Campbell Essential Biology, Fourth Edition Eric J. Simon, Jane B. Reece Test Bank.pdf

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Test Bank

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Campbell Essential Biology

Edition: Author(s):

4th Edition Eric J. Simon Jean L. Dickey Jane B. Reece

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Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) I n what way(s) is the science of biology influencing and changing our culture?

1) _______ A) b y revolutionizing medicine and agriculture B) b y reshaping our understanding of psychology and sociology C) b y helping us evaluate environmental issues D) b y providing new tools for solving crimes E) a ll of the above 2) W hat is biology?

A) t he scientific study of life B) t he scientific study of DNA C) t he scientific study of ecosystems D) t he scientific study of the environment E) t he scientific study of organelles

2) _______

3) W hich of the following is not a property of life?

A) O rganisms respond to environmental stimuli.

B) O rganisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.

C) P opulations of organisms are unable to change over time.

D) L iving things exhibit complex but ordered organization.

E) O rganisms reproduce their own kind.

3) _______

4) W hat are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?

A) s peciation and evolution B) p hotosynthesis and primary production C) s unlight and photosynthesis D) n utrient cycling and energy flow E) d ecomposition and nutrient recycling

4) _______

5) W hich of the following is not recycled but is lost from ecosystems?

A) n itrogen B) c arbon C) m agnesium D) e nergy E) s odium

5) _______

6) W hich of the following is a producer?

A) e arthworm B) c at C) h ouse plant D) d og E) s un

6) _______

7) H umans are ______.

A) e cosystems B) p roducers C) c ells D) d ecomposers E) c onsumers

7) _______

8) W hich of the following structures can perform all the activities required for life?

A) A , G, C, and T B) n uclei C) D NA molecules D) o rganelles E) c ells

8) _______

9) R elative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ______.

A) l arger and equally complex B) l arger and more complex C) s maller and equally complex D) s maller and simpler E) s maller and more complex

9) _______

10) H umans are composed of ______ cells.

A) b acterial B) p rokaryotic C) e ukaryotic D) a rchaeal E) p lant

10) ______

11) W hat name is given to the functional compartments of a cell?

A) b acteria B) n uclei C) g enomes D) o rganelles

11) ______ E) g enes

12) T he DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.

A) i nsulin B) n ucleus C) p rokaryotic cell D) a rchaea E) e cosystem

12) ______

13) W hat are eukaryotic genes composed of?

A) D NA B) R NA C) G

13) ______ D) A

E) C

14) W hat is a gene?

A) a unit of heredity B) a type of eukaryotic cell C) a n organelle that houses DNA D) a type of animal cell E) a type of prokaryotic cell

14) ______

15) T he human genome consists of about ______ chemical letters.

A) 1 0,000 B) 3 00,000 C) 1 million D) 3 billion

15) ______

16) M ore than half of all known species are ______.

A) f ish B) i nsects C) b acteria D) v ertebrates E) p lants

E) 3 00 billion 16) ______

17) T axonomy is the ______.

A) s tudy of cells B) s tudy of genes C) n aming and classifying of species D) s tudy of natural selection E) s tudy of organisms and their interaction with the environment

17) ______

18) H ow does taxonomy assist biologists?

A) b y categorizing diverse items into smaller and smaller numbers of groups B) b y reducing life to its smallest common denominator, the cell C) b y explaining why life exists D) b y providing easily remembered scientific names for organisms E) a ll of the above

18) ______

19) W hich domain(s) consist(s) of prokaryotic cells?

A) E ukarya only B) B acteria and Archaea C) A rchaea only D) B acteria only E) A rchaea and Eukarya

19) ______

20) W hich kingdom of Eukarya consists primarily of unicellular organisms?

A) P rotista B) F ungi C) B acteria D) P lantae

20) ______ E) A nimalia

21) A newly discovered multicellular organism obtains food by digesting dead organisms. Such an organism is most likely a member of the kingdom ______.

A) P rotista B) P lantae C) E ukarya D) F ungi E) A nimalia

21) ______

22) M embers of the kingdom Plantae differ from members of the other kingdoms of Eukarya in that most members of the kingdom Plantae ______.

A) a re consumers B) a re decomposers C) a re unicellular D) p roduce their own food E) o btain food by ingestion

22) ______

23) T he branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is ______.

A) m icrobiology B) e volution C) t axonomy D) p hysiology E) g enetics

23) ______

24) W hich of these is most closely associated with Darwin?

A) e cosystem structure B) o rganelles C) D NA D) n atural selection E) t he three domains of life

24) ______

25) W hich of these is required for natural selection to occur?

A) i ndividual variation

25) ______

B) o verproduction C) u nequal reproductive success D) i nheritance E) a ll of the above 26) U nequal reproductive success ______.

A) a lways decreases the size of a population B) i ncreases variation C) c an lead to natural selection D) d oes not affect the frequency of expression of traits in succeeding generations of a population E) c an lead to a population being less well adapted to its environment

26) ______

27) W hat does adaptation mean in a biological context?

A) t he ability of organisms to alter their appearance under changing environmental conditions B) t he accumulation of favorable variations in a population over time C) t he changes that occur in individuals as they grow and develop D) t he way an individual's body adjusts to its environment E) a ll of the above

27) ______

28) W hat accounts for the different breeds of domesticated dogs?

A) n atural selection B) c ompetition C) o verproduction D) a rtificial selection E) v ariation

28) ______

29) O ver a span of two decades, scientists measured changes in the beak size of a population of Galápagos ground finches. This ______.

A) l ed Darwin to his theory of evolution through natural selection B) p rovided evidence of natural selection in action C) i s an example of artificial selection D) i s an example of overproduction E) o ccurred because of selective predation

29) ______

30) S cience is ______.

A) t he inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature B) t he search for truth C) a n organized set of principles for how to ethically and morally behave D) t he explanation of phenomena based on supernatural causation E) a ll of the above

30) ______

31) W hat is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science?

A) D iscovery science involves predictions about outcomes, whereas hypothesis-driven science involves tentative answers to specific questions.

B) D iscovery science is based on deductive reasoning, whereas hypothesis-driven science is based on inductive reasoning.

C) D iscovery science is mostly about describing nature, whereas hypothesis-driven science tries to explain nature.

D) D iscovery science "discovers" new knowledge, whereas hypothesis-driven science does not.

E) T here is no difference between them.

31) ______

32) W hich of these statements is correct?

A) S cience does not require observations that other people can confirm.

B) O nly discovery science can lead to important conclusions about nature.

C) S cience can be used to prove or disprove the idea that deities or spirits cause earthquakes and other natural disasters.

D) S cientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing.

E) I n science, a hypotheses is an absolute truth.

32) ______

33) D iscovery science is primarily based on ______.

A) t heory B) o bservation C) h ypothesis testing D) d eduction E) e xperimentation

33) ______

34) H ow does inductive reasoning differ from deductive reasoning?

A) D iscovery science utilizes deductive reasoning, not inductive reasoning, to establish conclusions.

B) I nductive reasoning is based on experimentation, and deductive reasoning is based on observation.

C) I nductive reasoning is based on hypotheses, and deductive reasoning is not.

D) I nductive reasoning involves going from the specific to the general, whereas deductive reasoning involves going from the general to the specific.

E) D eductive reasoning involves going from the specific to the general, whereas inductive reasoning involves going from the general to the specific.

34) ______

35) W hich of these would be a valid hypothesis?

A) H umans should help in the conservation of other animal species.

B) H umans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.

C) H umans and bacteria share a common genetic code.

D) H umans are responsible for the sustainable use of resources.

E) H uman history is determined by a series of supernatural events.

35) ______

36) A hypothesis is a(n) ______.

A) f act B) o bservation C) g uess D) t entative explanation E) t heory

36) ______

37) Y ou try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a hypothesis?

A) M y car's battery is dead.

B) W hat is wrong with my car?

C) M y car will not start.

D) I f I recharge the battery, then my car will start.

E) M y car is too old to function properly.

37) ______

38) Y ou try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is deductive testing?

A) M y car's battery is dead.

B) I f I recharge the battery, then my car will start.

C) W hat is wrong with my car?

38) ______

D) M y car is too old to function properly.

E) M y car will not start.

39) W hich of the following are the proper components of the scientific method?

A) e xperiment, conclusion, application B) p rediction, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion C) o bservation, question, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, results, conclusion D) q uestion, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction E) o bservation, question, opinion, conclusion, hypothesis

39) ______

40) I n a scientific experiment, the control group ______.

A) i s subjected to the factor whose effect is being tested B) s erves to increase the sample size of the experiment C) i s required for the validity of discovery science D) a llows for the simultaneous testing of multiple variables E) s erves as a basis of comparison with the experimental group

40) ______

41) H ow do hypotheses differ from theories?

A) T heories are more comprehensive than hypotheses.

B) H ypotheses are educated guesses, and theories are tentative explanations.

C) H ypotheses are more generally stated than theories.

D) T heories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable.

E) H ypotheses are derived from experimentation, whereas theories are derived from observation.

41) ______

42) A ntibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria because ______.

A) t he antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria B) t he presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance C) f armers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed D) d octors do not prescribe antibiotics for diseases caused by viruses E) n one of the above

42) ______

43) U sing the branching tree of life for bears depicted in the accompanying figure, choose from among the following bear species the one that is most distantly related to the sun bear.

43)

___ ___

A) A siatic black bear B) g iant panda C) s loth bear D) b rown bear E) s pectacled bear 44) I n the process of evolution by natural selection illustrated in the accompanying figure, which of the following is the mechanism or agent of natural selection?

44) ______

A) a rtificial selection B) s elective trees C) s elective beetles D) s elective breeding E) s elective predation Please use the following information to answer the following question(s).

The collared lizard is a species found in the Desert Southwest. Male collared lizards show considerable color variation, ranging from brightly colored to a very dull pattern. Your goal is to determine the function, if any, of male color patterns in collared lizards, using the scientific method. Your tentative explanation is that male color plays a role in attracting females for mating purposes. You predict that females will preferentially choose brightly colored males over dull-colored ones. To test this prediction, you observed the interactions of female collared lizards with their male counterparts. You selected males that were the same age and size, and that differed only in their coloration pattern. You placed equal numbers of the two types of male lizards, bright and dull, in aquariums, along with one female lizard per aquarium. Out of 350 aquariums observed, the female chose to mate with the brightly colored male 277 times, and the dull-colored male 70 times. In 3 instances, the females did not mate with either type.

Create a bar graph of your data, plotting the type of male (dull or brightly colored) on the x-axis. On the y-axis, plot the frequency with which each type of male was chosen by females. Using this graph, answer the following question(s).

45) I s it reasonable to conclude (i.e., is it supported by the data) that female collared lizards prefer more brightly colored male lizards over dull-colored males?

A) Y es, this conclusion is supported by the data.

B) N o, this conclusion is not supported by the data.

C) T he data do not clearly indicate a preference one way or the other.

D) T here is no way to conclude anything from this data.

E) N one of the above choices are correct.

45) ______

46) I dentify the experimental group of this case study.

A) b rightly colored male lizards B) d ull-colored male lizards C) d ull-colored female lizards D) b rightly colored female lizards E) a ll of the above

46) ______

47) D ull-colored males were part of the ______.

A) p redicted group B) o bservation group C) h ypothesized group D) c ontrol group E) e xperimental group

47) ______

48) W hich of the following is the hypothesis of this case study?

A) M ale collared lizards exhibit color variation.

B) A function of male coloration is to attract females.

C) M ale lizards are brightly colored.

D) M ales prefer brightly colored females.

E) D ull males are less likely to be eaten by predators.

48) ______

49) " Male collared lizards show considerable color variation." This is a(n) ______.

A) h ypothesis B) r esult

49) ______

C) o bservation D) o pinion E) c onclusion

1) E 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) E 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) E 26) C 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) E 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) E 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) _ _____ is an example of an element.

1) _______ A) C arbon B) G lucose C) S alt D) W ater E) M ethane 2) W hich of the following elements is not one of the four most common elements in living things?

A) h ydrogen B) c arbon C) z inc D) o xygen E) n itrogen

2) _______

3) W hich of the following elements, essential to life, is a trace element?

A) c arbon B) p hosphorus C) i odine D) h ydrogen E) c alcium

3) _______

4) A n atom with a positive charge has ______.

A) m ore neutrons than protons B) e qual numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons C) m ore electrons than protons D) m ore protons than electrons E) m ore protons than neutrons

4) _______

5) A ll atoms of an element have the same number of ______.

A) e lectrons B) n eutrons C) p rotons plus neutrons D) e lectrons plus neutrons E) p rotons

5) _______

6) A n atom's protons are found in its ______.

A) m olecule B) n eutron C) e lectron cloud D) i sotope E) n ucleus

6) _______

7) B eryllium's atomic mass is 9 and its atomic number is 4. How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom?

A) 9 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2 E) 1 3

7) _______

8) A n uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197. This atom has ______ protons, ______ neutrons, and ______ electrons.

A) 7 9 . . . 118 . . . 79 B) 1 18 . . . 79 . . . 118 C) 1 18 . . . 276 . . . 118 D) 7 9 . . . 276 . . . 79 E) 2 76 . . . 118 . . . 79

8) _______

9) T he way Earth moves about the sun is most like ______.

A) a proton and neutron moving around an electron

9) _______

B) a n electron moving around the nucleus of an atom C) a proton moving about an electron D) a neutron moving about a proton E) a neutron and electron moving around a proton 10) I sotopes of an element have the same number of ______ and different numbers of ______.

A) p rotons . . . neutrons B) e lectrons . . . protons C) n eutrons . . . electrons D) p rotons . . . electrons E) n eutrons . . . protons

10) ______

11) H ow do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes?

A) R adioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable.

B) R adioactive isotopes are stable; isotopes are unstable.

C) T hey are atoms of different elements.

D) R adioactive isotopes have more neutrons than do isotopes.

E) R adioactive isotopes have fewer neutrons than do isotopes.

11) ______

12) T he second electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______ electron(s).

A) 6 B) 1 C) 8 D) 2 E) 3

12) ______

13) N itrogen has an atomic number of 7; therefore, it has ______ electrons in its outermost electron shell.

A) 1 8 B) 1 C) 2 D) 1 0 E) 5

13) ______

14) A n atom with an electrical charge is a(n) ______.

A) r adioisotope B) i sotope C) c ompound D) m olecule E) i on

14) ______

15) T he bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n) ______ bond.

A) e lectronic B) p olar C) c ovalent D) i onic

15) ______ E) h ydrogen

16) I n the following reaction, what type of bond is holding the two atoms together?

K + Cl → K+ + Cl— → KCl

16) ______

A) h ydrophobic B) c ovalent C) i onic D) h ydrophilic E) h ypertonic 17) W hat name is given to bonds that involve the sharing of electrons?

A) c ovalent B) i onic C) p olar D) e lectronic

E) h ydrogen

18) S ulfur has an atomic number of 16. How many covalent bonds can sulfur form?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

E) 0

17) ______

18) ______

19) T he hydrogens and oxygen of a water molecule are held together by ______ bonds.

A) e lectron B) h ydrogen C) o smotic D) p roton E) c ovalent

19) ______

20) W hy is water considered a polar molecule?

A) I t remains liquid even at very low temperatures.

B) B oth hydrogens are at one end of the molecule, and oxygen is at the other end.

C) T he oxygen atom attracts the hydrogen atoms.

D) T he oxygen end of the molecule has a slight negative charge, and the hydrogen end has a slight positive charge.

E) T he oxygen is found between the two hydrogens.

20) ______

21) A djacent water molecules are joined by ______ bonds.

A) c ovalent only B) trivalent C) i onic D) p olar and covalent E) h ydrogen

21) ______

22) A djacent water molecules are connected by the ______.

A) e lectrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule B) s haring of electrons between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule C) s haring of electrons between hydrogens of adjacent water molecules D) e lectrical attraction between the hydrogens of adjacent water molecules E) s haring of electrons between adjacent oxygen molecules

22) ______

23) H ow many oxygen atoms are in the products of the following reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O

23) ______

A) 1 8

B) 6

C) 2

D) 2 4

E) 1 2

24) W hat are the reactant(s) in the following chemical reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O

24) ______

A) C O2 and H2O B) O 2 only C) C O2 only D) C 6H12O6, H2O, O2, CO2, and H2O E) C 6H12O6, H2O, and O2 25) H uman body cells are approximately ______ water.

A) 2 535% B) 5 055% C) 7 095%

25) ______ D) 1 025%

E) 9 599%

26) T he tendency of molecules of the same kind to stick together is called ______.

A) i nteractivity B) b onding C) p olarity D) a dhesion E) c ohesion

26) ______

27) W hy (if you are careful) are you able to float a needle on the surface of water?

A) T he surface tension that is a result of water's cohesive properties makes this possible.

B) W ater has adhesive properties.

C) T he covalent bonds that hold a water molecule together are responsible for this ability.

27) ______

D) A single needle is less dense than water.

E) T he polarity of individual water molecules makes this happen.

28) S weating cools your body by ______.

A) h ydrogen bonding B) r adiation C) a dhesion D) e vaporative cooling E) c ohesion

28) ______

29) A s water freezes ______.

A) i t loses its polarity B) i ts molecules move farther apart C) i ts hydrogen bonds break apart D) i t cools the surrounding environment E) i t absorbs energy from the surrounding environment

29) ______

30) S ugar dissolves when stirred into water. The sugar is the ______, the water is the ______, and the 30) ______ sweetened water is the ______.

A) s olvent . . . solute . . . solution B) s olute . . . solvent . . . solution C) s olution . . . solvent . . . solute D) s olvent . . . solution . . . solute E) s olution . . . solute . . . solvent 31) W hich of the following is an acid?

A) H 2O B) N aOH

31) ______ C) N aCl

D) H Cl

E) C H4

32) A base ______.

A) r emoves OH— ions from a solution B) d ecreases the pH of a solution

32) ______

C) r emoves H2O molecules from a solution D) a dds HOH molecules to a solution E) r emoves H+ ions from a solution 33) T he lower the pH of a solution, the ______.

A) m ore basic the solution B) g reater the number of oxygen atoms

33) ______

C) h igher the OH— concentration D) m ore acidic the solution E) l ess toxic the solution 34) R elative to a pH of 6, a pH of 4 has a ______.

A) 2 00 times higher H+ concentration B) 1 00 times higher H+ concentration C) 2 0 times higher H+ concentration D) 2 0 times lower H+ concentration E) 100 times lower H+ concentration

34) ______

35) W hat name is given to substances that resist changes in pH? A) b ases B) b uffers C) s alts D) s ugars

35) ______ E) a cids

36) W hen a base is added to a buffered solution, the buffer will ______.

A) d onate H+ ions

36) ______

B) d onate OH— ions C) f orm covalent bonds with the base D) a ccept H+ ions E) a ccept water molecules 37) P eople have long speculated about whether life exists on Mars. Scientists have evidence that on Mars, ______.

A) w ater is found only in the form of water vapor B) t he only water present has always been frozen in the polar ice caps C) m icrobial life exists D) l iquid water has existed in the past E) p lant life exists

37) ______

38) E xamine the drawing of an atom below. The art is technically incorrect in that ______.

38) ______

A) e lectrons do not orbit the nucleus B) p rotons are not located in the nucleus C) n eutrons are not located in the nucleus D) t he electrons should be much farther away from the nucleus E) e lectrons do not have a negative charge 39) E xamine the following figure. Which of the representations of molecules does not reveal double bonds?

39)

___ ___

A) s tructural formula B) e lectron configuration C) b all-and-stick model D) s pace-filling model E) A ll of the representations of molecules reveal double bonds.

40) E xamine the pH scale below. How does household bleach compare to household ammonia?

40) ______

A) H ousehold bleach is more acidic than household ammonia.

B) H ousehold bleach has 10 times higher H+ concentration than household ammonia.

C) H ousehold bleach has 100 times higher H+ concentration than household ammonia.

D) H ousehold ammonia has 10 times higher H+ concentration.

E) H ousehold ammonia has 100 times higher H+ concentration.

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

The last few miles of the marathon are the most difficult for Heather. Her hair is plastered to her head, sweat clings to her arms, and her legs feel as if they had nothing left. Heather grabs a cup of ice water. The ice cubes smash against her nose as she gulps some cool refreshment and keeps on running. Then a breeze kicks up and she finally feels some coolness against her skin. Drops of sweat, once clinging to her forehead, now spill down, and Heather feels a stinging as the sweat

flows into her eyes.

41) S weat on Heather’s forehead and arms formed drops because of the ______.

A) c ohesive nature of water B) a bility of water to act as a solvent C) a bility of water to moderate heat D) h igh evaporative cooling effect of water E) h igh salt content of sweat

41) ______

42) W hich of the following is the most likely reason why the ice struck Heather’s nose when she took a drink?

A) W ater can function as a solvent.

B) W ater can store large amounts of heat.

C) W ater has a cohesive nature.

D) W ater can moderate temperatures through evaporative cooling.

E) T he density of water decreases when it freezes.

42) ______

1) A 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) E 6) E 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) E 14) E 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) E 22) A 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) E 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) E 33) D 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) P eople with lactose intolerance do not have enough ______.

1) _______ A) w ater B) l actose C) f ructose D) g lucose E) l actase 2) A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ______ covalent bond(s).

A) n one; carbon only participates in ionic bonds B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 E) 1

2) _______

3) T he following molecule is best described as a ______.

CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2 A) p rotein B) l ipid C) c arbohydrate D) h ydrocarbon E) n ucleic acid

3) _______

4) _ _____ is a hydroxyl group.

A) — OH B) — H

4) _______ C) COOH

D) — NH2

E) — SH

5) I n the following reaction, galactose is a ______. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) p olymer B) m onomer C) p olysaccharide D) p rotein E) l ipid

5) _______

6) W hat name is given to the following reaction? galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) h ydrogenation B) d ehydration reaction C) g lycolysis D) h ydrolysis E) g luconeogenesis

6) _______

7) W hat name is given to the following reaction? sucrose + water → glucose + fructose A) a nabolism B) d enaturation C) h ydrolysis D) d ehydration reaction E) g lucogenesis

7) _______

8) C arbohydrates typically include ______.

A) a 5-carbon ring B) a n NH2 group

8) _______

C) a hydrocarbon chain D) a PO4 group E) C , H, and O atoms 9) W hich of the following are isomers?

A) s ucrose and lactose B) s ucrose and glucose C) g lucose and sucrose D) g lucose and fructose E) l actose and maltose

9) _______

10) C omplete the equation: monosaccharide + monosaccharide → ______ + water A) p olypeptide B) f at C) p olysaccharide D) d isaccharide E) n ucleic acid

10) ______

11) I n the following equation, lactose is a ______. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) d ipeptide B) n ucleic acid C) p olypeptide D) d isaccharide E) f atty acid

11) ______

12) T able sugar is ______.

A) s ucrose B) m altose

12) ______ C) f ructose

D) g lucose

E) l actose

13) T he consumption of sugar is a major cause of ______.

A) r heumatoid arthritis B) t ooth decay C) g out D) a cne E) c ancer

13) ______

14) W hich of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?

A) s tarch B) m altose C) g lucose

D) s ucrose

E) f ructose

15) A nimals store carbohydrates as ______.

A) g lycogen B) m altose C) g lucose

D) c ellulose

E) s tarch

14) ______

15) ______

16) C ellulose is an example of ______.

A) a polypeptide B) a steroid C) a nucleic acid D) f at E) f iber

16) ______

17) W hich of the following is hydrophilic?

A) b utter

17) ______

B) c holesterol C) t estosterone D) p olyunsaturated fatty acids E) c ellulose 18) S ometimes when I have my morning coffee, which I drink black with no sugar, I notice a thin

18) ______

film floating on top of the coffee. Since I have just read Chapter 3 of the text, I now realize the nature of this substance and so I run to my friend screaming, "Look at this ______ in my coffee!"

A) e nzyme B) h ydrophobic substance C) h ydrophilic substance D) g lucose E) n ucleotide 19) A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ______.

A) n ucleic acid B) p rostaglandin C) s teroid D) f at E) p rotein

19) ______

20) W hat name is given to the following reaction? glycerol + 3 fatty acids → triglyceride + 3 water molecules A) h ydrolysis B) d enaturation C) h ydrogenation D) d ehydration reaction E) c atabolism

20) ______

21) S aturated fats are saturated with ______.

A) n itrogen B) p hosphorus C) o xygen D) c arbon E) h ydrogen

21) ______

22) B y definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds?

A) t riglyceride B) u nsaturated C) s aturated D) s teroid E) m onoglyceride

22) ______

23) W hich of the following is lowest in unsaturated fats?

A) b eef B) s almon C) c orn oil 24) A fat that is hydrogenated is ______.

A) m ore solid B) l ikely to go bad faster C) l ess likely to cause strokes D) e asier to digest E) m ore unsaturated

23) ______ D) t rout

E) c anola oil 24) ______

25) W hich of the following is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats?

A) d ecreased risk of atherosclerosis B) i ncreased risk of heart attack C) i ncreased life span D) d ecreased risk of stroke E) i ncreased blood flow

25) ______

26) _ _____ is a steroid.

A) E strogen B) U nsaturated fat C) S ucrose D) A mino acid E) B utter

26) ______

27) A friend of yours appears to have put on a lot of muscle very quickly. At the same time, you notice that your friend seems to have a lot of mood swings and appears depressed. It is reasonable for you to suspect that your friend has begun to take ______.

A) l ipids B) p rotein powder C) a n anabolic steroid D) c reatine E) a mino acid supplements

27) ______

28) E nzymes are ______.

A) f ats B) p hospholipids C) s teroids D) p roteins E) m onosaccharides

28) ______

29) P roteins are polymers constructed from ______ monomers.

A) f atty acid B) 5 -carbon ring C) h ydrocarbon D) a mino acid E) n ucleotide

29) ______

30) A mino acids include a side group as well as ______.

A) a central hydrogen, a nitrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group B) a central hydrogen, a nitrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group C) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group D) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, an amino group, and a carbonyl group E) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group

30) ______

31) W hat is the name given to the reaction that breaks peptide bonds?

A) h ydrolysis B) h ydrogenation C) d enaturation D) a nabolism E) d ehydration reaction

31) ______

32) T he linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is referred to as its ______ structure.

A) p rimary B) q uaternary C) p entamerous D) t ertiary E) s econdary

32) ______

33) A protein's function is dependent on its ______.

A) t emperature B) s hape C) s ize D) p H E) w eight

33) ______

34) D estruction of a protein's shape is called ______.

A) a nabolism B) d enaturation C) h ydrolysis D) h ydrogenation E) a dehydration reaction

34) ______

35) N ucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers.

A) n ucleotide B) m onosaccharide C) f atty acid D) D NA E) h ydrocarbon

35) ______

36) A specific stretch of DNA that programs the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is a ______.

A) g ene B) p rotein C) n ucleotide D) e nzyme E) n ucleic acid

36) ______

37) D NA nucleotides include ______.

A) t hymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine B) t hymine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine C) t hymine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine D) t hymine, guanine, adenine, and uracil E) u racil, guanine, adenine, and cytosine

37) ______

38) W hich of the following is true with regard to a DNA molecule?

A) T he amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil.

B) T he amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

C) T he amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of uracil.

D) T he amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine.

E) T he amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is

38) ______

equal to the

amount of cytosine.

39) I f one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence AGTACTG, what will be the sequence of the other strand?

A) T CATGAC B) C TACAGT C) G TCATGA D) A GTACTG E) G ACGTCA

39) ______

40) H ow does RNA differ from DNA? A) R NA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.

B) R NA contains one less —OH than does DNA. C) R NA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.

D) I n RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C. E) R NA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.

40) ______

41) T he ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.

A) N ative Americans B) p opulations that live in cold climates C) p opulations that live in wet climates D) E ast Asian populations E) c ultures that keep dairy herds

41) ______

42) E xamine the two sugars in the following figure. How do these two sugars compare?

42) ______

A) F ructose has more hydrogen.

B) G lucose has more double bonds.

C) G lucose has more hydrogen.

D) T hey are structurally identical in every way.

E) T hey have the same formula but different structures.

43) T he figure below shows

43)

A) h ydrolysis B) D NA C) d enaturation D) R NA E) p rotein secondary structure 44) T he figure below shows ______.

___ ___

44)

___ ___

A) d ouble-stranded RNA B) a single strand of DNA C) a single strand of RNA D) d ouble-stranded DNA E) n one of the above Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

While shopping, you settle on two types of cookies. The nutritional label for the chocolate mint cookies lists 5 grams of saturated fat, 0 grams of trans fat, 22 grams of carbohydrates, and 11 grams of protein per serving. The nutritional label for the peanut butter cookies lists 0 grams of saturated fat, 5 grams of trans fat, 26 grams of carbohydrates, and 4 grams of protein per serving.

45) W hich cookies are less healthy?

A) T he chocolate mint cookies because they contain more protein.

B) T he peanut butter cookies because they contain more trans fat.

C) T he chocolate mint cookies because they contain more saturated fat.

D) T he peanut butter cookies because they contain more grams of carbohydrates.

E) T he chocolate mint cookies because they contain more total grams of protein and carbohydrates.

45) ______

46) T he manufacturer of the chocolate mint cookies changed the ingredients of its cookies. Each serving now has 1 gram of saturated fat (4 fewer grams), 4 grams of trans fat (4 more grams), 21 grams of carbohydrates (1 fewer gram), and 11 grams of protein (no change). Do you think that the manufacturer made these cookies healthier?

A) N o, because they now have more grams of trans fat.

B) Y es, because they now have less saturated fat.

C) N o, because they now have less saturated fat.

46) ______

D) Y es, because they now have fewer grams of carbohydrates.

E) N o, because the number of proteins was not changed.

1) E 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) E 17) E 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) E 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) E 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) A 40) E 41) E 42) E 43) E 44) B 45) B 46) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hat theory states that all living things are composed of cells?

1) _______ A) e volutionary theory B) c ell theory C) H ooke's rule D) M endel's law E) l aw of thermodynamics 2) W hat type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma membrane?

A) s canning electron microscope B) t ransmission electron microscope C) l ight microscope using living cells D) l ight microscope using dead whole cells E) b oth a light microscope and an electron microscope

2) _______

3) T he two basic types of cells are ______ and ______.

A) p rokaryotic . . . eukaryotic B) b acterial . . . animal C) p lant . . . animal D) b acterial . . . protist E) n erve . . . muscle

3) _______

4) W hen using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.

A) e ukaryotic B) p rokaryotic C) a nimal D) p lant E) f ungal

4) _______

5) O ne difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ______ prokaryotic cells.

A) h ave a plasma membrane, which is lacking in B) h ave DNA, which is lacking in C) l ack the complexity seen in D) h ave membrane-bound organelles, which are lacking in E) h ave a nucleoid region, which is lacking in

5) _______

6) I n eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane?

A) g ene B) n ucleoid C) p hospholipid bilayer D) c hloroplast E) c ytoplasm

6) _______

7) Y ou find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall.

Therefore,

you 7) conclude that it must be a ______ cell.

A) a nimal B) l iver C) p lant D) p rokaryotic E) b acterial

_ _ _ _ _ _ _

8) W hich of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?

A) r egulation of the passage of material into and out of the cell B) c ontrol center of the cell C) l ipid synthesis D) d igestion of organic materials inside the cell E) p rotein synthesis

8) _______

9) _ _____ are the major lipids of plasma membranes.

A) S teroids B) F atty acids C) P hospholipids D) M osaics E) M embrane proteins

9) _______

10) W hen mixed with water, phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ______.

A) h ave hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups that avoid water B) a re lipids C) a re both fluid and mosaic D) h ave hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water E) h ave hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails

10) ______

11) T he concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ______.

A) p hospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane B) c arbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure C) n ucleotides to drift into and out of the membrane structure D) p hospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane E) m ost proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane

11) ______

12) T he extracellular coats of cells ______.

A) a re warehouses for the storage of extra lipids and carbohydrates B) p rovide avenues for the exchange of DNA C) p rotect and support cells D) a re primarily sites of dead matter and waste materials E) n one of the above

12) ______

13) _ _____ store the information necessary to produce proteins.

A) G enes B) R ibosomes

13) ______

C) C arbohydrates D) P hospholipids E) L ysosomes 14) T he nuclear envelope is composed of ______.

A) c hromatin B) g enes C) c arbohydrates D) D NA E) a double membrane

14) ______

15) T he structural combination of DNA and protein forms ______.

A) n ucleoli B) c hromatin C) r ibosomes D) n ucleoplasm E) A TP

15) ______

16) M ost human cells contain ______ chromosomes.

A) 3 6 B) 2 3 C) 2

16) ______ D) 4 6

E) 1 8

17) W hat name is given to the organelle that manufactures the components of ribosomes?

A) c hromosome B) c ytoplasm C) e ndoplasmic reticulum D) n ucleus E) n ucleolus

17) ______

18) M any antibiotic drugs are effective against bacteria without hurting humans because the antibiotics rely upon differences in the structure of human and bacterial ______.

A) c hromosomes B) c arbohydrates C) r ibosomes D) m itochondria E) l ysosomes

18) ______

19) W here does protein synthesis take place?

A) o n smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) i n the nucleus C) i n the Golgi apparatus D) i n the nucleolus E) o n ribosomes

19) ______

20) I nformation is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ______.

A) m RNA B) s mooth endoplasmic reticulum C) p hospholipids D) D NA E) r ough endoplasmic reticulum

20) ______

21) T he endomembrane system includes ______.

A) G olgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum

21) ______

B) G olgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and ribosomes C) G olgi apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum D) G olgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum E) r ibosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum 22) A hormone that will be secreted from the cell is manufactured by ribosomes _____.

A) a ttached to the plasma membrane B) i nside the nucleus C) a ttached to the endoplasmic reticulum D) a ttached to the Golgi apparatus E) n one of the above

22) ______

23) B ased on its function in detoxifying drugs, you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ______ cells.

A) m uscle B) l ung C) i ntestinal D) l iver E) b rain

23) ______

24) F unctions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ______.

A) l ipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and protein synthesis B) l ipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification C) s teroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification D) l ipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification E) l ipid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification

24) ______

25) W hat structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus?

A) r ibosomes B) n ucleosomes C) l ysosomes D) n ucleolus E) t ransport vesicles

25) ______

26) W hich of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

A) p rotein modification B) p rotection and support of the cell C) p rotein synthesis D) d rug detoxification E) d igestion of organic matter inside the cell

26) ______

27) W hich of the following parts of a cell is (are) most like the shipping center of a company?

A) t he Golgi apparatus B) m itochondria C) c hloroplasts D) t he endoplasmic reticulum E) t he nucleolus

27) ______

28) L ysosomes are responsible for ______.

A) c ellular respiration B) p hotosynthesis C) p rotein synthesis D) d igestion of organic matter inside the cell E) l ipid synthesis

28) ______

29) I f a cell's lysosomes burst, the cell would ______.

29) ______

A) s hrivel B) b ecome flaccid C) d igest itself D) n eed to manufacture more lysosomes E) d ivide into two cells 30) T ay-Sachs disease results from ______ lacking a specific type of lipid-digesting enzyme.

A) l ysosomes B) t he Golgi apparatus C) t he plasma membrane D) m itochondria E) t he endoplasmic reticulum

30) ______

31) V acuoles are ______.

A) m anufactured by ribosomes B) c omposed of microtubules C) f ound only in plant cells D) m embranous sacs E) c omposed of protein

31) ______

32) A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ______.

A) o n land B) i n fresh water C) i n ice D) w ithin the cells of another organism E) i n a marine environment

32) ______

33) I n plant cells, ______ may contain organic nutrients, pigments, and poisons.

A) l ysosomes B) r ibosomes C) m itochondria D) c hloroplasts E) c entral vacuoles

33) ______

34) P lant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ______.

A) c ell wall and contractile vacuole B) c ell wall and ribosomes C) n ucleus and contractile vacuole D) n ucleus and cell wall E) c ell wall and central vacuole

34) ______

35) S imilar to the nucleus, chloroplasts and mitochondria are ______.

A) n ot surrounded by membrane B) a ble to synthesize lipids C) g reen D) m anufactured by the nucleolus E) s urrounded by two membranes

35) ______

36) W hich organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?

A) c hloroplast B) r ibosome C) s mooth endoplasmic reticulum

36) ______

D) m itochondrion E) n ucleolus 37) C ellular respiration can be described as the conversion of the energy ______.

A) s tored in ATP to energy used to do work B) s tored in food molecules to energy stored in ATP C) o f sunlight to energy stored in inorganic compounds D) o f sunlight to energy stored in organic compounds E) s tored in ATP to energy stored in food molecules

37) ______

38) W hich of the following is an adaptation to increase the surface area of a part of a cell that is involved in cellular respiration?

A) t he grana of a chloroplast B) t he endoplasmic reticulum C) t he outer membrane of a chloroplast D) t he stroma of a chloroplast E) t he cristae of a mitochondrion

38) ______

39) M icrotubules are associated with ______.

A) c ilia B) f lagella C) c ell shape D) c hromosome movement E) a ll of the above

39) ______

40) T obacco smokers (and those exposed to tobacco smoke) are at greater risk of an ectopic (tubal) pregnancy. Based on your understanding of the structures of the cytoskeleton, what is the best explanation?

A) T obacco interferes with the functioning of the flagella propelling sperm.

B) T obacco interferes with the transfer of oxygen to the uterus, thereby forcing the zygote to implant in a fallopian tube.

C) T obacco causes the cilia to grow to be very long and block movement through the fallopian tubes.

D) T obacco interferes with the sweeping motion of cilia that aids in the movement of the egg toward the uterus.

E) T obacco smokers tend to get pregnant when they are younger.

40) ______

41) E xamine the following photographs. Which of the techniques reveal internal cellular detail?

41) ______

A) t ransmission electron micrograph and scanning electron micrograph

B) l ight micrograph and transmission electron micrograph C) l ight micrograph and scanning electron micrograph D) a ll three micrographs E) n one of the micrographs 42) E xamine the structures of the plant and animal cells below. Which of the following organelles connect(s) to the nuclear envelope?

A) m itochondria B) t he Golgi apparatus C) l ysosomes D) t he endoplasmic reticulum E) t he plasma membrane 43) T he figure below shows a Paramecium, a single-celled freshwater protist. The hairlike structures visible on the Paramecium allow it to move. These structures are ______.

42) ______

43)

A) m embrane proteins B) m icrofilaments C) f lagella D) i ntermediate filaments E) c ilia 44) T he child shown in the figure below is not feeling well. Why does the poster say "No Antibiotics Please"?

___ ___

44)

___ ___

A) H is illness is caused by bacteria.

B) H is illness is caused by penicillin.

C) A ntibiotics should be taken only to promote growth.

D) A ntibiotics will make him more sick.

E) H is illness is caused by a virus.

Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

The earliest cells detectable in fossils were different from the cells in animals, plants, fungi, and protists living today.

These first prokaryotic cells gave rise to eukaryotic cells approximately 1.7 billion years ago. The structure of eukaryotic cells today suggests how they might have evolved from their prokaryotic ancestors. Scientists examining mitochondria and chloroplasts now think that these organelles were probably free-living prokaryotes before becoming a part of eukaryotic cells long ago.

45) W hat evidence suggests that mitochondria might have evolved before chloroplasts?

A) M itochondria can sometimes divide to produce chloroplasts.

B) S ome mitochondria have chloroplasts inside of them.

C) A double membrane surrounds mitochondria, and a single membrane surrounds chloroplasts.

45) ______

D) A lmost all eukaryotes have mitochondria but only some cells have chloroplasts.

E) O nly mitochondria have their own DNA. 46) W hich of the following is a characteristic of chloroplasts that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?

A) C hloroplasts do not produce ATP. B) A single, highly folded plasma membrane surrounds chloroplasts.

C) C hloroplasts have their own DNA. D) C hloroplasts contain pigments.

E) C hloroplasts have cell walls.

46) ______

47) W hich of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?

A) M itochondria produce sugars through the process of photosynthesis.

B) M itochondria rely upon proteins as their source of energy.

C) T he plasma membrane of a mitochondrion, forming the surface of this organelle, is the site of many important steps of cellular respiration.

D) M itochondria have cell walls.

E) M itochondria have their own DNA.

47) ______

1) B 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) E 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) E 15) B 16) D 17) E 18) C 19) E 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) E 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) E 34) E 35) E 36) A 37) B 38) E 39) E 40) D 41) B 42) D 43) E 44) E 45) D 46) C 47) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hat is energy?

1) _______ A) t he capacity to cause movement B) m etabolism C) t he capacity to perform work D) a measure of calories E) a measure of disorder 2) T he energy of motion is ______ energy.

A) k inetic B) c reated

2) _______ C) c onserved

D) p otential

E) s tored

3) T he principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ______.

A) c onservation of energy B) i nterconversion C) e ntropy D) p otential energy E) c onservation of heat

3) _______

4) A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy.

A) k inetic B) p otential C) c onserved

4) _______ D) m otion

E) n o

5) Y ou are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows down and stops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped?

A) I t was converted back to chemical energy.

B) I t was returned to the bicycle.

C) I t was used to chemically break down the tires.

D) I t was released as heat.

E) I t was stored as kinetic energy.

5) _______

6) W hich of the following is a measure of disorder?

A) c onservation of energy B) e ntropy C) k inetic energy D) p otential energy E) r espiration

6) _______

7) G lucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing ______.

A) k inetic energy into chemical energy B) c hemical energy into potential energy C) k inetic energy into potential energy D) c hemical energy into kinetic energy E) n one of the above

7) _______

8) H umans convert approximately ______ of the energy stored in food to useful work.

A) 8 0% B) 9 9.9% C) 6 0% D) 4 0% E) 2 0%

8) _______

9) T en kilocalories are equivalent to ______ calories.

A) 0 .01 B) 0 .1 C) 1 ,000

9) _______ D) 1 0,000

E) 1 00

10) Y ou have a 2-liter bottle of liquid water at 0°C. About how many Calories are needed to heat up the water to 100°C? A) 1 00 Calories B) 2 ,000 Calories C) 2 00 Calories D) 2 Calories E) 1 0,000 Calories

10) ______

11) W hat compound directly provides energy for cellular work?

A) C 6H12O6 B) f at C) A TP

11) ______ D) D NA

E) s ucrose

12) E nergy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ______.

A) a denosine B) p hoton C) h eat unit D) p hosphate group E) s pring

12) ______

13) A nything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______.

A) f orce the cell to rely on ADP for energy B) r esult in the conversion of kinetic energy to potential energy C) h ave no effect on the cell D) f orce the cell to rely on lipids for energy E) r esult in cell death

13) ______

14) U sually, enzymes are ______.

A) s teroids B) p hospholipids C) m onosaccharides D) f ats E) p roteins

14) ______

15) T he sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.

A) m etabolism B) r eplication C) i nheritance D) s ummation E) c ellular synthesis

15) ______

16) E nzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ______.

A) c ontributing electrons to the reaction B) d ecreasing activation energy C) c ontributing water to the reaction D) i ncreasing the temperature of the substrates E) c hanging the pH of the substrates

16) ______

17) W hich one of the following is true?

A) M ost enzymes are lipids.

B) E nzymes are the products in a chemical reaction.

C) E nzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction.

D) A n enzyme's function requires inhibitors.

17) ______

E) E nzymes catalyze specific reactions.

18) A n enzyme's function is dependent on its ______.

A) p H B) s hape C) w eight D) t emperature E) s ize

18) ______

19) W hich component of the following reaction is the enzyme? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) s ucrose B) f ructose C) s ucrase

19) ______ D) g lucose

E) w ater

20) T he region of an enzyme to which a substrate binds is called the ______ site.

A) s ubstrate B) d enatured C) c onformational D) a ctive E) e nzymatic

20) ______

21) W hich component of the following reaction is the substrate? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) f ructose B) s ucrose C) s ucrase D) g lucose

21) ______

E) T here is no substrate in this reaction.

22) W hich one of the following is true?

A) E nzymes are used up in chemical reactions.

B) A n enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.

C) E nzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.

D) A n enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's substrate site.

E) E nzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.

22) ______

23) S ubstances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ______.

A) e nzyme products B) e nzyme substrates C) e nzyme inhibitors D) i nduced fit factors E) r eactants

23) ______

24) W hich one of the following is most similar to the mechanism of an enzyme inhibitor?

A) k eeping someone from parking by parking in their designated spot B) f orgetting to put a cap back on a pen C) c ombining new ingredients in a new recipe D) c hanging the tires on a car E) d riving the wrong way on a one-way street

24) ______

25) D iffusion is an example of ______.

A) a ctive transport B) p hagocytosis

25) ______

C) e ndocytosis D) e xocytosis E) p assive transport 26) D iffusion ______.

A) i s the result of the potential energy of atoms B) o ccurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated C) r equires an input of cellular energy D) i s driven by an input of cellular energy E) p roceeds until equilibrium is reached

26) ______

27) F acilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ______ and moves a substance ______ its concentration gradient.

A) e nergy and transport proteins . . . down B) t ransport proteins . . . against C) e nergy and transport proteins . . . against D) e nergy . . . down E) t ransport proteins . . . down

27) ______

28) O smosis can be defined as ______.

A) t he diffusion of nonpolar molecules B) t he diffusion of a solute C) t he diffusion of water D) a ctive transport E) e ndocytosis

28) ______

29) A balloon permeable to water but not to glucose contains a 10% glucose solution. A beaker contains a 5% glucose solution. Which of the following is true?

A) W hen placed in the beaker, the balloon will lose water by osmosis.

B) T he solution in the balloon is isotonic; the solution in the beaker is hypertonic.

C) T he solution in the balloon is hypertonic relative to the solution in the beaker.

D) T he solution in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the solution in the balloon.

E) W hen placed in the beaker, the balloon will experience neither a net gain nor a net loss of water.

29) ______

30) W hen two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will ______.

A) e xhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration B) n ot cross the membrane C) e xhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane D) e xhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration E) e xhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration

30) ______

31) A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution is ______.

A) d ead B) h ypertonic to its environment C) h ypotonic to its environment D) m etabolically inactive E) i sotonic to its environment

31) ______

32) S ome protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate

excess

water 32) from the cell. The presence of these organelle s tells you that the environ ment ______.

___ ___

A) i s isotonic to the protozoan B) i s hypertonic to the protozoan C) c ontains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan D) i s hypotonic to the protozoan E) n one of the above 33) I f placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?

A) e xpulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole B) t he fact that plant cells are isotonic to tap water C) t he relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water D) t he relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water E) t he relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall

33) ______

34) I n a hypotonic solution, a plant cell will ______.

A) p ump out excess water B) b urst C) b ecome flaccid D) b ecome turgid E) u ndergo plasmolysis

34) ______

35) W hich of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?

A) o smosis B) d iffusion C) p lasmolysis D) f acilitated diffusion E) a ctive transport

35) ______

36) A ctive transport ______.

A) u ses ATP as an energy source B) r equires the cell to expend energy C) c an move solutes against their concentration gradient D) c an involve the transport of ions E) a ll of the above

36) ______

37) _ _____ is to eating as ______ is to drinking.

A) E ndocytosis . . . exocytosis B) C ell pumping . . . endocytosis C) P hagocytosis . . . pinocytosis

37) ______

D) D iffusion . . . endocytosis E) A ctive transport . . . diffusion 38) C ertain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach.

This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?

A) p assive transport B) p inocytosis C) e ndocytosis D) d iffusion E) e xocytosis

38) ______

39) T he act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ______.

A) p inocytosis B) r eceptor-mediated endocytosis C) p hagocytosis D) d iffusion E) o smosis

39) ______

40) R elaying a message from a receptor protein to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called ______.

A) c ompetition B) i nhibition C) s elf-recognition D) s elective permeability E) s ignal transduction

40) ______

41) W hich of the following is most like a signal transduction pathway in a cell?

A) c atching fish using a fishing pole B) a person parking a car in a parking space C) a person answering the door to their home after someone rings the doorbell D) a person mixing together water, milk, and cake mix to make a cake E) a physician removing a thorn from a person's foot

41) ______

42) T he figure below shows that ______.

42) ______

A) A TP can be converted to ADP by adding a phosphate group B) e nergy is released from ATP during the process of cellular respiration C) A DP is a smooth molecule D) A DP can perform cellular work when it binds to an additional phosphate group

E) A TP can perform cellular work when it releases a phosphate group 43) E xamine the cells below. Cells with a higher concentration of ions than the surrounding medium tend to ______.

A) m erge with other cells B) s tay about the same size and shape C) d ivide D) e xpand E) s hrink 44) E xamine the following figure. Imagine that cell signaling using a signal transduction pathway is like a person answering the door after hearing the doorbell ring. Which structure in this figure is like the button for the doorbell?

43) ______

44)

___ ___

A) p roteins of the signal transduction pathway B) t he receptor protein C) t he hydrolysis of glycogen D) t he plasma membrane E) e pinephrine Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Cellular respiration converts the energy of fuel molecules to a form of energy that a cell can use to perform work. In an average day, most adult humans need to consume about 2,000 Calories to maintain their health. However, the exact amount of dietary Calories a person needs depends upon many factors, including the person’s age, physical activity, size, and health. Foods that we consume vary greatly in their nutritional content and quality. A large hard-boiled egg, for example, has about 75 dietary Calories and contains about 70% of our recommended daily intake of cholesterol.

45) M olecules that come from the food we eat provide energy for the amazing work that goes on inside of our cells. This energy, stored inside of our food, is a form of ______.

A) k inetic energy called heat B) k inetic energy called entropy C) e lectrical energy called heat D) p otential energy called entropy E) p otential energy called chemical energy

45) ______

46) I f a person eats one hard-boiled egg and digests the egg fully, cellular respiration will convert most of this energy into ______.

A) h eat B) c arbon dioxide C) A TP D) w ater E) s ugars

46) ______

47) T he amount of dietary Calories in one hard-boiled egg could raise the temperature of ______.

A) 1 0 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius B) 1 ,000 grams of water by 75 degrees Celsius C) 7 ,500 grams of water by 50 degrees Celsius

47) ______

D) 7 5 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius E) 7 50 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius

1) C 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) E 14) E 15) A 16) B 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) E 26) E 27) E 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) D 33) E 34) D 35) E 36) E 37) C 38) E 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) E 43) D 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A difference between marathon runners and sprinters is ______.

1) _______ A) s printers have a high proportion of muscle fibers that require oxygen to make ATP B) s printers perform better in activities that require slow, steady muscle activity C) m arathon runners have more fast-twitch muscle fibers in their leg muscles D) m arathon runners have more slow-twitch fibers in their leg muscles E) n one of the above 2) H umans use the calories they obtain from ______ as their source of energy.

A) f ood B) w ater C) c arbon dioxide D) m inerals E) s unlight

2) _______

3) P hotosynthetic organisms are ______.

A) c onsumers B) h eterotrophs C) p roducers D) a nimals E) d ecomposers

3) _______

4) A horse eating some hay is an example of ______.

A) a n autotroph eating a consumer B) a consumer eating a heterotroph C) a consumer eating a producer D) a producer eating a heterotroph E) a n autotroph eating a producer

4) _______

5) P hotosynthesis is carried out by ______.

A) c hloroplasts B) t he nucleus C) m itochondria D) r ibosomes E) c onsumers

5) _______

6) T he waste products of cellular respiration include ______.

A) w ater and glucose B) g lucose only C) c arbon dioxide only D) w ater only E) w ater and carbon dioxide

6) _______

7) P lant cells ______.

A) u se carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen B) h ave chloroplasts and mitochondria C) d o not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs D) d o not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs E) d o not use cellular respiration

7) _______

8) T he ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.

A) p lants B) t he sun C) A TP D) p roducers E) c onsumers

8) _______

9) W hat compound directly provides energy for cellular work?

A) C 6H12O6 B) g lucose C) f at

9) _______ D) D NA

E) A TP

10) A n aerobic process requires ______.

A) l ight B) c arbohydrates C) A TP D) c arbon dioxide E) o xygen

10) ______

11) R espiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular respiration ______.

A) p roduces oxygen B) u ses carbon dioxide C) p roduces ATP D) p roduces glucose E) a lso describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air

11) ______

12) W hich of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?

A) g lucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy B) e nergy + carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen + water C) g lucose → ethyl alcohol + carbon dioxide + energy D) g lucose → lactic acid + energy E) g lucose + lactose → galactose + water

12) ______

13) W hich of the following are produced during cellular respiration?

A) o xygen B) c arbon dioxide, water, and ATP C) A TP and water D) c arbon dioxide and ATP E) o xygen and glucose

13) ______

14) D uring redox reactions, ______.

A) t he loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction B) p rotons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule C) e lectrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance D) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized E) n one of the above

14) ______

15) D uring cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules.

Which of the following is a true statement about this process?

A) G lucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.

B) T he electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one electron acceptor to another.

15) ______

C) T he electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another.

D) O xygen is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.

E) N one of the statements are true.

16) W hich of the following statements is true?

A) O xidation is the gain of electrons; reduction is the loss of electrons.

B) O xygen is a product of cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis.

C) L actic acid is a product of aerobic respiration; ethyl alcohol is a product of fermentation.

D) G lucose is a product of aerobic respiration; lactic acid is a product of anaerobic respiration.

E) O xidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons.

16) ______

17) T he first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.

B) N AD+ A) H 2O C) C O2

17) ______ D) O 2

E) A TP

18) T he final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.

A) c arbon dioxide B) o xygen C) A TP D) l actic acid E) N AD+

18) ______

19) W here in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A) w ithin the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane B) a long the outside of the outer mitochondrial membrane C) b etween the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane D) E R E) c ytoplasm

19) ______

20) W hich of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?

A) c itric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis B) g lycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport C) c itric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport D) e lectron transport, citric acid cycle, glycolysis E) e lectron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle

20) ______

21) A product of glycolysis is ______.

A) N AD+

21) ______

B) l actic acid C) p yruvic acid D) e thyl alcohol E) O 2 22) W hich of the following is a result of glycolysis?

A) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule B) p roduction of CO2

22) ______

C) r eduction of FAD to FADH2 D) c onversion of glucose to pyruvic acid E) c onversion of NADH to NAD+ 23) T he second stage of aerobic respiration is ______.

A) t he electron transport chain B) g lycolysis

23) ______

C) A TP production D) l actic acid fermentation E) t he citric acid cycle 24) W hat must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle?

A) a cetyl CoA B) e thyl alcohol C) l actic acid D) c itric acid E) N ADH

24) ______

25) I n aerobic respiration, how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose?

A) 6 B) 1 2 C) 3 8 D) 1 E) 3

25) ______

26) W hich part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH? A) g lycolysis B) C alvin cycle C) c itric acid cycle D) e lectron transport chain E) h ydrogenation

26) ______

27) E lectron transport takes place in the ______.

A) r ibosomes B) c hloroplasts C) m itochondria D) c ytoplasm E) n ucleus

27) ______

28) A TP synthase plays a role in ______.

A) b reaking down ATP B) p ulling electrons down the electron transport chain C) g lycolysis D) p umping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane E) g enerating ATP

28) ______

29) A erobic cellular respiration generates about ______ ATP from one glucose.

A) 2 B) T he number generated depends on whether the end product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid or ethyl alcohol.

C) 6 D) 1 E) 3 8

29) ______

30) I n cellular respiration, most ATP is produced directly as a result of ______.

A) t he citric acid cycle B) t he electron transport chain C) g lycolysis D) f ermentation E) t he movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane

30) ______

31) T he term anaerobic means ______.

31) ______

A) w ith O2 B) w ithout CO2 C) w ithout ATP D) w ithout bacteria E) w ithout O2 32) A naerobic respiration produces a maximum of ______ ATP per glucose.

A) 4 B) 2 C) 3 8 D) 1 0

32) ______ E) 3 6

33) W hich of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar breakdown?

A) c onversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA B) t he electron transport chain C) t he citric acid cycle D) g lycolysis E) c onversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid

33) ______

34) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells. Physicians find that the muscle cells function. Not surprisingly, they also find that ______.

A) t he muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise B) t he muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function C) t he muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid D) t he muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise E) t he muscles require extremely large amounts of carbon dioxide to function

34) ______

35) S ome friends are trying to make wine in their basement. They've added yeast to a sweet grape juice mixture and have allowed the yeast to grow. After several days they find that sugar levels in the grape juice have dropped, but there's no alcohol in the mixture. The most likely explanation is that ______.

A) t he mixture needs less sugar; high sugar concentrations stimulate cellular respiration, and alcohol is not a by-product of cellular respiration B) t he mixture needs less oxygen; yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygen C) t he mixture needs more oxygen; yeast need oxygen to break down sugar to produce alcohol D) t he mixture needs more sugar; yeast need a lot of energy before they can begin to produce alcohol E) n one of the above

35) ______

36) W hat waste product do yeast produce under anaerobic conditions?

A) c reatine B) e thyl alcohol C) l actic acid D) p yruvic acid E) g lucosamine

36) ______

37) L arge amounts of oxygen gas first appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.

A) 3 .5 billion B) 5 00,000 C) 2 .7 billion D) 1 0 million E) 3 .5 million

37) ______

38) E xamine the following figure. Which of the following reactants primarily come(s) from the air?

38)

___ ___

A) w ater B) o xygen C) o xygen and carbon dioxide D) g lucose E) c arbon dioxide 39) E xamine the following figure. Which of these stages occur(s) in the cytoplasm?

A) g lycolysis B) e lectron transport C) c itric acid cycle D) g lycolysis and citric acid cycle E) c itric acid cycle and electron transport 40) T he figure below shows

39) ______

40)

___ ___

A) t he formation of pyruvic acid during glycolysis B) t he synthesis of ATP through the addition of a phosphate group C) t he synthesis of ADP D) t he removal of a phosphate group from ADP E) t he breakdown of ATP to perform cellular work 41) T he figure below shows that ______.

41) ______

A) o ur cells can produce ATP from sugars and glycerol, but not fatty acids B) s ugars can move directly into the citric acid cycle C) o ur cells can produce ATP only from glucose D) o ur cells can use sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids to produce ATP E) a mino acids can move directly into the electron transport chain Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

An abundant and continual supply of ATP is necessary for all living cells. Active muscle cells require an extraordinary amount of ATP to permit strenuous exercise for prolonged periods. Toxins, reduced blood flow, and a compromised respiratory system can interfere with the transport of oxygen to active cells. A runner in a marathon faces multiple obstacles to continue to produce sufficient ATP to remain competitive.

42) B reathing faster when we exercise is necessary to expel ______.

A) o xygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support anaerobic metabolism B) c arbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support anaerobic metabolism C) c arbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support aerobic metabolism D) o xygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support aerobic metabolism E) N one of the above

42) ______

43) W hen oxygen delivery becomes insufficient to support a runner’s aerobic metabolism, cells switch to an emergency mode in which ______.

A) A TP is generated less efficiently by harvesting the heat energy in a cell B) A TP is inefficiently produced and lactic acid is generated as a by-product C) c arbon dioxide is broken down to produce FADH, which is used instead of ATP D) c arbon dioxide is joined with water to generate much smaller amounts of ATP E) l actic acid is broken down to produce smaller amounts of ATP

43) ______

1) D 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) E 10) E 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) B 19) E 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) E 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) E 29) E 30) E 31) E 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hich of the following is an autotroph?

1) _______ A) m ushroom B) h uman C) p ine tree D) f ish E) p orcupine 2) P hotosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.

A) s ynthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose B) t aking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates) C) r eleasing the energy in cellulose to make new leaves and roots D) c onverting sugar to oxygen and water E) t aking in oxygen and making wood

2) _______

3) I n which organelle does photosynthesis take place?

A) m itochondrion B) c hloroplast C) r ough endoplasmic reticulum D) n ucleus E) v acuole

3) _______

4) W hat is the function of stomata?

A) l ocation of photosystems B) w ater absorption C) g as exchange D) f ermentation E) C alvin cycle

4) _______

5) T hrough what structure(s) do plants obtain most of their water?

A) r oots B) l eaves C) s tomata D) i nterior cells E) s tems

5) _______

6) W hat name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?

A) t hylakoids B) c ristae C) r eaction centers D) s troma E) v esicles

6) _______

7) W hat are grana?

A) s tacks of membranous sacs B) p igments found in choloroplasts C) s acs that surround the stroma D) t hick fluids inside choloroplasts E) c onvolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane

7) _______

8) I f you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light, but only minimal amounts of water, which of the following would you expect to occur?

A) i ncreased amounts of oxygen released by the plants B) i ncreased plant growth C) d ecreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plants D) i ncreased growth of the plants’ roots E) i ncreased growth of the plants’ leaves

8) _______

9) W hich of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?

A) 6 O2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 CO2

9) _______

B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 C) C 6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O D) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 E) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O 10) I n photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.

A) C O2 . . . O2

10) ______

B) H 2O . . . CO2 C) H 2O . . . C6H12O6 D) O 2 . . . CO2 E) C 6H12O6 . . . O2 11) T he light reactions of photosynthesis convert ______ energy to ______ energy.

A) s olar . . . chemical B) p roton gradient . . . chemical C) A TP . . . NADPH D) c hemical . . . electrical E) e lectrical . . . solar

11) ______

12) T he Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light-dependent reactions in order to operate.

A) g lucose . . . carbon dioxide B) e lectrons . . . NADH C) A TP . . . NADPH D) R uBP . . . NADP+ E) o xygen . . . carbon dioxide

12) ______

13) T he products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ______.

A) R uBP and O2

13) ______

B) A TP and NADPH C) A TP and NADH D) A TP and NADP+ E) A TP and NAD+ 14) T he color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.

A) t he wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigment B) t he wavelengths that have been used and discarded by the pigmented object C) t he wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object D) t he wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object

14) ______

E) t he wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight 15) I f a plant appears blue to us, what wavelength of light is being reflected?

A) o range B) b lue C) g reen D) y ellow 16) T he energy of wavelengths that appear ______ is least useful to photosynthesis.

A) b lue B) g reen C) r ed D) o range

15) ______ E) r ed 16) ______ E) v iolet

17) W hat is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of leaves in the fall?

A) c hlorophyll b B) R uBP C) p hycoerythrin D) c hlorophyll a E) c arotenoids

17) ______

18) W hat is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules, like chlorophyll b and carotenoids?

A) b ecause plants cannot make enough chlorophyll a for all of their energy needs B) t o give them different colors C) t o reflect more energy D) t o absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot E) b ecause chlorophyll a can get burnt out by intense sunlight during the summer

18) ______

19) W hat name is given to a discrete packet of light?

A) q uantum B) p haser C) w avelength D) s pectrum E) p hoton

19) ______

20) T he shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ______.

A) l ess energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments B) g reener the color C) r edder the color D) g reater the energy E) m ore photons it contains

20) ______

21) W hen a molecule absorbs a photon, one of its electrons is raised to the ______ state.

A) g round B) h igher C) e xcited D) e nergetic E) q uantum

21) ______

22) W hich of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon?

A) f luorescence B) h eat C) l ight D) l oss of an electron E) a ll of the above

22) ______

23) W here are photosystems located?

23) ______

A) i nner chloroplast membrane B) c ristae C) t hylakoid membrane

D) c hlorophyll E) s troma 24) W hat compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?

A) c hlorophyll c B) c arotenoids C) c hlorophyll a D) p hycobilins E) c hlorophyll b

24) ______

25) T he light reactions of photosynthesis take place ______.

A) i n the stroma B) i n the inner membrane C) i n the cytosol D) i n the thylakoid membrane E) o n the cristae

25) ______

26) _ _____ is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem.

A) C hlorophyll a B) H 2O

26) ______

C) C 6H12O6 D) C O2 E) N ADPH 27) W hich of the following is the source of electrons for the light reactions?

A) H 2O B) C 6H12O6 C) N ADPH D) N ADH

27) ______ E) C O2

28) W hich of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of photosynthesis?

A) C alvin cycle B) c itric acid cycle C) e lectron transport chain D) l actic acid fermentation E) g lycolysis

28) ______

29) I n photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ______.

29) ______

A) o uter chloroplast membrane B) t hylakoid membrane C) i nner chloroplast membrane D) e ndomembrane E) s tromal membrane 30) T he Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.

A) l ight energy, CO2, and water . . . sugar and O2

30) ______

B) C O2, ATP, and NADPH . . . sugar C) C O2, ATP, and NADPH . . . sugar and O2 D) l ight energy and CO2 . . . sugar E) s ugar and O2 . . . CO2, NADPH, and ATP 31) C 4 plants conserve water by ______.

A) s huttling CO2 from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem

31) ______

B) k eeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry C) i ncorporating CO2 into RuBP D) r unning the Calvin cycle at night E) g rowing very deep roots 32) C AM plants conserve water by ______.

A) k eeping their stomata closed at night B) g rowing very deep roots C) o pening their stomata only at night D) r unning the Calvin cycle at night E) i ncorporating CO2 into RuBP

32) ______

33) R efer to the accompanying figure. Plant cells that contain the organelle responsible for photosynthesis are concentrated in cells of the ______.

33) ______

A) g rana B) s tomata C) r oots D) l eaves E) c hlorophyll 34) R efer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following is true regarding the behavior of a chlorophyll molecule as it absorbs a photon?

34)

___ ___

A) T he energy of a photon raises an electron to the excited state.

B) L ight is released.

C) H eat is released.

D) A TP is broken down.

E) A n electron goes from the excited state to the ground state.

35) R efer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following best describes the direct mechanism of ATP production during photosynthesis?

A) u se of the energy generated as hydrogen ions (H+) move up a proton gradient; this energy is used to make ATP B) u se of the energy stored in hydrogen ion (H+) gradients; the potential energy of the proton gradient is released as the protons move down their gradient through special membrane protein channels; this energy is converted to chemical bond energy in the ATP molecule C) u se of the energy released as excited electrons are passed from one molecule to another in

35) ______

the electron

transport system; the energy is converted to the chemical bond energy of ATP D) c onversion of the energy of a photon to the chemical bond energy of ATP E) u se of the energy stored in excited electrons; as the electrons move from the excited state to the ground state, the energy released is converted to the energy stored in the third phosphate bond in ATP

Please refer to the accompanying figure to answer the following question(s).

36) H ow many times must the Calvin cycle turn for the plant cell to be able to produce one molecule of glucose?

A) o ne B) f our C) t wo D) s ix E) t hree

36) ______

37) O ne of the compounds that is a direct output of the Calvin cycle is ______.

A) N ADPH B) C 6H12O6 C) A TP D) G 3P

37) ______ E) O 2

38) T he first step of the Calvin cycle is the incorporation of ______ into ______.

A) G 3P . . . RuBP B) O 2 . . . G3P

38) ______

C) R uBP . . . O2 D) C O2 . . . RuBP E) G 3P . . . C6H12O6 39) T he last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.

A) G 3P production B) r eduction of CO2

39) ______

C) r egeneration of RuBP D) o xidation of CO2 E) s ugar production 40) I f an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), which of the following statements would be true?

A) N o oxygen would be released by the plant.

B) N o sugar would be made by the plant.

C) T he plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less.

D) O nly RuBP would be recycled.

40) ______

E) T he plant would need more carbon dioxide.

Please use the following information to answer the following question(s).

You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species.

From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day).

The data you collected are as follows:

Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following question(s): 41) W hich wavelength is best for your plants’ growth?

A) 5 50nm B) 4 00nm C) 5 00nm

41) ______ D) 7 50nm

E) 6 50nm

42) O f the following, which wavelength is least useful to your plants?

A) 5 00nm B) 5 50nm C) 4 50nm D) 6 50nm

E) 4 00nm

43) W hich wavelength of light is the least useful to your plant’s growth?

A) 7 50nm B) 5 50nm C) 6 50nm D) 4 00nm

42) ______

43) ______ E) 5 00nm

44) W hy do some plant species require shaded conditions while other plant species require bright sunlight?

A) S ome species of plants are consumers and do not need sunlight.

44) ______

B) D ifferent species of plants have leaves that are shaped differently.

C) A ll of the above choices are correct.

D) S ome species of plants are able to produce sugar without ever having been exposed to sunlight.

E) D ifferent species of plants have different pigment molecules that utilize different wavelengths of light.

1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) D 19) E 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) D NA is found in structures called ______.

1) _______ A) c entrosomes B) h istones C) c hiasma D) c entromeres E) c hromosomes 2) A (n) ______ is an example of an organism that can reproduce asexually.

A) c at B) a moeba C) d og D) h uman

2) _______ E) m ouse

3) T he chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.

A) G olgi apparatus B) b asal body C) n ucleus D) n ucleolus E) c entriole

3) _______

4) C hromatin consists of ______.

A) D NA and protein B) p rotein only C) R NA and protein D) R NA only E) D NA only

4) _______

5) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.

A) s ister chromatids B) c entromeres C) g enomes D) c entrosomes E) g enes

5) _______

6) S ister chromatids are joined at the ______.

A) c entrosome B) c entromere C) c hromatin D) c entriole E) s pindle

6) _______

7) W hich of the following occurs during interphase?

A) S ister chromatids separate.

B) C hromosome duplication.

C) T he mitotic spindle forms.

D) C ytokinesis occurs.

7) _______

E) C hromatin becomes tightly coiled.

8) T he cell cycle results in the production of ______.

A) f our cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information B) t wo cells with different amounts of genetic material

8) _______

C) t wo cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information D) f our cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information E) t wo cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information 9) W hich of the following occurs during prophase?

A) T he nuclear envelope forms.

B) C ytokinesis occurs.

C) T he mitotic spindle begins to form.

D) C hromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.

E) S ister chromatids separate.

9) _______

10) W hich of the following is a stage of mitosis?

A) i nterphase B) t elophase C) m eiosis D) c ytokinesis E) D NA synthesis

10) ______

11) T he correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.

A) t elophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase B) p rophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) i nterphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) a naphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase E) m etaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase

11) ______

12) D uring metaphase ______.

A) c entromeres divide B) c ytokinesis occurs C) s ister chromatids separate D) t he nuclear envelope breaks up E) c hromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

12) ______

13) W hich of these events occurs during anaphase?

A) T he nuclear envelope breaks up.

B) T he nuclear envelope reappears.

C) C ytokinesis occurs.

D) S ister chromatids separate.

E) C hromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

13) ______

14) D uring telophase ______.

A) t he genetic material doubles B) s ister chromatids separate C) t he nuclear envelope breaks up D) c hromosomes line up in the middle of the cell E) t he events of prophase are reversed

14) ______

15) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.

A) h ave its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell B) h ave two nuclei C) h ave less genetic material than it started with

15) ______

D) b e a prokaryotic cell E) n ot have completed anaphase 16) C ytokinesis typically occurs during the ______ stage of mitosis.

A) i nterphase B) t elophase C) p rophase D) a naphase E) m etaphase

16) ______

17) W hat is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?

A) B enign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.

B) B enign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.

C) B enign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.

D) B enign tumors cannot kill you; malignant tumors can.

E) B enign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.

17) ______

18) W hich of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival?

A) S moke only cigarettes.

B) L imit exercise.

C) S eek early detection of tumors.

D) E at a low-fiber, low-fat diet.

E) O verexpose skin to the sun.

18) ______

19) H omologous chromosomes ______.

A) i nclude only the autosomes B) i nclude only the sex chromosomes C) c arry the same genes D) s eparate during interphase E) a re a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent

19) ______

20) W hat sex chromosomes belong to a normal human male?

A) X XY B) X Y C) Y O

20) ______ D) X X

E) X O

21) H ow many autosomes do humans have?

A) 2 3 B) 4 6 C) 2

D) 4 4

E) 2 2

21) ______

22) C hromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.

A) s ister chromatids B) a utosomes C) p olysomes D) t ransposons E) c entromeres

22) ______

23) S exual intercourse in humans ______.

A) p roduces an individual with 23 chromosomes B) a llows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell C) p roduces a haploid individual D) c ombines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote E) p revents genetic disorders

23) ______

24) I n meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II? A) I n prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated.

B) D uring prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II the chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell.

C) D uring prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II. D) D uring prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells.

E) D uring prophase I the nuclear envelope breaks up; during prophase II the nuclear envelope remains intact.

24) ______

25) H ow much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed meiosis II? A) t wice as much B) o ne-quarter as much C) f our times as much D) o ne-half as much E) t he same amount

25) ______

26) D uring metaphase I, ______.

A) c entrosomes migrate to opposite poles B) t he nuclear envelope breaks up C) h omologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell D) s ister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles E) c rossing over occurs

26) ______

27) U pon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).

A) o ne diploid B) f our diploid C) t wo diploid D) t wo haploid E) f our haploid

27) ______

28) W hich of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II? A) C hromosomes move to the middle of the cell.

B) S pindle formation occurs.

C) C rossing over occurs.

D) C ytokinesis occurs.

E) C hromosomes have been duplicated.

28) ______

29) A naphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in 29) ______ mitotic anaphase ______.

A) t he cells are diploid . . . the cells are haploid B) c rossing over occurs . . . crossing over does not occur C) c ytokinesis occurs . . . cytokinesis does not occur D) c hromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell . . . chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell E) t he cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate . . . the cells are diploid and sister chromatids separate 30) O ne difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.

A) m itosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells

30) ______

B) m itosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells C) m eiosis is needed for growth and tissue repair, but mitosis is not D) m itosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not E) m itosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis 31) G enetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Which is it?

A) c rossing over B) i ndependent assortment C) r andom fertilization D) t he events of meiosis II E) t he events of meiosis I

31) ______

32) W hich of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I? A) S ister chromatids separate; those inherited from the mother migrate to one pole, and those inherited from the father go to the opposite pole.

B) S ister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.

C) H alf of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father.

D) H omologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.

E) A ll of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole.

32) ______

33) F or a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ gametic combinations are possible.

A) 2 B) 8 C) 1 6 D) 4 E) 2 0

33) ______

34) A ______ describes a site of crossing over.

A) c hromatid B) c entromeres C) s ynapse D) h istone E) c hiasma

34) ______

35) C rossing over during prophase I results in ______.

A) t ranslocation B) n ondisjunction C) r eciprocal translocation D) g enetic recombination E) d uplication

35) ______

36) A karyotype (a chromosome display) would be unable to determine ______.

A) T urner syndrome B) e ye color C) s ex D) D own syndrome E) p olyploidy

36) ______

37) H ow many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction?

A) 2 n + 1 or 2n - 1 B) n + 1 only C) n + 1 or n - 1 D) 2 n - 1 only E) 2 n + 1 or n - 1

37) ______

38) H ow many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?

A) n - 1 C) 2 n - 1 D) n + 1 B) 4 n

38) ______ E) 2 n +1

39) E xamine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ______.

39) ______

A) R NA and protein B) i ntertwined RNA and DNA C) D NA and nonhistone proteins D) D NA and RNA polymerase E) D NA wrapped around histone proteins 40) A s shown in the following figure, plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ______.

40) ______

A) a nimal cells produce more daughter cells B) a nimal cells form a cell plate and plant cells do not C) p lant cells form a cell plate and animal cells do not D) p lant cells produce more daughter cells E) p lant cells lack the telophase of mitosis 41) T his diagram of the human life cycle shows that ______.

A) a dult humans are haploid B) a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human C) m eiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells D) m eiosis produces a diploid zygote E) f ertilization produces a haploid zygote 42) T he following figure shows that ______.

41) ______

42)

A) m eiosis forms diploid gametes B) f ertilization results in four haploid daughter cells C) t he human 2n number is 4 D) m eiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells E) t elophase I follows cytokinesis 43) T he karyotype below shows ______.

___ ___

43)

______ A) a bnormal sex chromosomes B) t risomy 21, a cause of Klinefelter syndrome C) T urner syndrome D) n ondisjunction E) t risomy 21, a cause of Down syndrome

Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).

Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.

44) A manda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.

A) n ondisjunction B) c rossing over C) r andom fertilization D) i ndependent assortment of chromosomes E) c ytokinesis

44) ______

45) W ith respect to her sex chromosomes, Amanda would be designated as ______.

A) X O B) X Y C) X X D) X YY

45) ______ E) X OY

1) E 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) D 14) E 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) E 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) E 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) E 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) E 44) A 45) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) T he best definition of a true-breeding plant is one that ______.

1) _______ A) c annot be cross-fertilized B) b ecomes sterile after three generations C) s elf-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent D) p roduces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized E) s elf-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring 2) A mating between a true-breeding purple-flowered pea plant and a true-breeding white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n) ______.

A) i nbred organism B) F 2 generation

2) _______

C) t rue-breeding variety D) P generation E) h ybrid 3) A lleles are described as ______.

A) P unnett squares B) h omologous chromosomes C) e nvironmental factors that affect gene expression D) a lternate versions of a gene E) a lternate phenotypes

3) _______

4) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why? A) Y ellow is an easier color to produce.

B) T he yellow allele is recessive to the green allele.

C) T he alleles are codominant.

D) T he yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.

E) A ll of the offspring are homozygous yellow.

4) _______

5) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio

5) _______

of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?

A) 9 :3:3:1

B) 3 :1

C) 1 :2:1

D) 1 :1

E) 2 :1

6) A ccording to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.

A) h omologous chromosomes move to the same gamete B) t wo alleles segregate into each gamete C) g ametes have one copy of each allele D) m ore gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele E) g ametes are diploid

6) _______

7) A ttached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A) 3 :1 B) 1 :1 C) 2 :1 D) 9 :3:3:1 E) 1 :2:1

7) _______

8) M endel crossed true-breeding purple-flowered plants with true-breeding white-flowered plants,

and all of

the 8) resulting offspring produce d purple flowers.

The allele for purple flowers is ______.

_ _ _ _ _ _ _

A) d ominant B) i ndependent C) r ecessive D) s egregated E) m onohybrid 9) A ttached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A) 5 0% B) 7 5% C) 2 5% D) 0 % E) 1 00%

9) _______

10) I n humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?

A) d imples B) D d C) D I D) d d E) D D

10) ______

11) A n individual who is homozygous ______.

A) e xpresses the dominant trait B) c arries two different alleles for a gene C) e xpresses the recessive trait D) i s a carrier of a genetic disorder E) c arries two copies of the same allele for a gene

11) ______

12) W hich of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?

A) A A × B) A A × aa C) a a × aa D) A a × Aa Aa

12) ______ E) A a × aa

13) W hat name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?

A) c hromaddress B) p henotype C) l ocus D) a llele E) g enotype

13) ______

14) R ound seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?

A) 1 :2:1 B) 6 :5:4:1 C) 9 :3:3:1 D) 1 :1:1:1 E) 3 :1

14) ______

15) A n individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions.

This is a demonstration of ______.

15) ______

A) M endel's law of independent assortment B) c rossing over C) l inkage D) t he chromosomal theory of inheritance E) M endel's principle of segregation 16) T o determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who ______.

A) h as the genotype Aa B) i s homozygous recessive for that trait C) i s homozygous dominant for that trait D) e xpresses the dominant trait E) i s heterozygous for that trait

16) ______

17) A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?

A) 2 5% B) 3 3% C) 7 5% D) 5 0% E) 6 7%

17) ______

18) I n humans, free earlobes (E) are dominant to attached earlobes (e) and the presence of freckles (F) 18) ______ is dominant to the absence of freckles (f). If an individual heterozygous for both of these traits were to mate with an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes and freckles?

A) 2 5% B) 7 5% C) 0 % D) 5 0% E) 1 00% 19) T he ______ is most commonly found in nature.

A) w ild-type trait B) F 1

19) ______

C) p arental D) d ominant trait E) r ecessive trait 20) A n individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.

A) c annot have children with cystic fibrosis B) w ill have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis C) i s a carrier D) h as cystic fibrosis E) c annot reproduce

20) ______

21) A chondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype causes death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. If a person with achondroplasia mates with a person who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected to have achondroplasia?

A) 0 % B) 2 5% C) 5 0% D) 7 5% E) 1 00%

21) ______

22) W hich of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?

A) t estcross B) a mniocentesis C) p edigree analysis D) d ihybrid cross E) m onohybrid cross

22) ______

23) W hat is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?

23) ______

A) T he alleles affect more than one trait.

B) T he trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

C) T he phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

D) T he heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

E) T he dominant allele is always expressed.

24) A n individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. What is the relationship between the alleles for hair texture?

A) i ncomplete dominance B) c odominance C) s traight hair and curly hair are sex-linked, but wavy hair is not D) p leiotropy E) w avy hair is dominant to both straight and curly hair

24) ______

25) A n individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. If an individual with wavy hair mates with an individual with straight hair, what is the probability that their child will have curly hair?

A) 5 0% B) 0 % C) 7 5% D) 2 5% E) 1 00%

25) ______

26) W hat is the key to the recognition of codominance?

A) T he phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

B) T he alleles affect more than one trait.

C) T he dominant allele is not always expressed.

D) T he heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

E) T he trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

26) ______

27) A n individual with the blood group genotype LMLN has the phenotype MN. What is the

27) ______

relationship between the LM and LN alleles?

A) LN is dominant B) p leiotropy C) i ncomplete dominance D) c odominance E) L M is dominant 28) M arfan syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan syndrome

28) ______

are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. The inheritance of Marfan syndrome is an example of ______.

A) i ncomplete dominance B) p leiotropy C) c odominance D) a recessive disorder E) g ene linkage 29) W hat is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes (polygenic inheritance)?

A) T he trait varies along a continuum in the population.

B) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of offspring expressing the dominant trait.

C) A mating between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygous individual produces offspring who all have the same phenotype.

D) P leiotropy occurs.

29) ______

E) A ll of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed.

30) I n humans, the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.

A) h eight B) s ickle-cell disease C) H untington's disease D) c ystic fibrosis E) b lood type

30) ______

31) M any human traits, such as our performance on intelligence tests or our susceptibility to heart disease, are ______.

A) d etermined by genes in some people and by the environment in other people B) n ot affected by our genes C) i nfluenced by both genes and the environment D) d etermined only by our genes E) d etermined only by our environment

31) ______

32) W hat is the basis of Mendel's laws?

A) t he behavior of chromosomes during mitotic prophase B) t he behavior of chromosomes during mitotic anaphase C) t he behavior of chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis only D) t he behavior of chromosomes during prophase I and prophase II of meiosis E) t he behavior of chromosomes during metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis

32) ______

33) _ _____ genes violate Mendel's principle of independent assortment.

A) C odominant B) D ominant C) L inked D) P leiotropic E) R ecessive

33) ______

34) W hat is the best explanation for a BbCc × bbcc cross producing offspring in a 5:5:1:1 phenotypic ratio?

A) l inked genes B) p olygenic inheritance C) M endel's principles of segregation and independent assortment D) c odominance E) i ncomplete dominance

34) ______

35) A dihybrid cross produces 30 recombinant offspring out of a total of 1,000 offspring. What is the recombination frequency of the two gene pairs?

A) 1 .5% B) 3 % C) 0 .5% D) 6 % E) 3 0%

35) ______

36) T he recombination frequency between gene B and gene C is 11%. The recombination frequency between gene B and gene D is 5%. The recombination frequency between gene C and gene D is 15%. What would be the arrangement of these genes on a linkage map?

A) C DB B) D BC C) D CB D) B CD

36) ______

E) M ore information is needed.

37) C hromosomes that are not sex chromosomes are called ______.

A) d ominant B) a llosomes C) a utosomes D) c entrosomes E) n onsexosomes

37) ______

38) A ssume that having three nostrils is inherited as a sex-linked trait on the Y chromosome. A man with three nostrils has a daughter who has a son with a man who has only two nostrils. What is the probability that the three-nostriled man's grandson has three nostrils?

A) 0 % B) 2 5% C) 1 00% D) 7 5% E) 5 0%

38) ______

39) R ed-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is found on the X chromosome. How can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind?

A) T he woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind.

B) H e can't (unless there is a mutation).

C) T he man's mother carries an allele for red-green color blindness, and the expression of the trait skipped a generation.

D) T hough he has normal color vision, the man is actually homozygous for red-green color blindness.

E) T he man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness.

39) ______

40) H ypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.

40) ______

The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?

A) S eventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.

B) A ll of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.

C) A ll of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.

D) F ifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.

E) T wenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.

Please refer to the following art to answer the following question(s).

41) I n the accompanying art you see a table with the actual number of offspring that resulted from a dihybrid cross. The numbers do not show the 9:3:3:1 ratio predicted. One phenotype occurred more than predicted; another occurred less. The reason could be because ______.

A) s ome of the alleles were sex-linked B) o f heritable variation C) s ome of the alleles were linked D) o f errors in mitosis E) o f polygenic inheritance

41) ______

42) R ecombinant offspring were produced by the mating shown in the accompanying art. What is the recombination frequency of purple round and red long offspring?

C) 2 1 + 21 A) 1 1% B) 3 :1 D) 2 1% E) 3 81

42) ______

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Widow's peak, a pointed hairline on the forehead, is a genetic trait caused by a dominant allele. It can be traced back through a family's history using pedigree analysis. The pedigree shown here shows three generations of a family. Notice that some individuals (shown in gray) have a widow's peak (W = dominant allele and w = recessive allele).

43) M ary has the genotype ______.

A) W W B) W WW C) W w D) w w E) m ore information is needed.

43) ______

44) J anice's genotype is _______.

A) w w B) W W C) W w or ww D) W W or Ww E) W w

44) ______

45) T his pedigree supports the fact that widow's peak is due to a dominant allele, because if it were due to a recessive allele and both parents show the recessive phenotype, then ______.

A) a ll of the sons and none of the daughters would have a widow's peak B) a ll of the offspring would have a widow's peak C) n one of the sons would have a widow's peak D) a ll of the daughters and none of the sons would have a widow's peak E) n one of the daughters would have a widow's peak

45) ______

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question.

The parents of a child with unusual disease symptoms take the child to a doctor for help. The doctor suspects that the condition might have a genetic basis. She recommends that the child be taken to a specialty clinic where physicians and staff members are trained to diagnose genetic diseases and counsel parents. Ultimately, the child is diagnosed with a rare recessively inherited disease. The parents are tested for the gene, and both are found to be heterozygous. The parents want to have another child but are afraid this child will also be affected.

46) W hat would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease?

A) 1 /32 B) 1 /2 C) 1 /16 D) 1 /4 E) 1 /8

46) ______

1) C 2) E 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) E 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) E 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) D

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) D NA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.

1) _______ A) a mino acid B) c arbohydrate C) f atty acid D) p rotein E) n ucleotide 2) T he backbone of DNA consists of ______.

A) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern D) p aired nucleotides E) n itrogenous bases

2) _______

3) T he DNA double helix is ______.

A) a puzzle to geneticists B) c omposed of adenine and guanine C) c omposed of adenine and thymine D) m ade up of two polynucleotide strands E) c omposed of two chromosomes

3) _______

4) R NA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA. A) a denine . . . guanine B) u racil . . . thymine C) c ytosine . . . guanine D) n ucleotides . . . nucleic acids E) a deoxyribose sugar . . . a ribose sugar

4) _______

5) I f adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine?

A) 3 0% B) 4 0% C) 8 0% D) 6 0% E) 2 0%

5) _______

6) I n a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.

A) t hymine . . . cytosine B) u racil . . . cytosine C) c ytosine . . . thymine D) c ytosine . . . uracil E) g uanine . . . adenine

6) _______

7) I f one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand?

A) C AGGTA B) C AGGUA C) C UGGTU D) T GAACG E) A CTTGC

7) _______

8) W ho discovered the structure of DNA? A) F ranklin B) H ershey and Chase C) W atson and Crick D) P auling

8) _______

E) C hase 9) E vidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______.

A) X -ray crystallography studies B) s tudies of disease-causing bacteria C) b acteriophage studies D) b ase rule studies E) t ransforming studies

9) _______

10) W hat type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?

A) i onic B) h ydrophilic C) h ydrogen D) c ovalent E) h ydrophobic

10) ______

11) A fter replication, ______.

A) e ach new DNA double helix consists of two old strands B) e ach new DNA double helix consists of two new strands C) e ach new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand D) e ach new DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix E) o ne new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands

11) ______

12) D uring replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nucleotides of a new DNA strand together.

A) D NA ligases B) D NA helicases C) D Nases D) D NA gyrases E) D NA polymerases

12) ______

13) T he modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______."

A) p olypeptide B) e nzyme C) R NA D) p rotein E) n ucleotide

13) ______

14) W hat name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?

A) g enotype B) p henotype C) h olotype D) m orphology E) t ypology

14) ______

15) H ow many amino acids are common to all living systems?

A) 1 0 B) 2 0 C) 3 0 16) H ow many nucleotides make up a codon?

A) o ne B) t wo C) t hree

15) ______ D) 1 00

E) 1 000 16) ______

D) f our

E) f ive

17) T he shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.

A) l ife was created by a deity B) t he genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth C) b acterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells D) a ll life shares a common ancestry E) D NA replication is error-free

17) ______

18) T ranscription is the ______.

A) m anufacture of a new strand of DNA complementary to an old strand of DNA B) m anufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA C) m anufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix D) m odification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein E) m anufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA

18) ______

19) I f a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n) ______.

A) s ingle DNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG B) s ingle RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG C) R NA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the complimentary strand D) D NA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the complementary strand E) s ingle RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG

19) ______

20) W hich of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?

A) R NA polymerase B) R NA ligase C) R NA gyrase D) R NA helicase E) R Nase

20) ______

21) T he region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______.

A) t erminator B) s tart codon C) p rocessor D) i nitiator E) p romoter

21) ______

22) T he correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.

A) e longation, initiation, termination B) c apping, tailing, splicing C) i nitiation, elongation, termination D) t ailing, capping, splicing E) s plicing, capping, tailing

22) ______

23) T he absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ______.

A) t he production of a shorter RNA molecule B) a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail C) t he production of a longer RNA molecule D) t he creation of a virus E) t he production of a more efficient protein

23) ______

24) W hat protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?

A) a cap and tail B) R NA splicing C) t he removal of exons D) t he lack of RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm E) t he removal of introns 25) T he expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.

A) i ntrons B) e xons C) t ails D) c aps

24) ______

25) ______ E) p romoters

26) T ranslation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.

A) D NA . . . RNA B) D NA . . . a polypeptide C) R NA . . . DNA D) R NA . . . a polypeptide E) p rotein . . . DNA 27) T he RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA. A) n uclear B) r ibosomal C) n ucleolar D) m essenger

26) ______

27) ______ E) t ransfer

28) T he DNA codon AGT codes for an amino acid carried by a tRNA with the anticodon ______.

A) U CA B) A GT C) T CU D) T CA E) A GU

28) ______

29) W here is translation accomplished?

A) n ucleoli B) r ibosomes C) l ysosomes D) p eroxisomes E) s mooth endoplasmic reticulum

29) ______

30) W hat is the correct order of the stages of translation?

A) i nitiation, codon recognition, translocation, peptide bond formation, termination B) i nitiation, peptide bond formation, translocation, codon recognition, termination C) i nitiation, peptide bond formation, codon recognition, translocation, termination D) i nitiation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation, termination E) i nitiation, translocation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation, termination

30) ______

31) P eptide bonds form between ______.

A) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying B) t he small ribosomal subunit and the large ribosomal subunit C) a mino acids D) a n mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon E) a n mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit

31) ______

32) A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______.

A) r esult in a missense mutation B) h ave the same effect as deleting a single nucleotide in the gene C) r esult in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one produced prior to the mutation D) r esult in a shortened polypeptide chain E) c hange the location at which transcription of the next gene begins

32) ______

33) W hat is the smallest number of nucleotides that must be added or subtracted to change the triplet grouping of the genetic message?

A) o ne B) t wo C) t hree D) f our E) f ive

33) ______

34) W hat is the ultimate source of all diversity?

A) n atural selection B) s exual recombination C) m eiosis D) c rossing over E) m utation

34) ______

35) V iruses that infect bacteria are ______.

A) r etroviruses B) b acteriophages C) p roviruses D) e merging viruses E) e nveloped viruses

35) ______

36) H ow can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death?

A) b y altering its DNA B) b y altering the way a cell splices its RNA C) v ia a lytic cycle D) v ia a lysogenic cycle E) v ia a Calvin cycle

36) ______

37) P lant viruses ______.

A) p rimarily target healthy plants B) d o not exist–viruses only attack animals C) b enefit plants, rather than causing disease D) o ften use RNA, rather than DNA, as their genetic material E) c ause diseases that can be easily cured

37) ______

38) A (n) ______ is to bacteria as a ______ is to animal cells.

A) p rovirus . . . phage B) r etrovirus . . . virus C) p hage . . . prophage D) R NA virus . . . DNA virus E) p rophage . . . provirus

38) ______

39) H IV (human immunodeficiency virus) must use its own ______ to reproduce.

A) t RNA B) R IBOSOMES C) r everse transcriptase D) R NA polymerase E) D NA polymerase

39) ______

40) T he figure below shows the flow of genetic information in a eukaryotic cell. The transfer of information from DNA into an RNA molecule is known as ______.

40)

A) p olypeptide B) t ranslation C) a gene D) t ranscription E) D NA replication 41) E xamine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______.

___ ___

___ ___

41)

A) s erine

B) a lanine

C) g lycine

D) a rginine

E) t hreonine

42) C onsider the following figure. It indicates that a single amino acid substitution ______.

42) ______

A) m ay alter a protein so that it no longer functions properly B) c auses a nonsense mutation C) p revents codon recognition D) i s a silent mutation E) a lways involves adenine and uracil Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

If you were asked to study the pattern of bacterial growth (increase in numbers over time) during an infection, you would find that numbers of bacteria increase exponentially up to a certain point. Assume that you have been asked to interpret

the growth of bacteriophages. You infect the host bacteria and measure the increase of phages over a defined period of time. You plot the results and get the graph shown here.

43) T he first thing you notice is that there is no immediate increase in viruses following infection.

This is because ______.

A) t he virus is in a lysogenic cycle throughout the experiment B) a lthough the virus has infected the host, it takes time to complete the lytic cycle C) t he virus cannot infect the host D) t he host is immune to the virus E) i t takes the virus time to adapt to the host

43) ______

44) O nce viruses are detected, the number of viruses increases rapidly. This is because ______.

A) t he viruses lyse the hosts to release mature viruses all at once B) l ysogeny produces large numbers of bacteriophages C) D NA viruses reproduce more rapidly than RNA viruses D) t he host cell speeds the release process E) b acterial viruses are released slowly from the host cells

44) ______

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

While working with cultured mouse cells, a researcher unknowingly treated the cells with a mutagen that causes the deletion or insertion of individual nucleotides in DNA. Subsequently, she isolated and cultured a single cell from this group. She noticed that the progeny of this cell were not producing a certain protein and that this affected their survival.

45) T he mutation that resulted from her accident was probably ______.

A) c aused by a protein-RNA complex B) a n amino acid substitution C) a loss in regulation of gene expression D) o ne that changed the triplet grouping of the genetic message

45) ______

E) a n error in translation 46) T he mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it resulted in ______.

A) s ubstitution of a base pair B) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence C) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence D) a single nucleotide in the middle of an intron E) d eletion of a triplet near the middle of the gene

46) ______

1) E 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) E 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) E 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) E 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A t one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; 1) _______ some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?

A) m orphology B) r egeneration C) c arcinogenesis D) c leavage E) c ellular differentiation 2) T he process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______.

A) p henogenesis B) t ranscription C) g ene expression D) c leavage E) r ecombination

2) _______

3) I n bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along with their control sequences?

A) o peron B) p romoter C) e xon D) r egulatory gene E) a ctivator

3) _______

4) B acterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______.

A) p roto-oncogene B) p romoter C) r egulatory gene D) o perator E) e xon

4) _______

5) I n prokaryotes, the production of a single RNA transcript for a group of related genes is under the control of the ______.

A) m aster control gene B) a llele C) s ignal transduction pathway D) o peron E) h omeobox

5) _______

6) I n an operon, the ______ acts as an on/off switch.

A) o perator B) r epressor C) r egulatory gene D) p romoter E) a ctivator

6) _______

7) W hich of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?

A) l actose

7) _______

B) r epressors C) p romoters D) e nzymes E) R NA polymerase 8) R epressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.

A) p romoters B) D NA polymerase C) t he operon D) R NA polymerase E) r egulatory genes

8) _______

9) W hat would you assume if you found RNA transcripts of lactose-utilizing genes within E. coli?

A) t he binding of lactose to the lac operon activator B) t he absence of amino acids C) t he presence of lactose D) t he absence of lac operon repressor protein E) t he presence of lac operon activator protein

9) _______

10) W hile examining a human cell that functions normally, you determine that it has 45 functional chromosomes and one chromosome that is almost completely inactive. You immediately decide that it is very likely that this cell ______.

A) c ame from a normal human female B) i s a red blood cell C) w ill become cancerous if one or two more genes are mutated D) i s a gamete E) i s lacking a chromosome

10) ______

11) W hat is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?

A) a ttachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter B) D NA packing and unpacking C) t he binding and unbinding of transcription factors to silencer sequences D) R NA splicing E) t he binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences

11) ______

12) M ale tortoiseshell cats ______.

A) h ave orange and black patches of fur that reflect the pattern of X chromosome inactivation B) c an only be produced by the mating of a female tortoiseshell cat with another male tortoiseshell cat C) a re likely to be exceedingly rare and very likely to be sterile since normal male cats are XY D) d o not have an X chromosome E) a re usually XYY individuals

12) ______

13) W hich of these plays a role in the regulation of transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A) g ene operons B) t ranscription factors C) e nhancer sequences D) R NA splicing E) a ttachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter

13) ______

14) I n eukaryotic cells, repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.

14) ______

A) s ilencers

B) o perons

C) e nhancers

D) o perators

E) r egulators

15) I ntrons are ______.

A) t he product of RNA splicing B) D NA sequences to which activators bind C) e xpressed DNA sequences D) n oncoding DNA sequences E) D NA sequences to which silencers bind

15) ______

16) W hich of these is a type of post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression?

A) a lteration of DNA nucleotide sequences B) b inding of transcription factors to enhancers C) d isassociation of ribosomal components D) a lteration of proteins E) i nactivation of tRNA

16) ______

17) H ow can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?

A) I t does so by varying the rate at which it is broken down in the cytoplasm.

B) T here is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.

C) I t does so by varying the length of its tail.

D) T wo different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.

E) T here is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.

17) ______

18) C ells communicate with one another via ______.

A) R NA splicing B) s ignal transduction pathways C) t he diffusion of RNA transcripts through adhesion junctions D) c ascades of gene activation E) s ound

18) ______

19) W hich of these techniques could tell you how gene expression differs between individuals with and without cystic fibrosis?

A) X -ray crystallography B) D NA microarray C) k aryotyping D) C VS E) a mniocentesis

19) ______

20) H ow is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?

A) T he nutrient preferences of particular tissues play a role.

B) T he cells contain different genes.

C) T he cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.

D) T he mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.

E) T he age of the cells making up the tissues plays a role.

20) ______

21) T o make a clonea genetically identical organismfrom a mammalian cell, the cell must ______.

A) b e dedifferentiated B) c ome from an early stage of embryonic development C) b e enucleated D) b e implanted in the egg of an organism that is capable of regenerating lost body parts E) r eacquire the genes it lost during the course of development

21) ______

22) P ossible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.

A) t he production of genetically identical animals for experimentation B) t he production of potentially valuable drugs C) r estocking populations of endangered animals D) t he production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans E) a ll of the above.

22) ______

23) W hat is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?

A) E mbryonic stem cells are harder to isolate than are adult stem cells.

B) T he use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells.

C) E mbryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.

D) A dult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.

E) I t is easier to enucleate embryonic stem cells.

23) ______

24) W hat name is given to a gene that causes cancer?

A) p athogene B) r egulatory gene C) h omeotic gene D) o ncogene E) c ancogene

24) ______

25) M any proto-oncogenes regulate ______.

A) c ell suicide B) t ranscription of RNA polymerase C) c ell division D) c ell repair E) c ell growth

25) ______

26) I nheritance of certain genes increases the risk of getting certain cancers; thus, it can be said that ______.

A) ( for these individuals) lifestyle will have little impact on cancer risk B) m utations that occur in somatic cells can be passed from parent to offspring C) t hese cancers are inherited as a dominant trait D) p redisposition to these cancers is inherited E) m ost cancers are inherited

26) ______

27) D ata suggest that the normal version of BRCA1 functions as a(n) ______.

A) e nhancer B) s ilencer C) t umor-suppressor gene D) p roto-oncogene E) o ncogene

27) ______

28) O ne of the most potent environmental carcinogens is ______.

A) v iruses B) U V radiation C) a lcohol D) t able salt E) d ietary fat

28) ______

29) _ _____ is(are) responsible for more cancers than any other carcinogen.

29) ______

A) I nheritance of a mutated ras gene B) X -rays C) A sbestos D) U V radiation E) T obacco 30) M ore people die of ______ cancer than of any other cancer.

A) b reast B) p ancreatic C) c ervical

30) ______ D) s kin

E) l ung

31) W hich of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?

A) j ogging B) a diet high in plant fiber C) e ating more foods such as cabbage and cauliflower D) a diet high in animal fat E) q uitting smoking

31) ______

32) T he "master control genes" that regulate other genes, which determine what body parts will develop in which locations, are called ______.

A) t umor suppressor genes B) e nhancers C) o ncogenes D) h omeotic genes E) o perons

32) ______

33) W hich of these is most likely to cause the development of a six-legged frog?

A) a rtificial selection B) m utation of homeotic genes C) d ietary supplementation D) c onversion of a proto-oncogene to an oncogene E) m utation of tumor-suppressor genes

33) ______

34) D evelopmental similarities among very different animals, such as fruit flies and mice, can be attributed to ______.

A) s imilar anatomical structures B) s imilar nutritional needs C) s imilar gene operons D) s hared homeoboxes E) s imilar prenatal environments

34) ______

35) H omeoboxes ______.

A) a re an example of convergent evolution B) h ave very different sequences in plant cells as compared to animal cells C) r egulate gene expression in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells D) a re evidence of the common ancestry of eukaryotic organisms E) p lay a role in fine-tuning anatomical development

35) ______

36) E xamine the figure below. The initiation of transcription requires that enhancers bind to _____.

36)

___ ___

A) t he promoter B) R NA polymerase C) t ranscription factors D) b ends in DNA E) D NA 37) T he figure below illustrates ______.

A) m icroRNAs B) a lternative RNA splicing C) p rotein activation D) a ctivators E) t ranscription factors

37) ______

38) T he lac operon is shown in the accompanying figure. Answer the following question after reviewing the figure. The lac operon is usually in the ______ position and is activated by ______.

38) ______

A) o n . . . the promoter B) o ff . . . the repressor C) o ff . . . lactose D) o n . . . the repressor E) o n . . . the repressor 39) C onsider the following figure, which outlines cloning by nuclear transplantation. Why does the clone not resemble the surrogate mother?

A) T he clone would exhibit characteristics of the genetic donor, not the surrogate.

B) T he sperm came from a male donor, which would influence the clone.

C) T he embryonic cells are adversely influenced by the surrogate.

D) T he technique does not work in sheep.

E) T he nuclear material from the egg would influence the clone.

40) E xamine the figure below. In a typical colon cancer, the first step is ______.

39) ______

40)

___ ___

A) t he conversion of an oncogene to a tumor-suppressor gene B) t he inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene C) t he activation of a tumor-suppressor gene D) t he mutation of a tumor-suppressor gene, producing an oncogene E) t he mutation of a proto-oncogene, producing an oncogene Please read the paragraph below to answer the following question(s).

Jim has become particularly interested in the genetic basis of cancer and has spent considerable time reading published papers about oncogenes. He learned that as early as 1972 researchers suggested that mutations in proto-oncogenes caused by carcinogens can convert them to oncogenes. He asked you to answer a couple of questions about this because he did not have the biology background to totally understand.

41) J im learned that some cancer cells produce more growth-stimultaing proteins than others. What would you give him as a plausible explanation?

A) M utations in homeotic genes may be responsible.

B) T hese cells may contain multiple copies of the oncogene, resulting in overproduction of the growth-stimulating protein.

C) T his may result from vitamin C and vitamin E deficiencies.

D) T he oncogene may be nonfunctional.

E) T umor suppresor genes may have been activated in these cells.

41) ______

42) J im learned that viruses can sometimes cause cancer and wants to know why. You tell him that ______.

A) a human cell can acquire a proto-oncogene from a virus B) v iruses can secrete hyperactive growth-stimulating proteins C) a human cell can acquire a tumor-suppressor gene from a virus D) s ome viruses are passed from mother to child and cause "inherited" cancers E) a human cell can acquire an oncogene from a virus.

42) ______

1) E 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) E 30) E 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) E 41) B 42) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hich of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA? 1) _______ A) D NA that carries genes from two different sources B) a n alternate form of DNA that is the product of a mutation C) D NA that is produced as a result of crossing over D) D NA that carries a translocation E) D NA that results from bacterial conjugation 2) W hich of these is a genetically modified organism?

A) a cloned organism carrying two different alleles B) a n organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means C) t he first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared D) a n organism that gestated in an artificial womb E) a n organism carrying genes from two different parents

2) _______

3) W hich of the following best defines the term transgenic animal?

A) a n animal containing genes from three or more species B) a n animal in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy C) a n animal containing a gene from a another species D) a n animal containing genes from both its parents E) a n animal that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele

3) _______

4) T he world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ______.

A) h umulin B) S CID C) H GH D) C F

4) _______ E) R FLP

5) A vaccine works by ______.

A) i nhibiting bacterial reproduction B) s timulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses C) k illing cells infected with a virus D) p reventing translation of mRNA molecules that code for disease-causing proteins E) p roviding a temporary immunity to a pathogen

5) _______

6) T ransgenic animals are currently used ______.

A) t o obtain plasmids B) a s vectors for use in cloning human DNA C) a s food D) t o produce potentially useful proteins E) a ll of the above

6) _______

7) W hich of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?

A) G M B) p lasmids C) c lones D) h umulin

7) _______

8) O f these steps, which occurs first in the production of a recombinant plasmid?

A) i solation of a plasmid from a bacterium B) a pplication of a restriction enzyme to a plasmid C) c onstruction of a genomic library D) c loning E) r ecombination

E) P CR 8) _______

9) O f these steps, which one occurs earliest in the process of producing recombinant DNA? A) H uman DNA fragments are mixed with the cut plasmids.

B) T he same restriction enzyme is used to isolate the gene of interest and to cut the plasmid DNA. C) T he recombinant plasmids are mixed with bacteria.

D) B acteria bearing the plasmid of interest are treated with antibiotics.

E) B acteria carrying recombinant plasmids are cloned.

9) _______

10) W hen plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the ______.

A) p lasmids are inserted into the main bacterial chromosome B) b acterial chromosome is genetically engineered and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate C) b acterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene (perhaps the cell of a plant or animal) D) p lasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium E) d esired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium

10) ______

11) T he process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is an example of ______.

A) g ene magnification B) g ene pharming C) g ene cloning D) g ene amplification E) i ndustrial genetic engineering

11) ______

12) A collection of cloned recombinant plasmids that includes fragments from the entire genome of a cell is called a ______.

A) c lone collection B) g enomic library C) s hotgun D) g ene repository E) p henotypic library

12) ______

13) N ucleic acid probes are used to ______.

A) f ind a specific nucleotide sequence B) d estroy clones that do not carry the recombinant plasmid of interest C) c reate sticky ends D) s ynthesize a DNA strand complementary to a sticky end E) i solate bacterial genes

13) ______

14) R estriction enzymes are obtained from ______.

A) e ukaryotes B) b acteria C) r etroviruses D) a rchaea E) D NA viruses

14) ______

15) " Sticky ends" are produced as a result of the action of ______.

A) h umulin B) a clone C) D NA ligase D) g enomics

15) ______

E) a restriction enzyme 16) " Sticky ends" are ______.

A) t he site on chromosomes where the centromere is found B) s ingle-stranded ends of fragments of double-stranded DNA C) t elomeres D) r egions of double-stranded DNA that can be cut by a restriction enzyme E) t he only regions of chromosomes where homeotic genes are found

16) ______

17) A DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads -ATTCG will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads ______.

A) T AAGCB) C GGATC) U AAGCD) A TTGCE) G CCTA-

17) ______

18) W hich enzyme is used to bind DNA fragments together?

A) t elomerase B) D NA polymerase C) h umulin D) D NA ligase E) r estriction enzyme

18) ______

19) O f the following, which is the last step in the production of a recombinant DNA plasmid?

A) c loning B) a llowing the reproduction of the bacterium bearing the recombinant plasmid C) t ransduction D) i solating the gene of interest E) u sing DNA ligase to join DNA fragments

19) ______

20) Y ou are attempting to link an individual to a crime. The only evidence you have is a tiny drop of blood. How can you use this drop of blood to make the association?

A) Y ou can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis.

B) Y ou can use the sample to determine the individual's ABO blood group.

C) Y ou can use gel electrophoresis to determine the length of the DNA found in the sample.

D) Y ou can use the sample to check for the presence of the Rhesus factor.

E) T here is insufficient material to identify the criminal.

20) ______

21) W hat name is given to a region of DNA that varies from person to person?

A) g enetic marker B) m onoDNA C) c odon D) r estriction fragment E) g enetic probe

21) ______

22) C utting DNA with a particular restriction enzyme produces DNA fragments that can be separated by ______.

A) p lasmids B) a genomic library C) r ecombinant DNA D) e nzymes E) g el electrophoresis

22) ______

23) T o make restriction fragments, a DNA sample is treated with ______.

A) D NA polymerase

23) ______

B) g el electrophoresis C) P CR D) r estriction enzymes E) D NA ligase 24) G el electrophoresis separates DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their ______.

A) A :C ratio B) p H C) l ength D) G :T ratio E) d egree of hydration

24) ______

25) T he scientific field that studies whole genomes is called ______.

A) p roteomics B) g enomics C) m olecular biology D) r ecombinant DNA E) g enetic engineering

25) ______

26) T he human genome contains approximately ______ genes.

A) 2 ,000-3,000 B) 5 0,000-60,000 C) 2 1,000 D) 5 00 E) 1 ,000-2,000

26) ______

27) A pproximately what percentage of the human genome consists of noncoding DNA? A) 6 7% B) 9 8% C) 7 7% D) 5 7% E) 8 7%

27) ______

28) T he Human Genome Project has the potential to ______.

A) l ead to treatments for contagious diseases B) a id in solving crimes C) l ead to treatments for inherited diseases D) i ncrease our understanding of the historical relationships among species E) p lay a role in all of the choices listed here

28) ______

29) I n the future, scientists hope to be able to compare whole genomes of individuals, a new field called ______.

A) u ltra-comparison B) R CLP C) c omparative genomics D) w orkup genetics E) D NA sequencing

29) ______

30) W hich of these statements can be logically inferred from the amount of DNA shared by chimpanzees and humans?

A) H umans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.

B) H umans are unique and different from all other life forms.

C) H umans have many more genes than chimpanzees do.

D) H umans evolved from chimpanzees.

E) H umans are a more complex life form than chimpanzees.

30) ______

31) T o find the nucleotide sequence of human chromosomes, chromosomes had to be digested into small fragments and then ______.

A) f ingerprinted B) c loned and sequenced C) r estricted D) c entrifuged and electrophoresed E) a ttached end to end

31) ______

32) W hat technique is most commonly used to sequence entire genomes?

A) t he plasmid approach B) t he genetic marker approach C) t he nucleic acid probe approach D) t he whole-genome shotgun approach E) l inkage mapping

32) ______

33) T he study of the full protein sets that genomes encode is _____.

A) g ene therapy B) g enomics C) g ene cloning D) t ransgenics E) p roteomics

33) ______

34) G enetically modifying human ______ cells may directly affect future generations.

A) p ancreatic B) s omatic C) g ametic D) i mmune E) i ntestinal

34) ______

35) E thical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______.

A) t he safety of GM foods B) t he potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases C) t he potential for interfering in evolution D) t he appropriateness of creating new plants, animals, and microorganisms E) a ll of the above

35) ______

36) T he possibility that Mongolian ruler Genghis Khan spread an unusual chromosome to nearly 16 million men living today resulted from studies of _____.

A) t he Y chromosome B) p roteomics C) c DNA D) t he X chromosome E) g ene therapy

36) ______

37) T he following figure provides you with an overview of recombinant technology. The end result is a transgenic bacterium with a human gene that codes for marketable quantities of a human gene product. However, molecular biologists frequently have problems with the product. One problem might be ______.

37)

___ ___

A) p roduction of a human protein that is unable to function properly.

B) f ormation of mutants C) f ormation of a product that is not sensitive to proteolytic enzymes D) a bacterium with DNA that is resistant to restriction enzymes E) f ormation of a bacterium that cannot synthesize the product 38) T he following figure shows that gel electrophoresis can be used to separate repetitive DNA sequences. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments because ______.

A) d ouble stranded moves slower than single stranded DNA B) t he DNA fragments have different lengths C) o f ratios of guanine to cytosine D) o f the consistency of the gel E) o f the salt concentration in the gel matrix 39) T he diagram below summarizes _____.

38) ______

39)

___ ___

A) h ow a human could be cloned B) h ow viruses can cause disease C) h ow a vaccine is made D) h uman gene therapy E) h ow a gene is cloned Please read the following scenario then answer the following question(s).

Molecular biologists have perfected DNA fingerprinting so that it is possible to use the technique to provide evidence to solve crimes and even identify a child's parents. Recently, a U.S. immigrant asked the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for permission to have her young daughter who was living with grandparents in their homeland join her. Her request was denied because there was an apparent mix-up with the child's birth certificate and it could not be used as proof of maternity. Proof is required in cases such as this. The mother requested DNA fingerprinting to make her case.

Samples of DNA were taken from the mother (Mom) and daughter (D1) as well as from another daughter (D2) and a son (S) living in the United States with her. Tandem repeat analysis was run on the four samples, and the results are shown here.

40) T he results indicate that ______.

A) d aughter D1 and daughter D2 are identical twins B) s he is not the mother of daughter D1 C) s he is not the mother of the son D) s he is the mother of daughter D1 E) t he mother could not be the mother of both daughter D1 and daughter D2

40) ______

41) Y ou can use this DNA fingerprinting information to make a judgment about maternity because ______.

A) t he shade of DNA bands will differ B) o f molecular weight variations C) o f the size of the bands D) o f the position of the bands in the gel E) b oth mother and daughter contain only X chromosomes

41) ______

42) T he short tandem repeat analysis ______.

A) s eparates the DNA double helix into its complementary strands B) c ompares markers on the sex chromosomes C) c hecks for purine and pyrimidine ratios D) d oes not require DNA amplification E) c ompares repetitive DNA sequences from different individuals

42) ______

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) E 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) E 34) C 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) N atural selection can be defined as ______.

1) _______ A) t he accumulation of random mutations B) t he relationships among all organisms C) t he production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment D) c hanges in gene frequencies attributable to chance E) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than other individuals 2) N atural selection ______.

A) i s the result of sampling error B) p repares organisms for future changes in the environment C) r esults in evolutionary adaptation D) d oes not affect allelic frequencies E) i s a very rare phenomenon

2) _______

3) T he first basic idea of evolutionary adaptation can be traced back to _____.

A) B uffon B) D arwin C) a ncient Greeks about 2,500 years ago D) A ristotle E) L amarck

3) _______

4) W hich of the following statements about the voyage of the Beagle ______ is true?

A) I t ended sadly with the sinking of the ship off of the coast of Australia, almost four years into its journey B) I t turned into a tremendous opportunity for Darwin to collect fossils, plants, and animals C) I t lasted almost two years D) I ts purpose was to identify the fastest route from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean.

E) n one of the above

4) _______

5) D uring his trip on the Beagle, Darwin found that ______.

A) f ossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today B) p lants and animals were similar on every continent and in every type of region C) p lants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found D) p lants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents E) n one of the above

5) _______

6) W hile on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ______ and sculpted by geologic processes that ______ today.

A) o ld . . . continue B) y oung . . . continue C) o ld . . . no longer occur D) y oung . . . no longer occur E) n one of the above

6) _______

7) W hat did Darwin find in South America that suggested that the Andes mountains had been gradually lifted up over millions of years?

A) d inosaur bones in the Amazon basin B) b ird fossils at the top of mountains in Argentina C) i mpressions of ocean waves at the top of a mountain D) s ea snail fossils high up in the Andes mountains E) n one of the above

7) _______

8) I n The Origin of Species, Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was _____.

A) u niformitarianism B) n atural selection C) i nheritance of acquired characteristics D) a rtificial selection E) n one of the above

8) _______

9) W hich of the following is a component of the fossil record?

A) t he distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia B) b ones of extinct whales C) m olecular sequences D) t he similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats E) t he similarity of the forelimbs of sharks and penguins

9) _______

10) T he oldest known fossils are from about ______ years ago.

A) 6 ,000 B) 1 .0 billion C) 4 .0 million

10) ______ D) 3 .5 billion

E) 3 .0 trillion

11) _ _____ is the study of fossils.

A) P aleontology B) G erontology C) M orphology D) B iogeography E) G eology

11) ______

12) Y our family is taking a long driving vacation across the midwestern and western United States.

As you travel, you notice that the flowers, birds, and trees of the Midwest and the Rocky Mountains are very different. As you ponder why, you remember that such differences in the distribution of species are part of the field of ______.

A) p aleontology B) a nthropology C) b iogeography D) m orphology E) g eology

12) ______

13) H omology is evidence of ______.

A) d irectional selection B) g enetic drift C) c ommon ancestry D) d iversifying selection E) c onvergent evolution

13) ______

14) W hich of the following are homologous?

A) w ings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow

14) ______

B) t he forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat C) t he mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird D) t he wings of a dragonfly and the wings of a hawk E) t he forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat 15) T he similarity of the embryos of fish, frogs, birds, and humans is evidence of ______.

A) c onvergent evolution B) d iversifying selection C) g enetic drift D) c ommon ancestry E) a nalogy

15) ______

16) N atural selection results in ______.

A) i ncreased genetic variation B) o ffspring better adapted to a future environment C) a n increase in the size of a population D) o ffspring adapted to their current environment E) a decrease in the size of a population

16) ______

17) W hich of the following is not a requirement of natural selection?

A) i nheritance B) g enetic variation C) c atastrophic events D) d ifferential reproductive success E) o verproduction of offspring

17) ______

18) W hich one of the following statements is true?

A) N atural selection works on variation already present in a population.

B) N atural selection works on non-heritable traits.

C) O rganisms evolve structures that they need.

D) I ndividuals evolve through natural selection.

E) N one of the statements are true.

18) ______

19) R esearch on flat-tailed horned lizards demonstrated that natural selection favored lizards that ______.

A) b uried themselves the quickest when startled B) h ad the longest horns on the rear of the skull C) s earched for ants hidden under logs D) r an the fastest when exposed to bright sunlight E) n one of the above

19) ______

20) T he modern synthesis was a fusion of ______.

A) t he fossil record and genetics B) g enetics and evolutionary biology C) p opulation ecology and genetics D) m olecular biology and comparative anatomy E) b iogeography and comparative embryology

20) ______

21) W hich of the following is a population?

A) t he termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts B) a ll organisms living in your house C) y ou and all of the termites infesting your house

21) ______

D) t he termites infesting your house E) a ll of the termites that have ever lived 22) T he smallest unit of evolution is the ______.

A) p hylum B) c lass C) p opulation D) s pecies E) o rder

22) ______

23) W hich of the following is likely to be the result of polygenic inheritance?

A) h emophilia (an X-linked recessive trait) B) f reckles C) a n extra finger D) h uman height E) A BO blood type

23) ______

24) W hich one of the following can create new alleles?

A) m utation B) n atural selection C) s exual reproduction D) s exual recombination E) g enetic drift

24) ______

25) A ll of the alleles of all of the genes within a population make up that population's ______.

A) p olymorphism B) g enotype C) g ene flow D) h eterozygosity E) g ene pool

25) ______

26) I f the frequency of one allele in a population is 0.7, what is the frequency of the alternate allele?

A) 0 .42 B) 0 .30 C) 0 .49 D) 0 .21 E) 0 .09

26) ______

27) I n the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does p2 represent?

27) ______

A) f requency of the homozygous dominants B) f requency of the recessive allele C) f requency of the dominant allele D) f requency of heterozygotes E) f requency of the heterozygous recessives 28) I n the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does 2pq represent?

A) f requency of heterozygotes B) f requency of the heterozygous recessives C) f requency of the recessive allele D) f requency of the homozygous dominants E) f requency of the dominant allele

28) ______

29) T he presence of freckles is due to a dominant allele. Four percent of the individuals in a particular population lack freckles. Use the Hardy-Weinberg formula to calculate the percentage of individuals in this population who are homozygous dominant for freckles.

A) 8 0% B) 2 0% C) 3 2% D) 6 4% E) 4 %

29) ______

30) T he original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ______.

A) r andom fertilization B) g enetic drift C) s exual recombination D) g ene flow E) m utation

30) ______

31) W hich of the following is a characteristic of a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A) G enetic drift is occurring.

B) G ene flow in and out of the population occurs.

C) T he population is subject to natural selection.

D) T he population is not evolving.

E) N one of the choices are correct.

31) ______

32) G enetic drift is the result of ______.

A) a large gene pool B) d ifferential reproductive success C) n atural selection D) c hance E) e nvironmental variation

32) ______

33) W hich one of the following will prevent significant genetic drift?

A) T he population size is large.

B) V ariation in a particular trait is heritable.

C) G ene flow is absent.

D) T here is genetic variation.

E) T here is mutation.

33) ______

34) A fter surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?

A) T he postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.

B) T he postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population.

C) T he bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection.

D) T he postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.

E) T he postbottleneck population has the same probability of going extinct as did the prebottleneck population.

34) ______

35) The founder effect differs from a population bottleneck in that the founder effect ______.

A) i nvolves the isolation of a small colony of individuals from a larger population B) r equires a small population C) a ffects an entire population D) c an only occur on an oceanic island colony E) i s a type of natural selection

35) ______

36) W hich of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly (extra fingers/toes) than the human population as a whole?

36) ______

A) f ounder effect B) d iversifying selection C) s tabilizing selection D) d irectional selection E) b ottleneck effect 37) G ene flow is accomplished by ______.

A) m utation B) s exual recombination C) g enetic drift D) m igration E) n atural selection

37) ______

38) W hat does Darwinian fitness measure?

A) p hysical strength B) l ongevity C) p hysical health D) r eproductive success E) p opulation size

38) ______

39) W hich of the following is an example of directional selection?

A) T here is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

B) T here is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

C) G arter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

D) T he birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

E) A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.

39) ______

40) W hich of the following is an example of disruptive selection?

A) T here is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

B) A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.

C) T here is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

D) G arter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

E) T he birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

40) ______

41) W hich of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation?

A) s tabilizing selection B) s exual recombination C) m utation D) d irectional selection E) d iversifying selection

41) ______

42) W hich of the following is an example of stabilizing selection?

A) A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.

B) G arter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

C) T here is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

D) T here is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

E) T he birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

42) ______

43) W hich of the following is an example of sexual selection?

43) ______

A) C heetahs experienced a population bottleneck.

B) B utterflies migrate from one population to a different population.

C) P eahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails.

D) B acteria evolve resistance to antibiotics.

E) S exual recombination occurs during meiosis.

44) E xamine the relationships between the elephants in the figure below. Which one of the following pairs is most closely related?

A) L oxodonta cyclotis and Elephas maximus B) D einotherium and Platybelodon C) L oxodonta africana and Loxodonta cyclotis D) M ammut and Stegodon E) B arytherium and Stegodon 45) E xamine the evolutionary tree below. This tree tells us that the amnion is found in ______.

44) ______

45)

A) m ammals, lizards, snakes, crocodiles, and birds B) m ammals, lizards, and snakes only C) l ungfishes and amphibians D) b irds only E) a mphibians only 46) T he figure below shows the percent of selected DNA sequences that match between a chimpanzee and other primates. This data support the hypothesis that the chimpanzee's closest living relative is ______.

___ ___

46)

A) g orillas B) o rangutans C) g ibbons D) O ld World monkeys E) h umans 47) T he figure below shows what happens in insect populations when crops are sprayed with insecticides. This is an example of ______.

___ ___

47)

___ ___

A) g enetic drift B) g ene flow C) f ounder effect D) n atural selection E) n one of the above Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Over the past 60 years, many amphibian species have experienced significant population declines and some species have become extinct. Scientists suspected that local human activities such as the destruction of wetlands, regional pollution, and deforestation were the main reasons for these losses. However, research over the past 20 years reveals significant

amphibian population declines in protected areas of the world, such as nature preserves and parks. These global declines suggest widespread problems including increased ultraviolet radiation, acid rain, and disease. In Switzerland, for example, 14 of the 20 native amphibian species are threatened with extinction.

48) S ome biologists urge the collection of the few remaining individuals of some of the most threatened amphibian species, to preserve them if they become extinct in the wild. If such captive breeding programs could produce thousands of individuals from just a few of the remaining survivors, the species will still be threatened because of ______.

A) m utations B) a rtificial selection C) a bottleneck effect D) n atural selection E) t he founder effect

48) ______

49) W hen most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated, we expect to see that ______.

A) m icroevolution no longer occurs B) g ene flow between populations is reduced C) t he founder effect becomes increasingly important D) m utations become less important in the evolution of the species E) a rtificial selection becomes a greater factor in microevolution

49) ______

50) C hytridiomycosis is a fungal disease first identified in 1998 as a cause of massive amphibian deaths. In some severely impacted populations, a few individuals have survived, perhaps because of some natural resistance. If these resistant individuals continue to survive and prosper, new resistant populations might emerge. This would be an example of ______.

A) g enetic drift B) n atural selection C) t he founder effect D) s exual selection E) a rtificial selection

50) ______

1) E 2) C 3) E 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) E 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) C 45) A 46) E 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) M acroevolution includes ______.

1) _______ A) t he origin of new species B) m ass extinctions C) e xplosive diversification following some evolutionary breakthrough D) t he origin of evolutionary novelty E) a ll of the above 2) N onbranching evolution ______.

A) i ncreases biological diversity B) r esults in speciation C) i s also called linear evolution D) o ccurs only in plants E) o ften results in mass extinctions

2) _______

3) B iological species consist of groups of ______.

A) f amilies B) g enera C) d omains D) p opulations E) p hyla

3) _______

4) O n what basis are populations assigned to the same biological species?

A) r elating to the environment in the same way B) b eing able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring C) s haring a common ancestor D) h aving 99% of their genes in common E) a very similar appearance

4) _______

5) W hen brought together in a zoo, two species are capable of mating and producing fertile offspring. Why may they still be considered two distinct species?

A) W ild populations of the two species have different geographic distributions.

B) T he two species look very different.

C) I n the wild, members of one species prey upon members of the other species.

D) T he species are normally found in different habitats.

E) Z oos are not natural environments.

5) _______

6) T he biological species concept cannot be applied to ______.

A) b acteria that only reproduce asexually B) f ungi that live on land C) s imple plants that reproduce sexually D) c omplex plants that have flowers E) a nimals that use asexual and sexual reproduction

6) _______

7) A fossil species is distinguished mainly by ______.

A) i ts unique genetic history B) t he number of body parts C) i ts molecular biology D) i ts ecological niche

7) _______

E) i ts appearance 8) A reproductive barrier that prevents species from mating is an example of ______.

A) z ygote mortality B) a pre-zygotic barrier C) r educed hybrid viability D) a post-zygotic barrier E) r educed hybrid fertility

8) _______

9) W hat type of reproductive isolating mechanism is described by a situation in which female fireflies only mate with males who emit light in a particular pattern?

A) r educed hybrid viability B) m echanical isolation C) h abitat isolation D) b ehavioral isolation E) t emporal isolation

9) _______

10) T he type of reproductive barrier that occurs when two species mate but produce sterile hybrids is referred to as ______.

A) t emporal isolation B) h abitat isolation C) b ehavioral isolation D) m echanical isolation E) a post-zygotic barrier

10) ______

11) W hen two frog species, Rana pipiens and Rana sylvatica, mate, the offspring die early in embryonic development. This is an example of ______.

A) r educed hybrid viability B) h ybrid sterility C) r educed hybrid fertility D) b ehavioral isolation E) m echanical isolation

11) ______

12) S peciation requires ______.

A) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the survivors B) l ong periods of time C) g eographic isolation D) g enetic isolation E) p eriods of rapid evolutionary change

12) ______

13) W hich of the following describes allopatric speciation?

A) A population of squirrels is separated by the Grand Canyon. Through time the two subpopulations evolve into two distinct species.

B) O ne population breeds in the fall; another population breeds in the spring.

C) A tetraploid plant species evolves from a diploid ancestor. Both the tetraploid and diploid species are found in the same habitat.

D) T wo populations of fruit flies are unable to mate because their reproductive organs do not properly fit together.

E) A male horse and a female donkey mate, producing a sterile hinny.

13) ______

14) S ympatric speciation specifically excludes ______.

14) ______

A) b ehavioral isolation B) p ost-zygotic barriers C) t emporal isolation D) g eographic isolation E) m echanical isolation 15) G raphically, the graduated model of speciation can be described as appearing as a ______.

A) Y B) h orizontal line with vertical branches C) W D) V E) v ertical line with horizontal branches

15) ______

16) A pattern of evolution in which most change in appearance takes place during a relatively short period of time fits the ______ model of speciation.

A) p hyletic gradualism B) g radualistic C) h omeostatic D) p unctuated gradualism

16) ______

E) p unctuated equilibrium 17) Y ou are examining the fossil record and notice that through time a series of fossils exhibits very little change. During the period of time you are studying, this fossil lineage can be described as exhibiting ______.

A) e quilibrium B) p aedomorphosis C) p unctuation D) g radualism E) g enetic drift

17) ______

18) S ome fish have bony fins. If the body of water they are in dries out, these fins can be used to help the fish "walk" to another body of water. In this context, bony fins are an example of ______.

A) p aedomorphosis B) n eoteny C) p unctuated evolution D) a n evolutionary novelty E) a n exaptation

18) ______

19) F eathers in birds appear to have first evolved for insulation but later conveyed a new advantage in helping create light aerodynamic surfaces. This switch in function is an example of ______.

A) a n exaptation B) p unctuated equilibrium C) l inear evolution D) c onvergent evolution E) p hyletic gradualism

19) ______

20) W hich of the following would be an example of paedomorphosis?

A) r apid evolution in a small, isolated population B) s peciation as a result of a change in the number of sets of chromosomes C) t wo species evolving a similar appearance D) s tarfish regenerating severed limbs E) t he ability to reproduce evolving in caterpillars

20) ______

21) T he current geological era is the ______.

A) C enozoic B) P recambrian C) P aleozoic D) C ambrian E) M esozoic

21) ______

22) U ranium-235, with a half-life of 713,000,000 years, decays to lead-207. If a rock sample is determined to have one-quarter of the uranium-235 content it had when it formed, the age of the rock sample can be estimated to be approximately ______ years old.

A) 1 78 million B) 7 13 million C) 2 8.5 billion D) 1 78 billion E) 1 .4 billion

22) ______

23) E arthquakes are the result of ______.

A) l arge buildings destabilizing Earth's surface B) g lobal warming C) t he movement of continental plates against one another D) m assive explosions occurring beneath Earth's surface E) t he sun's pull on Earth

23) ______

24) W hat name is given to the single supercontinent that formed near the end of the Paleozoic?

A) G ondwana B) G ondwanaland C) O mniland D) L aurasia E) P angaea

24) ______

25) C haracid fishes only found naturally only in South America and Africa. Fossils of these fish are not found on any other continents. What is the most likely explanation of this distribution pattern?

A) C onvergent evolution is the mechanism for this occurrence.

B) C haracid fishes arose in the South Atlantic Ocean and migrated to Africa and South America.

C) C haracid fishes first evolved where the fossils are found but were carried to South America and Africa by birds.

D) T hese fishes arose in either Africa or South America and migrated across the South Atlantic Ocean to the other continent.

E) C haracid fishes arose prior to the separation of the African and South American continents.

25) ______

26) D inosaurs (aside from the lineage that produced birds) were extinct by the end of the ______.

A) P ermian B) S ilurian C) E ocene D) C retaceous E) D evonian

26) ______

27) A period of mass extinction is often followed by ______.

A) n onbranching evolution

27) ______

B) e xplosive diversification C) e quilibrium D) a n asteroid impact E) g lobal cooling 28) _ _____ is the study of the evolutionary relationships of organisms, past and present.

A) T autology B) B iogeography C) E pistemology D) T axonomy E) S ystematics

28) ______

29) T he science of naming, identifying, and classifying organisms is called ______.

A) z oography B) b iogeography C) s pecification D) p hylogeny E) t axonomy

29) ______

30) W hich of the following is a species name?

A) R hizosolenia B) s apiens C) S am D) d iatom E) N itzschia jouseae

30) ______

31) W hich of the following taxonomic levels is most inclusive?

A) c lass B) s pecies C) f amily

31) ______ D) o rder

E) g enus

32) O f the following taxonomic levels, species found within the same ______ are the most closely related.

A) f amily B) d omain C) p hylum D) c lass E) o rder

32) ______

33) T he wing of a bald eagle is ______ the wing of a penguin.

A) c onvergent with B) i dentical to C) a nalogous to D) u nrelated to E) h omologous to

33) ______

34) T he wing of a penguin is ______ the flipper of a dolphin.

A) p aedomorphically similar to B) s tructurally identical to C) a nalogous to D) s uperior to E) d ivergent from

34) ______

35) H omology is evidence of ______.

A) s tasis B) c ommon ancestry C) p unctuated evolution D) c onvergent evolution

35) ______

E) p aedomorphosis 36) A nalogous structures are evidence of ______.

A) c ommon ancestry B) s tabilizing selection C) p aedomorphosis D) d ivergent evolution E) c onvergent evolution

36) ______

37) M olecular systematics might include all of the following except ______.

A) a mino acid sequences B) D NA sequences C) n ucleotide sequences D) a natomical similarities E) p roteins

37) ______

38) C ladistic analysis identifies clades on the basis of ______.

A) f irst appearance in the fossil record B) l ast appearance in the fossil record C) t he ability to interbreed and produce fertile offspring D) h omologous structures unique to each group E) a nalogous structures unique to each group

38) ______

39) W hich one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?

A) B acteria B) A rchaea C) E ukarya D) A nimalia

39) ______ E) P lantae

40) E xamine the two animals in the photographs in the following figure. Use all of the clues in this figure. These two organisms belong to ______.

A) t he same species B) t he same genus C) d ifferent orders D) d ifferent phyla E) d ifferent families 41) E xamine the evolutionary relationships represented in the following figure. Based upon this diagram, the two most closely related species are ______.

40) ______

41)

A) t he domestic dog and the domestic cat B) t he domestic dog and the wolf C) t he European otter and the wolf D) t he domestic cat and the European otter E) t he domestic cat and the striped skunk 42) E xamine the figure below. Cladistic analysis indicates that crocodiles are more closely related to ______ than to ______.

___ ___

42)

___ ___

A) b irds . . . lizards B) l izards . . . birds C) b irds . . . alligators D) t urtles . . . birds E) s nakes . . . birds Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

In some zoos, rare crosses between a male lion and a female tiger have produced hybrid offspring called ligers. Male ligers are sterile but some female ligers are fertile. In the wild, lion and tiger ranges do not naturally overlap, making such a cross unlikely. Furthermore, the solitary behavior of tigers and the social organizations of lions create behavioral differences.

43) A pplying the biological species concept, the production of ligers reveals that ______.

A) l ions and tigers do not share any common ancestors B) l ions are probably a subspecies of tigers C) a new species called ligers is forming D) t igers and lions are actually the same species E) t igers and lions are separate species

43) ______

44) T he natural differences in the ranges of wild tigers and lions is an example of ______.

A) t he impact of mutations B) a post-zygotic barrier C) t he bottleneck effect D) a pre-zygotic barrier E) s ympatric speciation

44) ______

45) T he production of sterile male ligers is an example of ______.

A) n eutral evolution

45) ______

B) s ympatric speciation C) t he founder effect D) a pre-zygotic barrier E) a post-zygotic barrier

1) E 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) A 7) E 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) E 17) A 18) E 19) A 20) E 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) E 29) E 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) E 34) C 35) B 36) E 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) D 45) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) E ukaryotes arose about ______ years after the first prokaryotes.

1) _______ A) 3 .0 million B) 1 .5 billion C) 3 .5 billion D) 4 .0 billion E) 5 .5 billion 2) L arge amounts of oxygen gas appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.

A) 2 00 million B) 1 .7 billion C) 2 .0 billion D) 2 .7 billion E) 4 .5 billion

2) _______

3) A nimal life underwent its greatest diversification during the ______, which began about ______ million years ago.

A) C enozoic . . . 65 B) C ambrian . . . 540 C) M esozoic . . . 245 D) C arboniferous . . . 363 E) P ermian . . . 290

3) _______

4) W hich kingdom(s) was(were) the first to colonize land?

A) M onera B) M onera and Protista C) P rotista and Fungi D) P lantae and Fungi E) A rchaea

4) _______

5) L and was first colonized about ______ years ago.

A) 1 00 million B) 5 00 million C) 5 70 billion D) 1 .7 billion E) 2 .0 billion

5) _______

6) T he idea that life regularly arises from nonliving matter is referred to as ______.

A) d iversification B) e ndosymbiosis C) p olymerization D) s pontaneous generation E) b iogenesis

6) _______

7) T he absence of ______ in the primitive atmosphere was essential to the origin of life on Earth.

A) C O2 B) O 2 C) N H3 D) C H4 E) N 2

7) _______

8) W hat was the first stage of the process that led to the abiotic origin of life?

A) a biotic synthesis of polymers B) a biotic synthesis of monomers, such as amino acids and nucleotides C) o rigin of self-replicating molecules D) a biotic synthesis of ribozymes E) a biotic formation of pre-cells

8) _______

9) W hose experiments demonstrated that, given the conditions on the primitive Earth, biological monomers could arise spontaneously?

A) D arwin B) M argulis C) P auling D) M iller and Urey E) W atson

9) _______

10) U nder what abiotic conditions can monomers spontaneously form polymers?

A) b y biogenesis B) i n the presence of oxygen gas C) w ith the addition of water D) w hen ribozymes are present to catalyze the reaction E) w hen water evaporates from a hot surface

10) ______

11) W hy is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?

A) R NA has been found on meteorites; DNA has not.

B) R NA codes for fewer amino acids than does DNA. C) R NA is structurally simpler than DNA. D) P rimitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material.

E) R NA is capable of self-replication; DNA is not.

11) ______

12) R NAs that can act as enzymes are called ______.

A) p rokaryotes B) r ibozymes C) A TPs D) l ysosomes E) c hromosomes

12) ______

13) V ariation among pre-cells was due to ______.

A) t he bottleneck effect B) n atural selection C) m utation D) g enetic drift E) a rtificial selection

13) ______

14) W hich prokaryotic group is most closely related to eukaryotes?

A) k ingdom Monera B) d omain Monera C) d omain Bacteria D) d omain Archaea E) k ingdom Protista

14) ______

15) T he prokaryotic group that tends to inhabit extreme environments belongs to the ______.

A) k ingdom Monera B) k ingdom Protista C) d omain Archaea D) d omain Bacteria E) d omain Monera

15) ______

16) W hich of the following are primarily responsible for an unfortunate side effect of eating beans?

16) ______

A) h alophiles B) d inoflagellates C) e xotoxins D) m ethanogens E) f orams 17) S pherical bacteria that occur in clusters are ______.

A) b acilli B) s pirilla C) s pirochetes D) s treptococci E) s taphylococci

17) ______

18) B acilli are ______ prokaryotes.

A) r od-shaped B) s pherical C) s piral D) c one-shaped E) c omma-shaped

18) ______

19) W hich of the following would likely be the most difficult to kill were you to can your own food?

A) m icrospores B) s porophylls C) e ndospores D) m egaspores E) s porophytes

19) ______

20) P rokaryotes reproduce by means of ______.

A) m eiosis B) b inary fission C) t he cell cycle D) b udding E) m itosis

20) ______

21) U nder ideal conditions, prokaryotes are capable of reproducing at a(n) ______ rate.

A) i nverse B) a rithmetic C) h ypergeometric D) e xponential E) i nfinite

21) ______

22) Y ou discover a prokaryote that can make its own food in the absence of light. Nutritionally, you would classify this prokaryote as a ______.

A) c hemoheterotroph B) c hemoautotroph C) p hotoautotroph D) d ecomposotroph E) p hotoheterotroph

22) ______

23) A ll prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms that photosynthesize fit into which nutritional category?

A) c hemoheterotrophs

23) ______

B) p hotoautotrophs C) c hemoautotrophs D) h eteroautotrophs E) p hotoheterotrophs 24) W hich of the following include the two classes of poisons produced by pathogenic bacteria?

A) c hemoautotrophs and chemoheterotrophs B) p rokaryotes and eukaryotes C) e xotoxins and endotoxins D) p rotozoans and fungi E) b acilli and cocci

24) ______

25) Y ou and a friend recently ate out together. Later, you both developed fevers and body aches.

Which of the following is the likely cause of your misery?

A) a rchaea B) a red tide C) a n exotoxin D) a n endotoxin E) a n extremophile

25) ______

26) I n the soil, some ______ convert nitrogen to a form that can be used by plants.

A) f ungi B) a nimals C) p rotozoans D) p rotists E) p rokaryotes

26) ______

27) _ _____ is an example of bioremediation.

A) T he use of an autoclave to kill endospores B) A dinoflagellate bloom causing massive fish kills C) T he use of prokaryotes to treat sewage D) A n immune response to a typhus infection E) C yanobacteria converting atmospheric nitrogen to a form that plants can use

27) ______

28) E ukaryotes that are not fungi, animals, or plants are classified in a "catch-all" category called ______.

A) m onerans B) p rotists C) s eaweeds D) b acteria E) a rchaea

28) ______

29) A ccording to the theory of endosymbiosis, which organelles evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other, larger prokaryotes?

A) G olgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum B) m itochondria and chloroplasts C) v acuoles and lysosomes D) c entrioles and ribosomes E) n ucleoli and chromosomes

29) ______

30) F lagellates, amoebas, apicomplexans, and ciliates are all what type of protist?

A) p rotozoans B) d inoflagellates C) s lime molds D) d iatoms E) s eaweeds

30) ______

31) Y ou discover a unicellular organism that moves by what appear to be pseudopodia. You conclude that this organism is ______.

A) a type of bacterium B) e ither a type of ciliate, or a type of amoeba, or a type of flagellate, or a type of apicomplexan C) a type of pathogen D) e ither a type of amoeba or a type of slime mold E) a type of alga

31) ______

32) W hich protozoan group consists solely of parasitic forms?

A) c iliates B) a picomplexans C) c ellular slime molds D) f lagellates E) a moebas

32) ______

33) _ _____ include cells that can function either independently or as a single unit.

A) A moebas B) C ellular slime molds C) S eaweeds D) D inoflagellates E) F orams

33) ______

34) W hich of the following are most closely related to plants?

A) g reen algae B) c ellular slime molds C) d iatoms D) a moebas E) f orams

34) ______

35) _ _____ are responsible for toxic red tides.

A) D iatoms B) A picomplexans C) P lasmodial slime molds D) D inoflagellates E) R ed algae

35) ______

36) A photoautotrophic unicellular organism with a shell made of silica is most likely a(n) ______.

A) f oram B) a moeba C) a picomplexan D) d iatom E) d inoflagellate

36) ______

37) W hich of the following is a colonial form of green algae?

A) T hiobacillus B) V olvox C) P aramecium D) P lasmodium E) G iardia

37) ______

38) W hat accounts for the similarity between seaweeds and plants?

A) P lants are the ancestors of seaweeds.

B) S eaweeds are the ancestors of plants.

C) B oth evolved from brown algae.

D) C onvergent evolution caused their similarity.

E) S eaweeds are aquatic plants.

38) ______

39) W hich of the following has an organization that may be similar to an evolutionary stage between unicellularity and multicellularity?

A) V olvox B) T hiobacillus C) G iardia D) P lasmodium E) A moeba

39) ______

40) A ccording to this evolutionary tree, the archaea and eukaryotes last shared a common ancestor ______.

40) ______

A) 1 .0 billion years ago B) 1 .75 billion years ago C) 2 .5 billion years ago D) 3 .5 billion years ago E) 4 .5 billion years ago 41) W hat kind of prokaryotes are these?

41)

___ ___

A) s pirochetes B) c iliates C) d iatoms D) b acilli E) c occi Use the following graph to answer the following question(s).

42) A ccording to the graph, which year had the highest number of reported cases of Lyme disease in the United States?

A) 1 995 B) 1 996 C) 1 999 D) 2 000 E) 2 002

42) ______

43) A ccording to the graph, approximately how many cases of Lyme disease were reported in the

United

States in 43) 1997?

A) 5 ,500

___ ___ B) 9 ,000

C) 1 3,000

D) 1 5,500

E) 1 9,000

44) B ased on the graph, which of the following can be interpreted to be true?

A) C ases of Lyme disease are decreasing in the United States.

B) T he spread of Lyme disease has stopped in the United States.

C) P eople in the United States do not get Lyme disease.

D) C ases of Lyme disease are not changing in the United States.

E) C ases of Lyme disease are increasing in the United States.

44) ______

45) T his organism transmits the disease ______, which is ______.

45) ______

A) t oxic shock syndrome . . . exotoxin B) d ysentery . . . flagellate C) m alaria . . . apicomplexan D) f ood poisoning . . . endotoxin E) r ed tide . . . dinoflagellate Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Malaria is a disease caused by parasitic protists in the genus Plasmodium. The parasite is transmitted to humans by female Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodium parasite feeds on human red blood cells, eventually destroying them. Humans infected with malaria can exhibit many symptoms. Depending on the severity of the infection, these can range from fever, chills, sweating, and headaches to anemia and kidney failure. Ultimately, malaria can result in death. However, if time and money permit, once a person is infected, they can be treated with different antimalarial drugs. The two most commonly used drugs are artemisinin and quinine. In addition, one way to prevent the spread of malaria is to treat areas with Anopheles mosquitoes with pesticides. The National Malaria Eradication Program began work in 1947 with the goal of eliminating malaria from the southern United States. In 1947, 15,000 cases of malaria were reported nationwide. By 1950, only 2,000 cases were reported, and by 1951, malaria was considered eradicated from the United States. Today, the disease is most common in Africa and South America. It is estimated that 700,000 to 2.7 million people die from malaria every year, many of them children in developing countries. In 2002, malaria was the fourth leading cause of death in children in developing countries.

46) W hich of the following statements is true?

A) M alaria is the leading cause of death among children in developing countries.

B) M alaria is common in the United States today.

C) M alaria has never been a problem in the United States.

D) T here may be environmental impacts from trying to prevent the spread of malaria.

E) T here is no cure for malaria.

46) ______

47) W hat type of protist is Plasmodium?

47) ______

A) d inoflagellate B) a picomplexan C) s lime mold D) a moeba E) d iatom 48) W hy do so many children in developing countries die of malaria?

A) A nopheles mosquitoes are only found in developing countries.

B) T hey are more susceptible to the disease.

C) M alaria is only found in developing countries today.

D) T he costs of treatment and prevention are too high.

E) T here is no cure for malaria.

48) ______

49) A vector is an organism that transfers a pathogen to a host. In the case of malaria, the vector(s) is(are) ______.

A) A nopheles mosquitoes only B) h umans, Plasmodium, and Anopheles mosquitoes C) h umans and Anopheles mosquitoes D) h umans only E) P lasmodium only

49) ______

1) B 2) D 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) E 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) E 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) E 43) C 44) E 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) M utualistic associations of plant roots and fungi are called ______.

1) _______ A) m ycorrhizae B) m yrmecochores C) m ycophyta D) m ycelia E) p neumatophores 2) T he ______ helps plants retain water.

A) l ignin B) c uticle C) h ypha D) m ycorrhiza E) s kin

2) _______

3) _ _____ is a chemical that hardens cell walls and supports the physical structure of terrestrial plants.

A) P arenchyma B) L ignin C) R uBP D) M esophyll E) C alcium carbonate

3) _______

4) W hich of the following is the lineage of green algae believed to most resemble early plant ancestors?

A) V olvox B) D inoflagellates C) C harophytes D) U lva E) A picomplexans

4) _______

5) P lants first moved onto land at least ______ years ago.

A) 6 5 million B) 4 75 million C) 1 .2 billion D) 3 .5 billion E) 4 .5 billion

5) _______

6) W hich of the following correctly illustrates the sequence of the origin of modern groups of plants?

A) b ryophytes, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms B) f erns, gymnosperms, bryophytes, angiosperms C) b ryophytes, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms D) g ymnosperms, ferns, bryophytes, angiosperms E) f erns, gymnosperms, angiosperms, bryophytes

6) _______

7) W hich of the following lack vascular tissue?

A) g rasses B) m osses

7) _______

C) f lowering plants D) c one-bearing plants E) f erns 8) W hy are bryophytes considered incompletely adapted to the terrestrial environment, when compared with other plants?

A) T he gametophyte generation is dominant.

B) T hey lack flowers.

C) T heir embryos do not develop within gametangia.

D) T hey lack a cuticle.

E) T heir sperm are flagellated.

8) _______

9) I n ______ the gametophyte is more obvious than the sporophyte.

A) c onifers B) a ngiosperms C) m osses D) g rasses E) f erns

9) _______

10) G ametophytes are ______; sporophytes are ______.

A) n ot a component of the angiosperm life cycle . . . a component of the angiosperm life cycle B) t he dominant stage of the conifer life cycle . . . the less obvious stage of the conifer life cycle C) m ale . . . female D) h aploid . . . diploid E) a n adaptation to an aquatic existence . . . an adaptation to a terrestrial existence

10) ______

11) G ametophytes reproduce ______.

A) b y budding B) b y producing sperm and eggs C) b y alternation of generations D) b y fission E) b y undergoing the cell cycle

11) ______

12) _ _____ are seedless vascular plants.

A) B ryophytes B) A ngiosperms C) G rasses D) G ymnosperms E) F erns

12) ______

13) W hy are ferns considered incompletely adapted to the terrestrial environment, when compared with other plants?

A) T hey lack vascular tissue.

B) T hey lack gametangia.

C) T he gametophyte generation is dominant.

D) T hey lack flowers.

E) T heir sperm are flagellated.

13) ______

14) S eedless plants were most diverse during the ______ period.

A) J urassic B) T riassic C) M esozoic

14) ______

D) C arboniferous E) C retaceous 15) O f the following, which is the earliest step in the formation of fossil fuels?

A) i ncomplete decomposition of organic matter B) r emoval of water from organic matter by freezing C) f ungi and bacteria converting the remains of organisms to inorganic nutrients D) s ubjecting organic matter to extreme pressure E) s ubjecting organic matter to extreme heat

15) ______

16) W hat global climatic change gave gymnosperms an advantage over ferns?

A) t he climate becoming hotter and drier B) t he climate becoming cooler and wetter C) t he climate becoming cooler and drier D) i ncreased fluctuations in global climate E) t he climate becoming hotter and wetter

16) ______

17) W hich of these adaptations to a terrestrial existence evolved most recently?

A) s eeds B) c uticle C) v ascular tissue D) s tomata E) g ametangia

17) ______

18) A pollen grain is a ______.

A) m ale gametophyte B) t ype of seed C) f emale gametophyte D) s porophyte E) m egaspore

18) ______

19) _ _____ were the first plants that did not require water for transferring sperm to eggs.

A) M osses B) A ngiosperms C) F erns D) G ymnosperms E) B ryophytes

19) ______

20) S eeds develop from ______.

A) f ruit B) c arpels

20) ______ C) o varies

D) o vules

E) a nthers

21) W hy are gymnosperms "naked seed" plants?

A) T heir seeds lack vascular tissue.

B) T heir seeds develop on the surface of sporophytes.

C) T hey do not have ovaries.

D) T heir seeds are not protected.

E) T hey do not produce seeds; they only produce spores.

21) ______

22) T he parts of a flower include all of the following except ______.

A) s tamens B) p etals C) s epals D) c arpels

22) ______

23) I n angiosperms, the male gametophyte develops within ______.

E) c ones 23) ______

A) m ycelia B) m ale cones C) a rchegonia D) f ilaments E) a nthers 24) W hich of the following is a component of the female structure of a flowering plant?

A) s tamen B) p etal C) f ilament D) a nther E) s tigma

24) ______

25) W hich structure of a flowers traps pollen?

A) f ilament B) s tigma C) s tyle

25) ______ D) o vary

E) a nther

26) T he pollen grain is to gymnosperms as the ______ is to angiosperms.

A) f lower B) p ollen grain C) s tamen D) a nther E) o vule

26) ______

27) I n angiosperms, what structures house female gametophytes?

A) s tigma B) a nthers C) p etals D) s epals

E) o vules

28) T he edible portion of a(n) ______ is a ripened ovary.

A) p otato B) o nion C) r adish

E) c arrot

27) ______

28) ______ D) c ucumber

29) F rom the point of view of an angiosperm, what is the function of fruit?

A) I t is a mechanism for the dispersal of seeds.

B) I t provides nutrients to germinating seeds.

C) I t provides structural support for the plant.

D) I t attracts pollinators.

E) I t is where the male gametophyte develops.

29) ______

30) W hy does it make sense that many fruits are green when their seeds are immature?

A) T hey are harder to see and thus less likely to be eaten than other fruits.

B) T hey are green because fruits with immature seeds are still capable of photosynthesis.

C) G reen signifies less nutritive value.

D) I nsects, which see the color green better than mammals do, can only carry seeds when they are small (immature).

E) A nimals know that green fruits are tasty, and are more likely to eat them.

30) ______

31) N early all food plants are classified as ______.

A) a ngiosperms B) b ryophytes C) g ymnosperms D) f erns E) m ycorrhizae

31) ______

32) E xploring in the tropics, you discover a nonvascular plant that produces pollen. What type of plant have you discovered?

A) a fern B) a bryophyte C) a n angiosperm

32) ______

D) a gymnosperm E) a n entirely new type that you will get to name 33) A t current rates of destruction, all of Earth's tropical forests will be gone within ______ years.

A) 1 0 B) 2 5 C) 5 0 D) 1 00 E) 1 ,000

33) ______

34) W hich of the following statements is true?

A) H undreds of plant species are going extinct each year.

B) H umans depend on plants for food, wood, and medicines.

C) R ainforests regenerate slowly and cannot sustain slash-and-burn clearing.

D) F ewer than 5,000 plant species have been tested as potential medicine sources.

E) A ll of the above statements are true.

34) ______

35) N utritionally, all fungi are ______.

A) p athogens B) p arasites C) c hemoautotrophs D) a utotrophs E) h eterotrophs

35) ______

36) W hat are hyphae?

A) s pores produced by bryophytes B) m ale gametophytes C) t hreadlike filaments that make up fungal bodies D) s ymbiotic associations between plant roots and fungi E) m ature ovaries of angiosperms

36) ______

37) L ike plants, fungi have ______; however, in plants they are composed of ______, whereas in fungi they are composed of ______.

A) c ell walls . . . cellulose . . . peptidoglycan B) c ell walls . . . phospholipids . . . cellulose C) c ell membranes . . . phospholipids . . . peptidoglycan D) c ell membranes . . . cellulose . . . phospholipids E) c ell walls . . . cellulose . . . chitin

37) ______

38) T he function of a mushroom is to _____.

A) a bsorb food B) s tore nutrients C) p roduce spores D) p roduce hyphae E) p roduce seeds

38) ______

39) W hat important role do fungi play in many ecosystems?

A) T hey disperse the fruits of angiosperms.

B) T hey perform photosynthesis.

C) T hey pollinate plants.

D) T hey decompose organic material.

E) T hey produce fossil fuels.

39) ______

40) W hat is this organism?

40)

___ ___

A) c harophycean B) a ngiosperm C) g ymnosperm D) b ryophyte E) f ern 41) T his diagram shows what process?

A) a ngiosperm life cycle

41) ______

B) g ymnosperm life cycle C) o rigin of plants from green algae D) e volutionary adaptation E) a lternation of generations Use the following data table to answer the following question(s).

42) W hich country has the third highest percent of endangered plant species?

A) U nited States B) T urkey C) J apan D) J amaica E) S pain

42) ______

43) W hich country has the most imperiled species?

A) U nited States B) T urkey C) A ustralia D) S pain E) B razil

43) ______

44) T he photo below shows ______.

44)

___ ___

A) a spore-producing structure in a fungus B) m ycorrhizae, a mutually beneficial symbiosis C) a lichen, a mutually beneficial symbiosis D) t he fungal production of antibiotics E) a parasitic fungus attacking an algal cell Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

People utilize plants to meet many everyday needs, including food, fiber, and building materials. However, not many of the over 300,000 known species of plants are used by people. One species with a lot of future promise is the jatropha tree. This species is native to Central America and is now found throughout the tropics. Many people believe the jatropha could help alleviate poverty in many areas of the world, as the seeds produce an oil that can be used for cooking, lighting, or generating electricity. This oil can also be mixed with diesel fuel or petrol to produce a biofuel. Mature trees produce between 5 and 15 kg of seeds per year and can live more than 30 years. However, critics argue that planting the jatropha tree will take land needed for food production, which will in turn harm the poor.

45) W hat could be an advantage of using oil from jatropha seeds?

A) T he oil has many different uses.

B) T he oil is considered a renewable resource.

C) T he oil can be used as a biofuel.

D) U sers will be less dependent on fossil fuels.

E) A ll of these answers are correct.

45) ______

46) W hich of the following statements concerning the jatropha tree is true?

A) J atropha trees are found all over the world.

B) C urrently, the most valuable part of the jatropha tree is the seed.

C) E veryone believes planting jatropha trees will be beneficial.

D) J atropha trees live for over 100 years.

E) H umans use over half of the known species of plants for everyday uses.

46) ______

1) A 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) E 13) E 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) E 24) E 25) B 26) B 27) E 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) E 33) B 34) E 35) E 36) C 37) E 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) E 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hat is the name given to the process by which a larva develops into an adult?

1) _______ A) m etamorphosis B) g astrulation C) n eurulation D) m orphogenesis E) o rganogenesis 2) T he common ancestor of all animals is likely to have been a(n) ______.

A) v irus B) c olonial, ciliated protist C) s ponge D) c olonial, flagellated bacterium E) c olonial, flagellated protist

2) _______

3) W hich of these exhibits radial symmetry?

A) a utomobile B) s hoe box C) F erris wheel D) s poon E) b utterfly

3) _______

4) A true coelom is ______.

A) c ompletely lined with tissue derived from mesoderm B) c ompletely lined with tissue derived from ectoderm C) f ormed when a larva undergoes metamorphosis D) f ormed when a zygote develops into a blastula E) c ompletely lined with tissue derived from endoderm

4) _______

5) F latworms are similar to cnidarians in that both ______.

A) i nclude many parasitic species B) h ave true tissues C) l ack a gastrovascular cavity D) h ave pseudocoeloms E) e xhibit bilateral symmetry

5) _______

6) H umans are chordates. Which animal group is most closely related to chordates?

A) e chinoderms B) a rthropods C) a nnelids D) m olluscs E) c nidarians

6) _______

7) H ow do sponges differ from all other animals?

A) S ponges lack true tissues.

B) S ponges are autotrophs.

C) S ponges lack a true body cavity.

D) S ponges exhibit radial symmetry.

E) S ponges have a true coelom.

7) _______

8) W hat name is given to the food-trapping cells of sponges?

A) p hagocytes B) c nidocytes C) c hoanocytes D) f lame cells E) a moebocytes

8) _______

9) T he mobile stage of the cnidarian life cycle is the ______ stage.

A) t adpole B) m edusa C) p olyp D) r adula

9) _______ E) i nstar

10) _ _____ have radial symmetry.

A) S ponges B) R oundworms C) A nnelids D) C nidarians E) F latworms

10) ______

11) A (n) ______ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell.

A) s quid B) o yster C) c lam D) s nail

11) ______ E) o ctopus

12) W hich animals have a cylindrical body that is tapered at both ends?

A) P latyhelminthes B) A nnelids C) M olluscs D) R oundworms E) C nidarians

12) ______

13) T here are more species of ______ than of any other type of animal.

A) m olluscs B) n ematodes C) c hordates D) a rthropods E) a nnelids

13) ______

14) A characteristic of arthropods that has allowed for their great success is the presence of ______.

A) a brain B) b ilateral symmetry C) a n endoskeleton D) a coelom E) s pecialized segments

14) ______

15) T he arthropod skeleton is composed of ______.

A) c hitin B) p eptidoglycan C) c ellulose D) s alicylic acid E) g lycogen

15) ______

16) N early all ______ are aquatic.

A) c rustaceans B) a rachnids

16) ______

C) c entipedes D) m illipedes E) i nsects 17) _ _____ are the most diverse group of arthropods.

A) A rachnids B) I nsects C) C entipedes D) C rustaceans E) M illipedes

17) ______

18) W hat characteristic is unique to echinoderms?

A) a water vascular system B) a lack of segmentation C) l arvae with bilateral symmetry D) s uction-cup-like feet E) a true coelom that forms from the digestive tube

18) ______

19) U nique features of vertebrates include the presence of a(n) ______.

A) p haryngeal slit B) n otochord C) e ndoskeleton D) t rue coelom E) s kull and backbone

19) ______

20) W hich of the following is a characteristic of all chordates?

A) T hey all have a pseudocoelom.

B) T hey all have an exoskeleton sometime during the life cycle.

C) T hey all have vertebral columns.

D) T hey all exhibit radial symmetry.

E) T hey all have a notochord sometime during the life cycle.

20) ______

21) A (n) ______ is an example of an invertebrate chordate.

A) b ird B) l ancelet C) s nake D) f ish E) e chinoderm

21) ______

22) A mong vertebrates, the unique feature of lampreys and hagfish is the ______.

A) presence of a cranium B) a bsence of jaws C) presence of a cartilaginous skeleton D) absence of a post-anal tail E) absence of a backbone

22) ______

23) S harks are a type of ______.

A) l ungfish B) c artilaginous fish C) b ony fish D) j awless fish E) t unicate

23) ______

24) S wim bladders ______.

A) h elp bony fish maintain buoyancy B) a re a component of the lateral line system C) a re required for fish to exchange gases with the surrounding water D) c ontain the gills E) a re present in both bony and cartilaginous fishes

24) ______

25) W hich group of fishes includes a lineage that migrated out of fresh water and adapted to life on land?

A) l obe-finned fishes B) s tarfishes C) j awless fishes D) r ay-finned fishes E) c artilaginous fishes

25) ______

26) W hat does the term tetrapod mean?

A) l iving a double life B) h aving four feet C) d escended from fish D) e gg-laying E) a pelike

26) ______

27) T he feature present in reptiles and absent in amphibians that freed reptiles from dependence on water for reproduction is ______.

A) t he amniotic egg B) p arental care of eggs C) t he lateral line system D) m etamorphosis E) e ctothermy

27) ______

28) C haracteristics shared by both snakes and birds include ______.

A) t he amniotic egg B) f eathers C) t he presence of only a single ovary in females D) b eing endothermic E) b eing ectothermic

28) ______

29) A lmost every element of bird anatomy is modified for what?

A) e ating seeds B) s inging unique songs C) l aying eggs D) e nhancement of flight E) b eing brightly colored

29) ______

30) F eatures unique to mammals include ______.

A) h aving no egg-laying members B) b eing endotherms C) t he presence of hair D) t he absence of flying forms E) e xtended parental care of the young

30) ______

31) _ _____ are the mammalian group that lay eggs.

A) M arsupials B) T unicates C) E utherians D) M onotremes E) P rimates

31) ______

32) H ow do New World monkeys differ from Old World monkeys?

A) O ld World monkeys are arboreal.

B) N ew World monkeys have a prehensile tail.

C) N ew World monkeys have enhanced depth perception.

D) N ew World monkeys are classified as anthropoids, and Old World monkeys are classified

32) ______

as lorises.

E) N ew World monkeys have nails; Old World monkeys have claws.

33) W hich anthropoids are most closely related to humans?

A) c himpanzees B) O ld World monkeys C) g orillas D) o rangutans E) g ibbons

33) ______

34) W hich of these human characteristics evolved first?

A) l anguage B) d evelopment of culture C) u pright posture D) l oss of body hair E) e nlarged brain

34) ______

35) T he first hominid to spread beyond Africa was ______.

A) " Lucy" B) A ustralopithecus afarensis C) H omo sapiens D) H omo neanderthalensis E) H omo erectus

35) ______

36) W here did humans first appear?

A) A frica B) S outh America C) A sia D) E urope E) A ustralia

36) ______

37) A nnelids are most closely related to ______.

37)

A) a rthropods B) c hordates C) m olluscs D) e chinoderms E) r oundworms 38) W hat type of symmetry does this organism exhibit?

___ ___

38)

___ ___

A) r adial B) b inomial C) a symmetrical D) b ilateral E) t errestrial 39) T he figure below shows a planarian. Bilateral symmetry, the leaflike shape, and the highly branched gastrovascular cavity all suggest that the planarian is a(n) ______.

A) m ollusk B) a nnelid C) c hordate D) f latworm E) r oundworm 40) T he legless, segmented body of the animal below suggests that it is a(n) ______.

39) ______

40)

___ ___

A) m ollusk B) a rthropod C) a nnelid D) r oundworm E) s nake 41) I nsects, such as the grasshopper shown below, have ______.

A) e yes, but no mouth B) n o wings

41) ______

C) a two-part body: head and abdomen D) a three-part body: head, thorax, and abdomen E) e ight legs Use the following graph to answer the following question(s).

42) W hat can be said about the population of bald eagles in the lower 48 United States?

A) I t has been increasing since 1986.

B) I t has been steady since 1986.

C) I t has been decreasing since 1986.

D) N o trend can be seen.

E) M ore information is needed to answer the question.

42) ______

43) I n what year were there approximately 4,000 pairs of bald eagles in the lower 48 United States?

A) 1 986 B) 1 989 C) 1 991 D) 1 993 E) 1 996

43) ______

44) A pproximately how many pairs of bald eagles were in the lower 48 United States in 1999?

A) 4 ,200 B) 5 ,500 C) 6 ,100 D) 6 ,800 E) 7 ,300

44) ______

45) A ccording to this evolutionary tree, approximately how many years ago did humans and orangutans share a common ancestor?

45)

___ ___

A) 1 million years ago B) 7 million years ago C) 1 2 million years ago D) 2 0 million years ago E) 5 6 million years ago Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Birds are a widespread group of animals, with approximately 10,000 different species found throughout the world today.

Because they are relatively easy to find and so visually appealing, they have been studied more thoroughly than many other groups of animals. They are also valuable biological indicators, because many species live in different habitats during different times of the year and cover long migration routes. According to the World Conservation Union, extinction threatens over 1,200 bird species today and at least 179 are critically endangered. Some of the most endangered species include the Tahiti monarch, with only 10 pairs remaining, and the Bali starling, with only 12 wild individuals left.

In Hawaii, the last captive po’ouli died in 2005 and the last two known to be alive in the wild have not been seen in many months. Common birds are also disappearing. In North America, red-winged blackbird populations declined by at least 1 percent each year between 1980 and 1999. These examples can serve as a warning. Habitat destruction, degradation, and fragmentation is the most serious problem and affects 86% of threatened birds. Unsustainable forestry and intensifying agriculture exacerbate this problem of habitat loss. All of this shows that conservation of habitats is critical if many of the world’s bird species are going to be saved from extinction in the near future.

46) W hat is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?

A) M any are brightly colored.

B) M any migrate long distances.

C) M any sing beautiful songs.

D) T here are over 10,000 different species of birds.

E) B irdwatching is a popular hobby.

46) ______

47) W hat is the greatest threat to birds today?

47) ______

A) t he illegal pet trade B) p oaching C) c ellular phone towers D) h abitat loss E) p ollution 48) A pproximately what percent of bird species are threatened with extinction today?

A) 5 % B) 1 2% C) 1 9% D) 2 5% E) 4 5%

48) ______

1) A 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) E 12) D 13) D 14) E 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) E 20) E 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) E cology is the study of ______.

1) _______ A) h uman effects on the environment B) i nteractions between humans and other species C) i nteractions between organisms and their environments D) r elationships among different species E) l ife 2) W hich of the following is abiotic?

A) a rock B) a n animal

2) _______ C) a fungus

D) a protist

3) W hich of these represents the correct hierarchical order?

E) a plant 3) _______

A) o rganism, community, ecosystem, population B) e cosystem, population, organism, community C) c ommunity, population, organism, ecosystem D) o rganism, population, community, ecosystem E) o rganism, ecosystem, population, community 4) W hat level of ecology is concerned with the adaptations of individuals?

A) t issue B) o rganismal C) c ommunity D) e cosystem E) p opulation

4) _______

5) W hat level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?

A) e cosystem B) p opulation C) t issue D) o rganism E) c ommunity

5) _______

6) W hat level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of different species?

A) e cosystem B) p opulation C) o rganism D) c ommunity E) t issue

6) _______

7) W hat is a population?

A) a ll of the organisms of a species existing at a particular time B) a group of organisms of the same species living in a particular geographic area C) a community living in a particular geographic area D) a group of organisms living in a particular geographic area E) a community as well as all the abiotic factors in a particular geographic area

7) _______

8) W hich of these is a community?

A) a ll of the Staphlococcus aureus (a species of bacteria) living on your skin B) a ll of the students in your class

8) _______

C) a ll of the organisms living in your home D) a ll of the nut grass (considered a weed) in my backyard E) a ll of the people living in your neighborhood 9) W hat level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?

A) p opulation B) t issue C) o rganism D) c ommunity E) e cosystem

9) _______

10) W hat is the primary source of energy for nearly all of Earth's ecosystems?

A) g eothermal vents B) s unlight C) r ocks and soil D) w ind E) w ater

10) ______

11) A quatic organisms ______.

A) h ave a waxy coating to prevent water loss B) i n freshwater lakes excrete highly concentrated urine C) t hat are photosynthetic never find light to be in short supply D) m ay experience problems with the solute concentration of the surrounding fluid E) h ave no concerns with regard to water

11) ______

12) W hich nutrients often limit the distribution and abundance of photosynthetic organisms?

A) w ater and oxygen B) n itrogen and phosphorus C) o xygen only D) w ater and carbon dioxide E) c arbon dioxide and nitrogen

12) ______

13) W hat term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space?

A) c osmosation B) a ccreditation C) a cclimation D) a stroization E) a daptation

13) ______

14) W hich of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?

A) g rowing to a larger size B) m igrating to a different location C) a cclimation D) g rowing a heavier coat of fur E) e volutionary adaptation

14) ______

15) T he temperate zones ______.

A) a re the zones closest to the equator B) h ave the coolest climates on Earth C) g enerally have a climate warmer than the tropics D) a re relatively wet

15) ______

E) a re relatively dry 16) W hich of the following can moderate climate by absorbing heat when the air is warm and releasing heat when the air is cold?

A) o ceans B) c louds C) g laciers D) m ountain E) p onds s

16) ______

17) W ater-storing plants and deeply-rooted shrubs are plants that characterize ______.

A) d eserts B) c haparral C) t emperate grasslands D) s avanna E) t ropical forests

17) ______

18) T he Sahara Desert and the Negev Desert belong to the same ______.

A) b iota B) a biota C) c ommunity D) p opulation E) b iome

18) ______

19) L ong, snowy winters as well as evergreen trees such as pine and fir are found in ______.

A) t emperate broadleaf forest B) c oniferous forest C) t ropical forest D) t emperate grasslands E) c haparral

19) ______

20) _ _____ are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems.

A) B uffalo B) Z ebras C) G nus D) A ntelopes

20) ______ E) I nsects

21) W hat is one important difference between savannas and temperate grasslands?

A) S avannas are cooler in the winter B) S avannas are inhabited by grazing mammals C) S avannas only rarely experience fires D) S avannas have trees E) S avannas have very fertile soil

21) ______

22) W hich of these biomes is maintained by fire?

A) c haparral B) t emperate deciduous forest C) d esert D) t ropical forest E) t undra

22) ______

23) P ermafrost, or permanently frozen subsoil, characterizes _____.

A) c oniferous forest B) t emperate deciduous forest C) c haparral D) d esert E) t undra

23) ______

24) M ost of the temperate grassland in North America has been converted to ______.

A) f armland B) n ational parks C) s uburbs D) c ities E) s hopping malls

24) ______

25) I n an aquatic ecosystem, what name is given to the region where photosynthesis can occur?

A) b enthic zone B) a photic zone C) p elagic zone D) t hermocline E) p hotic zone

25) ______

26) W ith regard to the environment as a whole, when is the worst time to apply pesticide to your lawn?

A) w hen it is raining, or is about to rain B) a t night C) a t the same time you apply fertilizer D) d uring the day E) w hen it is cold, or is about to get cold

26) ______

27) W etlands ______.

A) a re an example of a marine biome B) i nclude rivers, streams, ponds, and lakes C) a re found in the aphotic zone D) a re found in the intertidal zone E) a re among the richest of biomes in terms of species diversity

27) ______

28) W hat are estuaries?

A) r egions where fresh water and salt water mix B) t he start of a river C) r egions where ocean water meets land D) r egions where two rivers join E) a freshwater biome

28) ______

29) W hich of these biomes is one of the most biologically productive of all biomes?

A) e stuaries B) c oniferous forests C) o pen oceans D) t emperate grasslands E) d esert

29) ______

30) W hat name is given to the region where sea meets land?

A) t hermocline B) i ntertidal zone C) a photic zone D) p elagic realm E) b enthic realm

30) ______

31) W hat name is given to the open ocean?

A) b enthic realm

31) ______

B) a photic zone C) p elagic realm D) t hermocline E) i ntertidal zone 32) I n what part of the ocean are phytoplankton found?

A) a photic zone B) p elagic realm C) b enthic realm D) t hermocline E) i ntertidal zone

32) ______

33) W hat name is given to the seafloor?

A) t hermocline B) i ntertidal zone C) b enthic realm D) p elagic realm E) a photic zone

33) ______

34) W ater moves from land to the atmosphere through _____.

A) t ranspiration only B) e vaporation only C) p recipitation only D) t ranspiration and evaporation E) e vaporation and precipitation

34) ______

35) W hat fraction of Earth's surface has been altered by human use?

A) 1 0% B) 2 5% C) 5 0% D) 7 5%

35) ______ E) 9 5%

36) T he greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temperatures. This increase is primarily due to ______.

A) C and other greenhouse gases allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earth's surface

36) ______

B) t he loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere C) C and from Earth C and other other greenhouse greenhouse gases gases slowing slowing the the escape escape of of UV heatradiation from Earth D) E) n one of the above 37) T emperature increases due to global warming are expected to be greatest _____.

A) c lose to the poles B) i n deserts C) i n the tropics D) i n the sea E) n one of the above

37) ______

38) T he effect of deforestation is to ______.

A) i ncrease the rate at which carbon dioxide is incorporated into organic material B) i ncrease the rate of carbon dioxide production through cellular respiration C) i ncrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere D) d ecrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere E) n one of the above

38) ______

39) I n the oceans, global warming is expected to ______.

A) b enefit corals B) i ncrease the amount of oxygen available C) d ecrease the amount of oxygen available D) m ake the water more acidic

39) ______

E) m ake the water more basic 40) W hich of the following is not an expected result of global warming?

A) c hanges in the timing of flowering in certain plants.

B) m elting permafrost.

C) s hifts in the ranges of some species.

D) c hanges in the breeding seasons of some species.

E) d ecreasing sea levels.

40) ______

41) W hich of the following actions would increase your carbon footprint?

A) r eusing or recycling items B) e ating more beef and less chicken C) w alking instead of driving D) e ating more vegetables and less meat E) t urning off lights

41) ______

42) E xamine the figure below. Which part of Earth receives the greatest intensity of solar radiation?

42) ______

A) e quator B) N orth and South Poles C) T ropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn D) T ropic of Cancer E) a ll parts of Earth receive the same intensity of solar radiation.

43) E xamine the figure below. Phytoplankton live in the _____.

43) ______

A) a photic zone B) b enthic zone C) p hotic zone and aphotic zone D) p hotic zone E) a photic zone and benthic zone 44) E xamine the figure below. Globally, the largest amount of water moves from ______.

A) t he atmosphere to land by precipitation

44) ______

B) l and to the oceans by surface and groundwater runoff C) l and to the atmosphere by evaporation and transpiration D) t he oceans to the atmosphere by evaporation E) t he atmosphere to the oceans by precipitation The following information refers to question(s) below.

Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater streams and, during the first year of their life, the young salmon migrate up to 1,000 km to the ocean. They spend varying amounts of time in the ocean (ranging up to five years), where they feed and grow, rapidly acquiring more than 95% of their biomass during this period. During the summer of their maturing year, they begin the long journey back to their home streams where they spawn. Although it is still uncertain how salmon navigate back to their spawning grounds, current hypotheses suggest that they have a highly developed sense of smell. At the spawning grounds, females use their tails to form a hollow cavity where they lay up to 8,000 eggs. The male fertilizes the eggs, and both adults typically die soon thereafter.

45) T he physiological response that allows salmon to survive in fresh water, then in salt water, and then fresh water again is an example of ______.

A) e volution B) a behavioral response C) a n anatomical response D) a cclimation E) n one of the above

45) ______

46) A t different times in their lives, salmon can be found in all of the following except ______.

A) a freshwater biome B) a chaparral C) a marine biome D) a n estuary E) t he pelagic realm

46) ______

1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) E 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) E 21) D 22) A 23) E 24) A 25) E 26) A 27) E 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) E 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hat is a population?

1) _______ A) a group of individuals of the same species that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them B) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them C) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area D) a group of individuals of the same species that occupy the same general area E) a ll of the organisms of a single species existing at a particular time 2) W hich of these best describes Type I survivorship?

A) r elatively constant death rate throughout life B) l ow death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life C) h igh death rate early in life, low death rate in the middle of life, high death rate late in life D) l ow death rate early in life, high death rate late in life E) v ery high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate

2) _______

3) T ype I survivorship curves are typical of species that exhibit ______.

A) f ew offspring and poor parental care B) f ew offspring and good parental care C) m any offspring and poor parental care D) a n intermediate number of offspring and an intermediate level of parental care E) m any offspring and good parental care

3) _______

4) W hich of these best describes Type II survivorship?

A) l ow death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life B) r elatively constant death rate throughout life C) l ow death rate early in life, high death rate late in life D) v ery high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate E) h igh death rate early in life, low death rate in the middle of life, high death rate late in life

4) _______

5) W hich of these best describes Type III survivorship?

A) h igh death rate early in life, low death rate in the middle of life, high death rate late in life B) l ow death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life C) v ery high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate D) r elatively constant death rate throughout life E) l ow death rate early in life, high death rate late in life

5) _______

6) O pportunistic species typically ______.

A) e xhibit a Type I survivorship curve B) h ave a large number of offspring C) a re very long-living D) r each sexual maturity slowly E) a re large-bodied

6) _______

7) S pecies that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ______.

A) e xhibit a Type III survivorship curve B) a re small-bodied C) e xhibit a Type II survivorship curve

7) _______

D) h ave a large number of offspring E) h ave long lives 8) T he number of individuals of a population per unit area is the ______.

A) p opulation age structure B) p opulation size C) p opulation dispersion pattern D) p opulation's intrinsic rate of increase E) p opulation density

8) _______

9) I n the absence of limiting factors, a population's growth follows a(n) ______ model.

A) m athematical B) h ypergeometric C) g eometric D) e xponential E) l ogistic

9) _______

10) I n the absence of limiting factors, what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?

C) ∧ E) ∪ A) ∩ B) J D) S

10) ______

11) I f a population's growth rate decreases as the population size approaches carrying capacity, the population's growth follows a(n) ______ model.

A) h ypergeometric B) l ogistic C) m athematical D) g eometric E) e xponential

11) ______

12) I n a population that is following a logistic growth pattern, what shape does the population's growth curve most closely resemble?

B) ∧ D) ∪ A) ∩ C) J E) S

12) ______

13) _ _____ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.

A) S urvivorship curve B) I ntrinsic rate of increase C) P opulation size D) P opulation growth rate E) C arrying capacity

13) ______

14) A ccording to the logistic growth model, what happens to a population when the size of the population reaches carrying capacity?

A) T he population stops increasing in size.

B) T he growth rate remains unchanged.

C) T he population crashes.

D) T he growth rate increases.

E) T he population begins to decrease in size.

14) ______

15) C ompetition among individuals of the same species is ______ competition.

A) e xtraspecific B) e ndospecific C) e xospecific

15) ______

D) i ntraspecific E) i nterspecific 16) W hich of these factors operates in a density-dependent manner?

A) f lood B) f ood supply C) h urricane D) v olcanic eruption E) b lizzard

16) ______

17) O ver time, the populations of most species ______.

A) e xhibit boom-and-bust cycles B) c ontinuously decline C) f luctuate D) i ncrease rapidly, crash, and never recover E) c ontinuously increase

17) ______

18) A n unexpected freeze that kills a population of chipmunks is an example of ______.

A) a population cycle B) a natal effect C) a density-independent factor D) a n intrinsic factor E) a density-dependent factor

18) ______

19) T he Endangered Species Act aims to help protect species that ______.

A) a re economically valuable B) c ompete with invasive species C) a re in danger of extinction D) a re non-native E) h ave suffered significant habitat destruction

19) ______

20) T he red-cockaded woodpecker, an endangered species, is dependent upon ______ for maintenance of its source habitat.

A) o pen water B) f loods C) c orn snakes D) t hick vegetation at least 15 feet in height E) f ire

20) ______

21) Y ou arrive back in the United States after having visited a foreign country located on another continent. The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home. Being the knowledgeable person you are, you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be ______.

A) c arrying a non-native species that could damage North American ecosystems B) c ontaminated with sufficient DDT to cause serious harm to anyone who eats the fruit C) c arrying endangered fruit D) c ontaminated with CFCs that will damage the ozone layer above North America E) a ll of the above

21) ______

22) I ntroduced species can have important effects on biological communities by ______.

A) c ompeting with native species for resources B) p reying upon native species

22) ______

C) d isplacing native species D) r educing biodiversity E) d oing all of the above 23) E xamples of invasive species include ______.

A) k udzu and red-cockaded woodpeckers B) c od and Chilean sea bass C) s nowshoe hares and kudzu D) E uropean starlings and cactus finches E) c heatgrass and European starlings

23) ______

24) T he intentional release of a natural enemy to attack a pest population is called _____.

A) b iological control B) s ustainable resource management C) c oevolution D) i ntegrated pest management E) c onservation

24) ______

25) U sing a virus to control rabbit populations in Australia did not work because the rabbits became more resistant to the virus, and the virus became less lethal. This is an example of ______.

A) h ow an invasive species can harm a native species B) s ustainable resource management C) h ow effective biological control can be D) c oevolution E) w hy integrated pest management does not work

25) ______

26) M ost crop pests ______.

A) h ave an equilibrial life history B) c onsist of long-lived individuals C) e xhibit type I survivorship D) p roduce few, well cared-for offspring E) h ave an opportunistic life history

26) ______

27) I ntegrated pest management ______.

A) a ims to keep pest populations on an exponential growth curve B) f avors the use of monocultures C) a dvocates mixed-species plantings and rotating crops D) a dvocates total eradication of pest species E) f avors overwhelming a pest with chemical pesticides

27) ______

28) T hroughout most of human history, human population size _____.

A) w as at carrying capacity B) w as decreasing C) s howed boom and bust cycles D) s kyrocketed E) g rew very slowly

28) ______

29) I n most developed countries, overall population growth rates ______.

A) a re near zero, so the population size is fairly stable B) a re high, so the population is growing rapidly C) a re near zero, so the population is declining D) a re low, so the population is declining

29) ______

E) a re high, so the population size is fairly stable 30) I n most developing countries ______.

A) b irth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is declining B) b irth rates equal death rates, so population size is fairly stable C) b irth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly D) b irth rates are much higher than death rates, so the population is declining E) b irth rates are much higher than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly

30) ______

31) W hat will be the approximate shape of the age-structure diagram of a rapidly increasing population?

A) a pyramid B) a n inverted pyramid C) a rectangle D) a n hourglass E) a circle

31) ______

32) A study of the human ecological footprint shows that ______.

A) h uman population size will soon crash B) E arth can sustain a population about double the current population C) w e have already overshot the planet's capacity to sustain us D) E arth can sustain the current population, but not much more E) E arth can sustain an exponentially growing population indefinitely

32) ______

33) T he ecological footprint of the United States ______.

A) i s about the same as the global average B) i s lower than the global average a sign of overconsumption C) c annot be calculated D) s hows that its population size is increasing slowly E) s hows that Americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel

33) ______

34) T he figure below shows population cycles of snowshoe hare and lynx. Recent field studies suggest that the most likely explanation for these cycles is ______.

34)

______

A) n early unlimited food for hares during the summers B) b oom and bust cycles in lemming populations C) p eriodic winter storms D) p redation of snowshoe hares by a combination of lynxes, foxes, and owls E) e xcessive predation of snowshoe hares by lynxes

35) B ased on this graph, what is the carrying capacity of male fur seals?

A) 1 ,000,000

B) 1 ,000

C) 1 0

35) ______

D) 1 00,000

E) 1 0,000

This graph represents three different populations. Use it to answer the following questions.

36) W hich population is growing at the fastest rate?

A) P opulation A B) P opulation B

36) ______ C) P opulation C

37) I f all populations occupy different areas that are approximately the same size, which population

will have

the lowest density after three years?

___ ___

37)

A) P opulation A

B) P opulation B

C) P opulation C

38) W hich of the following choices matches this figure?

A) C rab spiders produce hundreds of tiny offspring, most of which do not survive.

B) T he century plant grows for many years and reproduces and releases hundreds of seeds just once before it withers and dies. Because of the dry desert environment in which it lives, many of the seeds do not survive or are eaten.

C) D uring "mating frenzies," male and female squid aggregate and release hundreds of eggs and sperm into the water column. The fertilized eggs are often quickly preyed on by fish.

D) I n some species of lizards and rodents, survivorship is constant over the life span.

E) D olphins produce only single offspring at a time and provide parental care for many months.

39) O bserve the life tables for two populations of different organisms. Which species exhibits a Type I survivorship curve?

38) ______

___ ___

39)

A) S pecies in Population A

B) S pecies in Population B

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Michigan's Isle Royale is located in Lake Superior and is 45 miles long and 9 miles wide. Ecologists estimate that the moose population has been on the island since around 1900. The wolf population, on the other hand, has only been there since the winter of 1949. The conditions had to be just right for the lake to freeze and the weather to be calm enough for the first wolves to make the passage over to the island. When the wolves arrived, they were greeted with a large moose population that had no predators. The moose population was at a dangerously high level, but was kept in check by the arrival of the wolves. This "harmonious" pattern continued for at least 20 years.

In 1982, the wolf population suddenly crashed. The problem was a new canine virus. This virus surfaced around the world in 1978 and spread rapidly in about six months. Infected animals can survive, but they have to be treated immediately. Ecologists hypothesized that the virus arrived on the island carried on the shoe of a human traveler. The wolf population decreased from 50 to 14 individuals in a year. While the wolf population dropped, the moose population increased. However, the winter of 1996 was extremely harsh and the moose population experienced a major crash. More than 500 animals died during the winter months, reducing the population to less than 800 animals.

40) W hat most likely happened when the wolves first arrived on the island?

A) T he moose population increased exponentially.

B) T he wolf population decreased because of the introduction of a virus.

C) T he wolf population increased exponentially.

40) ______

D) T he moose population crashed because of the introduction of a predator.

E) T he wolf population was at its carrying capacity.

41) T he virus introduced to the island in 1982 that reduced the wolf population is an example of a(n) ______.

A) d ensity-dependent factor B) i ntraspecific competition C) a cclimation D) e quilibrial life history E) d ensity-independent factor

41) ______

42) T he harsh winter that led to the death of many moose in 1996 is an example of a(n) ______.

A) a cclimation B) p opulation that has exceeded its carrying capacity C) d ensity-independent factor D) d ensity-dependent factor E) t rigger for logistic growth

42) ______

43) D uring a one-year study, a graduate student attempted to count the wolves and moose on the

43) ______

island. He estimated that there were 950 moose and 120 wolves. How many organisms, populations, and species were included in this study?

A) o rganisms = 2; populations = 2; species = 1,070 B) o rganisms = 2; populations = 1; species = 2 C) o rganisms = 1,070; populations = 1; species = 2 D) o rganisms = 1,070; populations = 2; species = 2 E) n one of the above

1) D 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) B 7) E 8) E 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) C 20) E 21) A 22) E 23) E 24) A 25) D 26) E 27) C 28) E 29) A 30) E 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) E 35) E 36) A 37) C 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) C 43) D

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) T he present rate of species loss ______.

1) _______ A) i s slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts B) i s about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years C) i s as much as 1,000 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years D) s uggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century E) s uggests that about 90% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century 2) T he single greatest threat to biodiversity comes from ______.

A) h uman predation B) h abitat destruction and fragmentation C) i nvasive species D) o verexploitation E) p ollution

2) _______

3) S everal years ago I was crossing the border from Canada to the United States and I had a bag of Washington State apples with me. The customs officer at the border would not let me take the apples with me into the United States (and I really hated the idea of getting rid of a bag of perfectly good apples). Why did the customs officer refuse to allow me to cross the border with my apples?

A) A pples grown in the United States for export may be contaminated with DDT. B) T here may have been CFCs on the surface of the apples that would damage the ozone layer in the atmosphere over the United States.

C) T here may have been a species that was not native to the United States hitching a ride on my apples.

D) E conomics: If I couldn't bring the apples in with me, I would have to buy my apples from a store in the United States.

E) W ashington State apples are considered an endangered fruit.

3) _______

4) A n example of a mutualism, or +/+ relationship, is ______.

A) t he relationship between Virginia's warblers and orange-crowned warblers, which use some of the same resources B) t he relationship between corals and unicellular algae C) b iological magnification of toxins D) h erbivory E) c ryptic coloration in frogs

4) _______

5) P opulations of two coexisting species are both tertiary consumers in a community. What relationship may exist between these two organisms?

A) p arasitism B) c ompetition C) m utualism D) c ommensalism E) p redation

5) _______

6) A s a result of a disturbance, a community will ______.

A) n ot be recolonized

6) _______

B) b e replaced by a community that is completely different from the previous community C) u ndergo succession D) n ot recover for thousands of years E) n ot be repopulated 7) O rganisms at the first trophic level are ______.

A) d ecomposers B) p roducers C) d etritivores D) p rimary consumers E) p redators

7) _______

8) I n the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the antelope is A) b oth a predator and a secondary consumer.

B) b oth a producer and a primary consumer.

C) a secondary consumer only.

D) b oth an herbivore and a secondary consumer.

E) b oth an herbivore and a primary consumer.

8) _______

9) I n the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the human is a(n) ______.

A) p rimary consumer B) p roducer C) t ertiary consumer D) h erbivore E) s econdary consumer

9) _______

10) W hich of these organisms are ultimately responsible for making energy available to the other organisms listed here?

A) p rimary consumers B) p roducers C) h erbivores D) s econdary consumers E) c arnivores

10) ______

11) W hich of these convert organic matter to inorganic matter by breaking down dead organisms?

A) p rimary consumers B) s econdary consumers C) p roducers D) d etritivores E) d ecomposers

11) ______

12) W hich of these could be a decomposer?

A) h uman B) l ion

12) ______ C) d olphin

D) f ungus

E) v ulture

13) B ears eat berries, humans, and large fish; large fish eat smaller fish and insects; humans eat bears, large fish, and berries; Venus flytraps eat insects. The scenario described here is an example of ______.

A) a food web B) a population histogram C) a n ecosystem D) p arasitism E) a food chain

13) ______

14) H umans are ______.

A) o mnivores B) p roducers C) h erbivores D) c arnivores E) d etritivores

14) ______

15) I n order to assess the species diversity of a community, you would need to know the number of different species present as well as ______.

A) t he number of trophic levels in the community B) t he fraction of these species that are plants C) t he intensity of interspecific competition in the community D) t he relative abundance of the different species E) w hich is the keystone species

15) ______

16) W hat is one way in which energy flow differs from chemical cycling?

A) E nergy flow is unidirectional; chemical elements can be recycled.

B) E nergy flows from lower to higher trophic levels; chemicals cycle from higher to lower trophic levels.

C) E nergy can enter but cannot leave an ecosystem; chemical elements can leave but cannot enter an ecosystem.

D) E nergy can both enter and leave an ecosystem; chemical elements always remain within a single ecosystem.

E) E nergy cannot be created or destroyed; chemical elements can be created and destroyed.

16) ______

17) A pproximately what percentage of the visible light that reaches Earth's producers is converted to chemical energy?

A) 1 % B) 1 0% C) 0 .001% D) 0 .1% E) 0 .01%

17) ______

18) B iomass is the total amount of ______ an ecosystem.

A) s olar energy in B) o rganic material in C) c hemical elements recycled by the detritivores of D) o rganic matter tied up in the consumers of E) o rganic matter tied up in the producers of

18) ______

19) T he rate at which organic matter is produced in an ecosystem is its ______.

A) b iomass B) t rophic structure C) p rimary productivity D) c hemical cycle E) e nergy flow

19) ______

20) O n average, what percentage of the energy in the form of organic matter at one trophic level is not available as biomass at the next highest trophic level?

A) 5 0% B) 1 0% C) 1 00% D) 3 0% E) 9 0%

20) ______

21) I n general, you would expect an energy pyramid to have roughly the same shape as a diagram illustrating changes in ______ with increasing trophic level.

A) t he sizes of organisms B) t he life spans of organisms

21) ______

C) p rimary productivity D) t he brain mass of organisms E) b iomass 22) W hy are most energy pyramids limited to three to five levels?

A) E nergy pyramids, which are limited to no more than five levels, do not accurately represent the energy dynamics of a food web, in which there often are more than five trophic levels.

B) T he nutritional quality of existing biomass decreases with increasing trophic level.

C) T he higher the trophic level, the larger the organism; the larger the organism, the less likely it will be prey.

D) M ost ecosystems have insufficient space to support the increased number of organisms that more trophic levels would require.

E) T here is insufficient energy to support more trophic levels.

22) ______

23) W hat form of carbon is incorporated into organic matter by producers?

A) C O2 B) C OOH C) C FC D) C H4

23) ______ E) C 6H12O6

24) T he atmosphere is approximately 80% ______ gas.

A) N 2 B) C H4 C) C FC

E) C O2

24) ______ D) H 2O

25) P lants can utilize the ______ form of nitrogen.

A) t hiol B) a tmospheric C) a mino D) n itrate E) N 2

25) ______

26) W hich of these organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen gas to a form that can be utilized by plants?

A) a nimals B) f ungi C) c onsumers D) b acteria E) p rotists

26) ______

27) _ _____ convert nitrogen from a form that can be assimilated by plants to N2.

27) ______

A) D enitrifiers B) N itrogen-fixing bacteria living in the root nodules of legumes C) N itrogen-fixing bacteria living in the soil D) N itrifying bacteria E) E . coli 28) T he major abiotic reservoir for phosphorus is ______.

A) t he oceans B) f ossil fuels C) t he atmosphere D) d ead organic matter E) r ock

28) ______

29) W ith regard to nutrient pollution in aquatic ecosystems, when is the worst time to apply fertilizer to your lawn?

29) ______

A) a t night B) w hen it is raining, or is about to rain C) a t the same time you apply pesticides D) d uring the day E) w hen it is cold, or is about to get cold 30) T he primary goal of conservation biology is to ______.

A) c atalog species B) c ounter the loss of biodiversity C) m aximize the land set aside for wildlife D) e stimate the total number of species that exist E) i ntegrate human culture back into nature

30) ______

31) M odern conservation science increasingly aims at ______.

A) s ustain entire ecosystems B) m aintenance of all genetic diversity within all species C) p rotection of federally listed endangered species D) l obbying for strict enforcement of the Endangered Species Act E) a ccomplishing both protection of federally listed endangered species and lobbying for strict enforcement of the Endangered Species Act

31) ______

32) S pecies found in only one place on Earth are called ______ species.

A) k eystone B) e xotic C) n ative D) h ot spot

32) ______ E) e ndemic

33) S mall areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ______.

A) b iodiverse environments B) b iologically magnified C) e xotic hot spots D) b iodiversity hot spots E) e ndemic environments

33) ______

34) A n assemblage of interacting ecosystems is a ______.

A) b iome B) m ovement corridor C) l andscape D) g ap E) h ot spot

34) ______

35) L andscape ecology ______.

A) i s the application of ecological principles to the study of land-use patterns B) i s the application of ecological principles to the design and construction of sustainable lawns and gardens C) d eals primarily with ecosystems in urban settings D) d eals with the study of the ranges of various animals E) f ocuses primarily on human-altered ecological systems

35) ______

36) A movement corridor ______.

A) i s always beneficial to a species B) i s the path most commonly used by an animal within its home range C) i s a path used by migratory animals when they move to their winter habitats D) i s always a natural component of the environment

36) ______

E) u nites otherwise isolated patches of quality habitat for a species 37) M ovement corridors are ______.

A) n ot beneficial, but they are harmful because they allow for the spread of disease B) a lways created by humans C) h armful because they allow for the spread of disease and beneficial because they allow for dispersal D) o nly found along stream sides E) b eneficial because they allow for dispersal, but not harmful

37) ______

38) S ustainable development ______.

A) w ill require global, multinational cooperation B) m ust be achieved if the human species is to survive C) w ill require making difficult decisions regarding the environment and lifestyle D) w ill require many humans to change their value systems E) i nvolves all of the above

38) ______

39) E . O. Wilson coined the term ______ for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms.

A) b iophobia B) l andscape ecology C) b ioethics D) b ioremediation E) b iophilia

39) ______

40) R efer to the following figure. This photo represents ______ community(ies).

40)

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) m ore than 2 E) y ou cannot tell from the photo 41) T he figure below shows the growth curves of two populations of Paramecium, P. aurelia and P. caudatum. From the data, we can conclude that ______.

___ ___

41)

___ ___

A) P . aurelia is the superior competitor in this habitat B) P . aurelia is a predator of P. caudatum C) P . caudatum is a parasite of P. aurelia D) t he ecological niches of the two species are very different E) P . aurelia and P. caudatum have a mutualistic relationship 42) R efer to the following figure. If there were an additional trophic level that consisted of organisms that prey on snakes, how much energy would be available to organisms at that trophic level?

42) ______

A) 1 00 kcal

B) 9 0%

C) 1 0 kcal

D) 5 ,000 kcal

E) 1 kcal

43) I n this ecosystem, a toxin that accumulates in body tissues would have the largest effect on ______.

43) ______

A) c orals that obtain their food from photosynthesizing dinoflagellates B) p hotosynthetic plants C) f ish that eat shrimp and other invertebrates D) h erbivorous shrimp E) t he toxin would affect all of these equally Use the following information to answer the following question(s).

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by a unicellular eukaryotic organism belonging to the genus Plasmodium. These eukaryotic organisms are transmitted from one person to another by the female Anopheles mosquito when it feeds on human blood. Within humans, the Plasmodium spp. destroy red blood cells and, without effective treatment, serious infections can lead to death. Currently, more than 400 million people are afflicted with malaria and between 1 to 3 million people die from it each year. Historically, a chemical compound called quinine has been used in developing effective drugs against malaria. In its natural environment, quinine is produced by certain trees native to South America.

This chemical is synthesized in the outer layer of tree trunks and acts as an herbivore deterrent.

44) B ased on the relationship between Plasmodium spp. and humans, these organisms would be considered ______.

A) d ecomposers B) h osts C) c arnivores D) p arasites E) p roducers

44) ______

45) H umans, mosquitoes, and Plasmodium together would be considered a(n) ______.

A) e cosystem B) b iosphere C) p opulation

45) ______

D) c ommunity E) p opulation and community 46) D espite being used for many years, quinine-based drugs have not led to the eradication of malaria and currently there are mosquitoes that are resistant to the compound. Which of the following were likely important in the development of this resistance to quinine?

A) n atural selection B) b iological magnification C) m utualism D) p redation E) i nterspecific competition

46) ______

1) C 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) E 9) E 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) E 21) E 22) E 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) E 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) E 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) E 37) C 38) E 39) E 40) B 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) D 45) D 46) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) S tructure in the living world is organized at hierarchical levels. Which of the following choices 1) _______ lists several of these, from least inclusive to most inclusive?

A) t issue, cell, organ system, organ, organism B) c ell, organism, organ, organ system, tissue C) c ell, organ system, tissue, organ, organism D) c ell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism E) c ell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism 2) T he connection between structure and ______ is a basic concept of biology.

A) f unction B) s pecies C) s ex D) a daptation E) s trength

2) _______

3) A physiologist is a biologist who studies the ______.

A) s tructure of living things B) e volution of animals C) p hysics of living things D) s tructure of body parts E) f unction of body parts

3) _______

4) W hich of the following is a major category of animal tissue?

A) c ardiac B) p lasma C) s kin

4) _______ D) b one

E) e pithelial

5) A main function of most types of epithelial tissue is ______.

A) s upport B) c ontraction C) s ensation D) a bsorption E) c overing surfaces

5) _______

6) C onnective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that ______.

A) t he cells are sparsely scattered through an extracellular matrix B) i t is not made up of cells C) i t is found only in humans D) i t has no essential function in an animal's body E) i t is made up of cells

6) _______

7) W hich one of the following types of tissue stores fat in the body?

A) b lood B) b one C) f ibrous connective tissue D) a dipose tissue E) c artilage

7) _______

8) W hat kind of connective tissue has a liquid matrix?

A) a dipose tissue

8) _______

B) n ervous tissue C) c artilage D) l oose connective tissue E) b lood 9) W hich of the following is the most common type of connective tissue in the typical human body?

A) l oose connective tissue B) a dipose tissue C) f ibrous connective tissue D) b one E) a dipose tissue

9) _______

10) W hich is the most abundant kind of tissue in an animal such as a zebra?

A) e pithelial B) n ervous C) b lood D) c onnectiv e

10) ______ E) m uscle

11) W hich of the following is true of a typical skeletal muscle?

A) I t can be enlarged by exercise.

B) I t is only found in heart tissue.

C) I t is found in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract.

D) I ts fibers do not have a striped appearance under the microscope.

E) C ontraction is involuntary.

11) ______

12) W hich of the following distinguishes cardiac muscle from both smooth and skeletal muscle?

A) I ts cells are branched.

B) I ts cells are striped.

C) I ts cells contract.

D) I t generally cannot be contracted at will.

E) I t generally can be contracted at will.

12) ______

13) T he main function of muscle tissue is ______.

A) c ontraction B) a bsorption C) s ensation D) s upport E) c overing surfaces

13) ______

14) W hich type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?

A) m uscle B) c onnectiv C) e pithelial D) b lood E) n ervous e

14) ______

15) T he basic unit of nervous tissue is the ______.

A) c ell body B) n erve C) n euron

15) ______ D) d endrite

E) a xon

16) W hich of the following is NOT a true statement about organs?

A) A n organ represents a higher level of structure than the tissues composing it.

B) O rgans play a role in homeostasis.

C) A n organ can only carry out the functions of its component tissues.

D) A n organ consists of several tissues.

E) A n organ consists of many cells.

16) ______

17) T he fact that every organism continuously exchanges chemicals and energy with its

surroundin

gs 17) indicates that organism s ______.

A) m aintain homeostasis

___ ___

B) a re closed systems C) t hermoregulate D) a re open systems E) o smoregulate 18) I magine an invertebrate that lives in an estuary where salinity varies cyclically with the tides. If this animal practices homeostasis with respect to the salt concentration of its body fluids, its salt concentration will show ______.

A) a cyclic variation similar to that of the surrounding water but more intense B) a cyclic variation identical to that of the surrounding water C) s light, continuous fluctuations D) s light variations, but only when the external salinity is changing rapidly E) n o variations

18) ______

19) H omeostasis ______.

A) i s a pathological condition B) i s the maintenance of a constant internal state C) i s the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment D) i s the way the internal environment influences the external environment E) o nly comes into play when you are ill

19) ______

20) T he vertebrate kidney helps to keep the acidity of the body fluids constant by varying the

20) ______

amount of hydrogen ions ( ) it secretes into the urine. You can confidently predict that this aspect of kidney function will be controlled by ______.

A) a hormone produced in the brain B) a hormone produced in the kidney itself C) a positive feedback mechanism D) a negative feedback mechanism E) n erve impulses from the brain 21) W hich of the following is most likely to be responsible if, when your blood sugar level rose, the level went back down?

A) t he use of the sugar for energy by your cells B) a homeostatic mechanism based on positive feedback C) d iabetes insipidus D) a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback E) t ype 2 diabetes

21) ______

22) M ost homeostatic mechanisms depend on ______.

A) p ositive feedback B) n egative feedback C) p redictable internal conditions D) p redictable environmental conditions E) p ositive and negative feedback

22) ______

23) W hich of the following animals is an ectotherm?

23) ______

A) s piny lobster B) f ield mouse C) h uman D) p arrot E) e lephant 24) W hich of the following animals is generating body heat to warm itself?

A) a turtle that moves to a warm, shallow part of a pond B) a lizard that lies on a warm rock C) a n insect that positions its body for maximal exposure to sunlight D) a beetle that absorbs solar radiation E) a moth that shivers its wings before flight

24) ______

25) W hen body temperature is too low, which of the following occurs?

A) M uscles relax.

B) T he thermostatic control center of the brain is deactivated.

C) S weat glands are activated.

D) B lood vessels at the body surface dilate and fill with warm blood.

E) B lood vessels in the skin constrict.

25) ______

26) W hich of the following is a physiological response that takes place in many animals when they get too hot?

A) i ncreased blood flow to the skin B) c ontraction of muscles C) c onstriction of blood vessels in the skin D) r etention of water E) s lowing of the heart rate

26) ______

27) W hich of the following statements apply to saltwater fish?

A) T hey pump out ions via the gills.

B) T he concentration of solutes in their internal fluids is lower than in the surrounding water.

C) T hey produce small amounts of highly concentrated urine.

D) T hey lose water by osmosis.

E) A ll of the above statements are true about saltwater fish.

27) ______

28) M arine animals that have body fluids with a solute concentration equal to that of the surrounding seawater are said to be ______.

A) o smoinformers B) o smoconformers C) o smoregulators D) h ypotonic E) h ypertonic

28) ______

29) W hich of the following is a source of water loss in humans?

A) b reathing B) p erspiration C) u rination D) d efecation E) a ll of the above

29) ______

30) W hich of the following is a function of the kidneys?

A) r eabsorbing water

30) ______

B) p roduction of urine C) r eabsorption of valuable solutes D) e limination of urea E) a ll of the above 31) W hat is the name of the functional unit of the kidney?

A) r enal unit B) u rinary bladder C) d ialysis D) f iltrate E) n ephron

31) ______

32) R eabsorption is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) k idney . . . urinary bladder B) u rinary bladder . . . outside C) b lood . . . filtrate D) b lood . . . nephron E) f iltrate . . . blood

32) ______

33) S ecretion is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) b lood . . . filtrate B) n ephron . . . blood C) k idney . . . urinary bladder D) u rinary bladder . . . outside E) f iltrate . . . blood

33) ______

34) E xcretion is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) b lood . . . filtrate B) f iltrate . . . blood C) k idneys . . . outside D) n ephron . . . blood E) k idney . . . urinary bladder

34) ______

35) T hrough which of these structures does urine leave the bladder?

A) n ephron B) r enal artery C) A DH D) u reter E) u rethra

35) ______

36) A diuretic is a substance that ______.

A) r egulates the contraction of cardiac muscle B) p romotes sweating C) i nhibits sweating D) p romotes urinary water loss E) i nhibits urinary water loss

36) ______

37) F ur, feathers, and blubber function in ______.

A) d ialysis B) t hermoregulation C) p ositive feedback D) w ater conservation

37) ______

E) o smoregulation 38) T he structures shown below are part of the _____.

A) r espiratory system B) d igestive system C) s keletal system D) m uscular system E) c irculatory system 39) T he structures shown below are part of the _____.

38) ______

39)

A) l ymphatic system B) r eproductive system C) u rinary system D) n ervous system E) e ndocrine system 40) T he figure below shows that ______.

___ ___

40)

A) h omeostatic mechanisms allow cats to maintain relatively constant internal conditions even when the external environment changes B) c ats experience no variations in their internal conditions C) c ats are the only animals with homeostatic mechanisms D) h omeostatic mechanisms allow cats to use their internal conditions to affect their external environments E) h omeostatic mechanisms allow cats to sense their external environments 41) E xamine the figure below, which shows negative feedback in a thermostat. If the room becomes too warm, ______.

___ ___

41)

___ ___

A) t he heater is turned off B) t he set point increases C) t he set point decreases D) t he heater is turned on E) h eat is produced Use the following information to answer the following question(s).

The dune-burrowing spider Seothyra sp. lives in the Namib desert on the southwestern coast of Africa. These spiders build silk-lined burrows with a sticky silk mat at the entrance to trap insect prey. While foraging during the day, the spider remains concealed in its burrow and shielded from direct sunlight when prey are not present.

During the day, environmental temperatures vary from 17 to 73°C (63-164°F). If a spider is prevented from retreating into its burrow, it shows signs of thermal stress at 49°C, whereas unrestrained spiders continue to forage at temperatures above 65°C. In addition, spiders respond more quickly to prey stimuli during the hottest times of the day and capture prey in significantly less time when temperatures are above 49°C. The captured arthropods (prey) tend to succumb more quickly to hot surface temperatures; they are more lethargic and struggle less when captured at the high temperature ranges.

42) B ased on the information in the paragraphs, spiders are likely ______.

A) n ot well adapted B) f everish C) e ctotherms

42) ______

D) e ndotherms E) s ometimes ectotherms and sometimes endotherms 43) W hen foraging spiders are too hot, they retreat into the cooler confines of their burrows. When temperatures are cooler, they move closer to the surface of the burrow to increase their body temperatures. What type of feedback system does this indicate?

A) p ositive and negative feedback B) n euronal feedback C) p ositive feedback D) h ormonal feedback E) n egative feedback

43) ______

44) W hen spiders show signs of thermal stress, this is an indication that they are unable to ______.

A) m ove B) t hermoregulate C) o smoregulate D) r eabsorb valuable ions E) e xcrete wastes

44) ______

1) E 2) A 3) E 4) E 5) E 6) A 7) D 8) E 9) A 10) E 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) E 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) E 25) E 26) A 27) E 28) B 29) E 30) E 31) E 32) E 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) E 44) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) L ions are ______.

1) _______ A) f ilter feeders B) b oth herbivores and carnivores C) o mnivores D) h erbivores E) c arnivores 2) D igestion is the ______.

A) b reakdown of food into small nutrient molecules that the body can absorb B) a bsorption of nutrients C) c onversion of glucose to ATP D) c onversion of glycogen to glucose E) c hurning of food in the stomach and intestine

2) _______

3) T he four stages of food processing are, in order: A) e limination, absorption, digestion, ingestion B) d igestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination C) i ngestion, digestion, absorption, elimination D) i ngestion, elimination, digestion, absorption E) i ngestion, absorption, elimination, digestion

3) _______

4) W hich of the following is an example of mechanical digestion?

A) c hewing B) p eristalsis C) t he breakdown of starch into glucose monomers D) t he breakdown of proteins into amino acids E) t he digestion of fats by lipases

4) _______

5) T he digestive sac of a jellyfish has ______ openings.

A) o ne B) t wo C) t hree

5) _______ D) f our

E) f ive

6) A n digestive tube is best defined as ______.

A) a tube-shaped digestive compartment that has two openings and through which food moves in one direction B) a tubelike digestive compartment that has two openings and consists, at minimum, of a mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestine, and anus C) a tube-shaped digestive compartment with either one or two openings D) t he compartment in which an animal digests its food E) a digestive cavity in which food is churned and mixed

6) _______

7) T he main function of salivary amylase is to ______.

A) s tore food B) d igest food C) m oisten food D) c atalyze the formation of vitamins E) a bsorb nutrients

7) _______

8) W hich of the following choices lists the organs of the alimentary canal in the correct order?

8) _______

A) e sophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine B) e sophagus, pharynx, stomach, large intestine, small intestine C) o ral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine D) o ral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine E) p harynx, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine 9) D igestion begins in the ______.

A) e sophagus B) s tomach

9) _______ C) t ongue

D) o ral cavity

E) p harynx

10) T he tongue does all of the following except ______.

A) p ush food into the pharynx B) s hape food into a ball C) m anipulate food D) t aste food E) s ecrete saliva

10) ______

11) M uscular action propels food through the alimentary canal by a process called ______.

A) d iffusion B) p eristalsis C) p rogurgitation D) c ircular contractions E) a ctive transport

11) ______

12) W hat is the epiglottis?

A) a muscular sphincter that closes off the entry to the trachea during swallowing B) a muscle that moves the trachea out of line with the pharynx during swallowing C) a flap of skin that covers the entry to the trachea except during breathing D) a flap that flips down to cover the entry to the trachea during swallowing E) a muscle that moves the esophagus into line with the pharynx during swallowing

12) ______

13) T he esophagus and trachea are both open to the ______.

A) p osterior oral cavity B) e piglottis C) p osterior nasal cavity D) l arynx E) p harynx

13) ______

14) A food ball moves through the esophagus by ______.

A) p eristalsis B) h ydrolysis C) r egurgitation D) s egmentation E) m astication

14) ______

15) T he stomach's gastric glands secrete ______.

A) m ucus, digestive enzymes, and hydrochloric acid B) m ucus only C) h ydrochloric acid only D) d igestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid E) d igestive enzymes only

15) ______

16) M ovement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine is regulated by ______.

16) ______

A) t he epiglottis B) a sphincter C) p eristalsis D) t he pharynx E) r everse peristalsis 17) W hich of the following is the usual cause of heartburn?

A) s ecretion of acid by the lining of the lower esophagus B) i rritation of the lower esophagus by substances in spicy food C) r etention of food at the bottom of the esophagus by a sphincter that is reluctant to open D) b ackflow of chyme from the stomach into the esophagus E) c ompression of the lower esophagus by an overfilled stomach

17) ______

18) W hich of the following mechanisms helps prevent gastric juice from digesting the stomach lining?

A) m ucus coating the inside surface of the stomach B) p epsin breaking down proteins C) t he inactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid D) m itosis generating enough new cells to replace the stomach lining every few days E) t he continuous secretion of gastric juice

18) ______

19) T he stomach mixes the food with the secretions of the stomach wall to form ______.

A) a cid gastrin B) a food ball C) g astrin D) g astric juice E) c hyme

19) ______

20) W hen the wall of the stomach fails to protect itself from erosion by gastric juice, the result is ______.

A) a duodenal ulcer B) h eartburn C) n ausea D) r everse peristalsis E) a gastric ulcer

20) ______

21) H ow does Helicobacter pylori cause gastric ulcers in humans?

A) I t neutralizes the acids of the stomach.

B) I t damages the stomach's mucus coat.

C) I t causes the production of excess acid in the stomach.

D) H . pylori does not cause gastric ulcers.

E) N one of the choices are correct.

21) ______

22) M ost nutrient absorption occurs in which part of the digestive system?

A) s mall intestine B) l arge intestine C) s tomach D) l iver E) p ancreas

22) ______

23) B ile from the liver is stored in the ______ before entering the intestine.

A) b ile duct

23) ______

B) p ancreas C) b lood D) i ntestinal wall E) g allbladder 24) W hat is the main digestive function of the pancreas?

24) ______

A) I t secretes mucus into the small intestine.

B) I t produces digestive enzymes and bile.

C) I t aids in the control of cholesterol.

D) I t produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.

E) I t produces bile.

25) S omeone with liver failure will, in particular, have problems with the digestion and absorption of ______.

A) v itamins B) m inerals C) f ats D) p roteins E) c arbohydrates

25) ______

26) W hich of the following nutrients begins undergoing digestion only when it reaches the small intestine?

A) p olypeptide B) c omplex carbohydrate C) f at D) s tarch E) p rotein

26) ______

27) T he epithelial cells lining the intestine have surface projections that increase the area for absorption. These projections are called ______.

A) f lagella B) r ugae C) m icrovilli D) c ilia E) v illi

27) ______

28) A bsorption of water is one major function of which of the following structures?

A) a ppendix B) c ecum C) e sophagus D) r ectum

28) ______ E) c olon

29) A ltogether, the body secretes about 7 liters of water into the alimentary canal each day. About what percentage of this water gets reabsorbed?

A) 3 0% B) 4 0% C) 5 0% D) 6 0% E) 9 0%

29) ______

30) W hich structure stores feces until they can be eliminated?

A) a nus B) r ectum C) s mall intestine D) a ppendix E) n one of the above

30) ______

31) _ _____ the direct source of energy for cells.

A) V itamins are B) F ats are C) A TP is D) G lucose is E) A mino acids are

31) ______

32) M ost human need about ______ kcal per day.

A) 5 00-700 B) 1 ,300-1,800 C) 2 ,500-3,000 D) 1 0,000-20,000 E) 2 0,000-30,000

32) ______

33) Y our metabolic rate depends on ______.

A) y our activity levels B) y our stress level C) y our age D) g enetics E) a ll of these

33) ______

34) Y ou must obtain ______.

A) o rganic raw materials to make your own molecules B) e ssential nutrients C) f uel to power all body activities D) a ll of the above E) n one of the above

34) ______

35) V itamins are ______.

A) o rganic molecules that are required in the diet in very small amounts B) r equired to synthesize most amino acids C) n utrients that we can synthesize from simpler molecules D) o nly required by children E) n one of the above

35) ______

36) C ertain amino acids are called essential because they ______.

A) a re required for making nucleic acids B) a re essential as an energy source C) a re required for making protein D) s tore energy E) c annot be made by the body from other compounds

36) ______

37) W hich mineral is needed as building material for our bones and teeth?

A) s odium B) c alcium C) c arbon D) p hosphorus E) s alt

37) ______

38) O n a global scale, the most significant type of malnutrition is _____.

A) p rotein deficiency B) i ron deficiency C) c alcium deficiency D) v itamin A deficiency E) v itamin C deficiency

38) ______

39) A norexia and bulimia ______.

A) o ccur when a person does not obtain all the essential amino acids

39) ______

B) o ccur mainly in countries where malnutrition is widespread C) o ccur mainly in affluent countries where thinness is idealized D) o ccur when the body does not receive enough vitamin C E) o ccur when there is a protein-deficient diet 40) T he figure below shows ______.

40) ______

A) t he addition of a water molecule to add an amino acid to a protein B) t he building of a protein by the enzyme pepsin C) t he chemical digestion of a protein D) t he mechanical digestion of a protein E) n one of the above 41) T he figure below shows that ______.

A) w hen the epiglottis closes the trachea, air cannot get into the trachea B) t he epiglottis squeezes food down the esophagus C) t he trachea is open when you are not swallowing D) p eristalsis moves food down the esophagus E) t he trachea is closed when you are not swallowing

41) ______

42) T he function of the structure shown below is ______.

A) t o neutralize stomach acids B) t o digest proteins C) t o aid in mechanical digestion of food D) t o absorb nutrients into the body E) t o break fats into smaller droplets 43) E xamine the graph below. A person with a BMI of 27 would be described as _____.

42) ______

43)

___ ___

A) i t depends on the person's height B) o bese C) u nderweight D) n ormal weight E) o verweight Please use the following information to answer the following question(s).

Several years ago, scientists discovered a mutation in zebrafish larvae that prevented the absorption of lipids from dietary fat. Larvae carrying this mutation died shortly after they hatched because all cells need fat to carry out their normal functions. More recent studies have determined that the mutation leading to this disorder occurs in a single gene on chromosome 10. When a normal gene is inserted into embryos carrying the mutation, these fish are able to process fats normally when they hatch. To discover more about the gene’s function, researchers examined and compared cells from normal and mutant fish larvae under a microscope. A major difference was noticed in the intestinal cells. The Golgi apparatus in the intestinal cells of mutant larvae are much larger than those of normal larvae. As the Golgi apparatus processes fats and proteins, the lipids become trapped, resulting in the abnormally large size of the organelle.

44) B efore fats can be digested by enzymes, what substance is needed?

A) c hyme B) b ile C) p epsin D) l ipase E) n o substance is needed

44) ______

45) W hich portion of the digestive tract is specialized for absorption of the nutrients?

45) ______

A) s mall intestine B) m outh C) s tomach D) l arge intestine E) p harynx

1) E 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) E 11) B 12) D 13) E 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) E 20) E 21) B 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) C 28) E 29) E 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) E 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) E 44) B 45) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) S imple animals can exchange gases directly with the environment by ______.

1) _______ A) s olute pumping B) o smosis C) b ulk transport D) d iffusion E) a ctive transport 2) I n humans, oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body by the ______ system.

A) e ndocrine

2) _______

B) c irculatory C) l ymphatic D) r eproductive E) d igestive 3) W hich one of the following is a characteristic of open circulatory systems but not closed circulatory systems?

A) a vascular system

3) _______

B) o pen-ended blood vessels C) b lood D) a heart E) A ll of the above are found in both open and closed circulatory systems.

4) I n animals with a closed circulatory system, gas exchange occurs across the thin walls of ______. 4) _______ A) a rterioles B) a rteries C) c apillaries D) v enules E) v eins 5) A ll veins carry ______.

A) b lood away from the heart

5) _______

B) i nterstitial fluid C) o xygen-poor blood D) b lood toward the heart E) o xygen-rich blood 6) T race the path of a red blood cell in a circuit that takes it from the capillary bed of the right kidney to the capillary bed of the left kidney. Assume that you are doing this for an animal with a double circulation system.

A) c apillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary veins → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary arteries → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles→ capillary bed of left kidney B) c apillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney C) c apillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney D) c apillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → right atrium → right ventricle →

6) _______

pulmonary veins →

capillaries of lungs → pulmonary arteries → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney E) c apillary bed of right kidney → arterioles → arteries → aorta → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → veins → venules → capillary bed of left kidney

7) W hich of these animals has a double circulatory system?

A) e arthworm

7) _______

B) h ydra C) d og D) g rasshopper E) f ish 8) W hich of these carry(ies) oxygen-poor blood?

A) l eft ventricle

8) _______

B) l eft atrium C) a orta D) p ulmonary veins E) p ulmonary arteries 9) A heart murmur occurs when there is a defect in _____.

A) t he SA node B) t he timing of the cardiac cycle C) a heart valve D) t he AV node E) t he aorta

9) _______

10) W hy is blood pressure higher during systole than during diastole?

A) M ore blood flows into the heart during systole than during diastole.

10) ______

B) T he contraction of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against the valves separating the atria from the ventricles.

C) T he contraction of the heart during diastole decreases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

D) T he relaxation of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

E) T he contraction of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

11) T he basic rhythm of the heartbeat is set by the ______.

A) " fight-or-flight" hormone

11) ______

B) A V node C) v entricles D) a tria E) S A node 12) I f your blood pressure were 120/70, it would mean that ______.

A) w hen your ventricles relax, the pressure against your arterial walls is 120 and when your ventricles contract, the pressure against your arterial walls is 70 B) y our blood pressure during diastole is 120 and your blood pressure during systole is 70

12) ______

C) y our blood pressure during systole is 120 and your heart rate is 70 D) y our blood pressure during systole is 120 and your blood pressure during diastole is 70 E) y ou have high blood pressure 13) B lood pressure that is consistently ______ or higher would indicate that you have hypertension.

A) 1 00/75 B) 1 30/80 C) 1 10/85 D) 1 40/90 E) 1 20/80

13) ______

14) W hen you examine fluid that you have drawn from a blood vessel, you find that it is relatively high in carbon dioxide and waste products. Assuming that the fluid comes from a healthy individual, you conclude that the blood vessel from which you have drawn blood could have been ______.

A) a n artery

14) ______

B) e ither an artery or an arteriole C) a venule D) t he aorta E) a n arteriole 15) B lood pressure is lowest in ______.

A) c apillaries B) v enules

15) ______ C) a rteries

D) a rterioles

E) v eins

16) P lasma is primarily ______.

A) f ibrinogen B) r ed blood cells C) w ater D) w hite blood cells E) p latelets

16) ______

17) A s a consequence of red blood cells' lack of nuclei and other organelles, they ______.

A) c an carry more calcium

17) ______

B) c ontain less hemoglobin than they might otherwise be able to carry C) h ave more surface area available for gas exchange D) a re spherical E) h ave a small surface area 18) W hich of the following can cause anemia?

A) m ineral deficiencies B) a ll of the above C) e xcessive blood loss D) v itamin deficiencies E) s ickle-cell disease

18) ______

19) W hich of these blood components are responsible for initiating the clotting process?

A) w hite blood cells

19) ______

B) l eukocytes C) r ed blood cells D) p latelets E) e rythrocytes 20) W hite blood cells play a particularly important role in ______.

20) ______

A) f ighting infections B) b lood clotting C) c arrying carbon dioxide D) c arrying oxygen E) h emoglobin transport 21) L eukemia ______.

A) d ecreases the production of white blood cells

21) ______

B) i ncreases the production of red blood cells C) i s a cancer of the white blood cells D) i s a cancer that arises in the lungs E) i ncreases the formation of platelets 22) Y ou increase your risk of cardiovascular disease by reducing your consumption of ______.

A) p roducts that are high in cholesterol

22) ______

B) p roducts containing trans fats C) f ruits and vegetables D) r ed meats E) t obacco products 23) T he buildup of plaque in the walls of arteries and the narrowing of the passages through which blood can flow results in ______.

A) l eukemia

23) ______

B) c ancer C) a nemia D) l ow blood pressure E) a therosclerosis 24) G as exchange requires a surface that is both ______.

A) p rotected within the body and connected to the circulatory system

24) ______

B) p ermeable to oxygen and avascular C) p ermeable to oxygen and impermeable to carbon dioxide D) c iliated and flagellated E) t hin and moist 25) E arthworms use ______ as their respiratory surface.

A) t racheae

25) ______

B) t heir skin C) l ungs D) g ills E) a ll of the above 26) W hat structure do lobster use for gas exchange?

A) g ills B) s kin C) s hell 27) I nsects breathe using ______.

A) l ungs B) t racheae

26) ______ D) t racheae

E) l ungs 27) ______

C) t heir entire outer skin D) g ills E) b ook lungs 28) A nimals need O2 because it ______.

28) ______

A) i s necessary to make CO2 B) c ounterbalances the CO2 in the atmosphere C) h elps animals synthesize proteins D) p lays a role in obtaining energy from food E) i s needed to deliver hemoglobin to the cells of an animal's body 29) T he ______ provide(s) a common passageway for both food and air.

A) b ronchioles

29) ______

B) p harynx C) b ronchi D) t rachea E) a lveoli 30) W hat path does a molecule of O2 take from the nose to the respiratory surface?

30) ______

A) p harynx → larynx → trachea → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus B) p harynx → larynx → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus → trachea C) l arynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus D) p harynx → larynx → trachea → bronchiole → bronchus → alveolus E) b ronchiole → alveolus → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchus 31) I n the human respiratory system, gas exchange occurs across the cells of the ______.

A) a lveoli

31) ______

B) p harynx C) d iaphragm D) b ronchi E) t rachea 32) T ogether, inhalation and exhalation are referred to as ______.

A) b reathing

32) ______

B) a therosclerosis C) d iffusion D) a ctive transport E) n egative pressure 33) B reathing is regulated by ______.

A) t he spinal cord

33) ______

B) e nergy intake C) c ontrol centers in the brain stem D) t he circulatory system E) t he diaphragm and chest muscles 34) W hen you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes leads initially to the urge

to breathe

again?

34)

___ ___

A) f alling oxygen level B) r ising carbon dioxide level C) r ising oxygen level D) f alling carbon dioxide level E) r ising carbon dioxide level and falling oxygen level 35) O xygen is mostly transported through the body ______.

A) b ound to carbon

35) ______

B) d issolved in red blood cells C) b ound to hemoglobin D) d issolved in the blood E) b ound to dissolved iron 36) C igarette smoking ______.

A) k ills about 440,000 Americans every year

36) ______

B) i rritates the cells lining the bronchi and trachea C) a ccounts for 90% of all cases of lung cancer D) c an affect the health of nonsmokers through secondhand smoke E) a ll of the above 37) W hy do cigarette smokers cough more than most people do?

A) B y raising the pressure in the lungs, coughing forces more oxygen into the blood.

B) C igarette smoking partially paralyzes the lungs; coughing exchanges the resultant "dead air."

C) C oughing stimulates blood flow to the lungs.

D) T he tar in cigarette smoke tends to make alveoli stick closed. Coughing opens them.

E) C oughing is the respiratory system's attempt to clear itself of the toxins found in smoke.

38) T he following figure illustrates ______.

37) ______

38)

A) s ystolic blood pressure B) t he systemic circuit C) a n open circulatory system D) t he pulmonary circuit E) d iastolic blood pressure 39) E xamine the figure below. The one-way flow of blood in veins is maintained by ______.

___ ___

39)

A) t heir thick walls B) b lood pressure C) v alves D) m uscles pressing against the veins E) p ositive pressure from the chest cavity 40) E xamine the structure of blood vessels in the following figure. Which one of the following has the structure best suited to chemical exchange between the blood and tissues?

___ ___

___ ___

40)

A) arteriole

B) v enule

C) c apillary

D) a rtery

E) v ein

41) E xamine the figure shown. During negative pressure breathing, ______.

A) t he diaphragm moves downward and the rib muscles contract, increasing the size of the chest cavity and decreasing the air pressure within the chest cavity B) a n increase in air pressure within the lungs draws air in C) t he nasal cavities expand and the diaphragm relaxes D) t he diaphragm moves downward and the rib muscles relax, increasing the size of the chest

41) ______

cavity and

decreasing the air pressure within the chest cavity E) t he diaphragm and rib muscles contract, decreasing the size of the chest cavity and increasing the pressure within the chest cavity

42) T he figure below shows that ______.

42) ______

A) e ach iron atom can bind four oxygen molecules B) h emoglobin can bind to either oxygen or carbon dioxide C) c apillaries have a structure that resembles a net D) a red blood cell contains four hemoglobin molecules E) a hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four molecules of oxygen Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Blood flowing away from the heart is under tremendous pressure, able to travel to just about any portion of the body.

However, blood pressure drops considerably as it moves away from the heart. When blood finally reaches capillaries, the blood pressure drops to nearly zero. Therefore, when a person is standing, blood returning from the feet is not moved back towards the heart by heart contractions.

43) B lood is propelled back to the heart by ______.

A) t he negative pressure of the heart pulling blood into the empty chambers

43) ______

B) c ontractions of the walls of capillaries C) s keletal muscle contractions around veins and the action of one-way valves D) t he natural flow of blood into ever larger blood vessels leading to the heart E) r hythmic contractions of muscles in the walls of veins and the action of one-way valves 44) A scientist claimed that students might get better scores on written exams if they wiggle their legs frequently while taking an exam. This could work (but it is not better than studying) because wiggling legs might ______.

A) p ropel more blood from the legs back to the heart, increasing oxygen flow to the brain B) s hake out more of the carbon dioxide that lingers in the blood returning to the heart C) h elp open valves in the veins that carry blood back to the heart D) b reak up blood clots in the legs, which slow the movement of blood back to the heart E) a dd more oxygen to the blood that is returning to the heart

44) ______

45) B ecause of the changes in blood pressure through the circulatory system, the best way to feel a pulse is by pressing a finger against ______.

A) a n artery B) a vein C) e ither an artery or a vein D) a capillary E) a venule

45) ______

1) D 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) E 11) E 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) E 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) E 24) E 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) E 37) E 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) A 45) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hich of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?

1) _______ A) s everal amino acid toxins B) s everal antibodies C) i ncreased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation D) o bstacles such as skin and mucous membranes E) n one of the above 2) W hat kinds of cells eat whatever foreign cells and molecules they encounter and recognize?

A) p latelets B) p hagocytic cells C) i nterferons D) r ed blood cells E) n atural killer cells

2) _______

3) W hich of the following kinds of protein circulates in the blood and coats the surfaces of microbes to make them more susceptible to engulfment by phagocytic cells?

A) p yrogen B) a ntigen C) i nterferon D) c omplement E) p rostaglandin

3) _______

4) A major function of natural killer cells is to ______.

A) p hagocytize microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies B) a ttack and kill pathogenic microorganisms in a nonspecific way C) a ttack virus-infected cells in an antigen-specific way D) a ttack virus-infected cells in a nonspecific way E) t ag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies

4) _______

5) C omplement proteins assist the immune response by ______.

A) c oating the surface of microbes, making it easier for other defense cells to phagocytize them B) r educing inflammation C) e nhancing the effects of antibiotics D) a ll of the above E) n one of the above

5) _______

6) A researcher detects interferon in a laboratory rat and concludes that ______.

A) c ancerous cells are present in the rat B) t he rat has, or recently had, a viral infection C) t he complement system is activated by exposure to an antigen D) t he rat's diet is deficient in calcium E) n one of the above

6) _______

7) W hich of the following is a response of our innate defense system?

A) i nflammation B) p assive immunity C) m ovement of red blood cells to the affected site D) a ctive immunity

7) _______

E) c ell-mediated immunity 8) W hen you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release which of the following chemical alarm signals?

A) a nti-interferon B) c omplement C) p yrogens D) i nterferon E) h istamine

8) _______

9) H istamine ______.

A) c auses local swelling of the affected area B) c auses local blood vessels to restrict fluid loss C) d ecreases blood flow to the affected area D) c auses local blood vessels to constrict E) a ll of the above

9) _______

10) T he major result of the inflammatory response is to ______.

A) i nitiate the release of interferons B) p romote the division of white blood cells C) i nitiate the production of natural killer cells D) d isinfect and clean damaged tissues E) i nitiate the production of antibodies

10) ______

11) W hy do diseases involving widespread infection often result in a fever?

A) T he inflammatory and immune responses result in extra heat production.

B) T he microorganisms trick the brain's temperature control center into creating a hot environment that favors their growth.

C) T he rapid multiplication of the invading microorganisms results in extra heat production.

D) T he brain's temperature control center responds to inflammation by creating a hot environment unfavorable to the growth of microorganisms.

E) N one of the choices is correct.

11) ______

12) T he two main functions of the lymphatic system are ______.

A) c oagulating blood and fighting infections B) p roducing hormones that regulate the immune system and fighting infections C) p roducing hormones that regulate the immune system and coagulating blood D) r eturning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and fighting infections E) r eturning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and coagulating blood

12) ______

13) A ntibodies are ______.

A) a mino acids B) c arbohydrates C) l ipids D) n ucleic acids E) p roteins

13) ______

14) A substance that can elicit an immune response from a lymphocyte is called a(n) ______.

A) i nterferon B) c omplement C) a ntigen D) a ntibody

14) ______

E) h istamine 15) O ne kind of vaccine consists of a solution containing ______.

A) h orse serum B) a harmless variant of a disease-causing microbe C) a ntibodies D) B cells E) a ntibiotics

15) ______

16) W hich of the following cell types are specifically responsible for humoral immunity?

A) n atural killer cells B) B cells C) i nterferons D) p hagocytic cells E) T cells

16) ______

17) W hich of the following cell types are specifically responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

A) B cells B) n atural killer cells C) p hagocytic cells D) i nterferons E) T cells

17) ______

18) T he immune system is capable of mounting specific responses to particular microorganisms because ______.

A) t he body is able to make different antigen receptors depending on the invading microorganism B) l ymphocytes are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection C) t he body contains an enormous diversity of lymphocytes, each with a specific kind of antigen receptor D) t he body is able to determine which type of B and T cells to make E) b ody cells are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection

18) ______

19) A ntibodies ______.

A) a ssist in destroying particular antigens B) c onsist of three polypeptide chains C) a re shaped like the letter B D) a re generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigen E) a ll of the above

19) ______

20) T he functions of antibodies include ______.

A) t he phagocytosis of invading bacteria B) s timulating the production of antigens C) t he clumping of invader cells D) t he deactivation of complement proteins E) s timulating invaders to divide and multiply

20) ______

21) W hen in its life cycle does a B cell first exhibit its particular surface antibody?

A) a fter it encounters several antigens B) b efore it ever encounters an antigen C) a fter it encounters a single antigen D) b efore the stem cell giving rise to it divides

21) ______

E) a fter the memory cell giving rise to it divides 22) W hen a B or T cell is primed by an interaction with its particular antigen, the cell ______.

A) e ngulfs the antigen and destroys it B) d ies, killing the antigen C) g rows, divides, and differentiates further D) c onverts the antigen to a nonharmful form E) s ticks to other cells with attached antigens to form a large clot

22) ______

23) M onoclonal antibodies are produced ______.

A) b y cancerous tumors B) b y cells that are formed when a B cell is fused to a T cell C) w hen a female is pregnant D) d uring clonal selection E) w hen a person is infected by a single type of pathogen

23) ______

24) A primary immune response is the ______.

A) i mmune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen B) i mmune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism C) p roduction of primary-type antibodies in the first day of exposure to a microorganism D) i mmune response elicited by the primary antibody of a disease-causing microorganism

24) ______

E) i mmune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen 25) W hich of the following cell types initiates a secondary immune response?

A) e ffector cells B) m emory cells C) i mmature leukocytes D) p lasma cells E) n atural killer cells

25) ______

26) T he secondary response in humoral immunity occurs when memory cells bind to ______.

A) p articular antibodies B) p articular hormones C) p lasma cells D) p articular clones E) a ntigens

26) ______

27) A humoral-type secondary immune response differs from the corresponding primary immune response in that the secondary response ______.

A) r esults in fewer antibodies in the blood B) i s slower C) i s less effective D) i s able to target microorganisms even if they have altered their surface antigens E) n one of the above

27) ______

28) T he basic function of T cells is to identify and destroy invaders in our ______.

A) i nterstitial fluid B) b rain C) c ells D) b lood or lymph E) i mmune system

28) ______

29) W hich of the following substances does a cytotoxic T cell secrete to destroy a target cell?

A) p yrogen B) c omplement C) a ntibodies D) p erforin E) i nterferon

29) ______

30) _ _____ may destroy infected cells.

A) A llergens B) P hagocytic cells C) C ytotoxic T cells D) B cells E) H elper T cells

30) ______

31) W hich of the following compounds do mast cells produce?

A) i nterferon B) p erforin C) h istamine D) a llergens E) c omplement

31) ______

32) A naphylactic shock is an example of an ______.

A) a cquired autoimmune disease B) a llergic response C) a cquired immunodeficiency disease D) a utoimmune disease E) i mmunodeficiency disease

32) ______

33) I t is best to receive an organ transplant from a donor who ______.

A) i s a sibling B) r arely consumes alcohol C) l ooks like you D) b est matches your self proteins E) d oes not have any allergies

33) ______

34) W hich type of immune response is always disadvantageous to a person?

A) i nflammatory B) h umoral-mediated C) c ell-mediated D) a utoimmune diseases E) A ll immune responses are advantageous.

34) ______

35) W hich of the following statements best explains why people with Hodgkin's disease often show signs of immunodeficiency?

A) H odgkin's disease occurs when an immune response elicited by streptococcal bacteria kills normal heart cells as well.

B) T he Hodgkin's disease virus infects and destroys B cells.

C) H odgkin's disease consists of a cancerous proliferation of one kind of lymphocyte.

D) H odgkin's disease involves the deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.

E) B oth Hodgkin's disease itself and the radiation and chemotherapy used to treat it tend to depress the immune system.

35) ______

36) W hich of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?

A) h elper T cells B) n atural killer cells C) c ytotoxic T cells D) p hagocytic cells E) m emory cells

36) ______

37) W hat has caused the evolution of drug-resistant strains of HIV? A) t he joining of antibodies to HIV B) t he radiation of HIV from the sun C) t he merger of different AIDS viruses into one new virus D) a nti-AIDS drugs E) g enetic engineering of the virus in research laboratories

37) ______

38) E xamine the numerous long structures extending from the surface of some of the cells in the following figure. Cells with these long structures could be found lining ______.

38) ______

A) t he trachea B) t he mouth C) t he digestive tract D) v eins E) a rteries 39) T he figure below shows a Y-shaped antibody molecule. How many antigens can a single antibody molecule bind?

___ ___

39)

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) 4

40) T hree B cells are shown in the figure. Which of these B cells will begin to grow, divide, and differentiate further?

A) o nly the B cell on the left B) o nly the B cell in the middle

40) ______

C) o nly the B cell on the right D) a ll three B cells E) y ou cannot tell from the information provided 41) E xamine the photograph of the hand in the following figure. The person’s joints are severely damaged because ______.

41) ______

A) t he immune system has damaged the cartilage and bone of the joints B) c ytotoxic T cells have destroyed the bone in the fingers C) T cells have reacted against the myelin in the hand D) a viral infection has attacked the cartilage of the fingers E) B cells have destroyed the blood vessels in the hand Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Avian influenza is a viral infection that naturally occurs in wild birds with few damaging effects. However, avian influenza is highly contagious and can quickly kill domesticated birds. Some human influenza viruses are similar to the avian influenza. People infected with avian influenza develop typical flu symptoms (fever, cough, muscle aches).

However, symptoms may become more severe and life-threatening. If avian influenza evolves into a form that is easily transmissible from person to person, a global pandemic of widespread human death might occur.

42) O ne way to prevent a global pandemic of avian influenza would be to ______.

A) d evelop a vaccine against the avian influenza virus B) p rovide most people with drugs that stimulate the production of pyrogens C) k eep large doses of histamine available to treat anyone who shows signs of infection D) d evelop drugs that could effectively block anaphylactic shock E) t reat any infected birds with large doses of antibiotics

42) ______

43) W hich of the following cells would be active during an immune response to a viral infection?

A) n atural killer cells B) a ll of the above C) p hagocytic cells D) T cells E) B cells

43) ______

44) H umans that are infected with avian influenza are likely to have elevated levels of ______.

44) ______

A) h istamine B) l ysozyme C) i nterferons D) a llergens E) p yrogens

1) D 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) E 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) E 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) E 25) B 26) E 27) E 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) E 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) H ormones are usually transported through ______ and affect only cells with ______.

1) _______ A) m icrotubules . . . microvilli B) d ucts . . . cilia C) l ymph vessels . . . cell membranes D) b lood vessels . . . specific receptors E) i ntercellular junctions . . . cell junctions 2) I f a cell is like a house, which one of the following is most similar to the way that a steroid hormone works?

A) R adio signals are received by a stereo in your bedroom.

B) Y ou meet some friends at a restaurant and share stories.

C) A visitor to your home knocks on your front door.

D) A postal worker leaves mail for you at your front door.

E) Y ou walk outside of your home to get a better signal on your cell phone.

2) _______

3) H ormones regulate ______.

A) g rowth B) r eproduction C) m etabolism D) m aturation E) a ll of the above

3) _______

4) H ormones that bind to plasma membrane receptors ______.

A) c annot pass through cell membranes B) a re produced in the interstitial fluid C) b ind to DNA and cause changes in transcription D) a re steroid hormones E) a re small hydrophilic molecules

4) _______

5) N onsteroid hormones are derived from ______.

A) n ucleic acids B) l ong-chain fatty acids C) a mino acids D) c arbohydrates E) c holesterol

5) _______

6) H ormones are made from all of the following classes of compounds except ______.

A) s teroids B) p roteins C) p eptides D) c arbohydrates E) a mines

6) _______

7) A cell that is affected by a particular steroid hormone would be expected to have ______.

A) e nzymes that are activated or inactivated by the hormone's second messenger B) D NA sites that interact with the hormone C) a receptor inside the cell that binds the hormone D) a cell-surface receptor that binds the hormone

7) _______

E) e nzymes that are activated or inactivated by the hormone-receptor complex 8) F rom what kind of molecules are steroid hormones derived?

A) n ucleic acids B) a mino acids C) c arbohydrates and amino acids D) c holesterol E) c arbohydrates

8) _______

9) S teroid hormones ______.

A) b ind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus B) t rigger a signal transduction pathway when they bind to a receptor C) b ind to mRNA in the cytoplasm to initiate transcription D) c onsist of large glycoprotein molecules E) a ll of the above

9) _______

10) H ormones derived from amino acids can cause different effects in different cells depending on the type of cell and ______.

A) t he particular organelle that is targeted B) i ts signal transduction pathway C) t he binding of the hormone to either DNA or RNA D) t he nature of the hormone’s interaction with different parts of the cytoskeleton E) a ll of the above

10) ______

11) W hich of the following has both endocrine and nonendocrine functions?

A) t hyroid gland B) s alivary gland C) p ancreas D) s keletal muscle E) p ituitary gland

11) ______

12) W hich of the following is a nonsteroid hormone?

A) a glucocorticoid B) g lucagon C) e strogen D) a ndrogen E) a progestin

12) ______

13) W hich of the following is part of the brain?

A) p arathyroid B) h ypothalamus C) t hymus D) a drenal cortex E) t hyroid

13) ______

14) W hich one of the following statements is true?

A) I nhibiting hormones make the anterior pituitary secrete hormones.

B) T he pituitary secretes hormones that influence numerous body functions.

C) T he pituitary is the master control center of the entire endocrine system.

D) T he posterior pituitary is composed of endocrine cells.

E) T he anterior pituitary is composed of nervous tissue.

14) ______

15) F SH is a hormone that ______.

A) s timulates growth B) r aises blood glucose levels C) l owers blood glucose levels D) i ncreases blood pressure E) h elps to regulate the female menstrual cycle

15) ______

16) W hich of the following hormones is made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary?

A) e strogen B) A DH C) c alcitonin D) g rowth hormone E) i nsulin

16) ______

17) W hich of these hormones is countered by diuretics such as alcohol?

A) G H B) P TH C) A DH D) F SH

17) ______ E) g lucagon

18) W hich of the following choices does NOT pair an endocrine gland or hormone with an aspect of metabolism that it regulates?

A) o varyfemale sexual characteristics B) p rolactinblood potassium levels C) p ancreasblood glucose levels D) i nsulinblood glucose levels E) p arathyroidblood calcium levels

18) ______

19) W hich of the following hormones affects the greatest variety of cell types?

A) g rowth hormone B) c alcitonin C) i nsulin D) e ndorphin E) p rolactin

19) ______

20) E ating very spicy food stimulates the release of ______.

A) g lucagon B) e ndorphins C) i nsulin D) A DH E) c alcitonin

20) ______

21) O ne of your best friends loves to run long distances. You ask her what she enjoys about running.

In addition to good physical fitness, she tells you that after a run she feels extra happy. You suspect that her joy might be related to increased production of ______ by the anterior pituitary gland.

A) i buprofen B) i nhibiting hormones C) p rolactin D) e ndorphins E) r eleasing hormones

21) ______

22) W hich gland requires the element iodine to produce its hormones?

A) a drenal medulla

22) ______

B) t hyroid C) p ituitary D) p ineal E) o vary 23) _ _____ can be a symptom of hypothyroidism.

A) G raves' disease B) G oiter C) A low sperm count D) H ot flashes E) H yperactivity 24) C alcitonin is antagonistic to ______.

A) F SH B) P TH

23) ______

24) ______ C) P RL

D) G H

E) L H

25) W hich of the following may be a consequence of excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone?

A) l oss of calcium from the blood B) l oss of calcium from the bone C) g iantism D) e xhaustion of the immune system E) c onvulsive contractions of skeletal muscles

25) ______

26) W hich of the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?

A) H igh levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.

B) I nsulin is a steroid hormone; glucagon is a protein hormone.

C) I nsulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.

D) T hey are antagonistic hormones.

E) T hey work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.

26) ______

27) W hich structure exerts primary control over the concentration of sugar in the blood?

A) p ineal B) p arathyroid C) p ituitary D) l iver E) p ancreas

27) ______

28) W hen the concentration of glucose in the blood rises following the digestion of a meal, what is the hormonal response?

A) I nsulin is released, but not glucagon.

B) T he total amount of insulin in the blood decreases.

C) N either glucagon nor insulin is released.

D) B oth glucagon and insulin are released.

E) G lucagon is released, but not insulin.

28) ______

29) W hich of the following hormones causes a rise in the concentration of sugar in the blood?

A) m elatonin B) o xytocin C) c alcitonin D) g lucagon E) i nsulin

29) ______

30) W hat is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, such as frequent urination?

A) a n inability of the body's cells to retain glucose they have absorbed from the blood B) a n inability of the body's cells to absorb enough glucose from the blood C) a failure of the gastrointestinal epithelium to absorb enough glucose from food

30) ______

D) a failure of the kidney tubules to reabsorb enough glucose from the urine E) a n inability of the body's cells to switch from glucose metabolism to fat metabolism between meals 31) W hich of the following is almost always associated with being overweight and underactive?

A) t ype 1 diabetes B) t ype 2 diabetes C) t ype 3 diabetes D) h yperthermia E) h ypoglycemia

31) ______

32) W hich of the following glands is located nearest the kidneys?

A) a drenal glands B) o varies C) p ineal glands D) p arathyroid glands E) p ancreas

32) ______

33) W hich of the following glands secretes hormones that enable the body to respond to stress?

A) p ineal B) s alivary C) p ancreas D) a drenal E) p arathyroid

33) ______

34) E pinephrine ______.

A) i ncreases breathing rate B) d ecreases metabolic rate C) d ecreases heart rate D) d ecreases blood pressure E) i ncreases absorption of glucose by the digestive tract

34) ______

35) W hich of the following is(are) mostly involved in a long-lasting response to stress?

A) a ndrogens B) m ineralocorticoids C) m elatonin D) o xytocin E) g lucocorticoids

35) ______

36) W hich of the following hormones can make a person susceptible to infection when administered for too long as a drug?

A) g lucocorticoids B) g lucagon C) a ndrogens D) a ntidiuretic hormone E) g rowth hormone

36) ______

37) H yposecretion of ______ may inhibit your response to stress.

A) i nsulin B) A CTH C) P RL D) P TH

37) ______

38) E strogens stimulate the development of ______.

A) s perm production

E) G H 38) ______

B) b reasts C) f acial hair D) l arger skeletal muscles E) a low-pitched voice 39) W hich of the following are sex hormones?

A) p rogestins B) a ndrogens C) e strogens D) a ll of the above E) n one of the above

39) ______

40) W hich of the following is secreted by a sexually mature, premenopausal woman?

A) p rogesterone B) t estosterone C) e strogen D) p rogestins E) a ll of the above

40) ______

41) E xamine the following figure. What is special about the target cells that allows them to respond to the hormone? Only the target cell ______.

41) ______

A) h ave blood vessels going to them B) l ocated in organs next to the kidneys can respond C) a re close enough to the blood vessels to respond D) h ave specific receptors to the hormone E) t ouch the blood vessels 42) E xamine the figure below. If blood glucose levels decline, ______.

42)

______

A) l iver cells convert glucose to glycogen B) y ou must have just eaten a carbohydrate-rich meal C) t he pancreas releases insulin, which causes glucose to be released into the blood D) b ody cells take up more glucose E) t he pancreas releases glucagon, which causes glucose to be released into the blood

43) E xamine the figure below. The behavior exhibited by these elephant seals is promoted by _____.

43) ______

A) c alcitonin B) g rowth hormone C) e strogen D) t estosterone E) a ntagonistic hormones Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and an increased susceptibility to bone fractures. It threatens more than half of all Americans over the age of 50. Women are about four times more likely to suffer from the disease than men. Osteoporosis may progress undetected until bones become so weak that they break during common activities.

Prevention of osteoporosis includes regular weight-bearing exercise, recommended intake of calcium and vitamin D, and avoidance of smoking and excessive alcohol.

44) I n the human body, calcium levels are regulated by the ______.

A) i nteractions of glucocorticoids and androgens B) a ntagonistic actions of insulin and glucagon C) c ombined effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine D) a ntagonistic actions of calcitonin and parathyroid hormone E) i nteractions of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone

44) ______

45) O steoporosis could be caused by overactivity of ______.

A) g lucocorticoids B) t he adrenal cortex C) t he adrenal medulla D) t he parathyroid gland E) t he thyroid gland

45) ______

46) S oon after eating a calcium-rich breakfast of yogurt and fortified cereal, your blood levels of calcium increase, stimulating the release of ______.

A) p arathyroid hormone B) g lucagon C) c alcitonin D) g lucocorticoids E) i nsulin

46) ______

1) D 2) A 3) E 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) E 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) E 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) E 41) D 42) E 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hy has there been a dramatic increase in the number of multiple births in the United States 1) _______ since 1980?

A) W omen have increasingly used fertility drugs.

B) T he switch to birth control pills that use testosterone has increased ovulation frequency.

C) H ormones from the nation's food supply have caused women to release extra eggs.

D) T he increased use of thyroid hormones has caused both ovaries to ovulate extra eggs.

E) N obody knows. It is a big mystery.

2) W hich of the following is an aspect of asexual reproduction that is sometimes disadvantageous?

A) I t allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates.

B) I t saves the time and energy of gamete production.

C) I t produces genetically uniform populations.

D) I t allows a population to expand quickly to exploit available resources.

E) I t allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly.

2) _______

3) A sexual reproduction A) g enerates enormous genetic variation.

B) c reates individuals with unique combinations of genes.

C) i s an effective way for animals to expand their population quickly and exploit an available environment.

D) p rovides greater adaptability to changing environments.

E) n one of the above

3) _______

4) W hich of the following is associated with sexual reproduction?

A) f ragmentation B) f ission C) r egeneration D) b udding E) n one of the above

4) _______

5) H ermaphrodites are animals that ______.

A) h ave the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other B) u sually fertilize themselves C) p ossess both male and female reproductive systems D) d evelop from unfertilized eggs E) h ave abnormal reproductive systems

5) _______

6) R eproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in ______.

A) p opulations with many more males than females B) t errestrial animals C) p opulations with many more females than males D) a nimals that are widely dispersed E) a quatic animals

6) _______

7) W here in a woman's reproductive tract does fertilization most often take place?

A) i n the lower part of the oviduct B) i n the upper part of the oviduct C) i n the uterus

7) _______

D) i n the vagina E) i n the ovary 8) W hat moves the human egg through the oviduct?

A) r hythmic contractions of the oviduct B) t he beating of cilia in the oviduct C) r hythmic contractions of the uterus D) t he beating of the egg's flagella E) t he beating of the egg's cilia

8) _______

9) I nto which layer of the uterus does the embryo implant?

A) e xometrium B) m yometrium C) e pimetrium D) e ndometrium E) p erimetrium

9) _______

10) I n a human female reproductive system, the ______.

A) o uter features are collectively called the vulva B) v agina secretes hormones that help maintain the uterine lining C) l abia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region D) h ymen partly covers the cervical opening E) c ervix develops into a corpus luteum after ovulation

10) ______

11) W hy are human testes located in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity?

A) s o the testes can be kept at a constant temperature B) t o shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation C) s o the testes can be kept cooler than the body's interior D) t o shorten the distance that sperm must swim during insemination E) s o the testes can enlarge at sexual maturity

11) ______

12) W hich one of the following statements is true?

A) O ogenesis in humans is completed after stimulation by sperm.

B) S permatogenesis begins before birth.

C) M eiosis in oogenesis produces four mature eggs from one primary oocyte.

D) O ogenesis begins during puberty.

E) M eiosis in spermatogenesis produces two cells from one primary spermatocyte.

12) ______

13) M enstruation ______.

A) i s stimulated by HCG B) o ccurs after ovulation but prior to degeneration of the follicle C) i s triggered by an LH surge D) i s triggered by an increase in the levels of estrogen and progesterone.

E) i nvolves the breakdown of the endometrium

13) ______

14) I n human females, the ovarian cycle begins when the ______.

A) l evel of progesterone drops precipitously B) h ypothalamus increases its release of FSH and LH C) l evels of estrogen reach their maximum D) h ypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH E) l evels of FSH and LH drop precipitously

14) ______

15) W hat would happen if the embryo failed to secrete HCG? A) N eural tube formation would not occur, and the embryo would not have a brain.

B) T he fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.

C) T he embryo would be aborted.

D) T he yolk sac would not produce blood.

E) T he maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.

15) ______

16) W hich one of the following statements is true?

A) A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.

B) N atural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.

C) T ubal ligation prevents ovulation.

D) M orning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.

E) T he most widely used birth control pills consist primarily of testosterone.

16) ______

17) W hich of the following types of pathogens cause sexually transmitted diseases that are generally not curable?

A) s pirochetes B) H IV but not other viruses C) b acteria D) v iruses E) f ungi

17) ______

18) W hich one of the following STDs is not caused by a virus?

A) g enital warts B) A IDS C) c hlamydia D) g enital herpes E) A ll of the choices are caused by viruses.

18) ______

19) A sperm cell's acrosome ______.

A) c ontains the fuel that powers the sperm B) c ontains enzymes that are released when the sperm encounters an egg and dissolves a hole in the jellylike matrix that surrounds the egg C) c ontains the sperm's mitochondria D) c ontains the sperm's nucleus and is the part of the sperm that enters the egg during fertilization E) f uses with the plasma membrane of the egg cell

19) ______

20) W hich one of the following is the first event of fertilization?

A) T he sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg.

B) T he sperm head plasma membrane fuses with the egg plasma membrane.

C) T he nuclei of the sperm and egg fuse.

D) S perm contact the jelly coat around the egg.

E) E nzymes from the acrosome are released.

20) ______

21) W hich of these events occurs first?

A) c leavage B) g astrulation C) i mplantation D) l abor E) f ormation of the placenta

21) ______

22) W hich of the following results from cleavage?

A) s egmentation B) f ormation of the nervous system C) m ore cells D) f ormation of the notochord E) f ormation of the digestive system

22) ______

23) T he liver, pancreas, and lining of the digestive tract come from ______.

A) n octoderm B) e ndoderm C) m esoderm D) e ctoderm

23) ______

E) n eural crest cells 24) G astrulation ______.

A) s timulates labor B) c hanges the hollow blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers C) c hanges a hollow embryo into a solid gastrula D) c hanges the solid blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers E) c hanges a gastrula into a blastocyst

24) ______

25) M esoderm gives rise to the ______.

A) k idneys B) h eart C) m uscles D) a ll of the above E) n one of the above

25) ______

26) W hich one of the following is a result of programmed cell death?

A) g astrulation B) f ormation of fingers in humans C) f ormation of the brain D) f ormation of the notochord E) c leavage

26) ______

27) W hen a chemical signal from a group of embryonic cells causes a different, nearby group of cells to embark on a particular developmental course (say, differentiating into a leg), the interaction between the two groups of cells is called ______.

A) p otentiation B) c oordinated differentiation C) i nduction D) e ntrainment E) p rogrammed cell death

27) ______

28) W hat is gestation?

A) o vulation B) d evelopment C) c onception D) p regnancy E) f ertilization

28) ______

29) T he yolk sac of humans ______.

29) ______

A) s ecretes HCG B) p roduces blood cells and gamete-forming cells C) s tores nutrients to support the developing embryo D) a bsorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother's blood E) e nvelops the developing fetus 30) T he lifeline between the embryo and the placenta ______.

A) i s called the umbilical cord B) d evelops from the uterus C) d evelops after the 12 weeks of gestation D) i s derived from the amnion E) i s derived from the yolk sac

30) ______

31) T he human embryo's first blood cells arise in the ______.

A) d eveloping liver B) a mnion C) d eveloping bone marrow D) y olk sac E) a llantois

31) ______

32) W hen does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?

A) a bout an hour after gastrulation B) w ithin a few hours of fertilization C) a bout a day after gastrulation D) a bout a week after conception E) a bout a day after conception

32) ______

33) A t which of the following gestational ages does a developing human first look obviously human and not like other vertebrate embryos?

A) 9 weeks B) 4 months C) 7 months D) 4 weeks E) 2 weeks

33) ______

34) A t about what point in gestation does the fetal heartbeat become audible by stethoscope and the fetus's movements easily felt by the mother?

A) 2 5 weeks B) 2 0 weeks C) 3 0 weeks D) 1 0 weeks E) 1 5 weeks

34) ______

35) W hich of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?

A) f ormation of internal organs B) f ormation of external features such as arms and legs C) o rgan formation D) g rowth E) f ormation of hair and fingernails

35) ______

36) W hich of the following substances stimulates contractions in uterine smooth muscle during labor?

A) p rogesterone B) o xytocin C) p rolactin D) e pinephrine E) e strogen

36) ______

37) W hich of the following correctly lists the three stages of labor, in the proper order?

A) c ontractions, dilation, expulsion

37) ______

B) d ilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta C) c ontractions, dilation, crowning D) d ilation, crowning, expulsion E) d ilation, crowning, delivery of the placenta 38) B ill suffers from a low sperm count. After meeting with his physician, he tells his wife that there might be a simple solution. Bill's physician suggests that he might raise his sperm count by ______.

A) d rinking a few alcoholic beverages each day B) d rinking more orange juice C) r iding a bicycle D) w earing boxer shorts E) h aving sex more often

38) ______

39) T he "grandmother hypothesis" suggests that a woman can increase her reproductive fitness by ______.

A) f ocusing her energy on caring for the children she has, instead of on producing more B) m oving away from her children and grandchildren C) r aising the children of her sisters instead of producing more children D) h elping her sisters produce more children E) f ocusing her energy on the production of as many children as possible before reaching menopause

39) ______

40) T he animal in the accompanying figure illustrates ______.

40) ______

A) r egeneration B) b udding C) f ragmentation D) f ission E) n one of the above 41) T he figure shows male reproductive anatomy. In a human male reproductive system ______.

41)

A) s perm mature in the prostate gland B) t he vas deferens conducts sperm between the testis and epididymis C) t he sperm travel through the urethra during ejaculation D) s perm mature in the urethra E) n one of the above 42) T he figure shows oogenesis. What is the function of the polar bodies that are produced during oogenesis? They are a mechanism that allows for ______.

___ ___

42)

A) t he shedding of excess nutrients during the production of a haploid ovum B) t he shedding of excess mitochondria during the production of a haploid ovum C) s treamlining of the ovum so as to facilitate the penetration of an ovum by a sperm D) t he shedding of excess cytoplasm during the production of a haploid ovum E) t he shedding of excess genetic material during the production of a haploid ovum 43) T he figure shows a human embryo 31 days after conception. Which of the following structures is part of the placenta?

___ ___

43)

A) c orpus luteum B) c horion C) y olk sac D) f ollicle E) a mnion 44) E xamine the embryo in the following figure. The hands and feet of this embryo appear paddle-like, with no distinct toes or fingers. What process is needed to define each of the toes and fingers?

___ ___

44)

___ ___

A) g astrulation B) i mplantation C) n eurulation D) i nduction E) p rogrammed cell death Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following question(s).

Birth control methods act at many points in the reproductive cycle. Some options, such as birth control pills, are highly effective at preventing pregnancy. However, only a few commonly available methods are effective at preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted disease. The Center for Disease Control estimates that each year about 10 million new STD infections strike people ages 15 to 24.

45) W hich of the following birth control methods provides the most effective protection against pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease for sexually active people?

A) t he pill B) l atex condoms C) s permicides D) a diaphragm E) t he rhythm method

45) ______

46) A diaphragm functions as a birth control device by ______.

A) p reventing implantation of an embryo B) p reventing ovulation C) p reventing the movement of sperm into the uterus D) p reventing the movement of sperm into the vagina E) s timulating the production of sperm-killing antibodies

46) ______

47) A vasectomy ______.

47) ______

A) p revents the production of semen B) p revents the production of sperm in the testes C) p revents the movement of sperm into the urethra D) i s an effective method to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted disease E) p revents a man from having an erection

1) A 2) C 3) C 4) E 5) C 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) E 43) B 44) E 45) B 46) C 47) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) T he two major divisions of the nervous system are the ______.

1) _______ A) v oluntary and involuntary B) s ympathetic and parasympathetic C) A NS and SNS D) s ensory and motor E) C NS and PNS 2) T he cells that carry electric signals from one part of the body to another in the nervous system are _____.

A) s ynapses B) d endrites C) c ell bodies D) e ffectors E) n eurons

2) _______

3) I ntegration ______.

A) o ccurs only at sensory neurons B) i s the assimilation of memories by the limbic system C) i nevitably results in the attainment of a threshold potential D) o ccurs at the axon E) i s the interpretation of sensory signals and the formulation of responses

3) _______

4) A s you prepare to head off to class, you reach up to grab a pencil, but poke the tip of your finger.

Quickly, and without thinking, you pull your hand back. Which of the following is the correct sequence of neuronal action involved in this reflexive response?

A) m otor neuron, sensory neuron, interneuron B) s ensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron C) i nterneuron, sensory neuron, motor neuron D) s ensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron E) m otor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron

4) _______

5) W hich of the following neurons are part of the peripheral nervous system?

A) i nterneuron neuron and motor neuron B) i nterneuron neuron and sensory neuron C) s ensory neuron and motor neuron D) o nly interneurons E) o nly sensory neurons

5) _______

6) M ultiple sclerosis primarily involves ______.

A) d estruction of the medulla oblongata B) d estruction of the myelin sheath C) d estruction of regions of the cerebral cortex D) d eterioration of the corpus callosum E) d eterioration of parts of the spinal cord

6) _______

7) W hich of the following carry incoming messages toward the cell body of a neuron?

A) a xons B) m yosin filaments C) s upporting cells D) d endrites E) a ctin filaments

7) _______

8) O utnumbering neurons by up to 50 to 1, which cells protect, insulate, and reinforce neurons?

A) s upporting cells B) a xon cells C) s ensory cells D) s atellite cells E) m otor cells

8) _______

9) T he minimum change in a membrane's voltage that must occur to trigger an action potential is the _____.

A) t riggering charge B) m inimum voltage C) v oltage potential D) t hreshold E) t riggering voltage

9) _______

10) W hat causes the inside of a membrane to become positively charged during an action potential?

A) N egatively charged ions rush out.

B) N egatively charged ions switch to become positively charged.

C) P ositively charged ions rush in.

D) P ositively charged ions are created.

E) N egatively charged ions are destroyed.

10) ______

11) T he movement of an action potential along a neuron is most like ______.

A) t he ripples created by dropping a pebble into a pond, gradually decreasing in size as the waves spread apart B) a crowd at a sporting event doing the wave around a stadium C) t he sound of your voice spreading out as you yell loudly to your friend while at a park D) a radio tower emitting a signal that reaches only a small region E) t he siren of an ambulance spreading out as the vehicle travels quickly down a highway

11) ______

12) A ction potentials relay different intensities of information by changing in ______.

A) s hape relative to the strength of the stimulus B) s trength relative to the strength of the stimulus C) f requency relative to the strength of the stimulus D) d uration relative to the strength of the stimulus E) s peed of travel relative to the strength of the stimulus

12) ______

13) I n a chemical synapse, what is the name of the gap between the transmitting and receiving neurons?

A) s ynaptic knob B) g ap junction C) s ynaptic cleft D) g ap myelin E) s ynaptic node

13) ______

14) W hich of the following neurotransmitters is associated with sleep, mood, attention, and learning?

A) G ABA B) e pinephrine C) s erotonin D) e ndorphins E) a cetylcholine

14) ______

15) W hich of the following statements is true?

A) H eroin binds to endorphin receptors.

B) V alium blocks the receptors for inhibitory neurotransmitters.

C) A lcohol decreases the inhibitory effect of GABA. D) A mphetamines and cocaine decrease the release and availability of norepinephrine and dopamine at synapses.

E) C affeine promotes the inhibitory neurotransmitters.

15) ______

16) W here would we expect to find electrical synapses?

A) w ithin the spinal cord B) w ithin skeletal muscles C) w ithin the heart D) w ithin the brain E) a ll of the above

16) ______

17) W hich of the following is(are) part of the central nervous system?

A) n erves B) g anglia C) b rain and spinal cord D) b rain only E) s pinal cord only

17) ______

18) W hat part of the nervous system cushions the CNS and helps supply it with nutrients, hormones, and white blood cells?

A) t he bones of the skull B) c erebrospinal fluid C) i nterneurons D) s ensory neurons E) g anglia

18) ______

19) W hich of the following effects could result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) i ncreased saliva production B) d ecreased heart rate C) d ecreased rate of digestion D) c onstriction of the bronchi E) d ecreased rate of breathing

19) ______

20) R ealizing that you did not study as much as you needed to for this exam, you start to take the test. However, it is difficult to concentrate because your heart is racing, your stomach seems tied in a knot, you are breathing too quickly, and your mouth is dry. Most likely, you are experiencing the effects of the ______.

A) p arasympathetic nervous system B) s pinal cord reflexes C) c entral nervous system D) s ympathetic nervous system E) s omatic nervous system

20) ______

21) Y ou start to trip, but you keep your balance and don't fall. Which of the following brain regions is responsible for the rapid coordination of muscle activity that kept you from falling?

A) h ypothalamus B) c erebral cortex

21) ______

C) c erebrum D) c erebellum E) t halamus 22) W hich, if any, of the following types of personal characteristics are not based in the cerebral cortex?

A) m athematical abilities B) r easoning abilities C) a rtistic talents D) p ersonality traits E) A ll of the choices are based in the cerebral cortex.

22) ______

23) W hich one of the following correctly pairs the structure with its major function(s)?

A) t halamuscoordinates balance B) c erebellumregulates memory, learning, and speech C) h ypothalamusregulates body temperature, blood pressure, and hunger D) b rainsteminput center for sensory data going to the cerebrum E) a ll of the above are correct

23) ______

24) T he cerebral cortex is highly folded. Why might this be an advantage for the functions of the cerebrum?

A) T he folds form grooves that let the bones of the skull reach deeply down between brain regions.

B) T he greater surface area strengthens the attachment of the brain to the skull.

C) T he increased surface area permits greater contact between the cerebrum and the cerebellum.

D) T he folds increase the areas where sensory receptors can reach the brain's surface.

E) T he increased surface area increases the area for higher-level thinking.

24) ______

25) W hich one of the following is a component of the forebrain?

A) s pinal cord B) p ons C) t halamus D) c erebellum E) m edulla oblongata

25) ______

26) W hich of the following was supported by the terrible accident that happened to Phineas Gage?

A) T he frontal lobes are associated with personality.

B) T he cerebrum plays a major role in the sense of balance.

C) T he two lobes of the cerebrum do not communicate with each other.

D) T he pons plays a crucial role in hearing.

E) Y ou cannot live without your hypothalamus.

26) ______

27) A lzheimer's disease is characterized by ______.

A) l oss of energy and suicidal thoughts B) i ncreased energy and extreme talkativeness C) l ow levels of serotonin D) e xtreme mood swings E) m ental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes

27) ______

28) T he receptor potential is the ______.

A) m embrane potential produced in the receptor cell by sensory transduction

28) ______

B) m embrane potential produced at a muscle cell C) e lectrical signal produced by perception D) m embrane potential produced by sensation E) m embrane potential produced when a neurotransmitter molecule binds to its receptor 29) W hich of the following is an example of sensory adaptation of receptors?

A) d etecting sound and light simultaneously B) d istinguishing between different colors C) i gnoring a boring lecture D) i gnoring the shoes on your feet E) g oing into deep sleep

29) ______

30) I n contrast to action potentials, receptor potentials ______.

A) v ary in intensity B) r ely on vibrations and not ions to send signals C) a re all-or-none phenomena D) d o not require a stimulus E) d o not rely on changes in the membrane potential

30) ______

31) I n all types of chemoreceptors, receptor cells develop receptor potentials in response to ______.

A) c hanges in the movement of the surrounding molecules B) t he electrical properties of the surrounding cells C) c hemicals dissolved in a fluid D) t he addition of positively charged proteins E) v ibrations

31) ______

32) S tanding out in center field, the baseball player watches the hitter's bat strike the ball and then, slightly later, hears the sound of the impact. What types of sensory receptors did the player just use?

A) t hermoreceptors and chemoreceptors B) m otion receptors and chemoreceptors C) p ain receptors and thermoreceptors D) c hemoreceptors and pain receptors E) p hotoreceptors and mechanoreceptors

32) ______

33) T hermoreceptors detect ______.

A) s ound B) t emperature C) p ressure D) l ight E) m otion

33) ______

34) I f aqueous humor is not drained, the likely result will be the development of ______.

A) s trabismus B) a stigmatism C) g laucoma D) m yopia E) h yperopia

34) ______

35) W hich one of the following statements is true?

A) C ones are more sensitive to light than rods.

B) T he best way to see stars is to look straight at them.

35) ______

C) T here are three different types of cones in the human eye.

D) R ods are most concentrated at the center of the retina.

E) R ods can distinguish color.

36) A person who cannot focus well on distant objects has ______.

A) h yperopia B) p resbyopia C) a stigmatism D) r educed visual acuity E) m yopia

36) ______

37) A person who has blurred vision caused by a misshapen lens or cornea has ______.

A) a stigmatism B) v isual acuity C) m yopia D) p resbyopia E) h yperopia

37) ______

38) A person whose eyeball is shorter than normal suffers from ______.

A) h yperopia B) a stigmatism C) v isual acuity D) m yopia E) p resbyopia

38) ______

39) T he organ of Corti is in the ______.

A) E ustachian tube B) m iddle ear C) o uter ear D) i nner ear E) p inna

39) ______

40) A s your jet takes off, you are pushed back in your seat and watch as the ground moves farther and farther away. Suddenly, your ears "pop," a result of air pressure changes in your ear permitted by the ______.

A) o uter ear chamber B) a uditory canal C) b asilar membrane D) o rgan of Corti E) E ustachian tube

40) ______

41) W hen you hear, the ______ vibrates.

A) e ardrum B) s tirrup C) h ammer D) a nvil E) a ll of the above

41) ______

42) W hich of the following structures constitute(s) part of the appendicular skeleton?

A) r ib cage B) b ackbone C) s kull

42) ______

D) l eg bones E) n eck bones 43) I f you lay your forearm along the table, you can rotate it so that your hand changes from a palm-down to a palm-up position. This is possible because your radius and ulna join at a ______ joint.

A) t wist B) p ivot C) h inge D) b all-and-socket

43) ______

E) s uture 44) W hich one of the following helps combat osteoporosis?

A) l ack of exercise B) d iabetes C) s moking D) i nsufficient calcium in the diet before the age of 35 E) h ormone replacement therapy

44) ______

45) W hat best helps a broken bone heal?

A) E xercise the area with the broken bone.

B) G raft new bone to the region.

C) I mmobilize the broken bone.

D) R eturn the broken bone parts back to their natural shape and then immobilize the bone.

E) R eturn the broken bone parts back to their natural shape.

45) ______

46) A rthritis is a common result of aging, affecting a person's ability to ______.

A) h eal broken bones B) t hink clearly C) p roduce red blood cells D) m ove their joints E) c atch their breath after exercise

46) ______

47) M uscles are connected to bones by ______.

A) t hick filaments B) t endons C) l igaments D) o ther muscles E) m yofibrils

47) ______

48) F unctionally, what is the muscle fiber's fundamental unit of contraction?

A) t hin filament B) m yofibril C) t endon D) t hick filament E) s arcomere

48) ______

49) A thick filament consists of ______.

A) a ctin B) m yosin C) a ctin and regulatory proteins D) a ctin and myosin

49) ______

E) m yosin and regulatory filaments 50) A ccording to the sliding-filament model of muscle contraction, a sarcomere contracts when its ______.

A) t hin filaments slide across the ends of the sarcomere B) t hick filaments slide toward each other across its thin filaments C) t hick filaments shorten, pulling the opposed sets of thin filaments past each other D) t hin filaments slide toward each other across its thick filaments E) t hick filaments slide across the ends of the sarcomere

50) ______

51) W ould you expect motor units to vary in size? If so, which of these structures would probably have the largest ones?

A) Y es; a muscle controlling eye movements.

B) Y es; a muscle controlling hand movements.

C) Y es; the spinal cord.

D) N o; all motor units are the same size.

E) Y es; a large thigh muscle.

51) ______

52) A baseball player leaping for a baseball and a cricket jumping away from a frog are both using all of the following except their ______.

A) s ensory receptors B) m uscle system C) d igestive system D) c entral nervous system E) s keletal system

52) ______

53) E xamine the figure below. Once an action potential is triggered, ______.

53) ______

A) t he interior of the cell becomes positively charged relative to the outside B) t he interior of the cell becomes negatively charged relative to the outside C) t here is no charge on either side of the cell membrane D) a ll ion channels close E) t he cell soon reaches threshold 54) E xamine the neurotransmitters in the synapse in the accompanying figure. What might happen to these neurotransmitters after they have carried the signal to the receiving neuron? The

neu ansmitt rotrers are

______. 54)

A) t ransported back to the sending neuron B) a bsorbed by the receiving neuron C) c hemically converted to ions D) i ncorporated into the membrane structure of the receiving neuron E) i ncorporated into the membrane structure of the sending neuron 55) T he figure shows the human eye. Which part of the eye gives the eye its color?

___ ___

55)

A) s clera B) r etina C) p upil D) v itreous humor E) i ris 56) T he figure below shows the structure of an arm bone. Which part of a bone contains stored fat?

___ ___

56)

A) c artilage B) y ellow bone marrow C) f ibrous connective tissue D) r ed bone marrow E) t he ends 57) E xamine the structure of a muscle cell in the accompanying figure. Which one of the following statements about muscle structure is true?

___ ___

57)

___ ___

A) E ach muscle cell has one nucleus.

B) E ach muscle cell has two to three sarcomeres.

C) A sarcomere contains thick and thin filaments.

D) E ach myofibril consists of many muscle cells.

E) M uscle cells have either thick or thin filaments, but not both types.

Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following question(s).

The human eye is an incredible organ, capable of gathering light to focus on images near and far, in bright light or dim, and with quick adjustments between these extremes. However, as eyes age, the ability to focus closely gradually declines as the flexibility of the eye's lens decreases. Some eye problems, such as cataracts, are more likely to develop in people who are more exposed to natural sunlight.

58) B loodshot eyes reflect increased blood flow to the eye surface because of irritants such as dust and smoke. These swollen blood vessels are located on the ______.

A) p upil B) i ris C) l ens D) c ornea E) s clera

58) ______

59) F loaters are small particles that interfere with the transmission of light between the lens and the retina. As people age, more floaters accumulate in this space where we find the ______.

A) a queous humor B) l ens C) v itreous humor D) c onjunctiva E) p upil

59) ______

60) W hen light levels suddenly increase, our eyes adjust quickly by reducing the size of the ______.

A) i ris B) c ornea C) l ens D) r etina E) p upil

60) ______

1) E 2) E 3) E 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) C 26) A 27) E 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) E 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) E 41) E 42) D 43) B 44) E 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) E 49) B 50) D 51) E

52) C 53) A 54) A 55) E 56) B 57) C 58) E 59) C 60) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hich of the following products used by humans sometimes comes from plants?

1) _______ A) l umber B) m edicine C) p aper D) f ood E) a ll of the above 2) M ost domesticated food crops come from which of the following plant groups?

A) a ngiosperms B) c ycads C) m osses D) g ymnosperms E) f erns

2) _______

3) W hich of the following best characterizes the monocots?

A) e mbryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with a ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in threes B) e mbryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes C) e mbryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with a ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives D) e mbryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes E) e mbryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives

3) _______

4) W hich of the following best characterizes the dicots?

A) a n embryo with two seed leaves B) l eaves with parallel veins C) f lower parts in threes D) s tems with scattered vascular bundles E) a ll of the above

4) _______

5) W hich of the following is a function of roots?

A) s tores food B) a bsorbs water C) a bsorbs nutrients from the soil D) a nchors the plant E) a ll of the above

5) _______

6) W hich of the following are the epidermal cell projections found on roots that increase the surface area?

A) i nternodes B) m esophyll C) c otyledons D) n odes E) r oot hairs

6) _______

7) W hich of the following constitute the shoot system of a plant?

A) s tems B) l eaves C) f lowers D) a ll of the above E) n one of the above

7) _______

8) W hich of the following describes the sites of leaf attachment in a stem?

A) c otyledons B) runners C) i nternodes D) j oints E) n odes

8) _______

9) W hich of the following is a stem modification for storage?

A) c ladophyll B) r hizome C) t uber

9) _______ D) p etiole

E) r unner

10) W hich of the following best describes the function of typical leaves?

A) s hade B) s torage of the sugars produced C) a nchoring D) w ater uptake E) p hotosynthesis

10) ______

11) W hich of the following is the major component of plant cell walls?

A) s tarch B) c hloroplasts C) l ignin D) c hlorophyll E) c ellulose

11) ______

12) W hich of the following cell types provide support in growing parts of a plant?

A) s clerenchyma cells B) w ater-conducting cells C) p arenchyma cells D) c ollenchyma cells E) f ood-conducting cells

12) ______

13) W hich of the following have rigid cell walls that support plants like steel beams and are usually found in older parts of the plant?

A) f ood-conducting cells B) p arenchyma cells C) s clerenchyma cells D) c ollenchyma cells E) w ater-conducting cells

13) ______

14) W hich of the following are the most abundant cell type found in most plants?

A) f ood-conducting cells B) p arenchyma cells C) w ater-conducting cells D) s clerenchyma cells E) c ollenchyma cells

14) ______

15) W hich of the following form chains with overlapping ends and are dead when mature?

A) c ollenchyma cells B) s clerenchyma cells C) w ater-conducting cells D) f ood-conducting cells E) p arenchyma cells

15) ______

16) W hich of the following form tubes and are alive when mature?

A) w ater-conducting cells B) c ollenchyma cells C) p arenchyma cells D) f ood-conducting cells E) s clerenchyma cells

16) ______

17) W hich of the following is the protective cell layer covering leaves, young stems, and young roots?

A) x ylem B) e pidermis C) e ndodermis D) p hloem E) r oot hairs

17) ______

18) W hich of the following describes the vascular system of a typical plant?

A) i t does all of the above B) i t is made up of xylem and phloem C) i t transports water throughout the plant D) i t provides support E) i t transports nutrients throughout the plant

18) ______

19) W hich of the following is the waxy coating secreted on leaves and most stems?

A) e pidermis B) e ndodermis C) l ignin D) s uberin E) c uticle

19) ______

20) W hich of the following is the selective barrier of a root that determines which substances pass between the cortex and vascular tissue?

A) p ith B) x ylem C) e ndodermis D) e pidermis E) c uticle

20) ______

21) W hich of the following do guard cells act to regulate?

A) e pidermis B) s tomata C) c uticle

21) ______ D) m esophyll

22) W hich of the following is the main site of photosynthesis in a typical leaf?

A) x ylem B) e pidermis C) p ith

E) r oot hairs 22) ______

D) m esophyll E) e ndodermis 23) W hich of the following is a function of parenchyma cells?

A) n utrient transport B) s upport C) h ormone production D) f ood storage E) a ll of the above

23) ______

24) W hich of the following best describes the condition in which the terminal bud of many plants produces hormones that inhibit growth of axillary buds?

A) f oliage determination B) a pical dominance C) c ortical influence D) i nternodal persistence E) a xial dominance

24) ______

25) Y ou trim two different houseplants. The first houseplant becomes bushier, but the pruning does not affect the growth of the second plant. A possible explanation is ______.

A) y ou removed the terminal bud on the first plant but not the second B) y ou removed the axillary bud on the first plant but not the second C) t he second plant forms tubers, but the first plant does not D) y ou removed the rhizomes on the second plant but not the first E) t he first plant has compound leaves and the second plant has simple leaves

25) ______

26) A plant grows taller through ______, which involves cell division in the ______.

A) s econdary growth . . . cork cambium B) p rimary growth . . . apical meristem C) s econdary growth . . . vascular cambium D) p rimary growth . . . vascular cambium E) s econdary growth . . . root cap

26) ______

27) W hich of the following is responsible for the increase in girth (width) of trees?

A) s econdary growth B) a n increase in the width of vessel elements C) p rimary growth D) g rowth in apical meristems E) s exual reproduction

27) ______

28) W hich of the following plant types complete their life cycle in two years?

A) a nnuals B) t riennials C) s emiannuals D) p erennials E) b iennials

28) ______

29) F lowering plants reproduce through ______.

A) a sexual reproduction only B) m itosis C) s exual reproduction only D) b udding

29) ______

E) a sexual reproduction and sexual reproduction 30) W hich of the following is the part of a flower that contains the female reproductive structures?

A) s tamen B) s epal C) s tigma D) c arpel E) a nther

30) ______

31) I n which structure do pollen grains develop?

A) s tamen B) c arpel C) a nther

31) ______ D) f ilament

E) s epal

32) T he ______ enclose and protect the flower bud, while the ______ advertise the flower to insects and other pollinators.

A) s epals . . . stamens B) a nthers . . . stamens C) c arpels . . . stigmata D) s epals . . . petals

32) ______

E) a nthers . . . petals 33) T he main parts of a flower are modified versions of which of the following?

A) r hizomes B) r oots C) s tems D) l eaves

33) ______ E) i nternodes

34) W hich of the following contains the developing egg and cells that support it?

A) s tigma B) a nther C) e ndosperm D) o vule E) e mbryo sac

34) ______

35) A plant's diploid form is called the ______; the haploid form is called the ______.

A) a nther . . . ovule B) g ametophyte . . . sporophyte C) g ametophyte . . . fruit D) s porophyte . . . pollen E) s porophyte . . . gametophyte

35) ______

36) W hich of the following describes the delivery of pollen to the stigma of a carpel?

A) p ollination B) g ermination C) m aturation D) f ertilization E) d ouble fertilization

36) ______

37) T he formation of a zygote and a cell with a triploid nucleus is unique to flowering plants. What is this process called?

A) m aturation B) p ollination C) f ertilization D) d ouble fertilization E) g ermination

37) ______

38) W hich of the following is a multicellular mass that nourishes the embryo until it becomes a self-supporting seedling?

A) t he endosperm B) a cotyledon

38) ______

C) a pod D) a fruit E) a seed coat 39) W hat typically has to happen before a fruit develops?

A) p ollination B) f lowering C) d ouble fertilization D) a ll of the above E) N one of the above; these events are only seen in seed production.

39) ______

40) W hile on a hike, you notice that several burrs have become attached to your socks. You quickly pull them off. Burrs are produced by certain plants and frequently catch on animal fur (or people's clothing). After thinking about it, you decide that the burr is a type of _____ that is an adaptation for _____.

A) p ollen grain...successful pollination B) m eristem...plant growth C) l eaf...protecting plants from herbivores D) c ambium...seed protection E) f ruit...seed dispersal

40) ______

41) W hich of the following is the usual trigger for seed germination?

A) s unlight B) w ater C) w arm temperatures D) c arbon dioxide E) o xygen

41) ______

42) W hich of the following is an example of flowering plant/animal interdependence?

A) A ll of the above are examples of such interdependencies.

B) M ost land animals depend on angiosperms for food.

C) M ost angiosperms depend on insects, birds, or mammals for seed dispersal.

D) M ost angiosperms depend on insects, birds, or mammals for pollination.

E) N one of the above show interdependence.

42) ______

43) W hat is the likely effect of pruning a plant?

43)

______

A) t he plant will grow taller B) t he plant will produce rhizomes C) t he plant will produce flowers D) t he plant will grow more roots E) t he plant will grow bushier

44) T he figure below illustrates ______.

A) p rimary growth B) l ateral dominance C) t ubers D) d eterminate growth E) s econdary growth

44) ______

45) E xamine the figure below. Secondary growth involves cell division in the ______.

45) ______

A) a pical meristem, vascular cambium, and cork cambium B) v ascular cambium and apical meristem C) v ascular cambium and cork cambium D) s econdary xylem, secondary phloem, and cork cambium E) p rimary xylem, primary phloem, and cork cambium 46) E xamine the figure below. What process has to occur to produce a haploid embryo sac?

46) ______

A) m eiosis B) m eiosis followed by mitosis C) m eiosis followed by another meiosis to reduce the chromosome number D) m itosis E) m itosis followed by meiosis In late 2006, bee workers in the United States started to notice a disturbing phenomenon: the sudden disappearance of honeybees from commercial hives. This mysterious condition was called "colony collapse disorder," and it has caused a drastic reduction in commercial honeybee populations all over the country. It is estimated that one-third of our food supply relies on bees and is in danger. Crops that rely most heavily on honeybees include apples, almonds, blueberries,

and pumpkins. If colony collapse disorder cannot be cured or treated effectively, farmers may have to turn to other insects, perhaps other bee species or even moths.

47) W ithout honeybees, which process in the life cycle of plants such as apples, almonds, 47) ______ blueberries, and pumpkins is most affected?

A) s econdary growth B) s eed germination C) p rimary growth D) p ollination E) s eed dispersal 48) W hich plant structure is adapted for attracting beneficial insects such as honeybees?

A) l eaf B) p etiole C) t erminal bud D) a xillary bud E) f lower

48) ______

1) E 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) E 6) E 7) D 8) E 9) C 10) E 11) E 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) E 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) A 28) E 29) E 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) E 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) E 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) W hich of the following best describes the essential difference between plant and animal 1) _______ nutrition?

A) P lants use organic substances to produce their own food.

B) P lant and animal nutrition are essentially the same.

C) P lants use inorganic substances and energy from the sun to produce their own food.

D) A nimals ingest their food.

E) P lants use sunlight to produce their own food.

2) F or a plant, carbon and nitrogen are _____.

A) m acronutrients B) v itamins C) m icronutrients D) m inerals E) n one of the above

2) _______

3) W hich of the following describes a chemical element that a plant must obtain from its environment in order to complete its life cycle?

A) m ineral B) e ssential element C) v itamin D) m icronutrient E) m acronutrient

3) _______

4) W hich one of the following is a plant micronutrient?

A) s ulfur B) p hosphorus C) i ron D) o xygen E) c arbon

4) _______

5) T he three most important nutrients contained in fertilizers are ______.

A) z inc, iron, and potassium.

B) z inc, sulfur, and phosphorus.

C) n itrogen, iron, and phosphorus.

D) n itrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.

E) c arbon, iron, and potassium.

5) _______

6) W hich of the following best describes substances that enter a plant through the root system?

A) T hey are brought in through plasmodesmata.

B) T hey are brought in through stomata.

C) T hey are attached to a carbon chain.

D) T hey are dissolved in water.

E) T hey are negatively charged molecules.

6) _______

7) W hich of the following supplies water and absorbed nutrients to a typical plant?

A) t he air B) s unlight C) t he soil

7) _______

D) i ts sap E) m acronutrient 8) W hich of the following terms best describes a mycorrhizal association?

A) c ommensal B) c ompetitive C) n eutral D) m utualistic E) p arasitic

8) _______

9) W hat does a plant gain from a mycorrhizal relationship?

A) h elps roots absorb water and solutes much more rapidly B) i ncreases the exchange rate of carbon dioxide and oxygen C) b reaks down decaying organic matter into essential plant nutrients D) b reaks down complex molecules in the soil to release micronutrients E) i ncreases the surface area for photosynthesis

9) _______

10) W hich of the following convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonium?

A) n itrogen-fixing bacteria B) E . coli bacteria C) a mino acidifying bacteria D) n itrifying bacteria E) a mmonifying bacteria

10) ______

11) W hich of the following convert soil ammonium to nitrate?

A) a mmonifying bacteria B) n itrogen-fixing bacteria C) E . coli bacteria D) a mino acidifying bacteria E) n itrifying bacteria

11) ______

12) W hich of the following best describes the role of plant root nodules in plants such as peas and beans?

A) h elp absorb nutrients from the soil B) h ouse nitrogen-fixing bacteria C) a re plant adaptations to kill harmful soil bacteria that destroy root hairs D) d ecrease the fertility of the soil E) s ecrete excess nitrogen gas into the soil

12) ______

13) M ost plants rely on bacteria to supply them with a usable form of which of the following substances?

A) n itrogen B) c arbon dioxide C) o xygen D) a mino acids E) w ater

13) ______

14) W hich of the following best describes the conversion that occurs during nitrogen fixation?

A) n itrogen to ammonium or nitrate B) n itrogen to ammonium C) a mmonium to nitrate D) d ecomposing organic matter to ammonium

14) ______

E) n itrate to ammonium 15) W hich of the following best describes transpiration?

A) a nother term for evaporation B) p roduces a positive gradient for water flow C) a nother term for bulk flow movement of water in a plant D) t he loss of water from plant leaves through evaporation E) t he loss of oxygen from a plant

15) ______

16) W hich of the following mechanisms best explains how xylem sap moves up against the downward pull of gravity?

A) r apid diffusion of glucose-transpiration B) a dhesion-tension-diffusion of oxygen C) r everse osmosis-adhesion-transpiration D) g lucose pumping-adhesion-tension mechanism E) t ranspiration-cohesion-tension mechanism

16) ______

17) W hich of the following weather conditions would cause transpiration to be most rapid?

A) h ot, dry weather B) r ainy weather C) h ot, humid weather D) c old, humid weather E) w indy, wet weather

17) ______

18) W hich of the following best describes the opening of stomata in most plants?

A) o pen at night and closed during the day B) o pen during the day and closed at night C) c losed all the time except if a plant is not healthy D) c losed except for brief periods of time at night when oxygen is vented out of the leaves E) o pen all the time in most plants

18) ______

19) W hich of the following best describes the mechanism that causes stomata to open?

A) A hinged flap covering the stoma is triggered to open when the plant needs air.

B) T wo guard cells flanking each stoma control its opening by changing shape.

C) A large bubble of oxygen accumulates below the stoma and eventually forces it open.

D) T he internal pressure of xylem sap expands the leaf, stretching the stoma open.

E) W ater accumulates below the opening and eventually forces the stoma open.

19) ______

20) T ranspiration pulls water up a plant because of two mechanisms: _____ describes water molecules sticking together and _____ describes water molecules sticking to the walls of the xylem?

A) c ohesion...adhesion B) a dhesion...gravity C) g ravity...cohesion D) c ohesion...gravity E) a dhesion...cohesion

20) ______

21) W hich of the following describes sugar movement within the plant body?

A) s ink-to-source mechanism B) p ressure-flow mechanism C) b ulk-flow mechanism D) s ugar-flow mechanism

21) ______

E) t ranspirational-pull mechanism 22) A n example of a sugar sink is a _____.

A) l eaf B) s tem C) f lower D) f ruit E) a ll of the above

22) ______

23) A farmer decides he wants to grow certified organic corn and sets out to meet all USDA standards to do so. His crop grows well for the first three years; however, he notices during the fourth and fifth years that his plants are getting smaller and producing much less corn. He has not altered his farming practices and begins to wonder what is happening. He remembers someone mentioning planting peanuts every third year in place of their corn crop, which leads to much healthier corn. Why would a farmer want to change to a different crop, especially something like peanuts?

23) ______

A) P lanting a legume like peanuts increases the available carbon in the soil.

B) P lanting a legume like peanuts increases water retention in the soil, allowing the following year's corn crop to thrive.

C) C rop rotation with a legume like peanuts will increase nitrogen in the soil.

D) C hanging from corn to peanuts, a legume, allows the soil to "rest" for a year.

E) I t will not change anything; the farmer just liked peanuts.

24) W hich of the following statements is true?

A) A given hormone has a very specific effect on a plant.

B) H ormones do not interact with other hormones.

C) P lants and animals use hormones in very different ways.

D) H ormones are needed in large amounts to have any effect on target cells.

E) A single hormone may have different effects depending on concentration and presence of other hormones.

24) ______

25) W hich of the following plant hormones affect(s) development in the plant body?

A) a uxin B) g ibberellin C) e thylene D) c ytokinin E) a ll of the above

25) ______

26) W hich of the following hormones promotes cell elongation in stems?

A) a uxin B) e thylene C) c ytokinin D) g ibberellin E) a bscisic acid

26) ______

27) W hich of the following best describes the condition of a twig if the auxin produced by its apical meristem is conveyed equally down all sides?

A) I t will shorten.

B) I t will be bent to one side.

C) I t will branch near its tip.

D) I t will produce a flower.

E) I t will elongate.

27) ______

28) W hich of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening and dropping of leaves?

A) c ytokinin B) e thylene C) a uxin D) a bscisic acid E) g ibberellin

28) ______

29) W hich of the following hormones promotes cell division?

A) g ibberellin B) c ytokinin C) e thylene D) a bscisic acid E) a uxin

29) ______

30) W hich of the following hormones promotes seed germination?

A) a uxin B) g ibberellin C) a bscisic acid D) c ytokinin E) e thylene

30) ______

31) W hich of the following hormones promotes seed dormancy?

A) a bscisic acid B) g ibberellin C) c ytokinin D) a uxin E) e thylene

31) ______

32) W hich of the following is exemplified by a pea tendril contacting a string or wire and coiling around it for support?

A) t higmotropism B) g ravitropism C) g eotropism D) p hototropism E) h ypertropism

32) ______

33) E xperimental plants that were sent up in space shuttle missions did not exhibit all of their normal tropisms. Which of the following responses would you most expect to be lacking from these plants?

A) g eotropism B) t higmotropism C) h ypertropism D) g ravitropism E) p hototropism

33) ______

34) W hich of the following best describes a night-neutral plant?

A) P lants tend to flower in longer photoperiod conditions.

B) T he plants flower at night.

C) P lants tend to flower in shorter photoperiod conditions.

D) T he plants flower both during the day and at night.

E) T he flowering in these plants is not affected by photoperiod.

34) ______

35) W hich of the following triggers flowering and other responses to photoperiod in plants?

A) d ay length B) n ight length C) t emperature D) g ravity

35) ______

E) i ntensity of sunlight 36) W hich of the following best describe(s) the dependencies of most flowering plants?

A) i nsects or other animals for pollination B) t he fungi of mycorrhizae C) i nsects or other animals for seed dispersal D) n itrogen-fixing bacteria E) a ll of the above

36) ______

37) W hich of the following is the site of carbon dioxide uptake by a plant?

37) ______

A) leaves B) r oot hairs C) i nternodes D) r hizomes E) a ll of the above 38) E xamine the figure below. Which of the following add ammonium to the soil by decomposing organic matter?

38)

___ ___

A) a mmonifying bacteria B) n itrifying bacteria C) E . coli bacteria D) n itrogen-fixing bacteria E) a mino acidifying bacteria 39) W hen considering the shadowed side of a grass shoot, which of the following best describes why it bends toward the light?

A) R eduction in auxin levels represses automatic cell elongation.

B) R eduction in auxin levels allows gibberellins to promote cell elongation.

C) R eduction in gibberellin levels allows auxin to promote cell elongation.

39) ______

D) I ncrease in auxin levels promotes cell proliferation.

E) I ncrease in auxin levels promotes cell elongation.

40) T he figure below illustrates ______ in plants.

A) t higmotropism B) p hotoperiod C) g ravitropism D) p hototropism E) b oth thigmotropism and phototropism

40) ______

1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) A 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) E 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) A 27) E 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) E 35) B 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) E 40) C