Test bank For Applied Communication Research Methods Getting Started as a Researcher, 3rd Edition B

Test Bank For Applied Communication Research Methods Getting Started as a Researcher, 3E By Michael Boyle, Mike Schmierbach Chapter 1-15 Chapter 1 1 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Which principle of research is met by directly observing and measuring phenomena?

Empirical Systematic Intersubjective Cyclical

Answer:

(A)

Empirical

Feedback:

By using empirical measurement, we ensure our results actually describe reality.

2 Which principle of research is met by carefully planning studies and consistently following those plans?

(A) Empirical (B) Systematic (C) Intersubjective (D) Cyclical Answer:

(B)

Systematic

Feedback: Being systematic helps reduce bias, because researchers won't be tempted to change their measures to fit their expectations.

3 Which principle of research refers to the idea that the community of scholars should share definitions for important ideas in communication?

(A) Empirical (B) Systematic (C) Intersubjective (D) Cyclical Answer:

(C)

Intersubjective

Feedback: We use the term "intersubjective" because while the definition is shared between researchers, it isn't necessarily a fixed quality governed by the laws of nature.

4 Research gains strength over time because of this principle of research, in which scholars constantly test and expand prior studies.

(A) Empirical (B) Systematic (C) Intersubjective (D) Cyclical Answer:

(D)

Cyclical

Feedback: By following a cycle of developing research designs, collecting empirical data, and carefully reporting results, researchers can identify mistakes made in earlier studies and correct our understanding of the world.

A ________ describes a situation where the value of one variable can be used to more accurately predict the value of another.

(A) Relationship (B) Explanation (C) Description (D) Interaction Answer:

(A)

Relationship

Feedback: A relationship reflects a recognizable pattern where the values of two variables are predictably linked. Explanation and description are two potential goals of research that might identify relationships, and an interaction describes a specific, more complex type of relationship.

What term describes a parsimonious model that makes falsifiable predictions about how variables are related?

(A) Hypothesis (B) Abstract (C) Theory (D) Meta-analysis Answer:

(C)

Theory

Feedback: A theory provides a broad description of how variables are related, making specific predictions, or hypotheses, that can be tested and shown to be supported or not supported. An abstract is a part of a research article that summarizes the overall paper, and a meta-analysis combines many studies on a topic to see how broadly supported a specific hypothesis or set of hypotheses is within the literature.

The process of showing that a prediction generated by a theory is not supported by empirical evidence is known as what?

(A) Parsimony (B) Falsification

(C) (D)

Scope Questioning

Answer:

(B)

Falsification

Feedback: Falsification is critical to theory; a theory that does not offer specific testable predictions doesn't tell us anything new, since every possible outcome is included, we can never make an accurate prediction. Parsimony reflects how compact or simple a theory is; scope reflects how broad a set of circumstances it addresses. All theories potentially address applicable research questions.

All else being equal, researchers prefer a simpler theory that involves less variables, a principle known as what?

(A) Parsimony (B) Falsification (C) Scope (D) Questioning Answer:

(A)

Parsimony

Feedback: A good theory will explain a wide range, or scope, of phenomena, and will offer clearly testable predictions that can be falsified. But given two theories with the same scope and ability to generate predictions, the simpler theory that involves fewer variables is preferred.

Another word for the breadth or diversity of topics covered by a theory is __________.

(A) Parsimony (B) Falsification (C) Scope (D) Questioning Answer:

(C)

Scope

Feedback: A good theory has a wide scope, applying to a variety of types of people, forms of communication, or both. So long as the theory generates predictions that can be falsified, or shown to be wrong, across that range of situations, it remains useful. However, if too many additional variables are required to make the theory apply to those situations, then it will suffer from a lack of parsimony.

What do researchers define as a specific, falsifiable prediction generated from a theory?

(A) Research question (B) Causality (C) Literature review (D) Hypothesis

Answer:

(D)

Hypothesis

Feedback: Good theories can generate specific predictions, known as hypotheses. These predictions drive the research process. While some predicted relationships may be causal, such that one variable necessarily influences the other, it is not required. The literature review will explain how prior research, relevant to the overall research question or questions, leads to specific hypotheses.

If a researcher found that the more money a candidate spent on political advertising, the more votes they received, this would be an example of a _________ relationship.

(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Mediated (D) Moderated Answer:

(A)

Positive

Feedback: Because an increase in one variable is associated with an increase in the other variable, this is a positive relationship. If advertising led to a backlash and fewer people voted for the candidate the more money spent, this would be a negative relationship. Mediation and moderation both involve relationships among three or more variables.

What is the term for a relationship in which the independent variable influences a third variable, and changes in that third variable then influence the dependent variable?

(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Mediated (D) Moderated Answer:

(C)

Mediated

Feedback: Mediated relationships are called that because the third variable falls in the middle of the process. Both positive and negative relationships could be mediated, but don't have to be.

Moderation is another type of relationship involving a third variable, but the moderating variable is not affected by either the independent or dependent variables.

Consider a situation in which the effect of media exposure on individual attitudes is different for men and women. If exposure is the independent variable and attitudes are the dependent variable, then gender would be a __________ variable.

(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Mediating

(D)

Moderating

Answer:

(D)

Moderating

Feedback: When a third variable helps explain how different individuals will react differently to the same stimulus, this is moderation. The other type of relationship involving a third variable is mediation -- this would require that exposure affect gender, and that gender affect attitudes. Moderation can occur in either positive or negative relationships -- depending on the value of the moderator, the relationship might even sometimes be positive and sometimes negative.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for showing that a relationship is causal?

(A) Show correlation (B) Replicate findings (C) Establish time order (D) Account for alternative explanations Answer:

(B)

Replicate findings

Feedback: Although replication can strengthen our confidence in a study, it is not a requirement for causality. Showing that a relationship exists, making sure the independent variable changes before the dependent variable, and accounting for alternative explanations (i.e., controlling for third variables) are all necessary.

Testing hypotheses reflects what type of reasoning?

(A) Inductive (B) Deductive (C) Circular (D) Causal Answer:

(B)

Deductive

Feedback: Deductive reasoning involves starting with a set of general principles and then looking at whether observations fit those principles. Inductive reasoning is the opposite, building from specific observations to form broad principles. Hypotheses need not predict causal relationships, and "circular" reasoning is a type of logical flaw.

What term do we use to describe a specific characteristic of individuals that has only one value for each individual but different values for different individuals?

(A) Unit of analysis (B) Variable (C) Prediction (D) Description

Answer:

(B)

Variable

Feedback: Remember that a variable varies, or takes on different values for different individuals. These individuals constitute the unit of analysis. Predictions involve connections between variables, and description will similarly identify patterns of variables.

In a poll asking which candidate likely voters will support in the next election, the voters represent the ______________.

(A) Variable (B) Prediction (C) Unit of analysis (D) Ideograph Answer:

(C)

Unit of analysis

Feedback: In research, we must identify the specific individuals we want to study, and then measure the value of each variable for each individual. Here, the individuals are the potential voters contacted in the poll. On variable would be their choice of candidate, and if that was linked to another variable such as party membership, then we could more accurately predict one based upon the other, indicating a relationship.

Suppose researchers find that the gender of a person determines how much they enjoy watching horror movies. In this case, enjoyment of watching horror movies would be the __________ variable.

(A) Third (B) Independent (C) Control (D) Dependent Answer:

(D)

Dependent

Feedback: The dependent variable is the outcome or "effect" in a cause-and-effect relationship. We know that watching a movie would not change someone's gender, so enjoyment must be the dependent variable rather than the independent variable. Third or control variables are variables considered in addition to the main independent and dependent variables.

Suppose researchers find that couples who use video chat later report having a stronger relationship than those who rely on text. The researcher concludes that the type of chat causes the strength of the relationship, which means that chat format is the _________ variable.

(A) Independent (B) Dependent (C) Control

(D)

Third

Answer:

(A)

Independent

Feedback: The independent variable is the starting point or "cause" in a cause-and-effect relationship. As the researcher's theory is that type of chat causes the relationship to become stronger or weaker, that means the type of chat must be the independent variable, while the dependent variable is the relationship strength. Third or control variables are variables considered in addition to the main independent and dependent variables.

What do we call a variable that is potentially important to measure but that is neither the independent nor the dependent variable in a relationship?

(A) Tenacious (B) Third (C) Qualitative (D) Explanatory Answer:

(B)

Third

Feedback: Third variables are important to consider if we want to account for their potential influence or even think about how they may alter the basic relationship between the independent and dependent variables, and they take their name from being the third variable considered after those two key variables. They may be either quantitative or qualitative, and can help explain relationships, but neither is necessary.

When scholars carry out additional research based upon data already collected for an earlier purpose, this is known as ________ analysis.

(A) Secondary (B) Reactive (C) Obtrusive (D) Exhaustive Answer:

(A)

Secondary

Feedback: By its nature, secondary analysis uses data that are subject to the same shortcomings as the original study for which they are collected, but this doesn't mean they are necessarily obtrusive or reactive. Exhaustiveness is a characteristic of individual closed-ended questions.

Extra information about a study, such as images shown to participants or a copy of the questionnaire, would appear in the __________.

(A) Tables (B) Reference list

(C) (D)

Appendix Abstract

Answer:

(C)

Appendix

Feedback: If there are multiple elements to include, the authors may provide multiple appendices, and sometimes these may be posted online but not included in the printed article.

Tables show numerical information but are generally contained within the text. The reference list provides citation information for all sources used in the paper, and the abstract offers a concise summary of the important ideas in the paper.

Which section of a journal article summarizes the implications of the findings for theory, offers suggestions for future research, and notes weaknesses in the current study?

(A) Literature review (B) Method (C) Results (D) Discussion Answer:

(D)

Discussion

Feedback: The discussion should attempt to make sense of the results and connect them back to the initial argument in the literature review. While the results section simply summarizes the findings, the discussion interprets them. Another feature is an evaluation of any shortcomings in the methods and how that might have influenced the results.

Which section of a journal article describes statistical procedures used to evaluate whether data support specific hypotheses.

(A) Literature review (B) Method (C) Results (D) Discussion Answer:

(C)

Results

Feedback: The critical purpose of the results section is to present the findings, explaining what the data show and whether that supports any hypotheses. This may include presenting tables or figures. The other sections provide background and offer an argument about the rationale for the study, explain how the study was carried out, and what the findings appear to mean.

Which section of a journal article contains details about the individuals selected for the study and the ways the key variables were measured?

(A) Literature review

(B) (C) (D)

Method Results Discussion

Answer:

(B)

Method

Feedback: Providing details about the methodology helps ensure that research is systematic.

The other sections provide background and offer an argument about the rationale for the study, explain what was found, and what that appears to mean.

Which section of a journal article typically describes the relevant theories and concepts used to identify appropriate research questions or hypotheses?

(A) Literature review (B) Method (C) Results (D) Discussion Answer:

(A)

Literature review

Feedback: The literature review should do more than just summarize prior research; it should present an argument for how that research informs the current study. The other sections explain how the study was carried out, what was found, and what that appears to mean.

What type of study involves collecting the results from many previous studies and statistically analyzing them in a way that allows for greater confidence in the accumulated findings?

(A) Literature review (B) Meta-analysis (C) Appendix (D) Abstract Answer:

(B)

Meta-analysis

Feedback: A meta-analysis is an "analysis of analyses," combining the data from many studies and carrying out statistical tests on all of them to show broader patterns. A literature review article might describe the findings from those studies, but it would not offer new statistical analysis. Appendices and abstracts are potentially found in any scholarly article.

Researchers testing the same relationship using two or more different methods would be an example of _____________.

(A) Replication (B) Triangulation (C) Exploration (D) Tenacity

Answer:

(B)

Triangulation

Feedback: Triangulation uses different methods to test an idea, so that the biases created by one method can be eliminated. This contrasts with replication, where the same method is repeated multiple times. Exploration does not require multiple studies, and tenacity refers to a way of knowing that doesn't rely on research.

Partial __________ occurs when many aspects of a study are carried out again, but others are modified, beyond just the sample.

(A) Triangulation (B) Objectivity (C) Application (D) Replication Answer:

(D)

Replication

Feedback: In contrast, complete replication would involve matching all elements of the study but the sample. Both involve mirroring most elements of the original study design; triangulation in contrast involves using a different design to try to answer the same question. Both are tools that can help increase the objectivity of research and test the applications of studies.

When individuals automatically trust the claims of people with advanced degrees or positions of influence, this reflects which way of knowing?

(A) Intuition (B) Tenacity (C) Authority (D) Research Answer:

(C)

Authority

Feedback: Having more education or earning a position of influence such as being a research scientist can certainly indicate greater knowledge, but it doesn't automatically ensure the individual is correct. The knowledge of experts is only as good as the source from which they obtained it. When individuals rely on intuition or tenacity, they are relying on their own beliefs or beliefs they learned from others long ago, rather than directly on another source.

What term is used for when people rely on their instinctive sense of what just "seems right" as a way of knowing.

(A) Intuition (B) Tenacity (C) Authority (D) Research

Answer:

(A)

Intuition

Feedback: People often say that certain predictions about communication are just "common sense." After all, we engage in communication all the time. But individual perceptions are often wrong or overly simple, and relying on these intuitive beliefs prevents more systematic research to find answers. Intuition differs from tenacity in that it doesn't reflect a broad, previously learned expectation, but instead is simply the idea a person arrives at the moment a question is posed.

If a person has a consistent belief about how communication works, based on something they were previously taught or discovered, and persists in reaching answers consistent with this belief regardless of other evidence, this would reflect which way of knowing?

(A) Intuition (B) Tenacity (C) Authority (D) Research Answer:

(B)

Tenacity

Feedback: Because this belief was already formed at some earlier point, and the person doesn't want to change it, this reflects tenacity. Even if that belief at one time emerged from institution, authority or even research, by continuing to rely on this answer even when circumstances change can prevent the development of new knowledge.

Which goal of research is reflected in a situation where the researcher wants to address a practical problem, such as how to use advertisements to encourage people to stop smoking?

(A) Application (B) Description (C) Explanation (D) Exploration Answer:

(A)

Application

Feedback: Applied research is primarily intended to address some specific, real-world goal.

Applied research can also provide descriptions, explanations, or explorations, but not all research with those goals is necessarily applied.

Which goal of research is met by studies that look to identify and measure patterns based on limited prior expectations, but without the goal of fully understanding why those patterns occur?

(A) Application (B) Description

(C) (D)

Explanation Exploration

Answer:

(B)

Description

Feedback: The goal of description assumes that some basis exists for measuring specific variables and relationships, but that not enough is known to adequately test why those links are present. This places it between exploration and explanation in terms of how explicitly it tests theories.

Which goal of research involves identifying and then testing possible reasons that two or more variables are related?

(A) Application (B) Description (C) Explanation (D) Exploration Answer:

(C)

Explanation

Feedback: Most scholars ultimately hope to explain why relationships occur. Doing so requires having a reasonable starting point, so before explanatory research, earlier attempts to simply explore in search of relationships or describe those relationships are often undertaken.

An initial step in many research projects is to gather data that offer preliminary insights into relevant variables in patterns, a goal known as ___________.

(A) Description (B) Explanation (C) Exploration (D) Application Answer:

(C)

Exploration

Feedback: Exploratory research can be a critical first step, identifing important concepts that can then be more carefully studied. Only after important variables are known can they be clearly described and explained.

If a researcher uses numbers to describe a variable, this represents what type of measurement?

(A) Quantitative (B) Qualitative (C) Objective (D) Biased Answer:

(A)

Quantitative

Feedback: Quantitative measures assign numbers to, or quantify, levels of a variable.

Qualitative measures instead offer descriptions that aren't numerical. Neither is necessarily objective or biased; other factors contribute to ensuring that measures are acceptable.

What is the term for systematic errors in research created when researchers distort results as a reflection of their personal beliefs or expectations?

(A) Bias (B) Objectivity (C) Replication (D) Triangulation Answer:

(A)

Bias

Feedback: Bias is a general term for distorting information in a way that matches a particular pattern or viewpoint. Good researchers hope to avoid bias by using objective measures when possible, and by testing ideas multiple times through replication and triangulation.

What step is taken by a publisher if elements of a study are so flawed or ethically compromised that an article should no longer be considered trustworthy or deserving of publication?

(A) Retraction (B) Bias (C) Predation (D) Triangulation Answer:

(A)

Retraction

Feedback: Retraction is an important step to ensure that the literature provides the cumulative body of knowledge required for science. Bias can occur if the literature is not complete and accurate. Predatory publishers may be less likely to retract flawed studies, because they are focused on profit and not scientific rigor. Triangulation is a process of comparing results from different studies of the same phenomenon; it would be compromised if a flawed study needing retraction was included in the process.

Which principle of research says that researchers should not engage in any practices that risk the well-being of participants?

(A) Avoid harm (B) Informed consent (C) Voluntary participation (D) Confidentiality Answer:

(A)

Avoid harm

Feedback: Ethical research is based on minimizing harm to participants. In addition, regardless of any risk, participants must be informed and able to participate voluntarily, but these reflect different principles.

In order for research to be ethical, participants must be __________ of the potential risks and benefits of the study and their rights as a participant.

(A) Debriefed (B) Deceived (C) Informed (D) Compelled Answer:

(C)

Informed

Feedback: Informed consent is an important principle of research, in which individuals are told what the study involves and given the opportunity to agree to those procedures. Debriefing provides information after the study and does not therefore constitute consent; deception can sometimes be used in research, but the core rights of the participant are not subject to deception.

Excessive rewards for participation in a study may be too strong, thus meaning the study does not meet the ethical standard of _____________.

(A) Avoiding harm (B) Voluntary participation (C) Confidentiality (D) Institutional review Answer:

(B)

Voluntary participation

Feedback: Although all of these are elements of ethical practice in research, only voluntary participation is at risk if incentives are too large. It may be too difficult for the participants to refuse, especially if there are also differences in power, meaning their participation cannot be said to be voluntary.

Which approach to privacy ensures that even the researcher is not aware of the identity of the participant?

(A) Anonymity (B) Confidentiality (C) Confederates (D) Debriefing Answer:

(A)

Anonymity

Feedback: Confidentiality is also a means to ensure privacy but involves the researcher hiding the identity of participants from others; only anonymity ensures that even the researcher does not know identifying information about participants.

The use of __________ is one common reason for needing to have a debriefing period after a study.

(A) Anonymity (B) Confidentiality (C) Plagiarism (D) Deception Answer:

(D)

Deception

Feedback: Because deception means that some details about the study were not provided during the initial consent period, researchers must describe those elements and give participants a chance to opt out of the study. Steps to ensure privacy, such as confidentiality or anonymity, should be clearly established from the start of the study. Plagiarism is never acceptable in any aspect of research design or reporting.

A person who works with the researcher and is told to act in a particular way as part of a study, while posing as a participant, is known as a __________.

(A) Confidential (B) Confederate (C) Informer (D) Plagiarist Answer:

(B)

Confederate

Feedback: Neither confidential nor informer are terms used to describe individuals who play any role in research, and a plagiarist would not be involved in ethical research.

In addition to plagiarism, another form of dishonesty in research involves what unethical practice?

(A) Debriefing (B) Anonymity (C) Fabricating data (D) Informed consent Answer:

(C)

Fabricating data

Feedback: Fabricating or falsifying data is a major breach of research ethics that can undermine the entire scientific process. The other ideas are all elements of a study that can help increase its ethical integrity, depending upon the details of the design.

What organization is responsible for ensuring that researchers adhere to ethical practices at universities in the United States?

(A) Institutional Review Board (B) Informed Consent Board (C) Harm Mitigation Board (D) Privacy Protection Board Answer:

(A)

Institutional Review Board

Feedback: In order to be eligible for federal funding, universities and similar organizations must ensure they have an Institutional Review Board that assesses research proposals prior to data collection and monitors for any violations of ethical treatment of participants.

The explication process involves moving from __________ to _________ definitions of concepts.

(A) Abstract, concrete (B) Concrete, abstract (C) Qualitative, quantitative (D) Quantitative, qualitative Answer:

(A)

Abstract, concrete

Feedback: Explication is the process of taking general, abstract ideas and making them specific and concrete enough to measure. That measurement can be quantitative or qualitative.

The ___________ definition is the most concrete description of a concept, used to identify specific indicators for measurement or observation.

(A) Conceptual (B) Operational (C) Factor (D) Dimensional Answer:

(B)

Operational

Feedback: The conceptual definition is the most abstract and least suited to measurement. As part of explicating such a definition, you may identify relevant parts of the concept, sometimes called dimensions or factors.

What term describes a component of a larger concept that itself must be further explicated and measured as a variable?

(A) Attribute

(B) (C) (D)

Indicator Concept Dimension

Answer:

(D)

Dimension

Feedback: Dimensions represent still-abstract aspects of a larger concept that needs to be divided before it can be treated as a variable. Indicators are the specific, concrete characteristics measured to see what value of variables individuals have, and attributes are the specific values for a given individual. Both are more concrete and come at the end of the explication process.

A statistical process called ________ analysis can help identify the presence of multiple dimensions after data are collected.

(A) Conceptual (B) Attribute (C) Factor (D) Nominal Answer:

(C)

Factor

Feedback: Factor analysis is a way to identify underlying patterns in data that show specific indicators are more similar to one another and less similar to other sets of indicators. None of the other terms refer to any type of statistical analysis.

In concept explication, the ultimate goal is to identify specific, concrete ________ that can be measured and used to determine the value of a variable for each individual.

(A) Dimensions (B) Indicators (C) Intervals (D) Operations Answer:

(B)

Indicators

Feedback: Although identifying dimensions is often a first step in concept explication, and the operational definition is the more concrete definition, the ultimate focus is on identifying a series of specific questions or observations that combined will indicate the value of a variable for each person. Intervals refers to a different idea related to the level of measurement.

What is the term that describes a single variable formed by combining the responses of an individual to multiple items?

(A) Construct (B) Criterion (C) Index

(D)

Item-total

Answer:

(C)

Index

Feedback: Construct and criterion are aspects of validity, and a good index would meet those standards. Item-total is a way of measuring reliability that is relevant to evaluating indexes.

What kind of error varies between individuals in ways that cannot be predicted, even if the amount and distribution of error across a sample can be statistically described?

(A) Systematic (B) Random (C) Measurement (D) Conceptual Answer:

(B)

Random

Feedback: Random error, as the name suggests, is random, at least at the level of the individual unit of observation. A pattern can emerge when looking at a large number of individuals, but researchers cannot predict the error for any given individual. Systematic error shows a pattern of bias that can potentially be predicted. Measurement error can take both random and systematic forms. Conceptual error is not a term used in this book, but concepts involve how we define key ideas in research, so errors in this process could produce errors in measurement of those concepts.

The list of individuals selected to take part in a study is called the _________.

(A) Population (B) Sample (C) Response (D) Strata Answer:

(B)

Sample

Feedback: The sample is chosen with the hope of effectively representing the larger population, which is the entirely of individuals about whom researchers hope to draw conclusions. If the response rate for the sample is low, it can hurt representativeness, but that is just one factor in determining the final sample. A strata is a specific level or grouping from which a portion of a larger stratified sample would be drawn.

Which type of nonprobability sampling involves recruiting individuals actively and direction at a specific location or locations?

(A) Convenience (B) Quota (C) Snowball (D) Volunteer

Answer:

(A)

Convenience

Feedback: Convenience samples involve the researcher choosing and trying to recruit individuals, but with no mechanism to ensure random selection. Quota samples recruit specific numbers of individuals based upon characteristics, snowball samples recruit people recommended by prior participants, and volunteer samples simply spread information about the study without targeting individual participants directly.

Which type of nonprobability sampling involves recruiting specific numbers of individuals with particular, predetermined characteristics?

(A) Convenience (B) Quota (C) Snowball (D) Volunteer Answer:

(B)

Quota

Feedback: Convenience samples involve the researcher choosing and trying to recruit individuals, but with no mechanism to ensure random selection. Quota samples recruit specific numbers of individuals based upon characteristics, snowball samples recruit people recommended by prior participants, and volunteer samples simply spread information about the study without targeting individual participants directly.

Which type of nonprobability sample involves obtaining the identities of additional potential participants from those who have already taken part?

(A) Convenience (B) Quota (C) Snowball (D) Volunteer Answer:

(C)

Snowball

Feedback: Convenience samples involve the researcher choosing and trying to recruit individuals, but with no mechanism to ensure random selection. Quota samples recruit specific numbers of individuals based upon characteristics, snowball samples recruit people recommended by prior participants, and volunteer samples simply spread information about the study without targeting individual participants directly.

Which type of nonprobability sample involves posting a recruitment message, such as in an online forum, and accepting anyone who sees the message and chooses to take part?

(A) Convenience (B) Quota (C) Snowball (D) Volunteer

Answer:

(D)

Volunteer

Feedback: Convenience samples involve the researcher choosing and trying to recruit individuals, but with no mechanism to ensure random selection. Quota samples recruit specific numbers of individuals based upon characteristics, snowball samples recruit people recommended by prior participants, and volunteer samples simply spread information about the study without targeting individual participants directly.

For selection to be truly random, each participant must have an ________ chance of being selected, and selection of any given individual must be __________ of all other individuals.

(A) Independent, equal (B) Equal, independent (C) Equal, original (D) Original, equal Answer:

(B)

Equal, independent

Feedback: Not only must every participant be equally likely to be chosen, but the fact that any given participant has been chosen should not determine whether another participant is also more likely to be picked. Originality is not a factor considered in random selection.

Which kind of probability sampling involves first selecting random groupings of individuals, then selecting individuals from those groups?

(A) Simple (B) Cluster (C) Stratefied (D) Systematic Answer:

(B)

Cluster

Feedback: The groups selected first are known as clusters. This type of probability sampling can make it easier to identify individuals in a very large population, especially if a sampling frame is not available. Simple random samples choose from one overall sampling frame.

Stratified samples divide individuals into groups but choose from all those groups. Systematic samples can be simple random samples but follow a pattern to select individuals from the sampling frame.

What kind of probability sampling involves identifying types of individuals relevant to the study, then selecting at random a set number of individuals from within each identified category?

(A) Simple (B) Cluster (C) Stratified

(D)

Systematic

Answer:

(C)

Stratified

Feedback: Cluster samples also group individuals, but some clusters are chosen at random from all those groupings. Simple random samples choose from one overall sampling frame.

Systematic samples can be simple random samples but follow a pattern to select individuals from the sampling frame.

The number of participants in a study divided by the number initially chosen for the sample is called the __________ rate.

(A) Incentive (B) Frame (C) Response (D) Cluster Answer:

(C)

Response

Feedback: The basic formula for the response rate simply gives the percentage of those chosen who take part. The list of individuals who might be sampled in the first place is the sampling frame. If such a frame is not available clusters may be chosen first. Incentives can help increase the response rate.

A complete list of individuals in the population eligible to be included in the sample is called the sampling _________.

(A) Incentive (B) Frame (C) Cluster (D) Rate Answer:

(B)

Frame

Feedback: When a complete list, or sampling frame, exists, it is relatively straightforward to draw a simple random sample. Cluster sampling is a more complex form of random sampling.

The response rate refers to the portion of selected individuals who participate, and providing incentives can increase that.

One way to increase the number of responses is by providing an _________ such as payment or entry in a drawing.

(A) Incentive (B) Interval (C) Inventory (D) Inception

Answer:

(A)

Incentive

Feedback: Incentives can increase response rates, but risk coercing participants or drawing responses from people who don't take the study seriously. Although the term interval refers to both confidence intervals and sampling intervals, neither meaning is linked to providing rewards for participation. The other two terms are not used in the context of sampling.

The goal of a representative sample is to provide valid estimates for a larger _________.

(A) Interval (B) Level (C) Population (D) Strata Answer:

(C)

Population

Feedback: Sampling involves selecting a group of people who can accurately represent a larger population. Determining confidence intervals and levels are part of estimation, but they are just aspects of the estimate. When populations are divided into strata, the overall sample is still meant to reflect the larger population.

When a study considers all individuals in a population, instead of just a portion of those individuals, it is called what?

(A) Census (B) Sample (C) Quota (D) Cluster Answer:

(A)

Census

Feedback: Just as the U.S. Census attempts to contact all individuals in the country, a census tries to contact everyone in a population. Samples by contrast collect data from a subset of individuals. Quotas set a number of individuals with certain characteristics but still draw a sample from the larger whole. A cluster is a unit within the population, and only some clusters are chosen.

When selecting a systematic random sample, the sampling _______ is equal to the total number of people in the population divided by the number to be sampled.

(A) Interval (B) Cluster (C) Error (D) Distribution

Answer:

(A)

Interval

Feedback: If a sampling frame is available, a researcher can produce a random sample by choosing every Nth participant, where N is computed as described in the question. Clusters are groupings of individuals chosen at random, which may not be equal in size or "spacing."

Sampling error and sampling distribution are both concepts linked to estimation.

If a flaw in a study creates bias in a measure, what type of error would this introduce?

(B) (C) (D)

(A) Random Systematic Test-retest Item-total

Answer:

(B)

Systematic

Feedback: Systematic errors consistently lead to values that deviate in a predicatable way from the true values. Such deviation is known as bias. Random errors have no such consistent, one-directional deviation. Test-retest and item-total are both ways of evaluating reliability, which focuses on random rather than systematic errors.

Internet surveys are becoming increasingly popular, in part due to the creation of Internet _______, lists of people who have shared demogaphic data and expressed willingness to participate in survey research.

(A) Cohorts (B) Panels (C) Rapports (D) Polls Answer:

(B)

Panels

Feedback: Access to such panels can often be purchased from companies that also help with the development and administration of online surveys. Cohort studies are a type of longitudinal design where people in a particular age group are tracked over time. Rapport is a connection to interview participants. "Polls" can refer to any type of survey, not just those online.

What is the term used to describe a question that asks individuals how much they agree or disagree with statements?

(A) Likert-type (B) Semantic differential (C) Double-barreled (D) Response set Answer:

(A)

Likert-type

Feedback: Sematic differential scales are similar, but anchor the responses with terms having opposing meanings, rather than indicators of agreement. Double-barreled questions can have a variety of closed-ended response formats, but reflect a type of flawed questions. Response sets occur when a number of similarly formatted questions are presented; a long block of Likert-type items can trigger this response, but the term does not refer to a specific question type.

A question that asks about two or more distinct ideas but requires a single response that may or may not reflect individual feelings about all those ideas is called a(n) ________ question.

(A) Unclear (B) Double-barreled (C) Likert-type (D) Leading Answer:

(B)

Double-barreled

Feedback: Leading and unclear questions both create error due to people giving incorrect responses. Double-barreled questions can force people to choose which part of the question they answer, making it impossible for researchers to accurately interpret the results. Likert-type questions use a common agree-disagree format.

A question that is worded to make a specific answer seem more desirable or appropriate is called a __________ question.

(A) Leading (B) Unclear (C) Double-barreled (D) Likert-type Answer:

(A)

Leading

Feedback: Questions that lead people toward a certain response, even if unintentionally, are flawed. Unclear questions are confusing and can create random error, but don't create the same systematic bias. Double-barreled questions require a single response but ask about multiple ideas, and are also flawed. Likert-type questions use a common agree-disagree format.

The inclusion of "other" as a response can help ensure that all possible responses are included in a closed-ended question, a requirement that is called what?

(A) Mutually exclusive (B) Exhaustive (C) Contingent (D) Double-barreled Answer:

(B)

Exhaustive

Feedback: Answers should exhaust all possibilities; to keep the list of possible replies reasonable, including an "other" category is common. Response options must also be mutually exclusive, such that only one logical response can be given. Questions can be contingent, but this term doesn't describe a feature of specific answers, and double-barreled questions are flawed.

One requirement for closed-ended questions is that the response options are __________, meaning that each individually can logically choose only one response.

(A) Mutually exclusive (B) Exhaustive (C) Contingent (D) Double-barreled Answer:

(A)

Mutually exclusive

Feedback: Each answer must exclude the other possible answers. Answers should also be exhaustive, such that all possible responses are covered. Questions can be contingent, but this term doesn't describe a feature of specific answers, and double-barreled questions are flawed and can make it impossible for the answers to truly be mutually exclusive.

A question that does not provide response options for participants is known as a(n) _________ ended question.

(A) Closed (B) Open (C) Exhaustive (D) Contingency Answer:

(B)

Open

Feedback: Open ended questions let respondents answer however they wish, while closedended questions give a potential set of replies, meant to be exhaustive. Contingency questions are asked of those who answer filter questions a specific way and can be open- or closed-ended.

The tendency of individuals to fall into a pattern of giving similar answers to a series of questions with matching formats, even when those answers don't reflect their true opinions, is known as what?

(A) Exhaustive (B) Leading (C) Response set (D) Contingency Answer:

(C)

Response set

Feedback: The other terms refer to aspects of specific questions, while a response set is the tendency to respond to a set of questions in a specific way, especially if those questions all look the same and the respondent is growing tired or confused.

What term is used for a question that is given to all participants as a way to determine which individuals should answer specific subsequent questions?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Filter Mutually exclusive Leading Double-barreled

Answer:

(A)

Filter

Feedback: Filter questions filter out those individuals for whom subsequent questions are not applicable. All closed-ended questions should provide mutually exclusive response options, and both leading and double-barreled questions are flawed and should be avoided.

A _________ question is only presented if an individual gives a specific answer to a filter question.

(A) Leading (B) Likert (C) Contingency (D) Closed-ended Answer:

(C)

Contingency

Feedback: Such a question is contingent upon the answer given to the filter question.

Leading questions should be avoided. Likert-type questions are potentially valid as either filter or contingency questions, but not limited to either. Closed-ended questions can also be used as either filter or contingency questions, among other types.

What form of measurement is the only one that can directly assess individuals' attitudes?

(A) Direct observation (B) Indirect observation (C) Others' reports (D) Self-report Answer:

(D)

Self-report

Feedback: Although observations and reports from others may provide hints at individual attitudes if they influenced behaviors, only asking people about their own feelings and beliefs can offer a clear measure of those attitudes.

What is the term used to describe a question that presents people with a numerical scale anchored by two terms having opposite meanings?

(A) Likert-type (B) Semantic differential (C) Double-barreled (D) Response set Answer:

(B)

Semantic differential

Feedback: Likert-type scales are similar, but anchor the responses with indicators of agreement. Double-barreled questions can have a variety of closed-ended response formats, but reflect a type of flawed questions. Response sets occur when a number of similarly formatted questions are presented; a long block of semantic differential items can trigger this response, but the term does not refer to a specific question type.

The tendency of individuals to answer questions in a way that matches mainstream attitudes and behaviors is known as __________.

(A) Random error (B) Face validity (C) Split halves (D) Social desirability Answer:

(D)

Social desirability

Feedback: This term reflects the fact that many people desire to be seen in a socially acceptable way, and that an interview or even questionnaire is still a form of social interaction and not merely a window into people's true feelings. Social desirability influences systematic, not random, error, and stems from the way people answer questions, not whether those questions on face measure the intended concept. Split halves is a way of testing reliability, which relates to random error.

Which level of measurement is defined as being mutually exclusive and exhaustive, but not having a logical order to the possible values?

(A) Nominal (B) Ordinal (C) Interval (D) Ratio Answer:

(A)

Nominal

Feedback: Nominal-level variables meet the basic standards for a variable, but do not have a logical order, numerically meaningful values that show precisely how different two answers are, or a scale that includes a true zero.

Which level of measurement is defined as having a logical way to sort values from lowest to highest, but is not measured in such a way that the difference (or spacing) in between two numbers is meaningful?

(A) Nominal (B) Ordinal (C) Interval (D) Ratio Answer:

(B)

Ordinal

Feedback: Ordinal-level variables meet the basic standards for a variable, and have a logical order, but lack numerically meaningful values that show precisely how different two answers are, or a scale that includes a true zero.

Which level of measurement is defined as having a meaningful difference between values, such that addition and subtraction are valid operations, but lacks a true zero?

(A) Nominal (B) Ordinal (C) Interval (D) Ratio Answer:

(C)

Interval

Feedback: Interval-level variables meet the basic standards for a variable, have a logical order, and include numerically meaningful values that show precisely how different two answers are, but lack a scale that includes a true zero.

Which level of measurement uses a quantitative scale for which addition, subtraction, multiplication and division are all meaningful, thanks to the inclusion of a true zero on that scale?

(A) Nominal (B) Ordinal (C) Interval (D) Ratio Answer:

(D)

Ratio

Feedback: Ratio-level measures include all the features of other levels of measurement, and add a true zero. As such, the numbers in a ratio-level measure can be treated just like normal digits in arithmetic.

Interviewers take steps to increase ______, or feelings of connection and trust between the interviewer and participant, to increase data quality.

(A) Face-to-face (B) Cohort (C) Rapport (D) Tracking Answer:

(C)

Rapport

Feedback: Rapport helps increase both response rates and the quality of responses. Cohort studies are a type of longitudinal design where people in a particular age group are tracked over time. Tracking polls contact a series of new, small samples. Face-to-face surveys are a great way to create rapport, but the concept applies to any form of interview.

__________ validity evaluates whether the relationships found within a study accurately reflect the actual connections in that study, while _________ validity evaluates whether those results hold for a larger population.

(A) External, internal (B) Internal, external (C) Random, systematic (D) Systematic, random Answer:

(B)

Internal, external

Feedback: Random and systematic errors apply to all aspects of measurement, with systematic errors more directly linked to validity of all types.

Which type of validity considers whether a measure matches other valid approaches to the measure?

(A) Construct (B) Content (C) Criterion (D) Cronbach's Answer:

(C)

Criterion

Feedback: Construct validity evaluates the relationship of the variable to other variables, while content validity evaluates whether the measure captures the conceptual meaning of the variable. Cronbach's alpha is a test of reliability.

Which type of validity considers whether a measure includes items that reflect the definition of a variable and only that variable?

(A) Construct (B) Content (C) Criterion (D) Cronbach's Answer:

(B)

Content

Feedback: Construct validity evaluates the relationship of the variable to other variables, while criterion validity reflects whether the measure matches other approaches to the same variable. Cronbach's alpha is a test of reliability.

Which type of validity considers whether a measure is logically related to and distinct from measures of other variables?

(A) Construct (B) Content (C) Criterion (D) Cronbach's Answer:

(A)

Construct

Feedback: Content validity evaluates whether the measure captures the conceptual meaning of the variable, while criterion validity reflects whether the measure matches other approaches to the same variable. Cronbach's alpha is a test of reliability.

If a measure accurately represents the true value of a variable, it is said to be _________.

(A) Reliable (B) Consistent (C) Valid (D) Desirable Answer:

(C)

Valid

Feedback: Although reliability is a requirement for a measure to be valid, it does not ensure validity. Consistency is linked to reliability. Social desirability can actually reduce the validity of a measure.

Using a pre-test in an experiment is likely to increase the risk of _______, whereby individuals may more attention to stimuli or otherwise become more "test savvy."

(A) Maturation

(B) (C) (D)

Regression Sensitization Bias

Answer:

(C)

Sensitization

Feedback: Regression toward the mean is the tendency of individuals with extreme scores on one measure to move back toward the center of the scale on subsequent measures. Maturation is linked to the internal development of study participants for reasons not linked to the study, and bias occurs when individuals in the study exert an unintended influence on participants in a specific direction.

Individuals who initially score at the far end of a scale will tend to score more toward the middle of that scale on a later test, a phenomenon known as what?

(A) Maturation (B) Regression (C) Sensitization (D) Bias Answer:

(B)

Regression

Feedback: Regression toward the mean can explain why individuals selected for their unusually high or low scores will change, regardless of the tested manipulation. Maturation is linked to the internal development of study participants for reasons not linked to the study.

Sensitization occurs when pre-testing makes people more attentive to subsequent stimuli or questions, and bias occurs when individuals in the study exert an unintended influence on participants in a specific direction.

When individuals depart from a study prior to completion, this flaw in validity is called what?

(A) Hawthorne (B) History (C) Maturation (D) Mortality Answer:

(D)

Mortality

Feedback: The Hawthorne, or observer, effect, is due to the specific ways that people respond to being observed, while history reflects influences that were not a part of the study.

Maturation is linked to the internal development of study participants for reasons not linked to the study. Mortality involves the loss of participants.

When individuals change over the course of a study simply due to personal development or growth, and not to any component of the study design, this flaw in validity is called what?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Hawthorne History Maturation Mortality

Answer:

(C)

Maturation

Feedback: The Hawthorne, or observer, effect, is due to the specific ways that people respond to being observed, while history reflects influences that were not a part of the study.

Mortality involves the loss of participants.

When external events or circumstances alter the findings of a study despite researchers not considering such an influence, this flaw in validity is called what?

(A) Hawthorne (B) History (C) Maturation (D) Mortality Answer:

(B)

History

Feedback: The Hawthorne, or observer, effect, is due to the specific ways that people respond to being observed, while history influences are not a part of the study procedure at all.

Maturation is linked to the internal development of study participants for reasons not linked to the study. Mortality involves the loss of participants.

The tendency of people to change their behavior when observed is sometimes referred to as the ________ effect.

(A) Hawthorne (B) History (C) Maturation (D) Mortality Answer:

(A)

Hawthorne

Feedback: The effect, sometimes called an observer effect, is named after the location of a study where it occurred. History involves other external factors influencing results. Maturation is linked to the internal development of study participants for reasons not linked to the study.

Mortality involves the loss of participants.

A study of interpersonal relationships might find that people with very few friends at the start of the school year almost never end the year with fewer friends. One reason for this would be that the number of friends score cannot easily go lower, a phenomenon known as a _______ effect.

(A) Pre-test

(B) (C) (D)

Post-test Ceiling Floor

Answer:

(D)

Floor

Feedback: As described, this study includes both pre-test and post-test measures, and those terms do not reflect the effect in question. A ceiling effect occurs when there is almost no room on the scale for values to increase, such as a student who earns a 100 on the first exam of the semester. Floor effects are the opposite, where scores cannot easily go lower.

A true experiment requires that individuals be placed in conditions using _________ assignment.

(A) Random (B) Matched (C) Paired (D) Controlled Answer:

(A)

Random

Feedback: Random assignment, in which all individuals have an equal chance of being in any given condition, best ensures equivalence of conditions. While matching or pairing individuals can ensure equivalence for matched characteristics, it will not address other qualities.

Control conditions are sometimes used in studies; assignment to them should also be random.

In a study where measures of the dependent variable are administered before exposure to the treatment is said to include a _________.

(A) Post-test (B) Control test (C) Pre-test (D) Sensitization test Answer:

(C)

Pre-test

Feedback: Pre-tests come prior to the treatment, while post-tests come after exposure. Posttests are always required; pre-test can be useful in assessing change, but can also sensitize people to the goals of the study. The use of control groups is another way to establish a baseline for comparison.

A group of participants who receive no level of the stimulus is known as a ________ group.

(A) Control (B) Blind (C) Solomon's (D) Matched

Answer:

(A)

Control

Feedback: A control group establishes the baseline level of key variables for people who are similar to those exposed to treatments. Assignment to a control condition may or may not be blind. In a Solomon's four-group design, a control condition may be included. If assignment includes matching, this should reflect the control group as well.

One way to reduce the risk of bias in experimental results is a ________ design, in which neither the participants nor the researchers know the condition to which individuals were assigned.

(A) Control (B) Factorial (C) Double-blind (D) Within-subjects Answer:

(C)

Double-blind

Feedback: Control conditions could be used in a double-blind study; for example, if a patient gets a placebo, neither the researcher nor the patient would know this. The term factorial design is typically used where there are multiple independent variables, to clarify which value of each factor was assigned to each person; such a study could still be double-blind. A within-subjects design, where participants are exposed to multiple conditions, could be blinded. But none necessarily describes such a study.

The external validity of an experiment can be increased when research takes place outside the lab in a more natural environment, a setting often referred to as a ________ experiment.

(A) Quasi (B) Field (C) Control (D) Solomon's Answer:

(B)

Field

Feedback: A field experiment takes place "out in the field" —that is, in the setting where exposure to the stimulus would normally occur. Such experiments can be true experiments, though sometimes they are quasi experiments without random assignment. Control groups may or may not be used, as may the combination of pre-test and post-test-only conditions found in a Solomon's four-group design.

When researchers are unable to use random assignment but instead take advantage of some other division of individuals into different condition, this is known as a _______ experimental design.

(A) Between (B) Within

(C) (D)

Quasi Matched

Answer:

(C)

Quasi

Feedback: Quasi experiments are analyzed like an experiment, comparing results between conditions. However, because assignment is not random, researchers do not have the same confidence about whether the results show a causal relationship; thus, this is only "like" an experiment. Between- and within-subjects designs refer to how many versions of the treatment participants received, while matching may or may not be a part of random assignment.

An experimental design in which individuals are exposed to multiple combinations of relevant factors, with the order determined randomly, is a ________ subjects design.

(A) Between (B) Within (C) Quasi (D) Matched Answer:

(B)

Within

Feedback: In a within-subjects design, the same person is exposed to multiple stimuli, and the scores are compared within the values for that individual. The comparisons of the results for a between-subjects design are made between the scores for different individuals. A quasiexperimental design could follow either form, but assignment would not be random. Matched assignment can be used for either design.

An experimental design in which each individual is exposed to just one combination of all relevant factors is a _________ subjects design.

(A) Between (B) Within (C) Quasi (D) Matched Answer:

(A)

Between

Feedback: The comparisons of the results for a between-subjects design are made between the scores for different individuals. In a within-subjects design, the same person is exposed to multiple stimuli, and the scores are compared within the values for that individual. A quasiexperimental design could follow either form, but assignment would not be random. Matched assignment can be used for either design.

Which form of survey typically has the highest response rate?

(A) Face-to-face (B) Telephone

(C) Cell-phone only (D) Mail Answer: (A) Face-to-face Feedback: Because of the potential for greater rapport and the social difficulty of refusing a physically present interviewer, face-to-face surveys tend to have the highest response rates, followed by telephone surveys and then finally mail surveys. One further challenge to building a valid telephone sample is the large number of households that only use cell phones.

Which form of survey typically has the lowest response rate?

(A) Face-to-face (B) Telephone (C) Cell-phone only (D) Mail Answer:

(D)

Mail

Feedback: Because they are often mistaken for junk mail, can be easily ignored, and forge no strong connection with potential participants, mail surveys typically have low response rates.

Telephone surveys are generally better, and face-to-face surveys better still. One further challenge to building a valid telephone sample is the large number of households that only use cell phones.

Which type of longitudinal study involves selecting separate samples from the general population at multiple points in time?

(A) Cohort (B) Trend (C) Panel (D) Cross-sectional Answer:

(B)

Trend

Feedback: A cross-sectional study is a single sample drawn at one point in time. A cohort study draws new samples at multiple points in time, but focuses on individuals in an age group or other identifiable grouping over time. A panel study collects data from a single sample at multiple points in time.

Which type of longitudinal study involves selecting separate samples from individuals in a specific group within a population, such as a generation, at multiple points in time.

(A) Cohort (B) Trend (C) Panel

(D)

Cross-sectional

Answer:

(A)

Cohort

Feedback: A cross-sectional study is a single sample drawn at one point in time. A trend study draws multiple samples, but considers the general population and doesn't track a specific group. A panel study collects data from a single sample at multiple points in time.

Which type of longitudinal study involves selecting a single sample, then contacting those individuals at multiple points in time?

(A) Cohort (B) Trend (C) Panel (D) Cross-sectional Answer:

(C)

Panel

Feedback: A cross-sectional study is a single sample drawn at one point in time. A cohort study draws new samples at multiple points in time, but focuses on individuals in an age group or other identifiable grouping over time. A trend study draws multiple samples, but considers the general population and doesn't track a specific group.

Which form of observation is least likely to influence the behavior of those being observed?

(A) Direct (B) Indirect (C) Participant (D) Self-report Answer:

(B)

Indirect

Feedback: Indirect measurement collects data from artifacts left behind by the individual being observed. As such, this approach is non-obtrusive and should not influence the subject of the observation, whereas direct observation or self-report data are potentially obtrusive and can lead to dishonest answers or changed behavior.

_______________ interviews provide a unique experience for each interview participant.

(A) Fully structured (B) Semi-structured (C) Unstructured (D) Focus group Answer:

(C)

Unstructured

Feedback: Fully structured interviews emphasize the consistency of the experience from one participant to the next; semi-structured interviews allow for some uniqueness to the experience while providing some consistency; unstructured interviews allow for maximum flexibility of questions asked and question order; focus groups are an interview approach including multiple participants.

_________________ is an approach that involves a detailed understanding of the units of analysis under study and that considers the influence of community and culture.

(A) Ethnography (B) Exiting (C) Field notes (D) Natural settings Answer:

(A)

Ethnography

Feedback: Ethnography is a method that considers the influence of culture and community and must be conducted in the field; exiting is the researcher's approach to leaving the field; field notes are essential to accuracy in research observations; natural settings constitute the unit's home environment.

The ______________ point is the cue to the researcher to leave the field of study and begin analyzing data.

(A) Ethnography (B) Exiting (C) Field notes (D) Saturation Answer:

(D)

Saturation

Feedback: Ethnography is a method that considers the influence of culture and community and must be conducted in the field; exiting is the researcher's approach to leaving the field; field notes are essential to accuracy in research observations; saturation is the point at which the researcher sees repetition in observations.

Researchers should be careful when in the process of _________ because it can impact their ability to follow-up with participants if further information is needed.

(A) Ethnography (B) Exiting (C) Field notes (D) Natural settings Answer:

(B)

Exiting

Feedback: Ethnography is a method that considers the influence of culture and community and must be conducted in the field; exiting is the researcher's approach to leaving the field; field notes are essential to accuracy in research observations; natural settings constitute the unit's home environment.

Which method is common in market research and advertising and allows researchers to study multiple units of analysis at one time, often getting detailed responses from each?

(A) Case study (B) Field research (C) Focus group (D) Depth interview Answer:

(C)

Focus group

Feedback: Case studies use multiple methods to study one or two "cases" in depth; field research occurs in the unit's natural environment; focus groups are an interview approach including multiple participants; depth interviews study one participant at a time.

Which method involves studying units of analysis in their own environment?

(A) Case study (B) Field research (C) Focus group (D) Depth interview Answer:

(B)

Field research

Feedback: Case studies use multiple methods to study one or two "cases" in depth; field research occurs in the unit's natural environment; focus groups are an interview approach including multiple participants; depth interviews study one participant at a time.

Which method involves a detailed and multi-method approach to studying one unit of analysis?

(A) Case study (B) Field research (C) Focus group (D) Depth interview Answer:

(A)

Case study

Feedback: Case studies use multiple methods to study one or two "cases" in depth; field research occurs in the unit's natural environment; focus groups are an interview approach including multiple participants; depth interviews study one participant at a time.

Interviewers concerned with reliability of the interview process are likely to employ which type of interview?

(A) Fully structured (B) Semi-structured (C) Unstructured (D) Focus group Answer:

(A)

Fully structured

Feedback: Fully structured interviews emphasize the consistency of the experience from one participant to the next; semi-structured interviews allow for some uniqueness to the experience while providing some consistency; unstructured interviews allow for maximum flexibility of questions asked and question order; focus groups are an interview approach including multiple participants.

_______________ interviews are useful when researchers have certain questions they absolutely must ask but also want to allow for flexibility to cover new topics as they arise.

(A) Fully structured (B) Semi-structured (C) Unstructured (D) Focus group Answer:

(B)

Semi-structured

Feedback: Fully structured interviews emphasize the consistency of the experience from one participant to the next; semi-structured interviews allow for some uniqueness to the experience while providing some consistency; unstructured interviews allow for maximum flexibility of questions asked and question order; focus groups are an interview approach including multiple participants.

What is the term for the records researchers use to keep track of details they have observed while conducting field research?

(A) Ethnography (B) Exiting (C) Field notes (D) Natural settings Answer:

(C)

Field notes

Feedback: Ethnography is a method that considers the influence of culture and community and must be conducted in the field; exiting is the researcher's approach to leaving the field; field notes are essential to accuracy in research observations; natural settings constitute the unit's home environment.

Which approach to observation ensures that the researcher best ensures that researchers don’t influence the phenomenon being observed but also most limits their ability to understand what the experience is like?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Complete observer Complete participant Observer-as-Participant Participant-as-Observer

Answer:

(A)

Complete observer

Feedback: Participant observation can be understood as running along a spectrum, from the complete observer who makes sure to avoid any kind of participation, to the complete participant who takes active part in everything being observed, acting as any other participant.

What term is used to describe the process of trained researchers systematically recording observed patterns as part of the content analysis process?

(A) Artifacts (B) Coding (C) Unitizing (D) Manifest Answer:

(B)

Coding

Feedback: Unitizing is the process of dividing content into individual segments that will be coded. This content is often described as a social artifact, or remnant of communication and social interaction. Manifest content is a specific, straightforward form that is relatively simple to code reliably.

Features of content that are relatively straightforward and easy to reliably identify are _______.

(A) Social

(B) (C) (D)

Unitized Latent Manifest

Answer:

(D)

Manifest

Feedback: Latent content is more "hidden" and difficult to reliably identify. All social artifacts must be unitized, or divided into segments, before they can be coded.

Features of content that are more subtle and difficult to reliably identify are ________.

(A) Social (B) Unitized (C) Latent (D) Manifest Answer:

(C)

Latent

Feedback: Manifest content is more straightforward and easy to reliably identify. All social artifacts must be unitized, or divided into segments, before they can be coded.

A growing technique in research involves ___________ content analysis, using automated processing of texts based upon machine learning and standardized vocabulary lists.

(A) Big-data (B) Distributed-worker (C) Computer-aided (D) Semi-structured Answer:

(C)

Computer-aided

Feedback: As techniques to program computers improve, researchers can increasingly program computers to automatically process large numbers of texts, using previously developed or custom-created dictionaries and other guidelines to categorize content.

A researcher interested in considering how a topic has changed over time and the influence of cultural and societal shifts over time would most likely consider which approach?

(A) Rhetorical analysis (B) Conversation analysis (C) Historical analysis (D) Grounded theory Answer:

(C)

Historical analysis

Feedback: Rhetorical analysis often takes a particular perspective when analyzing whether and how a social artifact works; conversation analysis is focused on a careful reading of a detailed transcript to consider how spoken inactions function; historical analysis considers how topics have changed over time; grounded theory uses inductive reasoning and the constant comparative approach.

Which approach analyzes discussions between people to identify patterns in the data?

(A) Rhetorical analysis (B) Conversation analysis (C) Historical analysis (D) Grounded theory Answer:

(B)

Conversation analysis

Feedback: Rhetorical analysis often takes a particular perspective when analyzing whether and how a social artifact works; conversation analysis is focused on a careful reading of a detailed transcript to consider how spoken inactions function; historical analysis considers how topics have changed over time; grounded theory uses inductive reasoning and the constant comparative approach.

Which approach is concerned with whether the different pieces of a social artifact are effective ways to achieve some goal?

(A) Rhetorical analysis (B) Conversation analysis (C) Historical analysis (D) Grounded theory Answer:

(A)

Rhetorical analysis

Feedback: Rhetorical analysis often takes a particular perspective when analyzing whether and how a social artifact works; conversation analysis is focused on a careful reading of a detailed transcript to consider how spoken inactions function; historical analysis considers how topics have changed over time; grounded theory uses inductive reasoning and the constant comparative approach.

What term is used for a vivid and concrete illustration of an idea identified in research, such as a specific quotation or interview subject who shows a pattern found among many subjects?

(A) Theme (B) Exemplar (C) Latent (D) Manifest Answer:

(B)

Exemplar

Feedback: Broadly, an exemplar represents a vivid example or illustration of a broader concept. Themes are patterns or general tendencies identified through research, which may be illustrated by exemplars. Latent and manifest are types of content, and both themes and exemplars could be drawn from the content.

Which of the following is a statistic used to test the reliability of an index?

(A) Cronbach's alpha (B) Pearson's r (C) Chi-square (D) F statistic Answer:

(A)

Cronbach's alpha

Feedback:

The other three are all types of inferential statistics used in testing relationships.

A reliable measure is one that produces ________ results.

(A) Accurate (B) Consistent (C) Systematic (D) External Answer:

(B)

Consistent

Feedback: All aspects of reliability focus on consistency. Even if the items are consistently wrong, they can still be reliable, although that lack of accuracy will result in systematic errors and a lack of validity. Comparison to outside, "real-world" indicators is not generally an aspect of reliability, so long as the items are internally consistent.

Which test of reliability involves administering the same test at multiple points in time and comparing the results?

(A) Item-total (B) Parallel-forms (C) Split halves (D) Test-retest Answer:

(D)

Test-retest

Feedback: By comparison, item-total matches a single item to the sum of all other items, parallel-forms involves having two different measures, and split-halves compares the scores from one part of a set of items to the other part.

Which test of reliability involves dividing a set of items into two parts, and comparing the scores from one part to the other?

(A) Item-total (B) Parallel-forms (C) Split halves (D) Test-retest Answer:

(C)

Split halves

Feedback: By comparison, item-total matches a single item to the sum of all other items, parallel-forms involves having two different measures, and test-retest involves using the same measures at multiple points in time.

Which test of reliability involves comparing scores from one proposed measure to those from another measure already shown to be reliable?

(A) Item-total (B) Parallel-forms (C) Split halves (D) Test-retest Answer:

(B)

Parallel-forms

Feedback: By comparison, item-total matches a single item to the sum of all other items, split-halves compares the scores from one part of a set of items to the other part, and test-retest involves using the same measures at multiple points in time.

Which test of reliability involves comparing the score on each single item to the sum of all items being used to form an index?

(A) Item-total (B) Parallel-forms (C) Split halves (D) Test-retest Answer:

(A)

Item-total

Feedback: This form of reliability is computed as part of the process of testing Cronbach's alpha, a measure of index reliability. Parallel-forms involves having two different measures, split-halves compares the scores from one part of a set of items to the other part, and test-retest involves using the same measures at multiple points in time.

Krippendorff's alpha is an example of a statistic used to calculate inter-coder _________, which reflects how consistently individual coders match the scores given by other trained coders.

(A) Reliability

(B) (C) (D)

Validity Latency Unitizing

Answer:

(A)

Reliability

Feedback: Although the process of dividing content into segments, or units, can also affect the consistency of results, the overall test of consistency reflects reliability. A non-reliable procedure won't be valid, but other factors can preclude validity. Latent variables are more difficult to measure reliably, but latency has a different meaning in research.

This approach uses inductive reasoning to develop an understanding of a topic: (A) Rhetorical analysis (B) Textual analysis (C) Historical analysis (D) Grounded theory Answer:

(D)

Grounded theory

Feedback: Rhetorical analysis often takes a particular perspective when analyzing whether and how a social artifact works; textual analysis focuses more on the actual content and is thus often considered the qualitative content analysis; historical analysis considers how topics have changed over time; grounded theory uses inductive reasoning and the constant comparative approach.

What term describes an approach to research that emphasizes the subjective perspective of the individual, especially those who lack traditional power?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Intersubjectivity Intercoder reliability Exemplification Standpoint theory

Answer:

(D)

Standpoint theory

Feedback: Standpoint theory takes its name from the idea of focusing on the standpoint of the particular individual. In contrast, intersubjectivity assumes that individuals can reach a consistent definition that isn’t individually determined, even if it doesn’t make reference to an objective truth. Exemplars are chosen to be representative examples, and considering their standpoint might be helpful, but that isn’t necessary or a point of emphasis in their use.

Intercoder reliability involves the assumption that individuals can read a text in a consistent manner and aims to minimize differences caused by individual perspectives.

According to the principle of ___________, researchers should always be mindful of their personal biases and individual differences, and how they might affect the research process and the conclusions they draw.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Constant comparative technique Reflexivity Grounded theory Latent analysis

Answer:

(B)

Reflexivity

Feedback: Both the constant comparative technique and grounded theory are also potentially important parts of the qualitative research process, but they refer to different ideas than the inward reflection of reflexivity. The constant comparative technique encourages researchers to always consider how their current observations compare to their prior findings, and grounded theory is a process of building theory through these observations and patterns. Latent variables, as analyzed in content analysis, are those that are more difficult to directly measure, but they don’t relate to individual differences.

Just as a parameter describes the overall population, a _______ describes the sample.

(A) Estimate (B) Statistic (C) Tendency (D) Variance Answer:

(B)

Statistic

Feedback: Although measures such as variance and indicators of central tendency such as the mean are used as descriptive statistics, they can also represent population parameters. Estimates are attempts to use the statistical information about a sample to infer the characteristics of the population.

A distribution that has positive _____ is non-symmetrical, with a median that is lower than the mean.

(A) Skew (B) Kurtosis (C) Normality (D) Modality Answer:

(A)

Skew

Feedback: A positively skewed distribution is sometimes said to have a long "tail" to the right side of the distribution. Kurtosis refers to how flat a distribution is. A normal distribution is symmetrical, with no skew. The modality of a distribution reflects how many values it centers around, or the number of "bumps" in the distribution.

A ________distribution is an important requirement for many statistics, has a typical "bell curve" shape and is symmetrical such that the mean and median are equivalent.

(A) Skewed (B) Platykurtic (C) Normal (D) Sampling Answer:

(C)

Normal

Feedback: The sampling distribution describes the distribution of a given statistic across a very large number of samples. It may be normal, but isn't always. Because normal distributions are symmetrical, they are not skewed, and because they have that bell curve shape, they are not "flat" or platykurtic.

A histogram is a way of showing the _________ of a variable—the frequency with which each possible value occurs.

(A) Range (B) Distribution (C) Standard deviation (D) Median Answer:

(B)

Distribution

Feedback: Information about the range—the difference between the high and low scores—is shown in a histogram. The standard deviation also influences the shape of the histogram, and the median can easily be shown. But the overall distribution is the frequency that each possible value occurs.

Which measure of dispersion is the square root of the variance?

(A) Range (B) Variability (C) Standard deviation (D) Quartile Answer:

(C)

Standard deviation

Feedback: The range reflects the difference between the highest and lowest values for a given variable. The standard deviation and variance both reflect the average difference between

each individual value and the mean, but the standard deviation is useful because finding the square root places it on the same scale as the original variable. Quartiles divide scores into four equal groups. Variability is not a term for a specific measure of dispersion.

Which measure of dispersion reflects the difference between the highest and lowest values for a given variable?

(A) Range (B) Variance (C) Standard deviation (D) Quartile Answer:

(A)

Range

Feedback: The variance and standard deviation are both based on the average difference between individual scores and the mean, while the range simply focuses on the most extreme values. Quartiles divide scores into four equal groups.

What term is used to describe the set of statistics that reflect the "spread" of scores for a given variable?

(A) Central tendency (B) Dispersion (C) Modality (D) Descriptive Answer:

(B)

Dispersion

Feedback: Measures of dispersion are important to put the mean or similar statistics that measure central tendency in context. Modality reflects another aspect of the distribution, showing whether there is one or more than one value around which the scores cluster. Dispersion is just one of many aspects of a sample that are addressed using descriptive statistics.

Which measure of central tendency simply reflects the most common value in the data?

(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Variance Answer:

(C)

Mode

Feedback: The mean and median both take into account the order of values, but the mode focuses on the most frequent value regardless of where it falls relative to other values. Thus, the mode can be used with a nominal-level measure. Variance is a measure of dispersion.

Which measure of central tendency is more robust against skew and outliers?

(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Variance Answer:

(B)

Median

Feedback: Because the median is the "middle" value, the values at the far ends of the scale do not meaningfully affect it—the highest values may be similar to the rest of the scores or extreme, but the median will be the same. This is not the case with the mean. Skew and outliers are not applicable to the mode, because it doesn't consider the order of scores. Variance is a measure of dispersion.

Which measure of central tendency requires the measurement to be at the interval or ratio level?

(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Variance Answer:

(A)

Mean

Feedback: Because the mean involves addition, the mean requires at least an interval-level of measurement to make sense. The median can be used with measures at the ordinal level or higher, while the mode is the only measure that can be used for nominal-level measures.

Variance is a measure of dispersion.

If a distribution deviates from normal by being more narrow and pointed, it is _________.

(A) Platykurtic (B) Mesokurtic (C) Modalkurtic (D) Leptokurtic Answer:

(D)

Leptokurtic

Feedback: A platykurtic distribution would be flatter, while a mesokurtic distribution is normal. Modalkurtic is not a term used in research methods.

The standard deviation for the sampling distribution is called the ________ error.

(A) Sampling (B) Marginal (C) Standard (D) Median Answer:

(C)

Standard

Feedback: Sampling error describes the error for a given sample, whereas the standard error refers to the “typical” error for all samples drawn following a similar approach. The standard error is used in determining the most likely values for the sampling error. Neither marginal nor median error are terms used in this text.

The amount of error created by selecting a portion of individuals from the larger population is known as the ________ error.

(A) Sampling (B) Survey (C) Census (D) Cluster Answer:

(A)

Sampling

Feedback: If a sample is drawn randomly, then the sampling error should be both random and predictable. We cannot know how incorrect a given sample is, but we can describe the error in many equivalent samples accurately. Surveys do use sampling, but the errors in those instruments are not limited to sampling. A census will not have sampling error, and clusters are a specific unit drawn at random as part of a multi-stage approach to sampling.

What term is used for the idealized representation of what values would be calculated, and with what frequency, if very large number of samples were drawn from the same population, and the same statistic computed each time?

(A) Confidence level (B) Standard adjustment (C) Margin of error (D) Sampling distribution

Answer:

(D)

Sampling distribution

Feedback: The confidence level states the likelihood a given estimate includes the population parameter, and the margin of error is one way to describe the range of likely values forming the estimate. "Standard adjustment" is not a term used in research.

What term is used to describe the amount of confidence researchers have that their estimate is correct, expressed as a percentage?

(A) Confidence interval (B) Confidence level (C) Confidence frame (D) Confidence parameter Answer:

(B)

Confidence level

Feedback: The interval is the range of values within which the true value is thought to fall, while the level expresses the portion of such intervals that should be correct. A sampling frame lists individuals in the population, and a parameter is the value we are trying to estimate.

What term is used to describe the range of values within which the true value for the population is estimated to fall, given the findings for a specific sample?

(A) Confidence interval (B) Confidence level (C) Confidence frame (D) Confidence parameter Answer:

(A)

Confidence interval

Feedback: The interval expresses a range, or interval, of likely values for the population. The level expresses the portion of such intervals that should be correct. A sampling frame lists individuals in the population, and a parameter is the value we are trying to estimate.

Polling stories often refer to the ________, which expresses the estimate in terms of how much must be added to and subtracted from the point estimate.

(A) Confidence level (B) Standard adjustment (C) Margin of error (D) Sampling distribution Answer:

(C)

Margin of error

Feedback: In news coverage, this is often presented as a value "plus or minus" a certain percentage value. The confidence level is often stated along with this information, e.g. as "95% confidence." The sampling distribution helps compute the margin of error, but is not the same thing; the "standard adjustment" is not a term used in research.

The amount of ________ explained by the IV is one way to address the size of the effect of the IV, which reflects the practical importance of a finding.

(A) p (B) Significance (C) Variance (D) Correlation Answer:

(C)

Variance

Feedback: The p value and significance of a relationship both reflect our confidence in rejecting the null, but if the sample size is large, the relationship found may still be unimportant.

Explaining a meaningful portion of all the variation in the dependent variable is a better reflection of the practical importance. The correlation is a measure of the strength and direction of a relationship between variables; it can help calculate variance explained.

The Bonferroni correction is a way to reduce the inflated likelihood of a ______ error due to multiple statistical tests.

(A) Type I (B) Type II (C) Type III (D) Tailed error Answer:

(A)

Type I

Feedback: The logic of hypothesis testing is built on a single test. As researchers increase the number of separate tests used, the likelihood increases that at least one statistic in the sample would be different from that predicted by the null simply by chance. Rejecting the null when it is actually correct is a Type I error.

If researchers fail to reject the null, deciding they cannot be confident a relationship exists, but there actually is a relationship in the population, this represents what type of error?

(A) Type I (B) Type II (C) Type III (D) This is not an error Answer:

(B)

Type II

Feedback: If researchers conclude there is a relationship in the population but in reality there is no such relationship, this represents a Type I error. There is no "type III" error in research methods.

If researchers conclude there is a relationship in the population but in reality there is no such relationship, this represents what type of error?

(A) Type I (B) Type II (C) Type III (D) This is not an error Answer:

(A)

Type I

Feedback: Type II errors occur if the researchers fail to reject the null, deciding they cannot be confident a relationship exists, but there actually is a relationship in the population. There is no "type III" error in research methods.

If p is smaller, it is ______ likely the null is correct and therefore _____ appropriate to conclude the original relationship is statistically significant.

(A) More, more (B) More, less (C) Less, more (D) Less, less Answer:

(C)

Less, more

Feedback: The p value is a measure of how often your sample would be generated if the null hypothesis is correct. Thus, smaller values make the null less likely to be correct. Since the null hypothesis means there is no relationship, it must be rejected in order to support the originally predicted relationship.

What term is used for the prediction that there is no relationship between variables, tested in many inferential procedures?

(A) Null value (B) p value (C) Null hypothesis (D) p hypothesis Answer:

(C)

Null hypothesis

Feedback: A hypothesis is a prediction about a relationship, and "null" means none, so the null hypothesis predicts no relationship. The p value is an indication of the likelihood the null hypothesis reflects the larger population.

In ________ statistics, scholars evaluate whether the statistics in a given sample are likely to apply to the larger population.

(A) Inferential (B) Descriptive (C) Linear (D) Null Answer:

(A)

Inferential

Feedback: Descriptive statistics simply describe the current sample, while inferential statistics infer to a larger population. Though some of these procedures involve testing linear relationships, where the relationship between the IV and DV is consistent for all levels of each, that is not required. Evaluating the null hypothesis, or prediction of no relationship, is sometimes just one part of the larger inferential process.

What kind of statistical test is used when there is a clear reason to expect a relationship in one direction (such as positive), and researchers are comfortable concluding a relationship in the opposite direction is not significant?

(A) One-tailed (B) Two-tailed (C) Unimodal (D) Bimodal Answer:

(A)

One-tailed

Feedback: The one-tailed test is so-named because it considers only one side, or tail, of the sampling distribution for the statistical test being performed. Modality describes the number of “peaks” representing the most common values in a distribution, whereas the “tails” of a distribution are representations of unusual values.

An increase in the likelihood of Type I error can occur when researchers engage in what, an example of which is known as “p-hacking”?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Bonferroni correction Bayesian analysis A priori power analysis Questionable research practices

Answer:

(D)

Questionable research practices

Feedback: When researchers make choices that result in multiple tests or possible tests of a single hypothesis, likely to result in keeping the result most favorable to their hypothesis, this

increases the likelihood of a Type I error, whereby the chance of incorrectly rejecting the null is increased. Bayesian analysis is an alternative to null hypothesis testing that may give more robust results. A priori power analysis is proper practice to ensure a study can give a more confident and valid result. Bonferroni corrections are meant to offset the likelihood of Type I error from multiple tests of a possible relationship.

What statistical test can be used to compare mean scores between two groups, or between individuals' scores on two variables, but no more than two groups or variables?

(A) Chi-square (B) t test (C) ANOVA (D) Pearson's r Answer:

(B)

t test

Feedback: Chi-square relates two nominal-level variables. Although ANOVA also evaluates nominal-level independent variables and interval- or ratio-level dependent variables, the specific comparison between two sets of values is done using a t-test. Chi-square relates two nominallevel variables, and Pearson's r evaluates the correlation between two interval- or ratio-level variables.

The F statistic is used to evaluate the significance of relationships as part of what kind of statistical analysis?

(A) Chi-square (B) t test (C) ANOVA (D) Pearson's r Answer:

(C)

ANOVA

Feedback: Some ANOVA tests involve multiple IVs, each of which would be evaluated via an F statistic. Chi-square, t and r are all test statistics from other procedures.

Which statistical test is most appropriate when testing the relationship between two nominallevel variables?

(A) Chi-square (B) t test (C) ANOVA (D) Pearson's r Answer:

(A)

Chi-square

Feedback: The chi-square test is appropriate no matter how many values the two nominallevel measures have. A t-test is used to compare mean scores for two groups; ANOVA can be

used to compare any number of groups with an interval- or ratio-level measures. Pearson's r is a measure of correlation between two interval- or ratio-level measures.

This statistic measures both the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two interval- or ratio-level variables.

(A) Chi-square (B) t test (C) ANOVA (D) Pearson's r Answer:

(D)

Pearson's r

Feedback: A t-test is used to compare mean scores for two groups; ANOVA can be used to compare any number of groups with an interval- or ratio-level measures.

Which regression coefficient indicates the predicted effect of a one-unit change in the IV on the DV? (A) Unstandardized (B) Standardized (C) Logistic (D) R2 Answer:

(A)

Unstandardized

Feedback: The standardized coefficient first standardizes all variables in the analysis, making direct comparisons between coefficients for different independent variables more appropriate. Logistic regression focuses on a dichotomous dependent variable, and thus the coefficients do not directly predict the value of the DV, which can either be 0 or 1. R2 is a measure of variance explained by a block of one or more IVs.

Which regression coefficient involves a consistent scale that typically ranges from -1 to 1, allowing for comparisons between IVs regardless of the original measurement scale used for each?

(A) Unstandardized (B) Standardized (C) Logistic (D) R2 Answer:

(B)

Standardized

Feedback: The unstandardized coefficient reflects the predicted influence of a one-unit change in the IV. Logistic regression focuses on a dichotomous dependent variable, but the coefficients are still influenced by the scale of the IV. R2 is a measure of variance explained by a block of one or more IVs.

What statistic is used to measure the variance explained by a variable or block of variables in linear regression analysis?

(A) Unstandardized (B) Standardized (C) Logistic (D) R2 Answer:

(D)

R2

Feedback: The standardized and unstandardized coefficients both measure the influence of a single IV. Although the standardized coefficient is consistent across different IVs, it is not a direct measure of effect size. Logistic regression is a type of regression for which the DV is dichotomous.

What type of regression is used when the dependent variable is dichotomous, having only two possible values (e.g., whether someone answered a question "yes" or "no")?

(A) Unstandardized (B) Standardized (C) Logistic (D) R2 Answer:

(C)

Logistic

Feedback: The standardized and unstandardized coefficients both measure the influence of a single IV in a linear regression, where the dependent variable is measured on the interval- or ratio-level. R2 is a measure of variance explained by a block of one or more IVs.

Multivariate analysis allows researchers to include _______ variables, removing the influence of those variables on the main relationship being tested.

(A) Control (B) Logistic (C) Null (D) Linear Answer:

(A)

Control

Feedback: The potential effects of the third variables are controlled for in multivariate techniques such as regression. Logistic regression involves binary dependent variables. The

analyses covered in this unit assume a linear relationship, such that the effect of the IV is constant across all values. The null hypothesis is tested in inferential statistics, but there is no specific "null variable."

What is illustrated if a bivariate test shows a significant relationship between two variables, but the relationship is close to 0 and no longer significant when a control variable is included in a multivariate test?

(A) Correlation (B) Spuriousness (C) Suppression (D) Interaction Answer:

(B)

Spuriousness

Feedback: A correlation simply tests the bivariate relationship. The pattern here indicates that bivariate relationship was spurious, being driven by the control variable. Suppression would reflect the opposite pattern, with a non-significant bivariate relationship emerging as significant.

Testing interactions is a way to explore moderation, and requires a direct statistical test of that interaction.

What is illustrated if a bivariate test shows a small, nonsignificant relationship between two variables, but the relationship emerges as stronger and significant when a control variable is included in a multivariate test?

(A) Correlation (B) Spuriousness (C) Suppression (D) Interaction Answer:

(C)

Suppression

Feedback: A correlation simply tests the bivariate relationship. The pattern here indicates that bivariate relationship was suppressed, being hidden or offset by the control variable.

Spuriousness would reflect the opposite pattern, with a significant bivariate relationship emerging as nonsignificant. Testing interactions is a way to explore moderation, and requires a direct statistical test of that interaction.

Testing the significance of the _________ between two variables provides an indication of whether one variable moderates the effects of the other variable on the dependent variable.

(A) Correlation (B) Spuriousness (C) Suppression (D) Interaction Answer:

(D)

Interaction

Feedback: A correlation merely tests a bivariate relationship, so it cannot evaluate moderation, which involves multiple independent variables. Spuriousness and suppression both focus on whether the initial bivariate relationship changes with the inclusion of a control variable, but this does not test whether that control variable has a moderating influence.

The primary difference between MANOVA and ANOVA is the evaluation of multiple _________ variables.

(A) Control (B) Independent (C) Dependent (D) Moderating Answer:

(C)

Dependent

Feedback: Any analysis of variance can evaluate multiple independent variables, and the inclusion of multiple IVs allows for both controlling for the influence of specific variables and testing interaction terms as an indicator of moderation. MANOVA differs in that it provides an overall test of the effects of the IVs on multiple dependent variables thought to be related or logically consistent.