. Because vetoes are usually overridden, the power has become unimportant. b. The president's veto is final, and this gives him or her complete control over legislation. c. The threat of a veto gives the president significant influence over Congress and legislation. d. The veto has been used by Congress to stop the president from signing legislation. e. Because vetoes are rarely overridden, the power has become unimportant.

34. When the president uses the prestige and visibility of the office to guide or mobilize the American people, he or she is using which of the following? a. Executive prerogative b. Inside-outside strategy c. Regal approach d. Grassroots podium e. Bully pulpit 35. Which of the following is true of executive privilege? a. It involves the ability of the president and executive branch officials to withhold certain information from Congress and the courts. b. It means that members of the executive branch cannot be prosecuted for official acts. c. It has been applied to the president's use of the pocket veto. d. It allows the president discretion in making political appointments. e. It was ruled unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1974.

36. Which amendment to the Constitution requires the president and the vice president to be chosen separately by the electoral college? a. Ninth b. Tenth c. Twelfth d. Twenty-Fourth e. Twenty-Fifth 37. In the history of the United States, which of the following has never occurred? a. The president was impeached and acquitted. b. The president died while in office. c. The president was impeached and convicted. d. The president resigned. e. The president was impeached.

38. Presidential powers expressly given to the president by the Constitution are called which of the

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following? a. Constitutional powers b. Statutory powers c. Established powers d. Inherent powers e. Emergency powers 39. Which method of staff organization causes confusion and conflict among cabinet secretaries and assistants? a. Intuitive b. Pyramidal c. Circular d. Ad hoc e. Linear 40. The Constitution does not give the president the power to do which of the following? a. Veto legislation b. Convene sessions of Congress c. Declare war d. Serve as commander-in-chief of the military e. Serve as the administrative head of the nation 41. Which of the following is true of executive orders? a. They are merely opinions and have no force of law. b. They are part of a president's executive power. c. They have only been in effect since 1992. d. They are part of a president's legislative power. e. They are part of a president's judicial power.

42. In which of the following court cases did the Supreme Court decide that executive privilege is not absolute and must give way when the government needs the information for a trial? a. Brown v. Board of Education b. Hamdi v. Rumsfeld c. Jones v. Clinton d. Bush v. Gore e. U.S. v. Nixon 43. The main function of the president's cabinet is to do which of the following? a. Draft the federal budget and submit it to Congress for approval b. Write federal regulations c. Provide information regarding proposed legislation by testifying before Congress d. Provide leadership in the event the president is unable to perform his duties

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e. Provide advice to the president to aid in decision making 44. In which method of White House staff organization, used by President Jimmy Carter, do cabinet secretaries and assistants report directly to the president? a. Ad hoc structure b. Pyramid structure c. Circular structure d. Tubular structure e. Intuitive structure 45. Presidents must rely heavily on the power of persuasion because they have what? a. Limited staff b. To face inordinate resistance from within their own parties c. To spend their entire first term campaigning for reelection d. Vague constitutional powers and a lack of ensured legislative majorities e. No formal powers whatsoever 46. Which of the following describes a unified government? a. The lack of checks and balances between the presidency and Congress b. No guarantee that the president will get legislation passed c. Only exists under Democratic presidents. d. Essential to the preservation and maintenance of American democracy e. Our current form of government 47. Which of the following statements about a president serving more than two terms is correct? a. It has been done by only one president. b. It is neither prohibited nor encouraged by the U.S. Constitution. c. The amendment banning it failed in 1951. d. The tradition was established under the Articles of Confederation and maintained by George Washington. e. There is no prohibition, but it is uncommon.

48. As commander-in-chief, the president has which of the following roles? a. Is the symbolic leader of the military b. Acts as the ultimate decision-maker in military matters c. Makes military decisions, but only with the approval of the joint chiefs of staff d. Has limited authority and needs the secretary of defense's approval e. Is obligated to meet with the joint chiefs of staff and usually takes their advice 49. The Constitution states that the required minimum age for the presidency is which of the following? a. 25 b. 35

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c. 45 d. 50 e. 65 50. During the early years of the Republic, which department, under the direction of Alexander Hamilton, was “the principal federal office"? a. War Department b. State Department c. Treasury Department d. Interior Department e. Navy Department 51. Which of the following best describes signing statements? a. They are provided to the Supreme Court for all cases that involve the federal government. b. They are used in place of the pocket veto and may be presented to either the Senate or the House of Representatives. c. They accompany legislation and allow the president to point out sections of the law the president sees as unconstitutional. d. They are the official forms designating approval of the submitted budget. e. They are copies of the final legislation provided to the individual states.

52. If the president should die in office, the vice president is next in line. When there is no vice president, the next successor in line is which of these? a. Secretary of State b. Secretary of the Interior c. Speaker of the House d. Secretary of Defense e. Senate president 53. Who brings charges in the impeachment process, and where is the impeachment trial held? a. The attorney general; the Senate b. The House of Representatives; the Senate c. The House of Representatives; the U.S. Supreme Court d. The Senate; the House of Representatives e. Both houses of Congress; the Supreme Court 54. In what kind of structure do subordinates report to the president through a clear chain of command headed by a chief of staff? a. Linear b. Intuitive c. Ad hoc d. Circular

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e. Pyramid 55. The rule of propinquity states what? a. Power corrupts, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. b. Power is shared most evenly when leadership is weakest. c. Power is wielded by the people who are in the room when a decision is made. d. Power is greatest when legitimacy is strongest. e. Power is rarely distinguishable from wealth and fame.

56. Which method of staff organization poses the risk of isolating or misinforming the president? a. Intuitive b. Pyramid c. Circular d. Ad hoc e. Linear 57. Which elastic phrase has become a significant source of presidential power? a. “With the advice and consent of the Senate” b. “With all deliberate speed” c. The “full faith and credit” clause d. The “necessary and proper” clause e. “Take care that the laws be faithfully executed”

58. Explain the implications of gridlock for the presidency and policy making.

59. Explain executive orders and discuss detailing their powers and usage.

60. Explain how political polarization in Congress and divided government affect the success with which the president pursues his or her agenda.

61. Identify and describe the reasons and ways in which a vice president may assume the presidency without winning an election to that office.

62. Explain the pattern of presidential succession and the policies established by the Twenty-Fifth Amendment.

63. Identify and describe the five principal agencies in the Executive Office.

64. Identify and describe the executive offices that support the president.

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65. Compare and contrast executive orders with signing statements.

66. Explain what signing statements have been used to do and what the trends have been with respect to their use throughout history.

67. Identify and describe three ways in which presidents have organized personal staff, and comment on the advantages and disadvantages of each.

68. Describe the electoral college and explain what it does and how it works.

69. Discuss the demographic characteristics commonly shared by U.S. presidents.

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Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. d 4. e 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. e 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. e 17. e 18. a 19. d 20. b 21. a

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22. c 23. e 24. b 25. e 26. a 27. a 28. e 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. e 35. a 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. e

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43. e 44. c 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. c 51. c 52. c 53. b 54. e 55. c 56. b 57. e 58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

67. Students' answers may vary.

68. Students' answers may vary.

69. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the key group of a president‟s advisers, who are responsible for the areas under their jurisdiction, known as? a. The administration b. The board c. The cabinet d. The commission e. The committee 2. How has the growth of subcommittees in Congress affected the iron triangles of government? a. Iron triangles have been reduced. b. Iron triangles have increased. c. Iron triangles have become more powerful. d. There has been no effect on iron triangles. e. The power of iron triangles on agricultural issues has been enhanced.

3. The creation of the Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC) led to the federal government doing what? a. Regulating the national economy for the first time in a meaningful way b. Supporting states‟ efforts against regulation c. Assuming complete control of the railroads d. Opposing civil service reforms e. Instituting the income tax 4. By definition, a bureaucracy must have all but which of the following? a. A large size b. Divided authority c. A complex structure d. Elected officials e. No one person who can make all of the decisions

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5. Between 1816 and 1861, the number of federal employees increased eightfold, in large part because of which of the following? a. An increase in the need for government accountants b. An increase in the need for Secret Service agents c. Dramatic increases in new government functions d. Growth in the Post Office e. Increases in military staff 6. If it were necessary to create a new cabinet-level department today, which of the following has the authority to do that? a. Congress b. The president c. The Secretary of State d. The Executive Office of the President e. The Supreme Court 7. Which of the following is an example of a bureaucracy? a. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) b. House Oversight Committee c. Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals d. Congressional Black Caucus e. Vice president 8. There are 15 major service organizations of the federal government, which include Treasury, Agriculture, Education, and more. What kind of departments are these? a. Cabinet b. Agency c. Legislative d. Mandated e. Constitutional 9. Which of the following is responsible for oversight of the national bureaucracy? a. Presidential staff b. Congress c. Supreme Court d. Electoral college e. Central Intelligence Agency 10. The “buddy system” allows an agency to circumvent the usual Office of Personnel Management (OPM) search process by doing what? a. Blanketing in a job candidate

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b. Issuing a merit dispensation c. Asking the president to appoint a specific candidate d. Tailoring a job description to a specific candidate e. Limiting the scope of a search to a specific region 11. In Great Britain, civil servants are directed explicitly by the ministers in charge of their departments.

In the United States, civil servants often must obey both the heads of their agencies and which of these? a. The independent agencies b. White House staff c. Professional groups d. Lobbies e. Congress 12. Which of the following statements best describes bureaucracy? a. A bureaucracy is a large organization, structured hierarchically, that carries out specific functions. b. Bureaucracies work in a cyclical fashion with Congress to create and implement laws. c. Public bureaucracies serve the federal government. d. All public bureaucracies report to the president and operate under direction from his office. e. State bureaucracies provide financial assistance to the national bureaucracy.

13. During most of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries, appointments to the civil service were based primarily on what? a. Merit b. Education c. Patronage d. Wealth e. Experience in government 14. Which of these is the ability of a congressional committee to review and approve certain agency decisions in advance and without passing a law? a. Issue networking b. Authorization legislation c. Appropriation d. Legislative veto e. Committee clearance 15. Which of the following was created in 1978 to give the president more flexibility in dealing with high-level bureaucrats? a. Civil Service Reform Commission b. Merit System Protection Board c. Senior Executive Service (SES)

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d. Office of Personnel Management (OPM) e. Presidential Task Management Board (PTMB) 16. To encourage more candid disclosure of wrongdoing in federal agencies, what legislation did Congress pass in 1989? a. Securities and Exchange Commission Act b. Whistleblower Protection Act c. Administrative Relief Act d. Pendleton Act e. Public Disclosure Act 17. Which of the following is true of the Freedom of Information Act? a. It requires government agencies to notify the media if they are exceeding their budget for the fiscal year. b. It requires federal agencies to disclose information on file about an individual to that individual upon his or her request. c. It provides for a statute of limitations on the Government in the Sunshine Act. d. It requires executive agencies to release information to congressional oversight committees. e. It was repealed after 9/11.

18. Which type of legislation specifies the maximum amount of money that an agency may spend on a given program? a. Allocation b. Appropriation c. Committee clearance d. Trust e. Authorization 19. During the early years of the federal government, which of these was the only department to hold significant power? a. Department of the Interior b. War Department c. U.S. Postal Service d. State Department e. Treasury Department 20. In response to the assassination of President Garfield, Congress passed which of the following acts that established a merit- and performance-based system for federal employment? a. Merit System Act b. Pendleton Act c. Bryce Act d. Dawes Act

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e. Patriot Act 21. In the First Congress, it was decided that appointed federal officials would be removable by whom? a. Either the president or Congress b. The president and Congress acting together c. The president alone d. Congress alone e. The Supreme Court 22. The number of civilians working for the federal bureaucracy has not increased much since 1960. This observation fails to account for which of the following? a. The enormous decrease in the government workforce that occurred between 1986 and 1990 b. The enormous increase in the government workforce that occurred between 1965 and 1970 c. The enormous increase in state bureaucracies that occurred during this period d. The enormous increase in local bureaucracies that occurred during this period e. The growing number of people who work indirectly for the government 23. Congress can exercise authority over agencies through which of the following? a. The statutes that create and define them b. Control of the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) hiring practices c. The use of discharge petitions d. Dismissal of agency heads e. The use of the Civil Service Exam 24. Fundamental to the core of the federal bureaucracy is the presumption that the people who hold bureaucratic positions have which of the following? a. Authority b. Political connections c. Expertise d. Loyalty e. Resources 25. Why are iron triangles less common today than they once were? a. Agencies today are pressured by so many interest groups. b. They are no longer allowed by many agencies. c. Congressional leadership is much stronger today. d. The courts have stepped in to limit the intervention of interest groups in agency affairs. e. Special interests have aligned themselves with congressional leaders.

26. When the government sets limits on ingredients found in prescription medications or on factory emissions, this would be an example of which of the following? a. A referendum

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b. Deregulation c. Mandate d. Regulation e. An initiative 27. Why does conflict among agencies exist? a. Some agencies seem to be working at cross-purposes with other agencies. b. The agencies are often controlled by different political parties. c. The agencies are generally prohibited from communicating with one another. d. The agencies often lack power. e. Members of Congress set up regulations to increase competition among agencies.

28. An iron triangle is a strong coalition comprised of what? a. An issue network, a policy committee, and an international group b. An agency, a congressional committee, and an interest group c. The president, a congressional committee, and an interest group d. The Secretary of Defense, the president, and the Secretary of State e. An issue network, a congressional committee, and an agency 29. A Post Office worker or Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) agent would typically be part of the federal bureaucracy known as what? a. The competitive service b. Schedule C positions c. The merit service d. The contingent service e. The excepted service 30. Which of the following statements about the civil service is accurate? a. The first limits on the merit system came from the Pendleton Act. b. The Office of Personnel Management plays a large role in securing civil service employees. c. Reform of the civil service first began under President Jimmy Carter in 1978. d. Since 1993, civil service employees are not allowed to participate in voter registration drives. e. Today, civil service employees may not make donations to political campaigns.

31. A person appointed to a government position after passing an examination is joining what? a. Excepted service b. Competitive service c. Patronage system d. Department of State e. Department of Justice 32. What do critics of government-by-proxy system argue is problematic about this system?

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a. It gives too much flexibility. b. It does not keep track of how the money we send to public and private agencies is used. c. The public disapproves of the system. d. It is significantly more expensive. e. It leads to much more partisan polarization.

33. What is a major concern with the tendency of imperialism among agencies? a. They may be abolished. b. They automatically receive more funding. c. Their budget typically decreases. d. They grow without regard to whether they are actually providing benefits. e. They have little influence due to too much polarization.

34. Bureaucratic inefficiency may be desirable in that it might help to do what? a. Protect our liberties b. Reduce spending c. Increase trust in the government d. Create an environment of dependency e. Restrict conflicts between the branches 35. What was the purpose of the Pendleton Act of 1883? a. To provide public funding for presidential campaigns b. To create the Central Intelligence Agency c. To create government corporations d. To establish the Justice Department e. To reduce patronage by creating a civil service 36. What is one major difference between the United States and other countries with respect to private industries? a. In the United States, private industries are the highest taxed. b. In the United States, the government is generally "hands off" with private industries. c. In the United States, the federal government regulates privately owned enterprises to a degree not found in many other countries. d. In the United States, private industries have no avenue to lobby the government. e. In the United States, private industries cannot give funding to campaigns.

37. What do the secretaries who head the departments in the executive branch also make up? a. The majority whip b. The president's cabinet c. The standing committee d. The Supreme Court e. The stand-alone independent agencies

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38. Bureaucratic imperialism is the tendency of agencies to do what? a. Work at cross purposes with one another b. Spend more than is necessary to buy some product or service c. Grow, regardless of the benefits and costs of their programs d. Generate complex and sometimes conflicting rules e. Complicate matters that are better left to common-sense solutions 39. A federal employee who was appointed by the president with the explicit task of carrying out the president's political and partisan agenda would be known as which of the following? a. A political appointee b. A merit system appointee c. A Pendleton Act employee d. A civil service employee e. A career civil servant 40. What is the basis for hiring decisions made under the civil service system? a. Political party membership b. Political beliefs c. Merit d. Need e. Patronage 41. Which of the following describes the representation of African Americans and other minorities in the federal civil service? a. Underrepresented at the lowest grade levels b. Underrepresented at the executive level c. Neither over nor underrepresented at any level d. Overrepresented at all levels due to affirmative action e. Proportional to all other races 42. Which of the following terms refers to Congress formally setting aside money for a specific use? a. Allocation b. Appropriation c. Monetary-enhancement measure d. Fiscal measure e. Authorization measure 43. Why has the growth of subcommittees in Congress reduced the iron triangles of government? a. They are always in conflict with the agencies. b. They generally are less likely to authorize the agency. c. There are fewer people involved.

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d. They appropriate less money. e. There are many more important people and coalitions.

44. Why did the Civil War lead to an expansion of the bureaucracy? a. Citizens began to realize the importance of bureaucracy. b. Fighting the war led to the hiring of many new officials and the creation of new offices. c. The Union had better bureaucrats than the Confederacy. d. State governments were able to manage the growth in government from the war. e. Bureaucrats became popular among the people.

45. Which of the following best describes how the major cabinet departments of the federal government were created? a. Through congressional legislation b. When the Constitution was initially ratified c. By constitutional amendments d. By executive order e. Through congressional legislation and by constitutional amendments 46. In 1966, what legislation established a procedure by which ordinary citizens can request documents and reports from the federal government directly by paying a nominal fee, as long as the documents are not classified? a. Freedom of Information Act b. Government in the Sunshine Act c. Hatch Act d. Truth in Government Act e. Public Disclosure Act 47. What is one benefit of our current government-by-proxy system? a. It provides flexibility and takes advantage of private and nonprofit skills. b. It removes corruption. c. It is much more efficient. d. It is always significantly cheaper. e. It reduces conflict.

48. If members of Congress disagree with the operations of a particular department within the federal bureaucracy and want to force changes, what means do they have to exercise some control over that department? a. Authority to select high-level bureaucrats b. Authority to extend or limit appropriations c. Authority to fire bureaucrats for not executing policies passed by Congress d. Power to find agency actions unconstitutional e. Power to appoint agency heads

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49. The power of the House Appropriations Committee over agency budgets has recently diminished, in part because of what? a. An increase in marking-up practices by other House committees b. Congressional concern with meeting spending limits c. The 1983 Supreme Court ruling on the legislative veto d. A decline in the use of trust funds by Congress e. An increase in legislative inducements to restrict spending on entitlement programs 50. When an agency like the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) makes an important decision, it is quite likely to be taken to court. This would be an example of which of the following? a. Government bureaucracy b. Impedimentary government c. Red tape d. Adversary culture e. Reciprocal administration 51. Many of the problems of bureaucracy in the government arise from what? a. Its formality b. The political context c. Its remoteness from everyday life d. Its complexity e. Its transparency 52. If you want to see the information the federal government has about you or about certain other subjects, how can you make the government release that information to you? a. File a request under the Freedom of Information Act b. File a request under the Bureaucratic Transparency Act c. File a request under the Bureaucratic Freedom Act d. File a request under the Informational Transparency Act e. File a request under the Government in the Sunshine Act 53. The discretionary authority of appointed officials is their authority to do which of the following? a. Shift federal dollars without clear authorization b. Not implement legislation c. Make policies that are not spelled out in advance by laws d. Spend federal monies, even though such monies are not officially part of the federal bureaucracy e. Act on behalf of government officials and represent the government in courts of law

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54. Analyze attempts to make the federal bureaucracy more open, efficient, and responsive to the needs of U.S. citizens.

55. Identify and explain some of the constraints on bureaucratic agencies.

56. Explain the concept of the civil service.

57. Identify and describe the challenges involved in implementing environmental regulations.

58. Explain why presidents find the bureaucracy is not always as responsive as they might like.

59. Identify the different types of governmental organizations and describe the features and functions of each.

60. Compare and contrast the civil service with the spoils system.

61. Identify some cabinet-level departments and explain the roles of the cabinet secretaries.

62. Identify and describe the reasons for the major growth of the bureaucracy.

63. Explain why federal agencies originally emphasized a service role.

64. Describe the concept of bureaucracy and explain why bureaucracies are necessary.

65. Explain how the differences between American and British bureaucracies may cause American bureaucrats to behave differently.

66. Describe the evolution of the civil service with particular emphasis on the legislation that implemented reforms in government employment policies.

67. Explain the importance of the Pendleton Act.

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Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. e 12. a 13. c 14. e 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. e 19. e 20. b 21. c

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22. e 23. a 24. c 25. a 26. d 27. a 28. b 29. e 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. e 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. b

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43. e 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. d 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. Students' answers may vary.

55. Students' answers may vary.

56. Students' answers may vary.

57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

67. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which issues was the Supreme Court primarily occupied with between 1789 and the Civil War? a. States' rights and commerce b. Trade relations and states' rights c. National supremacy and trade relations d. Slavery and national supremacy e. Commerce and civil liberties 2. Federal appellate courts review and can overturn which of the following? a. Precedents set by the U.S. Supreme Court b. Only federal criminal cases c. Rulings made by the lower federal courts d. Guilt or innocence of defendants e. Only civil cases 3. Which of the following statements about Supreme Court justices and political ideology is true? a. Because the job of Supreme Court justices is to interpret the Constitution, each justice‟s political ideology has no effect on his or her conclusions. b. The liberal or conservative ideology of Supreme Court justices has an impact on their rulings, but it is a minor one. c. The liberal or conservative ideology of Supreme Court justices can be used to predict their rulings with near-perfect accuracy. d. Because the Supreme Court must be objective in its rulings, people with observable political leanings are almost never nominated as justices. e. The liberal or conservative ideology of Supreme Court justices has a significant impact on their rulings.

4. What is a basic difference between a constitutional court and a legislative court? a. Constitutional court judges handle cases that need not be decided by the Supreme Court. b. Constitutional court judges cannot be fired. c. Legislative court judges handle cases that need not be decided by the Supreme Court. d. Legislative court judges cannot be fired. e. Legislative court judges are not confirmed by the Senate.

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5. In many cases, a third party to a court case will file which of the following to support a particular outcome? a. An amicus curiae brief b. A precedent c. A writ of habeas corpus d. A litigation brief e. A writ of certiorari 6. Which of the following statements regarding a precedent is true? a. It means to reverse the decision of a lower court. b. It says the court does not have jurisdiction in a case. c. It allows a court to refer the case to the next higher court. d. It is the policy of following the law established by previous cases to decide other cases. e. It means strict interpretation.

7. Under the doctrine of sovereign immunity, a citizen cannot take which action? a. Sue the government without its consent b. Bring two suits against one individual for the same crime c. Bring the same suit to courts in two different states d. Appeal a case that has already been ruled on by the Supreme Court e. Appeal a case that was decided more than one year earlier 8. In addition to funding appeals, what else do interest groups do in the judicial arena? a. Organize and bring cases to the courts b. Explain to the courts that an appellant is indigent c. Help their clients avoid litigation d. Guarantee that a case will go to the Supreme Court e. Exercise binding veto power over court nominations 9. Which of the following statements describes the idea of precedents? a. The common law changes very slowly to permit rational decision making in each branch of our government. b. The Supreme Court is required to issue an opinion after a ruling. c. Most citizens can know that the law will become consistent in its expectations for them. d. Judges must abide by the decisions of earlier cases unless there is a clear reason to distinguish the current case from its predecessors. e. The Supreme Court can promote judicial review through regularly scheduled reviews of case law.

10. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the Court could declare an act of Congress unconstitutional?

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a. Marbury v. Madison b. Gibbons v. Ogden c. Georgia v. U.S. d. Dred Scott v. Sanford e. McCulloch v. Maryland 11. How did Alexander Hamilton characterize the Supreme Court in Federalist No. 78? a. As the least dangerous branch b. As the center of power c. As the vital check on presidential power d. As a unique and distinguished body e. As the most dangerous branch 12. What is illustrated by the litigation involving the four police officers accused of beating Rodney King? a. Some defendants are tried in both state and federal courts. b. Some cases can be tried only in state courts. c. Civil rights cases can be tried only in federal courts. d. One level of government can block the prosecutions of another. e. Cases cannot be appealed across the state and federal judiciary.

13. When Congress passed a law that forbade anyone from carrying a gun near a school, why did the Supreme Court declare the law invalid? a. Such behavior was protected by the First Amendment. b. Such behavior did not affect interstate commerce. c. The practice was not proven to be dangerous. d. The practice was jealously guarded by NRA lobbyists. e. Such behavior was protected by the Second Amendment.

14. What is fee shifting? a. The practice of dividing attorneys‟ fees among all participants in a class-action suit b. The practice of reducing fees if the votes of appellate court judges are divided c. The practice of getting the government to pay the fees of all parties d. The practice of having attorneys adjust their fees according to their experience and the damages awarded e. The practice of getting the loser to pay court costs 15. A writ of certiorari by the U.S. Supreme Court orders which of the following to occur? a. Both parties in the case to reach an agreement without further litigation b. State courts to abide by the decision of the Supreme Court c. A lower court to send up the record of a case for review d. Congress to rewrite unconstitutional legislation

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e. A prisoner to be brought before the court and the reasons for his detention to be provided 16. Which amendment was added to the Constitution in response to a Supreme Court decision governing citizens suing a state in federal courts? a. Ninth b. Tenth c. Eleventh d. Thirteenth e. Sixteenth 17. If California and Arizona sue each other over water usage from the Colorado River, the case can be heard only by which entity? a. The Water Rights Court b. The Supreme Court c. The high courts in both states d. The U.S. Justice Department e. The House of Representatives 18. One unintended consequence of the Supreme Court‟s heavy caseload is an increase in the influence wielded by whom? a. The chief justice b. Associate justices c. The attorney general d. The deputy attorney general e. Law clerks 19. An opinion prepared by a judge who supports the court's decision but wishes to in some way clarify, emphasize, or offer different reasons is known as which of the following? a. Majority opinion b. Dissenting opinion c. A plurality opinion d. A concurring opinion e. A unanimous opinion 20. In recent years, what is true about the percentage of nominees to federal court who have been confirmed by the Senate? a. It has increased significantly. b. It has increased somewhat. c. It has remained about the same. d. It has decreased somewhat. e. It has decreased significantly.

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21. Which of the following statements regarding U.S. district courts is true? a. They are intermediate appellate courts. b. They have final appellate jurisdiction to review cases. c. They are state courts. d. They are the trial courts of the federal system. e. They are courts of limited jurisdiction.

22. The power of the courts to determine the constitutionality of a law or action is known as which of the following? a. Appellate review of fact b. Judicial review c. Judicial restraint d. The writ of judicial appeal e. Judicial activism 23. The opinion of a court laying out the court‟s official position in a case is known as which of the following? a. Majority opinion b. Dissenting opinion c. Minority opinion d. Primary jurisdiction e. Prevailing jurisdiction 24. Which of the following is true of someone's right to have their case heard by the U.S. Supreme Court? a. It only exists in criminal cases. b. It only exists in federal cases. c. It only exists in cases where someone has been sentenced to death. d. It exists in all cases. e. It is almost entirely at the Court's discretion.

25. Which of the following is the last step of the Supreme Court decision-making process? a. Announcing its decision to the public and the reasons for it b. Assigning a justice to write the decision c. Deciding if the Court will hear the case d. Hearing oral arguments in the case e. Asking the lower court to send the records of the case for review 26. The Supreme Court entered its most active period with the arrival of which chief justice? a. Warren b. Rehnquist c. Burger d. Taft

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e. Roberts 27. The Court of Military Appeals is an example of which kind of court? a. Constitutional court b. District court c. Court of appeal d. Legislative court e. Alternative tribunal 28. Which of the following statements about the Senate confirming federal judges is true? a. Until recently, most judges were confirmed. b. Only liberal judges have been confirmed in recent years. c. Activist judges are more likely to be confirmed than constructionists. d. The president holds little respect for the opinions of the senators. e. Senators nominate judges.

29. A diversity case involves which of the following? a. Citizens of different ethnicities b. The jurisdiction of more than one district court c. Citizens of different states d. A writ of certiorari e. A writ of mandamus 30. A lawsuit filed by one person on behalf of that person and all similarly situated individuals is known as which of the following kinds of lawsuit? a. Public suit b. Common action c. Plurality action d. Class action e. Writ of mass petition 31. What is the function of the U.S. solicitor general? a. To approve every case the federal government presents to the Supreme Court b. To enforce the decisions of the Supreme Court c. To serve as the principal legal adviser, or counsel, to members of the Supreme Court d. To maintain order in the Supreme Court‟s courtroom e. To direct participants in oral arguments before the Supreme Court 32. What does the U.S. Constitution have to say about the size of the Supreme Court? a. It specifically sets the number of justices at six, but this was later amended to nine. b. It specifically sets the number of justices at nine. c. It suggests but does not mandate a Court of nine justices.

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d. It does not indicate how large the Court should be. e. It specifically places the matter in the hands of the House of Representatives.

33. Which entity creates legislative courts? a. Congress b. The president c. The Supreme Court d. The Senate e. The House of Representatives 34. How has the Court interpreted the meaning of the “Exceptions” clause in Article III, Section III? a. Congress can constrain the Court‟s appellate jurisdiction. b. Congress can constrain the Court‟s original jurisdiction. c. Only the Supreme Court can alter its appellate jurisdiction. d. Only the president can call for a change in the Supreme Court‟s appellate jurisdiction. e. Congress can change the pay of Supreme Court justices.

35. Judicial review is the process of deciding whether a law or action is contrary to which of the following? a. Administrative laws b. A Supreme Court decision c. Lower court decisions d. State law e. The U.S. Constitution 36. Jurisdiction refers to which of the following? a. The rules and principles announced in court decisions b. The authority of a court to hear a particular class of cases c. The constitutionality of a law d. Statutory law e. Common law 37. Which of the following occurs when the U.S. Supreme Court decides an issue? a. All other courts consider the Supreme Court's opinion in their own decision making. b. All other courts are obligated to follow the Supreme Court's ruling. c. Each court can decide for itself whether the Supreme Court‟s ruling applies to cases in its jurisdiction. d. Congress is obligated to pass laws that support that decision. e. It is written into the Constitution as an amendment if it raised a constitutional question.

38. The United States has a dual court system, which means it has which of the following? a. Civil and criminal courts

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b. Misdemeanor and felony courts c. State and federal courts d. State and local courts e. District and territorial courts 39. What is suggested by the behavior of Justices Holmes, Burger, and Blackmun? a. Presidents can sometimes be mistaken in their predictions about the actions of their judicial appointees. b. The Supreme Court has practiced judicial restraint far more often than judicial activism. c. Presidents generally control the Supreme Court through their appointments. d. Dissenters on the Supreme Court have more influence than the majority. e. Presidents are rarely concerned with court packing today.

40. Which of the following statements regarding state courts is true? a. They are exact copies of the federal court system. b. They do not have to follow common law. c. They are supreme within their own borders, overriding the federal courts. d. Their decisions are invalid due to the supremacy clause. e. They make decisions on state law as long as these laws don't conflict with the U.S. Constitution.

41. If a court rules a certain way on a case because previous cases of similar nature were subject to the same rule, that court is relying on which of the following? a. Precedent b. Judicial review c. Strict construction d. Broad construction e. Judicial activism 42. The concept of senatorial courtesy refers to which of the following? a. The Senate approving judges only if they belong to the same party that controls the Senate b. The practice of allowing senators to have the exclusive right to nominate candidates for the federal district courts in the state c. The practice of allowing members of the House to participate in the nomination process d. The practice of allowing senators to veto candidates for federal district courts in their state e. The Senate deferring to the president and routinely approving his or her nominee 43. The legal concept of precedent is expressed by which term? a. Per curiam b. Amicus curiae c. Writ of mandamus d. Stare decisis

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e. Writ of certiorari 44. What did the Supreme Court hold in McCulloch v. Maryland? a. Individual states had the authority to tax federal banks. b. State militias were subservient to the federal armed services. c. The federal government could pass any laws necessary and proper to the attainment of constitutional ends. d. The federal government had the power to regulate commerce that occurred among states. e. The judicial branch had the power to determine the legitimate governing power in the states.

45. Public opinion can serve as a check on the judiciary in which of the following ways? a. The Supreme Court typically polls the public as a basis for its decisions. b. People can vote federal judges out of office if they do not approve of the rulings of the courts. c. Judges often believe they have an obligation to rule in a way that is consistent with public opinion. d. The president will veto a Supreme Court decision if it is unpopular. e. Congress will override a decision of the Supreme Court with a majority vote in both houses.

46. Which of the following is true of judges and justices in the federal court system? a. They are appointed by the president with the advice and consent of the House of Representatives. b. They are appointed by the president with the advice and consent of the Senate. c. They are appointed by the president with the advice and consent of both houses of Congress. d. They are part of a seniority system that gradually moves them toward the Supreme Court. e. They are elected by the people every ten years.

47. What principle did the Supreme Court use to overturn Fulton‟s monopoly of a New York steamboat operation in the Gibbons v. Ogden decision? a. A monopoly is a restraint on trade. b. Patents cannot be issued on recent technology. c. State law cannot prevail over federal law. d. Interstate commerce cannot be regulated. e. The indirect effects of commerce are beyond the scope of government regulation.

48. When the Supreme Court ruled on President Obama‟s health care plan in National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius (2012), which part of the legislation was found unconstitutional? a. None of it b. All of it c. Only the individual mandate to purchase health insurance d. Only the state mandate to expand Medicaid coverage e. Both the individual mandate to purchase health insurance and the state mandate to expand Medicaid coverage

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49. When can the U.S. Supreme Court review a state supreme court decision? a. If there are damages in excess of $1,000,000 b. If the solicitor general asks it to do so c. In all cases d. In cases in which the state is a party e. If a federal question is involved 50. The Supreme Court's power of judicial review was established by which of the following? a. The Court's decision in Roe v. Wade b. The Court's decision in Brown v. Board of Education c. The Court's decision in Marbury v. Madison d. The Court's decision in Plessy v. Ferguson e. The Court's decision in Kelo v. City of New London

51. Describe the structure of the federal court system.

52. Describe the background and explain the outcome of the Court‟s ruling in Marbury v. Madison.

53. Explain the concept of stare decisis.

54. Explain how Alexander Hamilton described the Supreme Court in Federalist No. 78.

55. Identify and describe the two circumstances in which the Supreme Court will often grant certiorari.

56. Explain the concept of judicial review.

57. Identify the different types of opinions that Supreme Court justices write and explain what each involves.

58. Explain the importance of judicial review in establishing the power and relevance of the Supreme Court and judicial branch.

59. Analyze how the U.S. Supreme Court can impact many of the nation's political policies through its decisions on which cases to hear or not hear.

60. Explain the difference between the judicial restraint approach and the activist approach.

61. Discuss some recent rulings of the Supreme Court that suggest a revival of state sovereignty may be taking place.

62. Evaluate the roles of the presidential and congressional party and ideological preferences in the

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judicial appointment process.

63. Explain the process by which the U.S. Supreme Court decides to hear cases.

64. Identify and describe the ways in which our courts can be checked by other branches of the government.

65. Compare and contrast the concepts of judicial restraint and judicial activism.

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Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. e 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. e 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. e 19. d 20. e 21. d

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22. b 23. a 24. e 25. a 26. a 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. e 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. e 41. a 42. d

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43. d 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. e 50. c 51. Students' answers may vary.

52. Students' answers may vary.

53. Students' answers may vary.

54. Students' answers may vary.

55. Students' answers may vary.

56. Students' answers may vary.

57. Students' answers may vary.

58. Students' answers may vary.

59. Students' answers may vary.

60. Students' answers may vary.

61. Students' answers may vary.

62. Students' answers may vary.

63. Students' answers may vary.

64. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Agriculture subsidies are an example of which type of politics? a. Majoritarian politics b. Client politics c. Interest group politics d. Entrepreneurial politics e. Marxist politics 2. Laws protecting endangered species are examples of which kind of politics? a. Majoritarian politics b. Client politics c. Interest group politics d. Entrepreneurial politics e. Minoritarian politics 3. Welfare policies in which nearly everyone benefits and nearly everyone pays are characterized by which kind of politics? a. Public good politics b. Minoritarian politics c. Client politics d. Concurrency politics e. Majoritarian politics 4. Medicare became a cornerstone of which program promoted by Lyndon Johnson? a. Square Deal b. New Deal c. Fair Deal d. Great Society e. New Frontier 5. What did the 2018 First Step Act do, in part? a. Made possible Head Start programs b. Paid for first-generation Hispanics to attend college c. Aided Africans fleeing oppressive regimes d. Shortened prison sentences e. Helped Native Americans rise up from poverty

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6. What was one notable difference between the passage of Medicare (1965) and the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (2010)? a. The lack of bipartisan support for the 2010 act b. The lack of bipartisan support for the 1965 act c. The lack of media coverage given to the 2010 act d. The lack of media coverage given to the 1965 act e. The lack of support by Democrats for the 2010 act 7. Which program involves a cash subsidy to poor working families? a. Medicaid b. Supplemental Security Income c. Medicare d. Earned Income Tax Credit e. Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance 8. Which president created the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)? a. John Kennedy b. Lyndon Johnson c. Richard Nixon d. Jimmy Carter e. Harry Truman 9. In a 2020 study by the Pew Research Center, what percentage of Republicans and Democrats

said the environment should be a top priority for the president and Congress? a. 40 percent of Democrats; 60 percent of Republicans b. 39 percent of Democrats; 85 percent of Republicans c. 100 percent of Democrats; 0 percent of Republicans d. 50 percent of Democrats; 50 percent of Republicans e. 85 percent of Democrats; 39 percent of Republicans 10. Which of the following statements is true about domestic policy once it has been put in place? a. Political support for discarding it can come together more strongly than proposals to keep it. b. Political support for changing it can come together more strongly than proposals to replace it. c. Political support for keeping it can come together more strongly than proposals to change it. d. Political support for replacing it can come together more strongly than proposals to amend it. e. Political support for keeping it can come together more strongly than proposals to discard it.

11. What are the three primary domestic policy domains? a. Social welfare, states‟ rights, and personal liberties b. Personal liberties, health care, and states‟ rights

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c. Social welfare, business regulation, and environmental protection d. Business regulation, health care, and environmental protection e. Health care, immigration, and tax policy 12. How does environmental policy making in the United States compare with that in European countries? a. It tends to be less regional. b. It tends to be more centralized. c. It tends to be more adversarial. d. It tends to be less client-centered. e. It tends to be more uniform.

13. When the federal government addresses issues such as poverty and health care, it is concerned with which of the following types of policy? a. Foreign b. Civil c. Regulatory d. Domestic e. Economic 14. Which factor primarily determines the nature and degree of federal antitrust enforcement efforts? a. Pressure from lobbyists and interest groups b. The political ideology of the administration in power c. The efforts of the Federal Reserve Board d. The ideological composition of the Supreme Court e. The overall health of the economy 15. The environmental movement was launched, in part, in reaction to which event? a. The appearance of dead whales on the West Coast b. The overpopulation of deer in Oregon c. An outbreak of diseases among birds in the Northeast d. An oil spill on the beaches of Santa Barbara, California e. A natural gas eruption in Destin, Florida 16. Which body adjudicates disputes between labor and management over the interpretation of labor laws? a. The National Labor Relations Board b. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration c. The Union-Management Board d. The Civil Service Commission e. The Interstate Commerce Commission

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17. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that states should comply with EPA decisions, even if not explicitly authorized by statute, provided they are reasonable efforts to attain the goal of the law? a. Union Electric Co. v. Environmental Protection Agency b. Chevron v. National Resources Defense Council c. Whitman v. American Truck Association d. Massachusetts v. Environmental Protection Agency e. Gibbons v. Ogden 18. What is the main reason for the American divide over global warming and climate change? a. Republicans are less scientifically literate than Democrats. b. Republicans are more prone to being misled by fake news than Democrats. c. The scientific community is split as to whether global warming is real. d. Many prominent Republicans have questioned global warming. e. The scientific community is split as to whether global warming is caused by humans.

19. Before the 1960s, most citizens and most lawmakers thought all of the following were not the

concern of the Federal government, except which one? a. All low-wage workers receive tax credits that boost their wages. b. A strong, standing military, controlled by civil authority c. Ensure that all retirees have enough money to live on d. All poor children are guaranteed free or reduced-priced meals in schools. e. All full-time workers who lose their jobs receive unemployment benefits.

20. Which type of politics is best illustrated by the acid rain controversy? a. Entrepreneurial politics b. Majoritarian politics c. Interest group politics d. Client politics e. Reciprocal politics 21. Consumer and environmental protection laws are considered which type of politics? a. Majoritarian politics b. Client politics c. Interest group politics d. Entrepreneurial politics e. Minoritarian politics 22. Which organizations have the primary responsibility of implementing the Endangered Species Act of 1973? a. The Environmental Protection Agency and the Fish and Wildlife Service b. The Fish and Wildlife Service and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration c. The Office of Endangered Animals and the Environmental Protection Agency

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d. The Department of Agriculture and the Environmental Protection Agency e. The Environmental Protection Agency and the Department of Homeland Security 23. What is the name given to four federal laws passed in the late 1990s specifying the conditions

under which nonprofit religious organizations could compete to administer certain social service delivery and welfare programs? a. Religious toleration b. Good Samaritan Acts c. Charitable choice d. Faith Act e. Christian choice 24. Which policy entrepreneur's book Unsafe at Any Speed: The Designed-In Dangers of the American Automobile led to new regulations on the safety of automobiles? a. Upton Sinclair b. Ralph Nader c. Leo Marvin d. Henry Ford e. Huey Long 25. Most of the debate surrounding the 1970 Clean Air Act centered on the issue of pollution from which source? a. Air conditioning units b. Tire factories c. Automobile exhaust d. Battery factories e. Oil refineries 26. Many of the nation‟s laws governing labor and occupational health and safety can be considered which type of politics? a. Majoritarian politics b. Client politics c. Interest group politics d. Entrepreneurial politics e. Corporatist politics 27. Which of the following accurately describes Medicaid? a. Joint state-federal program that provides medical care to the poor b. Federal health insurance program that covers U.S. residents over the age of 65 c. Government program that takes over the economic function of providing basic health care coverage to all citizens d. In-kind subsidy for health care

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e. Federal program established to aid elderly persons and persons with disabilities 28. Which type of politics tends to discourage any truly far-reaching reforms in American domestic policy? a. Majoritarian politics b. Libertarian politics c. Entrepreneurial politics d. Interest group politics e. Client politics 29. Which type of politics is best illustrated by automobile emission control regulations? a. Entrepreneurial politics b. Majoritarian politics c. Interest group politics d. Client politics e. Reciprocal politics 30. The Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) program was created to help support which group? a. The children of women whose husbands had died laboring in factories b. The children of women whose husbands were disabled from mining accidents c. The children of women whose husbands had perished in disasters d. The children of women who were unmarried or had no immediate family e. The children of women injured in on-the-job accidents 31. In part, what did the 1947 Taft-Hartley Act do? a. Paved the way for the Great Society in the 1960s b. Made illegal certain union practices, such as the closed shop and secondary boycotts c. Made legal the binding arbitration between labor and management d. Regulated the growth of post-war urban society e. Made the social assistance programs of the Great Depression illegal 32. What are the two main federal bureaucracies responsible for social welfare policies and programs? a. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the U.S. Department of Veterans' Affairs b. The U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development and the U.S. Department of Education c. The U.S. Department of Social Security and the U.S. Department of Health Programs d. The U.S. Department of the Treasury and the U.S. Department of Pensions e. The U.S. Department of the Interior and the U.S. Department of Agriculture 33. The Constitution calls for the government to “promote the general Welfare” and “provide for the …

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general Welfare” in what two sections of the document? a. Article I, Section 8 and Article II, Section 1 b. The Preamble and Article I, Section 8 c. Article I, Section 2 and Article III, Section 1 d. The Preamble and Article IV, Section 1 e. The Preamble and Article V, Section 1 34. Why is there often a lack of strong political opposition to agricultural subsidies? a. Everybody agrees that the subsidies are needed. b. The subsidies affect only a few people. c. Consumers don‟t notice the added cost on individual goods. d. The overall cost of the subsidies to the federal government is negligible. e. Farmers will stop producing products if the subsidies are cut off.

35. What is the biggest problem facing majoritarian welfare and social aid programs? a. Evaluation b. Transparency c. Benefits d. Cost e. Administration 36. An individual retiring at age 70 would rely on which federal program to provide health insurance benefits? a. Pension Protection Fund b. Medicare c. Medicaid d. Social Security e. Aged Care Act 37. How is Medicaid different from Medicare? a. It provides medical assistance to the aged. b. It provides medical assistance to the public. c. It provides medical assistance to the poor. d. It provides catastrophic medical coverage to immigrants. e. It provides catastrophic medical coverage to veterans.

38. On the subject of social welfare, a key difference between Americans and the citizens of many European democracies is that Americans are more worried about which issue? a. Whether beneficiaries of government aid “deserve” it b. Whether everybody gets their “fair share” of the national income c. Whether social welfare programs will be financially solvent in the long term

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d. Whether laws that mandate social welfare are constitutional e. Whether social assistance programs are administered efficiently 39. What was the purpose of the National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) portion of the Wagner

Act in the 1930s? a. Regulate business when it comes to conflicts with the needs of the government b. Regulate agricultural production and distribution of food to alleviate the starvation of the poor in the cities c. Regulate which people would be eligible as America transitioned to a social safety net for the unemployed d. Regulate the conduct of union-organizing drives and hear complaints of unfair labor practices brought by workers e. Regulate the production of war materials as America geared up for the Second World War 40. What is an income qualification program that determines whether one is eligible for benefits

under government programs reserved for lower-income groups called? a. Set Aside b. Reserved requirement c. Means test d. Qualification program e. McSorley-McCluskie test 41. What made the passage of the Medicare bill possible? a. A significant shift in public opinion b. The strong support of the American Medical Association (AMA) c. The watering down of the bill to remove the more controversial provisions d. A Democratic landslide in the 1964 elections e. A shift in voting patterns on the U.S. Supreme Court 42. Which of the following is responsible for the Medicaid program? a. Congress b. The states c. Federal Reserve Board d. Nonprofit hospitals e. The federal government and the states share responsibility.

43. Under which circumstances do regulatory agencies tend to be more powerful? a. When the laws they enforce are worded clearly b. When the laws they enforce are worded vaguely c. When the laws they enforce are relatively new

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d. When the laws they enforce are relatively old e. When the laws they enforce are wildly unpopular 44. Much of the antitrust legislation passed in this country has been the result of which type of politics? a. Majoritarian politics b. Client politics c. Interest group politics d. Entrepreneurial politics e. Corporatist politics 45. Which author‟s book, The Jungle, dramatized the frightful conditions in meat-packing plants in the early 1900s and helped pave the way for the Meat Inspection Act of 1906? a. Ralph Nader b. Upton Sinclair c. Walt Whitman d. Mark Twain e. Sinclair Lewis 46. The 2010 law that seeks to ensure health care insurance for American citizens is formally known as which of the following? a. Medicaid Reform Act b. Medicare Reform Act c. Affordable Care Act d. Social Medicine Access Act e. Single Payer Act 47. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that EPA policies must be observed without regard to their cost or technological feasibility? a. Union Electric Co. v. Environmental Protection Agency b. Chevron v. National Resources Defense Council c. Whitman v. American Truck Association d. Massachusetts v. Environmental Protection Agency e. Gibbons v. Ogden 48. Which book raised public awareness about the pesticide DDT? a. The Jungle b. RAW c. Unsafe at Any Speed: The Designed-In Dangers of the American Automobile d. Love Canal e. Silent Spring 49. What did the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010 fail to achieve?

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a. Dramatically reduce the rate of uninsured people b. Increase health insurance premiums c. Require Americans to have health care or pay a penalty d. Provide health care for all who are under 65 and cannot afford it e. Remove bans on denying insurance because of preexisting conditions 50. Which of the following is the federal health care program that covers U.S. residents over the age of 65? a. Affordable Care Act b. Social Security c. Medicaid d. Medicare e. S-CHIP 51. Which federal health insurance program covers U.S. residents age 65 and older and is paid for by a tax on wages and salaries? a. Temporary Assistance for Needy Families b. Medicare c. Medicaid d. Social Security e. Affordable Care Act 52. What is the shared federal and state health insurance program for low-income individuals called? a. Pension Protection Fund b. Medicare c. Medicaid d. Social Security e. Aged Pension Program 53. In this landmark case, the Supreme Court ruled that Congress has broad discretion to tax and spend “in the aid of the „general welfare.‟” a. United States v. Butler b. Helvering v. Davis c. South Dakota v. Dole d. Baker v. Carr e. Marbury v. Madison 54. Welfare policies in which relatively few people benefit but almost everyone pays are characterized by which kind of politics? a. Majoritarian politics b. Minoritarian politics c. Client politics

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d. Concurrency politics e. Public good politics

55. Identify and describe the four types of politics based on benefits and costs.

56. Explain why regulations on agricultural pesticides are considered client politics.

57. Identify challenges in implementing social welfare policies and explain how they have been overcome.

58. Describe the Clean Air Act and explain its role in affecting climate change.

59. Analyze the government's attempts to protect the environment since the 1960s and explain which policies have been successful.

60. Identify and describe some of the major challenges related to Medicare.

61. Explain how the environmental movement was created by entrepreneurial politics.

62. Explain the concept of climate change and the ways in which this phenomenon has become politicized in the United States.

63. Discuss the rising costs of health care and governmental efforts to address them.

64. Discuss the problems facing the American health care system prior to the implementation of the Affordable Care Act and the ways in which the ACA does or does not address those problems effectively.

65. Explain how Madison and Hamilton disagreed over the Constitution‟s phrase “promote the general Welfare.”

66. Explain the principles underlying the American health care system and the issues facing the system.

67. Describe the chief components of the Affordable Care Act and explain some of the controversies surrounding it.

68. Explain how majoritarian politics impacts domestic policy reform.

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Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. e 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. e 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. d

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22. b 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. e

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43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. e 49. d 50. d 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. c 55. Students' answers may vary.

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65. Students' answers may vary.

66. Students' answers may vary.

67. Students' answers may vary.

68. Students' answers may vary.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Social Security, Medicare, and Medicaid are examples of what type of program? a. Targeted b. Welfare c. Discretionary d. Entitlement e. Constituent 2. If only the economic health of the nation mattered, which politics would dominate? a. Majoritarian b. Minoritarian c. Client d. Entrepreneurial e. Organizational 3. What contributed to the success of loophole politics prior to the passage of the 1986 tax bill? a. Strong support of policy entrepreneurs such as Ralph Nader b. The existence of low marginal rates to offset revenues lost through deductions c. The decentralized structure of Congress d. The existence of tariff revenues to offset revenues lost through deductions e. Strong support of the conservative coalition and Ralph Nader 4. What is the main reason behind the increased demand for Social Security benefits and medical payments under Medicare? a. The population is growing older. b. Increases have been made to program benefits. c. The number of young workers is increasing. d. Taxes have increased, resulting in greater need. e. Climate change is making more people sick.

5. The health of the American economy creates what kind of politics?

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a. Majoritarian b. Interest group c. Client d. Libertarian e. Egalitarian 6. Controlling U.S. monetary policy is the responsibility of which of the following? a. President b. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation c. Federal Reserve Board d. International Monetary Fund e. Treasury Department 7. Which presidential adviser provides estimates of government revenues and recommends tax changes? a. Chairperson of the Federal Reserve Board b. Secretary of the Treasury c. Director of the Office of Management and Budget d. Chairperson of the New York Stock Exchange e. Deputy director of the Bureau of the Budget 8. Which of the following best describes the Federal Reserve? a. A partner with the U.S. Congress in determining economic volatility b. A source of economic decision-making power in the U.S. government largely independent of the three branches of government c. A division of the Office of Management and Budget d. A resource for college loans and home loans e. A diplomatic arm of the U.S. government that focuses on the foreign exchange market 9. What happened when Congress first created a peacetime income tax in 1895? a. It distributed the money evenly among the states. b. The president vetoed the legislation. c. The Supreme Court declared it unconstitutional. d. Several states threatened to secede from the Union. e. The budget deficit gradually disappeared.

10. If the government cuts taxes to encourage people to spend more money to stimulate economic growth, what policy is it engaging in? a. Fiscal policy b. Business cycling c. Monetary policy d. Keynesian policy e. Subsidies

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11. According to which economic theory will cutting taxes increase people‟s incentive to work, save, and invest? a. Keynesian economics b. Monetarist economics c. Marxist economics d. Supply-side economics e. Credit-based economics 12. The economist, John Maynard Keynes would insist that there is no need for the government to take which action? a. Create public works programs b. Cut federal expenditures c. Increase income taxes d. Pump money into the economy e. Balance the budget on a year-to-year basis 13. When voting on economic issues, how do most voters behave? a. They primarily consider their own economic well-being. b. They overwhelmingly vote for Democrats. c. They overwhelmingly vote for Republicans. d. They consider the economic well-being of the entire nation. e. They tend to vote against incumbents.

14. Former House Speaker Paul Ryan‟s efforts to restrain government spending are an example of what kind of politics? a. Interest group b. Majoritarian c. Entrepreneurial d. Client e. Supply-side 15. Benefits to which every eligible person has a legal right and the government cannot deny are provided by which of the following programs? a. Public goods b. Discretionary spending c. Controllable spending d. Entitlements e. Common goods 16. What does the term sequester refer to? a. Budget items, such as Social Security, that are largely uncontrollable

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b. The process of protecting certain items from budgetary review c. The freezing of budget items at previous levels d. A limit set on the percentage of uncontrollable expenses the budget can contain e. Automatic, across-the-board percentage cuts in the budget 17. Which of the following is true of fiscal policy? a. It is controlled by corporate elites. b. It is an approach to stabilize the economy through control of the money supply. c. It is controlled by the Federal Reserve Bank. d. It is an approach to stabilizing the economy through government spending and taxing. e. It requires that, during economic slowdowns, the government tighten its belt on spending.

18. As a general rule, what do most Americans want? a. Less spending, fewer taxes, and a smaller government b. Less spending and a smaller government, but no change in taxes c. More spending and a bigger government, but not more taxes d. More spending and more taxes, but not a bigger government e. More spending without more taxes or a bigger government 19. Which executive agency oversees economic forecasting and preparing the president‟s annual economic report to Congress? a. Council of Economic Advisers b. Treasury Department c. Office of Management and Budget d. Federal Reserve Board (Fed) e. National Security Agency 20. How long is a federal fiscal year? a. June 3 to June 2 of the next year b. March 16 to March 15 of the next year c. October 1 to September 30 of the next year d. January 1 to December 31 of the current year e. January 15 to January 14 of the next year 21. What does it mean for a tax to be progressive? a. The wealthiest individuals pay the lowest marginal rate. b. The wealthiest individuals pay the highest marginal rate. c. Each taxpayer pays the same rate. d. Rates are lower at the lowest and highest income brackets. e. Rates are the highest for the middle class.

22. The Budget Enforcement Act of 1990 required that all increases in nonmandatory spending be

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followed by what? a. The abolition of frivolous agencies b. Matching funds from the states c. Spending cuts in discretionary programs d. Tax increases on middle-class wage earners e. A decrease in spending on other discretionary programs or an increase in taxes 23. An economist proposes that the government should spend more on public-works programs to help increase the demand for goods and services to improve the overall economy. Which economic theory does this represent? a. Keynesian economics b. Monetarist economics c. Economic planning d. Supply-side economics e. Credit-based economics 24. Tax loopholes are a quintessential example of what type of politics? a. Client b. Entrepreneurial c. Interest group d. Majoritarian e. Sociotropic 25. In America, the bottom half of earners pay about how much of the total income taxes collected by the government? a. About 3% b. About 12% c. About 27% d. About 50% e. About 68% 26. Which behavior does public opinion strongly encourage in American elected officials? a. Balance the budget b. Deficit spending c. Reduce federal spending d. Raise taxes on the middle class e. Raise taxes on the wealthy 27. In which important decision did the Supreme Court rule that the president does not have the authority to seize private steel mills, even during wartime? a. Lochner v. New York b. Muller v. Oregon

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c. West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish d. Youngstown Sheet & Tube Co. v. Sawyer e. Gibbons v. Ogden 28. When voting behavior and economic conditions correlate at the national level but not at the individual level, what kind of voting behavior is taking place? a. Heliocentric, or earth-conscious b. Sociopathic, or self-absorbed c. Homeopathic, or group-related d. Socialistic, or ideology-driven e. Sociotropic, or other-regarding 29. Under what conditions did Milton Friedman believe that inflation occurs? a. When the government does not stimulate the economy b. When the private sector spends too little c. When too much money chases too few goods d. When spending is higher than revenue from taxes e. When Republicans control the White House 30. During a presidential election, how are people who think their own economic circumstances have deteriorated likely to vote? a. For an outsider candidate b. For the conservative candidate c. For the liberal candidate d. For the incumbent e. Against the incumbent 31. For most of the twentieth century, which belief was shared by both Democrats and Republicans? a. High marginal tax rates without loopholes would hurt the economy by discouraging people and businesses from saving and investing. b. Tax cuts for the rich improve the economy by enabling America‟s wealthiest investors to make greater investments in small businesses. c. Every taxpayer should pay the same rate. d. Tax cuts for the rich improve the economy by enabling America‟s biggest earners to create more jobs. e. Low marginal tax rates, combined with high federal sales taxes, would boost the economies of individual states but increase the national debt.

32. When do Americans generally support higher taxes? a. When they pay for better health care for everyone b. When they are paid by someone else c. When they pay for improvements to the infrastructure

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d. When they improve the quality of American education e. When they are used to ensure personal liberties 33. Which of the following are government expenditures that exceed receipts? a. Mandates b. Inflation c. Surpluses d. Deficits e. Rebates 34. When there is an economic downturn, which economic theory argues that the government should pump money into the economy by spending more than it collects in taxes? a. Keynesian economics b. Monetarist economics c. Economic planning d. Supply-side economics e. Credit-based economics 35. According to the monetarist theory, when does inflation occur? a. When the government holds down interest rates b. When there is too little money and interest rates are low c. When demand for goods and services exceeds supply d. When the budget deficit exceeds the gross national product (GNP) e. When the government prints too much money 36. Why did Congress pass the Gramm-Rudman Act? a. To fine-tune the existing budget procedures b. To give more authority to the OMB c. To eliminate deficit spending d. To eliminate the balance-of-trade deficit e. To eliminate tax cuts to the wealthy 37. Typically, which economic adviser has the closest link to the financial community? a. Chairperson of the Federal Reserve Board b. Secretary of the Treasury c. Director of the Office of Management and Budget d. Chairperson of the New York Stock Exchange e. Deputy director of the Bureau of the Budget 38. What was Ronald Reagan‟s strategy in the budget battle of 1981? a. Focus on specific controversial programs and leave remaining programs at current spending levels

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b. Pass a May budget resolution that calls for further cuts in most programs c. Form a consensus of liberals and conservatives in both the House and the Senate d. Get Congress to vote for a total package of cuts before it votes for particular cuts e. Reduce party leaders to a subordinate role by insisting on particular cuts on the front end of the process 39. In normal economic times, which economic theory argues that the proper thing for the government to do is to have a steady, predictable increase in the money supply at a rate about equal to growth in the economy‟s productivity? a. Keynesian economics b. Monetarist economics c. Economic planning d. Supply-side economics e. Credit-based economics 40. Since 1974, what has been the purpose of the congressional budget resolutions passed annually in May? a. To add up all the agreed-on expenditures b. To set a ceiling on total spending c. To get final authorization for all expenditures d. To compromise on the spending measures of the two houses e. To settle issues related to discrepancies in math 41. Monetary policy includes which of the following? a. Using changes in the amount of money in circulation to alter national economic variables b. Using changes in the size of the federal budget deficit to alter national economic variables c. Regulating tax rates to ensure controlled growth and low inflation d. All economic policies of the president and Congress e. Linking the consumer price index and the gross national product 42. What is a twentieth-century example of government use of money to influence elections? a. Increasing the size of the military in election years b. Increasing foreign aid in election years c. Increasing Social Security benefits in election years d. Reducing subsidies for mortgage insurance in election years e. Mobilizing troops overseas in election years 43. The average citizen paid very little in income taxes until when? a. The Great Depression b. The New Deal c. The Vietnam War d. The Korean War

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e. World War II 44. What is the name of the total value of all a nation‟s goods and services produced each year? a. Adjusted production value b. Consumer price index c. Gross domestic product d. Goods measure e. International trade product 45. Which of the following is an example of an entitlement program? a. Amtrak subsidies b. Title IX of the Educational Act c. Defense spending d. Income tax enforcement e. Social Security 46. What did the Budget Enforcement Act of 1990 focus on limiting? a. Travel expenses b. Payment on the national debt c. Existing contracts d. Entitlements e. Discretionary spending 47. Before the creation of the federal income tax, most of the money the government needed came from which source? a. Lotteries b. State contributions c. Private wealth d. Tariffs e. Public charity 48. Which of the following would be an example of an entitlement program? a. Federal income tax b. Federal student loans c. Medicare d. Medicaid e. An Individual Retirement Account (IRA) 49. When the U.S. government adjusts the amount of money in circulation to alter credit markets and employment, which of the following is the government relying on to influence the economy? a. Stimulus policy b. Fiscal policy

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c. Monetary policy d. Regressive tax policy e. Progressive tax policy 50. Which statement best describes the tax burden in the United States? a. It is lower than that of most other democratic nations. b. It is about the same as that of most other democratic nations. c. It is slightly higher than that of most other democratic nations. d. It is significantly higher than that of most other democratic nations. e. It fluctuates considerably, so comparing it to that of other democratic nations is impossible.

51. Identify and describe some of the tools that Congress can use to influence the economy.

52. Describe the goals of the Federal Reserve Board and explain the tools it can use to achieve those goals.

53. Identify and explain possible measures that could reduce or eliminate federal budget deficits.

54. Explain what constitutes monetary policy. Explain how it compares to economic policy.

55. Describe the historic role of the U.S. government in addressing unemployment.

56. Describe the membership, tenure, and structure of the Federal Reserve.

57. Explain the difference between deficit and debt.

58. Identify the machinery of economic policy making—sometimes called the “troika” and explain their roles.

59. Identify and describe the central tenets of the four main theories about how to improve the economy.

60. Explain why it is so difficult for elected officials to restrain the growth of the government.

61. Compare and contrast monetary with economic policy.

62. Explain the conditions that cause a federal budget deficit.

63. Explain how economics affects the way people vote and how this affects elected officials.

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Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. e 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. e 17. d 18. e 19. a 20. c 21. b

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22. e 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b 27. d 28. e 29. c 30. e 31. a 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. e 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. c

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43. e 44. c 45. e 46. e 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. Students' answers may vary.

52. Students' answers may vary.

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63. Students' answers may vary.

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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. George Kennan espoused which worldview? a. Humanism b. Disengagement c. Isolationism d. Containment e. Authoritarianism 2. In which decision did the Supreme Court rule that sending Japanese Americans to relocation centers during World War II was based on an acceptable military justification? a. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp. v. United States b. Korematsu v. United States c. Youngstown Sheet & Tube Co. v. Sawyer d. Hamdi v. Rumsfeld e. Rasul v. Bush 3. For what kind of foreign policy matters does the president usually take the leading role? a. Majoritarian b. Interest group c. Entrepreneurial d. Client e. Egalitarian 4. What is the central political arena when entrepreneurial politics shape foreign policy? a. The State Department b. Congress c. The president d. The United Nations e. Council on Foreign Relations 5. Which is an example of the relative weakness of U.S. presidents in foreign affairs, in comparison with leaders of other nations? a. Reagan‟s indecisiveness during the Grenada crisis b. Bush‟s inability to recruit congressional support for Operation Desert Storm c. Wilson‟s inability to lead the United States into the League of Nations d. Kennedy‟s inability to commit troops in Vietnam e. Johnson‟s inability to commit troops in Vietnam 6. In which decision did the Supreme Court rule that American foreign policy is vested entirely in the federal government where the president has plenary power? a. Curtiss-Wright Export Corp. v. United States

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b. Korematsu v. United States c. Youngstown Sheet & Tube Co. v. Sawyer d. Hamdi v. Rumsfeld e. Rasul v. Bush 7. Which of the following summarizes American views on overseas military expeditions? a. Leery of them, but once started, Americans want to win, even if it means more intense fighting b. Pacifistic unless the United States is directly attacked c. In favor of military intervention all the time d. In favor of starting wars, but generally not to continue fighting them e. Flatly opposed to them under almost all circumstances 8. Who delivered the famous 1946 “iron curtain” speech that summarized Soviet policy in Eastern Europe? a. Winston Churchill b. George Kennan c. Charles Lindbergh d. Richard Nixon e. Dwight Eisenhower 9. Currently, which of the following is the greatest concern in U.S. and Iranian relations? a. Iran's assistance to insurgents in Iraq and Afghanistan b. Iran‟s secret development of nuclear capability c. Iran's treatment of American citizens living and working in Iran d. Iran's closed society forbids Iranians from traveling outside of Iran e. The U.S. treatment of Iranian citizens living and working in the United States 10. In the early years of the republic, foreign policy was often made and almost always carried out by whom? a. The vice president b. The House of Representatives c. The Secretary of State d. The U.S. Senate e. The Speaker of the House 11. In which foreign military situation did the president fail to benefit from the “rally ‟round the flag” effect? a. John F. Kennedy, after the Bay of Pigs b. Ronald Reagan, when he invaded Grenada c. George H. W. Bush, when he sent troops to fight Iraq d. Bill Clinton, when he sent troops to Bosnia

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e. Gerald Ford, when an attempt was made to rescue an American ship 12. By passing the War Powers Resolution Act, Congress established limits on the powers of the president in setting foreign and defense policy following which of the following wars? a. World War II b. Revolutionary War c. Vietnam War d. World War I e. Korean War 13. What factor(s) contributed to the feasibility of an all-volunteer military force? a. The absence of a credible threat to U.S. soil b. Rising civilian unemployment and better military pay c. The generally low level of skill and education of volunteers d. The absence of qualified women volunteers willing to face combat e. Increased levels of education among young Americans 14. What does the phrase "we now live in a unipolar world" mean? a. The United States is the sole remaining superpower. b. The world is united in its stance against terrorism. c. A de facto one-world government under the United Nations now exists. d. The United States is now the only nation possessing nuclear weapons. e. Most major political disagreements between nations have been resolved.

15. According to Alexis de Tocqueville, what is required for the proper conduct of foreign affairs? a. An equal balance of majoritarian, client, and interest-group politics b. Power that is shared among the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the government c. Sensitivity to culture and the courage to act forcefully d. Precisely those qualities most lacking in democratic nations e. Unmitigated allegiance and a stoic disposition 16. A law passed in 1871 that gave the president power to suspend the writ of habeas corpus in any state where ordinary law enforcement procedures were unavailable and afforded people the right to sue officials who violated their rights was enacted primarily to defeat which organization? a. The Weather Underground b. The Ku Klux Klan (KKK) c. Texas Independence Movement d. Southern Confederacy e. Barbary Pirates 17. Which worldview argues that defense policy protects everyone and that everyone pays for it? a. Client

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b. Entrepreneurial c. Interest group d. Majoritarian e. Marxist 18. Which of the following is true of the Department of Defense? a. It is smaller than the State Department. b. It was created to gather all military activities under one department. c. It is headed by the military Joint Chiefs of Staff. d. It has consistently grown under every president. e. It is staffed entirely by uniformed personnel.

19. What does the term Al Qaeda mean? a. The fight b. The base c. The mission d. The war e. The martyr 20. Which president signed a law creating the Office of the Director of National Intelligence? a. Richard Nixon b. John F. Kennedy c. Barack Obama d. Bill Clinton e. George W. Bush 21. A nuclear test ban treaty, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Alliance, and the Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (SALT) are all examples of what kind of politics? a. Neo-institutional b. Interest group c. Entrepreneurial d. Client e. Majoritarian 22. On which issue are the American public and foreign policy leaders most divided? a. Expanding economic aid to other countries b. Taking the side of Israel in conflicts with Palestinians c. Combating international terrorism d. Supporting U.S. troops in Afghanistan e. Continuing to support NATO 23. How do casualty rates tend to impact public opinion of military operations?

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a. As casualty rates rise, people develop more favorable attitudes toward the war. b. As casualty rates rise, people support quick withdrawal from the war. c. As casualty rates rise, people favor the institution of a national draft. d. As casualty rates rise, people support escalation to defeat the enemy more quickly. e. As casualty rates rise, people support withdrawal after a series of powerful strikes.

24. When did the era of American isolationism end? a. The Great Depression b. World War II c. Entry into the UN d. When France and the United States signed a mutual alliance pact e. Korean War 25. Which of the following statements about congressional oversight of Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) covert activities is true? a. Congress has limited authority to disapprove of such activities. b. Congress must approve activities that involve political assassination. c. Congress must approve activities that involve military expenditures. d. Congress has blanket authority to approve or disapprove of such activities. e. Congress must approve those activities that will extend more than sixty days.

26. After World War I, the United States returned to a foreign policy based primarily on which of the following? a. Isolationism b. Interventionism c. Unilateralism d. Globalization e. Multilateralism 27. To whom does the National Security Council report? a. The Joint Chiefs of Staff b. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) c. Congress d. Secretary of State e. President 28. The Cold War was an ideological, political, and economic confrontation between which of the following two powers? a. France and Germany b. Britain and France c. United States and South Africa d. United States and China

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e. United States and the Soviet Union 29. What is the role of the president‟s national security adviser and the National Security Council (NSC)? a. They help the president coordinate the foreign policy bureaucracy. b. They control the Defense Department. c. They run the State Department. d. They attenuate the rivalries between the executive branch and Congress. e. They recommend funding for the various branches of the armed services.

30. Which statement about the War Powers Act of 1973 is accurate? a. It was passed with huge majorities in Congress and the support of the president. b. It was passed with a narrow majority in Congress and the support of the president. c. It was passed to strengthen the power of the president. d. It was passed over a presidential veto. e. It was passed due to military overreach in the Middle East.

31. What was the primary reason for the United States‟ failure to disarm after the Korean War? a. The possibility of renewed fighting in Korea b. The containment policy toward the Soviet Union c. Americans' fear of losing the Cold War d. Public opinion in favor of the U.S. being the world‟s policeman e. The growing need to fight terrorism at home and abroad 32. The Supreme Court ruled that Harry Truman overstepped the bounds of his wartime executive power when he took which action? a. Confiscated precious metals b. Froze prices and wages c. Reduced imports d. Seized steel mills e. Integrated the armed services 33. How does Edward Corwin describe the Constitution‟s treatment of the authority of the president and Congress in foreign affairs? a. A recipe for disaster b. A beacon of unity c. An invitation to struggle d. A call for cooperation e. A vague mishmash 34. Immediate political polarization among the American public was most prominent during which conflict? a. The Korean War

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b. The Vietnam War c. The war in Iraq d. World War I e. World War II 35. Which of the following is the most important check on presidential war power? a. The Supreme Court b. The State Department c. Governors of states with military bases d. The Joint Chiefs of Staff e. Congress's control over the federal budget 36. Which president ordered a U.S. invasion of Panama to depose the dictator Manuel Noriega? a. John F. Kennedy b. Ronald Reagan c. George H. W. Bush d. Bill Clinton e. Dwight Eisenhower 37. What is the typical effect of foreign crises on the president‟s approval rating? a. They increase the president‟s approval rating except when the public believes the president could have avoided the crisis. b. They increase the president‟s approval rating except when the public believes the president caused the crisis. c. They increase the president‟s approval rating even if the crisis was partially or wholly the president‟s fault. d. They decrease the president‟s approval rating even if the president was wholly blameless for the crisis. e. They decrease the president‟s approval rating because the public believes the president caused the crisis.

38. In his book The Cold War, Walter Lippmann argued against which worldview? a. Isolationism b. Disengagement c. Containment d. Humanism e. Imperialism 39. Why did President Obama fail to take military action in Syria after the Syrian government used chemical weapons against its own people? a. The Soviet Union strongly discouraged Obama from taking action. b. The United States has no legitimate interests in the affairs of Syria.

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c. Congress did not grant legislative authorization for military action against Syria. d. There was no political advantage to be gained from taking such action. e. The United Nations strongly discouraged Obama from taking action.

40. Which of the following regimes was the U.S. war in Afghanistan fought against? a. Bashar al-Assad b. ISIS c. Saddam Hussein d. Boko Haram e. Taliban 41. Which president ordered the military to move Japanese Americans from their homes on the West Coast to “relocation centers”? a. Franklin Roosevelt b. Harry Truman c. Woodrow Wilson d. Donald Trump e. Abraham Lincoln 42. Congress‟s investigation into the 1986 scandal where presidential aides sought to trade arms for U.S. hostages in Iran reflected what kind of politics? a. Majoritarian b. Interest group c. Entrepreneurial d. Client e. Neo-institutional 43. U.S. tariffs on Japanese steel imports would be an example of what kind of politics? a. Majoritarian b. Interest group c. Entrepreneurial d. Client e. Egalitarian 44. The constitutional power to declare war and to regulate commerce with other nations is vested in which entity? a. The State Department b. Congress c. The president d. The Pentagon e. The Secretary of War

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45. Which entity is a bloc consisting of Defense Department leaders and military manufacturers? a. The military-industrial complex b. The new world order c. The iron curtain d. The bipolar world e. The unipolar world 46. Generally, what has been the position of the Supreme Court when legal issues have arisen out of foreign policy disputes between the president and Congress? a. The Court has typically favored Congress. b. The Court has typically favored the president. c. The Court usually refuses to intervene. d. The Court interprets the Constitution quite literally. e. The Court asks the solicitor general to resolve conflicts.

47. Identify and explain examples of interest group and client politics in foreign policy.

48. Describe the efforts to combat terrorism since 9/11 and evaluate how much success the United States has had in doing so.

49. Identify and describe the major provisions of the War Powers Act. 50. Explain the constitutional clash of powers between the president and Congress in foreign policy making.

51. Explain de Tocqueville‟s opinion of conducting foreign policy in a democracy.

52. Explain the majoritarian component of foreign policy.

53. Explain the “rally ‟round the flag” effect.

54. Identify and describe the constitutional and informal powers of the president in setting foreign policy and national security policy.

55. Explain the role of the president in setting foreign policy and national security policy.

56. Identify and explain the four worldviews.

57. Analyze the evolution of American foreign policy from isolationism to global leadership.

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Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. e 21. e

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22. a 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. a 27. e 28. e 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. e 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. e 41. a 42. c

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43. b 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. Students' answers may vary.

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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What did Ronald Reagan learn when he took office in 1981 after promising to reduce the size of government? a. His plans to cut foreign spending resulted in only small declines in some programs and actual increases in many others b. His plans to cut domestic spending resulted in huge increases in some programs and an actual decline in many others c. His plans to cut foreign spending resulted in huge increases in some programs and an actual decline in many others d. His plans to shut down the government until Congress passed a cut of 500 billion dollars for domestic aid failed to get majority support in either chamber

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e. His plans to cut domestic spending resulted in only small declines in some programs and actual increases in many others 2. What have public opinion surveys since the 1960s revealed about the public‟s view of government? a. Loss of faith in the design of our government‟s institutions b. Loss of faith in our form of government c. Disappointment with our government‟s performance d. Increasing political apathy e. Enchantment with our government's performance 3. In 2013, the U.S. government shut down for the first time in almost 18 years because the two branches could not complete a budget deal. What was the result of that shutdown? a. The president‟s approval rate dropped to 27%. b. Nothing resulted from the shutdown because the public never had confidence in the federal government. c. Congress‟ approval rating dropped to approximately 10%. d. Confidence in the Supreme Court plummeted. e. It undermined the public‟s confidence in the federal bureaucracy.

4. What is one of the results of the government increasing in size since the 1930s? a. Public officials must spend more time debating new ideas at length and less time managing the consequences of existing programs. b. Public officials must spend more time managing the consequences of existing programs and less time debating new ideas at length. c. Public officials become more isolated from their constituents, and no new ideas have been advanced by Congress. d. Public officials have become more attentive to their constituents and are more willing to advance new ideas from them. e. Public officials are spending significantly more time in their home districts and states to keep from being estranged from their constituents.

5. What was the level of voter turnout in the Old System? a. Citizens turned out at a high rate. b. Citizens rarely turned out to vote. c. Citizens typically only turned out for radical candidates. d. Citizens turned out more for national elections and rarely for state and local ones. e. Citizens turned out more for candidates who supported social programs.

6. We expect that the groups affected by any government program will have the right to play a role in shaping and administering that program. What has been the outcome of this expectation? a. The Sunshine House select committee was created. b. The proliferation of interest groups c. The Department of Justice has sued interest groups.

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d. More and more legislation against interest groups e. Shrinking of interest groups 7. How was Lyndon Johnson able to get his Great Society programs passed by Congress? a. Most of the public favored the programs. b. Liberal Democrats controlled both houses of Congress by large margins. c. Most Republicans worked with him on these issues. d. He broke up the conservative coalition by convincing Southern Democrats to defect. e. The federal government had surplus funds to spend.

8. From time to time during the nineteenth century, what issue might have led to federal officials being blamed or even removed from office? a. Crime rates b. The economy c. The environment d. Civil rights e. Term limits 9. More than the citizens of perhaps any other nation, Americans define their relationships with one another and with political authority in terms of what? a. Prosperity b. Happiness c. Rights d. Dynamics e. Property 10. During the Eisenhower administration, about how many major domestic political issues were there? a. None b. Three c. Ten d. Dozens e. Over one hundred 11. How could the New System‟s Congress best be characterized? a. Diffusion and decentralization of power b. Stronger leadership c. Fewer interest groups d. Debate about the legitimacy of government action e. A smaller government 12. What effect does the system of checks and balances have on the legislative process? a. It ensures executive dominance.

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b. It goes against a committee system. c. It reduces the likelihood of federalism. d. It makes starting new programs difficult. e. It ensures a consolidated court system.

13. Which of the following describes the rapid increase in the number and variety of interest groups and their enlarged role in government? a. An unintended consequence of federalism b. A rational response to the fact that elected officials can tend to only a few things c. The inevitable result of a two-party system d. The primary cause of increased voter turnout e. The primary cause of divided government 14. What was a consequence of the political leadership in the Old System being small and professionalized? a. More issues were able to be put onto the national agenda. b. More members had input into the direction of policy. c. The public had more access to leaders. d. Power was centralized, and constituents and activists had less access. e. People tended to vote at extremely low rates due to disengagement.

15. What is a potential negative consequence of Americans' preoccupation with their individual rights? a. It makes it more difficult to make decisions and manage large institutions. b. It reduces the influence of citizens in government decision making. c. It causes a decline in interest group representation. d. It decreases the role of the judicial branch of the government. e. It leads to too much power in the hands of congressional leaders.

16. What institution or approach do Americans use more frequently than the citizens of any other nation to make or change public policy? a. The media b. The courts c. Protests d. Voting e. Boycotts 17. What was a consequence of moving to the New System? a. The War on Poverty was able to be passed at the federal level. b. Congress began regulating money in politics. c. The executive branch decreased its staff. d. States gained more power over policies. e. The federal government had less control over foreign policy.

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18. What is a consequence of Americans‟ concern about rights and liberties? a. Interest groups have proliferated. b. Parties have become less connected to their voters. c. The courts are used much less frequently than in the past. d. The government uses simple and easy to understand rules. e. Party and congressional leaders are very powerful.

19. Which of the following is a consequence of the increased size of the government? a. A decline in public confidence in those who lead and manage the government b. Greater respect for politicians c. Greater trust in the government d. Greater participation in elections e. Less activism through interest groups 20. Which of the following policy questions would most likely be asked in the New System? a. Would a new federal program abridge states‟ rights? b. Should the federal government enter a new policy area? c. How can we fix and pay for an existing policy? d. Is it legitimate for the federal government to pass certain legislation? e. How does the policy affect inequality?

21. Political scientist Donald Kettl has argued that the “financial meltdown accelerated our expectations that government will keep us safe . . . We‟ve gone from debates over privatizing the public sector to big steps toward governmentalizing the private sector.” Which of the following would be the outcome of Dr. Kettl‟s observation? a. Revitalization and return to ardent Keynesian economics b. More rules to shape how the private sector behaves c. Increased state and local control, since they know their economies best d. Loosening of rules and regulations to stimulate the economy e. Revitalization and return to ardent laissez-faire economics 22. During the Old System, what was the hope of most members of Congress? a. They hoped to become career legislators. b. They hoped to not serve more than one or two terms. c. They hoped to run for the presidency. d. They enjoyed the power of an activist federal government. e. They hoped to have a large staff so they didn't have to deal with their colleagues on a personal basis.

23. Why might citizens in a parliamentary system of government evaluate their government's performance better than those in a presidential system?

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a. Parliamentary systems have weaker parties; therefore, elected officials pay more attention to their constituents. b. Taxation is typically much lower in parliamentary systems. c. Power is more decentralized in parliamentary systems, and citizens have more influence. d. There is generally quicker adoption of majoritarian policies in parliamentary systems. e. There are more opportunities for citizens to challenge or block government policies in parliamentary systems.

24. Which of the following best describes the two periods between which the transition from the Old to the New System chiefly occurred? a. Neither period was particularly remarkable. b. Both were periods of prosperity. c. Both were periods of crisis. d. The first was a period of prosperity; the second was a period of crisis. e. The first was a period of crisis; the second was a period of prosperity.

25. When Dwight Eisenhower (1950s) was president, which of the following issues was thought to be a federal matter, even if the government paid little attention? a. Gun control b. Education c. Homelessness d. Civil rights e. Drug abuse 26. How can the New System of government best be described? a. Restrictive b. Activist c. Counter-majoritarian d. Informal e. An iron triangle 27. Had the Framers adopted a parliamentary system; we might see all of these features in the political life of the United States except which one? a. More centralization of bureaucratic authority—more national planning and less local autonomy b. Greater influence by the states, especially in foreign commerce c. Greater executive control of the government d. Quicker adoption of majoritarian policies, such as those in social welfare e. Higher and more centralized taxation 28. What is the effect of greater openness of the government in our current system? a. There is more accountability.

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b. Citizens are more engaged in the government with record-high turnout levels. c. Interest groups lack influence. d. The political parties have very little power. e. Transparency has eliminated corruption.

29. What was one key consideration in the Old System that affected the issues being considered by Congress? a. Whether it was legitimate for the federal government to be acting at all b. How the policy affected minorities c. Whether the legislature was usurping executive powers d. Whether there was widespread public support in favor of the policy e. Whether the judiciary would deem the policy unconstitutional 30. Under the Old System, how were states‟ rights viewed? a. With great suspicion b. As supremely important c. As somewhat important, but federal supremacy was of greater significance d. As secondary to local government e. As only relevant on social issues 31. What emerged in the 1950s that shaped the political agenda and possibly candidates emerging and how they campaigned? a. Congress became more professionalized. b. Television began to shape politics. c. The party system began to crystallize. d. Political action committees began to form, and money in politics increased. e. The judicial branch significantly increased its power.

32. What was a consequence of power becoming more decentralized in the New System? a. Fewer issues were considered in the New System compared to the Old System. b. Fewer individuals and groups had input into decision making. c. It was more difficult to resolve conflicts, and more individuals were involved in decision making. d. Farming issues became much less relevant. e. Party leaders completely controlled the policy agenda.

33. What is an important difference in our current political system compared to when the Constitution was created and ratified? a. National leaders were only beholden to their own consciences in the past. b. National leaders were more careerist and served in the legislature for several decades in the earlier era. c. Politics was much more collegial in the previous era.

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d. There was much more openness and transparency in the previous era. e. There was much more accountability in the previous era.

34. What is one reason that the American government is now much harder to administer than in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries? a. There are fewer interest groups participating in the government today. b. The United States has more political parties. c. The twentieth century featured more consensus among the political elite. d. Federalism has reduced the importance of the states. e. The United States consists of 300 million diverse and free people, instead of 4 million people in a slave-holding society.

35. There are two ways to propose an amendment to the Constitution: introduction by Congress or special convention, ratification by three-fourths of the state legislatures, or ratification by three-fourths of the states at special ratifying conventions. What was the only time that a special ratifying convention was used to amend the Constitution? a. Twenty-Sixth Amendment regarding the age of voters b. Nineteenth Amendment regarding women‟s suffrage c. Twenty-Eighth Amendment regarding the Equal Rights Amendment d. Fourteenth Amendment regarding due process e. Twenty-First Amendment regarding Prohibition 36. Which of the following did the Supreme Court‟s incorporate that allowed citizens to use the federal courts to alter state policy more than ever before? a. Fourteenth Amendment b. Civil Rights Act of 1964 c. Bureaucratic regulations d. Legislative reconstruction e. Privileges and Immunities Clause 37. What major factor explains the quick adoption of new programs? a. One political party supports the program. b. The media draws attention to the issue. c. The public does not hold a very strong opinion on the issue. d. There are many interest groups active on both sides of the policy. e. The public holds wide enthusiasm for a program.

38. Which of the following statements concerning the enormous expansion of the scope and goals of the federal government is incorrect? a. It has been random or guided. b. Power has been enlarged in some directions more than in others. c. Certain goals have been served more frequently than others. d. The selection of goals has been shaped by our political culture.

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e. The selection of goals has been shaped by our constitutional structure.

39. According to Alexis de Tocqueville, most Americans are attached to which of the following? a. Equality b. Freedom c. Security d. Liberty e. Efficiency 40. The New System, which took its present form in the 1970s, is characterized by which of the following? a. A large policy agenda b. The end of most debate over the legitimacy of government action c. The decentralization of power in Congress d. The multiplication of interest groups e. A small policy agenda 41. What is an effect of the more decentralized and political world of the New System? a. It makes it much more difficult to say yes to new ideas. b. It makes it much more difficult to tax the people. c. It makes it much more likely for states to act but not the federal government. d. It makes it much more difficult to promote talented politicians. e. It makes it challenging to pursue equality for all people.

42. In the 1930s, what did public opinion polls show? a. As many as half the voters were skeptical of a federal unemployment compensation program. b. Over 90 percent of Americans were supportive of Social Security. c. Most Americans were against the national highway system being built at the time. d. Most Americans wanted an activist foreign policy. e. Americans were not supportive of Social Security.

43. What is a significant cause of red tape, bureaucratic stalemates, and confusion? a. Public officials are self-interested. b. Bureaucrats are incompetent. c. There is too much separation of powers. d. Citizens want different and often conflicting things. e. Federalism simply does not work.

44. Which amendment to the Constitution did the Supreme Court use to apply most of the provisions of the Bill of Rights to state governments? a. Eleventh Amendment b. Fourteenth Amendment

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c. Twentieth Amendment d. Twenty-Second Amendment e. Twenty-Fourth Amendment 45. Which of the following best describes how federal policies regarding civil rights and environmental protection came about? a. They were enacted due to overwhelming public opinion against the wishes of the political elite. b. They were demanded by well-educated, politically active people and then found popular by the public. c. They were enacted due to pressure from interest groups against the wishes of the public. d. They were enacted due to pressure from a moderately sized group of politically active citizens against the wishes of interest groups. e. They were demanded by average citizens and opposed by the political elite.

46. What is one of the great puzzles regarding the ever-increasing expectations that citizens have of government? a. The Constitution is designed to make it difficult for the government to act. b. The federal courts have facilitated these expectations. c. Few government officials have welcomed such change. d. Americans seem to know less and less about government and politics. e. Political participation has continually decreased.

47. Today, the government is typically not held responsible for which of the following? a. Crime b. The economy c. The environment d. Civil rights e. National tensions

48. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of a system of government in which the federal government is constrained and the states possess more expansive powers.

49. Explain why the mandate of equal treatment for all groups of Americans sometimes come into conflict with the concept of liberty.

50. From the founding to our current day politics, American citizens strongly value individual rights.

Explain how this value for individual rights shaped the American political system and policy making.

51. Explain some of the weaknesses and criticisms of democracy.

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52. Identify and describe the restraints on the growth of the government that existed until the mid-1930s.

53. Identify and explain some differences we would expect if the Founders had created a parliamentary system of government.

54. Compare and contrast how power in Congress was distributed in the Old System versus the New System.

55. Compare and contrast direct democracy with representative democracy.

56. Explain the concept or system of direct democracy.

57. Identify and explain some constitutional features that make it hard for the government to act quickly and efficiently.

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Answer Key 1. e 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. b

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22. b 23. d 24. e 25. d 26. b 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. e 35. e 36. a 37. e 38. a 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. a

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43. d 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. e 48. Students' answers may vary.

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