Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions An Interactive Journey, 5th edition Bruce

Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions An Interactive Journey, 5th edition Bruce J. Colbert Jeff J. Ankney Karen T. Lee

Chapter 1 Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Gross anatomy is also known as ________.

A) microscopic anatomy B) pathologic anatomy C) macroscopic anatomy D) diagnostic anatomy Answer: C 2) An example of gross anatomy would be ________.

A) viewing an x-ray B) using a microscope C) performing a complete cellular blood count D) determining the etiology of a disease Answer: A 3) The study of physiology deals with ________.

A) disease B) genetics C) structures D) functions Answer: D 4) The potential outcome of a disease is the ________.

A) etiology B) diagnosis C) prognosis D) treatment Answer: C 5) The study of disease is known as ________.

A) neurology B) pathophysiology C) microbiology D) cytology Answer: B 6) The three basic parts of a medical term are ________.

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A) prefix, word root, suffix B) suffix, base, meaning C) prefix, stem, ending D) base, word root, stem Answer: A 7) What system is known as the mathematical language of anatomy and physiology?

A) Abbreviation system B) Metric system C) English system D) Customary system Answer: B 8) Which of the following is NOT a vital sign?

A) Heart rate B) Temperature C) Odor D) Respiratory rate Answer: C 9) When the physician has documented several signs and symptoms, he or she will be able to make a(n) ________.

A) prognosis B) etiology C) cytology D) diagnosis Answer: D 10) The body's ability to make adjustments that maintain a stable environment are known as ________.

A) homeostasis B) metabolism C) syndrome D) pathology Answer: A 11) The body uses feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. The response that opposes an action is known as a(n) ________.

A) depressing feedback loop B) negative feedback loop C) positive feedback loop D) affirmative feedback loop Answer: B 12) A positive feedback loop is necessary in which of the following situations?

A) Blood pressure B) Coughing 2 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Bleeding D) Childbirth Answer: D 13) Vital signs include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) coloring B) heart rate C) respirations D) temperature Answer: A 14) ICU is the abbreviation for ________.

A) internal care unit B) immediate critical unit C) intensive care unit D) industrial company unit Answer: C 15) The nurse found a preoperative patient out of bed, barefoot, and watching TV while eating breakfast. "We have to cancel your surgery, because you're not NPO," the nurse said. What did the patient do wrong?

A) The patient ate food.

B) The patient watched TV. C) The patient walked barefoot.

D) The patient left the hospital bed.

Answer: A 16) A patient rang the call bell because he was in great pain. "I want my prn medication now," he said. Which medication timing is the nurse going to follow?

A) Medications given in the morning B) Medications given at noontime C) Medications given in the evening D) Medications given when needed Answer: D 17) A lab technician finishes a test. "The CBC results are in the computer," she tells her supervisor. What body fluid did the technician examine?

A) Saliva B) Urine C) Blood D) Cerebrospinal fluid Answer: C 18) All members of the Code Team have to take ACLS training annually. Which organs will they practice reviving?

A) Eyes and ears B) Heart and lungs 3 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Nose and throat D) Stomach and colon Answer: B 19) If a patient complains of SOB, which body system is having a problem?

A) Urinary B) Neurological C) Reproductive D) Respiratory Answer: D 20) The indicators that are essential for human life include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) coloring B) heart rate C) respirations D) temperature Answer: A 21) Which is NOT a definition for disease?

A) Not at ease B) A condition in which the body fails to function normally C) Anything that is a normal structure or function D) Anything that upsets normal structure or function Answer: C 22) The term tachycardia means "________."

A) fast heart rate B) slow heart rate C) rhythmic heart rate D) study of the heart rate Answer: A 23) Which is NOT a symptom of metabolic syndrome?

A) High triglycerides B) Low HDL level C) High blood pressure D) Vomiting and diarrhea Answer: D 24) A sign that could be an indication of diabetes is breath that smells like ________.

A) fruit-flavored chewing gum B) clay or starchy paste C) sweat D) maple Answer: A 4 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) The prefix hyper- means "________."

A) small B) above normal C) below normal D) within Answer: B 26) The suffix -oma means "________."

A) cutting into B) enlargement of C) surgically forming an opening D) tumor Answer: D 27) The suffix -algia means "________."

A) inflammation B) cell C) pertaining to D) pain Answer: D 28) Most fevers are the body's way of ________.

A) killing all pathogens B) breaking up the cells of pathogens C) making an inhospitable environment for pathogens to survive D) preventing pathogens from reproducing Answer: C 29) Sweating at night may indicate ________.

A) tuberculosis B) Hodgkin's disease C) riboflavin deficiency D) skin cancer Answer: A 30) According to the rules of medical terminology, nephritis is defined as "________."

A) liver failure B) inflammation of the kidney C) cirrhosis D) blood clotting Answer: B

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31) The abbreviation used for "twice a day" is ________.

A) q.i.d.

B) t.i.d.

C) prn D) b.i.d.

Answer: D 32) Volumes expressed as ounces, pints, quarts, gallons, pecks, bushels, or cubic feet are examples of the ________.

A) metric system B) English system C) scientific notation D) International System Answer: B 33) A nurse found the vital sign he measured in millimeters of mercury to be highly elevated.

What condition does his patient have?

A) Hypertension B) Fever C) Hyperalgia D) Heart attack Answer: A 34) Grams are a metric system measurement of ________.

A) length B) volume C) velocity D) mass Answer: D 35) Normal adult cardiac output is 6,000 milliliters every 60 seconds. How is this amount of blood being measured?

A) Volume in English units B) Volume in metric units C) Length in English units D) Length in metric units Answer: B 36) "I always have to use a conversion table," a student complained. Which system of measurement is the student most likely using?

A) English B) National C) American Imperial D) Metric Answer: A

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37) Which system would most likely be used to calculate the amount of medication to give by weight to a premature infant?

A) English B) National C) American Imperial D) Metric Answer: D 38) The coroner measures the size of the brain in a patient who died of Alzheimer's disease.

Which unit dimension will she likely use to record the diameter?

A) Milliliters B) Centimeters C) Kilograms D) Ounces Answer: B 39) The diagnostic procedure begins by determining the patient's ________.

A) prognosis B) syndrome C) chief complaint D) laboratory tests Answer: C 40) ________ is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease.

A) Anatomy B) Physiology C) Pathology D) Pharmacy Answer: C 41) The term osteopenia can be defined as "________."

A) cutting of the skin B) a lack of normal bone density C) tumor of the bone D) cutting into the eye Answer: B 42) The normal heart rate for an adult is ________ beats per minute.

A) 10-30 B) 70-120 C) 90-170 D) 60-100 Answer: D

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43) The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.

A) prognosis B) diagnosis C) acute determination D) syndrome Answer: A 44) A condition in which the body fails to function normally is ________.

A) disease B) physiology C) nosocomial D) epidemiology Answer: A 45) The cause of a disease is called its ________.

A) prognosis B) pathology C) nosocomial D) etiology Answer: D 46) A specific group of signs and symptoms that are related to a specific disease is known by which of the following names?

A) Diagnosis B) Chief complaint C) Syndrome D) Relapse Answer: C 47) A patient with Syndrome X can exhibit which of the following common conditions?

A) High blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high blood level of HDL B) High blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, high triglycerides C) Low blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high triglycerides D) Low blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, low blood level of HDL Answer: B 48) A patient who has metabolic syndrome is at an increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) diabetes B) heart attack C) Hodgkin's disease D) stroke Answer: C

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49) ________ is the physiological process that monitors and maintains a stable internal environment or equilibrium.

A) Homeostasis B) Negative feedback loop C) Positive feedback loop D) Metabolism Answer: A 50) After eating a meal, blood glucose levels rise, triggering the pancreas to release insulin.

Insulin then directs various cell types to take up glucose and store it, lowering blood glucose levels. This is an example of ________.

A) a spinal reflex B) a negative feedback loop C) a positive feedback loop D) metabolism Answer: B 51) ________ occurs when the body responds to a change by exaggerating the change instead of correcting it.

A) Homeostasis B) Negative feedback C) Positive feedback D) Metabolism Answer: C 52) Which of the following is not an example of a sign?

A) Temperature B) Heart Rate C) Pain D) Blood Pressure Answer: C 53) All of the following are symptoms EXCEPT ________.

A) pain B) respiratory rate C) dizziness D) itchiness Answer: B 54) A condition in which the signs and symptoms develop gradually over time is called ________.

A) chronic B) acute C) remission D) exacerbation Answer: A 9 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) A measure of the number of deaths attributed to a specific disease over a period of time is ________.

A) pandemic B) epidemic C) morbidity D) mortality Answer: D 56) After eating a meal, the body focuses on storing nutrients and using them to build up the body. This process is called ________.

A) catabolism B) positive feedback C) anabolism D) negative feedback Answer: C 1.2 True/False Questions 1) In Greek, anatomy means "to cut apart."

Answer: TRUE 2) Anatomy focuses on the function and vital processes of the human body.

Answer: FALSE 3) Macro- means "small."

Answer: FALSE 4) A bacterial infection is the prognosis for a staph infection.

Answer: FALSE 5) Negative feedback is bad for the body because it increases a change away from normal.

Answer: FALSE 6) Hypotension is high blood pressure.

Answer: FALSE 7) Hist/o- is the combining form for tissue.

Answer: TRUE 8) Cyt/o- is the combining form for cell.

Answer: FALSE 9) Hyp/o- means "above normal."

Answer: FALSE 10) An appendectomy is surgical removal of the appendix.

Answer: TRUE 10 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) STAT means "right away" or "immediately."

Answer: TRUE 12) A microscope views small objects.

Answer: TRUE 13) Disease is a condition in which the body fails to function normally.

Answer: TRUE 14) Pain is the fifth vital sign.

Answer: TRUE 15) A disease that is endemic spreads worldwide.

Answer: FALSE

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 2 The Human Body 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Body directional terms are based on a specific position the subject would stand in. This is called ________.

A) standard position B) anatomical position C) ideal position D) proper position Answer: B 2) A body in the prone position is ________.

A) face up B) lying on its left side C) lying on its right side D) face down Answer: D 3) A plane is an imaginary line dividing the body into ________.

A) squares B) sections C) organs D) tissues 11 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B 4) Directional terms are used as ________ within the body.

A) vertical points B) horizontal points C) lateral points D) reference points Answer: D 5) The midsagittal plane divides the body into which parts?

A) Superior and inferior B) Internal and external C) Right and left D) Anterior and posterior Answer: C 6) Relative to the elbow, the wrist would be considered ________.

A) external B) distal C) internal D) proximal Answer: B 7) A young girl falls while riding her bicycle. Initially she seems fine, but later she complains of severe femoral pain. Where is her pain?

A) Her foot B) Her lower leg C) Her knee D) Her thigh Answer: D 8) The stomach and intestines are located in the ________ cavity.

A) posterior B) abdominal C) pelvic D) thoracic Answer: B 9) Which organ is located in a dorsal cavity?

A) Diaphragm B) Brain C) Stomach D) Pancreas Answer: B 10) The hypochondriac region is located beneath the ________.

A) ribs B) heart 12 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) stomach D) liver Answer: A 11) A woman involved in a high-speed car accident initially seems fine, but soon develops difficulty breathing. You suspect she is bleeding into one of her body cavities. Given her symptoms, which one?

A) Cranial B) Spinal C) Thoracic D) Abdominal Answer: C 12) The space within the mouth is known as the ________ cavity.

A) nasal B) orbital C) cranial D) oral Answer: D

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13) The belly button is located in which region?

A) Epigastric B) Umbilical C) Iliac D) Hypogastric Answer: B 14) The stomach is located in the ________.

A) RUQ B) LUQ C) RLQ D) LLQ Answer: B 15) The thoracic spine contains how many vertebrae?

A) 12 B) 7 C) 5 D) 3 Answer: A 16) By placing your fingers at the T5 vertebra, you can locate which organ?

A) Spleen B) Kidney C) Lung D) Brain Answer: C 17) Blood is most commonly drawn from ________.

A) deep veins B) central veins C) superficial veins D) deep arteries Answer: C 18) Fowler's position facilitates ________.

A) sleeping B) all treatments C) dizziness D) breathing Answer: D

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19) An injury to the abdominopelvic cavity could include injury to the ________.

A) brain B) heart C) spleen D) sternum Answer: C 20) The supine position ________.

A) describes the body lying face upward B) is also called the anatomical position C) describes the body lying face downward D) allows the patient to sit up in bed Answer: A 21) Because humans stand and move upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term ________.

A) inferior B) posterior C) anterior D) distal Answer: B 22) A ________ plane would divide the nose from the back of the head.

A) sagittal B) frontal C) transverse D) midsagittal Answer: B 23) The prone position ________.

A) describes the body lying face upward B) is also called the anatomical position C) describes the body lying face downward D) helps move secretions from the lungs Answer: C 24) The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels.

A) thoracic cavity B) abdominopelvic cavity C) cranial cavity D) spinal cavity Answer: A

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25) The skin is ________ to the bones.

A) superficial B) medial C) inferior D) deep Answer: A 26) The opposite of superficial is ________.

A) deep B) inferior C) posterior D) medial Answer: A 27) A section that divides the body into mirror images would be a ________.

A) frontal section B) cross section C) midsagittal section D) transverse section Answer: C 28) The liver can be found in the ________.

A) right upper quadrant (RUQ) B) left iliac region C) hypogastric region D) right lower quadrant (RLQ) Answer: A 29) Features that are located further away from the core of the body can be called ________.

A) central B) peripheral C) thoracic D) superior Answer: B 30) If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the ________ position.

A) supine B) prone C) Fowler's D) Sims' Answer: B

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31) The ________ vertebrae are located in the neck.

A) sacral B) thoracic C) cervical D) cranial Answer: C 32) The lungs are ________ to the heart.

A) medial B) lateral C) superficial D) peripheral Answer: B 33) A plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions is a ________ plane.

A) sagittal B) coronal C) midsagittal D) transverse Answer: D 34) In the ________ position, the feet are elevated relative to the rest of the body.

A) Trendelenburg B) Fowler C) Prone D) Supine Answer: A 35) The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated by the ________.

A) ribs B) spinal cord C) diaphragm D) sternum Answer: C 36) The large, dome-shaped muscle called the diaphragm is used for ________.

A) circulation B) digestion C) reproduction D) breathing Answer: D

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37) A patient is complaining of pain and the doctor suspects appendicitis. In which quadrant is the pain located?

A) RUQ B) RLQ C) LUQ D) LLQ Answer: B 38) Your patient complains of pain in the area of the liver. In which quadrant is the pain located?

A) LUQ B) LLQ C) RUQ D) RLQ Answer: C 2.2 True/False Questions 1) A person is in the anatomical position when he or she is standing erect and facing forward, with feet parallel and arms hanging at the side with palms facing backward.

Answer: FALSE 2) Fowler's position is the best position for patients who are having trouble breathing.

Answer: TRUE 3) The prone position is the best position for surgery on the abdomen.

Answer: FALSE 4) Cranial means the same as "superior."

Answer: TRUE 5) Medial means "to the side."

Answer: FALSE 6) The tip of the nose is inferior to the eyes and superior to the mouth.

Answer: TRUE 7) A patient with central edema has swollen hands and feet.

Answer: FALSE 8) Peripheral refers to the torso and head.

Answer: FALSE 9) The opposite of superficial is deep.

Answer: TRUE 10) The cranial cavity houses the brain.

Answer: TRUE 18 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) An orbital injury can cause damage to sight.

Answer: TRUE 12) The pubic area is used for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Answer: FALSE 13) Digital refers to fingers.

Answer: TRUE 14) Cervical means relating to the knee.

Answer: FALSE 15) Brachial means lower leg.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 3 Biochemistry 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest unit that retains the chemical properties of a particular type of matter is a(n) ________.

A) atom B) molecule C) element D) ion Answer: C 2) Atoms or molecules that carry a charge are called ________.

A) elements B) protons C) neutrons D) ions Answer: D 3) In a typical atom with three positively charged protons, how many negatively charged electrons would be present?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C 4) In a person with diabetes, blood may often become more acidic than normal. What blood pH might you expect in a person with untreated diabetes?

A) 7.4 B) 10.5 19 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) 7.1 D) 4.0 Answer: D 5) On which side of the pH scale do household cleaners such as bleach and ammonia belong?

A) Acidic B) Neutral C) Concentrated D) Basic Answer: D

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6) Which of the following is a characteristic of a covalent bond?

A) Electrons are shared.

B) Electrons are donated.

C) The molecule is always polar.

D) Protons are involved in the bond.

Answer: A 7) The molecule paraffin has the formula

. What does that tell you about the molecule?

A) It is a protein.

B) It is hydrophobic.

C) It is a nucleic acid.

D) It is polar.

Answer: B 8) In a solution, the ________ is dissolved in the ________.

A) molecule; element B) solute; solvent C) solvent; solute D) element; molecule Answer: B 9) Starch is a polysaccharide made of long chains of glucose. Glucose is a ________.

A) polysaccharide B) disaccharide C) monosaccharide D) saccharin Answer: C 10) Which of the following is a type of lipid molecule important in the structure and function of cell membranes?

A) Wax B) Phospholipid C) Triglyceride D) Estrogen Answer: B 11) The building blocks of proteins are ________.

A) nucleic acids B) amino acids C) oleic acids D) Lewis acids Answer: B

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12) Genetic information is stored in the form of molecules called ________.

A) steroids B) amino acids C) phospholipids D) nucleic acids Answer: D 13) During a fast, the body breaks down fat stores for energy. This is an example of what form of metabolism?

A) Anabolism B) Catabolism C) Cellular respiration D) Dehydration synthesis reactions Answer: B 14) The chief type of reaction used during catabolism is ________.

A) dehydration synthesis B) hydrolysis C) hydration D) hydrogen bonding Answer: B 15) What do anabolic steroids do when taken as medication?

A) Destroy tissue B) Fight infection C) Build up tissue D) Increase fertility Answer: C 16) Which molecules speed up the rate of biological reactions?

A) Proteins B) Enzymes C) Antibodies D) ATP Answer: B 17) During which series of reactions do body cells use glucose to make energy?

A) Metabolism B) Enzyme catalysis C) Cellular respiration D) Blood clotting Answer: C

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18) A person with pancreatic cancer is prescribed some medications that help digest food by breaking down large molecules. What are these medications composed of?

A) Amino acids B) Enzymes C) Phospholipids D) Steroids Answer: B 19) ________ is a high-energy molecule made and spent by cells during metabolism.

A) ATP B) ADP C) AMP D) A&P Answer: A 20) Which of the following has the highest energy?

A) ATP B) ADP C) AMP D) A&P Answer: A 21) A dietary source for iodine is ________.

A) celery B) seafood C) beef D) pork Answer: B 22) Which of the following is a symptom of fluorine deficiency?

A) Acne B) Hair loss C) Dental cavities D) Low blood pressure Answer: C 23) Decreased ability of the blood to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________.

A) iron B) copper C) zinc D) gold Answer: A

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24) The molecule that is stored in the liver to be used for extra energy is ________.

A) glucose B) glycogen C) hemoglobin D) lipid Answer: B 25) Glucose is used by cells during a series of chemical reactions called ________.

A) anabolism B) cellular ventilation C) cellular perfusion D) cellular respiration Answer: D 26) How much water loss, at a minimum, would a 150-pound person have to undergo to become dehydrated?

A) Greater than 1.5 pounds B) Greater than 5 pounds C) Greater than 10 pounds D) Greater than 15 pounds Answer: A 27) A patient was tested for evidence of dehydration. Which sample would show the earliest signs?

A) Organs B) Tissues C) Cells D) Blood Answer: D 28) Which protein allows cells to communicate with other cells?

A) Antibody B) Insulin C) Collagen D) Albumin Answer: B 29) A person who is often tired and has frequent colds makes a New Year's resolution to eat more foods with molecules that can store energy and protect against infection. Which dietary component will this person increase?

A) Fiber B) Fats C) Proteins D) Carbohydrates Answer: C

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30) A patient had a goiter near his Adam's apple. Which simple dietary remedy did the patient's physician prescribe?

A) Lean proteins B) Iodized salt C) Unsaturated fat D) Whole grains Answer: B 31) A body builder stirred wheat germ and pineapple bits into her yogurt. She pointed out to her colleague that her recipe was a double shot of an essential trace element. Which element was she referring to?

A) Iron B) Manganese C) Zinc D) Copper Answer: B 32) One roommate was praising the health benefits of oysters to another roommate. The second roommate replied that he received the benefits of the same two trace elements from eating a different type of food. Which source is he referring to?

A) Organ meats B) Legumes C) Green leafy vegetables D) Cheese Answer: A 33) Going up in levels from the individual atom to the entire organism, which body components are listed in ascending order?

A) Molecules, tissues, organelles B) Tissues, cells, organs C) Cells, molecules, organs D) Organelles, cells, tissues Answer: D 34) In the evening after a warm day, the water in a pool may be warmer than the ambient temperature. This is because ________.

A) water heats up faster than air B) water cools down slower than air C) water and air heat up at the same rate D) water and air cool down at the same rate Answer: B

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35) A marathon runner was perspiring heavily. Which function of sweat was occurring?

A) Absorbing heat into the body B) Absorbing enzymes into the body C) Releasing heat from the body D) Releasing enzymes from the body Answer: C 36) A sterile solution of normal saline with added antibiotics was slowly dripping into a patient's veins. Which solute is being used in the same concentration as in the blood?

A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Sodium chloride C) Sodium hydroxide D) Sodium phosphate Answer: B 37) How does butter compare with vegetable oils?

A) Butter is a saturated fat, and vegetable oils are unsaturated fats.

B) Butter is an unsaturated fat, and vegetable oils are saturated fats.

C) Butter has one double covalent bond, and vegetable oils have even more.

D) Butter has a double covalent bond, and vegetable oils have a single covalent bond.

Answer: A 38) Steroids are lipids that share a common function with insulin, which is a protein. Which function do they share?

A) Banding tightly together B) Linking with nucleic acids C) Communicating between cells D) Handling waste products Answer: C 39) In physiological terms, important ions are often referred to as ________.

A) elements B) molecules C) electrons D) electrolytes Answer: D 40) Which analogy best describes the relationship between hydrophilic molecules and hydrophobic molecules?

A) Friendship B) Enemies C) Toleration D) Irritation Answer: B

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41) What major organs are involved in correcting problems with blood pH? A) Gallbladder and spleen B) Stomach and heart C) Kidneys and lungs D) Liver and bladder Answer: C 42) Which of the following is an endpoint on the pH scale?

A) Left: High and low O B) Right: High and low O C) Left: Basic D) Right: Neutral Answer: A 43) What distinguishes anabolism and catabolism?

A) anabolism is negative, catabolism is positive B) anabolism builds up organic macromolecules, catabolism breaks them down C) anabolism uses negative feedback, catabolism uses positive feedback D) They mean the same thing Answer: B 3.2 True/False Questions 1) Ions are hydrophobic.

Answer: FALSE 2) Physiologically important ions are called trace elements.

Answer: FALSE 3) Water has hydrogen bonds, which give it its unique properties.

Answer: TRUE 4) Most organic molecules in the body are held together by ionic bonds.

Answer: FALSE 5) Covalent bonds are always polar.

Answer: FALSE 6) A solution with a pH of 8 is basic.

Answer: TRUE 7) Water can store more heat than air.

Answer: TRUE 8) Disaccharides are a type of lipid.

Answer: FALSE 27 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) All steroids are unhealthy.

Answer: FALSE 10) Many carbohydrates are used to store or produce energy.

Answer: TRUE 11) Proteins have peptide bonds.

Answer: TRUE 12) Dehydration synthesis can happen easily at room temperature.

Answer: FALSE 13) Enzymes can be inhibited.

Answer: TRUE 14) During fermentation, no ATP is made.

Answer: TRUE 15) Chemistry is not important in anatomy and physiology.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 4 The Cells 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The organelles that provide 95% of the body's energy are ________.

A) ribosomes B) mitochondria C) adenosines D) cytoplasm Answer: B 2) Sperm cells are able to move in a swimming motion by the use of ________.

A) centrioles B) cilia C) vesicles D) flagella Answer: D 3) The molecule made by mitochondria that provides power to cells is ________.

A) ATP B) RNA C) ADP D) DNA Answer: A 28 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Which of the following is a series of channels found within the cytoplasm that is formed from folded membrane?

A) Golgi apparatus B) Facilitated diffusion C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Cell membrane Answer: C 5) Given that they have lots of Golgi apparatuses, salivary glands and pancreatic cells must perform which function(s)?

A) Lipid synthesis B) DNA synthesis C) Protein synthesis D) Secretion and storage Answer: D

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6) The process of cleaning debris and waste from the cell is carried out by ________.

A) lysosomes B) lipids C) filaments D) ribosomes Answer: A 7) The cell receives its shape from a network of microtubules and filaments known as the ________.

A) cytoskeleton B) endoskeleton C) exoskeleton D) microskeleton Answer: A 8) ________ are short, hairlike projections found on the outer surface of some cells.

A) Capsids B) Vesicles C) Cilia D) Flagella Answer: C 9) The most important molecules for making the cell membrane selectively permeable are ________.

A) carbohydrates B) phospholipids C) cholesterol molecules D) ATP molecules Answer: B 10) Which microorganism enters another cell and hijacks the cell's parts, energy supply, and materials?

A) Virus B) Fungus C) Bacterium D) Protozoan Answer: A 11) The process of allowing substances into and out of the cell is controlled by the ________.

A) nucleus B) cell membrane C) lysosomes D) Golgi apparatus Answer: B

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12) The cells that make up the human body are called ________.

A) mitotic cells B) meiotic cells C) eukaryotic cells D) chromosomal cells Answer: C 13) What portion of the cell cycle is actually devoted to cell division?

A) Interphase B) Cellphase C) Duophase D) Mitotic phase Answer: D 14) When the body performs cellular respiration, food is changed into a form of energy called ________.

A) RNA B) ADP C) DNA D) ATP Answer: D 15) An organism that produces disease is known as a(n) ________.

A) organelle B) pathogen C) crenation D) centriole Answer: B 16) Which microorganism is spread by the release of spores?

A) Bacterium B) Virus C) Fungus D) Protozoan Answer: C 17) Which disease is caused by a protozoan?

A) Candidiasis B) Shingles C) Malaria D) Strep Answer: C

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18) Which substance is commonly transported during facilitated diffusion?

A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Cytoplasm D) Potassium Answer: A 19) ________ cannot reproduce on their own and rely on a host cell to replicate them.

A) protists B) fungi C) viruses D) bacteria Answer: C 20) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes split?

A) Anaphase B) Metaphase C) Prophase D) Telophase Answer: A 21) Microorganisms that normally live within or on the human body are collectively called ________.

A) cancer cells B) normal flora C) epithelial cells D) white blood cells Answer: B 22) Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as ________.

A) chromatin B) eukaryosis C) interphase D) binary fission Answer: D 23) Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell membrane?

A) Protein synthesis B) Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell C) Identifying the cell D) Holding the cell together Answer: A

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24) Which organelles are called the "power plants" of the cell?

A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) Golgi apparatuses D) Lysosomes Answer: B 25) Which of these is NOT part of a cell?

A) Plasma membrane B) Cytoplasm C) Nucleus D) Protozoa Answer: D 26) Which organelles contain powerful enzymes that take care of cleaning up intracellular debris and other waste?

A) Ribosomes B) Smooth endoplasmic reticula C) Mitochondria D) Lysosomes Answer: D 27) ________ contribute to protein synthesis by translating mRNA into a sequence of amino acids.

A) Mitochondria B) Lysosomes C) Ribosomes D) Golgi apparatuses Answer: C 28) Which organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell?

A) Ribosome B) Mitochondrion C) Golgi apparatus D) Lysosome Answer: C 29) ________ is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher concentration through a membrane.

A) Osmosis B) Diffusion C) Filtration D) Dialysis Answer: A

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30) During the ________ portion of mitosis, the chromosomes split and the spindles pull them apart.

A) telophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) interphase Answer: B 31) During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes aligned in the center of the cell?

A) Telophase B) Anaphase C) Metaphase D) Prophase Answer: C 32) What general process is utilized by cells for the intake of liquid and food when the substance is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane?

A) Pinocytosis B) Endocytosis C) Exocytosis D) Phagocytosis Answer: B 33) ________ are unique because they cannot grow, "eat," or reproduce by themselves.

A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Protozoans D) Viruses Answer: D 34) Most of a cell's life is spent in which phase of the cell cycle?

A) Interphase B) Prophase C) Anaphase D) Metaphase Answer: A 35) Keeping the site of a ________ infection dry can help prevent spores from being released and infecting others.

A) viral B) protist C) bacterial D) fungal Answer: D

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36) Malaria is caused by which of the following types of infections?

A) Viral B) Bacterial C) Protozoan D) Fungal Answer: C 37) In which type of transport do solutes travel from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the addition of energy?

A) Osmosis B) Diffusion C) Active Transport D) Endocytosis Answer: B 38) A red blood cell is placed into a solution containing salts. As a result, the cell loses water and shrivels. How would this solution be classified?

A) osmotic B) isotonic C) hypertonic D) hypotonic Answer: C 39) Filtration of the blood takes place in which organ?

A) Kidney B) Heart C) Lungs D) Stomach Answer: A 40) Which ion uses active transport pumps to "push" more of it into the cell?

A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Water Answer: C 41) ________ are tube-shaped organelles that are usually found in pairs.

A) Mitochondria B) Centrioles C) Lysosomes D) Ribosomes Answer: B

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42) What term is used for the division of cells necessary for sexual reproduction?

A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Metastasis D) Cytokinesis Answer: A 43) Which of these causes an abnormal folding of cellular proteins that results in holes in the affected tissue?

A) Viruses B) Fungi C) Protozoa D) Prions Answer: D 4.2 True/False Questions 1) The stomach is an organelle.

Answer: FALSE 2) Proteins prevent ions from crossing cell membranes.

Answer: FALSE 3) Filtration is the ability of a substance to pull water toward an area of higher solute concentration.

Answer: FALSE 4) Cellular respiration makes carbon dioxide as a waste product.

Answer: TRUE 5) In the process of phagocytosis, water is transported across the cell membrane.

Answer: FALSE 6) Cytoplasm is composed of water and organic and inorganic chemicals.

Answer: TRUE 7) Chromatin is found in the nucleus of prokaryotes.

Answer: FALSE 8) All human cells have cell membranes.

Answer: TRUE 9) The centriole is used in cellular reproduction.

Answer: TRUE 10) The Golgi apparatus has powerful enzymes that can eat cellular debris.

Answer: FALSE 36 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Lysis means "to break down."

Answer: TRUE 12) Metastasis is the spreading of benign cancer cells.

Answer: FALSE 13) Some bacteria are not pathogenic.

Answer: TRUE 14) The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

Answer: TRUE 15) Telophase occurs when the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

Answer: FALSE 16) Active transport requires addition of energy throughout the transport process.

Answer: TRUE 17) Exocytosis is the process in which a cell produces a substance and transports it to the cell surface to be released.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 5 Tissues and Systems 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Epithelium in which the cells are arranged in several layers is called ________.

A) cuboidal B) stratified C) columnar D) squamous Answer: B 2) The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which type of tissue?

A) Simple squamous B) Transitional C) Simple cuboidal D) Simple columnar Answer: B 3) What class of tissues are typically found surrounding and protecting an internal or external compartment of the body?

A) epithelium B) connective C) muscle D) nervous 37 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A 4) Muscle tissue possesses contractility, also known as the ability to ________.

A) swell B) mutate C) shorten D) strengthen Answer: C 5) This connective tissue has cells in a matrix composed mainly of calcium and phosphate.

A) Cartilage B) Reticular C) Bone D) Blood Answer: C 6) Which membrane is part of the integumentary system?

A) Cutaneous B) Mucous C) Parietal D) Visceral Answer: A 7) The colon is an organ included in which body system?

A) Gastrointestinal B) Cardiovascular C) Integumentary D) Reproductive Answer: A 8) Which of the following is considered a nonvital organ?

A) Heart B) Gallbladder C) Lung D) Liver Answer: B 9) The production of blood cells occurs within which body system?

A) Cardiovascular B) Muscular C) Endocrine D) Skeletal Answer: D 10) Which type of muscle lines the blood vessels and airways of the body?

A) Rough B) Glia C) Smooth 38 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) Striated Answer: C 11) Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D Answer: D 12) Receiving sensory messages, processing and interpreting those messages, and acting on those messages with motor functions are responsibilities of which body system?

A) Muscular B) Nervous C) Sensory D) Endocrine Answer: B

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13) Balance is the responsibility of which sensory organ?

A) Ear B) Eye C) Nose D) Throat Answer: A 14) The symptoms of ________ are redness, swelling, heat, and pain.

A) regeneration B) inflammation C) organization D) scarring Answer: B 15) Which of the following tissues regenerate well?

A) Cardiac muscle and nervous tissue B) Nervous and epithelial tissue C) Cardiac and smooth muscle D) Bone and epithelium Answer: D 16) The walls of the heart are composed primarily of ________ muscle.

A) skeletal B) smooth C) cardiac D) None of these.

Answer: C 17) Which of the following systems helps to maintain the proper acid—base balance of the blood?

A) Skeletal B) Respiratory C) Musculoskeletal D) Integumentary Answer: B 18) Lymphocytes are specialized cells produced for which function?

A) Producing red blood cells B) Genetic reproduction C) Saliva production D) Fighting infection Answer: D

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19) Mucous is ________.

A) a type of membrane B) the material that collects in the corner of the eye C) the actual substance secreted by membranes D) the substance secreted by synovial membranes Answer: A 20) Specialized infection-fighting WBCs are produced by the ________ system.

A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) integumentary D) endocrine Answer: B 21) A patient who has difficulty conceiving most likely has a problem in the ________ system.

A) nervous B) urinary C) reproductive D) cardiovascular Answer: C 22) One of the functions of the endocrine system is to help you deal with stresses produced by ________.

A) trauma B) dizziness C) sleeplessness D) nausea Answer: A 23) The lungs eliminate ________ created as a result of cellular metabolism.

A) carbon dioxide B) nitrogen C) energy D) foreign particles Answer: A 24) The body's largest organ is the ________.

A) liver B) brain C) large intestine D) skin Answer: D

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25) The skeletal system includes all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) bones B) bartilage C) bigaments D) boluntary muscle Answer: D 26) This type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach.

A) Skeletal B) Voluntary C) Smooth D) Cardiac Answer: C 27) This type of muscle tissue may be used to walk.

A) Skeletal B) Involuntary C) Smooth D) Cardiac Answer: A 28) Which of the following is NOT a gland in the endocrine system?

A) Thyroid B) Pituitary C) Hypothalamus D) Salivary Answer: D 29) Which of these organs is an organ of the digestive system?

A) Lymph node B) Spleen C) Small intestine D) Thymus Answer: C 30) This type of tissue provides rapid communication between various parts of the body.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: D

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31) This type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: A 32) This is the most common tissue and is found throughout the body more than any other form.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: B 33) This type of tissue specializes in movement of the body.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: C 34) This type of tissue can be classified by the shape and arrangement of its cells.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous Answer: A 35) The ________ system transports water, oxygen, and a variety of nutrients and other substances necessary for life to the cells and transports waste products away from the cells.

A) cardiovascular B) urinary C) digestive D) respiratory Answer: A 36) When cells are arranged in a scalelike or flat arrangement, they are referred to as ________.

A) squamous B) cuboidal C) columnar D) transitional Answer: A

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37) Which of the following epithelial membranes is the largest organ of the integumentary system?

A) Cutaneous B) Parietal C) Visceral D) Mucous Answer: A 38) Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs?

A) Parietal B) Mucous C) Visceral D) Cutaneous Answer: C 39) Which membrane lines the wall of the thoracic cavity?

A) Cutaneous B) Parietal C) Mucous D) Visceral Answer: B 40) Stem cells are undifferentiated or unspecialized cells that can be induced to become ________ cells.

A) embryonic B) adult C) tissue- or organ-specific D) cancerous Answer: C 5.2 True/False Questions 1) Squamous cells are column-like.

Answer: FALSE 2) Stretchy epithelial tissue is called transitional.

Answer: TRUE 3) Mucus protects tissues from pathogens.

Answer: TRUE 4) Connective tissue is the most common tissue.

Answer: TRUE 5) Blood is a connective tissue.

Answer: TRUE 44 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle.

Answer: FALSE 7) Fibroblasts cause tissue to regenerate.

Answer: FALSE 8) The brain and spinal cord are primarily composed of connective tissue.

Answer: FALSE 9) A mucous membrane is a two-layered membrane with a fluid space between the layers.

Answer: FALSE 10) The liver is part of the urinary system.

Answer: FALSE 11) The cardiovascular system is a control center for virtually all the body's organs.

Answer: FALSE 12) Veins carry blood away from the heart.

Answer: FALSE 13) The esophagus is in the gastrointestinal system.

Answer: TRUE 14) Nitrogen waste is usually eliminated through the integumentary system.

Answer: FALSE 15) Hormones are chemicals that circulate in the bloodstream.

Answer: TRUE 16) Stem cells can be harvested from embryonic but not adult sources.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 6 The Skeletal System 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which type of bone is cube-shaped in appearance?

A) Short B) Long C) Regular D) Irregular Answer: A 2) The ends of long bones are known as the ________.

A) medulla 45 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) periosteum C) diaphysis D) epiphyses Answer: D 3) A narrow ridge of bone is known as the ________.

A) crest B) head C) spine D) condyle Answer: A 4) A ________ is a groove or shallow depression on the surface of a bone.

A) facet B) sinus C) fossa D) meatus Answer: C 5) An ________ is a mature bone cell.

A) osteoprogenitor B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) osteocyte Answer: D 6) Compact bone is created over the surface of spongy bone by ________.

A) osteoprogenitors B) osteoclasts C) osteons D) osteoblasts Answer: D 7) Bone growth will continue for as long as the ________ plate exists.

A) diaphyseal B) epiphyseal C) osteon D) medullary Answer: B 8) ________ is the type of connective tissue that helps to cushion the ends of long bones.

A) Spongy bone B) Cartilage C) Bone marrow D) Synovium Answer: B 46 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) This type of joint is held together by connective tissue strands.

A) Gliding B) Synovial C) Cartilaginous D) Fibrous Answer: D 10) What type of joint is formed when an oval-shaped bone fits into a depression and provides two directions of movement?

A) Pivot B) Gliding C) Hinge D) Ellipsoidal Answer: D 11) The joints of the hips and shoulders are examples of ________ joints.

A) pivot B) fibrous C) ball-and-socket D) saddle Answer: C 12) This movement occurs when you turn the sole of your foot inward to face the other foot.

A) Eversion B) Inversion C) Pronation D) Flexion Answer: B

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13) The primary ossification center in long bones is located in the ________.

A) epiphyses B) diaphysis C) articular cartilage D) central canal Answer: B 14) The bone disease ________ is a degenerative disorder characterized by thinning bones.

A) osteoporosis B) osteitis C) osteomyelitis D) osteosarcomas Answer: A 15) In bone remodeling, cells called ________ are responsible for wearing down bone so that more material can be built up.

A) osteoblasts B) osteocytes C) osteoclasts D) osteoprogenitor cells Answer: C 16) Which mineral is included in the composition of bone?

A) Iodine B) Calcium C) Potassium D) Iron Answer: B 17) The spinal column and bones of the middle ear are part of the ________ skeleton.

A) superior B) axial C) inferior D) appendicular Answer: B 18) ________ is an abnormal, anterior curve of the lower back.

A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) None of the these.

Answer: A

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19) ________ is bone disorder characterized by low vitamin D levels in adults A) Osteomyelitis B) Sarcoma C) Scurvy D) Osteomalacia Answer: D 20) ________ is a nutritional disorder caused by a vitamin C deficiency.

A) Osteomalacia B) Rickets C) Scurvy D) Chondrosarcoma Answer: C 21) Scoliosis is an example of what classification of disorders?

A) Infection B) Congenital C) Trauma D) Secondary Answer: B 22) If the body is not in balance, regardless of the cause, spinal curvatures may be exaggerated, leading to any of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) kyphosis B) scoliosis C) lordosis D) osteoporosis Answer: D 23) Which of these is NOT a type of arthritis?

A) Rheumatoid B) Osteo C) Septic D) Cruciate Answer: D 24) A bone fracture in your arm would be part of the ________ division of the skeleton.

A) thoracic B) appendicular C) axial D) spinal Answer: B

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25) This refers to the shaft of a long bone.

A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Endosteum Answer: C 26) This is the strong, fibrous connective tissue covering the bone.

A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Endosteum Answer: B 27) Which specialized connective tissue holds together freely moving joints?

A) Tendons B) Ligaments C) Epiphyses D) Muscles Answer: B 28) This membrane lines the spongy bone.

A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Endosteum Answer: D 29) This is the location in the bone where blood cell production occurs.

A) Epiphyses B) Periosteum C) Diaphysis D) Medullary cavity Answer: D 30) The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called the ________.

A) endosteum B) cancellous C) osteon D) trabeculae Answer: C

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31) The bar- and platelike tissue of spongy bone is called ________.

A) flagellite B) osteocytes C) osteon D) trabeculae Answer: D 32) Bone-building cells are called ________.

A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteocytes D) hemopoietics Answer: A 33) The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the ________.

A) Haversian system B) diaphysis C) epiphyseal plate D) chondrocytes Answer: C 34) An abnormal sideways bend and sway in the vertebral column is called ________.

A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) scoliosis D) convexities Answer: C 35) The number of pairs of true ribs is ________.

A) 12 B) 14 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: D 36) The joint between the humerus and the ulna is an example of a ________ joint.

A) Hinge B) Pivot C) Saddle D) Ball-and-socket Answer: A

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37) If the ends of a broken bone are not touching, then a medical procedure called ________ must be performed to set the bone.

A) inflammation B) formation C) reduction D) remodeling Answer: C 38) Ensuring that young children have a sufficient amount of vitamin D will prevent ________.

A) rickets B) osteomalacia C) osteoporosis D) Paget's disease Answer: A 39) Another name for a compound fracture is a(n) ________.

A) open fracture B) closed fracture C) comminuted fracture D) impacted fracture Answer: A 40) ________ is a general term used to describe an inflammatory process of a joint or joints.

A) Arthritis B) Osteoarthritis C) Gout D) Bursitis Answer: A 41) A ________ fracture is a type of bone injury most often seen in children that results from a bending injury to a bone.

A) simple B) compound C) greenstick D) spiral Answer: C 42) ________ is an immune system dysfunction that affects joints.

A) Gout B) Bursitis C) Septic arthritis D) Rheumatoid arthritis Answer: D

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43) ________ is the result of the infective process of a pathogen that was introduced to a joint.

A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Gout C) Septic arthritis D) Gigantism Answer: C 44) A cleft palate is an example of which of the following?

A) Congenital disorder B) Degenerative disorder C) Infection D) Nutritional disorder Answer: A 45) Osteoporosis is an example of which of the following?

A) Congenital disorder B) Infection C) Degenerative disorder D) Nerve disorder Answer: C 46) Osteomyelitis is a bone disorder caused by ________.

A) endocrine system dysfunction B) a tumor C) trauma D) infection Answer: D 47) Both projecting structures and depressions can work together as joining or ________ points to form joints.

A) articulation B) stress C) ball D) trochanter Answer: A 48) When pitching a baseball, which cordlike structures hold the pitcher's shoulder muscles to his bones?

A) Shoulder tendons B) Shoulder ligaments C) Shoulder joint D) Shoulder nerves Answer: A

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49) What is the purpose of the three ankle ligaments on the outside of the foot?

A) Providing a place to grow pedal cartilage B) Giving form to the bony skeleton of the foot C) Preventing athletic sports injuries to the foot D) Holding together freely moving ankle joints Answer: D 50) ________ fractures result in several, small pieces of broken bone.

A) Simple B) Compound C) Comminuted D) Greenstick Answer: C 51) Because they both connect to bone on one end, how do wrist ligaments differ from wrist tendons?

A) Wrist ligaments are connected on the other end to muscle.

B) Wrist tendons are connected on the other end to muscle.

C) Wrist ligaments are connected on the other end to joints.

D) Wrist tendons are connected on the other end to joints.

Answer: B 52) The bones of the chest form a thoracic cage that is ________ because of cartilaginous connections that ________ movement during the process of breathing.

A) rigid; prevent B) flexible; allow for C) tense; restrict D) loose; excite Answer: B 53) The pelvic girdle consists of each of these bones EXCEPT the ________.

A) clavicle B) ischium C) ilium D) pubis Answer: A 54) Joint replacement procedures artificially replace the joint to eliminate pain, restore movement of that joint, and improve ________.

A) ossification B) bone remodeling C) erythropoiesis D) activities of daily living Answer: D

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6.2 True/False Questions 1) Bending your knee is an example of joint extension.

Answer: FALSE 2) Rotation is when a bone draws a part forward.

Answer: FALSE 3) Supination turns the palm downward.

Answer: FALSE 4) One hundred twenty-six bones comprise the appendicular skeleton.

Answer: TRUE 5) The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the thorax, spinal column, hyoid bone, bones of the middle ear, and skull.

Answer: FALSE 6) The tarsals are found in the hands.

Answer: FALSE 7) There are twelve thoracic vertebrae.

Answer: TRUE 8) The skull has mainly synovial joints.

Answer: FALSE 9) Once you reach puberty, bone stops regenerating.

Answer: FALSE 10) The flexible parts of your nose and ears are spongy bone.

Answer: FALSE 11) The patella is the kneecap.

Answer: TRUE 12) Bone is covered by endosteum.

Answer: FALSE 13) The radius and humerus meet at a hinge joint.

Answer: FALSE 14) Fibrous joints are not freely moving.

Answer: TRUE 15) Arthritis is mainly caused by cracking your knuckles and slouching.

Answer: FALSE 55 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Vitamin D allows the body to absorb ingested phosphorous from the digestive tract.

Answer: FALSE 17) The pelvic girdle in cis-women has a greater pubic angle that facilitates childbirth.

Answer: TRUE 18) Bones grow longitudinally to lengthen.

Answer: TRUE 19) The osteoclasts' two jobs are to tear down bone material and help move calcium and phosphate into the blood.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 7 The Muscular System 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Thin myofilaments are made up of the protein ________.

A) Z lines B) myosin C) myofibril D) actin Answer: D 2) Which of the following features of muscles are found within muscle fibers?

A) epimysium B) muscle segments C) perimysium D) myofibrils Answer: D 3) The nervous system signals a skeletal muscle to contract using the neurotransmitter ________.

A) acetylcholine B) serotonin C) epinerphrine D) dopamine Answer: A 4) Skeletal muscle produces body movement as well as maintains our ________ as we sit.

A) strength B) vasodilation C) vasoconstriction D) posture Answer: D 5) The ________ is the prime elbow flexor.

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A) biceps femoris B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) flexor digitorum Answer: B 6) The ________ muscle is located on the front of the lower leg.

A) gastrocnemius B) latissimus dorsi C) tibialis anterior D) hamstring Answer: C 7) Which type of muscle will NOT regenerate once it is severely damaged?

A) Smooth B) Visceral C) Cardiac D) Skeletal Answer: C 8) Which term is used to designate muscle pain?

A) Myalgia B) Ataxia C) Paralysis D) Spasm Answer: A 9) Which disorder is caused by toxins produced by bacteria?

A) Muscular dystrophy B) Guillain-Barré syndrome C) Myasthenia gravis D) Tetanus Answer: D 10) Striations, which given the muscle a "striped" appearance, are NOT found in which type of muscle?

A) Skeletal B) Cardiac C) Smooth D) Voluntary Answer: C 11) Blood is pumped through the heart by which type of muscle?

A) Skeletal B) Smooth C) Cardiac D) Visceral 57 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C 12) The stationary attachment of the muscle is called the ________.

A) point of movement B) point of insertion C) point of control D) point of origin Answer: D

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13) The action of many muscles is opposed by another muscle with the opposite action, termed a ________.

A) agonist B) synergist C) antagonist D) primary actor Answer: C 14) Rotation occurs when you have movement around a single ________.

A) axis B) vessel C) vertebrae D) ball and socket Answer: A 15) The muscle that enables a joint to bend is the ________.

A) flexion B) flexor C) extension D) extensor Answer: B 16) The thick myofilament is made of a protein called ________.

A) titin B) myosin C) kinesin D) actin Answer: B 17) Shortened ________ shorten many muscle fibers to cause a muscle to contract.

A) sarcomeres B) myosin C) actin D) Z lines Answer: A 18) Skeletal muscles are able to contract ________ times faster than smooth muscle.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60 Answer: C

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19) Almost ________ percent of the body's weight comes from its muscles.

A) 15 B) 50 C) 65 D) 80 Answer: B 20) The muscle end that is attached to the moving bone is the ________.

A) point of movement B) point of insertion C) point of control D) point of origin Answer: B 21) A running-related inflammatory condition of the connective muscles surrounding the tibia is commonly called ________.

A) a sprain B) a hernia C) shin splints D) a strain Answer: C 22) Myasthenia gravis is a ________ disease with gradually increasing profound muscle weakness.

A) cancerous B) cardiovascular C) skeletomuscular D) neuromuscular Answer: D 23) The cause of fibromyalgia is ________.

A) unknown B) acute injury C) sudden, involuntary muscle spasms D) bacterial infection Answer: A 24) Muscular dystrophy is a(n) ________ muscular disease in which muscle fibers degenerate.

A) autoimmune B) genetic C) cancerous D) acute Answer: B

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25) The bacteria Clostridium tetani releases a toxin that causes ________, which creates rigid paralysis.

A) tendonitis B) ataxia C) fibromyalgia D) tetanus Answer: D 26) A ________ is a tear or a break in a ligament.

A) spasm B) sprain C) cramp D) strain Answer: B 27) Atrophy means muscles ________.

A) have increased growth B) waste away C) will be scarred D) develop excessively in childhood Answer: B 28) The toxin used in Botox to treat wrinkles is ________.

A) Botulinum toxin B) Clostridium tetani C) staph D) acetylcholine Answer: A 29) A strain is a tear or injury in muscles or ________.

A) nerve fibers B) cartilage C) ligaments D) tendons Answer: D 30) The location of pain is confined to tender points in ________.

A) muscular dystrophy B) tetanus C) myasthenia gravis D) fibromyalgia Answer: D

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31) A voluntary muscle is ________.

A) a muscle of organs B) visceral C) smooth D) under conscious control Answer: D 32) This type of muscle tissue contains striations.

A) Involuntary muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle D) Visceral Answer: B 33) Another name for visceral muscle is ________ muscle.

A) cardiac B) voluntary C) smooth D) striated Answer: C 34) Strength training causes ________.

A) muscle atrophy B) a decrease in blood vessels to a muscle C) muscle hypertrophy D) a decrease in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell Answer: C 35) Muscles that cause movement are known as ________.

A) antagonists B) agonists C) secondary movers D) points of insertion Answer: B 36) The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii ________.

A) are synergistic for each other B) both have their origin in the forearm C) are antagonist to each other D) both have their insertions in the shoulder Answer: C

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37) Intercalated discs are found in ________.

A) striated muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) tendons Answer: B 38) Wasting away or deterioration of muscle is called ________.

A) hypertrophy B) ankylosis C) atrophy D) myositis Answer: C 39) ________ is tissue death.

A) Tetanus B) Ataxia C) Hernia D) Necrosis Answer: D 40) A fibrous tissue that serves as an attachment for muscle to bone is ________.

A) a ligament B) cartilage C) adipose tissue D) a tendon Answer: D 41) Muscles needed for endurance require ________ than do less demanding muscles.

A) more nerves B) a richer blood supply C) less mass D) more heat Answer: B 42) The movement that is opposite of flexion is ________.

A) abduction B) rotation C) extension D) supination Answer: C

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43) ________ provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the crossbridges with actin.

A) ATP B) Calcium C) Potassium D) Vitamin D Answer: A 44) All of the following can be used in naming a muscle EXCEPT ________.

A) location of attachments B) size C) color D) shape Answer: C 45) Pectoralis major is located in the ________.

A) elbow B) chest C) upper portion of the thigh D) front of lower leg Answer: B 46) When smooth muscle relaxation leads to ________ in a blood vessel, blood pressure can decrease.

A) spasm B) necrosis C) vasoconstriction D) vasodilation Answer: D 47) During an asthma attack, smooth muscles in the airways of the lungs ________, making it difficult to get air into and out of the lungs.

A) constrict B) dilate C) relax D) rupture Answer: A 48) Fibromyalgia may be one of the most common disorders for ________.

A) men under age 40 B) women under age 40 C) children under age 10 D) elderly over age 65 Answer: B

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49) This bacteria releases a toxin that causes tetanus.

A) Meningitis B) E. coli C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Clostridium tetani Answer: D 50) A muscle that contracts involuntarily, suddenly, and violently for a prolonged period of time is said to have ________.

A) ataxia B) fibromyalgia C) a cramp D) a strain Answer: C 51) Drooping of one or both of the upper eyelids is often the first sign of ________.

A) ataxia B) fibromyalgia C) myasthenia gravis D) muscular dystrophy Answer: C 52) ________ are donut-shaped muscles that act as doors to let material in or out.

A) Sphincters B) Intercalated discs C) Aponeuroses D) Primary movers Answer: A 53) Broad sheets of connective tissue that connect some facial and abdominal muscles to bone instead of tendons are called ________.

A) tendons B) aponeuroses C) ligaments D) sphincters Answer: B 54) Which body feature do ultramarathon runners count on to give their muscles fuel for endurance?

A) Richer blood supply B) Stronger long bones C) Toned ligaments and tendons D) Healthy cartilage Answer: A

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55) When competing in a swimming meet, participants release fuel energy from their muscles.

What does that activity produce?

A) Red blood cells B) Glucose C) More energy D) Heat Answer: D 56) How do cardiac muscle fibers differ from the muscle fibers of the arms and legs?

A) Longer muscle fibers than the limbs B) Non-striated fibers rather than striated fibers C) Poorer supply of blood than the limbs D) Routine involuntary movement Answer: D 57) Because the heart must work constantly, the cardiac muscles must ________.

A) contract less often than other muscles B) receive a generous blood supply C) be under constant voluntary control D) contain longer fibers than other muscles Answer: B 7.2 True/False Questions 1) Smooth muscle is found in the stomach.

Answer: TRUE 2) Ligaments attach muscle to bone.

Answer: FALSE 3) The rectus femoris is in the arm.

Answer: FALSE 4) Abduction moves a muscle away from midline.

Answer: TRUE 5) Extension decreases the angle between two bones.

Answer: FALSE 6) Vasoconstriction makes vessels smaller.

Answer: TRUE 7) Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart.

Answer: TRUE 8) Hypertrophy is muscle wasting.

Answer: FALSE 66 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) During the crossbridge cycle, actin heads grab onto the myosin filament.

Answer: FALSE 10) Sprains are tears or breaks in ligaments.

Answer: TRUE 11) Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system.

Answer: TRUE 12) Electromyography is a test in which a muscle or group of muscles are stimulated with an electrical impulse.

Answer: TRUE 13) The biceps brachii is an extensor for the elbow.

Answer: FALSE 14) The pectoralis major muscle is named for its action.

Answer: FALSE 15) Smooth muscle is voluntary muscle.

Answer: FALSE 16) The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium.

Answer: TRUE 17) Muscle is a general term for all contractile tissue.

Answer: TRUE 18) Only voluntary muscle has the ability to stretch, or extensibility.

Answer: FALSE 19) Shivering is a way of generating heat via dilation of many blood vessels.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 8 The Integumentary System 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which layer of the skin contains all of the major glands?

A) Subcutaneous fascia B) Epidermis C) Stratum basale D) Dermis Answer: D 2) Variation in skin color from light to darker tones is primarily related to the pigment ________.

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A) melanin B) hemoglobin C) bilirubin D) carotene Answer: A 3) The condition of yellow jaundice occurs when the body builds up excess ________.

A) carotene B) melanin C) bilirubin D) freckles Answer: C 4) Collagenous and elastic fibers of the ________ make it possible for the skin to flex with movement of the body.

A) dermis B) subcutaneous C) epidermis D) fascia Answer: A 5) ________ sweat glands become active at puberty.

A) Sebaceous B) Apocrine C) Salivary D) Eccrine Answer: B 6) The skin is attached to the muscles of the body by the ________ layer.

A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) subcutaneous Answer: C 7) Connective tissue of the skin is developed from ________.

A) melanocytes B) fibroblasts C) collagen D) fascia Answer: B 8) What is the degree of burn in which all three layers of skin have been affected?

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth Answer: C 68 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) The "rule of ________" is a system devised to assess the amount of body surface affected by a burn.

A) injury B) nines C) many D) five Answer: B 10) After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ________, in which skin is removed from an unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area.

A) antibacterial patch B) heterograft C) donor site D) autograft Answer: D 11) Epidermal cells are sloughed off from the ________.

A) basal layer B) clear layer C) horny layer D) dermal layer Answer: C 12) Specialized epithelial cells originating from the nail ________ form your nails.

A) root B) cells C) bed D) base Answer: A

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13) What color would you expect to see on a healthy nail bed?

A) Blanche B) White C) Pink D) Tan Answer: C 14) By the time epidermal cells reach the surface of the epidermis, they are filled with ________.

A) keratin B) carotene C) lunula D) granulosa Answer: A 15) Which of the following is not a major function of the integumentary system?

A) protection from pathogens B) temperature regulation C) vitamin D synthesis D) pH balance Answer: D 16) Medication delivered into the skin is called ________.

A) intravascular B) intramuscular C) intradermal D) intraspinal Answer: C 17) ________ is a disease in which there is reduced blood flow to the extremities.

A) PVD B) Jaundice C) Dermatitis D) RBC Answer: A 18) Which of the following is a fungal infection?

A) Dermatitis B) Tinea pedis C) Urticaria D) Psoriasis Answer: B

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19) Fourth-degree burns penetrate to the ________, muscles, or tendons.

A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) bone Answer: D 20) The skin's ability to return back to normal after being deformed is called ________.

A) carotene B) turgor C) melanin D) rigor Answer: B 21) Another name for the subcutaneous fascia is the ________.

A) epidermis B) stratum basale C) hypodermis D) corium Answer: C 22) Capillary refill time normally takes less than ________ seconds.

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: A 23) Nail beds become ________ in tint as the oxygen level in the tissue decreases.

A) reddish B) pinkish C) bluish D) blackish Answer: C 24) Hair, like the fingernails and toenails, is composed of a fibrous protein called ________.

A) antigen B) bilirubin C) collagen D) keratin Answer: D

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25) A lesion can include all of the following EXCEPT a(n) ________.

A) wound B) injury C) single infected patch of skin D) infected follicle Answer: D 26) Dermatitis is an inflammatory process that can be caused by ________ or chemicals.

A) scabies B) general warts C) acne D) plants Answer: D 27) A ________ is an another name for an ulcer or an eating away of the skin.

A) macule B) abrasion C) erosion D) pimple Answer: C 28) Basal cell carcinoma usually ________.

A) spreads through organs B) penetrates to muscle and bone C) affects all melanocytes D) spreads locally Answer: D 29) Which statement is NOT true of the epidermis?

A) It is a stratified squamous epithelium.

B) It contains blood vessels.

C) It is the outermost layer of skin.

D) It contains the stratum corneum.

Answer: B 30) The stratum corneum ________.

A) is composed of mostly dead cells B) is the innermost layer of the epidermis C) contains melanocytes which give the skin color D) lies underneath the stratum basale Answer: A

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31) The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the release of ________.

A) keratin B) melanin C) sebum D) collagen Answer: B 32) ________ is a chronic skin condition marked by red, dry, crusty papules that form circular borders over the affected areas.

A) Psoriasis B) Eczema C) Shingles D) Scabies Answer: A 33) ________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a belt-like pattern of patches.

A) Scabies B) Pediculosis C) Herpes zoster D) Acne vulgaris Answer: C 34) A(n) ________ is a localized elevation of the skin often accompanied by itching.

A) erosion B) wheal C) pustule D) macule Answer: B 35) Which of the following is NOT found in the dermis of the skin?

A) Connective tissue B) Nerve endings C) Melanocytes D) Sweat glands Answer: C 36) The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail, actually part of the epidermis, is called the ________.

A) nail body B) cuticle C) lunula D) nail bed Answer: D

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37) This type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair.

A) Sebaceous B) Sudoriferous C) Eccrine D) Apocrine Answer: A 38) Burns that penetrate to the dermis and are characterized by blisters, pain, and redness are classified as ________.

A) first-degree burns B) second-degree burns C) third-degree burns D) fourth-degree burns Answer: B 39) The rule of nines is used to determine the ________.

A) depth of burns B) color of burns C) body surface area burned D) complications of burns Answer: C 40) This skin infection is also called furuncles.

A) Tinea B) Impetigo C) Warts D) Boils Answer: D 41) What is TRUE about the transdermal route of administering medication?

A) Frequent dosing is necessary.

B) The medication is effective only for short periods.

C) Medication is slowly absorbed into the bloodstream.

D) Medicine is delivered subcutaneously.

Answer: C 42) Individuals with a malfunctioning adrenal gland may have what color of skin?

A) Blue B) Red C) Yellow D) Bronze Answer: D

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43) What is NOT a place where large numbers of sweat glands are concentrated?

A) On the forehead B) On the tops of the feet C) In the palms D) Under the arms Answer: B 44) The skin helps regulate temperature using ________.

A) sweat from eccrine glands B) vasodilation or vasoconstriction C) raising hairs D) All of these.

Answer: D 45) Fever blisters or cold sores are caused by the ________ virus.

A) Herpes varicella B) Herpes zoster C) Herpes simplex type 1 D) decubitus Answer: C 46) In the the "rule of nines," the perineum accounts for ________ percent of the body surface area.

A) 18 B) 9 C) 4.5 D) 1 Answer: D 47) Shingles is caused by the ________ virus.

A) herpes varicella B) herpes zoster C) herpes simplex D) decubitus Answer: B 48) A(n) ________ results from mechanically scraping away a portion of the skin's layers.

A) boil B) abrasion C) cold sore D) contusion Answer: B

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49) What is NOT a complication of burns?

A) Bacterial infection B) Heat loss C) Fluid loss D) Autografting Answer: D 50) ________ develops when sebaceous glands oversecrete sebum.

A) A bedsore B) A contusion C) Acne D) Athlete's foot Answer: C 51) ________ is a common type of contagious fungal skin infection that occurs between the toes or on the palms of fingers.

A) Tinea corporis B) Tinea unguium C) Tinea cruris D) Tinea pedis Answer: D 52) ________ is a fungal infection of the groin.

A) Tinea corporis B) Tinea unguium C) Tinea cruris D) Tinea pedis Answer: C 53) A ________ ulcer is commonly known as a bedsore.

A) decubitus B) herpes C) suction D) compression Answer: A 54) ________ is a superficial form of dermatitis that exhibits redness, papules, vesicles, and crusting.

A) Malignant melanoma B) Eczema C) A contusion D) An abrasion Answer: B

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55) What do sweat glands NOT excrete?

A) Water B) Sebum C) Nitrogenous wastes D) Sodium chloride Answer: B 56) A burn victim comes into your local Emergency Room, and you are helping to assess the extent of their burns. In your assessment, you notice that the patient has burns on their head and neck, their right arm, their right leg, and the front of the torso. You determine that the patient has burns over ________ percent of their body.

A) 45 B) 63 C) 54 D) 36 Answer: C 57) A grandmother kissed the scraped knee of her grandchild. "It develops nature's bandage," she told the child. Which skin feature is she referring to?

A) Inflammation B) Pigment C) Blood clot D) Scab Answer: D 58) The diabetic patient faced amputation of his toes due to long-delayed wound healing in his foot. Which characteristic of his diabetic condition caused his medical crisis?

A) Decrease in his white blood cell activity B) Increase in his blood flow C) High blood sugar D) Insulin reactions Answer: A 59) The young actress's face was attacked by a knife-wielding robber. Her wounds were deep.

What response did her collagen fibers form to compensate?

A) Scab B) Scar C) Pigment D) Inflammation Answer: B

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60) A young man suffered a severe injury in a motorcycle accident. Rather than give him pain medications by IV or injections, his doctor ordered his pain medicines to be delivered through his skin. Which kind of patches work well this way?

A) Topical B) Sublingual C) Transdermal D) Subcutaneous Answer: C 61) A woman had repeated angina attacks. She carried nitroglycerin tablets with her at all times.

When needed, why did she place the nitroglycerin tablets under her tongue?

A) To avoiding the pain of intramuscular injections B) To get rapid absorption into her bloodstream C) To not touch the taste buds on her tongue's surface D) To promote sustained release of her medication over time Answer: B 62) A dermatologist recommended a soothing waterproof ointment to be applied directly to a baby's skin. Which kind of medicine delivery did she prescribe?

A) Topical B) Sublingual C) Transdermal D) Subcutaneous Answer: A 63) When outdoor temperatures reached a ten-year high, the mountain hiker appeared flushed.

Which action made her blood vessels get larger in diameter, allowing her to lose heat to the environment?

A) Vasomotor B) Vasodilation C) Vasoconstriction D) Vasopressor Answer: B 64) When shoveling snow from the driveway, the older man did not feel the bitter cold. Which action made his blood vessels get smaller in diameter, conserving heat in the warm core of his body?

A) Vasomotor B) Vasodilation C) Vasoconstriction D) Vasopressor Answer: C

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65) When ice skating at Rockefeller Center, a young skater got thoroughly chilled. Which of his body's reaction to the cold gave him "goose pimples"?

A) Faster subcutaneous blood flow B) Dehydration of his skin surface by cold C) His skin hairs pulling his skin muscles together D) Contraction of erector muscles in his skin Answer: D 8.2 True/False Questions 1) Nicotine to aid smoking cessation can be delivered by transdermal patches.

Answer: TRUE 2) Carotene gives a bluish hue to the skin.

Answer: FALSE 3) Second-degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis.

Answer: TRUE 4) Formation of a keloid is a result of underproduction of connective tissue.

Answer: FALSE 5) Each upper limb is considered nine percent of the body skin surface area.

Answer: TRUE 6) Keratinization softens cells.

Answer: FALSE 7) The part of the hair that you see outside the body is the follicle.

Answer: FALSE 8) The white, half-moon shaped area of your fingernail is called the cuticle.

Answer: FALSE 9) An infected blackhead is a papule.

Answer: TRUE 10) As your temperature rises during activity, your body signals blood vessels to constrict.

Answer: FALSE 11) Muscles in your skin are called arrector pili.

Answer: TRUE 12) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma.

Answer: FALSE

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13) Scabies is caused by egg-laying mites.

Answer: TRUE 14) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the surface of the skin.

Answer: TRUE 15) Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction.

Answer: FALSE 16) The cells that form the hair follicle are part of the stratum basale of the epidermis.

Answer: TRUE 17) Sebum is produced by apocrine glands.

Answer: FALSE 18) A crust is a dry exudation seen in secondary lesions.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 9 The Nervous System (Part I) 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The part of the nervous system that is located outside the brain and spinal cord is called the ________ system.

A) endocrine B) central nervous C) sensory D) peripheral nervous Answer: D 2) The autonomic nervous system is divided into which two branches?

A) Somatic, autonomic B) Sympathetic, parasympathetic C) Motor, sensory D) Input, output Answer: B 3) Myelin is a lipid insulation produced by the ________.

A) microglia B) oligodendrocytes C) astrocytes D) ependymal cells Answer: B 4) Which part of the neuron is responsible for cell metabolism?

A) Body 80 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) Dendrite C) Axon D) Synapse Answer: A 5) Neurons with the ability to monitor the environment are called ________ neurons.

A) accessory B) motor C) sensory D) output Answer: C

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6) Neurons are able to generate tiny electrical currents by changing the ________ of their membranes.

A) composition B) shape C) pathway D) permeability Answer: D 7) If a neuron is more positively charged than it is when resting, it is said to be ________.

A) refractory B) repolarized C) depolarized D) polarized Answer: C 8) A neuron that is more negatively charged than it is at rest is ________.

A) polarized B) hyperpolarized C) depolarized D) refractory Answer: B 9) Impulses are conducted more rapidly along a neuron if ________ is present.

A) calcium B) sodium C) myelin D) spinal fluid Answer: C 10) Which of the following is a medical disorder in which the myelin in the CNS has been destroyed?

A) Multiple sclerosis B) Meningitis C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Myasthenia gravis Answer: A 11) The nerves going to the upper limbs join the spinal cord at the ________ region.

A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral Answer: A

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12) The third, innermost layer of the meninges is called the ________.

A) dura mater B) arachnoid mater C) pia mater D) epidural mater Answer: C 13) In the spinal cord, arterioles and capillaries are found in the ________.

A) pia mater B) epidural space C) subdural space D) subarachnoid space Answer: A 14) Which part of the spinal cord carries sensory information?

A) Commissure B) Ventral root C) Column D) Dorsal root Answer: D 15) Which spinal cord tracts carry sensory information to the brain?

A) Superficial B) Ventral C) Ascending D) Inferior Answer: C 16) Which of the following is NOT one of the three broad categories of causes of peripheral neuropathy?

A) Trauma B) Paralysis C) Systemic disorders D) Infections Answer: B 17) A quadriplegic patient with damage high in the cervical spinal cord may have a paralyzed diaphragm, such that he cannot ________ on his own.

A) breathe B) swallow food C) close his eyes D) speak Answer: A

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18) The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the ________.

A) central nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) peripheral nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system Answer: C 19) Dendrites ________.

A) are usually highly branched B) carry impulses away from the cell body C) are usually surrounded by myelin D) perform metabolic processes for the cell Answer: A 20) Sensory neurons are also called ________.

A) interneurons B) input neurons C) output neurons D) glial cells Answer: B 21) Neurons that carry information between other neurons are called ________.

A) interneurons B) efferent neurons C) motor neurons D) afferent neurons Answer: A 22) Which type of glial cell produces myelin for neurons in the brain?

A) Microglia B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Interneurons Answer: B 23) Infection of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord is called ________.

A) encephalitis B) meningitis C) blepharitis D) polyneuritis Answer: B

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24) Which type of glial cell attacks microbes and removes debris?

A) Microglia B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Schwann cells Answer: A 25) Which of the following statements is NOT true of multiple sclerosis?

A) It is considered a myelin disorder.

B) Patients may have disturbances in vision, balance, speech, or movement.

C) It is more common in women than men.

D) It is most often diagnosed in people over the age of 50.

Answer: D 26) When a neuron becomes stimulated (excited), ________.

A) the interior of the neuron becomes more negative B) sodium gates in the cell membrane close C) sodium gates in the cell membrane open D) the entire neuron remains at rest Answer: C 27) The deepest layer of the meninges is the ________.

A) pia mater B) choroid plexus C) arachnoid mater D) dura mater Answer: A 28) Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of a spinal cord injury describes ________.

A) peripheral neuropathy B) quadriplegia C) paraplegia D) a slipped disk Answer: C 29) Which disease is characterized by ascending paralysis?

A) Myasthenia gravis B) Polio C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Botulism Answer: C

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30) Which disease is characterized by progressive fluctuating muscle weakness starting in the facial or eye muscles?

A) Myasthenia gravis B) Polio C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Carpal tunnel syndrome Answer: A 31) Patients who have an injury to their cervical spinal cord segment and are paralyzed in all four limbs are described as ________.

A) paraplegic B) quadriplegic C) suffering from Guillain-Barré syndrome D) suffering from myasthenia gravis Answer: B 32) Patients with injuries to their thoracic spinal cord segment who are paralyzed in both legs are described as ________.

A) paraplegic B) quadriplegic C) suffering from Guillain-Barré syndrome D) suffering from meningitis Answer: A 33) Which of the following is a potentially fatal condition that involves infection of the meninges?

A) Polio B) Myasthenia gravis C) Meningitis D) Peripheral neuropathy Answer: C 34) Which inflammatory condition is a result of repetitive motion and leads to numbness in the palm and fingers?

A) Carpal tunnel syndrome B) Meningitis C) Myasthenia gravis D) Botulism Answer: A

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35) An injection of a local anesthetic into the spinal column is called a(n) ________.

A) epiphysis B) epidural C) subdural D) cutaneous Answer: B 36) Which of the following directional terms are used for the spinal roots?

A) Anterior and posterior B) Superior and inferior C) Dorsal and ventral D) Distal and proximal Answer: C 37) Which type of information can graded potentials convey to the central nervous system?

A) Amount of electricity generated B) Size of environmental change C) Length of signal sent and received D) Same information as action potentials Answer: B 38) What material gives white matter its color?

A) Myelin B) Cell bodies C) Potassium channels D) Depolarizing axons Answer: A 39) Gray matter is present in a spinal cord in three horns. Surgically cutting across the horns would destroy which type of material?

A) Myelinated axons B) Cell bodies C) Potassium channels D) Depolarizing axons Answer: B 40) What is the relationship between ions and myelin that prevents ions from passing through channels?

A) Size: Ions are large in diameter and myelin is much smaller.

B) Weight: Ions are light and myelin is much heavier.

C) Electrical: Ions have negative charges and myelin has a positive charge.

D) Solubility: Ions are water soluble and myelin is a lipid.

Answer: D

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41) Eating improperly prepared puffer fish can kill a person. Which chemical channels does the fish's toxin block?

A) Acetylcholine B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Epinephrine Answer: B 42) A runner crossed the finish line without feeling pain from her blisters or other injuries.

Which chemical neurotransmitter was involved?

A) Acetylcholine B) Epinephrine C) Endorphins D) Serotonin Answer: C 43) A college student had a depressed mood and trouble falling asleep. Which chemical neurotransmitter could cause such problems?

A) Acetylcholine B) Epinephrine C) Endorphins D) Serotonin Answer: D 44) What is the advantage of transmitting information by an electrical synapse?

A) It does not require neurotransmitters.

B) It is hormone free.

C) There is fast recovery.

D) There is less toxicity.

Answer: A 45) A woman suffers from chronic dizzy spells, resulting in difficulty keeping her body vertical.

Which reflex is involved?

A) Withdrawal reflex B) Vestibular reflex C) Startle reflex D) Patellar tendon reflex Answer: B 46) A taxi driver picked up a fare in a heavy rainstorm. Which reflex was activated when both the driver and the passenger unexpectedly heard a loud clap of thunder?

A) Withdrawal reflex B) Vestibular reflex C) Startle reflex D) Patellar tendon reflex Answer: C 88 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) A pediatrician tapped the knee of a child. She found that the child's patellar tendon reflex was abnormal. Which of the child's body areas might have problems?

A) Eyes, ears, or nose B) Tibias, ankles, or feet C) Knees, thighs, or hips D) Muscles, nerves, or spinal cord Answer: D 48) A premature child was born without working reflexes. Which function of reflexes is the child missing?

A) Protective (avoiding harm) B) Informative (sharing facts) C) Collaborative (working together) D) Active (triggering movement) Answer: A 49) Vesicles that are released from a chemical synapse are filled with ________.

A) calcium B) sodium C) neurotransmitters D) gap junctions Answer: C 50) A(n) ________ is a specialized synapse between somatic motor neurons and skeletal muscles.

A) gap junction B) neuromuscular junction C) chemical synapse D) electrical synapse Answer: B 9.2 True/False Questions 1) The autonomic nervous system controls voluntary movement.

Answer: FALSE 2) Oligodendrocytes make myelin.

Answer: TRUE 3) Potassium ions move across the cell membrane during depolarization of a neuron.

Answer: FALSE 4) There are eight cervical nerves.

Answer: TRUE 5) For many reflexes, only the spinal cord (and not the brain) is a necessary participant.

Answer: TRUE 89 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The speed of nerve impulse conduction depends solely upon the diameter of the axon.

Answer: FALSE 7) SSRIs prevent the cleanup of a neurotransmitter.

Answer: TRUE 8) The peripheral nervous system is everything outside the brain and spinal cord.

Answer: TRUE 9) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and destroys acetylcholine receptors.

Answer: TRUE 10) A synapse is a junction between two nodes of Ranvier.

Answer: FALSE 11) Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters to send information to other cells.

Answer: FALSE 12) Dendrites generate and send signals to other cells.

Answer: FALSE 13) Action potentials are "all or none."

Answer: TRUE 14) Cell bodies are myelinated.

Answer: FALSE 15) Myelin is produced by specialized glial cells.

Answer: TRUE 16) The wider an axon, the slower the speed of the action potential.

Answer: FALSE 17) All neurotransmitters excite the receiving cell to cause an action potential.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 10 The Nervous System (Part II) 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the largest part of the brain?

A) Cerebellum B) Cerebrum C) Brain stem D) Hypothalamus 90 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B 2) The grooves and ridges of the brain are known as ________.

A) hemispheres B) lobes C) convolutions D) meninges Answer: C 3) Heartbeat, breathing, and the cardiovascular system are controlled by the ________.

A) medulla oblongata B) midbrain C) cerebellum D) cerebrum Answer: A 4) The internal anatomy of the brain has which structure?

A) White matter only B) White matter surrounded by gray matter C) Gray matter only D) Gray matter surrounded by white matter Answer: B 5) The right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum are connected by the ________.

A) postcentral gyrus B) precentral gyrus C) corpus callosum D) ventricles Answer: C 6) Which structure in the diencephalon relays information to the cerebrum?

A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Pineal body D) Pituitary gland Answer: A 7) Which cranial nerve is chiefly responsible for eye movements?

A) Olfactory B) Facial C) Hypoglossal D) Oculomotor Answer: D 8) The vagus nerve is also known as cranial nerve ________.

A) X B) II 91 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) VIII D) XII Answer: A 9) To what sense does the term somatic sensation refer?

A) Taste B) Touch C) Smell D) Vision Answer: B 10) Which tract carries information about pain to the somatic sensory cortex?

A) Dorsal column tract B) Spinothalamic tract C) Spinocerebellar tract D) Ventral column tract Answer: B 11) Once touch information is sent to the brain, understanding will occur in the ________ area.

A) sensory association relay B) ganglionic association C) somatic sensory cortex D) somatic sensory association Answer: D 12) After a plan for movement has been developed, it leaves the ________ and connects with neurons in the thalamus.

A) nuclei B) limbic system C) motor cortex D) spinal tract Answer: C

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13) What gland directly bridges the nervous and endocrine systems?

A) pancreas B) hypothalamus C) adrenal D) testis Answer: B 14) A woman falls down a flight of stairs carrying a large box. She is admitted to the hospital paralyzed on her right side and unable to speak. Where is the woman's injury?

A) Spinal cord B) Temporal lobe C) Frontal lobe D) Brain stem Answer: C 15) During surgery, general anesthesia inhibits the ________, causing unconsciousness in the patient.

A) reticular system B) basal nuclei C) limbic system D) hypothalamus Answer: A 16) Which of these is a type of paralysis?

A) Spastic B) Bivalvular C) Reflexive D) Radical Answer: A 17) A brain injury with possible swelling and bleeding is known as a ________.

A) TBI B) CP C) TIA D) CVA Answer: A 18) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the cerebellum?

A) It is considered the "little brain."

B) It is posterior to the brain stem.

C) It is responsible for sensory and motor coordination and balance.

D) It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.

Answer: D

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19) The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to ________.

A) cardiac muscle tissue B) skeletal muscles C) smooth muscles D) vital organs Answer: B 20) A mild brain injury is commonly known as a(n) ________.

A) ischemic attack B) hemorrhage C) blood clot D) concussion Answer: D 21) A ________ is caused by disruption of blood flow to a portion of the brain due to either hemorrhage or blood clot.

A) cerebrovascular accident B) concussion C) traumatic brain injury D) commissure Answer: A 22) A ministroke is known as a ________.

A) TIA B) CVA C) concussion D) TBI Answer: A 23) Which fissure divides the brain into left and right hemispheres?

A) Transverse B) Longitudinal C) Medial D) Sagittal Answer: B 24) Which lobe of the brain is responsible for vision?

A) Occipital B) Frontal C) Parietal D) Temporal Answer: A

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25) Which lobe of the brain is responsible for taste?

A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Insula D) Occipital Answer: C 26) Which structure is responsible for the secretion of melatonin?

A) Pituitary gland B) Thalamus C) Hypothalamus D) Pineal body Answer: D 27) Hydrocephalus results from an excess of what fluid?

A) Blood B) CSF C) CNS D) ALS Answer: B 28) A group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS is called a(n) ________.

A) ganglion B) glia C) dendrite D) axon Answer: A 29) Which system controls mood?

A) Reticular B) Somatic C) Sympathetic D) Limbic Answer: D 30) Which of the following is a movement disorder exhibiting classic spastic paralysis?

A) TBI B) Huntington's disease C) Cerebral palsy D) CVA Answer: C

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31) What is the difference between the anatomy of the cranial nerves and that of the spinal nerves?

A) Cranial nerves are input pathways and spinal nerves are output pathways for the brain.

B) Cranial nerves can be sensory, motor, or mixed; spinal nerves are all mixed nerves.

C) Spinal nerves are much more specialized than cranial nerves.

D) Spinal nerves carry information related to the head, face, and neck; cranial nerves carry information related to visual, auditory, smell, or taste sensation.

Answer: B 32) A dentist identified the source of a college student's pain while chewing food or gum. Which of the student's cranial nerves was inflamed?

A) Olfactory B) Facial C) Vagus D) Trigeminal Answer: D 33) After a car accident in which his head hit the windshield, an injured man could no longer enjoy food through his sense of smell. Which of the man's cranial nerves was destroyed?

A) Olfactory B) Facial C) Vagus D) Trigeminal Answer: A 34) In a hockey game, a player suffered an injury to his facial nerve. Which sense was damaged as a result?

A) Vision B) Hearing C) Taste D) Smell Answer: C 35) The oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves control which movements?

A) Tongue movements B) Eye movements C) Leg movements D) Arm movements Answer: B 36) What distinguishes cranial nerves from spinal nerves?

A) Cranial nerves arise directly from the brain B) Cranial nerves are less specialized C) There are more cranial nerves D) Cranial nerves innervate larger areas of the body Answer: A 96 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) When a hiker encountered a bear in the wilderness, which part of her autonomic nervous system activated?

A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic C) Limbic D) Somatic Answer: B 38) Waking up from a deep sleep, a homeowner heard a burglar breaking the panes in his sliding glass door. What hormone made the homeowner have an increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, sweating, and a dry mouth?

A) Insulin B) Dopamine C) Estrogen D) Epinephrine and Norepinephrine Answer: D 39) Following a race, what part of the nervous systems helps heart rate come back down to resting?

A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic C) Limbic D) Somatic Answer: A 40) In the parasympathetic branch of the nervous system, which activity does acetylcholine NOT perform?

A) Exciting skeletal muscles B) Inhibiting cardiac muscle activity C) Blocking smooth muscle activity D) Stimulating emotion and memory Answer: D 41) The ________ is the diving line between the frontal and parietal lobes.

A) postcentral gyrus B) central sulcus C) longitudinal fissure D) lateral sulcus Answer: B 42) Which area in the brain controls motor output for speech?

A) Wernicke's area B) Broca's area C) Somatic sensory association area D) Premotor area Answer: B 97 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) The blood-filled spaces between the layers of the dura mater are called ________.

A) dural sinuses B) meninges C) dural spaces D) ventricles Answer: A 44) Ventricles in the brain allow for the circulation of ________ throughout the brain.

A) blood B) cerebrospinal fluid C) lymph fluid D) nutrients Answer: B 45) The white matter center of the cerebellum is called the ________.

A) fornix B) corpus callosum C) diencephalon D) arbor vitae Answer: D 10.2 True/False Questions 1) Gyri and sulci are known as convolutions.

Answer: TRUE 2) The parietal lobes are responsible for vision.

Answer: FALSE 3) The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata.

Answer: FALSE 4) The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brain stem.

Answer: TRUE 5) The diencephalon controls hormone levels.

Answer: TRUE 6) Thirst is regulated in the thalamus.

Answer: FALSE 7) Respiratory arrest is a clear sign of brain damage after a fall.

Answer: FALSE 8) The optic nerve controls smell.

Answer: FALSE 98 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Pain is perceived in the skin.

Answer: FALSE 10) The reticular system controls emotions and moods.

Answer: FALSE 11) The parasympathetic nervous system controls the "fight or flight" response.

Answer: FALSE 12) A brain tumor in the frontal lobe might cause significant changes in personality.

Answer: TRUE 13) Paralysis is the inability to control voluntary movement.

Answer: TRUE 14) Cerebral palsy usually begins after age 50.

Answer: FALSE 15) Ministrokes are called TIAs. Answer: TRUE 16) The meninges of the brain are continuous with the spinal cord meninges.

Answer: TRUE 17) The somatic motor system carries orders to skeletal muscle but not cardiac or smooth muscle.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 11 The Senses 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a visceral sense?

A) Touch B) Pain C) Hunger D) Heat Answer: C 2) The ________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera.

A) eyelid B) lens C) cornea D) iris Answer: D 99 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Tears act as a lubricant and ________ to protect the eyes from microorganisms.

A) antiseptic B) moisture C) bath D) glaze Answer: A 4) The cornea is found within the ________ of the eye.

A) sclera B) choroid C) retina D) conjunctiva Answer: A 5) The eye receives its nourishment from the vessels within the ________.

A) retina B) sclera C) conjunctiva D) choroid Answer: D 6) The vision center of the brain is located in the ________ lobe.

A) optic B) occipital C) temporal D) hypothalamus Answer: B 7) The amount of light entering the eye in controlled by changing the size of the ________.

A) Eyeball B) Lens C) Pupil D) Retina Answer: C 8) To help diagnose sleep disorders, doctors will measure which stage of sleep?

A) REM B) Myopia C) PERLA D) Amblyopia Answer: A 9) The three tiny bones of the middle ear are collectively known as the ________.

A) pinnas B) cerumen C) ossicles D) cochleas 100 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C 10) The ________ contain sensors necessary for equilibrium.

A) cochleas B) semicircular canals C) vestibules D) incus Answer: B 11) The bony labyrinth is another name for the ________.

A) auditory nerve B) outer ear C) middle ear D) inner ear Answer: D 12) The process by which nerve impulses travel to the brain to be interpreted as sound is known as ________ conduction.

A) sound B) sensorineural C) bone D) neural Answer: B

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13) ________ is the name given to the distinct taste of glutamates.

A) Gustatory B) Umami C) Meniere D) Tinnitus Answer: B 14) Tactile corpuscles are the receptors for which sense?

A) Taste B) Smell C) Hearing D) Touch Answer: D 15) Experiencing pain in the right shoulder due to liver disease is an example of ________ pain.

A) referred B) disguised C) phantom D) pseudo Answer: A 16) Amblyopia develops most commonly in ________.

A) adults B) children C) patients with astigmatism D) the elderly Answer: B 17) A patient who has itching in the ears due to a buildup of earwax could be said to have too much ________.

A) cerumen B) fluid C) eustachian D) cochlea Answer: A 18) A person has a condition in which the eye's lens loses flexibility and transparency, making it more difficult for light to pass through the clouded lens. For which health problem should this person receive care?

A) Blepharitis B) Cataract C) Clouding D) Astigmatism Answer: B

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19) Receptors of the ________ senses receive the signal of nausea.

A) visceral B) cutaneous C) accommodation D) labyrinthitis Answer: A 20) A person is diagnosed with cataracts. Which of the following is a primary risk factor for the development of this health problem?

A) Aging B) Gender C) Congenital defects D) Trauma Answer: A 21) A person has a problem with sound conduction. Which ear structure should be the focus of further investigation?

A) Stapes B) Malleus C) Cochlea D) Tympanic membrane Answer: D 22) A person is found to have otitis media. Which cause is least likely to be associated with this health problem?

A) Bacteria B) Viruses C) Upper respiratory infection D) Older age Answer: D 23) Sight can be considered a ________.

A) general sense B) special sense C) chemoreceptor D) cutaneous sense Answer: B 24) Which of the following are NOT associated with the retina?

A) Rods B) Lens C) Cones D) Photopigments Answer: B

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25) The external ear ends at the ________.

A) auricle B) tympanic membrane C) external auditory canal D) tragus Answer: B 26) Which of the following is NOT a bone of the middle ear?

A) Cochlea B) Stapes C) Incus D) Malleus Answer: A 27) Which of the following structures in the inner ear transmits sound?

A) Bony labyrinth B) Semicircular canal C) Vestibule D) Cochlea Answer: D 28) A defect of the ________ results in difficulty in visual detection of color.

A) lens B) cones C) rods D) cones and rods Answer: B 29) The sense of touch can be considered a ________.

A) general sense B) special sense C) chemoreceptor D) visceral sense Answer: A 30) Which skin receptors allow the skin to adapt to changes in temperature?

A) Nociceptors B) Photoreceptors C) Thermoreceptors D) Tactile corpuscles Answer: C

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31) Which of the following is NOT one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball?

A) Conjunctiva B) Sclera C) Choroid D) Retina Answer: A 32) Which photoceptors are found more densely around the perimeter of the retina?

A) bipolar cells B) hair cells C) rods D) cones Answer: C 33) ________ is an inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera and lining the inside of the eyelids.

A) Conjunctivitis B) Choroiditis C) Corneal abrasion D) Lens distortion Answer: A 34) A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a ________.

A) stye B) detachment C) cataract D) glaucoma Answer: C 35) An abnormal shape of the lens in the eye is referred to as ________.

A) astigmatism B) myopia C) presbyopia D) diplopia Answer: A 36) ________ is a chronic disease of the inner ear marked by a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and progressive hearing loss.

A) Cholesteatoma B) Otosclerosis C) Meniere's disease D) Mastoiditis Answer: C

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37) A person is being examined for possible cataracts. What information in the person's health history should be identified as contributing to the development of cataracts?

A) Trauma B) Congenital defects C) Sun exposure D) Increased eye pressure Answer: C 38) If left untreated, cataracts can lead to what?

A) Blindness B) Presbyopia C) Myopia D) Hyperopia Answer: A 39) Farsightedness is also known as ________.

A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: A 40) Farsightedness that is due to the aging process is known as ________.

A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: C 41) Nearsightedness is also known as ________.

A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: B 42) Lazy eye is also known as ________.

A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) amblyopia Answer: D

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43) A person is recovering from amputation of a limb. On which potential type of pain should care be focused?

A) Visceral B) Chronic C) Referred D) Phantom Answer: D 44) The ________ cranial nerve transmits information about sound to the brain.

A) sixth B) eighth C) seventh D) ninth Answer: B 45) A sensation of moving around in space is called ________.

A) vertigo B) purulence C) eczema D) tinnitus Answer: A 46) Ringing in the ears is also known as ________.

A) vertigo B) purulence C) eczema D) tinnitus Answer: D 47) A person has an infection of the middle ear structure that equalizes external and internal pressure, which makes it difficult for the eardrum to vibrate with incoming sound. Which structure(s) should care address?

A) Ossicles B) Eustachian tube C) Semicircular canals D) Tympanic membrane Answer: B 48) A person has a disease process that alters pain receptors. For which branches of nerve fibers should care be provided?

A) Nociceptors B) Extra sensors C) Visceral sensors D) Cutaneous sensors Answer: A

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11.2 True/False Questions 1) The cochlea is responsible for sensing direction changes, balance, and acceleration.

Answer: FALSE 2) The sense of smell is called the gustatory sense.

Answer: FALSE 3) Within the ear, tiny hairlike receptors are stimulated by sound and conduct the signal to the brain via the vestibulocochlear nerve.

Answer: TRUE 4) Sound signals are carried from the ear to the brain by the optic nerve.

Answer: FALSE 5) The sense of smell arises from receptors located in the olfactory region, or the upper part of the nasal cavity.

Answer: TRUE 6) Lacrimal glands are endocrine glands.

Answer: FALSE 7) Eyelashes prevent gross particles from entering the eye.

Answer: TRUE 8) Vitreous humor is watery.

Answer: FALSE 9) Rods are active in dim light.

Answer: TRUE 10) Photopigments undergo chemical changes when light hits them.

Answer: TRUE 11) The innermost layer of the eye is the cornea.

Answer: FALSE 12) Ciliary muscles surround the lens of the eye.

Answer: TRUE 13) The lens is located behind the retina.

Answer: FALSE 14) Constant exposure to loud noises can actually lower blood pressure.

Answer: FALSE

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15) When discussing sleep, REM refers to rapid eye movement.

Answer: TRUE 16) A person with changes in sight and smell is having difficulty with the general senses.

Answer: FALSE 17) A person experiencing pain should wait for pain receptors to adapt to the level and amount of pain before treatment.

Answer: FALSE 18) Repeated stimulation of touch receptors causes sensitization, where the receptors begin to ignore the stimulus.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 12 The Endocrine System 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the endocrine organs can effectively control the pituitary gland?

A) Pancreas B) Hypothalamus C) Thyroid gland D) Pineal gland Answer: B 2) Chemical messengers released directly into the bloodstream, with the ability to affect cells for hours or days, are called ________.

A) neurotransmitters B) dendrites C) hormones D) sensory cells Answer: C 3) Hormones made of ________ cannot cross cell membranes and thus must target receptors on the cell surface.

A) lipids B) protein C) carbohydrates D) cholesterol Answer: B 4) A standard level, known as the ________, is necessary to maintain the body's homeostasis.

A) set point B) target level C) norm D) quotient 109 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A 5) When a patient is experiencing a fever, the ________ resets the body's temperature set point.

A) brain B) hypothalamus C) adrenal gland D) pituitary gland Answer: B

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6) Which of the following hormones is directly controlled by the nervous system?

A) Parathyroid Hormone B) Cortisol C) Epinephrine D) Insulin Answer: C 7) One way in which the body copes with increased stress is to increase the secretion of ________.

A) cortisol B) norepinephrine C) oxytocin D) prolactin Answer: A 8) Which hormone, produced by the pituitary gland, is responsible for decreased urine volume?

A) Prolactin B) Antidiuretic hormone C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone D) Luteinizing hormone Answer: B 9) The ________ gland is part of the diencephalon and directs the activity of many of the endocrine glands.

A) adrenal B) pineal C) thyroid D) hypothalamus Answer: D 10) The ________ gland is divided into posterior and anterior segments.

A) thyroid B) thymus C) pituitary D) adrenal Answer: C 11) A stature disorder in which the body produces either too much or too little growth hormone is a disorder of which endocrine gland?

A) Anterior pituitary B) Posterior pituitary C) Adrenal medulla D) Adrenal cortex Answer: A

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12) Thyroxin and triiodothyronine, hormones necessary for cell metabolism, are produced in the ________ gland.

A) pituitary B) adrenal C) thymus D) thyroid Answer: D 13) The ________ is important in regulating blood glucose levels.

A) thymus gland B) pancreas C) pineal gland D) thyroid gland Answer: B 14) The ________ glands are located above each kidney.

A) thyroid B) adrenal C) pineal D) ovarian Answer: B 15) ________ is a condition in which the body is not producing adequate amounts of insulin or the body's tissues are insensitive to the insulin that is being produced.

A) Diabetes mellitus B) Diabetes insipidus C) Dwarfism D) Hyperthyroidism Answer: A 16) ________ steroids are a class of molecules that cause an increase in muscle mass.

A) Anti-inflammatory B) Anabolic C) NSAID D) Metabolic Answer: B 17) Cushing's syndrome causes weight ________, and Graves' disease causes weight ________.

A) gain; loss B) loss; loss C) loss; gain D) gain; gain Answer: A

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18) The release of norepinephrine and epinephrine into the bloodstream increases all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) respiration B) salivation C) pulse or heart rate D) blood pressure Answer: B 19) Prednisone can be used in the treatment of ________.

A) pheochromocytoma B) hypothyroidism C) diabetes D) inflammation Answer: D 20) The typical onset of type 1 diabetes is before ________.

A) puberty B) age 40 C) age 5 or 6 D) age 10 Answer: B 21) ________ increases the intensity of uterine contractions.

A) Oxytocin B) ADH C) Pituitary hormone D) Melatonin Answer: A 22) A person with an endocrine disorder wants to know the difference between a hormone and a neurotransmitter. What should be explained to this person?

A) Hormones are released at synapses.

B) Neurotransmitters affect a single cell, whereas hormones affect multiple cells.

C) Hormones affect the target tissue immediately and very briefly.

D) Neurotransmitters are released into the bloodstream.

Answer: B 23) A person is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. What should this person expect for the treatment of this condition in its early stages?

A) Daily glucose injections B) Daily insulin injections C) Pancreas transplant D) A controlled diet and weight-loss regimen Answer: D

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24) A 12-year-old child who is 6 feet tall is diagnosed with hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH). Which diagnosis should be expected on the child's medical record?

A) Dwarfism B) Gigantism C) Addison's disease D) Pheochromocytoma Answer: B 25) A person with a head injury has sustained damage to the pineal gland. What effect will the damage to this gland have on the person?

A) Lowered blood glucose levels B) Altered sleep regulation C) Lowered blood calcium levels D) Increased blood glucose levels Answer: B 26) The ________ releases oxytocin.

A) anterior pituitary gland B) posterior pituitary gland C) adrenal gland D) hypothalamus Answer: B 27) Insulin and glucagon are produced by the ________.

A) pancreas B) thymus C) adrenal cortex D) adrenal medulla Answer: A 28) Hyposecretion of T3/T4 is seen in ________.

A) Addison's disease B) Cushing's syndrome C) myxedema D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis Answer: D 29) Hormone replacement may be used to treat ________.

A) hyperglycemia B) pheochromocytoma C) Addison's disease D) Graves' disease Answer: C

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30) ________ is caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex, which results in excessive circulating cortisol levels, fatigue, round face, and easy bruising.

A) Cushing's syndrome B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis C) Addison's disease D) Graves' disease Answer: A 31) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the endocrine system?

A) The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body.

B) The endocrine system's secretions go into the bloodstream.

C) Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities.

D) Endocrine glands produce hormones.

Answer: C 32) Dwarfism can be caused by ________.

A) hypersecretion of ACTH B) hyposecretion of ACTH C) hypersecretion of growth hormone D) hyposecretion of growth hormone Answer: D 33) Which of the following is NOT true of oxytocin?

A) It is produced in the thyroid gland.

B) It increases the intensity of uterine contractions during labor.

C) It is one of the few hormones that is regulated by a positive feedback loop.

D) It stimulates milk ejection in nursing mothers.

Answer: A 34) Which of the following is TRUE of the adrenal medulla?

A) It dilutes stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system.

B) It guards against the "fight-or-flight" response.

C) It suppresses epinephrine production.

D) Cells of the adrenal medulla receive the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.

Answer: D 35) Which of the following is NOT true of the thymus gland?

A) It is located in the neck.

B) It is an endocrine gland.

C) It produces thymosin.

D) It is important in the body's immune system.

Answer: A

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36) Which of the following is NOT true of the pineal gland?

A) It is located in the brain.

B) It produces melatonin.

C) It may be what triggers sleep at night.

D) It causes the maturation of white blood cells.

Answer: D 37) The ________ gland releases a hormone that helps regulate blood calcium.

A) adrenal B) pituitary C) pancreas D) parathyroid Answer: D 38) If levels of a hormone rise, ________ turns off the endocrine organ secreting that hormone.

A) antidiuretic hormone B) negative feedback C) an exocrine gland D) the pituitary gland Answer: B 39) A prepubescent female is experiencing growth of pubic hair and breast development. Which hormone is responsible for these body changes?

A) Estrogen B) Epinephrine C) Norepinephrine D) Parathyroid hormone Answer: A 40) Glucagon directs the ________ to release stored glucose in the form of glycogen.

A) pancreas B) liver C) kidneys D) spleen Answer: B 41) Hyposecretion of cortisol causes ________.

A) Cushing's syndrome B) Addison's disease C) Graves' disease D) hyperpituitarism Answer: B

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42) All of the following are symptoms of Cushing's syndrome EXCEPT ________.

A) upper body obesity B) round face C) easy bruising D) hypoglycemia Answer: D 43) A person is experiencing fatigue, feeling cold, dry itchy skin, weight gain, and thinning hair.

This person should be suspected as having which condition?

A) Hyperthyroidism B) Hypothyroidism C) Addison's disease D) Cushing's syndrome Answer: B 44) A person who is sweating and experiencing muscle tremors, tachycardia, and insomnia should seek medical care for which potential health problem?

A) Hyperthyroidism B) Hypothyroidism C) Addison's disease D) Cushing's syndrome Answer: A 45) ________ is an enlargement of the thyroid gland.

A) Gigantism B) Exophthalmos C) Goiter D) Pheochromocytoma Answer: C 46) Symptoms of Addison's disease include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) low blood pressure B) hyperactivity C) weight loss D) excessive skin pigmentation Answer: B 47) In children, failure to attain normal height is a symptom of ________.

A) gigantism B) dwarfism C) type 2 diabetes D) Addison's disease Answer: B

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48) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by severe ________ (low blood sodium).

A) hypopituitarism B) hyperthyroidism C) hyponatremia D) hypoglycemia Answer: C 12.2 True/False Questions 1) Sweat glands are endocrine glands.

Answer: FALSE 2) Melatonin is released by the pineal gland.

Answer: TRUE 3) Ovaries secrete estrogen.

Answer: TRUE 4) Glucagon lowers blood sugar.

Answer: FALSE 5) Hormonal targets may be distant from secretion in the endocrine system.

Answer: TRUE 6) Follicle-stimulating hormone is secreted by the ovaries.

Answer: FALSE 7) Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal gland.

Answer: TRUE 8) Hormones are released into the bloodstream to bind to target organs and cells.

Answer: TRUE 9) Prolactin stimulates milk production.

Answer: TRUE 10) Excessive sleeping is a symptom of hyperthyroidism.

Answer: FALSE 11) Hypoglycemia is high blood sugar.

Answer: FALSE 12) Acromegaly is caused by excess levels of Growth Hormone.

Answer: TRUE

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13) Epinephrine is also known as adrenaline.

Answer: TRUE 14) Norepinephrine is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter.

Answer: TRUE 15) Prednisone is used to prevent organ rejection.

Answer: TRUE 16) Dehydration after ingesting alcohol demonstrates a hormonal negative feedback mechanism.

Answer: FALSE 17) The sole function of an organ is to manufacture a substance secreted from or used within the body.

Answer: FALSE 18) Control through body fluids is called humoral control.

Answer: TRUE 19) Steroid hormones typically bind to receptors outside of cells.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 13 The Cardiovascular System 13.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.

A) arteries B) arterioles C) veins D) capillaries Answer: A 2) Blood is pumped to the body during which part of the cardiac cycle?

A) Atrial systole B) Atrial diastole C) Ventricular systole D) Ventricular diastole Answer: C 3) What is the name of the structure that separates the lower chambers of the heart?

A) Atrial mitral valve B) Ventricular SA node C) Interatrial septum D) Interventricular septum Answer: D 119 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Which vessel brings blood to the heart from the trunk and pelvic region?

A) Superior vena cava B) Inferior vena cava C) Superior aorta D) Inferior artery Answer: B 5) What is another name for the left atrioventricular valve?

A) Atrial valve B) Bicuspid valve C) Tricuspid valve D) Semilunar valve Answer: B 6) Which section of the heart receives blood from the right coronary artery?

A) Right atrium B) Left atrium C) Right ventricle D) Left ventricle Answer: C 7) The group of pacemaker cells near the entrance of the superior vena cava forms the ________.

A) bundle of His B) atrioventricular node C) myocardium D) sinoatrial node Answer: D 8) Which cranial nerve releases a neurotransmitter that can decrease the heart rate?

A) Abducens B) Vagus C) Hypoglossal D) Trochlear Answer: B 9) Release of ________ causes an increase in heart rate.

A) norepinephrine B) acetylcholine C) serotonin D) dopamine Answer: D 10) Some scientists suspect there is a link between seasonal allergies and parasitic worms as both involve white blood cells called ________.

A) Eosinophils B) Basophils 120 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes Answer: A 11) Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies?

A) Monocytes B) Lymphocytes C) Erythrocytes D) Platelets Answer: B 12) Jill is Rh-negative. Her first baby was Rh-negative. She is pregnant again, but the baby is Rh-positive. Without medical treatment, will Jill's antibodies attack the baby's blood?

A) Yes B) No C) Probably not, because her first child is Rh-negative D) Probably yes, because her first child is Rh-negative Answer: C

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13) Capillary beds are fed by the ________.

A) capillaries B) venules C) arterioles D) platelets Answer: C 14) If the innermost wall of a blood vessel is damaged, ________ begin(s) the repair by attaching to the damaged site.

A) fibrin B) platelets C) fibrinogen D) thrombin Answer: B 15) What protein, produced by the liver, begins the clotting process?

A) Thrombin B) Prothrombin C) Fibrin D) Fibrinogen Answer: B 16) What color will blood exhibit if it has a high oxygen content?

A) Blue B) No color C) Bright red D) Purple Answer: C 17) The blood pH value measures the level of ________.

A) WBCs and RBCs B) electrolytes C) antigens and antibodies D) acidity and alkalinity Answer: D 18) A person has a problem with blood flow from the pulmonary veins. Which heart structure will be affected first by this blood-flow problem?

A) Left atrium B) Right atrium C) Left ventricle D) Right ventricle Answer: A

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19) What is the most common blood type among Americans?

A) A B) B C) O D) AB Answer: A 20) Which blood vessels have the thinnest walls?

A) arteries B) arterioles C) capillaries D) veins Answer: B 21) Leukemia is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and it creates a higher number of ________ than normal.

A) WBCs B) platelets C) RBCs D) thrombocytes Answer: A 22) Which of the following is NOT a cause of thrombocytopenia?

A) Vitamin K deficiency B) Bone marrow cancer C) Liver dysfunction D) Hypothyroidism Answer: D 23) Restricted blood flow through the coronary arteries causes a(n) ________.

A) myocardial infarction B) cerebral vascular accident C) aneurysm D) murmur Answer: A 24) The term for the stoppage of blood flow is ________.

A) homeostasis B) hemosclerosis C) hemothrombus D) hemostasis Answer: D

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25) A substance that decreases the blood's ability to clot is ________.

A) vitamin A B) aspirin C) vitamin K D) an enzyme Answer: B 26) The ________ nervous system signals blood vessels to constrict.

A) parasympathetic B) central C) sympathetic D) peripheral Answer: C 27) In terms of their location or movement, an embolus is a ________ clot, and a thrombus is a ________ clot.

A) stationary; stationary B) floating; stationary C) floating; floating D) stationary; floating Answer: B 28) The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve ________.

A) between the left atrium and left ventricle B) that opens from the right ventricle into the artery C) between the right atrium and right ventricle D) that opens from the left ventricle into the artery Answer: A 29) Which of the following is NOT a white blood cell?

A) Neutrophil B) Thrombocyte C) Lymphocyte D) Monocyte Answer: B 30) What is the approximate number of red blood cells in 1 A) 1 million B) 3 million C) 5 million D) 7 million Answer: C

of blood?

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31) The role of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to carry ________.

A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) hormones D) proteins Answer: A 32) Which of the following is an inherited clotting disorder?

A) Thrombosis B) Thrombocytopenia C) Hemophilia D) Embolism Answer: C 33) ________ is a condition in which an artery has become abnormally widened because of a localized weakness in the arterial wall.

A) Aneurysm B) Ischemia C) Gangrene D) Phlebitis Answer: A 34) Another name for "hardening of the arteries" is ________.

A) angina pectoris B) myocardial infarction C) arteriosclerosis D) embolism Answer: C 35) A person has a 50% blockage of one coronary artery but a good prognosis because of vessel anastomoses. What can this person do to increase the density of these anastomoses?

A) Engage in aerobic exercise B) Eat a high-fat diet C) Control elevated blood glucose D) Maintain a sedentary lifestyle Answer: C 36) A patient scheduled for valve replacement surgery is reviewing the cardiac cycle. Which valve is forced open to move oxygenated blood through the general circulation?

A) Mitral B) Aortic C) Tricuspid D) Pulmonary Answer: B

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37) A blood sample reacts to A, B, and Rh antibodies. What is their blood type?________.

A) OB) AB+ C) BD) O+ Answer: B 38) The blood type considered the universal donor is type ________.

A) A B) B C) O D) AB Answer: C 39) A patient is found to have problems with blood flow to the anterior wall of the left ventricle.

Which artery is most likely the cause of this patient's health problem?

A) Left coronary B) Right coronary C) Circumflex branch D) Posterior interventricular Answer: A 40) In which condition is the quantity of circulating platelets less than normal?

A) Anemia B) Thrombocytopenia C) Leukemia D) Polycythemia Answer: B 41) Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) extended neck veins B) pulmonary edema C) edema or swelling of the hands and feet D) an engorged spleen Answer: B 42) Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left-sided heart failure?

A) Jugular vein distention B) Edema or swelling of the hands and feet C) Pulmonary edema D) Hepatomegaly Answer: C

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43) When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it travels through the ________.

A) bundle of His B) sinoatrial node C) intercalated discs D) apex Answer: A 44) A person with heart failure is experiencing an increase in fluid returning to the venous circulation. Which body structures are most likely to visibly indicate this is happening?

A) Right and left atria B) Coronary arteries C) Tissues in the periphery D) Pulmonary arteries Answer: C 45) While recovering from a heart infection, a person learns that the lymphatic system helps remove damaged tissue from the body. Which statement about the lymphatic system is TRUE? A) It returns interstitial fluid to the arterial circulation.

B) It helps prevent disease by utilizing erythrocytes.

C) It runs counter to the cardiovascular system.

D) It helps distribute nutrients and hormones.

Answer: D 46) Slow heart rhythms are called ________.

A) arrhythmias B) sinus rhythms C) bradycardias D) tachycardias Answer: C 47) ________ is a condition in which chronic low levels of oxygen (due to lung disease or living in high altitudes) cause the body to produce higher than normal amounts of erythrocytes to more efficiently transport the smaller amounts of available oxygen.

A) Primary polycythemia B) Primary erythrocytopenia C) Secondary polycythemia D) Secondary erythrocytopenia Answer: C 48) ________ occurs when bone marrow cancer stimulates overproduction of erythrocytes.

A) Primary polycythemia B) Primary erythrocytopenia C) Secondary polycythemia D) Secondary erythrocytopenia Answer: A

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49) ________ is a blood condition in which there is a lower than normal number of red blood cells or abnormal or deficient hemoglobin.

A) Sickle cell anemia B) Leukemia C) Leukocytosis D) Anemia Answer: D 50) ________ is an inherited condition in which red blood cells and hemoglobin molecules do not form properly.

A) Sickle cell anemia B) Leukemia C) Leukocytosis D) Anemia Answer: A 51) ________ is a condition in which drugs such as corticosteroids and anticancer agents suppress the production of white blood cells.

A) Sickle cell anemia B) Leukopenia C) Leukocytosis D) Anemia Answer: B 52) ________ exhibits as a situation in which an infection causes production of a higher than normal number of white blood cells.

A) Sickle cell anemia B) Leukemia C) Leukocytosis D) Anemia Answer: C 53) The first heart sound "lub" is heard when ________.

A) the AV valves open B) the AV valves close C) the semilunar valves open D) the semilunar valves close Answer: B 54) Circulation can be split into two systems: ________ circulation, from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart, and ________ circulation, from the heart to the body tissues and back to the heart.

A) pulmonary; systemic B) systemic; pulmonary C) arterial; venous D) venous; arterial Answer: A 128 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) The heart is surrounded by a tough membrane, the ________, which contains the ________.

A) serous pericardium; myocardium B) pericardial cavity; epicardium C) endocardium; fibrous pericardium D) fibrous pericardium; serous pericardium Answer: D 56) When the ventricles and atria rest as the atria fill with blood, this is called ________.

A) epistole B) myostole C) diastole D) systole Answer: C 57) The ventricular walls are ________ than the walls of the atria because they must create the ________ necessary to move blood.

A) lighter; systole B) heavier; diastole C) thinner; lower pressures D) thicker; higher pressures Answer: D 58) The ability of cardiac muscles to contract on their own is called ________.

A) autorhythmicity B) intercalation C) ischemia D) conduction Answer: A 59) Antibodies often react with the antigens that caused them to form, making the antigens stick together in little clumps, or ________.

A) coagulate B) dissolve C) agglutinate D) contract Answer: C 60) Capillary beds are composed of two types of blood vessels: ________ and ________.

A) arterioles; venules B) a vascular shunt; true capillaries C) tunica media; tunica externa D) lumens; valves Answer: B

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61) Hydrostatic pressure is the force that the ________ of blood exerts on the inner wall of blood vessels trying to "push" fluid through the wall and out into surrounding tissue.

A) formed elements B) liquid portion C) erythrocytes D) leukocytes Answer: B 62) A normal oncotic pressure is ________ mm Hg. A) 22-25 B) 25-30 C) 32-37 D) 40-45 Answer: B 63) Traditionally, ________ mm Hg has been accepted as a normal blood pressure for healthy young adults.

A) 120/80 B) 120/90 C) 130/80 D) 130/90 Answer: A 64) In ________, the passageway through a valve is too small and restricts sufficient blood flow.

A) a thrombus B) an embolus C) valvular stenosis D) valvular insufficiency Answer: C 65) A heart attack that starts out slowly with little or no pain is called a(n) ________.

A) ischemia B) embolus C) silent MI D) stroke Answer: C 13.2 True/False Questions 1) The pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood.

Answer: FALSE 2) Arteries have thinner walls than veins.

Answer: FALSE 3) Systole is the phase when the heart contracts and ejects blood.

Answer: TRUE 130 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The vagus nerve releases a neurotransmitter that increases heart rate.

Answer: FALSE 5) The ventricles are contracting during the QRS interval of an EKG. Answer: TRUE 6) Plasma is a yellowish fluid.

Answer: TRUE 7) Monocyte is another name for red blood cells.

Answer: FALSE 8) Type AB blood has no antigens.

Answer: FALSE 9) The innermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica interna.

Answer: TRUE 10) Thrombin transforms fibrin into its insoluble, hairlike form called fibrinogen.

Answer: FALSE 11) During severe dehydration, blood pressure rises.

Answer: FALSE 12) A floating embolus is a thrombus.

Answer: FALSE 13) Decreased blood flow to tissues that leads to injury is called ischemia.

Answer: TRUE 14) Atherosclerosis is caused by plaque formation in blood vessels.

Answer: TRUE 15) Heart valves close when their tissue is depolarized.

Answer: FALSE 16) A blockage of blood flow to the heart causes a stroke.

Answer: FALSE 17) Anaerobic exercise helps increase the number of coronary artery anastomoses.

Answer: FALSE 18) The distribution of nutrients into the bloodstream is aided by the lymphatic system.

Answer: TRUE 19) The movement of blood back to the heart is enhanced by the skeletal muscle pump.

Answer: TRUE 131 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) The heart is lined by epithelium, called the myocardium.

Answer: FALSE 21) The atrioventricula node sets the heart rate under normal circumstances.

Answer: FALSE 22) An antigen is a protein on cell surfaces that can stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies to fight foreign invaders.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 14 The Respiratory System 14.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) During metabolism, the body produces which waste product?

A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon monoxide D) Carbon dioxide Answer: D 2) The process of gas exchange between air and blood is called ________.

A) ventilation B) external respiration C) internal respiration D) respiration Answer: B 3) The respiratory system terminates at the ________.

A) alveoli B) bronchus C) bronchioles D) lungs Answer: A 4) What region contains the coarse nasal hairs?

A) Pharyngeal B) Vestibular C) Olfactory D) Laryngeal Answer: B 5) ________ cells are responsible for the production of mucus.

A) Goblet B) Epithelial C) Cilia 132 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) Basal Answer: A 6) The vocal cords are located in the ________.

A) nasal cavity B) larynx C) oropharynx D) laryngopharynx Answer: B 7) The trachea extends from the larynx to the ________ vertebra.

A) second cervical B) first thoracic C) fifth thoracic D) fourth lumbar Answer: C 8) Type II cells that line the alveoli are responsible for the production of ________.

A) carina B) surfactant C) carbon dioxide D) nitrogen Answer: B 9) The diaphragm is covered by a serous membrane called the ________.

A) visceral membrane B) visceral pleura C) musculoserous membrane D) parietal pleura Answer: D 10) The area of the left lung that corresponds to the right middle lobe is ________.

A) lingula B) hilum C) carina D) sternum Answer: A 11) Which region of the brain controls breathing?

A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebrum C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe Answer: C 12) How do the abdominal muscles help with ventilation?

A) They help push down the rib cage.

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B) They push up the diaphragm.

C) They assist in more forceful exhalation by decreasing abdominal pressure.

D) They aid in inhalation by increasing thoracic volume.

Answer: B

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13) ________ is the amount of air moved into or out of the lungs at rest in a single breath.

A) Inspiratory reserve volume B) Vital capacity C) Tidal volume D) Expiratory reserve volume Answer: C 14) When the diaphragm contracts, lung volume ________.

A) decreases B) increases C) stays the same D) changes depending on circumstances Answer: B 15) The ________ nerve carries impulses to the diaphragm.

A) phrenic B) vagus C) diaphragmatic D) thoracic Answer: A 16) Due to the structure of the ________, a large amount of moisture is added to the respiratory system every day.

A) nares B) trachea C) conchae D) eustachian tubes Answer: C 17) The "cleanup" cells are located in the ________ layer of alveolar membrane.

A) surfactant B) epithelial C) interstitial space D) capillary endothelium Answer: B 18) The kidneys attempt to increase hemoglobin levels in the body by releasing ________.

A) iron B) oxygen C) erythrocytes D) erythropoietin Answer: D

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19) The diaphragm receives help from the ________ muscles during inhalation.

A) pleural B) thoracic C) external intercostal D) abdominal Answer: C 20) Pleural effusion with pus is known as ________.

A) hydrothorax B) empyema C) emphysema D) eczema Answer: B 21) A lack of lung surfactant causes ________ lungs that resist expansion.

A) floppy B) inflamed C) infected D) stiff Answer: D 22) Gases are exchanged across the wall of the ________.

A) alveoli B) bronchi C) bronchioles D) trachea Answer: A 23) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract?

A) Trachea B) Larynx C) Pharynx D) Nose Answer: A 24) Which of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory tract?

A) Trachea B) Larynx C) Bronchi D) Lungs Answer: B

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25) Which of the following is NOT a subdivision of the pharynx?

A) Tracheopharynx B) Nasopharynx C) Oropharynx D) Laryngopharynx Answer: A 26) Which structure is NOT a part of the larynx?

A) Thyroid cartilage B) Vocal cords C) Epiglottis D) Eustachian tubes Answer: D 27) The first respiratory structures without cartilage as a supporting tissue are the ________.

A) primary bronchi B) secondary bronchi C) bronchioles D) alveolar ducts Answer: C 28) The bulk movement of air into and out of the lungs is called ________.

A) evacuation B) perspiration C) respiration D) ventilation Answer: D 29) The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called ________.

A) evacuation B) perspiration C) respiration D) ventilation Answer: C 30) The amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled beyond a normal inhalation is called ________.

A) tidal volume B) residual volume C) inspiratory reserve volume D) expiratory reserve volume Answer: C

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31) ________ is a collection of air or gas in the thoracic cavity as the result of a stab wound or gunshot wound to the chest.

A) Emphysema B) Bronchiectasis C) Pneumoconiosis D) Pneumothorax Answer: D 32) ________ is a nonreversible condition in which the alveolar air sacs are destroyed.

A) Emphysema B) Bronchiectasis C) Pneumoconiosis D) Pneumothorax Answer: A 33) Which of the following is NOT a respiratory structure?

A) Larynx B) Esophagus C) Bronchus D) Nose Answer: B 34) If blood carbon dioxide levels rise, the ________ sends signals to the respiratory muscles to increase the rate and depth of breathing.

A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) cerebral cortex D) cerebellum Answer: A 35) ________ that help regulate breathing can be found in the aorta and carotid arteries and the medulla oblongata.

A) Capillaries B) Hormones C) Neurotransmitters D) Chemoreceptors Answer: D 36) Low ________ means that it is more difficult to expand the lungs.

A) potential B) impression C) compliance D) gradient Answer: C

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37) A person is found to have a problem clearing mucus from the lungs. What information in the person's health history could explain this problem with mucociliary clearance?

A) Smoking B) Low sodium diet C) Sedentary lifestyle D) High level of exercise Answer: A 38) ________ is a condition in which there is air inside the thoracic cavity and outside of the lungs.

A) Pleuritis B) Pleurisy C) Pneumothorax D) Hemothorax Answer: C 39) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive buildup of fluid in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura.

A) Pneumothorax B) Pleural effusion C) Pulmonary edema D) Chronic bronchitis Answer: B 40) ________ is lymphatic fluid in the pleural space.

A) Hemothorax B) Empyema C) Hydrothorax D) Chylothorax Answer: D 41) ________ is blood in the pleural space.

A) Hemothorax B) Chylothorax C) Hydrothorax D) Empyema Answer: A 42) ________ is an inflammatory process in response to an allergy that causes constriction of the airways of the lungs.

A) Asthma B) Emphysema C) Chronic bronchitis D) Bronchiectasis Answer: A

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43) As ________ destroys the alveoli, it interferes with the diffusion of gases between the lungs and the blood.

A) asthma B) emphysema C) chronic bronchitis D) bronchiectasis Answer: B 44) ________ is associated with a chronic productive cough, a decrease in the inner diameter of the airways, and swelling and inflammation of the airways.

A) Asthma B) Emphysema C) Chronic bronchitis D) Bronchiectasis Answer: C 45) The inability to get air out of the lungs is known as ________.

A) hyperinflation B) bronchospasm C) COPD D) gas trapping Answer: D 46) ________ is characterized by a build of fluid in the air spaces of the lungs A) asthma B) bronchitis C) pneumonia D) emphysema Answer: C 47) A person with a low iron count does not understand why she is experiencing shortness of breath and fatigue. What should be explained to this person about the role of iron in oxygenation?

A) Iron removes carbon dioxide from the blood.

B) Iron clears the lungs of foreign particles and debris.

C) Iron carries oxygen through the blood to the tissues.

D) Iron prevents the alveoli in the lungs from collapsing.

Answer: C 48) A person has a rib fracture that is affecting the manubrium of the sternum. Which rib is most likely fractured?

A) First B) Fourth C) Seventh D) Twelfth Answer: A 140 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) The ________ membrane represents the connection between the respiratory and cardiovascular systems.

A) thoracic B) alveolar-capillary C) upper-lower D) tracheal Answer: B 50) The mucous membranes of the nasal cavity moisten inspired air to ________ humidity.

A) 40% B) 60% C) 80% D) 100% Answer: C 51) ________ involves passing a tube through the vocal cords to sit above the carina between the right and left lung.

A) Intubation B) Aspiration C) Exhalation D) Inspiration Answer: A 52) The alveolar epithelium consists primarily of flat, pancake-like simple squamous cells called ________.

A) goblet cells B) tonsils C) pneumocytes D) capillaries Answer: C 53) ________ is a measure of the maximum amount of air a subject can expel from their lungs.

A) Tidal volume B) Total lung volume C) Residual capacity D) Vital capacity Answer: D 14.2 True/False Questions 1) The lower respiratory tract begins at the nares and ends at the trachea.

Answer: FALSE 2) The nasal cavity is divided into right and left halves by a septum.

Answer: TRUE

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3) A person with excess carbon dioxide in the blood will have low blood pH. Answer: TRUE 4) The respiratory mucosa is ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells.

Answer: FALSE 5) The oropharynx is posterior to the mouth.

Answer: TRUE 6) The major type of alveolar cell is Type II cells, or granular pneumocytes.

Answer: FALSE 7) The hormone erythropoietin is released in the lungs.

Answer: FALSE 8) Aspirated objects usually lodge in the left lung.

Answer: FALSE 9) The thoracic cavity and upper side of the diaphragm are lined with the visceral pleura.

Answer: FALSE 10) The hilum is the area where the two mainstem bronchi attach to each lung.

Answer: TRUE 11) The thoracic cage consists of 12 pairs of elastic arches of bone called ribs.

Answer: TRUE 12) The cerebrum controls breathing during sleep.

Answer: FALSE 13) Contraction of the diaphragm allows one to inhale.

Answer: TRUE 14) The portion of the sternum where CPR is performed is the xiphoid process.

Answer: FALSE 15) Atelectasis is the situation in which the air sacs collapse.

Answer: TRUE 16) Nitrogen is an active gas that interacts with various structures of the body.

Answer: FALSE 17) Goblet cells create about 3 ounces of mucus per day, which is removed by the cilia.

Answer: TRUE 18) The paranasal sinuses are air-filled cavities located around the nose.

Answer: TRUE 142 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) The oropharynx contains lymphoid tissue called the palatine tonsils.

Answer: TRUE 20) Tracheostomy tubes are temporary measures for ventilation placed in the mouth and only used in emergency situations.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 15 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) In addition to storage of white blood cells, the lymphatic system is also responsible for ________.

A) producing pathogens to fight infections B) making fluids to support the cardiovascular system C) production of some types of white blood cells D) maturation of some types of red blood cells Answer: C 2) Lymph nodes can be described as ________.

A) small, encapsulated bodies B) patches of cytokines C) immature antibodies D) organelles of immunity Answer: A 3) Lymphatic trunks from the lumbar region empty into the ________.

A) left lymphatic duct B) right lymphatic duct C) sacral duct D) thoracic duct Answer: D 4) Which structure will sometimes disappear in adults?

A) Thoracic duct B) Spleen C) Thymus D) Pancreas Answer: C 5) Unique molecules found on the outer surface of cell membranes are called ________.

A) antigens B) antibodies C) interferon D) cytokines Answer: A 143 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

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6) The series of mechanisms that target specific pathogens, remembering them from previous encounters and improving responses to them with experience, is called ________.

A) passive immunity B) helper cells C) activation cells D) adaptive immunity Answer: D 7) Which of the following are not a barrier that prevents invaders from entering the body?

A) cutaneous membrane B) serous membrane C) mucous membranes Answer: B 8) The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of damage are ________.

A) neutrophils B) basophils C) mast cells D) dendrite cells Answer: A 9) ________ release antibodies to destroy cells that carry non-self-antigens.

A) Mast cells B) Plasma B lymphocytes C) T lymphocytes D) Natural killer cells Answer: B 10) What cytokine is produced to stimulate macrophages and cause the death of cancer cells?

A) Interferon B) Interleukin C) Cytokinase D) Tumor necrosis factor Answer: D 11) What name is given to the series of reactions responsible for activation of 20 normally inactive proteins?

A) Complement cascade B) Inflammatory response C) Margination selection D) Differentiation process Answer: A

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12) For the body to launch an effective response to invading pathogens, innate immunity must join forces with ________.

A) the lymphatic system B) the cardiovascular system C) adaptive immunity D) the hypothalamus Answer: C 13) There are two types of proliferation, one for ________ and one for B cells.

A) natural killer cells B) lymphocytic cells C) effector T cells D) dendritic cells Answer: C 14) ________ are essential for the reproduction of B cells and other types of cells.

A) Memory B cells B) Helper T cells C) Cytotoxic T cells D) Regulatory T cells Answer: B 15) Once the threat of invasion is over, the ________ are responsible for "turning off" the response.

A) memory B cells B) regulatory T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) helper B cells Answer: B 16) HIV targets ________.

A) natural killer cells B) B cells C) helper T cells D) dendritic cells Answer: C 17) It is because of adaptive ________ that people normally get chickenpox only once.

A) immunity B) WBCs C) antibodies D) antigens Answer: A

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18) Barriers include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) mucous membranes B) skin C) sebaceous gland secretions D) erythrocytes Answer: D 19) Which stage indicates that cancer has spread to nearby tissues?

A) Stage 4 B) Stage 7 C) Stage 2 D) Stage 5 Answer: C 20) Which of the following is NOT one of the immune system's components?

A) Barriers B) NSAIDs C) Inflammation D) Chemicals Answer: B 21) The ________ gland is larger in children because they are exposed to many new infections.

A) thymus B) thyroid C) thalamus D) tinnitus Answer: A 22) In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the ________.

A) adrenal gland B) myelin sheaths in the central nervous system C) joint linings D) beta cells in the pancreas Answer: C 23) The ________ in the chest is part of the lymphatic system and helps T lymphocytes mature.

A) thyroid gland B) spleen C) pancreas D) thymus gland Answer: D

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24) The spleen is a lymph organ that filters blood and also destroys pathogens in the ________.

A) lymph B) fat C) interstitial fluid D) bloodstream Answer: D 25) Getting a flu shot to protect against influenza is an example of ________.

A) natural passive immunity B) natural active immunity C) artificial active immunity D) artificial passive immunity Answer: C 26) The fetus receives antibodies from the mother, which last several months after birth. This is an example of ________.

A) natural passive immunity B) natural active immunity C) artificial active immunity D) artificial passive immunity Answer: A 27) If you have had chickenpox once, you will not get chickenpox again. This is an example of ________.

A) natural passive immunity B) natural active immunity C) artificial active immunity D) artificial passive immunity Answer: B 28) If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of ________.

A) natural passive immunity B) natural active immunity C) artificial active immunity D) artificial passive immunity Answer: D 29) A(n) ________ binds to neighboring, uninfected cells and stimulates them to produce chemicals that may protect these cells from viruses.

A) complement B) interferon C) interleukin D) lysis Answer: B

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30) ________ occur when the body's response to foreign pathogens is abnormally weak.

A) Immunodeficiency diseases B) Autoimmune diseases C) Allergic reaction D) Hypersensitivity Answer: A 31) Activated lymphocytes must make thousands of copies of themselves in order to fight off the thousands of pathogens reproducing in the body. This reproduction of lymphocytes is called ________.

A) lymphocyte proliferation B) lymphocyte activation C) differentiation D) immunization Answer: A 32) A person who has full-blown AIDS often dies as a result of ________.

A) overproliferation of T cells B) the HIV virus C) infectious diseases D) organ failure and subsequent transplant Answer: C 33) If the body is exposed to a pathogen again in the future, memory cells allow the body to mount a much faster response to the invasion known as the ________ response.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary Answer: B 34) What kind of cells produce antibodies?

A) T cells B) B cells C) NK cells D) Neutrophils Answer: B 35) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

A) Lupus erythematosus B) Influenza C) AIDS D) Tonsillitis Answer: A

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36) In this stage of cancer, spread to distant tissues and organs is present.

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 Answer: D 37) In this stage of cancer, no spread from the origin is present.

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 Answer: A 38) In this stage of cancer, spread to nearby lymph nodes is present.

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 Answer: C 39) Which stage of cancer is the most difficult to treat?

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 Answer: D 40) Signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) cold B) pain C) swelling D) redness Answer: A 41) A malfunction of the ________ cells causes the body to fail to recognize itself.

A) B B) helper T C) memory T D) regulatory T Answer: D

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42) A foreign ________ causes an allergic reaction.

A) antigen B) antibody C) pathogen D) basophil Answer: A 43) A patient presents in the emergency department after he's been in a car accident. Because the patient is complaining about severe headaches, you suspect localized bleeding in his cranium.

Moreover, you run tests and notice major swelling in this area. Which course of action should be a priority?

A) Inducing local vasodilation B) Increasing pressure in the area to decrease bleeding C) Decreasing inflammation to prevent tissue damage D) Increasing the temperature in the cranial area to induce a fever Answer: C 44) Seven-year-old Rebecca has a cold. Which of the following occurs first?

A) The release of macrophages to attack the cold virus B) The release of natural killer cells to induce inflammation C) Neutrophils ingest any pathogens they encounter D) The release of white blood cells to cause viral membranes to rupture Answer: C 45) Which of the following statements about positive and negative lymphocyte selection is TRUE? A) In both instances, lymphocytes die after they do their job.

B) In both instances, antigens do not recognize pathogens in the body.

C) Only positive selection is needed for proper functioning of the immune system.

D) It is necessary to have lymphocytes that can fight invaders without harming the body's own tissues.

Answer: D 46) In ________, antibody-mediated mechanisms not only destroy pathogens specifically, but they also further stimulate both the adaptive and innate immune responses.

A) humoral immunity B) secondary response C) cell-mediated immunity D) regulatory T cell function Answer: A

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47) Kassie is allergic to bee stings. During a play date at the park, she gets stung and goes into anaphylactic shock while she's playing with her friends. Which of the following occurs during anaphylaxis?

A) High blood pressure B) Heart failure C) Widespread vasoconstriction D) Turning off of mast cells and basophils Answer: B 48) Lympathic fluid is scanned for pathogens as it circulates through ________.

A) veins B) lacteals C) bone marrow D) nodes Answer: D 49) In what way are lymphatic vessels similar to veins?

A) They empty into lymph nodes.

B) They are small, encapsulated bodies.

C) They include valves to direct flow.

D) They carry blood to the heart.

Answer: C 50) Lymphatic tissue is concentrated in Peyer's patches in the ________.

A) throat B) spleen C) small intestine D) thymus Answer: C 51) The presence of ________ on cells allows your immune system to distinguish between cells that are naturally yours and cells that are not.

A) antigens B) antibodies C) B cells D) T cells Answer: A 52) ________ are stationed throughout the body, always in connective tissue, and operate both in the allergy response and to expel foreign invaders.

A) Antigens B) Antibodies C) Mast cells D) Natural killer cells Answer: C

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53) ________ cells are antigen-presenting cells that are able to ingest foreign antigens and place these antigens into their own cell membrane.

A) Helper T B) Memory B C) Natural killer D) Dendritic Answer: D 54) In ________, the immune system deliberately raises the body temperature to destroy invading pathogens.

A) adaptive immunity B) fever C) natural immunity D) phagocytosis Answer: B 55) For ________ selection to occur, a lymphocyte must be able to recognize and bind to an antigen.

A) natural B) positive C) negative D) immune Answer: B 56) ________ T cells are responsible for a part of the adaptive immune response known as cellmediated immunity.

A) Helper B) Memory C) Regulatory D) Cytotoxic Answer: D 57) People who are ________ get sick very easily and do not recover easily.

A) anaphylactic B) immune C) autoimmune D) immunodeficient Answer: D

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15.2 True/False Questions 1) Antigen-displaying cells are infected by pathogens so they can display the antigens.

Answer: FALSE 2) Fever is caused by neurotransmitters released by pathogens.

Answer: FALSE 3) Innate immunity improves with repeat exposure.

Answer: FALSE 4) Antigens are the body's weapons against disease.

Answer: FALSE 5) Lymph nodes contain blood sinuses and red and white pulp.

Answer: FALSE 6) Lymphocytes are only part of adaptive immunity.

Answer: FALSE 7) Macrophages are part of innate immunity.

Answer: TRUE 8) Memory B cells remember pathogens.

Answer: TRUE 9) An increase in the number of lymphocytes is called proliferation.

Answer: TRUE 10) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets CD2 cells.

Answer: FALSE 11) Natural immunity is acquired during vaccination.

Answer: FALSE 12) Macrophages ingest invaders.

Answer: TRUE 13) Autoimmune disorders are the opposite of immunodeficiency disorders.

Answer: TRUE 14) A hypersensitivity reaction is also called an allergy.

Answer: TRUE 15) T lymphocytes are responsible for the part of adaptive immunity known as antibodymediated immunity.

Answer: FALSE 154 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Lymphatic tissue is surrounded by lymphatic sinuses (channels) filled with lymph fluid.

Answer: TRUE 17) Antibodies bind to antigens to destroy them.

Answer: TRUE 18) Polymorphonuclear granulocytes are leukocytes that have no granules in their cytoplasm.

Answer: FALSE 19) Monocytes are antigen-presenting cells.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 16 The Gastrointestinal System 16.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The digestive tract begins at the oral cavity and ends at the ________.

A) pharynx B) colon C) anus D) appendix Answer: C 2) Which of the following is a function of the oral cavity?

A) Starch digestion B) Protein digestion C) Peristalsis D) Nutrient absorption Answer: A 3) An abnormally formed ________ will interfere with the development of clear speech.

A) molar B) frenulum C) vermiform D) duodenum Answer: B 4) The smallest of the salivary glands are the ________.

A) sublinguals B) submandibulars C) parotids D) subbuccals Answer: A 5) Which teeth are blade shaped and used for cutting food?

A) Incisors 155 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) Canines C) Bicuspids D) Molars Answer: A 6) The ________ is used by both the digestive and respiratory systems.

A) epipharynx B) oropharynx C) nasopharynx D) larynx Answer: B 7) The esophagus differs from the rest of the alimentary tract in that it possesses only a loose layer of tissue called the ________.

A) adventitia B) muscularis C) mucosa D) serosa Answer: A 8) Which region of the stomach is located closest to the small intestine?

A) Fundus B) Body C) Pylorus D) Cardiac region Answer: C 9) The stomach releases the hormone ________ to aid in digestion.

A) pepsin B) HCl C) secretin D) gastrin Answer: D 10) What is the last section of the small intestine, before it empties into the large intestine, called?

A) Duodenum B) Stomach C) Jejunum D) Ileum Answer: D 11) Which hormone produced in the small intestine stimulates gallbladder activity?

A) SIP B) Pepsin C) CCK D) Gastrin 156 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C 12) Which organ has three layers of muscle: longitudinal, circular, and oblique?

A) Stomach B) Colon C) Liver D) Spleen Answer: A

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13) The appendix is attached to which area of the digestive tract?

A) Colon B) Anus C) Cecum D) Rectum Answer: C 14) Which organ is responsible for the production of bile?

A) Liver B) Stomach C) Small intestine D) Large intestine Answer: A 15) Hepatocytes receive blood from both the hepatic artery and the ________.

A) aorta B) hepatic portal vein C) superior vena cava D) hepatic capillaries Answer: B 16) The ________ is the base, or floor, of the mouth.

A) tongue B) soft palate C) labia D) hard palate Answer: A 17) Which structure is responsible for the reabsorption of excess water?

A) Stomach B) Large intestine C) Liver D) Spleen Answer: B 18) Before lipid digestion can begin in earnest, the fats must be emulsified using ________.

A) nucleases B) lipases C) bile slats D) trypsin Answer: C

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19) In a ________ hernia, the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity.

A) hiatal B) hepatic C) cholecystic D) celiac Answer: A 20) Pancreatitis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) gallbladder disease B) excessive pancreatic enzyme activation C) lithotripsy D) excessive alcohol consumption Answer: C 21) Which of the following is another name for dental cavities?

A) Pyorrhea B) Caries C) Gingiva D) Abscess Answer: B 22) Lactose-intolerant patients cannot digest the ________ in milk.

A) protein B) sugar C) fat D) cholesterol Answer: B 23) ________ is an inflammation of a portion of the small intestine.

A) Ileitis B) Jaundice C) Hepatitis D) Cirrhosis Answer: A 24) A ________ is performed by attaching the colon directly to the abdominal wall, bypassing the lower portion of the colon.

A) cystectomy B) colostomy C) tracheotomy D) appendectomy Answer: B

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25) ________, also called regional ileitis, is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.

A) Gastroenteritis B) Irritable bowel syndrome C) Crohn's disease D) Peritonitis Answer: C 26) ________ is an inflammation of the stomach and small intestine.

A) Gastroenteritis B) Peritonitis C) Irritable bowel syndrome D) Crohn's disease Answer: A 27) Polyposis is a small tumor with a pedicle in the mucous membrane of the ________.

A) stomach B) small intestine C) duodenum D) colon Answer: D 28) The punching bag-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the ________.

A) frenulum B) papillae C) uvula D) palatine tonsil Answer: C 29) Which type of tooth is responsible for crushing and grinding?

A) Incisor B) Canine C) Cuspid D) Molar Answer: D 30) The outer covering of the crown of a tooth consists of which substance?

A) Cementum B) Enamel C) Dentin D) Pulp Answer: B

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31) The anterior-most teeth are called the ________.

A) Incisors B) Molars C) Canines D) Pre-molars Answer: A 32) A patient who has been diagnosed with intussusception has a problem with the ________.

A) gums B) esophagus C) stomach D) intestine Answer: D 33) A large parotid salivary gland is found slightly inferior and anterior to each ________.

A) ureter B) eye C) ear D) kidney Answer: C 34) Which enzyme is produced by the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates?

A) Salivary amylase B) Lingual lipase C) Pepsin D) Trypsin Answer: A 35) Which of the following represents the correct order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine?

A) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum B) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum C) Jejunum, duodenum, ileum D) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum Answer: D 36) ________ increase(s) the surface area of the lining of the small intestine.

A) Peptase B) Lacteals C) Villi D) Chyle Answer: C

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37) Pancreatic juice contains enzymes such as ________ that help digest proteins.

A) sodium bicarbonate B) RNA and DNA C) nuclease D) chymotrypsin and trypsin Answer: D 38) The order in which material passes through the large intestine is ________.

A) descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, and cecum B) ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, and descending colon C) cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, and ascending colon D) cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon Answer: D 39) The process of carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________.

A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine Answer: A 40) Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion?

A) Fatty acids B) Glycerol C) Simple sugars D) Amino acids Answer: D 41) Protein digestion begins in the ________.

A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine Answer: B 42) Which of the following is an end product of fat digestion?

A) Amino acids B) Glycerol C) Simple sugars D) DNA and RNA Answer: B

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43) An acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach is called ________.

A) colitis B) stomatitis C) gastritis D) gastric ulcer Answer: C 44) A ________ is an ulcer occurring in the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum caused by the breakdown of the mucosal membrane by the acid in gastric juices.

A) duodenal ulcer B) fissure C) cleft palate D) peptic ulcer Answer: D 45) ________ is/are varicose veins of the rectum.

A) Rectitis B) Hemorrhoids C) Colostomy D) Inguinal hernia Answer: B 46) A patient presents with several symptoms, including reflux esophagitis. What is the most likely cause of the reflux esophagitis?

A) Diaphragmatic hernia B) Umbilical hernia C) Inguinal hernia D) Hiatal hernia Answer: D 47) ________ is inadequate absorption of nutrients from the intestinal tract. It is caused by a variety of diseases and disorders, such as infections and pancreatic deficiency.

A) Cystic fibrosis B) Malabsorption syndrome C) Pancreatitis D) Hepatitis Answer: B 48) ________ is an inflammation of only the small intestine.

A) Colitis B) Hepatitis C) Pancreatitis D) Enteritis Answer: D

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49) ________ is characterized by small growths that contain a pedicle or footlike attachment in the mucous membranes of the colon.

A) Diverticulitis B) Ulcerative colitis C) Polyposis D) Inflammatory bowel disease Answer: C 50) Joshua has been complaining about pyrosis after his meals. Which of the following is probably the primary cause of this condition?

A) Peristalsis is too slow.

B) The cardiac sphincter contracts too often.

C) The bolus of food in the esophagus is too big.

D) The lower esophageal sphincter remains open for too long.

Answer: D 51) What may result if the pharyngoesophageal sphincter does not function properly?

A) Food will be swallowed much faster.

B) Food will bypass the esophagus.

C) Food cannot enter the esophagus.

D) Food will cause the esophagus to collapse.

Answer: C 52) Which of the following would most likely control an increase in gastric activity?

A) Hypothalamus B) Medulla oblongata C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system Answer: D 53) Your patient has been complaining about headaches, lightheadedness, upset stomach, weight loss, and a rapid heartbeat. You run some tests and notice that the patient's stomach lining has thinned; you also suspect that he has a vitamin deficiency. What could cause a lack of vitamin

absorption in the stomach?

A) Underproduction of mucus B) Insufficient intrinsic factor C) Hyposecretion of pepsinogen D) Pernicious anemia Answer: B

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54) You suspect that your patient's vitamin B deficiency is related to poor function in his large intestine. Which of the following might explain the source of the problem?

A) Lack of appropriate bacteria B) Inadequate water reabsorption C) Inefficient elimination of wastes D) Excessive absorption of glycerol Answer: A 55) As a result of a stomach virus, Melly has been vomiting and has not been able to keep her meals down. Her doctor discovers that waste is moving too quickly through her large intestine.

Which of the following conditions does Melly have?

A) Diarrhea B) Constipation C) Vitamin deficiency D) Nonfunctioning colon Answer: A 56) Your patient has a buildup of urea in her body. Which of the following statements most likely explains this problem?

A) The kidneys are overly active.

B) Protein metabolism is inefficient.

C) Bile can no longer be manufactured.

D) The liver is no longer producing clotting factors.

Answer: B 57) Your patient has developed a yellowish tint to the skin and eyes. The most likely cause is ________.

A) liver dysfunction B) stones forming from bile in the gallbladder C) inflammation of the bile ducts D) blockage of a bile duct Answer: A 58) Food enters the mouth, an activity called ________, and is ________ by the actions of the teeth and tongue.

A) mastication; absorbed B) ingestion; physically processed C) absorption; masticated D) digestion; chemically processed Answer: B 59) The ________ of acids, buffers, enzymes, and water aids in the breakdown of food.

A) digestion B) ingestion C) absorption D) secretion Answer: D 165 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) The process of moving small amounts of food toward the throat and swallowing is called ________.

A) mastication B) defecation C) deglutition D) excretion Answer: C 61) The tongue pushes the food into a ball-like mass called a(n) ________ so it can be passed on to the ________.

A) adventitia; palate B) uvula; teeth C) frenulum; esophagus D) bolus; pharynx Answer: D 62) The activity of the digestive system is in part controlled by a specialized part of the nervous system called the ________ nervous system.

A) afferent B) enteric C) somatic D) gastric Answer: B 63) The ________ is composed of soft connective tissue and contains blood vessels, lymphatic tissue, and nerve endings.

A) submucosa B) muscularis C) serosa D) mesentery Answer: A 64) The innermost layer of the muscularis is smooth muscle that ________.

A) lies in the direction of the canal B) encircles the canal C) surrounds only the stomach D) keeps the outer surface of the intestines moist Answer: B 65) Physically breaking down food by chewing is ________, whereas chemically breaking down food into small molecules is ________.

A) ingestion; mastication B) dentition; absorption C) mastication; digestion D) elimination; excretion Answer: C 166 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

66) The ________ covers the organs, and the ________ lines the wall of the abdominopelvic cavity.

A) submucosa; muscularis B) visceral peritoneum; parietal peritoneum C) muscularis; submucosa D) parietal peritoneum; visceral peritoneum Answer: B 67) The muscles of the esophagus move food through a rhythmic muscular contraction known as ________.

A) adventitia B) muscularis C) digestion D) peristalsis Answer: D 68) The ________ colon travels across the abdomen just below the liver and stomach.

A) ascending B) descending C) sigmoid D) transverse Answer: D 69) ________ is the muscle action that mixes chyme and digestive juices.

A) Secretin B) Peristalsis C) Segmentation D) Intussusception Answer: C 16.2 True/False Questions 1) The esophagus is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

Answer: TRUE 2) Canine teeth are transitional teeth.

Answer: FALSE 3) The hardest biologically manufactured substance is enamel.

Answer: TRUE 4) The esophagus allows air to pass into the lungs.

Answer: FALSE 5) The stomach can increase its diameter because of rugae.

Answer: TRUE 167 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The duodenum receives inputs from the pancreas and gall bladder.

Answer: TRUE 7) Contact between pepsinogen and hydrochloric acid forms pepsin, the chief digestive enzyme.

Answer: TRUE 8) The final "door" of the stomach that needs to open in order for chyme to travel to the small intestine is the fundus.

Answer: FALSE 9) The descending colon is the first part of the large intestine.

Answer: FALSE 10) The liver stores vitamins A,

, K, and C.

Answer: FALSE 11) The pH of chyme is usually 7.5-8.8.

Answer: FALSE 12) Cholelithiasis means high cholesterol.

Answer: FALSE 13) Cirrhosis is a virus that damages the liver.

Answer: FALSE 14) Salivary amylase digests proteins.

Answer: FALSE 15) Gastrin is released when chyme enters the duodenum.

Answer: FALSE 16) Deciduous teeth begin to appear around 6 months of age, starting with the lower central incisors.

Answer: TRUE 17) The gallbladder concentrates bile by reabsorbing much of its water content.

Answer: TRUE 18) The mechanical action of breaking up fat into smaller droplets is called emulsification.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 17 The Urinary System 17.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The renal pelvis is a funnel divided into two or three large collecting cups called major 168 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

________.

A) calyces B) renal pyramids C) ureters D) renal columns Answer: A 2) The kidneys are covered by a fibrous layer of connective tissue called the ________.

A) renal pelvis B) renal sinus C) renal capsule D) renal hilum Answer: C 3) Which vessels lead to the glomeruli?

A) Arcuate arteries B) Afferent arterioles C) Efferent arterioles D) Renal arterioles Answer: B 4) Blood leaves the kidney through the ________.

A) efferent arterioles B) hepatic vein C) renal nephron D) renal vein Answer: D 5) The rate of glomerular filtration can be increased by ________.

A) lowering blood pressure B) decreasing the size of the afferent arteriole C) decreasing the size of the efferent arteriole D) increasing ventilation rate Answer: C 6) The first section of the nephron loop that glomerular filtrate encounters is the ________.

A) ascending loop B) distal tubule C) descending loop D) proximal tubule Answer: C 7) What is the most common cause of prolonged vasoconstriction in the kidney?

A) Ischemia from decreased blood flow B) Hormonal mechanisms to increase blood pressure C) Release of antidiuretic hormone D) Nephropathy from diabetes mellitus Answer: B 169 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) What are the three processes necessary for the formation of urine?

A) Intake, concentration, and output B) Chemical, muscular, and neural action C) Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion D) Arterioles, nephrons, and venules Answer: C 9) If blood pressure drops below the normal range, what should happen to the glomerular filtration rate to compensate for this drop?

A) It should decrease.

B) It should increase.

C) It should stay the same.

D) It depends on the situation.

Answer: A 10) ________ is the mechanism used to protect the glomerulus from minor changes in blood pressure.

A) Filtration B) Saturation C) Autoregulation D) Selection Answer: C 11) Anything that will affect reabsorption and secretion in the kidney will affect urine ________.

A) chemistry B) flow C) accumulation D) filtration Answer: A 12) Hormones that regulate blood pressure also affect ________.

A) the number of nephrons B) the permeability of the glomerular capsule C) reabsorption and secretion D) the ureters and urethra Answer: C

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13) Which steroid is secreted by the adrenal cortex to increase reabsorption of sodium ions?

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Aldosterone C) Adrenaline D) Angiotensin Answer: B 14) The ________ has inhibitory control over the spinal cord reflex, allowing voluntary control of urination.

A) kidney B) bladder C) pons D) ureter Answer: C 15) Urinary tract infections are often caused by ________ bacteria in the urinary tract.

A) symbiotic B) fecal C) abdominal D) intestinal Answer: B 16) Bowman's capsule, the double-layered membrane that surrounds the glomerulus, is also called the ________.

A) renal corpuscle B) glomerular capsule C) renal tubule D) glomerular filtrate Answer: B 17) Substances are moved through a filter by differences in ________ across the filter.

A) pressure B) openings C) tubules D) vessels Answer: A 18) Which part of the renal tubular system reabsorbs or secretes the most substances?

A) Distal tubule B) Collecting duct C) Proximal tubule D) Descending loop Answer: C

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19) Which of the following substances is reabsorbed or secreted in the ascending loop?

A) Bicarbonate B) Phosphate C) Magnesium D) Sodium Answer: D 20) A patient with diabetes insipidus will produce copious amounts of ________.

A) antidiuretic hormone B) nitrogen C) sodium D) urine Answer: D 21) One of the most important risk factors for kidney disease is ________.

A) hypertension B) use of ACE inhibitors C) hypotension D) vasodilation Answer: A 22) Kidney stones result when substances in the urine crystallize in the ________.

A) afferent arterioles B) efferent arterioles C) renal corpuscle D) renal tubule Answer: D 23) The only cure for polycystic kidney disease is ________.

A) peritoneal dialysis B) lithotripsy C) blood transfusion D) kidney transplantation Answer: D 24) Ischemia of the kidneys (or any other organ) is tissue injury from too little ________ to the tissues.

A) hormones B) oxygen C) glucose D) water Answer: B

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25) The job of the urinary system is to make urine, thereby controlling the body's ________ and eliminating waste products.

A) red blood cell count B) specific gravity C) rate of gas exchange D) fluid and electrolyte balance Answer: D 26) The kidneys are retroperitoneal, meaning that they are situated ________ the peritoneum.

A) posterior to B) superior to C) inferior to D) anterior to Answer: A 27) The outermost region of the kidney is called the ________.

A) renal pelvis B) renal medulla C) renal cortex D) calyx Answer: C 28) The innermost region of the kidney is called the ________.

A) renal pelvis B) renal medulla C) renal cortex D) calyx Answer: A 29) Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the proximal end of the ureter?

A) Renal pelvis B) Renal medulla C) Renal cortex D) Calyx Answer: A 30) Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubule?

A) Glomerulus B) Proximal convoluted tubule C) Distal convoluted tubule D) Collecting tubule Answer: B

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31) Which of the following structures drains into the collecting ducts?

A) Glomerulus B) Proximal convoluted tubule C) Distal convoluted tubule D) Loop of Henle Answer: C 32) The blood is filtered in a knot of capillaries called the ________.

A) glomerulus B) proximal convoluted tubule C) renal pelvis D) loop of Henle Answer: A 33) The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys releases a hormone called ________ that converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. A) antidiuretic hormone B) angiotensin-converting enzyme C) renin D) aldosterone Answer: C 34) The process by which some components of filtrate move back into the blood is called ________.

A) filtration B) reabsorption C) secretion D) micturition Answer: B 35) Which hormone increases the permeability of the collecting ducts and distal tubules so that more water is reabsorbed, thereby increasing the blood volume and blood pressure and diluting the ionic concentration?

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme C) Atrial natriuretic hormone D) Epinephrine Answer: A 36) Which hormone tends to increase the amount of urine produced?

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Aldosterone C) Atrial natriuretic hormone D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme Answer: C

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37) The tube that carries urine out of the nephron is called the ________.

A) urethra B) collecting tube C) ureter D) bladder Answer: B 38) The tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder is called the ________.

A) urethra B) collecting tube C) trigone D) ureter Answer: D 39) The process by which urine is passed out of the body is called ________.

A) urination B) reabsorption C) mastication D) filtration Answer: A 40) Most patients diagnosed with ________ are driven to seek treatment because of blood in their urine (hematuria) or excruciating lower back or pelvic pain.

A) kidney stones B) polycystic kidney disease C) ischemic nephropathy D) diabetic nephropathy Answer: A 41) ________ is/are a genetic disorder.

A) Kidney stones B) Polycystic kidney disease C) Ischemic nephropathy D) Diabetic nephropathy Answer: B 42) Which condition is caused by chronic hyperglycemia?

A) Kidney stones B) Polycystic kidney disease C) Ischemic nephropathy D) Diabetic nephropathy Answer: D

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43) ________ is an endocrine disorder characterized by too little antidiuretic hormone.

A) Uremia B) Renal failure C) Diabetes insipidus D) Urinary tract infection Answer: C 44) ________ is/are more common in women than men, probably because women's urethras are shorter than men's.

A) Uremia B) Renal failure C) Diabetes insipidus D) Urinary tract infections Answer: D 45) Bacteria from undercooked meat can cause ________.

A) diabetes mellitus B) hemolytic uremic syndrome C) systemic lupus erythematosus D) Alport's syndrome Answer: B 46) Ashton was in a car accident and experienced severe blood loss. All of the following are potential outcomes of blood loss EXCEPT ________.

A) decrease in blood volume B) increased blood pressure C) vasoconstriction D) reduced urine output Answer: B 47) Which of the following statements about nephrons is TRUE? A) Their large surface area inhibits their function.

B) They are the fundamental functional units of the kidney.

C) Several tiny nephrons have a surface area the size of one large nephron.

D) Nephrons consist of afferent and efferent arterioles.

Answer: B 48) Urine leaves the bladder through the ________.

A) urethra B) ureters C) kidneys D) somatic nerve Answer: A

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49) During an annual physical, your nurse collected urine and blood samples to ensure that your protein levels were normal. When the results came back, the nurse informed you that there was an excessive amount of protein in your urine. Which of the following would most likely be true?

A) Proteins crossed over into the glomerular capsule.

B) Blood cells were pushed from the capillaries.

C) Proteins were trapped in the inner layer of the nephron.

D) The glomerular filtrate is extremely dilute.

Answer: A 50) The salt level in a nephron is particularly high in comparison to the surrounding environment. In this situation, which of the following events will most likely occur?

A) The salts will move into the descending loop.

B) The sodium ions will move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.

C) Other dissolved substances will move into the nephron.

D) The fluid in the nephron will move into the surrounding environment.

Answer: B 51) A patient is experiencing increased urination. What could be causing this to happen?

A) Constant blood pressure B) Contracted afferent arterioles C) Increased glomerular filtration rate D) Increased sodium reabsorption by atrial natriuretic hormone Answer: C 52) Which of the following symptoms would be apparent in a patient who lacks angiotensinconverting enzyme?

A) Increased thirst B) Decreased thirst C) Decreased blood pressure D) Increased levels of angiotensin II Answer: B 53) Jonah was in a car accident that destroyed the function of his adrenal cortex. Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of this damage?

A) Increased aldosterone levels B) Increased water reabsorption in the blood C) Decreased regulation of plasma sodium and potassium D) Decreased urine volume Answer: C 54) A person lost in a desert would be expected to have ________.

A) increased blood volume B) decreased urine concentration C) increased levels of antidiuretic hormone D) decreased permeability of the distal tubules Answer: C 177 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) To detect the presence of bacterial infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhea, a urine sample is ordered. This makes sense because ________.

A) the urethra traps pathogens B) urine from a healthy individual is sterile C) glomerular filtrate cannot be changed once it leaves the collecting ducts D) urea is found in urine Answer: B 56) During glomerular filtration, fluid and molecules pass from the glomerular capillaries into the glomerular capsule, across a filter composed of the wall of the capillaries and the ________ of the glomerular capsule.

A) filtrate B) erythrocytes C) podocytes D) leukocytes Answer: C 57) Many tiny ________ (interlobular) arteries branch from the ________ arteries, supplying blood to the renal cortex.

A) cortical radiate; arcuate B) arcuate; cortical radiate C) segmented; cortical radiate D) arcuate; segmented Answer: A 58) Blood vessels are in close proximity to nephrons because certain substances within the ________ must be brought back into the bloodstream.

A) hormones B) plasma C) urine D) filtrate Answer: D 59) Which substance is completely reabsorbed in the blood?

A) Creatinine B) Glucose C) Urine D) Urea Answer: B 60) All filters are ________, meaning only some substances pass through, mainly due to the size of the openings in the filter.

A) creative B) selective C) retroactive D) peritoneal Answer: B 178 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

61) The ________ determines which substances can pass into the urine from the blood.

A) capillary walls B) podocytes C) medulla D) A and B Answer: D 62) The ________nervous system and the hormones of the ________, epinephrine and norepinephrine, decrease glomerular filtration by causing dramatic vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles.

A) sympathetic; renal cortex B) parasympathetic; adrenal cortex C) sympathetic; adrenal medulla D) parasympathetic; renal medulla Answer: C 63) Through ________, the urine concentration of a substance can be increased by active transport of it into the urine.

A) filtration B) reabsorption C) elimination D) secretion Answer: D 64) The relationship between what two ions determines the blood's pH? A) Hydrogen and sodium B) Carbon dioxide and sodium C) Hydrogen and bicarbonate D) Sodium and hydrogen Answer: C 65) Most patients with kidney disease die from what condition?

A) End-stage renal failure B) Cardiovascular disease C) Diabetes insipidus D) Glomerulonephritis Answer: B

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17.2 True/False Questions 1) Medulla means "inner portion."

Answer: TRUE 2) The functional unit of the kidney is the neuron.

Answer: FALSE 3) The kidneys filter more than 40 gallons of blood every 24 hours.

Answer: TRUE 4) Filtration is controlled by changing pressure.

Answer: TRUE 5) Sphincters control the release of urine.

Answer: TRUE 6) The ureter is the tube that transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.

Answer: FALSE 7) Diabetes insipidus is caused by production of too little insulin or by insensitivity to insulin.

Answer: TRUE 8) The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is made of specialized cells called podocytes.

Answer: TRUE 9) The urge to urinate is caused by skeletal muscle contraction.

Answer: FALSE 10) Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the kidneys.

Answer: FALSE 11) Aldosterone is a steroid.

Answer: TRUE 12) Water is reabsorbed in the descending loop.

Answer: TRUE 13) Antidiuretic hormone causes an increase in urine volume and concentration.

Answer: FALSE 14) Atrial natriuretic hormone has the opposite effect of ADH. Answer: TRUE 15) The urinary bladder is emptied by relaxing the internal sphincter and contracting the bladder wall.

Answer: TRUE 180 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) A single renal artery enters each kidney at the hilum and then branches into five segmented arteries.

Answer: TRUE 17) Reabsorption of water concentrates other substances in the urine, beyond their concentration in the bloodstream.

Answer: TRUE 18) Glomerulosclerosis is caused by long-term use of pain relievers, particularly nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

Answer: FALSE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 18 The Reproductive System 18.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which pair of chromosomes would most often result in the birth of a male?

A) XX B) XY C) YY D) XZ Answer: B 2) In the human life cycle, the fertilized egg is called a(n) ________.

A) zygote B) gonad C) embryo D) fetus Answer: A 3) In females, the primary genitalia are the ________.

A) oviducts B) labia C) ovaries D) testes Answer: C 4) The outermost layer of the uterus is called the ________.

A) perimetrium B) myometrium C) endometrium D) exometrium Answer: A 5) The ________ glands are responsible for the production of milk.

A) fallopian 181 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) mammary C) lacteal D) myometrial Answer: B 6) In males, the primary genitalia are the ________.

A) epididymides B) ureters C) seminal vesicles D) testes Answer: D 7) Menstruation is the actual shedding of the ________.

A) perimetrium B) myometrium C) endometrium D) exometrium Answer: C 8) The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called ________.

A) ovulation B) fertilization C) menses D) menopause Answer: A 9) How many chromosomes will you find in a successfully fertilized egg?

A) 21 pairs B) 46 pairs C) 23 pairs D) 16 pairs Answer: C 10) Of the hormones necessary for menstruation, which one comes from the ovary?

A) Follicle-stimulating hormone B) Estrogen C) Luteinizing hormone D) Testosterone Answer: B 11) In utero, the fetus is nourished by the ________.

A) umbilical cord B) amniotic fluid C) placenta D) amnion Answer: C 182 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Labor is divided into stages. During which stage is the baby actually delivered?

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth Answer: B

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13) Sperm mature in the ________.

A) seminal vesicles B) epididymis C) testes D) seminiferous tubules Answer: B 14) Prior to puberty, testosterone ________ GnRH secretion.

A) inhibits B) promotes C) has no effect on D) catalyzes Answer: A 15) The movement of semen out of the penis is known as ________.

A) erection B) arousal C) ejaculation D) semen ejection Answer: C 16) An individual whose gender identity does not match the anatomical sex they were assigned at birth is termed ________.

A) intersex B) transgender C) cisgender D) heterosexual Answer: B 17) Breast cancer may require a full or partial ________.

A) Pap test B) mastectomy C) vasectomy D) tubal ligation Answer: B 18) The process of ________ produces gametes.

A) ovulation B) proliferation C) mitosis D) meiosis Answer: D

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19) What coiled tube forms a comma-shaped structure on the posterior and lateral part of the testis?

A) Seminiferous tubule B) Ductus deferens C) Ejaculatory duct D) Epididymis Answer: D 20) The gonads include ________.

A) the ova in the female and sperm in the male B) the penis in the male and the vulva in the female C) the testes in the male and the ovaries in the female D) the cervix in the female and the prostate in the male Answer: C 21) After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into a hormone-secreting structure called the ________.

A) corpus luteum B) antrum C) graafian follicle D) granulose cells Answer: A 22) Estrogen exerts a ________ influence on the hypothalamus, increasing secretion of ________ and thus increasing LH and FSH secretion.

A) negative; GnRH B) positive; progesterone C) negative; progesterone D) positive; GnRH Answer: D 23) The smooth muscle layer of the uterus is called the ________.

A) endometrium B) fundus C) cervix D) myometrium Answer: D 24) The rounded superior portion of the uterus that lies between the uterine tubes is called the ________.

A) body B) cervix C) fundus D) myometrium Answer: C

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25) The narrow inferior part of the uterus is called the ________.

A) body B) isthmus C) fundus D) myometrium Answer: B 26) Which of the following is NOT true of the vagina?

A) It is how urine leaves the body.

B) It receives the penis during intercourse.

C) It functions as the birth canal.

D) It allows passage of menstrual fluid out of the uterus.

Answer: A 27) The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called ________.

A) the secretory phase B) the proliferative phase C) menses D) menarche Answer: B 28) Which of the following hormones is most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing?

A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Follicle-stimulating hormone D) Luteinizing hormone Answer: C 29) Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation?

A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Follicle-stimulating hormone D) Luteinizing hormone Answer: D 30) The absence of normal menstruation is called ________.

A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) dysfunctional uterine bleeding D) endometriosis Answer: B

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31) Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is called ________.

A) hydrocele B) cryptorchidism C) prostatitis D) abruptio placentae Answer: B 32) An abnormal collection of fluid within the testes is called ________.

A) hydrocele B) cryptorchidism C) prostatitis D) benign prostatic hyperplasia Answer: A 33) A(n) ________ test is a blood test is for prostate cancer.

A) PAP B) SAP C) PSA D) ASP Answer: C 34) ________ is a type of slow-growing cancer that is most commonly seen in males over 50 years old.

A) Testicular cancer B) Breast cancer C) Melanoma D) Prostate cancer Answer: D 35) ________ is a disorder in which the penis cannot attain full erection or maintain an erection.

A) Erectile dysfunction B) Incontinence C) Prostatitis D) Melanoma Answer: A 36) A baby born before 37 weeks' gestation is considered ________.

A) full term B) late C) premature D) an embryo Answer: C

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37) One of the most important procedures to detect breast cancer at an early, more treatable stage is regular ________.

A) Pap tests B) breast self-examinations C) testicular self-examinations D) PSA tests Answer: B 38) ________ occurs several days prior to menstruation.

A) Ectopic pregnancy B) Abruptio placentae C) Postpartum depression D) Premenstrual syndrome Answer: D 39) During a breast self-exam, which digits are used to feel for lumps or thickening?

A) Thumb and index finger B) Index finger, ring finger, and pinky C) Thumb and ring finger D) Three middle fingers Answer: D 40) Postpartum depression occurs after ________.

A) menopause B) menstruation C) ovulation D) childbirth Answer: D 41) Which of the following are produced through meiosis?

A) Sexual cells B) Exact copies of cells C) Zygotes D) Androgens Answer: A 42) ________ is a genetic disorder that can result in a broad range of malfunctions of the male reproductive system; some patients completely lack external or internal male genitalia, others have ambiguous genitalia, and still others have typical male genitalia but are sterile.

A) Testosterone deficiency B) Androgen insensitivity syndrome C) BPH D) ED Answer: B

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43) Just prior to ovulation, what stage is the egg cell in?

A) Part way through meiosis I B) After meiosis I C) Part way through meiosis II D) After meiosis II Answer: A 44) If the parent cell in meiosis has 60 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will the daughter cell have?

A) 20 B) 30 C) 60 D) 120 Answer: B 45) Which of the following statements about zygotes is TRUE? A) They have double the number of chromosomes as gametes.

B) They have half the number of chromosomes as gametes.

C) They have the same number of chromosomes as gametes.

D) The number of chromosomes in a zygote is independent of the number of chromosomes in the gametes.

Answer: A 46) The spiral radial arteries supply blood to the ________ and undergo ________ that contribute to the shedding of the endometrium each month.

A) basal layer of the perimetrium; secretions B) functional layer of the perimetrium; spasms C) basal layer of the endometrium; secretions D) functional layer of the endometrium; spasms Answer: D 47) Endometriosis causes infertility by ________.

A) enlarging the uterine tubes B) scarring the uterus C) distending the uterus D) blocking the uterine tubes Answer: D 48) Which ligament holds the uterus to the pelvis?

A) Round B) Ovarian C) Arcuate D) Inguinal Answer: A

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49) Which statement best describes the vulva?

A) It is the collective term for the internal female genitalia.

B) It is an organ surrounded by the labia minora.

C) It is a series of different genitalia surrounded by the labia majora.

D) It is a series of different genitalia that play no role in reproduction.

Answer: C 50) Which of the following statements about oogonia in human females is TRUE? A) They undergo meiosis because they are sex cells.

B) They undergo mitosis because they are sex cells.

C) They are produced after a female child is born.

D) They produce cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Answer: D 51) An 11-year-old girl has been experiencing very light vaginal bleeding for the past 24 hours.

Her mother decides to take her to the doctor. She is concerned because her daughter does not have any symptoms associated with PMS. The doctor runs some tests and notices that the child's primordial follicles are dormant. Why might the girl be bleeding?

A) The patient is menstruating.

B) The patient has secondary follicles.

C) The patient has a ruptured graafian follicle.

D) The patient's hymen might no longer be intact.

Answer: D 52) Luteinizing hormone is at its peak ________.

A) during ovulation B) during corpus luteum formation C) during follicle development D) when progesterone levels are highest Answer: A 53) Which statement is TRUE with regard to spermatogenesis?

A) The process is similar to oogenesis.

B) Spermatogenesis occurs in one short process.

C) Spermatogonia undergo mitosis to form spermatocytes.

D) Primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis to form gametes.

Answer: C 54) Which statement about sperm is TRUE? A) Sperm are unaffected by temperature.

B) Sperm are unaffected by acid-base chemistry.

C) The female reproductive system is not very hospitable to sperm.

D) The ideal temperature for sperm development is 98.6°F. Answer: C

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55) A noncancerous enlargement of the prostate is called ________.

A) BPH B) HPV C) HIV D) FSH Answer: A 56) The male ejaculate typically contains all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) sperm from the testis B) secretions from the prostate C) secretions from the seminal vesicle D) GnRH Answer: D 57) The male primary gametocyte is called a(n) ________.

A) ovum B) oocyte C) spermatocyte D) zygote Answer: C 58) ________ is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome (trisomy 21) in a person's cells.

A) Cryptorchidism B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia C) Down syndrome D) Hydrocele Answer: C 59) The ovary is covered by a fibrous capsule called the ________ made of cuboidal epithelium.

A) vulva B) tunica albuginea C) mesovarium D) infundibulum Answer: B 60) The infundibulum leads to a widened area, the ________, followed by a longer, narrower portion known as the ________.

A) ampulla; isthmus B) fimbria; mesosalpinx C) isthmus; ampulla D) mesosalpinx; fimbria Answer: A

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61) The ________ cycle involves the monthly maturation and release of eggs from the ovary.

A) follicular B) menstrual C) ovarian D) uterine Answer: C 62) Just before ovulation, the ________ matures, fills with fluid, and moves toward the surface of the ovary, where it becomes a visible lump.

A) primary follicle B) granulosa cell C) secondary follicle D) zygote Answer: C 63) The time between ovulation and menses is known as the ________ phase.

A) follicular B) primordial C) proliferative D) luteal Answer: D 64) If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will become a corpus ________ and eventually disappear.

A) graafian B) deferens C) vulva D) albicans Answer: D 65) When progesterone is high, estrogen exerts negative feedback on the ________, decreasing GnRH, LH, and FSH secretion.

A) hypothalamus and pituitary B) pons and thalamus C) adrenal cortex and medulla D) thyroid and parathyroid Answer: A 66) The attached portion of the ________ is the root, whereas the freely moving portion is the shaft or body.

A) uterus B) penis C) vas deferens D) seminal vesicles Answer: B

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67) The primary male sex hormone is ________.

A) human chorionic gonadotropin B) testosterone C) luteinizing hormone D) follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: B 68) The seminal vesicles are ________.

A) loose sacs of tissue anterior to the bladder B) chestnut-sized glands surrounding the urethra C) made up in part of pseudostratified epithelium D) pea-sized glands inferior to the prostate Answer: C 69) From each primary gametocyte, ________ sperm are produced.

A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D 18.2 True/False Questions 1) Just before ovulation, estrogen levels drop.

Answer: FALSE 2) Normally, an adult human has 23 chromosomes per body cell.

Answer: FALSE 3) GnRH is released by the hypothalamus.

Answer: TRUE 4) The union of genetic material is called fertilization.

Answer: TRUE 5) The external genitalia of the female are known as the uvula.

Answer: FALSE 6) HCG is secreted by the ovary.

Answer: FALSE 7) The functional layer of the endometrium is shed when a woman has her period.

Answer: TRUE 8) The prepuce is a small erectile structure in women.

Answer: FALSE 193 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) The epididymis is superior to the testis.

Answer: TRUE 10) FSH stimulates sperm production and maturation.

Answer: TRUE 11) Erection is caused by muscle contraction in the penis.

Answer: FALSE 12) The spermatic cord consists of the seminal vesicles and seminiferous tubules.

Answer: FALSE 13) The testes are outside of the abdominopelvic cavity.

Answer: TRUE 14) Sperm can survive in the female reproductive system for several weeks.

Answer: FALSE 15) An egg may be fertilized by more than one sperm.

Answer: FALSE 16) The genetic material of the cell, DNA, is bundled into "packages" of chromatin, known as chromosomes.

Answer: TRUE 17) Sperm cells are fully mature after the end of meiosis I. Answer: FALSE 18) In adult females, the breasts consist of 15 to 20 lobes, which are glandular, and large amounts of muscular tissue.

Answer: FALSE 19) When a baby is turned around and the buttocks appear first during birth, this is known as a placental presentation.

Answer: FALSE 20) Sterilization of males is accomplished through a vasectomy.

Answer: TRUE Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions: An Interactive Journey, 5e (Colbert) Chapter 19 The Journey's End 19.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Forensic science is the application of science to ________.

A) medicine B) biology 194 Copyright © 2027 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) law D) history Answer: C 2) What part of long bones contains high levels of oxygen?

A) Medulla B) Ends C) Shaft D) Marrow Answer: B 3) What common food reacts with pewter and was once thought to be poisonous?

A) Tomatoes B) Apples C) Figs D) Bananas Answer: A 4) The male and female skeletons differ in which way?

A) Females have a wider pelvis.

B) Males have a wider pelvis.

C) Females have fewer rib bones.

D) Males have more rib bones.

Answer: A 5) A timeline containing substances someone ingests or becomes exposed to can be found in the ________.

A) hair B) bones C) teeth D) eyes Answer: A 6) Fingerprints were first suggested as an aid for solving various crimes in ________.

A) 1910 B) 1782 C) 1604 D) 1880 Answer: D 7) DNA fingerprinting is performed in which manner?

A) Blotting digits on paper B) Splitting DNA molecules C) Dusting the crime scene with powder D) Dusting cells for very small prints Answer: B 8) Patients between the ages of 76 and 84 are classified as ________.

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A) elite old B) younger old C) older old D) beginning old Answer: C 9) The hallmark sign of aging is the body's decreased ability to ________.

A) adapt to stressors B) maintain homeostasis C) maintain hair color D) maintain skin elasticity Answer: B 10) Which common food may taste metallic to the geriatric patient?

A) Tomato juice B) Orange juice C) Apple juice D) Grape juice Answer: B 11) Which of the following is a potential behavior change related to pain?

A) Euphoria B) Increased mobility C) Increased energy D) Agitation and confusion Answer: D 12) A healthy human brain will continue to develop until the approximate age of ________.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 25 D) 35 Answer: A

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13) A decrease in the function of the ________ can lead to accumulation of medication in the geriatric patient.

A) kidneys B) heart C) lungs D) vessels Answer: A 14) Seeing multiple doctors at the same time can lead to ________.

A) loss of insurance B) carcinoma C) polypharmacy D) increased agitation Answer: C 15) Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of damage to the ________ nerve.

A) carpal B) lateral C) median D) radial Answer: C 16) Disease processes, along with aging, will ________ the loss of body reserves, affecting recovery after surgery.

A) accelerate B) decrease C) slow D) diminish Answer: A 17) Elderly individuals are increasingly ________ to medically evaluate for several possible reasons, including decreased vision, hearing, and possibly mental abilities.

A) easier B) impossible C) more difficult D) unnecessary Answer: C 18) Which lifestyle choice positively affects the cardiovascular system as well as other body systems?

A) Illegal drug use B) Smoking C) Drinking alcohol D) Regular exercise Answer: D

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19) The best way to protect yourself and others from spreading or getting infections is to ________.

A) wear gloves for every patient encounter B) wash hands before and after each patient C) take large doses of vitamin C D) wear a lab coat over your clothes or uniform when working with patients Answer: B 20) If a fetus does not get enough calcium by way of the mother's diet, the fetus will ________.

A) obtain calcium by converting it from other nutrients B) break down its own bones that have developed so far C) be unable to obtain any additional calcium and may not develop properly as a result D) obtain calcium from the mother's bones and teeth, weakening them Answer: D 21) Which of these is NOT a common behavioral change due to pain?

A) Being grumpy B) Swearing C) Loss of appetite D) Increased social interaction Answer: D 22) Smoking mothers ________.

A) tend to have babies of higher birth weights B) have fewer premature births C) give birth to infants with a lower rate of SIDS D) increase the hazards from secondhand smoke around the home Answer: D 23) In a case involving suspected thallium poisoning, which of the following findings would help prove the suspect's guilt?

A) Changes in the victim's fingerprints B) Changes in the amount of thallium in the victim's DNA molecules C) Changes in the victim's lung structure D) Changes in the concentration of thallium along the victim's hair shaft Answer: D 24) A skull fragment found in a 400-year-old trash dump at ________ provided evidence that skull surgery had been performed on a patient.

A) Mexico City, Mexico B) Cairo, Egypt C) Beijing, China D) Jamestown, Virginia Answer: D

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25) Which group of people would need the longest recovery period from an injury or accident?

A) Elderly B) Elite old C) Older old D) Younger old Answer: B 26) ________ can reveal the race of an individual.

A) Hair B) Eyes C) Digestive organs D) Clothing Answer: A 27) Bone density usually reaches its greatest peak around age ________.

A) 35 B) 45 C) 55 D) 65 Answer: A 28) Between the ages of 20 and 80, kidney function declines by ________ % on average.

A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 Answer: C 29) A technique called video skull-face ________ was used to identify Mengele and Tutankhamen.

A) ultrarendition B) redistribution C) superimposition D) recomposition Answer: C 30) An older patient may lose up to ________ neurons each day.

A) 100 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 100,000 Answer: B

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31) Proof that the ancient Egyptians were stricken with ________ was discovered by examining their skeletons.

A) tuberculosis B) anthrax C) cancer D) Parkinson's disease Answer: A 32) Often, geriatric patients are undermedicated for ________.

A) pain B) hypertension C) diabetes D) osteoporosis Answer: A 33) ________ is a common occupational condition related to repetitive motion, such as typing on a keyboard, playing a piano, or hammering.

A) Lockjaw B) Carpal tunnel syndrome C) Incontinence D) Osteoporosis Answer: B 34) ________ techniques have been used to identify victims of the World Trade Center and Pentagon attacks and Thomas Jefferson's descendants.

A) Friction ridge analysis B) Carbon dating C) Hair analysis D) DNA fingerprinting Answer: D 35) As an individual ________, he or she may lose muscle mass, neurons, and bone density.

A) eats B) experiences acute pain C) exercises D) ages Answer: D 36) The number of taste buds decreases by about ________ as the body reaches the geriatric stage.

A) 20% B) 50% C) 30% D) 40% Answer: B

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37) Tooth loss, difficulty swallowing, and decreased saliva are barriers to ________.

A) benign growths B) lifestyle changes C) exercise D) proper nutrition Answer: D 38) Genes, radiation, and sunlight exposure can be ________ to make a cell cancerous.

A) tests B) counters C) impediments D) triggers Answer: D 39) Between the ages of 20 and 80, humans lose about ________ of their renal function.

A) 25% B) 50% C) 40% D) 30% Answer: B 40) The aging process causes all of the following effects on the integumentary system EXCEPT ________.

A) increased skin elasticity B) increased skin delicacy C) increased likelihood of multiple skin lesions D) increased likelihood of skin cancer Answer: A 41) Aging-related decreases in drug metabolism and excretion can lead to ________.

A) a need for greatly increased doses of a drug B) reduced need for prescription drug use C) increased benefits from taking a drug D) toxic accumulation of a drug in the body Answer: D 42) Approximately ________ of all lung cancers can be traced to smoking.

A) 60% B) 70% C) 80% D) 90% Answer: C

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43) Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper night vision and helps the body resist infections?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D Answer: A 44) Which of the following vitamins aids in absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestinal tract?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D Answer: D 45) Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote healthy muscular growth?

A) Vitamin B) Vitamin C) Vitamin D) Vitamin Answer: B 46) Which of the following vitamins aids in the absorption of iron?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D Answer: C 47) Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper blood clotting?

A) Vitamin K B) Vitamin E C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D Answer: A 48) Patients taking multiple medications may experience complications called ________.

A) polypharmacy B) pharmacokinetics C) drug indications D) malabsorption Answer: A

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49) Anabolic ________ are used to rapidly increase strength and endurance and build muscle mass, but they may also promote irritability and aggressive behavior.

A) vitamins B) steroids C) NSAIDs D) anesthetics Answer: B 50) Undernourishment can cause which of the following endocrine system changes?

A) Decreased bile synthesis B) Increased thyroid hormone levels C) Diminished testosterone levels D) Increased estrogen levels Answer: C 51) A patient presents to the emergency department with a virus and some growths in and around her vagina. The physician recommends a Pap smear. Which of the following conditions does this patient probably have?

A) HIV B) Herpes C) Hepatitis D) HPV Answer: D 52) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) HPV only affects females.

B) Gonorrhea can cause dysuria and urinary frequency.

C) Chlamydia and herpes are both bacterial infections.

D) Herpes causes nervous system degeneration.

Answer: B 53) Darryl began smoking when he was 13. He witnessed the majority of his family members and friends smoke while growing up. Even though Darryl is now an epidemiologist and understands the effects of smoking, he has had a difficult time quitting. Who or what is most responsible for Darryl's personal choice to begin smoking?

A) Age B) Darryl C) Peer pressure D) Marketing from cigarette companies Answer: B

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54) A patient was recently diagnosed with cardiovascular disease. Which of the following lifestyle choices could have contributed to this poor health outcome?

A) A high-fiber diet B) A 30-year smoking habit C) Being a vegetarian D) Low saturated fat intake Answer: B 55) Current research indicates that stomach cancer may originate from ________ cells that enter the stomach to repair damage to the stomach lining.

A) phagocytic B) stem C) bone marrow D) muscle Answer: C 56) You have about ________ sweat glands on your feet.

A) 36 million B) 426 C) 480,000 D) a quarter-million Answer: D 57) How can excessive alcohol consumption affect the cardiovascular system?

A) fatty infiltration of the heart B) coronary thrombi C) enlargement of the heart D) All of these.

Answer: D 58) Excessive dosages of fat-soluble ________ can build up to toxic levels to harm the body.

A) vitamins B) lipids C) steroids D) antibiotics Answer: A 59) Which vitamin is most directly related to muscle growth?

A) vitamin B B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) vitamin E Answer: D

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60) What STI is associated with purulent discharge from urethra, dysuria, and urinary frequency?

A) herpes B) syphilis C) gonorrhea D) chlamydia Answer: C 61) Damage to the ear is ________.

A) cumulative B) inevitable C) unlikely D) a motivator Answer: A 62) The Snellen chart is a test for ________.

A) weight loss B) visual acuity C) neurological function D) color blindness Answer: B 19.2 True/False Questions 1) Standard treatment for melanoma in the early stages (stage I, no spread) has been the "watchand-wait" approach.

Answer: TRUE 2) Infamous Nazi officer Josef Mengele has never been found.

Answer: FALSE 3) Forensic DNA evidence can be taken from hair or bone but not blood or semen.

Answer: FALSE 4) Melanoma can be easily prevented by decreasing exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light.

Answer: TRUE 5) Skeletal remains can be used to identify the sex of an individual.

Answer: TRUE 6) The most common causes of respiratory illness are genetic disorders.

Answer: FALSE 7) Identical twins will have the same fingerprints.

Answer: FALSE

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8) Forensic science has conclusively proven that Thomas Jefferson did not father children with his slave Sally Hemmings.

Answer: FALSE 9) From ages 20 to 70, we see a loss of lean body mass as a result of up to 30% loss in the number of muscle cells, atrophy of muscle cells, and a general decrease in muscle strength.

Answer: TRUE 10) As we age, our gustatory senses become stronger to compensate for hearing and vision loss.

Answer: FALSE 11) Folic acid can be used to prevent a birth defect called cleft palate.

Answer: FALSE 12) A diet rich in sodium and vitamins helps maintain good bone growth and development.

Answer: FALSE 13) It is important to stay well hydrated.

Answer: TRUE 14) Due to its sterile nature, urine can be used to clean a wound.

Answer: TRUE 15) On average, about 1% bone density is lost every year between the ages of 55 and 70.

Answer: TRUE 16) Nerve impulses can travel up to 480,000 feet per second.

Answer: FALSE 17) Most infections can be handled by the body's immune system in a few days.

Answer: TRUE 18) The term antibiotic means "against life."

Answer: TRUE 19) Spina bifida can be prevented by adequate ascorbic acid ingestion during pregnancy.

Answer: FALSE 20) Sexually transmitted diseases are only transmitted via penetrative sex.

Answer: FALSE

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