Biology The Core Eric J. Simon Test Bank.pdf

For exam and test prep, contact excellentessaywriters@gmail.com

Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Biology The Core

Edition: Author(s):

1st Edition Eric J. Simon

For exam and test prep, contact excellentessaywriters@gmail.com

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 1 An Introduction to the Science of Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) How is life defined?

A) The only requirement for life is the ability to reproduce.

B) Life is defined through a set of shared characteristics that all living things display.

C) A living thing must be able to move.

D) Life is determined by neural activity.

Answer: B Topic: 1.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Learning: G2 2) Fire can move, grow, reproduce, use energy, consume oxygen, and interact with its environment. Why is it not alive?

A) It does not have cells.

B) It does not consist of complex, well-ordered structures.

C) It does not pass on genes for traits to its offspring.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Topic: 1.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Learning: G2 3) Is a virus alive?

A) Yes, it possesses all of the requirements for life.

B) Yes, it possesses enough of the requirements for life to be considered living.

C) No, it does not possess all of the requirements for life.

D) No, it does not possess any of the requirements for life.

Answer: C Topic: 1.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.1 4) Which property or properties of life does a virus possess?

A) Has order B) Has cells C) Can reproduce on its own D) All of the above Answer: A Topic: 1.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.1

1 .

5) Certain parasites, such as intestinal tapeworms, cannot survive outside of the host. Why are they still considered alive? A) Survival outside of a host is not a requirement for life. B) Parasites often have life stages that do not require a host. C) They are still considered alive because they are studied by biologists, and biology is the study of life. D) As long as they are made of cells, they are considered to be alive. Answer: A Topic: 1.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Learning: G2 6) A population consists of ________.

A) living and nonliving components B) interacting populations C) a group of interacting individuals of one species D) None of the above Answer: C Topic: 1.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 7) "There are 628 squirrels living on campus." I have just described the ________.

A) species B) community C) population D) ecosystem Answer: C Topic: 1.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.2 8) Which of the following would probably not be studied by an ecologist?

A) The effects of increasing CO2 on forests B) Circulatory system of fish C) Predator-prey relationships D) Growth of a mosquito population Answer: B Topic: 1.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.2

2 .

9) If you were to combine all of the ecosystems on the planet, including the planet itself, you would have the ________.

A) ionosphere B) troposphere C) biosphere D) envirosphere Answer: C Topic: 1.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 10) A college campus—including the students, birds, trees, sidewalks, and air—makes up one complete ________.

A) community B) ecosystem C) population D) organism Answer: B Topic: 1.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.2 11) Skin is sometimes referred to as the largest organ of the body. Why is skin considered to be an organ and not a tissue or some other structure?

A) Skin consists of multiple cell types functioning as a single integrated unit.

B) Skin consists of multiple tissue types that cooperate to perform a specific task.

C) Skin is a vital component of multiple organ systems.

D) Skin consists of a single cell type.

Answer: B Topic: 1.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Learning: G2 12) The symbol for gold from the periodic table of the elements is Au. Pure gold consists entirely of this element. How long could you repeatedly cut a kilogram of pure gold in half until the portion remaining, if split, would then no longer display the chemical properties of gold?

A) You could do this until you had only a single atom of gold remaining.

B) You could do this until you had only a single molecule of gold remaining.

C) You could do this until you had only a single subatomic particle remaining.

D) You could do this until you had only a single gram of gold remaining.

Answer: A Topic: 1.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.2

3 .

13) Which of the following is the correct organizational hierarchy, from largest to smallest, in the hierarchical order of life? (Some levels have been omitted, so you are looking for the correct order.) A) Community → Ecosystem → Population → Tissue → Organ → Cell → Organelle → Atom B) Ecosystem → Community → Population → Organ → Tissue → Cell → Molecule → Atom C) Biosphere → Community → Population → Tissue → Organ → Cell → Atom → Molecule D) Ecosystem → Population → Community → Organ System → Organ → Cell → Molecule → Atom Answer: B Topic: 1.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.2 14) Beginning with an atom and working up to the entire planet, biologists view life as arranged from ________. A) small and simple to large and complex B) small and complex to large and simple C) large and complex to large and simple D) large and complex to small and simple Answer: A Topic: 1.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 15) What is typically the first step in the scientific method? A) Experiment B) Hypothesis C) Prediction D) Observation Answer: D Topic: 1.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1 16) The scientific method ________. A) is a rigid methodology that must be precisely followed to ensure validity B) is a rough recipe for answering questions, but the steps need not be performed in the same order as outlined nor must every step be performed every time C) is only undertaken by trained scientists in a controlled laboratory setting D) is the means by which absolute truth can be uncovered Answer: B Topic: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1

4 .

17) A recent commercial advertised for a wristband that claimed to restore health and balance by taking advantage of natural frequencies of your biofield. It even showed several people struggling to balance first without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wristband. For only $20 plus shipping and handling this device can be yours. Why should you be skeptical of the claims made in this ad?

A) Health cannot be tested via the scientific method.

B) You cannot believe anything you see on television.

C) The study was too objective.

D) It was not a controlled experiment.

Answer: D Topic: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1, G5, G6 A current trend among professional baseball players is wearing braided titanium necklaces. The titanium reportedly regulates the flow of energy through the body. The player wearing the necklace then improves strength, tires less, and recovers more quickly.

18) If you were to evaluate these claims using the scientific method, what would be the first step?

A) Conduct an experiment.

B) Gather testimonials.

C) Develop a hypothesis.

D) Evaluate the results.

Answer: C Topic: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1, G2 19) Which of the following would be the strongest evidence for or against the necklace's effectiveness?

A) A pie chart comparing the percentage of players who do or do not wear the necklace B) A scatter plot showing days on the disabled list and percentage of players who do or do not wear the necklace C) A histogram illustrating the satisfaction levels of the players who wear the necklace D) A bar graph comparing batting averages of the players who wear the official titanium necklace and those who were unknowingly wearing a fake titanium necklace Answer: D Topic: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1, G3

5 .

20) What should one do if the results of the experiment consistently do not support the original hypothesis? A) Change the hypothesis to match the results. B) Change the results to match the hypothesis. C) Accept the original hypothesis. D) Reject the original hypothesis and formulate a new hypothesis. Answer: D Topic: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1 21) Gathering information just to add to the knowledge base, such as measuring the beak length of various bird species, is known as ________.

A) discovery science B) applied science C) hypothesis-driven science D) investigative science Answer: A Topic: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1 22) What does the term "theory" mean to a scientist?

A) A collection of accepted hypotheses that explain a wide range of natural phenomena B) A guess C) A proposed explanation for an observed phenomenon D) A hypothesis that has been supported by the evidence of an experiment Answer: A Topic: 1.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1 23) Which of the following statements about the scientific method is false?

A) The scientific method can be used by anyone at any time.

B) The scientific method proves things false.

C) The scientific method proves things true.

D) The scientific method is a way of asking questions and getting evidence-driven answers.

Answer: C Topic: 1.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1

6 .

24) In a controlled experiment, the researcher typically manipulates one variable, called the independent variable, to determine how this variable affects the final outcome, called the dependent variable. In the following hypothetical example, a researcher applies varying amounts of fertilizer (0, 2, 4, 8, 10 units) to potted tomato plants. All other variables that may affect the outcome (watering, temperature, sunlight, plant size, etc.) are kept the same from pot to pot. At the end of the growing season, the tomatoes grown on each plant are weighed to determine which fertilizer level produces the largest tomato yield. Which variable was the independent variable and which was the dependent variable? A) Independent = Fertilizer amount, Dependent = Temperature B) Independent = Temperature, Dependent = Yield C) Independent = Fertilizer amount, Dependent = Yield D) Independent = Yield, Dependent = Fertilizer amount Answer: C Topic: 1.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1 25) Intense UV light from the sun is lethal to living things. Currently, some 99% of all incoming UV is blocked by the ozone layer which didn't develop until well after the first life-forms. How might the very earliest organisms have avoided the intense UV rays? A) Stayed below ground B) Had scales C) Stayed underwater D) Only came out at night Answer: C Topic: 1.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global Learning: G7

7 .

26) Is this an illustration of a plant cell, an animal cell, a fungal cell, or a bacteria cell?

A) Plant B) Fungus C) Animal D) Bacteria Answer: A Topic: 1.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 27) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Prokaryotic cells are typically 10 to 100 times larger than eukaryotic cells.

B) All prokaryotes are unicellular but eukaryotes could be either unicellular or multicellular.

C) The degree of structural complexity is not a key characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

D) Only eukaryotic cells have DNA. Answer: B Topic: 1.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 28) Archaea are a distinct group of organisms that are about the size and shape of bacteria.

Although they lack a nucleus or any other organelle, they produce enzymes similar to those produced by animal cells. Which cell type are they?

A) Eukaryotes B) Prokaryotes C) Neither of these D) Both of these Answer: B Topic: 1.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.2

8 .

29) What were the first organisms that appeared on the planet?

A) Prokaryotes B) Eukaryotes C) Algae D) Fungus Answer: A Topic: 1.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.2 30) Photosynthesis is the primary chemical reaction that creates the oxygen found on the earth.

Some prokaryotic organisms and some eukaryotic organisms can produce oxygen through photosynthesis. While all eukaryotic cells and many prokaryotic cells also require oxygen, there are many prokaryotic cells that do not. What then created the oxygen in the earth's atmosphere that allowed the earliest eukaryotic organisms to evolve?

A) Volcanoes B) Photosynthetic plants C) Photosynthetic algae D) Photosynthetic bacteria Answer: D Topic: 1.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.5 31) What are the "letters" that make up the chemical language of DNA? A) D, N, A B) C, T, G, A C) A,T, P D) C, H, O, N Answer: B Topic: 1.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.1 32) Why can the gene that produces insulin in a human be inserted into bacteria and produce the same human insulin?

A) Because humans evolved from bacteria, the gene for insulin is already present in bacteria.

B) The insulin gene originated in bacteria and was transferred to humans through an infection.

C) Humans and bacteria have the same proteins.

D) Bacterial DNA is made up of the same chemical building blocks as human DNA. Answer: D Topic: 1.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.1

9 .

33) Energy flows through an ecosystem. What is typically the originating source of energy in an ecosystem? A) Plants B) Water C) Wind D) Sun Answer: D Topic: 1.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.5 34) Which part of the ecosystem is called a producer? A) Nutrient recycler B) Photosynthetic organisms C) Animals that eat other organisms D) Animals that eat plants Answer: B Topic: 1.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.5 35) Which type of ecologist would be most concerned with nutrient cycles? A) Species ecologist B) Organism ecologist C) Population ecologist D) Community ecologist E) Ecosystem ecologist Answer: D Topic: 1.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.5

10 .

36) Which organism in this picture is the consumer?

A) The grass B) The cow C) The clouds D) The sky Answer: B Topic: 1.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.5 37) Every conversion of energy involves the loss of some of that energy. How is the majority of energy typically lost from an ecosystem?

A) Upon the death of an organism B) Through the decomposition of organic matter C) In the form of heat D) From the migration of organisms out of the ecosystem into another Answer: C Topic: 1.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.5 38) All living things require substantial quantities of carbon. Where do plants get the carbon they need to survive?

A) From decaying organic matter B) From the air C) From the soil (but not water) D) From the water in the soil Answer: B Topic: 1.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.5

11 .

39) All living things require substantial amounts of carbon. Where do animals get the carbon they need to survive?

A) From the water they drink B) From the air they breathe C) From the sun that warms them D) From the food they eat Answer: D Topic: 1.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.5 40) The gasoline that fuels a car has a substantial amount of energy inside of it. What was the original source of that energy?

A) Oil B) Decaying plants and animals C) Living plants and animals D) The sun Answer: D Topic: 1.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.5 Global Learning: G2 41) Which domain includes the "extremophiles," organisms often found living in extreme conditions?

A) Archaea B) Prokarya C) Eukarya D) Bacteria Answer: A Topic: 1.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 42) Which grouping contains the largest number of individual organisms?

A) Kingdom B) Population C) Domain D) Species Answer: C Topic: 1.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.2

12 .

43) You discover a nucleated, unicellular organism that is photosynthetic but can also eat other organisms. Under which grouping should this organism be included?

A) Kingdom Plantae B) Kingdom Animalia C) The Protists D) The Archaea Answer: C Topic: 1.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.2 Global Learning: G2 44) Which level of diversity refers to the variety of characteristics within a species?

A) Genetic diversity B) Species diversity C) Population diversity D) Ecosystem diversity Answer: A Topic: 1.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.2 45) How many species have been identified and named?

A) 1 million B) 2 million C) 5 million D) 25 million Answer: B Topic: 1.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.2 46) What does "Descent with Modification" mean?

A) Survival of the fittest B) Natural selection C) Modern species replacing primitive species D) New forms descending from earlier ones but with some changes Answer: D Topic: 1.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.4

13 .

47) Natural selection ________.

A) prepares organisms for future changes in the environment B) is a rare phenomenon C) is the result of sampling error D) results in evolutionary adaptation Answer: D Topic: 1.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.4 48) What is the unifying or "core" theme of biology?

A) Evolution B) Energy transfer C) Nutrient recycling D) Hierarchical organization Answer: A Topic: 1.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.4 49) Which is not a requirement for natural selection to occur?

A) Unequal reproductive success B) Competition for limited resources C) Variation in the offspring D) Random mating Answer: D Topic: 1.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.4 50) Individuals with traits that make them more successful in their environment will, on average, produce more offspring. This "fitting" of a population to their environment is called ________.

A) variation B) survival C) competition D) adaptation Answer: D Topic: 1.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.4

14 .

51) Darwin was not the first to propose that organisms evolve. Rather, he proposed a novel idea of what mechanism caused organisms to change over time. By what means did he propose that organisms evolve? A) Acquired traits B) Use and disuse C) Common descent D) Natural selection Answer: D Topic: 1.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.4 52) What evolves?

A) The individual B) The population C) Both of these D) Evolution occurs at a level beyond the individual or the population.

Answer: B Topic: 1.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.4 53) Every year new varieties of fruits and vegetables appear on the store shelves. Some are the result of cross breeding existing varieties, and others are from finding and propagating random mutations. Still other varieties come from inserting genes directly from one organism into another. What makes these genetically modified varieties possible?

A) All organisms share the same genes.

B) All organisms share the same proteins.

C) The DNA of all organisms is made of the same building blocks.

D) The DNA of all organisms contains the same sequences.

Answer: C Topic: 1.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Learning: G5 54) Select the most accurate statement.

A) Eukaryotes cannot live without prokaryotes.

B) Prokaryotes cannot live without eukaryotes.

C) Neither is dependent upon the other.

D) None of these answers is correct.

Answer: A Topic: 1.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.4

15 .

55) What happens to populations that are unable to adapt to changing environmental conditions? A) They go extinct. B) They get smaller. C) They get larger. D) Their birth rate increases. Answer: A Topic: 1.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.5 56) When a horse breeder chooses to breed only the fastest horses in an effort to select for speed, this is an example of which of the following?

A) Artificial selection B) Natural selection C) Hybridization D) Domestication Answer: A Topic: 1.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.4 57) Which of the following organisms arose through artificial selection?

A) Polar bears B) Dandelions C) Sea bass D) Dalmatians Answer: D Topic: 1.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 1.4 58) What is an antibiotic?

A) A drug that provides resistance to viruses B) A drug that kills bacteria C) A drug that prevents free radical damage D) A drug that fights cancer Answer: B Topic: 1.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 1.5

16 .

Short-Answer Questions 59) Name at least three organs that are part of your digestive system. Explain why the organs you chose are in fact organs and not something else. Describe their role in the digestive system.

Answer: Possible Answers: Stomach (chemical digestion), Small intestine (nutrient absorption), Large intestine (water reabsorption), Liver (bile production), Gallbladder (bile storage), Pancreas (digestive enzyme production). These all consist of multiple tissue types that cooperate to perform a specific task.

Topic: 1.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.1 Global Learning: G7 60) The scientific method has limitations. It can only answer objective questions based on quantitative facts from observable, measurable, and repeatable experiments. It cannot answer subjective questions based on qualitative beliefs or opinions such as the presence of deities, ghosts, or who makes the best doughnut. Could the scientific method theoretically be used to answer the question, Does throwing a virgin into a volcano prevent it from erupting? Support your answer.

Answer: Possible Answer: While unethical, after defining a few terms a controlled experiment could be designed to test this hypothesis. It may require multiple virgins and/or multiple volcanoes but it would be possible to discover if a correlation exists.

Topic: 1.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.3 Global Learning: G1, G2 61) How might washing your hands with an antibacterial soap increase your chance of getting a life-threatening bacterial infection?

Answer: Possible Answer: The antibiotic in the soap selectively kills only the weakest strains of bacteria, leaving behind the strains that have a natural resistance to the drug.

Topic: 1.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 1.4, 1.5 Global Learning: G2, G5

17 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 2 The Chemistry of Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The chemical name for table salt is sodium chloride, or simply NaCl. What type of chemical is NaCl? A) Compound B) Element C) Molecule D) Ion Answer: A Topic: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 2) Identify the reactants in the following chemical reaction: C10H8 + 12 O2 → 10 CO2 + 4 H2O A) C10H8 and 10 CO2 B) 12 O2 and 4 H2O C) C10H8 and 12 O2 D) 10 CO2 and 4 H2O Answer: C Topic: 2.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 3) How many HCl molecules are required to balance the following reaction?

Zn + ___ HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Topic: 2.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 2.1 4) What is a trace element?

A) An element that is very rare B) An element that is evenly distributed on the planet C) An element that is required in miniscule amounts for life D) An element that is used to identify the location of other elements Answer: C Topic: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 1 .

5) What is the most common element in your body?

A) Oxygen B) Water C) Carbon D) Sugar Answer: A Topic: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 6) Which is not one of the four atoms that make up the bulk of living organisms?

A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Calcium D) Carbon Answer: C Topic: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 7) The majority of the elements essential to life are found in what part of the periodic table?

A) The top third B) The middle third C) The bottom third D) Evenly distributed throughout the periodic table Answer: A Topic: 2.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.1

2 .

8) The typical carbon atom is described in the periodic table by the accompanying box. How many protons are in a typical carbon atom?

A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) Not enough information given Answer: A Topic: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 9) How many neutrons are in a typical carbon atom?

A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) Not enough information given Answer: A Topic: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Learning: G4

3 .

10) Which number represents the atomic weight of carbon?

A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) Not enough information given Answer: B Topic: 2.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.1 11) How many neutrons in a carbon-14 atom?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 14 Answer: C Topic: 2.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Learning: G4 12) If the number of protons in an atom does not match the number of electrons, the atom is specifically called an ________.

A) element B) isotope C) isomer D) ion Answer: D Topic: 2.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.1

4 .

13) The 2+ in Cu2+ tells us that this atom ________.

A) has two more neutrons than protons B) has two more protons than electrons C) has two more electrons than neutrons D) has two more electrons than protons Answer: B Topic: 2.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.1 14) Identify the part of the atom that most determines the chemical reactivity of the atom.

A) The number of shells B) The number of protons C) The number of neutrons D) The number of electrons Answer: D Topic: 2.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.2 15) In chemical bonding, when the bonded atoms share electrons, it is specifically called ________.

A) an ionic bond B) a covalent bond C) a hydrogen bond D) a polar bond Answer: B Topic: 2.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.2 16) What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into the innermost shell of an atom?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: B Topic: 2.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.2

5 .

17) While the maximum number of electrons required to fill the outermost shell of an atom varies depending on the size of the atom, almost all of the smaller atoms (atomic numbers 2-20) are considered stable (nonreactive) when they contain ________ electron(s) in the outermost shell. A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: C Topic: 2.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 2.2 18) What is the maximum number of single covalent bonds a carbon atom can form with other elements?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Topic: 2.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Learning: G4 19) Individual water molecules are held to one another by relatively weak ________ bonds.

A) covalent B) hydrogen C) ionic D) nonpolar Answer: B Topic: 2.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.2

6 .

20) The electronegativity of an atom is determined by how strongly outermost electrons are pulled toward the nucleus. Somewhat like gravity, the electronegativity will be stronger in atoms with larger nuclei and closer outermost electrons. Which element has the strongest electronegativity?

A) Boron B) Carbon C) Nitrogen D) Oxygen Answer: D Topic: 2.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 2.2 21) Why is one side of a water molecule partially negative while the other side is partially positive?

A) Uneven sharing of electron pairs occurs due to the strong pull of hydrogen.

B) Uneven sharing of electron pairs occurs due to the strong pull of oxygen.

C) Oxygen donates its electrons to hydrogen.

D) Hydrogen donates its electrons to oxygen.

Answer: B Topic: 2.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.2 22) Water is the lightest (least dense) when it ________.

A) freezes B) is just above freezing C) is at room temperature D) is just below boiling Answer: A Topic: 2.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.3

7 .

23) A needle can be made to "float" on the surface tension of water. What causes this surface tension to form? A) The adhesion of water molecules to the needle B) The cohesion of water molecules to each other C) The solubility of water D) The heat capacity of water Answer: B Topic: 2.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Learning: G5 24) Water "beads up" on synthetic fabric like polyester but binds to cotton. What is the most likely explanation for this?

A) Polyester is not a naturally occurring substance, whereas cotton is a naturally occurring substance.

B) Polyester is more flexible than cotton.

C) Polyester fibers are thinner than cotton fibers.

D) Polyester is nonpolar, whereas cotton is polar.

Answer: D Topic: 2.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Learning: G5 25) Select the most complete explanation of what the pH scale actually measures.

A) The acidity of a solvent B) The alkalinity of a solvent C) The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution D) The concentration of hydroxide ions in a solute Answer: C Topic: 2.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.3 26) The difference in pH units between two acidic solutions is three. How much more acidic is the stronger acid than the weaker acid?

A) 3 times more acidic B) 30 times more acidic C) 100 times more acidic D) 1,000 times more acidic Answer: D Topic: 2.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Learning: G4

8 .

27) Something with a pH of 5 would be ________.

A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) alkaline Answer: A Topic: 2.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.3 28) How do buffers minimize change in the pH of biological systems?

A) By absorbing H+ ions when there is an excess B) By donating H+ ions when there is a shortage C) Both of these D) Neither of these Answer: C Topic: 2.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.3 29) The functional group -NH2 is called the ________ group.

A) methyl B) alcohol C) amino D) carboxyl Answer: C Topic: 2.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.4 30) If you remove all of the functional groups from an organic molecule such that it contains only carbon and hydrogen atoms, the molecule is called ________.

A) a carbohydrate B) an inorganic molecule C) a hydrocarbon D) polar Answer: C Topic: 2.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.4

9 .

31) Which of the following large organic molecules includes table sugar?

A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids Answer: A Topic: 2.7, 2.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.4 32) The breaking of a large organic molecule into smaller individual subunits involves multiple ________.

A) hydrolysis reactions B) osmotic reactions C) dehydration synthesis reactions D) hydrosynthetic reactions Answer: A Topic: 2.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.5 33) What are the monomers of proteins?

A) Hydrochloric acids B) Nucleic acids C) Carboxylic acids D) Amino acids Answer: D Topic: 2.8, 2.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 34) What is the sum total of all the chemical reactions that take place in your body called?

A) Catabolism B) Anabolism C) Embolism D) Metabolism Answer: D Topic: 2.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.5

10 .

35) What is another name for the polymers of carbohydrates?

A) Triglycerides B) Polysaccharides C) Polypeptides D) Nucleotides Answer: B Topic: 2.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 36) Which of the following is not made from long chains of glucose?

A) Starch B) Glycerol C) Glycogen D) Cellulose Answer: B Topic: 2.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 37) Based on the suffix, a molecule of "maltose" is most likely what type of macromolecule?

A) Carbohydrate B) Lipid C) Protein D) Nucleic acid Answer: A Topic: 2.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Learning: G2 38) Which polysaccharide consists of many long straight chains of glucose with bonds joining the chains?

A) Starch B) Cellulose C) Glycogen D) This does not describe a polysaccharide.

Answer: B Topic: 2.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6

11 .

39) Which polysaccharide consists of individual long, twisted, unbranched chains of glucose?

A) Starch B) Cellulose C) Glycogen D) This does not describe a polysaccharide.

Answer: A Topic: 2.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 40) Lipids are all ________.

A) hydrophonic B) hydrophilic C) hydrophobic D) hydrolytic Answer: C Topic: 2.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 41) Which combination describes the plasma membrane?

A) Hydrophilic interior, hydrophobic exterior B) Hydrophilic interior and exterior C) Hydrophobic interior, hydrophilic exterior D) Hydrophobic interior and exterior Answer: C Topic: 2.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 42) What is the basic structure of most lipids?

A) A glycerol head and up to three fatty acid tails B) A linear chain of individual monomers C) A branched chain of individual monomers D) A ring with carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio Answer: A Topic: 2.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6

12 .

43) Which of the following dietary fats is considered to be the most healthy?

A) Saturated fat B) Unsaturated fat C) Trans fat D) Cholesterol Answer: B Topic: 2.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Learning: G5 44) Oil hydrogenation can produce a product, such as vegetable shortening or margarine, that is spreadable at room temperature. What is the name of this category of lipid?

A) Saturated fat B) Unsaturated fat C) Trans fat D) Cholesterol Answer: C Topic: 2.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Learning: G5 45) Which would have the highest concentration of C-H bonds?

A) Saturated fat B) Unsaturated fat C) Trans fat D) Cholesterol Answer: A Topic: 2.11 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.6 46) What gives an amino acid its unique chemical properties?

A) The different amino groups B) The sequence of amino acids in a chain C) The bond that forms between amino acids D) The side group Answer: D Topic: 2.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6

13 .

47) To a large extent, a protein's function is dependent upon its shape. What determines a protein's shape?

A) The location of the active site B) The sequence of amino acids C) The concentration of carbon-to-hydrogen single bonds D) The number of carbon-to-carbon double bonds Answer: B Topic: 2.12 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.6 48) Proteins are diverse molecules that perform a wide variety of functions. Which of the following is not a typical function of proteins?

A) Defense B) Catalyze reactions C) Movement D) Energy storage Answer: D Topic: 2.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 2.6 49) What might lead to a protein that does not function properly?

A) Incorrect folding of the amino acid chain B) The active site becoming blocked C) The active site becoming distorted D) All of these Answer: D Topic: 2.12, 2.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.6 50) Organic molecules that end in the suffix "-ase" often function as ________ molecules.

A) structural B) enzymatic C) transport D) storage Answer: B Topic: 2.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.6

14 .

51) Identify the substrate in the following reaction: Sucrose → Fructose + Glucose A) Sucrose B) Fructose C) Glucose D) Fructose and glucose Answer: A Topic: 2.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.1 52) What will be accomplished by lowering the activation energy of a reaction?

A) The reaction will proceed more slowly.

B) The reaction will proceed more quickly.

C) The reaction will stop completely.

D) The reaction will reverse.

Answer: B Topic: 2.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Learning: G2 Short-Answer Questions 53) An old home remedy for anemia was to drink from a jug of water into which was added a handful of iron nails. Why might this have been effective at treating certain forms of anemia?

Answer: Possible Answer: Iron is an essential nutrient and the water would have contained iron.

If the anemia was the result of an iron deficiency, drinking from the nail water could have added the essential element to the diet.

Topic: 2.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 2.1 Global Learning: G2, G5 54) Which of the three gasses is the easiest to break apart, nitrogen gas (N2), oxygen gas (O2), or hydrogen gas (H2)? Which is the most difficult to break apart? What accounts for the differences?

Answer: Possible Answer: Hydrogen gas, with a single covalent bond, is the easiest to break apart. Nitrogen gas, with a triple covalent bond, is the most difficult. Oxygen gas has a double covalent bond which is intermediate in strength to the weaker single and stronger triple.

Topic: 2.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 2.2 Global Learning: G2

15 .

55) Why does sweating cool your skin on a hot, dry day but makes you feel warmer on a hot, humid day?

Answer: Possible Answer: The evaporative cooling of sweat cools the skin as the water and the heat it has absorbed move from the skin to the drier air. Sweat does not evaporate as well on a humid day, tending instead to build up on the skin, insulating the body rather than cooling it.

Topic: 2.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 2.3 Global Learning: G2 56) Individual amino acids have unique chemical qualities but these do not directly determine the function of an enzyme. What then is the role of the individual amino acid's unique chemical qualities and what then directly determines the function of an enzyme?

Answer: Possible Answer: The side groups of an amino acid are what give the amino acid its unique chemical qualities. These allow specific amino acids in the polypeptide chain to bind to other specific amino acids, which fold and twist the polypeptide into a specific three-dimensional shape. The shape may include an indentation called the active site that directly functions as the binding site for the substrate. Active sites often include cofactors and coenzymes that improve its functionality. They will not function without these factors even if the amino acid sequence and folding pattern are correct.

Topic: 2.12, 2.13 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Learning: G2 57) Penicillin is a competitive inhibitor produced by a fungus in order to kill invading bacteria. It does this by mimicking the substrate required by the bacterium to build and repair its cell wall.

Describe how mimicking the substrate would result in the death of the bacterium.

Answer: Possible Answer: As a competitive inhibitor, it must bind to the active site of the bacterial enzyme where the correct substrate typically binds. Binding to the active site blocks the correct substrate from binding and prevents the correct products from being formed. Without these products, the bacterium cannot repair its cell wall and will die.

Topic: 2.13 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 2.6 Global Learning: G5

16 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 3 The Cell: The Fundamental Unit of Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Identify the prokaryotic organism. A) Fungus B) Bacteria C) Animal D) Plant Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.1 2) Which cellular structure is unique to prokaryotic organisms? A) Ribosome B) Flagellum C) Pili D) None of these Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.1 3) Which cellular structure is unique to plant cells? A) Ribosome B) Flagellum C) Capsule D) None of these Answer: D Topic: 3.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.1 4) Plant cells, fungal cells, and even bacterial cells have a cell wall. What is the primary difference between these similar structures? A) They are made of different materials. B) They perform different functions. C) They are found in different portions of the cell. D) There is no difference; they are fundamentally identical. Answer: A Topic: 3.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.1

1 .

5) Which structure is common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A) Nucleus B) Ribosomes C) Chloroplasts D) Mitochondria Answer: A Topic: 3.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.1 6) If you were looking at a cell under a powerful microscope, what would tell you that it is a eukaryotic cell?

A) It has a cell membrane.

B) It has DNA. C) It has plasmids.

D) It is moving.

Answer: C Topic: 3.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Learning: G2 7) Were there any eukaryotic cells on Earth 1.5 billion years ago?

A) Yes, they first appear in the fossil record around 3.5 billion years ago.

B) Yes, they first appear in the fossil record around 2 billion years ago.

C) No, they do not appear in the fossil record until around 1 billion million years ago.

D) No, they do not appear in the fossil record until around 500 million years ago.

Answer: B Topic: 3.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.1 8) What is the role of the nuclear membrane?

A) Is the site of protein manufacturing B) Regulates transport of substances between the nucleus and the cytoplasm C) Harvests energy from food molecules D) Regulates transport of substances into and out of the cell Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2

2 .

9) Which organelle functions to break down and recycle large molecules?

A) Ribosome B) Golgi apparatus C) Lysosome D) Chloroplast Answer: C Topic: 3.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.1 10) If a cell had a damaged central vacuole, it would have difficulty performing what function?

A) Storing water B) Converting light energy into food molecules C) Converting food energy into cellular energy D) Assembling lipids Answer: A Topic: 3.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Learning: G2 11) Select the cellular structure that can be found in both plant and animal cells.

A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondria C) Cell wall D) Centriole Answer: B Topic: 3.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.1

3 .

12) Select the image that is representative of an idealized plant cell.

A)

B)

C)

Answer: C Topic: 3.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.1 13) What is the role of carbohydrates in the plasma membrane?

A) Energy storage B) Structural integrity C) Identification D) There are no carbohydrates associated with the plasma membrane.

Answer: C Topic: 3.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2

4 .

14) Which structure selectively regulates the transport of substances into and out of a plant cell?

A) The plasma membrane B) The cell wall C) The nucleus D) The chloroplast Answer: A Topic: 3.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2 15) Which type of cell, if any, does not have a plasma membrane?

A) Bacteria B) Plant C) Animal D) Bacteria, plant, and animal cells all have a plasma membrane.

Answer: D Topic: 3.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.1 16) What makes the "head" of a phospholipid hydrophilic?

A) The even distribution of electrons across the fatty acids makes the head polar.

B) The uneven distribution of electrons across the fatty acids makes the head polar.

C) The phosphate group carries a negative charge, making the head polar.

D) The phosphate group carries a negative charge, making the head nonpolar.

Answer: C Topic: 3.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.2 17) Where in the cell would you find the cytosol?

A) In the cytoplasm B) In the plasma membrane C) In the transmembrane proteins D) On the peripheral proteins Answer: A Topic: 3.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.1

5 .

18) How many layers of phospholipids make up the plasma membrane?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Topic: 3.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.2 19) The passive transport of water is specifically called ________.

A) simple diffusion.

B) facilitated diffusion.

C) hydrosmosis.

D) osmosis.

Answer: D Topic: 3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2 20) Movement down a concentration gradient means that the substance is moving ________.

A) from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration B) from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration C) from areas of either high or low concentration to an area of equal concentration D) from an area of equal concentration to an area of high concentration Answer: A Topic: 3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2 21) Which form of transport requires the expenditure of energy?

A) Facilitated diffusion B) Active transport C) Passive transport D) Osmosis Answer: B Topic: 3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2

6 .

Four small bags are filled with a 10% starch solution. The bag's membrane contains microscopic pores large enough to let smaller water molecules cross but not the larger starch molecules. Bag 1 is placed in a beaker of distilled water (0% starch). Bag 2 is placed in a beaker containing a 5% starch solution. Bag 3 is placed in a beaker of 10% starch solution and bag 4 is placed in a 50% starch solution beaker. Bag 1: 10% starch / Beaker 1: 0% starch Bag 2: 10% starch / Beaker 2: 5% starch Bag 3: 10% starch / Beaker 3: 10% starch Bag 4: 10% starch / Beaker 4: 50% starch The bags are weighed initially and at regular intervals for a specific period of time. Some bags saw a change in weight, some did not. Answer the following questions based on the expected outcomes of this experiment.

22) Which bag should weigh approximately the same at the end of the experiment as it did at the beginning of the experiment? A) Bag 1 B) Bag 2 C) Bag 3 D) Bag 4 Answer: C Topic: 3.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Learning: G2 23) Which bag is expected to be the heaviest at the end of the experiment? A) Bag 1 B) Bag 2 C) Bag 3 D) Bag 4 Answer: A Topic: 3.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Learning: G2

7 .

24) Your red blood cells behave in a similar manner as the bags in this experiment. What might happen to your red blood cells if you were suddenly unable to regulate the solute concentration of your blood and it began to rise? A) Your blood cells would stay the same size but could no longer carry oxygen. B) Your blood cells would stay the same size but could no longer release the oxygen they carry. C) Your blood cells would enlarge and may rupture. D) Your blood cells would shrivel. Answer: D Topic: 3.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Learning: G2, G7 25) What is the definition of endocytosis?

A) The entire plasma membrane turns itself inside out.

B) It is the digestion of larger molecules that were brought into the cell.

C) It is the bulk transport of materials into the cell.

D) It is the transport of a substance into the cell coupled with the transport of a substance out of the cell.

Answer: C Topic: 3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2 26) Which would most likely pass unaided through a plasma membrane?

A) Something small and nonpolar, like nitrogen gas B) Something small and dipolar, like a water molecule C) Something small and charged, like an ion D) Something large, like a glucose molecule Answer: A Topic: 3.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.2 27) Substances are often packaged into small ________ for transport, either through the membrane or throughout the interior of the cell.

A) vacuoles B) corpuscles C) vesicles D) organelles Answer: C Topic: 3.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.2, 3.4

8 .

28) Which of the following is not located in the nucleus?

A) Chromosomes B) Nucleolus C) DNA D) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Topic: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.3 29) What is the role of the histone proteins of the chromatin?

A) Contains the instructions for how to build a protein B) Acts as a spool around which the DNA is wrapped C) Assembles the ribosome subunits D) Maintains the structural integrity of the nuclear membrane Answer: B Topic: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.3 30) What passes through the nuclear pores?

A) RNA B) DNA C) DNA and RNA D) None of these Answer: A Topic: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.3 31) What does the lowercase "r" in rRNA stand for?

A) Ribose B) Replacement C) Ribosomal D) Reticulum Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4

9 .

32) When would the chromatin be the most tightly coiled?

A) During protein synthesis B) During cellular respiration C) During photosynthesis D) During cellular division Answer: D Topic: 3.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.4 33) Where is the completed ribosome assembled?

A) In the cytoplasm B) In the endoplasmic reticulum C) In the nucleolus D) In the nucleus Answer: A Topic: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4 34) The nucleus is a large ________.

A) organelle B) plastid C) plasmid D) vacuole Answer: A Topic: 3.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.3 35) How is the nuclear membrane different from the plasma membrane?

A) The nuclear membrane is completely sealed, whereas the plasma membrane is not.

B) The nuclear membrane is chemically active, whereas the plasma membrane is not.

C) The nuclear membrane has two phospholipid bilayers, whereas the plasma membrane has one.

D) The nuclear membrane has no structural proteins, whereas the plasma membrane has structural proteins.

Answer: C Topic: 3.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.2, 3.3

10 .

36) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Transcription occurs in the nucleus, and translation occurs in the cytoplasm.

B) Transcription occurs in the nucleolus, and translation occurs in the nucleus.

C) Transcription and translation both occur in the nucleus.

D) Transcription and translation both occur in the cytoplasm.

Answer: A Topic: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4 37) Although exceptions probably exist for practically every rule of biology, which of the following statements is typically false?

A) DNA is double stranded, whereas RNA is single stranded.

B) DNA contains the same nucleotides as RNA. C) DNA to RNA is called transcription.

D) RNA to protein is called translation.

Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.3 38) Ribosomes are directly associated with which process?

A) Transcription B) Translocation C) Translation D) Transference Answer: C Topic: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4 39) What information is used to assemble the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide?

A) Base sequence of mRNA B) Base sequence of rRNA C) Base sequence of tRNA D) Base sequence of the histone protein Answer: A Topic: 3.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.4

11 .

40) What is the role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in protein production?

A) Assembles the amino acid chain B) Folds the protein into the correct shape C) Packages the protein for transport to other parts of the cell and/or body D) Has no direct role in protein production Answer: D Topic: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4 41) Some proteins are small and simple while others are large and complex. Where are the large and complex proteins assembled?

A) In the cytoplasm B) In the rough endoplasmic reticulum C) In the smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) In the Golgi apparatus Answer: B Topic: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4 42) Some proteins are small and simple while others are large and complex. Where are the small and simple proteins assembled?

A) In the cytoplasm B) In the rough endoplasmic reticulum C) In the smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) In the Golgi apparatus Answer: A Topic: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4 43) Final protein refinements, storage, and packaging occurs ________.

A) in the cytoplasm.

B) in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

C) in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

D) in the Golgi apparatus.

Answer: D Topic: 3.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.4

12 .

44) Chloroplasts and mitochondria share something with the nucleus that the other organelles do not. What is this shared function or component? A) They are the only organelles wrapped in a lipid-based membrane. B) They are the only organelles that produce ATP. C) They are the only organelles that contain DNA. D) They are the only organelles not found in bacteria. Answer: C Topic: 3.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.5 45) What harvests energy from sunlight to rearrange molecules into sugar?

A) Chloroplasts B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Lysosome Answer: A Topic: 3.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.5 46) What harvests energy from food molecules to make ATP? A) Chloroplasts B) Mitochondria C) Nucleus D) Lysosome Answer: B Topic: 3.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.5 47) What is ATP? A) A protein B) A carbohydrate C) An energy molecule D) An information storage molecule Answer: C Topic: 3.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.5

13 .

48) Which reaction represents cellular respiration?

A) Sugar + O2 → CO2 + H2O + ATP B) CO2 + H2O + ATP → Sugar + O2 C) O2 + CO2 → Sugar + H2O + ATP D) H2O + ATP → CO2 + Sugar Answer: A Topic: 3.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.5 49) What is the role of the contractile vacuole in a protist?

A) Cell division B) Movement of the flagellum C) Water storage D) Excess water removal Answer: D Topic: 3.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.5 50) Numerous short extensions of the cell that function for movement, either of the cell through its environment or the environment past a stationary cell, are called ________.

A) vesicles B) flagella C) pili D) cilia Answer: D Topic: 3.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 3.5 51) The cytoskeleton has several primary functions. The first and most obvious is it acts as an interior skeleton that supports the rest of the cell. What is another function of the cytoskeleton?

A) It provides a communication network where chemo-electrical signals can be sent from one area of the cell to another.

B) It creates a durable outer covering to increase the strength and rigidity of the cell.

C) It provides a series of tracks along which vesicles can move throughout the cell.

D) It connects one cell to another.

Answer: C Topic: 3.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.5

14 .

Short-Answer Questions 52) The bacteria that cause tooth decay have a capsule. What does this tell you about the relative effectiveness of a toothbrush with stiff bristles and one with soft bristles?

Answer: Possible Answers: The capsule is a sticky outer coating found on some bacteria cells, including the ones that cause tooth decay. A soft bristled brush may not be strong enough to remove the bacteria from the tooth enamel.

Topic: 3.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Learning: G2 53) What evidence would support the hypothesis that larger cells evolved in part by engulfing other, smaller cells.

Answer: Possible Answer: Eukaryotic cells have several organelles (nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts) that contain a double membrane and have their own DNA. The DNA of the mitochondria and chloroplasts are arranged in plasmids, resembling the DNA of bacteria. They even divide like bacteria. Their smaller size, double walls, and plasmid DNA suggest they were absorbed by endocytosis, but instead of being digested, they were assimilated as powerhouse organelles. The symbiotic relationship evolved to the point where they became a single organism. Additionally, the smaller and simpler prokaryotic cells were on the planet for 2 billion years before the larger, more complex eukaryotic cells, giving them sufficient time to evolve.

Topic: 3.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.1 Global Learning: G1 54) It is sometimes jokingly said that you could study for your biology test by placing your textbook under your pillow at night and thereby learn by osmosis as the knowledge would flow from the book to your brain while you slept. Aside from the obvious absurdity of this claim, what is wrong with the use of the word "osmosis" in this context? How might you lose knowledge (if knowledge could actually flow along a concentration gradient between a book and a brain) if you tried this technique?

Answer: Possible Answer: Osmosis specifically refers to the flow of water down a concentration gradient. You would be learning by diffusion, not osmosis. Not to mention the concern that if you had more knowledge in your brain than in the textbook, information might flow down the gradient out of your brain and into the book.

Topic: 3.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.2 Global Learning: G2

15 .

55) Why do bacteria have ribosomes?

Answer: Possible Answer: Bacteria lack a nucleus to house the DNA, but they still have DNA and still need to make proteins. The ribosomes are required for translation of the mRNA into a protein. Bacteria also lack the rough endoplasmic reticulum, but this is only used in eukaryotic cells to synthesize the larger, more complex proteins that are often exported out of the cell for use in other parts of the body. Being a single-celled organism, most bacterial proteins are small and do not need to be exported.

Topic: 3.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.4 56) Describe the internal organization of a chloroplast. Be sure to list any chloroplast components covered in Chapter 3.

Answer: Possible Answer: The chloroplast has two membranes, an outer membrane and an inner membrane lying just inside the outer membrane. Chloroplasts contain individual disks called thylakoids, which contain the pigment chlorophyll. The thylakoids are arranged in interconnected stacks called grana. The grana are surrounded by a fluid called stroma.

Topic: 3.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 3.5 57) Vitamin C is required to produce collagen. What is collagen and what would be the symptoms of a vitamin C deficiency?

Answer: Possible Answer: Collagen is the primary protein used to make the connective tissue that holds us together and repairs wounds. Collagen is also a key component of bone. A vitamin C deficiency (called scurvy) would therefore result in slow wound healing and overall fragility.

Topic: 3.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 3.5

16 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 4 Energy and Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Water behind a dam has a certain amount of stored energy that can be released as the water falls over the top of the dam. It may be enough energy to turn a mill wheel or an electricitygenerating turbine. Choose the term that best describes the type of energy stored in the water at the top of the dam.

A) Chemical B) Potential C) Radiant D) Kinetic Answer: B Topic: 4.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.1 2) We use energy in many ways. Describe one thing we cannot do to energy.

A) Destroy it.

B) Waste it.

C) Convert it.

D) Store it.

Answer: A Topic: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.1 3) What is the definition of energy?

A) The capacity to do work B) The movement of an object C) Particles moving in waves through a system D) The amount of order in a system Answer: A Topic: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.1 4) Choose the pencil that has the lowest potential energy.

A) A pencil on your desk B) A pencil falling from your desk C) A pencil hitting the ground after falling from your desk D) A pencil laying on the ground Answer: D Topic: 4.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.1

1 .

5) Select the term which best defines the movement of an object against an opposing force.

A) Work B) Play C) Energy D) Entropy Answer: A Topic: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.1 6) Which arrow would be most closely related to kinetic energy?

A) Arrow A, the tongue extending B) Arrow B, the bug being eaten C) Arrow C, sunlight striking the chameleon D) Arrow D, heat radiating from the chameleon Answer: A Topic: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.1

2 .

7) Which arrow would be most closely related to the least organized form of energy?

A) Arrow A, the tongue extending B) Arrow B, the bug being eaten C) Arrow C, sunlight striking the chameleon D) Arrow D, heat radiating from the chameleon Answer: D Topic: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.1 8) Which of the following statements about heat is false?

A) It can be a measurement of the inefficiency of an energy conversion.

B) It is a form of kinetic energy.

C) It is a highly organized form of energy.

D) It increases the amount of entropy of the system.

Answer: C Topic: 4.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.1 9) Predict what would happen as the entropy of a system approached 100%.

A) All motion would stop.

B) Randomness would become maximized.

C) Order would become maximized.

D) Heat would decrease.

Answer: B Topic: 4.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.1

3 .

10) Identify the principal role of cellular respiration.

A) To convert solar energy into the chemical energy of sugars B) To convert kinetic energy into the chemical energy of sugars C) To convert the chemical energy of sugars into the chemical energy that fuels life's processes D) To convert the chemical energy of sugars into heat to maintain an elevated body temperature Answer: C Topic: 4.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.2 11) Select the ultimate source of energy for nearly every organism on this planet.

A) Plants B) Heat C) The sun D) Sugar Answer: C Topic: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.2 12) Heat is classified as ________.

A) a highly ordered form of energy B) a highly disordered form of energy C) the form of energy that fuels life's processes D) the ultimate source of potential energy Answer: B Topic: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.2 13) Which group includes photosynthetic members?

A) Protists B) Bacteria C) Plants D) All of these Answer: D Topic: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.2

4 .

14) Which of the following is a waste product of photosynthesis?

A) CO2 B) H2O C) O2 D) All of these Answer: C Topic: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.2 15) The chemical reactions of photosynthesis occur in which cellular organelle?

A) Chloroplasts B) Nucleus C) Mitochondria D) Ribosomes Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.2 16) What is the role of mitochondria in plants?

A) Produce ATP B) Photosynthesis C) Produce sugars D) None, as plants do not have mitochondria Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.2 17) What is the role of chloroplasts in animals?

A) Produce ATP B) Photosynthesis C) Produce sugars D) None, as animals do not have chloroplasts Answer: D Topic: 4.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.2

5 .

18) Choose the best explanation as to why both consumers and producers perform cellular respiration. A) Although they may obtain their sugars in different ways, both consumers and producers rely on cellular respiration to make ATP. B) Both consumers and producers perform cellular respiration to produce the sugars that will be "burned" to fuel the energy of life. C) Both consumers and producers perform cellular respiration to produce the oxygen necessary to sustain life. D) Both consumers and producers perform cellular respiration to produce the heat necessary to sustain life. Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.2 19) In a recent newspaper article promoting the eating of seaweed and seaweed products, the argument was made that doing so was a more efficient use of energy than eating animals.

Why

would eating seaweed be more energy efficient than eating an animal?

A) The energy found in animal matter represents a fraction of the energy found in the plant matter eaten by the animal. It would be better to just eat the plant and skip a step.

B) The conversion of plant matter to animal matter produces less waste than converting animal material to animal material.

C) Plant matter contains more energy per unit volume than does animal matter.

D) Plant matter contains more energy per unit weight than does animal matter.

Answer: A Topic: 4.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.2 Global Learning: G2 20) How does CO2 enter a plant?

A) Through the roots B) Through the stomata C) Through the stroma D) Through the grana Answer: B Topic: 4.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.3

6 .

21) Which of the following best describes the chemical equation for photosynthesis? A) Carbon dioxide + Sugar + Energy = Oxygen + Water B) Oxygen + Water + Carbon dioxide = Sugar + Energy C) Water + Carbon dioxide + Energy = Sugar + Oxygen D) Oxygen + Sugar = Water + Carbon dioxide + Energy Answer: C Topic: 4.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.4 22) Plastids are storage organelles. A chloroplast is a type of plastid. What does a chloroplast store?

A) Energy B) Chlorophyll C) Carbon D) Electrons Answer: B Topic: 4.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.5 23) How do we know green light is not absorbed by chlorophyll?

A) Green light is the wavelength of light that is reflected instead of absorbed by the chloroplasts.

B) Not enough of the green light penetrates the ozone layer and makes it to the plant.

C) Green light has such a small wavelength that most of it goes straight through the leaves without interacting with the chlorophyll.

D) Green light does not have enough energy to excite an electron in the photosystem.

Answer: A Topic: 4.3, 4.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.3 24) Name the fluid-filled interior of the chloroplast.

A) Thylakoids B) Stroma C) Grana D) None of these Answer: B Topic: 4.3, 4.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.5

7 .

25) Why do some leaves change color (red, yellow, orange, etc.) in the fall? A) The chlorophyll molecule is modified to absorb different wavelengths of light. B) The chlorophyll molecule breaks down and other pigments now become visible. C) Because the leaves are dead. D) Cold weather denatures the chlorophyll molecule and it begins to reflect different colors. Answer: B Topic: 4.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.3 26) Organize the following steps of the light reaction in order.

A) Absorb sunlight, produce high-energy electron carriers, produce oxygen, split water B) Absorb sunlight, produce high-energy electron carriers, split water, produce oxygen C) Absorb sunlight, split water, produce oxygen, produce high-energy electron carriers D) Absorb sunlight, produce oxygen, split water, produce high-energy electron carriers Answer: C Topic: 4.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.4 27) Some bacteria are photosynthetic. Part of the definition of a prokaryote is that they have no membrane-bound organelles, including chloroplasts. Explain how bacteria carry out photosynthesis without chloroplasts.

A) They still have thylakoids, they just are not compartmentalized into chloroplasts.

B) The entire bacteria cell is a chloroplast with a nucleus.

C) The chlorophyll floats freely in the cell.

D) They carry out the steps of photosynthesis in their mitochondria.

Answer: A Topic: 4.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.5 Global Learning: G2, G7

8 .

The following questions relate to the following data table of typical fluctuating pH and dissolved oxygen levels in a fish pond with a heavy concentration of algae over a 24-hour period.

Time 2 AM 4 AM 6 AM 8 AM 10 AM NOON 2 PM 4 PM 6 PM 8 PM 10 PM MIDNIGHT

Oxygen (ppm) 4.5 2.8 2.2 2.5 3.9 6.5 10.0 12.1 13.1 13.0 12.0 10.8

pH

7.7 7.2 6.8 6.8 7.2 7.7 8.3 8.8 9.2 9.2 8.8 8.3

28) You are investigating a massive fish kill in one of the shallow lakes in the area. Lab reports show no toxins in the water but a monitoring station on a similar lake reported these oxygen and pH values. What, if any, is the relationship between oxygen and pH? A) Inverse relationship B) Direct relationship C) Exponential relationship D) No relationship Answer: B Topic: 4.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Learning: G3 29) In evaluating the data, why do you think the oxygen levels rise and fall over a 24-hour period?

A) Algae in the water produce more oxygen during the daylight hours than the fish consume.

B) The fish consume more oxygen during the nighttime hours than algae can produce.

C) Both of these explain the rise and fall pattern.

D) Neither of these explains the rise and fall pattern.

Answer: C Topic: 4.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Learning: G3

9 .

30) Upon closer examination, the fish appeared to have died from a lack of oxygen. What time of day did the fish most likely die? A) Late at night B) Just before dawn C) In the middle of the afternoon D) At sundown Answer: B Topic: 4.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.6 Global Learning: G3 31) The light reactions of photosynthesis ultimately convert low-energy molecules of ________ into high-energy molecules of ________.

A) NADP+; NADPH B) ADP; ATP C) Both of these are correct.

D) Neither of these is correct.

Answer: C Topic: 4.4, 4.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.6 32) Name a product of the Calvin cycle.

A) O2 B) ATP C) CO2 D) Sugar Answer: D Topic: 4.4, 4.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.6 33) Which stage of photosynthesis, if any, can function in the dark?

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Both Stage 1 and Stage 2 D) Neither Stage 1 nor Stage 2 Answer: B Topic: 4.4, 4.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.6

10 .

34) What is a photosystem?

A) Stacks of thylakoids B) Double-membrane organelle containing thylakoids C) Clusters of pigments and proteins that capture light energy D) A leaf or any green part of the plant Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.6 35) Identify the role of oxygen in photosynthesis.

A) It is split to form sugar.

B) It is the final electron acceptor.

C) It is a waste product.

D) It is the initial proton donator.

Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.7 36) Where do the ground state electrons come from that are excited by the energy in sunlight?

A) NADPH B) ATP C) Sugar D) Chlorophyll Answer: D Topic: 4.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.6 37) What is the role of light in photosynthesis?

A) It is the source for electrons.

B) It fixes carbon.

C) It energizes electrons.

D) It splits ATP molecules, which generates energy.

Answer: C Topic: 4.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.6

11 .

38) Which process produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (3GP)?

A) Citric acid cycle B) Fermentation C) Calvin cycle D) Glycolysis Answer: C Topic: 4.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.6 39) Where does cellular respiration occur?

A) In the chloroplasts B) In the mitochondria C) In the nucleus D) In the airways of the respiratory system Answer: B Topic: 4.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.8 40) What happens to the ATP molecule after it has been used to do work?

A) It breaks down into carbon dioxide and water.

B) It is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid.

C) It loses a phosphate group and is converted to ADP. D) It is completely destroyed.

Answer: C Topic: 4.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.10 41) Calculate how many calories (spelled with a lower case "c") are in a 10 Calorie (spelled with a capital "C") cracker.

A) 1/10 B) 10,000 C) 1,000 D) There is no difference, they are equivalent units.

Answer: B Topic: 4.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.10 Global Learning: G4

12 .

42) A fudge-covered cookie contains 9 grams of fat, and there are three cookies in a serving.

Calculate how much fat you would consume if you ate nine cookies.

A) 81 grams B) 27 grams C) 9 grams D) 105 grams Answer: B Topic: 4.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.10 Global Learning: G4 43) The label on a box of fudge-covered cookies indicates that a serving size is three cookies, and the number of calories in a serving size is 170. Calculate the approximate number of Calories in a single cookie.

A) 12 B) 105 C) 57 D) 510 Answer: C Topic: 4.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.10 Global Learning: G4 44) Which molecule stores the energy of electrostatic repulsion?

A) NADPH B) Pyruvate C) ATP D) NADP+ Answer: C Topic: 4.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.10 45) Identify the stage of cellular respiration when glucose is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid.

A) Citric acid cycle B) Calvin cycle C) Electron transport chain D) Glycolysis Answer: D Topic: 4.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.8

13 .

46) Identify the stage (or stages) of cellular respiration that occurs entirely outside of the mitochondria. A) Citric acid cycle B) Electron transport chain C) Glycolysis D) All of these Answer: C Topic: 4.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.9 47) During which stage of cellular respiration is the majority of the ATP produced?

A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid cycle C) Fermentation D) Electron transport chain Answer: D Topic: 4.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.9 48) Predict how many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the mitochondrial "burning" of one molecule of glucose?

A) 1 B) 6 C) 12 D) Not enough information provided Answer: B Topic: 4.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.9 Global Learning: G4 49) Explain how molecules other than glucose can be used as energy sources.

A) They can't; cellular respiration is limited to glucose.

B) They have their own unique metabolic pathways.

C) They are modified first and then enter the same metabolic pathway as glucose.

D) Fats, proteins, and other carbohydrates are similar enough to glucose that they utilize the same metabolic pathway without any modifications.

Answer: C Topic: 4.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.11

14 .

50) Why do you need oxygen? (What role does O2 play in aerobic respiration?)

A) It is the final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.

B) It combines with acetyl-CoA at the start of the citric acid cycle.

C) It is given off as a by-product during the oxidation of pyruvate.

D) It combines with H2O to help drive the formation of ATP. Answer: A Topic: 4.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.9 51) What is the chemical equation for glucose?

A) C2H4O2 B) C4 H8O4 C) C6H12O6 D) C8H16O8 Answer: C Topic: 4.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.9 52) Can energy be harvested by the cells from glucose without oxygen?

A) Yes, about as much as with oxygen.

B) Yes, but not quite as much as with oxygen.

C) Yes, but much less than with oxygen.

D) No, oxygen is required to harvest any energy from glucose.

Answer: C Topic: 4.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 4.11 53) Why does yogurt taste sharp?

A) It has not been aged long enough to mellow.

B) The taste is from the small amount of alcohol it contains, and alcohol tastes sharp.

C) The taste is from the large amount of carbon dioxide it contains, and carbon dioxide tastes sharp.

D) The taste is from the lactic acid it contains, and acids taste sharp.

Answer: D Topic: 4.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global Learning: G2

15 .

54) Yeast is used to produce beer and wine but can also make bread rise. All of these processes involve the production of alcohol. Explain why you can eat bread and not get drunk.

A) The heat of cooking bakes out the alcohol.

B) The amount of alcohol produced is too small to be noticeable.

C) The bread-making process produces ethyl alcohol, not isopropyl alcohol.

D) The bread-making process produces isopropyl alcohol, not ethyl alcohol.

Answer: A Topic: 4.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.11 Global Learning: G7 55) Alcohol is a waste product produced by yeast in the presence of sugar and the absence of ________.

A) CO2 B) H2O C) O2 D) ATP Answer: C Topic: 4.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.11 Short-Answer Questions 56) Explain why mitochondria are often called "the powerhouse of the cell."

Answer: Possible Answer: Mitochondria are often called the powerhouse of the cell because they provide energy to the cell in a form the cell can use. Similar to how coal burning or hydroelectric or nuclear power plants convert energy from one form into electricity which can be used to power your toaster.

Topic: 4.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.2, 4.8 Global Learning: G2 57) What color of light is not used for photosynthesis? How could you know this just by looking at a leaf?

Answer: Possible Answer: Green light is not used for photosynthesis. Green light is the color of light that is reflected instead of absorbed, which is why the leaf appears green. The colors that were absorbed, and therefore not reflected and not seen, are the ones most likely used for photosynthesis.

Topic: 4.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 4.3 Global Learning: G2

16 .

58) What does it mean to "fix" carbon and during which stage of photosynthesis is carbon fixed?

Answer: Possible Answer: Carbon is fixed during photosynthesis when it is converted from gaseous carbon dioxide into solid glucose.

Topic: 4.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.6 59) Why can't an aerobic bacterium produce as much energy from a gram of sugar as an animal cell?

Answer: Possible Answer: A bacteria cell is prokaryotic and therefore does not have any mitochondria. Without the inner membrane of the mitochondrion, the bacterium cannot complete the final step of aerobic respiration. The majority of the ATP is not produced until the final step (electron transport chain).

Topic: 4.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 4.8 Global Learning: G7

17 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 5 Chromosomes and Inheritance Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The offspring produced via sexual reproduction are genetically ________ to the parents.

A) indifferent B) identical C) parsimonious D) unique Answer: D Topic: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.1 2) Upon fertilization, the egg and sperm fuse to form a single cell called a(n) ________.

A) zygote B) gamete C) embryo D) gonad Answer: A Topic: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.1 3) Dead or damaged cells are replaced by ________.

A) syngamy B) binary fission C) meiosis D) mitosis Answer: D Topic: 5.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.1 4) Many viruses use RNA, not DNA, as their genetic material. Is the statement "All life on Earth uses DNA as the genetic material" still accurate?

A) Yes, RNA and DNA are two terms used to describe the same thing.

B) Yes, viruses are not considered living things.

C) Yes, viruses use their RNA to make DNA when needed for division.

D) No, living viruses without DNA contradict the statement.

Answer: B Topic: 5.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Learning: G2

1 .

5) Human white blood cells are often multinucleated. How many chromosomes would be present in a white blood cell with two nuclei?

A) 46 B) 92 C) 184 D) It varies depending on gender.

Answer: B Topic: 5.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Learning: G4 6) How much of your DNA is identical to that of another person of the same sex?

A) 99.9% B) 99.5% C) 90% D) 78% Answer: B Topic: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.2 7) Of the choices listed, which is the best indicator of the complexity of the organism?

A) Ploidy number B) Number of chromosomes C) Number of genes D) Number of homologs Answer: C Topic: 5.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Learning: G2 8) A single, continuous molecule of DNA plus its associated proteins is called a ________.

A) centromere B) gene C) chromosome D) genome Answer: C Topic: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.2

2 .

9) Name the part of the chromosome indicated by the arrow.

A) Sister chromatid B) Gene C) Centromere D) Mitotic spindle Answer: C Topic: 5.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.2 10) What are attached at the centromere?

A) Homologous chromosomes B) Sister chromatids C) Daughter cells D) Genomes Answer: B Topic: 5.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.2 11) What type of cells undergo mitosis?

A) Bacterial cells B) Gametes C) Both of these D) Neither of these Answer: D Topic: 5.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.3 12) Where is the original interphase cell that began mitosis once mitosis has been completed and the daughter cells have been formed?

A) It no longer exists.

B) It is adjacent to the daughter cells.

C) It is now one of the daughter cells.

D) It is still in its original location.

Answer: A Topic: 5.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Learning: G2 3 .

13) During which phase of the cell cycle are the chromosomes duplicated?

A) Interphase B) Mitosis C) Meiosis D) Cytokinesis Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.5 14) How many chromosomes would a typical human cell have after mitosis but before cytokinesis?

A) 0 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 Answer: D Topic: 5.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.5 15) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during mitosis?

A) Nuclear membrane dissolves, chromosomes line up, chromosomes split, nuclear membrane forms B) Nuclear membrane forms, chromosomes line up, chromosomes split, nuclear membrane dissolves C) Chromosomes line up, nuclear membrane forms, nuclear membrane dissolves, chromosomes split D) Chromosomes split, nuclear membrane dissolves, nuclear membrane forms, chromosomes line up Answer: A Topic: 5.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.3 16) Which process specifically refers to a cell physically dividing into two cells?

A) Mitosis B) Cytokinesis C) Interphase D) Meiosis Answer: B Topic: 5.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.3

4 .

17) What causes the furrow during cleavage? A) It is a depression caused by the formation of a new cell wall. B) A ring of contractile protein fibers pinches the cell in two. C) Connecting proteins that had been binding adjacent cells together now dissolve. D) A loss of water occurs. Answer: B Topic: 5.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.3 18) When does the cell plate form during cell division?

A) In the middle of animal cell mitosis B) In the middle of plant cell mitosis C) At the completion of animal cell mitosis D) At the completion of plant cell mitosis Answer: D Topic: 5.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.3 19) By what means does a zygote divide?

A) Syngamy B) Binary fission C) Meiosis D) Mitosis Answer: D Topic: 5.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.3 20) How many chromosomes did you inherit from your father?

A) 2 B) 23 C) 24 D) 46 Answer: B Topic: 5.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.2 Global Learning: G4

5 .

21) Somatic cells are ________.

A) haploid (n) B) haploid (2n) C) diploid (n) D) diploid (2n) Answer: D Topic: 5.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.4 22) If a human diploid cell and a human haploid cell somehow managed to fuse together and not lose any of the chromosomes, how many sets of chromosomes would be inside the newly formed cell?

A) 3 B) 2.5 C) 2 D) 1.5 Answer: A Topic: 5.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Learning: G4 23) What is the gender of the person indicated in the photograph?

A) Male B) Female C) Cannot be determined Answer: B Topic: 5.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.2

6 .

24) If a cell had 12 chromosomes at the beginning of meiosis II, how many would each daughter cell have after the completion of meiosis II? A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24 Answer: B Topic: 5.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.4 Global Learning: G4 25) If mitosis makes somatic cells, what does meiosis make?

A) Sex cells B) Gonads C) Homologs D) Body cells Answer: A Topic: 5.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.5 26) What produces four daughter cells?

A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Both of these D) Neither of these Answer: A Topic: 5.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.5 27) What produces genetically unique daughter cells?

A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Both of these D) Neither of these Answer: A Topic: 5.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.5

7 .

28) What involves a single duplication phase of its chromosomes?

A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Both of these D) Neither of these Answer: C Topic: 5.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.5 29) What begins with a haploid cell?

A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Both of these D) Neither of these Answer: D Topic: 5.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.5 30) When does homologous recombination occur?

A) Cytokinesis I B) Cytokinesis II C) Meiosis I D) Meiosis II Answer: C Topic: 5.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.4 31) When does crossing over occur?

A) Cytokinesis I B) Cytokinesis II C) Meiosis I D) Meiosis II Answer: C Topic: 5.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.4

8 .

32) What leads to an individual having too many or two few chromosomes? A) Crossing over B) Independent assortment C) Homologous recombination D) Nondisjunction Answer: D Topic: 5.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.6 33) What is the name of the syndrome that produces the XXY combination of sex chromosomes? A) Jacob's syndrome B) Down syndrome C) Klinefelter syndrome D) Turner syndrome Answer: C Topic: 5.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.6 34) Is an individual with the XXY combination of chromosomes anatomically male or female? A) Male B) Female Answer: A Topic: 5.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.6 35) How many chromosomes would be found in the karyotype of a Down syndrome female who also suffered from Turner syndrome? A) 44 B) 45 C) 46 D) 47 Answer: C Topic: 5.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.6

9 .

36) What is different between two alleles of the same gene?

A) Their location. For example, one allele might be at the end of one chromosome while the other allele is in the middle of another chromosome.

B) The chromosome number they are on. For example, one allele might be on chromosome 12 while the other one is on chromosome 3.

C) Their base sequence. For example, one allele might have the base sequence AGGTCTGA while the other has the base sequence GGTCTGT. D) The cell they are in. For example, one might be in a liver cell while the other is in a blood cell.

Answer: C Topic: 5.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.7 37) The tall allele is dominant and the dwarf allele is recessive. What is the abbreviation for the dwarf allele?

A) T B) t C) D D) d Answer: B Topic: 5.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.7 38) When I say a flower is "purple," what have I described?

A) Its phenotype B) Its haplotype C) Its karyotype D) Its genotype Answer: A Topic: 5.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.7 39) A true-breeding milk chocolate Easter bunny is crossed with a true-breeding dark chocolate Easter bunny. Assuming dark chocolate is dominant over milk chocolate and the traits segregate according to Mendelian genetics, which traits will the offspring express?

A) 3 Dark to 1 Milk B) 3 Milk to 1 Dark C) All Milk D) All Dark Answer: D Topic: 5.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Learning: G4

10 .

40) If your grandparents were in the F1 generation, what generation are you?

A) F3 B) H3 C) P D) P3 Answer: A Topic: 5.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.8 41) A test cross is performed to determine if a specific individual is a carrier. The results generate a 50/50 phenotypic ratio. The test subject was therefore ________.

A) heterozygous B) homozygous dominant C) homozygous recessive D) heterozygous dominant Answer: A Topic: 5.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Learning: G4 42) Assuming complete dominance, what is the expected genotypic ratio of the offspring following the cross of two heterozygotes?

A) 4:1 B) 1:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:2:1 Answer: D Topic: 5.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global Learning: G4 43) When does one allele alter another allele?

A) Mitosis B) Meiosis I C) Meiosis II D) Never Answer: D Topic: 5.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.7

11 .

44) Define Mendel's law of independent assortment. A) The inheritance of one character has no effect on the inheritance of another character. B) Segregation of homologous chromosomes is random. C) The expression of one gene has no effect on the expression of another gene. D) There are two versions of each trait, a dominant and a recessive; the one you get is random. Answer: A Topic: 5.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.7 45) In a dihybrid cross involving two autosomal traits on different chromosomes in which the parentals would be are purebred for the opposite forms of both traits, how many of the offspring expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits?

A) 1 out of 16 B) 3 out of 16 C) 6 out of 16 D) 9 out of 16 Answer: A Topic: 5.13 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Learning: G4 46) The following F1 cross is made: BBGg × Bbgg. Which is not a possible outcome in the F2 generation?

A) BbGg B) BbGG C) BBgg D) BBGg Answer: B Topic: 5.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.8 Global Learning: G4

12 .

Albinism is a recessive disorder in which the skin and hair fail to produce pigment. The following questions ask you to evaluate the following pedigree chart in which "N" is the allele for normal pigmentation and "n" is the allele for albinism. The shaded circles for Deirdre and Shannon represent the only individuals expressing the disorder.

47) What is Geoff's allele combination?

A) NN B) Nn C) nn D) Cannot be determined Answer: B Topic: 5.14 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Learning: G3

13 .

48) What is Dawn's allele combination? A) NN B) Nn C) nn D) Cannot be determined Answer: D Topic: 5.14 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Learning: G3 49) What is Bill's allele combination?

A) NN B) Nn C) nn D) Cannot be determined Answer: B Topic: 5.14 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Learning: G3 50) What is Deirdre's phenotype?

A) nn B) Albino C) Normal D) Cannot be determined Answer: B Topic: 5.14 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Learning: G3 51) What was the probability that Deirdre and Geoff's first child would be a girl and express the albino trait?

A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 1/8 D) 3/4 Answer: C Topic: 5.14 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 5.9 Global Learning: G3, G4

14 .

52) Assuming codominance, if a homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant, what will be the color of the offspring?

A) Red B) White C) Pink D) Red and white Answer: D Topic: 5.15 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.10 53) Assuming incomplete dominance, if a homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant, what will be the color of the offspring?

A) Red B) White C) Pink D) Red and white Answer: C Topic: 5.15 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.10 54) Which type of gene expression typically generates a continuum (spectrum) of varying phenotypes?

A) Pleiotropy B) Polygenic C) Epistasis D) Single-gene traits Answer: B Topic: 5.15 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.10 55) Genes located near one another on the same chromosome are often inherited together. These are called ________.

A) nonsegregated genes B) joined genes C) fused genes D) linked genes Answer: D Topic: 5.16 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.10

15 .

56) If genes are described as "sex linked," then they are ________. A) typically on the X chromosome B) typically on the Y chromosome C) located next to one another D) expressed only in women or only in men Answer: A Topic: 5.17 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.10 57) Recessive disorders related to genes found on the X chromosome but not on the Y are more common in ________.

A) children B) adults C) females D) males Answer: C Topic: 5.17 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 5.10 Global Learning: G5 58) Would a human clone have a bellybutton?

A) Yes B) No Answer: A Topic: 5.18 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.11 59) How could an embryonic stem cell be used to repair a severed spine?

A) Embryonic stem cells secrete proteins that repair all other cell types, including nerve cells.

B) Embryonic stem cells can grow into any other cell type, including a nerve cell.

C) Embryonic stem cells can cause any other cell type to multiply.

D) Embryonic stem cells are primarily involved with neural growth and development.

Answer: B Topic: 5.18 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 5.11 Global Learning: G5

16 .

Short-Answer Questions 60) A common form of chemotherapy used to kill cancer cells is to administer drugs that disrupt cell division. Why might this also result in anemia, hair falling out, and sores in the stomach and on the skin? Answer: Possible Answer: Cells that produce the hair and red blood cells, as well as those that line the stomach and the skin, reproduce frequently. Any cell undergoing cell division would be killed. Topic: 5.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 5.3 Global Learning: G5 61) Which phase of meiosis is most similar to mitosis and why?

Answer: Possible Answer: Meiosis II, because there is no homologous pairing or crossing over.

Sister chromatids are separated, not homologs, which is also what happens during mitosis. The ploidy number also does not change.

Topic: 5.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.5 62) Why are individuals with Turner syndrome always female and individuals with Klinefelter syndrome always male?

Answer: Possible Answer: Individuals with Turner syndrome have an X chromosome but no Y chromosome. Since the genes that produce "maleness" are on the Y chromosomes, these individuals will always be female. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have two X chromosomes but also have one Y chromosome. The presence of the Y chromosome will generate the male traits regardless of the number of X chromosomes.

Topic: 5.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 5.6 Global Learning: G2

17 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 6 DNA: The Molecule of Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What is the monomer of the DNA polymer?

A) Polynucleotide B) Monosaccharide C) Nucleotide D) Peptide Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.1 2) What do the letters D-N-A stand for?

A) Dioxyribonucleic acid B) Dioxyribonuclear acid C) Deoxyribonucleic acid D) Deoxyrobonuclear acid Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.1 3) Where does the bond form that binds one polynucleotide to the other polynucleotide?

A) Between the sugar and the base B) Between the phosphate group and the sugar C) Between the bases D) Between the phosphate groups Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.1 4) What is different from one DNA nucleotide to the next?

A) The sugar molecule B) The phosphate group C) The base D) The protein Answer: C Topic: 6.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global Learning: G2

1 .

5) Which enzyme is responsible for adding complementary DNA bases to an exposed DNA strand? A) DNA helicase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA ligase D) DNA peptidase Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.1 6) DNA helicase breaks which type of bond in the DNA molecule? A) Covalent bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Ionic bonds D) Peptide bonds Answer: B Topic: 6.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.1 Global Learning: G7 7) According to the base pairing rules of DNA, if the sequence of bases on one strand was AGGCTTA, what would be the sequence of bases on the complementary strand? A) AGGCTTA B) ATTCGGA C) CGGATTC D) TCCGAAT Answer: D Topic: 6.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.1 8) What is not a structural difference between DNA and RNA? A) They each contain a slightly different sugar molecule. B) DNA is double stranded, RNA is a single strand. C) Where DNA has a phosphate group, RNA has a methyl group. D) One of the bases is different. Answer: C Topic: 6.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.2 Global Learning: G2

2 .

9) If DNA directs the production of RNA, what does RNA make?

A) RNA makes proteins.

B) RNA makes more DNA. C) RNA makes membranes.

D) RNA makes hereditary molecules.

Answer: A Topic: 6.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.3 10) Why does transcription occur in the nucleus and not in the cytoplasm?

A) RNA cannot exist in the cytoplasm.

B) DNA cannot leave the nucleus.

C) Ribosomes cannot leave the nucleus.

D) Codons are only found in the nucleus.

Answer: B Topic: 6.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Learning: G2 11) What is a gene?

A) A discrete sequence of DNA nucleotides B) A section of DNA that codes for one or more proteins C) A section of DNA that codes for a portion of a protein D) All of these and more are part of the expanding definition of a gene.

Answer: D Topic: 6.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.3 12) Which is not a posttranscriptional modification to the mRNA? A) Intron removal B) Promoter binding C) End capping D) Exon splicing Answer: B Topic: 6.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.3

3 .

13) If the base sequence of template strand reads GCCATTAC, what is the base sequence of the mRNA? A) CGGUAAUG B) CGGTAATG C) CGGTUUTG D) GCCAUUAC Answer: A Topic: 6.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.3 14) What does "transfer RNA" actually transfer?

A) Ribosome B) Codons C) Amino acids D) Transcripts Answer: C Topic: 6.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.3 15) If the codon is AAA, what is the complementary anticodon?

A) UUU B) TTT C) AAA D) CCC Answer: A Topic: 6.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.3 16) Which nucleic acid acts like an enzyme, stabilizing and orienting different molecules to facilitate the formation of bonds between them?

A) DNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA Answer: B Topic: 6.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.2

4 .

17) Ribosomes are made out of which macromolecule? A) Lipid and protein B) Nucleic acid only C) Nucleic acid and protein D) Protein only Answer: C Topic: 6.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.2 18) How is translation initiated?

A) DNA helicase binds to the origins of replication.

B) Two ribosomal subunits bind to the mRNA transcript.

C) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence.

D) DNA ligase binds to the AUG start sequence.

Answer: B Topic: 6.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.3 19) How many nucleotides in sequence are required to code for 10 amino acids?

A) 3 B) 10 C) 20 D) 30 Answer: D Topic: 6.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.3 Global Learning: G4 20) Most genes are in the "off" state and are not expressed. How then are genes turned on?

A) DNA helicase must first bind to the promoter site of the DNA. B) RNA polymerase must first bind to the exons.

C) MicroRNA binds to the DNA to initiate transcription.

D) Transcription factors must first bind to the DNA. Answer: D Topic: 6.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.4

5 .

21) What is the purpose of adding the cap and tail to the mRNA prior to leaving the nucleus?

A) To prevent and/or delay the degradation of the mRNA by enzymes in the cytoplasm B) To attract and attach the translation machinery to the mRNA C) To prevent the ends from attaching to other mRNA and extending the transcript D) To prevent complementary RNA from binding to the mRNA and forming double stranded RNA Answer: A Topic: 6.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Learning: G2 22) Barr bodies are associated with ________.

A) signal transduction B) X chromosome inactivation C) frameshift mutations D) proto-oncogenes Answer: B Topic: 6.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.4 23) The signal transduction pathway allows ________.

A) one cell to regulate the gene expression of another cell B) a cell to repair damage to its DNA C) genes from one organism to be inserted into the nucleus of another organism's cells D) whole genomes to be sequenced Answer: A Topic: 6.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Learning: G2 24) Which genes are responsible for your overall structure, such as how many legs you have and where they develop?

A) Oncogenes B) Proto-oncogenes C) Growth factor genes D) Homeotic genes Answer: D Topic: 6.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.4 Global Learning: G2

6 .

25) Which of the following is a true statement?

A) All mutagens are carcinogens.

B) All mutagens cause cancer.

C) All mutations are caused by mutagens.

D) None of these is a true statement.

Answer: D Topic: 6.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.5 26) The type of mutation that alters the nucleotide sequence of a gene but does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein produced from that gene is called ________ mutation.

A) missense B) silent C) nonsense D) frameshift Answer: B Topic: 6.10 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Learning: G2 27) When might a frameshift or nonsense mutation not result in a completely defective protein?

A) When the mutation occurs in one of the very last codons B) When the mutation occurs in one of the first codons C) When a frameshift is balanced out by a nonsense mutation D) When the mutation occurs in an exon region Answer: A Topic: 6.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Learning: G2 28) Occasionally the DNA may become damaged. Fortunately, several proofreading genes code for proteins that find and repair the damaged DNA. What might happen if one of these genes were damaged?

A) The cell would initiate a form of self-destruction.

B) Oncogenes would develop into proto-oncogenes.

C) The chance of developing cancer would increase substantially.

D) Tumor-suppressing genes would be turned on.

Answer: C Topic: 6.11 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Learning: G2

7 .

29) How does a cell typically know when to divide?

A) They have an internal clock and only divide when they reach a certain age.

B) Tumor suppressor genes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

C) Proto-oncogenes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

D) Oncogenes code for growth factor proteins that initiate cell division.

Answer: C Topic: 6.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.5 30) The spread of cancer cells from their site of origin to sites distant in the body is called ________.

A) metastasis B) epistasis C) peristalsis D) transformation Answer: A Topic: 6.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.5 31) What is a "benign" tumor?

A) A mass of cancerous cells B) A single mutated cell that could potentially develop into cancer C) A mass of cells that grows out of control and spreads to other tissues D) A mass of cells that grows out of control but remains at the site of origin Answer: D Topic: 6.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.5 32) What does "burn" refer to in the typical cancer treatment regime?

A) Chemotherapy B) Aromatherapy C) Radiation therapy D) Surgery Answer: C Topic: 6.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Learning: G5

8 .

33) What is the minimum amount of regular physical activity that has been shown to reduce the risk of cancer?

A) 1 hour per day, every other day B) 30 minutes at a time, 3 times per week C) 15 minutes of intense exercise, every day D) None, physical activity has not been shown to reduce the risk of developing any form of cancer.

Answer: B Topic: 6.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Learning: G5 34) Which enzyme used in the natural replication of DNA in a cell is also used when cloning a gene in the laboratory?

A) DNA ligase B) DNA helicase C) DNA polymerase D) DNA transcriptase Answer: A Topic: 6.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G2 35) Why can a person who is unable to produce insulin, be successfully treated with insulin derived from genetically modified bacteria?

A) Typical bacterial insulin is exactly the same as human insulin.

B) The gene that produces insulin in humans was inserted into the bacteria where it continues to produce human insulin.

C) The insulin-producing gene of bacteria was altered to have the same base sequence as the human counterpart and now produces the human version of insulin.

D) Human insulin was inserted into bacteria and when the bacteria reproduce, so too does the insulin.

Answer: B Topic: 6.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G5

9 .

36) The small circular molecules of DNA commonly found in bacteria are called ________.

A) chromatids B) plastids C) chromophores D) plasmids Answer: D Topic: 6.13 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.7 37) How would the cDNA created in the lab compare to the original DNA? A) It would be shorter because it only represents the genes that were transcribed in the cell at the time.

B) It would be longer because it would also include sequences needed to stabilize the molecule.

C) It would be single stranded because it is made by copying only the coding strand of DNA. D) It would be circular instead of linear because bacteria are used in the process and they can only work with circular DNA molecules.

Answer: A Topic: 6.14 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G2 38) A collection of cloned DNA fragments representing the organism's entire genome is called a ________.

A) transgenic assembly B) genomic library C) clonal anthology D) complementary DNA collection Answer: B Topic: 6.14 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.7 39) While it is a standard rule of thumb to say information passes from DNA to RNA to protein, there are exceptions. What is the name of the enzyme that builds DNA out of RNA? A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Reverse transcriptase D) DNA synthase Answer: C Topic: 6.14 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.7

10 .

40) Genetically modified organisms that acquire genes from a different species are called ________ organisms.

A) mutant B) synthetic C) cloned D) transgenic Answer: D Topic: 6.15 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.7 A cloned mammal is made by a similar technique as the one used to produce transgenic animals, except the entire genome is replaced instead of a single gene. This is accomplished by removing the DNA from the unfertilized egg of an egg donor, replacing it with DNA from a normal body cell of a mature animal, and then implanting that cell into the uterus of a surrogate mother. The cell then divides and behaves as if it were a normal embryo. Answer the following questions regarding a clone.

41) Of whom is the baby a clone?

A) Egg donor B) DNA donor C) Surrogate mother D) It depends on whether it is male or female.

Answer: B Topic: 6.15 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G3 42) Does the clone have a belly button?

A) Yes B) No C) It depends on whether it is male or female.

Answer: A Topic: 6.15 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G7

11 .

43) Will the clone be sterile or fertile? A) Sterile B) Fertile C) It depends on whether it is male or female. Answer: B Topic: 6.15 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G7 44) Three of the following statements are correct. Identify the statement that is not correct regarding genetically modified organisms.

A) There are no risks associated with GM crops.

B) GM crops have been produced with increased nutrition.

C) GM crops have been produced that are disease resistant.

D) GM animals are not in our food supply.

Answer: A Topic: 6.15 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G2 45) What separates the strands of DNA in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique?

A) Restriction enzymes B) Helicase C) Centrifuge D) Heat Answer: D Topic: 6.16 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.8 46) If you started the PCR technique with two fragments of double stranded DNA, calculate how many double stranded DNA fragments you would you have after four cycles.

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64 Answer: C Topic: 6.16 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Learning: G4

12 .

47) Can the PCR technique be used to copy an entire chromosome all at once?

A) No, only the genes would be copied.

B) No, the PCR machine can only copy fragments of DNA. C) No, while the DNA would be copied, the scaffolding proteins would not.

D) Yes, that is its primary function.

Answer: B Topic: 6.16 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Learning: G2 48) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their ________.

A) length B) charge C) polarity D) base sequences Answer: A Topic: 6.17 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.8 49) DNA profiling relies on an individual's ________, no two of which are the same between different people, except identical twins.

A) unique set of genes B) unique DNA based sequences C) unique set of STRs D) unique fingerprints Answer: C Topic: 6.17 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Learning: G5 50) What specific field of science is interested in examining the complete set of proteins encoded by a genome?

A) Genomics B) Genetic engineering C) Forensics D) Proteomics Answer: D Topic: 6.18 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Learning: G5

13 .

51) Is the number of nucleotides in a species' DNA an accurate predictor of the number of genes in their DNA? A) No, there is no relationship to the number of nucleotides and the number of genes.

B) No, while in general more nucleotides would imply more genes, this is not always the case.

C) Yes, it is a one-to-one relationship as 20,000 nucleotides would equate to 20,000 genes.

D) Yes, there is one gene for approximately every 1,000 nucleotides.

Answer: B Topic: 6.18 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 6.8 Global Learning: G2 52) What is the success rate of gene therapy?

A) Excellent, as many diseases are now successfully cured with gene therapy.

B) Fair, as more than half the trials have been successful.

C) Mediocre, as only about half the trials have been successful.

D) Poor, as there have been few successes but many disappointments.

Answer: D Topic: 6.19 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global Learning: G5 53) How does a scientist get the corrected version of a gene into the cells of a gene therapy patient?

A) It is delivered with a modified virus.

B) It is directly injected with a microscopic hypodermic needle.

C) By attaching it to a food molecule, like glucose, it is then ingested by the individual.

D) By attaching it to the surface of microscopic beads, it is then shot into the individual (i.e., shotgun method).

Answer: A Topic: 6.19 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global Learning: G5

14 .

Short-Answer Questions 54) Entire genes may be deleted, inverted, replicated, or even translocated to another chromosome. Explain how each one could potentially result in cancer?

Answer: Possible Answer: A deletion of a tumor suppressor gene may result in out of control growth. An inverted gene would not be functional if it were a tumor suppressor gene then out of control growth may occur. A replicated oncogene might result in overproduction of growth factors, causing cells to reproduce too fast. A translocated tumor suppressor gene may lack the transcription factor binding sites or the promoter site required to initiate translation.

Topic: 6.11 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.5 Global Learning: G2 55) How does chemotherapy kill cancer cells and why might it also result in hair loss and nausea?

Answer: Possible Answer: Chemotherapy involves the administration of chemicals that disrupt normal cell division. Although the rapidly growing cancer cells are the target, any cell undergoing cell division would potentially be killed. Hair follicle cells divide rapidly as do the cells lining the stomach. These cells are also killed resulting in hair loss and nausea.

Topic: 6.12 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.6 Global Learning: G5 56) Restriction enzymes were originally isolated from bacteria who used them to protect themselves from viruses. How might a restriction enzyme defeat a virus?

Answer: Possible Answer: Viruses infect cells by inserting their DNA into the cell where they are expressed. Restriction enzymes cut up DNA at specific sequences and could therefore cut up the viral DNA before it could be translated and transcribed.

Topic: 6.13 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.7 Global Learning: G2 57) The mighty chestnut tree once dominated many of our Appalachian forests, but was decimated by an exotic fungus in the first part of the 20th century. A few small groves of trees still remain in isolated pockets and living roots of some of the fallen ancient trees still try to send up new shoots. These shoots always die as soon as they are exposed to the fungus. How could chestnut trees be genetically modified to be resistant to the fungus and grow again?

Answer: Possible Answer: A gene from a resistant plant, or an engineered gene that provides the resistance, could be inserted into the seeds of chestnut trees or into new shoots.

Topic: 6.19 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 6.9 Global Learning: G5

15 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 7 Darwinian Evolution Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Prior to the publication of Charles Darwin's book, On the Origin of Species, what was the prevailing public consensus regarding species evolution?

A) That species were permanent and unchanging B) That species evolved through physical changes that led to success C) That species evolved by means of natural selection D) That species were modified over time, but did not change into new species Answer: A Topic: 7.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Learning: G1 2) Who wrote Principles of Geology?

A) Charles Darwin B) Alfred Wallace C) Jean-Baptiste de Lamark D) Charles Lyell Answer: D Topic: 7.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.1 3) What prompted Darwin to publish his book decades after he began writing it?

A) He had completed the last of his experiments.

B) He had returned from his voyage around the world.

C) A colleague was about to publish a similar manuscript.

D) After years of searching, he finally found a publisher willing to accept it.

Answer: C Topic: 7.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.1 Global Learning: G1

1 .

4) Which two observations led Darwin to conclude that there is competition for survival?

A) Overproduction and limited resources B) Fossils and mutations C) Variability and heritability D) Natural selection and descent with modification Answer: A Topic: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Learning: G1 5) Individuals with variations that make them best suited to their environment will, on average, be more likely to ________.

A) evolve B) change over time C) survive and reproduce D) be larger Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Learning: G2 6) Others had suggested mechanisms for evolution before Darwin published his work. By what means did Darwin propose species evolved over time?

A) Overproduction of young B) Passing on acquired traits C) Survival of the strongest D) Natural selection Answer: D Topic: 7.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.2 7) Why or why is it not accurate to say that individuals evolve?

A) It is accurate because they are the ones that mechanisms of evolution act upon.

B) It is accurate because they are the smallest unit of the hierarchical order that changes over time.

C) It is not accurate because individuals do not change over time in a way that can be passed on to the next generation.

D) It is not accurate because the evolution of one individual would not affect the entire species.

Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Learning: G2

2 .

8) Can you inherit physical traits that your parents acquired during their lifetime? A) No B) Yes C) Only if it improves survivability D) Only if it improves reproductive success Answer: A Topic: 7.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Learning: G7 9) Why is it inaccurate to say that humans are the most highly evolved species?

A) Evolution is not goal oriented. It only acts in response to the present situation.

B) All species, not just people, are equally "evolved" to fit their particular environment.

C) Both of these are true.

D) Neither of these are true. Humans, the smartest of all species, are the most highly evolved.

Answer: C Topic: 7.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Learning: G7 10) What is radiometric dating?

A) The process of determining the age of the fossils from radioactive isotopes B) The mineralization process by which living things are turned into fossils C) The process of determining the age of the fossils based on which layer in the rock it is found D) The process of determining the age of the fossils using radio waves Answer: A Topic: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.3 11) The older fossils are typically found in the ________ sediments.

A) upper B) lower C) coarser D) finer Answer: B Topic: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.3

3 .

12) Have fossils of transitional forms been found?

A) No, none have ever been found.

B) Yes, but only one.

C) Yes, many have been found.

Answer: C Topic: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.3 13) Which of the following are considered to be fossils?

A) Footprints or other impressions preserved in stone B) Mineralized bones C) Animals frozen in ice or preserved in amber D) All of these Answer: D Topic: 7.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.3 14) What is the name for the study of the geographic distribution of species?

A) Biogeography B) Ecology C) Systematics D) Taxonomy Answer: A Topic: 7.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.3 15) Comparing the body structures of organisms to find evidence of a shared evolutionary history is called ________.

A) outgrouping B) relativistic physiology C) comparative anatomy D) analogous reconstruction Answer: C Topic: 7.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.3

4 .

16) Comparing DNA sequences to find evidence of a shared evolutionary history is called ________. A) genomics B) proteomics C) differential relatedness D) bioinformatics Answer: D Topic: 7.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.3 17) Although modified to perform a different task, a horse's front leg is made up of the same bones as is your arm. This suggests a common ancestor between horses and humans that also had those bones in its forelimb. The horse leg and human arm are therefore considered to be ________ structures.

A) analogous B) autologous C) homologous D) heterologous Answer: C Topic: 7.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.3 Global Learning: G2 18) The modern evolutionary synthesis of the 1930s and 1940s melded together evolutionary theory with ________.

A) genetics B) sociology C) psychology D) chemistry Answer: A Topic: 7.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.4 19) What is the smallest unit that can evolve?

A) The community B) The population C) The individual D) The cell Answer: B Topic: 7.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.5

5 .

20) What is the original source of variation?

A) Mutation B) Gene flow C) Natural selection D) Genetic drift Answer: A Topic: 7.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.4 21) What defines a population?

A) Members of the same group that share a common ancestor B) Members of a single species C) Interbreeding members of the same species D) Multiple species interacting together Answer: C Topic: 7.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.4 22) What does "fitness" mean when speaking in terms of evolution?

A) Level of overall health of the individual B) How many offspring an individual produces C) Level of overall health of the population D) The size and diversity of the gene pool Answer: B Topic: 7.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.5 23) What events can lead to offspring having a unique arrangement of their parents' genes?

A) Crossing over B) Independent assortment C) Both of these D) Neither of these Answer: C Topic: 7.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G7

6 .

A zombie apocalypse wipes out almost the entire human species before the zombie threat is eliminated. Only a group of 100 people who were at a family reunion on an uninhabited island survived. They returned to the mainland completely unaware of what had happened to everyone.

Answer the following questions regarding the few survivors that now begin to rebuild the human population.

24) Certain traits will have been lost from the gene pool forever. Some may be obvious, like people with red hair or double jointed thumbs. Others will be less obvious, like the ability to process cholesterol or being allergic to peanuts. This loss of diversity in a reduced population is called ________.

A) gene flow B) genetic drift C) bottleneck effect D) founder effect Answer: C Topic: 7.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G5 25) A straggler with green eyes stumbles into the last remaining human outpost. The green eye trait did not exist in the outpost before her arrival, but it does now. What is the name of this mechanism of evolution?

A) Gene flow B) Genetic drift C) Bottleneck effect D) Founder effect Answer: A Topic: 7.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G5 26) Despite an abundance of habitat, why will it be difficult for the human species to recover?

A) Related humans are not able to reproduce.

B) The founder effect will slowly kill off the survivors in a small population.

C) Modern humans lack the ingenuity needed to survive without an extended social network.

D) The reduced genetic diversity will make it difficult for the population to adapt to new diseases or other environmental changes.

Answer: D Topic: 7.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G5

7 .

27) Another word for macroevolution is ________. A) mutation B) speciation C) variation D) extinction Answer: B Topic: 7.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.5 28) Which process of evolution does not change the total number of species?

A) Branching evolution B) Nonbranching evolution C) Macroevolution D) Extinction Answer: B Topic: 7.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G2 29) What is the leading hypothesis for what might have brought about the extinction of the dinosaurs?

A) A new disease B) Competition from mammals C) An asteroid impact D) Massive volcano eruptions Answer: C Topic: 7.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.6 30) During which geological era did life first appear on the planet?

A) Precambrian B) Paleozoic C) Mesozoic D) Cenozoic Answer: A Topic: 7.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.6

8 .

31) What defines a geological time period known as an era?

A) Location of the continents B) The distinct life-forms that were present C) Average global temperature D) The eras represent equal divisions of time Answer: B Topic: 7.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.6 32) The slow drifting of sections of the earth's crust, sometimes separating, other times colliding, is known as ________.

A) continental convergence B) continental divergence C) crust dynamics D) plate tectonics Answer: D Topic: 7.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.6 33) What is an exception to the standard biological species concept used to define a species?

A) Species that coevolved cannot be distinguished using the concept.

B) Natural interbreeding populations cannot be distinguished using the concept.

C) Asexual species cannot be distinguished using the concept.

D) Species that do not resemble one another cannot be distinguished using the concept.

Answer: C Topic: 7.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.7 34) What is the term that defines when the sperm of one species fails to fertilize the egg of a different species?

A) Hybrid inviability B) Gametic incompatibility C) Mechanical incompatibility D) Temporal incompatibility Answer: B Topic: 7.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.7

9 .

35) Which would be a postzygotic barrier to reproduction?

A) Behavioral isolation B) Mating time differences C) Habitat isolation D) Hybrid weakness Answer: D Topic: 7.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Learning: G7 36) In many ways a mule is a superior animal to the horse or donkey. They are often stronger and can jump higher than either of their parents. Why then are they considered to be a "weak hybrid"?

A) They are sterile.

B) They do not live as long.

C) Their offspring are progressively weaker.

D) They are more prone to disease.

Answer: A Topic: 7.9 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.7 Global Learning: G2 37) Which model of evolution is closest to what was originally suggested by Charles Darwin?

A) Punctuated equilibrium model B) Symmetric model C) Spatial model D) Graduated model Answer: D Topic: 7.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G2 38) The rapid diversification of species seen in the fossil record followed by long periods of stasis is part of the ________ model of evolution.

A) punctuated equilibrium B) symmetric C) spatial D) graduated Answer: A Topic: 7.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.6

10 .

39) Which of the following might be a cause of sympatric speciation?

A) Habitat isolation B) Genetic incompatibility C) Genetic drift D) Gene flow Answer: B Topic: 7.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.5 40) The varieties of species found on the different Galapagos Islands is most likely an example of which form of speciation?

A) Sympatric B) Parapatric C) Allopatric D) Disruptive Answer: C Topic: 7.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.5 41) Why are animals more likely than plants to form new species while still in the presence of the parent population?

A) They can survive with multiple sets of chromosomes.

B) They have more isolating behaviors.

C) Both of these are why animals are more likely than plants to form new species in this situation.

D) Neither of these. Plants are more likely than animals to form new species in this situation.

Answer: D Topic: 7.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.4 Global Learning: G7 42) Which classification grouping includes the greatest number of species?

A) Domain B) Order C) Phylum D) Kingdom Answer: A Topic: 7.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8

11 .

43) Which grouping immediately follows Order in the classification hierarchy? A) Genus B) Family C) Phylum D) Class Answer: B Topic: 7.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8 44) Of those listed below, which category of classification is the most narrow?

A) Class B) Domain C) Family D) Genus Answer: D Topic: 7.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8 45) All prokaryotes are in the domain ________.

A) Bacteria B) Prokarya C) Eukarya D) Prokaryotes are in different domains.

Answer: D Topic: 7.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8 46) Which grouping includes all of the protists?

A) Domain Archaea B) Domain Eukarya C) Kingdom Animalia D) Kingdom Plantae Answer: B Topic: 7.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8

12 .

47) What field of science has as its goal to classify all living things into a hierarchical system of relatedness that runs from most broad to most narrow?

A) Evolution B) Phylogenetics C) Taxonomy D) Cladistics Answer: C Topic: 7.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8 48) Some of the "branches" of a phylogenetic tree do not extend to the end. What do these lines represent?

A) Extinct species B) Species of unknown origin C) Convergent species D) Lineages that have not changed Answer: A Topic: 7.12 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.8 49) A requirement of cladistics is that a grouping must include ________.

A) species that can interbreed B) only living species C) species with shared traits D) a common ancestor and all its descendants Answer: D Topic: 7.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8

13 .

50) According to this phylogenetic tree, which bear is most closely related to the American black bear?

A) Sun bear B) Asiatic black bear C) Polar bear D) Brown bear Answer: B Topic: 7.12 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Learning: G3 51) A cladistics grouping with a shared common ancestor is called ________.

A) an outgroup B) an ingroup C) a common group D) a royal group Answer: B Topic: 7.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 7.8

14 .

Short-Answer Questions 52) How can the use of chemical control agents (antibiotics, herbicides, pesticides) lead to their decreased effectiveness? Answer: Possible Answer: By changing the environment, these chemicals selectively kill only the bacteria, weeds, and pests that are not immune to them, leaving mostly those with a natural immunity. The resistant individuals survive and reproduce giving rise to a new generation that may also be resistant to the drug. Eventually the chemical is no longer effective against any of them. Topic: 7.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.2 Global Learning: G2 53) If a changing environment increases rates of evolution, why do we see an increase in extinction rates following rapid global catastrophes? Answer: Possible Answer: Either the change is too swift to allow population time to evolve or the extinctions of some species opens up niches for other species to evolve to fill. Topic: 7.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.6 Global Learning: G2 54) What is the fundamental difference between the processes of microevolution and macroevolution? Answer: Possible Answer: They are fundamentally identical processes on different time scales. Microevolution refers to incremental changes in the gene pool from one generation to the next, while macroevolution is the accumulation of those changes that eventually leads to speciation. In either case, the process is the same. Topic: 7.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G2 55) Explain how a complex trait, like eyes or the ability to fly, can evolve by incremental modifications over time. Answer: Possible Answer: A trait that makes the organism successful in one situation may have other benefits in other situations. Feathers are modified scales that may have evolved from a mutation that made the scales softer or lighter. This may have improved heat regulation or was effective in scaring off predators.

Bigger feathers then would be selected for. Eventually those larger feathers may have allowed the organism to attract a mate or hop further. Eventually hopping gets selected for and step by step, wings and flight evolves, but a flying feathered creature didn't just appear one day from nowhere. Topic: 7.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.5 Global Learning: G2

15 .

56) Class Reptilia includes all the reptiles while Class Aves includes all birds. However, a cladistics approach would place birds into the same class with the reptiles. Why would a cladistician do this despite the behavioral and physical differences between birds and reptiles?

Answer: Possible Answer: The degree of evolutionary relatedness is all that matters in cladistics, not behavior or structural similarities. Birds must share a common ancestor with reptiles after another group of reptiles diverged. Birds therefore form an ingroup, not an outgroup, of reptiles.

Topic: 7.12 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 7.8 Global Learning: G2

16 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 8 Biodiversity 1: Microscopic Organisms Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The origin of the first living organisms is called ________.

A) chemo-evolution B) novel design C) biogenesis D) cytosynthesis Answer: C Topic: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Learning: G1 2) Many of the organic molecules associated with life can be created spontaneously under certain conditions. What do these conditions resemble?

A) Earth's core B) Primordial Earth C) The sun D) A comet Answer: B Topic: 8.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Learning: G1 3) Which was not a gas in Earth's earliest atmosphere?

A) O2 B) CH4 C) NH3 D) H2 Answer: A Topic: 8.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Learning: G2

1 .

4) What do scientists believe was the original genetic material able to copy itself without assistance?

A) DNA B) RNA C) Proteins D) Enzymes Answer: B Topic: 8.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.1 Global Learning: G1 5) By what means do bacterial cells typically divide?

A) Binary fission B) Mitosis C) Meiosis D) Regeneration Answer: A Topic: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 6) Which protective structure forms to protect certain bacteria during periods of harsh conditions?

A) Cell wall B) Biofilm C) Endospore D) Capsule Answer: C Topic: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 7) If you looked at unknown cells under a microscope, what could lead you to correctly conclude that they are bacteria cells?

A) They appear to have a cell wall.

B) They lack a nucleus.

C) They are oblong.

D) They form a colony.

Answer: B Topic: 8.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Learning: G2

2 .

8) Some bacteria have a spherical shape, called ________.

A) coccus B) bacillus C) spirillum D) spheroid Answer: A Topic: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 9) What is the strategy used by many prokaryotes for obtaining their energy and their molecular building blocks directly from inorganic chemicals?

A) Chemosynthetic B) Photosynthetic C) Parasitic D) Carnivory Answer: A Topic: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 10) Which are the smallest, least complex cell types?

A) Animal cells B) Bacteria cells C) Plant cells D) Fungal cells Answer: B Topic: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 11) Plants are in the domain ________.

A) Prokarya B) Plantae C) Archaea D) Eukarya Answer: D Topic: 8.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2

3 .

12) Halophiles are found in which environment? A) Anoxic B) Hot C) Salty D) Dry Answer: C Topic: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 13) Which organisms are called the extremophiles and flourish in extreme conditions?

A) Protozoans B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Fungi Answer: B Topic: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 14) Where would you expect to find methanogens?

A) Near a volcano B) In the surf along the beach C) On the surface of plants D) In the digestive tract of cows Answer: D Topic: 8.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 15) Which statement is true regarding bacteria?

A) All pathogenic bacteria are harmful to humans.

B) Most pathogenic bacteria are harmful to humans.

C) Most pathogenic bacteria are helpful to humans.

D) All pathogenic bacteria are helpful to humans.

Answer: A Topic: 8.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Learning: G2

4 .

16) Why is the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen (N2 gas) into ammonium (NH4) important for life on this planet? A) Ammonium is an important cleaning agent. B) Nitrogen gas is toxic. C) Ammonium is a plant nutrient. D) Nitrogen gas leads to global warming.

Answer: C Topic: 8.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Learning: G2 17) The practice of using bacteria to remove pollutants from the environment is called ________.

A) nitrogen fixation B) bioremediaton C) bioelimination D) transduction Answer: B Topic: 8.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Learning: G5 18) Food poisoning is often caused by a bacterium called ________.

A) Salmonella B) Staph C) MRSA D) Bacillus anthracis Answer: A Topic: 8.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Learning: G5 19) What is the vector of Lyme disease?

A) Rats B) Cattle C) Fleas D) Ticks Answer: D Topic: 8.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2

5 .

20) Which was first on the planet, prokaryotes or eukaryotes?

A) Eukaryotes B) Prokaryotes C) They both appear in the fossil record at about the same time.

D) It is unknown.

Answer: B Topic: 8.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 21) There are more helpful types of bacteria on this planet than harmful types.

A) True B) False, there are more harmful types.

C) False, there are about as many helpful as harmful bacteria.

D) False, bacteria have neither a positive nor a negative impact on human society.

Answer: A Topic: 8.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Learning: G5 22) Which is not a method of introducing new genes into a bacterium?

A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Binary fission D) Conjugation Answer: C Topic: 8.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.3 23) Viruses that infect bacteria are called ________.

A) phages B) plasmids C) viroids D) vectors Answer: A Topic: 8.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5

6 .

24) Which version of "bacterial DNA transfer" involves a physical connection between the two bacteria cells?

A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Binary fission D) Conjugation Answer: D Topic: 8.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.3 25) Which of the following is a form of reproduction in bacteria?

A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Neither of these D) Both of these Answer: C Topic: 8.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.3 26) Are all bacteria in a colony genetically identical?

A) No, some bacteria reproduce sexually and create novel offspring.

B) No, there are ways for bacteria to acquire new genetic material.

C) Yes, bacteria can only reproduce asexually.

D) Yes, bacteria can only reproduce by binary fission.

Answer: B Topic: 8.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.3 Global Learning: G2 27) Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?

A) Nucleus B) Golgi apparatus C) Mitochondria D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Topic: 8.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.4

7 .

28) What do the nucleus and the smooth endoplasmic reticulum have in common?

A) They both detoxify chemical toxins.

B) They both synthesize lipids.

C) They both contain DNA. D) Their membranes are interconnected.

Answer: D Topic: 8.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G2 29) What is the leading scientific theory on how the first nuclear membrane originated?

A) From the inward folding of the plasma membrane B) From engulfing prokaryotic cells C) From engulfing eukaryotic cells D) From the spontaneous coalescence of phospholipids Answer: A Topic: 8.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.4 30) When did the first eukaryotic cell form?

A) About a billion years after the first prokaryotic cell was formed B) About the same time as the first prokaryotic cell was formed C) About a billion years before the first prokaryotic cell was formed D) There is no evidence to suggest when the eukaryotic cells formed in relationship to prokaryotic cells.

Answer: A Topic: 8.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.4 31) What do the nucleus and mitochondria have in common?

A) They both assemble proteins.

B) They both make ATP. C) They both contain DNA. D) Their membranes are interconnected.

Answer: C Topic: 8.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G2

8 .

32) When a plant cell divides, how would you expect its chloroplasts to divide?

A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Binary fission D) Endosymbiosis Answer: C Topic: 8.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G2 33) Which organelle could you remove and the cell would still survive?

A) Nucleus B) Golgi apparatus C) Mitochondria D) All organelles are required for the survival of the cell.

Answer: D Topic: 8.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G2 34) Which organelle can survive outside of the cells?

A) Nucleus B) Golgi apparatus C) Mitochondria D) No organelles can survive outside the cell.

Answer: D Topic: 8.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G2 35) What might be the advantage to a cell if it assimilated an ingested photosynthetic bacterium rather than digesting it?

A) It could now utilize hydrogen sulfide as an energy source.

B) It could now use sunlight to make its food.

C) It could now live in an oxygen-free environment.

D) It could now use glucose as an energy source.

Answer: B Topic: 8.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G7

9 .

36) Which protist group includes members with plantlike traits such as chloroplasts and multicellularity?

A) Slime molds B) Algae C) Amoebas D) None of the protists have chloroplasts.

Answer: B Topic: 8.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G7 37) By what means do the amoebas move?

A) Flagella B) Cilia C) Pseudopodia D) Amoebas do not move, they are anchored to the substrate.

Answer: C Topic: 8.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.4 38) Which of the terrestrial unicellular protists is an enormous cell with multiple nuclei?

A) Slime molds B) Algae C) Amoeba D) Protozoans Answer: A Topic: 8.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.4 39) What makes an organism truly multicellular?

A) When it forms a colony B) When different cells in the colony become specialized C) When the colony makes gametes D) When the colony makes other colonies Answer: C Topic: 8.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.4

10 .

40) Approximately when did the earth's crust solidify? A) 8 billion years ago B) 4 billion years ago C) 2 billion years ago D) 1 billion years ago Answer: B Topic: 8.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.4 41) Which began first?

A) Multicellular life in the ocean B) Multicellular life in fresh water C) Plants colonizing the land D) Animals colonizing the land Answer: A Topic: 8.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G2 42) While most biologists do not consider viruses to be alive, viruses do share some characteristics with living things. Which of the following is a required trait for life that viruses share with living things?

A) The ability to reproduce on their own B) The ability to maintain homeostasis C) Having a cell D) Having highly ordered structure Answer: D Topic: 8.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Learning: G7 43) Which viral life cycle would result in a quicker death for an infected cell?

A) Lytic cycle B) Prophage cycle C) Retroviral cycle D) Lysogenic cycle Answer: A Topic: 8.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5

11 .

44) Medicine that prevents viral infections is a(n) ________.

A) antibody B) antibiotic C) vaccine D) prion Answer: C Topic: 8.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Learning: G5 45) Which of the following do not get infected by viruses?

A) Animals B) Plants C) Bacteria D) All of these can be infected by viruses.

Answer: D Topic: 8.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 46) Which specific cells are infected by the HIV virus?

A) Killer B cells B) Helper T cells C) Red blood cells D) NK cells Answer: B Topic: 8.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Learning: G5 47) How does AZT fight AIDS? A) It blocks the virus from entering the cell.

B) It targets the virus for destruction.

C) It blocks the enzyme that converts viral RNA to DNA. D) It blocks the enzyme that assembles all of the parts into new viruses.

Answer: C Topic: 8.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Learning: G5

12 .

48) Where would you find the double-stranded HIV DNA in an infected cell?

A) Incorporated directly into the host cell's chromosome B) As a separate plasmid in the host cell's nucleus C) In a vesicle in the cytoplasm D) There is no HIV form of DNA. It exists only as RNA which makes viral proteins directly.

Answer: A Topic: 8.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 49) The misshapen version of a protein that causes properly folded proteins to misfold is the ________.

A) virus B) prion C) viroid D) capsid Answer: B Topic: 8.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 50) An infectious circular piece of RNA is the ________.

A) virus B) prion C) viroid D) capsid Answer: C Topic: 8.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 51) Which of the following infects only plants?

A) Virus B) Prion C) Viroid D) Capsid Answer: C Topic: 8.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5

13 .

52) A degenerative brain disorder transmitted by cannibalism is called ________.

A) kuru B) scrapie C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D) herpes Answer: A Topic: 8.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Learning: G5 Short-Answer Questions 53) Why could prokaryotes survive without eukaryotes but eukaryotes could not survive without prokaryotes?

Answer: Possible Answer: Prokaryotes were around for over a billion years before eukaryotes.

Eukaryotes evolved in the presence of prokaryotes and became dependent on them.

Topic: 8.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 8.2 Global Learning: G5 54) The "protists" are grouped together simply for convenience. Why are they not considered to be in a specific taxon like a kingdom or a phylum?

Answer: Possible Answer: They evolved independently on several occasions and therefore do not share a common protist ancestor. They represent several lineages of eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi.

Topic: 8.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 8.4 Global Learning: G7 55) HIV, the virus that causes AIDS in humans, does not infect other animals, but only certain cells in the human body. Why? Answer: Possible Answer: The recognition spikes on the outer capsid of the virus can only bind to specific proteins on specific cells. This makes most viruses both species and cell specific.

Topic: 8.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Learning: G2 56) Describe all the possible forms of nucleic acids found in viruses.

Answer: Possible Answer: Single stranded DNA, double stranded DNA, single stranded RNA, double stranded RNA Topic: 8.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 8.5

14 .

57) Why is there no cure for prion-related diseases?

Answer: Possible Answer: The misfolded protein is not recognized by the body's immune system as foreign. It is not alive so it cannot be killed. No drugs currently exist that can target a misfolded protein and either stop it from misfolding other proteins or to refold correctly.

Topic: 8.11 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 8.5 Global Learning: G2

15 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 9 Biodiversity 2: Fungi and Plants Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What is the evolutionary history between fungi and plants?

A) Fungi evolved first and gave rise to the plants.

B) Fungi evolved first, plants evolved second but not from fungi.

C) Plants evolved first and gave rise to the fungi.

D) Plants evolved first, fungi evolved second but not from plants.

Answer: B Topic: 9.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Learning: G7 2) What is the most recent common ancestor of fungi and animals?

A) A protist B) Moss C) A bryophyte D) Algae Answer: A Topic: 9.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Learning: G7 3) Are all fungi prokaryotes?

A) Yes, all fungi are prokaryotes.

B) No, some are prokaryotes, some are eukaryotes.

C) No, they are all eukaryotes.

D) No, they are neither prokaryotes nor eukaryotes.

Answer: C Topic: 9.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Learning: G2

1 .

4) What is a major role fungi play in an ecosystem?

A) Recycling nutrients from dead organisms back into the food chain B) Fixing carbon from the atmosphere C) Synthesizing glucose from carbon dioxide and water D) Photosynthesis Answer: A Topic: 9.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Learning: G5 5) The edible portion of the mushroom is the ________.

A) mycelium B) hypha C) spore D) reproductive structure Answer: D Topic: 9.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.2 6) Fungi are made of bundles of threadlike ________.

A) mycelia B) hyphae C) chitins D) lichens Answer: B Topic: 9.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.2 7) How do fungi reproduce sexually?

A) By the fusion of gametes from two different fungi B) By the fusion of spores from two different fungi C) By the fusion of hyphae from two different fungi D) By asexual reproduction only Answer: C Topic: 9.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.2

2 .

8) Which statement regarding fungal reproduction is true?

A) Fungi do not produce spores.

B) Many fungi can reproduce either sexually or asexually.

C) Fungi can only reproduce sexually.

D) Fungi alternate between sexual and asexual reproductive generations.

Answer: B Topic: 9.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.2 9) If a fungicide was applied near a plant, how might it kill the plant?

A) By killing the fungus associated with the plant's roots B) By breaking down the chitin in the plant's cell walls C) By breaking down the cellulose in the plant's cell walls D) By killing the insects that pollinate the plant Answer: A Topic: 9.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Learning: G2 10) What are the charophytes?

A) Algae that live symbiotically with fungi B) An extinct group of protists that may have given rise to the fungi C) Smallest living plants D) Closest living ancestors of the first plants Answer: D Topic: 9.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.3 11) How does a plant's cuticle allow it to live on land?

A) By preventing water loss B) By absorbing nutrients from the soil C) By preventing the gametes from drying out D) By increasing structural support Answer: A Topic: 9.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Learning: G2

3 .

12) What do plants, algae, and some bacteria have in common that is not shared with fungi or animals?

A) Cell walls B) Photosynthesis C) Mycorrhizae D) Spores Answer: B Topic: 9.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Learning: G2 13) The symbiotic relationship between plants and bacteria can best be observed in the ________ of plants.

A) stomata B) root hairs C) root nodules D) mycorrhizae Answer: C Topic: 9.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.3 14) How does a plant get the carbon it needs to make glucose?

A) From the soil B) From the air C) From the water D) From fungus or bacteria Answer: B Topic: 9.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Learning: G2 15) Where do plants typically store their starches and sugars for later use?

A) In the leaves B) In the stems C) In the buds D) In the roots Answer: D Topic: 9.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.3

4 .

16) Which is part of the vascular system of plants?

A) Pollen B) Jetsam C) Flotsam D) None of these are part of a plant's vascular system.

Answer: D Topic: 9.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.3 17) If the phloem in a tree trunk were to become blocked, how would this affect the plant?

A) The leaves would dry out.

B) Sugars could not be made.

C) Sugars could not be transported from leaves to roots.

D) Water could not be sent to the roots.

Answer: C Topic: 9.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Learning: G2 18) In which tissue system of plants would you expect to find the guard cells?

A) Dermal tissue system B) Vascular tissue system C) Germ tissue system D) Ground tissue system Answer: A Topic: 9.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Learning: G2 19) Is a leaf considered a plant organ or a plant tissue, and why?

A) Organ, because it performs several functions B) Organ, because it contains multiple tissues C) Tissue, because it contains multiple cell types D) Tissue, because plants don't have organs Answer: B Topic: 9.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Learning: G2

5 .

20) Which structure is not associated with a plant's cell wall?

A) Plasmodesmata B) Cellulose C) Lignin D) Stomata Answer: D Topic: 9.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.4 21) Which was the most recent plant structure to have evolved?

A) Seeds B) Vascular system C) Flowers D) Cones Answer: C Topic: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 22) Which plants do not have roots?

A) Bryophytes B) Ferns C) Angiosperms D) Gymnosperms Answer: A Topic: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 23) What do gymnosperms and angiosperms have in common?

A) Flowers B) Seeds C) Spores D) None of these Answer: B Topic: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G2

6 .

24) What do charophytes and bryophytes have in common?

A) Roots B) Lignin C) Live on land D) None of these Answer: D Topic: 9.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G2 25) Why must mosses and ferns live in moist environments?

A) They lack a waxy outer layer.

B) Their gametes are flagellated C) They don't have any roots to absorb moisture from.

D) They are pollinated by fish and aquatic insects.

Answer: B Topic: 9.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G2 26) Which of the following is a unique characteristic of bryophyte not seen in the other plant groups?

A) They exhibit alternation of generations.

B) They produce flowers.

C) The gametophyte is larger than the sporophyte.

D) They produce diploid spores.

Answer: C Topic: 9.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 27) What does a gametophyte produce?

A) Haploid gametes B) Diploid gametes C) Haploid spores D) Diploid spores Answer: A Topic: 9.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6

7 .

28) While mosses can cover a significant area of land, they are never more than a few centimeters tall. Why do they not grow tall?

A) They have no vascular system so they cannot transport water over long distances.

B) They are annuals and simply don't live long enough to get very tall.

C) They don't get enough sunlight to grow tall.

D) Herbivores constantly eat them to the ground.

Answer: A Topic: 9.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G2 29) The xylem is made from ________.

A) elongated living cells B) dead, hollow cells C) tubular living cells D) intercellular spaces between cells Answer: B Topic: 9.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 30) What is a tuber?

A) A reproductive structure on a plant B) A drought-resistant life stage of a plant C) A sugar storage structure of a plant D) A water storage structure of a plant Answer: C Topic: 9.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 31) Sugars can travel all throughout a plant. How do they "know" where to go?

A) Phloem transport proteins carry the sugar molecules and bind to sugar receptors on cells where they are needed.

B) Like diffusion down a concentration gradient, sugar flows from source to sink.

C) Sugar flows by gravity from the leaves to the roots.

D) Sugar adheres to water molecules and is pulled up by transpiration.

Answer: D Topic: 9.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G7

8 .

32) The sugar in the sap of plants is primarily ________.

A) fructose B) glucose C) sucrose D) maltose Answer: C Topic: 9.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 33) The flattened photosynthetic portion of a fern is the ________.

A) leaf B) frond C) fan D) leaflet Answer: B Topic: 9.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 34) Ferns often have small bumps called sori arranged in rows on their undersides. What are these structures?

A) Spore capsules B) Seed capsules C) Nodules containing symbiotic bacteria D) Parasites Answer: A Topic: 9.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6 35) Fern sperm are ________.

A) amoeboid B) ciliated C) flagellated D) None of these Answer: C Topic: 9.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6

9 .

36) What role does lignin play in adapting to life on land? A) Prevents drying out B) Strengthens the cell wall C) Anchors the plant in the soil D) Transports nutrients throughout the plant Answer: B Topic: 9.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Learning: G2 37) Not all plants have seeds. What advantage do seeds provide a plant?

A) Plants are no longer required to go through an alternation of generations.

B) Plants are no longer required to produce gametes.

C) Plants are no longer required to produce cones.

D) Plants are no longer restricted to moist environments.

Answer: D Topic: 9.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Learning: G2 38) Which is not a characteristic of the gymnosperms?

A) Cones B) Seeds C) Pollen D) Flowers Answer: D Topic: 9.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6 39) Why do pine trees have two different types of cones?

A) One type produces the gametophyte, the other type produces the sporophyte.

B) One type produces ovules, the other type produces pollen.

C) One type is produced in the fall, the other type is produced in the spring.

D) One type produces seeds, the other type produces fruit.

Answer: B Topic: 9.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Learning: G2

10 .

40) Which statement related to gymnosperm reproduction is true?

A) Spores produce pollen grains which contain sperm.

B) Two sperm are required to fertilize the ovule.

C) Many rely upon insects for pollination.

D) It is so inefficient that gymnosperms do not grow very tall or live for very long.

Answer: A Topic: 9.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Learning: G2 41) Which plant group is the largest with the most number of living species?

A) Seedless vascular plants B) Cone-bearing plants C) Flowering plants D) Seedless, nonvascular plants Answer: C Topic: 9.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 42) What do grasses, rose bushes, and cactus all have in common?

A) They are all wind pollinators.

B) They all have flowers.

C) They all have cones.

D) They all have thorns.

Answer: B Topic: 9.11 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G2 43) What is the role of the fleshy part of a ripe apple?

A) To protect the seeds from being eaten B) To provide nourishment to the seeds C) To entice an animal to take the fruit and disperse the seeds D) To attract a pollinator Answer: C Topic: 9.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G2

11 .

44) Which plant typically has parallel leaf veins and a fibrous root system?

A) Monocot B) Dicot C) Conifer D) Legume Answer: A Topic: 9.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.5 45) The male part of the flower is the ________.

A) petal B) stamen C) carpel D) sepal Answer: B Topic: 9.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6 46) The pollen tube grows from the ________ to the ________, where it eventually fertilizes the egg.

A) anther; style B) sepal; filament C) stigma; ovule D) petal; ovary Answer: C Topic: 9.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6 47) If you were to observe a flower that only bloomed at night with large white petals, what might you conclude is the pollinator?

A) Ants B) Wind C) Bees D) Moths Answer: D Topic: 9.12 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Learning: G7

12 .

48) If you were to observe a flower that lacked petals, fragrance, or nectar, what might you conclude is the pollinator?

A) Ants B) Wind C) Bees D) Moths Answer: B Topic: 9.12 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Learning: G7 49) What is a fruit?

A) A plant embryo B) The protective endosperm C) A swollen plant zygote D) A mature ovary Answer: D Topic: 9.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6 50) What do the seeds of a flowering plant have that is completely lacking in the seeds of a conebearing plant?

A) A food supply B) A protective seed coat C) Both of these are present in the seeds of flowering plants and cone-bearing plants.

D) Both of these are present in the seeds of flowering plants, but neither is present in the conebearing seed.

Answer: C Topic: 9.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.6 Global Learning: G2 51) Assuming it doesn't die unexpectedly, how often would you need to replant an annual?

A) Every season B) Every year C) Every two years D) Never Answer: B Topic: 9.13 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.7

13 .

52) In which region of the plant are you most likely to find cells dividing by mitosis?

A) Meristem region B) Growth rings C) Heartwood D) Sapwood Answer: A Topic: 9.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.7 53) What causes the annual growth rings of trees?

A) Damage caused by fungi that occurs during the wetter months B) Residual bark left over when the trunk of the tree expands C) Different growth rates at different times of the year D) Sugars left over from the previous summer Answer: C Topic: 9.13 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 9.7 Short-Answer Questions 54) Besides edible and poisonous mushrooms, describe two fungi that are beneficial to humans and two fungi that are harmful to humans.

Answer: Possible Answers: Yeast is a beneficial fungus used to make bread; Penicillium is a beneficial fungus that gave us the antibiotic penicillin. Some fungi are parasitic on humans (yeast infections, ringworm, athlete's foot), and molds can destroy food.

Topic: 9.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.1 Global Learning: G5 55) Name four ways roots benefit a plant.

Answer: Possible Answers: 1) Anchor the plant, 2) absorb water from the soil, 3) absorb nutrients from the soil, 4) storage of sugars produced in the leaves, 5) asexual reproduction.

Topic: 9.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 9.3

14 .

56) Imagine you were driving westward on a road in a wooded area. If ferns were growing in the area, which side of the road would they most likely be growing and why wouldn't they be growing as well on the other side?

Answer: Possible Answers: If the road runs east to west, the north side of the road would probably get more sunlight than the more shaded south side. Ferns need a moist environment and the north side would be drier than the south side. Therefore, the south side (to my left as I'm driving) would be more likely to have ferns growing along it than the north side.

Topic: 9.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 9.5 Global Learning: G7 57) The book mentions that maple syrup comes from the xylem sap of a tree. While this is true, why do you think most people assume it comes from the phloem sap?

Answer: Possible Answer: The phloem mainly carries the sugars and the xylem mainly carries the water, so one might think maple syrup would come from the more sugary phloem sap. Xylem sap has some sugar in it, just not much, which is why it has to be boiled down 50:1 to concentrate the sugars.

Topic: 9.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 9.4 Global Learning: G2 58) Explain how the diversification of mammals may have been greatly aided by the diversification of the angiosperms and vice versa.

Answer: Possible Answer: Angiosperms, much more so than gymnosperms, make a lot of food for mammals (fruits, nuts, seeds, berries, nectar, flowers and soft leaves). As a primary food source, when the angiosperms evolved and diversified, so too could the mammals. Mammals also play a large role in seed dispersal and pollination, which may have assisted in the diversification of the angiosperms.

Topic: 9.12 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 9.3 Global Learning: G7

15 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 10 Biodiversity 3: Animals Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which one of the following is a defining characteristic of animals but not of plants? A) Autotrophic B) Heterotrophic C) Eukaryotic D) Prokaryotic Answer: B Topic: 10.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Learning: G2 2) What happened during the Cambrian explosion? A) Many large volcanoes erupted. B) There was a large asteroid impact. C) There was a rapid diversification of animal forms. D) Animals first evolved from single-celled organisms. Answer: C Topic: 10.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Learning: G7 3) Most animals fall into one of how many phyla? A) 100 B) 35 C) 9 D) 5 Answer: C Topic: 10.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.1 4) How many of the animal phyla include single-celled animals?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: A Topic: 10.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.1

1 .

5) What defines radial symmetry?

A) Any plane of symmetry passing through the center of the organism splits it into equal halves.

B) Only five planes of symmetry passing through the center of the organism splits it into equal halves.

C) Only one plane of symmetry splits the organism into equal halves.

D) No planes of symmetry exist; the organism cannot be split into equal halves.

Answer: A Topic: 10.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.1 6) What do sponges and cnidarians have in common?

A) Organization of cells into tissues B) Mobility C) Symmetry D) None of these Answer: D Topic: 10.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Learning: G2 7) How do sponges acquire their nourishment?

A) They catch it with tentacles.

B) They filter it from the seawater.

C) They acquire it through photosynthesis.

D) They synthesize it from chemicals in the water.

Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 8) Sponges are found ________.

A) only in seawater B) mostly in seawater C) only in fresh water D) mostly in fresh water Answer: B Topic: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2

2 .

9) Which body form of the cnidarians is sessile?

A) Jelly B) Fish C) Medusa D) Polyp Answer: D Topic: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 10) Cnidarians are named for their cnidocytes, a feature unique to the group. What are cnidocytes?

A) Stinging cells B) Tentacles C) Bells D) Nerve fibers Answer: A Topic: 10.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 11) Many, though not all, mollusks have a shell. What secretes the shell?

A) The foot B) The mantle C) The radula D) The visceral mass Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 12) Gastropods include the ________.

A) clams and oysters B) snails and slugs C) squid and octopi D) scallops and nautiluses Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2

3 .

13) The echinoderms are most closely related to the ________. A) chordates B) flatworms C) mollusks D) arthropods Answer: A Topic: 10.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2 14) What acts as both a circulatory system for gas exchange and a hydraulic system for movement in the echinoderms?

A) Endoskeleton B) Water vascular system C) Hydrostatic skeleton D) Visceral mass Answer: B Topic: 10.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 15) The radial symmetry of adult echinoderms could best be described as ________.

A) biradial B) triradial C) quadriradial D) pentaradial Answer: D Topic: 10.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Learning: G2 16) Flatworms are most closely related to the ________.

A) cnidarians B) annelids C) echinoderms D) arthropods Answer: B Topic: 10.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2

4 .

17) Which worm has no body cavity?

A) Flatworms B) Annelids C) Roundworms D) All of these Answer: A Topic: 10.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 18) Serial repetition of segments is a defining characteristic of which worm phylum?

A) Flatworms B) Annelids C) Roundworms D) Segmentation is not a defining characteristic of any of the worm phyla.

Answer: B Topic: 10.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 19) Which phylum of worms includes the leeches?

A) Flatworms B) Annelids C) Roundworms D) None of these Answer: B Topic: 10.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 20) Some organisms are described as having a ________ digestive tract that includes a mouth at one end and an anus at the other.

A) comprehensive B) segmented C) systemic D) complete Answer: D Topic: 10.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2

5 .

21) Which arthropod subgroup includes the spiders?

A) Arachnids B) Crustaceans C) Insects D) None of these Answer: A Topic: 10.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 22) Which arthropod subgroup includes the centipedes?

A) Arachnids B) Crustaceans C) Insects D) None of these Answer: D Topic: 10.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 23) Which arthropod subgroup includes those with six legs?

A) Arachnids B) Crustaceans C) Insects D) All of these Answer: C Topic: 10.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 24) Which arthropod subgroup includes those with an exoskeleton of chitin?

A) Arachnids B) Crustaceans C) Insects D) All of these Answer: D Topic: 10.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2

6 .

25) Which group of animals is most closely related to the arthropods?

A) Mollusks B) Echinoderms C) Roundworms D) Annelids Answer: C Topic: 10.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2 26) Which of the following unique characteristics is found in many chordates, but not all, at some point in their development?

A) Backbone B) Dorsal nerve chord C) Post anal tail D) Pharyngeal slits Answer: A Topic: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.3 27) All vertebrates have ________.

A) hair B) a skull C) four limbs D) scales Answer: B Topic: 10.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 28) Which chordate trait evolved first?

A) Skeleton hardened with calcium B) Amniotic egg C) Four limbs D) Jaw Answer: D Topic: 10.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3

7 .

29) Which is most closely related to the hagfish?

A) Shark B) Eel C) Lamprey D) Lancelet Answer: C Topic: 10.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2 30) Why can't amphibians survive far from water?

A) Their limbs are too weak to support their weight on land.

B) They do not have any lungs and cannot breathe out of the water.

C) Their eggs do not have an amnion which prevents them from drying out.

D) Their cartilaginous endoskeleton would dry out on land.

Answer: C Topic: 10.6 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2 31) How do bony fish regulate buoyancy?

A) With an air-filled swim bladder B) With a large, oil-filled liver C) By constantly swimming at an upwards angle D) Through the calcium in the bones, which makes the skeleton lighter than the water Answer: A Topic: 10.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 32) What do sharks have in common with goldfish?

A) Opercula B) A lateral line system C) Electrosensors D) A cartilaginous skeleton Answer: B Topic: 10.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2

8 .

33) What is the function of a fish's operculum?

A) Detects biofields in the immediate vicinity B) Detects movements in the surrounding water C) Protects the gills D) Provides buoyancy Answer: C Topic: 10.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 34) Which group of fishes gave rise to the amphibians?

A) Ray-finned fishes B) Lobe-finned fishes C) Cartilaginous fishes D) Jawless fishes Answer: B Topic: 10.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G7 35) Which group of fishes evolved first?

A) Ray-finned fishes B) Lobe-finned fishes C) Cartilaginous fishes D) Jawless fishes Answer: D Topic: 10.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.3 36) There are several limbless amphibians and reptiles. Did these limbless creatures evolve from a common limbless ancestor?

A) Yes, but it occurred before the development of limbs in the terrestrial tetrapods.

B) Yes, but it occurred after the development of limbs in the terrestrial tetrapods.

C) No, the trait arose independently in several lineages before the development of limbs in the terrestrial tetrapods.

D) No, the trait arose independently in several lineages after the development of limbs in the terrestrial tetrapods.

Answer: D Topic: 10.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2

9 .

37) What does the expression "terrestrial tetrapod" mean? A) Lives on land, four limbs B) Lives on land, four sets of chromosomes C) Lives on land, four cranial nerves D) Lives in the water, four limbs (including flippers or fins) Answer: A Topic: 10.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 38) Although exceptions do exist, which is a distinctively amphibian trait?

A) Juveniles have gills, adults have lungs.

B) Respiration occurs through the skin.

C) Skin is smooth with no scales, feathers, or hair.

D) All of these are distinctive amphibian traits.

Answer: D Topic: 10.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Learning: G2 39) Which reptiles are endothermic?

A) Crocodilians B) Turtles C) Snakes D) Birds Answer: D Topic: 10.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 40) Which is not a reptile?

A) Iguana B) Bird C) Salamander D) All are reptiles.

Answer: C Topic: 10.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.3

10 .

41) What do snake scales, dog fur, and eagle feathers all have in common?

A) All grow for the life of the organism without being shed.

B) All are made of keratin.

C) All are related to fish scales (they share a most recent common ancestor that had fish scales).

D) They do not have anything in common other than they grow out of the skin.

Answer: B Topic: 10.9 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G7 42) All mammals ________.

A) give birth to live young B) are nocturnal C) have mammary glands D) are ectothermic Answer: C Topic: 10.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 43) Which subgroup of mammals raises their young in pouches?

A) Marsupials B) Monotremes C) Eutherians D) Cetaceans Answer: A Topic: 10.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 44) Humans belong to which subgroup of mammals?

A) Marsupials B) Monotremes C) Eutherians D) Cetaceans Answer: C Topic: 10.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.4

11 .

45) What is the role of the placenta?

A) Provides a physical association between mother and developing fetus B) Is used as a food source by the developing fetus C) Protects the developing fetus from injury D) To nourish the developing child after it is born Answer: A Topic: 10.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.2 46) Which is not a primate?

A) Lemurs B) Apes C) Monkeys D) All are primates.

Answer: D Topic: 10.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.4 47) What do the nonanthropoid primates have in common?

A) Live in trees B) Grasping tails C) Nocturnal D) All are traits common to the nonanthropoid primates.

Answer: A Topic: 10.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Learning: G2 48) What is the difference between an Old World monkey and a New World monkey?

A) New World monkeys have prehensile tails; Old World monkeys do not.

B) Old World monkeys live in trees; New World monkeys live on the ground.

C) New World monkeys live in large social groups; Old World monkeys are solitary or live in small groups.

D) Old World monkeys have opposable thumbs; New World monkeys do not.

Answer: A Topic: 10.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.4

12 .

49) To which group do orangutans belong?

A) Old World monkeys B) New World monkeys C) Anthropoid apes D) Nonanthropoid apes Answer: C Topic: 10.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.4 50) Which of the following is human's closest living relative?

A) Gibbons B) Gorillas C) Chimpanzees D) Baboons Answer: C Topic: 10.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 10.4 Imagine you were able to travel back in time to any place you wanted to witness the evolution of humans. Answer the following questions related to your journeys.

51) If you were to travel back in time and met a living hominin, which clues might tell you that your new friend was in the genus Australopithecus and not Homo?

A) The hominin was bipedal.

B) You were in Africa.

C) The hominin had a relatively large brain.

D) You had traveled 3 million years into the past.

Answer: D Topic: 10.11 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Learning: G2 52) At any point in your time travels, did you see two or more hominin species alive at the same time and in the same places?

A) Yes, quite often.

B) Yes and no. While some lived at the same time, they lived on separate continents.

C) Yes, but only for a generation or two as one was replaced by its descendants.

D) No, there was no overlap in time or place.

Answer: A Topic: 10.11 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Learning: G2

13 .

53) On which continent would you have seen the very earliest members of Homo sapiens?

A) Europe B) Asia C) Africa D) Australia Answer: C Topic: 10.11 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Learning: G2 Short-Answer Questions 54) Which evolved first, plants or animals? What evidence exists for your answer? Explain your reasoning as to why one would have evolved 100 million years prior to the other.

Answer: Possible Answer: Fossil and DNA evidence supports the hypothesis that animals evolved around 600 million years ago and that plants evolved 500 million years ago. Despite the increased complexity of an animal over a plant, the animals had a head start because they evolved in the water and plants evolved on land.

Topic: 10.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 10.1 Global Learning: G7 55) Parasites have often been described incorrectly as having "devolved" from a more highly evolved organism. Why would it be more accurate to say that they are just as evolved as any other organism?

Answer: Possible Answer: Evolution does not have an end goal. Every organism has evolved to perfectly fit their particular environment. A person could not live in another organism's intestine or liver, but a parasite can. To say that one organism is more or less evolved, or has somehow evolved backwards, is a subjective statement based one's perspective of value.

Topic: 10.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 10.3 Global Learning: G2 56) In terms of food collection, what is an advantage of radial and bilateral symmetry? Include examples of both forms of symmetry in your answer.

Answer: Possible Answer: The radial symmetry of cnidarians and echinoderms allows them to move equally well in all directions to respond to stimuli and to feed or capture prey. The bilateral symmetry of arthropods, annelids, and chordates (to name a few) allows them to specialize food capture and movement in one direction.

Topic: 10.2, 10.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Learning: G2

14 .

57) What is an advantage of the serial repetition of internal and external features common in some animals?

Answer: Possible Answer: The redundancy allows for backup if one system or body part fails. It can also allow for more precisely controlled movements if each segment can be moved independently or in coordination with the others.

Topic: 10.4, 10.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 10.2 Global Learning: G2 58) How might an early primate's environment lead to the evolution of a large brain in relation to body size?

Answer: Possible Answer: Early primates lived in trees and to live in a tree, you need excellent hand-eye coordination, agility, and balance. These traits require increased brain power to function optimally.

Topic: 10.10 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 10.4 Global Learning: G7

15 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 11 Human Body Systems Multiple-Choice Questions 1) ________ refers to how a body system functions.

A) Anatomy B) Biology C) Zoology D) Physiology Answer: D Topic: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.1 2) Organs are made up of a collection of ________.

A) different types of cells B) different types of tissues C) the same type of cells D) the same type of tissues Answer: B Topic: 11.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.2 3) Connective tissue is the most variable of the tissue types. Which one of the following is categorized as connective tissue?

A) Bone B) Blood not C) Fat D) Skin Answer: D Topic: 11.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.2 4) What is the role of the epithelium?

A) Covers exposed body surfaces B) Transmits electrical signals throughout the body C) Contracts to create body movement D) Provides the padding between the joints Answer: A Topic: 11.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.2

1 .

5) Response to a stimulus, such that the effect of the stimulus is counteracted, is called ________ feedback.

A) positive B) simple C) holistic D) negative Answer: D Topic: 11.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.3 Global Learning: G2 6) Maintaining a steady state internal environment, despite a changing external environment, is called ________.

A) heterostasis B) biofeedback C) homeostasis D) bioregulation Answer: C Topic: 11.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.3 7) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Mechanical digestion only occurs in the mouth; chemical digestion only occurs in the stomach.

B) Mechanical and chemical digestion both occur in the mouth and in the stomach.

C) Mechanical digestion only occurs in the stomach; chemical digestion only occurs in the mouth.

D) Mechanical and chemical digestion occur in the mouth; chemical digestion, but not mechanical digestion, occurs in the stomach.

Answer: B Topic: 11.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Learning: G2 8) What is the role of the villi?

A) To absorb small nutrient molecules from the digestive tract B) To move food along the digestive tract C) To secrete digestive enzymes into the digestive tract D) To secrete water into the digestive tract Answer: A Topic: 11.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.4

2 .

9) Most of the absorption of nutrients (besides water) takes place in the ________.

A) esophagus B) small intestine C) stomach D) large intestine Answer: B Topic: 11.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.4 10) Which accessory organ's secretions neutralize stomach acid before it reaches the intestines?

A) Salivary glands B) Gallbladder C) Liver D) Pancreas Answer: D Topic: 11.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Learning: G2 11) What moves the food from your mouth to your stomach when you swallow?

A) Gravity B) Peristaltic muscle contractions C) Undulatory muscle contractions D) Pressure difference between zones Answer: B Topic: 11.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.4 Global Learning: G2 12) An essential nutrient is specifically a nutrient that your body ________.

A) needs to grow B) needs to function C) cannot make by itself D) cannot store Answer: C Topic: 11.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.5

3 .

13) Scurvy is caused by a lack of which nutrient? A) Calcium B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin C D) Omega-3 fatty acid Answer: C Topic: 11.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.5 14) Examine the calculating BMI chart. What is the most a person 5'6" tall could weigh and still be in the normal range (not overweight)?

A) 120 pounds B) 150 pounds C) 180 pounds D) 240 pounds Answer: B Topic: 11.7 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Learning: G3

4 .

15) What causes a stomach ulcer?

A) Lack of a key nutrient B) Consuming too many calories C) Chronic consumption of spicy food D) A bacterial infection Answer: D Topic: 11.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.5 16) The term interface can be used to describe the surface across which molecules and ions are exchanged, often diffusing between external and internal environments or between organ systems. What part of the respiratory system forms the interface between the respiratory system and the circulatory system?

A) Alveoli B) Trachea C) Pharynx D) Bronchioles Answer: A Topic: 11.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.6 Global Learning: G7 17) What is the role of the epiglottis?

A) Produces vocal sounds B) Filters dust and other impurities from entering the respiratory system C) Prevents food from entering the windpipe D) Produces the positive or negative pressures that force air into or out of the lungs Answer: C Topic: 11.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.6 18) The pulmonary circuit specifically circulates blood to the ________.

A) lungs B) liver C) brain D) heart Answer: A Topic: 11.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.7

5 .

19) Which is not a function of the circulatory system? A) To transport nutrients to the cells and to remove wastes from the cells B) To distribute heat throughout the body C) To produce and store all of the immune system cells D) To carry chemical signals, such as hormones, throughout the body Answer: C Topic: 11.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.8 20) Which are the thinnest blood vessels?

A) Bronchioles B) Capillaries C) Arterioles D) Venules Answer: B Topic: 11.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.7 21) Choose the defining characteristic of all arteries.

A) They only carry blood back to the heart.

B) They only carry blood away from the heart.

C) They only carry deoxygenated blood.

D) They only carry oxygenated blood.

Answer: B Topic: 11.10 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Learning: G2 22) Select the correct sequence for the pathway of blood through the heart.

A) Body → Left Atrium → Left Ventricle → Lungs → Right Atrium → Right Ventricle → Body B) Body → Left Ventricle → Left Atrium → Lungs → Right Ventricle → Right Atrium → Body C) Body → Right Ventricle → Right Atrium → Lungs → Left Ventricle → Left Atrium → Body D) Body → Right Atrium → Right Ventricle → Lungs → Left Atrium → Left Ventricle → Body Answer: D Topic: 11.10 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.7

6 .

23) Identify which blood vessel drains blood from the head and shoulder region back to the heart. A) Superior vena cava B) Inferior vena cava C) Superior aorta D) Inferior aorta Answer: A Topic: 11.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.7 24) What is the primary function of the sinoatrial node?

A) Initiates the contraction of the heart B) Increases or decreases blood pressure C) Opens and closes the heart valves D) Supplies the heart muscle with oxygen Answer: A Topic: 11.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.7 25) Select the feature which is not directly involved in the clotting process.

A) Platelets B) Hemoglobin C) Fibrin D) All of these are involved in the clotting process.

Answer: B Topic: 11.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.8 26) Which of the following blood cells fights infections?

A) Erythrocytes B) Thrombocytes C) Leukocytes D) Hemocytes Answer: C Topic: 11.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.8

7 .

27) How is it that red blood cells can bind oxygen in the lungs but then offload it near body cells that need it?

A) Oxygen diffuses into or out of the blood following its concentration gradient.

B) A conformational change caused by high pH causes the oxygen to detach near the cells that need it.

C) A conformational change caused by low pH causes the oxygen to detach near the cells that need it.

D) Oxygen is displaced by carbon dioxide in the body.

Answer: A Topic: 11.11 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.8 Global Learning: G7 28) What is the name of the response to an injury in which fluids leak from dilated blood vessels causing redness and swelling?

A) Innate response B) Inflammatory response C) Compliment response D) Lymphatic response Answer: B Topic: 11.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.8 29) Which type of white blood cells produces defensive proteins called antibodies?

A) Phagocytic cells B) T cells C) Natural killer cells D) B cells Answer: D Topic: 11.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.9 30) Identify the primary role of the lymphatic system.

A) Distribution of hormones to the body B) Delivery of oxygen to the deep muscle cells C) Produce and store large numbers of white blood cells D) Filter out cellular wastes from the blood Answer: C Topic: 11.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.9

8 .

31) How is an adaptive defense initially primed?

A) Upon exposure to a foreign antigen B) Complement proteins identify a cell as foreign C) Antibodies bind to surface markers of a foreign cell D) By way of the clonal selection of effector cells Answer: A Topic: 11.13 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.10 32) Which medication prevents viral infections by priming the immune system against a specific virus?

A) Vaccine B) Antibiotic C) Diuretic D) Anti-inflammatory Answer: A Topic: 11.13 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.10 33) What is the condition called when your body's immune system overreacts to an otherwise harmless foreign particle?

A) Arthritis B) Allergy C) Diabetes D) SCID Answer: B Topic: 11.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.10 34) What type of disorder is AIDS? A) Autoimmune disease B) Allergic reaction C) Immune rejection D) Immunodeficiency Answer: D Topic: 11.14 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.10

9 .

35) There are many organs and glands of the endocrine system, but which one is the master controller?

A) Pituitary B) Thyroid C) Hypothalamus D) Pancreas Answer: C Topic: 11.15 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.11 36) To which region of a cell does a fat soluble hormone bind to its receptor?

A) On the exterior surface of a cell's plasma membrane B) On the interior surface of a cell's plasma membrane C) In the cell's cytoplasm or the nucleus D) Fat soluble hormones do not have receptors.

Answer: C Topic: 11.15 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.11 Global Learning: G7 37) Which form of diabetes would require regular injections of insulin?

A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Type 3 D) Type 4 Answer: A Topic: 11.15 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.11 38) What is the name of the tubes that run from the kidneys to the bladder?

A) Fallopian tubes B) Urethras C) Nephrons D) Ureters Answer: D Topic: 11.16 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.12

10 .

39) What is the purpose of dialysis treatments?

A) To constrict blood vessels to prevent death from anaphylactic shock B) To detoxify dangerous chemicals in the bloodstream C) To remove waste products from the bloodstream D) To keep the airways open so one can breathe Answer: B Topic: 11.16 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.12 40) From production through ejaculation, which is the correct pathway for a sperm cell?

A) Testis → Epididymis → Vas Deferens → Seminal Vesicles → Prostate Gland → Penis B) Testis → Prostate Gland → Seminal Vesicles → Epididymis → Vas Deferens → Penis C) Testis → Vas Deferens → Epididymis → Prostate Gland → Seminal Vesicles → Penis D) Testis → Epididymis → Seminal Vesicles → Vas Deferens → Prostate Gland → Penis Answer: A Topic: 11.17 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global Learning: G2 41) The release of an egg from an ovary is called ________.

A) oogenesis B) gametogenesis C) ovulation D) menstruation Answer: C Topic: 11.17 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.13 42) Where does the fertilization of the egg occur?

A) Ovary B) Oviduct C) Uterus D) Cervix Answer: B Topic: 11.18 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.14

11 .

43) When is an unborn child called a fetus?

A) From the 9th week of pregnancy to birth B) From cleavage to the 9th week of pregnancy C) From conception through birth D) From cleavage to birth Answer: A Topic: 11.18 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.14 44) Which of the following forms of contraception is removable?

A) A tubal ligation B) A vasectomy C) An intrauterine device D) None of these Answer: C Topic: 11.19 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.14 Global Learning: G2 45) Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted disease caused by a ________.

A) virus B) bacteria C) fungus D) protist Answer: A Topic: 11.19 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.14 46) The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system.

A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) central Answer: D Topic: 11.20 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.15

12 .

47) Which part of the brain produces our most distinctly human traits, such as reasoning and imagination? A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Corpus callosum D) Cerebral cortex Answer: D Topic: 11.20 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.16 48) What would happen if the sensory neurons in your hand could not transmit a signal?

A) You could feel something touch your fingers but you could not move them.

B) You could move your fingers but you could not feel something touch them.

C) You could not move your fingers or feel something touching them.

D) You could still feel something touching your fingers and still be able to move them.

Answer: B Topic: 11.21 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.15 Global Learning: G2 49) What carries a signal from one neuron to the next?

A) Neurotransmitter B) Myelin C) Synapse D) Dendrite Answer: A Topic: 11.21 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.15 50) Sound is "heard" when sound waves cause structures inside your ears to physically vibrate. A signal the earis then sent to your brain where it is interpreted as sound. What type of receptors in are responsible for the sense of hearing?

A) Chemoreceptors B) Electromagnetic receptors C) Mechanoreceptors D) Thermoreceptors Answer: C Topic: 11.22 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.17 Global Learning: G2

13 .

51) Which receptors in the eye are sensitive to color? A) Sclera B) Rods C) Cornea D) Cones Answer: D Topic: 11.22 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.16, 11.17 52) Which of the following statements about bones is false?

A) Bones are dry and dead, made up of calcium and connective fibers with a few blood vessels running through them.

B) Bones are living organs with multiple tissue types and multiple cell types.

C) Blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.

D) Arthritis occurs when the cartilage between bones wears down.

Answer: A Topic: 11.23 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.18 Global Learning: G2 53) Your thigh bone, the largest bone in your body, is called the ________.

A) tibia B) femur C) fibula D) pelvis Answer: B Topic: 11.23 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.18 54) Which is not a major protein found in muscles?

A) Actin B) Myosin C) Keratin D) All are major proteins found in muscles.

Answer: C Topic: 11.24 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 11.19

14 .

55) How do the muscles in your arm extend your arm outward?

A) The muscles in your arm push on the bones causing your arm to extend.

B) The muscles in your arm relax and the tendons pull the arm straight.

C) Some muscles in your arm relax and others contract, pulling the arm straight.

D) The top half of your bicep wraps around underneath the elbow like a rope over a pulley.

When it contracts, the arm is pulled out straight.

Answer: C Topic: 11.24 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 11.19 Global Learning: G2 Short-Answer Questions 56) Describe the two separate metabolic needs that are met when a full-grown person eats a balanced diet.

Answer: Possible Answer: To meet caloric and nutritional needs. Although you are no longer growing, you still need to repair and replace damaged cells. Nutrients are also used in all of the chemical reactions that make life possible. You also still need the energy, which you get from the calories in food.

Topic: 11.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.5 Global Learning: G2 57) Of the four chambers of the human heart, which has the thickest walls and why?

Answer: Possible Answer: Left ventricle. The walls are made of muscle and the left ventricle has to pump the blood to the entire body, the furthest of all the chambers.

Topic: 11.10 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.7 Global Learning: G2 58) Why can you not catch the same cold twice but a new cold will make you sick for a week or two?

Answer: Possible Answer: Your body stores memory cells that can remember the antigens of a cold virus it has fought before. It will then mount an aggressive defense against that specific invader very quickly. If the immune system has not been exposed to a strain of the virus with different antigens, it will have to start from scratch. This may take several days.

Topic: 11.13 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.10 Global Learning: G5

15 .

59) Describe the role of the two antagonistic hormones involved in the feedback loop that maintains the level of glucose in the blood. Which organs are involved and what type of feedback is this?

Answer: Possible Answer: When blood glucose levels are low, the pancreas releases glucagon.

This causes the liver to release glucose into the blood. When blood glucose levels are high, the pancreas releases insulin. This lowers the blood glucose level. This is a negative feedback loop because one counteracts the effects of the other.

Topic: 11.15 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.11 Global Learning: G2 60) What is the key step in spermatogenesis that allows for unlimited sperm production? This step is not present in oogenesis and therefore only a finite number of eggs could be produced.

Answer: Possible Answer: The diploid germ-line cells (pre-sperm cells) of the testes divide initially by mitosis producing two daughter cells. Only one becomes the primary spermatocyte and enters meiosis, the other daughter cell is retained as a germ-line cell. Therefore, the testes could never run out of germ-line cells. That preliminary mitotic division is missing in oogenesis resulting in a finite number of eggs, although it is still more than a person would ever need in her lifetime.

Topic: 11.17 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.13 Global Learning: G2 61) Describe what would happen if all of your skeletal muscles contracted at the same time.

Answer: Possible Answer: Paralysis would result if they were to all contract simultaneously because muscles work in antagonistic pairs.

Topic: 11.24 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 11.19 Global Learning: G2

16 .

Biology: The Core (Simon) Chapter 12 Ecology Multiple-Choice Questions 1) "Ecology" is best defined as the study of ________.

A) the relationships between parasites and their hosts B) the interactions between living organisms and their environments C) plant succession D) interactions between predator and prey populations Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.1 2) Counting the number of turtle nests along a beach to determine if a recent oil spill had affected the local population is an example of ________ science.

A) discovery B) comparative C) pure D) hypothesis-driven Answer: D Topic: 12.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Learning: G7 3) Environmentalism is ________.

A) the study of ecosystems B) a philosophical and social movement concerned with preserving the environment C) a collection of citizens and scientists working together to support research and preserve biodiversity D) the study of how energy flows through an ecosystem Answer: B Topic: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.1 4) An ecosystem is a collection of all the ________ in a given area.

A) abiotic factors B) plants and animals C) plants and climate D) living and nonliving things Answer: D Topic: 12.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.1

1 .

5) Which of the following is not an example of an abiotic factor? A) Temperature B) Energy C) Bacteria D) Nutrients Answer: C Topic: 12.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.2 6) A wolf eats a rabbit that eats grass. The wolf is a ________. A) primary consumer B) detritivore C) producer D) secondary consumer Answer: D Topic: 12.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Learning: G2 7) Imagine you were the manager of a national park with cheetahs. The cheetahs feed primarily on gazelles while the gazelles eat grass. It takes an acre of grassland to feed one gazelle and it takes ten gazelles to feed one cheetah. You have a maximum of ten cheetahs when the system is functioning optimally. You would like to increase the cheetah population because people pay money to see the cheetahs. How much more grassland do you need in order to double the cheetah population? A) 200 acres B) 10 acres C) 500 acres D) 100 acres Answer: D Topic: 12.3 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Learning: G4 8) Phytoplankton is an example of a(n) ________. A) producer B) consumer C) herbivore D) decomposer Answer: A Topic: 12.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.2

2 .

9) Where is the majority of Earth's biomass produced?

A) Coastlines, bays, and estuaries B) Deep oceans C) Tropical rainforests D) Temperate forests Answer: B Topic: 12.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.2 10) All ecosystems need energy. What is the originating source for most of the energy that powers ecosystems on this planet?

A) Geothermal energy B) Wind energy C) Solar energy D) Potential energy Answer: C Topic: 12.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.2 11) All living things need carbon. How does carbon enter the living portion of an ecosystem?

A) Atmospheric CO2 taken in by photosynthesis B) Atmospheric CO2 taken in by soil bacteria C) Elemental carbon taken in by plant roots D) Elemental carbon taken in by plant leaves Answer: A Topic: 12.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.3 12) All living things need nitrogen. How does nitrogen enter the living portion of an ecosystem?

A) Atmospheric N2 taken in by photosynthesis B) Atmospheric N2 taken in by soil bacteria C) Elemental nitrogen taken in by plant roots D) Elemental nitrogen taken in by plant leaves Answer: B Topic: 12.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.3

3 .

13) The processes of chemical cycling would be studied mainly by ________.

A) an environmentalist B) a community ecologist C) a population ecologist D) an ecosystem ecologist Answer: D Topic: 12.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Learning: G2 If you were to put some water in a bucket and left it in your backyard, the water level would rise and fall over time with the weather. The data here represents data collected from a bucket that was initially filled to the halfway mark with water. The water depth was measured on the first of the month for two years. Although the water never completely dried up, it also never overflowed during this time. Answer the next three questions based on the data.

Month Water Level (cm) Month Water Level (cm) 1 30 13 38 2 24 14 39 3 20 15 37 4 24 16 48 5 26 17 48 6 29 18 49 7 35 19 55 8 28 20 45 9 31 21 47 10 34 22 50 11 38 23 55 12 37 24 51 14) Which statement explains the general upwards trend of the data over the two-year time period?

A) Evaporation exceeded transpiration B) Transpiration exceeded precipitation C) Precipitation exceeded evaporation D) None of these statements explains the upward trend.

Answer: C Topic: 12.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Learning: G3

4 .

15) What is the most likely expectation during the third year? A) The water level will return to 30 cm. B) The water will overflow the bucket or nearly so. C) The water in the bucket will dry up. D) None of these are indicated by the data. Answer: B Topic: 12.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Learning: G3 16) Which month was the wettest? (Remember that the readings are taken at the first of each month.)

A) Month 19 B) Month 16 C) Month 22 D) Month 15 Answer: D Topic: 12.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.3 Global Learning: G3 17) Why is an estuary considered an intermediate biome?

A) It is the transition zone between freshwater and saltwater biomes.

B) It is intermediate in size, smaller than the largest biomes but larger than the smallest biomes.

C) It will seasonally dry up and cease to be a biome.

D) It is only a biome during high tide.

Answer: A Topic: 12.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Learning: G2 18) How might the removal of a wetland affect a nearby city?

A) Wetlands cause flooding.

B) Wetlands reduce flooding.

C) Wetlands reduce water quality.

D) Wetlands support a rich supply of nutrients.

Answer: B Topic: 12.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Learning: G5

5 .

19) Where would a coral reef most likely be found?

A) In the oceanic benthic realm below the continental shelf B) In an estuary C) In the deep sea D) In the oceanic photic zone Answer: D Topic: 12.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Learning: G7 20) Terrestrial biomes are defined in a large part by ________.

A) the animals that live there B) the plants that live there C) the altitude D) the longitude Answer: B Topic: 12.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.4 21) A biome characterized by warm, fairly dry climate that primarily contains grasses with scattered, isolated trees is a ________.

A) savanna B) chaparral C) tundra D) temperate grasslands Answer: A Topic: 12.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Learning: G2 22) Of the biomes listed, which is best adapted to seasonal fires?

A) Coniferous forests B) Tundra C) Broadleaf forests D) Chaparral Answer: D Topic: 12.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.4 Global Learning: G2

6 .

There are little birds that spend a great deal of time on the back of a rhinoceros and eat the blood sucking ticks out of the rhino's ears. Answer the following questions regarding these creatures' relationships.

23) The bird-rhino relationship is an example of ________.

A) parasitism B) mutualism C) predator-prey D) commensalism Answer: B Topic: 12.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Learning: G2 24) The bird-tick relationship is an example of ________.

A) parasitism B) mutualism C) predator-prey D) commensalism Answer: C Topic: 12.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Learning: G2 25) The tick-rhino relationship is an example of ________.

A) parasitism B) mutualism C) predator-prey D) commensalism Answer: A Topic: 12.8 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Learning: G2 26) Which theorem states that no two species competing for the exact same resources can coexist?

A) Complex community network principle B) Resource partitioning principle C) Dominance species principle D) Competitive exclusion principle Answer: D Topic: 12.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.5

7 .

27) The tendency of toxins to accumulate in top predators is called biological ________.

A) magnification B) remediation C) mitigation D) concentration Answer: A Topic: 12.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.3 28) Species diversity is highest when ________.

A) species richness is high and relative abundance is unevenly distributed B) species richness is low and relative abundance is unevenly distributed C) species richness is high and relative abundance is evenly distributed D) species richness is low and relative abundance is evenly distributed Answer: C Topic: 12.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.6 29) What type of species, if removed from the community, could lead to the collapse of the entire community?

A) Endemic species B) Keystone species C) Indicator species D) Flagship species Answer: B Topic: 12.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.6 30) The buildup of soil on bare rock by the decomposition of early colonizers is characteristic of ________ succession.

A) primary B) ecological C) opportunistic D) secondary Answer: A Topic: 12.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.6

8 .

31) The Asian kudzu bug (Megacopta cribaria) arrived in Atlanta in 2009 and is quickly spreading across the South. In addition to eating kudzu, it also eats soybeans and can decimate entire crops. The kudzu bug is a type of ________ species.

A) control B) journeyman C) umbrella D) invasive Answer: D Topic: 12.11 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Learning: G7 32) The use of multiple forms of pest control including biological, chemical, and the planting of pest-resistant crops is a strategy commonly called ________.

A) intermediate species control B) integrated pest management C) multilevel systems approach D) none of these Answer: B Topic: 12.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Learning: G5 33) At what level is biodiversity often studied and measured?

A) The diversity of genes in a population B) The diversity of species in an community C) The diversity of ecosystems on the planet D) All of these Answer: D Topic: 12.12 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.6

9 .

34) While there are many varieties of banana, only the Cavendish is suitable for mass production and worldwide trade. It is currently being decimated by a soil fungus in Asia. If the banana fungus should reach the Americas before a treatment is discovered, it could spell the end of bananas in North American supermarkets. If that were to happen, how would the extinction of the Cavendish banana be categorized?

A) Brought on by an invasive species B) Brought on by habitat destruction C) Brought on by overharvesting D) Brought on by pollution Answer: A Topic: 12.12 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global Learning: G5 35) An age pyramid with a broad base that quickly slopes up to a narrow top would be indicative of ________.

A) an industrialized nation B) a developing nation C) a population with a high average age D) a population with a low death rate in the pre-childbearing years of life Answer: B Topic: 12.13 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Learning: G5 36) A dispersion pattern refers to ________.

A) the density of organisms in a habitat B) the extinction rates of a species C) the spacing of organism throughout a habitat D) the diversity of species found in a habitat Answer: C Topic: 12.13 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.7 37) What is the name of the theoretical maximum rate of population growth?

A) Logistic B) Speculative C) Factorial D) Exponential Answer: D Topic: 12.14 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.7

10 .

38) A sudden natural catastrophe resulting in massive die-offs would be categorized as a density________ limiting factor.

A) independent B) dependent C) reliant D) autonomous Answer: A Topic: 12.14 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.7 39) Which growth model would you expect to see in a stable population?

A) Logistic B) Speculative C) Factorial D) Exponential Answer: A Topic: 12.14 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Learning: G2 40) Human birth rate peaked in the 1980s and has been slowly declining ever since. How is this expected to affect our population size over the next several decades?

A) The human population size will begin to decline.

B) The human population size will continue to increase, but not as fast as before.

C) The human population size will level off.

D) The human population size will continue to increase at the same rate it has for the past 100 years.

Answer: B Topic: 12.15 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Learning: G5 41) What can a population's age pyramid tell you about current and future needs?

A) How many schools to build or to close down B) How many workers will be needed to support retirees C) Neither of these D) Both of these Answer: D Topic: 12.15 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Learning: G5

11 .

42) What category describes a species that, while not presently at risk of extinction, could likely be at risk of extinction in the near future?

A) An endangered species B) A species of concern C) A threatened species D) An endemic species Answer: C Topic: 12.16 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G5 43) There have been several mass extinctions in the planet's history, such as the extinction of the dinosaurs, but the current mass extinction is different. Greater numbers of species are now going extinct faster than ever before. Also unique to the current mass extinction is the cause. What is causing the current mass extinction?

A) Man's direct activities B) Climate change C) Rising sea levels D) Solar flares Answer: A Topic: 12.16 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G5 44) What is the term used to describe relatively small areas with unusually high concentrations of species found there and nowhere else, including many species in high risk of extinction?

These areas receive the focus of global conservation efforts.

A) Natural wildlife reserve B) Biodiversity hot spot C) Protective wilderness refuge D) Protective conservation zone Answer: B Topic: 12.17 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.8

12 .

45) The responsible management (use and conservation) of the earth's resources indefinitely using science-driven policies and practices is called ________. A) the maximum sustainable yield B) landscape ecology C) an environmental conservation trust D) sustainable development Answer: D Topic: 12.17 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G5 46) Using sunflower plants to naturally remove heavy toxins from contaminated soil is an example of ________.

A) land conservancy B) bioremediation C) the green revolution D) biomagnification Answer: B Topic: 12.17 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G5 47) Which is the dominant greenhouse gas leading to global warming?

A) CH4 B) H2O C) NO2 D) CO2 Answer: D Topic: 12.18 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G5 48) How does an increase in atmospheric greenhouse gases increase global temperatures?

A) By preventing some of the heat from escaping the planet's surface B) By decreasing the ozone layer in the atmosphere C) By increasing the amount of heat from the sun that reaches the planet's surface D) By reacting with each other Answer: A Topic: 12.18 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G5

13 .

49) A person may feel the need to wear a heavy jacket in the fall when the temperature first drops into the 50s. That same person may be wearing short sleeves when the temperature rises into the 50s by the end of the winter. This gradual acclimation to cold weather is a(n) ________ response to changing environmental conditions.

A) anatomical B) behavioral C) physiological Answer: C Topic: 12.19 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global Learning: G2 50) Which of the following examples of adaptation fall into the same category of either anatomical, behavioral, or physiological response to environmental conditions?

A) Putting on a jacket in the winter and growing a thick coat of fur in the winter B) A plant growing toward a light source and a plant growing in the direction of wind C) Birds flying south in the winter and you shivering on a cold day D) A lizard basking on a warm rock on a cold day and you internally raising your body temperature when you are cold Answer: B Topic: 12.19 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.9 Global Learning: G2 Short-Answer Questions 51) The practice of "eating down the food chain" refers to eating more plant material and less herbivores. Explain how this is a more efficient use of energy.

Answer: Possible Answer: Approximately 90% of the energy present in the primary producer trophic level is lost when you move up to the next level. Therefore, it would be more efficient to have as few energy conversions in a food chain as possible.

Topic: 12.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.2 Global Learning: G5

14 .

52) Disturbances to an ecosystem, such as fires and floods, are often seen as negative. Describe a situation where regular disturbances are not only beneficial, but are required to sustain the ecosystem.

Answer: Possible Answer: Many ecosystems are dependent upon seasonal floods to bring in new nutrients or seasonal fires to clear underbrush or to germinate seeds. In the absence of these events, the organisms that have adapted to those situations would struggle.

Topic: 12.10 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.6 Global Learning: G2 53) Why do some nonnative species spread so quickly and inflict so much devastation when introduced to a new area?

Answer: Possible Answer: The lack of natural predators allows them to thrive and to outcompete native species for resources.

Topic: 12.11 Skill: Application/Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Learning: G7 54) Imagine a hypothetical population of elephants and rabbits in which both species remain at carrying capacity over many generations. Who would have more offspring that survive to be adults and reproduce during their lifetime, a mating pair of elephants or a mating pair of rabbits?

Explain your answer.

Answer: Possible Answer: The elephants and the rabbits will have the same number of offspring that survive to adulthood and reproduce. If the population is stable, then birth rate would equal death rate and the growth rates of the two populations would be identical. While the rabbits would have a higher birth rate, they would also have a higher death rate to maintain their constant population size at carrying capacity.

Topic: 12.14 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.7 Global Learning: G2 55) Some species require a large and diverse range. Although it may not significantly decrease the overall size of the range, how might fragmenting the range with a freeway or neighborhood lead to the extinction of the entire population, even if sufficient food is available in either region to sustain two smaller populations? Suggest a compromise that would allow the population to survive and allow for the road project or neighborhood.

Answer: Possible Answer: The species may not be able to travel between breeding grounds and feeding grounds or the individuals may get killed trying to go from one region to the other. A sufficiently large corridor connecting the two ranges could be left undisturbed so the animals can freely move from one region to the other.

Topic: 12.17 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G2 15 .

56) Describe two ways (immediate and long term) in which burning a forest leads to an increase in atmospheric greenhouse gases.

Answer: Possible Answer: When the trees are burned, large quantities of carbon are immediately released into the atmosphere as CO2. The amount of CO2 in the atmosphere is also increased over the long term because those plants are no longer there to remove it from the atmosphere.

Topic: 12.18 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Learning: G5

16 .