Solution Manul For Medical Assisting Administrative & Clinical Competencies 10th Edition Michelle Bl

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant, Health Care Team, and Medical Environment

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 01: THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT, HEALTH CARE TEAM, AND MEDICAL ENVIRONMENT

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Entry-level clinical duties for a medical assistant include: a. accounts receivable and payable. b. applying sutures. c. administering medications intravenously. d. performance of patient screenings.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Accounts receivable and payable are entry-level administrative duties for a medical assistant. Performance of patient screenings is an entry-level clinical duty for a medical assistant. b. Incorrect. Applying sutures is a clinical duty that is not within the medical assistant’s scope of practice. Performance of patient screenings is an entry-level clinical duty for a medical assistant. c. Incorrect. Administering medications intravenously is a clinical duty that is not within the medical assistant’s scope of practice. Performance of patient screenings is an entry-level clinical duty for a medical assistant. d. Correct. Performance of patient screenings is an entry-level clinical duty for a medical assistant.

2. Which of the following entry-level administrative duties would you be expected to complete as a medical assistant? a. Filing patient records b. Phlebotomy c. Administering medications d. Wrapping instruments ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant, Health Care Team, and Medical Environment

Analysis: a. Correct. The filing of patient records is an administrative skill that medical assistants would be expected to complete. b. Incorrect. Phlebotomy is a clinical skill. The filing of patient records is an administrative skill that medical assistants would be expected to complete. c. Incorrect. Administering medications is a clinical skill. The filing of patient records is an administrative skill that medical assistants would be expected to complete. d. Incorrect. Wrapping instruments is a clinical skill. The filing of patient records is an administrative skill that medical assistants would be expected to complete.

3. A system where patients pay an added fee in exchange for more personalized care and better access to their providers for medical services is referred to as which type of service? a. PCMH b. ACO c. Boutique d. Managed care ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. PCMH is a patient-centered medical home. This is a model of care where doctors, hospitals, and healthcare providers work to provide high-quality care to their Medicare patients. Managed care refers to care plans where the providers follow rules to keep care costs down. A boutique system is where patients pay an added fee in exchange for more personalized care and better access to their providers for medical services. b. Incorrect. ACO is an accountable care organization. This is a model of care where doctors, hospitals, and healthcare providers work to provide high-quality care to their Medicare patients. Managed care refers to care plans where the providers follow rules to keep care costs down. A boutique system is where patients pay an added fee in exchange for more personalized care and better access to their providers for medical services. c. Correct. A boutique system is where patients pay an added fee in exchange for more personalized care and better access to their providers for medical services.

Managed care refers to care plans where the providers follow rules to keep care costs down. d. Incorrect. Managed care refers to care plans where the providers follow rules to keep care costs down. A boutique system is where patients pay an added fee in exchange for more personalized care and better access to their providers for medical services.

4. Employment opportunities for medical assistants are expected to grow by what percentage through 2033? a. 15 b. 19 c. 24 d. 29 ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant, Health Care Team, and Medical Environment

Analysis: a. Correct. Employment opportunities for medical assistants are expected to grow by 15 percent through 2033. b. Incorrect. Employment opportunities for medical assistants are expected to grow by 15 percent through 2033. c. Incorrect. Employment opportunities for medical assistants are expected to grow by 15 percent through 2033. d. Incorrect. Employment opportunities for medical assistants are expected to grow by 15 percent through 2033.

5. Which of the following organizations provides the RMA credential? a. AAMA b. AMT c. AAPC d. NHA ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The AAMA provides the CMA (AAMA) credential. The AMT provides the RMA credential. b. Correct. The AMT provides the RMA credential. c. Incorrect. The AAPC provides certification to professional coders. The AMT provides the RMA credential. d. Incorrect. The NHA is an association for those working in healthcare. The AMT provides the RMA credential.

6. Which of the following defines the role of the patient advocate or navigator? a. Drives the patient to appointments b. Assists the patient or acts on behalf of the patient c. Acts on behalf of the provider d. Keeps the patient’s medical records ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Driving the patient to their appointments is outside the role of the patient advocate or navigator. The patient advocate or navigator assists the patient or acts on behalf of the patient. b. Correct. The patient advocate or navigator assists the patient or acts on behalf of the patient. c. Incorrect. The patient advocate or navigator does not act on behalf of the provider.

The patient advocate or navigator assists the patient or acts on behalf of the patient. d. Incorrect. While keeping a copy of the patient’s medical records may be part of the role of the advocate or navigator, their main role is to assist the patient or act on behalf of the patient.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant, Health Care Team, and Medical Environment

7. Which of the following describes the role of an ACO? a. Provides health care with an emphasis on prevention b. A group of physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers, like the PCMH model, who together coordinate high-quality care for their Medicare patients c. A system of health care that integrates the delivery and payment of health care for covered persons (patients, or subscribers) by contracting with selected providers for comprehensive health care services at a reduced cost d. Care centers that take care of patients with acute illness or injury and those with minor emergencies ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Many health care organizations provide care with an emphasis on prevention. An Accountable Care Organization (ACO) is a group of physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers, similar to the PCMH model. Together, these models coordinate to provide high-quality care to their Medicare patients. b. Correct. An Accountable Care Organization (ACO) is a group of physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers, similar to the PCMH model. Together, these models coordinate to provide high-quality care to their Medicare patients. c. Incorrect. A system where providers contract to reduce costs is an HMO. An Accountable Care Organization (ACO) is a group of physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers, similar to the PCMH model. Together, these models coordinate to provide high-quality care to their Medicare patients. d. Incorrect. Care centers that take care of minor emergencies are acute care clinics.

An Accountable Care Organization (ACO) is a group of physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers, similar to the PCMH model. Together, these models coordinate to provide high-quality care to their Medicare patients.

8. What is the name of the physician specialist who looks after patients admitted to the hospital? a. Physician partner b. Hospitalist c. Physiatrist d. Hospital physician ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A physician partner refers to physicians who work together as partners in a clinic setting. A hospitalist is a physician specialist who looks after patients admitted to the hospital. b. Correct. A hospitalist is a physician specialist who looks after patients admitted to the hospital. c. Incorrect. A physiatrist is a physician who specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation. A hospitalist is a physician specialist who looks after patients admitted to the hospital. d. Incorrect. A hospital physician refers to a physician who sees patients in the hospital. This is not the same as a hospitalist who looks after patients once admitted to the hospital.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant, Health Care Team, and Medical Environment

9. Which health care professional administers radiopharmaceuticals to patients and then scans the body with a special camera to observe how the pharmaceuticals concentrate in specific organs? a. Radiological technician b. Radiologist c. Ultrasound technician d. Nuclear medicine technologist ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A radiological technician is a person who takes X-rays. A nuclear medicine technologist administers radiopharmaceuticals to patients and then scans the body with a special camera to observe how the pharmaceuticals concentrate in specific organs. b. Incorrect. A radiologist is a physician who reads and interprets X-rays. A nuclear medicine technologist administers radiopharmaceuticals to patients and then scans the body with a special camera to observe how the pharmaceuticals concentrate in specific organs. c. Incorrect. An ultrasound technician uses ultrasound to collect images from inside the body. A nuclear medicine technologist administers radiopharmaceuticals to patients and then scans the body with a special camera to observe how the pharmaceuticals concentrate in specific organs. d. Correct. A nuclear medicine technologist administers radiopharmaceuticals to patients and then scans the body with a special camera to observe how the pharmaceuticals concentrate in specific organs.

10. Which type of medicine identifies three types of energies that are present in all things? a. Ayurvedic medicine b. Biofeedback c. Acupuncture d. Homeopathy ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Ayurvedic medicine identifies three types of energies that are present in all things. b. Incorrect. Biofeedback is a mind-body technique that involves the use of visual or auditory feedback to control certain bodily functions. Ayurvedic medicine identifies three types of energies that are present in all things. c. Incorrect. Acupuncture is the use of needles in Chinese medicine. Ayurvedic medicine identifies three types of energies that are present in all things. d. Incorrect. Homeopathy refers to natural, non-medicinal care. Ayurvedic medicine identifies three types of energies that are present in all things.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 02: Professionalism

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 02: PROFESSIONALISM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following steps would you use when problem solving? a. Focus on the result. b. Use only your own opinion. c. Gather facts and ideas to help you decide what to do. d. Put off dealing with the problem until you can solve it.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Focusing on the result may not help to solve a problem. Gathering facts and ideas is the step to use when problem solving. b. Incorrect. Using only your opinion may not help solve a problem. Gathering facts and ideas is the step to use when problem solving. c. Correct. Gathering facts and ideas is the step to use when problem solving. d. Incorrect. Putting off dealing with a problem until you can solve it does not help solve a problem. Gathering facts and ideas is the step to use when problem solving.

2. Which of the following would take priority over all other floor tasks? a. Rooming patients b. Performing procedures c. Tasking d. Assisting the provider with a procedure ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Rooming patients is the start of the clinical visit; however, assisting the provider with a procedure takes priority. b. Incorrect. Though performing procedures is part of the medical assistant role, assisting the provider with a procedure takes priority.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 02: Professionalism

c.

Incorrect. Though performing tasks is part of the medical assistant role, assisting the provider with a procedure takes priority. d. Correct. Assisting the provider with a procedure takes priority.

3. How can biases and prejudices affect therapeutic communication? a. Biases and prejudices can assist with a better understanding of the communication content. b. Biases and prejudices will improve the patient/provider interactions. c. Biases and prejudices will clear up any assumptions that could have negative outcomes. d. Biases and prejudices can lead to unintended disparities in healthcare.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Biases and prejudices impede a better understanding of the communication content. b. Incorrect. Biases and prejudices do not improve the patient/provider interactions. c. Incorrect. Biases and prejudices can cause assumptions that could have negative outcomes. d. Correct. Biases and prejudices can lead to unintended disparities in healthcare.

4. Someone’s values, practices, and traditions are an example of what type of diversity? a. Social b. Gender c. Ethnic d. Cultural ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Social diversity refers to things such as religious beliefs. Values, practices, and traditions are examples of cultural diversity. b. Incorrect. Gender diversity refers to a person’s gender. Values, practices, and traditions are examples of cultural diversity. c. Incorrect. Ethnic diversity refers to a person’s ethnicity, such as country of origin.

Values, practices, and traditions are examples of cultural diversity. d. Correct. Values, practices, and traditions are examples of cultural diversity.

5. When people in a community belong to different religions, cultural backgrounds, and economic statuses, it is known as which kind of diversity? a. Cultural b. Gender c. Social d. Ethnic ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 02: Professionalism

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cultural diversity refers to people in a community who share different values, practices, traditions, or beliefs. Social diversity refers to people in a community who belong to different religions, cultural backgrounds, and economic statuses. b. Incorrect. Gender diversity refers to a person’s gender. Social diversity refers to things such as religious beliefs. Social diversity refers to people in a community who belong to different religions, cultural backgrounds, and economic statuses. c. Correct. Social diversity refers to people in a community who belong to different religions, cultural backgrounds, and economic statuses. d. Incorrect. Ethnic diversity refers to a person’s ethnicity, such as country of origin.

Social diversity refers to people in a community who belong to different religions, cultural backgrounds, and economic statuses.

6. Which of the following is a reason jewelry may not be allowed to be worn while working in the health care environment? a. Possibility of it being lost b. Possibility of it being stolen c. Potential microbial growth and disease transmission d. Potential for it to be damaged ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Although jewelry may potentially get lost, the potential of microbial growth and disease transmission is why it should not be worn while working in the healthcare environment. b. Incorrect. Although jewelry may potentially get stolen, the potential of microbial growth and disease transmission is why it should not be worn while working in the healthcare environment. c. Correct. The potential of microbial growth and disease transmission is why it should not be worn while working in the healthcare environment. d. Incorrect. Although jewelry may potentially get damaged, the potential of microbial growth and disease transmission is why it should not be worn while working in the healthcare environment.

7. Referring to someone who has German ancestry is referencing which type of diversity? a. Cultural b. Gender c. Ethnicity d. Social ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cultural diversity refers to people in a community who belong to different religions, cultural backgrounds, and economic statuses. Specifically referring to the German ancestry is referencing ethnic diversity. b. Incorrect. Gender diversity refers to a person’s gender. Specifically referring to the German ancestry is referencing ethnic diversity.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 02: Professionalism

c. Correct. Specifically referring to the German ancestry is referencing ethnic diversity. d. Incorrect. Social diversity refers to things such as religious beliefs. Specifically referring to the German ancestry is referencing ethnic diversity.

8. Which of the following leads to better time management? a. Make a daily list of tasks, learn to say no, and don’t be a perfectionist. b. Make a daily list of tasks, learn to say no, and be a perfectionist. c. Make a daily list of tasks, never say no, and be a perfectionist. d. Make a monthly list of tasks, avoid bad habits that rob you of time, and learn to say no.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The three basic goals of time management are to make a daily list of tasks, learn to say no, and be a perfectionist. b. Incorrect. The three basic goals of time management are to make a daily list of tasks, learn to say no, and be a perfectionist. c. Incorrect. The three basic goals of time management are to make a daily list of tasks, learn to say no, and be a perfectionist. d. Incorrect. The three basic goals of time management are to make a daily list of tasks, learn to say no, and be a perfectionist.

9. If a conflict arises between you and a coworker, which conflict resolution technique would you use first? a. Speak with your immediate supervisor. b. Speak with the clinic manager. c. Speak with the coworker your issue is with. d. Speak with another coworker.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. You must first try to work out your differences with your colleague directly. If this is not successful, take the matter to your office manager. Your office manager will work with you and your colleague to resolve the conflict. b. Incorrect. You must first try to work out your differences with your colleague directly. If this is not successful, take the matter to your office manager. Your office manager will work with you and your colleague to resolve the conflict. c. Correct. You must first try to work out your differences with your colleague directly.

If this is not successful, take the matter to your office manager. Your office manager will work with you and your colleague to resolve the conflict. d. Incorrect. You must first try to work out your differences with your colleague directly. If this is not successful, take the matter to your office manager. Your office manager will work with you and your colleague to resolve the conflict.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 02: Professionalism

10. Maintaining self-boundaries also aligns with which of the following concepts? a. Dependence b. Autonomy c. Honesty d. Initiative ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Dependence refers to relying on others. Maintaining self-boundaries also aligns with autonomy. b. Correct. Maintaining self-boundaries also aligns with autonomy. c. Incorrect. Honesty refers to telling the truth. Maintaining self-boundaries also aligns with autonomy. d. Incorrect. Initiative refers to being proactive. Maintaining self-boundaries also aligns with autonomy.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Issues

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 03: LEGAL AND ETHICAL ISSUES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

In the United States, law is predominantly derived from: a. legislative bodies. b. executive orders. c. voter referendums. d. international courts.

ANS: a

Analysis: a. Correct. Laws in the United States are predominantly derived from legislative bodies. b. Incorrect. Executive orders refer to orders made by the president or the governor.

Laws in the United States are predominantly derived from legislative bodies. c. Incorrect. Voter referendums refer to citizens collecting signatures to get legislation onto the voter ballot. Laws in the United States are predominantly derived from legislative bodies. d. Incorrect. International courts are where laws between two or more countries are found. Laws in the United States are predominantly derived from legislative bodies.

2. Which of the following statements best describes criminal law? a. An act prohibited by law b. Failed to perform an act required by law c. Exclusively statutory d. Demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. An act prohibited by law may not be criminal in nature. Criminal law is best described as exclusively statutory.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Issues

b. Incorrect. Failing to perform an act required by law may not be criminal. Criminal law is best described as exclusively statutory. c. Correct. Criminal law is best described as exclusively statutory. d. Incorrect. Demonstrating a preponderance of the evidence refers to proving a case in a civil law court. Criminal law is best described as exclusively statutory.

3. Which of the following defines a contract? a. Offer, consent, acceptance b. Offer, acceptance, consideration c. Offer, consideration, consent d. Consent, consideration, acceptance ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A contract is defined as an offer, acceptance, and consideration. b. Correct. A contract is defined as an offer, acceptance, and consideration. c. Incorrect. A contract is defined as an offer, acceptance, and consideration. d. Incorrect. A contract is defined as an offer, acceptance, and consideration.

4. Which of the following is an intentional tort? a. Libel and slander b. Automobile accident c. Hitting a baseball and it goes through a window d. Rock hitting a car window in oncoming traffic ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Torts can be unintentional (accidental, such as negligence) or intentional (such as slander, libel, and medical malpractice). b. Incorrect. Torts can be unintentional (accidental, such as negligence) or intentional (such as slander, libel, and medical malpractice). The question specifically asks for an intentional tort; therefore, automobile accident is incorrect because it is unintentional. c. Incorrect. Torts can be unintentional (accidental, such as negligence) or intentional (such as slander, libel, and medical malpractice). The question specifically asks for an intentional tort; therefore, hitting a baseball, which then goes through a window, is incorrect because it is unintentional. d. Incorrect. Torts can be unintentional (accidental, such as negligence) or intentional (such as slander, libel, and medical malpractice). The question specifically asks for an intentional tort; therefore, a rock hitting a window in oncoming traffic is incorrect because it is unintentional.

5. What information contained in a personal health record is to be protected from disclosure under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II)? a. Mental health records for individual patients b. Summary of the practice billing records by CPT code only c. Summary of practice diagnosis records by ICD-10 code only d. Non-communicable disease information by population health ANS: a © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Issues

Analysis: a. Correct. Mental health records contained in the personal health record are to be protected from disclosure under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II). b. Incorrect. Summaries of billing records are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II). Mental health records contained in the personal health record are to be protected from disclosure under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II). c. Incorrect. Summaries of diagnostic records are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II). Mental health records contained in the personal health record are to be protected from disclosure under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II). d. Incorrect. Non-communicable disease information is not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II). Mental health records contained in the personal health record are to be protected from disclosure under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (Title II).

6. Professional liability insurance covers which of the following? a. Misdemeanor offenses b. Errors and omissions made in the standard course of medical care c. Criminal behavior d. The intentional release of PHI ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Misdemeanor offenses are law violations. Professional liability insurance covers errors and omissions made in the standard course of medical care. b. Correct. Professional liability insurance covers errors and omissions made in the standard course of medical care. c. Incorrect. Criminal behavior refers to law violations. Professional liability insurance covers errors and omissions made in the standard course of medical care. d. Incorrect. The intentional release of Protected Health Information (PHI) is a criminal offense. Professional liability insurance covers errors and omissions made in the standard course of medical care.

7. Which of the following is necessary for a standard negligence lawsuit? a. The provider has established a relationship with the patient, resulting in a duty of care. b. The provider’s action, which resulted in the patient’s injury was intentional. c. The patient suffers emotional distress as a result of the negligence. d. The patient suffers a financial loss as a result of the negligence.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. For a standard negligence lawsuit to be valid, the provider must have established a relationship with the patient, resulting in a duty of care. b. Incorrect. Though the provider’s actions causing a patient’s injury is part of a negligence lawsuit, for a standard negligence lawsuit to be valid, the provider must have established a relationship with the patient, resulting in a duty of care. c. Incorrect. Though the patient suffering emotional distress due to the negligence is part of a negligence lawsuit, for a standard negligence lawsuit to be valid, the provider must have established a relationship with the patient, resulting in a duty of care.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Issues

d. Incorrect. Though the patient suffering financial loss due to the negligence is part of a negligence lawsuit, for a standard negligence lawsuit to be valid, the provider must have established a relationship with the patient, resulting in a duty of care.

8. Which of the following statements best describes performing duties within your scope of practice? a. Working under the organizations’ professional standards and ethics b. Demonstrating personal ethics c. Working under a physician’s direct supervision d. Working under federal guidelines and standards ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Though working under the organization’s professional standards and ethics is part of your work, working under a physician’s direct supervision best describes the medical assistant performing their duties within the scope of practice. b. Incorrect. Though demonstrating personal ethics is necessary in the workplace, working under a physician’s direct supervision best describes the medical assistant performing their duties within the scope of practice. c. Correct. Working under a physician’s direct supervision best describes the medical assistant performing their duties within the scope of practice. d. Incorrect. Though working under federal guidelines and standards is necessary, working under a physician’s direct supervision best describes the medical assistant performing their duties within the scope of practice.

9. Which of the following best describes a durable power of attorney? a. A legal attorney hired to advise the patient on medical procedures b. A statement of the patient’s medical wishes regarding end-of-life care c. A legal document in which a patient gives another person the authority to make health care decisions on their behalf d. A written order by the patient stating not to resuscitate them in the event they stop breathing or their heart stops ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The durable power of attorney or health care power of attorney is an instruction from the patient to all who might need to know that the patient has empowered a representative to make health care decisions and the discontinuation of life support. A legal attorney hired to advise the patient is not a durable power of attorney. b. Incorrect. A statement of the patient’s wishes regarding end-of-life care is called a living will. The durable power of attorney or health care power of attorney is an instruction from the patient to all who might need to know that the patient has empowered a representative to make health care decisions and the discontinuation of life support. c. Correct. The durable power of attorney or health care power of attorney is an instruction from the patient to all who might need to know that the patient has empowered a representative to make health care decisions and the discontinuation of life support.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Issues

d. Incorrect. A written order by the patient stating not to resuscitate them in the event they stop breathing or their heart stops is called a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order. The durable power of attorney or health care power of attorney is an instruction from the patient to all who might need to know that the patient has empowered a representative to make health care decisions and the discontinuation of life support.

10. Which of the following is an example of implied consent? a. A patient signs paperwork consenting to treatment. b. A provider performs emergency surgery on a new patient who has lost consciousness. c. A parent signs paperwork consenting to treatment for their minor child. d. A patient gives verbal consent.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A patient signing paperwork is giving expressed consent. Whereas, implied consent, the law assumes that an unconscious patient would consent to emergency care if the patient were conscious and able to consent. b. Correct. A patient undergoing emergency treatment does not need to provide consent. Under implied consent, the law assumes that an unconscious patient would consent to emergency care if the patient were conscious and able to consent. c. Incorrect. A parent signing paperwork consenting to treatment for their minor child is an example of expressed consent. Under implied consent, the law assumes that an unconscious patient would consent to emergency care if the patient were conscious and able to consent. d. Incorrect. Giving verbal consent is express consent. Under implied consent, the law assumes that an unconscious patient would consent to emergency care if the patient were conscious and able to consent.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 04: Applying Communication Skills

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 04: APPLYING COMMUNICATION SKILLS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

A patient is grimacing and wincing. This is an example of _______ communication. a. nonverbal b. verbal c. affective d. intellectual ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A patient who is grimacing and wincing would be communicating nonverbally. b. Incorrect. Communicating verbally is to speak out loud. A patient who is grimacing and wincing would be communicating nonverbally. c. Incorrect. Affective communication refers to the expression of feelings about things.

A patient who is grimacing and wincing would be communicating nonverbally. d. Incorrect. Intellectual communication would include verbalizing information. A patient who is grimacing and wincing would be communicating nonverbally.

2. A patient was recently diagnosed with a terminal illness. The patient exhibits little emotion about the diagnosis but spends hours researching the illness and end-of-life care. Which defense mechanism are they likely using? a. Displacement b. Intellectualization c. Projection d. Regression ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Displacement is the transfer of emotions about one person or situation to another. Intellectualization is a means of denying socially unacceptable feelings or strong feelings that cannot be easily expressed. With this mechanism, you use reasoning to avoid confronting emotional conflicts and stressful situations.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 04: Applying Communication Skills

b. Correct. Intellectualization is a means of denying socially unacceptable feelings or strong feelings that cannot be easily expressed. With this mechanism, you use reasoning to avoid confronting emotional conflicts and stressful situations. c. Incorrect. In projection, you might unconsciously blame another person for your own inadequacies. Intellectualization is a means of denying socially unacceptable feelings or strong feelings that cannot be easily expressed. With this mechanism, you use reasoning to avoid confronting emotional conflicts and stressful situations. d. Incorrect. Regression is behaving in ways that are characteristic of an earlier developmental level. In the context of communication, perception is being aware of one’s own feelings and the feelings of others. Intellectualization is a means of denying socially unacceptable feelings or strong feelings that cannot be easily expressed. With this mechanism, you use reasoning to avoid confronting emotional conflicts and stressful situations.

3. Which of the following is an example of body language? a. Tone of voice b. Stuttering c. Appearance d. Voice volume ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Tone of voice refers to the way we use our voice to convey meaning and emotions. Tone of voice is not an example of body language. Appearance is an example of body language. b. Incorrect. Stuttering is a speech condition that disrupts the normal flow of speech.

Stuttering is not an example of body language. Appearance is an example of body language. c. Correct. Appearance is an example of body language. d. Incorrect. Voice volume refers to the intensity or loudness of the voice when speaking. Voice volume is not an example of body language. Appearance is an example of body language.

4. You want to convey a positive attitude when communicating with your patient. What would be the best way to do that? a. Keep your emotions neutral as it is important not to show expression. b. Have a smile on your face, because it shows the patient you are welcoming and it may help alleviate anxiety. c. Don’t make eye contact with the patient because it may make them feel selfconscious. d. Remain standing with your arms folded across your body and obtain the information quickly.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Not showing expression may communicate to the patient or come off as non-caring. A smile conveys a positive attitude. b. Correct. A smile conveys a positive attitude. c. Incorrect. Not making eye contact may come off as if you are not interested or focused on what the patient has to say. A smile conveys a positive attitude. d. Incorrect. Standing with your arms folded and rushing demonstrates being closed off and not welcoming. A smile conveys a positive attitude. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 04: Applying Communication Skills

5. Which of the following is an action included in active listening? a. Smiling at the patient b. Making eye contact with the patient c. Repeating information given by the patient d. Looking at your watch to stay on time ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Smiling at the patient conveys a positive attitude but does not demonstrate active listening. Repeating information given by the patient is an example of active listening. b. Incorrect. Although making eye contact could help with staying focused on what the patient is saying, it may not alone indicate active listening. Repeating information given by the patient is an example of active listening. c. Correct. Repeating information given by the patient is an example of active listening. d. Incorrect. Looking at your watch while communicating with the patient would indicate you are in a hurry and uninterested in what the patient is saying. Repeating information given by the patient is an example of active listening.

6. Which of the following of Maslow’s stages describes being a problem solver with a great emphasis on family and long-term relationships? a. Physiological needs b. Safety and security c. Esteem d. Self-Actualization ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Physiological needs refer to basic requirements, such as food and water.

Self-actualization is the stage that describes being a problem solver with a great emphasis on family and long-term relationships. b. Incorrect. Safety and security needs refer to living in a safe environment. Selfactualization is the stage that describes being a problem solver with a great emphasis on family and long-term relationships. c. Incorrect. Esteem refers to feeling good about oneself. Self-actualization is the stage that describes being a problem solver with a great emphasis on family and long-term relationships. d. Correct. Self-actualization is the stage that describes being a problem solver with a great emphasis on family and long-term relationships.

7. Proper distance, otherwise known as territorial or physical boundaries, to be maintained when speaking to patients in the clinical setting is: a. 1 to 1½ feet. b. 1½ to 4 feet. c. 4 to 12 feet. d. 12 to 24 feet.

ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 04: Applying Communication Skills

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The distance for intimate communication is 1 to 1 ½ feet. The distance you and your patients will have when communicating is about 4–12 feet. b. Incorrect. When engaged in a personal conversation, the generally acceptable space between two people is from 1½ to 4 feet. The distance you and your patients will have when communicating is about 4–12 feet. c. Correct. The distance you and your patients will have when communicating is about 4–12 feet. d. Incorrect. In a public setting, the space can be 12 to 25 feet. The distance you and your patients will have when communicating is about 4–12 feet.

8. A patient recently diagnosed with a terminal illness stated to you, “I promise I am going to exercise every day if I can live long enough to make it to my daughter’s graduation.” Which of the following stages of grief according to Dr. Elisabeth KüblerRoss is the patient exhibiting? a. Acceptance b. Depression c. Anger d. Bargaining ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Acceptance is when the patient has come to terms with the inevitable future and plans accordingly in preparation for impending death. Bargaining is when the patient believes that somehow, they can undo what has happened by changing their lifestyle or negotiating a compromise to live a little longer. b. Incorrect. Depression is when the patient is now overcome with the reality that they are going to die and becomes despondent over their fate, often feeling that there is no point in going on or doing anything. Bargaining is when the patient believes that somehow, they can undo what has happened by changing their lifestyle or negotiating a compromise to live a little longer. c. Incorrect. In the anger stage, patients become difficult to care for because of the misplaced feelings of anger for what has happened to them. Bargaining is when the patient believes that somehow, they can undo what has happened by changing their lifestyle or negotiating a compromise to live a little longer. d. Correct. The five stages of grief include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Bargaining is when the patient believes that somehow, they can undo what has happened by changing their lifestyle or negotiating a compromise to live a little longer.

9. Which of the following is key to patient compliance when providing patient education? a. Information b. Motivation c. Criticism d. Nonchalance ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Providing information is key to patient compliance when providing patient education. b. Incorrect. Motivation is to be driven toward doing something. Providing information is key to patient compliance when providing patient education. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 04: Applying Communication Skills

c.

Incorrect. Criticism is to provide negative feedback. Providing information is key to patient compliance when providing patient education. d. Incorrect. Nonchalance is having a feeling of not caring about something. Providing information is key to patient compliance when providing patient education.

10. Which of the following communication styles is exhibited when individuals clearly state their opinions and feelings and firmly advocate for their rights and needs without violating the rights of others? a. Passive b. Assertive c. Aggressive d. Submissive ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Passive communication is the avoidance of sharing opinions or feelings.

Assertive communication style includes an individual clearly stating their opinions and feelings without violating the rights of others. b. Correct. Assertive communication style includes an individual clearly stating their opinions and feelings without violating the rights of others. c. Incorrect. Aggressive communication is to communicate in a forceful way. Assertive communication style includes an individual clearly stating their opinions and feelings without violating the rights of others. d. Incorrect. Submissive communication is to communicate in a way that avoids conflict. Assertive communication style includes an individual clearly stating their opinions and feelings without violating the rights of others.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 05: Introduction to Medical Terminology

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 05: INTRODUCTION TO MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

In the term tachycardia, what part of the word is the prefix? a. tab. tachc. tachyd. There is no prefix in this word.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. In the term tachycardia, the prefix is tachy-. b. Incorrect. In the term tachycardia, the prefix is tachy-. c. Correct. In the term tachycardia, the prefix is tachy-. d. Incorrect. In the term tachycardia, the prefix is tachy-.

2. In the term pyromania, what part of the word is the suffix? a. pyrob. mani/o c. -mania d. -ia ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Pyro- is the word root. In the term pyromania, the suffix is -mania. b. Incorrect. In the term pyromania, the suffix is -mania. c. Correct. In the term pyromania, the suffix is -mania. d. Incorrect. In the term pyromania, the suffix is -mania.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 05: Introduction to Medical Terminology

3. The suffix in the term rhinitis is ____________, and it means __________. a. -is, abnormal condition b. -is, inflammation c. -itis, abnormal condition d. -itis, inflammation ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The suffix -is refers to a medical condition. The suffix in the term rhinitis is -itis, which means inflammation. b. Incorrect. The suffix -is refers to a medical condition. The suffix in the term rhinitis is -itis, which means inflammation. c. Incorrect. The suffix in the term rhinitis is -itis, which means inflammation. d. Correct. The suffix in the term rhinitis is -itis, which means inflammation.

4. Which of the following terms is in its singular form? a. Bacillus b. Bacteria c. Scapulae d. Veins ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The term that is in its singular form is bacillus. b. Incorrect. The term that is in its singular form is bacillus. c. Incorrect. The term that is in its singular form is bacillus. d. Incorrect. The term that is in its singular form is bacillus.

5. Which of the following is the common medical abbreviation for the term electroencephalogram? a. ECG b. EKG c. EEG d. EGD ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. ECG is an abbreviation for the term electrocardiogram. EEG is the abbreviation for the term electroencephalogram. b. Incorrect. EKG is an abbreviation for the term electrocardiogram. EEG is the abbreviation for the term electroencephalogram. c. Correct. EEG is the abbreviation for the term electroencephalogram. d. Incorrect. EGD is the abbreviation for the term esophagogastroduodenoscopy. EEG is the abbreviation for the term electroencephalogram.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 05: Introduction to Medical Terminology

6. If the combination form or word root begins with a vowel, a basic rule to remember is that the most appropriate prefix that is applicable would end in what? a. An adjective b. A consonant c. A vowel d. A noun ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. If the combination form or word root begins with a vowel, the most appropriate prefix would end in a consonant. b. Correct. If the combination form or word root begins with a vowel, the most appropriate prefix would end in a consonant. c. Incorrect. If the combination form or word root begins with a vowel, the most appropriate prefix would end in a consonant. d. Incorrect. If the combination form or word root begins with a vowel, the most appropriate prefix would end in a consonant.

7. The suffix in the term cardiology is____________, and it means ____________. a. –ology, formation of a new opening b. –ology, the study of c. –logy, the study of d. –logy, formation of a new opening ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The suffix in the term cardiology is -ology, which means the study of. b. Correct. The suffix in the term cardiology is -ology, which means the study of. c. Incorrect. The suffix in the term cardiology is -ology, which means the study of. d. Incorrect. The suffix in the term cardiology is -ology, which means the study of.

8. The combining forms femer/o, my/o, and oste/o pertain to which body system? a. Lymphatic b. Musculoskeletal c. Cardiovascular d. Integumentary ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The combining forms femer/o, my/o, and oste/o pertain to the musculoskeletal system. b. Correct. The combining forms femer/o, my/o, and oste/o pertain to the musculoskeletal system. c. Incorrect. The combining forms femer/o, my/o, and oste/o pertain to the musculoskeletal system. d. Incorrect. The combining forms femer/o, my/o, and oste/o pertain to the musculoskeletal system.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 05: Introduction to Medical Terminology

9. Aphonia means a condition of: a. no speech. b. no recording. c. painful speech. d. no voice.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Aphonia is defined as a condition of losing one’s voice. b. Incorrect. Aphonia is defined as a condition of losing one’s voice. c. Incorrect. Aphonia is defined as a condition of losing one’s voice. d. Correct. Aphonia is defined as a condition of losing one’s voice.

10. The combining form in “hypogastric” means: a. body. b. inflammation. c. mouth. d. stomach.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The combining form in hypogastric is stomach. b. Incorrect. The combining form in hypogastric is stomach. c. Incorrect. The combining form in hypogastric is stomach. d. Correct. The combining form in hypogastric is stomach.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 06: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 06: ANATOMIC DESCRIPTORS AND FUNDAMENTAL BODY STRUCTURE

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called: a. anatomy. b. physiology. c. pathophysiology. d. homeostasis.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called physiology. Anatomy is the study of the physical structure of the body and its organs. b. Correct. The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called physiology. c. Incorrect. The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called physiology. Pathophysiology is the study of the mechanism by which disease occurs, the responses of the body to the disease process, and the effects of both on normal function. d. Incorrect. The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called physiology. Homeostasis is a condition where everything is in harmony and all biological indicators are within acceptable limits; the individual is referred to as being in a “steady state” or “normal.”

2. An individual is standing erect, with arms down to the sides and the palms of the hands facing forward. What is this position? a. b. c. d.

Midsagittal Frontal Anatomic Anterior

ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 06: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure

Analysis: a. Incorrect. A body standing erect with arms down to the sides and the palms of the hands facing forward is said to be in the anatomic position. Dividing the body vertically down the front will result in a right and left half. This imaginary line is known as the midline or midsagittal plane. b. Incorrect. A body standing erect with arms down to the sides and the palms of the hands facing forward is said to be in an anatomic position. If you draw a line vertically through the side of the body from the top of the head to the feet, you will make a front and back section. This line is known as the frontal or coronal plane. c. Correct. A body standing erect with arms down to the sides and the palms of the hands facing forward is said to be in an anatomic position. d. Incorrect. A body standing erect with arms down to the sides and the palms of the hands facing forward is said to be in the anatomic position. If you draw a line vertically through the side of the body from the top of the head to the feet, you will make a front and back section, and the front is known as the anterior section.

3. What are the names of the two main cavities of the body? a. Abdominal and pelvic b. Abdominal and ventral c. Anterior and ventral d. Anterior and posterior ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The names of the two main cavities in the body are the anterior and posterior. The abdominal and pelvic cavities house the abdominal organs. b. Incorrect. The names of the two main cavities in the body are the anterior and posterior. The abdominal cavity houses the abdominal organs. Ventral refers to the front section of the body. c. Incorrect. The names of the two main cavities in the body are the anterior and posterior. Ventral refers to the front section of the body. d. Correct. The names of the two main cavities in the body are the anterior and posterior.

4. RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, and LLQ refer to what? a. The abdominal quadrants b. The regions of the abdomen c. The thoracic cavity d. The abdominopelvic cavity ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, and LLQ refer to the abdominal quadrants. b. Incorrect. RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, and LLQ refer to the abdominal quadrants. c. Incorrect. RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, and LLQ refer to the abdominal quadrants. d. Incorrect. RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, and LLQ refer to the abdominal quadrants.

5. A generalized dysfunction of the exocrine glands that affects multiple organ systems is known as: a. Down syndrome. b. cystic fibrosis.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 06: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure

c. color blind deficiency. d. dwarfism.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cystic Fibrosis is a generalized dysfunction of the exocrine glands that affects multiple organ systems. Down Syndrome is caused by an improper cell division and is characterized by slanting eyes, a fold at the inner eye, a large tongue, a pug nose, and microcephaly b. Correct. Cystic Fibrosis is a generalized dysfunction of the exocrine glands that affects multiple organ systems. c. Incorrect. Cystic Fibrosis is a generalized dysfunction of the exocrine glands that affects multiple organ systems. Color blind deficiency is an inherited trait that makes the perception of colors inaccurate. d. Incorrect. Cystic Fibrosis is a generalized dysfunction of the exocrine glands that affects multiple organ systems. Dwarfism is a condition that causes an abnormally short or undersized condition.

6. A person with which of the following conditions tends to become overweight and has trouble with balance and posture due to a lack of muscle tone in their limbs as they age? a. Dwarfism b. Hemochromatosis c. Hemophilia d. Down syndrome ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A person with Down Syndrome tends to become overweight and has trouble with balance and posture due to a lack of muscle tone in their limbs as they age. Dwarfism is a condition that causes an abnormally short or undersized condition. b. Incorrect. A person with Down Syndrome tends to become overweight and has trouble with balance and posture due to a lack of muscle tone in their limbs as they age. Hemochromatosis includes complications of cirrhosis of the liver, arthritis, diabetes, and congestive heart failure, which can be avoided by early intervention. c. Incorrect. A person with Down Syndrome tends to become overweight and has trouble with balance and posture due to a lack of muscle tone in their limbs as they age.

Hemophilia is characterized by abnormal bleeding, which may be mild to severe, depending on the degree of clotting deficiency. d. Correct. A person with Down Syndrome tends to become overweight and has trouble with balance and posture due to a lack of muscle tone in their limbs as they age.

7. What are the four main types of tissues? a. Epithelial, connective, nerve, and muscular b. Endocrine, exocrine, muscular, and nerve c. Muscular, bone, nerve, and skin d. Connective, osseous, nerve, and muscular ANS: a Analysis: © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 06: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure

a. Correct. The four main types of tissues are epithelial, connective, nerve, and muscle. b. Incorrect. The four main types of tissues are epithelial, connective, nerve, and muscle. c. Incorrect. The four main types of tissues are epithelial, connective, nerve, and muscle. d. Incorrect. The four main types of tissues are epithelial, connective, nerve, and muscle.

8. Which structural level of the human body consists of atoms and molecules? a. Tissue level b. Cellular level c. Chemical level d. Organism level ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The tissue level consists of cells that have formed from the same area of the embryo. The chemical structural level of the human body consists of atoms and molecules. b. Incorrect. The tissue level consists of organelles known as cell parts. The chemical structural level of the human body consists of atoms and molecules. c. Correct. The chemical structural level of the human body consists of atoms and molecules. d. Incorrect. The organism level is where all levels are combined to form the human body. The chemical structural level of the human body consists of atoms and molecules.

9. When is phenylketonuria (PKU) testing performed? a. At birth b. At 5 years of age c. At the age of 13 d. Any time after the 18th birthday ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. All states require PKU testing to be done at birth. b. Incorrect. All states require PKU testing to be done at birth. c. Incorrect. All states require PKU testing to be done at birth. d. Incorrect. All states require PKU testing to be done at birth.

10. Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormal bleeding, which may be mild to severe depending on the degree of the clotting deficiency? a. Hemochromatosis b. Turner’s syndrome c. Klinefelter’s syndrome d. Hemophilia ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 06: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Hemophilia is characterized by abnormal bleeding. Hemochromatosis is a genetic condition of too much iron in the body. b. Incorrect. Hemophilia is characterized by abnormal bleeding. Turner’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, webbing of the neck, a low hairline, a wide chest with broadly spaced nipples, poor breast development, and underdevelopment of the genitalia. c. Incorrect. Hemophilia is characterized by abnormal bleeding. Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by breast enlargement, mental retardation, sparse body hair, abnormal body build (long legs with a short, obese trunk), a tendency toward alcoholism, and often personality disorders. d. Correct. Hemophilia is characterized by abnormal bleeding.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 07: The Nervous System

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 07: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

The space between a neuron dendrite and the next neuron axon is called: a. membrane potential. b. synapse. c. axon terminal. d. neurotransmitter.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A synapse is the minute space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron across which an impulse must travel. The membrane potential refers to the neuron membrane being at rest. b. Correct. A synapse is the minute space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron across which an impulse must travel. c. Incorrect. A synapse is the minute space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron across which an impulse must travel. Axon terminals are the part of a nerve cell that make synaptic connections with another nerve cell or with an effector cell d. Incorrect. A synapse is the minute space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron across which an impulse must travel.

Neurotransmitters are impulses from the sending cell to release chemical messengers.

2. A ganglion is: a. a collection of nerve endings. b. a type of nerve cell. c. part of the gray matter of the spine. d. the sensory nerve cell bodies in the posterior root.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 07: The Nervous System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The ganglion is the sensory nerve cell body in the posterior root. b. Incorrect. The ganglion is the sensory nerve cell body in the posterior root. c. Incorrect. The ganglion is the sensory nerve cell body in the posterior root. d. Correct. The ganglion is the sensory nerve cell body in the posterior root.

3. The autonomic nervous system includes all but: a. the sympathetic division. b. the parasympathetic division. c. nerves, ganglia, and plexuses. d. motor and sensory nerves.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The autonomic nervous system does not include motor and sensory nerves. b. Incorrect. The autonomic nervous system does not include motor and sensory nerves. c. Incorrect. The autonomic nervous system does not include motor and sensory nerves. d. Correct. The autonomic nervous system does not include motor and sensory nerves.

4. The largest part of the brain is: a. the cerebellum. b. the cerebrum. c. the frontal lobe. d. the parietal lobe.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum. The cerebellum lies beneath the cerebrum. b. Correct. The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum. c. Incorrect. The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum. The frontal lobe lies behind the forehead. d. Incorrect. The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum. The parietal lobe lies between the frontal and occipital lobes.

5. The outermost meninges is the: a. arachnoid. b. pia mater. c. duramoid. d. dura mater.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The outermost meninges is the dura matter. The middle layer is the arachnoid. b. Incorrect. The outermost meninges is the dura matter. The pia matter is the innermost layer.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 07: The Nervous System

c.

Incorrect. The outermost meninges is the dura matter. Duramoid is not a term related to the brain. d. Correct. The outermost meninges is the dura matter.

6. The cavities and hollow spaces within the brain are called the: a. ventricles. b. subarachnoid space. c. subdural space. d. hypothalamus.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The cavities and hollow spaces within the brain are called ventricles. b. Incorrect. The cavities and hollow spaces within the brain are called ventricles. The subarachnoid space is between the arachnoid and the pia mater. c. Incorrect. The cavities and hollow spaces within the brain are called ventricles. The space between the dura mater and the arachnoid is called the subdural space. d. Incorrect. The cavities and hollow spaces within the brain are called ventricles. The hypothalamus lies below the thalamus and is connected to the pituitary gland, midbrain, and thalamus by a bundle of nerve fibers.

7. The electroencephalograph: a. measures peripheral muscle activity. b. shows irregularities of the spinal cord. c. measures the level of spinal fluid. d. measures the brain’s electrical signals.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The electroencephalograph measures the brain’s electrical signals.

Electromyography measures peripheral muscle activity. b. Incorrect. The electroencephalograph measures the brain’s electrical signals. A myelography shows irregularities of the spinal cord. c. Incorrect. The electroencephalograph measures the brain’s electrical signals. A lumbar puncture measures the level of spinal fluid. d. Correct. The electroencephalograph measures the brain’s electrical signals.

8. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by: a. gradual memory loss, personality change, and inability to care for self. b. wasting away muscles. c. a sudden onset with weakness or paralysis. d. involuntary shaking of the hands and head.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by gradual memory loss, personality change, and inability to care for self. b. Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by gradual memory loss, personality change, and inability to care for self. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) is characterized by wasting away of muscles.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 07: The Nervous System

c.

Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by gradual memory loss, personality change, and inability to care for oneself. Bell’s palsy is characterized by a sudden onset with weakness or paralysis. d. Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by gradual memory loss, personality change, and inability to care for oneself. A characteristic of an essential tremor is the involuntary shaking of the hands and feet.

9. Multiple sclerosis is the result of: a. abnormal brain chemistry, premature birth, or brain injury. b. acute inflammation of the dorsal root ganglion. c. destruction of the myelin sheath of the nerves. d. excessive accumulation of cerebral spinal fluid.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Multiple Sclerosis is the result of destruction of the myelin sheath of nerves. Cerebral palsy is the result of abnormal brain chemistry, premature birth, or brain injury. b. Incorrect. Multiple Sclerosis is the result of destruction of the myelin sheath of nerves. Neuralgia is the result of acute inflammation of the dorsal root ganglion. c. Correct. Multiple Sclerosis is the result of destruction of the myelin sheath of nerves. d. Incorrect. Multiple Sclerosis is the result of destruction of the myelin sheath of nerves. Hydrocephalus is the result of excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

10. Parkinson’s disease causes: a. severe headache, sensitivity to light, and nausea. b. permanent muscle contracture and underdevelopment. c. muscle rigidity, drooling, and hand tremors. d. weakness and paralysis on one side of the face.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Parkinson’s disease causes muscle rigidity, drooling, and hand tremors.

Migraines cause severe headaches, sensitivity to light, and nausea. b. Incorrect. Parkinson’s disease causes muscle rigidity, drooling, and hand tremors.

Cerebral palsy causes permanent muscle contracture and underdevelopment. c. Correct. Parkinson’s disease causes muscle rigidity, drooling, and hand tremors. d. Incorrect. Parkinson’s disease causes muscle rigidity, drooling, and hand tremors.

Bell’s palsy causes weakness and paralysis on one side of the face.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 08: The Senses

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 08: THE SENSES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

The outside of the eye is covered with a tough membrane called the: a. retina. b. sclera. c. choroid. d. cornea.

ANS: b

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The outside of the eye is covered with tough, white fibrous tissue called the sclera. The retina is a lens that focuses an image onto a surface. b. Correct. The outside of the eye is covered with tough, white fibrous tissue called the sclera. c. Incorrect. The outside of the eye is covered with tough, white fibrous tissue called the sclera. The choroid consists of a collection of blood vessels that form the blood supply to the outer portions of the retina. d. Incorrect. The outside of the eye is covered with tough, white fibrous tissue called the sclera. The cornea is a transparent extension of the sclera that lies in front of the pupil.

2. When the ciliary body focuses the lens for near or far vision, it is known as: a. refraction. b. astigmatism. c. ciliary contraction d. accommodation.

ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 08: The Senses

Analysis: a. Incorrect. When the ciliary body focuses the lens for near or far vision, it is known as ciliary contraction. Refraction is the process of the eye deflecting the light to cause the image to focus on the retina. b. Incorrect. When the ciliary body focuses the lens for near or far vision, it is known as ciliary contraction. If the cornea develops an abnormal shape, vision becomes blurred, and the result may be a disorder known as astigmatism. c. Correct. When the ciliary body focuses the lens for near or far vision, it is known as ciliary contraction. d. Incorrect. When the ciliary body focuses the lens for near or far vision, it is known as ciliary contraction. Accommodation is when the lens becomes longer to permit near vision.

3. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the muscles of the: a. iris. b. cornea. c. lens. d. pupil.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the muscles of the iris. b. Incorrect. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the muscles of the iris.

The cornea is a transparent extension of the sclera that lies in front of the pupil. c. Incorrect. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the muscles of the iris. The lens provides the focus of light. d. Incorrect. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the muscles of the iris. The pupil provides the focus of light.

4. What happens when a cataract develops? a. A grayish-white circle appears around the cornea. b. The lens becomes cloudy. c. The macula has thinned. d. The pupil dilates.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. As a cataract develops, the lens becomes cloudy. b. Correct. As a cataract develops, the lens becomes cloudy. c. Incorrect. As a cataract develops, the lens becomes cloudy. d. Incorrect. As a cataract develops, the lens becomes cloudy.

5. What results in glaucoma? a. Improper drainage of the vitreous humor b. Increased pressure against the sclera c. Increased intraocular pressure d. Excessive blood supply to the eye ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 08: The Senses

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Glaucoma results in increased intraocular pressure. b. Incorrect. Glaucoma results in increased intraocular pressure. c. Correct. Glaucoma results in increased intraocular pressure. d. Incorrect. Glaucoma results in increased intraocular pressure.

6. The middle ear contains the: a. tympanic membrane, malleus, and stapes. b. cochlea, malleus, and incur. c. malleus, stapes, and semicircular canals. d. malleus, incus, and stapes.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The middle ear contains the malleus, incus, and stapes. b. Incorrect. The middle ear contains the malleus, incus, and stapes. c. Incorrect. The middle ear contains the malleus, incus, and stapes. d. Correct. The middle ear contains the malleus, incus, and stapes.

7. Which of the following are two functions of the inner ear? a. Transmits vibrations and maintains balance b. Maintains sound waves and equalizes air pressure c. Corrects loss of hearing and blocks atmospheric pressure d. Blocks out high pitch sounds and prevents motion sickness ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The inner ear transmits vibrations and maintains balance. b. Incorrect. The inner ear transmits vibrations and maintains balance. c. Incorrect. The inner ear transmits vibrations and maintains balance. d. Incorrect. The inner ear transmits vibrations and maintains balance.

8. Which of the following best describes nasal polyps? a. Infected hair follicles b. Benign growths in the nose c. Malignant growths in the nose d. Protruding veins in the nose ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Nasal polyps are benign growths in the nose. b. Correct. Nasal polyps are benign growths in the nose. c. Incorrect. Nasal polyps are benign growths in the nose. d. Incorrect. Nasal polyps are benign growths in the nose.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 08: The Senses

9. The olfactory organ is responsible for the sense of: a. hearing. b. smell. c. taste. d. touch.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The olfactory organ is responsible for the sense of smell. The auditory system is responsible for hearing. b. Correct. The olfactory organ is responsible for the sense of smell. c. Incorrect. The olfactory organ is responsible for the sense of smell. The gustatory system is responsible for the sense of taste. d. Incorrect. The olfactory organ is responsible for the sense of smell. The tactile system is responsible for the sense of touch.

10. The videonystagmograph diagnostic test is used to evaluate: a. balance. b. the need for a hearing aid. c. intraocular pressure. d. the strength of the impulse in the auditory nerve.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The videonystagmograph test evaluates balance. b. Incorrect. The videonystagmograph test evaluates balance. A bone and air conduction hearing loss test measures the need for a hearing aid. c. Incorrect. The videonystagmograph test evaluates balance. Tonometry is used to test intraocular pressure. d. Incorrect. The videonystagmograph test evaluates balance. An electrocochleogram is used to test the strength of the impulse in the auditory nerve.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 09: The Integumentary System

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 09: THE INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Giving medication by applying it to the skin is called: a. intramuscular. b. subcutaneous. c. intradermal. d. transdermal.

ANS: d

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Transdermal is a route of administration wherein active ingredients are delivered across the skin for systemic distribution. Intramuscular injection is a technique used to deliver medication deep into the muscles. b. Incorrect. Transdermal is a route of administration wherein active ingredients are delivered across the skin for systemic distribution. Subcutaneous is a technique of injecting medications just under the skin. c. Incorrect. Transdermal is a route of administration wherein active ingredients are delivered across the skin for systemic distribution. Intradermal means a shallow or superficial injection of a substance into the dermis. d. Correct. Transdermal is a route of administration wherein active ingredients are delivered across the skin for systemic distribution.

2. Sebaceous glands produce an oily substance that works to: a. prevent infection from occurring. b. prevent the hair and skin from becoming dry and brittle. c. alleviate pain. d. alleviate acne.

ANS: b

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 09: The Integumentary System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The sebaceous glands produce an oily substance that prevents the hair and skin from becoming dry and brittle. b. Correct. The sebaceous glands produce an oily substance that prevents the hair and skin from becoming dry and brittle. c. Incorrect. The sebaceous glands produce an oily substance that prevents the hair and skin from becoming dry and brittle. d. Incorrect. The sebaceous glands produce an oily substance that prevents the hair and skin from becoming dry and brittle.

3. Which layer of skin contains blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and oil glands? a. Subcutaneous b. Epidermis c. Hypodermia d. Dermis ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The dermis contains blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and oil glands. The subcutaneous layer is filled with fat globules, blood vessels, and nerves. b. Incorrect. The dermis contains blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and oil glands. The epidermis is full of ridges that fit snugly over the papillae on top of the dermis. c. Incorrect. The dermis contains blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and oil glands. The hypodermia is not a layer of the skin. d. Correct. The dermis contains blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, sweat, and oil glands.

4. Patchy hair loss due to the pulling out of hair from a compulsive behavior is: a. alopecia. b. areata. c. physiologic loss. d. trichotillomania.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Patchy hair loss due to the pulling out of hair from a compulsive behavior is called trichotillomania. Alopecia is a condition where hair thins. b. Incorrect. Patchy hair loss due to the pulling out of hair from a compulsive behavior is called trichotillomania. Areata is self-limiting and reversible hair loss. c. Incorrect. Patchy hair loss due to the pulling out of hair from a compulsive behavior is called trichotillomania. Physiologic hair loss is when hair thins due to a shock to the system. d. Correct. Patchy hair loss due to the pulling out of hair from a compulsive behavior is called trichotillomania.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 09: The Integumentary System

5. Which of the following is the medical term for ringworm? a. Rosacea b. Tinea c. Keloid d. Pediculosis ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The medical term for ringworm is tinea. Rosacea is a chronic skin eruption that makes the face, especially the nose and cheeks, look flushed. b. Correct. The medical term for ringworm is tinea. c. Incorrect. The medical term for ringworm is tinea. A scar that developed excess dense tissue as it progressed through the healing process is known as a keloid. d. Incorrect. The medical term for ringworm is tinea. Pediculosis is the medical term for lice.

6. Herpes simplex refers to lesions that: a. spread around one side of the body. b. are located in the genital area. c. are located on mucous membranes. d. are located around the nose and mouth.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Herpes simplex refers to lesions that are located on mucous membranes. b. Incorrect. Herpes simplex refers to lesions that are located on mucous membranes. c. Correct. Herpes simplex refers to lesions that are located on mucous membranes. d. Incorrect. Herpes simplex refers to lesions that are located on mucous membranes.

7. A disease caused by a tick is: a. pediculosis. b. scabies. c. Lyme disease. d. ringworm.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A disease caused by a tick is called Lyme disease. Pediculosis is caused by lice. b. Incorrect. A disease caused by a tick is called Lyme disease. Scabies is caused by itch mites. c. Correct. A disease caused by a tick is called Lyme disease. d. Incorrect. A disease caused by a tick is called Lyme disease. Ringworm is caused by a fungus.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 09: The Integumentary System

8. Verrucae is the medical term for: a. ringworm. b. hives. c. shingles. d. warts.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Verrucae is the medical term for warts. The medical term for ringworm is tinea. b. Incorrect. Verrucae is the medical term for warts. The medical term for hives is urticaria. c. Incorrect. Verrucae is the medical term for warts. The medical term for shingles is herpes simplex. d. Correct. Verrucae is the medical term for warts.

9. Which of the following is treated with systemic antibiotics in addition to localized heat applications and drainage? a. Carbuncle b. Furuncle c. Herpes zoster d. Subcutaneous lesion ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Carbuncles require treatment with systemic antibiotics in addition to the localized heat applications and drainage. b. Incorrect. Carbuncles require treatment with systemic antibiotics in addition to the localized heat applications and drainage. Furuncle treatment consists of the measures used for folliculitis, with moist heat to relieve pain and encourage “ripening” of the lesion. c. Incorrect. Carbuncles require treatment with systemic antibiotics in addition to the localized heat applications and drainage. Herpes zoster treatment requires an analgesic and antipyretic to reduce fever and relieve pain. d. Incorrect. Carbuncles require treatment with systemic antibiotics in addition to the localized heat applications and drainage. Subcutaneous nodules are treated with corticosteroids and antibiotics, whereas lipomas do not require treatment.

10. Older adults have skin that is: a. full of collagen. b. supple. c. excessively oily. d. easily damaged.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Older adults have skin that is easily damaged. b. Incorrect. Older adults have skin that is easily damaged. c. Incorrect. Older adults have skin that is easily damaged. d. Correct. Older adults have skin that is easily damaged. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 10: The Skeletal System

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026, 9798214113586; CHAPTER 10: THE SKELETAL SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following are two divisions of the skeletal system? a. Humerus and phalanges b. Axial and appendicular c. Vertebrae and metatarsals d. Anterior and posterior ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The two divisions of the skeletal system are the axial and appendicular. b. Correct. The two divisions of the skeletal system are the axial and appendicular. c. Incorrect. The two divisions of the skeletal system are the axial and appendicular. d. Incorrect. The two divisions of the skeletal system are the axial and appendicular.

2. The red marrow in the spongy areas of the long bones, the ribs, and the vertebrae produces millions of which type of blood cells? a. White b. Platelets c. Leukocytes d. Red ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The red marrow in the spongy areas of the long bones, the ribs, and the vertebrae produces millions of red blood cells. White blood cells are produced in the bone marrow. b. Incorrect. The red marrow in the spongy areas of the long bones, the ribs, and the vertebrae produces millions of red blood cells. Platelets are produced in the bone marrow.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 10: The Skeletal System

c.

Incorrect. The red marrow in the spongy areas of the long bones, the ribs, and the vertebrae produces millions of red blood cells. Leukocytes are white blood cells, which are produced in the bone marrow. d. Correct. The red marrow in the spongy areas of the long bones, the ribs, and the vertebrae produces millions of red blood cells.

3. Sacral vertebrae are located in the: a. neck. b. chest. c. back. d. posterior pelvic girdle.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Sacral vertebrae are located in the posterior pelvic girdle. Neck vertebrae are located in the cervical spine. b. Incorrect. Sacral vertebrae are located in the posterior pelvic girdle. Chest vertebrae are located in the thoracic spine. c. Incorrect. Sacral vertebrae are located in the posterior pelvic girdle. Back vertebrae are located in the lumbar spine. d. Correct. Sacral vertebrae are located in the posterior pelvic girdle.

4. The place where two or more bony parts join together is called a(n): a. diarthrosis. b. bursa. c. amphiarthrosis. d. articulation.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The place where two or more bony parts join is known as an articulation.

Diarthrosis is a movable joint, such as an elbow. b. Incorrect. The place where two or more bony parts join is known as an articulation.

Bursa is a saclike capsule. c. Incorrect. The place where two or more bony parts join is known as an articulation.

An amphiarthrosis joint is partially movable. d. Correct. The place where two or more bony parts join is known as an articulation.

5. Arthroscopy is: a. a surgical procedure to view inside a joint. b. the injection of radioactive substance into a vein. c. a special X-ray of a joint. d. an imaging test using radio waves.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. An arthroscopy is a surgical procedure to view inside a joint. b. Incorrect. An arthroscopy is a surgical procedure to view inside a joint. Nuclear medicine uses the injection of radioactive substance into a vein.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 10: The Skeletal System

c.

Incorrect. An arthroscopy is a surgical procedure to view inside a joint. Arthrography is a special X-ray of a joint. d. Incorrect. An arthroscopy is a surgical procedure to view inside a joint. An MRI is an imaging test using radio waves.

6. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by: a. a fault in the immune system. b. a virus. c. an injury to the joint. d. wear and tear on the joint.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by a fault in the immune system. b. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by a fault in the immune system. c. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by a fault in the immune system. d. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by a fault in the immune system.

7. Carpal tunnel syndrome: a. develops after acute bursitis. b. causes symptoms in the thumb and first two fingers. c. causes deformities of the joint. d. is an inflammation of the forearm extensor tendon.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Carpal tunnel syndrome causes symptoms in the thumb and first two fingers. b. Correct. Carpal tunnel syndrome causes symptoms in the thumb and first two fingers. c. Incorrect. Carpal tunnel syndrome causes symptoms in the thumb and first two fingers. d. Incorrect. Carpal tunnel syndrome causes symptoms in the thumb and first two fingers.

8. Lordosis refers to: a. the bowing of the back at the thoracic level. b. a lateral curvature of the spine. c. a backward curvature of the cervical area. d. the abnormal anterior convex curvature of the lumbar spine.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Lordosis refers to a backward curvature of the cervical area. The bowing of the back at the thoracic level is called kyphosis. b. Incorrect. Lordosis refers to a backward curvature of the cervical area. A lateral curvature of the spine is called scoliosis. c. Correct. Lordosis refers to a backward curvature of the cervical area. d. Incorrect. Lordosis refers to a backward curvature of the cervical area. The abnormal anterior convex curvature of the lumbar spine is swayback.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026, 9798214113586; Chapter 10: The Skeletal System

9. Which of the following is known as a synovial joint? a. Pelvis b. Sacrum c. Ulna d. Elbow ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A synovial joint is a movable joint, such as an elbow. b. Incorrect. A synovial joint is a movable joint, such as an elbow. c. Incorrect. A synovial joint is a movable joint, such as an elbow. d. Correct. A synovial joint is a movable joint, such as an elbow.

10. Osteoporosis involves the: a. skeletal, circulatory, and immune systems. b. skeletal, digestive, and reproductive systems. c. immune, digestive, and skeletal systems. d. digestive, circulatory, and skeletal systems.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Osteoporosis involves the immune, digestive, and skeletal systems. b. Incorrect. Osteoporosis involves the immune, digestive, and skeletal systems. c. Correct. Osteoporosis involves the immune, digestive, and skeletal systems. d. Incorrect. Osteoporosis involves the immune, digestive, and skeletal systems.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 11: The Muscular System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 11: THE MUSCULAR SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Tendonitis is a(n): a. inflammation of the coverings of the muscles and tendons at a joint. b. tear in the tendon attachment. c. chronic condition of the joint structures. d. inflammation of the tendon-muscle attachment.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Tendonitis is an inflammation of the tendon-muscle attachment.

Tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the coverings of the muscles and tendons at a joint. b. Incorrect. Tendonitis is an inflammation of the tendon-muscle attachment. A tear in the tendon attachment is called a tendon rupture. c. Incorrect. Tendonitis is an inflammation of the tendon-muscle attachment. Arthritis is a chronic condition of the joint structures. d. Correct. Tendonitis is an inflammation of the tendon-muscle attachment.

2. Bursitis is a(n): a. inflammation of the tendon-muscle attachment. b. inflammation of the coverings of the muscles and tendons at a joint. c. inflammation of the smooth muscle. d. result of misaligned posture.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Bursitis is an inflammation of the coverings of the muscles and tendons at a joint. Tendonitis is an inflammation of the tendon-muscle attachment. b. Correct. Bursitis is an inflammation of the coverings of the muscles and tendons at a joint.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 11: The Muscular System

c.

Incorrect. Bursitis is an inflammation of the coverings of the muscles and tendons at a joint. Muscular dystrophy is an inflammation of the smooth muscle. d. Incorrect. Bursitis is an inflammation of the coverings of the muscles and tendons at a joint. Tendonitis is the result of misaligned posture.

3. Which of the following muscle type is made of small, delicate muscle cells and is found throughout the internal organs of the body? a. Fibrous b. Skeletal c. Smooth d. Myocardial ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Smooth muscles are made of small, delicate muscle cells and are found throughout the internal organs of the body. Fibrous refers to tendons. b. Incorrect. Smooth muscles are made of small, delicate muscle cells and are found throughout the internal organs of the body. Skeletal muscles are attached to bones and therefore permit movement. c. Correct. Smooth muscles are made of small, delicate muscle cells and are found throughout the internal organs of the body. d. Incorrect. Smooth muscles are made of small, delicate muscle cells and are found throughout the internal organs of the body. Myocardial muscles refer to the muscles of the heart.

4. Muscular dystrophy is: a. a temporary muscle disorder. b. a group of muscles that are inflamed. c. a muscle-wasting disorder. d. characterized by trigger points.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Muscular dystrophy is a muscle-wasting disorder. A temporary muscle disorder is muscle fatigue. b. Incorrect. Muscular dystrophy is a muscle-wasting disorder. Muscular strain is characterized by a group of muscles that are inflamed. c. Correct. Muscular dystrophy is a muscle-wasting disorder. d. Incorrect. Muscular dystrophy is a muscle-wasting disorder. Fibromyalgia is characterized by trigger points.

5. The Achilles tendon: a. attaches the quadriceps femoris to the knee. b. permits a person to sit cross-legged. c. permits flexion of the biceps. d. attaches the gastrocnemius to the heel.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 11: The Muscular System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Achilles tendon attaches the gastrocnemius to the heel. The quadriceps femoris muscle attaches this muscle to the knee. b. Incorrect. The Achilles tendon attaches the gastrocnemius to the heel. The sartorius muscle permits a person to sit cross-legged. c. Incorrect. The Achilles tendon attaches the gastrocnemius to the heel. The biceps brachii muscle permits flexion of the biceps. d. Correct. The Achilles tendon attaches the gastrocnemius to the heel.

6. The pectoralis major muscle is located: a. around the eye. b. in the abdomen. c. in the neck and upper back. d. in the upper chest.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The pectoralis major muscle is located in the upper chest. b. Incorrect. The pectoralis major muscle is located in the upper chest. c. Incorrect. The pectoralis major muscle is located in the upper chest. d. Correct. The pectoralis major muscle is located in the upper chest.

7. The term flexor refers to: a. straightening a joint. b. bringing the legs together. c. raising the arm at the side of the body. d. bending the joint.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The term flexor refers to bending the joint. Straightening of the joint is done by the extensor muscle. b. Incorrect. The term flexor refers to bending the joint. Adductor muscles bring the legs together. c. Incorrect. The term flexor refers to bending the joint. The infraspinatus muscle raises the arm at the side of the body. d. Correct. The term flexor refers to bending the joint.

8. Abduction means to: a. move an extremity away from the body’s center. b. move an extremity toward the body’s center. c. flex the muscle to bend a joint. d. flex muscles to straighten a joint.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Abduction is to move an extremity toward the body’s center. Adduction is to move away from the body’s center. b. Correct. Abduction is to move an extremity toward the body’s center.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 11: The Muscular System

c.

Incorrect. Abduction is to move an extremity toward the body’s center. The flexor muscle is used to bend a joint. d. Incorrect. Abduction is to move an extremity toward the body’s center. The extensor muscle is used to straighten a joint.

9. During infancy, muscles have: a. the same amount of connective tissue as in adulthood. b. a large amount of connective tissue that decreases as they age. c. very little connective tissue. d. no connective tissue.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. During infancy, muscles have very little connective tissue. b. Incorrect. During infancy, muscles have very little connective tissue. c. Correct. During infancy, muscles have very little connective tissue. d. Incorrect. During infancy, muscles have very little connective tissue.

10. Which of the following diagnostic measures removes a small amount of tissue, usually by a needle, to be viewed under a microscope by a provider? a. Electromyography (EMG) b. Muscle biopsy c. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) d. Computed tomography (CT) ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A muscle biopsy is a procedure in which a small amount of tissue is removed, usually by a needle, to be viewed under a microscope by a provider.

Occasionally, more than one needle insertion may be needed if a large specimen is to be obtained. Electromyography (EMG) demonstrates the electrical activity of the peripheral muscles at rest and when activated. A small needle is inserted into the muscle. b. Correct. A muscle biopsy is a procedure in which a small amount of tissue is removed, usually by a needle, to be viewed under a microscope by a provider.

Occasionally, more than one needle insertion may be needed if a large specimen is to be obtained. c. Incorrect. An MRI uses powerful magnets to generate pictures. A muscle biopsy is a procedure in which a small amount of tissue is removed, usually by a needle, to be viewed under a microscope by a provider. Occasionally, more than one needle insertion may be needed if a large specimen is to be obtained. d. Incorrect. A CT scan is a series of X-rays of layers of the area of the body scanned to construct a three-dimensional picture. A muscle biopsy is a procedure in which a small amount of tissue is removed, usually by a needle, to be viewed under a microscope by a provider. Occasionally, more than one needle insertion may be needed if a large specimen is to be obtained.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 12: The Respiratory System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 12: THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Mucus streaming is: a. what makes your nose run. b. the cause of postnasal drip. c. watery discharge after breathing in an allergen. d. propelling particles upward past the epiglottis.

ANS: d

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Mucus streaming is when particles are inhaled and propelled upward past the epiglottis. Allergies or viruses may make the nose run. b. Incorrect. Mucus streaming is when particles are inhaled and propelled upward past the epiglottis. Postnasal drip is caused by excess mucus caused by allergies or viruses. c. Incorrect. Mucus streaming is when particles are inhaled and propelled upward past the epiglottis. Allergic rhinitis causes watery discharge after breathing in an allergen. d. Correct. Mucus streaming is when particles are inhaled and propelled upward past the epiglottis.

2. The epiglottis: a. is behind the larynx. b. is attached to the upper pharynx. c. covers the opening to the larynx when swallowing. d. is above the tongue.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The epiglottis covers the opening to the larynx when swallowing. b. Incorrect. The epiglottis covers the opening to the larynx when swallowing.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 12: The Respiratory System

c. Correct. The epiglottis covers the opening to the larynx when swallowing. d. Incorrect. The epiglottis covers the opening to the larynx when swallowing.

3. The insertion of an instrument into the trachea and bronchial tree to view the airways, obtain a secretion or tissue sample, or remove a foreign body is known as: a. CT-guided needle biopsy. b. bronchoscopy. c. lung perfusion scan. d. thoracentesis.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A bronchoscopy is the insertion of an instrument into the trachea and bronchial tree to view the airways, obtain a secretion or tissue sample, or remove a foreign body. A CT-guided needle biopsy is when the radiologist inserts a needle into the chest cavity to biopsy a lung mass. b. Correct. A bronchoscopy is the insertion of an instrument into the trachea and bronchial tree to view the airways, obtain a secretion or tissue sample, or remove a foreign body. c. Incorrect. A bronchoscopy is the insertion of an instrument into the trachea and bronchial tree to view the airways, obtain a secretion or tissue sample, or remove a foreign body. A lung perfusion scan is an examination of the lung following the IV injection of radioactive material. d. Incorrect. A bronchoscopy is the insertion of an instrument into the trachea and bronchial tree to view the airways, obtain a secretion or tissue sample, or remove a foreign body. Thoracentesis is the withdrawal of fluid from the pleural space by needle aspiration.

4. Emphysema causes: a. enlarged alveolar spaces in the lungs. b. large amounts of mucus. c. slower respirations due to enlarged alveoli. d. more efficient exchanges of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Emphysema causes enlarged alveolar spaces in the lungs. b. Incorrect. Emphysema causes enlarged alveolar spaces in the lungs. c. Incorrect. Emphysema causes enlarged alveolar spaces in the lungs. d. Incorrect. Emphysema causes enlarged alveolar spaces in the lungs.

5. This is the accumulation, within the tissues of the lungs, of fluid that has escaped from the blood vessels caused by increased pressure in the vessels. a. Pulmonary edema b. Pleural effusion c. Hydrothorax d. Pleurisy ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 12: The Respiratory System

Analysis: a. Correct. Pulmonary edema is the accumulation, within the tissues of the lungs, of fluid that has escaped from the blood vessels caused by increased pressure in the vessels. b. Incorrect. Pulmonary edema is the accumulation, within the tissues of the lungs, of fluid that has escaped from the blood vessels caused by increased pressure in the vessels. Pleural effusion is the presence of fluid, air, pus, blood, or lymph in the pleural cavity. c. Incorrect. Pulmonary edema is the accumulation, within the tissues of the lungs, of fluid that has escaped from the blood vessels caused by increased pressure in the vessels. A hydrothorax is a noninflammatory collection of serous fluid within the pleural cavities. d. Incorrect. Pulmonary edema is the accumulation, within the tissues of the lungs, of fluid that has escaped from the blood vessels caused by increased pressure in the vessels.

6. The passageway for air that extends from the neck into the chest is known as the: a. bronchi. b. alveoli. c. trachea. d. bronchioles.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The trachea is the passageway for air, which extends from the neck into the chest. About the middle of the sternum, the trachea divides into two sections called the right and left bronchi. b. Incorrect. The trachea is the passageway for air, which extends from the neck into the chest. Each bronchiole ends in a grapelike cluster of microscopic air sacs called alveoli. c. Correct. The trachea is the passageway for air, which extends from the neck into the chest. d. Incorrect. The trachea is the passageway for air, which extends from the neck into the chest. The tiny passages in the bronchi are known as the bronchioles.

7. Pulmonary edema occurs when: a. fluid accumulates within the tissues of the lung. b. the pulmonary artery becomes enlarged. c. blood pressure decreases within the blood vessels. d. tissue fluids leak out of the alveoli.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Pulmonary edema occurs when fluid accumulates within the tissues of the lung. b. Incorrect. Pulmonary edema occurs when fluid accumulates within the tissues of the lung. Hypertension causes the pulmonary arteries to become enlarged. c. Incorrect. Pulmonary edema occurs when fluid accumulates within the tissues of the lung. Hypotension causes blood pressure to decrease within the blood vessels.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 12: The Respiratory System

d. Incorrect. Pulmonary edema occurs when fluid accumulates within the tissues of the lung. Emphysema causes tissue fluids to leak out of the alveoli.

8. A pulmonary embolus is: a. a mysterious condition that results in the sudden and unexplained death in healthy infants. b. a blood clot obstructing an arteriole in the lungs. c. the result of years of smoking. d. something that can occur after an extended period of running.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A pulmonary embolus is a blood clot obstructing an arteriole in the lungs.

Respiratory distress syndrome is a mysterious condition that kills healthy infants. b. Correct. A pulmonary embolus is a blood clot obstructing an arteriole in the lungs. c. Incorrect. A pulmonary embolus is a blood clot obstructing an arteriole in the lungs.

Emphysema is the result of years of smoking. d. Incorrect. A pulmonary embolus is a blood clot obstructing an arteriole in the lungs.

Asthma is something that may occur after an extended period of running.

9. Which of the following statements is true about asthma? a. Asthma primarily affects adults. b. Asthma can progress to a condition like COPD. c. Asthma is not affected by environmental conditions. d. Asthma is not associated with the incidence of bronchitis and pneumonia.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Asthma is not associated with the incidence of bronchitis and pneumonia. b. Incorrect. Asthma is not associated with the incidence of bronchitis and pneumonia. c. Incorrect. Asthma is not associated with the incidence of bronchitis and pneumonia. d. Correct. Asthma is not associated with the incidence of bronchitis and pneumonia.

10. Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to lessen and shorten the symptoms of: a. asthma. b. laryngitis. c. influenza. d. emphysema.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to lessen and shorten the symptoms of influenza. b. Incorrect. Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to lessen and shorten the symptoms of influenza. c. Correct. Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to lessen and shorten the symptoms of influenza. d. Incorrect. Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to lessen and shorten the symptoms of influenza.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 13: The Circulatory System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 13: THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) .......................................................... 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following does the cardiovascular system transport to the body’s cells? a. Oxygen and nutrients b. Carbon dioxide c. Lymphocytes d. Cholesterol ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The cardiovascular system transports oxygen and nutrients to the body’s cells. b. Incorrect. The cardiovascular system transports oxygen and nutrients to the body’s cells. c. Incorrect. The cardiovascular system transports oxygen and nutrients to the body’s cells. d. Incorrect. The cardiovascular system transports oxygen and nutrients to the body’s cells.

2. Which of the following blood types can be donated to all types and is known as the universal donor? a. A b. O c. B d. AB ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Blood type O can be donated to all types and is known as the universal donor.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 13: The Circulatory System

b. Correct. Blood type O can be donated to all types and is known as the universal donor. c. Incorrect. Blood type O can be donated to all types and is known as the universal donor. d. Incorrect. Blood type O can be donated to all types and is known as the universal donor.

3. What is one of the uses of heart catheterization? a. Permit visualization of the coronary arteries b. Measure the amount of oxygen in the heart c. Remove blood for analysis d. Accurately measure electrical activity of the heart ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A heart catheterization is used to permit visualization of the coronary arteries. b. Incorrect. A heart catheterization is used to permit visualization of the coronary arteries. A pulse oximeter is used to measure the amount of oxygen in the heart. c. Incorrect. A heart catheterization is used to permit visualization of the coronary arteries. Phlebotomy is used to remove blood for analysis. d. Incorrect. A heart catheterization is used to permit visualization of the coronary arteries. An electrocardiogram is used to measure electrical activity of the heart.

4. The dobutamine stress test: a. is done on a treadmill. b. uses a drug to stress the heart. c. allows visualization of the coronary arteries. d. requires instillation of a radioactive material and a special camera.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A dobutamine stress test uses a drug to stress the heart. Exercise on a treadmill is not needed. b. Correct. A dobutamine stress test uses a drug to stress the heart. c. Incorrect. A dobutamine stress test uses a drug to stress the heart. Myocardial perfusion imaging allows visualization of the coronary arteries. d. Incorrect. A dobutamine stress test uses a drug to stress the heart. A venogram requires the instillation of a radioactive material and a special camera.

5. The Doppler ultrasound: a. can diagnose coronary artery disease. b. determines leaking heart valves. c. measures cardiac output. d. evaluates disease in major blood vessels.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 13: The Circulatory System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Doppler ultrasound evaluates disease in major blood vessels. A heart scan can diagnose coronary artery disease. b. Incorrect. The Doppler ultrasound evaluates disease in major blood vessels. A stress test is used to determine leaking heart valves. c. Incorrect. The Doppler ultrasound evaluates disease in major blood vessels. An echocardiogram is used to measure cardiac output. d. Correct. The Doppler ultrasound evaluates disease in major blood vessels.

6. Which of the following best defines atherosclerosis? a. Replacement of muscular artery tissue by fibrous tissue and calcification b. Presence of fatty deposits on the artery lining c. Scarring of the arterial lining d. Thickening of the lining of the arterial wall ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Atherosclerosis is defined as the thickening of the lining of the arterial wall. Arterial calcification is the replacement of muscular artery tissue by fibrous tissue and calcification. b. Incorrect. Atherosclerosis is defined as the thickening of the lining of the arterial wall. Plaque is defined as the presence of fatty deposits on the arterial lining. c. Incorrect. Atherosclerosis is defined as the thickening of the lining of the arterial wall. Myocardial scarring is defined as scarring of the arterial lining. d. Correct. Atherosclerosis is defined as the thickening of the lining of the arterial wall.

7. A cerebrovascular accident is not caused by: a. high blood pressure rupturing an artery. b. atherosclerosis occluding an artery. c. a thrombus that clogs an artery. d. an accidental injury to the cerebral artery.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A cerebrovascular accident is the result of high blood pressure, which ruptures an artery; atherosclerosis, which occludes an artery; or thrombosis (a blood clot), which interrupts the flow of blood. b. Incorrect. A cerebrovascular accident is the result of high blood pressure, which ruptures an artery; atherosclerosis, which occludes an artery; or thrombosis (a blood clot), which interrupts the flow of blood. c. Incorrect. A cerebrovascular accident is the result of high blood pressure, which ruptures an artery; atherosclerosis, which occludes an artery; or thrombosis (a blood clot), which interrupts the flow of blood. d. Correct. A cerebrovascular accident is the result of high blood pressure, which ruptures an artery; atherosclerosis, which occludes an artery; or thrombosis (a blood clot), which interrupts the flow of blood. An accidental injury to the cerebral artery is not a cause of cerebral accidents.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 13: The Circulatory System

8. What is the definition of a heart murmur? a. An additional flutter of the heart valves b. A soft, barely audible extra heartbeat c. A sound caused by inadequate blood flow d. An abnormal sound of blood flowing through a closed valve ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A heart murmur is an abnormal sound of blood flowing through a closed valve. Atrial flutter is an additional flutter of the heart valves. b. Incorrect. A heart murmur is an abnormal sound of blood flowing through a closed valve. A soft, barely audible extra heartbeat is caused by premature ventricular contractions. c. Incorrect. A heart murmur is an abnormal sound of blood flowing through a closed valve. A constriction is a sound caused by inadequate blood flow. d. Correct. A heart murmur is an abnormal sound of blood flowing through a closed valve.

9. What will most likely contribute to death when an MI occurs? a. Taking an aspirin tablet b. Waiting to see if the symptoms improve c. Taking a dose of nitroglycerin d. Taking strong pain medication ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Waiting to see if the symptoms improve will most likely contribute to death when an MI occurs. Taking an aspirin thins the blood, which does not contribute to death after an MI. b. Correct. Waiting to see if the symptoms improve will most likely contribute to death when an MI occurs. c. Incorrect. Waiting to see if the symptoms improve will most likely contribute to death when an MI occurs. Taking a dose of nitroglycerin is helpful when an MI occurs. d. Incorrect. Waiting to see if the symptoms improve will most likely contribute to death when an MI occurs. Taking strong pain medication does not contribute to death after an MI. 10. Where is the heart located? a. Behind the sternum b. In front of the lungs c. Mainly on the right side of the chest d. Behind the lungs ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The heart is located behind the sternum. b. Incorrect. The heart is located behind the sternum. c. Incorrect. The heart is located behind the sternum. d. Incorrect. The heart is located behind the sternum.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 14: The Lymphatic/Immune System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 14: THE LYMPHATIC/IMMUNE SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following are organs in the lymphatic/immune system? a. Spleen and thymus b. Lymph nodes and liver c. Thymus and lungs d. Liver and stomach ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The spleen and thymus are organs in the lymphatic/immune system. b. Incorrect. The spleen and thymus are organs in the lymphatic/immune system. While lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic/immune system, the liver is part of the digestive system. c. Incorrect. The spleen and thymus are organs in the lymphatic/immune system. While the thymus is part of the lymphatic/immune system, the lungs are part of the respiratory system. d. Incorrect. The spleen and thymus are organs in the lymphatic/immune system. The liver and stomach are both parts of the digestive system.

2. The function of the lymph nodes is to: a. filter blood out of the capillaries. b. produce lymphocytes. c. keep the appropriate balance between cells and plasma in the blood. d. purify the lymph by removing harmful substances.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The function of the lymph nodes is to purify the lymph by removing harmful substances. The kidneys filter blood out of the capillaries.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 14: The Lymphatic/Immune System

b. Incorrect. The function of the lymph nodes is to purify the lymph by removing harmful substances. Lymphocytes develop in the bone marrow and thymus. c. Incorrect. The function of the lymph nodes is to purify the lymph by removing harmful substances. Albumin keeps the appropriate balance between cells and plasma in the blood. d. Correct. The function of the lymph nodes is to purify the lymph by removing harmful substances.

3. For which of the following can tumor markers be used? a. Help locate the sentinel lymph node. b. Help diagnose a tumor and its response to treatment. c. Mark the best location for focusing radiation. d. Assist the surgeon in locating the tumor for removal during surgery.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Tumor markers help diagnosis a tumor and its response to treatment.

Biopsy helps locate the sentinel lymph node. b. Correct. Tumor markers help diagnosis a tumor and its response to treatment. c. Incorrect. Tumor markers help diagnosis a tumor and its response to treatment. The physician uses ink on the skin to mark the best location for focusing radiation. d. Incorrect. Tumor markers help diagnosis a tumor and its response to treatment.

Ultrasound is used to assist the surgeon to locate the tumor for removal during surgery.

4. A biopsy involves: a. withdrawing a tissue sample through a needle. b. using a scalpel to remove tissue. c. removing a piece of the tumor by X-ray. d. focusing a laser beam on the tumor to destroy a small part at a time.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A biopsy involves withdrawing a tissue sample through a needle. b. Incorrect. A biopsy involves withdrawing a tissue sample through a needle. Using a scalpel to remove tissue is called an excision. c. Incorrect. A biopsy involves withdrawing a tissue sample through a needle. X-rays are used to locate tumors, not to remove them. d. Incorrect. A biopsy involves withdrawing a tissue sample through a needle. Laser therapy uses light to destroy a tumor.

5. Genetic testing is appropriate when: a. a person is at high risk for developing inherited cancers. b. a patient wants to see if he has cancer. c. you want to determine if all the cancer has been removed. d. you need to see if a treatment has been effective.

ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 14: The Lymphatic/Immune System

Analysis: a. Correct. Genetic testing is appropriate for a person who is at high risk for developing inherited cancers. b. Incorrect. Genetic testing is appropriate for a person who is at high risk for developing inherited cancers. c. Incorrect. Genetic testing is appropriate for a person who is at high risk for developing inherited cancers. d. Incorrect. Genetic testing is appropriate for a person who is at high risk for developing inherited cancers.

6. Brachytherapy is defined as: a. treatment that places radioactive material at the tumor. b. a treatment used only with patients who have the BRCA genes. c. an intravenous therapy given through the brachial artery. d. the administration of the drug Brachysone DX. ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Brachytherapy is a treatment that places radioactive material at the tumor. b. Incorrect. Brachytherapy is a treatment that places radioactive material at the tumor. Genetic testing is used with patients who have the BRCA genes. c. Incorrect. Brachytherapy is a treatment that places radioactive material at the tumor. Chemotherapy is an intravenous therapy given through the brachial artery. d. Incorrect. Brachytherapy is a treatment that places radioactive material at the tumor. The drug Brachysone DX is used with patients that have specific inherited genes.

7. Which of the following statements is true about lymphedema? a. Results from the weakening of the immune system b. Is swelling of the tissues by accumulated lymph fluid c. Can be confirmed by a blood test d. Requires the removal of lymph nodes to stop the symptoms ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Lymphedema is a swelling of the tissues by accumulated lymph fluid. b. Correct. Lymphedema is a swelling of the tissues by accumulated lymph fluid. c. Incorrect. Lymphedema is a swelling of the tissues by accumulated lymph fluid. d. Incorrect. Lymphedema is a swelling of the tissues by accumulated lymph fluid.

8. Which of the following statements is true about rheumatoid arthritis? a. Rheumatoid arthritis does not affect the immune system. b. Rheumatoid arthritis is the wearing of cartilage at the joints. c. Rheumatoid arthritis affects the heart, lungs, and liver. d. Rheumatoid arthritis is an insidious chronic autoimmune disease.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 14: The Lymphatic/Immune System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is an insidious chronic autoimmune disease. b. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is an insidious chronic autoimmune disease. c. Incorrect. Rheumatoid arthritis is an insidious chronic autoimmune disease. d. Correct. Rheumatoid arthritis is an insidious chronic autoimmune disease.

9. When is immunity the strongest? a. Over the age of 60 b. After recovering from the illness c. During infancy d. At 18 months of age.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Immunity is strongest at 18 months of age. b. Incorrect. Immunity is strongest at 18 months of age. c. Incorrect. Immunity is strongest at 18 months of age. d. Correct. Immunity is strongest at 18 months of age.

10. Which of the following statements is true about lupus? a. Lupus is a contagious disease. b. Lupus eliminates the inflammation in the body. c. Lupus primarily only affects the heart. d. Lupus is an autoimmune disease.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Lupus is an autoimmune disease; it is not contagious. b. Incorrect. Lupus is an autoimmune disease; it does not eliminate the inflammation in the body. c. Incorrect. Lupus is an autoimmune disease; it does not primarily affect the heart. d. Correct. Lupus is an autoimmune disease.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 15: The Digestive System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 15: THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following examinations is used to view the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum through a flexible scope? a. Nuclear medicine study b. Proctoscopy c. Gastroscopy d. Sigmoidoscopy ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A gastroscopy is used to view the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum through a flexible scope. A nuclear medicine study is done by injecting an IV radioactive isotope and taking X-ray images. b. Incorrect. A gastroscopy is used to view the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum through a flexible scope. A proctoscopy is used to examine the anus. c. Correct. A gastroscopy is used to view the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum through a flexible scope. d. Incorrect. A gastroscopy is used to view the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum through a flexible scope. A sigmoidoscopy is used to examine the lower portion of the sigmoid and rectum.

2. Which of the following can a Barium swallow detect? a. Gastric ulcers, tumors, and strictures of the sphincters b. Cholelithiasis c. Diverticulitis d. Liver masses ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 15: The Digestive System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. A barium swallow is used to detect diverticulitis. A gastroscopy is used to detect gastric ulcers. b. Incorrect. A barium swallow is used to detect diverticulitis. Ultrasound is used to detect cholelithiasis. c. Correct. A barium swallow is used to detect diverticulitis. d. Incorrect. A barium swallow is used to detect diverticulitis. Ultrasound is used to detect liver masses.

3. Which of the following organs eliminates waste products and non-digestible material? a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Large intestine ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The large intestine eliminates waste products and non-digestible material. The esophagus is a hollow muscular tube that transports saliva, liquids, and foods from the mouth to the stomach. b. Incorrect. The large intestine eliminates waste products and non-digestible material. The stomach has three main functions: temporary storage for food, which passes from the esophagus to the stomach where it is held for 2 hours or longer, mixing and breakdown of food by contraction and relaxation of the muscle layers in the stomach, and digestion of food. c. Incorrect. The large intestine eliminates waste products and non-digestible material. The pancreas produces enzymes that break down sugars, fats, and starches. d. Correct. The large intestine eliminates waste products and non-digestible material.

4. Where is the pancreas located? a. Behind the stomach b. Behind the gallbladder c. In front of the gallbladder d. In front of the stomach ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. b. Incorrect. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. c. Incorrect. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. d. Incorrect. The pancreas is located behind the stomach.

5. Organs of the digestive system include: a. stomach, bladder, and spleen. b. liver, stomach, and esophagus. c. esophagus, bladder, and liver. d. bladder, pituitary gland, and stomach.

ANS: b © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 15: The Digestive System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Organs of the digestive system include the liver, stomach, and esophagus.

Though the spleen is part of the digestive system, the bladder is part of the urinary system. b. Correct. Organs of the digestive system include the liver, stomach, and esophagus. c. Incorrect. Organs of the digestive system include the liver, stomach, and esophagus.

The bladder is part of the urinary system. d. Incorrect. Organs of the digestive system include the liver, stomach, and esophagus.

The bladder is part of the urinary system, and the pituitary gland is part of the endocrine system.

6. Occult blood test will: a. detect mucus in feces. b. detect blood in feces. c. determine location of bleeding. d. determine enzymes in stool.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An occult blood test detects blood in the feces. A stool test is used to detect mucus in feces. b. Correct. An occult blood test detects blood in the feces. c. Incorrect. An occult blood test detects blood in the feces. An endoscopy is used to determine the location of bleeding. d. Incorrect. An occult blood test detects blood in the feces. A stool elastase is used to determine enzymes in the stool.

7. Sigmoidoscopy will permit viewing of: a. duodenal ulcers. b. condition of ileocecal valve. c. gastric ulcers. d. tumor of the lower colon.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A sigmoidoscopy will permit viewing of a tumor of the lower colon. An endoscopy is used to view a duodenal ulcer. b. Incorrect. A sigmoidoscopy will permit viewing of a tumor of the lower colon. A barium swallow is used to view the ileocecal valve. c. Incorrect. A sigmoidoscopy will permit viewing of a tumor of the lower colon. An endoscopy is used to view a gastric ulcer. d. Correct. A sigmoidoscopy will permit viewing of a tumor of the lower colon.

8. Cirrhosis is a disease of the: a. stomach. b. pancreas. c. liver. d. gallbladder.

ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 15: The Digestive System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cirrhosis is a disease of the liver. b. Incorrect. Cirrhosis is a disease of the liver. c. Correct. Cirrhosis is a disease of the liver. d. Incorrect. Cirrhosis is a disease of the liver.

9. Crohn’s disease primarily affects the: a. appendix. b. stomach. c. liver. d. ileum.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Crohn’s disease primarily affects the ileum. b. Incorrect. Crohn’s disease primarily affects the ileum. c. Incorrect. Crohn’s disease primarily affects the ileum. d. Correct. Crohn’s disease primarily affects the ileum.

10. The prime symptom of ulcerative colitis is: a. jaundice. b. bloody diarrhea. c. constipation. d. hunger.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The prime symptom of ulcerative colitis is bloody diarrhea. b. Correct. The prime symptom of ulcerative colitis is bloody diarrhea. c. Incorrect. The prime symptom of ulcerative colitis is bloody diarrhea. d. Incorrect. The prime symptom of ulcerative colitis is bloody diarrhea.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 16: The Urinary System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 16: THE URINARY SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following urinary diagnostic procedures is considered invasive? a. Catheterization b. Ultrasound c. KUB series d. Fluoroscopy ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A catheterization is considered invasive. b. Incorrect. A catheterization is considered invasive. An ultrasound is a medical test that uses high-frequency sound waves to capture live images from the inside of the body. c. Incorrect. A catheterization is considered invasive. A kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) X-ray may be performed to assess the abdominal area for causes of abdominal pain or to assess the organs and structures of the urinary and/or gastrointestinal (GI) system. d. Incorrect. A catheterization is considered invasive. Fluoroscopy is an imaging technique that uses X-rays to obtain real-time moving images of the interior of an object.

2. Which of following are known as the three main functions of the urinary system? a. Excretion, secretion, and elimination b. Gestation, secretion, and elimination c. Retention, excretion, and elimination d. Catheterization, secretion, and excretion ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 16: The Urinary System

Analysis: a. Correct. The three main functions of the urinary system are excretion, secretion, and elimination. b. Incorrect. The three main functions of the urinary system are excretion, secretion, and elimination. Gestation is the period of development during the carrying of an embryo or fetus inside viviparous animals. c. Incorrect. The three main functions of the urinary system are excretion, secretion, and elimination. Retention is the action of absorbing and continuing to hold a substance. d. Incorrect. The three main functions of the urinary system are excretion, secretion, and elimination. Catheterization is the action or process of inserting a catheter into a body cavity.

3. An intravenous pyelography is a(n) a. blood test. b. X-ray study with contrast media. c. noninvasive procedure. d. X-ray to determine urine flow.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A pyelography is an X-ray study with contrast media. Blood tests are not part of this procedure. b. Correct. A pyelography is an X-ray study with contrast media. c. Incorrect. A pyelography is an X-ray study with contrast media. Because contrast media is injected into the body, it is considered an invasive procedure. d. Incorrect. A pyelography is an X-ray study with contrast media. A pyelography is not used to determine urine flow.

4. Coughing, sneezing, or laughing increases pressure on the bladder neck and causes which type of incontinence? a. Stress b. Overflow c. Urge d. Pressure ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Coughing, sneezing, or laughing increases pressure on the bladder neck and causes stress incontinence. b. Incorrect. Coughing, sneezing, or laughing increases pressure on the bladder neck and causes stress incontinence. Overflow is not a type of incontinence. c. Incorrect. Coughing, sneezing, or laughing increases pressure on the bladder neck and causes stress incontinence. Urge is not a type of incontinence. d. Incorrect. Coughing, sneezing, or laughing increases pressure on the bladder neck and causes stress incontinence. Pressure is not a type of incontinence.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 16: The Urinary System

5. Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by: a. many protein molecules in the urine. b. fluid-filled structures within the kidney tissue. c. a history of a systemic infection. d. rapidly developing symptoms.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by fluid-filled structures within the kidney tissue. Protein in the urine is proteinuria. b. Correct. Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by fluid-filled structures within the kidney tissue. c. Incorrect. Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by fluid-filled structures within the kidney tissue. A history of a systemic infection is urosepsis. d. Incorrect. Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by fluid-filled structures within the kidney tissue. This condition does not have rapidly developing symptoms.

6. Which of the following is the basic cause of renal calculi? a. Drinking hard water b. A habit of delaying passing urine c. Getting too much calcium in the diet d. Crystals formed from chemicals in the urine ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The basic cause of renal calculi is crystals that form from chemicals in the urine. Drinking hard water is not related to developing renal calculi. b. Incorrect. The basic cause of renal calculi is crystals that form from chemicals in the urine. A habit of delaying passing urine is not related to developing renal calculi. c. Incorrect. The basic cause of renal calculi is crystals that form from chemicals in the urine. Too much calcium in the diet is not related to developing renal calculi. d. Correct. The basic cause of renal calculi is crystals that form from chemicals in the urine.

7. Which of the following are major organs of the urinary system? a. Appendix and pituitary glands b. Ureters and intestines c. Bladder and muscle d. Kidneys and ureters ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Kidneys and ureters are major organs of the urinary system. The appendix is part of the digestive system, and pituitary glands are part of the endocrine system. b. Incorrect. Kidneys and ureters are major organs of the urinary system. The intestines are part of the digestive system. c. Incorrect. Kidneys and ureters are major organs of the urinary system. Muscle is part of the musculoskeletal system. d. Correct. Kidneys and ureters are major organs of the urinary system.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 16: The Urinary System

8. A long-term treatment for uremia is: a. a kidney transplant. b. antibiotics. c. radiation. d. blood transfusions.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Uremia means urine in the blood. A long-term treatment is a kidney transplant. b. Incorrect. Uremia means urine in the blood. A long-term treatment is a kidney transplant. Antibiotics are used to fight bacterial infection. c. Incorrect. Uremia means urine in the blood. A long-term treatment is a kidney transplant. Radiation is used to treat types of cancer. d. Incorrect. Uremia means urine in the blood. A long-term treatment is a kidney transplant. Blood transfusions have no effect on uremia.

9. The urinary bladder is located behind the: a. symphysis. b. right kidney. c. ureter. d. left kidney.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The urinary bladder is located behind the symphysis pubis. b. Incorrect. The urinary bladder is located behind the symphysis pubis. c. Incorrect. The urinary bladder is located behind the symphysis pubis. d. Incorrect. The urinary bladder is located behind the symphysis pubis.

10. The mechanical process of removing waste products from the blood normally removed by the kidneys is known as: a. intravenous pyelogram. b. dialysis. c. voiding cystogram. d. cystoscopy.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Dialysis is the mechanical process of removing waste products from the blood that are normally removed by the kidneys. An intravenous pyelogram is an Xray performed after injecting contrast. b. Correct. Dialysis is the mechanical process of removing waste products from the blood that are normally removed by the kidneys. c. Incorrect. Dialysis is the mechanical process of removing waste products from the blood that are normally removed by the kidneys. A voiding cystogram is a technique for visualizing a person's urethra and urinary bladder while the person urinates. d. Incorrect. Dialysis is the mechanical process of removing waste products from the blood that are normally removed by the kidneys. Cystoscopy is a procedure where a scope is inserted into the urethra.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 17: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

An endocrine gland secretes substances into: a. the bloodstream. b. a duct. c. the lymph vessels. d. the stomach.

ANS: a

Analysis: a. Correct. The endocrine gland secretes substances directly into the bloodstream. b. Incorrect. The endocrine gland secretes substances directly into the bloodstream. c. Incorrect. The endocrine gland secretes substances directly into the bloodstream. d. Incorrect. The endocrine gland secretes substances directly into the bloodstream.

2. Type 1 diabetes is also known as: a. juvenile diabetes. b. insulin resistance diabetes. c. adult-onset diabetes. d. hypoglycemic diabetes.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Type 1 diabetes is found in young children. It is therefore called juvenile diabetes. b. Incorrect. Type 1 diabetes is found in young children. It is therefore called juvenile diabetes. Insulin-resistant diabetes is resistance to the hormone insulin, resulting in increased blood sugar. c. Incorrect. Type 1 diabetes is found in young children. It is therefore called juvenile diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is called adult-onset diabetes.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

d. Incorrect. Type 1 diabetes is found in young children. It is therefore called juvenile diabetes. Hypoglycemia is a condition where a person with diabetes does not have enough sugar in their blood.

3. Which of the following statements about the thymus gland is true? a. It gets larger as we age. b. It causes certain B cells to mature. c. It is located in the brain. d. It produces peptides.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The thymus gland produces peptides. This gland gets smaller as we age. b. Incorrect. The thymus gland produces peptides. c. Incorrect. The thymus gland produces peptides. This gland is located behind the sternum. d. Correct. The thymus gland produces peptides.

4. Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the: a. ovaries. b. testes. c. pituitary gland. d. pineal gland.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Progesterone is produced by the ovaries. b. Incorrect. Progesterone is produced by the ovaries. The testes produce testosterone. c. Incorrect. Progesterone is produced by the ovaries. The pituitary gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), folliclestimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormones (LH). d. Incorrect. Progesterone is produced by the ovaries. The pineal gland produces melatonin.

5. Which test measures glucose levels over four to six weeks? a. Glucose tolerance b. Human chorionic gonadotropin c. Fasting blood sugar d. Hemoglobin A1c ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A glucose tolerance test measures glucose levels over four to six weeks. b. Incorrect. A glucose tolerance test measures glucose levels over four to six weeks.

Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone for the maternal recognition of pregnancy produced by trophoblast cells that surround a growing embryo, which eventually forms the placenta after implantation. c. Incorrect. A glucose tolerance test measures glucose levels over four to six weeks. A fasting blood sugar test is done after 12–24 hours of fasting.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

d. Incorrect. A glucose tolerance test measures glucose levels over four to six weeks. A hemoglobin A1c test measures the average level of blood sugar over the past two to three months.

6. A rounded red face and a fat deposit between the shoulders (hump) are symptoms of: a. Addison’s disease. b. Graves’ disease. c. myxedema. d. Cushing’s syndrome.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cushing’s syndrome causes a rounded red face and a fat deposit between the shoulders (hump). Addison’s disease causes patients to gradually develop a pigmented appearance of the skin due to excessive ACTH and melanocytestimulating hormone secretion from the pituitary due to low adrenal hormone concentrations in the blood. b. Incorrect. Cushing’s syndrome causes a rounded red face and a fat deposit between the shoulders (hump). Graves’ disease causes the patient to become nervous; have an intolerance to heat; lose weight; sweats; and may have diarrhea, tremors, and palpitations. c. Incorrect. Cushing’s syndrome causes a rounded red face and a fat deposit between the shoulders (hump). Myxedema patients have a characteristic drowsy appearance, with puffiness about the eyes. There is a marked degree of fatigue and weakness.

The temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure are all below normal. d. Correct. Cushing’s syndrome causes a rounded red face and a fat deposit between the shoulders (hump).

7. Enlarged thyroid, nervousness, and weight loss are symptoms of: a. Addison’s disease. b. Graves’ disease. c. myxedema. d. Cushing’s syndrome.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Graves’ disease causes the patient to become nervous; have an intolerance to heat; lose weight; sweats; and may have diarrhea, tremors, and palpitations. Addison’s disease causes patients to gradually develop a pigmented appearance of the skin due to excessive ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone secretion from the pituitary due to low adrenal hormone concentrations in the blood. b. Correct. Graves’ disease causes the patient to become nervous; have an intolerance to heat; lose weight; sweats; and may have diarrhea, tremors, and palpitations. c. Incorrect. Graves’ disease causes the patient to become nervous; have an intolerance to heat; lose weight; sweats; and may have diarrhea, tremors, and palpitations. Myxedema patients have a characteristic drowsy appearance, with puffiness about the eyes. There is a marked degree of fatigue and weakness. The temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure are all below normal.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

d. Incorrect. Graves’ disease causes the patient to become nervous; have an intolerance to heat; lose weight; sweats; and may have diarrhea, tremors, and palpitations. Cushing’s syndrome causes a moon face and a buffalo hump.

8. Which of the following best describes the symptoms of hypoglycemia? a. Nervousness b. Paleness c. Both nervousness and paleness d. Dry skin ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Hypoglycemia is the condition of low blood sugar. This condition causes both nervousness and paleness. b. Incorrect. Hypoglycemia is the condition of low blood sugar. This condition causes both nervousness and paleness. c. Correct. Hypoglycemia is the condition of low blood sugar. This condition causes both nervousness and paleness. d. Incorrect. Hypoglycemia is the condition of low blood sugar. This condition causes both nervousness and paleness. Hypoglycemia does not cause dry skin.

9. Which of the following glands has two lobes and is located on each side of the larynx? a. Pituitary b. Pineal c. Adrenal d. Thyroid ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The thyroid glands have two lobes and are located on each side of the larynx. The pituitary gland is attached by a thin stalk to the undersurface of the brain. b. Incorrect. The thyroid glands have two lobes and are located on each side of the larynx. The pineal gland is a small mass of tissue attached by a slim stalk to the roof of the third ventricle in the brain. c. Incorrect. The thyroid glands have two lobes and are located on each side of the larynx. The adrenal glands are located atop each kidney. d. Correct. The thyroid glands have two lobes and are located on each side of the larynx.

10. The pituitary gland is attached by a thin stalk to the under-surface of the: a. pancreas. b. brain. c. thyroid. d. ovaries.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The pituitary gland is attached by a thin stalk to the under-surface of the brain. The pancreas is across the back of the belly, behind the stomach.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

b. Correct. The pituitary gland is attached by a thin stalk to the under-surface of the brain. c. Incorrect. The pituitary gland is attached by a thin stalk to the under-surface of the brain. The thyroid is located at the base of the neck. d. Incorrect. The pituitary gland is attached by a thin stalk to the under-surface of the brain. The ovaries are located in the abdomen.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 18: The Reproductive System

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 18: THE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Where are sperm produced? a. Epididymis b. Seminiferous tubules c. Vas deferens d. Seminal vesicles ANS: b

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules. The epididymis is a coiled structure about 20 feet in length. It is shaped like a half-moon and sits with its head on top of the testes with its tail extending down the side to join the vas deferens b. Correct. Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules. c. Incorrect. Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules. The vas deferens serves as the passageway for sperm to exit the epididymis. d. Incorrect. Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules. The seminal vesicles are a pair of convoluted tubes lying posterior to the bladder.

2. Where is the prostate gland located? a. In the testes b. Just above the bladder c. In the penis d. Just below the bladder ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The prostate gland is positioned just beneath the bladder. b. Incorrect. The prostate gland is positioned just beneath the bladder. c. Incorrect. The prostate gland is positioned just beneath the bladder. d. Correct. The prostate gland is positioned just beneath the bladder.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 18: The Reproductive System

3. Cryosurgery, radioactive seeds, and female hormones are used to treat which of the following cancers? a. Ovarian b. Cervical c. Testicular d. Prostate ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Prostate cancer is treated with cryosurgery, radioactive seeds, and female hormones. Ovarian cancer generally involves aggressive surgery to remove all reproductive organs, affected lymph nodes, the omentum (the apron of tissue covering the organs), and the appendix. Chemotherapy may be beneficial in the early stages, to extend the survival time. b. Incorrect. Prostate cancer is treated with cryosurgery, radioactive seeds, and female hormones. Cervical cancer is treated with surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy. c. Incorrect. Prostate cancer is treated with cryosurgery, radioactive seeds, and female hormones. Treatment for testicular cancer include surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy. d. Correct. Prostate cancer is treated with cryosurgery, radioactive seeds, and female hormones.

4. The corpus luteum is a(n): a. mature ovum. b. immature graafian follicle. c. primary follicle. d. follicle after ovulation occurs.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The corpus luteum is a mature ovum. b. Incorrect. The corpus luteum is a mature ovum. A graafian follicle is a small sac, embedded in the ovary, that encloses an ovum. c. Incorrect. The corpus luteum is a mature ovum. A primary follicle that has two layers of follicular cells is called a primary follicle. d. Incorrect. The corpus luteum is a mature ovum. A follicle after ovulation occurs is called a zygote.

5. Which of the following is known as a passageway for ova and sperm and is attached to the uterus? a. Ovaries b. Ureters c. Clitoris d. Fallopian tubes ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 18: The Reproductive System

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The fallopian tubes are a passageway for ova and sperm and are attached to the uterus. Ovaries are a pair of female glands in which the eggs form and the female hormones estrogen and progesterone are made. b. Incorrect. The fallopian tubes are a passageway for ova and sperm and are attached to the uterus. The ureter is a tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. c. Incorrect. The fallopian tubes are a passageway for ova and sperm and are attached to the uterus. The clitoris is the pleasure center of the vulva. d. Correct. The fallopian tubes are a passageway for ova and sperm and are attached to the uterus.

6. During the stages of labor, the cervix must dilate to approximately how many centimeters before the baby can be delivered? a. 1 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The cervix must dilate to approximately 10 centimeters before the baby can be delivered. b. Incorrect. The cervix must dilate to approximately 10 centimeters before the baby can be delivered. c. Incorrect. The cervix must dilate to approximately 10 centimeters before the baby can be delivered. d. Correct. The cervix must dilate to approximately 10 centimeters before the baby can be delivered.

7. The perineum refers to the area: a. around the urinary meatus. b. within the labia minora. c. adjacent to the clitoris. d. between the vagina and anus.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The perineum is located between the vagina and anus. b. Incorrect. The perineum is located between the vagina and anus. c. Incorrect. The perineum is located between the vagina and anus. d. Correct. The perineum is located between the vagina and anus.

8. Menarche means the: a. beginning of menses. b. end of menses. c. highest point in the menstrual cycle. d. period of ovulation.

ANS: a © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 18: The Reproductive System

Analysis: a. Correct. Menarche is the beginning of menses. b. Incorrect. Menarche is the beginning of menses. Menopause is the end of menses. c. Incorrect. Menarche is the beginning of menses. The highest point in the menstrual cycle is ovulation. d. Incorrect. Menarche is the beginning of menses. The period of ovulation is about ten days before the beginning of the menstrual cycle.

9. Amniocentesis is done to: a. determine the sex of the baby. b. rule out multiple births. c. check for gestational diabetes. d. check for chromosomal abnormalities.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Amniocentesis is done to check for chromosomal abnormalities. The gender of the baby may be determined with an ultrasound. b. Incorrect. Amniocentesis is done to check for chromosomal abnormalities. Multiple births may be determined with an ultrasound. c. Incorrect. Amniocentesis is done to check for chromosomal abnormalities.

Gestational diabetes is detected with laboratory blood work. d. Correct. Amniocentesis is done to check for chromosomal abnormalities.

10. A colposcope is an instrument used to: a. view the cervix. b. view the uterus. c. evaluate fallopian tubes. d. observe the fetus in utero.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A colposcope is used to view the cervix. b. Incorrect. A colposcope is used to view the cervix. The uterus may be viewed with an ultrasound or other imaging. c. Incorrect. A colposcope is used to view the cervix. The fallopian tubes may be viewed with an ultrasound or other imaging. d. Incorrect. A colposcope is used to view the cervix. A fetus in utero may be viewed with an ultrasound or other imaging.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 19: Telephone Communications

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 19: TELEPHONE COMMUNICATIONS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following represents an excellent example of how to answer a call with a smile? a. “Good morning, there are three calls ahead of you and I need to place you on a brief hold.” b. “Good morning, Doctor Raman is with a patient. He always wants to hear from patients, so please hold on and I will interrupt him.” c. “Good afternoon, Eden Clinic, Leticia speaking, how may I help you?” d. “Good morning, Mr. Ramos! Don’t worry, I’m sure your test results are just fine.”

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. “Good afternoon, Eden Clinic, Leticia speaking, how may I help you?” represents an excellent example of how to answer a call with a smile. Placing the patient on hold does not give the patient an image of the phone being answered with a smile. b. Incorrect. “Good afternoon, Eden Clinic, Leticia speaking, how may I help you?” represents an excellent example of how to answer a call with a smile. The medical assistant would not interrupt the doctor for non-emergent calls. c. Correct. “Good afternoon, Eden Clinic, Leticia speaking, how may I help you?” represents an excellent example of how to answer a call with a smile. d. Incorrect. “Good afternoon, Eden Clinic, Leticia speaking, how may I help you?” represents an excellent example of how to answer a call with a smile. The medical assistant should not give out test results.

2. Which of the following is best practice for screening (triage) and routing incoming calls? a. The patient calls, the call is answered, the designee listens to the message and calls the patient back. b. The patient calls, the call is answered by an automated telephone system that automatically routes the call to the appropriate person or department. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 19: Telephone Communications

c. The patient calls, the call is answered by a receptionist and transferred to the designated or appropriate person. d. The patient calls, the call is answered by the physician’s assistant, a message is taken for provider.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The best practice for screening and routing calls is to transfer the call to the designated/appropriate person. Calls should be answered by a person in order to properly screen and route the call. b. Incorrect. The best practice for screening and routing calls is to transfer the call to the designated/appropriate person. Calls should be answered by a person in order to properly screen and route the call. c. Correct. The best practice for screening and routing calls is to transfer the call to the designated/appropriate person. d. Incorrect. The best practice for screening and routing calls is to transfer the call to the designated/appropriate person. The physician’s assistant would not answer a non-emergent call.

3. Which of the following is incorrect when documenting a telephone message? a. Record the nature of the call only if it is an urgent message. b. Record the caller’s full name. c. Record the caller’s date of birth. d. Record the date and time of the call.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The caller’s full name, date of birth, and date and time of the call must be documented. All calls must be documented, not just urgent ones. b. Incorrect. The caller’s full name, date of birth, and date and time of the call must be documented. c. Incorrect. The caller’s full name, date of birth, and date and time of the call must be documented. d. Incorrect. The caller’s full name, date of birth, and date and time of the call must be documented.

4. How should the medical assistant handle a message from a pharmacy for a patient refill? a. Identify the patient. Check the patient’s chart. Authorize a refill as needed. b. Identify the pharmacy. Check the patient’s chart. Authorize a refill as needed. c. Identify the patient. Confirm the pharmacy name and medication request. Send a request to the clinical medical assistant for processing and routing. d. Identify the patient. Confirm the pharmacy name and medication request. Send a request to the provider for refill authorization.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 19: Telephone Communications

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The medical assistant should identify the patient, confirm the pharmacy name and the medication request, then send the request to the provider for refill authorization. The medical assistant cannot authorize a refill. b. Incorrect. The medical assistant should identify the patient, confirm the pharmacy name and the medication request, then send the request to the provider for refill authorization. The medical assistant cannot authorize a refill. c. Incorrect. The medical assistant should identify the patient, confirm the pharmacy name and the medication request, then send the request to the provider for refill authorization. The medical assistant cannot authorize a refill. d. Correct. The medical assistant should identify the patient, confirm the pharmacy name and the medication request, then send the request to the provider for refill authorization.

5. Which of the following are keys to develop clarity in your communications? a. Simplicity and not speaking too fast b. Complexity and structure c. Substance and effectiveness d. Professionalism and effectiveness ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Four keys to develop clarity in your communications are: (1) substance, (2) simplicity, (3) structure, and (4) speed b. Incorrect. To develop clarity in communications, you should avoid complexity. c. Incorrect. While substance is part of clear communication, effectiveness is important, but not part of clarity. d. Incorrect. Professionalism and effectiveness are important factors in communication, but not part of clarity. Clarity consists of substance, simplicity, structure, and speed.

6. You may encounter difficult, angry, or unreasonable callers. Which technique should you use to keep your attitude in check? a. Think-out-loud b. HEAT c. C-A-L-M d. Contact security or the police ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. To think-out-loud means to verbalize thoughts as they come to you, often in a spontaneous manner, which may not be the most effective technique to use to keep your attitude in check. b. Correct. HEAT stands for Hear them out, Empathize, Apologize, and Take Action.

This is the best technique to use when you encounter difficult, angry, or unreasonable callers. c. Incorrect. C-A-L-M is not a technique used to diffuse difficult, angry, or unreasonable callers.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 19: Telephone Communications

d. Incorrect. This is not a technique used to diffuse difficult, angry, or unreasonable caller, although in certain circumstances it might be warranted for the safety of the staff.

7. The tone of your voice matters. A monotone voice might convey the message: a. “I’m depressed and want to be left alone.” b. “I’m angry and not open to input.” c. “I’m bored and not interested in your call.” d. “I’m enthusiastic about this subject!”

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. This is represented by a tone of slow speed and low pitch. b. Incorrect. This reaction is represented with an abrupt speed and loud tone. c. Correct. A monotone (flat voice) often represents boredom and a lack of interest. d. Incorrect. A high-pitched and empathic voice represents an enthusiastic tone.

8. For the safety and security of patients, providers, and staff, if you receive a threatening call, what is the appropriate form to complete? a. Safety Violation Report b. OSHA Form 200 c. Unusual Occurrence Report d. Safety Incident Form ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A safety violation report is a document that outlines specific breaches of safety regulations or procedures within a workplace b. Incorrect. An OSHA Form 200 is a standardized form used by employers to record and track workplace injuries and illnesses. c. Correct. The UOR (Unusual Occurrence Report) informs the practice administration of incidents and alerts the administration and insurance company to a potential claim and the need for investigation. d. Incorrect. A safety incident report is a formal document used to record details about an unexpected event, like an accident, injury, or near-miss, that occurred in the workplace or a healthcare setting.

9. As a medical assistant, you may have responsibility for screening telehealth visits.

Which of the following represents a telehealth screening action? a. Vaccine reconciliation b. COVID-19 symptom screening c. Medication reconciliation d. Explanation of benefits ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Medication reconciliation is part of a telehealth screening action, not vaccine reconciliation.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 19: Telephone Communications

b. Incorrect. Medication reconciliation, vital sign screening, and confirmation of a patient’s demographic insurance information are part of a telehealth screening action, not symptom screening. c. Correct. Using the HEAT technique helps to keep your attitude in check. There is no such thing as a C-A-L-M technique. d. Incorrect. Explanation of Benefits (EOB) provides details of the patient’s insurance benefits, adjustments, allowances, and payment. This is not part of the telehealth screening.

10. If you must transfer a patient call to another department, what is the first thing you need to do? a. Give the caller the phone number, extension, and the person’s name you are transferring to. b. Signal or page the person you are transferring the call to. c. Transfer the call using the public address system. d. Record the message in the patient’s chart.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. If you need to transfer a patient’s call to another department or office, first give the caller the phone number, the extension, and the person’s name to whom you are transferring them in case a disconnection occurs. b. Incorrect. Signaling the person you need to transfer a call to is not the appropriate action and may violate HIPAA. c. Incorrect. Using the PA system to transfer a call is not the appropriate action and may violate HIPAA. d. Incorrect. Although it may be appropriate to document the message in the patient’s chart, that is not the first action when a call needs to be transferred to another department.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 20: Written Communication

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 20: WRITTEN COMMUNICATION

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Of the following items, which is an advantage of using email? a. Email is the best medium for communicating certain emotional issues. b. Email is secure, private, and confidential. c. Deleted emails cannot be recovered. d. Email provides an easy reference to past communications.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Email provides an easy reference to past communications. Because email may not accurately reflect tone or concern, communicating certain emotional issues would be better done verbally. b. Incorrect. Email provides an easy reference to past communications. Email is not secure, private, or confidential. c. Incorrect. Email provides an easy reference to past communications. Unless emails are permanently deleted, they can be recovered. d. Correct. Email provides an easy reference to past communications.

2. Identify which of the following examples is a type of form letter. a. Reply to the AMA regarding provider speaking engagement b. Work status note c. Read out of staff meeting d. Provider memo to office manager regarding vacation schedule ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A work status note is an example of a type of form letter. A reply to the AMA regarding a provider speaking engagement is personalized to the topic. b. Correct. A work status note is an example of a type of form letter.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 20: Written Communication

c.

Incorrect. A work status note is an example of a type of form letter. A read out of the staff meeting is personalized to the topic. d. Incorrect. A work status note is an example of a type of form letter. A provider memo to the office manager regarding the vacation schedule is personalized to the topic.

3. Which of the following is a word or word group that expresses action or a state of being? a. Noun b. Verb c. Adjective d. Pronoun ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A verb is a word that expresses action or a state of being. A noun refers to a person, place, or thing. b. Correct. A verb is a word that expresses action or a state of being. c. Incorrect. A verb is a word that expresses action or a state of being. An adjective is a word that modifies a noun or noun phrase. d. Incorrect. A verb is a word that expresses action or a state of being. A pronoun is a word that substitutes for a noun or noun phrase.

4. How should you handle mail received during a provider’s vacation? a. Hold all mail unopened until the provider returns. b. Read all mail and route to RN in the practice. c. Call the physician to discuss daily mail. d. Consult with a partner or on-call provider to review mail and messages.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. You should consult with a partner or on-call provider to review mail and messages. Holding all mail until the provider returns may cause an important message to be missed. b. Incorrect. You should consult with a partner or on-call provider to review mail and messages. Mail should be opened and read by the medical assistant to decide how each piece will be handled. c. Incorrect. You should consult with a partner or on-call provider to review mail and messages. The medical assistant should not reach out to the vacationing provider. d. Correct. You should consult with a partner or on-call provider to review mail and messages.

5. You have received a referring physician report in the mail. What should you do first? a. Provide the correspondence to the provider for review. b. Date-stamp the correspondence. c. Upload the correspondence to the EHR. d. Annotate the correspondence for the physician.

ANS: b

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 20: Written Communication

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The first step is to date-stamp the correspondence, so the provider knows when the report was received. Once the document is date-stamped, it can be provided to the provider for review. b. Correct. The first step is to date-stamp the correspondence, so the provider knows when the report was received. c. Incorrect. The first step is to date-stamp the correspondence, so the provider knows when the report was received. Once the document is date-stamped, it can be uploaded into the EHR. d. Incorrect. The first step is to date-stamp the correspondence, so the provider knows when the report was received. Once the document is date-stamped, it can be annotated for the provider.

6. Which method of sending mail is considered the most secure to maintain compliance with HIPAA? a. Certified b. USPS tracking c. Registered d. Certificate of mailing ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The most secure method is to send mail registered because the receiver must be an adult and sign for the piece. Certified mail simply means the mail is tracked by a tracking number. b. Incorrect. The most secure method is to send mail registered because the receiver must be an adult and sign for the piece. USPS tracking simply means the mail is tracked by a tracking number. c. Correct. The most secure method is to send mail registered because the receiver must be an adult and sign for the piece. d. Incorrect. The most secure method is to send mail registered because the receiver must be an adult and sign for the piece. A certificate of mailing is similar to getting a receipt for the piece.

7. Which of the following letter styles has the dateline, complimentary close, and typed signature beginning a bit right of center? a. Full block b. Modified block c. Left-justified block d. Modified block with indented paragraphs ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The modified block style has the dateline, complimentary close, and typed signature beginning a bit right of center. In full block style, the dateline, address, salutation, body of letter, complimentary close, typed signature, and the initials of the typist are flush with the left margin.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 20: Written Communication

b. Correct. The modified block style has the dateline, complimentary close, and typed signature beginning a bit right of center. c. Incorrect. The modified block style has the dateline, complimentary close, and typed signature beginning a bit right of center. In the left-justified block, all lines start at the left margin and are not indented. d. Incorrect. The modified block style has the dateline, complimentary close, and typed signature beginning a bit right of center. The modified block with indented paragraphs has the lines start at the left margin, and each paragraph is indented five spaces.

8. Which of the following specialty services provided by the USPS provides a proof of mailing at the time of mailing and the date and time of delivery or attempted delivery? a. Certified b. USPS tracking c. Registered d. Certificate of mailing ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Certified mail provided by the USPS provides a proof of mailing at the time of mailing and the date and time of delivery or attempted delivery. b. Incorrect. Certified mail provided by the USPS provides a proof of mailing at the time of mailing and the date and time of delivery or attempted delivery. USPS tracking simply means the mail is tracked by a tracking number. c. Incorrect. Certified mail provided by the USPS provides a proof of mailing at the time of mailing and the date and time of delivery or attempted delivery. The most secure method is to send mail registered because the receiver must be an adult and sign for the piece. d. Incorrect. Certified mail provided by the USPS provides a proof of mailing at the time of mailing and the date and time of delivery or attempted delivery. A certificate of mailing is similar to getting a receipt for the piece.

9. How can you help keep your computer virus-free? a. Only open files with .exe suffixes. b. Open only email received through the company Intranet. c. Only open files with .vbs suffixes. d. Before opening an email, look at the subject and who sent it.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. To help keep your computer virus-free, you should be sure you look at the subject and the sender before you open an email. Opening a file that has an .exe suffix may expose the computer to a virus. b. Incorrect. To help keep your computer virus-free, you should be sure you look at the subject and the sender before you open an email. Email received through the company Intranet may contain viruses.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 20: Written Communication

c.

Incorrect. To help keep your computer virus-free, you should be sure you look at the subject and the sender before you open an email. Opening a file that has a .vbs suffix may expose the computer to a virus. d. Correct. To help keep your computer virus-free, you should be sure you look at the subject and the sender before you open an email.

10. Which of the following is generated and received electronically in the EHR? a. Patient copays b. Consultation reports c. Professional journals d. Laboratory reports ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Laboratory reports are automatically generated and received electronically in the EHR when the results are posted. Patient copays are manually entered into the system when the patient pays. b. Incorrect. Laboratory reports are automatically generated and received electronically in the EHR when the results are posted. Consultation reports must be composed by the physician and sent electronically to the provider. c. Incorrect. Laboratory reports are automatically generated and received electronically in the EHR when the results are posted. Professional journals are articles written by healthcare professionals and sent to a journal for publication. d. Correct. Laboratory reports are automatically generated and received electronically in the EHR when the results are posted.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 21: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 21: THE OFFICE ENVIRONMENT, COMPUTERS, AND EQUIPMENT

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following tasks would you perform when opening the office for the workday? a. Take receipts (cash, check, credit card) to the bank for deposit. b. Perform a visual check of electrical devices, furniture, floors, and lighting. c. Turn off autoclave. d. Clean and restock each examination room.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. You would take receipts for deposit at the end of the office day. You would perform a visual check of electrical devices, furniture, floors, and lighting when opening the office for the workday. b. Correct. You would perform a visual check of electrical devices, furniture, floors, and lighting when opening the office for the workday. c. Incorrect. You would turn off the autoclave at the end of the day. You would perform a visual check of electrical devices, furniture, floors, and lighting when opening the office for the workday. d. Incorrect. You would clean and restock the exam rooms at the end of the day. You would perform a visual check of electrical devices, furniture, floors, and lighting when opening the office for the workday.

2. Which of the following tasks would you perform when closing the office at the end of the workday? a. Clean and restock each examination room. b. Retrieve messages from the answering service/answering machine. c. Observe the room temperature and plug in any disconnected electrical equipment. d. Turn on computers and office equipment.

ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 21: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment

Analysis: a. Correct. You would clean and restock each examination room when closing the office at the end of the workday. b. Incorrect. Retrieving messages would be done at the beginning of the workday. You would clean and restock each examination room when closing the office at the end of the workday. c. Incorrect. You would observe the room temperature and plug in any disconnected electrical equipment at the beginning of the day. You would clean and restock each examination room when closing the office at the end of the workday. d. Incorrect. Though part of your closing procedure would include turning off computers and office equipment, you would clean and restock each examination room when closing the office at the end of the workday.

3. Which of the following is a safety technique used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment? a. Replacing examining paper b. Plugging in any disconnected electrical equipment c. Installing a locking system on the door between the waiting room/reception area and examination rooms/office areas d. Making sure all employees have keys for entry access and a code for disarming the alarm ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Replacing examining paper is not part of a safety protocol. Installing a lock on the door between the waiting room/reception area and the examination rooms/office areas is used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment. b. Incorrect. Plugging in any disconnected electrical equipment is not part of a safety protocol. Installing a lock on the door between the waiting room/reception area and the examination rooms/office areas is used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment. c. Correct. Installing a lock on the door between the waiting room/reception area and the examination rooms/office areas is used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment. d. Incorrect. Making sure employees have access keys and a code for disarming the alarm is not part of safety protocol. Installing a lock on the door between the waiting room/reception area and the examination rooms/office areas is used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment.

4. Which of the following accurately represents a vital step in conducting an inventory of supplies? a. Creating a form to conduct inventory b. Completing an inventory of supplies weekly c. Arranging supplies with the first to expire in front d. Sending electronic orders for supplies ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. An inventory form is important, but not a vital step in conducting an inventory of suppose. b. Incorrect. It is important to inventory supplies in the medical office to maintain a threshold level, but weekly may not be the most appropriate frequency.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 21: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment

c.

Correct. It is important to arrange inventory supplies in the medical office so that the first to expire are in front. d. Incorrect. Supply orders may be sent electronically, but that is not a vital step in conducting a supply inventory.

5. Which of the following is a feature of practice management software? a. Clinical templates b. Computer Physician Order Entry c. Scheduling appointments d. Entering lab results ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Clinical templates are part of an electronic medical record. Scheduling appointments is part of practice management software. b. Incorrect. A computerized physician order entry system is part of the clinical electronic medical record. Scheduling appointments is part of practice management software. c. Correct. Scheduling appointments is part of practice management software. d. Incorrect. Entering lab results is part of the clinical entry in the electronic medical record. Scheduling appointments is part of practice management software.

6. What is the function of encoder software? a. Improve accuracy of CPT, ICD-10, and HCPCS codes b. Check for medication contraindications c. Schedule appointments d. Receive lab results electronically ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Encoder software is used to improve the accuracy of medical coding. b. Incorrect. Encoder software is used to improve the accuracy of medical coding. This software does not check for medication contraindications. c. Incorrect. Encoder software is used to improve the accuracy of medical coding. This software is not used to schedule appointments. d. Incorrect. Encoder software is used to improve the accuracy of medical coding. This software is not used to receive or submit lab results electronically.

7. Why is it important to back up data? a. To prevent hacking b. To ensure data integrity from loss, disaster, human error, hard-drive error, virus, or equipment damage c. To defend against firewalls d. To secure routers, hubs, software, and hardware ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. It is important to back up data to ensure data integrity from loss, disaster, human error, hard drive error, virus, or equipment damage. Backing up data does not prevent hacking. b. Correct. It is important to back up data to ensure data integrity from loss, disaster, human error, hard drive error, virus, or equipment damage.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 21: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment

c.

Incorrect. It is important to back up data to ensure data integrity from loss, disaster, human error, hard drive error, virus, or equipment damage. Firewalls are used for securing data. d. Incorrect. It is important to back up data to ensure data integrity from loss, disaster, human error, hard drive error, virus, or equipment damage. Firewalls are used for securing routers, hubs, software, and hardware.

8. Downtime can best be described as: a. times when patches are being installed. b. times when the computer systems are being backed up. c. an occurrence in offices that are not connected to a cloud-based EHR. d. times when the computer systems are not operating.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Downtime refers to the time during which the computer systems are not operating. When patches are being installed, the computer is operating. b. Incorrect. Downtime refers to the time during which the computer systems are not operating. When computer systems are being backed up, the computer is operating. c. Incorrect. Downtime refers to the time during which the computer systems are not operating. This happens in offices that have computers, whether the computers are connected to a cloud-based EHR or not. d. Correct. Downtime refers to the time during which the computer systems are not operating.

9. Office equipment that makes it possible to send and receive letters, medical reports, laboratory reports, and insurance claims is called a ______. a. facsimile machine b. copy machine c. dictation machine d. printer ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A facsimile machine makes it possible to send and receive letters, medical reports, laboratory reports, and insurance claims. b. Incorrect. A facsimile machine makes it possible to send and receive letters, medical reports, laboratory reports, and insurance claims. A copy machine is used to create a copy of a document. c. Incorrect. A facsimile machine makes it possible to send and receive letters, medical reports, laboratory reports, and insurance claims. A dictation machine is used to record the voice to be later transcribed into writing. d. Incorrect. A facsimile machine makes it possible to send and receive letters, medical reports, laboratory reports, and insurance claims. A printer is used to print a document.

10. Which of the following statements describes proper ergonomics? a. Seat has cushioning with an abrupt edge. b. Head, neck, and trunk are slightly leaning forward in the seat. c. Feet are flat on the floor or supported by a footrest. d. Forearm is about 45 degrees to the upper arm.

ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 21: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Proper ergonomics includes the feet flat on the floor or supported by a footrest. b. Incorrect. Proper ergonomics includes the feet flat on the floor or supported by a footrest. c. Correct. Proper ergonomics includes the feet flat on the floor or supported by a footrest. d. Incorrect. Proper ergonomics includes the feet flat on the floor or supported by a footrest.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 22: Scheduling Appointments and Receiving Patients

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 22: SCHEDULING APPOINTMENTS AND RECEIVING PATIENTS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

A matrix refers to: a. establishing blocks of time in a schedule for different types of appointments and scheduled breaks. b. the material that holds printed or copied material together. c. a method to connect different computers in the office. d. a tangle of ethical and legal dilemmas faced by an office practice.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A matrix is the process of establishing blocks of time in a schedule for different types of appointments and scheduled breaks. b. Incorrect. A matrix is the process of establishing blocks of time in a schedule for different types of appointments and scheduled breaks. The material that holds printed or copied material together is glue. c. Incorrect. A matrix is the process of establishing blocks of time in a schedule for different types of appointments and scheduled breaks. Connecting different computers together in the office is done with either electrical or Wi-Fi methods. d. Incorrect. A matrix is the process of establishing blocks of time in a schedule for different types of appointments and scheduled breaks. Ethical and legal dilemmas are called just that.

2. Which type of scheduling might be most helpful to streamline evaluations of patients with similar complaints? a. Double-booking b. Wave c. Streaming d. Cluster ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 22: Scheduling Appointments and Receiving Patients

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cluster booking is the most helpful to streamline evaluations of patients with similar complaints. It is the process of scheduling several patients in the same time slot. Double-booking is the process of scheduling two patients in the same time slot. b. Incorrect. Cluster booking is the most helpful to streamline evaluations of patients with similar complaints. It is the process of scheduling several patients in the same time slot. Wave scheduling is the process of scheduling patients every 15 minutes. c. Incorrect. Cluster booking is the most helpful to streamline evaluations of patients with similar complaints. It is the process of scheduling several patients in the same time slot. Streaming is not a type of scheduling. d. Correct. Cluster booking is the most helpful to streamline evaluations of patients with similar complaints. It is the process of scheduling several patients in the same time slot.

3. When explaining office policies to patients, which of the following is an example of office policy best practice? a. Advising the patient that the provider will always personally return calls on routine questions b. Advising when payment is expected c. Advising the patient that prescription refill requests are always completed within 24 hours d. Advising the patient that Medicare coinsurance can be waived ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An example of office policy best practice is advising the patient when payment is expected. The provider will not typically personally return calls on routine questions. b. Correct. An example of office policy best practice is advising the patient when payment is expected. c. Incorrect. An example of office policy best practice is advising the patient when payment is expected. Prescription refill requests are not always completed within 24 hours. d. Incorrect. An example of office policy best practice is advising the patient when payment is expected. It is not legal to waive Medicare coinsurance payments.

4. Which of the following is required information when prearranging a hospital admission? a. Insurance telephone number b. Patient’s demographic data c. Types of services provided by the PCP d. Diagnosis chosen by the medical assistant ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The patient’s demographic data is required when prearranging a hospital admission. The insurance telephone number is part of the patient’s financial file. b. Correct. The patient’s demographic data is required when prearranging a hospital admission.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 22: Scheduling Appointments and Receiving Patients

c.

Incorrect. The patient’s demographic data is required when prearranging a hospital admission. The hospital does not need to know the type of services provided by the PCP. d. Incorrect. The patient’s demographic data is required when prearranging a hospital admission. The medical assistant does not choose the diagnosis.

5. Which is the most appropriate action for greeting patients when they arrive in the office? a. Take the patient immediately to an exam room to protect their confidentiality. b. Ask the patient to sign in on the sign-in sheet with their full name, specific reason for visit, and Social Security number. c. Greet the patient by their full name and make eye contact. d. Ask the patient to sign in on the sign-in sheet with name, DOB, and reason for visit.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The most appropriate action for greeting new patients in the office is to greet the patient by their full name and make eye contact. Taking the patient immediately to the exam room is abrupt and not good customer service. b. Incorrect. The most appropriate action for greeting new patients in the office is to greet the patient by their full name and make eye contact. The patient should not be asked to write personal information, such as the reason for their visit, on a signin sheet. c. Correct. The most appropriate action for greeting new patients in the office is to greet the patient by their full name and make eye contact. d. Incorrect. The most appropriate action for greeting new patients in the office is to greet the patient by their full name and make eye contact. The patient should not be asked to write personal information, such as their date of birth, on a sign-in sheet.

6. Which of the following requires special consent for release of information? a. Genetic testing b. Physical therapy records c. Records released to a provider participating in coordination of care d. Records released to dispute insurance company denial ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Genetic testing requires special consent for the release of information. b. Incorrect. Genetic testing requires special consent for the release of information, whereas physical therapy records do not. c. Incorrect. Genetic testing requires special consent for the release of information, whereas records released to a provider to coordinate care do not. d. Incorrect. Genetic testing requires special consent for the release of information, whereas records released in order to dispute an insurance company denial do not.

7. Which of the following represents critical information required for scheduling patient procedures? a. Claim scrubber software b. Real time adjudication c. Eligibility check d. Adjudication receipts ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 22: Scheduling Appointments and Receiving Patients

Analysis: a. Incorrect. An eligibility check provides critical information for scheduling patient procedures. This process allows the office to find out the patient’s coverage for the needed procedures. There is no such thing as claim scrubber software. b. Incorrect. An eligibility check provides critical information for scheduling patient procedures. This process allows the office to find out the patient’s coverage for the needed procedures. Real time adjudication refers to having claims processed in real time. c. Correct. An eligibility check provides critical information for scheduling patient procedures. This process allows the office to find out the patient’s coverage for the needed procedures. d. Incorrect. An eligibility check provides critical information for scheduling patient procedures. This process allows the office to find out the patient’s coverage for the needed procedures. An adjudication receipt refers to receiving confirmation of an adjudicated claim.

8. Which of the following best describes the Patient Care Partnership? a. An outline of ethical guidelines that describes the financial rights of a patient at a facility/practice b. A federal law requiring informed consent and protection of private health information c. An outline of legal and ethical guidelines that patients should expect during a hospital stay d. A federal law requiring special consent from the patient for the release of genetic testing, mental health and therapy records, and substance abuse records ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A patient’s bill of rights, or patient care partnership, is an outline of legal and ethical guidelines that describes how a patient can expect to be treated by a facility/practice. This does not include discussion of financial rights. b. Incorrect. A patient’s bill of rights, or patient care partnership, is an outline of legal and ethical guidelines that describes how a patient can expect to be treated by a facility/practice. This does not include discussion of patient privacy. c. Correct. A patient’s bill of rights, or patient care partnership, is an outline of legal and ethical guidelines that describes how a patient can expect to be treated by a facility/practice. d. Incorrect. A patient’s bill of rights, or patient care partnership, is an outline of legal and ethical guidelines that describes how a patient can expect to be treated by a facility/practice. This does not include obtaining consent from the patient.

9. Which law specifies that the provider is required to provide detailed description of finance charges when an agreement is made between the provider and a patient for payment in more than four installments? a. Truth in Lending Act b. The Patient’s Bill of Rights c. Affordable Care Act d. Consumer Protection Agency ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 22: Scheduling Appointments and Receiving Patients

Analysis: a. Correct. The Truth in Lending Act specifies that the provider is required to provide a detailed description of finance charges when an agreement is made between the provider and a patient for payment in more than four installments. b. Incorrect. The Truth in Lending Act specifies that the provider is required to provide a detailed description of finance charges when an agreement is made between the provider and a patient for payment in more than four installments. A patient’s bill of rights is an outline of legal and ethical guidelines that describes how a patient can expect to be treated by a facility/practice. c. Incorrect. The Truth in Lending Act specifies that the provider is required to provide a detailed description of finance charges when an agreement is made between the provider and a patient for payment in more than four installments. The Affordable Care Act provides a mechanism for all Americans to obtain health insurance. d. Incorrect. The Truth in Lending Act specifies that the provider is required to provide a detailed description of finance charges when an agreement is made between the provider and a patient for payment in more than four installments. The Consumer Protection Agency takes reports about scammers who cheat people out of money and businesses that don't make good on their promises.

10. Which of the following is an example of a community resource for patients’ health care needs? a. Senior services b. Occupational Health and Safety Administration c. Police department d. Hospitalist registry ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Community resources are organizations or assets that can help the patient with a specific need, such as senior services. b. Incorrect. OSHA is a U.S. Department of Labor agency. Its primary mission is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for workers, not an example of a community resource. c. Incorrect. A police department is a governmental organization responsible for maintaining public order and safety, enforcing the law, and preventing, detecting, and investigating criminal activities, but it is not considered a community resource for health-care related needs. d. Incorrect. A hospitalist registry is a database or system that lists and tracks information about hospitalists, which are physicians specializing in providing care for inpatients, and is not an example of community resources for health-related needs.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 23: The Medical Record, Documentation, and Filing

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 23: THE MEDICAL RECORD, DOCUMENTATION, AND FILING

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

A patient’s ethnicity is included in which part of a patient’s medical record? a. Social history b. Past medical history c. Demographics d. Eligibility status ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A patient’s ethnicity is included in the demographics portion of the patient’s medical record. Social history includes lifestyle choices. b. Incorrect. A patient’s ethnicity is included in the demographics portion of the patient’s medical record. Past medical history consists of a record of the patient’s previous medical issues. c. Correct. A patient’s ethnicity is included in the demographics portion of the patient’s medical record. d. Incorrect. A patient’s ethnicity is included in the demographics portion of the patient’s medical record. Eligibility status refers to an individual being eligible for benefits.

2. What is the purpose of the Medicare PI Program? a. To promote interoperability b. To pay incentives to all providers regardless of the EHR system they use c. To promote accurate billing and coding d. To pay EHR vendors bonuses for using SOAP note format in charting ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The purpose of the Medicare PI program is to promote interoperability. b. Incorrect. The purpose of the Medicare PI program is to promote interoperability.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 23: The Medical Record, Documentation, and Filing

c. Incorrect. The purpose of the Medicare PI program is to promote interoperability. d. Incorrect. The purpose of the Medicare PI program is to promote interoperability.

3. The S in SOAP stands for: a. subjective. b. subordinate. c. symptomatic. d. standard.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The S in SOAP stands for subjective. b. Incorrect. The S in SOAP stands for subjective. c. Incorrect. The S in SOAP stands for subjective. d. Incorrect. The S in SOAP stands for subjective.

4. Which of the following triggers a mandatory release of the medical record? a. Violation of HIPAA Privacy Rule b. An instance of infectious diseases c. Violation of HIPAA Security Rule d. A minor child’s medical record to the non-custodial parent ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A case of infectious diseases triggers a mandatory release of the medical record. b. Correct. A case of infectious diseases triggers a mandatory release of the medical record. c. Incorrect. A case of infectious diseases triggers a mandatory release of the medical record. d. Incorrect. A case of infectious diseases triggers a mandatory release of the medical record.

5. How many objectives are there in the Medicare Promoting Interoperability program scoring methodology? a. Two b. Four c. Eight d. Sixteen ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. There are four objectives in the Medicare Promoting Interoperability program scoring methodology. b. Correct. There are four objectives in the Medicare Promoting Interoperability program scoring methodology. c. Incorrect. There are four objectives in the Medicare Promoting Interoperability program scoring methodology.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 23: The Medical Record, Documentation, and Filing

d. Incorrect. There are four objectives in the Medicare Promoting Interoperability program scoring methodology.

6. Which of the following statements best describes the indexing rules accurately? a. Requires you to make a decision about the name, subject, or other identifier b. Is the first step in filing records c. Reports divided into negative/normal and positive/abnormal for the provider to read d. If name, subject, or a number appears on the paper, underline or circle, preferably with a colored pencil or a color highlighter ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Indexing rules require you to make a decision about the name, subject, or other identifier. b. Incorrect. Indexing rules require you to make a decision about the name, subject, or other identifier. c. Incorrect. Indexing rules require you to make a decision about the name, subject, or other identifier. d. Incorrect. Indexing rules require you to make a decision about the name, subject, or other identifier.

7. Regarding storing medical records, which is true? a. Patient records must be stored indefinitely. b. Records must be maintained for 15 years. c. Records may be purged on a regular basis to make room for new charts. d. Records of deceased patients may be destroyed after a death certificate is received.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Regarding storage of medical records, records may be purged on a regular basis to make room for new charts. b. Incorrect. Regarding storage of medical records, records may be purged on a regular basis to make room for new charts. c. Correct. Regarding storage of medical records, records may be purged on a regular basis to make room for new charts. d. Incorrect. Regarding storage of medical records, records may be purged on a regular basis to make room for new charts.

8. What was the intent of the HITECH Act? a. Eliminating the need for transcription b. Decreasing or eliminating errors related to poor or illegible handwriting c. Abolishing the need to secure patient files d. Promoting the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 23: The Medical Record, Documentation, and Filing

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The intent of the HITECH Act was to promote the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology. b. Incorrect. The intent of the HITECH Act was to promote the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology. c. Incorrect. The intent of the HITECH Act was to promote the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology. d. Correct. The intent of the HITECH Act was to promote the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology.

9. Which of the following is the proper way to make a correction to a progress note entry? a. In paper records, use white-out over the incorrect information and then write in the correct information. b. Delete the incorrect information in the electronic record, then re-enter the correct data. c. Use edit/addendum in an electronic record. d. Use a black marker to delete the incorrect information in the paper record.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The proper way to make a correction to a progress note entry is to use edit/addendum in an electronic entry. The use of white-out in a paper record is never acceptable. b. Incorrect. The proper way to make a correction to a progress note entry is to use edit/addendum in an electronic entry. Information should not be deleted from the electronic record. c. Correct. The proper way to make a correction to a progress note entry is to use edit/addendum in an electronic entry. d. Incorrect. The proper way to make a correction to a progress note entry is to use edit/addendum in an electronic entry. Information in a medical record should not be deleted with a black marker.

10. Which of the following is required to sever or terminate the patient/physician relationship in order to avoid allegations of patient abandonment? a. The effective date of the termination b. Notify the patient in writing c. Provide care for the patient until they find a new care provider d. Refer to a specialist in primary care ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Upon termination, the provider must ensure the patient has been provided with at least 15 days of emergency treatment and prescriptions before discontinuing the provider’s availability. b. Correct. Although a physician is allowed to sever or terminate the patient/physician relationship, in order to avoid allegations of patient abandonment (unprofessional conduct), a physician should notify patients of the following in writing when the physician wishes to discontinue care; the last day the provider will render medical

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 23: The Medical Record, Documentation, and Filing

care, alternative sources of medical care, and information necessary to obtain medical\ records. c. Incorrect. Upon termination, the provider must ensure the patient has been provided with at least 15 days of emergency treatment and prescriptions before discontinuing the provider’s availability, not for an indefinite period of time, but until the patient finds a new care provider. d. Incorrect. A physician should notify patients of the following in writing when the physician wishes to discontinue care: the last day the provider will render medical care, alternative sources of medical care, and information necessary to obtain medical records. Referral to a primary care specialist is not required.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 24: Health Insurance

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 24: HEALTH INSURANCE

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

What is the term that describes payment by someone other than the patient for services rendered? a. Remittance advice b. EOB c. Claims tracking d. Third-party reimbursement ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The term that best describes payment by someone other than the patient for services rendered is third-party reimbursement. A remittance advice is a document that describes the payment disbursement. b. Incorrect. The term that best describes payment by someone other than the patient for services rendered is third-party reimbursement. An explanation of benefits (EOB) is a document sent by the insurance company that outlines the payment for medical services rendered. c. Incorrect. The term that best describes payment by someone other than the patient for services rendered is third-party reimbursement. Claims tracking refers to looking into outstanding insurance claims. d. Correct. The term that best describes payment by someone other than the patient for services rendered is third-party reimbursement.

2. If a Medicare patient is being provided with a service that might not be covered, what should the office do? a. Not provide the service b. Have the patient sign a waiver c. Have the patient call Medicare d. Have the patient sign an ABN ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 24: Health Insurance

Analysis: a. Incorrect. If a Medicare patient is being provided with a service that might not be covered, the patient should sign an advance beneficiary notice (ABN) to acknowledge that they accept that the service may not be covered. b. Incorrect. If a Medicare patient is being provided with a service that might not be covered, the patient should sign an advance beneficiary notice (ABN) to acknowledge that they accept that the service may not be covered. c. Incorrect. If a Medicare patient is being provided with a service that might not be covered, the patient should sign an advance beneficiary notice (ABN) to acknowledge that they accept that the service may not be covered. d. Correct. If a Medicare patient is being provided with a service that might not be covered, the patient should sign an advance beneficiary notice (ABN) to acknowledge that they accept that the service may not be covered.

3. What are the components used to calculate the Medicare physician fee schedule? a. Practice expense, malpractice expense, and provider work b. Years provider has been practicing c. Rent, utilities, and staff salaries d. None of the above ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The components used to calculate the Medicare physician fee schedule are practice expense, malpractice expense, and provider work. b. Incorrect. The components used to calculate the Medicare physician fee schedule are practice expense, malpractice expense, and provider work. c. Incorrect. The components used to calculate the Medicare physician fee schedule are practice expense, malpractice expense, and provider work. d. Incorrect. The components used to calculate the Medicare physician fee schedule are practice expense, malpractice expense, and provider work.

4. What is a consumer-driven health plan in which only the employer contributes and the money is not lost at the end of the year called? a. Health savings account b. Flexible spending arrangement c. Health reimbursement arrangement d. Medical savings account ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A health reimbursement arrangement is a consumer-driven health plan in which only the employer contributes, and the money is not lost at the end of the year. A health savings account is an account where an employee can put away pretax wages to pay for health care. b. Incorrect. A health reimbursement arrangement is a consumer-driven health plan in which only the employer contributes, and the money is not lost at the end of the year. A flexible spending arrangement refers to an employee putting away pre-tax wages to pay for health care. c. Correct. A health reimbursement arrangement is a consumer-driven health plan in which only the employer contributes, and the money is not lost at the end of the year.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 24: Health Insurance

d. Incorrect. A health reimbursement arrangement is a consumer-driven health plan in which only the employer contributes, and the money is not lost at the end of the year. A medical savings account is one where an employee puts away pre-tax wages to be used to pay for health care that is not covered under the insurance plan.

5. What is the government health plan that covers individuals who have a limited or low income? a. Medicare b. TRICARE c. Medicaid d. Social security ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Medicaid is the government health plan that covers individuals who have a limited or low income. Medicare is the government health plan that covers the elderly or disabled. b. Incorrect. Medicaid is the government health plan that covers individuals who have a limited or low income. TRICARE is a government plan that covers individuals in the military. c. Correct. Medicaid is the government health plan that covers individuals who have a limited or low income. d. Incorrect. Medicaid is the government health plan that covers individuals who have a limited or low income. Social security is the government plan that provides income to retired or disabled persons.

6. The percentage a patient pays for services after the deductible has been met is called: a. co-payment. b. deductible. c. fee for service. d. coinsurance.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Coinsurance is the percentage a patient pays for services after the deductible has been met. A co-payment is a set dollar amount a patient pays for their visit, no matter what services the patient receives. b. Incorrect. Coinsurance is the percentage a patient pays for services after the deductible has been met. The deductible is the amount of money a patient pays before their insurance begins to cover services each year. c. Incorrect. Coinsurance is the percentage a patient pays for services after the deductible has been met. Fee for service refers to a provider being paid for each service provided to a patient. d. Correct. Coinsurance is the percentage a patient pays for services after the deductible has been met.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 24: Health Insurance

7. In a health maintenance organization (HMO), why is the PCP considered a “gatekeeper?” a. Because all HMO patients can self-refer to specialists b. Because the patient is responsible for 20% of the fee for all specialist referrals c. Because the PCP must coordinate a patient’s care and referral to a specialist d. Because patients are responsible for an out-of-pocket deductible ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A PCP is considered a gatekeeper because the PCP must coordinate a patient’s care and referral to a specialist. HMO patients cannot self-refer to specialists. b. Incorrect. A PCP is considered a gatekeeper because the PCP must coordinate a patient’s care and referral to a specialist. The patient’s responsibility for payment of care does not relate to the PCP’s role as a gatekeeper. c. Correct. A PCP is considered a gatekeeper because the PCP must coordinate a patient’s care and referral to a specialist. d. Incorrect. A PCP is considered a gatekeeper because the PCP must coordinate a patient’s care and referral to a specialist. The patient’s responsibility for payment of care does not relate to the PCP’s role as a gatekeeper.

8. What is the first step required to verify patient eligibility? a. The provider initiates the eligibility verification. b. The biller and coder must assign the procedure and diagnosis codes to determine eligibility. c. The carrier will pre-advise the office what procedure(s) the patient is eligible for. d. The medical assistant interprets the information on the patient’s insurance card and determines if the insurance is managed care.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The provider does not initiate the eligibility verification. b. Incorrect. The first step required to verify patient eligibility is for the medical assistant to determine if the insurance is managed care. The biller and coder do not assign procedure or diagnosis codes. c. Incorrect. The first step required to verify patient eligibility is for the medical assistant to determine if the insurance is managed care. The carrier does not preadvise the office on eligible services. d. Correct. The first step required to verify patient eligibility is for the medical assistant to determine if the insurance is managed care.

9. The terms precertification, preauthorization, and predetermination refer to obtaining plan approval for services prior to the patient receiving them. Which of the following is the definition of preauthorization? a. Refers to seeking approval for a treatment (surgery, hospitalization, diagnostic test) under the patient’s insurance contract. b. Relates not only to whether the services are covered but also whether the proposed treatment is medically necessary.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 24: Health Insurance

c. Refers to the discovery of the maximum amount of money the carrier will pay for primary surgery, consultation service, postoperative care, and so on. d. Refers to an evaluation of health care services to determine the medical necessity, appropriateness, and cost-effectiveness of the treatment plans for a given patient.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Precertification refers to seeking approval for a treatment (surgery, hospitalization, diagnostic test) under the patient’s insurance contract. b. Correct. Preauthorization relates not only to whether the services are covered but also whether the proposed treatment is medically necessary c. Incorrect. Predetermination refers to the discovery of the maximum amount of money the carrier will pay for primary surgery, consultation service, postoperative care, and so on. d. Incorrect. Utilization review refers to an evaluation of health care services to determine the medical necessity, appropriateness, and cost-effectiveness of the treatment plans for a given patient.

10. Which of the following statements best describes utilization review? a. A method to rate cost and quality the same b. Obtaining plan approval for services after the patient has received them c. Analysis of whether the services exceed the minimum amount of money the carrier will pay for primary surgery d. A method of assessing the quality and appropriateness of the care provided to its members ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Utilization review is best described as a method of assessing the quality and appropriateness of the care provided to its members. b. Incorrect. Utilization review is best described as a method of assessing the quality and appropriateness of the care provided to its members. c. Incorrect. Utilization review is best described as a method of assessing the quality and appropriateness of the care provided to its members. d. Correct. Utilization review is best described as a method of assessing the quality and appropriateness of the care provided to its members.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 25: Procedural and Diagnostic Coding

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 25: PROCEDURAL AND DIAGNOSTIC CODING

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which two coding systems would you use to report an annual physical for reimbursement? a. ICD-10-CM and CPT b. ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS c. HCPCS and ICD-10-PCS d. CPT and ICD-10-PCS ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. There are two coding systems used in reporting services for reimbursement, which are ICD-10-CM and CPT. b. Incorrect. ICD-10-PCS is for hospital/inpatient coding only. c. Incorrect. There are two coding systems used in reporting services for reimbursement, which are ICD-10-CM and CPT. HCPCS is typically for services not contained in CPT, such as durable medical equipment and injections. d. Incorrect. ICD-10-PCS is for hospital/inpatient coding only.

2. Which of the following would be assigned an HCPCS code? a. Administration of injection b. Diagnosis of hypertension c. Removal of skin d. D. Tracheostomy ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Administration of injections are typically HCPCS codes. b. Incorrect. Diagnosis codes are ICD-10-CM codes. c. Incorrect. Removal of skin is a service, or CPT code. d. Incorrect. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure, not a HCPCS code.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 25: Procedural and Diagnostic Coding

3. In which section of the CPT manual would you find a code for insertion of a permanent pacemaker with transvenous electrodes? a. Evaluation and management (E/M) b. Surgery c. Pathology and Laboratory d. Medicine ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. E/M codes are for evaluation and management, not surgery. b. Correct. Insertion of a pacemaker would be a surgical code. c. Incorrect. Laboratory and pathology codes are not surgery codes. d. Incorrect. Surgery is not a medicine code.

4. Which section of CPT is used by almost every provider specialty? a. Surgery b. Anesthesia c. Radiology e. Evaluation and management ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The evaluation and management section of CPT is used by almost every provider specialty. b. Incorrect. The evaluation and management section of CPT is used by almost every provider specialty. c. Incorrect. The evaluation and management section of CPT is used by almost every provider specialty. d. Correct. The evaluation and management section of CPT is used by almost every provider specialty.

5. Which form do providers use to indicate services they have provided? LO#13 a. Super encounter form b. Invoice c. Encounter form f. Encounter bill ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Providers use an encounter form to indicate services they have provided. b. Incorrect. Providers use an encounter form to indicate services they have provided.

An invoice is used to bill for services to a vendor. c. Correct. Providers use an encounter form to indicate services they have provided. d. Incorrect. Providers use an encounter form to indicate services they have provided.

6. Which key components must be considered when a provider is selecting a visit level? a. History, exam, patient condition b. Exam, medical decision making, number of tests performed c. History, exam, medical decision making d. Medical decision making, number of diagnoses, time spent

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 25: Procedural and Diagnostic Coding

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. History, exam, and medical decision making must be considered when a provider is selecting a visit level. b. Incorrect. History, exam, and medical decision making must be considered when a provider is selecting a visit level. c. Correct. History, exam, and medical decision making must be considered when a provider is selecting a visit level. d. Incorrect. History, exam, and medical decision making must be considered when a provider is selecting a visit level.

7. After having a cerebrovascular (CVA) accident, the patient has been having difficulty swallowing. The physician diagnoses this as a sequela of the CVA. Report this with code: a. I69.321: Dysphasia following cerebral infarction b. I69.921: Dysphasia following unspecified cerebrovascular disease c. I69.991: Dysphagia following unspecified cerebrovascular disease d. R13.10: Dysphagia, unspecified ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The patient did not have a cerebral infarction. b. Incorrect. I69.921 indicates dysphasia (difficulty with language), whereas I69.991 is more specific as to difficulty swallowing. c. Correct. I69.991 indicates dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) following an unspecified cerebrovascular disease. d. Incorrect. The specific type of dysphasia is noted in this case.

8

Which of the following is an example of when to use a modifier? a. Patient visits the cardiologist and has a stress test scheduled for the following week b. Attach a modifier to ICD-10-CM codes to signify multiple diagnoses noted on the visit capture/encounter form for a patient visit with a nurse practitioner c. Attach a modifier to ICD-10-CM codes to signify multiple procedures noted on the visit capture/encounter form with a physician assistant d. A stress test is performed the same day as a cardiology visit due to shortness of breath ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A modifier would be used when a stress test is performed the same day as a cardiology visit. The modifier would alert the insurance company that these were two distinct visits scheduled on the same day. b. Incorrect. A modifier would be used when a stress test is performed the same day as a cardiology visit. The modifier would alert the insurance company that these were two distinct visits scheduled on the same day.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 25: Procedural and Diagnostic Coding

c.

Incorrect. A modifier would be used when a stress test is performed the same day as a cardiology visit. The modifier would alert the insurance company that these were two distinct visits scheduled on the same day. d. Correct. A modifier would be used when a stress test is performed the same day as a cardiology visit. The modifier would alert the insurance company that these were two distinct visits scheduled on the same day.

9

What ICD-10-CM codes are required to establish? a. Medical necessity b. Reimbursement c. History of the patient d. Modifier required ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. ICD-10-CM codes are used to establish medical necessity. b. Incorrect. ICD-10-CM codes are used to establish medical necessity. c. Incorrect. ICD-10-CM codes are used to establish medical necessity. d. Incorrect. ICD-10-CM codes are used to establish medical necessity.

10 Which of the following is an example of upcoding? a. When a service is reduced to a lower level based strictly on the diagnosis code reported b. When a facility coder intentionally assigns a procedure code that does not match patient documentation c. When a facility coder unintentionally assigns a procedure code that does not match patient documentation d. The practice of using several CPT codes for a service when one inclusive code is available ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An example of upcoding would be when a facility coder intentionally assigns a procedure code that does not match patient documentation. b. Correct. An example of upcoding would be when a facility coder intentionally assigns a procedure code that does not match patient documentation. c. Incorrect. An example of upcoding would be when a facility coder intentionally assigns a procedure code that does not match patient documentation. Upcoding is an intentional process. d. Incorrect. An example of upcoding would be when a facility coder intentionally assigns a procedure code that does not match patient documentation. Using several CPT codes for a service when one inclusive code is available is known as unbundling.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 26: Patient Accounts

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 26: PATIENT ACCOUNTS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following refers to the financial side of the medical practice? a. Encounter form b. Cash control sheet c. Revenue cycle d. Explanation of benefits ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The revenue cycle refers to the financial side of the medical practice. An encounter form is used by the provider to indicate the services provided to the patient at the patient visit. b. Incorrect. The revenue cycle refers to the financial side of the medical practice. A cash control sheet is a record of the daily collections in the office. c. Correct. The revenue cycle refers to the financial side of the medical practice. d. Incorrect. The revenue cycle refers to the financial side of the medical practice. An explanation of benefits is generated by the insurance company to outline what was paid and what the patient owes for services rendered.

2. Which of the following describes a violation of the anti-kickback statute? a. Issuing a remittance advice to a Medicare patient b. A waiver of Medicare deductibles c. Not completing the encounter form d. Providing a professional discount to another medical professional ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A waiver of Medicare deductibles is a violation of the anti-kickback statute. b. Correct. A waiver of Medicare deductibles is a violation of the anti-kickback statute. c. Incorrect. A waiver of Medicare deductibles is a violation of the anti-kickback statute. d. Incorrect. A waiver of Medicare deductibles is a violation of the anti-kickback statute.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 26: Patient Accounts

3. Which of the following describes a record of all charges or services rendered, any payments made by the patient or the insurance carrier, and any adjustments? a. A day sheet b. A patient ledger c. Explanation of benefits d. Remittance advice ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A patient ledger describes a record of all charges or services rendered, any payments made by the patient or the insurance carrier, and any adjustments. A day sheet is a recording of all charges and patients for all patients seen on a certain day. b. Correct. A patient ledger describes a record of all charges or services rendered, any payments made by the patient or the insurance carrier, and any adjustments. c. Incorrect. A patient ledger describes a record of all charges or services rendered, any payments made by the patient or the insurance carrier, and any adjustments.

An explanation of benefits is a document generated by the insurance carrier to show what was paid by the carrier and any patient balance owed. d. Incorrect. A patient ledger describes a record of all charges or services rendered, any payments made by the patient or the insurance carrier, and any adjustments. A remittance advice is sent by a patient or insurance company for the patient.

4. Who updates the fee schedule? a. Medicare b. CMS c. The practice d. The EHR ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The practice updates the fee schedule. b. Incorrect. The practice updates the fee schedule. c. Correct. The practice updates the fee schedule. d. Incorrect. The practice updates the fee schedule.

5. What is another name for the encounter form? a. Cost estimate sheet b. Patient ledger c. Business associate agreement d. Charge slip ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Another name for an encounter form is a charge slip. A cost estimate sheet is used to give the patient an idea of the cost for surgery or long-term treatment. b. Incorrect. Another name for an encounter form is a charge slip. The patient ledger is a record of all charges and payments rendered. c. Incorrect. Another name for an encounter form is a charge slip. A business associate agreement is used for nonemployees to assure they will adhere to HIPAA guidelines. d. Correct. Another name for an encounter form is a charge slip.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 26: Patient Accounts

6. Which of the following is contained in the patient’s billing record? a. A record of only charges or services rendered b. A record of only payments made by the insurance company c. A record of professional discounts provided to Medicare patients d. A record of all payments, charges, and adjustments ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A record of all payments, charges, and adjustments is contained in the patient’s billing record. b. Incorrect. A record of all payments, charges, and adjustments is contained in the patient’s billing record. c. Incorrect. A record of all payments, charges, and adjustments is contained in the patient’s billing record. d. Correct. A record of all payments, charges, and adjustments is contained in the patient’s billing record.

7. Which of the following best represents a debit? a. A charge added to an existing balance b. A charge deducted from an existing balance c. Reflects that the amount paid is less than the total due d. Reflects that the amount paid is greater than what was due ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A charge added to an existing balance is a debit. b. Incorrect. A charge added to an existing balance is a debit. A charge deducted from an existing balance is a credit. c. Incorrect. A charge added to an existing balance is a debit. An amount paid being less than the total due results in a balance due d. Incorrect. A charge added to an existing balance is a debit. An amount paid being greater than what was due results in a credit balance.

8. A cash control sheet is used to record the total amount of _______ received by the practice on any given day. a. checks b. debit or credit card payments c. cash d. cash, checks, and debit or credit card payments ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A cash control sheet is used to record the total amount of payments received by the practice on any given day. b. Incorrect. A cash control sheet is used to record the total amount of payments received by the practice on any given day. c. Incorrect. A cash control sheet is used to record the total amount of payments received by the practice on any given day. d. Correct. A cash control sheet is used to record the total amount of payments received by the practice on any given day.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 26: Patient Accounts

9. What should you provide to a patient in advance of a costly medical expense? a. Advanced beneficiary notice b. Advanced directive c. Cost estimate sheet d. Insurance company billing number ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. You should provide a cost estimate sheet to the patient in advance of a costly medical procedure. An advanced beneficiary notice is a form signed by a patient covered by Medicare to indicate the patient realizes certain services may not be covered. b. Incorrect. You should provide a cost estimate sheet to the patient in advance of a costly medical procedure. An advanced directive is a document that allows the patient to communicate their care wishes if they should be unable to speak for themselves. c. Correct. You should provide a cost estimate sheet to the patient in advance of a costly medical procedure. d. Incorrect. You should provide a cost estimate sheet to the patient in advance of a costly medical procedure. An insurance company billing number is used to submit insurance claims to the patient’s insurance carrier.

10. Which of the following terms best describes the visit capture? a. Charge entry b. Visit entry c. Diagnosis coding d. Adding modifiers to procedure codes ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A charge entry is the term used to describe a visit capture. b. Incorrect. A charge entry is the term used to describe a visit capture. The term visit entry is not an accurate term. c. Incorrect. A charge entry is the term used to describe a visit capture. Diagnostic coding is used to bill an insurance company for services rendered. d. Incorrect. A charge entry is the term used to describe a visit capture. Adding modifiers to procedure codes is done in billing an insurance company for services rendered.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 27: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 27: PREPARING INSURANCE CLAIMS AND POSTING INSURANCE PAYMENTS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

What form is used for filing paper claims in an inpatient setting? a. CMS-1500 b. CMS-1550 c. 837P d. UB-04 ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The UB-04 form is used for filing paper claims in an inpatient setting. The CMS-1500 form is used to file electronic claims in all patient settings. b. Incorrect. The UB-04 form is used for filing paper claims in an inpatient setting.

There is no CMS-1550 form. c. Incorrect. The UB-04 form is used for filing paper claims in an inpatient setting. The 837P form is used in billing Medicare claims. d. Correct. The UB-04 form is used for filing paper claims in an inpatient setting.

2. Before contacting an insurer regarding a delinquent claim, which of the following must you have available? a. The practice’s tax identification number b. The patient’s Social Security number c. The insurance company’s NPI d. The patient’s spouse’s social security number ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. You must have the practice’s tax identification number before you contact an insurer regarding a delinquent claim. b. Incorrect. You must have the practice’s tax identification number before you contact an insurer regarding a delinquent claim. The patient’s identification number will be needed, not their Social Security number.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 27: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments

c.

Incorrect. You must have the practice’s tax identification number before you contact an insurer regarding a delinquent claim. The insurance company’s NPI (National Provider Identifier) is used in billing claims. d. Incorrect. You must have the practice’s tax identification number before you contact an insurer regarding a delinquent claim. The patient’s identification number will be needed, not the spouse’s Social Security number.

3. A claim that is automatically forwarded from Medicare to a secondary insurer after Medicare has paid its portion of a service when using an EHR is known as a _____ claim. a. crosswalk b. walkover c. crossover d. linkover ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A claim that is automatically forwarded from Medicare to a secondary insurer after Medicare has paid its portion of a service when using an EHR is known as a crossover claim. There is no such thing as a crosswalk claim. b. Incorrect. A claim that is automatically forwarded from Medicare to a secondary insurer after Medicare has paid its portion of a service when using an EHR is known as a crossover claim. There is no such thing as a crossover claim. c. Correct. A claim that is automatically forwarded from Medicare to a secondary insurer after Medicare has paid its portion of a service when using an EHR is known as a crossover claim. d. Incorrect. A claim that is automatically forwarded from Medicare to a secondary insurer after Medicare has paid its portion of a service when using an EHR is known as a crossover claim. There is no such thing as a linkover claim.

4. What is the most common paper claim form or format used in the medical office? a. CMS-1450 b. CMS-1500 c. UB-04 d. CPT-1450 ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The most common paper claim form or format used in the medical office is the CMS-1500. The CMS-1450 format is used in billing hospital services for Medicare patients. b. Correct. The most common paper claim form or format used in the medical office is the CMS-1500. c. Incorrect. The most common paper claim form or format used in the medical office is the CMS-1500. The UB-04 format is used in billing hospital services for Medicare patients. d. Incorrect. The most common paper claim form or format used in the medical office is the CMS-1500. There is no such form as the CPT-1450.

5. Which of the following statements best describes the differences between manual and electronic claims tracking? a. Manual claims tracking is more efficient than electronic claims tracking. b. Electronic claims tracking is more efficient than manual claims tracking. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 27: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments

c. Claims tracking requires a clearinghouse, but manual claims tracking does not. d. Claims tracking, also known as EFT, is the most efficient.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Electronic claims tracking is more efficient than manual claims tracking. b. Correct. Electronic claims tracking is more efficient than manual claims tracking. c. Incorrect. Electronic claims tracking is more efficient than manual claims tracking.

Claims tracking does not require a clearinghouse. d. Incorrect. Electronic claims tracking is more efficient than manual claims tracking.

EFT is an electronic funds transfer; it is used to submit payment for claims electronically.

6. What does the acronym NPI stand for? a. National provider identification b. National provider identifier c. National physician identifier d. National physician information ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. NPI stands for national provider identifier. b. Correct. NPI stands for national provider identifier. c. Incorrect. NPI stands for national provider identifier. d. Incorrect. NPI stands for national provider identifier.

7. A company that often serves as the middleman between providers and billing groups, payers, and other health care partners for the transmission and translation of electronic claims information into the specific format required by payers is known as what? a. A clearinghouse b. Electronic claims tracking c. Electronic data interchange d. A remittance advice ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A company that often serves as the middleman between providers and billing groups, payers, and other health care partners for the transmission and translation of electronic claims information into the specific format required by payers is known as a clearinghouse. b. Incorrect. A company that often serves as the middleman between providers and billing groups, payers, and other health care partners for the transmission and translation of electronic claims information into the specific format required by payers is known as a clearinghouse. Electronic claims tracking is the process of tracking delinquent claims electronically. c. Incorrect. A company that often serves as the middleman between providers and billing groups, payers, and other health care partners for the transmission and translation of electronic claims information into the specific format required by payers is known as a clearinghouse. Electronic data interchange refers to the transmission of information electronically.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 27: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments

d. Incorrect. A company that often serves as the middleman between providers and billing groups, payers, and other health care partners for the transmission and translation of electronic claims information into the specific format required by payers is known as a clearinghouse. A remittance advice contains information on how a claim was processed.

8. A remittance advice is a ______. a. claim summary sent to the patient. b. claim summary sent to the provider. c. paper check sent to the patient. d. paper check sent to the provider.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A remittance advice is a claim summary sent to the provider. The claim summary sent to the patient is called an explanation of benefits. b. Correct. A remittance advice is a claim summary sent to the provider. c. Incorrect. A remittance advice is a claim summary sent to the provider. A paper check may be sent to the patient along with an explanation of benefits. d. Incorrect. A remittance advice is a claim summary sent to the provider. A paper check may be sent to the provider along with an explanation of benefits.

9. Which of the following statements describes a common error in claims submission? a. Services that are provided or ordered have been authenticated by the ordering practitioner b. A signature is missing from the provider and the patient c. The EFT code is missing d. Services provided or ordered have not been authenticated by the ordering practitioner ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A common error in claims submission is when services were provided or ordered but were not authenticated by the ordering practitioner. Once services are authenticated, there should not be an error in claims submission. b. Incorrect. A common error in claims submission is when services were provided or ordered but were not authenticated by the ordering practitioner. Obtaining signatures from the patient and provider does not cause a claims error. c. Incorrect. A common error in claims submission is when services were provided or ordered but were not authenticated by the ordering practitioner. The EFT (electronic claims transfer) refers to payments being made electronically. d. Correct. A common error in claims submission is when services were provided or ordered but were not authenticated by the ordering practitioner.

10. What is the main distinction between fraud and abuse? a. The intent of the overbilling b. The dollar amount of the overbilling c. If the provider, not the billing department, overbilled d. If the patient was aware of the error and did nothing to stop it ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 27: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments

Analysis: a. Correct. The main distinction between fraud and abuse is the intent of the overbilling. b. Incorrect. The main distinction between fraud and abuse is the intent of the overbilling. c. Incorrect. The main distinction between fraud and abuse is the intent of the overbilling. d. Incorrect. The main distinction between fraud and abuse is the intent of the overbilling.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 28: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 28: PATIENT BILLING, POSTING PATIENT PAYMENTS, AND COLLECTING FEES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

In this billing system, accounts are divided into groups to correspond to the number of times you will be billing. a. Computerized billing b. Monthly billing c. Cycle billing d. Electronic billing ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cycle billing is the system where accounts are divided into groups to correspond to the number of times you will be billing. Computerized billing refers to billing claims through the computer. b. Incorrect. Cycle billing is the system where accounts are divided into groups to correspond to the number of times you will be billing. Monthly billing refers to billing claims on a monthly basis. c. Correct. Cycle billing is the system where accounts are divided into groups to correspond to the number of times you will be billing. d. Incorrect. Cycle billing is the system where accounts are divided into groups to correspond to the number of times you will be billing. Electronic billing refers to billing claims electronically.

2. Which of the following is an example of a common exception in the usual billing and collection procedures? a. A physical examination of a patient for a life insurance policy b. The annual physical examination c. Mammogram screening d. Medicaid claims ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 28: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees

Analysis: a. Correct. A physical examination of a patient for a life insurance policy is an example of a common exception in the usual billing and collection procedures.

Because the insurance policy carrier has requested the exam, only the insurance policy carrier is responsible for payment. b. Incorrect. A physical examination of a patient for a life insurance policy is an example of a common exception in the usual billing and collection procedures.

Because the insurance policy carrier has requested the exam, only the insurance policy carrier is responsible for payment. The patient may be billed for an annual physical exam. c. Incorrect. A physical examination of a patient for a life insurance policy is an example of a common exception in the usual billing and collection procedures.

Because the insurance policy carrier has requested the exam, only the insurance policy carrier is responsible for payment. The patient may be billed for a mammogram screening. d. Incorrect. A physical examination of a patient for a life insurance policy is an example of a common exception in the usual billing and collection procedures.

Because the insurance policy carrier has requested the exam, only the insurance policy carrier is responsible for payment. Medicaid claims are paid by Medicaid.

3. After time of service, how would you next attempt collection of the patient’s payment? a. Through sending a collection letter to the patient b. By a telephone call to the patient c. Through requesting payment at the patient’s next visit d. By transferring the account to a collection agency ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. After time of service the next step in the collection attempt is to call the patient. A collection letter would not be sent until the patient has ignored other attempts to collect the outstanding balance. b. Correct. After time of service the next step in the collection attempt is to call the patient. c. Incorrect. After time of service the next step in the collection attempt is to call the patient. The patient may not have an appointment in the near future. d. Incorrect. After time of service the next step in the collection attempt is to call the patient. The account would not be turned over to a collection agency until all other attempts to collect the bill have been exhausted.

4. Which of the following is included on the account statement? a. Date(s) of the patient’s service(s) b. Daily totals for the provider c. Copy of the superbill d. Copy of CMS-1500 form(s) ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 28: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees

Analysis: a. Correct. An account statement is an accounting of the patient’s services, including the dates the services were provided. b. Incorrect. An account statement is an accounting of the patient’s services, including the dates the services were provided. The daily totals for the provider would not be included. c. Incorrect. An account statement is an accounting of the patient’s services, including the dates the services were provided. A copy of the superbill would not be included. d. Incorrect. An account statement is an accounting of the patient’s services, including the dates the services were provided. A CMS-1500 claim form is sent to the insurance carrier.

5. What is the role of the collection agency? a. To file a lawsuit against non-paying patients b. To collect some or all of the amount due for a fee or percentage of the recovery c. To locate skips d. To obtain recovery in bankruptcy proceedings ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The role of a collection agency is to collect some or all of the amount due for a fee or percentage of the recovery. The office may file a lawsuit in small claims court to collect an unpaid bill. b. Correct. The role of a collection agency is to collect some or all of the amount due for a fee or percentage of the recovery. c. Incorrect. The role of a collection agency is to collect some or all of the amount due for a fee or percentage of the recovery. A skip refers to a patient who cannot be reached. d. Incorrect. The role of a collection agency is to collect some or all of the amount due for a fee or percentage of the recovery. Collection agencies are not involved in bankruptcy proceedings.

6. Of the following terms, which word should be avoided when composing a collection letter? a. Missed b. Neglected c. Overlooked d. Forgotten ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Negative terms, such as neglected, should be avoided when composing a collection letter. b. Correct. Negative terms, such as neglected, should be avoided when composing a collection letter. c. Incorrect. Negative terms, such as neglected, should be avoided when composing a collection letter. d. Incorrect. Negative terms, such as neglected, should be avoided when composing a collection letter.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 28: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees

7. Which of the following best describes aging of accounts? a. When you skip a billing cycle b. The overdue amount from the insurance company c. A way to identify accounts according to the length of time they have been delinquent d. A summary of all NSF accounts ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Aging of accounts is a way to identify accounts according to the length of time they have been delinquent. Skipping a billing cycle refers to not sending out bills for one cycle. b. Incorrect. Aging of accounts is a way to identify accounts according to the length of time they have been delinquent. Overdue amounts from insurance carriers require contacting the insurance carrier directly. c. Correct. Aging of accounts is a way to identify accounts according to the length of time they have been delinquent. d. Incorrect. Aging of accounts is a way to identify accounts according to the length of time they have been delinquent. Accounts that have had NSF checks are accounts where a payment was declined by the bank for nonsufficient funds.

8. A “skip” is: a. when you skip a billing cycle. b. a patient who cannot be located by mail or telephone. c. an account payable that is adjusted at the end of the month. d. a nonsufficient funds check.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A skip refers to a patient who cannot be located by mail or telephone. b. Correct. A skip refers to a patient who cannot be located by mail or telephone. c. Incorrect. A skip refers to a patient who cannot be located by mail or telephone. d. Incorrect. A skip refers to a patient who cannot be located by mail or telephone.

9. When you post a nonsufficient funds (NSF) check, you will: a. add the amount of the NSF check to the office’s checking account. b. decrease the patient’s account balance by the same NSF amount. c. waive bank fees. d. add the amount of the NSF check back to the patient’s account.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When posting an NSF check, you will add the amount of the NSF check back to the patient’s account. This amount would not be added to the office’s checking account. b. Incorrect. When posting an NSF check, you will add the amount of the NSF check back to the patient’s account. The patient’s account would not be reduced by the amount of the check.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 28: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees

c.

Incorrect. When posting an NSF check, you will add the amount of the NSF check back to the patient’s account. Bank fees would likely be added to the patient’s account. d. Correct. When posting an NSF check, you will add the amount of the NSF check back to the patient’s account.

10. Who establishes statutes of limitations? a. The Federal government b. Each state c. Local and county jurisdictions d. The hospital or provider ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Each state establishes its own statute of limitations. b. Correct. Each state establishes its own statute of limitations. c. Incorrect. Each state establishes its own statute of limitations. d. Incorrect. Each state establishes its own statute of limitations.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 29: Banking Procedures

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 29: BANKING PROCEDURES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

An account from which you can make a debit card transaction is called a(n) ____ account. a. savings b. checking c. custodial d. overdraft ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An account from which you can make a debit card transaction is a checking account. A savings account is for placing funds to be used at a later date. b. Correct. An account from which you can make a debit card transaction is a checking account. c. Incorrect. An account from which you can make a debit card transaction is a checking account. A custodial account refers to an account that is in a child’s name, and an adult is overseeing the account. d. Incorrect. An account from which you can make a debit card transaction is a checking account. An overdraft account is one where money is automatically transferred into the checking account if there is a shortage of funds.

2. The person to whom the check is written is known as the _______. a. payer b. payee c. maker d. third party ANS: b

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 29: Banking Procedures

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The person to whom the check is written is known as the payee. The payer is the person who is writing the check. b. Correct. The person to whom the check is written is known as the payee. c. Incorrect. The person to whom the check is written is known as the payee. The maker is the person who is writing the check. d. Incorrect. The person to whom the check is written is known as the payee. Third party refers to an outside party, such as the insurance company, making payment toward a claim.

3. A certified check is: a. a check written from the bank to the party specified after the purchaser pays the bank the full amount of the check. b. a check paid directly from a checking account using the bank’s app or website. c. virtual currency to pay a supplier. d. a check that has been stamped by the bank to show that the bank is holding the amount in reserve until the check is cashed.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A certified check is a check that has been stamped by the bank to show that the bank is holding the amount in reservice until the check is cashed. b. Incorrect. A certified check is a check that has been stamped by the bank to show that the bank is holding the amount in reservice until the check is cashed. c. Incorrect. A certified check is a check that has been stamped by the bank to show that the bank is holding the amount in reservice until the check is cashed. d. Correct. A certified check is a check that has been stamped by the bank to show that the bank is holding the amount in reservice until the check is cashed.

4. Which of the following describes the nine-digit routing number security feature of a check? a. The warning band in the border of the check b. The MP logo in the signature line of laser checks c. Toner adhesion that cannot be removed d. Magnetic ink character recognition numbers ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The nine-digit routing number security feature of a check is the magnetic ink character recognition numbers. b. Incorrect. The nine-digit routing number security feature of a check is the magnetic ink character recognition numbers. c. Incorrect. The nine-digit routing number security feature of a check is the magnetic ink character recognition numbers. d. Correct. The nine-digit routing number security feature of a check is the magnetic ink character recognition numbers.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 29: Banking Procedures

5. When preparing a deposit slip, you should: a. face bills portrait side down. b. stack bills in order from the lowest to the highest denomination. c. place the coins in wrappers if there is a large amount of coins. d. prepare separate deposit slips if there are more checks than can fit on each form.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When preparing a deposit slip, you should prepare separate deposit slips if there are more checks than can fit on each form. The direction of the bills does not pertain to the preparation of the deposit slip. b. Incorrect. When preparing a deposit slip, you should prepare separate deposit slips if there are more checks than can fit on each form. The order of the bills does not pertain to the preparation of the deposit slip. c. Incorrect. When preparing a deposit slip, you should prepare separate deposit slips if there are more checks than can fit on each form. The placement of coins in wrappers does not pertain to the preparation of the deposit slip. d. Correct. When preparing a deposit slip, you should prepare separate deposit slips if there are more checks than can fit on each form.

6. Which of the following is an element of a stop payment? a. Bank is required to honor the check b. Must be generated via online banking features c. Used when a check is discovered missing or thought to be stolen d. Should only be used if there is a disagreement regarding a product or service received ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A stop payment action should be taken if a check is discovered missing.

This will prohibit the lost check from being cashed if it is found. Once a stop payment has been issued, the bank will not honor that check. b. Incorrect. A stop payment action should be taken if a check is discovered missing.

This will prohibit the lost check from being cashed if it is found. A stop payment generally cannot be generated via online banking features. c. Correct. A stop payment action should be taken if a check is discovered missing.

This will prohibit the lost check from being cashed if it is found. d. Incorrect. A stop payment action should be taken if a check is discovered missing.

This will prohibit the lost check from being cashed if it is found. If there is a disagreement regarding a product or service rendered, a stop payment should be used.

7. What is the term used for the cash we use in our society? a. Dollars b. Currency c. Coin d. Debits ANS: b

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 29: Banking Procedures

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The term used for the cash we use in our society is currency. Dollars are one type of currency. b. Correct. The term used for the cash we use in our society is currency. c. Incorrect. The term used for the cash we use in our society is currency. Coins are one type of currency. d. Incorrect. The term used for the cash we use in our society is currency. Debits are entries on an accounting sheet.

8. You are reconciling a bank statement and find your balance is different than the bank’s balance. What can you do to see if there is a transposition error? a. Subtract the balance you have from the balance the bank has; then divide that number by 9. b. Subtract the balance you have from the balance the bank has; then multiply that number by 9. c. Subtract the balance the bank has from the balance you have, then divide that number by 7. d. Subtract the balance the bank has from the balance you have, then multiply that number by 7.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. When reconciling a bank statement and you find your balance is different than that of the bank, you should subtract the balance you have from the balance the bank has; then divide that number by 9 to see if there is a transposition error. b. Incorrect. When reconciling a bank statement and you find your balance is different than that of the bank, you should subtract the balance you have from the balance the bank has; then divide that number by 9 to see if there is a transposition error. c. Incorrect. When reconciling a bank statement and you find your balance is different than that of the bank, you should subtract the balance you have from the balance the bank has; then divide that number by 9 to see if there is a transposition error. d. Incorrect. When reconciling a bank statement and you find your balance is different than that of the bank, you should subtract the balance you have from the balance the bank has; then divide that number by 9 to see if there is a transposition error.

9. Which of the following is a step required when reconciling a bank statement? a. Use the prior month balance and work backward. b. In the check register, check off all deposits deducted from the account. c. Compare the check images to the check register. d. Add to your checkbook any withdrawals and service charges.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Compare the opening balance on the new statement with the closing balance on the previous statement. If the statement balances do not agree, contact the bank. b. Correct. In the checkbook/check register, check off all deposits credited to the account.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 29: Banking Procedures

c.

Incorrect. Compare the check images to the check entries on the statement with the returned checks. d. Incorrect. All withdrawals should already be recorded in the checkbook/register.

10. Which of the following is a standard precaution for accepting checks? a. Accept third-party checks that have been stamped certified. b. Ask the patient to make a note on the check referencing “paid in full.” c. Stamp the check with the deposit endorsement upon receipt. d. Only accept postal money orders if there are two endorsements.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A standard precaution for accepting checks is to stamp the check with the deposit endorsement upon receipt. Third-party checks do not need to be stamped certified. b. Incorrect. A standard precaution for accepting checks is to stamp the check with the deposit endorsement upon receipt. If the patient marks their check as “paid in full” the office may not be able to collect any remaining amount owed on that bill. c. Correct. A standard precaution for accepting checks is to stamp the check with the deposit endorsement upon receipt. d. Incorrect. A standard precaution for accepting checks is to stamp the check with the deposit endorsement upon receipt. Postal money orders are not needed if there are two endorsements.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 30: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 30: ACCOUNTS PAYABLE AND ACCOUNTING PROCEDURES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

How would you know if all items ordered have been received? a. Compare the invoice with the ledger. b. Subtract the net received from the gross amount ordered. c. Compare the packing list with the invoice/statement. d. All shipments are recorded in the cost ratio.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. In order to verify that all items ordered have been received, you should compare the packing list with the invoice/statement. The ledger will indicate if the bill has been paid, but it does not verify that all items were received. b. Incorrect. In order to verify that all items ordered have been received, you should compare the packing list with the invoice/statement. The amount ordered may not be what was sent in the shipment. The packing list will indicate what was shipped. c. Correct. In order to verify that all items ordered have been received, you should compare the packing list with the invoice/statement. d. Incorrect. In order to verify that all items ordered have been received, you should compare the packing list with the invoice/statement. Shipments being recorded in the cost ratio do not verify that supplies were received.

2. This type of accounting is the study and analysis of financial data as it applies to operational issues within a company. a. Managerial accounting b. Operational accounting c. Cost ratio accounting d. Expenditure accounting ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 30: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures

Analysis: a. Correct. Managerial accounting is the study and analysis of financial data as it applies to operational issues within a company. b. Incorrect. Managerial accounting is the study and analysis of financial data as it applies to operational issues within a company. Operational accounting is the practice of managing the financial aspects of running a business, whether small or large. c. Incorrect. Managerial accounting is the study and analysis of financial data as it applies to operational issues within a company. The cost ratio is the proportion of the cost of goods available to the retail price of those goods. d. Incorrect. Managerial accounting is the study and analysis of financial data as it applies to operational issues within a company. An expenditure represents a payment with either cash or credit to purchase goods or services.

3. Bookkeeping is the process of which of _____. a. recording economic events b. analyzing and interpreting reported information c. identifying, recording, and communicating economic events d. maintaining just the petty cash fund ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Bookkeeping is the process of identifying, recording, and communicating economic events. b. Incorrect. Bookkeeping is the process of identifying, recording, and communicating economic events. c. Correct. Bookkeeping is the process of identifying, recording, and communicating economic events. d. Incorrect. Bookkeeping is the process of identifying, recording, and communicating economic events.

4. What is another term for net worth? a. Owner’s equity b. Assets c. Financial position d. Gross collections ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Another term for net worth is owner’s equity. b. Incorrect. Another term for net worth is owner’s equity. Assets are resources owned by a business. c. Incorrect. Another term for net worth is owner’s equity. The account status of a firm's or individual's assets, liabilities, and equity positions as reflected on its financial statement. d. Incorrect. Another term for net worth is owner’s equity. Gross collections means all amounts actually collected by a company, as rents or other payments, but excluding income derived from interest or investments, discounts and dividends on insurance, and security deposits.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 30: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures

5. This ratio is calculated by dividing the total payments for a specific period of time by the total charges, with the write-offs deducted from the total charges. a. Cost ratio b. Accounts receivable ratio c. Gross collection ratio d. Net collection ratio ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The net collection ratio is calculated by dividing the total payments for a specific period of time by the total charges, with the write-offs deducted from the total charges. The cost ratio formula demonstrates the cost of a specific procedure or service. b. Incorrect. The net collection ratio is calculated by dividing the total payments for a specific period of time by the total charges, with the write-offs deducted from the total charges. The accounts receivable ratio helps you understand how quickly outstanding accounts are paid as well as the effectiveness of the office collection process. c. Incorrect. The net collection ratio is calculated by dividing the total payments for a specific period of time by the total charges, with the write-offs deducted from the total charges. The gross collection ratio includes the total payments received by a practice for a specific period of time, not including any write-offs. d. Correct. The net collection ratio is calculated by dividing the total payments for a specific period of time by the total charges, with the write-offs deducted from the total charges.

6. This demonstrates the profit and expenses for a given month and includes year-todate information for a given year. a. Balance sheet b. Income statement c. Cost-benefit analysis d. Net worth ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The income statement demonstrates the profit and expenses for a given month and includes year-to-date information for a given year. The balance sheet, also known as a statement of financial position, reveals a company’s assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity (net worth). b. Correct. The income statement demonstrates the profit and expenses for a given month and includes year-to-date information for a given year. c. Incorrect. The income statement demonstrates the profit and expenses for a given month and includes year-to-date information for a given year. A cost-benefit analysis enables program evaluation by demonstrating whether the benefits received outweigh its costs. d. Incorrect. The income statement demonstrates the profit and expenses for a given month and includes year-to-date information for a given year. Subtract liabilities from assets, and what is left is known as the net worth of the business.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 30: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures

7. Which of the following is a component of an invoice? a. The name of the equity partner contracted with the company or vendor b. The name of the company or client contracted with the company or vendor c. The collection ratio d. A detailed cost ratio ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The name of the company or client contracted with the company or vendor is a component of an invoice. b. Correct. The name of the company or client contracted with the company or vendor is a component of an invoice. c. Incorrect. The name of the company or client contracted with the company or vendor is a component of an invoice. A collection ratio includes the total payments received by a practice for a specific period of time. d. Incorrect. The name of the company or client contracted with the company or vendor is a component of an invoice. Cost ratio is defined as Total Expenses ÷ Total Number of Procedures for One Month = Cost Ratio.

8. Which of the following is an example of a write-off? a. A professional courtesy discount b. The cost of items damaged in transit c. A patient’s account payable d. A professional account receivable ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A professional courtesy discount is an example of a write-off. b. Incorrect. A professional courtesy discount is an example of a write-off. The cost of damaged items would be paid by the vendor. c. Incorrect. A professional courtesy discount is an example of a write-off. The patient’s accounts payable refers to what the patient pays. d. Incorrect. A professional courtesy discount is an example of a write-off. A professional accounts receivable refers to money owed to the clinic.

9. Why would you conduct a cost-benefit analysis? a. To determine net income of the practice b. To evaluate the program by demonstrating whether the benefits received outweigh the program’s receipts c. To evaluate the program by demonstrating whether the benefits received outweigh the program’s costs d. To determine the gross collection ratio ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. You would conduct a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate the program by demonstrating whether the benefits received outweigh the program’s costs. A retained earnings analysis is done to determine the net income of the practice.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 30: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures

b. Incorrect. You would conduct a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate the program by demonstrating whether the benefits received outweigh the program’s costs. c. Correct. You would conduct a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate the program by demonstrating whether the benefits received outweigh the program’s costs. d. Incorrect. You would conduct a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate the program by demonstrating whether the benefits received outweigh the program’s costs. The gross collection ratio includes the total payments received by a practice for a specific period of time, not including any write-offs.

10. The common set of standards that are generally accepted and universally practiced in accounting is known as what? a. Generally accepted accounting standards b. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) c. A/P minus A/R d. Generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The most common set of standards that are generally accepted and universally practiced in accounting is known as generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). b. Incorrect. The most common set of standards that are generally accepted and universally practiced in accounting is known as generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). c. Incorrect. The most common set of standards that are generally accepted and universally practiced in accounting is known as generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). d. Correct. The most common set of standards that are generally accepted and universally practiced in accounting is known as generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 31: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 31: INFECTION CONTROL AND MEDICAL ASEPSIS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following are considered PPE? a. Reusable gloves, mask, and gown b. Disposable gloves, mask, and scrub pants c. Reusable scrub pants, lab coat, and scrub top d. Disposable mask, gloves, and gown ANS: d

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Disposable masks, gloves, and gowns are considered PPE. Reusable gloves are not PPE. b. Incorrect. Disposable masks, gloves, and gowns are considered PPE. Scrub pants are not PPE. c. Incorrect. Disposable masks, gloves, and gowns are considered PPE. Scrub pants, lab coat, and scrub top are not PPE. d. Correct. Disposable masks, gloves, and gowns are considered PPE. 2. The body’s most helpful defense mechanism in resisting disease is: a. good nutrition. b. exercise. c. adequate rest. d. proper hygiene.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Though good nutrition is helpful in defense against disease, exercise is the most helpful defense mechanism in resisting disease. b. Correct. Exercise is the most helpful defense mechanism in resisting disease. c. Incorrect. Though adequate rest is helpful in defense against disease, exercise is the most helpful defense mechanism in resisting disease.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 31: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis

d. Incorrect. Though proper hygiene is helpful in defense against disease, exercise is the most helpful defense mechanism in resisting disease.

3. Ingestion or the consumption of contaminated food or water is known as what mode of transmission? a. Vector b. Blood-borne c. Airborne d. Direct contact ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Ingestion or the consumption of contaminated food or water is known as direct contact transmission. Vector transmission is through the skin. b. Incorrect. Ingestion or the consumption of contaminated food or water is known as direct contact transmission. Blood-borne transmission is through exposure to infected blood products. c. Incorrect. Ingestion or the consumption of contaminated food or water is known as direct contact transmission. Airborne transmission is through inhalation of the contaminant. d. Correct. Ingestion or the consumption of contaminated food or water is known as direct contact transmission.

4. Contaminated surfaces must be cleaned with a _____ bleach solution. a. 1:100 b. 100:1 c. 1:10 d. 10:1 ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Contaminated surfaces must be cleaned with a 1:10 bleach solution. b. Incorrect. Contaminated surfaces must be cleaned with a 1:10 bleach solution. c. Correct. Contaminated surfaces must be cleaned with a 1:10 bleach solution. d. Incorrect. Contaminated surfaces must be cleaned with a 1:10 bleach solution.

5. Standard precautions should be used: a. only if the infectious status of the patient is unknown. b. only if the patient is known to have HIV. c. with all patients always. d. for self-protection rather than for protection of the patient.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Standard precautions should be used with all patients at all times. b. Incorrect. Standard precautions should be used with all patients at all times. c. Correct. Standard precautions should be used with all patients at all times. d. Incorrect. Standard precautions should be used with all patients at all times.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 31: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis

6. Engineering controls, work practice controls, and PPE can be found in which of the following: a. engineering controls plan b. work practice controls plan c. PPE plan d. exposure control plan ANS: d Analysis: a. A. Incorrect. An exposure control plan includes engineering controls, work practice controls, PPE, Hepatitis B vaccinations, postexposure follow-up, labels and signs to communicate hazards, information and training to employees, and documented employee medical and training records. Engineering controls are part of the exposure control plan. Engineering controls are devices that isolate or remove the blood-borne pathogen hazard from the workplace. b. Incorrect. An exposure control plan includes engineering controls, work practice controls, PPE, Hepatitis B vaccinations, postexposure follow-up, labels and signs to communicate hazards, information and training to employees, and documented employee medical and training records. Work practice controls are part of the exposure control plan. Work practice controls are practices that reduce the likelihood of exposure by changing the way a task is performed (e.g., laundry handling, contaminated material cleaning, etc.) c. Incorrect. An exposure control plan includes engineering controls, work practice controls, PPE, Hepatitis B vaccinations, postexposure follow-up, labels and signs to communicate hazards, information and training to employees, and documented employee medical and training records. Providing PPE to employees is just part of the exposure control plan. Employers must provide PPE such as gloves, gowns, and masks. d. Correct. An exposure control plan includes engineering controls, work practice controls, PPE, Hepatitis B vaccinations, postexposure follow-up, labels and signs to communicate hazards, information and training to employees, and documented employee medical and training records.

7. Sharps containers should be: a. odor-proof. b. puncture-proof. c. white in color. d. red in color.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Sharps containers should be puncture-proof. b. Correct. Sharps containers should be puncture-proof. c. Incorrect. Sharps containers should be puncture-proof. The color of the container does not matter. d. Incorrect. Sharps containers should be puncture-proof. The color of the container does not matter.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 31: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis

8. According to CDC standards, vigorous hand washing should be done before and after seeing each patient for at least _____. a. 20 minutes b. 30 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 60 seconds ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. According to the CDC standards, hand washing should be done vigorously for at least 20 seconds before and after seeing each patient; before and after eating; before and after using the restroom; after blowing your nose, coughing, or sneezing; after touching garbage; before and after handling specimens or any soiled or contaminated materials; and after removing gloves. b. Incorrect. According to the CDC standards, hand washing should be done vigorously for at least 20 seconds before and after seeing each patient; before and after eating; before and after using the restroom; after blowing your nose, coughing, or sneezing; after touching garbage; before and after handling specimens or any soiled or contaminated materials; and after removing gloves. c. Correct. According to the CDC standards, hand washing should be done vigorously for at least 20 seconds before and after seeing each patient; before and after eating; before and after using the restroom; after blowing your nose, coughing, or sneezing; after touching garbage; before and after handling specimens or any soiled or contaminated materials; and after removing gloves. d. Incorrect. According to the CDC standards, hand washing should be done vigorously for at least 20 seconds before and after seeing each patient; before and after eating; before and after using the restroom; after blowing your nose, coughing, or sneezing; after touching garbage; before and after handling specimens or any soiled or contaminated materials; and after removing gloves.

9. The process that destroys all forms of microorganisms is known as: a. annihilation. b. sterilization. c. sanitization. d. Both disinfection and sterilization are correct.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The process that destroys all forms of microorganisms is known as sterilization. Annihilation means to wipe something out. This is not a medical term. b. Correct. The process that destroys all forms of microorganisms is known as sterilization. c. Incorrect. The process that destroys all forms of microorganisms is known as sterilization. Sanitizing does not destroy all forms of microorganisms. d. Incorrect. The process that destroys all forms of microorganisms is known as sterilization. Inhalation means to breathe something into the lungs.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 31: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis

10. If autoclaved items are kept dried and intact, they have a shelf life of _____ days. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 45 ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Autoclaved items have a shelf life of 30 days if items are kept dried and intact. b. Incorrect. Autoclaved items have a shelf life of 30 days if items are kept dried and intact. c. Correct. Autoclaved items have a shelf life of 30 days if items are kept dried and intact. d. Incorrect. Autoclaved items have a shelf life of 30 days if items are kept dried and intact.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 32: The Medical History and Patient Screening

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 32: THE MEDICAL HISTORY AND PATIENT SCREENING

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

The purpose of screening in today’s medical office is to: a. prioritize the condition of the injured following a disaster. b. tag the victims requiring immediate attention. c. sort and assess soldiers’ injuries. d. determine who will be the most beneficial to handle the patient’s needs.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The purpose of screening in today’s medical office is to determine who will be the most beneficial to handle the patient’s needs. Prioritizing following a disaster would not be done in the medical office. b. Incorrect. The purpose of screening in today’s medical office is to determine who will be the most beneficial to handle the patient’s needs. Tagging victims would not be done in the medical office. c. Incorrect. The purpose of screening in today’s medical office is to determine who will be the most beneficial to handle the patient’s needs. Sorting and assessing patients’ injuries would not be done in the medical office. d. Correct. The purpose of screening in today’s medical office is to determine who will be the most beneficial to handle the patient’s needs.

2. An example of an open-ended question would be: a. “How long have you had the pain?” b. “Does strenuous activity increase your symptoms?” c. “How would you describe your pain?” d. “Do you have pain now?”

ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 32: The Medical History and Patient Screening

Analysis: a. Incorrect. An example of an open-ended question would be, “How would you describe your pain?” An open-ended question is one that must be answered with more than one or two words. b. Incorrect. An example of an open-ended question would be, “How would you describe your pain?” An open-ended question is one that must be answered with more than one or two words. c. Correct. An example of an open-ended question would be, “How would you describe your pain?” An open-ended question is one that must be answered with more than one or two words. d. Incorrect. An example of an open-ended question would be, “How would you describe your pain?” An open-ended question is one that must be answered with more than one or two words.

3. Information collected regarding medications, allergies, and previous illnesses can be found on the: a. genogram. b. review of systems. c. insurance claim form. d. health history form.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The health history form includes information about the patient’s medications, allergies, and previous illnesses. A genogram provides visual information about the patient’s family’s medical history (e.g., diseases and disorders of parents, grandparents, etc.). b. Incorrect. The health history form includes information about the patient’s medications, allergies, and previous illnesses. The review of systems (ROS) is an orderly and systematic check of each body system and is performed by the provider during the physical examination. c. Incorrect. The health history form includes information about the patient’s medications, allergies, and previous illnesses. The insurance claim form includes insurance information and diagnosis and procedure codes, but does not include the patient’s medications, allergies, or previous illnesses. d. Correct. The health history form includes information about the patient’s medications, allergies, and previous illnesses.

4. The review of systems is obtained by which member of the health care team? a. Medical assistant b. Nurse c. Front desk staff d. Provider ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The review of systems is obtained by the medical assistant. b. Incorrect. The review of systems is obtained by the medical assistant.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 32: The Medical History and Patient Screening

c. Incorrect. The review of systems is obtained by the medical assistant. d. Incorrect. The review of systems is obtained by the medical assistant.

5. A genogram determines genetic tendencies and covers how many generations? a. Three b. Four c. Two d. Five ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A genogram determines genetic tendencies and covers three generations. b. Incorrect. A genogram determines genetic tendencies and covers three generations. c. Incorrect. A genogram determines genetic tendencies and covers three generations. d. Incorrect. A genogram determines genetic tendencies and covers three generations.

6. Questions regarding alcohol and tobacco use would be found under the following section of the health history form: a. family health history b. review of systems c. social or occupational d. medical history ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Questions regarding alcohol and tobacco use would be found under the social or occupational section of the health history form. Family health history has its own section with that name. b. Incorrect. Questions regarding alcohol and tobacco use would be found under the social or occupational section of the health history form. Review of symptoms would be found under the chief complaint section. c. Correct. Questions regarding alcohol and tobacco use would be found under the social or occupational section of the health history form. d. Incorrect. Questions regarding alcohol and tobacco use would be found under the social or occupational section of the health history form. Medical history has its own section with that name.

7. Where on the health history form is a systematic check of all the body systems recorded? a. Medical history b. ROS c. EHR d. Present illness ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 32: The Medical History and Patient Screening

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The present illness section of the health history form is where a systematic check of all the body systems is recorded. Medical history has its own section with that name. b. Incorrect. The present illness section of the health history form is where a systematic check of all the body systems is recorded. The review of systems (ROS) is performed by the provider during the physical examination. c. Incorrect. The present illness section of the health history form is where a systematic check of all the body systems is recorded. The electronic health record (EHR) refers to the entire record of the patient’s care. d. Correct. The present illness section of the health history form is where a systematic check of all the body systems is recorded.

8. Having the patient elaborate on his or her present illness by asking him or her, “What makes the symptoms better?” would cover which of the following aspects while screening the chief complaint? a. Aggravating factors b. Alleviating factors c. Associated symptoms d. Severity ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Asking the patient what makes their symptoms better is asking about alleviating factors. Aggravating factors are those things that make the symptoms worse. b. Correct. Asking the patient what makes their symptoms better is asking about alleviating factors. c. Incorrect. Asking the patient what makes their symptoms better is asking about alleviating factors. Asking about associated symptoms is collecting information on what other symptoms the patient is experiencing. d. Incorrect. Asking the patient what makes their symptoms better is asking about alleviating factors. Asking about the severity of the symptoms does not address what makes the symptoms better.

9. What findings would the provider document during the review of systems? a. Only negative findings b. Only positive findings c. All findings d. No findings ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The provider would document all findings in the review of systems. b. Incorrect. The provider would document all findings in the review of systems. c. Correct. The provider would document all findings in the review of systems. d. Incorrect. The provider would document all findings in the review of systems.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 32: The Medical History and Patient Screening

10. The purpose of obtaining a health history in today’s medical office is to: a. have a basis for all treatment given by the provider and a guide for all future treatment. b. have something to document in the patient’s medical record. c. have information for the insurance company. d. have information for the patient’s personal use.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The purpose of obtaining a health history is to have a basis for all treatment given by the provider and a guide for all future treatment. b. Incorrect. The purpose of obtaining a health history is to have a basis for all treatment given by the provider and a guide for all future treatment. c. Incorrect. The purpose of obtaining a health history is to have a basis for all treatment given by the provider and a guide for all future treatment. d. Incorrect. The purpose of obtaining a health history is to have a basis for all treatment given by the provider and a guide for all future treatment.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 33: Body Measurements and Vital Signs

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 33: BODY MEASUREMENTS AND VITAL SIGNS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Measuring an infant’s head circumference is a type of: a. measuration. b. menstruation. c. mensuration. d. ministration.

ANS: c

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Measuring body measurements is referred to as mensuration. Measuration is not a medical term. b. Incorrect. Measuring body measurements is referred to as mensuration.

Menstruation refers to a woman’s monthly cycle. c. Correct. Measuring body measurements is referred to as mensuration. d. Incorrect. Measuring body measurements is referred to as mensuration. Ministration is not a medical term.

2. Although the height bar is usually recorded in inches, you might need to convert into feet and inches by dividing the number of total inches by: a. 10. b. 12. c. 6. d. 5.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. To convert into feet and inches by dividing the number of total inches by 12. This is because there are 12 inches in a foot. b. Correct. To convert into feet and inches by dividing the number of total inches by 12.

This is because there are 12 inches in a foot.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 33: Body Measurements and Vital Signs

c.

Incorrect. To convert into feet and inches by dividing the number of total inches by 12. This is because there are 12 inches in a foot. d. Incorrect. To convert into feet and inches by dividing the number of total inches by 12. This is because there are 12 inches in a foot.

3. The four vital indicators that measure the body functions essential to life include: a. height, weight, temperature, and pulse. b. temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure. c. temperature, pulse, respiration, and weight. d. height, weight, pulse, and blood pressure.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The four vital indicators are temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure. b. Correct. The four vital indicators are temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure. c. Incorrect. The four vital indicators are temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure. d. Incorrect. The four vital indicators are temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.

4. When measuring the oral temperature using an electronic thermometer, select the following probe: a. green. b. red. c. blue. d. black.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. When measuring the oral temperature using an electronic thermometer, you should select a blue probe. There is no green probe. b. Incorrect. When measuring the oral temperature using an electronic thermometer, you should select a blue probe. A red probe is used for rectal temperature taking. c. Correct. When measuring the oral temperature using an electronic thermometer, you should select a blue probe. d. Incorrect. When measuring the oral temperature using an electronic thermometer, you should select a blue probe. There is no black probe.

5. The radial pulse can be found on the: a. thumb side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the radius bone. b. pinkie side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the ulna bone. c. thumb side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the ulna bone. d. pinkie side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the radius bone.

ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 33: Body Measurements and Vital Signs

Analysis: a. Correct. The radial pulse is located on the thumb side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the radius bone. b. Incorrect. The radial pulse is located on the thumb side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the radius bone. c. Incorrect. The radial pulse is located on the thumb side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the radius bone. d. Incorrect. The radial pulse is located on the thumb side of the inner surface of the wrist, lying over the radius bone.

6. Normal respiration rate in adults is: a. 16–26 times a minute. b. 20–40 times a minute. c. 12–20 times a minute. d. 30–80 times a minute.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The normal respiration rate in adults is 12 to 20 per minute. b. Incorrect. The normal respiration rate in adults is 12 to 20 per minute. c. Correct. The normal respiration rate in adults is 12 to 20 per minute. d. Incorrect. The normal respiration rate in adults is 12 to 20 per minute.

7. The term systole refers to: a. noisy breathing. b. resting phase of the heart. c. contraction phase of the heart. d. absence of breathing.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Systole is the contraction phase of the heart. Stridor is the medical term for noisy breathing. b. Incorrect. Systole is the contraction phase of the heart. Diastole is the resting phase of the heart. c. Correct. Systole is the contraction phase of the heart. d. Incorrect. Systole is the contraction phase of the heart. Apnea is the medical term for absence of breathing.

8. Any blood pressure 140 or higher systolic and over 90 diastolic is considered to be which of the following? a. Normal b. Hypotension c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Stage 2 hypertension ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 33: Body Measurements and Vital Signs

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Blood pressure 140 or higher over 90 or higher indicates stage 2 hypertension. A normal blood pressure is less than 120 mm Hg systolic and a diastolic pressure of less than 80 mm. b. Incorrect. Blood pressure 140 or higher over 90 or higher indicates stage 2 hypertension. A blood pressure consistently below 90/60 indicates hypotension (low blood pressure. c. Incorrect. Blood pressure 140 or higher over 90 or higher indicates stage 2 hypertension. A blood pressure reading with ranges of 130–139 and 80–89 indicates stage 1 hypertension (high blood pressure). d. Correct. Blood pressure 140 or higher over 90 or higher indicates stage 2 hypertension.

9. The normal pulse rate range for an adult is: a. 50–110. b. 60–120. c. 70–130. d. 80–140.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The normal pulse rate for an adult is 60–100 beats per minute. b. Correct. The normal pulse rate for an adult is 60–100 beats per minute. c. Incorrect. The normal pulse rate for an adult is 60–100 beats per minute. d. Incorrect. The normal pulse rate for an adult is 60–100 beats per minute.

10. The average normal oral temperature is: a. 97.6. b. 98.6. c. 99.6. d. 100.6.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The average normal oral temperature is 98.6. b. Correct. The average normal oral temperature is 98.6. c. Incorrect. The average normal oral temperature is 98.6. d. Incorrect. The average normal oral temperature is 98.6.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 34: Preparing for Examinations

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 34: PREPARING FOR EXAMINATIONS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

The primary use of this position is for vaginal examinations when a speculum is inserted, as when obtaining Pap smears. a. Trendelenburg b. lithotomy c. Fowler’s d. Semi-Fowler’s ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is primarily used for vaginal or rectal examinations.

Trendelenburg or shock position, the patient is supine with the feet elevated slightly. b. Correct. The lithotomy position is primarily used for vaginal or rectal examinations. c. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is primarily used for vaginal or rectal examinations.

The Fowler’s position is used for patients with respiratory or cardiovascular problems. d. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is primarily used for vaginal or rectal examinations.

If the patient is resting against the back of the table and it is lowered to a 45degree angle, it is known as the semi-Fowler’s position.

2. These supplies are usually stored in the exam table drawers, whereas other supplies are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet. a. Tongue depressors b. Gauze squares c. Gowns and drapes d. Applicators ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 34: Preparing for Examinations

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Gowns and drapes are usually stored in the table drawers, whereas other supplies are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet. Tongue depressors are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet. b. Incorrect. Gowns and drapes are usually stored in the table drawers, whereas other supplies are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet. Gauze squares are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet. c. Correct. Gowns and drapes are usually stored in the table drawers, whereas other supplies are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet. d. Incorrect. Gowns and drapes are usually stored in the table drawers, whereas other supplies are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet. Applicators are kept in examination cabinet drawers or a supply cabinet.

3. The lateral recumbent position is another term that may be used to describe the following position. a. Sims’ b. Lithotomy c. Supine d. Prone ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The Sims’ position is also called the lateral recumbent position. b. Incorrect. The Sims’ position is also called the lateral recumbent position. The lithotomy position is primarily used for vaginal or rectal examinations. c. Incorrect. The Sims’ position is also called the lateral recumbent position. The supine position is when the patient is lying face up. d. Incorrect. The Sims’ position is also called the lateral recumbent position. The prone position is when the patient is lying face down.

4. Which position would be used if a patient experiences or has symptoms of syncope? a. Prone b. Trendelenburg c. Sims’ d. Anatomical ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Trendelenburg position would be used if a patient experiences or has symptoms of syncope. The prone position is when the patient is lying face down. b. Correct. The Trendelenburg position would be used if a patient experiences or has symptoms of syncope. c. Incorrect. The Trendelenburg position would be used if a patient experiences or has symptoms of syncope. In the Sims’ position, the patient is positioned on his or her left side with the left arm extended behind the body and the right arm flexed upward. d. Incorrect. The Trendelenburg position would be used if a patient experiences or has symptoms of syncope. The anatomical position is when the patient is standing erect.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 34: Preparing for Examinations

5. The horizontal recumbent or supine position is used for examination and treatment of the breasts and abdominal organs and the _____ portion of the body. a. posterior b. superior c. inferior d. anterior ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The horizontal recumbent or supine position is used for examination and treatment of the anterior portion of the body, including the breasts and abdominal organs. The prone position is used to examine the posterior portion of the body. b. Incorrect. The horizontal recumbent or supine position is used for examination and treatment of the anterior portion of the body, including the breasts and abdominal organs. Superior is defined as “toward the head end of the body” and there is not a specific body position used to examine this area. c. Incorrect. The horizontal recumbent or supine position is used for examination and treatment of the anterior portion of the body, including the breasts and abdominal organs. Inferior is defined as “below or away from the head” and there is not a specific body position used to examine this area. d. Correct. The horizontal recumbent or supine position is used for examination and treatment of the anterior portion of the body, including the breasts and abdominal organs.

6. Which position would be used for patients with respiratory or cardiovascular problems? a. Fowler’s b. Prone c. Knee-chest d. Jackknife ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The Fowler’s position is used for patients with respiratory or cardiovascular problems. b. Incorrect. The Fowler’s position is used for patients with respiratory or cardiovascular problems. The prone position is used to examine the spine and structures of the back. c. Incorrect. The Fowler’s position is used for patients with respiratory or cardiovascular problems. The knee-chest position is used for rectal or proctological examinations d. Incorrect. The Fowler’s position is used for patients with respiratory or cardiovascular problems. The jackknife position is especially useful for surgeries related to the rectum, anus, and coccyx, as well as examination and treatment of rectal and anal conditions such as thrombosed and internal hemorrhoids.

7. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, you should always use this safety device. a. Knee brace b. Back harness

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 34: Preparing for Examinations

c. Gait belt d. Hoyer lift ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, you should always use a gait belt. A knee brace is used to support the knee. b. Incorrect. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, you should always use a gait belt. A back harness is used for training dogs. c. Correct. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, you should always use a gait belt. d. Incorrect. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, you should always use a gait belt. A Hoyer lift is used to assist patients from a wheelchair to a bed. These are commonly used in hospitals and nursing homes.

8. Which items/surfaces should be disinfected following a patient examination? a. Surfaces that the patient may have touched b. Cabinets and countertops c. All surfaces within the room that could be contaminated d. Ophthalmoscopes and otoscopes ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. All surfaces within the room that might be potentially contaminated should be disinfected following a patient examination. b. Incorrect. All surfaces within the room that might be potentially contaminated should be disinfected following a patient examination. c. Correct. All surfaces within the room that might be potentially contaminated should be disinfected following a patient examination. d. Incorrect. All surfaces within the room that might be potentially contaminated should be disinfected following a patient examination.

9. When placing the patient in the horizontal recumbent position, you should drape the patient from the: a. chest to the feet. b. neck to the feet. c. waist to the knees. d. waist to the feet.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. In the horizontal recumbent position, you should drape the patient from the neck to the feet. b. Correct. In the horizontal recumbent position, you should drape the patient from the neck to the feet. c. Incorrect. In the horizontal recumbent position, you should drape the patient from the neck to the feet. d. Incorrect. In the horizontal recumbent position, you should drape the patient from the neck to the feet. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 34: Preparing for Examinations

10. Before assisting the patient from the wheelchair or assisting them back into the wheelchair, you need to make sure: a. the patient has their shoes on. b. you have two staff people there to move them. c. the wheels have their locks on. d. the patient puts their feet in the footrests.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Before assisting the patient from the wheelchair or assisting them back into the wheelchair, you need to make sure the wheels have their locks on. It does not matter if the patient is wearing shoes. b. Incorrect. Before assisting the patient from the wheelchair or assisting them back into the wheelchair, you need to make sure the wheels have their locks on. It may be safer to have two staff people there, but the locked wheels are a must. c. Correct. Before assisting the patient from the wheelchair or assisting them back into the wheelchair, you need to make sure the wheels have their locks on. d. Incorrect. Incorrect. Before assisting the patient from the wheelchair or assisting them back into the wheelchair, you need to make sure the wheels have their locks on. It does not matter if the patient has their feet on the footrests.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 35: The Physical Exam

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 35: THE PHYSICAL EXAM

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which examination technique uses a means of producing sounds by tapping various parts of the body? a. Inspection b. Palpation c. Percussion d. Manipulation ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Percussion is the examination technique used as a means of producing sounds by tapping various parts of the body. Inspection is evaluation by the use of sight. b. Incorrect. Percussion is the examination technique used as a means of producing sounds by tapping various parts of the body. Palpation is evaluation using the sense of touch. c. Correct. Percussion is the examination technique used as a means of producing sounds by tapping various parts of the body. d. Incorrect. Percussion is the examination technique used as a means of producing sounds by tapping various parts of the body. Manipulation is the passive movement of a joint to determine the range of extension and flexion.

2. Which examination technique must be used to detect sounds, including bruits, murmurs, rales, rhythms, and bowel sounds? a. Auscultation b. Inspection c. Mensuration d. Percussion ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 35: The Physical Exam

Analysis: a. Correct. Auscultation is used to detect sounds, including bruits, murmurs, rales, rhythms, and bowel sounds. b. Incorrect. Auscultation is used to detect sounds, including bruits, murmurs, rales, rhythms, and bowel sounds. Inspection is evaluation by the use of sight. c. Incorrect. Auscultation is used to detect sounds, including bruits, murmurs, rales, rhythms, and bowel sounds. Mensuration means measurement. d. Incorrect. Auscultation is used to detect sounds, including bruits, murmurs, rales, rhythms, and bowel sounds. Percussion is a means of producing sounds by tapping various parts of the body.

3. How many days following the start of the menstrual cycle is the breast examination best completed? a. 21–28 b. 7–10 c. 5–10 d. 7–14 ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The breast examination is best done 7–10 days following the start of the menstrual cycle of menstruating women. b. Correct. The breast examination is best done 7–10 days following the start of the menstrual cycle of menstruating women. c. Incorrect. The breast examination is best done 7–10 days following the start of the menstrual cycle of menstruating women. d. Incorrect. The breast examination is best done 7–10 days following the start of the menstrual cycle of menstruating women.

4. At what age should men begin a routine testicular self-examination? a. 12 b. 15 c. 16 d. 18 ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Males past puberty should be instructed in testicular self-examination (TSE). b. Correct. Males past puberty should be instructed in testicular self-examination (TSE). c. Incorrect. Males past puberty should be instructed in testicular self-examination (TSE). d. Incorrect. Males past puberty should be instructed in testicular self-examination (TSE).

5. The term is given to the medical assistant who writes what the provider dictates during the examination. a. Documenter b. Dictator c. Scribe d. Screener ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 35: The Physical Exam

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The term given to the medical assistant who writes what the provider dictates during the examination is scribe. b. Incorrect. The term given to the medical assistant who writes what the provider dictates during the examination is scribe. c. Correct. The term given to the medical assistant who writes what the provider dictates during the examination is scribe. d. Incorrect. The term given to the medical assistant who writes what the provider dictates during the examination is scribe.

6. The manner of walking in which balance and the evidence of pain is evaluated is known as: a. shuffle. b. gait. c. balance. d. manipulation.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The manner of walking in which balance and the evidence of pain is evaluated is known as gait. b. Correct. The manner of walking in which balance and the evidence of pain is evaluated is known as gait. c. Incorrect. The manner of walking in which balance and the evidence of pain is evaluated is known as gait. d. Incorrect. The manner of walking in which balance and the evidence of pain is evaluated is known as gait.

7. Which instrument is used to get a good visual of the ears? a. Ophthalmoscope b. Stethoscope c. Otoscope d. Tympanoscope ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The otoscope is an instrument designed for visual examination of the eardrum and the passage of the outer ear. The ophthalmoscope is an instrument for inspecting the retina and other parts of the eye. b. Incorrect. The otoscope is an instrument designed for visual examination of the eardrum and the passage of the outer ear. The stethoscope is a medical instrument for listening to the action of someone's heart or breathing c. Correct. The otoscope is an instrument designed for visual examination of the eardrum and the passage of the outer ear. d. Incorrect. The otoscope is an instrument designed for visual examination of the eardrum and the passage of the outer ear. There is no tool called a tympanoscope.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 35: The Physical Exam

8. By tapping on various parts of the body the provider can check the patient’s: a. heart murmur. b. gait. c. coordination. d. reflexes.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. By tapping on various parts of the body the provider is able to check reflexes. b. Incorrect. By tapping on various parts of the body the provider is able to check reflexes. c. Incorrect. By tapping on various parts of the body the provider is able to check reflexes. d. Correct. By tapping on various parts of the body the provider is able to check reflexes.

9. Which of the following does a provider make based on the patient’s health history, symptoms, examination findings, procedures, and lab tests? a. Assessment b. Plan c. Follow-up d. Appointment ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A provider makes a plan based on the patient’s health history, symptoms, examination findings, procedures and lab tests. The assessment is the examination itself. b. Correct. A provider makes a plan based on the patient’s health history, symptoms, examination findings, procedures and lab tests. c. Incorrect. A provider makes a plan based on the patient’s health history, symptoms, examination findings, procedures and lab tests. A follow up refers to checking in on the patient after a service or procedure. d. Incorrect. A provider makes a plan based on the patient’s health history, symptoms, examination findings, procedures and lab tests. An appointment refers to making an appointment for further care.

10. In the sequence of a physical examination, HEENT is the abbreviation for: a. Heart, Eyes, Ears, Neck, and Throat b. Head, Eyes, Ears, Neck, and Tongue c. Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat d. Head, Eyes, Extremities, Nose, and Throat ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. In the sequence of a physical examination, HEENT is the abbreviation for head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 35: The Physical Exam

b. Incorrect. In the sequence of a physical examination, HEENT is the abbreviation for head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat. c. Correct. In the sequence of a physical examination, HEENT is the abbreviation for head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat. d. Incorrect. In the sequence of a physical examination, HEENT is the abbreviation for head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 36: Specialty Examinations and Procedures

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 36: SPECIALTY EXAMINATIONS AND PROCEDURES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

The Rinne and Weber tests are performed by using which piece of equipment? a. Ophthalmoscope b. Otoscope c. Audiometer d. Tuning fork ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Rinne and Weber tests are performed using a tuning fork. An ophthalmoscope is used to detect and evaluate symptoms of retinal detachment or eye diseases such as glaucoma. b. Incorrect. The Rinne and Weber tests are performed using a tuning fork. During an ear exam, a tool called an otoscope is used to look at the outer ear canal and eardrum. c. Incorrect. The Rinne and Weber tests are performed using a tuning fork. An audiometer is a machine used for evaluating hearing acuity. d. Correct. The Rinne and Weber tests are performed using a tuning fork.

2. You would most likely document a vision screening for distance vision using the _______ eye chart. a. Jaeger b. Snellen c. Ishihara d. Pelli-Robson ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A Snellen test is most commonly used for screening distance vision. A Jaeger test is used to screen for near vision acuity. b. Correct. A Snellen test is most commonly used for screening distance vision.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 36: Specialty Examinations and Procedures

c.

Incorrect. A Snellen test is most commonly used for screening distance vision. The Ishihara color plates book, which screens patients for defects in distinguishing color vision acuity. d. Incorrect. A Snellen test is most commonly used for screening distance vision. The Pelli-Robson contrast sensitivity chart measures contrast sensitivity by determining the faintest contrast an observer can see.

3. Which of the following devices are used to measure the capacity of the lungs? a. Spirometer b. Peak flow c. Tuning fork d. Audiometry ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The spirometer is used to measure the capacity of the lungs. b. Incorrect. The spirometer is used to measure the capacity of the lungs. Peak flow testing measures a patient’s ability to exhale. c. Incorrect. The spirometer is used to measure the capacity of the lungs. A tuning fork is used to test the patient’s hearing. d. Incorrect. The spirometer is used to measure the capacity of the lungs. An audiometry tests hearing.

4. In the diagnosis of ulcerations, polyps, tumors, bleeding, cancer of the colon, and other lower intestinal disorders, the examination of the interior of the sigmoid colon can be done using a: a. proctoscope. b. rectal speculum. c. rectal snare. d. sigmoidoscope.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The sigmoidoscope is used to examination of the interior of the sigmoid colon. The proctoscope permits viewing of the anal canal and lower rectal area when sigmoidoscopy is not necessary. b. Incorrect. The sigmoidoscope is used to examination of the interior of the sigmoid colon. The rectal speculum allows viewing of the anal canal and rectum. c. Incorrect. The sigmoidoscope is used to examination of the interior of the sigmoid colon. There is no medical tool known as a rectal snare. d. Correct. The sigmoidoscope is used to examination of the interior of the sigmoid colon.

5. Which of the following is used to screen hearing in both adults and children? a. Otoscope b. Ophthalmoscope c. Audiometer d. Tympanometer ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 36: Specialty Examinations and Procedures

Analysis: a. Incorrect. An audiometer is an instrument that measures one’s hearing. An otoscope is used to look inside the ear canal. b. Incorrect. An audiometer is an instrument that measures one’s hearing. An ophthalmoscope is an instrument used to examine the internal structures of the eye. c. Correct. An audiometer is an instrument that measures one’s hearing. d. Incorrect. An audiometer is an instrument that measures one’s hearing. There is no equipment known as a tympanometer.

6. Peak flow testing measures the patient’s ability to do what? a. Urinate b. Read c. Digest food d. Exhale ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Peak flow testing measures a patient’s ability to exhale. b. Incorrect. Peak flow testing measures a patient’s ability to exhale. c. Incorrect. Peak flow testing measures a patient’s ability to exhale. d. Correct. Peak flow testing measures a patient’s ability to exhale.

7. Testing for color vision deficiency is done using a method known as: a. Rinne and Weber. b. tympanometry. c. Ishihara. d. Snellen.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Ishihara test is used to test for color blindness. The Rinne and Weber test is used to test hearing. b. Incorrect. The Ishihara test is used to test for color blindness. A tympanometry is a procedure that determines the ability of the middle ear to transmit sound waves. c. Correct. The Ishihara test is used to test for color blindness. d. Incorrect. The Ishihara test is used to test for color blindness. The Snellen test measures distance vision.

8. The purpose of pulse oximetry is to measure the: a. glucose level in the blood. b. blood flow in the heart. c. oxygen saturation in the blood. d. capacity of the lungs.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A pulse oximetry is used to measure the oxygen saturation in the blood. b. Incorrect. A pulse oximetry is used to measure the oxygen saturation in the blood.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 36: Specialty Examinations and Procedures

c. Correct. A pulse oximetry is used to measure the oxygen saturation in the blood. d. Incorrect. A pulse oximetry is used to measure the oxygen saturation in the blood.

9. The neurological assessment of a diabetic foot exam includes a monofilament test which consists of: a. poking the bottom of the foot with a pinwheel. b. holding a tuning fork against the foot to check for vibration sensitivity. c. tapping the bottom of the foot with a reflex hammer. d. brushing a small nylon fiber brush against the foot.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The neurological assessment of a diabetic foot exam includes a monofilament test which consists of brushing a small nylon fiber brush against the foot. b. Incorrect. The neurological assessment of a diabetic foot exam includes a monofilament test which consists of brushing a small nylon fiber brush against the foot. c. Incorrect. The neurological assessment of a diabetic foot exam includes a monofilament test which consists of brushing a small nylon fiber brush against the foot. d. Correct. The neurological assessment of a diabetic foot exam includes a monofilament test which consists of brushing a small nylon fiber brush against the foot.

10. The process of attempting to soothe tissues, relieve inflammation, and remove foreign objects and discharge from the eye is done by: a. sweeping the inside of the eye with a cotton swab. b. irrigating the eye with a saline solution. c. adding hydrogen peroxide drops to the eye. d. covering the eye with an eye patch.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The process of attempting to soothe tissues, relieve inflammation, and remove foreign objects and discharge from the eye is done by irrigating the eye with a saline solution. b. Correct. The process of attempting to soothe tissues, relieve inflammation, and remove foreign objects and discharge from the eye is done by irrigating the eye with a saline solution. c. Incorrect. The process of attempting to soothe tissues, relieve inflammation, and remove foreign objects and discharge from the eye is done by irrigating the eye with a saline solution. d. Incorrect. The process of attempting to soothe tissues, relieve inflammation, and remove foreign objects and discharge from the eye is done by irrigating the eye with a saline solution.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 37: OB/GYN Examinations

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 37: OB/GYN EXAMINATIONS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

How many weeks after delivery is the recommended first postpartum evaluation for a patient who did not have complications during birth? a. 1 week b. 3 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 12 weeks ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. To check in early in case there are any issues, the first checkup should be within three weeks of delivery. b. Correct. To check in early in case there are any issues, the first checkup should be within three weeks of delivery. c. C, Incorrect. To check in early in case there are any issues, the first checkup should be within three weeks of delivery. d. Incorrect. To check in early in case there are any issues, the first checkup should be within three weeks of delivery.

2. The system most widely used to describe Pap test findings is the Bethesda system, which reports the test results by using ____________ general categories. a. three b. two c. four d. six ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The system most widely used to describe Pap test findings is the Bethesda system, which reports the test results by using three general categories.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 37: OB/GYN Examinations

b. Incorrect. The system most widely used to describe Pap test findings is the Bethesda system, which reports the test results by using three general categories. c. Incorrect. The system most widely used to describe Pap test findings is the Bethesda system, which reports the test results by using three general categories. d. Incorrect. The system most widely used to describe Pap test findings is the Bethesda system, which reports the test results by using three general categories.

3. In which trimester of pregnancy do extreme tiredness, mood swings, constipation, and headaches occur? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. In the first trimester of pregnancy, extreme tiredness, mood swings, constipation, and headaches may occur. b. Incorrect. In the first trimester of pregnancy, extreme tiredness, mood swings, constipation, and headaches may occur. In the second trimester of pregnancy, body aches and stretch marks may occur. c. Incorrect. In the first trimester of pregnancy, extreme tiredness, mood swings, constipation, and headaches may occur. In the third trimester of pregnancy, heartburn and trouble sleeping may occur. d. Incorrect. In the first trimester of pregnancy, extreme tiredness, mood swings, constipation, and headaches may occur. In the third trimester of pregnancy, heartburn and trouble sleeping may occur.

4. During the 24th to 28th week of gestation, what blood test is obtained from the patient? a. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) b. glucose tolerance test c. HIV d. Hepatitis ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A glucose tolerance test may be performed between 24 to 28 weeks of gestation. An Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test is typically done between 15-20 weeks. b. Correct. A glucose tolerance test may be performed between 24 to 28 weeks of gestation. c. Incorrect. A glucose tolerance test may be performed between 24 to 28 weeks of gestation. An HIV test is typically done at the initial prenatal visit. d. Incorrect. A glucose tolerance test may be performed between 24 to 28 weeks of gestation. A hepatitis test is typically done at the prenatal visit.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 37: OB/GYN Examinations

5. Using Naegele’s rule, the period of gestation (conception to birth) is determined by using the: a. first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting three months, and then adding seven days plus one year. b. last day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting three months, and then adding seven days plus one year. c. first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting nine months, and then adding seven days plus one year. d. last day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting two months, and then adding seven days plus one year.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Using Naegele’s rule, the period of gestation (conception to birth) is determined by using the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting three months, and then adding seven days plus one year. b. Incorrect. Using Naegele’s rule, the period of gestation (conception to birth) is determined by using the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting three months, and then adding seven days plus one year. c. Incorrect. Using Naegele’s rule, the period of gestation (conception to birth) is determined by using the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting three months, and then adding seven days plus one year. d. Incorrect. Using Naegele’s rule, the period of gestation (conception to birth) is determined by using the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting three months, and then adding seven days plus one year.

6. An ultrasound performed in combination with a stress test that looks at the baby’s breathing, movement, muscle tone, heart rate, and the amount of amniotic fluid is known as what? a. Amniocentesis b. Biophysical profile (BPP) c. First trimester screen d. Maternal serum screen ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A biophysical profile (BPP) is an ultrasound performed in combination with a stress test that looks at the baby’s breathing, movement, muscle tone, heart rate, and the amount of amniotic fluid. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used primarily in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections, as well as for sex determination. In this procedure, a small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is sampled from the amniotic sac surrounding a developing fetus. b. Correct. A biophysical profile (BPP) is an ultrasound performed in combination with a stress test that looks at the baby’s breathing, movement, muscle tone, heart rate, and the amount of amniotic fluid. c. Incorrect. A biophysical profile (BPP) is an ultrasound performed in combination with a stress test that looks at the baby’s breathing, movement, muscle tone, heart rate, and the amount of amniotic fluid. First trimester screening is a prenatal test that © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 37: OB/GYN Examinations

offers early information about a baby's risk of certain chromosomal conditions, specifically, Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and extra sequences of chromosome 18 (trisomy 18). d. Incorrect. A biophysical profile (BPP) is an ultrasound performed in combination with a stress test that looks at the baby’s breathing, movement, muscle tone, heart rate, and the amount of amniotic fluid. Maternal serum screening, or the multiple marker test, measures several substances in the blood of a pregnant woman in the second trimester of pregnancy.

7. Patients who may be at risk of their cervix opening before their baby is ready to be born may need to have a procedure performed known as a(n): a. ultrasound. b. nonstress test (NST). c. cervical cerclage. d. amniocentesis.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Patients who may be at risk of their cervix opening before their baby is ready to be born may need to have a procedure known as cervical cerclage. An ultrasound is an imaging test that uses sound waves to create a picture. b. Incorrect. Patients who may be at risk of their cervix opening before their baby is ready to be born may need to have a procedure known as cervical cerclage. A nonstress test is used to assess fetal status by means of the fetal heart rate and its responsiveness. c. Correct. Patients who may be at risk of their cervix opening before their baby is ready to be born may need to have a procedure known as cervical cerclage. d. Incorrect. Patients who may be at risk of their cervix opening before their baby is ready to be born may need to have a procedure known as cervical cerclage.

Amniocentesis is a procedure in which amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus for testing or treatment.

8. Which of the following are two reasons the medical assistant should accompany the provider when a pelvic exam is performed? a. To keep the patient company and assist the provider b. To assist the provider with the procedure and for legal and safety reasons c. To obtain the specimen and for legal reasons d. To document any concerns and for safety reasons ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The medical assistant should accompany the provider to assist the provider and for legal and safety reasons. b. Correct. The medical assistant should accompany the provider to assist the provider and for legal and safety reasons. c. Incorrect. The medical assistant should accompany the provider to assist the provider and for legal and safety reasons. d. Incorrect. The medical assistant should accompany the provider to assist the provider and for legal and safety reasons.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 37: OB/GYN Examinations

9. The term used to describe how many pregnancies a patient has had is known as: a. para. b. gestation. c. gravida. d. trimester.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The term used to describe how many pregnancies a patient has had is known as gravida. Para refers to the number of live births the patient has had. b. Incorrect. The term used to describe how many pregnancies a patient has had is known as gravida. Gestation refers to the duration of the pregnancy. c. Correct. The term used to describe how many pregnancies a patient has had is known as gravida. d. Incorrect. The term used to describe how many pregnancies a patient has had is known as gravida. Pregnancy is divided into three trimesters.

10. Measuring the height of the fundus of a pregnant patient consists of: a. measuring from the belly button to the bottom of the uterus. b. measuring from the symphysis pubis to the bottom of the uterus. c. measuring from the belly button to the top of the uterus. d. measuring from the symphysis pubis to the top of the uterus.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Measuring the height of the fundus of a pregnant patient consists of measuring from the symphysis pubis to the bottom of the uterus. b. Correct. Measuring the height of the fundus of a pregnant patient consists of measuring from the symphysis pubis to the bottom of the uterus. c. Incorrect. Measuring the height of the fundus of a pregnant patient consists of measuring from the symphysis pubis to the bottom of the uterus. d. Incorrect. Measuring the height of the fundus of a pregnant patient consists of measuring from the symphysis pubis to the bottom of the uterus.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 38: Pediatric Examinations

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 38: PEDIATRIC EXAMINATIONS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

At what age will the infant begin the immunization schedule? a. 2 weeks b. 2 months c. 6 weeks d. 1 day ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Infants begin the immunization schedule at 2 months. b. Correct. Infants begin the immunization schedule at 2 months. c. Incorrect. Infants begin the immunization schedule at 2 months. d. Incorrect. Infants begin the immunization schedule at 2 months.

2. Failure to thrive is defined as an infant or young child who is below the _______ percentile on standardized growth charts. a. third b. fifth c. seventh d. tenth ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Failure to thrive is defined as an infant or young child who is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts. b. Incorrect. Failure to thrive is defined as an infant or young child who is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts. c. Incorrect. Failure to thrive is defined as an infant or young child who is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts. d. Incorrect. Failure to thrive is defined as an infant or young child who is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 38: Pediatric Examinations

3. Which of the following describes the lack of or withholding of care? a. Failure to thrive b. Abuse c. Malnutrition d. Neglect ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Neglect describes the lack of or withholding of care. An infant or young child who is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts is said to have a failure to thrive. b. Incorrect. Neglect describes the lack of or withholding of care. Abuse refers to inflicting emotional, physical, or sexual injury. c. Incorrect. Neglect describes the lack of or withholding of care. Malnutrition refers to not eating enough food to survive. d. Correct. Neglect describes the lack of or withholding of care.

4. Up until what age would you record the head circumference measurement? a. 12 months b. 24 months c. 36 months d. 48 months ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The head circumference measurement is taken up to 36 months of age. b. Incorrect. The head circumference measurement is taken up to 36 months of age. c. Correct. The head circumference measurement is taken up to 36 months of age. d. Incorrect. The head circumference measurement is taken up to 36 months of age.

5. Which measurement is taken and recorded in the patient’s record but not on the growth chart? a. Head circumference b. Chest circumference c. Height d. Weight ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Chest circumference is taken and recorded in the patient’s record but not on the growth chart. b. Correct. Chest circumference is taken and recorded in the patient’s record but not on the growth chart. c. Incorrect. Chest circumference is taken and recorded in the patient’s record but not on the growth chart. d. Incorrect. Chest circumference is taken and recorded in the patient’s record but not on the growth chart.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 38: Pediatric Examinations

6. The kindergarten version of the Snellen chart uses: a. signs and symbols. b. the capital letter E. c. letters. d. numbers.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The kindergarten version of the Snellen chart uses the capital letter E. b. Correct. The kindergarten version of the Snellen chart uses the capital letter E. c. Incorrect. The kindergarten version of the Snellen chart uses the capital letter E. d. Incorrect. The kindergarten version of the Snellen chart uses the capital letter E. 7. When using the growth chart, each month is represented by a: a. dot. b. square. c. line. d. circle.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. When using the growth chart, each month is represented by a dot. b. Incorrect. When using the growth chart, each month is represented by a dot. c. Incorrect. When using the growth chart, each month is represented by a dot. d. Incorrect. When using the growth chart, each month is represented by a dot.

8. A child will begin to vocalize when talked to at which of the following ages? a. Birth to 1 month b. 2 to 4 months c. 4 to 6 months d. 6 to 8 months ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A child will begin to vocalize when talked to between 4 to 6 months of age. b. Correct. A child will begin to vocalize when talked to between 4 to 6 months of age. c. Incorrect. A child will begin to vocalize when talked to between 4 to 6 months of age. d. Incorrect. A child will begin to vocalize when talked to between 4 to 6 months of age.

9. Which of the following is outside the scope of practice for a medical assistant during a pediatric exam? a. Documenting information b. Gathering data c. Examining the patient d. Alerting the provider of a suspicion of child neglect ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 38: Pediatric Examinations

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Examining the patient is outside the scope of practice for a medical assistant during a pediatric exam. The medical assistant can document information. b. Incorrect. Examining the patient is outside the scope of practice for a medical assistant during a pediatric exam. The medical assistant can gather data. c. Correct. Examining the patient is outside the scope of practice for a medical assistant during a pediatric exam. d. Incorrect. Examining the patient is outside the scope of practice for a medical assistant during a pediatric exam. The medical assistant can alert the provider of a suspicion of child neglect.

10. The Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT) program is a comprehensive and preventative child healthcare program provided for: a. Medicaid patients ages birth to 21. b. Medicare patients ages birth to 21. c. Medigap patients ages birth to 21. d. medical patients ages birth to 21.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT) program is a comprehensive and preventative child healthcare program provided for Medicaid patients ages birth to 21. b. Incorrect. The Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT) program is a comprehensive and preventative child healthcare program provided for Medicaid patients ages birth to 21. c. Incorrect. The Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT) program is a comprehensive and preventative child healthcare program provided for Medicaid patients ages birth to 21. d. Incorrect. The Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT) program is a comprehensive and preventative child healthcare program provided for Medicaid patients ages birth to 21.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 39: Geriatrics

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 39: GERIATRICS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Symptoms of confusion, forgetfulness, guilt, anger, and loneliness are considered __________. a. physical. b. cognitive. c. psychological. d. chemical.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Symptoms of confusion, forgetfulness, guilt, anger, and loneliness are considered psychological. Physical changes occur throughout the life span, and as we age, all body systems experience some changes. b. Incorrect. Symptoms of confusion, forgetfulness, guilt, anger, and loneliness are considered psychological. Cognitive changes are a normal process in aging.

Conceptual and perceptual reasoning, memory, and processing speed tend to decline gradually over time. c. Correct. Symptoms of confusion, forgetfulness, guilt, anger, and loneliness are considered psychological. d. Incorrect. Symptoms of confusion, forgetfulness, guilt, anger, and loneliness are considered psychological.

2. Which of the following conditions is described by the bladder muscles and pelvic floor weakening, causing the inability to hold your urine? a. Incontinence b. UTI c. Insomnia d. Impotence ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 39: Geriatrics

Analysis: a. Correct. Incontinence is described as the bladder muscles and pelvic floor weakening, causing the inability to hold your urine. b. Incorrect. Incontinence is described as the bladder muscles and pelvic floor weakening, causing the inability to hold your urine. A UTI is a urinary tract infection. c. Incorrect. Incontinence is described as the bladder muscles and pelvic floor weakening, causing the inability to hold your urine. Insomnia is the inability to sleep. d. Incorrect. Incontinence is described as the bladder muscles and pelvic floor weakening, causing the inability to hold your urine. Impotence is the inability to obtain an erection.

3. Cognitive changes in the older adult cause a decline in the skill to think and reason using pictorial information which is known as: a. conceptual reasoning. b. deductive reasoning. c. perceptual reasoning. d. causal reasoning.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cognitive changes in the older adult cause a decline in the skill to think and reason using pictorial information, which is known as perceptual reasoning.

Conceptual reasoning means ways of thinking that include problem-solving and analysis. b. Incorrect. Cognitive changes in the older adult cause a decline in the skill to think and reason using pictorial information, which is known as perceptual reasoning.

Deductive reasoning is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. c. Correct. Cognitive changes in the older adult cause a decline in the skill to think and reason using pictorial information, which is known as perceptual reasoning. d. Incorrect. Cognitive changes in the older adult cause a decline in the skill to think and reason using pictorial information, which is known as perceptual reasoning.

Causal reasoning is the process of identifying causality: the relationship between a cause and its effect.

4. A common sign of aging in the endocrine system is: a. levels of most hormones increase. b. weight loss. c. diabetes is less prevalent. d. weight gain.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Weight gain is a common sign of aging in the endocrine system. Levels of hormones decrease. b. Incorrect. Weight gain is a common sign of aging in the endocrine system. c. Incorrect. Weight gain is a common sign of aging in the endocrine system. Diabetes is more prevalent. d. Correct. Weight gain is a common sign of aging in the endocrine system.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 39: Geriatrics

5. An 85-year-old patient arrives for a new patient appointment with your provider. What adaptive measures should you take upon his arrival? a. Communicate directly to his son who is accompanying him. b. Speak loudly and help the patient ambulate. c. Ask the patient what type, if any, assistance is needed. d. Read patient education material and orders to the patient.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. You should ask the patient what type, if any, assistance is needed. You would not assume his son speaks for the patient. b. Incorrect. You should ask the patient what type, if any, assistance is needed. You would not assume the patient cannot hear well. c. Correct. You should ask the patient what type, if any, assistance is needed. d. Incorrect. You should ask the patient what type, if any, assistance is needed. You would not assume the patient cannot see well enough to read for himself.

6. Which of the following is the leading cause of injuries in older patients? a. Car accidents b. Falls c. Exercising d. Acts of violence ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The leading cause of injuries in older patients is falls. b. Correct. The leading cause of injuries in older patients is falls. c. Incorrect. The leading cause of injuries in older patients is falls. d. Incorrect. The leading cause of injuries in older patients is falls.

7. A common mood disorder affecting how you feel, think, and go about your daily activities including sleeping, eating, and working is known as: a. delirium. b. anxiety. c. depression. d. hypertension.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A common mood disorder affecting how you feel, think, and go about your daily activities, including sleeping, eating, and working, is known as depression.

Delirium is an abrupt change in the brain that causes mental confusion and emotional disruption. b. Incorrect. A common mood disorder affecting how you feel, think, and go about your daily activities, including sleeping, eating, and working, is known as depression.

Anxiety is a feeling of fear, dread, and uneasiness. c. Correct. A common mood disorder affecting how you feel, think, and go about your daily activities, including sleeping, eating, and working, is known as depression.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 39: Geriatrics

d. Incorrect. A common mood disorder affecting how you feel, think, and go about your daily activities, including sleeping, eating, and working, is known as depression.

Hypertension is high blood pressure.

8. A common issue in older adults is taking five or more medications at a time. This is known as: a. multi-pharmacy. b. nonpharmacy. c. duo pharmacy. d. polypharmacy.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The issue of older adults taking five or more medications at a time is known as polypharmacy. b. Incorrect. The issue of older adults taking five or more medications at a time is known as polypharmacy. c. Incorrect. The issue of older adults taking five or more medications at a time is known as polypharmacy. d. Correct. The issue of older adults taking five or more medications at a time is known as polypharmacy.

9. Alzheimer’s disease commonly causes: a. stroke b. hypertension c. dementia d. blindness ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease commonly causes dementia. b. Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease commonly causes dementia. c. Correct. Alzheimer’s disease commonly causes dementia. d. Incorrect. Alzheimer’s disease commonly causes dementia.

10. In which type of facility is nursing care available 24 hours a day for the patients as well as other therapies such as occupational and physical therapies? a. Independent care b. Senior housing c. Assisted living d. Long-term care ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Long-term care facilities have nursing care available 24 hours a day for the patients, as well as other therapies such as occupational and physical therapies.

Independent care is for patients who can live independently.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 39: Geriatrics

b. Incorrect. Long-term care facilities have nursing care available 24 hours a day for the patients, as well as other therapies such as occupational and physical therapies.

Senior housing is for patients who can live independently. c. Incorrect. Long-term care facilities have nursing care available 24 hours a day for the patients, as well as other therapies such as occupational and physical therapies.

Assisted living facilities are designed for older adults who need various levels of medical and or personal care. d. Correct. Long-term care facilities have nursing care available 24 hours a day for the patients, as well as other therapies such as occupational and physical therapies.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 40: Mental Health

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 40: MENTAL HEALTH

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

A patient has a pattern of overeating, then forcing themselves to throw up, and often takes laxatives. Which condition best matches these symptoms? a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Binge eating d. Stress eating ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by forcing oneself to throw up after eating, as well as fasting, overexercising, and misusing medications such as laxatives. Anorexia nervosa is a disorder in which one severely limits how much they eat and feels terrified of gaining weight or “getting fat.” b. Correct. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by forcing oneself to throw up after eating, as well as fasting, overexercising, and misusing medications such as laxatives. c. Incorrect. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by forcing oneself to throw up after eating, as well as fasting, overexercising, and misusing medications such as laxatives. Binge eating disorder involves eating a very high volume of food in a short period of time. d. Incorrect. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by forcing oneself to throw up after eating, as well as fasting, overexercising, and misusing medications such as laxatives. Stress eating is a type of emotional eating that’s triggered specifically by stress.

2. When discussing sensitive topics with patients, which of the following tips would be most helpful? a. Use your own judgement to decide how the patient must be feeling. b. Use general questions so the patient doesn’t feel they are being interrogated. c. Wait for them to discuss or bring up any topics. d. Ask specific questions.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 40: Mental Health

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Asking for facts rather than judgments is very important, and asking specific questions rather than general ones will make it easier for the patient to respond and not hedge on their answers. b. Incorrect. Asking for facts rather than judgments is very important, and asking specific questions rather than general ones will make it easier for the patient to respond and not hedge on their answers. c. Incorrect. Asking for facts rather than judgments is very important, and asking specific questions rather than general ones will make it easier for the patient to respond and not hedge on their answers. d. Correct. Asking for facts rather than judgments is very important, and asking specific questions rather than general ones will make it easier for the patient to respond and not hedge on their answers.

3. Which of the following screening tools is used to screen for anxiety? a. GAD-7 b. PHQ-2 c. PHQ-9 d. MDQ ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The GAD-7 is (for anxiety), the PHQ-2 and PHQ-9 are (for depression), and the MDQ is (for bipolar disorder). b. Incorrect. The GAD-7 is (for anxiety), the PHQ-2 and PHQ-9 are (for depression), and the MDQ is (for bipolar disorder). c. Incorrect. The GAD-7 is (for anxiety), the PHQ-2 and PHQ-9 are (for depression), and the MDQ is (for bipolar disorder). d. Incorrect. The GAD-7 is (for anxiety), the PHQ-2 and PHQ-9 are (for depression), and the MDQ is (for bipolar disorder).

4. What mental health category describes all forms of depression or bipolar disorders likely caused by chemical imbalance in the brain? a. Anxiety disorders b. Psychotic disorders c. Personality disorders d. Mood disorders ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Mood disorder is the mental health category that describes all forms of depression or bipolar disorder, likely caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain. b. Incorrect. Mood disorder is the mental health category that describes all forms of depression or bipolar disorder, likely caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain. c. Incorrect. Mood disorder is the mental health category that describes all forms of depression or bipolar disorders, likely caused by chemical imbalance in the brain. d. Correct. Mood disorder is the mental health category that describes all forms of depression or bipolar disorders, likely caused by chemical imbalance in the brain.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 40: Mental Health

5. Which of the following mental health disorders do researchers think is primarily caused by genetics? a. Depression b. Anxiety c. Schizophrenia d. PTSD ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Researchers believe schizophrenia is primarily caused by genetics. b. Incorrect. Researchers believe schizophrenia is primarily caused by genetics. c. Correct. Researchers believe schizophrenia is primarily caused by genetics. d. Incorrect. Researchers believe schizophrenia is primarily caused by genetics.

6. Treatments such as behavioral counseling, medications, and medical devices and applications used to treat withdrawal symptoms or deliver skills training are used to treat _____ disorders. a. mood b. anxiety c. eating d. substance abuse ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Treatments such as behavioral counseling, medications, and medical devices and applications used to treat withdrawal symptoms or deliver skills training are used to treat substance abuse. b. Incorrect. Treatments such as behavioral counseling, medications, and medical devices and applications used to treat withdrawal symptoms or deliver skills training are used to treat substance abuse. c. Incorrect. Treatments such as behavioral counseling, medications, and medical devices and applications used to treat withdrawal symptoms or deliver skills training are used to treat substance abuse. d. Correct. Treatments such as behavioral counseling, medications, and medical devices and applications used to treat withdrawal symptoms or deliver skills training are used to treat substance abuse.

7. Short-term stress can cause: a. increase in heart rate, breathing, and thinking skills. b. decrease in heart rate, digestion, and thinking skills. c. increase in heart rate, breathing, and digestion. d. decrease in immunity, digestion, and thinking skills.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Short-term stress can cause an increase in heart rate, breathing, and thinking skills. b. Incorrect. Short-term stress can cause an increase in heart rate, breathing, and thinking skills. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 40: Mental Health

c.

Incorrect. Short-term stress can cause an increase in heart rate, breathing, and thinking skills. d. Incorrect. Short-term stress can cause an increase in heart rate, breathing, and thinking skills.

8. How many adults living with serious mental health disorders also have a substance use disorder in the United States? a. One in two b. One in three c. One in four d. One in five ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. One in four adults living with serious mental health disorders also has a substance use disorder in the U.S. b. Incorrect. One in four adults living with serious mental health disorders also has a substance use disorder in the U.S. c. Correct. One in four adults living with serious mental health disorders also has a substance use disorder in the U.S. d. Incorrect. One in four adults living with serious mental health disorders also has a substance use disorder in the U.S. 9. Traumas, such as military combat, being involved in life-threatening incident, or being the victim of a violent crime, are most commonly known to cause: a. depression. b. PTSD. c. schizophrenia. d. schizoaffective disorder.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Traumas, such as military combat, being involved in a life-threatening incident, or being the victim of a violent crime, are most commonly known to cause PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder). There are many causes for depression. b. Correct. Traumas, such as military combat, being involved in a life-threatening incident, or being the victim of a violent crime, are most commonly known to cause PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder). c. Incorrect. Traumas, such as military combat, being involved in a life-threatening incident, or being the victim of a violent crime, are most commonly known to cause PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder). It's not known what causes schizophrenia, but researchers believe that it is a combination of genetics, brain chemistry, and environment. d. Incorrect. Traumas, such as military combat, being involved in a life-threatening incident, or being the victim of a violent crime, are most commonly known to cause PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder). Schizoaffective disorder tends to be genetic.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 40: Mental Health

10. LSD, PCP, Ketamine, Psilocybin (magic mushrooms), and Ecstasy are examples of which of: a. stimulants. b. opiates. c. hallucinogens. d. sedatives.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. LSD, PCP, Ketamine, Psilocybin (magic mushrooms), and Ecstasy are examples of hallucinogens. b. Incorrect. LSD, PCP, Ketamine, Psilocybin (magic mushrooms), and Ecstasy are examples of hallucinogens. c. Correct. LSD, PCP, Ketamine, Psilocybin (magic mushrooms), and Ecstasy are examples of hallucinogens. d. Incorrect. LSD, PCP, Ketamine, Psilocybin (magic mushrooms), and Ecstasy are examples of hallucinogens.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 41: The Physician’s Office Laboratory

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 41: THE PHYSICIAN’S OFFICE LABORATORY

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which agency created the guidelines called universal precautions? a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) b. Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA) c. Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The CDC created guidelines known as universal precautions. b. Incorrect. The CDC created guidelines known as universal precautions. OSHA oversees safety in the workplace. c. Incorrect. The CDC created guidelines known as universal precautions. The DEA oversees narcotic medications. d. Incorrect. The CDC created guidelines known as universal precautions. CMS oversees Medicare and Medicaid services.

2. The objective of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) is to: a. receive Medicare payments. b. ensure quality laboratory testing. c. promote universal precautions. d. comply with OSHA regulations.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Ensuring quality laboratory testing is the objective of the CLIA. b. Correct. Ensuring quality laboratory testing is the objective of the CLIA. c. Incorrect. Ensuring quality laboratory testing is the objective of the CLIA. d. Incorrect. Ensuring quality laboratory testing is the objective of the CLIA.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 41: The Physician’s Office Laboratory

3. Improper use of safety signs, symbols, and labels is demonstrated in which of the following scenarios? a. A refrigerator used to store reagents, test kits, or biological specimens is labeled with a biohazard symbol and bears the legend “Not for Storage of Food or Medications.” b. Biohazard waste receptacles bear the biohazard symbol and are lined with red plastic bags. Biohazard waste is not disposed of in inappropriate receptacles. c. Chemicals and reagents are evaluated for hazard category classification and labeled with the Hazard Communication Standard labels. d. Location of safety signs is not important as long as they are somewhere in the building.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Safety signs must be posted in all laboratory settings. b. Incorrect. Safety signs must be posted in all laboratory settings. c. Incorrect. Safety signs must be posted in all laboratory settings. d. Correct. Safety signs must be posted in all laboratory settings.

4. In response to a fire, your first responsibility is to: a. wedge open doors. b. warn others in a frantic tone. c. evacuate patients and staff. d. sound the alarm.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. In response to a fire, your first responsibility is to sound the alarm. Doors should be kept closed to contain the fire. b. Incorrect. In response to a fire, your first responsibility is to sound the alarm. You must remain calm in any emergency. c. Incorrect. Incorrect. In response to a fire, your first responsibility is to sound the alarm. After sounding the alarm, you would begin to evacuate patients and staff. d. Correct. In response to a fire, your first responsibility is to sound the alarm.

5. The waived status is granted according to which criteria? a. Tests cleared by the CDC b. The use of the tests for clinical use only. c. The difficulty noted in performing the diagnostic tests d. The amount of time it takes to perform the diagnostic tests ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The waived status is granted according to the difficulty in performing the test. All tests must be approved by the FDA. Tests cleared by the CDC are not associated with it being waived. b. Incorrect. The waived status is granted according to the difficulty in performing the test. Tests manufactured for clinical use only may not be waived.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 41: The Physician’s Office Laboratory

c.

Correct. The waived status is granted according to the difficulty in performing the test. d. Incorrect. The waived status is granted according to the difficulty in performing the test. The amount of time it takes to run a test is not associated with it being waived.

6. Which of the following can occur if OSHA finds an issue during a laboratory inspection? a. A monetary fine per item only may be assessed. b. A monetary fine per item and employee may be assessed. c. A monetary fine per employee only is applied. d. Only a verbal warning as OSHA does not give monetary fines.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A monetary fine per item and per employee is applied if OSHA finds an issue during a laboratory inspection. b. Correct. A monetary fine per item and per employee is applied if OSHA finds an issue during a laboratory inspection. c. Incorrect. A monetary fine per item and per employee is applied if OSHA finds an issue during a laboratory inspection. d. Incorrect. A monetary fine per item and per employee is applied if OSHA finds an issue during a laboratory inspection.

7. From which of the following sections of the safety data sheets (SDS) would you retrieve information on proper storage for a chemical product? a. Section 1 b. Section 3 c. Section 5 d. Section 7 ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Section 7 provides guidance on the safe handling practices and conditions for the safe storage of chemicals. Section 1 identifies the chemical on the SDS as well as the recommended uses. It also provides the essential contact information of the supplier. b. Incorrect. Section 7 provides guidance on the safe handling practices and conditions for the safe storage of chemicals. Section 3 identifies the ingredient(s) contained in the product indicated on the SDS, including impurities and stabilizing additives. c. Incorrect. Section 7 provides guidance on the safe handling practices and conditions for the safe storage of chemicals. Section 5 provides recommendations for fighting a fire caused by the chemical. d. Correct. Section 7 provides guidance on the safe handling practices and conditions for safe storage of chemicals.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 41: The Physician’s Office Laboratory

8. The general purpose of the microscope in a medical office is to: a. examine minute objects that cannot be seen with the naked eye. b. identify various colors of blood cells. c. measure a patient’s hearing. d. examine a patient’s retina.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A microscope is used to examine minute objects that cannot be seen with the naked eye. b. Incorrect. A microscope is used to examine minute objects that cannot be seen with the naked eye. The microscope is not used to identify the colors of blood cells. c. Incorrect. A microscope is used to examine minute objects that cannot be seen with the naked eye. The microscope is not used in any type of physical exam. d. Incorrect. A microscope is used to examine minute objects that cannot be seen with the naked eye. The microscope is not used in any type of physical exam.

9. High-power field, without oil-immersion, magnifies objects by: a. 40 times. b. 50 times. c. 75 times. d. 20 times.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. High-power field, without oil-immersion, magnifies objects by 40 times. b. Incorrect. High-power field, without oil-immersion, magnifies objects by 40 times. c. Incorrect. High-power field, without oil-immersion, magnifies objects by 40 times. d. Incorrect. High-power field, without oil-immersion, magnifies objects by 40 times.

10. The complexity of the laboratory tests determines the classification of the POL and the body in which it will be regulated. What classification does POCT testing fall under? a. b. c. d.

waived moderately complex highly complex POCT does not fall under any classification

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Point-of-care testing (POCT) is testing that needs very little instruction, is performed outside of a laboratory (such as at the bedside or near the site of patient care), and produces a rapid and reliable result. This type of testing is generally given the waived status. b. Incorrect. Point-of-care testing (POCT) is testing that needs very little instruction, is performed outside of a laboratory (such as at the bedside or near the site of patient care), and produces a rapid and reliable result. This type of testing is generally given the waived status. Moderately complex laboratory tests must be performed

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 41: The Physician’s Office Laboratory

under more stringent regulations and with a more expanded requirement of personnel. c. Incorrect. Point-of-care testing (POCT) is testing that needs very little instruction, is performed outside of a laboratory (such as at the bedside or near the site of patient care), and produces a rapid and reliable result. This type of testing is generally given the waived status. Highly complex laboratory tests go beyond the preceding requirements in that the testing personnel must have very specific and specialized training to perform those tests. d. Incorrect. Point-of-care testing (POCT) is testing that needs very little instruction, is performed outside of a laboratory (such as at the bedside or near the site of patient care), and produces a rapid and reliable result. This type of testing is generally given the waived status.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 42: Specimen Collection and Processing

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 42: SPECIMEN COLLECTION AND PROCESSING

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Using the word random to describe a urine specimen means what? a. The provider has ordered a specimen that is collected in the morning. b. The provider has ordered a specimen without specifying the time of collection. c. The provider has requested a specimen collected at bedtime. d. The provider has required a specimen to be collected at lunchtime.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The word random means the specimen is not scheduled and requires no advance preparation. b. Correct. The word random means the specimen is not scheduled and requires no advance preparation. c. Incorrect. The word random means the specimen is not scheduled and requires no advance preparation. d. Incorrect. The word random means the specimen is not scheduled and requires no advance preparation.

2. When collecting stool for ova and parasites, which of the following specimen containers should be used? a. A sterile urine container b. Any container from home c. A special container with preservatives d. A metal container ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. When collecting stool for ova and parasites, a special container with preservatives should be used. A sterile urine container would be used to check for occult blood in the stool.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 42: Specimen Collection and Processing

b. Incorrect. When collecting stool for ova and parasites, a special container with preservatives should be used. A container from home would not be sterile. c. Correct. When collecting stool for ova and parasites, a special container with preservatives should be used. d. Incorrect. When collecting stool for ova and parasites, a special container with preservatives should be used. A metal container may not be sterile.

3. Which of the following is considered a portion of physical urinalysis testing? a. pH b. Clarity c. Glucose d. Protein ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Clarity is a physical portion of urinalysis testing. pH cannot be determined via physical exam. b. Correct. Clarity is a physical portion of urinalysis testing. c. Incorrect. Clarity is a physical portion of urinalysis testing. Glucose cannot be determined via physical exam. d. Incorrect. Clarity is a physical portion of urinalysis testing. Protein cannot be determined via physical exam.

4. When testing a patient’s urine sample, which of the following components is most found when the patient has a urinary tract infection? a. Protein b. Nitrite c. Ketones d. Glucose ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Nitrite is present in urine samples that have increased numbers of microorganisms, namely bacteria, which indicates a UTI. Normally, urine is considered a sterile fluid excreted from the body; however, in cases in which bacteria have invaded, nitrates are reduced to nitrites in vivo. Protein may also be found in a patient’s urine specimen when the patient has a urinary tract infection; however, it does not always indicate the patient has a UTI. b. Correct. Nitrite is present in urine samples that have increased numbers of microorganisms, namely bacteria, which indicates a UTI. Normally, urine is considered a sterile fluid excreted from the body; however, in cases in which bacteria have invaded, nitrates are reduced to nitrites in vivo. c. Incorrect. Nitrite is present in urine samples that have increased numbers of microorganisms, namely bacteria, which indicates a UTI. Normally, urine is considered a sterile fluid excreted from the body; however, in cases in which bacteria have invaded, nitrates are reduced to nitrites in vivo. Ketones present in the urine indicate diabetes. d. Incorrect. Nitrite is present in urine samples that have increased numbers of microorganisms, namely bacteria, which indicates a UTI. Normally, urine is

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 42: Specimen Collection and Processing

considered a sterile fluid excreted from the body; however, in cases in which bacteria have invaded, nitrates are reduced to nitrites in vivo. The presence of glucose in the urine indicates diabetes.

5. Pregnancy tests measure the amount of _______ in the blood or urine. a. Protein b. hcG c. Bilirubin d. Nitrate ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Pregnancy tests are performed to measure the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood or urine. b. Correct. Pregnancy tests are performed to measure the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood or urine. c. Incorrect. Pregnancy tests are performed to measure the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood or urine. d. Incorrect. Pregnancy tests are performed to measure the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood or urine.

6. Which of the following describes the medical assistant’s role in identifying normal and abnormal results? a. Call the patient immediately to report any abnormal results. b. Interpret the lab reports and document findings in the patient’s chart. c. Screen results to determine if any key elements are missing. d. Place abnormal results in folder for the provider to review at the end of the day.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The medical assistant will screen the test results to determine whether laboratory reports are missing any key elements. Key elements may include: patient’s name, DOB, date and time of test obtained, processed, and reported, name of test, and results with normal reference values. After reviewing and interpreting the results, the provider may order you to call the patient with the results and any actions that may be warranted. b. Incorrect. The medical assistant will screen the test results to determine whether laboratory reports are missing any key elements. Key elements may include: patient’s name, DOB, date and time of test obtained, processed, and reported, name of test, and results with normal reference values. After reviewing and interpreting the results, the provider may order you to document the results and any actions that may be warranted. c. Correct. The medical assistant will screen the test results to determine whether laboratory reports are missing any key elements. Key elements may include: patient’s name, DOB, date and time of test obtained, processed, and reported, name of test, and results with normal reference values. d. Incorrect. The medical assistant will screen the test results to determine whether laboratory reports are missing any key elements. Key elements may include: patient’s name, DOB, date and time of test obtained, processed, and reported, name

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 42: Specimen Collection and Processing

of test, and results with normal reference values. Depending on the value of the results, you may need to interrupt the provider to give the results, or there may be a special holding place for the provider to obtain them.

7. Which color does the guaiac reagent turn when oxidized in the presence of blood? a. Purple b. Black c. Blue d. Yellow ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The guaiac reagent turns blue when there is the presence of blood. b. Incorrect. The guaiac reagent turns blue when there is the presence of blood. c. Correct. The guaiac reagent turns blue when there is the presence of blood. d. Incorrect. The guaiac reagent turns blue when there is the presence of blood.

8. Exudate is another word for: a. drainage. b. sputum. c. pus. d. blood.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Exudate is another word for drainage. b. Incorrect. Exudate is another word for drainage. c. Incorrect. Exudate is another word for drainage. d. Incorrect. Exudate is another word for drainage.

9. When collecting a urine specimen for substance abuse and chain of custody, which of the following needs to be added to the toilet water? a. Red dye b. Yellow dye c. Green dye d. Blue dye ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When collecting a urine specimen for substance abuse and chain of custody, blue dye needs to be added to the toilet water. b. Incorrect. When collecting a urine specimen for substance abuse and chain of custody, blue dye needs to be added to the toilet water. c. Incorrect. When collecting a urine specimen for substance abuse and chain of custody, blue dye needs to be added to the toilet water. d. Correct. When collecting a urine specimen for substance abuse and chain of custody, blue dye needs to be added to the toilet water.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 42: Specimen Collection and Processing

10. Which of the following tests is a diagnostic test for microbiological testing? a. Pregnancy b. Mono c. Rapid strep A d. Fecal occult ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A rapid strep A test is a diagnostic test for microbiological testing.

Pregnancy tests are not done with microbiological testing. b. Incorrect. A rapid strep A test is a diagnostic test for microbiological testing. Mono tests are not done with microbiological testing. c. Correct. A rapid strep A test is a diagnostic test for microbiological testing. d. Incorrect. A rapid strep A test is a diagnostic test for microbiological testing. Fecal occult tests are not done with microbiological testing.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 43: Blood Specimen Collection

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 43: BLOOD SPECIMEN COLLECTION

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which are the most ideal areas for capillary puncture on the hand? a. Ring finger and middle finger b. Middle finger, ring finger, and thumb c. Pinky finger, thumb, and middle finger d. Any of the five fingers ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The most ideal areas for capillary puncture on the hand are the ring finger and middle finger. b. Incorrect. The most ideal areas for capillary puncture on the hand are the ring finger and middle finger. c. Incorrect. The most ideal areas for capillary puncture on the hand are the ring finger and middle finger. d. Incorrect. The most ideal areas for capillary puncture on the hand are the ring finger and middle finger.

2. What should you do prior to applying a tourniquet to a patient’s arm? a. Palpate one arm for the vein. b. Palpate both arms for the vein. c. Ask the patient which site is preferred or best site. d. Both ask the patient which site is preferred or best site AND palpate both arms for the vein.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. You should both ask the patient which site is preferred or best site and palpate both arms for the vein prior to applying a tourniquet to a patient’s arm.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 43: Blood Specimen Collection

b. Incorrect. You should both ask the patient which site is preferred or best site and palpate both arms for the vein prior to applying a tourniquet to a patient’s arm. c. Incorrect. You should both ask the patient which site is preferred or best site and palpate both arms for the vein prior to applying a tourniquet to a patient’s arm. d. Correct. You should both ask the patient which site is preferred or best site and palpate both arms for the vein prior to applying a tourniquet to a patient’s arm.

3. You need to draw several blood specimens for one patient. Which color-coded stoppered tube would you draw last? a. Gray b. Green c. Gold d. Lavender ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. When several blood specimens are ordered, they should be drawn into the color-coded stoppered tubes in the following order to avoid cross-contamination of additives between tubes: special tubes (for blood cultures), light blue, red, red/gray, gold, green, lavender, and gray. b. Incorrect. When several blood specimens are ordered, they should be drawn into the color-coded stoppered tubes in the following order to avoid cross-contamination of additives between tubes: special tubes (for blood cultures), light blue, red, red/gray, gold, green, lavender, and gray. c. Incorrect. When several blood specimens are ordered, they should be drawn into the color-coded stoppered tubes in the following order to avoid cross-contamination of additives between tubes: special tubes (for blood cultures), light blue, red, red/gray, gold, green, lavender, and gray. d. Incorrect. When several blood specimens are ordered, they should be drawn into the color-coded stoppered tubes in the following order to avoid cross-contamination of additives between tubes: special tubes (for blood cultures), light blue, red, red/gray, gold, green, lavender, and gray.

4. If a patient faints when you are performing venipuncture, what is the first step you should take? a. Remove the needle. b. Remove the tourniquet. c. Keep the needle and tourniquet on the arm and call for help. d. Put the patient’s head between their knees.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The first step for an MA to take if a patient faints when he or she is performing venipuncture is to remove the tourniquet. b. Correct. The first step for an MA to take if a patient faints when he or she is performing venipuncture is to remove the tourniquet. c. Incorrect. The first step for an MA to take if a patient faints when he or she is performing venipuncture is to remove the tourniquet.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 43: Blood Specimen Collection

d. Incorrect. The first step for an MA to take if a patient faints when he or she is performing venipuncture is to remove the tourniquet.

5. Gray stopper tubes contain which of the following additives? a. EDTA b. Potassium oxalate and sodium chloride c. Heparin d. Sodium citrate ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Gray stopper tubes contain potassium oxalate and sodium fluoride.

Lavender tubes contain EDTA. b. Correct. Gray stopper tubes contain potassium oxalate and sodium fluoride. Green tubes contain heparin. c. Incorrect. Gray stopper tubes contain potassium oxalate and sodium fluoride. Light blue tubes contain sodium citrate. d. Incorrect. Gray stopper tubes contain potassium oxalate and sodium fluoride. Light blue tubes contain sodium citrate.

6. When performing a capillary puncture, puncturing along or parallel to the fingerprint may cause: a. no problem, as this is the correct process. b. a hematoma to occur. c. a change to the flow of blood, making it difficult to collect. d. too much blood to flow from the site.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Puncturing along or parallel to the fingerprint may cause the blood to follow the pattern of the fingerprint, changing the flow and making it more difficult to collect. b. Incorrect. Puncturing along or parallel to the fingerprint may cause the blood to follow the pattern of the fingerprint, changing the flow and making it more difficult to collect. c. Correct. Puncturing along or parallel to the fingerprint may cause the blood to follow the pattern of the fingerprint, changing the flow and making it more difficult to collect. d. Incorrect. Puncturing along or parallel to the fingerprint may cause the blood to follow the pattern of the fingerprint, changing the flow and making it more difficult to collect.

7. Blood should not be attained via venipuncture in the arm of a patient when: a. an intravenous line is inserted in that arm. b. lymph node dissection has been performed on that side. c. either an intravenous line is inserted in that arm OR a lymph node dissection has been performed on that side. d. that is their dominant hand.

ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 43: Blood Specimen Collection

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Blood should not be obtained from an arm that has an intravenous line inserted, or from a patient who has had a mastectomy with lymph node dissection on that side. b. Incorrect. Blood should not be obtained from an arm that has an intravenous line inserted, or from a patient who has had a mastectomy with lymph node dissection on that side. c. Correct. Blood should not be obtained from an arm that has an intravenous line inserted, or from a patient who has had a mastectomy with lymph node dissection on that side. d. Incorrect. Blood should not be obtained from an arm that has an intravenous line inserted, or from a patient who has had a mastectomy with lymph node dissection on that side.

8. Signs such as a rapidly forming hematoma, rapidly filling blood tube, and bright red blood when performing a venipuncture usually indicate you are in: a. an artery. b. a vein. c. a capillary. d. a nerve.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Signs such as a rapidly forming hematoma, rapidly filling blood tube, and bright red blood when performing a venipuncture usually indicate that you are in an artery. b. Incorrect. Signs such as a rapidly forming hematoma, rapidly filling blood tube, and bright red blood when performing a venipuncture usually indicate that you are in an artery. c. Incorrect. Signs such as a rapidly forming hematoma, rapidly filling blood tube, and bright red blood when performing a venipuncture usually indicate that you are in an artery. d. Incorrect. Signs such as a rapidly forming hematoma, rapidly filling blood tube, and bright red blood when performing a venipuncture usually indicate that you are in an artery.

9. A tourniquet should be placed: a. about one inch above the bend in the elbow. b. about two inches above the bend in the elbow. c. about three inches above the bend in the elbow. d. It doesn’t matter where it is placed.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The tourniquet is placed on the patient’s upper arm, about three inches above the elbow. b. Incorrect. The tourniquet is placed on the patient’s upper arm, about three inches above the elbow.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 43: Blood Specimen Collection

c.

Correct. The tourniquet is placed on the patient’s upper arm, about three inches above the elbow. d. Incorrect. The tourniquet is placed on the patient’s upper arm, about three inches above the elbow.

10. Having an insufficient volume of blood causes the: a. test results to have a false positive. b. blood to clot too fast. c. test results to be inaccurate. d. blood not to clot at all.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Having an insufficient volume of blood causes the blood to clot too fast. b. Correct. Having an insufficient volume of blood causes the blood to clot too fast. c. Incorrect. Having an insufficient volume of blood causes the blood to clot too fast. d. Incorrect. Having an insufficient volume of blood causes the blood to clot too fast.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 44: Diagnostic Testing

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 44: DIAGNOSTIC TESTING

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following are required components to be recorded in the logbook? a. Patient’s name b. Test performed c. Results of the test d. Patient’s name, test performed, and results of the test ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The patient’s name, date and time of the sample, the test, the results, and the initials of the MA are recorded in the logbook. b. Incorrect. The patient’s name, date and time of the sample, the test, the results, and the initials of the MA are recorded in the logbook. c. Incorrect. The patient’s name, date and time of the sample, the test, the results, and the initials of the MA are recorded in the logbook. d. Correct. The patient’s name, date and time of the sample, the test, the results, and the initials of the MA are recorded in the logbook.

2. Hemoglobin is an allosteric protein found in: a. monocytes. b. erythrocytes. c. lymphocytes. d. granulocytes.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Hemoglobin is an allosteric protein found in erythrocytes. b. Correct. Hemoglobin is an allosteric protein found in erythrocytes. c. Incorrect. Hemoglobin is an allosteric protein found in erythrocytes. d. Incorrect. Hemoglobin is an allosteric protein found in erythrocytes.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 44: Diagnostic Testing

3. Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting ____________ to cells of the body. a. oxygen b. carbon dioxide c. iron d. vitamins and nutrients ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting oxygen to the cells of the body. b. Incorrect. Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting oxygen to the cells of the body. c. Incorrect. Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting oxygen to the cells of the body. d. Incorrect. Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting oxygen to the cells of the body.

4. Which of the following describes how the Hematocrit is expressed? a. As a fraction b. As a percentage c. As an odd number d. As an even number ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Hematocrit is expressed as a fraction. b. Incorrect. Hematocrit is expressed as a fraction. c. Incorrect. Hematocrit is expressed as a fraction. d. Incorrect. Hematocrit is expressed as a fraction.

5. If a patient has rheumatoid arthritis, the provider will order which of the following tests to monitor inflammation? a. Hemoglobin b. CBC c. ESR d. Hemoglobin A1C ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures levels of inflammation in the body. A hemoglobin test is done to check for low or high levels of red blood cells. b. Incorrect. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures levels of inflammation in the body. The CBC indicates the counts of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets, the concentration of hemoglobin, and the hematocrit. c. Correct. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures levels of inflammation in the body. d. Incorrect. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures levels of inflammation in the body. The hemoglobin A1C tests for levels of glucose in the blood.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 44: Diagnostic Testing

6. What is the purpose of the Glycosylated Hemoglobin (HbA1c) test? a. To evaluate a diabetic patient’s diet compliance b. To diagnose anemia c. To evaluate for polycythemia d. To determine if a patient has been exercising ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The purpose of the HbA1c test is to evaluate a diabetic patient’s diet compliance. b. Incorrect. The purpose of the HbA1c test is to evaluate a diabetic patient’s diet compliance. A complete blood count test is done to test for anemia. c. Incorrect. The purpose of the HbA1c test is to evaluate a diabetic patient’s diet compliance. A complete blood count test is done to test for polycythemia. d. Incorrect. The purpose of the HbA1c test is to evaluate a diabetic patient’s diet compliance. There is no blood test designed to see if a patient has been exercising.

7. Which of the following describes the action that needs to be taken when a lab result is in the range of a panic value? a. Put on the provider’s desk for reviewal. b. Call the patient with the result. c. Inform provider of need for immediate intervention. d. Enter into the patient’s chart.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. If a lab result is in the range of panic value, this is an emergency and requires immediate intervention by a provider. b. Incorrect. If a lab result is in the range of panic value, this is an emergency and requires immediate intervention by a provider. c. Correct. If a lab result is in the range of panic value, this is an emergency and requires immediate intervention by a provider. d. Incorrect. If a lab result is in the range of panic value, this is an emergency and requires immediate intervention by a provider.

8. Which of the following allergy tests is completed if the scratch test is negative? a. Skin prick test b. Intradermal test c. Patch test d. Desensitization test ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A patch test is completed if the scratch test is negative. A skin prick test is applied directly to the patient’s skin and scratched or pricked into the epidermis. b. Incorrect. A patch test is completed if the scratch test is negative. With an intradermal test, a small amount of the allergen is injected between the epidermis and dermis, with an observation of the area for a reaction. c. Correct. A patch test is completed if the scratch test is negative. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 44: Diagnostic Testing

d. Incorrect. A patch test is completed if the scratch test is negative. Desensitization refers to injections of allergy serum.

9. Which of the following is the normal value for a blood glucose test when fasting? a. 50–80 mg/dL b. 60–90 mg/dL c. 70–100 mg/dL d. 80–110 mg/dL ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The reported normal fasting blood glucose range is 70–100 mg/dL. b. Incorrect. The reported normal fasting blood glucose range is 70–100 mg/dL. c. Correct. The reported normal fasting blood glucose range is 70–100 mg/dL. d. Incorrect. The reported normal fasting blood glucose range is 70–100 mg/dL. 10. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is used to detect: a. low blood count. b. inflammation. c. high blood count. d. bone loss.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is used to detect inflammation. A complete blood count (CBC) is used to detect the blood count. b. Correct. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is used to detect inflammation. c. Incorrect. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is used to detect inflammation. A complete blood count (CBC) is used to detect the blood count. d. Incorrect. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is used to detect inflammation. A bone mineral density test is used to detect bone loss.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 45: Cardiology Procedures

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 45: CARDIOLOGY PROCEDURES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which landmark would you use to place lead V1 for a standard 12-lead ECG? a. Fourth intercostal space at right margin of sternum b. Fourth intercostal space at left margin of sternum c. Fifth intercostal space on right midclavicular line d. Fifth intercostal space on left midclavicular line.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The landmark you would use to place lead V1 for a standard 12-lead ECG is the fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum. b. Incorrect. The landmark you would use to place lead V1 for a standard 12-lead ECG is the fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum. The fourth intercostal space at the left of the sternum is for V2 placement. c. Incorrect. The landmark you would use to place lead V1 for a standard 12-lead ECG is the fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum. The fifth intercostal space on the right midclavicular line is not a landmark for the placement of any of the V leads. d. Incorrect. The landmark you would use to place lead V1 for a standard 12-lead ECG is the fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum. The fifth intercostal space on the left midclavicular line is the landmark for the placement of V4.

2. Each large square on the ECG paper measures 5 mm by 5 mm and represents ______________ seconds. a. 0.2 b. 0.04 c. 0.1 d. 1.0 ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 45: Cardiology Procedures

Analysis: a. Correct. Each large square on the ECG paper measures 5 mm by 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. b. Incorrect. Each large square on the ECG paper measures 5 mm by 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. c. Incorrect. Each large square on the ECG paper measures 5 mm by 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. d. Incorrect. Each large square on the ECG paper measures 5 mm by 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds.

3. Which of the following wave(s) on the graph paper represents the repolarization of the ventricles or the time of recovery before another contraction? a. P b. QRS c. ST d. T ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The P wave represents the depolarization of the left and right atria and also corresponds to atrial contraction. The T wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) typically represents ventricular repolarization. b. Incorrect. The P wave represents the depolarization of the left and right atria and also corresponds to atrial contraction. A combination of the Q wave, R wave, and S wave, the “QRS complex” represents ventricular depolarization. The T wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) typically represents ventricular repolarization. c. Incorrect. The P wave represents the depolarization of the left and right atria and also corresponds to atrial contraction. The ST segment is an interval between ventricular depolarization and ventricular repolarization. The T wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) typically represents ventricular repolarization. d. Correct. The P wave represents the depolarization of the left and right atria and also corresponds to atrial contraction. The T wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) typically represents ventricular repolarization.

4. What can you do with the sensitivity dial if the ECG tracing is too small? a. Turn down to 1 b. Turn down to 1/2 c. Turn up to 5 d. Turn up to 2 ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. If the tracing is too small, the sensitivity dial can be turned up to 2, making the impulse 20 mm high and 2 mm wide. b. Incorrect. If the tracing is too small, the sensitivity dial can be turned up to 2, making the impulse 20 mm high and 2 mm wide. c. Incorrect. If the tracing is too small, the sensitivity dial can be turned up to 2, making the impulse 20 mm high and 2 mm wide. d. Correct. If the tracing is too small, the sensitivity dial can be turned up to 2, making the impulse 20 mm high and 2 mm wide.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 45: Cardiology Procedures

5. The routine ECG consists of how many leads? a. 12 b. 10 c. 6 d. 4 ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The routine ECG consists of 12 leads. b. Incorrect. The routine ECG consists of 12 leads. c. Incorrect. The routine ECG consists of 12 leads. d. Incorrect. The routine ECG consists of 12 leads.

6. The augmented leads are also known as: a. leads I, II, and III. b. chest leads. c. aVL, aVR, aVF. d. precordial leads.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The augmented leads are also known as aVR, aVL, and aVF. b. Incorrect. The augmented leads are also known as aVR, aVL, and aVF. c. Correct. The augmented leads are also known as aVR, aVL, and aVF. d. Incorrect. The augmented leads are also known as aVR, aVL, and aVF. 7. What kind of interference is caused by improperly applied electrodes? a. Somatic tremor b. Wandering baseline c. Interrupted baseline d. AC interference ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Wandering baseline can be caused by improperly applied electrodes or improperly cleaned skin. A somatic tremor is caused by additional muscle activity. b. Correct. Wandering baseline can be caused by improperly applied electrodes or improperly cleaned skin. c. Incorrect. Wandering baseline can be caused by improperly applied electrodes or improperly cleaned skin. Interrupted baseline is caused by an electrode becoming separated from the wire or by a broken lead wire. d. Incorrect. Wandering baseline can be caused by improperly applied electrodes or improperly cleaned skin. AC (alternating current) interference is caused by electrical activity.

8. Which of the following is a diagnostic tool that tests the structure and function of the heart using sound waves reflected through the heart? a. Defibrillator b. Holter monitor c. Echocardiography

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 45: Cardiology Procedures

d. Treadmill ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Echocardiography uses sound waves to reflect the structure and function of the heart. A defibrillator is designed to provide a countershock by a trained individual to convert cardiac arrhythmias into a regular sinus rhythm. b. Incorrect. Echocardiography uses sound waves to reflect the structure and function of the heart. Patients who have routine normal ECGs but still have intermittent or irregular chest pain or discomfort are often tested over a period of 24 hours or more by a device known as a Holter monitor. c. Correct. Echocardiography uses sound waves to reflect the structure and function of the heart. d. Incorrect. Echocardiography uses sound waves to reflect the structure and function of the heart. Treadmills are used for the patient to exercise during a stress test.

9. What is the purpose of the defibrillator? a. To monitor the heart b. To speed up the heart c. To countershock the heart d. To check the heart rate ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A defibrillator is designed to provide a countershock by a trained individual to convert cardiac arrhythmias into a regular sinus rhythm. b. Incorrect. A defibrillator is designed to provide a countershock by a trained individual to convert cardiac arrhythmias into a regular sinus rhythm. c. Correct. A defibrillator is designed to provide a countershock by a trained individual to convert cardiac arrhythmias into a regular sinus rhythm. d. Incorrect. A defibrillator is designed to provide a countershock by a trained individual to convert cardiac arrhythmias into a regular sinus rhythm.

10. Holter monitors worn by patients to record electrical activities of the heart is usually worn for: a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 18 hours d. 24 hours ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Holter monitors worn by patients to record electrical activities of the heart is usually worn for 24 hours. b. Incorrect. Holter monitors worn by patients to record electrical activities of the heart is usually worn for 24 hours. c. Incorrect. Holter monitors worn by patients to record electrical activities of the heart is usually worn for 24 hours. d. Correct. Holter monitors worn by patients to record electrical activities of the heart is usually worn for 24 hours.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 46: Radiology Procedures

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 46: RADIOLOGY PROCEDURES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

In this type of therapeutic radiation, radioactive implants are placed by the radiologist close to or into the cancerous tissue. a. Teletherapy b. Brachytherapy c. Physical therapy d. Aromatherapy ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Brachytherapy is a type of therapeutic radiation are radioactive implants placed by the radiologist close to or into the cancerous tissue. Teletherapy allows deep penetration for deep tumors. b. Correct. Brachytherapy is a type of therapeutic radiation are radioactive implants placed by the radiologist close to or into the cancerous tissue. c. Incorrect. Brachytherapy is a type of therapeutic radiation are radioactive implants placed by the radiologist close to or into the cancerous tissue. Physical therapy is used to help patients with muscular issues. d. Incorrect. Brachytherapy is a type of therapeutic radiation are radioactive implants placed by the radiologist close to or into the cancerous tissue. Aromatherapy is the use of scents.

2. A dosimeter can last up to: a. one month. b. two months. c. four months. d. six months.

ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 46: Radiology Procedures

Analysis: a. Incorrect. A dosimeter can last up to four months. b. Incorrect. A dosimeter can last up to four months. c. Correct. A dosimeter can last up to four months. d. Incorrect. A dosimeter can last up to four months.

3. Sonography and ultrasound are used to view internal structures using: a. X-rays. b. magnetic reasoning. c. radioactivity. d. soundwaves.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Sonography and ultrasound are used to view internal structuring using soundwaves. b. Incorrect. Sonography and ultrasound are used to view internal structuring using soundwaves. c. Incorrect. Sonography and ultrasound are used to view internal structuring using soundwaves. d. Correct. Sonography and ultrasound are used to view internal structuring using soundwaves.

4. Which of the following studies does not require special preparation? a. Chest X-ray b. Cholecystogram c. Upper GI d. Barium enema ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A chest X-ray does not require special preparation. b. Incorrect. A chest X-ray does not require special preparation. There are dietary preparations required for a cholecystogram. c. Incorrect. A chest X-ray does not require special preparation. There are dietary preparations required for an upper GI. d. Incorrect. A chest X-ray does not require special preparation. A barium enema requires the use of a special liquid.

5. This method of radiology generates images of the tissue in slices about 1 cm thick. a. CT scan b. MRI c. Mammogram d. Sonogram ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A CT scan generates images of the tissue in slices about 1 cm thick. b. Incorrect. A CT scan generates images of the tissue in slices about 1 cm thick. An MRI is the use of magnets to capture images of the body.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 46: Radiology Procedures

c.

Incorrect. A CT scan generates images of the tissue in slices about 1 cm thick. A mammogram is the use of X-rays to capture images of the breasts. d. Incorrect. A CT scan generates images of the tissue in slices about 1 cm thick. A sonogram uses sound waves to capture images.

6. Which of the following imaging tests uses a radioactive substance known as a tracer? a. MRI b. CT scan c. PET scan d. Angiogram ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A PET scan uses a radioactive substance known as a tracer. An MRI is the use of magnets to capture images of the body. b. Incorrect. A PET scan uses a radioactive substance known as a tracer. A CT scan is the use of X-rays to create images of the body. c. Correct. A PET scan uses a radioactive substance known as a tracer. d. Incorrect. A PET scan uses a radioactive substance known as a tracer. An angiogram is a diagnostic test that uses X-rays to take pictures of the blood vessels.

7. A fluoroscope is used to do which of the following? a. Look inside the bladder to obtain a better view. b. Make visible shadows of objects interposed between the screen and the tube. c. Change the density of the structure, allowing better visualization. d. Distend the area to make structures more visible.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A fluoroscope is used to look inside the bladder to obtain a better view. b. Incorrect. A fluoroscope is used to look inside the bladder to obtain a better view. Xrays make visible shadows of objects interposed between the screen and the tube. c. Incorrect. A fluoroscope is used to look inside the bladder to obtain a better view.

Adding a contrast changes the density of the structure to allow better visualization. d. Incorrect. A fluoroscope is used to look inside the bladder to obtain a better view.

The use of barium distends the area to make structures more visible.

8. When instructing the patient on the prep for a pelvic ultrasound you should instruct them to drink how many ounces of fluids? a. 6–12 b. 12–18 c. 24–30 d. 32–38 ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When instructing the patient on the prep for a pelvic ultrasound you should instruct them to drink 32–38 ounces of fluids. b. Incorrect. When instructing the patient on the prep for a pelvic ultrasound you should instruct them to drink 32–38 ounces of fluids.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 46: Radiology Procedures

c.

Incorrect. When instructing the patient on the prep for a pelvic ultrasound you should instruct them to drink 32–38 ounces of fluids. d. Correct. When instructing the patient on the prep for a pelvic ultrasound you should instruct them to drink 32–38 ounces of fluids.

9. This type of radiation is used in the treatment of cancer by preventing cellular reproduction. a. Nuclear b. Therapeutic c. Electromagnetic d. Alpha ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Therapeutic radiation is used in the treatment of cancer by preventing cellular reproduction. Nuclear medicine uses radionuclides in the diagnosis and treatment of disease. b. Correct. Therapeutic radiation is used in the treatment of cancer by preventing cellular reproduction. c. Incorrect. Therapeutic radiation is used in the treatment of cancer by preventing cellular reproduction. Electromagnetic refers to X-rays. These are used to produce images of the body. d. Incorrect. Therapeutic radiation is used in the treatment of cancer by preventing cellular reproduction. Alpha is not a type of radiation.

10. The prep for the cholecystogram requires patients to consume which of the types of foods the day before the test? a. Low-fat meal b. No food, clear liquids only c. High-fat meal d. High-fiber meal ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The prep for the cholecystogram requires patients to consume a high-fat meal the day before the test. b. Incorrect. The prep for the cholecystogram requires patients to consume a high-fat meal the day before the test. c. Correct. The prep for the cholecystogram requires patients to consume a high-fat meal the day before the test. d. Incorrect. The prep for the cholecystogram requires patients to consume a high-fat meal the day before the test.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 47: Preparing for Surgery

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 47: PREPARING FOR SURGERY

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

A fenestrated sheet is one that has a(n): a. fold. b. pleat. c. stain. d. opening.

ANS: d

Analysis: a. Incorrect. A fenestrated sheet is one that has an opening. b. Incorrect. A fenestrated sheet is one that has an opening. c. Incorrect. A fenestrated sheet is one that has an opening. d. Correct. A fenestrated sheet is one that has an opening.

2. This type of sterilization technique uses a combination of steam and pressure. a. Dry heat b. Autoclave c. Chemical agents d. Gas sterilization ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An autoclave is the sterilization technique that uses a combination of steam and pressure. Dry heat sterilization works with hot, dry air. b. Correct. An autoclave is the sterilization technique that uses a combination of steam and pressure. c. Incorrect. An autoclave is the sterilization technique that uses a combination of steam and pressure. Chemical agent sterilization uses chemicals in the process. d. Incorrect. An autoclave is the sterilization technique that uses a combination of steam and pressure. Gas sterilization uses gas in the process.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 47: Preparing for Surgery

3. To reduce the possibility of infection from a surgical procedure, skin preparation includes: a. cleaning the site with a soapy solution. b. shaving the skin. c. applying antiseptic solution. d. cleaning the site with a soapy solution, shaving the skin, and applying antiseptic solution.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. To reduce the possibility of infection from a surgical procedure, cleaning the site with a soapy solution, shaving the skin, and applying antiseptic solution. b. Incorrect. To reduce the possibility of infection from a surgical procedure, cleaning the site with a soapy solution, shaving the skin, and applying antiseptic solution. c. Incorrect. To reduce the possibility of infection from a surgical procedure, skin preparation includes cleaning the site with a soapy solution. d. Correct. To reduce the possibility of infection from a surgical procedure, cleaning the site with a soapy solution, shaving the skin, and applying antiseptic solution.

4. Before a surgical procedure can be performed, you must obtain a: a. signed consent form. b. verbal authorization. c. medical history. d. medication list.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Before a surgical procedure can be performed, you must obtain a signed consent form. b. Incorrect. Before a surgical procedure can be performed, you must obtain a signed consent form. A verbal authorization is not appropriate for an invasive procedure. c. Incorrect. Before a surgical procedure can be performed, you must obtain a signed consent form. The medical history would have been performed prior to the day of surgery. d. Incorrect. Before a surgical procedure can be performed, you must obtain a signed consent form. The medication list should have been collected prior to the date of surgery.

5. The sterile tray should be set up: a. just before the provider enters the room. b. prior to the patients entering the room. c. 30 minutes before the procedure. d. while the patient is gowning.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The sterile tray should be set up before the patient is escorted to the room. b. Correct. The sterile tray should be set up before the patient is escorted to the room. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 47: Preparing for Surgery

c.

Incorrect. The sterile tray should be set up before the patient is escorted to the room. d. Incorrect. The sterile tray should be set up before the patient is escorted to the room.

6. The Mayo stand should be adjusted to: a. waist level. b. hip level. c. be level with the countertop. d. be level with the exam table.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct: The Mayo stand should be adjusted to waist level. b. Incorrect. The Mayo stand should be adjusted to waist level. c. Incorrect. The Mayo stand should be adjusted to waist level. d. Incorrect. The Mayo stand should be adjusted to waist level.

7. During skin prep, avoid nicking the skin because this could cause a(n): a. rough surface. b. infection. c. irritation. d. redness.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Nicking the skin could cause an infection. b. Correct. Nicking the skin could cause an infection. c. Incorrect. Nicking the skin could cause an infection. d. Incorrect. Nicking the skin could cause an infection.

8. Which of the following instrument components is a locking mechanism designed to close in varying degrees to hold the instrument closed? a. Teeth b. Serrations c. Ratchet d. Handle ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A Ratchet is a locking mechanism designed to close in varying degrees to hold the instrument closed. b. Incorrect. A Ratchet is a locking mechanism designed to close in varying degrees to hold the instrument closed. c. Correct. A Ratchet is a locking mechanism designed to close in varying degrees to hold the instrument closed. d. Incorrect. A Ratchet is a locking mechanism designed to close in varying degrees to hold the instrument closed.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 47: Preparing for Surgery

9. Hemostats are used for: a. clamping and grasping. b. dilating. c. cutting and dissecting. d. probing.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Hemostats are used for clamping and grasping. b. Incorrect. Hemostats are used for clamping and grasping. c. Incorrect. Hemostats are used for clamping and grasping. d. Incorrect. Hemostats are used for clamping and grasping.

10. After use, instruments should be soaked in a: a. cold-water solution with detergent. b. room temperature solution with blood solvent. c. hot bleach water solution. d. hot water solution with blood solvent.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. After use, instruments should be soaked in a room temperature solution with blood solvent. b. Incorrect. After use, instruments should be soaked in a room temperature solution with blood solvent. c. Incorrect. After use, instruments should be soaked in a room temperature solution with blood solvent. d. Correct. After use, instruments should be soaked in a room temperature solution with blood solvent.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 48: Assisting with Minor Surgery

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 48: ASSISTING WITH MINOR SURGERY

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Most in-office minor surgical procedures are performed under which type of anesthesia? a. Local b. Nerve block c. Topical d. General ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Most in-office minor surgical procedures are performed under local anesthesia. b. Incorrect. Most in-office minor surgical procedures are performed under local anesthesia. A nerve block would not be performed in the office setting. c. Incorrect. Most in-office minor surgical procedures are performed under local anesthesia. A topical anesthetic numbs only the surface of the skin. d. Incorrect. Most in-office minor surgical procedures are performed under local anesthesia. General anesthesia is done in the hospital setting only.

2. The method used to remove skin tags and warts is: a. electrocautery. b. cryosurgery. c. laser surgery. d. electrocautery and cryosurgery.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Electrocautery and cryosurgery are used to remove skin tags and warts. b. Incorrect. Electrocautery and cryosurgery are used to remove skin tags and warts.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 48: Assisting with Minor Surgery

c.

Incorrect. Electrocautery and cryosurgery are used to remove skin tags and warts.

Laser surgery is not typically done in the medical office. d. Correct. Electrocautery and cryosurgery are used to remove skin tags and warts.

3. Local anesthesia begins to numb an area in: a. 30 minutes. b. 5–15 minutes. c. 1 hour. d. 3 hours.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Local anesthesia begins to numb an area in 5–15 minutes. b. Correct. Local anesthesia begins to numb an area in 5–15 minutes. c. Incorrect. Local anesthesia begins to numb an area in 5–15 minutes. d. Incorrect. Local anesthesia begins to numb an area in 5–15 minutes.

4. A serious blood-clotting disease in which the absence of one of the necessary bloodclotting factors prevents blood from coagulating is: a. coagulitis. b. hemophilia. c. hemophilitis. d. angiocoagulitis.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Hemophilia is a serious blood-clotting disease in which the absence of one of the necessary blood-clotting factors prevents blood from coagulating.

Coagulitis is not a medical term. b. Correct. Hemophilia is a serious blood-clotting disease in which the absence of one of the necessary blood-clotting factors prevents blood from coagulating. c. Incorrect. Hemophilia is a serious blood-clotting disease in which the absence of one of the necessary blood-clotting factors prevents blood from coagulating.

Hemophilitis is not a medical term. d. Incorrect. Hemophilia is a serious blood-clotting disease in which the absence of one of the necessary blood-clotting factors prevents blood from coagulating.

Angiocoagulitis is not a medical term.

5. A type of suture that does not need to be removed is called: a. silk. b. nylon. c. catgut. d. ethilon.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A type of suture called catgut is eventually absorbed by the body and does not need to be removed.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 48: Assisting with Minor Surgery

b. Incorrect. A type of suture called catgut is eventually absorbed by the body and does not need to be removed. c. Correct. A type of suture called catgut is eventually absorbed by the body and does not need to be removed. d. Incorrect. A type of suture called catgut is eventually absorbed by the body and does not need to be removed.

6. Following suture removal, patients should be advised to keep the site dry for at least: a. 8 hours. b. 12 hours. c. 24 hours. d. 48 hours.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Following suture removal, patients should be advised to keep the site dry for at least 24 hours. b. Incorrect. Following suture removal, patients should be advised to keep the site dry for at least 24 hours. c. Correct. Following suture removal, patients should be advised to keep the site dry for at least 24 hours. d. Incorrect. Following suture removal, patients should be advised to keep the site dry for at least 24 hours.

7. An event that happens when your body overreacts to certain triggers, such as the sight of blood or extreme emotional distress, is known as what? a. Hypertension b. Carotid blockage c. Vasovagal syncope d. Tremor ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. An event that happens when your body overreacts to certain triggers, such as the sight of blood or extreme emotional distress, is known as vasovagal syncope.

Hypertension is high blood pressure. b. Incorrect. An event that happens when your body overreacts to certain triggers, such as the sight of blood or extreme emotional distress, is known as vasovagal syncope.

Carotid blockage is a serious cardiovascular condition. c. Correct. An event that happens when your body overreacts to certain triggers, such as the sight of blood or extreme emotional distress, is known as vasovagal syncope. d. Incorrect. An event that happens when your body overreacts to certain triggers, such as the sight of blood or extreme emotional distress, is known as vasovagal syncope.

A tremor is an uncontrollable shaking.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 48: Assisting with Minor Surgery

8. Packing gauze (iodoform or plain) is included in the tray set up for which of the following surgical procedures? a. Laceration repair b. Vasectomy c. Skin tag removal d. Incision and drainage procedure ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Packing gauze (iodoform or plain) is included in the tray set up for an incision and drainage procedure. A laceration repair would not likely require packing gauze. b. Incorrect. Packing gauze (iodoform or plain) is included in the tray set up for an incision and drainage procedure. A vasectomy would not likely require packing gauze. c. Incorrect. Packing gauze (iodoform or plain) is included in the tray set up for an incision and drainage procedure. A skin tag removal would not likely require packing gauze. d. Correct. Packing gauze (iodoform or plain) is included in the tray set up for an incision and drainage procedure.

9. Which of the following is a role performed by the medical assistant when assisting the provider with minor surgical procedures? a. Provides comfort and safety to the patient b. Is knowledgeable to assist during the surgery c. Maintains sterile technique d. All of the answers are correct.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When assisting the provider with minor surgical procedures, the medical assistant provides comfort and safety to the patient, is knowledgeable to assist during surgery, and maintains sterile technique. b. Incorrect. When assisting the provider with minor surgical procedures, the medical assistant provides comfort and safety to the patient, is knowledgeable to assist during surgery, and maintains sterile technique. c. Incorrect. When assisting the provider with minor surgical procedures, the medical assistant provides comfort and safety to the patient, is knowledgeable to assist during surgery, and maintains sterile technique. d. Correct. When assisting the provider with minor surgical procedures, the medical assistant provides comfort and safety to the patient, is knowledgeable to assist during surgery, and maintains sterile technique.

10. When documenting a surgical procedure, the medical record entry should include a patient identifier. Which of the following can be used? a. The patient’s ID b. The patient’s address c. The patient’s telephone number d. The patient’s Social Security Number ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 48: Assisting with Minor Surgery

Analysis: a. Correct. When documenting a surgical procedure, the medical record entry should include the patient’s ID as an identifier. b. Incorrect. When documenting a surgical procedure, the medical record entry should include the patient’s ID as an identifier. The patient’s address would not be on the entry. c. Incorrect. When documenting a surgical procedure, the medical record entry should include the patient’s ID as an identifier. The patient’s telephone number would not be on the entry. d. Incorrect. When documenting a surgical procedure, the medical record entry should include the patient’s ID as an identifier. The patient’s Social Security number would not be on the entry.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 49: Pharmacology Fundamentals

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 49: PHARMACOLOGY FUNDAMENTALS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following drugs actions treats noninfectious processes by acting on different systems in the body to suppress chemicals or hormones being released by the body in excess? a. Chemotherapeutic b. Pharmacodynamic c. Narcotic d. Miscellaneous agents ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Pharmacodynamic drugs treat noninfectious processes by acting on different systems in the body to suppress chemicals or hormones being released by the body in excess. The chemotherapeutic group includes drugs used to cure a disease caused by an infectious organism or cancer. b. Correct. Pharmacodynamic drugs treat noninfectious processes by acting on different systems in the body to suppress chemicals or hormones being released by the body in excess. c. Incorrect. Pharmacodynamic drugs treat noninfectious processes by acting on different systems in the body to suppress chemicals or hormones being released by the body in excess. Narcotic drugs are used to treat pain. d. Incorrect. Pharmacodynamic drugs treat noninfectious processes by acting on different systems in the body to suppress chemicals or hormones being released by the body in excess. Miscellaneous agents include all products that are not classified elsewhere.

2. Which of the following drug names are capitalized? a. Generic b. Official c. Trade d. Chemical ANS: c © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 49: Pharmacology Fundamentals

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The trade names of drugs are capitalized. b. Incorrect. The trade names of drugs are capitalized. c. Correct. The trade names of drugs are capitalized. d. Incorrect. The trade names of drugs are capitalized.

3. Upon learning that a patient is taking herbal supplements, the MA’s most appropriate response is to: a. advise the patient to stop taking all herbal supplements at once. b. advise the patient to stop taking any prescription medications that interact with the herbal supplements. c. record in the patient’s chart the herbal supplements, doses, and reasons the patient is taking them and alert the physician. d. ignore this because herbal supplements are not really medications.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Upon learning that a patient is taking herbal supplements, the MA’s most appropriate response is to record in the patient’s chart the herbal supplements, doses, and reasons the patient is taking them and alert the physician. The MA should not advise the patient regarding taking medications. b. Incorrect. Upon learning that a patient is taking herbal supplements, the MA’s most appropriate response is to record in the patient’s chart the herbal supplements, doses, and reasons the patient is taking them and alert the physician. The MA should not advise the patient regarding taking medications. c. Correct. Upon learning that a patient is taking herbal supplements, the MA’s most appropriate response is to record in the patient’s chart the herbal supplements, doses, and reasons the patient is taking them and alert the physician. d. Incorrect. Upon learning that a patient is taking herbal supplements, the MA’s most appropriate response is to record in the patient’s chart the herbal supplements, doses, and reasons the patient is taking them and alert the physician. Many herbal supplements interact with prescription medications.

4. Which of the following is correct? a. Schedule IV drugs have no legal or medicinal purpose. b. Schedule I drugs include street drugs. c. Schedule III drugs cannot be refilled. d. All schedule drugs require a prescription.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. All schedule drugs require a prescription. Schedule IV drugs have both a legal and medicinal purpose. b. Incorrect. All schedule drugs require a prescription. Street drugs are not included on the schedule list. c. Incorrect. All schedule drugs require a prescription. Schedule III drugs can be refilled. d. Correct. All schedule drugs require a prescription.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 49: Pharmacology Fundamentals

5. Drugs are more likely to enter the sewer and water systems through: a. flushing unused medication down the toilet. b. excesses released from manufacturing plants. c. illegal suppliers disposing of excess inventory. d. natural excretion of drug not completely absorbed by the body.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Drugs are more likely to enter the sewer and water systems through natural excretion of drug not completely absorbed by the body. b. Incorrect. Drugs are more likely to enter the sewer and water systems through natural excretion of drug not completely absorbed by the body. c. Incorrect. Drugs are more likely to enter the sewer and water systems through natural excretion of drug not completely absorbed by the body. d. Correct. Drugs are more likely to enter the sewer and water systems through natural excretion of drug not completely absorbed by the body.

6. Which of the following best describes a pharmacodynamic drug? a. Treatment for allergies b. Remedy for metabolic disorders c. Cures cancer d. Inhibits the action of an enzyme ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Pharmacodynamic drugs inhibit the action of an enzyme. Antihistamines are the treatment for allergies. b. Incorrect. Pharmacodynamic drugs inhibit the action of an enzyme. Metabolic disorders include conditions such as diabetes and hypertension. c. Incorrect. Pharmacodynamic drugs inhibit the action of an enzyme. Chemotherapy drugs are used for cancer d. Correct. Pharmacodynamic drugs inhibit the action of an enzyme.

7. What is required to store controlled substances legally? a. DEA license b. Current medical credentials of provider prominently displayed c. Double-lock system of access d. Refrigerator with temperature log ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A double-lock system of access is required to store controlled substances legally. b. Incorrect. A double-lock system of access is required to store controlled substances legally. c. Correct. A double-lock system of access is required to store controlled substances legally. d. Incorrect. A double-lock system of access is required to store controlled substances legally. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 49: Pharmacology Fundamentals

8. Which of the following statements is true? a. A medication can fall into only one category. b. Over-the-counter medications do not require a prescription but can still be harmful if used incorrectly. c. Schedule I drugs require a handwritten prescription. d. If a medication allergy does not manifest after the first exposure to a drug, there is no need to be concerned about an allergy in the future.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Over-the-counter medications do not require a prescription but can still be harmful if used incorrectly. Medications can fall into more than one category. b. Correct. Over-the-counter medications do not require a prescription but can still be harmful if used incorrectly. c. Incorrect. Over-the-counter medications do not require a prescription but can still be harmful if used incorrectly. Schedule I drugs do not require a handwritten prescription. d. Incorrect. Over-the-counter medications do not require a prescription but can still be harmful if used incorrectly. Medication allergies may manifest after the first exposure.

9. Drugs that compete for a certain receptor site to stimulate or prevent the action of that receptor are known as: a. synergistic. b. additive effects. c. agonists. d. miscellaneous agents.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. An agonist is a drug that competes for a certain receptor site to stimulate or prevent the action of that particular receptor. A synergistic drug enhances or multiplies the effects of other drugs. b. Incorrect. An agonist is a drug that competes for a certain receptor site to stimulate or prevent the action of that particular receptor. An additive effect enhances or multiplies the effects of other drugs. c. Correct. An agonist is a drug that competes for a certain receptor site to stimulate or prevent the action of that particular receptor. d. Incorrect. An agonist is a drug that competes for a certain receptor site to stimulate or prevent the action of that particular receptor. Miscellaneous agents include all products that are not classified elsewhere.

10. Medication that is bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids are known as: a. suppositories. b. capsules. c. powders. d. tablets.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 49: Pharmacology Fundamentals

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Medication that is bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids are known as tablets. A suppository is a medication that is inserted either in the rectum or the vagina. b. Incorrect. Medication that is bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids are known as tablets. A capsule does not contain medications that are bound together. c. Incorrect. Medication that is bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids are known as tablets. Powders are not bound together. d. Correct. Medication that is bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids are known as tablets.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 50: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations

Solution and Answer Guide

BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 50: MEASUREMENT SYSTEMS, BASIC MATHEMATICS, AND DOSAGE CALCULATIONS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) .......................................................... 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) Which system of measurement is most used in health care? a. Apothecary b. Metric c. Standard d. Household ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The metric system of measurement is the most commonly used in healthcare. The apothecary measurement consists of several measurements of volume that in the past have been used for prescribing and measuring drugs. b. Correct. The metric system of measurement is the most commonly used in healthcare. c. Incorrect. The metric system of measurement is the most commonly used in healthcare. There is no such thing as a standard system of measurement. d. Incorrect. The metric system of measurement is the most commonly used in healthcare. Patients at home typically use household measurements such as tablespoon and teaspoon.

Drop, cup, and pint are measurements in which system? a. Apothecary b. Metric c. Standard d. Household ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Household measurements include the drop, cup and pint. The apothecary system was the first system of medication measurement and was developed hundreds of years ago. It consists of several measurements of volume that in the past have been used for prescribing and measuring drugs.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 50: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations

b. Incorrect. Household measurements include the drop, cup and pint. The metric system is the primary system of measurement in medicine, based on multiples of 10. c. Incorrect. Household measurements include the drop, cup and pint. There is no definition of standard measurements. d. Correct. Household measurements include the drop, cup and pint.

The prefix centi- means what? a. 1/10 of a unit. b. 1/100 of a unit. c. 10 units. d. 100 units.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The prefix centi- means 1/100 of a unit. b. Correct. The prefix centi- means 1/100 of a unit. c. Incorrect. The prefix centi- means 1/100 of a unit. d. Incorrect. The prefix centi- means 1/100 of a unit.

In the basic formula method, the prescribed amount would be inserted into what place in the formula? a. Needed b. Available c. Vehicle d. Dose ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. In the basic formula method, the prescribed amount is the amount needed. b. Incorrect. In the basic formula method, the prescribed amount is the amount needed. c. Incorrect. In the basic formula method, the prescribed amount is the amount needed. d. Incorrect. In the basic formula method, the prescribed amount is the amount needed.

What are the three steps used in finding the correct amount of medication in the ratio and proportion method? a. Calculate, convert, confirm b. Convert, calculate, confirm c. Convert, construct, calculate d. Construct, calculate, convert ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The three steps used in finding the correct amount of medication in the ratio and proportion method are convert, construct, and calculate. b. Incorrect. The three steps used in finding the correct amount of medication in the ratio and proportion method are convert, construct, and calculate.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 50: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations

c.

Correct. The three steps used in finding the correct amount of medication in the ratio and proportion method are convert, construct, and calculate. d. Incorrect. The three steps used in finding the correct amount of medication in the ratio and proportion method are convert, construct, and calculate.

What is the conversion factor for converting pounds into kilograms? a. 1 kg = 2 lb b. 1 kg = 2.2 lb c. 2 lb = 1 kg d. lb = 1 kg ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. To calculate the patient’s weight in kilograms (kg), you will use a conversion factor of 2.2 (1 kg = 2.2 1b). b. Correct. To calculate the patient’s weight in kilograms (kg), you will use a conversion factor of 2.2 (1 kg = 2.2 1b). c. Incorrect. To calculate the patient’s weight in kilograms (kg), you will use a conversion factor of 2.2 (1 kg = 2.2 1b). d. Incorrect. To calculate the patient’s weight in kilograms (kg), you will use a conversion factor of 2.2 (1 kg = 2.2 1b).

A ratio expresses the relationship between how many components? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. A ratio expresses the relationship between two components. b. Incorrect. A ratio expresses the relationship between two components. c. Incorrect. A ratio expresses the relationship between two components. d. Incorrect. A ratio expresses the relationship between two components.

You have acetaminophen elixir, which is labeled 325 mg/5 mL, on hand. The provider ordered 650 mg by mouth (PO). How many milliliters would you administer? a. 5 mL b. 10 mL c. 15 mL d. 20 mL ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. You would administer 10 mL. b. Correct. You would administer 10 mL. c. Incorrect. You would administer 10 mL. d. Incorrect. You would administer 10 mL.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 50: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations

Lasix is available in 40 mg scored tablets. The provider ordered the patient to take 60 mg by mouth (PO) every morning. How many tablets would the patient take? a. 1 tablet b. 1 ½ tablets c. 2 tablets d. 2 ½ tablets ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The patient would take 1 ½ tablets. b. Correct. The patient would take 1 ½ tablets. c. Incorrect. The patient would take 1 ½ tablets. d. Incorrect. The patient would take 1 ½ tablets.

A patient has presented to the clinic with a poison ivy rash, and the provider has ordered you to give them Benadryl elixir 25 mg by mouth (PO). You have 12.5 mg per 5 mL on hand. How many mL will you administer to the patient? a. 5 mL b. 10 mL c. 12.5 mL d. 25 mL ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. You would administer 10 mL. b. Correct. You would administer 10 mL. c. Incorrect. You would administer 10 mL. d. Incorrect. You would administer 10 mL.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 51: Administering Oral and Noninjectable Medications

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 51: ADMINISTERING ORAL AND NONINJECTABLE MEDICATIONS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following routes of administration places the medication between the cheek and gum for absorption through mucous membranes? a. Sublingual b. Oral c. Buccal d. Intraosseous ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The buccal route of administration places the medication between the cheek and gum for absorption through the mucous membranes. Sublingual refers to under the tongue. b. Incorrect. The buccal route of administration places the medication between the cheek and gum for absorption through the mucous membranes. Oral refers to swallowing a medication. c. Correct. The buccal route of administration places the medication between the cheek and gum for absorption through the mucous membranes. d. Incorrect. The buccal route of administration places the medication between the cheek and gum for absorption through the mucous membranes. Intraosseous refers to injecting something directly into the bone marrow.

2. To confirm that the medication is being administered to the right patient you should: a. check the patient chart. b. verify with the provider. c. ask the patient to provide their preferred name and give one more identifier. d. ask the patient if they are supposed to receive the ordered medication.

ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 51: Administering Oral and Noninjectable Medications

Analysis: a. Incorrect. To confirm that the medication is being administered to the right patient you should ask the patient to cite their full name and give one more identifier. b. Incorrect. To confirm that the medication is being administered to the right patient you should ask the patient to cite their full name and give one more identifier. c. Correct. To confirm that the medication is being administered to the right patient you should ask the patient to cite their full name and give one more identifier. d. Incorrect. To confirm that the medication is being administered to the right patient you should ask the patient to cite their full name and give one more identifier.

3. What should be included in recording medication information in the patient’s chart? a. Who, what, when, where, and why? b. Who, what, when, where, and with? c. What, when, where, while, and who? d. Who, what, went, where, and why?

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Who, what, when, where, and why should be included in recording medication information in the patient’s chart. b. Incorrect. Who, what, when, where, and why should be included in recording medication information in the patient’s chart. c. Incorrect. Who, what, when, where, and why should be included in recording medication information in the patient’s chart. d. Incorrect. Who, what, when, where, and why should be included in recording medication information in the patient’s chart.

4. Which of the following best describes the medication rights? a. Checklist of criteria to help prevent medication errors b. The medical assistant’s entitlements while working for a provider c. Patient entitlements under HIPAA d. Checklist of criteria for opening the office ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The seven rights is a checklist of criteria to help prevent medication errors. b. Incorrect. The seven rights is a checklist of criteria to help prevent medication errors. c. Incorrect. The seven rights is a checklist of criteria to help prevent medication errors. d. Incorrect. The seven rights is a checklist of criteria to help prevent medication errors.

5. Which of the medication rights of medication administration refers to where the medication is administered? a. Right Dose/amount b. Right Route/method c. Right Time d. Right Documentation ANS: b

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 51: Administering Oral and Noninjectable Medications

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Right Route/method by which the provider wants the medication to be administered (e.g., topically, transdermal, orally, or by injection). The right dose is the amount of medication to be administered. b. Correct. The Right Route/method by which the provider wants the medication to be administered (e.g., topically, transdermal, orally, or by injection). c. Incorrect. The Right Route/method by which the provider wants the medication to be administered (e.g., topically, transdermal, orally, or by injection). The time a medication is administered is also important to the well-being of the patient. For instance, some medicines should not be taken when the stomach is full, and some should not be taken when the stomach is empty. Determining the time the patient last ate is important. Checking the time also should remind you to check the expiration date of the medication to be sure of its quality and strength. d. Incorrect. The Right Route/method by which the provider wants the medication to be administered (e.g., topically, transdermal, orally, or by injection). All the information regarding the five rights, as well as the remaining four rights discussed, should be documented in complete detail in the patient’s record (Right Documentation), along with any adverse events and instructions provided to the patient regarding being alert for reactions and what steps to take if a reaction occurs.

6. Which of the following accrediting agencies for hospitals has prepared a Do Not Use list of abbreviations that most commonly lead to medication errors? a. CDC b. OSHA c. ISMP d. Joint Commission ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Joint Commission has prepared a Do Not Use list of abbreviations that most commonly lead to medication errors. The Centers for Disease Control has oversight over infectious diseases. b. Incorrect. The Joint Commission has prepared a Do Not Use list of abbreviations that most commonly lead to medication errors. OSHA oversees workplace safety. c. Incorrect. The Joint Commission has prepared a Do Not Use list of abbreviations that most commonly lead to medication errors. The ISMP has prepared a list of the most common abbreviations that lead to errors. d. Correct. The Joint Commission has prepared a Do Not Use list of abbreviations that most commonly lead to medication errors.

7. What is used to track and report any adverse events experienced by one or more patients to the manufacturer? a. Serial number b. Expiration date c. Lot number d. Time of the event ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 51: Administering Oral and Noninjectable Medications

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The lot number is used to track and report any adverse events experienced by one or more patients to the manufacturer. b. Incorrect. The lot number is used to track and report any adverse events experienced by one or more patients to the manufacturer. c. Correct. The lot number is used to track and report any adverse events experienced by one or more patients to the manufacturer. d. Incorrect. The lot number is used to track and report any adverse events experienced by one or more patients to the manufacturer.

8. Which of the following criteria is required in documenting immunizations? a. Pharmaceutical company name b. Serial number (if applicable) c. Container’s expiration date d. All the answers are correct ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. In documenting immunizations, the pharmaceutical company name, serial number (if applicable), and expiration date are all included. b. Incorrect. In documenting immunizations, the pharmaceutical company name, serial number (if applicable), and expiration date are all included. c. Incorrect. In documenting immunizations, the pharmaceutical company name, serial number (if applicable), and expiration date are all included. d. Correct. In documenting immunizations, the pharmaceutical company name, serial number (if applicable), and expiration date are all included.

9. Following standard protocol for reporting medication administration errors, whom should you notify to determine what steps need to be taken for reporting the incident? a. The prescriber or supervisor b. A coworker c. The patient d. No one needs to be notified ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Standard protocol for reporting medication errors includes notifying the prescriber or the supervisor. b. Incorrect. Standard protocol for reporting medication errors includes notifying the prescriber or the supervisor. c. Incorrect. Standard protocol for reporting medication errors includes notifying the prescriber or the supervisor. d. Incorrect. Standard protocol for reporting medication errors includes notifying the prescriber or the supervisor.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 51: Administering Oral and Noninjectable Medications

10. Which of the following are known as direct and complete instructions composed by the provider or other licensed practitioner for administering medications to a patient while they are in the office? a. Medication orders b. Medication prescriptions c. Medication log sheets d. Medication entries ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Medication orders are known as direct and complete instructions composed by the provider or other licensed practitioner for administering medications to a patient while they are in the office. b. Incorrect. Medication orders are known as direct and complete instructions composed by the provider or other licensed practitioner for administering medications to a patient while they are in the office. A prescription refers to the written order for medications. c. Incorrect. Medication orders are known as direct and complete instructions composed by the provider or other licensed practitioner for administering medications to a patient while they are in the office. A medication log sheet refers to where administered medications are recorded. d. Incorrect. Medication orders are known as direct and complete instructions composed by the provider or other licensed practitioner for administering medications to a patient while they are in the office. Medication entries refer to documenting the administration of medications.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 52: Administering Injections and Immunizations

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 52: ADMINISTERING INJECTIONS AND IMMUNIZATIONS

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

What is an anaphylactic reaction? a. The patient faints because of the medication administration. b. The patient has an allergic reaction because of the medication administration. c. The patient has a needlestick injury. d. The patient develops a wheal.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An anaphylactic reaction is when the patient has an allergic reaction as a result of the medication administration. b. Correct. An anaphylactic reaction is when the patient has an allergic reaction as a result of the medication administration. c. Incorrect. An anaphylactic reaction is when the patient has an allergic reaction as a result of the medication administration. d. Incorrect. An anaphylactic reaction is when the patient has an allergic reaction as a result of the medication administration.

2. When is the intradermal route of injection used? a. To administer medication directly into the vein b. To immunize c. To administer small doses of medications d. For allergy testing ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The intradermal route of injection is used for allergy testing. Delivering medication directly into the vein is intravenous. b. Incorrect. The intradermal route of injection is used for allergy testing.

Immunizations are given intramuscular.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 52: Administering Injections and Immunizations

c.

Incorrect. The intradermal route of injection is used for allergy testing. Small doses of medications is subcutaneous. d. Correct. The intradermal route of injection is used for allergy testing.

3. When performing an IM injection using a medication that has a thick viscosity, what needle size would be best? a. 1 ½ inch 30 gauge b. 1 inch 28 gauge c. 5/8 inch 24 gauge d. 1 ½ inch 22 gauge ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The needle gauge will depend on the medication viscosity. Use a smaller needle gauge for more viscous (thick) medication. b. Incorrect. The needle gauge will depend on the medication viscosity. Use a smaller needle gauge for more viscous (thick) medication. c. Incorrect. The needle gauge will depend on the medication viscosity. Use a smaller needle gauge for more viscous (thick) medication. d. Correct. The needle gauge will depend on the medication viscosity. Use a smaller needle gauge for more viscous (thick) medication.

4. Which document should always be signed before an immunization is given? a. VIS b. HIB c. MMR d. CDC ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Every patient or parent of a minor patient must be made aware of the benefits and risks of all vaccines, and a signed copy of the VIS, or vaccine information statement, should be made part of the patient’s permanent record. b. Incorrect. Every patient or parent of a minor patient must be made aware of the benefits and risks of all vaccines, and a signed copy of the VIS, or vaccine information statement, should be made part of the patient’s permanent record.

Haemophilus (or Hemophilus), also known as Hib and HIB, is a vaccine. c. Incorrect. Every patient or parent of a minor patient must be made aware of the benefits and risks of all vaccines, and a signed copy of the VIS, or vaccine information statement, should be made part of the patient’s permanent record.

Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) is a vaccine. d. Incorrect. Every patient or parent of a minor patient must be made aware of the benefits and risks of all vaccines, and a signed copy of the VIS, or vaccine information statement, should be made part of the patient’s permanent record. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) oversees infectious diseases.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 52: Administering Injections and Immunizations

5. What type of injection is given at a 45-degree angle? a. Subcutaneous b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Intradermal ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Subcutaneous injections are given at a 45-degree angle. b. Incorrect. Subcutaneous injections are given at a 45-degree angle. c. Incorrect. Subcutaneous injections are given at a 45-degree angle. d. Incorrect. Subcutaneous injections are given at a 45-degree angle.

6. The pathogenic organism is rendered inactive and then injected into the body, which stimulates antibody production in the _______________category of vaccine. a. pathogenic toxin b. live attenuated pathogen c. killed pathogen d. passive toxin ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. In the killed pathogen category of vaccine, the pathogenic organism is rendered inactive and then injected into the body, stimulating antibody production.

Some pathogenic organisms produce a poisonous substance (toxin), which stimulates antibody production. b. Incorrect. In the killed pathogen category of vaccine, the pathogenic organism is rendered inactive and then injected into the body, stimulating antibody production.

With a live attenuated pathogen vaccine, the pathogen itself is altered or weakened by the manufacturer and then injected into the body, stimulating the body to produce antibodies. c. Correct. In the killed pathogen category of vaccine, the pathogenic organism is rendered inactive and then injected into the body, stimulating antibody production. d. Incorrect. In the killed pathogen category of vaccine, the pathogenic organism is rendered inactive and then injected into the body, stimulating antibody production.

Passive toxin is not a vaccine category.

7. What do the initials MMR represent? a. Mumps, meningitis, rotavirus b. Measles, meningitis, rabies c. Measles, mumps, rubeola d. Measles, mumps, rubella ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The initials MMR represent measles, mumps, and rubella. b. Incorrect. The initials MMR represent measles, mumps, and rubella. c. Incorrect. The initials MMR represent measles, mumps, and rubella. d. Correct. The initials MMR represent measles, mumps, and rubella. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 52: Administering Injections and Immunizations

8. What is the correct procedure for disposal of a used needle? a. Recap immediately; dispose into a sharps container. b. Recap immediately; discard into a labeled biohazardous bag. c. Do not recap; dispose into a sharps container. d. Do not recap; dispose into the trash can.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The correct procedure for disposal of a used needle is to not recap and dispose into a sharps container. Recapping presents a needlestick hazard. b. Incorrect. The correct procedure for disposal of a used needle is to not recap and dispose into a sharps container. Recapping presents a needlestick hazard. c. Correct. The correct procedure for disposal of a used needle is to not recap and dispose into a sharps container. d. Incorrect. The correct procedure for disposal of a used needle is to not recap and dispose into a sharps container. Recapping presents a needlestick hazard.

9. Calibrated measurement can be found on which of the following parts of the syringe? a. Plunger b. Flange c. Plain tip d. Barrel ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Calibrated measurement can be found on the barrel of the syringe. b. Incorrect. Calibrated measurement can be found on the barrel of the syringe. c. Incorrect. Calibrated measurement can be found on the barrel of the syringe. d. Correct. Calibrated measurement can be found on the barrel of the syringe.

10. When can a medical assistant access an IV? a. At any time b. Depends on individual state scope of practice laws c. Never d. While a provider is in the room ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Each state defines the scope of practice laws for medical assistants.

Some states allow a medical assistant to access an IV and others do not. b. Correct. Each state defines the scope of practice laws for medical assistants. Some states allow a medical assistant to access an IV and others do not. c. Incorrect. Each state defines the scope of practice laws for medical assistants.

Some states allow a medical assistant to access an IV and others do not. d. Incorrect. Each state defines the scope of practice laws for medical assistants.

Some states allow a medical assistant to access an IV and others do not.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 53: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 53: EMERGENCIES IN THE MEDICAL OFFICE AND THE COMMUNITY

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

This unit is computerized and can analyze the heart rhythm of a person in fibrillation or arrest, recognize a shockable rhythm, and advise the operator through lights and voice prompts if a shock is indicated. a. ECG b. AED c. EMS d. Ambu bag ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An AED is a computerized and can analyze the heart rhythm of a person in fibrillation or arrest, recognize a shockable rhythm, and advise the operator through lights and voice prompts if a shock is indicated. An ECG is a graph of voltage versus time of the electrical activity of the heart using electrodes placed on the skin. b. Correct. An AED is a computerized and can analyze the heart rhythm of a person in fibrillation or arrest, recognize a shockable rhythm, and advise the operator through lights and voice prompts if a shock is indicated. c. Incorrect. An AED is a computerized and can analyze the heart rhythm of a person in fibrillation or arrest, recognize a shockable rhythm, and advise the operator through lights and voice prompts if a shock is indicated. EMS refers to emergency medical services. d. Incorrect. An AED is a computerized and can analyze the heart rhythm of a person in fibrillation or arrest, recognize a shockable rhythm, and advise the operator through lights and voice prompts if a shock is indicated. An ambu bag is a handheld device commonly used to provide positive pressure ventilation to patients who are not breathing or not breathing adequately.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 53: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community

2. The most immediate information you need to relay to EMS includes: a. the nature of the situation and the address of the victim’s location. b. the victim’s name. c. the caller’s name and phone number in case the connection is lost. d. when the problem started.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The most immediate information you need to relay to EMS includes the nature of the situation and the address of the victim’s location. b. Incorrect. The most immediate information you need to relay to EMS includes the nature of the situation and the address of the victim’s location. c. Incorrect. The most immediate information you need to relay to EMS includes the nature of the situation and the address of the victim’s location. d. Incorrect. The most immediate information you need to relay to EMS includes the nature of the situation and the address of the victim’s location.

3. When distinguishing the severity and length of time for onset of disease or illness, which of the following common terms describes having rapid onset, severe symptoms, and a short course? a. Chronic b. Subtle c. Acute d. Life-threatening ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. When distinguishing the severity and length of time for onset of disease or illness, acute describes having rapid onset, severe symptoms, and a short course.

Chronic means long and drawn out. b. Incorrect. When distinguishing the severity and length of time for onset of disease or illness, acute describes having rapid onset, severe symptoms, and a short course.

Subtle means hidden and not apparent. c. Correct. When distinguishing the severity and length of time for onset of disease or illness, acute describes having rapid onset, severe symptoms, and a short course. d. Incorrect. When distinguishing the severity and length of time for onset of disease or illness, acute describes having rapid onset, severe symptoms, and a short course.

Life-threatening means the condition can cause death.

4. In which of the following emergency situations should the patient be given some form of sugar to help alleviate the situation? a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Hyperglycemia c. Diaphoresis d. Hypoglycemia ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 53: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community

Analysis: a. Incorrect. In the emergency situation of hypoglycemia, the patient should be given some form of sugar to help alleviate the situation. b. Incorrect. In the emergency situation of hypoglycemia, the patient should be given some form of sugar to help alleviate the situation. c. Incorrect. In the emergency situation of hypoglycemia, the patient should be given some form of sugar to help alleviate the situation. d. Correct. In the emergency situation of hypoglycemia, the patient should be given some form of sugar to help alleviate the situation.

5. The signs of a patient having heat exhaustion would be: a. pale, cool, and moist skin and normal body temperature. b. hot and dry skin and body temperature possible above 40 degrees C/104 degrees F. c. a weak pulse and shallow breathing, body temperature dropping lower than 35 degrees C/95 degrees F. d. white or grayish-yellow skin waxy in appearance.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. The signs of a patient having heat exhaustion would be pale, cool, and moist skin and normal body temperature. b. Incorrect. The signs of a patient having heat exhaustion would be pale, cool, and moist skin and normal body temperature. c. Incorrect. The signs of a patient having heat exhaustion would be pale, cool, and moist skin and normal body temperature. d. Incorrect. The signs of a patient having heat exhaustion would be pale, cool, and moist skin and normal body temperature.

6. Symptoms that might include shortness of breath; a burning sensation in the chest; nausea and vomiting; unexplained fatigue or weakness; and/or pain in the jaw, neck, shoulder, back, or ear could indicate: a. heart attack. b. stroke. c. shock. d. seizure.

ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Symptoms that might include shortness of breath; a burning sensation in the chest; nausea and vomiting; unexplained fatigue or weakness; and/or pain in the jaw, neck, shoulder, back, or ear could indicate heart attack. b. Incorrect. Symptoms that might include shortness of breath; a burning sensation in the chest; nausea and vomiting; unexplained fatigue or weakness; and/or pain in the jaw, neck, shoulder, back, or ear could indicate heart attack. c. Incorrect. Symptoms that might include shortness of breath; a burning sensation in the chest; nausea and vomiting; unexplained fatigue or weakness; and/or pain in the jaw, neck, shoulder, back, or ear could indicate heart attack. d. Incorrect. Symptoms that might include shortness of breath; a burning sensation in the chest; nausea and vomiting; unexplained fatigue or weakness; and/or pain in the jaw, neck, shoulder, back, or ear could indicate heart attack.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 53: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community

7. The most usual cause for an obstructed airway in adults is: a. buttons. b. candy. c. food aspirated while eating. d. toy parts.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The most usual cause of an obstructed airway in adults is food aspirated while eating. b. Incorrect. The most usual cause of an obstructed airway in adults is food aspirated while eating. c. Correct. The most usual cause of an obstructed airway in adults is food aspirated while eating. d. Incorrect. The most usual cause of an obstructed airway in adults is food aspirated while eating.

8. Coughing up what appears to be coffee grounds can indicate: a. lung hemorrhage. b. a chronic slow bleed of the stomach. c. epistaxis. d. an ulcer has started bleeding.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Vomiting up what appears to be coffee grounds can indicate a chronic slow bleed of the stomach. b. Correct. Vomiting up what appears to be coffee grounds can indicate a chronic slow bleed of the stomach. c. Incorrect. Vomiting up what appears to be coffee grounds can indicate a chronic slow bleed of the stomach. d. Incorrect. Vomiting up what appears to be coffee grounds can indicate a chronic slow bleed of the stomach.

9. When a patient is having a seizure, the MA’s first response is to: a. call for help. b. restrain movement. c. force object between teeth. d. prevent injury to patient.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When a patient is having a seizure, the MA’s first response is to prevent injury to the patient. b. Incorrect. When a patient is having a seizure, the MA’s first response is to prevent injury to the patient. c. Incorrect. When a patient is having a seizure, the MA’s first response is to prevent injury to the patient. d. Correct. When a patient is having a seizure, the MA’s first response is to prevent injury to the patient.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 53: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community

10. A patient experiencing hyperglycemia will have skin that is: a. cold and flushed. b. hot and flushed. c. dry and flushed. d. wet and flushed.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A patient experiencing hyperglycemia will have skin that is dry and flushed. b. Incorrect. A patient experiencing hyperglycemia will have skin that is dry and flushed. c. Correct. A patient experiencing hyperglycemia will have skin that is dry and flushed. d. Incorrect. A patient experiencing hyperglycemia will have skin that is dry and flushed.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 54: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 54: FIRST AID FOR ACCIDENTS AND INJURIES

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

With all human bites, a tetanus injection must be administered to the patient if they have not received one within: a. 1 year. b. 5 years. c. 7 years. d. 10 years.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. As with any injury, a tetanus toxoid booster might be needed if it has been longer than five years since the last booster. b. Correct. As with any injury, a tetanus toxoid booster might be needed if it has been longer than five years since the last booster. c. Incorrect. As with any injury, a tetanus toxoid booster might be needed if it has been longer than five years since the last booster. d. Incorrect. As with any injury, a tetanus toxoid booster might be needed if it has been longer than five years since the last booster.

2. At least half of all dislocations involve which of the following body parts? a. Shoulder b. Wrist c. Ankle d. Knee ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. At least half of all dislocations involve the shoulder, but dislocations are possible at any freely moving joint. b. Incorrect. At least half of all dislocations involve the shoulder, but dislocations are possible at any freely moving joint.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 54: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries

c.

Incorrect. At least half of all dislocations involve the shoulder, but dislocations are possible at any freely moving joint. d. Incorrect. At least half of all dislocations involve the shoulder, but dislocations are possible at any freely moving joint.

3. Which type of insect leaves a stinger in the skin that should be removed immediately by scraping it out carefully with a credit card or other rigid object? a. Wasp b. Hornet c. Yellow jacket d. Honeybee ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A honeybee leaves the stinger in the skin, and it should be immediately removed by scraping it out carefully with a credit card or other rigid object. A wasp retains its stinger and can sting more than once. b. Incorrect. A honeybee leaves the stinger in the skin, and it should be immediately removed by scraping it out carefully with a credit card or other rigid object. A hornet retains its stinger and can sting more than once. c. Incorrect. A honeybee leaves the stinger in the skin, and it should be immediately removed by scraping it out carefully with a credit card or other rigid object. A yellow jacket retains its stinger and can sting more than once. d. Correct. A honeybee leaves the stinger in the skin, and it should be immediately removed by scraping it out carefully with a credit card or other rigid object.

4. Partial-thickness burns are also referred to as: a. first-degree burns. b. second-degree burns. c. third-degree burns. d. fourth-degree burns.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A second-degree burn (also called a partial-thickness burn) involves the epidermis and part of the dermis. A first-degree burn (also called a superficial burn) involves an injury primarily to the epidermis. b. Correct. A second-degree burn (also called a partial-thickness burn) involves the epidermis and part of the dermis. c. Incorrect. A second-degree burn (also called a partial-thickness burn) involves the epidermis and part of the dermis. Third- or fourth-degree burns (also called fullthickness burns) involve the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous skin layers, including fat and muscle tissue. d. Incorrect. A second-degree burn (also called a partial-thickness burn) involves the epidermis and part of the dermis. Third- or fourth-degree burns (also called fullthickness burns) involve the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous skin layers, including fat and muscle tissue.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 54: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries

5. Heat treatment dilates blood vessels, which increases circulation and reduces localized swelling how many hours after the initial cold treatment following an injury? a. 12–24 b. 24–36 c. 24–48 d. 48–72 ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Heat treatment dilates blood vessels, which increases circulation and reduces localized swelling 48–72 hours after the initial cold treatment following an injury. b. Incorrect. Heat treatment dilates blood vessels, which increases circulation and reduces localized swelling 48–72 hours after the initial cold treatment following an injury. c. Incorrect. Heat treatment dilates blood vessels, which increases circulation and reduces localized swelling 48–72 hours after the initial cold treatment following an injury. d. Correct. Heat treatment dilates blood vessels, which increases circulation and reduces localized swelling 48–72 hours after the initial cold treatment following an injury.

6. Which of the following types of wounds involves the skin being torn off and the wound bleeding profusely? a. Laceration b. Avulsion c. Abrasion d. Puncture ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An avulsion involves the skin being torn off and the wound bleeding profusely. A laceration is a tearing of body tissue and is more difficult to clean and suture properly. b. Correct. An avulsion involves the skin being torn off and the wound bleeding profusely. c. Incorrect. An avulsion involves the skin being torn off and the wound bleeding profusely. Abrasions involve a scrape of the epidermis with dots of blood and possibly the presence of foreign material such as dirt or gravel. d. Incorrect. An avulsion involves the skin being torn off and the wound bleeding profusely. A puncture wound is one made with a pointed object, such as an ice pick, knife, or nail.

7. This type of fracture involves an open wound. a. Simple b. Closed c. Compound d. Both simple and closed ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 54: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries

Analysis: a. Incorrect. A compound fracture involves an open wound. In a simple fracture, the skin is intact over the fracture. b. Incorrect. A compound fracture involves an open wound. In a closed fracture, the skin is intact over the fracture. c. Correct. A compound fracture involves an open wound. d. Incorrect. A compound fracture involves an open wound. In simple and closed fractures, the skin is intact over the fracture.

8. A person who is severely allergic to stings and at a risk for anaphylactic shock should always be prepared by having which of the following with them? a. Tylenol b. EpiPen c. Benadryl d. After Bite ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A person who is severely allergic to stings and at a risk for anaphylactic shock should always be prepared by having an EpiPen. Tylenol is used for pain it does not help with an allergic reaction. b. Correct. A person who is severely allergic to stings and at a risk for anaphylactic shock should always be prepared by having an EpiPen. c. Incorrect. A person who is severely allergic to stings and at a risk for anaphylactic shock should always be prepared by having an EpiPen. Benadryl is used for minor allergic reactions. d. Incorrect. A person who is severely allergic to stings and at a risk for anaphylactic shock should always be prepared by having an EpiPen. There is no medication called after bite.

9. When an object is embedded in the cornea, proper removal would be to: a. removed with a folded piece of moistened sterile gauze. b. flush the eye with water. c. pull upper lid over lower lid. d. avoid touching it, the provider must remove.

ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Any object embedded on the cornea must be removed by the provider. A foreign body under the lower lid can usually be seen easily and can be removed with a bit of cotton or a fold of tissue moistened with water. b. Incorrect. Any object embedded on the cornea must be removed by the provider.

Flushing the eye is done for small specks of dirt. c. Incorrect. Any object embedded on the cornea must be removed by the provider. If a foreign body is under the upper lid, it might be possible to remove it by pulling the upper lid down over the lower lid. d. Correct. Any object embedded on the cornea must be removed by the provider.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 54: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries

10. Which of the following bandage techniques is used for head injuries? a. Tube-gauze b. Cravat c. Spiral d. Figure-eight ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A cravat bandage is used for head injuries. A tube gauze bandage is used to cover a wound or hold a bandage in place on an appendage such as a finger, toe, arm, or leg. b. Correct. A cravat bandage is used for head injuries. c. Incorrect. A cravat bandage is used for head injuries. An injury on the arms or legs requires the dressing to be held in place with a spiral bandage. d. Incorrect. A cravat bandage is used for head injuries. A wound on the palm or back of the hand may be protected with a dressing and a figure-eight bandage.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 55: Rehabilitation

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 55: REHABILITATION

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

When using proper body mechanics, which of the following statements is true? a. Always bend from the waist to allow the largest muscles of the legs to do the hard work. b. Hold heavy objects far away from the body. c. Check your posture by reminding yourself to keep your chin and chest up. d. Check your posture by keeping your shoulders forward and pelvis tilted slightly inward.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Regularly check your posture by reminding yourself to keep your chin and chest up, shoulders back, and pelvis tilted slightly inward. Bending at the waist may cause a back injury. b. Incorrect. Regularly check your posture by reminding yourself to keep your chin and chest up, shoulders back, and pelvis tilted slightly inward. Holding heavy objects far away from the body may cause a back injury. c. Correct. Regularly check your posture by reminding yourself to keep your chin and chest up, shoulders back, and pelvis tilted slightly inward. d. Incorrect. Regularly check your posture by reminding yourself to keep your chin and chest up, shoulders back, and pelvis tilted slightly inward. Shoulders are to be kept back, not inward.

2. Patients who have disabilities, are arthritis sufferers, or have had a stroke would benefit from which of the following? a. A low-fat diet b. Surgery c. A therapy animal d. A mobility device ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 55: Rehabilitation

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Patients who have disabilities, are arthritis sufferers, or have had a stroke would benefit from a mobility device. Their diet may be important, but it would not help with mobility. b. Incorrect. Patients who have disabilities, are arthritis sufferers, or have had a stroke would benefit from a mobility device. Surgery is not always indicated with these conditions. c. Incorrect. Patients who have disabilities, are arthritis sufferers, or have had a stroke would benefit from a mobility device. A therapy animal is not used to help with mobility. d. Correct. Patients who have disabilities, are arthritis sufferers, or have had a stroke would benefit from a mobility device.

3. When using a cane for support, the arm should hang naturally at the side with the elbow flexed at about a ________ degree angle. a. 10–15 b. 20–25 c. 25–30 d. 30–45 ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. When using a cane for support, the arm should hang naturally at the side with the elbow flexed at about a 25–30-degree angle. b. Incorrect. When using a cane for support, the arm should hang naturally at the side with the elbow flexed at about a 25–30-degree angle. c. Correct. When using a cane for support, the arm should hang naturally at the side with the elbow flexed at about a 25–30-degree angle. d. Incorrect. When using a cane for support, the arm should hang naturally at the side with the elbow flexed at about a 25–30-degree angle.

4. When adjusting crutches for the correct height, adjust them so that the underarm pad is _____ below the axilla. a. one inch b. two inches c. four inches d. six inches ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. When adjusting crutches for the correct height, adjust them so that the underarm pad is 2 inches below the axilla. b. Correct. When adjusting crutches for the correct height, adjust them so that the underarm pad is 2 inches below the axilla. c. Incorrect. When adjusting crutches for the correct height, adjust them so that the underarm pad is 2 inches below the axilla. d. Incorrect. When adjusting crutches for the correct height, adjust them so that the underarm pad is 2 inches below the axilla.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 55: Rehabilitation

5. Which of the following crutch gaits positions both crutches and the left foot forward and then brings up the right foot? a. Three-point b. Four-point c. Two-point d. Swing-through ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. With the three-point gait, both crutches and the left foot are forward and then the right foot is brought up. b. Incorrect. With the three-point gait, both crutches and the left foot are forward and then the right foot is brought up. The four-point gait shows the right crutch being positioned first, followed by moving the left foot. Then the left crutch is moved forward, followed by the right foot. c. Incorrect. With the three-point gait, both crutches and the left foot are forward and then the right foot is brought up. The two-point gait matches the crutch to the opposite foot, moving them together. d. Incorrect. With the three-point gait, both crutches and the left foot are forward and then the right foot is brought up. With a swing-through gait, crutches are moved forward, weight is transferred, and both feet swing through the crutches, stopping slightly in front.

6. When instructing patients on the use of the walker: a. place their foot when they step so that it is even with the front of the walker. b. move the walker forward and step into the walker while leaning slightly forward. c. move the walker forward and step into the walker while leaning slightly backward. d. adjust the walker so the handles are at the height of the patient’s elbows.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The patient should move the walker forward and then step into the walker while leaning slightly forward. It may be difficult to maintain balance if the patient steps too far into the walker. b. Correct. The patient should move the walker forward and then step into the walker while leaning slightly forward. c. Incorrect. The patient should move the walker forward and then step into the walker while leaning slightly forward. If the patient leans backward, they may fall. d. Incorrect. The patient should move the walker forward and then step into the walker while leaning slightly forward. The handles of the walker should be at the patient’s hip level.

7. In ROM exercises, abduction refers to: a. motion that pulls a structure toward the midline. b. bending movement that decreases the angle between two parts. c. rotation of the forearm. d. motion that pulls a structure away from the midline.

ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 55: Rehabilitation

Analysis: a. Incorrect. In ROM exercises, abduction refers to a motion that pulls a structure away from the midline. Adduction refers to a motion that pulls a structure toward the midline. b. Incorrect. In ROM exercises, abduction refers to a motion that pulls a structure away from the midline. Flexion is a bending movement that decreases the angle between two parts. c. Incorrect. In ROM exercises, abduction refers to a motion that pulls a structure away from the midline. Pronation is the rotation of the forearm. d. Correct. In ROM exercises, abduction refers to a motion that pulls a structure away from the midline.

8. Reducing the risk of injury to both patient and caregiver is achieved by using which of the following? a. Body mechanics b. Mobility devices c. Range of motion exercises d. Ergonomics ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Body mechanics is the practice of using certain key muscle groups together with good body alignment and proper body positioning to reduce the risk of injury to both patient and caregiver. b. Incorrect. Body mechanics is the practice of using certain key muscle groups together with good body alignment and proper body positioning to reduce the risk of injury to both patient and caregiver. Mobility devices are used with individuals who need assistance moving around. c. Incorrect. Body mechanics is the practice of using certain key muscle groups together with good body alignment and proper body positioning to reduce the risk of injury to both patient and caregiver. Range of motion exercises are used to increase flexibility. d. Incorrect. Body mechanics is the practice of using certain key muscle groups together with good body alignment and proper body positioning to reduce the risk of injury to both patient and caregiver. Ergonomics refers to using proper posture to avoid injury.

9. Which of the following mobility devices is useful for patients who, because of age or physical condition, cannot safely use standard crutches? a. Lofstrand crutches b. Platform crutches c. Walker d. Cane ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A walker is useful for patients who, because of age or a physical condition, cannot safely use standard crutches. A Lofstrand crutch is a forearm crutch.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 55: Rehabilitation

b. Incorrect. A walker is useful for patients who, because of age or a physical condition, cannot safely use standard crutches. A platform crutch is used when a patient’s hand or forearm is not able to bear the patient’s body weight. c. Correct. A walker is useful for patients who, because of age or a physical condition, cannot safely use standard crutches. d. Incorrect. A walker is useful for patients who, because of age or a physical condition, cannot safely use standard crutches. A cane is used by an individual who needs some help with balance.

10. When applying the arm sling you have the patient slide their arm into the pouch-like opening of the sling and position the arm into which degree angle? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 90 ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When applying the arm sling you have the patient slide their arm into the pouch-like opening of the sling and position the arm into a 90-degree angle. b. Incorrect. When applying the arm sling you have the patient slide their arm into the pouch-like opening of the sling and position the arm into a 90-degree angle. c. Incorrect. When applying the arm sling you have the patient slide their arm into the pouch-like opening of the sling and position the arm into a 90-degree angle. d. Correct. When applying the arm sling you have the patient slide their arm into the pouch-like opening of the sling and position the arm into a 90-degree angle.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

5

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 56: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 56: NUTRITION , EXERCISE, AND HEALTHY LIVING

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

The body gets energy from: a. fats. b. water. c. electrolytes. d. vitamins.

ANS: a

Analysis: a. Correct. The body gets energy from carbohydrate, fat, and protein nutrients. b. Incorrect. The body gets energy from carbohydrate, fat, and protein nutrients. c. Incorrect. The body gets energy from carbohydrate, fat, and protein nutrients. d. Incorrect. The body gets energy from carbohydrate, fat, and protein nutrients.

2. A gram of fat has approximately ______ calories. a. four b. five c. seven d. nine ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. A gram of fat has approximately nine calories. b. Incorrect. A gram of fat has approximately nine calories. c. Incorrect. A gram of fat has approximately nine calories. d. Correct. A gram of fat has approximately nine calories.

3. The ChooseMyPlate Food Guidance System designs a _________. a. personal exercise plan for you b. personal food plan for you c. vitamin regimen for you d. sleep pattern for you ANS: b © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 56: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The ChooseMyPlate Food Guidance System designs a personal food plan for you. b. Correct. The ChooseMyPlate Food Guidance System designs a personal food plan for you. c. Incorrect. The ChooseMyPlate Food Guidance System designs a personal food plan for you. d. Incorrect. The ChooseMyPlate Food Guidance System designs a personal food plan for you.

4. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin E ANS: a Analysis: a. Correct. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamin C and the BComplex vitamins are water-soluble. b. Incorrect. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamin C and the BComplex vitamins are water-soluble. c. Incorrect. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamin C and the BComplex vitamins are water-soluble. d. Incorrect. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamin C and the BComplex vitamins are water-soluble.

5. Which of the following disorders is characterized by bingeing and purging? a. Anorexia b. Gluttony c. Bulimia d. Obesity ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Bulimia is a disorder characterized by bingeing and purging. Anorexia is a psychoneurotic disorder in which the patient—usually but not exclusively a female— refuses to eat over a period of time. b. Incorrect. Bulimia is a disorder characterized by bingeing and purging. Gluttony is overeating. c. Correct. Bulimia is a disorder characterized by bingeing and purging. d. Incorrect. Bulimia is a disorder characterized by bingeing and purging. Obesity is having a high body mass index.

6. Which of the following is considered a Vitamin C deficiency disease? a. Rickets b. Scurvy c. Beriberi d. Spongy bones ANS: b

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 56: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Scurvy is considered a vitamin C deficiency disease. Rickets is the result of a deficiency of vitamin D. b. Correct. Scurvy is considered a vitamin C deficiency disease. c. Incorrect. Scurvy is considered a vitamin C deficiency disease. Beriberi is the result of a deficiency of vitamin B or thiamine. d. Incorrect. Scurvy is considered a vitamin C deficiency disease. Spongy bones is not a medical condition.

7. On food labels, the word exchange means to assist patients with: a. vitamin deficiencies. b. diabetes through guidance on alternative food selections. c. protein choices. d. calorie intake.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. On food labels, the word exchange means to assist patients with diabetes through guidance on alternative food selections. b. Correct. On food labels, the word exchange means to assist patients with diabetes through guidance on alternative food selections. c. Incorrect. On food labels, the word exchange means to assist patients with diabetes through guidance on alternative food selections. d. Incorrect. On food labels, the word exchange means to assist patients with diabetes through guidance on alternative food selections.

8. This dietary supplement is a hormone produced naturally in the pineal gland within the brain. It plays a part in regulating sleep patterns. a. St. John’s wort b. Echinacea c. Melatonin d. Ginseng ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Melatonin is a hormone produced naturally in the pineal gland within the brain that plays a part in regulating sleep patterns. St. John’s wort is said to help with depression. b. Incorrect. Melatonin is a hormone produced naturally in the pineal gland within the brain that plays a part in regulating sleep patterns. Echinacea is said to help with healing c. Correct. Melatonin is a hormone produced naturally in the pineal gland within the brain that plays a part in regulating sleep patterns. d. Incorrect. Melatonin is a hormone produced naturally in the pineal gland within the brain that plays a part in regulating sleep patterns. Ginseng is said to help with well-being.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 56: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living

9. The following exercise is used for which muscles? Lean into the wall with your left hand and pull your right ankle up gently with your right hand for 15–25 seconds. Then repeat with the left ankle. a. Calf muscles b. Outer thigh muscles c. Hip muscles d. Quadriceps ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. This exercise is for the quadricep muscles. The exercise for calf muscles is to place feet flat on the floor, two or three feet away from a wall. Lean your forearms flat against the wall, then step toward the wall with the left floor, bending the knee while keeping the heel of the right floor flat on the floor for about 15–25 seconds. b. Incorrect. This exercise is for the quadricep muscles. The exercise for the outer thigh muscles is to stand next to and press your left hand against the wall as you place your right hand on your right hip. Bend the right knee slightly, rest the left foot on its sid,e and hold for 15–25 seconds. c. Incorrect. This exercise is for the quadricep muscles. The exercise for hip muscles is to get into a kneeling position with our right foot flat on the floor and bend the right knee up to touch your chest. Keep your left leg on the floor behind you (arms at your sides) and stretch and hold for 15–25 seconds. d. Correct. This exercise is for the quadricep muscles.

10. Which of the following religious groups has dietary laws that prohibit eating pork and drinking alcohol? a. Hindu b. Islamic c. Jewish d. Catholic ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The Islamic religion prohibits eating pork and drinking alcohol. The Hindu religious group does not eat meat and follows a lacto-vegetarian diet. b. Correct. The Islamic religion prohibits eating pork and drinking alcohol. c. Incorrect. The Islamic religion prohibits eating pork and drinking alcohol. The Jewish religious group forbids eating the hindquarters of meat, shellfish, and pork. d. Incorrect. The Islamic religion prohibits eating pork and drinking alcohol. The Catholic religious group abstains from eating meat on Ash Wednesdays and Fridays during Lent.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 57: Practicum and the Job Search

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 57: PRACTICUM AND THE JOB SEARCH

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

A practicum should be treated as a: a. work experience. b. learning experience. c. possible job lead. d. regular school day.

ANS: b

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The practicum should be treated as a learning experience. b. Correct. The practicum should be treated as a learning experience. c. Incorrect. The practicum should be treated as a learning experience. d. Incorrect. The practicum should be treated as a learning experience.

2. What is the goal of a résumé? a. To present a personal profile b. To get a job c. To show off your achievements d. To receive an interview ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. The goal of a résumé is to receive an interview. b. Incorrect. The goal of a résumé is to receive an interview. The goal of the interview is to get a job. c. Incorrect. The goal of a résumé is to receive an interview. d. Correct. The goal of a résumé is to receive an interview.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 57: Practicum and the Job Search

3. Which of the following is typically contained in a job description? a. Beginning salary b. Other duties as assigned c. Manager’s name d. Qualifications for the job ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Job descriptions may contain a salary range but are mostly focused on the necessary qualifications to do the job. b. Incorrect. Although other duties as assigned can be listed in the job description, most important are the qualifications necessary to do the job. c. Incorrect. The manager’s name is not contained in a job description. d. Correct. Qualifications required for the job are typically contained in a job description 4. When negotiating a job offer, which of the following inquiries will most impress a prospective employer? a. Questions about health insurance benefits b. Questions about career laddering opportunities c. Questions about tuition reimbursement d. Questions about professional development opportunities ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. When negotiating a job offer, questions about professional development opportunities will most impress a prospective employer. Questions about benefits make it seem as if that is most important to you. b. Incorrect. When negotiating a job offer, questions about professional development opportunities will most impress a prospective employer. Questions about career laddering opportunities make it seem as if that is most important to you. c. Incorrect. When negotiating a job offer, questions about professional development opportunities will most impress a prospective employer. Questions about tuition reimbursement make it seem as if that is most important to you. d. Correct. When negotiating a job offer, questions about professional development opportunities will most impress a prospective employer.

5. When should you arrive at an interview? a. Right on time b. 5 minutes early c. 10 minutes early d. 20 minutes early ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. You should arrive at an interview 15–20 minutes early. b. Incorrect. You should arrive at an interview 15–20 minutes early. c. Correct. You should arrive at an interview 15–20 minutes early. d. Incorrect. You should arrive at an interview 15–20 minutes early. © 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 57: Practicum and the Job Search

6. Which of the following would be considered inappropriate attire when interviewing for a new position? a. Brown pantsuit b. Polished long nails c. Hair pulled into a ponytail d. Wedding ring ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Polished long nails would be considered inappropriate attire when interviewing for a new position. b. Correct. Polished long nails would be considered inappropriate attire when interviewing for a new position. c. Incorrect. Polished long nails would be considered inappropriate attire when interviewing for a new position. d. Incorrect. Polished long nails would be considered inappropriate attire when interviewing for a new position.

7. Which of the following is not considered best practice when using social media to look for work? a. Set your personal profiles to private. b. Use a separate personal profile. c. Remove pictures that would not represent how you want to appear to a prospective employer. d. Set your personal profiles to public.

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. The best practice for using social media when you are looking for work is to use a separate professional profile. b. Correct. The best practice for using social media when you are looking for work is to use a separate professional profile. You should never include inflated information on your social media site or elsewhere. c. Incorrect. The best practice for using social media when you are looking for work is to use a separate professional profile. Posting flattering photos may not offset anything negative that is viewable on your social media site. d. Incorrect. The best practice for using social media when you are looking for work is to use a separate professional profile. Setting your profile to public will allow anyone who visits your site to see anything posted there.

8. Which of the following is not a component of a cover letter? a. Addressed to the person who decides who is interviewed and who is hired b. Addressed to the clinic medical director or physician c. Identifies your skills d. Identifies your experience ANS: b

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 57: Practicum and the Job Search

Analysis: a. Incorrect. Cover letters typically don’t contain the name of the person who decides who is interviewed or who is hired. b. Correct. Addressed to the clinic medical director or physician is a component of a cover letter. c. Incorrect. Your skills are identified on your résumé. d. Incorrect. Your experience is identified on your résumé.

9. A follow-up letter should be sent: a. only via email. b. via text. c. shortly after the interview has taken place. d. within two weeks after the interview if you have not heard back.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. A follow-up letter should be sent shortly after the interview has taken place. Follow-up letters should be sent via the postal services, not via email. b. Incorrect. A follow-up letter should be sent shortly after the interview has taken place. Follow-up letters should be sent via the postal services, not via text. c. Correct. A follow-up letter should be sent shortly after the interview has taken place. d. Incorrect. A follow-up letter should be sent shortly after the interview has taken place.

10. Which of the following represents an illegal interview question? a. Asking whether you have worked under another name b. Asking for married or single status after hiring c. Requiring proof of age after hiring d. Asking a woman if she prefers Miss, Mrs., or Ms. ANS: d Analysis: a. Incorrect. Asking a woman if she prefers Miss, Mrs., or Ms. is an illegal interview question. It is legal to ask if the applicant has worked under another name. b. Incorrect. Asking a woman if she prefers Miss, Mrs., or Ms. is an illegal interview question. It is legal to ask for marital status after hire for tax purposes. c. Incorrect. Asking a woman if she prefers Miss, Mrs., or Ms. is an illegal interview question. It is legal to require proof of age for certain jobs that have an age requirement. d. Correct. Asking a woman if she prefers Miss, Mrs., or Ms. is an illegal interview question.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 58: Managing the Office

Solution and Answer Guide BLESI, MEDICAL ASSISTING, 10E, 2026; 9798214113586; CHAPTER 58: MANAGING THE OFFICE

TABLE OF CONTENTS Content Type........................................................................................................................1 Review Questions (from End of Chapter questions) ............................................................ 1

CONTENT TYPE REVIEW QUESTIONS (FROM END OF CHAPTER QUESTIONS) 1.

Which of the following conflict management styles refers to cooperating with the other party to understand their concerns and expressing your own concerns in an effort to find a mutually agreeable solution to both parties? a. Competing b. Cooperating c. Collaborating d. Compromising ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Competing is using formal authority or other power that you possess to satisfy your concerns without regard to the concerns of the party with which you are in conflict. b. Correct. Cooperating with the other party to understand their concerns and expressing your own concerns in an effort to find a mutually and completely satisfactory solution (win-win). c. Incorrect. Collaboration implies shared ownership whereas cooperation is understanding their concerns and expressing your own concerns in an effort to find a mutually agreeable solution d. Incorrect. Compromising is attempting to resolve a conflict by identifying a solution that is partially satisfactory to both parties, but completely satisfactory to neither.

2. Which fringe benefit tends to increase with longevity? a. Vacation (or PTO) time b. Health insurance copays c. Holidays d. Jury duty ANS: a

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

1

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 58: Managing the Office

Analysis: a. Correct. Vacation or PTO time tends to increase with longevity. b. Incorrect. Vacation or PTO time tends to increase with longevity. Health insurance copays depend on the insurance policy provided by the employer to all employees. c. Incorrect. Vacation or PTO time tends to increase with longevity. Holidays are the same for all employees. d. Incorrect. Vacation or PTO time tends to increase with longevity. Jury duty is the same for all employees.

3. The office policy manual does NOT include policies regarding: a. paid time off (PTO). b. harassment. c. information technology. d. opening and closing the office.

ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. The office policy manual contains policies regarding paid time off. b. Incorrect. The office policy manual contains policies regarding harassment. c. Correct. The office policy manual does not include policies regarding information technology. d. Incorrect. The office policy manual contains policies regarding opening and closing the office.

4. What type of insurance covers loss due to theft, fire, and other damage? a. Risk management b. Group practice c. Structure coverage d. General liability ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. Structure coverage covers loss due to theft, fire, and other damage. Risk management covers malpractice and negligence. b. Incorrect. Structure coverage covers loss due to theft, fire, and other damage. Group practice coverage covers claims made against members of the group practice. c. Correct. Structure coverage covers loss due to theft, fire, and other damage. d. Incorrect. Structure coverage covers loss due to theft, fire, and other damage.

General liability covers events such as a slip and fall in the office.

5. Which form that a new employee is required to complete confirms authorized work status? a. W-2 b. W-4 c. 401 (k) d. I-9 ANS: d

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

2

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 58: Managing the Office

Analysis: a. Incorrect. The I-9 form is required to confirm authorized work status. The W-2 form is sent to employees at the end of each year so they can file their IRS taxes. b. Incorrect. The I-9 form is required to confirm authorized work status. The W-4 form is filled out by the employee to let the employer know how much to withhold for federal income taxes. c. Incorrect. The I-9 form is required to confirm authorized work status. A 401 (k) is a retirement account. d. Correct. The I-9 form is required to confirm authorized work status.

6. Which law prohibits harassment of an employee based on genetic information? a. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act b. ADEA c. GINA (2008) d. ADAAA ANS: c Analysis: a. Incorrect. GINA prohibits harassment of an employee based on genetic information. b. Incorrect. GINA prohibits harassment of an employee based on genetic information. c. Correct. GINA prohibits harassment of an employee based on genetic information. d. Incorrect. GINA prohibits harassment of an employee based on genetic information.

7. Which of the following qualifications and characteristics is the office manager not looking for when interviewing and hiring? a. Attendance and punctuality b. Flex-time needs c. Work ethic d. Collaborative work style ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. An office manager is looking for attendance and punctuality when interviewing and hiring. b. Correct. An office manager is not looking for flex-time needs when interviewing and hiring. c. Incorrect. An office manager is looking for work ethic when interviewing and hiring. d. Incorrect. An office manager is looking for a collaborative work style when interviewing and hiring.

8. In your role as office manager, how often should you check in personally with provider(s) to see whether special issues need attention? a. At monthly provider/staff meetings b. During weekly stand up/huddles c. Daily d. No specific schedule; providers reach out to managers on an as-needed basis ANS: c

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

3

Solution and Answer Guide: Blesi, Medical Assisting, 10e, 2026; 9798214113586; Chapter 58: Managing the Office

Analysis: a. Incorrect. You should check in personally with providers on a daily basis. b. Incorrect. You should check in personally with providers on a daily basis. c. Correct. You should check in personally with providers on a daily basis. d. Incorrect. You should check in personally with providers on a daily basis.

9. Which of the following personal social media posts would be considered acceptable? a. At church today, everyone was asking about Johnae’s cancer treatment. Great news everyone, Johnae’s cancer is in remission! b. Don’t forget, it’s time to get your flu vaccine! c. Picture of you and Mrs. Gonzales giving a high-five after receiving her flu vaccine. d. Mr. Woods brought us donuts when he came in for knee surgery follow up today.

Kudos to Mr. Woods!

ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. Posting about time to get your flu vaccine is acceptable. Any posts that include patient information is unacceptable. b. Correct. Posting about time to get your flu vaccine is acceptable c. Incorrect. Posting about time to get your flu vaccine is acceptable. Any posts that include patient information is unacceptable. d. Incorrect. Posting about time to get your flu vaccine is acceptable. Any posts that include patient information is unacceptable.

10. What type of employee review is indicated with a PIP? a. Annual performance review b. When an employee’s performance does not meet minimum expectations c. Probationary regular d. Peer review ANS: b Analysis: a. Incorrect. A performance improvement plan (PIP) is indicated when an employee’s performance does not meet minimum expectations. b. Correct. A performance improvement plan (PIP) is indicated when an employee’s performance does not meet minimum expectations. c. Incorrect. A performance improvement plan (PIP) is indicated when an employee’s performance does not meet minimum expectations. d. Incorrect. A performance improvement plan (PIP) is indicated when an employee’s performance does not meet minimum expectations.

© 2026 Cengage. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.

4