Campbell Essential Biology, 4E Eric J. Simon Test Bank.pdf

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Campbell Essential Biology

Edition:

4th Edition

Author(s):

Eric J. Simon Jean L. Dickey Kelly A. Hogan Jane B. Reece

For exam and test prep, contact excellentessaywriters@gmail.com

Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 1 Introduction: Biology Today Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In what way(s) is the science of biology influencing and changing our culture?

A) by helping us understand the relevance of evolution to human health B) by revealing how mutations in genes can lead to disease C) by providing new tools for forensic investigations D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) What is biology?

A) the scientific study of life B) the scientific study of the environment C) the scientific study of DNA D) the scientific study of ecosystems Answer: A Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following is not a property of life?

A) Populations of organisms rarely change over time.

B) Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.

C) Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.

D) Organisms reproduce their own kind.

Answer: A Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) What are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?

A) speciation and evolution B) nutrient recycling and energy flow C) decomposition and nutrient recycling D) sunlight and photosynthesis Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Which of the following is not recycled but is lost from ecosystems?

A) nitrogen B) energy C) magnesium D) carbon Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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6) Which of the following is a producer?

A) oak tree B) earthworm C) sun D) cat Answer: A Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Humans are ______.

A) producers B) producers and consumers C) consumers D) producers and decomposers Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Which of the following structures can perform all the activities required for life?

A) DNA molecules B) cells C) organelles D) nuclei Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ______.

A) larger and more complex B) smaller and simpler C) larger and equally complex D) smaller and more complex Answer: A Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Humans are composed of ______ cells.

A) bacterial B) eukaryotic C) plant D) prokaryotic Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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11) What name is given to the functional compartments of a cell? A) genomes B) nuclei C) genes D) organelles Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.

A) archaea B) nucleus C) prokaryotic cell D) insulin Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) What are eukaryotic genes composed of?

A) RNA B) organelles C) RNA and DNA D) DNA Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) What is a gene?

A) a type of eukaryotic cell B) an organelle that houses DNA C) a type of prokaryotic cell D) a unit of inheritance Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) The human genome consists of about ______ chemical letters.

A) 300,000 B) 1 million C) 3 billion D) 300 billion Answer: C Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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16) More than half of all known species are ______. A) plants B) insects C) bacteria D) vertebrates Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Taxonomy is the ______.

A) study of cells B) naming and classifying of species C) study of organisms and their interaction with the environment D) study of genes Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) How does taxonomy assist biologists?

A) by providing easily remembered scientific names for organisms B) by categorizing diverse items into smaller and smaller numbers of groups C) by reducing life to its smallest common denominator, the cell D) all of the above Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which domain(s) consist(s) of prokaryotic cells?

A) Bacteria only B) Eukarya only C) Archaea and Eukarya D) Bacteria and Archaea Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Which kingdom of Eukarya consists primarily of unicellular organisms?

A) Plantae B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Protista Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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21) A newly discovered multicellular organism obtains food by digesting dead organisms. Such an organism is most likely a member of the kingdom ______. A) Plantae B) Fungi C) Protista D) Animalia Answer: B Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Members of the kingdom Plantae differ from members of the other kingdoms of Eukarya in that most members of the kingdom Plantae ______.

A) are decomposers B) are unicellular C) are consumers D) produce their own food Answer: D Topic: 1.1 The Scope of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is ______.

A) evolution B) microbiology C) taxonomy D) genetics Answer: A Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Application/Analysis 24) Which of these is most closely associated with Darwin?

A) energy flow B) ecosystem structure C) the three domains of life D) natural selection Answer: D Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Which of these is required for natural selection to occur?

A) inheritance B) unequal reproductive success C) individual variation D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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26) Unequal reproductive success ______. A) can lead to a population being less well adapted to its environment B) increases variation C) does not affect the frequency of expression of traits in succeeding generations of a population D) can lead to natural selection Answer: D Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) What does adaptation mean in a biological context?

A) the way an individual's body adjusts to its environment B) the accumulation of favorable variations in a population over time C) the ability of organisms to alter their appearance under changing environmental conditions D) all of the above Answer: B Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) What accounts for the different breeds of domesticated dogs?

A) overproduction B) natural selection C) competition D) artificial selection Answer: D Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Over a span of two decades, scientists measured changes in the beak size of a population of Galápagos ground finches. This ______.

A) provided evidence of natural selection in action B) is an example of artificial selection C) is an example of overproduction D) led Darwin to his theory of evolution through natural selection Answer: A Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Science is ______.

A) the inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature B) the search for truth C) an organized set of principles for how to ethically and morally behave D) all of the above Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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31) What is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science?

A) Discovery science "discovers" new knowledge, whereas hypothesis-driven science does not.

B) Discovery science is based on deductive reasoning, whereas hypothesis-driven science is based on inductive reasoning.

C) Discovery science is mostly about describing nature, whereas hypothesis-driven science tries to explain nature.

D) Discovery science involves predictions about outcomes, whereas hypothesis-driven science involves tentative answers to specific questions.

Answer: C Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of these statements is correct?

A) Scientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing.

B) Science can be used to prove or disprove the idea that deities or spirits cause earthquakes and other natural disasters.

C) Science does not require observations that other people can confirm.

D) Only discovery science can lead to important conclusions about nature.

Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Discovery science is primarily based on ______.

A) hypothesis testing B) deduction C) experimentation D) observation Answer: D Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which of these would be a valid hypothesis?

A) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events.

B) Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species.

C) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.

D) Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code.

Answer: D Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) A hypothesis is a(n) ______.

A) tentative answer to a question B) guess C) observation D) theory Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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36) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a hypothesis? A) My car's battery is dead. B) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start. C) My car is too old to function properly. D) What is wrong with my car? Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Application/Analysis 37) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a prediction?

A) My car's battery is dead.

B) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start.

C) My car is too old to function properly.

D) What is wrong with my car?

Answer: B Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Application/Analysis 38) Which of the following are the proper components of the scientific method?

A) experiment, conclusion, application B) question, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction C) observation, question, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, results, conclusion D) observation, question, opinion, conclusion, hypothesis Answer: C Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) In a scientific experiment, the control group ______.

A) serves as a basis of comparison with the experimental group B) is subjected to the factor whose effect is being tested C) allows for the simultaneous testing of multiple variables D) is required for the validity of discovery science Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) How do hypotheses differ from theories?

A) Theories are more comprehensive than hypotheses.

B) Theories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable.

C) Hypotheses are educated guesses, and theories are tentative explanations.

D) Hypotheses are derived from experimentation, whereas theories are derived from observation.

Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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41) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria because ______. A) the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance B) farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed C) the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria D) none of the above Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) Using the branching tree of life for bears depicted in the accompanying figure, choose from among the following bear species the one that is most distantly related to the sun bear.

A) brown bear B) sloth bear C) spectacled bear D) giant panda Answer: D Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Application/Analysis

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2) In the process of evolution by natural selection illustrated in the accompanying figure, which of the following is the mechanism or agent of natural selection?

A) artificial selection B) selective breeding C) selective predation D) selective beetles Answer: C Topic: 1.2 Evolution: Biology's Unifying Theme Skill: Application/Analysis

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Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the following question(s). The collared lizard is a species found in the Desert Southwest. Male collared lizards show considerable color variation, ranging from brightly colored to a very dull pattern. Your goal is to determine the function, if any, of male color patterns in collared lizards, using the scientific method. Your tentative explanation is that male color plays a role in attracting females for mating purposes. You predict that females will preferentially choose brightly colored males over dull-colored ones. To test this prediction, you observed the interactions of female collared lizards with their male counterparts. You selected males that were the same age and size, and that differed only in their coloration pattern. You placed equal numbers of the two types of male lizards, bright and dull, in aquariums, along with one female lizard per aquarium. Out of 350 aquariums observed, the female chose to mate with the brightly colored male 277 times, and the dull-colored male 70 times. In 3 instances, the females did not mate with either type. Create a bar graph of your data, plotting the type of male (dull or brightly colored) on the x-axis. On the y-axis, plot the frequency with which each type of male was chosen by females. Using this graph, answer the following question(s). 1) Is it reasonable to conclude (i.e., is it supported by the data) that female collared lizards prefer more brightly colored male lizards over dull-colored males? A) Yes, this conclusion is supported by the data. B) No, this conclusion is not supported by the data. C) The data do not clearly indicate a preference one way or the other. D) None of the above choices are correct. Answer: A Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Application/Analysis 2) Identify the experimental group of this case study. A) brightly colored female lizards B) brightly colored male lizards C) dull-colored female lizards D) dull-colored male lizards Answer: B Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Dull-colored males were part of the ______. A) observation group B) control group C) experimental group D) predicted group Answer: B Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Application/Analysis

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4) Which of the following is the hypothesis of this case study? A) Male collared lizards exhibit color variation. B) Dull males are less likely to be eaten by predators. C) A function of male coloration is to attract females. D) Males prefer brightly colored females. Answer: C Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Application/Analysis 5) "Male collared lizards show considerable color variation." This is a(n) ______. A) hypothesis B) conclusion C) observation D) result Answer: C Topic: 1.3 The Process of Science Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 2 Essential Chemistry for Biology Multiple-Choice Questions 1) ______ is an example of an element.

A) Water B) Carbon C) Glucose D) Salt Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The four most common elements found in living things are A) nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, and carbon.

B) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and hydrogen.

C) carbon, oxygen, potassium, and calcium.

D) oxygen, calcium, hydrogen, and carbon.

Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following elements, essential to life, is a trace element?

A) phosphorus B) carbon C) iodine D) calcium Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) An atom with a positive charge has ______.

A) more protons than electrons B) more electrons than protons C) more neutrons than protons D) more protons than neutrons Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) All atoms of an element have the same number of ______.

A) protons plus neutrons B) protons C) electrons D) neutrons Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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6) An atom's ______ are found in its nucleus.

A) neutrons and protons B) protons only C) neutrons and electrons D) electrons, protons, and neutrons Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Beryllium's atomic mass is 9 and its atomic number is 4. How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom?

A) 9 B) 13 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: D Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 8) An uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197. This atom has ______ protons, ______ neutrons, and ______ electrons.

A) 79... 118... 79 B) 118... 79... 118 C) 118... 276... 118 D) 79... 34... 79 Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 9) The way Earth moves about the sun is most like ______.

A) a neutron and electron moving around a proton B) an electron moving around the nucleus of an atom C) a proton moving about an electron D) a neutron moving about a proton Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 10) Isotopes of an element have the same number of ______ and different numbers of ______.

A) protons... neutrons B) protons... electrons C) neutrons... protons D) electrons... protons Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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11) How do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes?

A) Radioactive isotopes have more neutrons than do isotopes.

B) Radioactive isotopes are stable; isotopes are unstable.

C) Radioactive isotopes have fewer neutrons than do isotopes.

D) Radioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable.

Answer: D Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) The second electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______ electron(s).

A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: D Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7; therefore, it has ______ electrons in its outermost electron shell.

A) 10 B) 18 C) 5 D) 2 Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 14) An atom with an electrical charge is a(n) ______.

A) isotope B) molecule C) ion D) compound Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n) ______ bond.

A) ionic B) polar C) hydrogen D) covalent Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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16) In the following reaction, what type of bond is holding the two atoms together?

K + Cl → K+ + Cl- → KCl A) hydrophilic B) ionic C) hydrophobic D) covalent Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 17) What name is given to bonds that involve the sharing of electrons?

A) covalent B) hydrogen C) ionic D) polar Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Sulfur has an atomic number of 16. How many covalent bonds can sulfur form?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 0 Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 19) The hydrogens and oxygen of a water molecule are held together by ______ bonds.

A) electron B) hydrogen C) covalent D) osmotic Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Why is water considered a polar molecule?

A) The oxygen is found between the two hydrogens.

B) The oxygen atom attracts the hydrogen atoms.

C) The oxygen end of the molecule has a slight negative charge, and the hydrogen end has a slight positive charge.

D) Both hydrogens are at one end of the molecule, and oxygen is at the other end.

Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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21) Adjacent water molecules are joined by ______ bonds.

A) covalent only B) ionic C) polar and covalent D) hydrogen Answer: D Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Adjacent water molecules are connected by the ______.

A) sharing of electrons between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule B) electrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule C) sharing of electrons between adjacent oxygen molecules D) electrical attraction between the hydrogens of adjacent water molecules Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) How many oxygen atoms are in the products of the following reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O A) 18 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24 Answer: D Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 24) What are the reactant(s) in the following chemical reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O A) CO2 and H2O B) C6H12O6, H2O, and O2 C) O2 only D) C6H12O6, H2O, O2, CO2, and H2O Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Application/Analysis 25) Human body cells are approximately ______ water.

A) 95—99% B) 25—35% C) 50—55% D) 70—95% Answer: D Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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26) The tendency of molecules of the same kind to stick together is called ______. A) bonding B) cohesion C) polarity D) adhesion Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Why (if you are careful) are you able to float a needle on the surface of water?

A) Water has adhesive properties.

B) The surface tension that is a result of water's cohesive properties makes this possible.

C) The covalent bonds that hold a water molecule together are responsible for this ability.

D) A single needle is less dense than water.

Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Sweating cools your body by ______.

A) cohesion B) radiation C) evaporative cooling D) hydrogen bonding Answer: C Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) As water freezes, ______.

A) its molecules move farther apart B) it cools the surrounding environment C) its hydrogen bonds break apart D) it loses its polarity Answer: A Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Sugar dissolves when stirred into water. The sugar is the ______, the water is the ______, and the sweetened water is the ______.

A) solution... solvent... solute B) solute... solvent... solution C) solvent... solute... solution D) solution... solute... solvent Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Application/Analysis

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31) Which of the following is an acid? A) NaOH B) NaCl C) HCl D) CH4 Answer: C Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Application/Analysis 32) A base ______.

A) removes H2O molecules from a solution B) decreases the pH of a solution C) removes OH— ions from a solution D) removes H+ ions from a solution Answer: D Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) The lower the pH of a solution, the ______.

A) greater the number of oxygen atoms B) more acidic the solution C) less toxic the solution D) higher the OH— concentration Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Relative to a pH of 6, a pH of 4 has a ______.

A) 200 times higher H+ concentration B) 100 times higher H+ concentration C) 20 times higher H+ concentration D) 100 times lower H+ concentration Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Application/Analysis 35) What name is given to substances that resist changes in pH? A) buffers B) sugars C) salts D) bases Answer: A Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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36) When a base is added to a buffered solution, the buffer will ______.

A) donate OH- ions B) accept water molecules C) donate H+ ions D) form covalent bonds with the base Answer: C Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) People have long speculated about whether life exists on Mars. Scientists have evidence that on Mars, ______.

A) microbial life exists B) liquid water has existed in the past C) the only water present has always been frozen in the polar ice caps D) water is found only in the form of water vapor Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) Examine the drawing of an atom below. The art is technically incorrect in that ______.

A) neutrons are not located in the nucleus B) the electrons should be much farther away from the nucleus C) electrons do not orbit the nucleus D) electrons do not have a negative charge Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the following figure. Which of the representations of molecules does not reveal double bonds?

A) electron configuration B) structural formula C) space-filling model D) All of the representations of molecules reveal double bonds.

Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Some Basic Chemistry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) Examine the pH scale below. How does household bleach compare to household ammonia?

A) Household bleach is more acidic than household ammonia.

B) Household bleach has 10 times higher H+ concentration than household ammonia.

C) Household bleach has 100 times higher H+ concentration than household ammonia.

D) Household ammonia has 10 times higher H+ concentration.

Answer: D Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Application/Analysis

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Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s). The last few miles of the marathon are the most difficult for Heather. Her hair is plastered to her head, sweat clings to her arms, and her legs feel as if they had nothing left. Heather grabs a cup of ice water. The ice cubes smash against her nose as she gulps some cool refreshment and keeps on running. Then a breeze kicks up and she finally feels some coolness against her skin. Drops of sweat, once clinging to her forehead, now spill down, and Heather feels a stinging as the sweat flows into her eyes. 1) Sweat on Heather’s forehead and arms formed drops because of the ______. A) high salt content of sweat B) cohesive nature of water C) ability of water to moderate heat D) high evaporative cooling effect of water Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Application/Analysis 2) Which of the following is the most likely reason why the ice struck Heather’s nose when she took a drink? A) Water can store large amounts of heat. B) Water can moderate temperatures through evaporative cooling. C) The density of water decreases when it freezes. D) Water has a cohesive nature. Answer: C Topic: 2.2 Water and Life Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 3 The Molecules of Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) People with lactose intolerance do not have enough ______.

A) lactose B) lactase C) glucose D) fructose Answer: B Topic: 3 Biology and Society Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ______ covalent bond(s).

A) none; carbon only participates in ionic bonds B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Organic Compounds Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The following molecule is best described as a ______.

CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2 A) protein B) carbohydrate C) hydrocarbon D) lipid Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Organic Compounds Skill: Application/Analysis 4) ______ is a hydroxyl group.

A) —NH2 B) —OH C) —COOH D) —H Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Organic Compounds Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) In the following reaction, galactose is a ______. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) polysaccharide B) monomer C) polymer D) protein Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Organic Compounds Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) What name is given to the following reaction? galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) hydrolysis B) hydrogenation C) glycolysis D) dehydration reaction Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Organic Compounds Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) What name is given to the following reaction? sucrose + water → glucose + fructose A) glucogenesis B) hydrolysis C) denaturation D) dehydration reaction Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Organic Compounds Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Carbohydrates typically include ______.

A) an NH2 group B) C, H, and O atoms C) a hydrocarbon chain D) a PO4 group Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following are isomers?

A) glucose and fructose B) glucose and sucrose C) sucrose and glucose D) lactose and maltose Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Complete the equation: monosaccharide + monosaccharide → ______ + water A) disaccharide B) polypeptide C) polysaccharide D) fat Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis 11) In the following equation, lactose is a ______. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) nucleic acid B) fatty acid C) disaccharide D) dipeptide Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Table sugar is ______.

A) glucose, a monosaccharide B) glucose, a disaccharide C) sucrose, a monosaccharide D) sucrose, a dissaccharide Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) For good health, it is important to include ______ in our diets.

A) fructose B) monosaccharides C) disaccharides D) polysaccharides Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?

A) glucose B) starch C) maltose D) sucrose Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Animals store carbohydrates as ______.

A) cellulose B) glycogen C) starch D) maltose Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Cellulose is an example of ______.

A) a polypeptide B) a steroid C) fiber D) fat Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following is hydrophilic?

A) cellulose B) testosterone C) butter D) cholesterol Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis 18) Sometimes when I have my morning coffee, which I drink black with no sugar, I notice a thin film floating on top of the coffee. Since I have just read Chapter 3 of the text, I now realize the nature of this substance and so I run to my friend screaming, "Look at this ______ in my coffee!"

A) hydrophilic substance B) hydrophobic substance C) glucose D) nucleotide Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis 19) A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ______.

A) prostaglandin B) nucleic acid C) steroid D) fat Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) What name is given to the following reaction? glycerol + 3 fatty acids → triglyceride + 3 water molecules A) denaturation B) hydrolysis C) hydrogenation D) dehydration reaction Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis 21) Saturated fats are saturated with ______.

A) carbon B) nitrogen C) hydrogen D) oxygen Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) By definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds?

A) steroid B) triglyceride C) unsaturated D) saturated Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Which of the following is lowest in unsaturated fats?

A) beef B) salmon C) corn oil D) canola oil Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis 24) A fat that is hydrogenated is ______.

A) more unsaturated B) easier to digest C) more solid D) less likely to cause strokes Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Which of the following is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats? A) increased blood flow B) decreased risk of atherosclerosis C) increased risk of heart attack D) decreased risk of stroke Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) ______ is a steroid.

A) Butter B) Sucrose C) Amino acid D) Estrogen Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) A friend of yours appears to have put on a lot of muscle very quickly. At the same time, you notice that to your friend seems to have a lot of mood swings and appears depressed. It is reasonable for you suspect that your friend has begun to take ______.

A) amino acid supplements B) creatine C) protein powder D) an anabolic steroid Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Enzymes are ______.

A) amino acids B) monosaccharides C) phospholipids D) proteins Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Proteins are polymers constructed from ______ monomers.

A) hydrocarbon B) amino acid C) nucleotide D) fatty acid Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) Amino acids include a side group as well as ______.

A) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group B) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group C) a central hydrogen, a nitrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group D) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, an amino group, and a carbonyl group Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) What is the name given to the reaction that breaks peptide bonds?

A) dehydration reaction B) hydrogenation C) hydrolysis D) denaturation Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) A pleated sheet is an example of protein ______ structure.

A) tertiary B) quaternary C) secondary D) primary Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) A protein's function is dependent on its ______.

A) pH B) shape C) size D) weight Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Destruction of a protein's shape is called ______.

A) hydrolysis B) denaturation C) a dehydration reaction D) hydrogenation Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Nucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers.

A) monosaccharide B) fatty acid C) DNA D) nucleotide Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) A specific stretch of DNA that programs the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is a ______.

A) gene B) protein C) nucleic acid D) enzyme Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) DNA nucleotides include ______.

A) uracil, guanine, adenine, and cytosine B) thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine C) thymine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine D) thymine, guanine, adenine, and uracil Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Which of the following is true with regard to a DNA molecule?

A) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

B) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine.

C) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil.

D) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence AGTACTG, what will be the sequence of the other strand?

A) GACGTCA B) AGTACTG C) GTCATGA D) TCATGAC Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis

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40) How does RNA differ from DNA? A) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.

B) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.

C) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.

D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C. Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.

A) populations that live in cold climates B) populations that live in wet climates C) cultures that keep dairy herds D) Native Americans Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) Examine the two sugars in the following figure. How do these two sugars compare?

A) Glucose has more hydrogen.

B) Glucose has more double bonds.

C) They have the same formula but different structures.

D) They are structurally identical in every way.

Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis

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2) The figure below shows ______.

A) DNA B) RNA C) protein secondary structure D) hydrolysis Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The figure below shows ______.

A) a single strand of RNA B) double-stranded RNA C) a single strand of DNA D) double-stranded DNA Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

While shopping, you settle on two types of cookies. The nutritional label for the chocolate mint cookies lists 5 grams of saturated fat, 0 grams of trans fat, 22 grams of carbohydrates, and 11 grams of protein per serving. The nutritional label for the peanut butter cookies lists 0 grams of saturated fat, 5 grams of trans fat, 26 grams of carbohydrates, and 4 grams of protein per serving.

1) Which cookies are less healthy?

A) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more saturated fat.

B) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more total grams of protein and carbohydrates.

C) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more trans fat.

D) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more grams of carbohydrates.

Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis 2) The manufacturer of the chocolate mint cookies changed the ingredients of its cookies. Each serving now has 1 gram of saturated fat (4 fewer grams), 4 grams of trans fat (4 more grams), 21 grams of carbohydrates (1 fewer gram), and 11 grams of protein (no change). Do you think that the manufacturer made these cookies healthier?

A) No, because they now have less saturated fat.

B) Yes, because they now have less saturated fat.

C) Yes, because they now have fewer grams of carbohydrates.

D) No, because they now have more grams of trans fat.

Answer: D Topic: 3.2 Large Biological Molecules Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 4 A Tour of the Cell Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which theory states that all living things are composed of cells?

A) cell theory B) Hooke's rule C) evolutionary theory D) Mendel's law Answer: A Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) What type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma membrane?

A) light microscope B) transmission electron microscope C) scanning electron microscope D) both a light microscope and an electron microscope Answer: C Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells but not eukaryotic cells?

A) pili B) cell wall C) flagella D) DNA Answer: A Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) When using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.

A) plant B) eukaryotic C) fungal D) prokaryotic Answer: D Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Application/Analysis

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5) One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ______ prokaryotic cells.

A) have DNA, which is lacking in B) have membrane-enclosed structures called organelles, which are lacking in C) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in D) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in Answer: B Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) In eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane?

A) cytoplasm B) phospholipid bilayer C) nucleoid D) chloroplast Answer: A Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall.

Therefore, you conclude that it must be a ______ cell.

A) prokaryotic B) animal C) bacterial D) plant Answer: D Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?

A) regulate the traffic of chemicals into and out of the cell B) protein synthesis C) lipid synthesis D) all fo the above Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Membrane Structure Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) ______ are the major lipids of plasma membranes.

A) Steroids B) Fatty acids C) Mosaics D) Phospholipids Answer: D Topic: 4.2 Membrane Structure Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) When mixed with water, phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ______.

A) have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water B) have hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups that avoid water C) have hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails D) are both fluid and mosaic Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Membrane Structure Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ______.

A) phospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane B) phospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane C) most proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane D) carbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Membrane Structure Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) The extracellular matrix of animal cells ______.

A) protect and support cells B) provide avenues for the exchange of DNA C) are warehouses for the storage of extra lipids and carbohydrates D) are primarily sites of dead matter and waste materials Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Membrane Structure Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) ______ store the information necessary to produce proteins.

A) Lysosomes B) Genes C) Ribosomes D) Carbohydrates Answer: B Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) The nuclear envelope is composed of ______.

A) chromatin B) DNA C) a double membrane D) carbohydrates Answer: C Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) The structural combination of DNA and protein forms ______. A) nucleoli B) nucleoplasm C) chromatin D) ribosomes Answer: C Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Most human cells contain ______ chromosomes.

A) 36 B) 46 C) 2 D) 23 Answer: B Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following structures manufactures the components of ribosomes?

A) nucleus B) cytoplasm C) endoplasmic reticulum D) nucleolus Answer: D Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Some ribosomes are suspended in the cytosol of a cell, whereas other ribosomes _______.

A) make proteins inside the nucleus B) are found on the plasma membrane C) are attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) are attached to the outside of the nucleus Answer: D Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Where does protein synthesis take place?

A) in the nucleolus B) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) on ribosomes D) in the nucleus Answer: C Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Information is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ______.

A) mRNA B) rough endoplasmic reticulum C) DNA D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Topic: 4.3 The Nucleus and Ribosomes: Genetic Control of the Cell Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) The endomembrane system includes ______.

A) ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) A hormone that will be secreted from the cell is manufactured by ribosomes _____.

A) attached to the endoplasmic reticulum B) attached to the Golgi apparatus C) attached to the plasma membrane D) inside the nucleus Answer: A Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Based on its function in detoxifying drugs, you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ______ cells.

A) brain B) liver C) intestinal D) muscle Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ______.

A) steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification B) lipid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification C) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification D) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and protein synthesis Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus?

A) transport proteins B) central vacuole C) transport vesicles D) nucleolus Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

A) digestion of organic matter inside the cell B) protein modification C) drug detoxification D) protein synthesis Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following parts of a cell is (are) most like the shipping center of a company?

A) the Golgi apparatus B) mitochondria C) chloroplasts D) the nucleolus Answer: A Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Lysosomes are responsible for ______.

A) lipid synthesis B) cellular respiration C) digestion of organic matter inside the cell D) protein synthesis Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) If a cell's lysosomes burst, the cell would ______.

A) shrivel B) divide into two cells C) digest itself D) need to manufacture more lysosomes Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Application/Analysis

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30) Tay-Sachs disease results from ______ lacking a specific type of lipid-digesting enzyme.

A) the Golgi apparatus B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Vacuoles are ______.

A) membranous sacs B) manufactured by ribosomes C) composed of microtubules D) found only in plant cells Answer: A Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ______.

A) in a marine environment B) within the cells of another organism C) in fresh water D) in ice Answer: C Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) In plant cells, ______ may contain organic nutrients, pigments, and poisons.

A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) lysosomes D) central vacuoles Answer: D Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ______.

A) cell wall and contractile vacuole B) cell wall and central vacuole C) nucleus and cell wall D) nucleus and contractile vacuole Answer: B Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Similar to the nucleus, chloroplasts and mitochondria are ______. A) surrounded by two membranes B) green C) manufactured by the nucleolus D) able to synthesize lipids Answer: A Topic: 4.5 Chloroplasts and Mitochondria: Energy Conversion Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?

A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondrion C) ribosome D) chloroplast Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Chloroplasts and Mitochondria: Energy Conversion Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Cellular respiration can be described as the conversion of the energy ______.

A) of sunlight to energy stored in organic compounds B) stored in food molecules to energy stored in ATP C) stored in ATP to energy stored in food molecules D) stored in ATP to energy used to do work Answer: B Topic: 4.5 Chloroplasts and Mitochondria: Energy Conversion Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Which of the following is an adaptation to increase the surface area of a part of a cell that is involved in cellular respiration?

A) the cristae of a mitochondrion B) the outer membrane of a chloroplast C) the grana of a chloroplast D) the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Topic: 4.5 Chloroplasts and Mitochondria: Energy Conversion Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Microtubules are associated with ______.

A) cilia B) flagella C) cell shape D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 4.6 The Cytoskeleton: Cell Shape and Movement Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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40) Tobacco smokers (and those exposed to tobacco smoke) are at greater risk of an ectopic (tubal) pregnancy. Based on your understanding of the structures of the cytoskeleton, what is the best explanation?

A) Tobacco smokers tend to get pregnant when they are younger.

B) Tobacco interferes with the functioning of the flagella propelling sperm.

C) Tobacco interferes with the transfer of oxygen to the uterus, thereby forcing the zygote to implant in a fallopian tube.

D) Tobacco interferes with the sweeping motion of cilia that aids in the movement of the egg toward the uterus.

Answer: D Topic: 4.6 The Cytoskeleton: Cell Shape and Movement Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) Examine the following photographs. Which of the techniques reveal internal cellular detail?

A) light micrograph and transmission electron micrograph B) light micrograph and scanning electron micrograph C) transmission electron micrograph and scanning electron micrograph D) all three micrographs Answer: A Topic: 4.1 The Microscopic World of Cells Skill: Application/Analysis

9 .

2) Examine the structures of the plant and animal cells below. Which of the following organelles connect(s) to the nuclear envelope?

A) the Golgi apparatus B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Topic: 4.4 The Endomembrane System: Manufacturing and Distributing Cellular Products Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The figure below shows a Paramecium, a single-celled freshwater protist. The hairlike structures visible on the Paramecium allow it to move. These structures are ______.

A) microfilaments B) intermediate filaments C) flagella D) cilia Answer: D Topic: 4.6 The Cytoskeleton: Cell Shape and Movement Skill: Application/Analysis

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4) The child shown in the figure below is not feeling well. Why does the poster say "No Antibiotics Please"?

A) His illness may be caused by an allergy to penicillin.

B) Antibiotics should be taken only to promote growth.

C) His illness is caused by bacteria.

D) His illness is caused by a virus.

Answer: D Topic: 4.6 The Cytoskeleton: Cell Shape and Movement Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

The earliest cells detectable in fossils were different from the cells in animals, plants, fungi, and protists living today. These first prokaryotic cells gave rise to eukaryotic cells approximately 1.7 billion years ago. The structure of eukaryotic cells today suggests how they might have evolved from their prokaryotic ancestors. Scientists examining mitochondria and chloroplasts now think that these organelles were probably free-living prokaryotes before becoming a part of eukaryotic cells long ago.

1) What evidence suggests that mitochondria might have evolved before chloroplasts?

A) Mitochondria can sometimes divide to produce chloroplasts.

B) Only mitochondria have their own DNA. C) Some mitochondria have chloroplasts inside of them.

D) Almost all eukaryotes have mitochondria but only some cells have chloroplasts.

Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Chloroplasts and Mitochondria: Energy Conversion Skill: Application/Analysis 12 .

2) Which of the following is a characteristic of chloroplasts that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?

A) Chloroplasts have cell walls.

B) Chloroplasts contain pigments.

C) Chloroplasts have their own DNA. D) A single, highly folded plasma membrane surrounds chloroplasts.

Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Chloroplasts and Mitochondria: Energy Conversion Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Which of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?

A) Mitochondria have cell walls.

B) The plasma membrane of a mitochondrion, forming the surface of this organelle, is the site of many important steps of cellular respiration.

C) Mitochondria have their own DNA. D) Mitochondria rely upon proteins as their source of energy.

Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Chloroplasts and Mitochondria: Energy Conversion Skill: Application/Analysis

13 .

Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 5 The Working Cell Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What is energy?

A) the capacity to cause movement B) the capacity to cause change C) a measure of calories D) a measure of disorder Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) An object at rest has no ______ energy, but it may have ______ energy resulting from its location or structure.

A) kinetic... potential B) kinetic... conserved C) potential... kinetic D) stored... potential Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ______.

A) interconversion B) conservation of energy C) conservation of heat D) entropy Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy.

A) potential B) no C) kinetic D) conserved Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

1 .

5) You are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows down and stops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped? A) It was returned to the bicycle. B) It was converted back to chemical energy. C) It was released as heat. D) It was used to chemically break down the tires. Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following is a measure of randomness in a system?

A) entropy B) kinetic energy C) potential energy D) chemical energy Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing ______.

A) chemical energy into kinetic energy B) chemical energy into potential energy C) kinetic energy into potential energy D) kinetic energy into chemical energy Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Humans convert approximately ______ of the energy stored in food to useful work.

A) 22% B) 34% C) 55% D) 99.9% Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Ten kilocalories are equivalent to ______ calories.

A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 0.1 D) 100 Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Application/Analysis

2 .

10) You have a 2-kg bottle of liquid water at 0°C. About how many Calories are needed to heat up the water to 100°C? A) 100 Calories B) 200 Calories C) 2,000 Calories D) 10,000 Calories Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Application/Analysis 11) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?

A) C6H12O6 B) ATP C) DNA D) fat Answer: B Topic: 5.2 ATP and Cellular Work Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ______.

A) adenosine B) heat unit C) photon D) phosphate group Answer: D Topic: 5.2 ATP and Cellular Work Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______.

A) result in cell death B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy C) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy D) have no effect on the cell Answer: A Topic: 5.2 ATP and Cellular Work Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Usually, enzymes are ______.

A) fats B) steroids C) chemical reactions D) proteins Answer: D Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3 .

15) The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.

A) summation B) cellular synthesis C) replication D) metabolism Answer: D Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ______.

A) increasing the temperature of the substrates B) contributing electrons to the reaction C) decreasing activation energy D) changing the pH of the substrates Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which one of the following is true?

A) Enzymes are the products in a chemical reaction.

B) Enzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction.

C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.

D) An enzyme's function requires inhibitors.

Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) An enzyme's function is dependent on its ______.

A) pH B) temperature C) shape D) size Answer: C Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) sucrose B) sucrase C) glucose D) fructose Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4 .

20) The region of an enzyme to which a substrate binds is called the ______ site.

A) active B) substrate C) enzymatic D) conformational Answer: A Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which component of the following reaction is the substrate? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) sucrose B) sucrase C) glucose D) fructose Answer: A Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Which one of the following is true?

A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.

B) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.

C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.

D) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.

Answer: A Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ______.

A) enzyme substrates B) enzyme inhibitors C) induced fit factors D) enzyme products Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which one of the following is most similar to the mechanism of an enzyme inhibitor?

A) keeping someone from parking by parking in their designated spot B) driving the wrong way on a one-way street C) forgetting to put a cap back on a pen D) changing the tires on a car Answer: A Topic: 5.3 Enzymes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5 .

25) Diffusion is an example of ______.

A) phagocytosis B) active transport C) endocytosis D) passive transport Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Diffusion ______.

A) is the result of the potential energy of atoms B) requires an input of cellular energy C) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated D) proceeds until equilibrium is reached Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ______ and moves a substance ______ its concentration gradient.

A) energy... down B) transport proteins... down C) energy and transport proteins... against D) transport proteins... against Answer: B Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Osmosis can be defined as ______.

A) the diffusion of water B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules C) active transport D) the diffusion of a solute Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) A balloon permeable to water but not to glucose contains a 10% glucose solution. A beaker contains a 5% glucose solution. Which of the following is true?

A) The solution in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the solution in the balloon.

B) The solution in the balloon is isotonic; the solution in the beaker is hypertonic.

C) When placed in the beaker, the balloon will lose water by osmosis.

D) The solution in the balloon is hypertonic relative to the solution in the beaker.

Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Application/Analysis

6 .

30) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will ______.

A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution is ______.

A) isotonic to its environment B) hypertonic to its environment C) hypotonic to its environment D) metabolically inactive Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment ______.

A) is isotonic to the protozoan B) is hypotonic to the protozoan C) is hypertonic to the protozoan D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan Answer: B Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Application/Analysis 33) If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?

A) expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole B) the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water C) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water D) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) In a hypotonic solution, a plant cell will ______.

A) undergo plasmolysis B) become flaccid C) burst D) become turgid Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings? A) active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) osmosis Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Active transport ______.

A) uses ATP as an energy source B) can move solutes against their concentration gradient C) can involve the transport of ions D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) When a person cries, tears are exported from cells through the process of A) facilitated diffusion.

B) active transport.

C) endocytosis.

D) exocytosis.

Answer: C Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach.

This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?

A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) phagocytosis D) passive transport Answer: B Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ______.

A) osmosis B) diffusion C) exocytosis D) phagocytosis Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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40) Relaying a message from a receptor protein to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called ______.

A) signal transduction B) inhibition C) self-recognition D) selective permeability Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Which of the following is most like a signal transduction pathway in a cell?

A) a person answering the door to their home after someone rings the doorbell B) a person parking a car in a parking space C) catching fish using a fishing pole D) a physician removing a thorn from a person's foot Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) The figure below shows that ______.

A) ADP can perform cellular work when it binds to an additional phosphate group B) ATP can perform cellular work when it releases a phosphate group C) ATP can be converted to ADP by adding a phosphate group D) energy is released from ATP during the process of cellular respiration Answer: B Topic: 5.2 ATP and Cellular Work Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the cells below. Cells with a higher concentration of ions than the surrounding medium tend to ______.

A) stay about the same size and shape B) expand C) shrink D) divide Answer: B Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Application/Analysis

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3) Examine the following figure. Imagine that cell signaling using a signal transduction pathway is like a person answering the door after hearing the doorbell ring. Which structure in this figure is like the button for the doorbell?

A) epinephrine B) the receptor protein C) proteins of the signal transduction pathway D) the plasma membrane Answer: B Topic: 5.4 Membrane Function Skill: Application/Analysis Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Cellular respiration converts the energy of fuel molecules to a form of energy that a cell can use to perform work. In an average day, most adult humans need to consume about 2,000 Calories to maintain their health. However, the exact amount of dietary Calories a person needs depends upon many factors, including the person’s age, physical activity, size, and health. Foods that we consume vary greatly in their nutritional content and quality. A large hard-boiled egg, for example, has about 75 dietary Calories and contains about 70% of our recommended daily intake of cholesterol.

1) Molecules that come from the food we eat provide energy for the amazing work that goes on inside of our cells. This energy, stored inside of our food, is a form of ______.

A) potential energy called chemical energy B) potential energy called entropy C) kinetic energy called heat D) electrical energy called heat Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) If a person eats one hard-boiled egg and digests the egg fully, cellular respiration will convert most of this energy into ______. A) ATP B) heat C) carbon dioxide D) sugars Answer: B Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The amount of dietary Calories in one hard-boiled egg could raise the temperature of ______. A) 75 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius B) 750 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius C) 1,000 grams of water by 75 degrees Celsius D) 7,500 grams of water by 50 degrees Celsius Answer: C Topic: 5.1 Some Basic Energy Concepts Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 6 Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A difference between marathon runners and sprinters is ______.

A) marathon runners have more slow-twitch fibers in their leg muscles B) marathon runners have more fast-twitch muscle fibers in their leg muscles C) sprinters have a high proportion of muscle fibers that require oxygen to make ATP D) sprinters perform better in activities that require slow, steady muscle activity Answer: A Topic: 6 Biology and Society Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Humans are both A) heterotrophs and consumers.

B) heterotrophs and autotrophs.

C) producers and consumers.

D) autotrophs and producers.

Answer: A Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Photosynthetic organisms are ______.

A) producers that make all of their organic matter from organic molecules that they take in B) consumers that obtain organic molecules from other living organisms C) producers that make all their own organic matter from inorganic molecules D) decomposers that obtain nutrients from the soil Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) A horse eating some hay is an example of ______.

A) an autotroph eating a producer B) an autotroph eating a consumer C) a consumer eating a producer D) a consumer eating a heterotroph Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Application/Analysis 5) Plants use photosynthesis to A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy.

B) store as well as harvest chemical energy.

C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy.

D) obtain carbon dioxide.

Answer: A Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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6) The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.

A) water only B) carbon dioxide only C) water and carbon dioxide D) water and glucose Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Plant cells ______.

A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs B) have chloroplasts and mitochondria C) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs Answer: B Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.

A) the sun B) producers C) ATP D) consumers Answer: A Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?

A) C6H12O6 B) glucose C) ATP D) fat Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) An aerobic process requires ______.

A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) ATP D) carbohydrates Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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11) Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular respiration ______.

A) produces ATP B) produces oxygen C) produces glucose D) uses carbon dioxide Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?

A) glucose → lactic acid + energy B) energy + carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen + water C) glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy D) none of the above Answer: C Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of the following are produced during cellular respiration?

A) ATP and water B) carbon dioxide and ATP C) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP D) oxygen and glucose Answer: C Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) During redox reactions, ______.

A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction B) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance D) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule Answer: C Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) During cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules. Which of the following is a true statement about this process?

A) The electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another.

B) Oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.

C) The electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one electron acceptor to another.

D) Glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.

Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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16) Which of the following statements is true? A) Oxygen is a product of cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis. B) Lactic acid is a product of aerobic respiration; ethyl alcohol is a product of fermentation. C) Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons. D) Glucose is a product of aerobic respiration; lactic acid is a product of anaerobic respiration. Answer: C Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.

A) CO2 B) O2 C) NAD+ D) H2O Answer: C Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.

A) ATP B) oxygen C) lactic acid D) NAD+ Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A) cytoplasm B) ER C) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane D) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?

A) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport B) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport C) citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis D) electron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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21) A product of glycolysis is ______.

A) lactic acid B) ethyl alcohol C) O2 D) pyruvic acid Answer: D Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis?

A) production of CO2 B) conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid C) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule D) conversion of NADH to NAD+ Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The second stage of aerobic respiration is ______.

A) ATP production B) the citric acid cycle C) lactic acid fermentation D) glycolysis Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle?

A) acetyl CoA B) lactic acid C) ethyl alcohol D) citric acid Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) In aerobic respiration, how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose?

A) 1 B) 38 C) 6 D) 12 Answer: D Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Application/Analysis

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26) Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH? A) electron transport chain B) citric acid cycle C) glycolysis D) Calvin cycle Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Electron transport takes place in the ______.

A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) cytoplasm D) ribosomes Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) ATP synthase plays a role in ______.

A) pulling electrons down the electron transport chain B) glycolysis C) pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane D) generating ATP Answer: D Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Aerobic cellular respiration generates about ______ ATP from one glucose.

A) 2 B) 6 C) 38 D) The number generated depends on whether the end product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid or ethyl alcohol.

Answer: C Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) In cellular respiration, most ATP is produced directly as a result of ______.

A) the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane B) the citric acid cycle C) fermentation D) the electron transport chain Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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31) Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to A) produce more ATP than is possible through aerobic respiration.

B) produce ATP using the electron transport chain.

C) regenerate NADH. D) produce ATP without O2.

Answer: D Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ______ ATP per glucose.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 10 D) 38 Answer: A Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar breakdown?

A) the citric acid cycle B) the electron transport chain C) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid D) glycolysis Answer: D Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells. Physicians find that the muscle cells function. Not surprisingly, they also find that ______.

A) the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise B) the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise C) the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function D) the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid Answer: A Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Application/Analysis 35) Some friends are trying to make wine in their basement. They've added yeast to a sweet grape juice mixture and have allowed the yeast to grow. After several days they find that sugar levels in the grape juice have dropped, but there's no alcohol in the mixture. The most likely explanation is that ______.

A) the mixture needs more sugar; yeast need a lot of energy before they can begin to produce alcohol B) the mixture needs less oxygen; yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygen C) the mixture needs more oxygen; yeast need oxygen to break down sugar to produce alcohol D) the mixture needs less sugar; high sugar concentrations stimulate cellular respiration, and alcohol is not a by-product of cellular respiration Answer: B Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Application/Analysis

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36) What waste product do yeast produce under anaerobic conditions?

A) ethyl alcohol B) pyruvic acid C) lactic acid D) creatine Answer: A Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Large amounts of oxygen gas first appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.

A) 500,000 B) 10 million C) 2.7 billion D) 3.5 billion Answer: C Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Examine the following figure. Which of the following reactants primarily come(s) from the air?

A) water B) glucose C) carbon dioxide D) oxygen and carbon dioxide Answer: D Topic: 6.1 Energy Flow and Chemical Cycling in the Biosphere Skill: Application/Analysis

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2) Examine the following figure. Which of these stages occur(s) in the cytoplasm?

A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) glycolysis and citric acid cycle D) citric acid cycle and electron transport Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The figure below shows

A) the synthesis of ADP B) the breakdown of ATP to perform cellular work C) the removal of a phosphate group from ADP D) the synthesis of ATP through the addition of a phosphate group Answer: D Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The figure below shows that ______.

A) amino acids can move directly into the electron transport chain B) our cells can use sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids to produce ATP C) our cells can produce ATP only from glucose D) our cells can produce ATP from sugars and glycerol, but not fatty acids Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

An abundant and continual supply of ATP is necessary for all living cells. Active muscle cells require an extraordinary amount of ATP to permit strenuous exercise for prolonged periods. Toxins, reduced blood flow, and a compromised respiratory system can interfere with the transport of oxygen to active cells. A runner in a marathon faces multiple obstacles to continue to produce sufficient ATP to remain competitive.

1) Breathing faster when we exercise is necessary to expel ______.

A) carbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support aerobic metabolism B) oxygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support aerobic metabolism C) carbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support anaerobic metabolism D) oxygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support anaerobic metabolism Answer: A Topic: 6.2 Cellular Respiration: Aerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) When oxygen delivery becomes insufficient to support a runner’s aerobic metabolism, cells switch to an emergency mode in which ______.

A) ATP is generated less efficiently by harvesting the heat energy in a cell B) ATP is inefficiently produced and lactic acid is generated as a by-product C) lactic acid is broken down to produce smaller amounts of ATP D) carbon dioxide is joined with water to generate much smaller amounts of ATP Answer: B Topic: 6.3 Fermentation: Anaerobic Harvest of Food Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 7 Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an autotroph?

A) human B) mushroom C) pine tree D) fish Answer: C Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.

A) taking in oxygen and making wood B) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates) C) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose D) converting sugar to oxygen and water Answer: B Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Within the inner membrane of a chloroplast, interconnected sacs of membrane called ______ are suspended in a thick fluid called the ______.

A) chlorophyll... thylakoid B) thylakoids... grana C) thylakoids... stroma D) grana... thylakoid Answer: C Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) What is the function of stomata?

A) water absorption B) Calvin cycle C) location of photosystems D) gas exchange Answer: D Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Through what structure(s) do plants obtain most of their water?

A) roots B) interior cells C) stomata D) leaves Answer: A Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?

A) stroma B) cristae C) thylakoids D) vesicles Answer: C Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) What are grana?

A) thick fluids inside chloroplasts B) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane C) stacks of membranous sacs D) pigments found in chloroplasts Answer: C Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) If you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light, but only minimal amounts of water, which of the following would you expect to occur?

A) increased plant growth B) increased amounts of oxygen released by the plants C) decreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plants D) increased growth of the plants’ leaves Answer: C Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?

A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 C) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O D) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O Answer: B Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.

A) O2... CO2 B) C6H12O6... O2 C) H2O... C6H12O6 D) H2O... CO2 Answer: D Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis?

A) O2 B) CO2 C) C6H12O6 D) ADP Answer: A Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) The Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light reactions in order to operate.

A) glucose... carbon dioxide B) electrons... NADH C) ATP... NADPH D) RuBP... NADP+ Answer: C Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ______.

A) ATP and NADH B) ATP and NADPH C) RuBP and O2 D) ATP and NADP+ Answer: B Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.

A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigment B) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object C) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object D) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight Answer: B Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) If a plant appears blue to us, what wavelength of light is being reflected?

A) blue B) green C) red D) yellow Answer: A Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Application/Analysis 16) The energy of wavelengths that appear ______ is least useful to photosynthesis.

A) red B) green C) blue D) orange Answer: B Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) What is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of leaves in the fall?

A) RuBP B) chlorophyll a C) carotenoids D) chlorophyll b Answer: C Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) What is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules, like chlorophyll b carotenoids?

A) to reflect more energy B) to absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot and C) to give them different colors D) because plants cannot make enough chlorophyll a for all of their energy needs Answer: B Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) What name is given to a discrete packet of light?

A) phaser B) wavelength C) photon D) quantum Answer: C Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ______. A) less energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments B) redder the color C) more photons it contains D) greater the energy Answer: D Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) When a molecule absorbs a photon, one of its electrons is raised to the ______ state. A) energetic B) quantum C) higher D) excited Answer: D Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Which of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon?

A) heat B) fluorescence C) light D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Where are photosystems located? A) chlorophyll B) thylakoid membrane C) cristae D) stroma Answer: B Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?

A) chlorophyll b B) carotenoids C) phycobilins D) chlorophyll a Answer: D Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ______. A) in the stroma B) on the cristae C) in the thylakoid membrane D) in the cytosol Answer: C Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) ______ is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem.

A) H2O B) Chlorophyll a C) CO2 D) C6H12O6 Answer: A Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following is the source of electrons for the light reactions?

A) C6H12O6 B) CO2 C) NADPH D) H2O Answer: D Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of photosynthesis?

A) citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) Calvin cycle D) electron transport chain Answer: D Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) In photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ______.

A) thylakoid membrane B) outer chloroplast membrane C) endomembrane D) inner chloroplast membrane Answer: A Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.

A) light energy and CO2... sugar B) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar and O2 C) light energy, CO2, and water... sugar and O2 D) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar Answer: D Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) C4 plants conserve water by ______.

A) shuttling CO2 from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem B) keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry C) growing very deep roots D) running the Calvin cycle at night Answer: B Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) CAM plants conserve water by ______.

A) opening their stomata only at night B) incorporating CO2 into RuBP C) keeping their stomata closed at night D) running the Calvin cycle at night Answer: A Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Refer to the accompanying figure. Plant cells that contain the organelle responsible for photosynthesis are concentrated in cells of the ______.

A) roots B) leaves C) stomata D) grana Answer: B Topic: 7.1 The Basics of Photosynthesis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following is true regarding the behavior of a chlorophyll molecule as it absorbs a photon?

A) An electron goes from the excited state to the ground state.

B) Light is released.

C) The energy of a photon raises an electron to the excited state.

D) ATP is broken down.

Answer: C Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following best describes the direct mechanism of ATP production during photosynthesis?

A) use of the energy generated as hydrogen ions (H+) move up a proton gradient; this energy is used to make ATP B) use of the energy released as excited electrons are passed from one molecule to another in the electron transport system; the energy is converted to the chemical bond energy of ATP C) use of the energy stored in excited electrons; as the electrons move from the excited state to the ground state, the energy released is converted to the energy stored in the third phosphate bond in ATP D) use of the energy stored in hydrogen ion (H+) gradients; the potential energy of the proton gradient is released as the protons move down their gradient through special membrane protein channels; this energy is converted to chemical bond energy in the ATP molecule Answer: D Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Please refer to the following art to answer the following question(s).

4) How many times must the Calvin cycle turn for the plant cell to be able to produce one molecule of glucose?

A) one B) two C) three D) six Answer: D Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Application/Analysis 5) One of the compounds that is a direct output of the Calvin cycle is ______.

A) C6H12O6 B) NADPH C) G3P D) ATP Answer: C Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11 .

6) The first step of the Calvin cycle is the incorporation of ______ into ______. A) O2... G3P B) RuBP... O2 C) CO2... RuBP D) G3P... RuBP Answer: C Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.

A) G3P production B) oxidation of CO2 C) regeneration of RuBP D) sugar production Answer: C Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), which of the following statements would be true?

A) The plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less.

B) No oxygen would be released by the plant.

C) No sugar would be made by the plant.

D) Only RuBP would be recycled.

Answer: C Topic: 7.3 The Calvin Cycle: Making Sugar from Carbon Dioxide Skill: Application/Analysis

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Scenario Questions Please use the following information to answer the following question(s).

You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shadetolerant plant species.

From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day). The data you collected are as follows:

Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following question(s): 1) Which wavelength is best for your plants’ growth?

A) 650 nm B) 550 nm C) 500 nm D) 400 nm Answer: C Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Application/Analysis 2) Of the following, which wavelength is least useful to your plants?

A) 650 nm B) 450 nm C) 550 nm D) 400 nm Answer: C Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Application/Analysis 13 .

3) Which wavelength of light is the least useful to your plant’s growth? A) 750 nm B) 650 nm C) 550 nm D) 500 nm Answer: A Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Application/Analysis 4) Why do some plant species require shaded conditions while other plant species require bright sunlight? A) Different species of plants have different pigment molecules that utilize different wavelengths of light. B) Different species of plants have leaves that are shaped differently. C) Some species of plants are able to produce sugar without ever having been exposed to sunlight. D) Some species of plants are consumers and do not need sunlight. Answer: A Topic: 7.2 The Light Reactions: Converting Solar Energy to Chemical Energy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 8 Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A(n) ______ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually.

A) cat B) human C) Komodo dragon D) mouse Answer: C Topic: 8 Biology and Society Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical. This type of cell division is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT A) growth of a multicellular organism.

B) cell replacement.

C) production of sperm and eggs.

D) asexual reproduction.

Answer: C Topic: 8.1 What Cell Reproduction Accomplishes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.

A) nucleus B) centriole C) Golgi apparatus D) nucleolus Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Chromatin consists of ______.

A) DNA and protein B) RNA and protein C) protein only D) DNA only Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.

A) centromeres B) centrosomes C) genomes D) sister chromatids Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.

A) centromere B) spindle C) centrosome D) centriole Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following occurs during interphase?

A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.

B) Chromosome duplication.

C) Sister chromatids separate.

D) The mitotic spindle forms.

Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The cell cycle results in the production of ______.

A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following occurs during prophase?

A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.

B) The nuclear envelope forms.

C) Sister chromatids separate.

D) The mitotic spindle begins to form.

Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?

A) cytokinesis B) telophase C) interphase D) DNA synthesis Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.

A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) During metaphase ______.

A) the nuclear envelope breaks up B) sister chromatids separate C) centromeres divide D) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of these events occurs during anaphase?

A) Sister chromatids separate.

B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

C) The nuclear envelope reappears.

D) The nuclear envelope breaks up.

Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) During telophase ______.

A) the events of prophase are reversed B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell C) sister chromatids separate D) the nuclear envelope breaks up Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.

A) have less genetic material than it started with B) not have completed anaphase C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell D) have two nuclei Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Cytokinesis typically begins during the ______ stage of mitosis.

A) telophase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase Answer: A Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?

A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.

B) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.

C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.

D) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.

Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival?

A) Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet.

B) Limit exercise.

C) Seek early detection of tumors.

D) Smoke only cigarettes.

Answer: C Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Application/Analysis 19) Homologous chromosomes ______.

A) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics B) include only the autosomes C) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent D) carry the same versions of all genes Answer: A Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) What chromosomes belong to a normal human male? A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes B) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome D) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome Answer: C Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) What chromosomes belong to a normal human female?

A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes B) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome D) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes Answer: B Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.

A) homologous chromosomes B) nonhomologous chromosomes C) sex chromosomes D) autosomes Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Sexual intercourse in humans ______.

A) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell B) produces a haploid individual C) produces an individual with 23 chromosomes D) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote Answer: A Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II? A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells.

B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II the chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell.

C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II. D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated.

Answer: A Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed meiosis II? A) one-quarter as much B) four times as much C) one-half as much D) twice as much Answer: B Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis 26) During metaphase I, ______.

A) crossing over occurs B) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell C) the nuclear envelope breaks up D) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles Answer: B Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).

A) four haploid B) two diploid C) two haploid D) one diploid Answer: C Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II? A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.

B) Spindle formation occurs.

C) Chromosomes have been duplicated.

D) Crossing over occurs.

Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in mitotic anaphase ______.

A) the cells are diploid... the cells are haploid B) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell... chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell C) crossing over occurs... crossing over does not occur D) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate... the cells are diploid and sister chromatids separate Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.

A) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not B) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis C) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells D) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells Answer: A Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Which is it?

A) the events of meiosis I B) crossing over C) independent assortment D) the events of meiosis II Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I? A) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father.

B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.

C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.

D) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole.

Answer: C Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) For a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ chromosome combinations are possible.

A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 20 Answer: C Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis 34) A ______ describes a site of crossing over.

A) chiasma B) histone C) synapse D) centromere Answer: A Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Crossing over during prophase I results in ______.

A) nondisjunction B) reciprocal translocation C) duplication D) genetic recombination Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis 36) A karyotype (a chromosome display) would be unable to determine ______.

A) sex B) Down syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) eye color Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis 37) How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction?

A) n + 1 or n - 1 B) 2n + 1 or 2n - 1 C) 2n - 1 only D) 2n + 1 or n - 1 Answer: A Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?

A) 2n + 1 B) n + 1 C) 2n - 1 D) n - 1 Answer: C Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Examine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ______.

A) RNA and protein B) DNA C) proteins D) DNA and histone proteins Answer: D Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) As shown in the following figure, plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ______.

A) plant cells produce more daughter cells B) plant cells form a cell plate and animal cells do not C) animal cells produce more daughter cells D) animal cells form a cell plate and plant cells do not Answer: B Topic: 8.2 The Cell Cycle and Mitosis Skill: Application/Analysis

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3) This diagram of the human life cycle shows that ______.

A) meiosis produces a diploid zygote B) meiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells C) fertilization produces a haploid zygote D) a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human Answer: B Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) The following figure shows that ______.

A) meiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells B) fertilization results in four haploid daughter cells C) the human 2n number is 4 D) meiosis forms diploid gametes Answer: A Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis

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5) The karyotype below shows ______.

A) abnormal sex chromosomes B) trisomy 21, a cause of Klinefelter syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) trisomy 21, a cause of Down syndrome Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis Scenario Questions Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).

Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.

1) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.

A) independent assortment of chromosomes B) crossing over C) nondisjunction D) random fertilization Answer: C Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis 13 .

2) With respect to her sex chromosomes, Amanda would be designated as ______.

A) XYY B) XO C) XOY D) XX Answer: B Topic: 8.3 Meiosis, The Basis of Sexual Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 9 Patterns of Inheritance Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ______.

A) cannot be cross-fertilized B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) A mating between a purebred purple-flowered pea plant and a purebred white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n) ______.

A) purebred variety B) hybrid C) P generation D) F2 generation Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Alleles are described as ______.

A) homologous chromosomes B) environmental factors that affect gene expression C) alternate versions of a gene D) alternate phenotypes Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why? A) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele.

B) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow.

C) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.

D) The alleles are codominant.

Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis

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5) A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?

A) 1:2:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 9:3:3:1 Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 6) According to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.

A) two alleles segregate into each gamete B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele C) gametes have one copy of each allele D) gametes are diploid Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A) 2:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:2:1 D) 3:1 Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants, and all of the resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The offspring are all ______, and the allele for purple flowers is ______.

A) heterozygotes... recessive B) heterozygotes... dominant C) homozygotes... recessive D) homozygotes... dominant Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis

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9) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 10) In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?

A) DD B) Dd C) dd D) DI Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 11) An individual who is homozygous ______.

A) expresses the dominant trait B) carries two different alleles for a gene C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene D) expresses the recessive trait Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?

A) AA × aa B) AA × Aa C) Aa × Aa D) Aa × aa Answer: A Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 13) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?

A) locus B) chromaddress C) genotype D) allele Answer: A Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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14) Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?

A) 1:2:1 B) 9:3:3:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:1:1:1 Answer: D Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 15) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ______.

A) the chromosomal theory of inheritance B) Mendel's law of independent assortment C) linkage D) Mendel's principle of segregation Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who ______.

A) expresses the dominant trait B) is homozygous recessive for that trait C) is homozygous dominant for that trait D) is heterozygous for that trait Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?

A) 25% B) 50% C) 33% D) 67% Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 18) In humans, free earlobes (E) are dominant to attached earlobes (e) and the presence of freckles (F) is dominant to the absence of freckles (f). If an individual heterozygous for both of these traits were to mate with an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes and freckles?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100% Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 4 .

19) The ______ is most commonly found in nature.

A) recessive trait B) wild-type trait C) parental D) dominant trait Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.

A) cannot have children with cystic fibrosis B) is a carrier C) will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis D) has cystic fibrosis Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Achondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype causes death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. If a person with achondroplasia mates with a person who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected to have achondroplasia?

A) 0% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?

A) testcross B) dihybrid cross C) amniocentesis D) pedigree analysis Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?

A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

C) The alleles affect more than one trait.

D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

Answer: A Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Application/Analysis

5 .

24) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. What is the relationship between the alleles for hair texture?

A) pleiotropy B) incomplete dominance C) wavy hair is dominant to both straight and curly hair D) codominance Answer: B Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. If an individual with wavy hair mates with an individual with straight hair, what is the probability that their child will have curly hair?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: A Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Application/Analysis 26) What is the key to the recognition of codominance?

A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

C) The alleles affect more than one trait.

D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

Answer: D Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) An individual with the blood group genotype LMLN has the phenotype MN. What is the relationship between the LM and LN alleles?

A) codominance B) pleiotropy C) LN is dominant D) incomplete dominance Answer: A Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Marfan syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan syndrome are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. The inheritance of Marfan syndrome is an example of ______.

A) codominance B) a recessive disorder C) pleiotropy D) incomplete dominance Answer: C Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6 .

29) What is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes (polygenic inheritance)?

A) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of offspring expressing the dominant trait.

B) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed.

C) Pleiotropy occurs.

D) The trait varies along a continuum in the population.

Answer: D Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) In humans, the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.

A) cystic fibrosis B) height C) blood type D) sickle-cell disease Answer: B Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Many human traits, such as our performance on intelligence tests or our susceptibility to heart disease, are ______.

A) determined only by our genes B) influenced by both genes and the environment C) determined by genes in some people and by the environment in other people D) not affected by our genes Answer: B Topic: 9.2 Variations on Mendel's Laws Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) What is the basis of Mendel's laws?

A) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis only B) the behavior of chromosomes during mitotic anaphase C) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I and prophase II of meiosis D) the behavior of chromosomes during metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis Answer: D Topic: 9.3 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) ______ genes violate Mendel's principle of independent assortment.

A) Codominant B) Linked C) Recessive D) Pleiotropic Answer: B Topic: 9.3 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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34) What is the best explanation for a BbCc × bbcc cross producing offspring in a 5:5:1:1 phenotypic ratio? A) linked genes B) polygenic inheritance C) incomplete dominance D) codominance Answer: A Topic: 9.3 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) A dihybrid cross produces 30 recombinant offspring out of a total of 1,000 offspring. What is the recombination frequency of the two gene pairs?

A) 6% B) 3% C) 30% D) 1.5% Answer: B Topic: 9.3 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 36) The recombination frequency between gene B and gene C is 11%. The recombination frequency between gene B and gene D is 5%. The recombination frequency between gene C and gene D is 15%.

What would be the arrangement of these genes on a linkage map?

A) CDB B) DBC C) BCD D) More information is needed.

Answer: B Topic: 9.3 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 37) Linked genes are usually A) found on the X chromosome.

B) found on the Y chromosome.

C) codominant.

D) located close together on a chromosome.

Answer: D Topic: 9.4 Sex Chromosomes and Sex-Linked Genes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Assume that having three nostrils is inherited as a sex-linked trait on the Y chromosome. A man with three nostrils has a daughter who has a son with a man who has only two nostrils. What is the probability that the three-nostriled man's grandson has three nostrils?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100% Answer: A Topic: 9.4 Sex Chromosomes and Sex-Linked Genes Skill: Application/Analysis 8 .

39) Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is found on the X chromosome. How can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind?

A) The woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind.

B) The man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness.

C) He can't (unless there is a mutation).

D) The man's mother carries an allele for red-green color blindness, and the expression of the trait skipped a generation.

Answer: C Topic: 9.4 Sex Chromosomes and Sex-Linked Genes Skill: Application/Analysis 40) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait. The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?

A) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.

B) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.

C) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.

D) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.

Answer: A Topic: 9.4 Sex Chromosomes and Sex-Linked Genes Skill: Application/Analysis Art Questions Please refer to the following art to answer the following question(s).

1) In the accompanying art you see a table with the actual number of offspring that resulted from a dihybrid cross. The numbers do not show the 9:3:3:1 ratio predicted. One phenotype occurred more than predicted; another occurred less. The reason could be because ______.

A) of errors in mitosis B) some of the alleles were linked C) some of the alleles were sex-linked D) of polygenic inheritance Answer: B Topic: 9.3 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 9 .

2) Recombinant offspring were produced by the mating shown in the accompanying art. What is the recombination frequency of purple round and red long offspring?

A) 21% B) 381 C) 21 + 21 D) 11% Answer: D Topic: 9.3 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Widow's peak, a pointed hairline on the forehead, is a genetic trait caused by a dominant allele. It can be traced back through a family's history using pedigree analysis. The pedigree shown here shows three generations of a family. Notice that some individuals (shown in gray) have a widow's peak (W = dominant allele and w = recessive allele).

1) Mary has the genotype ______.

A) WW B) ww C) Ww D) more information is needed.

Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 2) Janice's genotype is _______.

A) Ww B) WW C) ww D) WW or Ww Answer: D Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis 10 .

3) This pedigree supports the fact that widow's peak is due to a dominant allele, because if it were due to a recessive allele and both parents show the recessive phenotype, then ______. A) none of the sons would have a widow's peak B) all of the offspring would have a widow's peak C) none of the daughters would have a widow's peak D) all of the daughters and none of the sons would have a widow's peak Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis Please read the following scenario to answer the following question. The parents of a child with unusual disease symptoms take the child to a doctor for help. The doctor suspects that the condition might have a genetic basis. She recommends that the child be taken to a specialty clinic where physicians and staff members are trained to diagnose genetic diseases and counsel parents. Ultimately, the child is diagnosed with a rare recessively inherited disease. The parents are tested for the gene, and both are found to be heterozygous. The parents want to have another child but are afraid this child will also be affected. 4) What would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease? A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) 1/8 D) 1/16 Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Heritable Variation and Patterns of Inheritance Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 10 The Structure and Function of DNA Multiple-Choice Questions 1) DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.

A) nucleotide B) carbohydrate C) fatty acid D) amino acid Answer: A Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The backbone of DNA consists of ______.

A) nitrogenous bases B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern D) paired nucleotides Answer: C Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Thymine and cytosine differ from adenine and guanine in that A) thymine and cytosine are single-ring structures, whereas adenine and guanine are double-ring structures.

B) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are found in both DNA and RNA. C) thymine and cytosine are only found in DNA, whereas adenine and guanine are only found in RNA. D) thymine and cytosine are larger nitrogenous bases.

Answer: A Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA. A) a deoxyribose sugar... a ribose sugar B) uracil... thymine C) uracil... guanine D) thymine... uracil Answer: B Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine?

A) 60% B) 40% C) 20% D) 30% Answer: D Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.

A) cytosine... thymine B) guanine... adenine C) thymine... cytosine D) uracil... cytosine Answer: C Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand?

A) ACTTGC B) TGAACG C) CAGGTA D) CAGGUA Answer: C Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Who discovered the structure of DNA? A) Pauling B) Watson and Crick C) Franklin D) Hershey and Chase Answer: B Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______.

A) X-ray crystallography studies B) studies of disease-causing bacteria C) base rule studies D) bacteriophage studies Answer: A Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?

A) ionic B) covalent C) hydrophilic D) hydrogen Answer: D Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) After replication, ______.

A) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand C) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands D) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands Answer: B Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) DNA replication A) is a slow process that results in virtually no errors.

B) requires DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase.

C) is a very fast process that results in numerous errors.

D) requires the cooperation of over a dozen enzymes and other proteins.

Answer: D Topic: 10.1 DNA: Structure and Replication Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______."

A) enzyme B) RNA C) protein D) polypeptide Answer: D Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?

A) holotype B) genotype C) phenotype D) morphology Answer: C Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) How many amino acids are common to all living systems? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 100 Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) How many nucleotides make up a codon?

A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.

A) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth B) DNA replication is error-free C) all life shares a common ancestry D) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells Answer: C Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Transcription is the ______.

A) manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA B) manufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix C) modification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein D) manufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA Answer: A Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n) ______.

A) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG B) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the complementary strand C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG D) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the complimentary strand Answer: C Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?

A) RNase B) RNA helicase C) RNA ligase D) RNA polymerase Answer: D Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) The region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______.

A) start codon B) promoter C) initiator D) processor Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.

A) splicing, capping, tailing B) initiation, elongation, termination C) tailing, capping, splicing D) elongation, initiation, termination Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ______.

A) the creation of a virus B) a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail C) the production of a longer RNA molecule D) the production of a shorter RNA molecule Answer: C Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Application/Analysis 24) What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?

A) RNA splicing B) the removal of exons C) the lack of RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm D) a cap and tail Answer: D Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.

A) caps B) promoters C) exons D) introns Answer: C Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.

A) DNA... RNA B) RNA... a polypeptide C) DNA... a polypeptide D) RNA... DNA Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA. A) nuclear B) ribosomal C) transfer D) messenger Answer: D Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) The DNA codon AGT codes for an amino acid carried by a tRNA with the anticodon ______.

A) TCU B) AGU C) TCA D) AGT Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Where is translation accomplished?

A) lysosomes B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) ribosomes D) nucleoli Answer: C Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) During translation, what is the correct order of events that occur as an amino acid is added?

A) codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation B) translocation, codon recognition, termination C) initiation, codon recognition, termination D) peptide bond formation, translocation, codon recognition Answer: A Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Peptide bonds form between ______.

A) amino acids B) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon C) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying D) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit Answer: A Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______.

A) result in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one produced prior to the mutation B) result in a shortened polypeptide chain C) change the location at which transcription of the next gene begins D) have the same effect as deleting a single nucleotide in the gene Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) What is the smallest number of nucleotides that must be added or subtracted to change the triplet grouping of the genetic message?

A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: A Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) What is the ultimate source of all diversity?

A) natural selection B) sexual recombination C) meiosis D) mutation Answer: D Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Mad cow disease is caused by A) a retrovirus similar to HIV. B) an enveloped virus.

C) small circular RNA molecules called viroids.

D) infectious proteins called prions.

Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Viruses and Other Noncellular Infectious Agents Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death?

A) by altering the way a cell splices its RNA B) via a lytic cycle C) via a lysogenic cycle D) by altering its DNA Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Viruses and Other Noncellular Infectious Agents Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Plant viruses ______.

A) often use RNA, rather than DNA, as their genetic material B) benefit plants, rather than causing disease C) cause diseases that can be easily cured D) do not exist–viruses only attack animals Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Viruses and Other Noncellular Infectious Agents Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) A(n) ______ is to bacteria as a ______ is to animal cells.

A) retrovirus... virus B) phage... prophage C) prophage... provirus D) RNA virus... DNA virus Answer: C Topic: 10.3 Viruses and Other Noncellular Infectious Agents Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) must use its own ______ to reproduce.

A) DNA polymerase B) reverse transcriptase C) RNA polymerase D) tRNA Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Viruses and Other Noncellular Infectious Agents Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) The figure below shows the flow of genetic information in a eukaryotic cell. The transfer of information from DNA into an RNA molecule is known as ______.

A) DNA replication B) transcription C) polypeptide D) translation Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______.

A) serine B) arginine C) threonine D) alanine Answer: A Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Consider the following figure. It indicates that a single amino acid substitution ______.

A) always involves adenine and uracil B) may alter a protein so that it no longer functions properly C) is a silent mutation D) causes a nonsense mutation Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10 .

Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s). If you were asked to study the pattern of bacterial growth (increase in numbers over time) during an infection, you would find that numbers of bacteria increase exponentially up to a certain point.

Assume that you have been asked to interpret the growth of bacteriophages. You infect the host bacteria and measure the increase of phages over a defined period of time. You plot the results and get the graph shown here.

1) The first thing you notice is that there is no immediate increase in viruses following infection. This is because ______.

A) it takes the virus time to adapt to the host B) although the virus has infected the host, it takes time to complete the lytic cycle C) the host is immune to the virus D) the virus is in a lysogenic cycle throughout the experiment Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Viruses and Other Noncellular Infectious Agents Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Once viruses are detected, the number of viruses increases rapidly. This is because ______.

A) lysogeny produces large numbers of bacteriophages B) DNA viruses reproduce more rapidly than RNA viruses C) the host cell speeds the release process D) the viruses lyse the hosts to release mature viruses all at once Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Viruses and Other Noncellular Infectious Agents Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

While working with cultured mouse cells, a researcher unknowingly treated the cells with a mutagen that causes the deletion or insertion of individual nucleotides in DNA. Subsequently, she isolated and cultured a single cell from this group. She noticed that the progeny of this cell were not producing a certain protein and that this affected their survival.

3) The mutation that resulted from her accident was probably ______.

A) an amino acid substitution B) one that changed the triplet grouping of the genetic message C) an error in translation D) a loss in regulation of gene expression Answer: B Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Application/Analysis 4) The mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it resulted in ______.

A) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence B) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence C) a single nucleotide in the middle of an intron D) deletion of a triplet near the middle of the gene Answer: A Topic: 10.2 The Flow of Genetic Information from DNA to RNA to Protein Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 11 How Genes Are Controlled MultipleChoice Questions 1) At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this? A) gene expression B) regeneration C) carcinogenesis D) cellular differentiation Answer: D Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______. A) phenogenesis B) transcription C) gene expression D) recombination Answer: C Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) In bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along with their DNA control sequences? A) operon B) activator C) promoter D) exon Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______. A) operator B) proto-oncogene C) regulatory gene D) promoter Answer: D Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) In prokaryotes, the production of a single RNA transcript for a group of related genes is under the control of the ______.

A) operon B) master control gene C) signal transduction pathway D) homeobox Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) In an operon, the ______ acts as an on/off switch.

A) operator B) promoter C) activator D) repressor Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?

A) RNA polymerase B) repressor C) promoter D) lactose Answer: B Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.

A) promoters B) DNA polymerase C) the operon D) RNA polymerase Answer: D Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) What would you assume if you found RNA transcripts of lactose-utilizing genes within E. coli?

A) the binding of lactose to the lac operon activator B) the presence of lactose C) the presence of lac operon activator protein D) the absence of lac operon repressor protein Answer: B Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) While examining a human cell that functions normally, you determine that it has 45 functional chromosomes and one chromosome that is almost completely inactive. You immediately decide that it is very likely that this cell ______. A) came from a normal human female B) is lacking a chromosome C) is a gamete D) will become cancerous if one or two more genes are mutated Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Application/Analysis 11) What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?

A) RNA splicing B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter C) DNA packing and unpacking D) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences Answer: C Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Male tortoiseshell cats ______.

A) do not have an X chromosome B) have orange and black patches of fur that reflect the pattern of X chromosome inactivation C) are usually XYY individuals D) are likely to be exceedingly rare and very likely to be sterile since normal male cats are XY Answer: D Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of these plays a role in the regulation of transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A) RNA splicing B) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter C) transcription factors D) gene operons Answer: B Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) In eukaryotic cells, repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.

A) silencers B) enhancers C) regulators D) operators Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Introns are ______.

A) noncoding DNA sequences B) DNA sequences to which activators bind C) expressed DNA sequences D) the product of RNA splicing Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of these is a type of post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression?

A) inactivation of tRNA B) alteration of DNA nucleotide sequences C) alteration of proteins D) binding of transcription factors to enhancers Answer: C Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?

A) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.

B) There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.

C) The length of its tail can vary.

D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.

Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Cells communicate with one another via ______.

A) cascades of gene activation B) the diffusion of RNA transcripts through adhesion junctions C) signal transduction pathways D) RNA splicing Answer: C Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The "master control genes" that regulate other genes, which determine what body parts will develop in which locations, are called ______.

A) enhancers B) homeotic genes C) oncogenes D) operons Answer: B Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Which of these is most likely to cause the development of a six-legged frog? A) mutation of homeotic genes B) artificial selection C) dietary supplementation D) conversion of a protooncogene to an oncogene Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Homeotic genes ______.

A) have very different sequences in plant cells as compared to animal cells B) are an example of convergent evolution C) are evidence of the common ancestry of eukaryotic organisms D) regulate gene expression in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Answer: C Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Which of these techniques could tell you how gene expression differs between individuals with and without cystic fibrosis?

A) therapeutic cloning B) DNA microarray C) reproductive cloning D) karyotyping Answer: B Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Application/Analysis 23) How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?

A) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.

B) Different chromosomes have been inactivated in different cells.

C) The cells contain different genes.

D) The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.

Answer: A Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Reproductive cloning involves A) reacquire the genes it lost during the course of development B) come from an early stage of embryonic development C) be dedifferentiated D) be implanted in the egg of an organism that is capable of regenerating lost body parts Answer: C Topic: 11.2 Cloning Plants and Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.

A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation B) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans C) restocking populations of endangered animals D) all of the above.

Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Cloning Plants and Animals Skill: Application/Analysis 26) What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?

A) The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells.

B) Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.

C) It is easier to enucleate embryonic stem cells.

D) Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.

Answer: B Topic: 11.2 Cloning Plants and Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?

A) pathogene B) cancogene C) homeotic gene D) oncogene Answer: D Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.

A) cell growth B) cell suicide C) cell division D) cell repair Answer: C Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Inheritance of certain genes increases the risk of getting certain cancers; thus, it can be said that ______.

A) these cancers are inherited as a dominant trait B) mutations that occur in somatic cells can be passed from parent to offspring C) predisposition to these cancers is inherited D) (for these individuals) lifestyle will have little impact on cancer risk Answer: C Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) Data suggest that the normal version of BRCA1 functions as a(n) ______.

A) oncogene B) tumor-suppressor gene C) proto-oncogene D) silencer Answer: B Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which risk factors are associated with cancer of the colon and rectum?

A) tobacco B) viruses C) UV radiation D) dietary fat Answer: D Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) ______ is(are) responsible for more cancers than any other carcinogen.

A) Asbestos B) UV radiation C) Tobacco D) X-rays Answer: C Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) More people die of ______ cancer than of any other cancer.

A) lung B) skin C) pancreatic D) breast Answer: A Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?

A) jogging B) spending more time in the sun C) a diet low in plant fiber D) quitting smoking Answer: C Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Examine the figure below. The initiation of transcription requires that enhancers bind to _____.

A) DNA B) the promoter C) transcription factors D) RNA polymerase Answer: C Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The figure below illustrates ______.

A) transcription factors B) activators C) alternative RNA splicing D) protein activation Answer: C Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The lac operon is shown in the accompanying figure. Answer the following question after reviewing the figure. The lac operon is usually in the ______ position and is activated by ______.

A) on... the repressor B) off... lactose C) of... the repressor D) on... the promoter Answer: B Topic: 11.1 How and Why Genes Are Regulated Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) Consider the following figure, which outlines cloning by nuclear transplantation. Why does the clone not resemble the surrogate mother?

A) The sperm came from a male donor, who would also pass some of his traits to the clone.

B) The embryonic cells are adversely influenced by the surrogate.

C) The clone would exhibit characteristics of the genetic donor, not the surrogate.

D) The nuclear material from the egg would influence the appearance of the clone.

Answer: C Topic: 11.2 Cloning Plants and Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Examine the figure below. In a typical colon cancer, the first step is ______.

A) the inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene B) the mutation of a tumor-suppressor gene, producing an oncogene C) the mutation of a proto-oncogene, producing an oncogene D) the conversion of an oncogene to a tumor-suppressor gene Answer: C Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Scenario Questions Please read the paragraph below to answer the following question(s).

Jim has become particularly interested in the genetic basis of cancer and has spent considerable time reading published papers about oncogenes. He learned that as early as 1972 researchers suggested that mutations in proto-oncogenes caused by carcinogens can convert them to oncogenes. He asked you to answer a couple of questions about this because he did not have the biology background to totally understand.

1) Jim learned that some cancer cells produce more growth-stimulating proteins than others. What would you give him as a plausible explanation?

A) Tumor suppresor genes may have been activated in these cells.

B) Proto-oncogenes may have mutated to become oncogenes in these cells.

C) Mutations in homeotic genes may be responsible.

D) This may result from vitamin C and vitamin E deficiencies.

Answer: B Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Application/Analysis

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2) Jim learned that viruses can sometimes cause cancer and wants to know why. You tell him that ______.

A) a human cell can acquire a tumor-suppressor gene from a virus B) a human cell can acquire a proto-oncogene from a virus C) a human cell can acquire an oncogene from a virus.

D) some viruses are passed from mother to child and cause "inherited" cancers Answer: C Topic: 11.3 The Genetic Basis of Cancer Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 12 DNA Technology Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA? A) DNA that results from bacterial conjugation B) DNA that includes pieces from two different sources C) an alternate form of DNA that is the product of a mutation D) DNA that carries a translocation Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of these is a genetically modified organism?

A) an organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means B) the first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared C) a cloned organism carrying two different alleles D) an organism that gestated in an artificial womb Answer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following best defines the term transgenic organism?

A) an organism that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele B) an organism in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy C) an organism containing a gene from another species D) an organism containing genes from three or more species Answer: C Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ______.

A) humulin B) HGH C) SCID D) RFLP Answer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) A vaccine works by ______.

A) inhibiting bacterial reproduction B) stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses C) killing cells infected with a virus D) preventing translation of mRNA molecules that code for disease-causing proteins Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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6) Transgenic animals are currently used ______.

A) to produce potentially useful proteins B) as food C) as vectors for use in cloning human DNA D) all of the above Answer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?

A) humulin B) GM C) PCR D) plasmids Answer: D Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Of these steps, which occurs first in the production of a recombinant plasmid?

A) cloning B) construction of a genomic library C) isolation of a plasmid from a bacterium D) recombination Answer: C Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Of these steps, which one occurs earliest in the process of producing recombinant DNA? A) Human DNA fragments are mixed with the cut plasmids.

B) The same restriction enzyme is used to isolate the gene of interest and to cut the plasmid DNA. C) The recombinant plasmids are mixed with bacteria.

D) Bacteria carrying recombinant plasmids are cloned.

Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Application/Analysis 10) When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the ______.

A) plasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium B) bacterial chromosome is genetically engineered and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate C) desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium D) bacterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene (perhaps the cell of a plant or animal) Answer: C Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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11) The process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is an example of ______.

A) gene cloning B) industrial genetic engineering C) gene amplification D) gene pharming Answer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) A collection of cloned DNA fragments that includes an organism's entire genome is called a ______.

A) phenotypic library B) gene repository C) clone collection D) genomic library Answer: D Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Nucleic acid probes are used to ______.

A) find a specific nucleotide sequence B) isolate bacterial genes C) destroy clones that do not carry the recombinant plasmid of interest D) synthesize a DNA strand complementary to a sticky end Answer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Restriction enzymes are obtained from ______.

A) archaea B) eukaryotes C) viruses D) bacteria Answer: D Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) "Sticky ends" are produced as a result of the action of ______.

A) a clone B) DNA ligase C) a restriction enzyme D) humulin Answer: C Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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16) "Sticky ends" are ______. A) single-stranded ends of fragments of double-stranded DNA B) regions of double-stranded DNA that can be cut by a restriction enzyme C) the site on chromosomes where the centromere is found D) telomeres Answer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) A DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads -ATTCG will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads ______.

A) TAAGCB) CGGATC) GCCTAD) ATTGCAnswer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Application/Analysis 18) Which enzyme is used to bind DNA fragments together?

A) restriction enzyme B) telomerase C) DNA ligase D) DNA polymerase Answer: C Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Of the following, which is the last step in the production of a recombinant DNA plasmid?

A) cloning B) using DNA ligase to join DNA fragments C) transduction D) allowing the reproduction of the bacterium bearing the recombinant plasmid Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) You are attempting to link an individual to a crime. The only evidence you have is a tiny drop of blood. How can you use this drop of blood to make the association?

A) You can use the sample to determine the individual's ABO blood group.

B) You can use gel electrophoresis to determine the length of the DNA found in the sample.

C) You can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis.

D) You can use the sample to check for the presence of the Rhesus factor.

Answer: C Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Application/Analysis

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21) What name is given to a region of DNA that varies from person to person?

A) genetic marker B) genetic probe C) monoDNA D) restriction fragment Answer: A Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Cutting DNA with a particular restriction enzyme produces DNA fragments that can be separated by ______.

A) gel electrophoresis B) enzymes C) recombinant DNA D) plasmids Answer: A Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) To make restriction fragments, a DNA sample is treated with ______.

A) DNA ligase B) restriction enzymes C) gel electrophoresis D) PCR Answer: B Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their ______.

A) A:C ratio B) length C) G:T ratio D) pH Answer: B Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) STR analysis is a DNA profiling technique that makes use of the fact that different people have A) different numbers of repeats of short DNA sequences at certain sites in the genome.

B) different alleles for many genes in the genome.

C) different restriction fragments D) different CODIS DNA sequences Answer: A Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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26) The scientific field that studies complete sets of genes is called ______. A) genomics B) recombinant DNA C) proteomics D) genetic engineering Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The human genome contains approximately ______ genes.

A) 1,000-2,000 B) 50,000-60,000 C) 21,000 D) 2,000-3,000 Answer: C Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of noncoding DNA? A) 98% B) 87% C) 77% D) 67% Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) The Human Genome Project has the potential to ______.

A) lead to treatments for inherited diseases B) lead to treatments for contagious diseases C) increase our understanding of the historical relationships among species D) play a role in all of the choices listed here Answer: D Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Which of these statements can be logically inferred from the amount of DNA shared by chimpanzees and humans?

A) Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.

B) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.

C) Humans are unique and different from all other life forms.

D) Humans are a more complex life form than chimpanzees.

Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Application/Analysis

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31) To find the nucleotide sequence of human chromosomes, chromosomes had to be digested into small fragments and then ______.

A) centrifuged and electrophoresed B) fingerprinted C) cloned and sequenced D) restricted Answer: C Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) What technique is most commonly used to sequence entire genomes?

A) the whole-genome shotgun method B) the nucleic acid probe method C) the plasmid method D) the genetic marker method Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) The study of the full protein sets that genomes encode is _____.

A) proteomics B) genomics C) gene therapy D) gene cloning Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Genomics and Proteomics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) In human gene therapy, A) normal versions of genes are transferred to patients who carry a mutated allele.

B) harmless bacteria make important proteins for humans that cannot produce these proteins on their own.

C) bacterial plasmids are used to transfer genes to human patients.

D) genetically engineered alleles, usually from other species, replace mutated alleles.

Answer: A Topic: 12.4 Human Gene Therapy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) The state of human gene therapy today is that A) the work that has been completed so far is purely theoretical, but some treatments are in development.

B) there have been a small number of successes, including with the disease SCID. C) human gene therapy is used routinely in the treatment of certain rare cancers.

D) human gene therapy is used to treat a wide variety of conditions, including diabetes, cancer, and bone marrow diseases.

Answer: B Topic: 12.4 Human Gene Therapy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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36) Genetically modifying human ______ cells may directly affect future generations.

A) intestinal B) immune C) gametic D) somatic Answer: C Topic: 12.5 Safety and Ethical Issues Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______.

A) the potential for interfering in evolution B) the safety of GM foods C) the potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 12.5 Safety and Ethical Issues Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) The possibility that Mongolian ruler Genghis Khan spread an unusual chromosome to nearly 16 million men living today resulted from studies of _____.

A) proteomics B) cDNA C) the X chromosome D) the Y chromosome Answer: D Topic: 12.5 Safety and Ethical Issues Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) The following figure provides you with an overview of recombinant technology. The end result is a transgenic bacterium with a human gene that codes for marketable quantities of a human gene product.

However, molecular biologists frequently have problems with the product. One problem might be ______.

A) production of a human protein that is unable to function properly.

B) formation of a bacterium that cannot synthesize the product C) a bacterium with DNA that is resistant to restriction enzymes D) formation of mutants Answer: A Topic: 12.1 Recombinant DNA Technology Skill: Application/Analysis 9 .

2) The following figure shows that gel electrophoresis can be used to separate repetitive DNA sequences. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments because ______.

A) double stranded moves slower than single stranded DNA B) of ratios of guanine to cytosine C) the DNA fragments have different lengths D) of the salt concentration in the gel matrix Answer: C Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The diagram below summarizes _____.

A) how a gene is cloned B) how a human could be cloned C) human gene therapy D) how a vaccine is made Answer: C Topic: 12.4 Human Gene Therapy Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario then answer the following question(s).

Molecular biologists have perfected DNA fingerprinting so that it is possible to use the technique to provide evidence to solve crimes and even identify a child's parents. Recently, a U.S. immigrant asked the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for permission to have her young daughter who was living with grandparents in their homeland join her.Her request was denied because there was an apparent mix-up with the child's birth certificate and it could not be used as proof of maternity. Proof is required in cases such as this. The mother requested DNA fingerprinting to make her case. Samples of DNA were taken from the mother (Mom) and daughter (D1) as well as from another daughter (D2) and a son (S) living in the United States with her. Tandem repeat analysis was run on the four samples, and the results are shown here.

1) The results indicate that ______.

A) she is not the mother of the son B) she is the mother of daughter D1 C) she is not the mother of daughter D1 D) the mother could not be the mother of both daughter D1 and daughter D2 Answer: B Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Application/Analysis 2) You can use this DNA fingerprinting information to make a judgment about maternity because ______.

A) the shade of DNA bands will differ B) both mother and daughter contain only X chromosomes C) of the position of the bands in the gel D) of the size of the bands Answer: C Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The short tandem repeat analysis ______.

A) compares markers on the sex chromosomes B) compares repetitive DNA sequences from different individuals C) does not require DNA amplification D) checks for purine and pyrimidine ratios Answer: B Topic: 12.2 DNA Profiling and Forensic Science Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 13 How Populations Evolve Multiple Choice Questions 1) Natural selection can be defined as ______. A) the evolution of a population of organisms B) a process in which changes in gene frequencies result from evolution C) the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment D) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with other traits Answer: D Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Natural selection ______. A) results in evolutionary adaptation B) is a very rare phenomenon C) does not affect allelic frequencies D) prepares organisms for future changes in the environment Answer: A Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The first basic idea of evolutionary adaptation can be traced back to _____. A) ancient Greeks about 2,500 years ago B) Aristotle C) Lamarck D) Darwin Answer: C Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following statements about the voyage of the Beagle is true? A) Its purpose was to identify the fastest route from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean. B) It lasted almost two years. C) It turned into a tremendous opportunity for Darwin to collect fossils, plants, and animals. D) It ended with the sinking of the ship off of the coast of Australia, almost four years into its journey. Answer: C Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) During his trip on the Beagle, Darwin found that ______.

A) plants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found B) plants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents C) fossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today D) plants and animals were similar on every continent and in every type of region Answer: B Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ______ and sculpted by geologic processes that ______ today.

A) old... continue B) old... no longer occur C) young... continue D) young... no longer occur Answer: A Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) What did Darwin find in South America that suggested that the Andes mountains had been gradually lifted up over millions of years?

A) bird fossils at the top of mountains in Argentina B) dinosaur bones in the Amazon basin C) marine snail fossils high up in the Andes mountains D) impressions of ocean waves at the top of a mountain Answer: C Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) In The Origin of Species, Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was _____.

A) artificial selection B) natural selection C) inheritance of acquired characteristics D) uniformitarianism Answer: B Topic: 13.1 Charles Darwin and The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following is a component of the fossil record?

A) the distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia B) the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats C) molecular sequences D) bones of extinct whales Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Application/Analysis

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10) The oldest known fossils are from about ______ years ago.

A) 3.5 billion B) 6,000 C) 4.0 million D) 1.0 billion Answer: A Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The fossil record suggests that whales A) are descended from one branch of marine reptiles.

B) are closely related to land mammals such as pigs, hippos, and cows.

C) are not closely related to dolphins and porpoises, despite a superficial similarity.

D) once had well-developed hind flippers.

Answer: B Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Your family is taking a long driving vacation across the midwestern and western United States. As you travel, you notice that the flowers, birds, and trees of the Midwest and the Rocky Mountains are very different. As you ponder why, you remember that such differences in the distribution of species are part of the field of ______.

A) paleontology B) geology C) biogeography D) morphology Answer: C Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Application/Analysis 13) Homology is evidence of ______.

A) biogeography B) convergent evolution C) natural selection D) common ancestry Answer: D Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following are homologous?

A) the forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat B) the forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat C) wings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow D) the mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird Answer: B Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) The similarity of the embryos of fish, frogs, birds, and humans is evidence of ______.

A) analogy B) common ancestry C) genetic drift D) convergent evolution Answer: B Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Natural selection results in ______.

A) increased genetic variation B) a population that is better adapted to a future environment C) a population that is adapted to its current environment D) an increase in the size of a population Answer: C Topic: 13.3 Natural Selection Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following is not a requirement of natural selection?

A) differential reproductive success B) overproduction of offspring C) genetic variation D) catastrophic events Answer: D Topic: 13.3 Natural Selection Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.

B) Natural selection works on non-heritable traits.

C) Individuals evolve through natural selection.

D) Organisms evolve structures that they need.

Answer: A Topic: 13.3 Natural Selection Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Research on flat-tailed horned lizards demonstrated that natural selection favored lizards that ______.

A) ran faster when exposed to bright sunlight B) buried themselves faster when startled C) searched for ants hidden under logs D) had longer horns on the rear of the skull Answer: D Topic: 13.3 Natural Selection Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) The modern synthesis was a fusion of ______.

A) population ecology and genetics B) molecular biology and comparative anatomy C) genetics and evolutionary biology D) the fossil record and genetics Answer: C Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which of the following is a population?

A) the termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts B) all of the termites that have ever lived C) all organisms living in your house D) the termites infesting your house Answer: D Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) The smallest biological unit that can evolve is the ______.

A) species B) individual C) population D) phylum Answer: C Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Which of the following is likely to be the result of polygenic inheritance?

A) freckles B) an extra finger C) human height D) ABO blood type Answer: C Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Application/Analysis 24) Which one of the following can create new alleles?

A) natural selection B) sexual reproduction C) mutation D) genetic drift Answer: C Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) The total collection of alleles in a population at any one time make up that population's ______.

A) gene pool B) genotype C) heterozygosity D) polymorphic pool Answer: A Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) If the frequency of one allele in a population is 0.7, what is the frequency of the alternate allele?

A) 0.09 B) 0.21 C) 0.30 D) 0.42 Answer: C Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does p2 represent?

A) frequency of the dominant allele B) frequency of heterozygotes C) frequency of the recessive allele D) frequency of the homozygous dominants Answer: D Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does 2pq represent?

A) frequency of the dominant allele B) frequency of heterozygotes C) frequency of the recessive allele D) frequency of the homozygous dominants Answer: B Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) The presence of freckles is due to a dominant allele. Four percent of the individuals in a particular population lack freckles. Use the Hardy-Weinberg formula to calculate the percentage of individuals in this population who are homozygous dominant for freckles.

A) 32% B) 4% C) 64% D) 80% Answer: C Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Application/Analysis

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30) The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ______.

A) mutation B) gene flow C) sexual recombination D) random fertilization Answer: A Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which of the following is a characteristic of a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A) The population is subject to natural selection.

B) The population is not evolving.

C) Genetic drift is occurring.

D) Gene flow in and out of the population occurs.

Answer: B Topic: 13.4 The Modern Synthesis: Darwinism Meets Genetics Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Genetic drift is the result of ______.

A) natural selection B) chance C) a large gene pool D) environmental variation Answer: B Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which one of the following will prevent significant genetic drift?

A) Gene flow is absent.

B) There is genetic variation.

C) There is mutation.

D) The population size is large.

Answer: D Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) After surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?

A) The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.

B) The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection.

C) The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population.

D) The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.

Answer: A Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) The founder effect differs from a population bottleneck in that the founder effect ______.

A) requires a small population B) is a type of natural selection C) can only occur on an oceanic island colony D) involves the isolation of a small colony of individuals from a larger population Answer: D Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly (extra fingers/toes) than the human population as a whole?

A) directional selection B) diversifying selection C) founder effect D) bottleneck effect Answer: C Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Gene flow is accomplished by ______.

A) migration B) sexual recombination C) mutation D) natural selection Answer: A Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) What does evolutionary fitness measure?

A) physical health B) longevity C) relative reproductive success D) population size Answer: C Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

Answer: B Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Application/Analysis

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40) Which of the following is an example of disruptive selection?

A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

Answer: D Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Application/Analysis 41) Which of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation?

A) directional selection B) mutation C) stabilizing selection D) diversifying selection Answer: C Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Which of the following is an example of stabilizing selection?

A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

Answer: A Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Application/Analysis 43) Which of the following is an example of sexual selection?

A) Bacteria evolve resistance to antibiotics.

B) Cheetahs experienced a population bottleneck.

C) Peahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails.

D) Female butterflies have a higher survival rate than male butterflies.

Answer: C Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Examine the relationships between the elephants in the figure below. Which one of the following pairs is most closely related?

A) Deinotheriumand Platybelodon B) Barytheriumand Stegodon C) Loxodonta africanaand Loxodonta cyclotis D) Mammutand Stegodon Answer: C Topic: 13.3 Natural Selection Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the evolutionary tree below. This tree tells us that the amnion is found in ______.

A) lungfishes and amphibians B) amphibians only C) mammals, lizards, and snakes only D) mammals, lizards, snakes, crocodiles, and birds Answer: D Topic: 13.3 Natural Selection Skill: Application/Analysis

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3) The figure below shows the percent of selected DNA sequences that match between a chimpanzee and other primates. These data support the hypothesis that ______.

A) the chimpanzee's closest surviving relative is humans B) gorillas and orangutans are the most closely related C) orangutans are the primates least closely related to chimpanzees D) Old World monkeys and gibbons are the most closely related Answer: A Topic: 13.2 Evidence of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) The figure below shows what happens in insect populations when crops are sprayed with insecticides.

This is an example of ______.

A) natural selection B) genetic drift C) founder effect D) gene flow Answer: A Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Over the past 60 years, many amphibian species have experienced significant population declines and some species have become extinct. Scientists suspected that local human activities such as the destruction of wetlands, regional pollution, and deforestation were the main reasons for these losses.

However, research over the past 20 years reveals significant amphibian population declines in protected areas of the world, such as nature preserves and parks. These global declines suggest widespread problems including increased ultraviolet radiation, acid rain, and disease. In Switzerland, for example, 14 of the 20 native amphibian species are threatened with extinction.

1) Some biologists urge the collection of the few remaining individuals of some of the most threatened amphibian species, to preserve them if they become extinct in the wild. If such captive breeding programs could produce thousands of individuals from just a few of the remaining survivors, the species will still be threatened because of ______.

A) a bottleneck effect B) the founder effect C) mutations D) artificial selection Answer: A Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) When most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated, we expect to see that ______.

A) artificial selection becomes a greater factor in microevolution B) the founder effect becomes increasingly important C) gene flow between populations is reduced D) microevolution no longer occurs Answer: C Topic: 13.5 Mechanisms of Evolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease first identified in 1998 as a cause of massive amphibian deaths.

In some severely impacted populations, a few individuals have survived, perhaps because of some natural resistance. If these resistant individuals continue to survive and prosper, new resistant populations might emerge. This would be an example of ______.

A) genetic drift B) natural selection C) the founder effect D) sexual selection Answer: B Topic: 13.3 Natural Selection Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 14 How Biological Diversity Evolves Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Biological species consist of groups of ______.

A) populations B) domains C) families D) genera Answer: A Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Under the biological species concept, what criterion is used to assign populations of organisms to the same biological species?

A) a very similar appearance B) being able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring C) relating to the environment in the same way D) having 99% of their genes in common Answer: B Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) When brought together in a zoo, two species are capable of mating and producing fertile offspring.

Why may they still be considered two distinct species?

A) Wild populations of the two species have different geographic distributions.

B) In the wild, members of one species prey upon members of the other species.

C) Zoos are not natural environments.

D) The two species look very different.

Answer: C Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The biological species concept cannot be applied to ______.

A) fungi that live on land B) bacteria that only reproduce asexually C) complex plants that have flowers D) animals that use asexual and sexual reproduction Answer: B Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) The biological species concept cannot be applied to fossils. Which alternate approach to identifying species would be most useful for classifying fossil organisms? A) an approach based on use of ecological resources B) an approach based on genetic history C) an approach based on measurable physical traits D) an approach based on molecular biology Answer: C Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) A reproductive barrier that prevents species from mating is an example of ______.

A) a prezygotic barrier B) reduced hybrid viability C) zygote mortality D) a postzygotic barrier Answer: A Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) What type of reproductive isolating mechanism is described by a situation in which female fireflies only mate with males who emit light in a particular pattern?

A) habitat isolation B) temporal isolation C) mechanical isolation D) behavioral isolation Answer: D Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Application/Analysis 8) The type of reproductive barrier that occurs when two species mate but produce sterile hybrids is referred to as ______.

A) mechanical isolation B) temporal isolation C) a postzygotic barrier D) behavioral isolation Answer: C Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Application/Analysis 9) When two frog species, Rana pipiens and Rana sylvatica, mate, the offspring die early in embryonic development. This is an example of ______.

A) hybrid sterility B) mechanical isolation C) reduced hybrid viability D) reduced hybrid fertility Answer: C Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Application/Analysis

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10) Speciation requires ______.

A) periods of rapid evolutionary change B) geographic isolation C) long periods of time D) genetic isolation Answer: D Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following describes allopatric speciation?

A) A population of squirrels is separated by the Grand Canyon. The two subpopulations evolve into two distinct species.

B) A tetraploid plant species evolves from a diploid ancestor. Both the tetraploid and diploid species are found in the same habitat.

C) One population breeds in the fall; another population breeds in the spring.

D) A male horse and a female donkey mate, producing a sterile hinny.

Answer: A Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Sympatric speciation specifically excludes ______.

A) behavioral isolation B) post-zygotic barriers C) geographic isolation D) temporal isolation Answer: C Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Graphically, the graduated model of speciation can be described as appearing as a ______.

A) Y B) W C) horizontal line with vertical branches D) vertical line with horizontal branches Answer: A Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) A pattern of evolution in which most change in appearance takes place during a relatively short period of time fits the ______ model of speciation.

A) punctuated gradual B) punctuated equilibrium C) homeostatic D) gradual Answer: B Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) You are examining the fossil record and notice that through time a series of fossils exhibits very little change. During the period of time you are studying, this fossil lineage can be described as exhibiting ______.

A) genetic drift B) punctuation C) gradualism D) equilibrium Answer: D Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Application/Analysis 16) Some fish have bony fins. If the body of water they are in dries out, these fins can be used to help the fish "walk" to another body of water. In this context, bony fins are an example of ______.

A) an exaptation B) neoteny C) punctuated evolution D) paedomorphosis Answer: A Topic: 14.2 The Evolution of Biological Novelty Skill: Application/Analysis 17) Feathers in birds appear to have first evolved for insulation but later conveyed a new advantage in helping create light aerodynamic surfaces. This switch in function is an example of ______.

A) paedomorphosis B) punctuated equilibrium C) convergent evolution D) an exaptation Answer: D Topic: 14.2 The Evolution of Biological Novelty Skill: Application/Analysis 18) Which of the following would be an example of paedomorphosis?

A) starfish regenerating severed limbs B) rapid evolution in a small, isolated population C) two species evolving a similar appearance D) the ability to reproduce evolving in caterpillars Answer: D Topic: 14.2 The Evolution of Biological Novelty Skill: Application/Analysis 19) The current geological era is the ______.

A) Paleozoic B) Cenozoic C) Mesozoic D) Cambrian Answer: B Topic: 14.3 Earth History and Macroevolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Uranium-235, with a half-life of 713,000,000 years, decays to lead-207. If a rock sample is determined to have one-quarter of the uranium-235 content it had when it formed, the age of the rock sample can be estimated to be approximately ______ years old. A) 178 million B) 713 million C) 28.5 billion D) 1.4 billion Answer: D Topic: 14.3 Earth History and Macroevolution Skill: Application/Analysis 21) Plate tectonics has been responsible for instances of all of the following except A) volcanic explosions.

B) sympatric speciation.

C) allopatric speciation.

D) mass extinction.

Answer: B Topic: 14.3 Earth History and Macroevolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) The Permian mass extinction is associated with A) an asteroid impact.

B) global warming.

C) the formation of Pangaea.

D) the diversification of mammals.

Answer: C Topic: 14.3 Earth History and Macroevolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Characid fishes only found naturally only in South America and Africa. Fossils of these fish are not found on any other continents. What is the most likely explanation of this distribution pattern?

A) These fishes arose in either Africa or South America and migrated across the South Atlantic Ocean to the other continent.

B) Characid fishes arose prior to the separation of the African and South American continents.

C) Characid fishes arose in the South Atlantic Ocean and migrated to Africa and South America.

D) Convergent evolution is responsible for the distribution of characid fishes.

Answer: B Topic: 14.3 Earth History and Macroevolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Dinosaurs (aside from the lineage that produced birds) were extinct by the end of the ______.

A) Cretaceous B) Silurian C) Eocene D) Permian Answer: A Topic: 14.3 Earth History and Macroevolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) A period of mass extinction is often followed by ______. A) explosive diversification B) nonbranching evolution C) global cooling D) equilibrium Answer: A Topic: 14.3 Earth History and Macroevolution Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) ______ is the discipline of biology that focuses on classifying organisms and determining their evolutionary relationships. A) Taxonomy B) Epistemology C) Systematics D) Biogeography Answer: C Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The science of naming, identifying, and classifying organisms is called ______. A) biogeography B) zoography C) phylogeny D) taxonomy Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which of the following is a binomial? A) sapiens B) Nitzschia jouseae C) diatom D) Rhizosolenia Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Which of the following taxonomic levels is most inclusive? A) order B) genus C) family D) class Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) Of the following taxonomic levels, species found within the same ______ are the most closely related.

A) family B) phylum C) order D) domain Answer: A Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Application/Analysis 31) The wing of a bald eagle is ______ the wing of a penguin.

A) convergent with B) homologous to C) unrelated to D) analogous to Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) The wing of a penguin is ______ the wing of a butterfly.

A) structurally identical to B) superior to C) homologous to D) analogous to Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Homology is evidence of ______.

A) convergent evolution B) punctuated evolution C) common ancestry D) paedomorphosis Answer: C Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Analogous structures are evidence of ______.

A) common ancestry B) divergent evolution C) stabilizing selection D) convergent evolution Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Molecular systematics might examine all of the following types of data except ______.

A) proteins B) DNA sequences C) amino acid sequences D) anatomical features Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) An ancestral species and all its evolutionary descendants define a ______.

A) outgroup B) clade C) genus D) ingroup Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?

A) Animalia B) Plantae C) Archaea D) Eukarya Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Examine the two animals in the photographs in the following figure. Use all of the clues in this figure.

These two organisms belong to ______.

A) the same species B) the same genus C) different families D) different orders Answer: B Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the evolutionary relationships represented in the following figure. Based upon this diagram, the two most closely related species are ______.

A) leopards and striped skunks B) leopards and European otters C) European otters and coyotes D) coyotes and wolves Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Application/Analysis

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3) Examine the figure below. Cladistic analysis indicates that crocodiles are more closely related to ______ than to ______.

A) birds... alligators B) snakes... birds C) lizards... birds D) birds... lizards Answer: D Topic: 14.4 Classifying the Diversity of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

In some zoos, rare crosses between a male lion and a female tiger have produced hybrid offspring called ligers. Male ligers are sterile but some female ligers are fertile. In the wild, lion and tiger ranges do not naturally overlap, making such a cross unlikely. Furthermore, the solitary behavior of tigers and the social organizations of lions create behavioral differences.

1) Applying the biological species concept, the production of ligers reveals that ______.

A) a new species called ligers is forming B) tigers and lions are actually the same species C) tigers and lions are separate species D) lions are probably a subspecies of tigers Answer: C Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) The natural differences in the ranges of wild tigers and lions is an example of ______.

A) a prezygotic barrier B) a postzygotic barrier C) the impact of mutations D) sympatric speciation Answer: A Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Application/Analysis 3) The production of sterile male ligers is an example of ______.

A) sympatric speciation B) the founder effect C) a postzygotic barrier D) a prezygotic barrier Answer: C Topic: 14.1 The Origin of Species Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 15 The Evolution of Microbial Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Eukaryotes arose about ______ years after the first prokaryotes.

A) 3.0 million B) 1.5 billion C) 3.5 billion D) 4.0 billion Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Large amounts of oxygen gas appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago. A) 200 million B) 1.7 billion C) 2.7 billion D) 4.5 billion Answer: C Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Animal life underwent its greatest diversification during the ______, which began about ______ million years ago. A) Permian... 290 B) Cambrian... 540 C) Carboniferous... 363 D) Mesozoic... 245 Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The first organisms to colonize land were A) animals B) plants and fungi C) bacteria D) protists and fungi Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Land was first colonized about ______ years ago. A) 100 million B) 500 million C) 1.7 billion D) 2.5 billion Answer: B Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Based on fossil evidence, eukaryotes evolved about _____ years ago.

A) 500,000 B) 1.5 billion C) 2.1 billion D) 3.5 billion Answer: C Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following is NOT true?

A) The great diversification of animals occurred during the Cambrian explosion.

B) For most of biological history, life was confined to aquatic habitats.

C) The evolution of multicellularity took place after the origin of the eukaryotes.

D) The first organisms to colonize land were animals.

Answer: D Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The idea that life regularly arises from nonliving matter is referred to as ______.

A) speciation B) spontaneous generation C) endosymbiosis D) biogenesis Answer: B Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) The absence of ______ in the primitive atmosphere was essential to the origin of life on Earth.

A) N2 B) CO2 C) CH4 D) O2 Answer: D Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) What was the first stage of the process that led to the abiotic origin of life? A) abiotic synthesis of monomers, such as amino acids and nucleotides B) origin of self-replicating molecules C) abiotic synthesis of polymers D) abiotic formation of pre-cells Answer: A Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Whose experiments demonstrated that, given the conditions on the primitive Earth, biological monomers could arise spontaneously? A) Miller and Urey B) Darwin C) Watson D) Margulis Answer: A Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Under what abiotic conditions can monomers spontaneously form polymers? A) in the presence of oxygen gas B) when ribozymes are present to catalyze the reaction C) by biogenesis D) when water evaporates from a hot surface Answer: D Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Why is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?

A) RNA is structurally simpler than DNA. B) RNA has been found on meteorites; DNA has not. C) RNA is capable of self-replication; DNA is not. D) Primitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material. Answer: C Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) RNAs that can act as enzymes are called ______. A) ribozymes B) ATPs C) lysosomes D) prokaryotes Answer: A Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Variation among pre-cells was due to ______. A) genetic drift B) natural selection C) the bottleneck effect D) mutation Answer: D Topic: 15.2 The Origin of Life Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which prokaryotic group is most closely related to eukaryotes? A) Bacteria B) Protista C) Archaea D) Bacteria and Archaea are equally closely related Answer: C Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) The prokaryotic group that tends to inhabit extreme environments belongs to the ______. A) Protista B) Archaea C) Monera D) Bacteria Answer: B Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following prokaryotes aid digestion in cattle, deer, and other animals that obtain nutrition from cellulose? A) halophiles B) dinoflagellates C) methanogens D) cocci Answer: C Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Application/Analysis 19) Spherical bacteria that occur in clusters are ______. A) streptococci B) bacilli C) spirilla D) staphylococci Answer: D Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Bacilli are ______ prokaryotes.

A) spherical B) comma-shaped C) rod-shaped D) spiral Answer: C Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which of the following would likely be the most difficult to kill were you to can your own food?

A) microspores B) endospores C) sporophylls D) megaspores Answer: B Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Prokaryotes reproduce by means of ______.

A) mitosis B) binary fission C) budding D) meiosis Answer: B Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Under ideal conditions, prokaryotes are capable of reproducing at a(n) ______ rate.

A) hypergeometric B) exponential C) infinite D) arithmetic Answer: B Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) You discover a prokaryote that can make its own food in the absence of light. Nutritionally, you would classify this prokaryote as a ______.

A) chemoautotroph B) photoheterotroph C) photoautotroph D) chemoheterotroph Answer: A Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Application/Analysis

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25) All organisms that photosynthesize fit into which nutritional category?

A) chemoautotrophs B) photoheterotrophs C) photoautotrophs D) chemoheterotrophs Answer: C Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Which of the following include the two classes of poisons produced by pathogenic bacteria?

A) exotoxins and endotoxins B) chemoautotrophs and chemoheterotrophs C) protozoans and fungi D) bacilli and cocci Answer: A Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Food poisoning from Salmonella occurs because of A) an exotoxin secreted by the bacteria.

B) an endotoxin found in the outer membrane of Salmonella bacteria.

C) easy transmission between people living in close contact.

D) extremophile conditions.

Answer: B Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) In the soil, some ______ convert nitrogen to a form that can be used by plants.

A) protists B) animals C) protozoans D) prokaryotes Answer: D Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) ______ is an example of bioremediation.

A) Cyanobacteria converting atmospheric nitrogen to a form that plants can use B) The use of an autoclave to kill endospores C) The use of prokaryotes to treat sewage D) A dinoflagellate bloom causing massive fish kills Answer: C Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) Eukaryotes that are not fungi, animals, or plants are classified in a "catch-all" category called ______. A) archaea B) bacteria C) seaweeds D) protists Answer: D Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) According to the theory of endosymbiosis, which organelles evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other, larger prokaryotes?

A) vacuoles and lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum C) centrioles and ribosomes D) mitochondria and chloroplasts Answer: D Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Flagellates, amoebas, apicomplexans, and ciliates are all what type of protist?

A) slime molds B) protozoans C) dinoflagellates D) seaweeds Answer: B Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) You discover a unicellular organism that moves by what appear to be pseudopodia. You conclude that this organism is ______.

A) either a type of amoeba or a type of slime mold B) a type of bacterium C) a type of alga D) either a type of ciliate, or a type of amoeba, or a type of flagellate, or a type of apicomplexan Answer: A Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Application/Analysis 34) Which protozoan group consists solely of parasitic forms?

A) apicomplexans B) ciliates C) flagellates D) amoebas Answer: A Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) ______ include cells that can function either independently or as a single unit.

A) Dinoflagellates B) Forams C) Seaweeds D) Cellular slime molds Answer: D Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following are most closely related to plants?

A) brown algae B) red algae C) cellular slime molds D) green algae Answer: D Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) ______ are responsible for toxic red tides.

A) Plasmodial slime molds B) Dinoflagellates C) Red algae D) Diatoms Answer: B Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) A photoautotrophic unicellular organism with a shell made of silica is most likely a(n) ______.

A) apicomplexan B) foram C) dinoflagellate D) diatom Answer: D Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Which of the following is a colonial form of green algae?

A) Volvox B) Giardia C) Paramecium D) Plasmodium Answer: A Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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40) What accounts for the similarity between seaweeds and plants?

A) Plants are the ancestors of seaweeds.

B) Convergent evolution caused their similarity.

C) Seaweeds are the ancestors of plants.

D) Seaweeds are aquatic plants.

Answer: B Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Which of the following has an organization that may be similar to an evolutionary stage between unicellularity and multicellularity?

A) Thiobacillus B) Volvox C) Amoeba D) Plasmodium Answer: B Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Inward folds of the plasma membrane of a prokaryotic cell produced the _____ of eukaryotic cells.

A) nuclear envelope and DNA. B) endomembrane system C) mitochondria D) chloroplasts Answer: B Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Endosymbiosis explains the origin of the ______ of eukaryotes.

A) chloroplasts and mitochondria B) endomembrane system C) nuclear envelope D) membrane-bound organelles Answer: A Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) According to this evolutionary tree, the archaea and eukaryotes last shared a common ancestor ______.

A) 1.0 billion years ago B) 1.75 billion years ago C) 2.5 billion years ago D) 3.5 billion years ago Answer: C Topic: 15.1 Major Episodes in the History of Life Skill: Application/Analysis 2) What kind of prokaryotes are these?

A) bacilli B) spirochetes C) cocci D) ciliates Answer: A Topic: 15.3 Prokaryotes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Plasmodium.The parasite is transmitted to Malaria is a disease caused by parasitic protists in the genus humans by female Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodiumparasite feeds on human red blood cells, eventually destroying them. Humans infected with malaria can exhibit many symptoms. Depending on the severity of the infection, these can range from fever, chills, sweating, and headaches to anemia and kidney failure. Ultimately, malaria can result in death. However, if time and money permit, once a person is infected, they can be treated with different antimalarial drugs. The two most commonly used drugs are artemisinin and quinine. In addition, one way to prevent the spread of malaria is to treat areas with Anopheles mosquitoes with pesticides. The National Malaria Eradication Program began work in 1947 with the goal of eliminating malaria from the southern United States. In 1947, 15,000 cases of malaria were reported nationwide. By 1950, only 2,000 cases were reported, and by 1951, malaria was considered eradicated from the United States. Today, the disease is most common in Africa and South America. About one million people die from malaria every year, many of them children. In Africa, it is estimated that one in every five childhood deaths is due to malaria.

1) Which of the following statements is true?

A) There may be environmental impacts from trying to prevent the spread of malaria.

B) Malaria has never been a problem in the United States.

C) There is no cure for malaria.

D) Today, malaria is most common in Africa and Asia.

Answer: A Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) What type of protist is Plasmodium?

A) slime mold B) dinoflagellate C) apicomplexan D) amoeba Answer: C Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Why do so many children in developing countries die of malaria?

A) The costs of treatment and prevention are too high.

B) They are more susceptible to the disease.

C) There is no cure for malaria.

D) Malaria is only found in developing countries today.

Answer: A Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Application/Analysis

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4) A vector is an organism that transfers a pathogen to a host. In the case of malaria, the vector(s) is(are) ______.

A) humans only B) humans and Anopheles mosquitoes C) Anopheles mosquitoes only D) humans, Plasmodium, and Anopheles mosquitoes Answer: C Topic: 15.4 Protists Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell's Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 16 Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Mutualistic associations of plant roots and fungi are called ______.

A) mycorrhizae B) mycelia C) mycophyta D) myrmecochores Answer: A Topic: 16.1 Colonizing Land Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The ______ helps plants retain water.

A) hypha B) cuticle C) mycorrhiza D) lignin Answer: B Topic: 16.1 Colonizing Land Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) ______, a chemical that hardens cell walls and supports terrestrial plants, is found in all plants except _______.

A) Lignin... bryophytes B) Cellulose... bryophytes C) Calcium carbonate... ferns D) Lignin... ferns and bryophytes Answer: A Topic: 16.1 Colonizing Land Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following is the lineage of green algae believed to most resemble early plant ancestors?

A) Charophytes B) Ulva C) Volvox D) Dinoflagellates Answer: A Topic: 16.1 Colonizing Land Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Plants first moved onto land at least ______ years ago. A) 65 million B) 475 million C) 1.2 billion D) 3.5 billion Answer: B Topic: 16.1 Colonizing Land Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following correctly illustrates the sequence of the origin of modern groups of plants?

A) gymnosperms, ferns, bryophytes, angiosperms B) bryophytes, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms C) bryophytes, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms D) ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms, bryophytes Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following lack vascular tissue? A) cone-bearing plants B) grasses C) ferns D) mosses Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Why are bryophytes considered incompletely liberated from their ancestral aquatic habitat? A) Their embryos do not develop within gametangia. B) Their sperm are flagellated. C) The gametophyte generation is dominant. D) They lack a cuticle. Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) In ______ the gametophyte is more obvious than the sporophyte. A) conifers B) mosses C) grasses D) ferns Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Gametophytes are ______; sporophytes are ______.

A) male... female B) an adaptation to an aquatic existence... an adaptation to a terrestrial existence C) haploid... diploid D) the dominant stage of the conifer life cycle... the less obvious stage of the conifer life cycle Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Gametophytes reproduce ______.

A) by producing sperm and eggs B) by fission C) by alternation of generations D) by budding Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) ______ are seedless vascular plants.

A) Ferns B) Angiosperms C) Bryophytes D) Gymnosperms Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Why are ferns considered incompletely adapted to the terrestrial environment, when compared with other plants?

A) They lack vascular tissue.

B) Their sperm are flagellated.

C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.

D) They lack gametangia.

Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Much of the coal we use today came from ______ that lived during the Carboniferous.

A) gymnosperms B) mosses C) angiosperms D) seedless vascular plants Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Of the following, which is the earliest step in the formation of fossil fuels?

A) subjecting organic matter to extreme pressure B) fungi and bacteria converting the remains of organisms to inorganic nutrients C) incomplete decomposition of organic matter D) subjecting organic matter to extreme heat Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) What global climatic change gave gymnosperms an advantage over ferns?

A) the climate becoming hotter and wetter B) increased fluctuations in global climate C) the climate becoming cooler and drier D) the climate becoming hotter and drier Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of these adaptations to a terrestrial existence evolved most recently?

A) vascular tissue B) seeds C) gametangia D) cuticle Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) A pollen grain is a ______.

A) female gametophyte B) sporophyte C) male gametophyte D) megaspore Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) ______ were the first plants that did not require water for transferring sperm to eggs.

A) Bryophytes B) Gymnosperms C) Ferns D) Angiosperms Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Seeds develop from ______.

A) carpels B) anthers C) ovules D) ovaries Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Why are gymnosperms "naked seed" plants?

A) Their seeds are not protected.

B) They do not produce seeds; they only produce spores.

C) They do not have ovaries.

D) Their seeds develop on the surface of sporophytes.

Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) In angiosperms, the ______ is a nutrient-storing tissue that nourishes a developing embryo.

A) fruit B) seed C) carpels D) endosperm Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) In angiosperms, the male gametophyte develops within ______.

A) male cones B) filaments C) anthers D) archegonia Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of the following is a component of the female structure of a flowering plant?

A) petal B) filament C) anther D) stigma Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Which structure of a flower traps pollen?

A) style B) stigma C) ovary D) filament Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The pollen grain is to gymnosperms as the ______ is to angiosperms.

A) anther B) flower C) stamen D) pollen grain Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) In angiosperms, what structures house female gametophytes?

A) stigma B) petals C) ovules D) sepals Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) The edible portion of a(n) ______ is a ripened ovary.

A) cucumber B) broccoli stalk C) radish D) onion Answer: A Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Application/Analysis 29) From the point of view of an angiosperm, what is the function of fruit?

A) It is where the male gametophyte develops.

B) It is a mechanism for the dispersal of seeds.

C) It provides nutrients to germinating seeds.

D) It attracts pollinators.

Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) Why does it make sense that many fruits are green when their seeds are immature? A) Insects, which see the color green better than mammals do, can only carry seeds when they are small (immature). B) Green signifies less nutritive value. C) They are green because fruits with immature seeds are still capable of photosynthesis. D) They are harder to see and thus less likely to be eaten than other fruits. Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Nearly all food plants are as ______. A) bryophytes B) gymnosperms C) ferns D) angiosperms Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Exploring in the tropics, you discover a nonvascular plant that produces pollen. What type of plant have you discovered? A) an angiosperm B) a fern C) a bryophyte D) an entirely new type that you will get to name Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Application/Analysis 33) At current rates of destruction, all of Earth's tropical forests will be gone within ______ years. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 100 Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which of the following statements is true? A) Rainforests regenerate slowly and cannot sustain slash-and-burn clearing. B) Humans depend on plants for food, wood, and medicines. C) Only a fraction of plant species have been tested as potential medicine sources. D) All of the above statements are true. Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Nutritionally, all fungi are ______. A) chemoheterotrophs B) photoautotrophs C) chemoautotrophs D) parasites Answer: A Topic: 16.3 Fungi Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) What are hyphae? A) symbiotic associations between plant roots and fungi B) threadlike filaments that make up fungal bodies C) fungal reproductive structures D) fungal spores Answer: B Topic: 16.3 Fungi Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Like plants, fungi have ______; however, in plants they are composed of ______, whereas in fungi they are composed of ______. A) cell walls... cellulose... chitin B) cell walls... cellulose... peptidoglycan C) cell membranes... phospholipids... peptidoglycan D) cell walls... phospholipids... cellulose Answer: A Topic: 16.3 Fungi Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) The function of a mushroom is to _____. A) produce seeds B) store nutrients C) produce spores D) absorb food Answer: C Topic: 16.3 Fungi Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) What important role do fungi play in many ecosystems? A) They decompose organic material. B) They pollinate plants. C) They disperse the fruits of angiosperms.

D) They perform photosynthesis. Answer: A Topic: 16.3 Fungi Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) What is this organism?

A) fern B) fungus C) bryophyte D) gymnosperm Answer: C Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) This diagram shows what process?

A) origin of plants from green algae B) alternation of generations C) angiosperm life cycle D) gymnosperm life cycle Answer: B Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The photo below shows ______.

A) the fungal production of antibiotics B) mycorrhizae, a mutually beneficial symbiosis C) a parasitic fungus attacking an algal cell D) a lichen, a mutually beneficial symbiosis Answer: D Topic: 16.3 Fungi Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

People utilize plants to meet many everyday needs, including food, fiber, and building materials.

However, not many of the over 300,000 known species of plants are used by people. One species with a lot of future promise is the jatropha tree. This species is native to Central America and is now found throughout the tropics. Many people believe the jatropha could help alleviate poverty in many areas of the world, as the seeds produce an oil that can be used for cooking, lighting, or generating electricity. This oil can also be mixed with diesel fuel or petrol to produce a biofuel. Mature trees produce between 5 and 15 kg of seeds per year and can live more than 30 years. However, critics argue that planting the jatropha tree will take land needed for food production, which will in turn harm the poor. 1) What could be an advantage of using oil from jatropha seeds? A) The oil is considered a renewable resource. B) The oil has many different uses. C) The oil can be used as a biofuel. D) All of these answers are correct. Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of the following statements concerning the jatropha tree is true? A) Jatropha trees are found all over the world. B) Everyone believes planting jatropha trees will be beneficial. C) Humans use over half of the known species of plants for everyday uses. D) Currently, the most valuable part of the jatropha tree is the seed. Answer: D Topic: 16.2 Plant Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 17 The Evolution of Animals Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What distinguishes animals from other eukaryotes?

A) They are multicellulars.

B) They ingest food.

C) They are heterotrophs.

D) They use photosynthesis.

Answer: B Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The common ancestor of all animals is likely to have been a(n) ______.

A) colonial, flagellated protist B) colonial, ciliated protist C) colonial, flagellated bacterium D) sponge Answer: A Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?

A) butterfly B) spoon C) Ferris wheel D) shoe box Answer: C Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Application/Analysis 4) A true coelom is ______.

A) completely lined with tissue derived from endoderm B) completely lined with tissue derived from mesoderm C) formed when a zygote develops into a blastula D) completely lined with tissue derived from ectoderm Answer: B Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Flatworms are similar to cnidarians in that both ______.

A) have pseudocoeloms B) have true tissues C) lack a gastrovascular cavity D) exhibit bilateral symmetry Answer: B Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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6) Humans are chordates. Which animal group is most closely related to chordates?

A) molluscs B) echinoderms C) annelids D) arthropods Answer: B Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) How do sponges differ from all other animals?

A) Sponges exhibit radial symmetry.

B) Sponges are autotrophs.

C) Sponges lack a true body cavity.

D) Sponges lack true tissues.

Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) What name is given to the food-trapping cells of sponges?

A) phagocytes B) amoebocytes C) flame cells D) choanocytes Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) The mobile stage of the cnidarian life cycle is the ______ stage.

A) instar B) polyp C) tadpole D) medusa Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) ______ are characterized by stinging cells used for defense and for capturing prey.

A) Annelids B) Sponges C) Cnidarians D) Roundworms Answer: C Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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11) A(n) ______ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell.

A) octopus B) snail C) squid D) oyster Answer: A Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which animals have a cylindrical body that is tapered at both ends?

A) Platyhelminthes B) Cnidarians C) Annelids D) Roundworms Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) There are more species of ______ than of any other type of animal.

A) nematodes B) molluscs C) arthropods D) chordates Answer: C Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) A characteristic of arthropods that has allowed for their great success is the presence of ______.

A) bilateral symmetry B) an endoskeleton C) a brain D) specialized segments Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) The arthropod skeleton is composed of ______.

A) cellulose B) peptidoglycan C) chitin D) glycogen Answer: C Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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16) Nearly all ______ are aquatic.

A) crustaceans B) arachnids C) flatworms D) roundworms Answer: A Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) ______ are the most diverse group of arthropods.

A) Insects B) Millipedes C) Arachnids D) Crustaceans Answer: A Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) What characteristic is unique to echinoderms?

A) a lack of segmentation B) a water vascular system C) suction-cup-like feet D) larvae with bilateral symmetry Answer: B Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Unique features of vertebrates include the presence of a(n) ______.

A) endoskeleton B) notochord C) skull and backbone D) pharyngeal slit Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates?

A) They all have vertebral columns.

B) They all exhibit radial symmetry.

C) They all have a notochord sometime during the life cycle.

D) They all have an exoskeleton sometime during the life cycle.

Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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21) A(n) ______ is an example of a chordate that is not a vertebrate. A) lancelet B) echinoderm C) bird D) fish Answer: A Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Among vertebrates, the unique feature of lampreys and hagfish is the ______.

A) presence of a cartilaginous skeleton B) absence of a backbone C) absence of jaws D) absence of a post-anal tail Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Rays are a type of ______.

A) tunicate B) cartilaginous fish C) jawless fish D) bony fish Answer: B Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Swim bladders ______.

A) contain the gills B) are required for fish to exchange gases with the surrounding water C) are present in both bony and cartilaginous fishes D) help bony fish maintain buoyancy Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Which group of fishes includes a lineage that migrated out of fresh water and adapted to life on land?

A) ray-finned fishes B) jawless fishes C) lobe-finned fishes D) cartilaginous fishes Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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26) What does the term tetrapod mean?

A) egg-laying B) living on land C) living a double life D) having four feet Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) A feature that freed reptiles from dependence on water for reproduction is ______.

A) parental care of eggs B) ectothermy C) metamorphosis D) the amniotic egg Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) A characteristic that is shared by snakes and birds is ______.

A) being ectothermic B) the presence of only a single ovary in females C) the amniotic egg D) being endothermic Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Almost every element of bird anatomy is modified for what?

A) laying eggs B) eating seeds C) enhancement of flight D) singing unique songs Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Features unique to mammals include ______.

A) the presence of hair B) extended parental care of the young C) being endotherms D) having no egg-laying members Answer: A Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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31) ______ are the mammalian group that lay eggs.

A) Eutherians B) Tunicates C) Monotremes D) Marsupials Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) All chordates have ______.

A) a dorsal, hollow nerve cord and a notochord B) a post-anal tail and a single opening for the mouth and anus C) a cranium and vertebrae D) pharyngeal slits and a cranium Answer: A Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) The lancelet is a(n) _____.

A) annelid B) flatworm C) chordate D) tunicate Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) The platypus is a _______.

A) bird B) marsupial C) eutherian D) monotreme Answer: D Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) How do New World monkeys differ from Old World monkeys?

A) New World monkeys have a prehensile tail.

B) New World monkeys have enhanced depth perception.

C) Old World monkeys are arboreal.

D) New World monkeys have nails; Old World monkeys have claws.

Answer: A Topic: 17.4 The Human Ancestry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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36) Which anthropoids are most closely related to humans?

A) orangutans B) chimpanzees C) gorillas D) gibbons Answer: B Topic: 17.4 The Human Ancestry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Which of these human characteristics evolved first?

A) enlarged brain B) erect posture C) language D) loss of body hair Answer: B Topic: 17.4 The Human Ancestry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) The first hominid to spread beyond Africa was ______.

A) "Lucy" B) Australopithecus afarensis C) Homo erectus D) Homo neanderthalensis Answer: C Topic: 17.4 The Human Ancestry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Where did humans first appear?

A) South America B) Africa C) Asia D) Europe Answer: B Topic: 17.4 The Human Ancestry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Annelids are most closely related to ______.

A) chordates B) arthropods C) molluscs D) echinoderms Answer: C Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) What type of symmetry does this organism exhibit?

A) asymmetrical B) binomial C) radial D) bilateral Answer: C Topic: 17.1 The Origins of Animal Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The figure below shows a planarian. Bilateral symmetry and a highly branched gastrovascular cavity all suggest that the planarian is a(n) ______.

A) annelid B) mollusk C) chordate D) flatworm Answer: D Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) The legless, segmented body of the animal below suggests that it is a(n) ______.

A) annelid B) arthropod C) snake D) roundworm Answer: A Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Insects, such as the grasshopper shown below, have ______.

A) eight legs B) a two-part body: head and abdomen C) a three-part body: head, thorax, and abdomen D) no wings Answer: C Topic: 17.2 Major Invertebrate Phyla Skill: Application/Analysis

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6) According to this evolutionary tree, approximately how many years ago did humans and orangutans share a common ancestor?

A) 1 million years ago B) 7 million years ago C) 12 million years ago D) 20 million years ago Answer: C Topic: 17.4 The Human Ancestry Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Birds are a widespread group of animals, with approximately 10,000 different species found throughout the world today. Because they are relatively easy to find and so visually appealing, they have been studied more thoroughly than many other groups of animals. They are also valuable biological indicators, because many species live in different habitats during different times of the year and cover long migration routes. According to the World Conservation Union, extinction threatens over 1,200 bird species today and at least 179 are critically endangered. Some of the most endangered species include the Tahiti monarch, with only 10 pairs remaining, and the Bali starling, with only 12 wild individuals left. In Hawaii, the last captive po’ouli died in 2005 and the last two known to be alive in the wild have not been seen in many months. Common birds are also disappearing. In North America, red-winged blackbird populations declined by at least 1 percent each year between 1980 and 1999. These examples can serve as a warning. Habitat destruction, degradation, and fragmentation is the most serious problem and affects 86% of threatened birds. Unsustainable forestry and intensifying agriculture exacerbate this problem of habitat loss. All of this shows that conservation of habitats is critical if many of the world’s bird species are going to be saved from extinction in the near future.

1) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?

A) Many migrate long distances.

B) Many are brightly colored.

C) There are over 10,000 different species of birds.

D) Birdwatching is a popular hobby.

Answer: A Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) What is the greatest threat to birds today?

A) pollution B) poaching C) habitat loss D) the illegal pet trade Answer: C Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Approximately what percent of bird species are threatened with extinction today?

A) 5% B) 12% C) 25% D) 45% Answer: B Topic: 17.3 Vertebrate Evolution and Diversity Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 18 An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Ecology is the study of ______.

A) life B) human effects on the environment C) interactions between humans and other species D) interactions between organisms and their environments Answer: D Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of the following is abiotic?

A) a protist B) a plant C) a fungus D) a rock Answer: D Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) If you study how two species of finches compete for food, you are trying to answer a question about _______.

A) community ecology B) population ecology C) organismal ecology D) ecosystems ecology Answer: A Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) What level of ecology is concerned with the adaptations of individuals?

A) community B) organismal C) ecosystem D) population Answer: B Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?

A) community B) organism C) ecosystem D) population Answer: D Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of different species?

A) community B) organism C) ecosystem D) population Answer: A Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) What is a population?

A) a group of organisms living in a particular geographic area B) a group of organisms of the same species living in a particular geographic area C) a community as well as all the abiotic factors in a particular geographic area D) all of the organisms of a species existing at a particular time Answer: B Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Which of these is a community?

A) all of the Staphlococcus aureus (a species of bacteria) living on your skin B) all of the organisms living in your home C) all of the people living in your neighborhood D) all of the nut grass (considered a weed) in my backyard Answer: B Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis 9) What level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?

A) community B) organism C) ecosystem D) population Answer: C Topic: 18.1 An Overview of Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Which of the following organisms are not ultimately dependent on sunlight for energy? A) species that live in hydrothermal vent habitats B) predators C) marine species that live in the aphotic zone D) bacteria that feed on dead organic matter Answer: A Topic: 18.2 Living in Earth's Diverse Environments Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Aquatic organisms ______. A) have a waxy coating to prevent water loss B) may experience problems with water balance C) typically have a plentiful supply of nitrogen D) never find light to be in short supply Answer: B Topic: 18.2 Living in Earth's Diverse Environments Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which nutrients often limit the distribution and abundance of photosynthetic organisms? A) water and oxygen B) nitrogen and phosphorus C) carbon dioxide and nitrogen D) water and carbon dioxide Answer: B Topic: 18.2 Living in Earth's Diverse Environments Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) What term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space? A) acclimation B) adaptation C) cosmosation D) accreditation Answer: A Topic: 18.2 Living in Earth's Diverse Environments Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability? A) migrating to a different location B) acclimation C) endothermy D) "flagging" by trees Answer: A Topic: 18.2 Living in Earth's Diverse Environments Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) In an aquatic ecosystem, what name is given to the region where photosynthesis can occur? A) pelagic zone B) aphotic zone C) benthic zone D) photic zone Answer: D Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Wetlands ______. A) are important in improving water quality B) include rivers, streams, ponds, and lakes C) are an example of a marine biome D) are found in the intertidal zone Answer: A Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) What are estuaries? A) a type of freshwater biome B) areas near the start of a river C) regions where ocean meets land D) a transition area between a river and the ocean Answer: D Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of these biomes is one of the most biologically productive of all biomes? A) open oceans B) estuaries C) temperate grasslands D) coniferous forests Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) What name is given to the region where sea meets land? A) pelagic realm B) intertidal zone C) benthic realm D) aphotic zone Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) What name is given to the open ocean?

A) pelagic realm B) intertidal zone C) benthic realm D) photic zone Answer: A Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) In what part of the ocean are phytoplankton found?

A) pelagic realm B) intertidal zone C) benthic realm D) aphotic zone Answer: A Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) What name is given to the seafloor?

A) pelagic realm B) intertidal zone C) benthic realm D) aphotic zone Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The temperate zones ______.

A) have the coolest climates on Earth B) are relatively wet C) are relatively dry D) are the zones closest to the equator Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of the following can moderate climate by absorbing heat when the air is warm and releasing heat when the air is cold?

A) clouds B) glaciers C) mountains D) oceans Answer: D Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Water-storing plants and deeply-rooted shrubs are plants that characterize ______. A) tropical forests B) chaparral C) deserts D) savanna Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The Sahara Desert and the Negev Desert belong to the same ______. A) community B) abiota C) biome D) biota Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Long, snowy winters as well as evergreen trees such as pine and fir are found in ______. A) chaparral B) temperate broadleaf forest C) coniferous forest D) temperate grasslands Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) ______ are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems. A) Antelopes B) Zebras C) Buffalo D) Insects Answer: D Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) What is one important difference between savannas and temperate grasslands? A) Savannas only rarely experience fires B) Savannas have trees C) Savannas are inhabited by grazing mammals D) Savannas have very fertile soil Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

6 .

30) Which of these biomes is maintained by fire?

A) temperate deciduous forest B) chaparral and savanna C) desert and chaparral D) savanna and temperate grassland Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Permafrost, or permanently frozen subsoil, characterizes _____.

A) temperate deciduous forest B) chaparral C) tundra D) coniferous forest Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Most of the temperate grassland in North America has been converted to ______.

A) cities B) farmland C) national parks D) suburbs Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Water moves from land to the atmosphere through _____.

A) precipitation only B) transpiration only C) transpiration and evaporation D) evaporation and precipitation Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) With regard to the environment as a whole, when is the worst time to apply pesticide to your lawn?

A) when it is raining, or is about to rain B) when it is cold, or is about to get cold C) at the same time you apply fertilizer D) at night Answer: A Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) What fraction of Earth's surface has been altered by human use? A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 95% Answer: C Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) The greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temperatures. This increase is primarily due to ______.

A) CO2 and other greenhouse gases allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earth's surface B) CO2 and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of UV radiation from Earth C) the loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere D) CO2 and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of heat from Earth Answer: D Topic: 18.4 Global Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Temperature increases due to global warming have been greatest _____.

A) close to the poles B) in the sea C) in the tropics D) in deserts Answer: A Topic: 18.4 Global Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) The effect of deforestation has been to ______.

A) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere B) increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C) increase the rate at which carbon dioxide is incorporated into organic material D) increase the rate of carbon dioxide production through cellular respiration Answer: B Topic: 18.4 Global Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) In the oceans, global warming has ______.

A) decreased the amount of oxygen available B) benefited corals C) made the water more basic D) made the water more acidic Answer: D Topic: 18.4 Global Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8 .

40) Which of the following is not a result of global warming?

A) changes in the breeding seasons of some species.

B) decreasing sea levels.

C) melting permafrost.

D) shifts in the ranges of some species.

Answer: B Topic: 18.4 Global Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Which of the following actions would increase your carbon footprint?

A) reusing or recycling items B) eating more vegetables and less meat C) eating more beef and less chicken D) walking instead of driving Answer: C Topic: 18.4 Global Climate Change Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) Examine the figure below. Which part of Earth receives the greatest intensity of solar radiation?

A) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn B) equator C) North and South Poles D) all parts of Earth receive the same intensity of solar radiation.

Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9 .

2) Examine the figure below. Phytoplankton live in the _____.

A) photic zone and aphotic zone B) aphotic zone C) benthic zone D) photic zone Answer: D Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Examine the figure below. Globally, the largest amount of water moves from ______.

A) the oceans to the atmosphere by evaporation B) land to the atmosphere by evaporation and transpiration C) the atmosphere to land by precipitation D) land to the oceans by surface and groundwater runoff Answer: A Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater streams and, during the first year of their life, the young salmon migrate up to 1,000 km to the ocean. They spend varying amounts of time in the ocean (ranging up to five years), where they feed and grow, rapidly acquiring more than 95% of their biomass during this period. During the summer of their maturing year, they begin the long journey back to their home streams where they spawn. Although it is still uncertain how salmon navigate back to their spawning grounds, current hypotheses suggest that they have a highly developed sense of smell. At the spawning grounds, females use their tails to form a hollow cavity where they lay up to 8,000 eggs. The male fertilizes the eggs, and both adults typically die soon thereafter.

1) The physiological response that allows salmon to survive in fresh water, then in salt water, and then fresh water again is an example of ______.

A) a behavioral response B) evolution C) acclimation D) an anatomical response Answer: C Topic: 18.2 Living in Earth's Diverse Environments Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) At different times in their lives, salmon can be found in all of the following except ______.

A) a freshwater biome B) a chaparral C) the pelagic realm D) an estuary Answer: B Topic: 18.3 Biomes Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 19 Population Ecology Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What is a population?

A) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area B) a group of individuals of a single species that occupy the same general area C) a group of individuals of a single species that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them D) all of the organisms of a single species existing at a particular time Answer: B Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of these is a characteristic of Type I survivorship?

A) low survivorship for the very young B) most individuals survive to older age intervals C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age Answer: B Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Type I survivorship curves are typical of species that exhibit ______.

A) an intermediate number of offspring and an intermediate level of parental care B) few offspring and good parental care C) many offspring and good parental care D) many offspring and poor parental care Answer: B Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of these best describes Type II survivorship?

A) high survivorship for the very young B) most individuals survive to older age intervals C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age Answer: C Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Which of these best describes Type III survivorship? A) high survivorship for the very young B) most individuals survive to older age intervals C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age Answer: D Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Opportunistic species typically ______. A) are very long-living B) have a large number of offspring C) reach sexual maturity slowly D) exhibit a Type I survivorship curve Answer: B Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Species that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ______. A) have long lives B) exhibit a Type III survivorship curve C) exhibit a Type II survivorship curve D) have a large number of offspring Answer: A Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) If there are 500 oak trees in a forest covering 50 square kilometers then the population density is A) 5 trees per square kilometer B) 10 trees per square kilometer C) 50 trees per square kilometer D) 100 trees per square kilometer Answer: B Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) In an ideal, unlimited environment, a population's growth follows a(n) ______ model. A) exponential B) hypergeometric C) logistic D) geometric Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) In an ideal, unlimited environment, what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?

A) S B) J C) ∧ D) ∪ Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Application/Analysis 11) If a population's growth rate decreases as the population size approaches carrying capacity, the population's growth follows a(n) ______ model.

A) exponential B) hypergeometric C) logistic D) geometric Answer: C Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) In a population that is following a logistic growth pattern, what shape does the population's growth curve most closely resemble?

A) S B) J C) ∧ D) ∪ Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Application/Analysis 13) ______ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.

A) Crash point B) Carrying capacity C) Intrinsic population size D) Intrinsic rate of increase Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) According to the logistic growth model, what happens to a population when the size of the population reaches carrying capacity?

A) The growth rate remains unchanged.

B) The population begins to decrease in size.

C) The population crashes.

D) The growth rate is zero.

Answer: D Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Competition among individuals of the same species is ______ competition. A) extraspecific B) intraspecific C) interspecific D) endospecific Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of these factors operates in a density-dependent manner?

A) blizzard B) volcanic eruption C) food supply D) flood Answer: C Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Application/Analysis 17) Over time, the populations of most species ______.

A) fluctuate B) increase rapidly, crash, and never recover C) continuously increase D) exhibit boom-and-bust cycles Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) An unexpected freeze that kills a population of chipmunks is an example of ______.

A) a density-independent factor B) a natal effect C) a density-dependent factor D) an intrinsic factor Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Application/Analysis 19) The Endangered Species Act aims to help protect species that ______.

A) are in danger of extinction B) have suffered significant habitat destruction C) compete with invasive species D) are economically valuable Answer: A Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) The red-cockaded woodpecker, an endangered species, is dependent upon ______ for maintenance of its source habitat.

A) thick vegetation at least 15 feet in height B) fire C) floods D) corn snakes Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) You arrive back in the United States after having visited a foreign country located on another continent. The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home. Being the knowledgeable person you are, you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be ______.

A) carrying endangered fruit B) carrying a non-native species that could damage North American ecosystems C) contaminated with CFCs that will damage the ozone layer above North America D) contaminated with sufficient DDT to cause serious harm to anyone who eats the fruit Answer: B Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Non-native species can have important effects on biological communities by ______.

A) preying upon native species B) competing with native species for resources C) reducing biodiversity D) doing all of the above Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Examples of invasive species include ______.

A) kudzu and red-cockaded woodpeckers B) cod and Chilean sea bass C) snowshoe hares and kudzu D) cheatgrass and Burmese pythons Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) The intentional release of a natural enemy to attack a pest population is called _____.

A) biological control B) coevolution C) sustainable resource management D) integrated pest management Answer: A Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) The use of the Indian mongoose to control rat populations A) shows how effective biological control can be.

B) shows why integrated pest management usually fails.

C) became a disaster when the mongoose turned out to be as invasive as its target.

D) is an example of how coevolution makes biological control difficult.

Answer: C Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Most crop pests ______.

A) have an opportunistic life history B) have an equilibrial life history C) exhibit type I survivorship D) consist of long-lived individuals Answer: A Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Integrated pest management ______.

A) favors overwhelming a pest with chemical pesticides B) advocates total eradication of pest species C) aims to keep pest populations on an exponential growth curve D) advocates mixed-species plantings and rotating crops Answer: D Topic: 19.3 Applications of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Throughout most of human history, human population size _____.

A) was at carrying capacity B) grew very slowly C) showed boom and bust cycles D) skyrocketed Answer: B Topic: 19.4 Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) In most developed countries, overall population growth rates ______.

A) are high, so the population is growing rapidly B) are high, so the population size is fairly stable C) are near zero, so the population size is fairly stable D) are low, so the population is declining Answer: C Topic: 19.4 Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) In most developing countries ______.

A) birth rates equal death rates, so population size is fairly stable B) birth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is declining C) birth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly D) birth rates are much higher than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly Answer: D Topic: 19.4 Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) What will be the approximate shape of the age-structure diagram of a rapidly increasing population?

A) a rectangle B) a pyramid C) an inverted pyramid D) an hourglass Answer: B Topic: 19.4 Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) A study of the human ecological footprint shows that ______.

A) we have already overshot the planet's capacity to sustain us B) Earth can sustain the current population, but not much more C) Earth can sustain a population about double the current population D) human population size will soon crash Answer: A Topic: 19.4 Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) The ecological footprint of the United States ______.

A) is about the same as the global average B) is lower than the global average C) shows that Americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel D) shows that its population size is increasing slowly Answer: C Topic: 19.4 Human Population Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) The figure below shows population cycles of snowshoe hare and lynx. Recent field studies suggest that the most likely explanation for these cycles is ______.

A) periodic winter storms B) excessive predation of snowshoe hares C) nearly unlimited food for hares during the summers D) boom and bust cycles in lemming populations Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) When did male fur seals reach carrying capacity?

A) 1915 B) 1930 C) 1940 D) 1950 Answer: C Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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This graph represents three different populations. Use it to answer the following questions.

3) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?

A) Population A B) Population B C) Population C Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) If all populations occupy different areas that are approximately the same size, which population will have the lowest density after three years?

A) Population A B) Population B C) Population C Answer: C Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Which of the following choices matches this figure?

A) Dolphins produce only single offspring at a time and provide parental care for many months.

B) During "mating frenzies," male and female squid aggregate and release hundreds of eggs and sperm into the water column. The fertilized eggs are often quickly preyed on by fish.

C) The century plant grows for many years and reproduces and releases hundreds of seeds just once before it withers and dies. Because of the dry desert environment in which it lives, many of the seeds do not survive or are eaten.

D) In some species of lizards and rodents, survivorship is constant over the life span.

Answer: A Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Michigan's Isle Royale is located in Lake Superior and is 45 miles long and 9 miles wide. Ecologists estimate that the moose population has been on the island since around 1900. The wolf population, on the other hand, has only been there since the winter of 1949. The conditions had to be just right for the lake to freeze and the weather to be calm enough for the first wolves to make the passage over to the island. When the wolves arrived, they were greeted with a large moose population that had no predators. The moose population was at a dangerously high level, but was kept in check by the arrival of the wolves. This "harmonious" pattern continued for at least 20 years.

In 1982, the wolf population suddenly crashed. The problem was a new canine virus. This virus surfaced around the world in 1978 and spread rapidly in about six months. Infected animals can survive, but they have to be treated immediately. Ecologists hypothesized that the virus arrived on the island carried on the shoe of a human traveler. The wolf population decreased from 50 to 14 individuals in a year. While the wolf population dropped, the moose population increased. However, the winter of 1996 was extremely harsh and the moose population experienced a major crash. More than 500 animals died during the winter months, reducing the population to less than 800 animals.

1) What most likely happened when the wolves first arrived on the island?

A) The wolf population increased exponentially.

B) The wolf population was at its carrying capacity.

C) The moose population crashed because of the introduction of a predator.

D) The moose population increased exponentially.

Answer: A Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The virus introduced to the island in 1982 that reduced the wolf population is an example of ______.

A) a density-independent factor B) a density-dependent factor C) acclimation D) intraspecific competition Answer: B Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The harsh winter that led to the death of many moose in 1996 is an example of ______.

A) a density-dependent factor B) acclimation C) a density-independent factor D) a trigger for logistic growth Answer: C Topic: 19.2 Population Growth Models Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) During a one-year study, a graduate student attempted to count the wolves and moose on the island. He estimated that there were 950 moose and 120 wolves. How many organisms, populations, and species were included in this study? A) organisms = 2; populations = 1; species = 2 B) organisms = 1,070; populations = 1; species = 2 C) organisms = 2; populations = 2; species = 1,070 D) organisms = 1,070; populations = 2; species = 2 Answer: D Topic: 19.1 An Overview of Population Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 20 Communities and Ecosystems Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The present rate of species loss ______.

A) suggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century B) is about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years C) is as much as 100 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years D) is slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts Answer: C Topic: 20.1 The Loss of Biodiversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The single greatest threat to biodiversity comes from ______.

A) habitat destruction and fragmentation B) invasive species C) overexploitation D) pollution Answer: A Topic: 20.1 The Loss of Biodiversity Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Several years ago I was crossing the border from Canada to the United States and I had a bag of Washington State apples with me. The customs officer at the border would not let me take the apples with me into the United States (and I really hated the idea of getting rid of a bag of perfectly good apples). Why did the customs officer refuse to allow me to cross the border with my apples?

A) Washington State apples are considered an endangered fruit.

B) Apples grown in the United States for export may be contaminated with DDT. C) There may have been a species that was not native to the United States hitching a ride on my apples.

D) Economics: If I couldn't bring the apples in with me, I would have to buy my apples from a store in the United States.

Answer: C Topic: 20.1 The Loss of Biodiversity Skill: Application/Analysis 4) An example of a mutualism, or +/+ relationship, is ______.

A) the relationship between corals and unicellular algae B) cryptic coloration in frogs C) herbivory D) the relationship between Virginia's warblers and orange-crowned warblers, which use some of the same resources Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis

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5) Populations of two coexisting species are both tertiary consumers in a community. What relationship may exist between these two organisms?

A) predation B) mutualism C) competition D) commensalism Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) As a result of a severe disturbance, a community will ______.

A) not be repopulated B) be replaced by a community that is completely different from the previous community C) not recover for thousands of years D) undergo succession Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Organisms that consume producers are ______.

A) detritivores B) decomposers C) primary consumers D) producers Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) In the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the antelope is A) both an herbivore and a secondary consumer.

B) both a producer and a primary consumer.

C) both an herbivore and a primary consumer.

D) a secondary consumer only.

Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis 9) In the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the human is a(n) ______.

A) tertiary consumer B) secondary consumer C) primary consumer D) producer Answer: B Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis

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10) Small fishes that eat zooplankton are A) primary consumers B) producers C) tertiary consumers D) secondary consumers Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of these convert organic matter to inorganic matter by breaking down dead organisms?

A) producers B) detritivores C) decomposers D) primary consumers Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Most decomposers are _____.

A) plants and fungi B) bacteria and plants C) fungi and prokaryotes D) animals Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Bears eat berries, humans, and large fish; large fish eat smaller fish and insects; humans eat bears, large fish, and berries; Venus flytraps eat insects. The scenario described here is an example of ______.

A) an ecosystem B) parasitism C) a food web D) a food chain Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis 14) Herbivory is an example of a _____ interaction.

A) +/+ B) -/C) 0/+ D) +/Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) In order to assess the species diversity of a community, you would need to know the number of different species present as well as ______.

A) the number of trophic levels in the community B) the intensity of interspecific competition in the community C) the fraction of these species that are plants D) the relative abundance of the different species Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) What is one way in which energy flow differs from chemical cycling?

A) Energy flow is unidirectional; chemical elements can be recycled.

B) Energy can enter but cannot leave an ecosystem; chemical elements can leave but cannot enter an ecosystem.

C) Energy flows from lower to higher trophic levels; chemicals cycle from higher to lower trophic levels.

D) Energy can both enter and leave an ecosystem; chemical elements always remain within a single ecosystem.

Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Approximately what percentage of the visible light that reaches Earth's producers is converted to chemical energy?

A) 10% B) 0.1% C) 1% D) 0.01% Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Biomass is the total amount of ______ an ecosystem.

A) organic matter tied up in the consumers of B) organic matter tied up in the producers of C) chemical elements recycled by the detritivores of D) living organic material in Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The rate at which an ecosystem's producers convert solar energy to chemical energy stored in biomass is called ______.

A) energy flow B) chemical cycle C) primary productivity D) trophic structure Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4 .

20) On average, what percentage of the energy in one trophic level becomes incorporated into the next higher trophic level? A) 10% B) 30% C) 50% D) 90% Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which type of ecosystem has low production but nonetheless contributes a large proportion of Earth's total net primary production?

A) tropical rain forest B) coral reef C) open ocean D) desert Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Why are most food chains limited to three to five trophic levels?

A) be The higher the trophic level, the larger the organism; the larger the organism, the less likely it will prey.

B) The nutritional quality of existing biomass decreases with increasing trophic level.

C) Most ecosystems have insufficient space to support the increased number of organisms that more trophic levels would require.

D) There is insufficient energy to support more trophic levels.

Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Besides the atmosphere, abiotic reservoirs of carbon dioxide include A) fossil fuels and dissolved carbon compounds in the oceans.

B) rocks and dissolved carbon compounds in the oceans.

C) fossil fuels only.

D) rocks only.

Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) The atmosphere is approximately 80% ______ gas.

A) CO2 B) H2O C) CH4 D) N2 Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Plants can utilize the ______ form of nitrogen.

A) thiol B) N2 C) amino D) nitrate Answer: D Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Which of these organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen gas to a form that can be utilized by plants?

A) bacteria B) protists C) animals D) fungi Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) ______ convert nitrogen from a form that can be assimilated by plants to N2.

A) Nitrifying bacteria B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria living in the soil C) Denitrifying bacteria D) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria living in the root nodules of legumes Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) The major abiotic reservoir for phosphorus is ______.

A) the oceans B) the atmosphere C) rock D) dead organic matter Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) With regard to nutrient pollution in aquatic ecosystems, when is the worst time to apply fertilizer to your lawn?

A) when it is raining, or is about to rain B) when it is cold, or is about to get cold C) at the same time you apply pesticides D) at night Answer: A Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) The primary goal of conservation biology is to ______.

A) catalog species B) maximize the land set aside for wildlife C) integrate human culture back into nature D) counter the loss of biodiversity Answer: D Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at ______.

A) protection of federally listed endangered species B) countering pollution C) sustaining entire ecosystems D) maintenance of genetic diversity within species Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Species found in only one place on Earth are called ______ species.

A) hot spot B) exotic C) keystone D) endemic Answer: D Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ______.

A) biologically magnified B) endemic environments C) biodiverse environments D) biodiversity hot spots Answer: D Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) A regional assemblage of interacting ecosystems is a ______.

A) biome B) landscape C) movement corridor D) hot spot Answer: B Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Landscape ecology ______.

A) is the application of ecological principles to the study of land-use patterns B) focuses primarily on how to restore human-altered ecological systems C) deals primarily with ecosystems in urban settings D) deals with the study of the ranges of different species Answer: A Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) A movement corridor ______.

A) is a path used by migratory animals when they move to their winter habitats B) is the path most commonly used by an animal within its home range C) connects otherwise isolated patches of quality habitat for a species D) is a natural component of the environment Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Movement corridors are ______.

A) always created by humans B) only found along stream sides C) beneficial because they allow for dispersal, but not harmful D) harmful because they allow for the spread of disease and beneficial because they allow for dispersal Answer: D Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Sustainable development ______.

A) will require making difficult decisions regarding the environment and lifestyle B) must be achieved if the human species is to survive C) will require global, multinational cooperation D) involves all of the above Answer: D Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) E. O. Wilson coined the term ______ for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms.

A) bioremediation B) bioethics C) biophilia D) biophobia Answer: C Topic: 20.4 Conservation and Restoration Biology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions Please refer to the following art to answer the following question(s).

1) Refer to the figure above. This photo represents ______ community(ies). A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) You cannot tell from the photo.

Answer: B Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) In the ecosystem shown above, a toxin that accumulates in body tissues would have the largest effect on ______.

A) corals that obtain their food from photosynthesizing dinoflagellates B) herbivorous shrimp C) fish that eat shrimp and other invertebrates D) The toxin would affect all of these equally.

Answer: C Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis 3) The figure below shows the growth curves of two populations of Paramecium, P. aurelia and P. caudatum. From the data, we can conclude that ______.

A) the ecological niches of the two species are very different B) P. aurelia is a predator of P. caudatum C) P. aurelia and P. caudatum have a mutualistic relationship D) P. aurelia is the superior competitor in this habitat Answer: D Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis

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4) Refer to the following figure. If there were an additional trophic level that consisted of organisms that prey on snakes, about how much energy would be available to organisms at that trophic level?

A) 100 kcal B) 90% C) 1 kcal D) 10 kcal Answer: C Topic: 20.3 Ecosystem Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis Scenario Questions Use the following information to answer the following question(s).

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by a unicellular eukaryotic organism belonging to the genus Plasmodium. These eukaryotic organisms are transmitted from one person to another by the female Anopheles mosquito when it feeds on human blood. Within humans, the Plasmodium spp. destroy red blood cells and, without effective treatment, serious infections can lead to death. Currently, more than 400 million people are afflicted with malaria and between 1 to 3 million people die from it each year.

Historically, a chemical compound called quinine has been used in developing effective drugs against malaria. In its natural environment, quinine is produced by certain trees native to South America. This chemical is synthesized in the outer layer of tree trunks and acts as an herbivore deterrent.

1) Based on the relationship between Plasmodium spp. and humans, these organisms would be considered ______.

A) parasites B) hosts C) producers D) carnivores Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis 11 .

2) Humans, mosquitoes, and Plasmodium together would be considered a(n) ______. A) population B) community C) ecosystem D) population and community Answer: B Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Despite being used for many years, quinine-based drugs have not led to the eradication of malaria and currently there are mosquitoes that are resistant to the compound. Which of the following were likely important in the development of this resistance to quinine? A) natural selection B) mutualism C) interspecific competition D) biological magnification Answer: A Topic: 20.2 Community Ecology Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 21 Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In animals, individual cells are grouped into _____.

A) organs B) tissues C) organisms D) organ systems Answer: B Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The connection between form and ______ is a basic concept of biology.

A) structure B) adaptation C) function D) environment Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) A physiologist is a biologist who studies the ______.

A) structure of living things B) structure of body parts C) evolution of animals D) function of body parts Answer: D Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Bone is a type of A) connective tissue B) epithelial tissue C) extracellular matrix D) adipose tissue Answer: A Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) A main function of most types of epithelial tissue is ______.

A) sensation B) support C) covering surfaces D) absorption Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 1 .

6) Connective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that ______.

A) it is made up of cells B) the cells are sparsely scattered through an extracellular matrix C) it is not made up of cells D) it is found only in humans Answer: B Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which one of the following types of tissue stores fat in the body?

A) cartilage B) bone C) adipose tissue D) fibrous connective tissue Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) What kind of connective tissue has a matrix that is strong and flexible?

A) bone B) adipose tissue C) loose connective tissue D) cartilage Answer: D Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following is the most common type of connective tissue in the typical human body?

A) fibrous connective tissue B) adipose tissue C) loose connective tissue D) bone Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Which is the most abundant kind of tissue in most animals?

A) connective B) epithelial C) blood D) muscle Answer: D Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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11) Which of the following is true of a typical skeletal muscle?

A) It is found in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract.

B) Its fibers do not have a striped appearance under the microscope.

C) It can be enlarged by exercise.

D) It is only found in heart tissue.

Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following distinguishes cardiac muscle from both smooth and skeletal muscle?

A) Its cells are striped.

B) It generally cannot be contracted at will.

C) It generally can be contracted at will.

D) Its cells are branched.

Answer: D Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Involuntary muscle includes A) skeletal muscle only B) smooth muscle only C) smooth muscle and cardiac muscle D) smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and some skeletal muscle Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?

A) nervous B) blood C) connective D) muscle Answer: A Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) The basic unit of nervous tissue is the ______.

A) dendrite B) axon C) neuron D) nerve Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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16) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about organs?

A) An organ represents a higher level of structure than the tissues composing it.

B) An organ consists of several tissues.

C) An organ can only carry out the functions of its component tissues.

D) An organ consists of many cells.

Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) The fact that every organism continuously exchanges chemicals and energy with its surroundings indicates that organisms ______.

A) are open systems B) are closed systems C) maintain homeostasis D) osmoregulate Answer: A Topic: 21.2 Exchanges with the External Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Imagine an invertebrate that lives in an estuary where salinity varies cyclically with the tides. If this animal practices homeostasis with respect to the salt concentration of its body fluids, its salt concentration will show ______.

A) no variations B) slight, continuous fluctuations C) slight variations, but only when the external salinity is changing rapidly D) a cyclic variation identical to that of the surrounding water Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Homeostasis ______.

A) is the maintenance of a constant internal state B) is a pathological condition C) is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment D) is the way the internal environment influences the external environment Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The vertebrate kidney helps to keep the acidity of the body fluids constant by varying the amount of hydrogen ions (H+) it secretes into the urine. You can confidently predict that this aspect of kidney function will be controlled by ______.

A) a negative feedback mechanism B) nerve impulses from the brain C) a hormone produced in the brain D) a hormone produced in the kidney itself Answer: A Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Application/Analysis

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21) Which of the following is most likely to be responsible if, when your blood sugar level rose, the level went back down?

A) the use of the sugar for energy by your cells B) a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback C) type 2 diabetes D) a homeostatic mechanism based on positive feedback Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Most homeostatic mechanisms depend on ______.

A) positive and negative feedback B) negative feedback C) predictable environmental conditions D) predictable internal conditions Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Which of the following animals is an ectotherm?

A) human B) parrot C) spiny lobster D) field mouse Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of the following animals is generating body heat to warm itself?

A) a beetle that absorbs solar radiation B) a moth that shivers its wings before flight C) a lizard that lies on a warm rock D) a turtle that moves to a warm, shallow part of a pond Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) When body temperature is too low, which of the following occurs?

A) Blood vessels in the skin constrict.

B) Muscles relax.

C) Sweat glands are activated.

D) Blood vessels at the body surface dilate and fill with blood.

Answer: A Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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26) Which of the following is a physiological response that takes place in many animals when they get too hot?

A) slowing of the heart rate B) constriction of blood vessels in the skin C) contraction of muscles D) increased blood flow to the skin Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following statements apply to freshwater fish?

A) They lose water by osmosis.

B) The concentration of solutes in their internal fluids is lower than in the surrounding water.

C) They pump out ions via the gills.

D) They produce dilute urine.

Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Marine animals that have body fluids with a solute concentration equal to that of the surrounding seawater are said to be ______.

A) osmoregulators B) osmoconformers C) hypertonic D) hypotonic Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Which of the following is a source of water loss in humans?

A) urination B) defecation C) breathing D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Which of the following is a function of the kidneys?

A) elimination of urea B) reabsorption of valuable solutes C) reabsorbing water D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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31) What is the name of the functional unit of the kidney?

A) renal unit B) urinary bladder C) nephron D) filtrate Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Reabsorption is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) blood... nephron B) filtrate... blood C) kidney... urinary bladder D) blood... filtrate Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Secretion is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) nephron... blood B) filtrate... blood C) kidney... urinary bladder D) blood... filtrate Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Excretion is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) filtrate... blood B) kidney... urinary bladder C) blood... filtrate D) kidneys... outside Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Which process describes the forcing of water and other small molecules from the blood into a kidney tubule?

A) absorption B) filtration C) secretion D) excretion Answer: B Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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36) A diuretic is a substance that ______.

A) promotes sweating B) regulates the contraction of cardiac muscle C) inhibits urinary water loss D) promotes urinary water loss Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) In humans, goosebumps are a vestige of a mammalian adaptation related to ______.

A) thermoregulation B) water conservation C) osmoregulation D) positive feedback Answer: A Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) One function of this organ system is _____.

A) thermoregulation B) excretion C) exchange of gases between the blood and air D) transport of substances throughout the body Answer: C Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) One function of this organ system is _____.

A) excretion of urea B) production of gametes C) protection of the body D) thermoregulation Answer: A Topic: 21.1 The Structural Organization of Animals Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The figure below shows that ______.

A) homeostatic mechanisms allow cats to sense their external environments B) homeostatic mechanisms allow cats to use their internal conditions to affect their external environments C) cats experience no variations in their internal conditions D) homeostatic mechanisms allow cats to maintain relatively constant internal conditions even when the external environment changes Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) Examine the figure below, which shows negative feedback in a thermostat. If the room becomes too warm, the next thing that will occur is ______.

A) heating stops B) the set point decreases C) the room cools D) the heater is turned off Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Use the following information to answer the following question(s).

The dune-burrowing spider Seothyra sp. lives in the Namib desert on the southwestern coast of Africa.

These spiders build silk-lined burrows with a sticky silk mat at the entrance to trap insect prey. While foraging during the day, the spider remains concealed in its burrow and shielded from direct sunlight when prey are not present.

During the day, environmental temperatures vary from 17 to 73°C (63-164°F). If a spider is prevented from retreating into its burrow, it shows signs of thermal stress at 49°C, whereas unrestrained spiders continue to forage at temperatures above 65°C. In addition, spiders respond more quickly to prey stimuli during the hottest times of the day and capture prey in significantly less time when temperatures are above 49°C. The captured arthropods (prey) tend to succumb more quickly to hot surface temperatures; they are more lethargic and struggle less when captured at the high temperature ranges.

1) Based on the information in the paragraphs, spiders are ______.

A) ectotherms B) endotherms C) sometimes ectotherms and sometimes endotherms D) neither ectotherms nor endotherms Answer: A Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) When foraging spiders are too hot, they retreat into their burrows. What type of feedback system does this indicate?

A) hormonal feedback B) positive feedback C) negative feedback D) positive and negative feedback Answer: C Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) When spiders show signs of thermal stress, this is an indication that they are unable to ______.

A) move B) function C) osmoregulate D) thermoregulate Answer: D Topic: 21.3 Regulating the Internal Environment Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 22 Nutrition and Digestion Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Spiders are ______.

A) herbivores B) filter feeders C) carnivores D) omnivores Answer: C Topic: 22.1 Overview of Animal Nutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Digestion is ______.

A) the absorption of nutrients B) breakdown of food into small nutrient molecules that the body can absorb C) churning of food in the stomach and intestine D) eating Answer: B Topic: 22.1 Overview of Animal Nutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The four stages of food processing are, in order: A) ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion B) ingestion, elimination, digestion, absorption C) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination D) digestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination Answer: C Topic: 22.1 Overview of Animal Nutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following is an example of mechanical digestion?

A) the breakdown of proteins into amino acids B) peristalsis C) the digestion of fats by lipases D) chewing Answer: D Topic: 22.1 Overview of Animal Nutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) The digestive sac of a jellyfish has ______ openings.

A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: A Topic: 22.1 Overview of Animal Nutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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6) An digestive tube is best defined as ______.

A) the compartment in which an animal digests its food B) a tube-shaped digestive compartment with either one or two openings C) a tube-shaped digestive compartment that has two openings and through which food moves in one direction D) a tubelike digestive compartment that has two openings and consists, at minimum, of a mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestine, and anus Answer: C Topic: 22.1 Overview of Animal Nutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) The main function of salivary amylase is to ______.

A) moisten food B) break down proteins C) absorb nutrients D) break down starch Answer: D Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Which of the following choices lists the organs of the alimentary canal in the correct order?

A) pharynx, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine B) oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine C) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, large intestine, small intestine D) oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine Answer: B Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Digestion begins in the ______.

A) oral cavity B) esophagus C) pharynx D) stomach Answer: A Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) The tongue does all of the following except ______.

A) taste food B) shape food into a ball C) secrete saliva D) push food into the pharynx Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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11) Muscular action propels food through the alimentary canal by a process called ______.

A) circular contractions B) active transport C) peristalsis D) progurgitation Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) What is the epiglottis?

A) a muscle that moves the esophagus into line with the pharynx during swallowing B) a muscle that moves the trachea out of line with the pharynx during swallowing C) a flap that flips down to cover the entry to the trachea during swallowing D) a muscular sphincter that closes off the entry to the trachea during swallowing Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) The esophagus and trachea are both open to the ______.

A) pharynx B) posterior oral cavity C) posterior nasal cavity D) larynx Answer: A Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) A food ball moves through the esophagus by ______.

A) peristalsis B) segmentation C) mastication D) regurgitation Answer: A Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) The stomach's gastric glands secrete ______.

A) digestive enzymes only B) hydrochloric acid only C) digestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid D) mucus, digestive enzymes, and hydrochloric acid Answer: D Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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16) Movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine is regulated by ______.

A) peristalsis B) reverse peristalsis C) the epiglottis D) a sphincter Answer: D Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following is the usual cause of heartburn?

A) backflow of chyme from the stomach into the esophagus B) retention of food at the bottom of the esophagus by a sphincter that is reluctant to open C) irritation of the lower esophagus by substances in spicy food D) compression of the lower esophagus by an overfilled stomach Answer: A Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following mechanisms helps prevent gastric juice from digesting the stomach lining?

A) mucus coating the inside surface of the stomach B) mitosis generating enough new cells to replace the stomach lining every few days C) the continuous secretion of gastric juice D) the inactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid Answer: A Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The stomach mixes food with the secretions of the stomach wall to form ______.

A) gastric juice B) a food ball C) chyme D) acid gastrin Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) When the wall of the stomach fails to protect itself from erosion by gastric juice, the result is ______.

A) heartburn B) a duodenal ulcer C) GERD D) a gastric ulcer Answer: D Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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21) How does Helicobacter pylori cause gastric ulcers in humans? A) It neutralizes the acids of the stomach. B) It causes the production of excess acid in the stomach. C) It damages the stomach's mucus coat. D) It causes the stomach to produce stronger acids. Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Most nutrient absorption occurs in which part of the digestive system?

A) stomach B) duodenum C) the several meters of the small intestine that come after the duodenum D) large intestine Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Bile from the liver is stored in the ______ before entering the intestine.

A) pancreas B) gallbladder C) spleen D) bile duct Answer: B Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?

A) It produces digestive enzymes and bile.

B) It produces bile.

C) It produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.

D) It secretes mucus into the small intestine.

Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Someone with liver failure will, in particular, have problems with the digestion and absorption of ______.

A) minerals B) fats C) carbohydrates D) proteins Answer: B Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Application/Analysis

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26) Which of the following nutrients begins undergoing digestion only when it reaches the small intestine?

A) fat B) protein C) starch D) complex carbohydrate Answer: A Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The epithelial cells lining the intestine have surface projections that increase the area for absorption.

These projections are called ______.

A) villi B) cilia C) microvilli D) rugae Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Absorption of water is one major function of which of the following structures?

A) small intestine B) colon C) rectum D) appendix Answer: B Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Altogether, the body secretes about 7 liters of water into the alimentary canal each day. About what percentage of this water gets reabsorbed?

A) 30% B) 50% C) 60% D) 90% Answer: D Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Which structure stores feces until they can be eliminated?

A) rectum B) appendix C) anus D) colon Answer: A Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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31) ______ the direct source of energy for cells. A) Fats are B) Glucose is C) ATP is D) Amino acids are Answer: C Topic: 22.3 Human Nutritional Requirements Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Most human need about ______ kcal per day.

A) 500-700 B) 1,300-1,800 C) 2,500-3,000 D) 20,000-30,000 Answer: B Topic: 22.3 Human Nutritional Requirements Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Your metabolic rate depends on ______.

A) your age B) your activity levels C) genetics D) all of these Answer: D Topic: 22.3 Human Nutritional Requirements Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) You must obtain ______.

A) essential nutrients B) fuel to power all body activities C) organic raw materials to make your own molecules D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 22.3 Human Nutritional Requirements Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Vitamins are ______.

A) organic molecules that are required in the diet in very small amounts B) nutrients that we can synthesize from simpler molecules C) important supplements for children, but not adults D) required to synthesize most amino acids Answer: A Topic: 22.3 Human Nutritional Requirements Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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36) Certain amino acids are called essential because they ______. A) are required for making protein B) cannot be made by the body from other compounds C) store energy D) are required for making nucleic acids Answer: B Topic: 22.3 Human Nutritional Requirements Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Which mineral is needed for the proper functioning of nerves, muscles, and bones?

A) calcium B) phosphorus C) sodium D) salt Answer: A Topic: 22.3 Human Nutritional Requirements Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) On a global scale, the most significant type of malnutrition is _____.

A) vitamin A deficiency B) calcium deficiency C) iron deficiency D) protein deficiency Answer: D Topic: 22.4 Nutritional Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Anorexia and bulimia ______.

A) occur when the body does not receive enough vitamin C B) occur when there is a protein-deficient diet C) occur mainly in affluent countries where thinness is idealized D) occur when a person does not obtain all the essential amino acids Answer: C Topic: 22.4 Nutritional Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) The figure below shows ______.

A) the chemical digestion of a protein B) the building of a protein by the enzyme pepsin C) the mechanical digestion of a protein D) the addition of a water molecule to add an amino acid to a protein Answer: A Topic: 22.1 Overview of Animal Nutrition Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The figure below shows that ______.

A) peristalsis moves food down the esophagus B) when the epiglottis closes the trachea, air cannot get into the trachea C) the trachea is open when you are not swallowing D) the trachea is closed when you are not swallowing Answer: C Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9 .

3) The function of the structure shown below is ______.

A) to digest proteins B) to absorb nutrients into the body C) to aid in mechanical digestion of food D) to break fats into smaller droplets Answer: B Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) Examine the graph below. A person with a BMI of 27 would be described as _____.

A) overweight B) normal weight C) underweight D) It depends on the person's height.

Answer: A Topic: 22.4 Nutritional Disorders Skill: Application/Analysis

11 .

Scenario Questions Use the following information to answer the following question(s). Several years ago, scientists discovered a mutation in zebrafish larvae that prevented the absorption of lipids from dietary fat. Larvae carrying this mutation died shortly after they hatched because all cells need fat to carry out their normal functions. More recent studies have determined that the mutation leading to this disorder occurs in a single gene on chromosome 10. When a normal gene is inserted into embryos carrying the mutation, these fish are able to process fats normally when they hatch. To discover more about the gene’s function, researchers examined and compared cells from normal and mutant fish larvae under a microscope. A major difference was noticed in the intestinal cells. The Golgi apparatus in the intestinal cells of mutant larvae are much larger than those of normal larvae. As the Golgi apparatus processes fats and proteins, the lipids become trapped, resulting in the abnormally large size of the organelle. 1) Before fats can be digested by enzymes, what substance is needed? A) chyme B) bile C) lipase D) pepsin Answer: B Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which portion of the digestive tract is specialized for absorption of the nutrients? A) stomach B) small intestine C) large intestine D) pharynx Answer: B Topic: 22.2 A Tour of the Human Digestive System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12 .

Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 23 Circulation and Respiration Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Animals such as hydras and jellies can exchange gases directly with the environment by ______.

A) diffusion B) active transport C) osmosis D) bulk transport Answer: A Topic: 23.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) In humans, oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body by ______.

A) a closed circulatory system B) an open circulatory system C) diffusion D) diffusion and facilitated diffusion Answer: A Topic: 23.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which one of the following is a characteristic of open circulatory systems but not closed circulatory systems?

A) a heart B) a vascular system C) blood D) open-ended blood vessels Answer: D Topic: 23.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) In animals with a closed circulatory system, gas exchange occurs across the thin walls of ______.

A) arteries B) arterioles C) capillaries D) venules Answer: C Topic: 23.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

1 .

5) Veins carry ______.

A) blood away from the heart B) oxygen-rich blood C) oxygen-poor blood D) blood toward the heart Answer: D Topic: 23.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Circulation Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Trace the path of a red blood cell in a circuit that takes it from the capillary bed of the right kidney to the capillary bed of the left kidney. Assume that you are doing this for an animal with a double circulation system.

A) capillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney B) capillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary veins → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary arteries → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney C) capillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney D) capillary bed of right kidney → arterioles → arteries → aorta → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → veins → venules → capillary bed of left kidney Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of these animals has a double circulatory system?

A) fish B) grasshopper C) dog D) hydra Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Which of these carry(ies) oxygen-poor blood?

A) pulmonary arteries B) pulmonary veins C) aorta D) left ventricle Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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9) A heart murmur occurs when there is a defect in _____. A) a heart valve B) the SA node C) the AV node D) the timing of the cardiac cycle Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Why is blood pressure higher during systole than during diastole?

A) The contraction of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

B) The relaxation of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

C) The contraction of the heart during diastole decreases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

D) More blood flows into the heart during systole than during diastole.

Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The basic rhythm of the heartbeat is set by the ______.

A) AV node B) EKG C) SA node D) "fight-or-flight" hormone Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) If your blood pressure were 120/70, it would mean that ______.

A) your blood pressure during systole is 120 and your blood pressure during diastole is 70 B) you have high blood pressure C) you have low blood pressure D) your blood pressure during systole is 120 and your heart rate is 70 Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Blood pressure that is consistently ______ or higher would indicate that you have hypertension.

A) 120/80 B) 140/90 C) 110/85 D) 100/75 Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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14) Which blood vessels have thin, leaky walls?

A) capillaries B) venules C) arteries D) none of the above Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Application/Analysis 15) Blood pressure is lowest in ______.

A) veins B) capillaries C) arterioles D) venules Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) If you looked closely at blood plasma, you might find ______.

A) white blood cells B) red blood cells C) hormones D) platelets Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) As a consequence of red blood cells' lack of nuclei and other organelles, they ______.

A) have more room to carry hemoglobin B) have a small surface area C) contain less hemoglobin than they might otherwise be able to carry D) can carry more calcium Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following can cause anemia?

A) sickle-cell disease B) vitamin deficiencies C) mineral deficiencies D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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19) When tissue lining a blood vessel is damaged, the first thing that happens is A) erythrocytes release fibrin B) leukoctyes multiply C) platelets convert fibrinogen to fibrin D) platelets adhere to the damaged tissue Answer: D Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) White blood cells play a particularly important role in ______.

A) fighting infections B) supporting the activity of red blood cells C) carrying carbon dioxide D) blood clotting Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Leukemia ______.

A) decreases the production of white blood cells B) increases the production of red blood cells C) is a cancer of the white blood cells D) is a cancer that arises in the lungs Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) You increase your risk of cardiovascular disease by reducing your consumption of ______.

A) fruits and vegetables B) red meats C) products containing trans fats D) tobacco products Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The buildup of plaque in the walls of arteries results in ______.

A) leukemia B) atherosclerosis C) anemia D) low blood pressure Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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24) Gas exchange requires a surface that is both ______.

A) ciliated and flagellated B) protected within the body and connected to the circulatory system C) thin and moist D) permeable to oxygen and impermeable to carbon dioxide Answer: C Topic: 23.3 Unifying Concepts of Animal Respiration Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Earthworms use ______ as their respiratory surface.

A) lungs B) gills C) their skin D) tracheae Answer: C Topic: 23.3 Unifying Concepts of Animal Respiration Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) What structure do lobster use for gas exchange?

A) gills B) lungs C) skin D) tracheae Answer: A Topic: 23.3 Unifying Concepts of Animal Respiration Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Insects breathe using ______.

A) lungs B) tracheae C) their entire outer skin D) book lungs Answer: B Topic: 23.3 Unifying Concepts of Animal Respiration Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Animals need O2 because it ______.

A) plays a role in obtaining energy from food B) helps animals synthesize proteins C) is necessary to make CO2 D) is needed to deliver hemoglobin to the cells of an animal's body Answer: A Topic: 23.3 Unifying Concepts of Animal Respiration Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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29) The ______ provide(s) a common passageway for both food and air.

A) bronchioles B) trachea C) pharynx D) alveoli Answer: C Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) What path does a molecule of O2 take from the nose to the respiratory surface?

A) pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus B) larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus C) pharynx → larynx → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus → trachea D) pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchiole → bronchus → alveolus Answer: A Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) In the human respiratory system, gas exchange occurs across the cells of the ______.

A) diaphragm B) trachea C) bronchi D) alveoli Answer: D Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Together, inhalation and exhalation are referred to as ______.

A) diffusion B) breathing C) active transport D) negative pressure Answer: B Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Breathing is regulated by ______.

A) the diaphragm and chest muscles B) the spinal cord C) the circulatory system D) control centers in the brain stem Answer: D Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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34) When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes leads initially to the urge to breathe again?

A) rising oxygen level B) rising carbon dioxide level C) falling oxygen level D) rising carbon dioxide level and falling oxygen level Answer: B Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Oxygen is mostly transported through the body ______.

A) dissolved in the blood B) dissolved in red blood cells C) bound to hemoglobin D) bound to dissolved iron Answer: C Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Cigarette smoking ______.

A) kills about 440,000 Americans every year B) accounts for 90% of all cases of lung cancer C) can affect the health of nonsmokers through secondhand smoke D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Why do cigarette smokers cough more than most people do?

A) The tar in cigarette smoke tends to make alveoli stick closed. Coughing opens them.

B) Coughing is the respiratory system's attempt to clear itself of the toxins found in smoke.

C) Cigarette smoking partially paralyzes the lungs; coughing exchanges the resultant "dead air."

D) Coughing stimulates blood flow to the lungs.

Answer: B Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) The following figure illustrates ______.

A) diastolic blood pressure B) systolic blood pressure C) the pulmonary circuit D) the systemic circuit Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the figure below. The one-way flow of blood in veins is maintained by ______.

A) blood pressure B) muscles pressing against the veins C) their thick walls D) valves Answer: D Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) Examine the structure of blood vessels in the following figure. Which one of the following has the structure best suited to chemical exchange between the blood and tissues?

A) venule B) capillary C) arteriole D) artery Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) Examine the figure shown. During negative pressure breathing, ______.

A) the diaphragm moves downward and the rib muscles contract, increasing the size of the chest cavity and decreasing the air pressure within the chest cavity B) the nasal cavities expand and the diaphragm relaxes C) the diaphragm and rib muscles contract, decreasing the size of the chest cavity and increasing the pressure within the chest cavity D) the diaphragm moves downward and the rib muscles relax, increasing the size of the chest cavity and decreasing the air pressure within the chest cavity Answer: A Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) The figure below shows that ______.

A) hemoglobin can bind to either oxygen or carbon dioxide B) a hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four molecules of oxygen C) a red blood cell contains four hemoglobin molecules D) each iron atom can bind four oxygen molecules Answer: B Topic: 23.4 The Human Respiratory System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12 .

Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Blood flowing away from the heart is under tremendous pressure, able to travel to just about any portion of the body. However, blood pressure drops considerably as it moves away from the heart. When blood finally reaches capillaries, the blood pressure drops to nearly zero. Therefore, when a person is standing, blood returning from the feet is not moved back towards the heart by heart contractions.

1) Blood is propelled back to the heart by ______.

A) rhythmic contractions of muscles in the walls of veins and the action of one-way valves B) skeletal muscle contractions around veins and the action of one-way valves C) the negative pressure of the heart pulling blood into the empty chambers D) the natural flow of blood into ever larger blood vessels leading to the heart Answer: B Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) A scientist claimed that students might get better scores on written exams if they wiggle their legs frequently while taking an exam. This could work (but it is not better than studying) because wiggling legs might ______.

A) propel more blood from the legs back to the heart, increasing oxygen flow to the brain B) add more oxygen to the blood that is returning to the heart C) shake out more of the carbon dioxide that lingers in the blood returning to the heart D) break up blood clots in the legs, which slow the movement of blood back to the heart Answer: A Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Because of the changes in blood pressure through the circulatory system, the best way to feel a pulse is by pressing a finger against ______.

A) a vein B) a capillary C) an artery D) either an artery or a vein Answer: C Topic: 23.2 The Human Cardiovascular System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 24 The Body's Defenses Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?

A) several antibodies B) obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes C) increased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation D) none of the above Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) What kinds of cells engulf whatever foreign cells and molecules they encounter and recognize?

A) natural killer cells B) platelets C) phagocytic cells D) interferons Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following kinds of protein circulates in the blood and coats the surfaces of microbes to make them more susceptible to engulfment by phagocytic cells?

A) complement B) interferon C) prostaglandin D) antigen Answer: A Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) A major function of natural killer cells is to ______.

A) attack and kill pathogenic microorganisms B) attack virus-infected cells C) tag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies D) phagocytize microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Complement proteins assist the immune response by ______.

A) enhancing the effects of antibiotics B) coating the surface of microbes, making it easier for other defense cells to phagocytize them C) reducing inflammation D) all of the above Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) A researcher detects interferon in a laboratory rat and concludes that ______.

A) the rat has, or recently had, a viral infection B) cancerous cells are present in the rat C) the complement system has been activated by exposure to an antigen D) none of the above Answer: A Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Application/Analysis 7) Which of the following is a response of our innate defense system?

A) active immunity B) inflammation C) cell-mediated immunity D) movement of red blood cells to the affected site Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) When you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release which of the following chemical alarm signals?

A) interferon B) complement C) histamine D) antihistamines Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Histamine ______.

A) causes local blood vessels to constrict B) attracts natural killer cells C) stimulates the release of complement proteins D) attracts phagocytic cells Answer: D Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) The major result of the inflammatory response is to ______.

A) initiate the production of antibodies B) disinfect and clean damaged tissues C) initiate the release of interferons D) initiate the production of natural killer cells Answer: B Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Why do diseases involving widespread infection often result in a fever?

A) The inflammatory and immune responses result in extra heat production.

B) The microorganisms trick the brain's temperature control center into creating a hot environment that favors their growth.

C) The brain's temperature control center responds to inflammation by creating a hot environment unfavorable to the growth of microorganisms.

D) None of the choices is correct.

Answer: C Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) A role of the lymphatic system is to ______.

A) transport histamine B) produce hormones related to fighting infections C) produce white blood cells D) return tissue fluid to the circulatory system Answer: D Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Antibodies are ______.

A) composed of four fatty acid chains B) a type of lymphocyte C) proteins with short carbohydrates attached D) proteins consisting of four polypeptide chains Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) A substance that can elicit an immune response from a lymphocyte is called a(n) ______.

A) interferon B) pathogen C) antibody D) antigen Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) One kind of vaccine consists of a solution containing ______. A) antibodies B) horse serum C) B cells D) a harmless variant of a disease-causing microbe Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following cell types are specifically responsible for humoral immunity?

A) T cells B) B cells C) phagocytic cells D) natural killer cells Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following cell types are specifically responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

A) T cells B) B cells C) natural killer cells D) phagocytic cells Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The immune system is capable of mounting specific responses to particular microorganisms because ______.

A) lymphocytes are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection B) the body is able to determine which type of B and T cells to make C) the body contains an enormous diversity of lymphocytes, each with a specific kind of antigen receptor D) the body is able to make different antigen receptors depending on the invading microorganism Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Antibodies ______.

A) are shaped like the letter B B) are generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigen C) assist in destroying particular antigens D) all of the above Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) The functions of antibodies include ______.

A) the deactivation of complement proteins B) stimulating the production of antigens C) the phagocytosis of invading bacteria D) the clumping of invader cells Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) When in its life cycle does a B cell first exhibit its particular surface antibody?

A) after the memory cell giving rise to it divides B) before it ever encounters an antigen C) after it encounters several antigens D) after it encounters a single antigen Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) When a B or T cell is primed by an interaction with its particular antigen, the cell ______.

A) dies, killing the antigen B) engulfs the antigen and destroys it C) grows, divides, and differentiates further D) sticks to other cells with attached antigens to form a large clot Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) A primary immune response is the ______.

A) production of primary-type antibodies in the first day of exposure to a microorganism B) immune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism C) immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen D) immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) The primary immune response ______.

A) results in the production of short-lived effector cells via clonal selection B) results in the production of short-lived memory cells via clonal selection C) peaks about two days after first exposure D) triggers the secondary immune response Answer: A Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Which of the following cell types initiates a secondary immune response? A) natural killer cells B) memory cells C) effector cells D) plasma cells Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The secondary response in humoral immunity occurs when memory cells bind to ______.

A) antibodies B) antigens C) plasma cells D) complement proteins Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) A humoral-type secondary immune response differs from the corresponding primary immune response in that the secondary response ______.

A) is slower B) results in fewer antibodies in the blood C) is able to target microorganisms even if they have altered their surface antigens D) none of the above Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) The basic function of T cells is to identify and destroy invaders in our ______.

A) blood or lymph B) interstitial fluid C) cells D) immune system Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Which of the following substances does a cytotoxic T cell secrete to destroy a target cell?

A) interferon B) complement C) antibodies D) perforin Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) ______ may destroy infected cells. A) Phagocytic cells B) Helper T cells C) Natural killer T cells D) Cytotoxic T cells Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which of the following compounds do mast cells produce?

A) interferon B) allergens C) histamine D) perforin Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Anaphylactic shock ______.

A) occurs when blood vessels constrict abruptly B) is a symptom of an immunodeficiency disease C) causes blood pressure to drop dangerously D) has no treatment Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) It is best to receive an organ transplant from a donor who ______.

A) looks like you B) rarely consumes alcohol C) does not have any allergies D) best matches your self proteins Answer: D Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) When the immune system improperly turns again the body's own molecules, the result is _____.

A) an allergy B) lupus C) an autoimmune disease D) progressive paralysis Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Which of the following statements best explains why people with Hodgkin's disease often show signs of immunodeficiency?

A) The Hodgkin's disease virus infects and destroys B cells.

B) Hodgkin's disease involves the deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.

C) Hodgkin's disease is a type of cancer that affects lymphocytes.

D) Hodgkin's disease occurs when an immune response elicited by streptococcal bacteria kills normal heart cells as well.

Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Application/Analysis 36) Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?

A) cytotoxic T cells B) natural killer cells C) helper T cells D) phagocytic cells Answer: C Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) What has caused the evolution of drug-resistant strains of HIV? A) genetic engineering of the virus in research laboratories B) the merger of different AIDS viruses into one new virus C) the joining of antibodies to HIV D) anti-AIDS drugs Answer: D Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Examine the numerous long structures extending from the surface of some of the cells in the following figure. Cells with these long structures could be found lining ______.

A) the digestive tract B) arteries C) veins D) the trachea Answer: D Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Application/Analysis

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2) The figure below shows a Y-shaped antibody molecule. How many antigens can a single antibody molecule bind?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) Three B cells are shown in the figure. Which of these B cells will begin to grow, divide, and differentiate further?

A) only the B cell on the left B) only the B cell in the middle C) only the B cell on the right D) all three B cells Answer: B Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Examine the photograph of the hand in the following figure. The person’s joints are severely damaged because ______.

A) the immune system has damaged the cartilage and bone of the joints B) a viral infection has attacked the cartilage of the fingers C) cytotoxic T cells have destroyed the bone in the fingers D) T cells have reacted against the myelin in the hand Answer: A Topic: 24.3 Immune Disorders Skill: Application/Analysis

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Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s). Avian influenza is a viral infection that naturally occurs in wild birds with few damaging effects. However, avian influenza is highly contagious and can quickly kill domesticated birds. Some human influenza viruses are similar to the avian influenza. People infected with avian influenza develop typical flu symptoms (fever, cough, muscle aches). However, symptoms may become more severe and lifethreatening. If avian influenza evolves into a form that is easily transmissible from person to person, a global pandemic of widespread human death might occur. 1) One way to prevent a global pandemic of avian influenza would be to ______. A) keep large doses of histamine available to treat anyone who shows signs of infection B) treat any infected birds with large doses of antibiotics C) develop a vaccine against the avian influenza virus D) develop drugs that could effectively block anaphylactic shock Answer: C Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of the following cells would be active during an immune response to a viral infection? A) natural killer cells B) phagocytic cells C) T cells D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 24.2 Adaptive Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Humans that are infected with avian influenza are likely to have elevated levels of ______. A) interferons B) histamine C) pyrogens D) allergens Answer: A Topic: 24.1 Innate Defenses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e(Simon/Yeh) Chapter 25 Hormones Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Hormones are usually transported through ______ and affect only cells with ______.

A) ducts... specific receptors B) intercellular junctions... cell junctions C) blood vessels... specific receptors D) blood vessels... cell junctions Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) If a cell is like a house, which one of the following is most similar to the way that a steroid hormone works?

A) A postal worker leaves mail for you at your front door.

B) A visitor to your home knocks on your front door.

C) Radio signals are received by a stereo in your bedroom.

D) You walk outside of your home to get a better signal on your cell phone.

Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Hormones regulate ______.

A) growth B) reproduction C) metabolism D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Application/Analysis 4) Hormones that bind to plasma membrane receptors ______.

A) are steroid hormones B) bind to DNA and cause changes in transcription C) cannot pass through cell membranes D) are produced in the interstitial fluid Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Nonsteroid hormones are derived from ______.

A) amino acids B) cholesterol C) carbohydrates D) long-chain fatty acids Answer: A Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Hormones are made from all of the following classes of compounds except ______.

A) peptides B) proteins C) amines D) carbohydrates Answer: D Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) A cell that is affected by a particular steroid hormone would be expected to have ______.

A) DNA sites that interact with the hormone B) a receptor inside the cell that binds the hormone C) a cell-surface receptor that binds the hormone D) enzymes that are activated or inactivated by the hormone's second messenger Answer: B Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Steroid hormones _____.

A) are derived from amino acids B) diffuse through the plasma membrane into target cells C) bind to receptors in the plasma membrane.

D) are water soluble Answer: B Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Steroid hormones ______.

A) trigger a signal transduction pathway when they bind to a receptor B) bind to mRNA in the cytoplasm to initiate transcription C) bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus D) all of the above Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Hormones derived from amino acids can cause different effects in different cells depending on the type of cell and ______. A) its signal transduction pathway B) the particular organelle that is targeted C) the binding of the hormone to either DNA or RNA D) all of the above Answer: A Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following has both endocrine and nonendocrine functions? A) pancreas B) salivary gland C) anterior pituitary gland D) skeletal muscle Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following is a nonsteroid hormone? A) glucagon B) a progestin C) a glucocorticoid D) androgen Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of the following is part of the brain? A) thymus B) hypothalamus C) adrenal cortex D) thyroid Answer: B Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which one of the following statements is true? A) The anterior pituitary is composed of nervous tissue. B) The pituitary is the master control center of the entire endocrine system. C) Inhibiting hormones make the anterior pituitary secrete hormones.

D) The pituitary secretes hormones that influence numerous body functions. Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is a hormone that ______.

A) helps to regulate the female menstrual cycle B) stimulates growth C) raises blood glucose levels D) regulates hair and skin growth Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following hormones is made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary?

A) estrogen B) growth hormone C) ADH D) insulin Answer: C Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of these hormones is countered by diuretics such as alcohol?

A) ADH B) glucagon C) HGH D) FSH Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis 18) Which of the following choices does NOT pair an endocrine gland or hormone with an aspect of metabolism that it regulates?

A) parathyroid—blood calcium levels B) pancreas—blood glucose levels C) prolactin—blood potassium levels D) ovary—female sexual characteristics Answer: C Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which of the following hormones affects the greatest variety of cell types?

A) prolactin B) insulin C) growth hormone D) calcitonin Answer: C Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Eating very spicy food stimulates the release of ______.

A) endorphins B) insulin C) glucagon D) calcitonin Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) One of your best friends loves to run long distances. You ask her what she enjoys about running. In addition to good physical fitness, she tells you that after a run she feels extra happy. You suspect that her joy might be related to increased production of ______ by the anterior pituitary gland.

A) endorphins B) releasing hormones C) prolactin D) ibuprofen Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Which gland requires the element iodine to produce its hormones?

A) thyroid B) pineal C) anterior pituitary D) ovary Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) ______ can be a symptom of hypothyroidism.

A) Goiter B) A low sperm count C) Graves' disease D) Hyperactivity Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis 24) Calcitonin is antagonistic to ______.

A) parathyroid hormone B) human growth hormone C) endorphins D) oxytocin Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Which of the following may be a consequence of excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone?

A) convulsive contractions of skeletal muscles B) giantism C) loss of calcium from the blood D) loss of calcium from the bone Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Which of the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?

A) They work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.

B) Insulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.

C) High levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.

D) They are antagonistic hormones.

Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which structure exerts primary control over the concentration of sugar in the blood?

A) liver B) pituitary C) pineal D) pancreas Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) When the concentration of glucose in the blood rises following the digestion of a meal, what is the hormonal response?

A) Increased amounts of both glucagon and insulin are released.

B) An increased amount of glucagon is released.

C) An increased amount of insulin is released.

D) Glucagon and insulin levels in the blood stay the same.

Answer: C Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Which of the following hormones causes a rise in the concentration of glucose in the blood?

A) insulin B) glucagon C) melatonin D) calcitonin Answer: B Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

6 .

30) What is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, such as frequent urination? A) a failure of the kidney tubules to reabsorb enough glucose from the urine B) a failure of the gastrointestinal epithelium to absorb enough glucose from food C) an inability of the body's cells to retain glucose they have absorbed from the blood D) an inability of the body's cells to absorb enough glucose from the blood Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis 31) Which of the following is almost always associated with being overweight and underactive?

A) type 1 diabetes B) type 2 diabetes C) type 3 diabetes D) hypoglycemia Answer: B Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following glands is located nearest the kidneys?

A) ovaries B) pineal gland C) parathyroid glands D) adrenal glands Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which of the following glands secretes hormones that enable the body to respond to stress?

A) pancreas B) adrenal C) pineal D) parathyroid Answer: B Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Epinephrine ______.

A) decreases metabolic rate B) decreases heart rate C) increases absorption of glucose by the digestive tract D) increases breathing rate Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Which of the following is(are) mostly involved in a long-lasting response to stress? A) mineralocorticoids B) glucocorticoids C) androgens D) oxytocin Answer: B Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following hormones can make a person susceptible to infection when administered for too long as a drug?

A) glucagon B) growth hormone C) glucocorticoids D) antidiuretic hormone Answer: C Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Hyposecretion of ______ may inhibit your response to stress.

A) ACTH B) insulin C) HGH D) prolactin Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis 38) Estrogens stimulate the development of ______.

A) breasts B) a low-pitched voice C) sperm production D) facial hair Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis 39) Which of the following are sex hormones?

A) androgens B) estrogens C) progestins D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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40) Which of the following is secreted by a sexually mature, premenopausal woman?

A) testosterone B) estrogen C) progestins D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis Art Questions 1) Examine the following figure. What is special about the target cells that allows them to respond to the hormone? Only the target cells ______.

A) are close enough to the blood vessels to respond B) touch the blood vessels C) have specific receptors to the hormone D) located in organs next to the kidneys can respond Answer: C Topic: 25.1 Hormones: An Overview Skill: Application/Analysis

9 .

2) Examine the figure below. If blood glucose levels decline, ______.

A) the pancreas releases more glucagon, which causes glucose to be released into the blood B) the pancreas releases more insulin, which causes glucose to be released into the blood C) body cells take up more glucose D) liver cells convert glucose to glycogen Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Application/Analysis

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3) Examine the figure below. The behavior exhibited by these elephant seals is promoted by _____.

A) growth hormone B) testosterone C) calcitonin D) antagonistic hormones Answer: B Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Scenario Questions Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and an increased susceptibility to bone fractures. It threatens more than half of all Americans over the age of 50. Women are about four times more likely to suffer from the disease than men. Osteoporosis may progress undetected until bones become so weak that they break during common activities. Prevention of osteoporosis includes regular weight-bearing exercise, recommended intake of calcium and vitamin D, and avoidance of smoking and excessive alcohol.

1) In the human body, calcium levels are regulated by the ______.

A) antagonistic actions of calcitonin and parathyroid hormone B) antagonistic actions of insulin and glucagon C) interactions of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone D) interactions of glucocorticoids and androgens Answer: A Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Osteoporosis could be caused by overactivity of ______.

A) the thyroid gland B) the parathyroid gland C) the adrenal cortex D) glucocorticoids Answer: B Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Soon after eating a calcium-rich breakfast of yogurt and fortified cereal, your blood levels of calcium increase, stimulating the release of ______.

A) insulin B) parathyroid hormone C) glucocorticoids D) calcitonin Answer: D Topic: 25.2 The Human Endocrine System Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 26 Reproduction and Development Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an aspect of asexual reproduction that is sometimes disadvantageous?

A) It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates.

B) It allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly.

C) It saves the time and energy of gamete production.

D) It produces genetically uniform populations.

Answer: D Topic: 26.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Asexual reproduction A) creates individuals with unique combinations of genes.

B) generates enormous genetic variation.

C) is an effective way for animals to expand their population quickly and exploit an available environment.

D) provides greater adaptability to changing environments.

Answer: C Topic: 26.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following is associated with sexual reproduction?

A) fission B) fragmentation C) budding D) none of the above Answer: D Topic: 26.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Hermaphrodites ______.

A) possess both male and female reproductive systems B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other C) usually fertilize themselves D) have abnormal reproductive systems Answer: A Topic: 26.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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) Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in ______.

A) populations with many more males than females B) animals that are widely dispersed C) aquatic animals D) populations with many more females than males Answer: C Topic: 26.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Why are human testes located in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity?

A) to shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation B) so the testes can be kept at a constant temperature C) so the testes can be kept cooler than the body's interior D) so the testes can enlarge at sexual maturity Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Where in a woman's reproductive tract does fertilization most often take place?

A) in the ovary B) in the upper part of the oviduct C) in the lower part of the oviduct D) in the uterus Answer: B Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) What moves the human egg through the oviduct?

A) the beating of the egg's cilia B) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct C) rhythmic contractions of the uterus D) the beating of cilia in the oviduct Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Into which layer of the uterus does the embryo implant?

A) myometrium B) perimetrium C) epimetrium D) endometrium Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) In a human female reproductive system, the ______.

A) hymen partly covers the cervical opening B) vagina secretes hormones that help maintain the uterine lining C) labia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region D) outer features are collectively called the vulva Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Meiosis in oogenesis produces four mature eggs from one primary oocyte.

B) Oogenesis begins during puberty.

C) Spermatogenesis begins before birth.

D) Oogenesis in humans is completed after stimulation by sperm.

Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Menstruation ______.

A) involves the breakdown of the endometrium B) is stimulated by HCG C) occurs after ovulation but prior to degeneration of the follicle D) is triggered by an LH surge Answer: A Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) In human females, the ovarian cycle begins when the ______.

A) levels of estrogen reach their maximum B) hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH C) level of progesterone drops precipitously D) levels of FSH and LH drop precipitously Answer: B Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) What would happen if an embryo failed to secrete HCG? A) The maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.

B) The fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.

C) Neural tube formation would not occur, and the embryo would not have a brain.

D) The embryo would be aborted.

Answer: D Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis

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15) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.

B) Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.

C) Tubal ligation prevents ovulation.

D) A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.

Answer: D Topic: 26.3 Reproductive Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following types of pathogens cause sexually transmitted diseases that are generally not curable?

A) bacteria B) viruses C) fungi D) HIV but not other viruses Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Reproductive Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which one of the following STDs is not caused by a virus?

A) AIDS B) chlamydia C) genital warts D) genital herpes Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Reproductive Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) A sperm cell's acrosome ______.

A) contains the sperm's nucleus and is the part of the sperm that enters the egg during fertilization B) fuses with the plasma membrane of the egg cell C) contains enzymes that are released when the sperm encounters an egg and dissolves a hole in the jellylike matrix that surrounds the egg D) contains the sperm's mitochondria Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which one of the following is the earliest event in the process of fertilization?

A) Sperm contact the jelly coat around the egg.

B) The sperm head plasma membrane fuses with the egg plasma membrane.

C) Enzymes from the acrosome are released.

D) The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg.

Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Which of these events occurs first?

A) gastrulation B) cleavage C) implantation D) formation of the placenta Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which of the following results from cleavage?

A) formation of the nervous system B) formation of the notochord C) more cells D) segmentation Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) The liver, pancreas, and lining of the digestive tract come from ______.

A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) mesoderm D) neural crest cells Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Gastrulation ______.

A) changes a hollow embryo into a solid gastrula B) changes the solid blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers C) changes the hollow blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers D) changes a gastrula into a blastocyst Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Mesoderm gives rise to the ______.

A) heart B) kidneys C) muscles D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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) Which one of the following is a result of programmed cell death?

A) formation of fingers in humans B) gastrulation C) formation of the notochord D) formation of the brain Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) When a chemical signal from a group of embryonic cells causes a different, nearby group of cells to embark on a particular developmental course (say, differentiating into a leg), the interaction between the two groups of cells is called ______.

A) induction B) coordinated differentiation C) programmed cell death D) potentiation Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Application/Analysis 27) What is gestation?

A) conception B) fertilization C) development D) pregnancy Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) The yolk sac of humans ______.

A) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo B) produces blood cells and gamete-forming cells C) secretes HCG D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother's blood Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) The lifeline between the embryo and the placenta ______.

A) is derived from the yolk sac B) is derived from the amnion C) is called the chorion D) is called the umbilical cord Answer: D Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) The human embryo's first blood cells arise in the ______.

A) developing liver B) amnion C) yolk sac D) allantois Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?

A) within a few hours of fertilization B) about a day after conception C) about a week after conception D) just after gastrulation Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) At about what point in gestation can an ultrasound exam determine the sex of the fetus?

A) about 4 weeks after fertilization B) at the end of the first trimester C) about 20 weeks after fertilization D) at the end of the second trimester Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) At about what point in gestation does the fetal heartbeat become audible by stethoscope and the fetus's movements easily felt by the mother?

A) 15 weeks B) 20 weeks C) 25 weeks D) 30 weeks Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?

A) formation of internal organs B) formation of external features such as arms and legs C) growth D) organ formation Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) Which of the following substances stimulates contractions in uterine smooth muscle during labor?

A) progesterone B) estrogen C) oxytocin D) prolactin Answer: C Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following correctly lists the three stages of labor, in the proper order?

A) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta B) dilation, crowning, expulsion C) contractions, dilation, expulsion D) contractions, dilation, crowning Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Bill suffers from a low sperm count. After meeting with his physician, he tells his wife that there might be a simple solution. Bill's physician suggests that he might raise his sperm count by ______.

A) drinking more orange juice B) wearing boxer shorts C) having sex more often D) riding a bicycle Answer: B Topic: 26.5 Reproductive Technologies Skill: Application/Analysis 38) The "grandmother hypothesis" suggests that a woman can increase her reproductive fitness by ______.

A) moving away from her children and grandchildren B) focusing her energy on caring for her grandchildren, instead of on producing more children C) focusing her energy on the production of as many children as possible before reaching menopause D) helping her sisters produce more children Answer: B Topic: 26.5 Reproductive Technologies Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) The animal in the accompanying figure illustrates ______.

A) fission B) regeneration C) budding D) none of the above Answer: C Topic: 26.1 Unifying Concepts of Animal Reproduction Skill: Application/Analysis

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2) The figure shows male reproductive anatomy. In a human male reproductive system ______.

A) sperm mature in the urethra B) the vas deferens conducts sperm between the testis and epididymis C) the sperm travel through the urethra during ejaculation D) sperm mature in the prostate gland Answer: C Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) The figure shows oogenesis. What is the function of the polar bodies that are produced during oogenesis? They are a mechanism that allows for ______.

A) the shedding of excess cytoplasm during the production of a haploid ovum B) the shedding of excess genetic material during the production of a haploid ovum C) the shedding of excess mitochondria during the production of a haploid ovum D) streamlining of the ovum so as to facilitate the penetration of an ovum by a sperm Answer: B Topic: 26.2 Human Reproduction Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) The figure shows a human embryo 31 days after conception. Which of the following structures is part of the placenta?

A) embryo B) chorion C) amnion D) yolk sac Answer: B Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Examine the embryo in the following figure. The hands and feet of this embryo appear paddle-like, with no distinct toes or fingers. What process is needed to define each of the toes and fingers?

A) programmed cell death B) neurulation C) gastrulation D) induction Answer: A Topic: 26.4 Human Development Skill: Application/Analysis 12 .

Scenario Questions Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following question(s).

Birth control methods act at many points in the reproductive cycle. Some options, such as birth control pills, are highly effective at preventing pregnancy. However, only a few commonly available methods are effective at preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted disease. The Center for Disease Control estimates that each year about 10 million new STD infections strike people ages 15 to 24.

1) Which of the following birth control methods provides the most effective protection against pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease for sexually active people?

A) the pill B) latex condoms C) a diaphragm D) the rhythm method Answer: B Topic: 26.3 Reproductive Health Skill: Application/Analysis 2) A diaphragm functions as a birth control device by ______.

A) preventing ovulation B) preventing implantation of an embryo C) stimulating the production of sperm-killing antibodies D) preventing the movement of sperm into the uterus Answer: D Topic: 26.3 Reproductive Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) A vasectomy ______.

A) prevents the production of sperm in the testes B) prevents the production of semen C) prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra D) is an effective method to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted disease Answer: C Topic: 26.3 Reproductive Health Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell's Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 27 Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The two major divisions of the nervous system are the ______.

A) sympathetic and parasympathetic B) CNS and PNS C) sensory and motor D) voluntary and involuntary Answer: B Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The cells that carry electric signals from one part of the body to another in the nervous system are _____.

A) dendrites B) neurons C) effectors D) synapses Answer: B Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Integration ______.

A) occurs at the axon B) inevitably results in the attainment of a threshold potential C) is the analysis and interpretation of sensory signals and the formulation of appropriate responses D) is the assimilation of memories by the limbic system Answer: C Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following neurons are part of the peripheral nervous system?

A) sensory neuron and motor neuron B) interneuron neuron and motor neuron C) interneuron neuron and sensory neuron D) only motor neurons Answer: A Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Multiple sclerosis primarily involves ______.

A) destruction of the medulla oblongata B) deterioration of the corpus callosum C) destruction of the myelin sheath D) deterioration of parts of the spinal cord Answer: C Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following carry incoming messages toward the cell body of a neuron?

A) axons B) dendrites C) actin filaments D) supporting cells Answer: B Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Outnumbering neurons by up to 50 to 1, which cells protect, insulate, and reinforce neurons?

A) sensory cells B) motor cells C) satellite cells D) supporting cells Answer: D Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The minimum change in a membrane's voltage that must occur to trigger an action potential is the _____.

A) threshold B) minimum voltage C) voltage potential D) triggering voltage Answer: A Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) What causes the inside of a membrane to become positively charged during an action potential?

A) Negatively charged ions rush out.

B) Positively charged ions rush in.

C) Positively charged ions rush in, and negatively charged ions rush out.

D) Negatively charged ions rush in.

Answer: B Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) The movement of an action potential along a neuron is most like ______.

A) the ripples created by dropping a pebble into a pond, gradually decreasing in size as the waves spread apart B) a crowd at a sporting event doing the wave around a stadium C) a radio tower emitting a signal that reaches only a small region D) the sound of your voice spreading out as you yell loudly to your friend while at a park Answer: B Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) A neuron can relay a more intense signal by ______.

A) sending a stronger action potential B) sending more action potentials in a given amount of time C) sending an action potential that travels more quickly D) sending a longer action potential Answer: B Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) In a chemical synapse, what is the name of the gap between the sending and receiving cells?

A) synaptic node B) gap junction C) synaptic cleft D) gap myelin Answer: C Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with sleep, mood, attention, and learning?

A) acetylcholine B) epinephrine C) serotonin D) endorphins Answer: C Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Heroin binds to endorphin receptors.

B) Caffeine promotes the inhibitory neurotransmitters.

C) Alcohol is a stimulant.

D) Valium blocks the receptors for inhibitory neurotransmitters.

Answer: A Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Where would we expect to find electrical synapses?

A) within the brain B) within the heart C) within the spinal cord D) all of the above Answer: B Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following is(are) part of the central nervous system?

A) motor system B) brain and spinal cord C) brain only D) spinal cord only Answer: B Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) What part of the nervous system cushions the CNS and helps supply it with nutrients, hormones, and white blood cells?

A) cerebrospinal fluid B) ganglia C) interneurons D) the bones of the skull Answer: A Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following effects could result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) decreased heart rate B) stimulated digestive organs C) secretion of epinephrine D) narrowing of the bronchi Answer: C Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Realizing that you did not study as much as you needed to for this exam, you start to take the test.

However, it is difficult to concentrate because your heart is racing, your stomach seems tied in a knot, you are breathing too quickly, and your mouth is dry. Most likely, you are experiencing the effects of the ______.

A) somatic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) central nervous system Answer: B Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Application/Analysis

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20) You start to trip, but you keep your balance and don't fall. Which of the following brain regions is responsible for the rapid coordination of muscle activity that kept you from falling?

A) cerebral cortex B) thalamus C) cerebellum D) cerebrum Answer: C Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Application/Analysis 21) Which, if any, of the following types of personal characteristics are not based in the cerebral cortex?

A) reasoning abilities B) artistic talents C) personality traits D) All of the choices are based in the cerebral cortex.

Answer: D Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Which one of the following correctly pairs the structure with its major function(s)?

A) hypothalamus—regulates body temperature, blood pressure, and hunger B) cerebellum—regulates memory, learning, and speech C) brainstem—input center for sensory data going to the cerebrum D) thalamus—coordinates balance Answer: A Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The cerebral cortex is highly folded. Why might this be an advantage for the functions of the cerebrum?

A) The increased surface area increases the area for higher-level thinking.

B) The increased surface area permits greater contact between the cerebrum and the cerebellum.

C) The folds form grooves that let the bones of the skull reach deeply down between brain regions.

D) The folds increase the areas where sensory receptors can reach the brain's surface.

Answer: A Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of the following was supported by the terrible accident that happened to Phineas Gage?

A) The cerebrum plays a major role in the sense of balance.

B) You cannot live without your hypothalamus.

C) The frontal lobes are associated with personality.

D) The pons plays a crucial role in hearing.

Answer: C Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Application/Analysis

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25) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by ______.

A) mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes B) extreme mood swings C) loss of energy and suicidal thoughts D) increased energy and extreme talkativeness Answer: A Topic: 27.2 The Human Nervous System: A Closer Look Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The receptor potential is the ______.

A) membrane potential produced when a neurotransmitter molecule binds to its receptor B) membrane potential produced in the receptor cell by sensory transduction C) electrical signal produced by perception D) membrane potential produced at a muscle cell Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation of receptors?

A) going into deep sleep B) distinguishing between different colors C) ignoring the shoes on your feet D) detecting sound and light simultaneously Answer: C Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Application/Analysis 28) In contrast to action potentials, receptor potentials ______.

A) are all-or-none phenomena B) vary in intensity C) do not require a stimulus D) do not rely on changes in the membrane potential Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) In all types of chemoreceptors, receptor cells develop receptor potentials in response to ______.

A) changes in the movement of the surrounding molecules B) the electrical properties of the surrounding cells C) chemicals dissolved in a fluid D) the addition of positively charged proteins Answer: C Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) Standing out in center field, the baseball player watches the hitter's bat strike the ball and then, slightly later, hears the sound of the impact. What types of sensory receptors did the player just use?

A) thermoreceptors and chemoreceptors B) photoreceptors and mechanoreceptors C) chemoreceptors and pain receptors D) pain receptors and thermoreceptors Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Application/Analysis 31) Thermoreceptors detect ______.

A) motion B) sound C) pressure D) temperature Answer: D Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) If aqueous humor is not drained, the likely result will be the development of ______.

A) glaucoma B) myopia C) astigmatism D) hyperopia Answer: A Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Cones are more sensitive to light than rods.

B) Rods can distinguish color.

C) There are three different types of cones in the human eye.

D) The best way to see stars is to look straight at them.

Answer: C Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) A person who cannot focus well on distant objects has ______.

A) hyperopia B) myopia C) astigmatism D) reduced visual acuity Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) A person who has blurred vision caused by a misshapen lens or cornea has ______. A) hyperopia B) myopia C) astigmatism D) presbyopia Answer: C Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) A person whose eyeball is shorter than normal suffers from ______. A) hyperopia B) myopia C) astigmatism D) presbyopia Answer: A Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) The organ of Corti is in the ______. A) outer ear B) inner ear C) middle ear D) Eustachian tube Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) As your jet takes off, you are pushed back in your seat and watch as the ground moves farther and farther away. Suddenly, your ears "pop," a result of air pressure changes in your ear permitted by the ______. A) auditory canal B) Eustachian tube C) outer ear chamber D) organ of Corti Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Application/Analysis 39) When you hear, the ______ vibrates. A) eardrum B) hammer C) stirrup D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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40) Which of the following structures constitute(s) part of the appendicular skeleton? A) skull B) rib cage C) backbone D) leg bones Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) If you lay your forearm along the table, you can rotate it so that your hand changes from a palm- down to a palm-up position. This is possible because your radius and ulna join at a ______ joint. A) ball-and-socket B) hinge C) pivot D) twist Answer: C Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Application/Analysis 42) Which one of the following is used to combat osteoporosis? A) hormone replacement therapy B) anti-inflammatory medicines C) opiates D) splints or casts Answer: A Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) What best helps a broken bone heal? A) Grafting new bone to the region B) Exercising the area with the broken bone C) Taking calcium supplements D) Returning the broken bone parts back to their natural shape and then immobilizing the bone Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Arthritis is a common result of aging, affecting a person's ability to ______. A) catch their breath after exercise B) move their joints C) heal broken bones D) produce red blood cells Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Application/Analysis

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45) Muscles are connected to bones by ______.

A) thick filaments B) ligaments C) tendons D) myofibrils Answer: C Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Functionally, what is the muscle fiber's fundamental unit of contraction?

A) thick filament B) thin filament C) myofibril D) sarcomere Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) A thick filament is made up of ______.

A) actin and regulatory proteins B) myosin C) myosin and regulatory filaments D) actin and myosin Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) According to the sliding-filament model of muscle contraction, a sarcomere contracts when its ______.

A) thick filaments slide across the ends of the sarcomere B) thin filaments slide across the ends of the sarcomere C) thick filaments slide toward each other across its thin filaments D) thin filaments slide past its thick filaments Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Would you expect motor units to vary in size? If so, which of these structures would probably have the largest ones?

A) No; all motor units are the same size.

B) Yes; a large thigh muscle.

C) Yes; a muscle controlling eye movements.

D) Yes; a muscle controlling hand movements.

Answer: B Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Application/Analysis

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50) A baseball player leaping for a baseball and a cricket jumping away from a frog are both using all of the following except their ______.

A) sensory receptors B) central nervous system C) digestive system D) muscle system Answer: C Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Art Questions 1) Examine the figure below. Once an action potential is triggered, ______.

A) the interior of the cell becomes positively charged relative to the outside B) the interior of the cell becomes negatively charged relative to the outside C) all ion channels close D) the cell soon reaches threshold Answer: A Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the neurotransmitters in the synapse in the accompanying figure. What might happen to these neurotransmitters after they have carried the signal to the receiving neuron? The neurotransmitters are ______.

A) transported back to the sending neuron B) absorbed by the receiving neuron C) incorporated into the membrane structure of the receiving neuron D) incorporated into the membrane structure of the sending neuron Answer: A Topic: 27.1 An Overview of Animal Nervous Systems Skill: Application/Analysis

12 .

3) The figure shows the human eye. Which part of the eye gives the eye its color?

A) sclera B) iris C) pupil D) vitreous humor Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) The figure below shows the structure of an arm bone. Which part of a bone contains stored fat?

A) red bone marrow B) cartilage C) the ends D) yellow bone marrow Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Examine the structure of a muscle cell in the accompanying figure. Which one of the following statements about muscle structure is true?

A) Each muscle cell has one nucleus.

B) Each myofibril consists of many muscle cells.

C) Each muscle cell has two to three sarcomeres.

D) A sarcomere contains thick and thin filaments.

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Answer: D Topic: 27.4 Locomotor Systems Skill: Application/Analysis Scenario Questions Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following question(s).

The human eye is an incredible organ, capable of gathering light to focus on images near and far, in bright light or dim, and with quick adjustments between these extremes. However, as eyes age, the ability to focus closely gradually declines as the flexibility of the eye's lens decreases. Some eye problems, such as cataracts, are more likely to develop in people who are more exposed to natural sunlight.

1) Bloodshot eyes reflect increased blood flow to the eye surface because of irritants such as dust and smoke. These swollen blood vessels are located on the ______.

A) cornea B) sclera C) iris D) lens Answer: B Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Application/Analysis 2) Floaters are small particles that interfere with the transmission of light between the lens and the retina. As people age, more floaters accumulate in this space where we find the ______.

A) pupil B) conjunctiva C) vitreous humor D) aqueous humor Answer: C Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Application/Analysis 3) When light levels suddenly increase, our eyes adjust quickly by reducing the size of the ______.

A) pupil B) retina C) iris D) cornea Answer: A Topic: 27.3 The Senses Skill: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 28 The Life of a Flowering Plant Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following products used by humans sometimes comes from plants?

A) fuel B) clothing C) food D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Most domesticated food crops come from which of the following plant groups?

A) cycads B) gymnosperms C) ferns D) angiosperms Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following best characterizes the monocots?

A) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes B) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with a ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives C) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives D) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes Answer: A Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following best characterizes the eudicots?

A) flower parts in threes B) leaves with parallel veins C) an embryo with two seed leaves D) stems with scattered vascular bundles Answer: C Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Which of the following is a function of roots?

A) absorbs water B) absorbs nutrients from the soil C) stores food D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following are the tiny projections found on roots that increase the surface area?

A) root hairs B) cotyledons C) nodes D) mesophyll Answer: A Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following constitute the shoot system of a plant?

A) leaves B) stems C) flowers D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Which of the following describes the sites of leaf attachment in a stem?

A) joints B) nodes C) internodes D) cotyledons Answer: B Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following is a stem modification for storage?

A) tuber B) petiole C) rhizome D) runner Answer: A Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Which of the following best describes the function of typical leaves?

A) anchoring B) photosynthesis C) shade D) storage of the sugars produced Answer: B Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following best describes the condition in which the terminal bud of many plants produces hormones that inhibit growth of axillary buds?

A) foliage determination B) cortical influence C) apical dominance D) axial dominance Answer: C Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) You trim two different houseplants. The first houseplant becomes bushier, but the pruning does not affect the growth of the second plant. A possible explanation is ______.

A) you removed the axillary bud on the first plant but not the second B) the second plant forms tubers, but the first plant does not C) the first plant has compound leaves and the second plant has simple leaves D) you removed the terminal bud on the first plant but not the second Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Application/Analysis 13) Which of the following describes the single layer of tightly packed cells that cover the entire root?

A) xylem B) root hairs C) epidermis D) endodermis Answer: C Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following describes the vascular system of a typical plant?

A) It is made up of xylem and phloem.

B) It provides support.

C) It transports nutrients throughout the plant.

D) It does all of the above.

Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Which of the following is the waxy coating secreted on leaves and most stems?

A) cuticle B) lignin C) endodermis D) epidermis Answer: A Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following is the selective barrier of a root that determines which substances pass between the cortex and vascular tissue?

A) epidermis B) endodermis C) cuticle D) xylem Answer: B Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following do guard cells act to regulate?

A) stomata B) cuticle C) epidermis D) root hairs Answer: A Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following is the main site of photosynthesis in a typical leaf?

A) epidermis B) endodermis C) mesophyll D) xylem Answer: C Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which of the following is the major component of plant cell walls?

A) chloroplasts B) lignin C) starch D) cellulose Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Which of the following cell types provide support in growing parts of a plant?

A) parenchyma cells B) collenchyma cells C) sclerenchyma cells D) water-conducting cells Answer: B Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which of the following have thick secondary cell walls strengthened with ligin, and support plants like steel beams in a building?

A) parenchyma cells B) collenchyma cells C) sclerenchyma cells D) water-conducting cells Answer: C Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Which of the following are the most abundant cell type found in most plants?

A) parenchyma cells B) collenchyma cells C) sclerenchyma cells D) food-conducting cells Answer: A Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Which of the following form chains with overlapping ends and are dead when mature?

A) collenchyma cells B) sclerenchyma cells C) water-conducting cells D) food-conducting cells Answer: C Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of the following form tubes and are alive when mature?

A) parenchyma cells B) collenchyma cells C) water-conducting cells D) food-conducting cells Answer: D Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Which of the following is a function of parenchyma cells? A) food storage B) support C) nutrient transport D) all of the above Answer: A Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) A plant grows taller through ______, which involves cell division in the ______.

A) primary growth... vascular cambium B) secondary growth... vascular cambium C) primary growth... apical meristem D) secondary growth... cork cambium Answer: C Topic: 28.2 Plant Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following is responsible for the increase in girth (width) of trees?

A) primary growth B) secondary growth C) growth in apical meristems D) an increase in the width of vessel elements Answer: B Topic: 28.2 Plant Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which of the following plant types complete their life cycle in two years?

A) annuals B) semiannuals C) biennials D) perennials Answer: C Topic: 28.2 Plant Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Flowering plants reproduce through ______.

A) asexual reproduction only B) sexual reproduction only C) asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction D) budding Answer: C Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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30) Which of the following is the part of a flower that contains the female reproductive structures?

A) carpel B) stamen C) sepal D) stigma Answer: A Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) In which structure do pollen grains develop?

A) stamen B) sepal C) filament D) anther Answer: D Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) The ______ enclose and protect the flower bud, while the ______ advertise the flower to insects and other pollinators.

A) anthers... petals B) carpels... stigmata C) sepals... stamens D) sepals... petals Answer: D Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) The main parts of a flower are modified versions of which of the following?

A) stems B) rhizomes C) internodes D) leaves Answer: D Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which of the following contains the developing egg and cells that support it?

A) endosperm B) ovule C) anther D) stigma Answer: B Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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35) A plant's diploid form is called the ______; the haploid form is called the ______. A) sporophyte... pollen B) sporophyte... gametophyte C) gametophyte... sporophyte D) gametophyte... fruit Answer: B Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following describes the delivery of pollen to the stigma?

A) fertilization B) double fertilization C) germination D) pollination Answer: D Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) The formation of a zygote and a cell with a triploid nucleus is unique to flowering plants.

What is this process called?

A) fertilization B) double fertilization C) germination D) pollination Answer: B Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Which of the following is a multicellular mass that nourishes the embryo until it becomes a selfsupporting seedling?

A) the endosperm B) a seed coat C) a fruit D) a cotyledon Answer: A Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) What typically has to happen before a fruit develops?

A) flowering B) pollination C) double fertilization D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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40) While on a hike, you notice that several burrs have become attached to your socks. You quickly pull them off. Burrs are produced by certain plants and frequently catch on animal fur (or people's clothing). After thinking about it, you decide that the burr is a type of _____ that is an adaptation for _____. A) leaf...protecting plants from herbivores B) fruit...seed dispersal C) cambium...seed protection D) pollen grain...successful pollination Answer: B Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Application/Analysis 41) Which of the following is the usual trigger for seed germination? A) water B) warm temperatures C) oxygen D) sunlight Answer: A Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Which of the following is an example of flowering plant/animal interdependence? A) Most angiosperms depend on insects, birds, or mammals for pollination. B) Most angiosperms depend on insects, birds, or mammals for seed dispersal. C) Most land animals depend on angiosperms for food. D) All of the above are examples of such interdependencies. Answer: D Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) What is the likely effect of pruning a plant?

A) the plant will grow taller B) the plant will grow bushier C) the plant will produce flowers D) the plant will grow more roots Answer: B Topic: 28.1 The Structure and Function of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) The figure below illustrates ______.

A) lateral dominance B) secondary growth C) determinate growth D) primary growth Answer: D Topic: 28.2 Plant Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) Examine the figure below. Secondary growth involves cell division in the ______.

A) primary xylem, primary phloem, and cork cambium B) vascular cambium and apical meristem C) vascular cambium and cork cambium D) secondary xylem, secondary phloem, and cork cambium Answer: C Topic: 28.2 Plant Growth Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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4) Examine the figure below. What process has to occur to produce a haploid embryo sac?

A) meiosis B) meiosis followed by mitosis C) mitosis followed by meiosis D) mitosis Answer: B Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

In late 2006, bee workers in the United States started to notice a disturbing phenomenon: the sudden disappearance of honeybees from commercial hives. This mysterious condition was called "colony collapse disorder," and it has caused a drastic reduction in commercial honeybee populations all over the country. It is estimated that one-third of our food supply relies on bees and is in danger. Crops that rely most heavily on honeybees include apples, almonds, blueberries, and pumpkins. If colony collapse disorder cannot be cured or treated effectively, farmers may have to turn to other insects, perhaps other bee species or even moths.

1) Without honeybees, which process in the life cycle of plants such as apples, almonds, blueberries, and pumpkins is most affected?

A) seed dispersal B) secondary growth C) pollination D) seed germination Answer: C Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Which plant structure is adapted for attracting beneficial insects such as honeybees?

A) axillary bud B) terminal bud C) flower D) petiole Answer: C Topic: 28.3 The Life Cycle of a Flowering Plant Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Campbell Essential Biology, 5e (Simon/Yeh) Chapter 29 The Working Plant Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following best describes the essential difference between plant and animal nutrition?

A) Plants use inorganic substances and energy from the sun to produce their own food.

B) Plants use organic substances to produce their own food.

C) Plants absorb food through their roots.

D) Plant and animal nutrition are essentially the same.

Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) For a plant, carbon and nitrogen are _____.

A) macronutrients B) micronutrients C) minerals D) vitamins Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following describes a chemical element that a plant must obtain from its environment in order to complete its life cycle?

A) macronutrient B) micronutrient C) essential element D) mineral Answer: C Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which one of the following is a plant micronutrient?

A) iron B) oxygen C) sulfur D) phosphorus Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) The three most important nutrients contained in fertilizers are ______.

A) nitrogen, iron, and phosphorus.

B) zinc, sulfur, and phosphorus.

C) nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.

D) zinc, iron, and potassium.

Answer: C Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following best describes substances that enter a plant through the root system?

A) They are dissolved in water.

B) They are attached to a carbon chain.

C) They are brought in through plasmodesmata.

D) They are brought in through stomata.

Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following supplies water and absorbed nutrients to a typical plant?

A) the air B) its sap C) sunlight D) the soil Answer: D Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Mycorrhizae represent a(n) ______.

A) parasitic association B) mutualistic relationship C) adaptation for photosynthesis D) competitive interaction Answer: B Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) What does a plant gain from a mycorrhizal relationship?

A) It allows roots to absorb water and solutes more rapidly.

B) It increases the surface area for photosynthesis.

C) It helps to break down complex molecules in the soil to release micronutrients.

D) It helps to break down decaying organic matter into essential plant nutrients.

Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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10) Which of the following convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonium?

A) nitrifying bacteria B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria C) denitrifying bacteria D) ammonifying bacteria Answer: B Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following convert soil ammonium to nitrate?

A) nitrifying bacteria B) ammonifying bacteria C) denitrifying bacteria D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following best describes the role of plant root nodules in plants such as peas and beans?

A) They house nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

B) They help absorb nutrients from the soil.

C) They are plant adaptations to kill bacteria that destroy root hairs.

D) They store nutrients.

Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Most plants rely on bacteria to supply them with a usable form of which of the following substances?

A) nitrogen B) carbon dioxide C) water D) amino acids Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following best describes the conversion that occurs during nitrogen fixation?

A) ammonium to nitrate B) nitrate to ammonium C) nitrogen to ammonium D) nitrogen to ammonium or nitrate Answer: C Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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15) Which of the following best describes transpiration?

A) the loss of oxygen from a plant B) evaporation from a plant's roots C) the bulk flow movement of water in a plant D) the loss of water from plant leaves through evaporation Answer: D Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following mechanisms best explains how xylem sap moves up against the downward pull of gravity?

A) transpiration-cohesion-tension mechanism B) adhesion-tension-diffusion of oxygen C) reverse osmosis-adhesion-transpiration D) glucose pumping-adhesion-tension mechanism Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following weather conditions would cause transpiration to be most rapid?

A) hot, humid weather B) cold, humid weather C) hot, dry weather D) windy, wet weather Answer: C Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following best describes the opening and closing of the stomata in most plants?

A) They are open during the day and closed at night.

B) They are open at night and closed during the day.

C) They are open almost all of the time.

D) They are closed except for brief periods of time during the day.

Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which of the following best describes the mechanism that causes stomata to open?

A) Water accumulates below the opening and eventually causes the stoma to open.

B) A large bubble of oxygen accumulates below the stoma and eventually causes it to open.

C) Two guard cells flanking each stoma control its opening by changing shape.

D) The internal pressure of xylem sap expands the leaf, stretching the stoma open.

Answer: C Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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20) Transpiration pulls water up a plant because of two mechanisms: _____ describes water molecules sticking together and _____ describes water molecules sticking to the walls of the xylem. A) cohesion...adhesion B) adhesion...cohesion C) adhesion...gravity D) gravity...cohesion Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which of the following describes how phloem sap moves within a plant?

A) bulk-flow mechanism B) sugar-flow mechanism C) pressure-flow mechanism D) sink-to-source mechanism Answer: C Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) A location in a plant where sugar is stored or consumed is a _____.

A) sugar sink B) sugar source C) sugar bank D) phloem pool Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) A farmer decides he wants to grow certified organic corn and sets out to meet all USDA standards to do so. His crop grows well for the first three years; however, he notices during the fourth and fifth years that his plants are getting smaller and producing much less corn. He has not altered his farming practices peanuts and begins to wonder what is happening. He remembers someone mentioning planting every third year in place of their corn crop, which leads to much healthier corn. Why would a farmer want to change to a different crop, especially something like peanuts?

A) Planting a legume like peanuts increases water retention in the soil, allowing the following year's corn crop to thrive.

B) Crop rotation with a legume like peanuts will increase nitrogen in the soil.

C) Planting a legume like peanuts increases the available carbon in the soil.

D) Changing from corn to peanuts, a legume, allows the soil to "rest" for a year.

Answer: B Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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24) Which of the following statements is true?

A) A given hormone has a very specific effect on a plant.

B) A single hormone may have different effects depending on concentration and presence of other hormones.

C) Plants and animals use hormones in very different ways.

D) Large amounts of hormones are required to affect plant growth and development.

Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Which of the following plant hormones affect(s) development in the plant body?

A) auxin B) cytokinin C) gibberellin D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Which of the following hormones promotes cell elongation in stems?

A) auxin B) cytokinin C) ethylene D) gibberellin Answer: A Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following best describes the condition of a twig if the auxin produced by its apical meristem is conveyed equally down all sides?

A) It will elongate.

B) It will branch near its tip.

C) It will produce a flower.

D) It will bend to one side.

Answer: A Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening and dropping of leaves?

A) auxin B) ethylene C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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29) Which of the following hormones promotes cell division?

A) auxin B) cytokinin C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid Answer: B Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Which of the following hormones promotes seed germination?

A) auxin B) ethylene C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid Answer: C Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which of the following hormones promotes seed dormancy?

A) cytokinin B) ethylene C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid Answer: D Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following is exemplified by a pea tendril contacting a string or wire and coiling around it for support?

A) gravitropism B) geotropism C) thigmotropism D) phototropism Answer: C Topic: 29.3 Response to Stimuli Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Experimental plants that were sent up in space shuttle missions did not exhibit all of their normal tropisms. Which of the following responses would you most expect to be lacking from these plants?

A) gravitropism B) geotropism C) thigmotropism D) phototropism Answer: A Topic: 29.3 Response to Stimuli Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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34) Which of the following best describes a night-neutral plant? A) The plants flower at night. B) Plants tend to flower in longer photoperiod conditions. C) Plants tend to flower in shorter photoperiod conditions. D) The flowering in these plants is not affected by photoperiod. Answer: D Topic: 29.3 Response to Stimuli Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Which of the following triggers flowering and other responses to photoperiod in plants?

A) temperature B) night length C) day length D) intensity of sunlight Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Response to Stimuli Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following best describe(s) the dependencies of most flowering plants?

A) Many depend on insects or other animals for pollination.

B) Many depend on insects or other animals for seed dispersal.

C) Many depend on fungi to help them acquire nutrients.

D) all of the above Answer: D Topic: 29.3 Response to Stimuli Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Art Questions 1) Which of the following is the site of carbon dioxide uptake by a plant?

A) root hairs B) leaves C) rhizomes D) internodes Answer: B Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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2) Examine the figure below. Which of the following add ammonium to the soil by decomposing organic matter?

A) nitrifying bacteria B) ammonifying bacteria C) nitrogen-fixing bacteria D) denitrifying bacteria Answer: B Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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3) When considering the shadowed side of a grass shoot, which of the following best describes why it bends toward the light?

A) Reduction in auxin levels allows gibberellins to promote cell elongation.

B) Reduction in gibberellin levels allows auxin to promote cell elongation.

C) Increase in auxin levels promotes cell elongation.

D) Increase in auxin levels promotes cell proliferation.

Answer: C Topic: 29.2 Plant Hormones Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The figure below illustrates ______ in plants.

A) photoperiod B) gravitropism C) thigmotropism D) phototropism Answer: B Topic: 29.3 Response to Stimuli Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11 .

Scenario Questions Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Nitrogen shortage is a common nutritional problem for plants. In crops, a nitrogen deficiency can result in stunted growth as well as lower nutritional content. Farmers sometimes apply fertilizers containing nitrogen as well as other essential nutrients, such as phosphorus and potassium. Compost can also be used to fertilize soils. Compost consists of vegetable matter that adds nutrients to soil as it is decomposed by microorganisms, fungi, and animals. Certain plants, including legumes such as peas and beans, house nitrogen-fixing bacteria in swellings called root nodules. The bacteria have enzymes that help convert atmospheric N2 to ammonium ions that can be readily used by the plants. The plant, in turn, provides the bacteria with other nutrients. When conditions are favorable, root nodule bacteria fix so much nitrogen that the nodules secrete excess ammonia.

1) Some farmers practice crop rotation, alternating between planting non-legumes such as corn or wheat one year and legumes the next year. What is the advantage of crop rotation?

A) The legumes in the rotation will transfer nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium to the other crop plants.

B) Planting legumes enriches the soil when root nodule bacteria fix so much nitrogen that excess ammonia is secreted into soil.

C) The nitrogen-fixing bacteria in legumes can migrate to non-legume crop plants and provide them with nitrogen.

D) Legumes make for good compost, increasing the richness of soil.

Answer: B Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which approach could an organic farmer use to deal with nitrogen deficiency?

A) plant legumes in alternate years and fertilize the soil with compost B) apply synthetic fertilizers that provide nitrogen C) plant legumes in alternate years and use inorganic fertilizers such as mined limestone D) use genetically modified plants that require less nitrogen Answer: A Topic: 29.1 How Plants Acquire and Transport Nutrients Skill: Application/Analysis

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