Test Bank For An Introduction to Human Resource Management Sixth Edition By Nick Wilton

Test Bank For An Introduction to Human Resource Management Sixth Edition Nick Wilton Chapter 1-15

This test bank is designed to be used in conjunction with An Introduction to Human Resource Management, 6th edition.

Chapter 1: What is HRM? 1. The rise of HRM is associated with the growth of which of the following in the employment relationship? a. collectivism b. Marxism c. individualism d. pluralism Ans: C

2. The distinctive approach to people management known as HRM originated in which country? a. Germany b. Sweden c. Japan d. the United States Ans: D

3. A contemporary trend in HRM is a shift in responsibility for HR activities ______. a. from HR specialists to senior management b. from HR specialists to union representatives c. from HR specialists to line managers d. from senior managers to HR specialists Ans: C

4. Stanton and Coovert (2004) suggest that the HR function can be divided into which three broad, interlocking functional areas: ______. a. administrative, financial, performance b. recruitment, performance, development c. recruitment, selection, performance d. learning, reward, performance Ans: A

5. Which of the following is not associated with work in the gig economy? a. lower costs for the employer b. more regular hours of employment c. greater insecurity for workers d. weak legal protection of worker rights Ans: B 6. Employee ‘voice’ is associated with which group of HR activities? a. employment relations b. reward c. performance d. resourcing Ans: A

7. Human Resource Management emerged as a distinctive approach to the management of people in which decade? a. 1980s b. 1990s c. 1970s d. 1960s Ans: A

8. The development of a positive employer–employee relationship based on mutual trust is associated with which of the following? a. hard HRM b. soft HRM c. collectivism d. personnel management Ans: B

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the four groups of characteristics in Storey’s (2007) HR model? a. beliefs and assumptions b. specific HR practices c. critical role of managers d. strategic qualities Ans: B

10. Ethical concerns over managerial attempts to manage organisational culture in order to shape employee behaviour, centre on the extent to which it seeks to create employees which of the following? a. willing slaves b. robots c. passive actors d. unthinking individuals Ans: A

11. Which of the following terms does Legge (1995) use to describe the relabelling of personnel departments as HR departments with no fundamental change in their function or activity? a. money for old rope b. same old, same old c. old wine in new bottles

d. monkey see monkey do Ans: C

12. Which of the following terms is used by Ulrich and Brockbank (2005) to describe the dimension of the HR specialist’s role concerned with addressing the needs of the workforce? a. employee liaison b. employee advocate c. employee’s friend d. employee supporter Ans: B

13. Which of the following terms is the term used by the CIPD to describe an HR specialist who can critically reflect on the contribution of HR activities to overall business success? a. HR developer b. interested actor c. thinking performer d. change manager Ans: C

14. Which of the following are not terms used to describe more strategic approaches to HRM that seek to contribute both to organisational and individual performance? a. high-commitment HRM b. high-performance HRM c. high-maintenance HRM d. best Practice HRM Ans: C

15. According to the CIPD (2009), which of the following is not a typical characteristic of front-line managers? a. responsible for an employee or workgroup to a higher level of management

b. normally lower management c. Employees who report to them do not themselves have any managerial or supervisory responsibility. d. often recruited from outside of the organisation Ans: D

Chapter 2: HRM and the individual 1. The perspective on the employment relationship which views work organisations as made up of competing interest groups is ______. a. unitarist b. Marxist c. feminist d. pluralist Ans: D

2. The perspective on the employment relationship which views work organisations as akin to ‘teams’ or ‘families’ where all members share common interests is ______. a. unitarist b. pluralist c. feminist d. Marxist Ans: A

3. Which of the following is used to describe an employment relationship in which each party uses the other for short-term benefit? a. relational b. transient c. transactional d. fleeting Ans: C

4. Which of the following was the term used by Frederick Taylor to describe how workers deliberately underwork? a. systematic soldiering b. natural soldiering c. social soldiering d. dawdling Ans: A

5. Scientific management is associated with which of the following? a. upskilling b. deskilling c. reskilling d. multi-skilling Ans: B

6. Elton Mayo is associated with which programme of research is associated with Human Relations theory? a. Hawthorne experiments b. Philadelphia experiments c. Chicago experiments d. Bournville experiments Ans: A

7. Which of the following refers to the mode of control associated with allowing workers greater discretion in their work? a. sophisticated responsibility b. responsible autonomy c. direct control d. individual control Ans: B

8. Control via the demarcation of responsibility, the construction of internal labour markets and career structures is referred to as ______. a. technical control b. hierarchical control c. bureaucratic control d. sectional control Ans: C

9. Boxall and Purcell (2003) suggest that individual performance is a function of ______. a. ability, motivation, opportunity b. aptitude, motivation, organisation c. ability, management, organisation d. aptitude, management, opportunity Ans: A

10. Motivational theories can be divided into which two groups? a. process and context b. process and content c. progress and content d. progress and context Ans: B

11. Vroom is associated with which motivational theory? a. agency theory b. expectancy theory c. content theory d. hierarchy of needs Ans: B

12. Which of the following is NOT associated with Fordism? a. standardisation

b. flexibility c. routinisation d. mass production Ans: B

13. Which of the following is NOT associated with post-Fordism? a. batch production b. task specialisation c. high skill d. customisation Ans: B

14. Herzberg (1966) referred to those factors which are prerequisites for individual motivation but which cannot act as motivators alone, as ______ a. hygiene factors b. satisfiers c. elemental factors d. maintenance factors Ans: A

15. Which of the following represents the highest level in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. self-actualisation b. physiological needs c. esteem needs d. safety needs Ans: A

16. What concept describes an employee’s state of mind that reflects a combination of their commitment to their employer and the degree to which they are willing to actively support and help out colleagues? a. employee engagement

b. employee expression c. employee emancipation d. employee awareness Ans: A

17. What term is used to describe the implicit risks for each party to the employment relationship that are the domain of ethical decision-making? a. moral maze b. moral hazards c. mortal dangers d. moral compass Ans: B

Chapter 3: HRM, strategy and performance 1. Bamber and Meshoulam (2000) propose two dimensions of HR strategy: ‘acquisition and development’ and which of the following? a. locus of control b. focus of control c. focus of supervision d. locus of surveillance Ans: A

2. A strategy that incorporates a predominant focus on a firm’s internal labour market as a source of required labour is referred to as ______. a. make strategy b. buy strategy c. acquire strategy d. borrow strategy Ans: A

3. Schuler and Jackson (1987) suggest that the aim of HR strategy is to develop which of the following in order to enact a particular competitive strategy? a. required worker actions b. required people behaviour c. needed role behaviours d. necessary worker activity Ans: C

4. Schuler and Jackson (1987) suggest which HR strategy is required to match Porter’s competitive strategy of focusing on niche markets. a. innovation b. quality enhancement c. cost reduction d. progressive Ans: A

5. The alignment of competitive strategy, HR strategy and HR policies and practices is referred to as ______. a. horizontal fit b. vertical configuration c. vertical integration d. horizontal association Ans: C

6. HR practices that are complementary are referred to as ______. a. positive combinations b. positive bundles c. positive arrangements d. affirmative groups Ans: B

7. HR practices that have the effect of cancelling out the positive impact of one another are referred to as ______. a. deadly combinations b. fatal mixtures c. weak links d. missing link Ans: A

8. Boxall and Purcell (2003) use which term to refer to the extent to which managers have discretion in strategic decision-making? a. degree of discretion b. degrees of freedom c. degree of autonomy d. degree of flexibility Ans: B

9. The UK hotel sector is often associated with which form of people management and work organisation. a. post-Fordism b. pluralism c. Taylorism d. sophisticated HRM Ans: C

10. What term do Torrington et al. (2008) use to refer to a relationship between HR and business strategy where HR is the key strategic decision-maker within the organisation? a. HR-directed b. HR-driven c. holistic d. HR-dominated Ans: B

11. Which of the following do NOT form part of the seven HR practices identified by Pfeffer (1998) that, when combined, deliver improved performance? a. extensive training b. selective hiring c. high pay contingent on company performance d. numerical flexibility Ans: D 12. A ‘best practice’ approach to HRM is also referred to as which of the following? a. made-to-measure b. universalism c. contingency d. holistic Ans: B

13. Peters and Waterman (1982) are associated with research in the 1980s investigating the reasons for the success of which of the following type of organisations? a. ‘excellent’ organisations b. ‘dominant’ organisations c. ‘supreme’ organisations d. ‘awesome’ organisations Ans: A

14. The positive relationship between HR practices and organisational performance, which is the focus of much research and debate, is often referred to as which of the following? a. people–performance complex b. HRM-S link c. HRM-P link d. HRM-efficiency link Ans: C

15. Which broad strategic approach (Walton, 1985) in HRM is associated with a Taylorist approach to work organisation? a. control b. commitment c. HPWS d. best practice Ans: A

16. The field of practice associated with the better use of HR data for the purposes of decision-making is known as ______. a. HR systematisation b. HR analytics c. HR intelligence d. HR haptics Ans: B

Chapter 4: The labour market context of HRM 1. Negative consequences for workers are associated with which form of functional flexibility? a. multi-skilling b. multi-tasking c. team-working d. homeworking Ans: B

2. Which of the following is NOT associated with a knowledge-intensive economy? a. service employment b. post-industrialism c. upskilling d. routine work

Ans: D

3. An individual’s ability to develop and express a range of skills, such as awareness of the emotions of others, empathy, self-awareness and influence is referred to as ______. a. emotional intelligence b. charismatic leadership c. aesthetic labour d. mentoring Ans: A

4. Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe post-bureaucratic organisational structures? a. organic b. entrepreneurial c. tight–loose d. centralised Ans: D

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bureaucracy? a. vertical hierarchies of authority b. centralisation of control c. task specialisation d. networks Ans: D

6. Under Atkinson’s model of the flexible firm, which of the following is not a characteristic of the employment experience of core employees? a. numerical flexibility b. job security c. good terms and conditions of employment d. functional flexibility

Ans: A

7. The process by which labour markets are divided according to their constituent characteristics or coverage is referred to as which of the following? a. segmentation b. division c. apportionment d. multiplication Ans: A 8. The transfer of ‘back office’ organisational functions such as IT, HRM, finance and accounting to an overseas service provider is referred to as which of the following? a. business process re-engineering b. task specialisation c. functional flexibility d. business process outsourcing Ans: D

9. Which of the following is NOT currently a key labour market trend in the UK? a. workforce ageing b. rise in dual-career couples c. reduction in female labour market participation d. rise in working single parents Ans: C

10. Post-industrialism is associated with the primacy of which of the following as a source of economic prosperity? a. land b. capital c. knowledge d. heavy manufacturing

Ans: C

11. Over the last three decades, UK higher education has experienced which of the following shifts? a. from elite to mass provision b. from old universities to new universities c. from science to the arts d. from diplomas to degrees Ans: A

12. Which of the following industry sectors has (have) NOT experienced a rise in employment over the last quarter of the twentieth century? a. retail, banking and insurance b. distribution, hotels and restaurants c. manufacturing d. transport, storage and communication Ans: C

13. Which of the following terms is used to describe low-skilled, poorly paid, menial jobs in the service sector? a. iMacjobs b. McJobs c. GapJobs d. WalJobs Ans: B

14. Which of the following is the term used by Gray (2004) to describe the instrumental use of labour to achieve organisational ends? a. flexploitation b. flexicurity c. chronic flexibility

d. flexitime Ans: A

15. Which of the following trends is NOT associated with declining quality of working life? a. job intensification b. declining job satisfaction c. increasing incidence of collective industrial action d. declining job tenure Ans: C

16. What are the three levels at which HR practices can be understood? a. intended, actual and perceived b. extended, actual and perceived c. understood, felt and experienced d. evaluated, perceived and experienced Ans: A

17. Which of the following terms is used to describe unemployment that exists because of a fundamental mismatch between the supply and demand for labour? a. structural b. frictional c. stubborn d. transient Ans: A

18. Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe work in the informal economy? a. shadow b. hidden c. atypical d. on the record Ans: D

Chapter 5: International HRM and the national and international contexts 1. Social market capitalism is associated with which of the following? a. anti-unionism b. state intervention c. deregulation d. neo-liberalism Ans: B

2. An economic system in which the interests of a variety of interest groups are considered in decision-making is referred to as ______. a. shareholder economy b. best practice economy c. stakeholder economy d. socialist economy Ans: C

3. The International Labour Organisation seeks to improve working conditions and eradicate exploitative employment practices through which practices? a. directives and suggestions b. principles and practices c. legislation and guidance d. conventions and recommendations Ans: D

4. In the context of the EU, the European Trade Union Confederation and the Union of Industrial and Employers’ Confederations of Europe are examples of which of the following? a. social partners b. economic partners

c. political partners d. legal partners Ans: A

5. Which of the following is NOT typically a core activity of international HRM? a. Understanding management arrangements in each country where an MNC operates b. Developing ways of managing a diverse workforce c. Increasing the number of home country workers employed overseas d. Managing and supporting those employees who work outside of their country of origin Ans: C

6. The perspective on headquarter–subsidiary relations in MNCs which is based on the assumption that management practice in the home nation is superior is referred to as ______. a. polycentrism b. ethnocentrism c. geocentrism d. egocentrism Ans: B

7. Under Taylor et al.’s (1996) classification of HR policy and practices in subsidiary operations, which generic strategy refers to the creation of a global approach to HRM, not explicitly allied to either home or host nation? a. adaptive b. exportive c. integrative d. differentiated Ans: C

8. In Porter’s (1986) typology of business strategy, MNCs can adopt either a(n) ______. a. multi-domestic or global strategy

b. international or transnational strategy c. adaptive or synergistic strategy d. unitary or pluralist strategy Ans: A

9. The European Union is currently an example of which of the following? a. Customs Union b. Common Market c. Economic Union d. Free Trade Agreement Ans: C

10. In Japan, the large corporate networks within which organisations often work in close collaboration and cooperation are known as which of the following? a. Keiretsu b. Kanban c. Qashqai d. Miyagi Ans: A

11. According to Terpstra and David (1991), which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the ‘set of symbols whose meanings provide a set of orientations for members of a society’ and that constitute national culture? a. inter-related b. shared c. random d. compelling Ans: C

12. According to Kidger and Allen (2006), the cultural view held in some ‘Eastern’ nations, such as Japan, which stresses harmony with nature, is reflected in which of the following characteristics of the employment relationship in such cultures? a. mutual obligation between colleagues b. conflict between managers and workers c. partnership between strong trade unions and management d. high levels of risk-taking Ans: A 13. The ‘Anglo-Saxon’ cultural view that nature can and should be controlled is reflected in which of the following characteristics of the employment relationship in such cultures? a. Preference for high levels of managerial prerogative b. cooperation between colleagues c. weak trade unionism d. respect for seniority Ans: A

14. The economies of Japan and South Korea are examples of which of the following? a. social market capitalism b. free-market capitalism c. developmental capitalism d. communist–capitalist system Ans: C

15. A national minimum wage is an example of which of the following? a. collective employment legislation b. unitary employment legislation c. pluralist employment legislation d. individual employment legislation Ans: D

16. Workers for an MNC who are employed outside of both their country of origin and the home country of the firm are referred to as ______? a. Third-country nationals b. Alien nationals c. Stateless d. Lost Ans: A

Chapter 6: People resourcing 1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the systematic approach to recruitment and selection? a. job analysis b. job descriptions c. competency frameworks d. person specifications Ans: C

2. Which of the following are two main categories of reasons for employee exit and turnover? a. hide and seek b. give and take c. push and pull d. inside and outside Ans: C

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the three aspects of the selection criteria identified

by Lewis (1985) that are essential to credible decision-making? a. individual job criteria b. functional/departmental criteria c. team criteria d. organisational criteria

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with informal recruitment? a. speed b. lower cost c. administrative convenience d. avoidance of discrimination Ans: D

5. Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with e-recruitment? a. wide reach of the Internet b. low cost c. accessibility d. flexibility Ans: C

6. Which of the following is a form of selection interviewing? a. compatibility-focused b. reality-based c. competency-based d. capability-focused Ans: C

7. Analogous testing refers to which of the following? a. testing to assess a candidate’s personality traits b. testing to assess a candidate’s aptitude in a job-related task c. testing to assess a candidate’s general intelligence d. testing to assess a candidate’s ‘cultural fit’ with the recruiting organisation Ans: B

8. Which of the following is NOT a criticism levelled at the use of personality tests to select among candidates? a. socially desirable responding b. intrinsically biased c. narrow focus d. favouritism Ans: D

9. Which of the following is NOT identified by Beardwell (2006) as a type of recruitment agency activity? a. contingency b. advertised selection c. search d. random screening Ans: D

10. Which of the following is NOT a key consideration in evaluating a recruitment and selection process? a. cost b. effectiveness c. speed d. fairness Ans: C

11. Which of the following is NOT typically identified as a potential problem associated with interviewer perception in selection interviewing? a. ‘halos and horns’ b. stereotyping c. cold-shouldering d. first impressions Ans: C

12. Which of the following is a potentially negative outcome of using competencies as the basis for recruitment and selection? a. cloning b. diversification c. lack of rigour d. cost Ans: A

13. Competencies are often developed on the basis of the observation of the job performance of which of the following? a. high achievers b. low achievers c. senior managers d. line managers Ans: A

14. The use of competencies in recruitment and selection can be particularly beneficial where managers are trying to achieve which of the following? a. individual–individual fit b. individual–organisation fit c. individual–market fit d. individual–manager fit Ans: B

15. The systematic approach to recruitment and selection has been criticised for being inappropriate in which of the following circumstances? a. stability b. rapid change c. high levels of competition d. public sector organisations

Ans: B

16. Organisational approaches to talent that focus on employees who have the potential to reach senior managerial positions are referred to as ______. a. inclusive b. hybrid c. elite d. exclusive Ans: D

17. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of UK employers in complying with legislation governing redundancy processes? a. to consult with employees over possible ways of avoiding redundancies b. to ensure fair reasons for selection for redundancy c. to compensate employees with sufficient length of service d. to find employees alternative employment at another firm Ans: D

Chapter 7: Managing performance 1. Which of the following is typically not an outcome of a well-conducted performance appraisal? a. agreed on performance objectives b. personal development plans c. explicit obligations of line manager d. a précis of employee faults and mistakes Ans: D

2. Which of the following is unlikely to be a characteristic of an effective performance management system? a. rigid b. continuous

c. contingent d. flexible Ans: A

3. The antecedent of performance management which was popularised in the 1950s and 1960s is known as ______. a. goal-directed management b. management by objectives c. management by intent d. aim-led management Ans: B

4. Which of the following is not commonly cited as a benefit attached to the use of objectives for the management of people? a. They direct the individual or group to behave in a specific, desirable manner. b. They are an important means by which performance can be assessed, ranked and rewarded. c. They provide a stimulus to motivation. d. They can be constantly changed to reflect ever-greater performance demands.

Ans: D

5. Which of the following are often used by employers to guide, support and assess the performance of all employees and to align performance with the overall strategic intentions of the firm? a. central values b. primary values c. core values d. fundamental values Ans: C

6. 360-degree appraisals are sometimes known as ______.

a. multi-participant b. multi-input c. multi-rater d. multi-evaluation Ans: C 7. The acronym ‘KPI’ stands for which of the following in performance management? a. Key Performance Indicator b. Key Performance Identifier c. Key Parameter Index d. Key Performance Index Ans: A

8. Johnson et al. (2007) use which of the following terms to refer to the special organisational events that can be used to reinforce the dominant organisational culture? a. rituals b. routines c. symbols d. structures Ans: A

9. This process of acculturation undergone by a new organisational recruit is also referred to as which of the following? a. acclimatisation b. preparation c. socialisation d. assimilation Ans: C

10. Formal performance appraisals typically take place ______. a. annually

b. biannually c. weekly d. monthly Ans: A

11. Performance appraisals are typically conducted by ______. a. line managers b. HR professionals c. senior managers d. clients Ans: A

12. An effective performance appraisal should take the form of ______. a. a formal dialogue between appraiser and appraisee b. an interrogation of the appraisee c. a lecture of the appraiser d. a water-cooler chat between the appraiser and appraise Ans: A

13. To be most effective, employee self-assessment should take place ______. a. immediately prior to the formal appraisal b. during the formal appraisal c. after the formal appraisal d. weeks in advance of the formal appraisal Ans: A

14. What term is used to describe the process of allocating finite resources, through performance-related pay, to employees who have contributed most greatly to the achievement of organisational objectives? a. equitable allocation b. just rewards

c. distributive fairness d. equal opportunities Ans: C

15. Which of the following is NOT one of the four reasons for poor performance suggested

by Gillen (2002)? a. The employee does not know what the manager wants them to achieve. b. The employee knows what is required but does not know how to do it. c. The employee is experiencing problems in their personal life that inhibit the expression of desired behaviour. d. The employee knows what is required and how to do it but they do not want to do it or cannot see the importance of the task.

Ans: C

16. Relating to employee performance, which of the following refers to the behaviours, skills and knowledge that relate to the core technical aspects of a given job? a. contextual performance b. task performance c. under-performance d. high performance Ans: B

17. In an era when many jobs are multifaceted, requiring high levels of emotional intelligence, creativity, adaptability and proactivity, which of the following is suggested

by Waples and Friedrich (2011) as a more appropriate alternative term than performance ‘management’? a. performance ‘facilitation’ b. performance ‘art’ c. performance ‘extraction’ d. performance ‘manipulation’ Ans: A

Chapter 8: Managing reward 1. The systematic process used to determine the relative value or worth of a job within an organisation is referred to as which of the following? a. job analysis b. job evaluation c. job design d. job enrichment Ans: B 2. The approach to setting base pay by establishing the ‘going rate’ for a particular job is referred to as ______. a. market mechanism b. market pricing c. market setting d. market forces Ans: B

3. Benefits or perks are associated with which form of motivation? a. intrinsic b. extrinsic c. process d. content Ans: B 4. Whilst often used interchangeably, CIPD (2006) distinguishes between ‘benefits’ and ‘perks’ on which basis? a. ‘Benefits’ are offered to all employees, and ‘perks’ are offered to discrete groups of workers or certain individuals. b. ‘Benefits’ are typically financial, and ‘perks’ are non-financial.

c. ‘Benefits’ are associated with managerial employees, and ‘perks’ are offered to professional workers. d. ‘Benefits’ are associated with advancement whereas ‘perks’ are offered regardless of career progression.

Ans: A

5. An approach to reward management that explicitly acknowledges the value of both tangible and intangible rewards to employees is referred to as ______. a. holistic reward b. total reward c. complete reward d. cohesive reward Ans: B

6. Points-based systems of job evaluation are categorised as which of the following? a. analytical methods b. non-analytical methods c. job ranking d. work-study Ans: A

7. Pay structures which consist of a few grades, each consisting of a wider range of jobs, are referred to as which of the following? a. job families b. broadbands c. narrow bands d. pay spines Ans: B

8. Where incentives refer to forms of pay to encourage future performance, what term is used for forms of pay designed to recognise past performance and achievement?

a. commission b. perks c. dividends d. bonuses Ans: D

9. The use of performance-related pay is associated with which theory of motivation? a. goal theory b. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs c. Herzberg’s motivational factors d. McGregor’s theory X and Y Ans: A 10. Flexible benefits – where employees can create their own benefits package to meet individual needs – are also referred to as which of the following? a. retail benefits b. restaurant benefits c. cafeteria benefits d. matching benefits Ans: C

11. Which of the following is NOT a form of non-financial reward? a. opportunities for personal and career development b. flexible working c. pleasant working environment d. pension entitlement Ans: D

12. Pay which is contingent on the number of items completed (e.g. in garment manufacturing) is referred to as ______. a. bit rate

b. piece rate c. market rate d. over-rate Ans: B

13. The form of employee reward where employees share in productivity savings resulting from improved performance is referred to as ______. a. profit sharing b. share ownership c. gain-sharing d. save-as-you-earn Ans: C

14. Individual performance-related pay has been accused of undermining attempts to develop which of the following behaviours? a. good attendance b. loyalty c. cooperation d. competition Ans: C

15. The relationships between pay grades and levels within the single organisation are known as ______. a. internal relativities b. internal comparisons c. internal arrangements d. internal composition Ans: A

16. Which of the following is NOT among the contemporary challenges related to the difficult economic climate for reward management identified by the Hay Group (2010)?

a. cost containment b. talent engagement c. reduction in variable pay d. management of risk Ans: C

17. Which of the following is NOT among the four dimensions of reward identified in the KPMG total reward model? a. individual growth b. compelling future c. competitive pay d. positive workplace Ans: C

18. What is the term used by Chen and Hsieh (2006) that refers to an approach to reward that incorporates ‘everything employees perceive to be of value resulting from the employment relationship’? a. simplex b. multiplex c. duplex d. complex Ans: B

Chapter 9: Human resource development 1. Training interventions that are enacted to fill a ‘gap’ in current capability are referred to as ______. a. deficit-led b. failure-led c. problem-led d. issue-led Ans: A

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the four broad categories of the learner, under Honey and Mumford’s (1992) classification? a. activists b. reflectors c. pragmatists d. enactors Ans: D

3. Which of the following is NOT a form of on-the-job training? a. in-house training course b. mentoring c. coaching d. work shadowing Ans: A

4. The form of on-the-job training takes the form of a developmental, often long-term relationship between a senior and more junior employee (typically, managers) to help the ‘protégé’ to ‘learn the ropes’ of a particular job role is ______. a. coaching b. work shadowing c. e-learning d. mentoring Ans: D

5. Which of the following is NOT typically recognised as a benefit of e-learning? a. reductions in cost and time spent on delivery b. flexibility in the ‘where’ and ‘when’ of access c. the ability to reach large numbers of employees d. learner support and feedback Ans: D

6. Which of the following is the level of HRD evaluation identified by Kirkpatrick (1987) that seeks to ‘measure’ the achievement of training objectives, through, for example, testing or interviews? a. reaction level b. immediate level c. intermediate level d. ultimate level Ans: C

7. Which of the following is the level of HRD evaluation identified by Kirkpatrick (1987) that seeks to provide a holistic assessment of the impact of training on the individual, departmental and organisational performance? a. reaction level b. immediate level c. intermediate level d. ultimate level Ans: D

8. The importance to business strategy formation of the emergent learning of an organisation, and its workers is reflected in which approach to HR strategy-making? a. resource-based view b. best fit c. best practice d. classical approach Ans: A

9. Marchington and Wilkinson (2005) use which term to refer to learning which is learnerdirected and participative? a. andragogical b. pedagogical

c. epistemological d. ontological Ans: A

10. The shift from training and education to learning and development is associated with greater recognition of the importance of which of the following? a. informal learning b. blended learning c. e-learning d. instructive learning Ans: A

11. The use of e-learning alongside more traditional forms of more interactive content delivery, such as classroom-based learning, is often referred to as which of the following? a. mixed learning b. integrated learning c. participative learning d. blended learning Ans: D

12. Which of the following is NOT a recognised role of line managers in human resource development? a. the identification of training needs b. delivering training c. facilitating access to external training opportunities d. administering formal tests among employees Ans: D 13. The acronym ‘CPD’ stands for which of the following? a. competencies for professional development b. continuing professional development

c. continuing professional demonstration d. chartered professional development Ans: B

14. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a key consideration in determining the appropriate choice of a training intervention to address an organisational need? a. cost b. time constraint c. availability of in-house expertise d. the training activity of customers Ans: D

15. What is the name commonly given to the form of on-the-job learning which occurs through observation of a competent colleague? a. sitting with Nellie b. sitting by Dave c. copying Nellie d. watch and learn Ans: A 16. Which of the following describes ‘a naturally occurring and evolving collection of people who together engage in particular kinds of activity, and who come to develop and share ways of doing things… as a result of their joint involvement in that activity’ (Galagan, 1993: 33)? a. communities of practice b. communities of experience c. high-performance work teams d. knowledge hives Ans: A

Chapter 10: Employment relations 1. Which of the following is not typically given as a contributory factor in the decline in trade union power and membership over the last three decades? a. economic restructuring b. government legislation c. privatisation of public services d. patterns of immigration Ans: D

2. The strategy for trade union renewal which focuses on grassroots recruitment among workers traditionally under-represented by unions is referred to as ______. a. servicing b. organising c. partnership d. back to basics Ans: B

3. Employer avoidance of trade unions via the use of paternalistic or sophisticated HR practices is referred to as ______. a. union suppression b. union substitution c. union antagonism d. union replacement Ans: B 4. When referring to employee ‘voice’, the extent to which employees (or their representatives) share in decision-making outcomes with management is referred to as its ______. a. depth b. level

c. scope d. form Ans: A 5. When referring to employee ‘voice’, the range of issues or matters on which employees (or their representatives) have a say is referred to as ______. a. depth b. level c. scope d. form Ans: C

6. Geary (1994) refers to employee involvement and participation where employees take on decisions that traditionally fall within the remit of management as ______. a. consultative b. delegative c. communicative d. bargaining Ans: B 7. Which of the following is NOT a form of ‘upward problem-solving’ employee voice? a. quality circle b. suggestion scheme c. employee attitude survey d. company newsletter Ans: D

8. Over the last 2–3 decades, there has been which trend in collective bargaining in the UK. a. centralisation b. decentralisation c. nationalisation

d. privatisation Ans: B 9. The approach to union-management relations referred to as ‘partnership’ in the UK is known as what in the U.S.? a. mutual antagonism b. mutual benefits c. mutual gains d. mutual aims Ans: C

10. According to Marchington and Wilkinson’s (2005) typology, employee voice which is both deep and wide in scope is associated with which of the following? a. information b. communication c. worker control d. consultation Ans: C

11. Dundon and Rollinson (2007) use which of the following terms to refer to the difference between how much influence employees report having over management decisions and how much influence they would like? a. deficit gap b. voice gap c. representation gap d. influence gap Ans: C

12. Guest and Conway (1999) use which of the following terms to refer to employers characterised by an absence of both individualist and collectivist people management practices?

a. partnership b. unitarist c. traditional pluralist d. black hole Ans: D

13. Which of the following approaches to people management is associated with both paternalism and sophisticated HRM? a. union suppression b. unitarism c. pluralism d. partnership Ans: B

14. In 2007, which OECD country had the highest trade union density? a. Sweden b. the United States c. UK d. Japan Ans: A 15. The unlawful practice of operating ‘closed shops’ relates to which of the following? a. Workplaces where all employees are required to join a particular trade union b. Workplaces where recruitment is conducted by word-of-mouth c. Workplaces that refuse to recognise trade unions d. Workplaces that refuse to employ trade union members Ans: A

16. The managerial power that results from hierarchical authority and status is referred to by French and Raven (1958) as ______. a. apparent power

b. legitimate power c. illegitimate power d. structural power Ans: B

17. The managerial power that reflects control by fear and the ability to punish nonconformity or compliance is referred to by French and Raven (1958) as ______. a. subversive power b. evasive power c. coercive power d. conducive power Ans: C

18. Organisations that are owned by their members, whether customers, employees or local residents and exist to serve those members are called ______. a. mutual societies b. enterprises c. communes d. cooperatives Ans: D

Chapter 11: HRM, equality and diversity 1. A business case for ensuring the equal treatment of workers is associated with which of the following? a. diversity management b. equal opportunities c. radical approaches d. legislative approaches Ans: A

2. The extent to which different groups are represented in different industry sectors and occupational groups is referred to as ______. a. horizontal segregation b. vertical segregation c. structural discrimination d. job segregation Ans: A

3. Which of the following terms is sometimes used to describe the phenomenon associated with the under-representation of women at senior levels in work organisations? a. glass escalator b. glass ceiling c. glass roof d. glass cliff Ans: B

4. Which of the following terms is sometimes used to describe the greater propensity for certain groups to have difficulties in moving out of lower-level jobs? a. glass basement b. social traps c. underclass d. sticky floor Ans: D

5. Under the UK Equal Pay Act 1970, which of the following does NOT form the basis of a potential claim? a. like work b. work rated as equivalent c. comparable work d. work of equal value Ans: C

6. Organisational activity designed to favour disadvantaged groups in decision-making is known as ______. a. positive agenda b. positive discrimination c. positive action d. positive policies Ans: B

7. Organisational activity to remove inequality by equipping individuals in disadvantaged groups with the means to compete equally for employment opportunities is collectively called which of the following? a. positive agenda b. positive discrimination c. positive action d. positive policies Ans: C

8. The average difference between the pay of men and women in a given context is referred to as which of the following? a. gender pay gap b. gender reward difference c. gender pay disparity d. gender reward inequality Ans: A

9. In the UK, attaching a requirement or condition to organisational decision-making (e.g. in recruitment) which, whilst applying to all individuals, disadvantages certain groups, is referred to as which of the following? a. direct discrimination b. indirect discrimination

c. victimisation d. structural discrimination Ans: B

10. Equal opportunities are typically associated with which of the following approaches to tackling workplace inequality? a. liberal b. radical c. unitary d. feminist Ans: A

11. Discrimination in which of the following areas is NOT covered by the Sex Discrimination Act 1975? a. gender b. marital status c. gender reassignment d. sexual orientation Ans: D

12. The duty placed on employers and service providers to accommodate disability in the provision of employment, goods and services, education and transport is governed by which principle? a. financial acceptability b. value for money c. reasonable adjustment d. common sense Ans: C

13. Which of the following is NOT identified by Torrington et al. (2008) as a lawful basis for discriminating in employment decisions?

a. decency b. personal service c. authenticity d. religious beliefs Ans: D

14. The Equality Act 2010 offers protection to people from discrimination on the basis of which of the following? a. protected characteristics b. innate traits c. immutable characteristics d. protected rights Ans: A

15. Direct discrimination against someone because others think they possess a particular characteristic, even if they do not, in fact, do so, is referred to under the Equality Act 2010 as what? a. discrimination by perception b. discrimination by error c. discrimination by association d. indirect discrimination Ans: A

Chapter 12: Career and talent management 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of effective career management as identified by King (2004)? a. pro-activity b. dynamism c. collaboration d. stability Ans: D

2. What name is given to the organisational practices associated with preparing highpotential employees for specific senior management positions? a. talent management b. succession planning c. career progression d. career counselling Ans: B

3. Which of the following characterises a model of organisational career management which stresses the importance of both the individual and organisation taking equal responsibility for careers in order to meet the needs of both parties (Hirsh and Jackson, 2004)? a. career partnership b. career symmetry c. corporate career management d. talent management Ans: A

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the career forms identified by Kanter (1989)? a. bureaucratic b. entrepreneurial c. professional d. academic Ans: D

5. Adamson et al. (1998: 251) argue that traditional careers have been replaced by which of the following? a. ‘new deals’ in employment b. ‘new arrangements’ in employment c. ‘new employment concepts’ d. ‘new forms’ of employment

Ans: A

6. Charles Handy (1994) is associated with which of the following new career concepts? a. boundaryless careers b. Protean careers c. portfolio working d. chronic flexibility Ans: C 7. Under the ‘new’ psychological contract, workers exchange performance for continuous learning in order to develop which of the following? a. marketability b. non-transferable skills c. long-term employment d. contacts Ans: A

8. Organisational delayering and downsizing are associated with an increase in which career management activity? a. lateral career moves b. managed career moves c. career workshops d. high-potential development schemes Ans: A

9. Talent management activity is associated with an organisation’s desire to create which of the following? a. talent show b. talent pipeline c. talent depository d. an organisation of all talents

Ans: B

10. A potential consequence of organisational delayering and downsizing is the creation of which of the following? a. learning gap b. promotion opportunities c. skill surpluses d. replication of roles Ans: A

11. Ensuring awareness among current employees of vacancies and opportunities for promotion and encouraging internal applicants are key means by which to create which of the following? a. development centres b. positive psychological contract c. the open internal job market d. succession planning Ans: C

12. Developments in organisational career management activity have resulted in a greater emphasis in career development on which of the following? a. individual self-reliance b. managed careers for all employees c. vertical advancement d. bureaucratic careers Ans: A 13. The ‘new’ career is associated with which of the following? a. relational psychological contract b. unbroken psychological contract c. continuous psychological contract

d. transactional psychological contract Ans: D

14. Vaughan and Wilson (1994: 45) suggest that for many workers the career ladder has turned into which of the following? a. Ferris wheel b. hamster wheel c. wheel of fortune d. wheel of misfortune Ans: B

15. Whilst traditional career success is typically associated with the attainment of evergreater status and responsibility, the new career is associated with which of the following? a. psychological success b. monetary reward c. accumulation of power d. stability of employment Ans: A

16. Talent management initiatives that are designed to create a steady supply of highperforming individuals for advancement at all levels of an organisation are designed to create which of the following? a. talent pipeline b. talent conveyor c. talent escalator d. talent runway Ans: A

Chapter 13: The management of workplace conflict 1. What is the term given to the accepted norms of behaviour in society regarding the fair treatment of others which should be reflected in organisational approaches to workplace discipline? a. natural justice b. personal justice c. comparative justice d. cultural justice Ans: A

2. Which of the following is NOT among those identified by Acas as acts of gross misconduct? a. persistent absenteeism b. theft c. bullying d. deliberately accessing offensive internet sites Ans: A

3. The sanction usually imposed by employers for gross misconduct is ______. a. summary dismissal b. demotion c. pay freeze d. fine Ans: A

4. Which of the following is not deemed a fair reason for dismissal under UK law? a. lack of capability b. conduct c. retirement d. individual–organisation fit

Ans: D

5. Which two principles underpin the Acas code on resolving disciplinary and grievance matters in the workplace? a. reasonableness and fairness b. formality and standardisation c. efficiency and equity d. rigidity and clarity Ans: A 6. Which of the following is NOT an ‘automatically unfair’ reason for dismissal under UK legislation? a. reasons relating to pregnancy or maternity b. trade union membership or taking part in union activities c. an employee alerting their employer to health and safety risks d. long-term sickness Ans: D

7. What is the name given to the procedures used in some organisations to handle employee under-performance? a. competence procedures b. capable standards c. best practice measures d. capability procedures Ans: D

8. What name is given to the process whereby a third party facilitates discussion between employer and employee representatives to resolve an industrial dispute? a. conciliation b. mediation c. arbitration

d. negotiation Ans: A

9. What name is given to the process whereby a third party makes formal but non-binding recommendations to prompt a settlement between the employer and employees in an industrial dispute? a. conciliation b. mediation c. arbitration d. negotiation Ans: B

10. What name is given to the process whereby a third party is appointed to evaluate the evidence and make a decision that is used to resolve an industrial dispute? a. conciliation b. mediation c. arbitration d. negotiation Ans: C

11. Acas is an acronym that stands for which of the following? a. Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service b. Advisory, Consultation and Adjudication Service c. Advisory, Communication and Adjudication Service d. Arbitration, Consultation and Adjudication Service Ans: A

12. Employment tribunals form part of which branch of the UK legal system? a. civil law b. criminal law c. common law

d. social law Ans: A

13. The institutionalisation of conflict by establishing rules and procedures to contain disagreement and to reconcile the interests of stakeholders is associated with which perspective on the employment relationship? a. unitarism b. pluralism c. Marxism d. individualism Ans: B

14. The Acas Code of Practice on handling workplace discipline and grievance advocates which of the following is the first stage in its resolution? a. an informal meeting b. immediate recourse to formal proceedings c. dismissal of the offending worker or manager d. suspension of the offending worker or manager Ans: A

15. In cases of misconduct, which of the following represent the usual stages in handling employee discipline? a. written warning, dismissal, appeal b. verbal warning, written warning, suspension, dismissal c. verbal warning, suspension, written warning, dismissal, appeal d. verbal warning, first written warning, final written warning, dismissal Ans: D

16. Which of the following is NOT an automatically unfair reason for dismissal under UK law? a. whistle-blowing

b. taking part in lawfully organised industrial action c. pregnancy d. refusing to follow managerial instructions Ans: D

17. Bullying and harassment are often associated with which of the following workplace ‘agendas’? a. dignity at work b. peace at work c. employee engagement d. worker autonomy Ans: A 18. Which of the following describe the workplace structures that provide ‘fertile soil’ for bullying (Salin, 2003)? a. enabling structures b. mitigating structures c. precipitating processes d. informal structures Ans: A

Chapter 14: HRM, work and well-being 1. What is the term used to describe the individual that employers are obliged under the HSE Code of Practice to appoint to assist them in implementing the measures needed to comply with health and safety legislation? a. competent person b. capable person c. qualified person d. independent person Ans: A

2. What is the term used to describe the edict that can be issued by health and safety inspectors requiring a contravention to be remedied within a prescribed time period? a. prohibition notice b. improvement notice c. verboten notice d. notice of betterment Ans: B

3. What is the term used to describe the edict that can be issued by health and safety inspectors requiring activity to be stopped immediately if it is felt to create an imminent danger to health or safety? a. prohibition notice b. forbidding notice c. verboten notice d. notice of cessation Ans: A

4. What term is given to interventions to tackle workplace stress which seek to address the organisational causes of stress, rather than its symptoms? a. primary interventions b. secondary interventions c. tertiary interventions d. absolute interventions Ans: A

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the powers afforded to safety inspectors? a. to undertake examinations and investigations to ascertain risks to health and safety b. to test or take possession of any article or substance which appears likely to cause danger c. to inspect organisational documents d. to arrest those in contravention of health and safety legislation Ans: D

6. Which of the following types of organisations are typically more likely to offer better access to work-life balance initiatives? a. large, public sector organisations b. large, private sector organisations c. small, private sector organisations d. small, not-for-profit organisations Ans: D

7. UK health and safety legislation specifically indicates that workplace risk assessments should take particular account of the risks to health for which of the following groups? a. elderly workers b. female workers c. new or expectant mothers d. workers with allergies Ans: C

8. Which of the following areas of employment practice is NOT covered by the EU Working Time Directive 1993? a. annual leave entitlement b. working hours c. work breaks d. job design Ans: D

9. The acronym EAP stands for which of the following? a. Employer Assistance Programme b. Employee Advice Programme c. Employee Assistance Programme d. Employee Advice Phoneline Ans: C

10. Secondary interventions to deal with workplace stress focus on which of the following? a. individual workers’ ability to cope with stressful work b. addressing the causes of workplace stress c. removing affected workers from stressful situations d. channels to express grievances relating to stress Ans: A

11. Which of the following is NOT among the three sectors in which work is most hazardous to physical safety? a. agriculture b. manufacturing c. construction d. transport Ans: D 12. According to Walters et al. (2005), which of the following is associated with a ‘weak’ workplace health and safety culture? a. workforces with a high degree of numerical flexibility b. poor employee consultation over health and safety issues c. organisations in the manufacturing sector d. firms competing on the basis of high quality Ans: B

13. Which of the following groups is not covered by the employer’s duty of care (under UK health and safety legislation) regarding workplace health and safety? a. employees b. sub-contractors c. customers d. trespassers Ans: D

14. Which of the following is NOT a statutory right afforded to union health and safety representatives in the UK? a. to carry out workplace investigations and inspections b. to make recommendations to employers c. to be consulted over health and safety issues d. to organise remedies to minor infringements Ans: D

15. RIDDOR (1995) imposes which broad set of requirements on employers? a. to report accidents and incidences of industrial diseases b. to prosecute employee contraventions of the legislation c. to pay compensation to injured parties d. to show evidence of remedial action to address health and safety problems Ans: A

Chapter 15: Contemporary change and HRM 1. What is the term used to describe the knowledge that is embedded within organisational relationships and routines, and which can be a source of competitive advantage? a. human capital b. social capital c. relational capital d. technological capital Ans: B

2. What is the name given to organisations that are typically small, fast-growing service providers and whose principal resource is the expertise of the employees that work for them? a. knowledge-intensive firms b. knowledge-rich companies c. knowledge-loaded organisations

d. knowledge-sodden firms Ans: A

3. Ichijo et al. (1998) suggest that effective knowledge management requires organisations to do which of the following? a. generate, grade and grow knowledge workers b. create, capture and capitalise on the knowledge c. manage, manipulate and motivate knowledge workers d. extract, express and exploit knowledge Ans: B

4. Knowledge workers are difficult to manage because much knowledge work ______. a. is intangible and difficult to evaluate and measure b. is done outside of the workplace c. involves activities not directly related to the core function of the firm d. is hidden from managers Ans: A

5. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a characteristic of an employment relationship associated with effective knowledge-sharing? a. trust b. competition c. mutual respect d. honesty Ans: B

6. The promotion of knowledge-sharing requires complementarity between which of the following? a. the developmental needs of the employee and the commercial needs of the organisation b. the attitudes of individuals with valuable knowledge c. the working hours of line managers and employees

d. the firm’s computer systems Ans: A

7. What approach to job design is likely to be most productive for knowledge workers? a. strict demarcation between roles b. worker involvement in crafting their own jobs c. trade union involvement d. Taylorist separation of conception from execution Ans: B

8. Which of the following perspectives on organisational change stress the importance of understanding how the context, substance and process of change interact and of recognising change as complex, repetitive, fragmented and politicised? a. processual–consensual b. procedural–contextual c. processional–conditional d. processual–contextual Ans: D

9. Which of the following is NOT a name that has been used to refer to HRM policies and practices that are concerned with economic and social/environmental sustainability? a. triple-bottom-line HRM b. green HRM c. socially responsible HRM d. welfare HRM Ans: D

10. Which of the following practices is not included in the definition of Modern Slavery offered by the Ethical Trade Initiative? a. forced labour b. human trafficking

c. flexible labour d. bonded labour Ans: C

11. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of recent labour marketing change associated with shifting demography in the UK? a. ageing workforce b. increased labour market diversity c. increased female labour market participation d. increased single job households Ans: D

12. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a realistic response by a firm to a reduction in migrant labour resulting from Brexit? a. identifying alternative sources of domestic labour b. improving the pay and benefits associated with hard-to-fill jobs c. better developing existing workers d. recruiting directly from overseas Ans: D

13. The designation given to businesses that adhere to high standards of social and environmental performance is ______. a. Certified B Corporations b. Certified Best Corporations c. Certificate of Best Practice d. Good Work Certification Ans: A