Biology of Humans Concepts, Applications, and Issues, 4E Judith Goodenough Betty A. McGuire Test Ban

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Type:

Test Bank

Biology of Humans Concepts, Resource: Applications, and Issues Edition:

4th Edition

Author(s):

Judith Goodenough Betty A. McGuire

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 1 Humans in the World of Biology Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Living organisms are different from inanimate objects because they ________.

A) respond to environmental stimuli B) evolve C) maintain homeostasis D) contain DNA E) All of the above are true.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of all living things?

A) They are composed of multiple cells.

B) They respond to stimuli.

C) They contain carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.

D) They have adaptive traits.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) You are classifying an organism and trying to determine to which domain it belongs. The organism is unicellular and was isolated from a very unusual environment. This organism probably belongs in which domain?

A) Eukarya B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Prokarya Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) A scientist discovers an unidentified organism composed of multiple cells. Of the choices listed, the most likely classification would be ________.

A) Archaea B) bacteria C) fungi D) Any of the above could be correct.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) Members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea that lack a nucleus and internal compartments are considered which of the following?

A) eukaryotic B) molds C) protists D) prokaryotic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Which of the following types of organisms are not composed of eukaryotic cells?

A) fungi B) bacteria C) plants D) animals E) protists Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Cells that possess a nucleus and are complex due to a membrane system that establishes internal compartments belong in which of the following groups?

A) eukaryotic B) virus C) Archaea D) bacteria Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Which of the following levels of organization would a single-celled organism be excluded from?

A) cellular B) molecular C) tissue D) population Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) A population differs from an ecosystem because ________.

A) a population consists of all living organisms in the area, whereas an ecosystem consists of all living and nonliving aspects of an area B) a population consists of all living organisms in an area, whereas an ecosystem consists of only one species C) an ecosystem includes a community, whereas a population does not D) an ecosystem and a population are identical; they are two terms for the same concept Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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10) A statement such as "If human body temperature increases to a certain level, then critical proteins will be denatured" would most likely be associated with ________.

A) inductive reasoning B) deductive reasoning C) a hypothesis D) a conclusion Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 11) Living organisms are members of all of the levels listed; however, rocks are components of ________.

A) the community B) an organism C) the population D) the ecosystem Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 12) Humans belong to which of the following domains?

A) Bacteria B) Archaea C) Eukarya D) Vertebrates Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Which statement is incorrect?

A) Only living things contain nucleic acids, proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.

B) Only living things are composed of cells.

C) Only living things can grow.

D) Only living things maintain homeostasis.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 14) "An athlete who uses dietary supplements will perform better than one who doesn't." This statement would be an example of which of the following?

A) theory B) hypothesis C) skeptic D) haphazard statement Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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15) Researchers testing new drugs usually give the drug to one group of people and give placebos, "sugar pills," to another group. The group receiving the placebo ________.

A) is needed so that the test will be repeated enough times B) is the control group C) constitutes the experimental group D) is a backup in case some of the people getting the drug drop out of the test Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 16) Which process used to solve problems in science involves the accumulation of facts through observation until the evidence leads to a general statement about nature?

A) deductive reasoning B) hypothesis C) inductive reasoning D) theory Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) In a double-blind experiment ________.

A) participants are randomly assigned to a control or experimental group B) the participants are unaware of whether they are in the experimental or control groups due to the use of placebos C) the researchers are unaware of which participants are in the experimental and control groups D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) The term ________ variable describes when two variables are involved and neither variable can be isolated as having an effect in an experiment.

A) blind B) statistical C) multiple D) confounding Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) During phase I clinical trials, a new drug is tested ________.

A) in an animal model B) on fewer than 100 human volunteers C) on a few hundred human volunteers D) on thousands of human volunteers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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20) The pH of soda is fairly acidic. Even after you drink several sodas, the pH of your blood will not fluctuate much. This is an example of your body's ability to ________.

A) adapt B) maintain homeostasis C) respond to stimuli D) perform metabolism E) All of the above are true.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A(n) ________ group is treated like an experimental group except for the one variable being tested.

Answer: control Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) An educated guess or a testable statement used to answer a question about observations is referred to as a(n) ________.

Answer: hypothesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ are traits that enable an organism to survive and reproduce in its natural environment.

Answer: Adaptive traits Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) ________ reasoning involves gathering of facts that lead toward a logical generalized statement or conclusion.

Answer: Inductive Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) A community and its physical environment are often referred to as a(n) ________.

Answer: ecosystem Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A(n) ________ is all of the species in an ecosystem that can interact in a geographic area.

Answer: community Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) All individuals of a species that can interbreed in an area are called a(n) ________.

Answer: population Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) A(n) ________ is a group of similar cells that perform the same function.

Answer: tissue Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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9) A(n) ________ is a substance that appears to be identical to a drug being tested but has no known effect on the condition being studied.

Answer: placebo Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) ________ is the ability to maintain a relatively constant internal environment.

Answer: Homeostasis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) A(n) ________ involves drug testing on humans.

Answer: clinical trial Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) The smallest functional unit of life is known as a(n) ________.

Answer: cell Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Adaptive trait B) Ecosystem C) Metabolism D) Informed consent agreement E) Hypothesis F) Homeostasis G) Theory H) Critical thinking I) Placebo J) Epidemiologic studies 1) A nondrug substance made to look like a real drug.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The collection of all chemical reactions that occur in a cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A testable explanation for an observation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) An explanation for a particular scientific phenomenon that is well supported.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A document that lists all potential negative effects of participation in a study.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) These examine patterns within populations to find a correlation between a variable and its suspected effects.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The process of evaluating evidence and its source carefully before drawing conclusions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Specific areas in which certain living organisms interact with their environment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The ability to maintain a relatively constant internal environment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) A genetic trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) I 2) C 3) E 4) G 5) D 6) J 7) H 8) B 9) F 10) A

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain how the destruction of the original tropical forests will affect the development of new medicines.

Answer: More than 25% of the prescription medicines in the United States contain chemicals that came from medically important plants. Important medicines, such as aspirin or digitalis, were discovered after using plants as folk remedies. The majority of plant species are in tropical forests. Deforestation will result in the loss of many plant species, and humanity will have no way of knowing what potential new medicines are being destroyed.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) List and briefly explain the organization of life beginning at the molecular level and continuing through the biosphere.

Answer: Molecules exist in the cell, which is the basic unit of life, and cells can be arranged to form tissues, which in turn can form organs. Organs can be arranged into organ systems in which the organs have a particular physiological function. Cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems make up an individual. A group of individuals of the same species in a given area form a population. Many populations in an ecosystem make up a community, and all living organisms and abiotic factors that support life on Earth form the biosphere.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 3) How can you test the following statement using the scientific methodology? "Exam performance improves as the amount of sleep obtained the night before an exam increases."

Answer: The students should formulate a hypothesis, design an experiment that tests their hypothesis, have a control group, explain how they will collect data, and explain how they will analyze their data.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 4) A particular virus consists of only DNA and proteins. Viruses attach to the surface of a host cell and inject the viral DNA into the host. The host cell then copies the viral DNA and makes new viruses. Eventually, the host cell is killed, and the new viruses are released. These new viruses search for new hosts to continue the cycle. Use at least three characteristics of life to justify whether a virus is a living thing.

Answer: This is debatable. Students may argue that a virus is not alive because it does not reproduce on its own, it is not made of cells, etc. However, a student may argue in the other direction if they tweak the characteristics of life. For example, the student might answer that viruses do reproduce by coercing their host cells into copying their contents.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation 5) It is notoriously difficult to perform unbiased studies when human subjects are used. When governmental agencies such as the U.S. Food and Drug Administration are trying to determine the validity of scientific claims, they very closely examine the methods used in the experiments.

Name two things that would be important in evaluating how the studies were performed.

Answer: Considerations might be the use of control groups, placebos, double-blind studies, repeat studies, etc.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis

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6) Lately, there have been many claims concerning the health benefits of green tea. Suppose you read a claim that says drinking green tea causes weight loss. The information provided states that participants were weighed at the beginning of the study, participants were then asked to drink 2 cups of green tea every day for 6 weeks, and finally participants were weighed at the end of the study. Participants who drank the tea for 6 weeks seemed to have lost some weight by the end of the study, so the researchers concluded that green tea is helpful for weight loss. This study has some obvious holes in it. Explain three things that could be done to improve the design of this study. Do not assume any information other that what has been provided.

Answer: The student can suggest that a control group be used and/or that placebos be used.

Also, the study could be double blind.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 2 Chemistry Comes to Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A neutral atom must contain ________.

A) an equal number of protons and neutrons B) an equal number of protons, neutrons, and electrons C) an equal number of protons and electrons D) an equal number of neutrons and electrons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) An element with more or fewer neutrons than the same element as it appears on the periodic table is known as which of the following terms?

A) ion B) buffer C) isotope D) isomer Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A neutral atom has an atomic number of 14. How many electrons would be in its outer electron shell?

A) 14 B) 4 C) 8 D) There is not enough information provided to determine.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) You have information about an atom that contains 7 protons, 8 neutrons, and 8 electrons.

Which of the following statements would be true?

A) It will have an atomic weight of 23.

B) It will be an ion.

C) It will have 8 electrons in its outermost shell.

D) It will have an atomic number of 15.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) Oxygen, with an atomic number of 8, is a neutral atom and would have ________ electrons in the first electron shell and ________ electrons in the second electron shell. A) 1; 7 B) 5; 3 C) 4; 4 D) 2; 6 E) 3; 5 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) The compound magnesium chloride (MgCl2) turns into Mg++ and Cl- when placed in water.

You bond.can guess that the Mg and Cl atoms are held together normally by a(n) ________ A) covalent B) electronegative C) hydrogen D) ionic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) The Cl ion has a single negative charge and the atomic number of 17. How many electrons are on its innermost shell?

A) 18 B) 17 C) 9 D) 2 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Which of the following monomers is not paired correctly?

A) glucose-carbohydrates B) amino acids-proteins C) nucleotides-nucleic acids D) All of these are paired properly.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) In what ways are hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds similar?

A) Both are based on attraction between atoms that carry differences in electrical charge.

B) Both are based on attraction between two atoms that carry negative charges.

C) Both are based on repulsion between atoms that carry differences in electrical charge.

D) Both involve an even sharing of electrons between atoms.

E) Both are based on attraction between two atoms that carry positive charges.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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10) What is the difference between covalent and ionic bonds?

A) Covalent bonds are the sharing of electrons, whereas ionic bonds are the sharing of protons.

B) Covalent bonds involve the attraction between slightly charged molecules, whereas ionic bonds involve the attraction between two fully charged ions.

C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of neutrons, whereas ionic bonds involve the attraction of slightly charged atoms.

D) Covalent bonds are the sharing of electrons, whereas ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 11) The interaction between two polar molecules would involve ________.

A) ionic bonds B) peptide bonds C) covalent bonds D) hydrogen bonds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) A substance consisting of weak acids or bases designed to maintain a specific pH of a solution within a cell or a biological system would be which of the following?

A) buffer B) catalyst C) pH D) acids Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The pH scale measures ________.

A) OH- concentration B) buffer concentration C) H+ concentration D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Any substance that when dissolved in water will give off H+ ions is referred to as a(n): A) pH. B) buffer.

C) catalyst.

D) acid.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) A substance in which other substances are dissolved is known as what? A) solute B) acid C) solvent D) buffer Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) Your roommate is experiencing heartburn and asks you to purchase her an antacid.

Chemically ________. speaking, you know that the antacid will help eliminate her pain because A) it is a buffer and will prevent the pH in her digestive tract from changing B) it has a low H+ concentration to increase the pH in her digestive tract C) it is probably high in H+ D) it has a low pH to balance the acidity in her digestive tract Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

17) If I tested your intestinal fluid and found that it was basic, which of the pH values listed would best describe this solution?

A) 6.8 B) 3.2 C) 1.2 D) 8.0 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 18) A molecule consisting of a long chain of glucose monomers linked by covalent bonds that serves as an energy source for plants and animals would be which of the following?

A) polysaccharide B) oligosaccharide C) monosaccharide D) sucrose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) Which of the following carbohydrates is made by plants and is not digested by humans?

A) lactose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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20) Saturated fatty acids are so named because they are saturated with ________.

A) hydrogen.

B) nitrogen.

C) carbon.

D) oxygen.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 21) Triglycerides ________.

A) are fatty acids bonded to glycerol through hydrolysis B) have solid unsaturated form at room temperature, such as butter C) can provide twice the energy per gram than proteins D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 22) Regulatory lipids that control metabolic processes or cellular functions are called ________.

A) triglycerides B) carotenoids C) phospholipids D) steroids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 23) The hydrogen, ionic, and covalent bonds that stabilize the shape of a protein contribute to which level of structure of a protein?

A) primary B) quaternary C) secondary D) tertiary Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 24) Alteration of the ________ structure of a protein can transform the protein into an infectious agent known as a prion.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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25) Which of the following is not found in ATP? A) a nitrogen-containing base B) a sugar C) a phosphate group D) All of these are found in ATP. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 26) An organic compound that provides instructions for the synthesis or production of polypeptide chains is referred to as which of the following?

A) nucleotide B) lipids C) ATP D) DNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 27) You received your genetic material from your parents in the form of DNA. Your DNA provides your cells with instruction for making ________.

A) lipids B) proteins C) polysaccharides D) cholesterol Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 28) A researcher suspects that the food in an ecosystem has been contaminated with radioactive phosphates over a period of months. Which of the following substances could be examined for radioactive phosphate to test the hypothesis?

A) the amino acids within proteins produced by organisms living in the area B) the starch produced by plants in the area C) the DNA of the organisms in the area D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 29) By analyzing the chemical formulas, you can determine that this molecule, CH3CH(NH2)COOH, is a(n) ________, whereas the molecule C5H10O5 is a(n) ________.

A) cholesterol; amino acid B) amino acid; sugar C) nucleotide; glycerol D) fatty acid; sugar Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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30) Based on your knowledge of the chemical composition of humans, your body would contain the largest amount of ________.

A) oxygen B) potassium C) sodium D) phosphorous Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A polysaccharide that is made by plants and can be digested by humans is ________.

Answer: starch Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) A molecule with hydrophobic properties and polar molecular attributes would be called a(n) ________.

Answer: lipid Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A protein that speeds up chemical reactions without being consumed in the process is called a(n) ________.

Answer: enzyme Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A(n) ________ consists of many monomer subunits bonded together in order to produce a large molecule.

Answer: polymer Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A(n) ________ is a nonprotein substance that aids in forming the enzyme-substrate complex in metabolic reactions.

Answer: cofactor Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) ________ is the process of using water to break down polymers to their monomer subunits.

Answer: Hydrolysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) ________ refers to a structure of a protein in which two or more polypeptide chains bind together to form a functional protein.

Answer: Quaternary Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Lipids that regulate metabolic processes in biological systems are called ________.

Answer: steroids Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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9) Partially hydrogenated fats are also referred to as ________ fats.

Answer: trans Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) A substance that, when disassociated in water, will give off hydrogen ions is referred to as a(n) ________.

Answer: acid Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 11) Atoms that have the same number of protons but differ in the number of neutrons are called ________.

Answer: isotopes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The ________ can be used to measure whether a substance is an acid or a base.

Answer: pH scale Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) A(n) ________ is a polymer that forms muscle, bone, hair, and other structural components of the body.

Answer: protein Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 14) The energy storing polysaccharide that can be found mainly in liver and muscle cells is called ________.

Answer: glycogen Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 15) A(n) ________ is a substance that accepts hydrogen ions or when disassociated in water will give off hydroxide ions.

Answer: base Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Monosaccharides B) Triglycerides C) Compound D) Denaturation E) Element F) Polarity G) Active site H) Tertiary structure I) Hydrogen bonds J) Amino acids 1) Weak bonds that function to stabilize water and nucleic acids such as DNA. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) A substance made up of two or more elements whose properties are usually different from those of the substance.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The site where a substrate binds to an enzyme.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A process that causes a three-dimensional protein to change shape, resulting in the loss of biological function.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The tendency of a molecule to have positive and negative regions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The overall three-dimensional shape of a protein.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A pure form of matter that cannot be broken down to simpler forms.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The basic monomer of a protein that can be joined by peptide bonds using dehydration synthesis reactions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Lipid molecules composed of one glycerol and three fatty acids that can be saturated, unsaturated, or polyunsaturated.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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10) The smallest molecular units of carbohydrates, also known as simple sugars.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) I 2) C 3) G 4) D 5) F 6) H 7) E 8) J 9) B 10) A Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain some of the modern uses for radioisotopes in society.

Answer: Radioisotopes can be used in a variety of medical applications for diagnosis (imaging, such as by radioactive iodine) or therapy (such as when radioactive seeds are used to treat prostate cancer). Although not discussed in the chapter, other uses include iodine and phosphorus isotopes being used to sequence DNA and RNA for medical, forensic, and criminal applications.

Many isotopes have been used for a variety of dating in geological fields (e.g., carbon 14 has been used to date fossils).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) Explain the major differences between covalent and ionic bonding.

Answer: In covalent bonding, electrons are shared between atoms. In ionic bonding, two oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Explain the relationship between nucleic acids and proteins. How would a change to the DNA ultimately affect proteins?

Answer: DNA is a nucleic acid that codes for specific amino acids that make up the proteins in the cell and in living organisms. The exact amino acid sequence is vital in producing a functional protein. Because the code is in the DNA and the DNA is in the nucleus, the DNA must be transcribed into RNA molecules that are translated into the specific amino acid sequence. A mutation occurs if the DNA has alterations in the code or if there is a mistake in the transcriptions or translation process. A change to the DNA would ultimately change the sequence of amino acids in a protein.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 4) Radioactive iodine (131I) is commonly used in medical situations for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid conditions. The most common isotope of iodine that is not radioactive is 127I. Chemically, what is different between 127I and 131I? What is the same between them?

Answer: The difference between the two isotopes of iodine is their weights (or mass). This is due to a difference in the number of neutrons present in each isotope. These isotopes have in common their atomic number (number of protons), which is what makes them both iodine.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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5) Athletes are often told to eat starch before a strenuous athletic event. What monomer can be released from starch after hydrolysis, and what is it used for? Because cellulose (fiber) is made of the same type of monomer as starch, why aren't athletes told to eat fiber before an event? Answer: When starch is broken down, glucose is released. This glucose can be used during cellular respiration to produce energy (ATP) for the cells. Cellulose, like starch, is also composed of glucose monomers; however, we lack the enzymes necessary to perform hydrolysis on cellulose. Therefore, the glucose cannot be used by the cells in order to produce ATP. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 6) Within your body, there are two major categories of hormones. One category is the steroid (or lipid-soluble) hormones, and the other category is referred to as nonsteroid (or water-soluble) hormones, which are composed of proteins or amino acids. Estrogen and testosterone are examples of steroid hormones, whereas insulin is an example of a nonsteroid hormone. A researcher heats estrogen, testosterone, and insulin to a very high temperature. After heating the hormones, the researcher tests to determine whether they still work properly. She finds that estrogen and testosterone still function, but insulin does not. Based on the chemical nature of these molecules, explain why insulin no longer functions. Answer: Given that the insulin is a peptide hormone, it is protein based. Proteins require a specific shape to function properly. Heat is one factor that can denature a protein, damaging its shape so that it can no longer function properly. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 7) Your friend tells you that all dietary fat is bad for your health. Is this correct? Answer: Although excess fat can be harmful, especially to the circulatory system, fat does serve important functions in the body including long-term energy storage, insulation, and protection from blows.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) When new food products are being analyzed for nutritional content, the food will be subjected to hydrolysis in the lab. The end products are analyzed to determine things such as fat and sugar content. Suppose a lab is analyzing a new product that claims to be fat free. After the hydrolysis of the product is complete, they find glucose, glycerol, hydrocarbons, and amino acids. Is this product free of fat?

Justify your answer. Answer: This product is not fat free. It contains hydrocarbons, which are fatty acids. It also contains glycerol. Because fats are composed of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids, this product contains all components found in fat. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 2A Special Topic: Food Safety and Defense Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Food poisoning is the correct term to describe a gastrointestinal illness caused by ________.

A) viruses B) chemicals C) bacteria D) All of the above are true.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Your roommate has developed symptoms of food infection. In trying to determine the cause of her she remembers that she has eaten a variety of home-canned foods. What typeinfection, of infection is she most likely to have?

A) Cryptosporidium B) Salmonellosis C) Botulism D) Campylobacteriosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

3) Your friend has developed some gastrointestinal symptoms that appear to be related to something she ate. She wants to let them run their course without seeing a doctor.

However, her

symptoms seem to be getting worse. For which of the following would you recommend that she visit her health care provider?

A) blood in her stool B) diarrhea lasting more than 3 days C) a temperature of 102∘F D) All of the above are signs your friend should see a doctor.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Although you love the taste of uncooked cookie dough, you have heard warnings about the risk of foodborne illness that comes from eating raw food products. Based on the ingredients in cookie dough, which type of pathogen should you be most concerned with?

A) Escherichia coli O157:H7 B) Clostridium botulinum C) Campylobacter jejuni D) Salmonella Answer: D 1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application .

5) Food safety prevents ________.

A) unintentional contamination of food B) bioterrorism C) deliberate contamination of food D) All of the above are true.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) The agency responsible for the safety of drinking water is the ________.

A) U.S. Environmental Protection Agency B) U.S. Food and Drug Administration C) Food Safety and Inspection Service D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A food product labeled organic has been certified to be ________.

A) grown without certain synthetic pesticides or fertilizers B) free of pathogens C) genetically altered to be safer to eat D) All of the above are true.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) A biological agent that is moderately easy to disseminate and that results in moderate morbidity and low mortality is considered ________ by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

A) Category A B) Category B C) Category C D) Category D Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The most appropriate way to kill bacteria on food is to ________.

A) refrigerate the food B) freeze the food C) cook the food D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Your father has always enjoyed his beef prepared rare. He remembers when he could order his hamburgers completely rare and does not understand why he is no longer able to do so in restaurants when steaks can still be prepared rare. Explain to him why it is acceptable to eat a rare steak but not a rare hamburger.

Answer: It is critical to fully cook the surface of meats in order to destroy pathogens that may be present. In a steak, the surface can be heated, leaving the center raw. However, in ground hamburger meat, there are two problems. First, the surface area is much greater and the small pellets of beef are mixed together, mixing any pathogens throughout the patty. Second, meat from many animals can be present in ground beef, which increases the chance of pathogens being present.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 2) John had a cookout last week. He served chicken that he had grilled outdoors and that was fully cooked. However, some of his guests developed a Salmonella infection. Even though the chicken was completely cooked, what might John have done that could have potentially allowed for his guests to develop a Salmonella infection?

Answer: If the chicken was fully cooked, any Salmonella bacteria should have been killed.

However, if John reused a plate or utensil that had touched the raw chicken, he may have contaminated the cooked chicken with the bacteria, which then made his guests sick.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) In reviewing the list of food storage guidelines, certain meats expire more quickly than others.

In comparing chicken, seafood, and bacon, the bacon has the longest shelf life of the three.

Speculate on why this is so.

Answer: This has to do with how the bacon is prepared. The chicken and seafood are fresh, whereas bacon is salt cured. The use of salt provides an environment that is not as hospitable to bacterial growth as compared to uncured products.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 4) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.

Answer: Some possible answers include performing proper hand washing, cleaning kitchen surfaces and utensils that come in contact with food, separating raw and cooked foods, cooking food thoroughly, and promptly refrigerating or freezing food.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Why is the process of irrigation with run-off water a bad practice? What measures should you take to protect yourself from acquiring a foodborne illness from crops?

Answer: Run-off water is often contaminated with fecal material that contains pathogens. When crops are irrigated with this water, they become contaminated. Because some crops (e.g., lettuce) are not cooked to kill the pathogens, it becomes critical to properly wash them before eating them.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Biology of Humans, 4e(Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 3 The Cell Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

A) ribosomes B) endoplasmic reticulum C) nucleus D) mitochondria Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Suppose that a new poison has just come onto the market that will kill any organism with a nucleus. Which type of organism is most likely to survive?

A) plants B) Archaea C) protists D) fungi Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) George discovered a strange purple slime in his mouth that encouraged him to visit the dentist.

The dentist said the new organism was prokaryotic because it had ________.

A) circular DNA B) DNA in the nucleus C) relatively large cells D) membrane-bound organelles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration until equilibrium is reached can be described as ________.

A) diffusion B) active transport C) osmosis D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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5) A form of diffusion in which the molecules pass through a protein instead of between the phospholipids is called ________.

A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) osmosis D) active transport Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Which of these processes brings into the cell large macromolecules and particles by the formation of a vesicle in the outer membrane?

A) facilitated transport B) endocytosis C) pinocytosis D) exocytosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Microfilaments are made of ________.

A) actin B) tubulin C) intermediate proteins D) phospholipids Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Which of these is most abundant in the plasma membrane?

A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) cholesterol D) phospholipids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Calcium ions are normally in higher concentrations outside most living cells compared to the amounts within. Which of the following processes is most likely responsible for this condition?

A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) osmosis D) active transport Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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10) If a liver cell were to be placed in a beaker with a solution containing the same solute concentration as that found inside the cell, we would say that the beaker contained a(n) ________ solution.

A) heterotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) hypotonic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) You have a bacterial infection. Your immune system will be able to distinguish this foreign invader from other cells by ________.

A) recognizing cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) B) finding glycolipids on the plasma membrane C) identifying glycoproteins on the plasma membrane D) determining the presence or absence of a nucleus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) When bacteria appear in tissues, a type of large cell engulfs and destroys them. Which process are these cells using to engulf the bacteria?

A) exocytosis B) active transport C) pinocytosis D) phagocytosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 13) Which is a membranous organelle that chemically modifies and ships proteins to other organelles or out of the cell?

A) lysosome B) chloroplast C) mitochondria D) Golgi complex Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Most of the energy used by the cell is converted to ATP in ________.

A) lysosomes B) Golgi complexes C) nuclei D) mitochondria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) Certain chemotherapy drugs interfere with microtubule synthesis. Which of the following would have functional difficulties caused by those drugs?

A) flagella B) Golgi complex C) cilia D) All of the above would have functional difficulties Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) Zara has worked for 40 years at a garden center where she often potted plants. In the early days, she frequently worked with vermiculite, an asbestos-like material. Which organelles are most likely to have destabilized membranes as a result of exposure to vermiculite?

A) nuclei B) mitochondria C) Golgi complexes D) lysosomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 17) Heart muscle works hard and therefore consumes much ATP. Which organelles would you expect to be especially numerous in the heart muscle cells?

A) nuclei B) mitochondria C) Golgi complexes D) lysosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 18) A reddish chemical, lipofuscin, is found in greater quantities in cells of older people than in those from younger people. This chemical should be broken down in the cells. Which specific type of organelle is not working as well in the seniors?

A) lysosomes B) mitochondria C) nuclei D) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 19) Which of the following is true of both cilia and flagella?

A) They are commonly found on cells of the respiratory tract.

B) They are numerous and short extensions.

C) They move in a back-and-forth manner.

D) They have a 9 + 2 pattern of microtubules.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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20) From which of these processes does the cell get the most ATP? A) glycolysis B) pyruvate decarboxylation C) fermentation D) electron transport Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 21) Which of the following steps in normal cellular respiration ends with water being formed?

A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) electron transport D) fermentation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 22) The virus that causes rabies travels up nerve cells to the brain and spinal cord. Which cell structure will allow the virus to move through the nerve cells?

A) Golgi complexes B) nuclei C) microtubules D) pseudopods Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 23) During a 5-mile run in the high Alps, where oxygen concentration is lower, your body will produce less ATP per molecule of glucose than after the same run near sea level, where there is plenty of oxygen to supply your muscle cells. Approximately how many more molecules of ATP will your muscle cells produce per molecule of glucose at the lower elevation than at the oxygenscarce high elevation?

A) 36 B) 34 C) 32 D) 2 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 24) Which of the following is not a membrane-bound organelle?

A) mitochondrion B) cytoskeleton C) nucleus D) endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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25) If substantial lactic acid were found in a person's bloodstream, then which type of glucose breakdown is occurring?

A) cellular respiration B) fermentation C) electron transport D) citric acid cycle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 26) The first phase in normal cellular respiration and the only one occurring in the cytoplasm is called ________.

A) citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) electron transport D) None of the above Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) ________ are microscopic prokaryotes inhabiting, among other hostile places, hot springs and very salty waters.

Answer: Archaea Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The three types of microscopes used to look at cells and parts of cells are the transmitted electron microscope, scanning electron microscope, and ________.

Answer: light microscope Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Glycoproteins within the plasma membrane often have the function of ________.

Answer: cell recognition Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Ricin is a potential chemical warfare agent that kills by disabling the ribosomes. With ricin poisoning, a cell would no longer be able to make ________.

Answer: proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) ________ is the ingestion of large molecules and foreign substances through the phospholipid membrane.

Answer: Endocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) ________ are membrane proteins that aid adjoining cells to stick to each other.

Answer: CAMs (cellular adhesion molecules) Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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7) ________ is the process by which large molecules and cell products leave the cell via the phospholipid membrane.

Answer: Exocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Proteins are processed and packaged in the organelle known as the ________.

Answer: Golgi complex Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The organelle known as the ________ makes phospholipids.

Answer: smooth endoplasmic reticulum Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Cellular structures that function in movement and consist of numerous short hair-like extensions from the cell are called ________.

Answer: cilia Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) ________ is a metabolic process that creates ATP for the cell by the breakdown of glucose molecules in the cytoplasm.

Answer: Glycolysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Microtubules B) ATP C) Glycolysis D) Electron transport chain E) Plasma membrane F) Flagella G) Cristae H) Citric acid cycle 1) Is produced along with water at the end of normal cellular respiration.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The process of splitting glucose into two molecules of pyruvate without the use of oxygen.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) They serve as the working parts of cilia and flagella.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A metabolic process that completes the oxidation of glucose, yields two molecules of ATP, and releases carbon dioxide as a waste product.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A process by which the NADH and FADH pass their electrons through the inner membrane of the mitochondria, producing ATP and metabolic water.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Cytoskeleton components that are composed of microtubules that move in a whip-like motion to propel the cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) These form the inner membranes of the mitochondria and are the site for energy production in the electron transport chain.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) A cell structure that acts as a boundary between a cell and its environment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) H 5) D 6) F 7) G 8) E

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) What are lysosomes, and how do they work in the cell?

Answer: digestive Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing around 40 different enzymes. The lysosomes digest bacteria as well as dispose of useless or worn-out parts of the cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Compare and contrast isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic solutions. What happens when a normal animal cell finds itself in any of the three kinds of solutions?

Answer: Osmotic pressure forms in a cell when there is a difference in solute concentrations on either side of the membrane. There are three possible solutions within a cell. Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure on both sides of a membrane, so there is no net movement of

water across the membrane. A hypotonic solution has less osmotic pressure or more water than the

solution across the membrane. A hypertonic solution has a greater osmotic pressure (less water).

Cells in hypertonic solutions lose water, whereas cells in hypotonic solutions gain water.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Compare and contrast passive and active transport mechanisms, and give an example of each.

Answer: Passive transport involves the movement of molecules across a membrane along the

concentration gradient without ATP. Examples of passive transport include simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and osmosis. Diffusion is the net movement of particles from regions of greater to lower concentration until equilibrium is reached. Facilitated diffusion is the movement of a substance from higher to lower concentration with aid from a membrane protein.

Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane from areas of higher to lower concentrations.

Active transport requires the input of energy (ATP) for the movement of solutes typically against the concentration gradient.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Briefly explain the differences between cellular respiration and fermentation. How do 9 .

these processes differ in terms of energy output for the cell?

Answer: Cellular respiration begins in the cytoplasm of a cell (glycolysis) and continues within the mitochondria (the transition reaction, citric acid cycle, and electron transport system).

A total of 36 ATP molecules is produced by this metabolic pathway. Fermentation involves the

6) We know that infants gain from their mother's milk proteins called antibodies that protect them from specific germs. We also know that proteins will eventually be broken down by a person's digestive system. How is it that these antibodies can get into the breast-feeding infant's bloodstream intact? Use only the information from this chapter.

Answer: The child's digestive system appears to be engulfing the proteins by the process called pinocytosis before the chemicals can be broken down.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 7) Maria, a volunteer firefighter in New Jersey, rushed along with the rest of her fire company to lower Manhattan on that awful morning of September 11, 2001. As they crossed over the Hudson into the city, they heard that the towers had collapsed, so they helped search through the rubble and dust from the buildings to find survivors. Maria has now developed serious health problems based on her exposure to the rubble and dust, which included asbestos and many other small particles. Which organ system and which organelle do you think is most likely failing in this brave woman's body?

Answer: Because of Maria's exposure to many airborne particles within the rubble as well as the dust that has been inhaled, it is likely that her respiratory system has been damaged. Lysosomes inside the cells cleaning the respiratory passages cannot break down asbestos. These small particles destabilize the membranes of the lysosomes, causing the release of enzymes in the respiratory tract and scarring of Maria's lung tissue.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) Why might the lungs of smokers look dirtier than those of nonsmokers, assuming all other things in their lives are similar? What organelle is involved?

Answer: The cilia in cells lining respiratory passages normally sweep debris from those tubes; however, in cigarette smokers, the cilia are immobilized. Therefore, the lungs of smokers would logically accumulate more airborne contaminants.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) Mature red blood cells do not have a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. What is the advantage of this characteristic?

Answer: By extruding its nucleus and most organelles, red blood cells leave more space for hemoglobin, the protein that transports oxygen.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 4 Body Organization and Homeostasis Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The largest organ of your body is ________.

A) your heart B) your lungs C) your skin D) your intestines Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) A group of organs in the body that have a common function would make up a(n) ________.

A) organism B) brain C) organ system D) tissue Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which are specialized cells found at the base of the epidermis that produce pigments that help give skin its color?

A) melanin B) melanocytes C) basal D) lacunae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The inner layer of skin that contains blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands, oil glands, and hair follicles is called the ________.

A) epidermis B) hypodermis C) dermis D) melanin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Which of the following membranes covers the outside of the body and has waterproofing properties?

A) synovial B) serous C) cutaneous D) basement Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) Which membranes line the passageways that open to the exterior of the body, including those of the respiratory, digestive, reproductive, and urinary systems in the body?

A) cutaneous B) basement C) mucous D) serous Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Which loose connective tissue lies beneath the skin and functions to anchor the skin?

A) epidermis B) hypodermis C) dermis D) integument Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Which of the following tissues covers the body surfaces, lines the body cavities and organs, and forms glands?

A) muscle B) nervous C) epithelial D) connective Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Glands that lack ducts and secrete hormones are called ________.

A) exocrine B) endocrine C) scent D) mammary Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Cartilage that forms at the end of long bones and functions to allow bones to slide past each other during movement is called which of the following?

A) elastic B) fibrocartilage C) bone D) hyaline Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) The epithelial cells that function in secretion or absorption and that are found in many glands and in the kidney tubules are ________. A) squamous B) cuboidal C) columnar D) stratified Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Which of the following contains the most cells?

A) an organism B) an organ system C) an organ D) tissue Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 13) Which layer lacks blood vessels?

A) hypodermis B) subcutaneous C) epidermis D) dermis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Which form of muscle is involuntary and occurs in the walls of the blood vessels?

A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) connective Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) Where would you find smooth muscle tissue in your body?

A) in your heart B) in the walls of your stomach C) attached to bones D) None of the above Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) Which of the following cavities has the highest density of cardiac muscle tissue?

A) pleural cavity B) abdominal cavity C) thoracic cavity D) cranial cavity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 17) Which of the following types of skin damage are the most superficial?

A) first-degree burns B) second-degree burns C) third-degree burns D) All of these have the same level of pain.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Charlotte liked to have a suntan all of the time, so when she was at the beach or the tanning salon, she never wore sunscreen. During a visit to her doctor, she was told that she has the most common form of skin cancer. She will be all right, but she should avoid prolonged exposure to UV radiation in the future. Which skin cancer does she have?

A) melanoma B) squamous cell carcinoma C) sebaceous carcinoma D) basal cell carcinoma Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 19) The dark chemical that accumulates in the skin after exposure to the sun is called ________.

A) melanin B) sebum C) melanocyte D) carcinoma Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) A person using a very effective sunscreen would be less likely to make which vitamin within his or her body?

A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin C D) vitamin D Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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21) The sebaceous glands associated with hair follicles produce ________. A) sweat B) sebum C) androgens D) keratin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 22) Nutrients reach cells in the epidermis by ________.

A) moving out of dermal blood vessels and diffusing through tissue fluid to the epidermis

B) moving out of blood vessels in the epidermis C) moving out of blood vessels that originate in the hypodermis and extend into the epidermis D) All of the above are true.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

23) The ability of the human body to maintain a relatively constant internal environment is known as ________.

A) homeostasis B) stabilization C) positive feedback D) regulation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

24) If Argus fell into the waters around Labrador (temperature 1∘C, or 34∘F), what reaction is most likely to happen?

A) dilation of the blood vessels of the dermis B) sweating C) piloerection D) increased blood flow to hands Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 25) Sarah loved to run in the dry desert town of Needles, CA. However, when she moved to Mobile, AL, on the coast of the Gulf of Mexico, she was surprised that when she went out for a jog at 91∘F (33∘C), she developed dizziness and confusion sooner than she had in the desert at the same temperature. She is probably is suffering from ________.

A) hypothermia B) hypothalamus C) homeostasis D) hyperthermia Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A ________ is a group of cells of similar type that work together to serve a common function.

Answer: tissue Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Of the four main tissue types, ________ covers body surfaces and lines body cavities and organs.

Answer: epithelial tissue Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ glands secrete products onto body surfaces or into body cavities or organs via ducts.

Answer: Exocrine Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The flattened or scale-like cells that line the blood vessels are known as ________ epithelium.

Answer: squamous Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The least common type of skin cancer mentioned in the text, but the one that must be taken most seriously, is ________.

Answer: melanoma Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) If you want to avoid skin cancer, the safest thing to do is ________.

Answer: stay out of the sun Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The ________ function to support, insulate, and protect neurons.

Answer: neuroglia Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) ________ is the pigment produced by melanocytes that gives skin its color.

Answer: Melanin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) An easy way to remember the signs of skin cancer is this memory trick suggested by the American Cancer Society: ________.

Answer: ABCD Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) A tendon or ligament is made up principally of ________ tissue.

Answer: dense connective Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) ________ glands secrete fluids that consist of water, salts, and metabolic wastes, but mainly function to regulate body temperature.

Answer: Sweat Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) ________ muscle tissue is involuntary and has branching cells with striations.

Answer: Cardiac Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) In negative feedback, a muscle or gland works to counteract a change in homeostasis. The muscles or glands doing this are said to be ________.

Answer: effectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 14) ________ tissue coordinates body activities that result from initiation and transmission of nerve impulses from one part of the body to another.

Answer: Nervous Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) Under warm conditions, you will not have goose bumps because the arrector pili muscles ________.

Answer: relax Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

7 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Nervous B) Endocrine C) Muscular D) Skeletal E) Integumentary F) Lymphatic G) Respiratory H) Cardiovascular I) Urinary J) Reproductive K) Digestive 1) The organ system that is responsible for the physical and chemical breakdown of food and is responsible for the absorption, processing, and the release of digestive products.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) A muscle type that provides voluntary movement and is composed of long, cylindrical cells with multiple nuclei and obvious striations.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The organ system that regulates and integrates body functions via neurons.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The organ system that maintains a constant internal environment through the excretion of nitrogenous wastes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The organ system that protects the underlying tissues from abrasion, prevents dehydration, and aids in the regulation of body temperature.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The organ system that is responsible for the exchange of gases with the environment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The organ system that protects the body against infection and disease and aids in returning tissue fluids to the blood stream.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The organ system that regulates and integrates body functions via hormones.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The organ system that produces and releases eggs and sperm.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

8 .

10) The organ system that is responsible for transporting nutrients, gases, hormones, and antibodies for immune response.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The organ system that is responsible for locomotion and maintaining posture and the generation of heat.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) K 2) D 3) A 4) I 5) E 6) G 7) F 8) B 9) J 10) H 11) C Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Carla has serious acne. What caused it and what can she do to treat it?

Answer: During adolescence, increasing androgens in both males and females cause oil glands to enlarge and produce more sebum. Acne is the inflammation caused when dead cells and sebum clog the duct where oil glands open onto hair follicles. She can wash her face two to three times each day with hot, soapy water to unclog the pores.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 2) What are the signs of skin cancer that distinguish it from other skin irregularities?

Answer: Look for the ABCDs: A reminds us of asymmetry or an irregular shape; B stands for a diffuse border; C is for an uneven color; and D helps us to remember to look for a diameter greater than 5 mm (approximately 0.2 of an inch).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Explain how the hypothalamus regulates body temperature when a person is exposed to warm conditions.

Answer: The hypothalamus functions as the control center in this homeostatic control system. In a warm environment, thermoreceptors on the skin detect heat and activate nerve cells that send the message to the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus sends nerve impulses to the sweat glands (effectors), prompting them to increase their activity. Once sweat evaporates, the body cools, and signals from the brain to the sweat glands cease.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Compare and contrast the three types of muscle tissue.

Answer: Cardiac muscle is located in the heart, and it functions to pump blood to the lungs and to the body. This muscle is characterized by branching striated cells with a single nucleus and specialized junctions that facilitate the rapid spread of nerve impulses throughout the heart.

Skeletal muscle usually attaches to a bone. When this muscle contracts, it causes voluntary movement. There are multiple nuclei in skeletal muscle cells and contractile proteins are arranged to form striations. Smooth muscle is involuntary and can be found in the walls of the blood vessels, airways, and digestive tract. Smooth muscle cells lack striations and each cell has a single nucleus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

9 .

5) Two roller derby players trip each other and fall. One of them breaks a cartilage in her knee, while the other skater breaks a bone in her foot. Which one of them will take longer to heal?

Explain your answer.

Answer: Bone has an excellent blood supply, which will facilitate the healing process when the tissue becomes damaged. Cartilage has no blood vessels, which makes it more difficult for the cartilage to heal compared with other tissues.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) Why are Botox treatments more frequently used by people after age 40? Is one treatment enough for a lifetime? Explain!

Answer: After age 40 the collagen fibers thicken and lose elasticity in the lower layer of the dermis, causing wrinkles and sagging skin. Some wrinkles are caused by contraction of facial muscles. Botox relies on the toxin from the bacterium that causes botulism; this toxin is injected into facial muscles. This toxin temporally paralyzes facial muscles, smoothing out the skin. The effect of the toxin lasts only a few months; therefore the injection needs to be repeated.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) People who are very underweight often complain of being cold. However, individuals who are overweight are less likely to complain of being cold. Explain why this might be the case.

Answer: Individuals who are underweight have less fat tissue than those who are overweight.

Fat tissue serves to insulate the body. Those who are lacking sufficient fat tissue have less insulation and are therefore more likely to be cold.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Carlos visited the desert for the first time and, as he was sweating a lot, bought some distilled water. This seemed to satisfy his thirst very well. Why is the distilled water not the best choice of beverage for Carlos?

Answer: Carlos is losing salts along with the water in the sweat. Distilled water will not help to replace the electrolytes he is losing via sweat. A beverage that contains water and electrolytes would be a much better choice for Carlos.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) Adel often has goose bumps on her arms. Explain how these goose bumps are formed and why she will never have goose bumps on the palms of her hands or on the soles of her feet.

Answer: A smooth muscle, called the arrector pili muscle, is attached to the hair follicle and during the contraction of this muscle the hair stands up. A goose bump is a tiny mound of flesh that forms at the base of this erect hair. Goose bumps cannot form at places where hair is not present, such as the palm of a hand and the sole of a foot.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

10 .

Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 5 The Skeletal System Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following cells form new bone in bone tissue?

A) osteon B) osteoblasts C) osteocytes D) fibroblasts Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) What forms within the spaces of spongy bone and functions to produce blood cells?

A) yellow marrow B) osteons C) osteocytes D) red marrow Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which of the following covers compact bone and functions in bone repair and growth?

A) endosteum B) periosteum C) diaphysis D) epiphysis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Human Growth Hormone (HGH) can be used to treat patients with pituitary dwarfism. Today, parents are getting injections for their children to provide an advantage in sports or to enhance their appearance by making them taller. Based on what you know about the process of bone lengthening, what is the most appropriate age group to begin such injections?

A) 3- to 6-year-olds B) 7- to 10-year-olds C) 18- to 21-year-olds D) 21- to 30-year-olds Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

1 .

5) Forensic scientists may have to identify an adult victim who was lost in the wilderness years ago from the remains found by a hiker. What type of evidence from the bones would they look for to determine the age of the person? A) the size of the bones and the condition of the growth plate B) the number of bones C) They look to see if any bones were broken, because the bones of the elderly break easily. D) Not much can be told from just the bones to determine age. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) Too much calcium in the bloodstream, a condition called hypercalcemia, can be very dangerous. The thyroid gland releases a hormone called calcitonin when calcium is too high.

What must calcitonin do to lower calcium levels in the blood?

A) It reduces osteoclast activity and increases osteoblast activity.

B) It increases osteoclast activity and reduces osteoblast activity.

C) It reduces both osteoclast and osteoblast activity.

D) It increases both osteoclast and osteoblast activity.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) Calcium intake is of concern to women during pregnancy. If a woman for whatever reason does bone not get enough calcium in her diet during pregnancy, what is likely to happen to her tissue?

A) She will experience severe bone loss due to the loss of estrogen production during pregnancy.

B) She may experience some bone loss due to the lack of calcium in her diet, but nothing significant.

C) She may experience significant bone loss both due to the lack of calcium and the fact that the fetus requires extra calcium that will be removed from her own bone tissue.

D) The fetus will be born without a skeleton.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) Astronauts returning to Earth from an extended stay in space have to be extremely careful or they wouldcould be break a bone. It takes several weeks to restore normal bone strength. Which the best regimen to rebuild the lost bone tissue?

A) Nothing special is needed, just lie around and watch TV. B) Hit the gym and get going, with a few weeks of heavy weight lifting.

C) Several weeks of swimming will rebuild all lost bone mass.

D) Start with walking and build up to jogging, with an extra regimen of light weight lifting in the gym.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

2 .

9) Women experience the symptoms of osteoporosis more acutely than men. Why is this true?

A) Women have less bone mass and produce less estrogen later in life, which accelerates calcium loss.

B) Women have less muscle mass and don't exercise as much.

C) Men don't produce estrogen, so they don't rely on it as much as women do.

D) Men take in more calcium in their diet, so they can't get osteoporosis.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 10) The number of bones in a newborn exceeds the number of bones in an adult. Why would the number of bones decrease over time?

A) Some bones are lost due to replacement, like the loss of baby teeth.

B) As some bones grow larger others do not and are no longer needed.

C) The bones of a baby are more fragile than an adult, so more are needed to support the weight of the body.

D) Some of the bones of babies will eventually fuse together to become one larger bone.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 11) Which hormone causes calcium to be released from bone into the bloodstream?

A) Boniva B) estrogen C) calcitonin D) parathyroid hormone (PTH) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Membranous areas in the infant skull that join bones and function to allow for rapid growth of the brain are known as ________.

A) fibrous membrane B) osteocytes C) fontanels D) lacunae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Which of the following are the bones that form the bridge of the nose?

A) occipital B) sphenoid C) nasal D) temporal Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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14) Which of these cranial bones separates the cranial cavity from the nasal cavity and provides the olfactory nerves with access to the brain?

A) temporal B) foramen magnum C) sphenoid D) ethmoid Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) Which of these bones form the cheekbones in the skulls of mammals?

A) nasal bones B) fontanels C) palatine bones D) zygomatic bone Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) Two small bones found at the corner of the eyes that have a duct system that drains tears from the eyes into the nasal chambers are ________.

A) lacrimal B) frontal C) occipital D) temporal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) A series of interconnected bones that form the backbone of all mammals, fishes, reptiles, and birds is the ________.

A) mandible B) scapula C) femur D) vertebral column Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) What can cause a slipped disk?

A) slipping on the ice in winter and breaking a vertebra of the coccyx B) improper lifting, leading to a bulge in a disk between two lumbar vertebrae C) two vertebrae of the sacrum slipping past each other in opposite directions D) scoliosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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19) Which bones form a connection between the scapula and the sternum to support the pectoral girdle? A) clavicles B) vertebrae C) humerus D) ribs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) A cartilage disk that joins the two pelvic bones in the anterior region of the pelvic girdle is known as the ________.

A) pubic symphysis B) sacrum C) patella D) pelvis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 21) The main weight-bearing bone in the lower extremities is known as the ________.

A) fibula B) tibia C) pelvis D) femur Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 22) The bones that make up the digits of the hands or feet are known as the ________.

A) metatarsals B) carpals C) phalanges D) tarsals Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 23) Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by an inflammation of tendons passing through the carpal tunnel of the wrist. What causes this inflammation and pain?

A) The tendons become stretched out to the point in which they tear away from the bone.

B) The tendons are repeatedly rubbed against bone by certain continuous hand motions.

C) The associated muscles are too weak and begin to spasm, leading to inflammation.

D) The muscles eventually fatigue and become swollen, thus swelling the tendon.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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24) Which of these joints allow movement in only one plane, such as in the knee or elbow?

A) hinge B) fibrous C) ball and socket D) cartilaginous Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 25) Straps of connective tissue that hold bones together, support joints, and direct movement are known as ________.

A) tendons B) ligaments C) bursae D) cartilages Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 26) Bands of connective tissue that aid in the attachment of muscles to bones are termed ________.

A) ligaments B) cartilage C) tendons D) fibrocartilage Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 27) Which is the appropriate treatment for a sprain?

A) First ice to reduce swelling and then heat much later to aid healing.

B) First heat to aid healing and ice later to reduce swelling.

C) Ice only because it will reduce swelling and increase blood flow to aid healing.

D) Just leave it alone. Ice and heat both make the injury worse.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 28) After a calcium-rich meal ________.

A) parathyroid hormone stimulates the activities of osteoblasts and removes calcium from the blood B) calcitonin removes calcium from the blood and stimulates the activities of osteoclasts C) parathyroid hormone is released by the thyroid gland to inhibit the activities of osteoclasts D) calcitonin stimulates the activities of osteoblasts and removes calcium from the blood Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) The ________ is the site in long bones that stores fatty tissue used for energy.

Answer: yellow marrow Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Osteoblasts deposit ________ on the secreted collagen during the transformation from cartilage to a mature bone.

Answer: calcium salts Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The hormone ________ removes calcium from the blood and causes it to be stored in the bone.

Answer: calcitonin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The ________ bone forms the floor of the cranium.

Answer: sphenoid Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A condition in which the bone is broken down faster than it is built is known as ________.

Answer: osteoporosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The ________ forms the lower jaw in humans.

Answer: mandible Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The ________ is composed of the vomer and a portion of the ethmoid bones to divide the left and right chambers inside the nose.

Answer: nasal septum Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The ________ is formed from two bones that are fused at the midline directly below the nasal septum. They form the upper jaw.

Answer: maxillae Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Vertebrae in the neck are classified as ________ vertebrae.

Answer: cervical Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Behind the palate lie two ________ that form the roof of a human's mouth.

Answer: palatine bones Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) The ________ joints have no joint cavity and usually do not permit movement. Sutures between skull bones are this kind of joint.

Answer: fibrous Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The pectoral girdle is composed of the ________, or shoulder blades, and the collarbones.

Answer: scapulae Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The ________ girdle connects the legs to the vertebral column.

Answer: pelvic Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A(n) ________ is defined as damage to a ligament that can take longer to heal than muscular damage due to a lack of extensive vascularization.

Answer: sprain Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) Fluid-filled sacs known as ________ function to cushion certain joints, such as the elbow joint.

Answer: bursae Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Carpals B) Osteoclasts C) Femur D) Lumbar E) Sacrum F) Humerus G) Tarsals H) Metatarsals I) Osteoblasts J) Foramen magnum K) Temporal 1) The opening at the base of the cranium through which the spinal cord passes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The bone that is connected to the pectoral girdle and forms a joint with the radius and ulna.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The bones in the feet that are connected to the phalanges anteriorly and to the tarsal bones posteriorly.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The seven bones that form the ankle.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Eight bones that form the wrist and are connected to the radius and ulna.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Also known as the thighbone, it rotates within a socket in the pelvis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Vertebrae in the lower back region just above the sacral region.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Bones that form on either side of the cranium and are thought of as the temples.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Produced from the fusion of five vertebrae and allows an individual to sit.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Bone cells that break down bone tissue.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) Calcitonin stimulates the activity of these bone cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) J 2) F 3) H 4) G 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) K 9) E 10) B 11) I Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain the structure and function of the pectoral and pelvic girdles.

Answer: The pectoral girdle is composed of the scapulae and clavicles, which join the scapula and the sternum. The pectoral girdle supports the arms. The pelvic girdle is composed of two pelvic bones that attach in the back to the sacrum. These are joined in the front at the pubic symphysis, which is composed of cartilage. The pelvic girdle serves to connect the legs with the pelvis. Both girdles allow the body to move and change position.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Briefly explain the formation of bone in the human body.

Answer: The fetal skeleton is first made of cartilage. Cartilage is strong and flexible, and the cartilage cells are able to divide and grow as the fetus grows. During the third month of fetal development, osteoblasts begin to form a collar around the long bones in the fetus. The osteoblasts form from cartilage cells that are transformed as blood vessels form around the cartilage. These osteoblast collars support the bones as the cartilage inside breaks down, leaving a cavity inside. The cavity is filled with hollow space that the osteoblast cells fill with spongy bone. The osteoblasts secrete collagen and other organic material, which then mix with calcium salts to form mature bone cells called osteocytes that are unable to divide. The epiphyseal plates form at the end of the long bones and the long bones are able to grow from these structures.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Briefly explain osteoporosis and what preventative measures can be taken to reduce a person's risk of this condition.

Answer: Osteoporosis is a decrease in bone density that occurs during the bone remodeling process, and the destruction of old bone exceeds the formation of new bone. The bones become thin and brittle, increasing the probability of fractures. Estrogen stimulates bone formation; this hormone declines sharply after menopause, leading to an increased risk of osteoporosis. An individual can reduce their susceptibility to osteoporosis by reducing or eliminating alcohol consumption (alcohol interferes with estrogen function). A person should stop smoking because smoking reduces estrogen levels. Consume calcium-rich foods such as milk products, broccoli, spinach, shrimp, and soy products. These foods increase the calcium in the body, which helps prevent thin bones. Exercise is highly recommended because weight-bearing exercise causes bones to thicken in response to the extra stress, which also helps prevent osteoporosis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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4) Arthroscopic surgery is used to repair damage to the knee. What sorts of things can go wrong that can lead to damage in someone's knee?

Answer: There are many parts to the knee that are subject to misalignment or damage. The knee is a major load-bearing hinge joint. It is built to only bend in one plane, but it is also subjected to stress that can tend to bend the knee in a direction it is not designed to bend. When this happens, some of the many ligaments in the knee can tear. The patella is a bone that does not bear weight but is present to lend structure to the knee joint. The patella can also be pushed out of proper alignment in an injury. The cartilage of the knee can wear out over time as well.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 5) Why would a tall woman be at less risk of osteoporosis than a short woman, yet both would be at higher risk than a man?

Answer: The severity of a case of osteoporosis is directly related to the bone mass of the individual. A tall female would tend to have a higher bone mass than a woman with a slight build. However, since females experience a loss of estrogen, they would lose bone mass faster than a typical male.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) Why would a scientist trying to isolate osteoblasts look on the periosteal side of a bone in a young animal to find them?

Answer: In growing bones, new bone tissue is deposited more heavily on the outside or periosteal surface of a bone. Since it is the osteoblast that adds bone tissue, they would be found in higher proportions on the periosteal surface of the bone.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) A patient with leukemia has blood cells that are not dividing properly and are out of control.

Treatment consists of a bone marrow transplant. How would this help?

Answer: The improperly dividing cells must be destroyed or they will continue to cause problems. The only way to ensure that all of the leukemia cells are removed is to destroy all of the blood cells. Then, a new supply of functioning blood cells has to be implanted to restore the blood cell population. Since the stem cells in the bone marrow give rise to all forms of blood cells, the transplant would replace the defective cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 8) Organized sports can be very competitive, even for young children. Little League players are often pushed to develop skills like perfecting a curve ball. However, repeatedly trying to throw a curve ball can cause injury in growing bone. What part of the bone is most likely affected?

Answer: Certain repetitive motions place an undue amount of strain on joints. Since the epiphyseal plate in children has not formed solid bone, it also is subject to stress. The process of throwing a curve ball involves a wrist flicking motion that can compress the growth plates in the bones of the arm and wrist, causing damage to them.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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9) Rheumatoid arthritis is the most threatening form of arthritis and often results in a replacement prosthesis of the damaged joint. Explain how this form of arthritis differs from other forms.

Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease. The body attacks its own synovial membranes. It is a permanent condition, therefore eventually the cartilage will be destroyed and the only treatment can be the replacement of the damaged joint. In contrast, osteoarthritis involves degeneration of joint surfaces as a result of wear and tear; it is not an autoimmune disease.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 6 The Muscular System Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not a function of muscle?

A) regulate calcium in the blood B) generate heat C) move blood in veins D) move lymph in lymphatic vessels Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Overuse, misuse, and age are some of the factors that contribute to excessive stress on a tendon, causing inflammation known as ________.

A) bursitis B) tetanus C) tendinitis D) spasms Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The arrangement of muscles so that the action of one muscle is opposite to that of its partner is referred to as ________.

A) synergistic B) antagonistic C) dual D) insertion Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) If it were possible to have antagonistic muscle pairs in an arm contract simultaneously, what movement would the arm make?

A) The arm would move away from the body.

B) The arm would move toward the body in a curling movement.

C) The arm would be locked in position.

D) The arm could move easily in each direction.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 5) The attachment point of a muscle to a bone that can move is called the ________.

A) origin B) insertion C) synergistic D) antagonistic Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

1 .

6) What delivers a signal from the motor neuron to all the sarcomeres of a muscle cell?

A) myofibril B) myosin filament C) transverse tubule D) actin filament Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Which of the following are protein filaments that function in muscle contraction and are shaped like a golf club with two heads?

A) intermediate filaments B) myosin filaments C) myofilaments D) actin filaments Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) What is released by motor neurons to stimulate a contraction?

A) myosin B) acetylcholine C) dopamine D) calcium Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) A condition that occurs when a myosin head binds to an actin molecule in order to contract a muscle is called ________.

A) myosin filament B) actin filament C) cross-bridges D) troponin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Which component of a muscle does the Ca++ combine with to allow a contraction to occur?

A) myosin heads B) actin C) troponin D) T-tubules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

2 .

11) Why must tropomyosin cover the thin filament in just the right position before the muscle can relax?

A) It covers the myosin binding sites and, if left exposed, will allow the myosin to bind and pull.

B) Without it in the correct position, calcium cannot be released.

C) It is needed in the proper location or ATP cannot be used.

D) It has a particular binding place that facilitates the removal of calcium.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ions that are necessary for skeletal muscle contractions.

Which of the following ions does it store?

A) Mg++ B) Fe++ C) Na+ D) Ca++ Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Which of these junctions represents the connection between the tip of a neuron and a skeletal muscle cell from which acetylcholine diffuses?

A) gap B) tight C) neuromuscular D) desmosome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Which of these muscle types permit voluntary movement?

A) cardiac B) skeletal C) smooth D) All of the above permit voluntary movement Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) When a muscle is stimulated before the muscle can fully relax, it can cause ________.

A) muscle twitch B) tetanus C) muscle failure D) tendinitis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) Which functions in the attachment of muscle to bone?

A) synergistic B) tetanus C) ligaments D) tendons Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) Which of these structures is part of a muscle cell's plasma membrane that delivers signals to the sarcomere?

A) myosin heads B) actin fibers C) endoplasmic reticulum D) T-tubules Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) When a muscle is stimulated prior to full relaxation of a previous contraction and the second stimuli is added to the first contraction, it is referred to as ________.

A) tetanus B) twitch C) fatigue D) summation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) My sister Adel plays tennis with me every Wednesday evening. Towards the end of our game our quick hits are mostly powered by ________.

A) ATP and creatine phosphate reserves B) anaerobic pathways of ATP production C) aerobic pathways of ATP production D) slow-twitch cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 20) Which of these cell types can be described as muscle cells that contract rapidly, are rich in glycogen deposits, and depend on anaerobic respiration to produce ATP? A) slow twitch cells B) fast twitch cells C) myoglobin D) hemoglobin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

4 .

21) After a period of exercise, a person will breathe heavily for some time after the activity has ceased. What is happening during this time as the oxygen debt is being paid?

A) Lactic acid is being removed.

B) Creatine phosphate is being regenerated.

C) Glycogen stores are being regenerated.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Why is ATP needed for muscle contraction?

A) It causes tropomyosin to slide off the myosin binding sites of actin.

B) It's needed for calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

C) It causes calcium to bind to troponin.

D) Myosin has to physically contact the actin filament and move to pull it toward the midline of the sarcomere.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) Why does a person continue to breathe heavily after prolonged activity?

A) because of a lack of water B) to relieve fatigue C) to relieve O2 debt D) no reason Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) Which muscle cells are designed for endurance?

A) slow twitch cells B) fast twitch cells C) myoglobin D) hemoglobin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 25) What is the result of resistance exercise?

A) Existing muscle cells increase in diameter.

B) The number of muscle cells increases.

C) More mitochondria develop.

D) New blood vessels develop.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

5 .

26) Someone who has broken an arm and has had a cast on it for months will notice a distinct shrinking of the arm once the cast is removed. Why does this happen?

A) The cast has reduced blood flow to the muscle tissue to reduce swelling.

B) If the muscles are not used they will atrophy.

C) The other arm was used more to compensate for the unused one, and it's become stronger.

D) If the person was right-handed, they'll become left-handed.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) Some insecticides interfere with the removal of acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft. What effect will this have on muscle contraction?

A) The muscle cell will lose all of its supply of calcium.

B) The muscle cell will be unable to be stimulated again.

C) The muscle cell will be in a state of constant stimulation, leading to a tetany response.

D) The muscle cell will have a single twitch and will be unable to contract again.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 28) When a muscle cramps, it is often due to dehydration. Why would stretching or massaging it relieve the condition?

A) It will increase blood flow, which will restore electrolytes and nutrients.

B) Massaging will help reduce swelling.

C) Stretching will make the muscle stronger over a long period of time.

D) Stretching and massaging will promote strengthening of the muscle.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 29) A person may have a muscle injury that really affects the tendon and not the muscle tissue itself. Why is it that after a hard workout, muscle pain will go away in a few days at most, but tendinitis lasts so much longer?

A) Muscle cells are more elastic, so they are harder to damage.

B) Unlike a tendon, muscle tissue has an ample blood supply so it's easier to repair.

C) Muscle cells can be rested but tendons have to be used all the time.

D) The electrical signals that muscle cells generate are used to aid in healing.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 30) What causes delayed onset muscle soreness?

A) exercise in which a muscle lengthens while it contracts B) walking on level ground C) running on level ground D) gentle stretching Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

6 .

31) Muscle contraction results from the repeated cycle of interactions between myosin and actin.

What is the last step of this cycle after which the cycle starts over again?

A) New ATP molecules bind to the myosin heads, causing them to disengage from the actin.

B) The myosin heads split the ATP into ADP and Pi and store the energy.

C) The myosin head bends (the power stroke).

D) Myosin heads extend toward the Z lines at the ends of the sarcomere.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A muscle will ________ if levels of calcium and potassium decrease in the blood.

Answer: cramp Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) ________ provides the energy required for voluntary muscle contraction in an individual's body.

Answer: ATP Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ is a sustained powerful contraction of a muscle that results from frequent stimulation with no time between stimuli for relaxation.

Answer: Tetanus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Muscle ________ are too short to be part of normal body movement but can generate heat, for example during shivering.

Answer: twitches Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Muscle cells that contract slowly when stimulated but with enormous endurance are called ________.

Answer: slow twitch cells Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A(n) ________ is a motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates.

Answer: motor unit Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The depletion of O2 in the muscles of an individual that has exercised for a long period of time is known as ________.

Answer: oxygen debt Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

7 .

8) ________ pairs up with troponin proteins to form a complex that regulates muscle contractions.

Answer: Tropomyosin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The ________ are the thinner of the two protein filaments that are found within myofibrils.

Answer: actin filaments Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) A(n) ________ is the attachment point of a muscle to a bone that remains stationary during movement.

Answer: origin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The ________ is a modified form of endoplasmic reticulum that stores and releases calcium ions when a muscle contracts.

Answer: sarcoplasmic reticulum Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The striations of skeletal muscles are caused by the arrangement of many elongated ________.

Answer: myofibrils Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) ________ are the proteins that appear as dark bands that mark the ends of the sarcomeres.

Answer: Z lines Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A band of connective tissue that aids in the attachment of muscle to bone is a(n) ________.

Answer: tendon Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive stress on a tendon, causing inflammation.

Answer: Tendinitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) A bundle of muscle cells is called a ________.

Answer: fascicle Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) The release of acetylcholine into the neuromuscular junction is shortly followed by the release of ________ ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: calcium Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

8 .

18) During muscle contraction the heads of myosin filaments pull actin filaments toward the center of a ________.

Answer: sarcomere Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) During burst-like movements, such as tennis hits, ATP is produced by converting glucose into ________.

Answer: pyruvic acid Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) The muscle that extends and rotates the thigh when walking is called the ________.

Answer: Gluteus maximus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

9 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Lactic acid B) Transverse tubules C) Tendons D) Muscle twitch E) Fast twitch muscle fibers F) Tropomyosin G) Myosin H) Troponin I) Slow twitch muscle fibers J) Calcium ions K) Actin 1) Causes soreness in muscles when the muscles are used more often than usual.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Caused by a neuron, stimulating muscle cells to contract.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Delivers the signals from the motor neuron to every sarcomere of the muscle cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Calcium binds to this protein to initiate a contraction.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Covers the myosin binding sites on actin.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Protein that makes up the thin myofilament.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Protein that makes up the thick myofilament.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Functions in the attachment of muscle to bone.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Muscle fibers designed for rapid and powerful responses.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Muscle fibers designed for endurance, contract slowly, and have a steady supply of energy.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

10 .

11) Bind to troponin in the sarcomere to initiate muscle contraction.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) A 2) D 3) B 4) H 5) F 6) K 7) G 8) C 9) E 10) I 11) J Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Describe the four traits that all muscle types share.

Answer: Muscles have the ability to shorten and are contractile. Muscles are excitable and can respond to stimuli. Muscles are extensible and have the ability to stretch. Muscles are elastic and can return to their original length after being either lengthened or shortened.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Why must muscles be arranged in pairs opposite to one another?

Answer: Muscles can only contract and lack the ability to elongate on their own. Muscles are arranged opposite to one another so when one muscle contracts the antagonistic muscle on the opposite side of the bone can relax and lengthen.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Compare and contrast the physiological effects of steroid use to increase and improve performance in both genders.

Answer: Steroid use may promote a false sense of invincibility, increased aggression, and severe depression. Abuse of these drugs can severely affect the liver, cardiovascular system, and reproductive system. Males often have a reduction in natural testosterone production, causing atrophy of the testicles, which leads to sterility and impotence. Many females exhibit irreversible masculine traits such as growth of body hair, deep voice, loss of scalp hair, smaller breasts, and enlarged clitoris.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Explain the function of ATP in muscle contractions.

Answer: ATP binds to the myosin heads, allowing the myosin heads to disengage from the actin.

The myosin heads split the ATP molecules and store the energy, which allows the myosin heads to swivel in preparation to form the cross-bridges.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) How do calcium ions affect muscle contractions?

Answer: The tropomyosin-troponin complex situates itself at the actin-myosin binding sites, preventing the formation of the cross-bridges. The tropomyosin-troponin complex can be moved once calcium ions bind to the troponin, exposing the myosin heads to the actin filaments and allowing the contraction to proceed.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

11 .

6) Myasthenia gravis is a disease caused by the immune system that attacks the acetylcholine receptors found on muscle cells. What effect would blocking these receptors have on muscle contraction?

Answer: Acetylcholine is needed to initiate an action potential on the surface of a muscle cell.

Without it, the muscle will not contract. If a diseased state destroys or blocks the receptors that acetylcholine normally binds to, the signal will not be sent and the muscle will not contract.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) Rigor mortis sets in after the death of humans and other animals because the supply of ATP decreases to the point in which calcium can no longer be removed from the cell. At this point, the myosin molecules attach to the thin filament. The muscles stiffen and limbs cannot be moved.

Why and for how long does the muscle then remain in this continuously contracted state?

Answer: If the myosin molecules cannot disengage from the actin filaments (i.e., the crossbridges cannot be broken), the muscle cannot rebound back to its starting position, and the muscle will stay locked in that position. Eventually, the actin and myosin proteins themselves will break down and the muscles will be moveable again.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Turkey is often served at Thanksgiving meals in which family members vie for portions of white or dark meat. Why is the breast meat of a turkey considered white meat, while the darker meat is found in the leg muscles?

Answer: The breast muscles of a turkey provide the force necessary for flight. Since turkeys are not exceptional fliers and do not migrate, the flight muscles are not frequently used. Therefore, they tend to be fast twitch fibers that lack much myoglobin. Turkeys rely instead on running to escape predators, so the leg muscles get far more exercise. They tend to be slow twitch fibers containing lots of myoglobin and are thus darker in appearance.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 9) Steve decides to make a meal for some of his friends. He uses a variety of foods to prepare the meal, including some canned mushrooms. Unfortunately, he gave his friends a mild case of botulism food poisoning. His friends reported blurred vision and trouble speaking due to a flaccid paralysis of the muscle cells by the botulinum toxin. Propose a mechanism by which this toxin would inhibit muscle contraction.

Answer: If the muscles become flaccid, it's because they cannot be stimulated to contract. The most likely cause would be that the toxin is somehow interfering with the action of acetylcholine.

The toxin may be blocking acetylcholine release or it may be blocking the binding of acetylcholine to the receptors on the muscle.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 10) Aerobic exercises do not increase skeletal muscle size, but cause various changes in the body. Explain what changes aerobic exercises initiate.

Answer: Aerobic exercises initiate the development of new blood vessels to muscles and more mitochondria within muscle cells. Muscle coordination, digestive tract movement and the cardiovascular and respiratory system will also benefit. The strength of the skeleton also increases because of the increased force on the bones.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 7 Neurons: The Matter of the Mind Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In saltatory conduction, nerve impulses jump from one exposed region of the axon to another.

This exposed region is called the ________.

A) motor end plate B) node of Ranvier C) Schwann cell gap D) interneurons Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Inhaling or "huffing" is a way to achieve a high usually by breathing in a fat-soluble substance. Which of the following structures would be most likely attacked first?

A) myelin sheath B) axon C) neuron D) dendrite Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) An action potential would most commonly arrive from which of the following structures before arriving at the axon?

A) glia B) dendrite C) synapse D) cell body Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 4) Using the information from the text, a deficiency of what ion outside the neuron would make it very difficult for a depolarization to occur?

A) K+ B) Na+ C) ClD) Mn+ Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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5) What are specialized membrane proteins that actively transport sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane? A) Na/Cl pump B) Na/Mn pump C) Na/K pump D) Na pump Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Which of the following is a chemical signal that diffuses across the gap between adjacent neurons to convey a message to the next cell?

A) neurotransmitter B) synapse C) dendrite D) action potential Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A nerve impulse does not vary in intensity with regard to the strength of the stimulus.

This is known as what principle?

A) resting membrane potential B) refractory period C) all or nothing D) graded response Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The combined effects of inhibitory and excitatory effects on a postsynaptic cell will decide whether that cell generates an action potential. This principle is called ________.

A) threshold B) internalization C) summation D) potentiation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Which of the following is a neurotransmitter that triggers a contraction of a voluntary muscle?

A) synapse B) action potential C) sodium D) acetylcholine Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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10) Which of the following parts of the nervous system is closest to a muscle? A) neuron B) interneuron C) motor neuron D) neuroglial cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) Your sister Henriette has little muscle strength. Her doctor says she has an autoimmune disease at this but you didn't quite catch the name the physician gave for the illness. Looking chapter, what do you think the diagnosis is?

A) Alzheimer's B) schizophrenia C) senility D) myasthenia gravis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

12) Which of these diseases involves the destruction of the myelin sheath on certain neurons within the brain and spinal cord?

A) depression B) Alzheimer's C) Parkinson's D) multiple sclerosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Sodium and potassium ions cross the neuron's membrane to cause which of the following physiological processes?

A) action potential B) passive transport C) refractory period D) transmission Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A neuron's membrane that maintains a charge difference across its surface in which the inside is more negative than the outside is called ________.

A) graded potential B) resting potential C) action potential D) summation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3 .

15) Which neurotransmitter appears to be associated with an energizing "good" feeling and is essential in hunger, thirst, and sex drive?

A) dopamine B) serotonin C) norepinephrine D) synapse Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) Which neurotransmitter may function to regulate emotions and is involved in pathways that control complex movements?

A) dopamine B) serotonin C) norepinephrine D) synapse Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) Where are neurotransmitters stored in a neuron?

A) axon B) synaptic knob C) dendrites D) cell body Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Ahmad might have been accidentally exposed to an insecticide while he worked in a citrus grove. What symptoms of poisoning would you watch for?

A) depression B) Alzheimer's disease C) muscle tremors D) excessive urination Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 19) A new drug interferes with the function of the dendrites of a neuron. What will happen to this neuron?

A) The neuron will continuously send signals.

B) The neuron cannot be stimulated to send a signal along its axon.

C) The neuron will die off.

D) The neuron will sometimes send signals and will sometimes not send signals.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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20) Multiple sclerosis is a disease in which the myelin sheath is destroyed. What will happen to nerve conduction speed in affected neurons?

A) It will slow down dramatically.

B) It will speed up dramatically.

C) It will speed up just a little bit.

D) There will be no effect.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) Muscle cells that are not exercised will atrophy or shrink in size. Lou Gehrig's disease affects nervous tissue but also causes muscle atrophy. What type of nerve cell must be affected to cause this muscle-wasting condition?

A) interneurons B) sensory neurons C) neuroglial cells D) motor neurons Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 22) Some drugs modulate the activity of ion channels. For example, Novocain somewhat inhibits the opening of sodium channels. What happens to the threshold of a sensory neuron if this drug is used?

A) It will take less stimulation to reach threshold.

B) It will take more stimulation to reach threshold.

C) Threshold will not change.

D) The nerve will not function and will die off.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 23) Infants require many nutrients early in life, including lipids such as fats. A low-fat diet for infants is not recommended because, among other things, it can impact the development of the nervous system. What could be affected?

A) Lipids are needed by glial cells to produce the myelin sheath.

B) Fats are needed for energy because infants are often on a low carbohydrate diet.

C) Lipids are needed to produce the polypeptide neurotransmitters used by neurons.

D) Fats are required to generate action potentials on nerve cells.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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24) Ouabain is a chemical used on poison arrows in Africa. It works by inhibiting the Na+/K+ pump. What effect would this have on an action potential?

A) It would prevent the stimulation of an action potential by removing Na+ from the cell.

B) It would immediately cause an action potential to be generated.

C) There would be no direct effect because the pump is used to maintain ion distributions, not to cause an action potential.

D) It would cause the release of a neurotransmitter that would cause an action potential.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 25) Prescription drugs like Prozac help maintain higher levels of serotonin in the brain. What effect will this have on an individual?

A) It will act as an antidepressant since a lack of serotonin is considered a cause of depression symptoms.

B) It will act to suppress impulsive behavior since too much serotonin causes children to act out.

C) It will cause a patient to be sleepy since serotonin is essential to a good night's sleep.

D) It will cause tetany due to an overproduction of acetylcholine.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 26) Leprosy destroys nerve tissue, so an afflicted person is likely to hurt his or her foot without even knowing it. What types of neurons are likely to be affected?

A) neuroglial cells B) motor neurons C) sensory neurons D) interneurons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) ________ form the myelin sheath, which wraps around the axon, to insulate against shortcircuiting between neurons.

Answer: Schwann cells Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) ________ is a progressive disorder in which the dopamine-producing neurons in the movement control center of the brain die.

Answer: Parkinson disease Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ involves an insufficient amount of several neurotransmitters, such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, for extended periods of time.

Answer: Clinical depression Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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4) Motor neurons that carry information away from the brain or spinal cord are known as ________ neurons.

Answer: efferent Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Axons and dendrites, or both, arranged in bundles and covered by connective tissue are ________.

Answer: nerves Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A(n) ________, or sensory neuron, conducts information toward the brain and spinal cord.

Answer: afferent Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The ________ can be defined as the specific value a membrane depolarization reaches to begin an action potential.

Answer: threshold Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) ________ refers to the jumping of a nerve impulse from one node of Ranvier to the next.

Answer: Saltatory conduction Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) During an action potential, the ________ ions rush into the axon.

Answer: sodium Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Immediately after an action potential occurs, the sodium channels close and cannot be reopened. What is this period called?

Answer: refractory period Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The synaptic ________ is the narrow space between two neurons.

Answer: cleft Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The enzyme ________ removes the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from synapses after it has been released.

Answer: acetylcholinesterase Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) ________ are numerous short, branching projections from the neuron that create a huge surface for receiving signals from other cells.

Answer: Dendrites Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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14) A(n) ________ synaptic neuron releases neurotransmitters that act on the ________ synaptic neuron to start an action potential.

Answer: pre; post Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Synaptic knobs B) Interneurons C) Dendrite D) Excitatory synapse E) Motor neuron F) Axon G) Inhibitory synapse H) Synapse I) Sensory neuron J) Ion channels 1) Synapse in which neurotransmitters decrease the chance of an action potential on the postsynaptic cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) Synapse in which neurotransmitters allow sodium to enter the postsynaptic cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A specific type of neuron that conducts information toward the brain and spinal cord from a sensory receptor.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The junction between a neuron and another cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The short branching projections of a neuron, which provide surface area for sending and receiving signals from other cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Specific neurons that carry information away from the brain and spinal cord to an effector such as a muscle or a gland.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Membrane proteins that allow specific charged molecules to pass through from one side of the membrane to the other.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Part of the neuron where neurotransmitters are released.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) A single, long extension of a neuron's cell body that functions to transmit an incoming message or impulse.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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10) Association neurons that are located between the sensory and motor neurons, where they integrate or interpret the sensory signals.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) G 2) D 3) I 4) H 5) C 6) E 7) J 8) A 9) F 10) B Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain the anatomy of a typical neuron.

Answer: Dendrites are numerous short, branching projections from a neuron that receive information from other neurons or from the environment. The cell body controls the neuron's metabolic activities and integrates input from other neurons. The axon conducts the nerve impulses away from the cell body. Neurotransmitters are released at synaptic knobs.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Compare and contrast the sensory, motor, and interneurons.

Answer: All three have the generalized components of a neuron, such as the cell body, dendrites, etc. However, sensory neurons conduct information toward the brain and spinal cord from the sensory receptors that gather information within and around the body. By contrast, motor neurons carry information away from the brain and spinal cord to an effector. Association or interneurons can be found between sensory and motor neurons within the brain or spinal cord.

These neurons are responsible for the integration or interpretation of sensory signals and the response to these signals.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) If a drug had the side effect of destroying dopamine-producing neurons, what effect would this have on a person?

Answer: The individual would probably start to show signs of Parkinson's disease. Signs include a shuffling walk, hunched posture, and possible involuntary shaking.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 4) What is the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?

Answer: The myelin sheath serves to insulate axons of neurons in the brain and spinal cord along with axons outside the brain and spinal cord. It is composed of Schwann cells outside the central nervous system (CNS). The Schwann cells wrap around an axon many times to prevent messages from short-circuiting between neurons.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) What are some of the dangers associated with the use of pesticides that might be of concern for humans? What are some ethical concerns related to their use?

Answer: There are many insecticides that prevent insect pests from damaging favorable plants or household foods. The organophosphates insecticides kill insects by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase,the enzyme that degrades acetylcholine. This causes acetylcholine to accumulate and continuously stimulate in the synapse. These pesticides have a similar effect on humans.

Ethical concerns will vary but here are a few: 1) Organophosphates could be used against humans in warfare. 2) Organophosphates could pose a threat to wildlife, including "good" insects such as bees, if not applied carefully. 3) These toxins could be used in homicides and suicides. 4) Accidental poisoning of farm workers and others exposed to these pesticides kills 500,000 people annually worldwide.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation 6) Some nerves are myelinated, others are not. Myelinated nerves send signals faster than unmyelinated neurons. Draw two neurons of equal length and wrap segments of myelin along one. Be careful to leave spaces for the nodes of Ranvier. Now, measure the exposed axons of each and total up the distance. Describe why the myelinated neurons send signals faster.

Answer: It should be apparent from the drawing that myelinated neurons have less exposed axon length; thus, signals travel faster as they jump from one node to the next.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic disorder in which fat deposits build up in nerve cells, leading to a slow loss of function. Because this usually strikes children under 1 year of age, the symptoms are not immediately apparent. Think about what this condition would cause in terms of symptoms. List some that you think are possible. What would be the inevitable end result as the disease progresses?

Answer: The disease would interfere with neuron function in the brain. Because very young children don't speak, verbal communication is not a reliable measure of the illness. The most noticeable symptoms would be loss of motor function, difficulty swallowing, or inability to see or move around in response to stimuli. Eventually, motor function will be impaired to the point of being unable to breathe. In the end, the disease is fatal.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 8) Potassium ions are important in the resting membrane potential and the action potential of both nerve and muscle cells. The concentration gradient of potassium ions is critical to both. An excess of potassium outside a neuron or muscle cell would negate the concentration gradient.

What would happen if the heart was injected with massive amounts of potassium? Explain your answer.

Answer: Potassium ions added to the exterior of a cell would disrupt the resting membrane potential, as they would not "leak" in the correct direction. During the resting potential, there are more potassium ions inside of the cell; during the action potential, potassium leaks out of the cell. An action potential could be initiated as sodium rushes into the cell but another one could not be generated.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis

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9) In the disease myasthenia gravis, the immune system attacks the receptors for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. A drug is used to inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which normally removes the neurotransmitter. This improves the condition of the patient. How does this work?

Answer: If a person with this disease has fewer receptors for acetylcholine, it would help to inhibit the breakdown of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. Increasing the concentration of the neurotransmitter in the synapse could increase the likelihood of some of the neurotransmitter binding with the receptors.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 8 The Nervous System Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Tunde has started to forget where she puts things and often forgets the names of people she has just met. What part of her brain is most likely not performing properly, according to the information in the text?

A) prefrontal cortex B) hippocampus C) cerebrum D) cerebellum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) Wow! That medicine really tasted bitter! In which lobe of the cerebrum did you consciously think about that?

A) frontal B) occipital C) temporal D) parietal Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) When you ride your bike to class, what area of the cerebrum are you using to move your leg muscles?

A) premotor cortex B) corpus callosum C) somatosensory D) Broca's area Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Which of the following structures connects the spinal cord to the rest of the brain and influences breathing rhythm and blood pressure?

A) cerebrum B) pons C) medulla oblongata D) thalamus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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5) A very deep groove that runs between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the ________.

A) lateral fissure B) central fissure C) fissure of Rolando D) longitudinal fissure Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Which of the following can be defined as a collection of structures involved in emotions and memory?

A) CNS B) limbic system C) autonomic system D) parasympathetic system Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Dr. Ling, the famous brain surgeon, removes a portion of the skull during surgery. Which of the meninges does she see first?

A) ventricle B) pia mater C) dura mater D) arachnoid Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Which of the following is a specific function of the cerebrospinal fluid?

A) thinking B) promoting inflammation C) bone building D) shock absorption Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The patient is awake many times during brain surgery. In an operation to remove a brain tumor, Dr. Judson accidentally poked a certain area of the cerebrum, whereupon the patient said: "Why is my arm being tickled?" What area was poked?

A) pons B) occipital lobe C) primary somatosensory area D) medulla Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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10) Which of these structures is located under the cerebral hemispheres and is important in sensory experience, motor activity, stimulation of the cerebral cortex, and memory?

A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) pons D) cerebellum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) Which brain structure maintains homeostasis and influences blood pressure, heart rate, digestive activity, breathing rate, and other important physiological functions in the body?

A) hypothalamus B) medulla oblongata C) thalamus D) cerebellum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) If you go to the refrigerator and reach in to take out a drink, you will not normally fall over because of this part of the brain.

A) pons B) choroid plexus C) cerebellum D) amygdala Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Sam was in a terrible head-on collision. When he recovered from all of the obvious, external injuries, the once affable and happy-go-lucky person had become surly and very unfriendly.

Which part of his cerebrum was most likely damaged?

A) prefrontal cortex B) Broca's area C) thalamus D) postcentral gyrus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) This 1-inch section of the brain controls the breathing rhythm and heart rate.

A) temporal lobe B) hippocampus C) occipital lobe D) medulla oblongata Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) You are generally not aware of the texture of the cloth of your shirt as it rests on your shoulders, unless someone or something happens to make you think of it. What part of the brain is responsible for filtering out such stimuli?

A) reticular activating center B) primary motor area C) postcentral gyrus D) cerebellum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 16) Stress, relaxation, hunger, consuming the wrong foods, and too much or too little sleep can contribute to which of the following?

A) stroke B) coma C) headache D) spinal cord injury Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 17) Charles is comatose. What part of his brain is not working properly?

A) limbic system B) reticular activating system C) corpus callosum D) amygdala Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 18) During an automobile accident, Susan received a serious head injury to the left side.

Afterward she had a hard time speaking, although she showed that she understood what was being said to her. Which area of her cerebrum was damaged?

A) occipital lobe B) frontal lobe C) temporal lobe D) medulla oblongata Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 19) Perry joined the National Guard and was sent overseas to a war zone. While on duty, an improvised explosive device went off near him and he barely escaped unharmed. What would be true of his nervous system?

A) Parasympathetic impulses were increased.

B) Most sympathetic impulses were reduced.

C) The sympathetic neurons all released acetylcholine.

D) Norepinephrine and epinephrine were released.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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20) Ivana has a rapidly growing brain tumor and must be put on life support because she can no longer maintain appropriate heart and respiratory rates. She is also having trouble maintaining blood pressure. The most likely area that the tumor is affecting is the ________.

A) corpus callosum B) thalamus C) occipital lobe D) medulla oblongata Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) Heidi injured a ventral root below her ribs. What problem will she likely experience?

A) She will not be able to close her eyes.

B) She will become deaf.

C) She will lose all sense of touch in her abdomen.

D) She will have trouble walking.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) As John walked outside the ballpark, a foul ball sailed over the fence and came straight at him. He saw it, and before he could think of what to do, he had reflexively jumped out of the way. What part of the brain saved John from a nasty bump?

A) hypothalamus B) pons C) medulla oblongata D) midbrain Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) Your neighbor tried to lift a propane tank onto the back of his pickup truck and ruptured the cartilaginous disk between two of his vertebrae. What is most likely to happen to him?

A) He will have bloody stools.

B) He will suffer pain from a compressed spinal nerve.

C) He might have severe brain damage.

D) His spinal nerve cord will enlarge.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 24) Fred has been diagnosed with a disease that causes him to forget that his relatives have been to see him. What parts of his brain are likely affected, given this information?

A) hippocampus and amygdala B) medulla oblongata and thalamus C) corpus callosum and pons D) cerebellum and midbrain Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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25) Juanita was in an automobile accident and received a bad bump on her head. Although she had been a slender and calm person, after the accident she began to eat a lot and have emotional ups and downs. Her body temperature also fluctuated more dramatically than in the past. What part of her brain is most likely damaged?

A) cerebellum B) midbrain C) hypothalamus D) fornix Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) The ________ functions as the sensory area for touch, vision, hearing, and olfaction as well as association areas for interpreting sensations, language, thinking, decision making, selfawareness, creativity, and storing memories.

Answer: cerebrum Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) ________ memory stores large amounts of information for hours, days, or years.

Answer: Long-term Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The thin outer layer (1- to 2-mm thick) of each hemisphere of the brain that serves to increase the surface area by being arranged in a folded manner is called the ________.

Answer: cerebral cortex Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The ________ consists of myelinated axons that conduct impulses over long distances.

Answer: white matter Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) If a certain water-soluble, intravenous antibiotic is not succeeding in defeating the germs inside the central nervous system, the ________ may be the cause of the failure.

Answer: blood-brain barrier Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) The ________ of the cerebral cortex sends messages to the skeletal muscles in order to control voluntary movement.

Answer: primary motor area Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) When you feel a mosquito on your arm, you are consciously aware of it in the ________ in the cerebrum.

Answer: primary somatosensory area Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

6 .

8) Memory, emotions, and your sense of smell all meet in the ________.

Answer: limbic system Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The ________ is responsible for converting information from the short-term to the long-term memory.

Answer: hippocampus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) George's friends have just sprung a surprise birthday party on him. He uses the ________ as he takes in the current situation and then responds.

Answer: prefrontal cortex Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 11) The ________ is the branch of the peripheral nervous system that is made up of nerves that carry information to and from the CNS, which results in sensations and voluntary movement.

Answer: somatic nervous system Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Inflammation of the protective coverings of the brain and spinal cord is known as ________.

Answer: meningitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) A circuit of neurons that helps in the automatic response to a stimulus is a(n) ________.

Answer: reflex arc Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

7 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Corpus callosum B) Pons C) Thalamus D) Somatic nervous system E) Limbic system F) Hypothalamus G) Parasympathetic nervous system H) Sympathetic nervous system I) Reticular activating system J) Autonomic nervous system 1) A loud, unexpected noise will cause this part of the autonomic nervous system to become active.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) This is a group of brain structures that helps us to experience feelings such as joy, fear, and anger.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) This filters sensory input.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Tissue located within the brain that allows the left- and right-cerebral hemispheres to communicate with one another.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A tumor here may cause you to eat either too much or too little.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 6) A structure in the brain that bridges the higher and lower brain centers.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A portion of the brain that processes all sensory information except olfaction and relays information to the appropriate higher brain centers.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) This part of the peripheral nervous system regulates involuntary body functions, heart rate, and breathing rate.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) This portion of the central nervous system governs bodily activities during restful conditions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

8 .

10) This part of the peripheral nervous system carries sensory information from the skin, skeletal muscles, and joints to the central nervous system and may also direct voluntary movements.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) H 2) E 3) I 4) A 5) F 6) B 7) C 8) J 9) G 10) D Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) If Georgina takes a drug that increases the effects of norepinephrine, what changes would we see in the basic activities of her body?

Answer: We would see an increase in her heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Professor Morningstar has developed a terrific new antibiotic to be taken orally in water-based syrup, but it is not working against bacterial meningitis. Based on the information in this chapter, can you suggest a reason? Can you suggest a solution to the problem using the information in the textbook?

Answer: A water-soluble medicine will most likely not cross the blood-brain barrier so it would be better if the professor came up with a lipid-soluble antibiotic.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 3) Shawfiq must have a benign tumor removed from his brain. The surgeon tells him that only local anesthesia will be administered as she cuts through Shawfiq's scalp, and that he will remain conscious the whole time. Shawfiq is really nervous about this because the brain seems to be a very sensitive area to have surgery on, particularly while he is wide awake. Explain to him why he shouldn't be so nervous.

Answer: Because there are no pain receptors in the brain, Shawfiq will not experience pain as his brain is being operated on.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Arnold was involved in a major traffic accident and some of his spinal nerves were cut. What are his chances for a full recovery? Please explain your answer.

Answer: The outlook is most likely poor because most neurons cannot divide, although there is some chance that future research with stem cells and nerve growth factors may help. Computers can stimulate the correct muscles to produce movements; with this type of assistance, people can now walk, whereas previously their mobility would have been limited or non-existent.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Enrique was working with chemicals in a paint factory and suddenly lost the ability to detect odors. Could this loss have anything to do with a failure in the thalamus?

Answer: No, because input from the sense of smell does not pass through the thalamus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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6) While driving down the Interstate at rush hour, you get cut off by an 18-wheeler and have to slam on the brakes. In addition to a major case of road rage, you also develop a rapid heart rate and breathing rate. What caused this increase? (Indicate branch of the nervous system and neurotransmitters.) What is happening to your digestion at this point? Answer: The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system has been activated. The neurotransmitters epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenalin) are responsible. While this system is active, digestion will be slowed down. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

10 .

Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 8A Special Topic: Drugs and the Mind Multiple-Choice Questions 1) This drug is normally injected but can also be processed into forms that can be smoked or inhaled. It is a synthetic opiate that produces feelings of ecstasy. A) marijuana B) caffeine C) alcohol D) heroin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Which are synthetically produced stimulants that resemble the brain's natural neurotransmitters? A) caffeine B) amphetamines C) marijuana D) opium Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) If a person uses Percocet, a morphine relative, to which of these drugs might that person develop crosstolerance? A) ecstasy B) cocaine C) heroin D) marijuana Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) While examining her patient's nose, Dr. Carlita Gonzales, an allergy specialist, noted a hole in the partition between the nasal cavities. The doctor suspects her patient is snorting which drug? A) alcohol B) marijuana C) mescaline D) cocaine Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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5) Which of the following is not a potential effect of alcohol abuse?

A) impaired judgment B) Down syndrome C) higher blood pressure D) liver cirrhosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Marina has owned a bar for many years and extols the health benefits of alcohol. Which of these claims is correct?

A) Four to five drinks per day improve the liver.

B) Heavy drinking prevents cancer.

C) Alcohol increases the uptake of vitamins and minerals.

D) Moderate consumption raises the "good" cholesterol levels.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Tundie is an accomplished lab technician. She wants to determine if her boyfriend is still smoking marijuana, a habit he swore he would give up. She can't test his blood for THC, because performing this test might arouse the suspicions of the authorities. Which of the following more subtle blood findings might suggest that her boyfriend it still smoking the weed?

A) increased blood nicotine B) low blood carbon dioxide C) low blood oxygen D) high blood niacin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) Ergot, a fungus, contains a hallucinogenic drug that binds to serotonin receptors. The natural drug is most similar to ________.

A) THC B) methamphetamine C) LSD D) morphine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) A psychoactive drug that delays the removal of a neurotransmitter from the synapse will ________.

A) dampen the response of the receiving neuron B) prolong the effect of the neurotransmitter on the receiving neuron C) prevent the neurotransmitter from working D) bind to the receptor and affect the receiving neuron in the same way as the neurotransmitter Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Angie wants to go with her boyfriend to a bar and consume some alcohol but she does not want to become intoxicated because she needs to drive them both home after 2 hours. She weighs 120 pounds. What advice can you give her based on the information in the textbook? Answer: The best advice is to not drink any alcohol at all if you are going to be the driver because alcohol absorption is relatively fast and impairment can begin within about 15 minutes. Because she weighs 120 pounds and will be there for 2 hours, she will most likely be able to have about two drinks, at most.

She might try eating some food with her drinks as this can dilute the alcohol and slow its absorption. She should also avoid carbonated drinks because they increase the rate of alcohol absorption. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 2) Mattie thinks she should use nicotine patches because they are safe. How can you convince her otherwise given the information in this chapter? Answer: Nicotine in any form will increase the heart rate, narrow the blood vessels, and cause the platelets to stick together. All of these activities will increase her risk of heart attack or stroke. Nicotine is also highly addictive. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Vasily thinks that drinking alcohol heightens his alertness and awareness of his surroundings and that he is a better driver after drinking several beers. Persuade him otherwise. Answer: Alcohol actually depresses the activity of the brain's neurons and removes inhibitions. It also reduces concentration and slows reflexes. This impairment of the nervous system will clearly make it more difficult for Vasily to drive safely. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 9 Sensory Systems Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which condition involves an uninjured body part experiencing pain as the result of injury to another part of the body?

A) receptor potential B) sensory adaptation C) referred pain D) interceptors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Which of the following is not detected with a special sense?

A) temperature B) balance C) smell D) hearing Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which receptors are responsible for touch, pressure, hearing, and equilibrium?

A) mechanoreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) photoreceptors D) thermoreceptors Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A series of fluid-filled chambers and canals found within the inner ear and whose function is to monitor the position and movement of the head is called the ________.

A) semicircular canal B) vestibular apparatus C) vestibule D) pinna Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The white portion of the tough outer-coat of the eye is called the ________.

A) sclera B) choroid C) retina D) ciliary body Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) The area where the optic nerve leaves the retina and where photoreceptors are absent is called the ________. A) optic area B) blind spot C) fovea D) cornea Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) When pressure builds in this area, the blood vessels supplying the rods and cones may collapse. The area where the pressure may rise is called the ________. A) vitreous humor B) posterior chamber C) anterior chamber D) tear glands Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The photoreceptors are most tightly packed into a specific part of the retina called the ________. A) optic nerve B) fovea C) ciliary body D) choroid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) This layer of the eye contains melanin and arteries that provide other parts with nutrients and oxygen.

A) iris B) retina C) choroid D) sclera Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The shape of the lens of the eye can be changed to allow focusing on certain objects at different distances from the head. The structure that produces this shape change is the ________. A) eyelid muscle B) ciliary body C) extrinsic muscle D) papillary muscle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) Which of these structures forms the channel that sound travels through to reach the eardrum?

A) auditory tube B) external auditory canal C) malleus D) incus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Which of these eye structures is responsible for allowing a person to see color?

A) sclera B) cones C) incus D) rods Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Sami stepped into a strange, new house but sensed something that brought back a whole flood of memories about his beloved grandmother from long ago. Which sense most likely brought these special memories back?

A) tactile B) hearing C) olfaction D) vision Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 14) Until asked, most people are not aware of the texture of the shirt that they have been wearing all day on their shoulders. What is the term for this phenomenon?

A) action potential B) threshold level C) sensory adaptation D) mechanical accommodation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) Sound amplification happens in the middle ear because of ________.

A) size difference between the eardrum and oval window B) lever action of the ossicles C) resonance in the efferent outer-hair cells D) stapedial reflex Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) When you look at a picture of a dog and then correctly identify it, what have you done in your conscious mind?

A) proprioception B) perception C) photoreception D) podsolization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) This type of mechanoreceptor is found in the lips, nipples, and fingertips and helps us to precisely determine contact with something else.

A) free nerve endings B) pacinian corpuscles C) hair root plexus D) Meissner's corpuscles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) The correct sequence of sound waves in the ear is ________.

A) stapes > eardrum > malleus > oval window B) malleus > incus > stapes > oval window C) eardrum > stapes > incus > malleus > inner ear D) auditory tube > incus > malleus > stapes > eardrum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 19) This portion of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for dynamic equilibrium.

A) semicircular canals B) otoliths C) vestibule D) sensory cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) Henrietta knows her arm's position as she lifts it away from her body in a completely darkened room because her brain is getting information from these general sense receptors.

A) Merkel discs B) thermoreceptors C) hair cells D) Golgi tendon organs Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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21) Charlene loved to eat raw garlic in various dishes and couldn't understand why others didn't want to be around her because she didn't notice any strong smell. What sensory phenomenon is she demonstrating?

A) sensory adaptation B) action potentials C) receptor potentials D) accommodation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Samantha gets into a new elevator in a large skyscraper and the doors close. She hears no noise, feels no vibration, and sees no movement, but she nevertheless knows that she is on her way up. What specific part of her ear is allowing her to know that she is ascending?

A) saccule B) utricle C) organ of Corti D) stapes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) Natasha has just been diagnosed as having a torn diaphragm. This confuses her since she knows her diaphragm is just above her abdomen while she feels the pain in her neck and upper arms. What she is experiencing is an example of ________.

A) piloerector pain B) referred pain C) pacinian pain D) epigastritis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) There is a tiny muscle attached to the malleus, but if the muscle contracts, the sound will not be efficiently passed to the next structure, which is called the ________.

A) incus B) stapes C) tympanum D) oval window Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 25) Hearing loss results from prolonged exposure to sound over ________ A) 85 dB B) 100 dB C) 60 dB D) This has not yet been determined.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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26) Ned is reading his newspaper by holding it at arm's length. Sandra asks him why he isn't holding it closer. He explains that he would not be able to see the print if he held it closer. Which of the following corrective measures would be the best solution for Ned? A) corneal ring segments B) retinal transplants C) convex lenses D) concave lenses Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 27) Mina had a throat infection; in a few days it had spread to her ear. What part of her ear would be affected first?

A) external auditory canal B) pinna C) inner ear D) middle ear Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 28) Lewis had a hereditary disorder that caused his cochlear hair cells to progressively die, beginning with those nearest to the oval window and then on to the rest of the hair cells.

What will be the earliest problem noticed?

A) high-frequency deafness B) vertigo C) color blindness D) anosmia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

29) Jamal and his friends order some chicken at a new restaurant but they immediately notice that it tastes bitter. Jamal knows that everyone is really hungry, but he tells them not to eat another bite because the bitterness could potentially mean that ________.

A) the meal contains too much protein B) the food may be poisoned or spoiled C) there is probably too much vitamin C D) unripe fruit was used in the breading around the chicken Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) Sensory receptors respond to changes in the environment called ________.

Answer: stimuli Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Sensory receptors in muscles and joints that detect ________ never adapt.

Answer: body position Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ detect distortions in themselves and nearby structures.

Answer: Mechanoreceptors Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) ________ are a type of sensory receptor that consists simply of the tips of dendrites.

Answer: Free nerve endings Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) ________, one type of sensory structure, detect muscle length.

Answer: Muscle spindles Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A jelly-like fluid that prevents the eye from collapsing and holds the retina against the wall of the eye is called the ________.

Answer: vitreous humor Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) ________ is caused by excessive aqueous humor pressure.

Answer: Glaucoma Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) If light strikes a photopigment, the photoreceptor cell will decrease the amount of ________ it is releasing.

Answer: neurotransmitter Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) ________ are rare types of neurons with only a single axon and a single dendrite, which process messages from the rods and cones.

Answer: Bipolar cells Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The two basic types of deafness are ________ and ________.

Answer: conductive; sensorineural Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) The ________ helps you to know the position of your head with respect to gravity when you are not moving. Answer: vestibule Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The ________ is the innermost layer of the eye that is lined with almost a quarter-billion photoreceptors. Answer: retina Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The photoreceptors responsible for an individual's black and white vision are known as ________. Answer: rods Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 14) The ________ is a sheet of tissue that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. Answer: tympanic membrane Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 15) The stapes, malleus, and ________ bones are located in the middle ear. Answer: incus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Sclera B) Cataracts C) Astigmatism D) Umami E) General senses F) Mechanoreceptors G) Photoreceptors H) Chemoreceptors I) Cochlea J) Thermoreceptors 1) Tom has begun to see a yellowish haze out of one eye so he may have this common vision problem.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) The receptors that respond to distortions in the receptor's shape or in the cells in close proximity to the receptors.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) These structures are defined as touch, pressure, vibration, temperature, and a sense of body and limb position.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Yum! I taste steak so I am using this taste sense.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) The outer white layer of the eye that functions to protect the eye.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Epidermal receptors that detect fluctuations in ambient temperature.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Receptors that detect chemical stimuli in the body.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) These receptors are able to detect changes in light intensity in the eye.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) This organ, which is about the size of a pea and shaped like a snail shell, is considered the true seat of hearing.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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10) Irregularities in the lens or cornea can cause this visual impairment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) B 2) F 3) E 4) D 5) A 6) J 7) H 8) G 9) I 10) C Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Hari is experiencing intense pain in one point in his body. Maryam has the perfect solution!

She has a wonderful drug that is guaranteed to take away all pain and she wants Hari to take it before going to the doctor. Why should Hari not take the drug, according to the information in this chapter?

Answer: Two answers arise from the chapter. The pain prevents him from further injuring himself and the doctor needs to know where he is hurt so that Hari can be treated.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 2) Explain and describe the five primary tastes.

Answer: (1) Sweet: indicates the item is loaded with carbohydrates that can be used as calories and energy within the body. The tip of the tongue is most sensitive to sweet tastes. (2) Taste buds most sensitive to salt are along the sides of the tongue. Salty items can be used to replace electrolytes lost through exercise and perspiration. (3) A sour taste is usually associated with food items that haven't fully ripened and would be best if eaten later. Citrus fruits are sour but are good sources of vitamin C and other antioxidants. Sour taste is mostly associated with the sides of the tongue. (4) Bitter taste is associated with the back of the tongue. Bitter tastes are normally associated with foods that are poisoned or spoiled. (5) Umami detects the presence of amino acids, small proteins, and nucleotides. They are distributed towards the back of the tongue and throughout.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Why is the sense of smell associated with memories and emotions?

Answer: Odor molecules dissolve in the mucous of the nasal cavities and bind to the hairs on the olfactory receptors found in these passages. Once the threshold is reached, the message is sent to the olfactory bulbs of the brain. The olfactory bulbs transmit the message to the limbic system, which is also associated with emotion and memory. Many odors are associated with memories, whether positive or negative.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Compare and contrast the different types of receptors found in the body.

Answer: There are five major types of receptors found in the human body. Mechanoreceptors respond to tactile stimuli and are also sensitive to changes in blood pressure and body position.

Chemoreceptors react to chemical stimulation such as taste and smell. Thermoreceptors are sensitive to fluctuation in temperature, while photoreceptors detect changes in light intensity.

Pain receptors are sensitive to physical or chemical stimuli produced by damaged tissues. These receptors are associated with both chemo- and mechanoreceptors.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) Bart has just burned his tongue on that hot soup! He is afraid he won't be able to taste anything for the rest of his life. What can you tell him? Answer: Taste cells are normally replaced about every 10 days so he most likely will get his sense of taste back by then.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) What factors can contribute to external ear infections and middle ear infections? Why are children more prone than adults to getting middle ear infections? Answer: External ear infections occur in the external auditory canal.

These ear infections can occur when water becomes trapped in the external auditory canal. This is most commonly referred to as "swimmers ear." Once water has been trapped in the canal, the moisture coupled with body temperature allows bacteria to grow, causing an infection. The symptoms include itching and pain while chewing or touching the areas around the ear. Middle ear infections usually result from infections of the nose and throat that work their way through the auditory tubes to the middle ear. Young children are more susceptible to middle-ear infections because their auditory tubes are horizontal, allowing bacteria to travel through them more easily. The auditory tubes begin to tilt and curve with age, which prevents bacteria from invading so easily. Symptoms include stabbing earache, impaired hearing, and a feeling of fullness in the ear, often accompanied by fever. Both types of ear infection are treatable with antibiotics and pain relievers.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) If a person had sensorineural deafness, why would a bone-vibrating hearing aid be useless? Answer: Sensorineural deafness is due to damaged hair cells, not to sound conduction problems. A bone-vibrating hearing aid would work best for conduction deafness. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 8) You spot your friend Enrique and yell to get his attention but he can't hear you. As you get closer to him, you clearly hear loud music coming from his headphones. What should you warn him about? Answer: If another person can hear the sound from the headphones, it is a sign that they are too loud, and loud noises can cause permanent hearing loss. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 10 The Endocrine System Multiple-Choice Questions 1) This type of hormone characteristically requires a second messenger. A) lipid-soluble B) steroid C) water-soluble D) prostaglandin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) In males, the primary source of estrogens is the ________. A) hypothalamus B) heart C) adrenal cortex D) ovaries Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) When a woman breast-feeds, oxytocin causes the milk to move from the mammary glands toward the nipples. What other organ might also react when a woman breast-feeds right after giving birth? A) uterus B) rectum C) thymus D) perilymph Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) As you sleep your blood glucose levels should normally decline. However, this hormone will cause your liver to release more of the sugar. A) thyroxin B) adrenaline C) glucagon D) insulin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) Cancer cells often fail to respond to certain hormones because they lack these cell membrane features important in binding with that specific hormone. A) DNAs B) dockers C) targets D) receptors Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Norman ate his birthday cake with lots of sugary frosting so his pancreas secreted ________.

A) insulin B) glycogen C) glucagon D) thyroxin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Which of the following functions in the body's inflammatory response prevents blood clots, regulates body temperature, and opens airways to the lungs?

A) carotenoids B) prostaglandins C) leukotrienes D) melatonin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Which of the following hormones may take part in one or more of these functions: influence daily rhythms, decrease jet lag, and influence sleep patterns?

A) melatonin B) thymosin C) oxytocin D) growth Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Lian, at 12 years old, was barely 3 feet tall. What hormone might she take to grow taller?

A) growth hormone B) estrogen C) aldosterone D) calcitonin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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10) Eating a lot of shrimp would tend to decrease the incidence of which of the following conditions?

A) simple goiter B) Grave's disease C) SAD D) myxedema Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 11) Maria has been in labor for 12 hours and her obstetrician thinks that it is time to artificially induce birth. What hormone will the physician inject?

A) estrogen B) vasopressin C) prolactin D) oxytocin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) Inflammatory processes can be painful and even dangerous if they continue inappropriately.

Which of the following would control those processes?

A) thyroid hormone B) growth hormone C) vasopressin D) cortisol Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The connection between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary is ________.

A) circulatory B) neural C) via special ducts D) There is no connection.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Parathyroid hormone causes the blood calcium level to rise, but calcitonin causes those levels to fall. The relationship between the two hormones is described as ________.

A) expressive B) antagonistic C) synergistic D) permissive Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) Which is the hormone that stimulates growth by increasing cell size or rate of cell division? A) calcitonin B) growth hormone C) oxytocin D) tropic hormone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) Which of the following hormones stimulates the release of a future egg cell by the ovaries?

A) luteinizing B) follicle-stimulating C) oxytocin D) prolactin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) An injection of ACTH would cause an increase in the release of which of the following hormones?

A) thyroxin B) aldosterone C) growth hormone D) antidiuretic hormone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Sue has begun to lactate but she has not recently given birth. Which of the following might be causing this abnormality?

A) excess estrogen B) progesterone production C) hyperthyroidism D) pituitary tumor Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 19) Sandhu has type 1 diabetes so he must frequently inject himself with insulin. He has to be careful not to inject himself too often or with too much of the hormone because this vital chemical will virtually disappear from his bloodstream.

A) glycogen B) oxycontin C) glucose D) oxygen Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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20) Gian-Carlo is going to have part of his adrenal cortex removed because of a tumor. After the surgery he may need ________.

A) melatonin and insulin B) oxytocin C) cortisol D) calcitonin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) Leukocytosis-promoting factor, among other things, acts to encourage the movement of white blood cells to the site of an injury. What hormone opposes this action?

A) epinephrine B) insulin C) TH D) cortisol Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 22) Which of the following might help in the treatment of impotence (inability to achieve an erection)?

A) nitric oxide B) histamine C) prostaglandins D) growth hormone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 23) Sometimes postmenopausal women are given a prescription for which of the following to help them maintain their bone calcium?

A) parathyroid hormone B) thyroid hormone C) calcitonin D) insulin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) Nadia, who is 25 years old, wants to be taller because she is just 5 feet tall. Of the choices given, which would be the wisest option for Nadia?

A) Do nothing.

B) Take injections of growth hormone.

C) Use GHRH so she will have her own natural growth.

D) Take thyroxin daily.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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25) Amy just gave birth by cesarean section to a beautiful baby girl. All through her pregnancy, her mammary glands enlarged to prepare for milk production. However, in the day or two following parturition, Amy cannot eject a drop of the milk that is so obviously present in her breasts. What hormone is probably missing?

A) oxytocin B) estrogen C) prolactin D) progesterone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 26) Vlad, 28 years old, is a slender, jumpy man with eyes that seem to bulge out of their sockets.

His heart rate is unusually fast. Which of the following conditions does Vlad most likely have?

A) Addison's disease B) acromegaly C) Cushing's syndrome D) Grave's disease Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) Govingee, 35 years old, has recently become lethargic and his skin feels very cool but puffy to the touch. When you take his pulse, you note that it seems abnormally low. What condition might Govingee have?

A) low thyroid hormone B) excess calcitonin C) accumulating aldosterone D) low growth hormone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 28) In the past, oxygen uptake in a patient was measured as a means of determining whether a certain endocrine gland was working properly. Which of the following glands was this method most likely assessing?

A) pineal B) thyroid C) testes D) parathyroid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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29) Hanna, 18 years old, is over 6 feet tall. She has an x-ray taken that shows that her long bones are continuing to lengthen. Eventually, a thorough examination shows that she has a tumor growing in her ________.

A) posterior pituitary B) pineal gland C) adrenal medulla D) anterior pituitary Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 30) Eric was working very hard in the dry, hot boiler room and sweating a lot. Under these conditions, which of the following might Eric be experiencing?

A) He would have decreased hydrocortisone.

B) He would have increased oxytocin.

C) He would have increased antidiuretic hormone.

D) He would have decreased thyroxin.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 31) Anton has to take insulin for his type 1 diabetes but his sister Maryam has another health issue and takes a pill. Anton knows that insulin is a protein but wants to know why he can't have a pill instead of all those nasty shots. Can you explain it to him?

A) Proteins are digested by the stomach and intestines, so his insulin would be broken down before taking effect.

B) Skin cells naturally destroy proteins.

C) Steroids are water-soluble and require cAMP. D) Insulin only affects the circulatory system.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) When the result of two hormones working at the same time is greater than that of either alone, we say that they work ________.

Answer: synergistically Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Follicle-stimulating hormone originates from the ________ gland.

Answer: anterior pituitary Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) When blood calcium levels fall, the ________ glands cause greater calcium release from the bones.

Answer: parathyroid glands Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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4) ________, from the pancreatic islets, causes the liver to increase the breakdown of glycogen.

Answer: Glucagon Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) An injection of the pancreatic hormone ________ would cause blood glucose levels to fall.

Answer: insulin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) The ________ are endocrine cells that occur in small clusters in the pancreas.

Answer: pancreatic islets Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The ________ gland lies in the center of the brain and contains secretory cells that produce melatonin.

Answer: pineal Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Someone who has diabetes insipidus has a deficiency of ________.

Answer: antidiuretic hormone Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) ________ is a condition caused by Grave's disease in which the eyes protrude because of tissue accumulation behind them.

Answer: Exophthalmos Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) If someone had an excess of growth hormone through their childhood, they may have ________.

Answer: gigantism Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) ________ is a very common second messenger.

Answer: cAMP Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Hormones responsible for the fight-or-flight response are produced in the ________.

Answer: adrenal medulla Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) When the concentration of sodium in the blood becomes too high, hormonal mechanisms come into play to counteract this dangerous condition. This type of response is called ________.

Answer: negative feedback Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Prostaglandins may act as local signaling molecules in the uterus, causing ________.

Answer: menstrual cramping Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8 .

15) The ________ is a shield-shaped structure in the front of the neck that is deep red in color because of its extensive blood supply.

Answer: thyroid gland Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

9 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Myxedema B) Addison's disease C) Diabetes insipidus D) Adrenal medulla E) Grave's disease F) Cushing's syndrome G) Cretinism H) Diabetes mellitus I) Acromegaly 1) A syndrome that results from prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and can be characterized by fatigue, high blood pressure, and elevated glucose levels.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) An autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system perceives cells of the adrenal cortex as foreign and destroys the cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) A group of disorders characterized by problems in insulin production or function.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Enrique, 28 years old, has a low heart rate, cool skin, puffy face, and behaves sluggishly. He probably has this thyroid disorder.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Produces epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are extremely important in the flight or fight reactions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) An autoimmune disorder caused by the overproduction of thyroid hormone; it is characterized by increased metabolic rate and heart rate.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) A condition that results from a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) The undersecretion of thyroid hormone during fetal development and infancy causes dwarfism, mental retardation, and slow sexual development.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) A condition that occurs in adults in which there is an excess of growth hormone so that the bones thicken but do not lengthen.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Answers: 1) F 2) B 3) H 4) A 5) D 6) E 7) C 8) G 9) I Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) What are the possible effects of stress on the body?

Answer: Chronic stress can cause many symptoms, including susceptibility to infection, depressed wound healing, hypertension, irritable bowel syndrome, and asthma. Chronic stress can increase the probability of developing a chronic disease and will eventually shorten a person's lifespan. The first phase is referred to as the alarm phase, or the flight-or-fight response, which is the immediate short-term response to stress. The second phase is the resistance stage, which is initiated by the release of hormones from the hypothalamus. These hormones cause the release of hormones from other glands, which release lipids from the fatty tissue and amino acids from the skeletal muscles and finally the conservation of body fluids. The third phase is the exhaustion phase, which can lead to damage of the organs and organ systems. Death can result if stress isn't dealt with appropriately.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Civil defense officials usually stock large supplies of nonradioactive iodine, which would be distributed in the event of a release of radioactive iodine. Please explain why.

Answer: Radioactive iodine would be concentrated in the thyroid gland and possibly destroy the gland. (The hope is that the nonradioactive form would dilute the effect of the radioactive iodine and protect the thyroid.)

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 3) Which hormones produced by the adrenal gland might help to offset some of the symptoms of menopause?

Answer: The gonadocorticoids produced by the adrenal cortex might help to alleviate menopausal symptoms caused by declines in estrogen production by the ovaries.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 4) Why should consumers be skeptical about ingesting melatonin supplements or any other dietary supplement sold in vitamin or health stores?

Answer: Dietary supplements have been sold for many years around the world. Although the logic behind taking some of these supplements seems to be sound, there is usually very little if any scientific evidence supporting these dietary supplements. Dietary supplements are not regulated by the FDA, and as long as there is no evidence of harmful effects, the companies that manufacture these supplements are allowed to claim whatever they feel is appropriate to sell more of their product.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 5) If Mary were lost in the Sahara desert in the summer, why should she not drink alcohol?

Answer: Alcohol inhibits release of antidiuretic hormone so Mary would increase her rate of urination. Because she is probably already dehydrated, the alcohol would just make the situation worse.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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6) George is 16 years old and really wants to make the high school basketball team. Although he is skilled, he is only 5'10" tall. What advice would you give him about taking human growth hormone?

Answer: It is expensive, it may have negative effects in the long term, and it is not approved by the FDA for the use he is contemplating. If he were to continue to take the hormone, he could end up with acromegaly. Additionally, he should check to see that his bones can continue to lengthen because some teenagers have already achieved all of their possible height by this time.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 7) Mamadou, 22, lives in a country that has been at civil war for 19 years. What kinds of endocrine responses do we expect and what kinds of health issues might he have? What public health implications might there be once the war is over?

Answer: Mamadou will experience general adaptation syndrome (GAS) on an on-going basis.

As violent events occur, his body will react with alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. As the war wears on, he could have high blood pressure, irritable bowel syndrome, asthma, and possibly other chronic conditions. His life expectancy may decline. When the war eventually ends, the medical community will have many people with chronic disorders.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 10A Special Topic: Diabetes Mellitus Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is true of diabetes mellitus type 1? A) Patients always require insulin. B) Cells become resistant to insulin. C) Most people with diabetes mellitus have this form. D) It can be delayed or prevented. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) This is the major cause of type 2 diabetes. A) viral infection B) heart disease C) insulin resistance D) being underweight Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) You are worried about your friend Mary, a type 1 diabetic. She is nauseous, short of breath, tired, and confused. She says not to worry because she just has a case of the flu. What diagnostic test should you urge her to perform to make sure that there is nothing more serious going on? A) blood bilirubin B) urinary ketones C) blood pressure D) stress test for the heart Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 4) Which of the following is a normal blood glucose reading? A) 400 mg/dl B) 90 mg/dl C) 30 mg/dl D) 4% Hb A1c Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) Shabir has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and will have his blood tested within the next 2 weeks. He has been warned by his physician to stay on a specific diet but he loves desserts that are not on his recommended treatment plan. You see him eating a huge piece of birthday cake, and when questioned, he says that his doctor will never know because he will fast for a few days before his blood glucose test and fool the physician.

What blood test might the physician order to detect Shabir's deception? A) hemoglobin A1c B) white blood cell count C) HDL D) electrolytes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 6) Which of the following is recommended for diabetes mellitus patients? A) smoking B) binge drinking C) inactivity D) controlling stress Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Your friend Matti accidentally injected himself with double the correct dosage of insulin. He

has collapsed. Quick! It's all up to youwhat do you do?

A) Give him CPR. B) Inject him with thyroxin.

C) Give him glucagon.

D) Inject him with more insulin.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) Which of the following is a likely side-effect of gestational diabetes?

A) impotence B) preeclampsia C) low blood pressure D) low birth weight Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.

Answer: Insulin is made by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets. Insulin allows the cells of the body to take up glucose.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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2) Marsha says she sometimes has ketoacidosis. What kind of diabetes is she more likely to have and how did she develop ketoacidosis? Why is ketoacidosis dangerous and how can she detect it in time?

Answer: Ketoacidosis is a biochemical imbalance that is more common in those with type 1 diabetes. It comes about because the cells are unable to take up glucose, so they turn to lipids as sources of energy. Some fatty acids appear in the blood stream and the liver breaks them down, releasing ketones. Ketones lower the pH of the blood, endangering organ systems. Marsha can use urine test strips to detect ketones.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Buford is a very successful high school athlete who has been diagnosed with diabetes. He needs to do well in sports so that he can receive a university scholarship. He dreams of getting into the pros too–his whole family is counting on him! However, he doesn't want to go through the entire regimen his doctor has prescribed for him because he thinks it cuts into his sports time.

What do you need to tell him about sticking to his diabetic treatment plan?

Answer: Diabetes has serious long-term complications. It can cause heart attacks and strokes because of fatty deposits in the arteries. Additionally, the same damage to blood vessels can cause serious organ system failures elsewhere in his body: eyes, kidneys, and extremities.

Therefore, if he doesn't do what he is told, he could end up blind, hooked up to a kidney machine, and missing a few parts!

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation 4) Saito has diabetes mellitus type 1 and requires frequent insulin injections. He would much prefer to swallow pills instead of giving himself injections. Explain to him why this is not possible. What other option does he have besides an injection or an insulin pen?

Answer: Insulin is a protein that is digested by the stomach and small intestine, leaving Saito with no benefit. Instead of the methods he is using now, he could opt for an insulin pump.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Susan Littlehorse (28 years old, obese, and pregnant) complains of burning urine to you, her physician at the Indian Health Service. Blood tests show hemoglobin A1c concentrations over 9%. What is your initial diagnosis? How do you test your idea? How should her condition be treated? What are some potential problems she may experience in the future?

Answer: She seems to have gestational diabetes. You will need to perform a glucose challenge test to confirm your initial diagnosis. You should suggest to her that she begin a healthier life style: a better diet and regular exercise. If the condition is not resolved, then you may need to prescribe insulin or other medications.

There is risk to Susan of developing preeclampsia during pregnancy and of having a baby with excessive birth weight, which could lead to a difficult delivery or a cesarean section.

Furthermore, Susan may subsequently develop type 2 diabetes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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Biology of Humans, 4e(Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 11 Blood Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Some of these blood proteins are antibodies.

A) albumins B) fibrins C) glucoses D) globulins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) George is stuck out in the hot, dry desert without any water and he is sweating a lot. Which of these components of the blood should decrease?

A) glucose B) red blood cells C) platelets D) plasma Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Which of these is part of the defense against parasites, such as tapeworms and hookworms, that have invaded the body?

A) neutrophils B) lymphocytes C) eosinophils D) monocytes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Which of these white blood cells gives rise to plasma cells, which can then produce antibodies?

A) T lymphocytes B) monocytes C) eosinophils D) B lymphocytes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) Stan, a champion athlete, sleeps up in the mountains at 10,000 feet every night to increase his red blood cell count for better athletic performance. Which hormone increases to make that possible?

A) hemoglobin B) erythropoietin C) Rh factor D) progesterone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) Which of the following is a genetic disorder in which a person bleeds excessively because they have a faulty gene for a clotting factor?

A) cri-du-chat B) Down syndrome C) hemophilia D) color blindness Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Which of these conditions is a cancer of the blood cells that causes uncontrolled division of white blood cells, causing the number of cells to greatly increase?

A) mononucleosis B) leukemia C) anemia D) sickle cell anemia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Activated thrombin makes this protein change.

A) fibrinogen B) plasminogen C) plasmin D) prothrombin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Alberto had a bad bump on his leg so went to see the doctor about it. The physician said that blood clots can float away into the circulation. One of these floaters is called a (an) ________.

A) prothrombin B) formed element C) platelet plug D) embolus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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10) Which protein functions to break down clots after wounds heal?

A) plasmin B) plasminogen C) thrombin D) fibrinogen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The liquid portion of the blood that consists of about 55% of the total volume of blood is referred to as ________.

A) stem cells B) distilled water C) plasma D) platelets Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by ________.

A) pernicious anemia B) Epstein Barr virus C) lead poisoning D) blood doping Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) To which of the following substances does hemoglobin most readily bind?

A) oxygen B) bilirubin C) carbon monoxide D) erythropoietin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Which protein transports oxygen in the blood stream?

A) plasminogen B) hemoglobin C) erythropoietin D) thrombin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) Which of these leukocytes are the most abundant and begin to phagocytize pathogens to reduce the spread of infection?

A) eosinophils B) monocytes C) basophils D) neutrophils Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) If a person were to receive such a high dose of radiation that all of the cells were to die in this area, anemia would develop. That place is the ________.

A) red bone marrow B) yellow bone marrow.

C) thymus D) lymph nodes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 17) Sometimes the immune system overreacts from exposure to a normally harmless thing like cat hair. Subsequent exposure to this allergen elicits a massive inflammatory response. Because the chemical histamine is the cause of this inflammation, what cell type is most likely behind the problem?

A) neutrophils B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) monocytes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 18) Neutrophils engulf microbes by phagocytosis to fight an infection. Normally, they perform this function for some time but then die off. These dead cells and other foreign materials form pus. What cells then clean up all the dead neutrophils?

A) macrophages B) more neutrophils C) T lymphocytes D) eosinophils Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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19) A doctor is treating a patient with some form of anemia. First, they try to give the patient extra vitamins that contain iron, with no effect. There is no evidence of lead poisoning. The doctor tries an injection of vitamin B12, and the anemia is under control. What type of anemia did the patient have?

A) iron deficiency B) sickle cell C) pernicious D) hemorrhagic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 20) Polycythemia is a disease characterized by an abnormally high number of red blood cells.

This makes the blood thick, hard to pump, and tends to clog up the vascular system. Athletes sometimes try to mimic this by an illegal practice in an attempt to boost oxygen delivery. This practice is called ________.

A) blood doping B) leukemia C) bloodletting D) bone marrow transplant Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) A child has a bicycle accident and is rushed to the ER. The doctors stop the bleeding but the child needs a transfusion. Fortunately, the patient is AB positive so the doctors can give him ________.

A) AB negative or positive only B) any blood type C) O positive only D) O negative only Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Neonatal jaundice is caused when a baby is born and the liver is not working fully to remove a particular waste product. Treatment involves placing the infant under a blue light, which reacts with the waste product and converts it to a form that the kidney can excrete. What is this waste product called?

A) hemoglobin B) erythropoietin C) oxyhemoglobin D) bilirubin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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23) Coumadin is a drug that interferes with the action of vitamin K in the liver. What effect will Coumadin have on blood clotting mechanisms? A) It will make it necessary to eat extra leafy green vegetables. B) Vitamin K will not be absorbed from the digestive tract. C) The liver will not be able to produce needed clotting factors. D) Nothing, because vitamin K is not necessary for blood clotting. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 24) An Rh-negative mother will need a special treatment if she gives birth to an Rh-positive baby.

The treatment involves the destruction of any stray blood cells from the baby that pass into

the mother's bloodstream. Why is this necessary?

A) thatThe mother's immune system will attack the Rh-positive cells and produce antibodies will attack a fetus in a subsequent pregnancy.

B) The mother's immune system will attack her own blood cells and the cells in the fetus of a subsequent pregnancy.

C) To prevent the mother's immune system from attacking only her own blood cells.

D) To prevent antibodies from being formed in breast milk, which could harm the baby.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 25) An embolus could block blood flow to the ________ resulting in a myocardial infarction or it may block blood in the ________ and cause a stroke.

A) brain; heart B) heart; kidney C) heart; brain D) brain; kidney E) liver; kidney Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 26) A mother brings a child into the ER with a severe nosebleed that won't stop bleeding.

She also Giventells the doctors that the child bruises very easily in response to very minor accidents. the information in the text, the doctor orders some tests and finds that the young boy has ________.

A) anemia B) hemophilia C) blood that is Rh negative while the mother is Rh positive D) leukemia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) Plasma ________ make up about 7% of the plasma and help balance water flow between the blood and the tissues.

Answer: proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) If a person cannot make enough of the plasma protein ________, then they might have problems with water balance.

Answer: albumin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) ________ is the group of white blood cells that lacks visible granules in the cytoplasm.

Included in this group are monocytes and lymphocytes.

Answer: Agranulocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) White blood cells are different from red blood cells because mature red blood cells lack a (an) ________.

Answer: nucleus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) If someone were to lose the ability to make blood cells, they might need a transplant of the porous connective tissue known as ________ from a close relative.

Answer: red bone marrow Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) ________ is the process whereby cells engulf pathogens and foreign substances.

Answer: Phagocytosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Prothrombin is converted to ________ during the clotting process.

Answer: thrombin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Clots are dissolved by an enzyme called ________ after the wound has healed.

Answer: plasmin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Long protein strands that form a web that traps blood cells and platelets to form a clot are called ________.

Answer: fibrin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The granulocytes are white blood cells that include ________, ________, and ________.

Answer: neutrophils; eosinophils; basophils Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) The ________, or thrombocytes, play a vital role in clotting.

Answer: platelets Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Platelets are formed by breaking off fragments from large cells called ________.

Answer: megakaryocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) A diet very low in iron may mean that a person cannot make the formed elements called ________.

Answer: red blood cells Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 14) ________ are large cells that clean up debris and destroy bacteria by phagocytosis.

Answer: Monocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) White blood cells B) Basophils C) Formed elements D) Red blood cells E) Plasma F) Plasmin G) Stem cells H) Granulocytes I) Platelets J) Agranulocytes 1) The fluid that makes up little over half of blood.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) he platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells in the blood.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Blood cells that remove wastes, toxins, or damaged cells from the body.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Without these cells, you couldn't provide your tissues with oxygen.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Leukocytes that contain granules in the cytoplasm that function to destroy invading bacteria or other pathogens.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) This enzyme digests fibrin.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Undifferentiated cells that divide and give rise to all formed elements.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) A group of white blood cells that lacks granules.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Cells that stain purple and release histamine.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) These come from megakaryocytes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension Answers: 1) E 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) H 6) F 7) G 8) J 9) B 10) I

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain the steps involved in the clotting process.

Answer: First, the injured vessel constricts. Next, the platelets form a plug to seal the leak.

Then the injured tissue and platelets release clotting factors. Clotting factors convert an inactive blood protein to prothrombin activator, which in turn, converts prothrombin to thrombin. Then thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin. The last step involves the fibrin fibers forming a network to trap red blood cells and platelets, causing a clot to form.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) How are the red blood cells produced in the body and what might stimulate this process? Answer: The red blood cells are produced in the red marrow of the bones. Here the immature cells produce large amounts of hemoglobin. Hemoglobin molecules push the nucleus and other organelles out of the cell.

The erythrocytes can now leave the red marrow and circulate in the blood stream. The total lifespan of a red blood cell is about 120 days, and it travels approximately 100 kilometers. Red blood cell production usually equals red blood cell destruction. After the oxygen supply to the cells decreases, it stimulates the production of more red blood cells to compensate for this deficit. A wound or blood donation also stimulates red cell production. The hormone erythropoietin is released from the kidney cells, and it travels to the marrow, causing both immature and mature cells to develop. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) A group of teenagers decided to use Zack's old clunker to ride to a party on a cold winter night. The old auto had a failing engine and was also very noisy because the exhaust system was rusting out. While they were at the event, a heavy snowstorm dropped three feet of snow over the countryside with drifts quite a bit higher.

As Zack rounded a curve late that night, he apparently skidded on some black ice and plowed into a high drift. Unable to get the car out of the drift, they decided to spend the rest of the night in the car with the engine running to stay warm. The next morning, they were all found dead without a mark of violence on them. What happened? Answer: They died from carbon monoxide poisoning. The engine was running rough and not burning the gasoline properly, producing the toxic chemical carbon monoxide. This poisonous gas likely leaked out into the passenger compartment through that rusty exhaust system. Since it was cold, they probably didn't open the car's windows either. The carbon monoxide built up in their blood stream, combined with the hemoglobin, and they suffocated. Sadly, hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than for oxygen. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation

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4) Explain the ABO blood system and why is it important to fully understand this system when receiving blood transfusions. Answer: Glycoproteins (antigens) are located on the surface of the red blood cells and are genetically inherited. Understanding the ABO blood system is extremely important, especially when transfusing blood. If a blood cell contains the A antigen on its surface, this is type A blood. If a B antigen is present, the blood is type B. If both antigens are present on the surface of a blood cell, this person is type AB. When the blood cell lacks A and B antigens, the blood is type O. If type A blood is introduced to type B blood, the blood will agglutinate because both blood types have antibodies against the other. Individuals with type AB blood can receive blood that is type A, B, AB, or O. Type O can be donated without the risk of agglutination because this blood type lacks A and B antigens and produces no response, while people with O type can only receive type O blood. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 5) TPA, or tissue plasminogen activator, is a compound sometimes given to a person suffering from a heart attack. Why would a compound that apparently activates plasminogen be useful in treating a heart attack?

Answer: Plasminogen is a protein that forms plasmin, a clot-dissolving enzyme that is naturally produced in the body. When blood clots inappropriately form, they can block blood flow to the heart, thus causing a heart attack. If the blood clots can be dissolved, then blood flow may be restored. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) Explain why someone with blood type O negative is called the universal donor. Answer: Type O negative blood cells do not have A, B, or Rh antigens. Therefore, the immune system of any recipient should not react. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 7) An Rh-positive baby can cause the mother to produce antibodies against the Rh antigen if she happens to be Rh negative. When is this a problem? Answer: This is a problem during a subsequent pregnancy when the mother's anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta and enter the blood of the fetus. The anti-Rh antibodies can destroy the fetal red blood cells, causing stillbirth or hemolytic disease of the newborn. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) The number of people in the general population with type AB blood is relatively small. That is fortunate because these people make the least useful donors. Why would that be the case? Answer: A person who is AB has both the A and B antigens. The blood is not useful for someone who is type A because the B antigen will cause problems. Also, the blood is not useful for someone who is type B because the A antigen will cause problems. Of course, someone with type O blood would reject both the A and B antigens. Type AB blood is only useful for type AB patients. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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9) Emery was in a serious accident and had to have a large part of his stomach surgically removed. He needed a transfusion at first but soon he healed. However, after his recovery, he started having anemia. Why did he develop anemia and how can this form of anemia be treated?

Answer: The stomach lining makes intrinsic factor, vital for the uptake of vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 is important in red blood cell synthesis. The simplest treatment for Emery's anemia is to receive vitamin B12 injections.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 12 The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A certain infectious disease can cause swellings on the aortic semilunar valve. The valve will then not close properly, resulting in ________.

A) atherosclerosis B) backflow C) aneurysm D) varicose veins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Which of the following causes blood to move through veins?

A) vasodilation B) contraction of smooth muscle C) contraction of skeletal muscle D) blood pressure Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) When these valves open, blood goes from the atria to the ventricles.

A) AV node B) SA node C) SL valves D) AV valves Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) What structures regulate blood flow into capillary beds?

A) precapillary sphincters B) venous valves C) postcapillary sphincters D) Peyer's patches Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The highest pressure in the artery during each heartbeat is known as the ________.

A) cardiac circuit B) diastolic pressure C) blood pressure D) systolic pressure Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) James misspoke at the banquet last night, became embarrassed, and his face looked red because the facial arteries and arteriole muscles relaxed. These arteries and arterioles were then said to be ________.

A) constricted B) dilated C) clogged D) burst Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Which sequence is correct?

A) right ventricle > aorta > renal vein B) left ventricle > aorta > coronary artery C) left atrium > superior vena cava > renal artery D) right atrium > superior vena cava > coronary artery Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) The bulk of the heart which consists of cardiac muscle tissue is called the ________.

A) pericardium B) myocardium C) endocardium D) coronary chamber Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Which of the following are found in many veins that help direct blood flow in one direction only: toward the heart?

A) valves B) lymph nodes C) myocardium D) pericardium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) An infection of the thin layer of tissue around the inner cavities of the heart itself would affect the ________.

A) pericardium B) endocardium C) myocardium D) sinoatrial node Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) Which of these is the portion of the heartbeat that involves contraction of the heart?

A) cardiac cycle B) pacemaker C) diastole D) systole Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Blood vessels that serve as gateways to capillary beds are ________.

A) venules B) arteries C) arterioles D) veins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Which of these are the smallest of veins that form when capillaries merge?

A) venules B) arteries C) arterioles D) veins Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) These vessels take the blood back most directly to the heart.

A) arteries B) venules C) veins D) arterioles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) Which of these is the most correct sequence of signals?

A) SA node > Purkinje fibers > AV node > AV bundle > walls of the ventricle B) SA node > AV bundle > AV node > ST segment > Purkinje fibers C) SA node > AV bundle > AV node > ST segment D) SA node > AV node > AV bundle > Purkinje fibers > walls of the ventricle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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16) The lowest blood pressure that occurs when the ventricles are relaxing is known as ________.

A) diastolic pressure B) systolic pressure C) aneurysm D) arterial pressure Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) Which artery carries oxygenated blood to the head and the brain?

A) renal B) jugular C) carotid D) aorta Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) In an EKG, the QRS wave indicates what?

A) first heart sound B) electrical signal in the atria C) second heart sound D) electrical signal in the ventricles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 19) Why would someone need to have an artificial pacemaker installed in his or her heart tissue?

A) Because the heart valves are not directing blood flow through the chambers properly.

B) Because the AV node is not sending signals to the ventricles.

C) Because the SA node is not functioning properly to generate action potential at the proper intervals.

D) Because the Purkinje fibers are not distributing the signal properly.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 20) Which of the following characterizes blood flow through capillaries?

A) Enormous total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing slowly.

B) Enormous total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing rapidly.

C) Small total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing slowly.

D) Small total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing rapidly.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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21) An aneurysm is a weakening of the walls of a blood vessel. Which blood vessel would be most likely to break open if an aneurysm is present?

A) capillary B) arteriole C) artery D) venule Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 22) The coronary arteries supply blood to cardiac tissue. Which chamber of the heart requires the greatest amount of blood supply to keep it working?

A) right ventricle B) left ventricle C) left atrium D) right atrium Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 23) Breathing helps move blood from lower parts of the body toward the heart by which of the following mechanisms?

A) Inhalation increases the size of the thoracic cavity, which reduces pressure and draws blood toward the heart.

B) Inhalation increases pressure in the abdominal cavity, which squeezes veins and pushes blood toward the heart.

C) Breathing does not help return blood to the heart.

D) Inhalation increases the size of the thoracic cavity and increases pressure in the abdominal cavity.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) A child is born with a hole in his heart between the left and right ventricles. This condition must be immediately corrected with surgery because the hole ________.

A) will cause the flow of blood to reverse in the heart B) will allow blood to leak out of the heart and the child could bleed to death C) will cause blood to flow in the reverse direction back into veins instead of the arteries D) allows mixing of both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, which reduces oxygen delivery to tissues Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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25) The cells of the SA node are unable to maintain a stable resting membrane potential. They are particularly leaky to ions like sodium and potassium. What will this leakiness lead to?

A) the release of neurotransmitters, which will start a contraction B) the formation of the resting membrane potential C) the secretion of calcium from storage within the cell to the exterior of the cell D) the spontaneous formation of an action potential Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 26) A physician has a patient with an abnormal heart sound. After running some tests, the doctor decides that the patient has a heart murmur but the condition is not severe enough to warrant open-heart surgery. What does the doctor think about to make this determination?

A) The amount of blood flowing backwards in the heart is not enough to strain the heart as it works harder to catch up.

B) The heart sounds are due to air moving through the system and cannot be removed via surgical techniques.

C) The amount of blood lost is easily replaced with a transfusion of extra blood.

D) A heart murmur cannot be corrected surgically even though artificial heart valves do exist.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 27) Heart block is a condition in which the SA node is properly functioning but the atria and ventricles are contracting out of synch. What part of the heart must not be functioning for this to happen?

A) The SA node is working extra hard to make the ventricles catch up.

B) The AV node is not sending signals to the ventricles like it should.

C) The coronary arteries are not delivering blood to the heart.

D) The heart valves are allowing blood to flow backwards through the heart.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 28) A person has had an accident and is bleeding freely. Paramedics have arrived to stop the bleeding and are rushing the person to the hospital where a transfusion awaits. How is the body mobilizing extra blood from the blood reservoir to partially compensate until then?

A) Veins are undergoing massive vasodilatation to move blood back to the heart.

B) Veins are undergoing massive vasoconstriction to move blood back to the heart.

C) Arteries are undergoing massive vasoconstriction to move blood back to the heart.

D) Arteries are undergoing massive vasodilatation to move blood back to the heart.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

6 .

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) Cardiac muscle cells connect to each other at special junctions called ________ disks.

Answer: intercalated Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) ________ is the device that is used to measure blood pressure.

Answer: Sphygmomanometer Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The ________ valves prevent blood from flowing back into the heart once it has left the ventricles.

Answer: semilunar Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A heart ________ is an indication of disturbed blood flow due to a damaged heart valve.

Answer: murmur Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Charlotte had an operation in which some of her lymphatic system was removed in a certain area. The symptom you would expect in the affected area if there were no other treatment is ________.

Answer: Fluid buildup causing the area to swell Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 6) The tempo of the heartbeat is set by a cluster of specialized cardiac muscle cells called the ________.

Answer: sinoatrial node Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Clarice, a dental hygienist, knows she cannot work on a patient with an infected oral cavity. A quick and effective way to determine if an infection exists is to feel for swollen ________ below the jaw.

Answer: lymph nodes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 8) The smallest arteries, called ________, are barely visible to the unaided eye.

Answer: arterioles Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) A (an) ________ is a recording of the electrical activities of the heart.

Answer: electrocardiogram Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Swollen lymph nodes signal infection and result from increased numbers of ________.

Answer: lymphocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7 .

11) Because the sinoatrial node sends out impulses that initiate each heartbeat, it is often referred to as the ________ of the heart.

Answer: pacemaker Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The ________ is a fibrous sac that holds the heart in the center of the chest cavity without hampering its movements, even when the heart is contracting vigorously.

Answer: pericardium Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) If the connective tissue in the ventricles, called ________, give way, blood may go backwards through the AV valves: Answer: chordae tendineae Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 14) The left side of the heart pumps blood through the ________, which transports blood to and from body tissues.

Answer: systemic circuit Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

8 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Veins B) Thymus C) Tonsils D) Jugular veins E) Circulatory F) Aorta G) Capillaries H) Exercise I) Pulmonary veins J) Spleen 1) Veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) System that consists of both the cardiovascular and the lymphatic systems.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The site where certain lymphocytes mature, enabling them to fight specific disease-causing organisms.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) This simple practice will reduce your chance of heart disease and stroke.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Vessels that carry blood back to the heart from the body.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The blood vessels that function to carry blood from the head to the heart.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Structures that function to protect the throat against bacteria and foreign agents.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Site of lymphocyte production that functions to remove old red blood cells, foreign debris, and microorganisms from the blood.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The blood vessels that are the site of gas exchange.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The major artery that delivers blood to the body.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

9 .

Answers: 1) I 2) E 3) B 4) H 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) J 9) G 10) F Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Trace a drop of blood as it enters the vena cava and travels through the heart and body.

Include the major vessels and the heart chambers and valves in your answer.

Answer: Deoxygenated blood from the tissues enters the right atrium via the vena cava, which then flows through the tricuspid valve to right ventricle and flows through the pulmonary semilunar valve to pulmonary arteries to lungs where the blood is oxygenated. Blood returns to the heart through pulmonary veins to left atrium and passes through bicuspid valve to left ventricle, which pumps the oxygenated blood past the aortic semilunar valve into the aorta to the body.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Explain the structure and functions of the arteries.

Answer: Arteries are blood vessels that move blood away from the heart; they usually carry oxygenated blood. Pulmonary arteries are an exception to this pattern. The arteries have thick walls made up of an outer connective tissue layer, middle layer of elastic fibers and smooth muscle, and an inner layer of endothelium.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Explain the mechanics of muscle contraction during a heartbeat.

Answer: Beating of the heart involves contraction of cardiac muscle, and most muscles require

nervous stimulation to contract. The heart does not require outside stimulation to the beat tendency is intrinsic, within the heart muscle itself. The tempo of the heartbeat is set at the sinoatrial node, which is located in the right atrium; it functions as the pacemaker. About 100 milliseconds after the pacemaker fires, impulses stimulate an area between the two atria,the atrioventricular node. Once the AV node is stimulated, special fibers called the atrioventricular bundle carry the impulse to Purkinje fibers, which penetrate the walls of the ventricles, causing them to contract.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) What function do the veins have and how do these vessels compare with the arteries?

Answer: Veins function to move blood toward the heart, usually carrying blood low in oxygen.

Veins have thinner walls with less muscle and a larger lumen in comparison to arteries. Valves are located within veins to prevent back flow. Circulation is mostly due to skeletal muscles contracting, forcing blood upwards, and to pressure changes caused by breathing movements.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

10 .

5) A patient has a heart attack and wakes up in the hospital. He gets a visit from his doctor who says he had to shock the patient's heart because part of it had gone into fibrillation. The doctor jokes that it could have been worse if the other part of the heart had been in fibrillation and that the patient was really lucky. Which chambers of the heart in the patient were in fibrillation, the atria or the ventricles?

Answer: The patient was probably in atrial fibrillation. The atria function to make heart contractions most efficient. Even without the atria providing maximum efficiency, the ventricles will still pump blood. Because the ventricles do the actual pumping, fibrillation in the ventricles means the heart cannot pump at all, which would have been much worse.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 6) Why do physicians often examine the lymph nodes of cancer patients?

Answer: When cancer spreads from its original site, the cells often enter lymphatic capillaries and eventually arrive in lymph nodes, which filter the lymph.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) A person may have a severe allergic reaction to something like a bee sting. If this happens to someone who is severely allergic it can result in anaphylactic shock in which the blood pressure plummets, and this can be fatal. The root cause of this is an inappropriate release of histamine in response to the sting. Histamine causes massive vasodilatation, so how does this affect blood pressure?

Answer: Histamine would cause systemic vasodilation, resulting in an increased blood flow through capillaries. Such an increase in blood flow would have a resultant increase in the amount of fluid that leaks out of the capillaries. So much fluid could be lost from the bloodstream that blood volume would drop, causing a potentially fatal drop in blood pressure.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) Lucy, a new army recruit, stood in formation for long periods of time without moving an inch.

She eventually became lightheaded and fainted due to a drop in blood pressure. What might have caused her fainting?

Answer: Venous return is largely dependent on muscle contraction to move blood through the veins. Someone standing upright for long periods of time without moving much may experience a drop in blood pressure.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) Paul, physically inactive and obese, suddenly dropped to the ground. His friends called 911 and the emergency medical technicians arrived. An EMT quickly began to perform an EKG on Paul and saw many rapid, irregular waves where individual QRS wave should have been. Based on the information in the text, what is your diagnosis and your suggested treatment? What do you think a physician will recommend to Paul should he survive?

Answer: Paul seems to have ventricular fibrillation and the EMT would probably administer electrical shocks to try to get the SA node to regulate the contractions.

His physician will probably prescribe a routine of physical exercise (and most likely a diet that is information from a different chapter) depending on Paul's specific status.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation

but

11 .

Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 12A Cardiovascular Disease Multiple-Choice Questions 1) In which of these patients might Dr. Singh most appropriately prescribe a diuretic? The numbers represent their blood pressures. A) 6/66 B) 20/80 C) 25/75 D) 60/90 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) Which of the following lifestyle changes might be used to treat or prevent high blood pressure? A) limit dietary salt B) exercise regularly C) control body weight D) All of the above could help with high blood pressure. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which of the following might be an indicator of atherosclerosis? A) inflammatory chemicals in the blood B) high HDL levels in the blood stream C) quiet lifestyle D) low blood pressure Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Gee Yee was jogging up the hill next to your house when he suddenly had terrible, suffocating pain in his chest. You called the EMTs (Emergency Medical Technicians) and he was rushed to the emergency room where they will most likely perform this test with an x-ray machine. A) C-reactive protein B) coronary angiography C) electrocardiogram D) western blot Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

1 .

5) When a leg vein is grafted to provide an alternate route around a point of obstruction between the aorta and a clogged coronary artery, the procedure is called ________.

A) angioplasty B) stent C) coronary bypass D) coronary infarction Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Heart attacks can be caused by a blood clot blocking a coronary artery; this condition is called a (an) ________.

A) coronary thrombosis B) coronary bypass C) stent D) angioplasty Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) In terms of public health, the major lethal effect of smoking is ________.

A) lung cancer B) oral-facial cancer C) peptic ulcers D) cardiovascular disease Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Which of the following is caused by nicotine in cigarette smoke?

A) faster heart rate B) constriction of blood vessels C) increased stickiness of platelets D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

2 .

Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) What are some ways that hypertension can kill?

Answer: It causes the heart to work harder so the cardiac muscle grows larger. The bigger heart is less efficient in its pumping and can't do the best job of keeping up with metabolic needs in the rest of the body. Because the heart is working so hard, it has greater metabolic demands as well.

Hypertension can damage the kidneys and the inner linings of the arteries also.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?

Answer: The fat, arriving via LDLs (low-density lipoproteins), will be deposited on the arterial lining, which stimulates inflammation. The smooth muscle layer of the arteries will enlarge in response to the inflammatory (or defense) cells and that will result in thicker arterial walls. Some defensive cells will take up more lipids and fatty streaks will form on the arterial wall. These processes produce plaques, which can narrow the passageway within the artery, reducing blood flow. The plaque could rupture and a blood clot may form. At that point, the artery may be so narrow that the cells it serves will no longer get the oxygen they need and then die. When this happens in the heart, it can cause heart attack.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Viagra® works by dilating the arteries to the penis and other parts of the body. Why shouldn't a person use nitroglycerin at the same time that they are using Viagra®?

Answer: Both drugs will reduce the blood pressure (because they dilate blood vessels) and the combination may cause it to become so low that the person's heart can no longer pump sufficient blood to the vital organs.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 4) Ashante is having surgery for a blocked coronary artery. The physician is inserting a catheter with a tiny balloon to open the blocked vessel. What is this procedure called and what else might the physician do to keep the artery open in the long term?

Answer: The physician is performing an angioplasty; stents may be placed in the artery to keep it open and to prevent loose pieces of plaque from entering the bloodstream.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 5) During the summer of 2010, there were very large forest fires in Western Russia. The cloud spread at some point over 1,000 miles (approximately 1600 km), enveloping a number of cities.

The smoke was thicker than any you would see in a tobacco store! Based on the information in this chapter alone, why do you think the daily death rate due to heart disease in Moscow doubled during that time?

Answer: The smoke plumes may have contained some carbon monoxide and this, being one of the more harmful components of cigarette smoke, could account for much of the effect because the gas stresses the heart. Carbon monoxide lowers the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, so all organs, including the heart, receive less oxygen.

[Russian health officials stated at the time that the smoke was so bad that it was equivalent to smoking 8 packs of cigarettes a day!]

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation

3 .

Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 13 Body Defense Mechanisms Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following can be defined as small proteins that are secreted from virally infected cells to prevent the spread of the infection? A) macrophage B) mast cells C) immunoglobins D) interferons Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) If a disease attacked this type of white blood cell, a person would no longer be able to mobilize his or her specific defenses. A) plasma cells B) helper T lymphocytes C) cytotoxic T lymphocytes D) B lymphocytes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Any substance that triggers an immune response in the body is called a(n) ________. A) MHC marker B) memory cell C) antigen D) complement Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Which of the following is capable of resetting the thermostat of the body to cause a fever? A) antigen B) perforin C) complement D) pyrogen Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

1 .

5) Ivonna, 15, was exposed to the measles virus 13 days ago but doesn't seem to be getting sick.

She was sick from the disease when she was 10 so her body has most likely activated this reaction.

A) secondary response B) primary response C) final response D) anabasic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) Which antibody has the shape of a pentamer, or 5-sided arrangement?

A) IgA B) IgD C) IgM D) IgG Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Juana is exhibiting redness, swelling, and elevated temperature in one area of her arm. She has a condition known as ________.

A) complement cascade.

B) inflammation C) asthma D) passive immunity Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) A system that consists of a group of 20 proteins whose activities enhance the body's other defense mechanisms is called ________.

A) antigen B) antibodies C) mast cell D) complement Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Allergens combine with IgE to cause mast cells to release ________.

A) interferons B) histamine C) plasma cells D) interleukin I Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

2 .

10) Which is a type of lymphocyte that forms in the bone marrow but matures in the thymus gland? A) lymphoma B) T cell C) B cell D) leukotriene Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) Descendant cells that are long-lived and "remember" a particular invader and mount a rapid intense response to it if it should reappear are ________.

A) macrophage B) memory cells C) suppressor cells D) helper cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) What is it called when a person releases stored memory B and T cells in response to a second encounter with an antigen?

A) secondary response B) innate response C) immunity D) primary response Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Antibodies do all of these things except ________.

A) activate complement cascade B) attract phagocytes C) stimulate helper T cells D) neutralize toxins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Patrice exhibits extreme pain, fever, swelling, and redness in several of his joints. He knows that he has not experienced trauma to those areas and has no allergies or cancers. Based on the information in the textbook what would be the name for this type of reaction?

A) dermatomyocytitis B) encephalitis C) anaphylactic shock D) autoimmune Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

3 .

15) Why are severe burn patients at extreme risk of infection?

A) The skin is the first and primary barrier to preventing ingress of foreign substances.

B) These patients have to stay in a hospital environment for a long time while being exposed to sick people.

C) Most immune system cells are destroyed when the skin is damaged.

D) The skin helps with the production of vitamin E, a necessary disease-fighting vitamin.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 16) The eye is a warm, moist environment favored by many harmful bacteria. Nevertheless, eye infections are relatively rare. Why is this?

A) The enzyme tearase inhibits bacterial growth.

B) Tears contain the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme.

C) The eyes are constantly exposed to UV light, which inhibits bacterial growth.

D) Antibodies, particularly IgM, are secreted in abundance in the tears.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 17) A child may be given the vaccine for chickenpox. If the child goes to school and plays with other children who have the chickenpox virus, the vaccinated child will not get sick. Why is this?

A) Vaccines act like antibiotics so that any organism in the body will be destroyed before the immune system has to respond.

B) Vaccines introduce a friendly virus into cells so they cannot be infected with a second virus.

C) Vaccines produce a primary response so a second exposure allows for a larger and more rapid response.

D) Vaccines stimulate macrophages to work extra hard to fight infections.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 18) These white blood cells attack virus-infected cells in the body.

A) helper T cells B) cytotoxic T cells C) suppressor T cells D) plasma cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) This group of proteins can actually punch holes in pathogenic cells.

A) complement system B) histamines C) fibrinogens D) interleukin I Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

4 .

20) Antigens are substances that the immune system does not recognize as self. Which of the following are antigens?

A) strep throat bacteria B) cancer cells in the lung C) HIV D) All of these can act as antigens.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) According to preliminary tests Alexandra has liver cancer but the mass is inoperable and hard to localize. In order to administer x-ray beam therapy safely and effectively, the doctors must find the exact location of the cancer. Which of the following methods would be best in this situation?

A) radioactive monoclonal antibodies B) florescence-linked B-cells C) activated neutrophils D) enormous mast cell injections Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 22) Monoclonal antibodies are useful in treating cancer when radioactive materials or tumorkilling drugs are attached to them. How is it that these cancer-killing methods are delivered only to the tumor and not to other healthy cells?

A) Antibodies will specifically bind to the antigen target for which they are designed, here a cancer cell.

B) Antibodies will attach to any cancer cell found, even if there are several different types present.

C) Antibodies will stimulate the actions of T helper cells to fight the cancer.

D) Antibodies will stimulate the actions of cytotoxic T cells to fight the cancer.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) Abdul, who is 6 years old and beginning his first day of school, comes into his classroom where some other children are eating peanuts. Within a few minutes he complains of dizziness and seems to be struggling to breathe. You suspect ________.

A) chickenpox B) anaphylactic shock C) cancer D) Kaposi's sarcoma Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

5 .

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) If all of these hair-like structures, called ________, in respiratory passages suddenly stopped working, a person would probably have more respiratory infections.

Answer: cilia Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) ________ are less discriminating than some phagocytic cells, and attack and kill anything not recognized as part of the body.

Answer: Macrophages Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ are molecules that signal to the immune system that particular cells belong to a host.

Answer: MHC markers Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A (n) ________ is an overreaction by the immune system to an antigen.

Answer: allergy Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) An example of a(n) ________ barrier is lysozyme found in tears and saliva.

Answer: chemical Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) ________ is the procedure in which a harmless form of an antigen is introduced in order to stimulate an immune response to that antigen.

Answer: Vaccination Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) ________ are lymphocytes that mature in the thymus.

Answer: T lymphocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The ________ occurs when body tissues are injured or damaged, and includes redness, heat, and swelling.

Answer: inflammatory response Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) ________ are organisms capable of invading the body and causing disease.

Answer: Pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

6 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Eosinophils B) Autoimmune disorders C) Third line of defense D) Neutrophils E) Plasma cells F) Second line of defense G) Cytotoxic T cells H) First line of defense I) Mast cells 1) Line of defense with the skin barrier as an example.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Line of defense in which the production of antibodies is involved.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) If you have a parasite, these white blood cells go into action.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) These white blood cells arrive first in the attack against invaders and consume the pathogens.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Effector T cells responsible for the cell-mediated immune response.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) If you had none of these cells, you could no longer make antibodies.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Small mobile connective tissues cells that, along with basophils, release histamine, which causes redness at the site of damage or illness.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) These occur when the immune system fails to properly identify self from non-self, which results in an attack on the tissues or organs.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Line of defense that involves natural killer cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) H 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) G 6) E 7) I 8) B 9) F

7 .

Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) What are the three strategies for defending against foreign organisms, cells, or molecules?

Answer: (1) Prevent foreign cells or molecules from entering the body. (2) Attack any foreign cell or molecule that enters the body. (3) Destroy the specific foreign cell or molecule that enters the body and remember them.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Briefly explain the first line of defense that prevents pathogens from invading the body.

Answer: The first line of defense includes physical and chemical barriers. The skin, a major physical barrier, acts like an impermeable shield against invasion of the pathogens into the body.

Skin forms a watertight barrier that is resistant to toxins and enzymes produced by most pathogens. Skin cells are continuously shed and replaced. Chemical protectors associated with the skin include oils and sweat that are slightly acid, which prevents microbial growth and washes bacteria away. The mucous membranes that cover many surfaces in the body, including the respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, are also physical barriers. Other chemical barriers include acidic conditions of the stomach lining and vagina, and lysozyme in tears and saliva.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Allergy shots require many injections over long periods of time to be effective. Why can't the body get over an allergy with just a couple of injections?

Answer: Allergens react inappropriately with mast cells, which then release histamine, a vasodilator. The inappropriate reaction cannot be undone, so the idea is to try to prevent the reaction from happening. Allergy shots are a form of vaccination against the allergen itself.

Repeated low exposures to the allergen will stimulate the production of IgG antibodies. If the antibody levels can be repeatedly increased, any allergen that makes it into the body will be neutralized before it can interact with the mast cells and trigger an allergic response.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) One type of bacteria, called gram-negative bacteria, has a pyrogen molecule that is part of its membrane structure. This endogenous pyrogen is released when the cell is destroyed by the immune system. Why would a severe gram-negative bacterial infection be particularly dangerous to a patient?

Answer: Large numbers of gram-negative bacteria would stimulate an immune response, leading to the destruction of the microorganisms. The problem is that by destroying large numbers of these bacteria, large amounts of the endogenous pyrogen are released all at once.

This can cause a dangerous spike in body temperature.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

8 .

5) Zacchias has been in a horrible fire and 50% of the total surface of his skin has been destroyed. Given the information in this chapter, why is it so important to replace the burned skin and what is his best specific option for replacement?

Answer: Unbroken skin is a very important physical barrier of the first line of defense against pathogens. Skin is acidic and provided with oils and other chemicals that discourage bacteria. In addition, the outer skin cells are tough and constantly flake off, making it difficult for bacteria to penetrate more deeply into the body.

Since Zacchias has many areas of his skin that are still healthy, the most sensible solution is for his physicians to remove skin from one part of his body and transplant it to the burned areas.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) Lupus is a disease in which the immune system produces antibodies that attach to various tissues throughout the body, which initiates massive inflammation and tissue death. What type of disease is this, and what sort of treatment may prove effective?

Answer: Lupus is an autoimmune disease. Treatments include immunosuppressant drugs and treatment for inflammation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

9 .

Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 13A Special Topic: Infectious Disease Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A disease or condition with clinically distinct symptoms, whose incidence has increased, especially in the past two decades, is called ________.

A) emerging B) reemerging C) infectious D) declining Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Cholera is spread by contaminated food and water. The bacterium kills because it changes the permeability of the large intestinal cells. Which therapy would give the best chance of saving a person given the information in this chapter?

A) chemotherapy B) radiation C) fluid replacement D) CT scans Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Bacteria that normally live on or in the body and prevent other bacteria from becoming too numerous are referred to as ________.

A) bacterial toxins B) beneficial bacteria C) pathogens D) parasitic Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A pathogen is a disease-causing organism, but not all pathogens are alike. Some pathogens are more dangerous than others. When describing the relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease, we are considering its ________.

A) pathogenicity B) virulence C) infectivity D) emergence Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

1 .

5) Bacteria reproduce rapidly. It is possible for a few bacteria to grow in numbers sufficient to spoil milk left out overnight. What is the process by which bacteria reproduce?

A) meiosis B) mitosis C) binary fission D) multiple fusions Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Athlete's foot is caused by a(n) ________.

A) insect B) fungus C) bacterium D) virus.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Vibrio comma causes Asiatic cholera. It has a corkscrew shape so we would say it has this form.

A) Clostridium B) Bacillus C) coccus D) Spirillum Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Product recalls on frozen hamburger are not uncommon during any given year. The meat packing industry can experience problems when processing centers accidentally introduce this fecal bacterium into ground meat. What organism is commonly found to be the culprit?

A) Clostridium B) E. coli C) Streptococcus D) Staphylococcus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) What is the most effective way of killing Staphylococcus in the food you are preparing?

A) Nothing, this organism never is spread in food.

B) Mix antibiotics in with the food.

C) Cook the food thoroughly.

D) Use a good antiseptic on the food itself before preparing it.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

2 .

10) Which of the following characteristics of a medicine might be effective in treating a herpes simplex infection with as little harm to the patient as possible?

A) blocking cell wall synthesis B) stopping cilia activity C) preventing capsid formation D) halting membrane formation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 11) In the 1950s there was a large outbreak of Epstein-Barr virus in certain parts of Africa.

Shortly thereafter, in the same areas there was a large upswing in the incidence of Burkitt's lymphoma, a cancer. What characteristic was that virus demonstrating?

A) lytic B) persistent C) latent D) transformation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 12) A patient developed mononucleosis caused by a virus during his early teen years but then did not exhibit any signs of the condition for many years. He then had a bad traffic accident at age 39 and had mononucleosis again, although he had not been exposed to anyone carrying the causative virus. His infected cells were rapidly releasing new viruses. The virus is exhibiting the following effect.

A) lytic infection B) persistent infection C) toxin production D) transformation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 13) A camping party got lost in the wilderness for several days. They had sufficient food but misplaced their matches and could only drink the water from the clear lakes and streams in the area without boiling it. Very quickly everyone developed diarrhea that lasted the entire 8 days until they were rescued. Which type of pathogen was probably responsible?

A) protozoan B) fungus C) prion D) vector Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

3 .

14) A gentleman noticed a rash, forming a target-like design, on his arm. Subsequently, he developed pain and later arthritis. The bacterium that caused his condition was most likely spread by ________. A) a mosquito B) unprotected sex C) uncooked food D) a tick Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A (n) ________ is a global outbreak of disease.

Answer: pandemic Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) A(n) ________ is an animal that carries a disease from one host to another.

Answer: vector Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ are disease-causing organisms that invade a person's body.

Answer: Pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Infectious proteins that are heat-resistant and that cannot be destroyed by ultraviolet light or most chemicals are known as ________.

Answer: prions Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) ________ are made by certain pathogens like Staphylococcus, Salmonella, Escherichia coli, and Clostridium botulinum. These substances often travel in the bloodstream and cause disease symptoms.

Answer: Bacterial toxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

4 .

Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain how antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. What are some of the problems concerning the use of these drugs?

Answer: Antibiotics work in a variety of ways, including inducing the bacterial cells to burst.

Some antibiotics target the cell walls of bacteria; because animal cells lack cell walls, these antibiotics won't kill human cells. Other antibiotics interfere with bacterial protein synthesis; this works because ribosome structure is different in bacteria and animal cells. A major problem is the development of bacterial strains that are resistant to antibiotics. This results from the overuse and misuse of antibiotics.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) A new antibiotic is introduced which will only destroy organisms lacking a nuclear membrane. A dispute develops over its safety when used in people. What arguments would you use in this discussion?

Answer: Human cells have nuclear membranes so the antibiotic will not directly harm people.

However, there are many beneficial bacteria (lacking nuclear membranes) that this new antibiotic might well wipe out. This may produce indirect harm to humans.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 3) Tetracycline antibiotics are frequently included in commercial poultry feed. Why is the practice unwise for human health in the long run?

Answer: This use of an antibiotic hastens the day when potentially devastating pathogenic bacteria evolve natural resistance to the antibiotic.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) In some cultures parts of the central nervous system (e.g., brains) of cattle are popular foods.

Predict the issues that might arise from this practice.

Answer: According to the chapter, transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are associated with the brains of certain livestock, including cattle. The condition arises from prions and the prion responsible for mad cow disease is thought to cause one form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 5) Given the information in this chapter, why do you suppose that the rabies virus attacks mammal nervous systems but not those of crocodiles?

Answer: The cells of the crocodile nervous system clearly have different receptors on their surfaces than those found on the cells of mammals. The molecules on the surface of the rabies virus would not fit into the receptors found on the surface of crocodile cells but would fit into those on the surface of mammal cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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6) Developers wish to build a road through an isolated area where few people have ever visited before. The proposed route is wet and warm with many species of wild rodents and other mammals. What issues concerning disease might this route raise?

Answer: People will come in contact with ticks and other blood-sucking vectors and then fall victim to some unexpected infectious diseases. Wild animals can serve as reservoirs of pathogens that can move to humans. Additionally, the human activity along the road may chase away predators that would have kept the rodent population in check. Finally, the number of species of wild mammals is a key factor determining where new infectious diseases will emerge.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium found in the bloodstream of small woodland rodents like mice or chipmunks, and is also found occasionally in deer. Yet humans get this disease without coming into direct contact with either rodents or deer. Explain the concept of a biological vector and discuss how humans contract Lyme disease.

Answer: While the bacterium that causes Lyme disease is found in animals, it can be transmitted to humans even if the animal is not present. Small external parasites called ticks bite the animal host and pick up the microbes from the bloodstream. Then they may jump on a human who is passing by and bite them. This bite transmits the bacterium from the tick to the human.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 14 The Respiratory System Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a thin-walled, rounded chamber surrounded by a vast network of capillaries? A) surfactant B) alveolus C) diaphragm D) glottis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen between the blood and the cells is called ________. A) external respiration B) breathing C) internal respiration D) RDS Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Gloria was enjoying a soft drink but started to choke because this structure did not cover the opening in the larynx through which air passes. A) larynx B) glottis C) pharynx D) epiglottis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) The maximum amount of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forceful breathing is called ________. A) tidal volume B) residual volume C) vital capacity D) total lung capacity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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5) Inflammation of the mucous membranes of the sinuses is called ________.

A) asthma B) sinusitis C) respiratory distress syndrome D) laryngitis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) When the intercostal muscles contract, pulling the rib cage upward and outward and causing the lungs to inflate, it is called ________.

A) inspiration B) expiration C) exhalation D) deflation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Cockroach feces and shed skins can cause a severe inflammatory response in the bronchioles and muscle spasms in the bronchiole smooth muscles. When this happens, we say the person has ________.

A) laryngitis B) emphysema C) asthma D) TB Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 8) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the lungs is called ________.

A) inspiration B) external respiration C) exhalation D) internal respiration Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) A rise in the blood concentration of hydrogen ions will cause ________.

A) increased vagus nerve impulses B) relaxation of the diaphragm C) increased breathing rate D) decreased breathing rate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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10) The amount of air that remains in the lungs after exhaling as much air as possible is called the ________.

A) vital capacity B) expiration C) residual volume D) tidal volume Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The condition in which walls of the alveoli break down, thereby creating fewer and larger chambers, is called ________.

A) bronchitis B) emphysema C) TB D) influenza Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Which enzyme speeds up the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water?

A) oxygenase B) hydrogenase C) carboxylase D) carbonic anhydrase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) You are at a restaurant and a man starts to choke on a piece of steak. What must be done?

A) Heimlich maneuver B) coughing C) a hiccup D) swallowing again Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) The amount of air inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath is ________.

A) vital capacity B) residual volume C) tidal volume D) total lung capacity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) Phospholipid molecules that prevent the alveoli from collapsing are known as ________.

A) laryngitis B) surfactant C) mucous D) plasma Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) Which of the following is a significant function of the nose?

A) conditioning of inhaled air B) gas exchange C) equilibrium D) carbonic anhydrase activity Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 17) The organs of the respiratory system that contain alveoli are ________.

A) bronchioles B) bronchi C) glottis D) lungs Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) A man is standing in line behind you and you notice that he is coughing up bloody phlegm.

He seems underweight and fatigued. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis given the information in this chapter?

A) a cold B) asthma C) tuberculosis D) heart disease Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 19) Gene has a sore throat with a 101∘F fever and swollen glands. He should really see a doctor because the bacteria may eventually cause ________ within his body.

A) disease of the heart valves associated with rheumatic fever B) asthma C) emphysema D) mesothelioma Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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20) Influenza infections themselves are usually more annoying than deadly, but the flu can be accompanied by which of the following more serious secondary infections?

A) ear infection B) pneumonia C) bronchitis D) All of the above could be caused by a secondary infection after the flu.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) What would happen if the trachea did not have cartilaginous rings?

A) Filtration of incoming air would be lost.

B) Incoming air would not be humidified.

C) Sense of smell would be lost and food would taste funny.

D) The trachea would collapse.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Sometimes premature babies suffer from respiratory distress syndrome. What substance would you administer in a breathing tube to the infant?

A) antibiotics B) anti-inflammatory drugs C) surfactant D) hydrocortisone Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 23) People who fight forest fires for a living might have trouble blowing out the candles on their birthday cake because their ________ is reduced.

A) tidal volume B) expiratory reserve volume C) residual volume D) vision Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 24) When a person has laryngitis he or she cannot speak. What must happen to permit normal speech?

A) Inflammation in the bronchioles has to go down before enough air can enter the lungs.

B) The swelling of the vocal cords must decrease so they can vibrate normally.

C) Inflammation in the trachea has to go down before enough air can enter the lungs.

D) The epiglottis must cover the glottis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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25) When exercising, CO2 builds up in the blood. What effect would this have on external respiration?

A) There would be increased diffusion of CO2 out of the blood and into the lungs and increased ventilation to move it out of the body.

B) There would be decreased diffusion of CO2 out of the blood and into the lungs and increased ventilation to move it out of the body.

C) There would be increased diffusion of CO2 out of the blood and into the lungs and decreased ventilation to move it out of the body.

D) There would be decreased diffusion of CO2 out of the blood and into the lungs and decreased ventilation to move it out of the body.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 26) When exercising O2 is depleted in muscle tissue. What effect would this have on internal respiration?

A) There would be increased diffusion of O2 out of the blood and into the muscle tissue.

B) There would be decreased diffusion of O2 out of the blood and into the muscle tissue.

C) There would be increased diffusion of O2 out of the blood and into the lungs.

D) There would be decreased diffusion of O2 out of the blood and into the muscle tissue and a decrease in heart rate to bring more O2 to the exercising muscle.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) When someone has a sinus headache he or she often uses decongestant nasal sprays. Why are such sprays useful?

A) They reduce swelling, allowing the sinuses to drain.

B) They reduce the symptoms of sore throat inflammation, which exacerbates the pain.

C) They dry out the breathing passageways in the pharynx, making it easier to breathe.

D) They have a pain-blocking effect in the brain.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 28) A sharp blow to the stomach can "knock the wind out of you." This temporarily paralyzes the diaphragm, making it hard to breathe. Aside from a lack of oxygen making you pass out, what effect would this have on blood pH? A) O2 would build up in the blood, making it more basic.

B) CO2 would build up in the blood, making it more basic.

C) O2 would build up in the blood, making it more acidic.

D) CO2 would build up in the blood, making it more acidic.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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29) If oxygen is present, our cells can make how much more ATP? A) 2X B) 100X C) 18X D) 1,000X Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) The ________ is a thin portion of cartilage and bone that divides the inside of the nose.

Answer: nasal septum Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The ________ connects the larynx with the bronchi.

Answer: trachea Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) The term ________ is used to describe moving oxygen-rich air into the lungs and carbon dioxide-laden air away from the lungs.

Answer: breathing Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The ________ is the total volume of air contained in the lungs after the deepest possible inhalation.

Answer: total lung capacity Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) ________ are tiny chambers within the lungs that allow for gas exchange.

Answer: Alveoli Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) The breathing center is located in the ________ of the brain and is responsible for the basic breathing rhythm.

Answer: medulla Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as ________.

Answer: bicarbonate ion Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The pitch of the voice depends on the tension of the ________.

Answer: vocal cords Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7 .

9) The ________ is the space behind the nose and the mouth, which most people call the throat.

Answer: pharynx Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) ________ is inflammation of the mucous membranes of the bronchi caused by a virus, bacteria, or chemical irritation.

Answer: Bronchitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) When oxygen is bound to a hemoglobin molecule in the red blood cells it forms ________.

Answer: oxyhemoglobin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The ________ are muscles of the rib cage that help to increase the size of the thoracic cavity during inhalation.

Answer: intercostals Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Two large, open spaces called the ________ contain three convoluted shelf-like bones that increase the surface area for conditioning inhaled air.

Answer: nasal cavities Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) The voice-producing structure located in the throat, known as the ________, also prevents food or objects from entering the lower respiratory system.

Answer: larynx Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) The opening of the larynx is called the ________. It is covered by the epiglottis, which prevents food or objects from blocking the airway.

Answer: glottis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Intercostal muscles B) Cartilage rings C) Diaphragm D) Alveoli E) Expiratory reserve F) Trachea G) Inspiratory reserve H) Pharynx I) Sinuses J) Bronchioles 1) The portion of the upper respiratory system that provides the passageway for food and air.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) These muscles contract to help inflate the lungs by moving the ribs.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A sheet of muscle that separates the thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity and helps to inflate the lungs during inhalation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The walls of these structures break down with emphysema.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 5) The cavities in the head that lighten it and warm and moisten the air.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The additional volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs after the tidal volume.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The additional volume of air that can be brought into the lungs after normal inhalation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The narrow passageways that conduct air from bronchi to alveoli.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The passageway that connects the larynx with the bronchi leading to each lung.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) These are C-shaped and you can feel them below the larynx.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension Answers: 1) H 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) I 6) E 7) G 8) J 9) F 10) B

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Why is it not advisable to take antibiotics when you have a cold or the flu?

Answer: naturally The common cold and influenza are caused by viruses, and antibiotics are designed to inhibit or kill bacteria, which makes them ineffective against viruses.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) What are some of the hazards of smoking? What methods does society employ to try to reduce the number of people exposed to second-hand smoke?

Answer: Smoking causes chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and lung cancer, among other major health raised problems. Many places ban smoking indoors and some state governments have cigarette taxes considerably.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Why is the tuberculosis bacterium so hard to treat and destroy in the body?

Answer: immune The bacteria may lie dormant within connective tissue pockets for years. The

system cannot always kill the germs in these pockets and there are some antibioticresistant forms.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Olney was born two months premature. According to this chapter what respiratory problem is he most likely to have and what can be done to correct it?

Answer: Because Olney is premature, he is more likely than other newborns to have respiratory distress to the syndrome or RDS. This condition is due to the lack of sufficient surfactant, added fetal lungs in the eighth month of pregnancy. It is possible to use mechanical respirators and to administer surfactant (a phospholipid) to infants with this problem.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) In a severe allergic reaction, a person's tongue can swell up, effectively blocking the air passageways. An emergency procedure can be performed to restore airflow. Basically, a hole is cut into the passageways below the blockage to allow air to flow into the lungs. What passageway would be best for the surgical hole?

Answer: If the tongue is blocking the airway, the hole must be below that point of blockage so the pharynx is not a good candidate. The larynx is a good spot except that it would cause damage to the voice box that could be permanent. 10 The bronchi are not as close to the outside as .

the trachea. The trachea begins just below the larynx and is the best location to insert a hole.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis

6) Some people breathe primarily through their mouth rather than their nose. Why is this a bad idea?

Answer: It is better for the air to go through the nose so that it is warmed and moistened while particles can be removed. Since the sense of smell (i.e., olfaction) is also housed in the nasal passageways, a person can be better warned of potentially dangerous airborne toxins.

[Note: The airborne toxin portion of the answer is not explicitly supported by this chapter but requires modest creativity on the part of the student, so the skill level of the this question is higher than it would be otherwise.]

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 7) Exercise can trigger an asthma attack. This is especially true if someone goes for a long run on a cold morning. The two main causes of the narrowing of the bronchiole passageways can be treated with drugs that act in different ways. What are the two causes of this narrowing, and how can drugs work to counteract these conditions?

Answer: Smooth muscle contraction of the bronchioles can be treated with drugs that cause muscle relaxation. Also, irritation can cause inflammation of the passageways. Antiinflammatory drugs can treat the inflammation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Luz, a woman with a history of asthma, walked by a house and noticed that smoke was pouring out of the basement. Evidently, any smoke detector was either absent or not working because nobody in the home was reacting to the emergency. Luz banged on the front door and threw it open, screaming that there was a fire. The family immediately rushed out but upon reaching the safety of the front lawn, one of the children said the cat was trapped inside. Luz dashed into the now smoke-filled structure, searched around, found the cat, and emerged with the frightened but safe creature. According to the chapter, what short- and long-term problems will Luz most likely have?

Answer: She is very likely to have an acute asthma attack soon, but in the long term she may experience a decline in her expiratory reserve volume.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) Tuberculosis is a reemerging disease that is increasing in the United States due to an influx of immigrants and an increase in the number of immunocompromised patients, such as those with AIDS. Name two factors that make this illness particularly troublesome to track and treat.

Answer: Tuberculosis presents with flu-like symptoms so it can be hard to diagnose. Treatment requires long-term antibiotic therapy. Some strains of TB are resistant to antibiotics, which also makes it difficult to treat.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 15 The Digestive System Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The innermost lining of the gastrointestinal tract is the ________.

A) serosa B) muscularis C) submucosa D) mucosa Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) These sharply pointed teeth on the sides of the mouth tear food.

A) incisors B) canines C) premolars D) molars Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Infection with Helicobacter pylori can cause ________.

A) gallstones B) constipation C) tooth decay D) peptic ulcers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) This additive to municipal water supplies will reduce the rate of tooth decay.

A) chloride B) peroxide C) fluoride D) aldehyde Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) This enzyme will break down starch into smaller subunits.

A) carboxypeptidase B) lipase C) amylase D) renin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

1 .

6) Which of these events occurs normally in swallowing?

A) The larynx rises.

B) The epiglottis rises.

C) The bolus rises.

D) The esophagus closes.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The stomach begins chemical digestion of which of these substances?

A) fats B) proteins C) sugars D) carbohydrates Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by the presence of what other substance?

A) intrinsic factor B) vitamin B12 C) mucus D) HCl Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) This digestive organ absorbs water from indigestible food residue, stores feces, and eliminates feces from the body.

A) small intestine B) stomach C) rectum D) large intestine Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Chyme travels from the stomach to which specific structure?

A) pancreas B) jejunum C) duodenum D) large intestine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

2 .

11) If a gallstone were to block the bile duct, which type of food would become more difficult to digest?

A) protein B) sugar C) fat D) starch Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 12) A hormone released in the small intestine that stimulates the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gallbladder to release bile is known as ________.

A) gastrin B) secretin C) cholecystokinin D) VIP Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Lacteals characteristically transport ________.

A) triglycerides B) monosaccharides C) ions D) amino acids Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) This pancreatic enzyme breaks triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids.

A) maltase B) trypsin C) carboxypeptidase D) lipase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) A PillCam traveling from the pharynx to the stomach will first pass through the ________.

A) small intestine B) stomach C) anus D) esophagus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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16) Which is a common ailment characterized by a burning sensation caused by gastric juices backing up into the esophagus?

A) heartburn B) acidosis C) porosis D) gastritic stress Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) A passageway shared by the digestive and respiratory systems is the ________.

A) larynx B) pharynx C) sinuses D) esophagus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Which of the following is a J-shaped muscular sac that serves in the temporary storage of masticated food while digestive enzymes and HCl are released to digest proteins?

A) large intestines B) colon C) stomach D) esophagus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) Erosion of the gastrointestinal tract that results in a sore is called a ________.

A) pore B) chancre C) diverticulum D) peptic ulcer Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) Eating large amounts of acidic fruits such as limes and grapefruit may have this impact on the body.

A) ulcers B) scurvy C) cessation of peristalsis D) enamel damage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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21) If a person were unable to produce much of this substance, the gastric juices might destroy the stomach lining.

A) chyme B) HCl C) mucus D) pepsin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) A 60-year-old having frequent constipation runs a greater risk of this condition.

A) diverticulosis B) peptic ulcer C) diarrhea D) appendicitis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) If a person were born with the inability to produce pepsin, how would this affect his or her digestion?

A) He or she could not break down lactose.

B) He or she would digest proteins with difficulty.

C) He or she would fail to metabolize glucose.

D) He or she would no longer be able to absorb DNA. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) One symptom of yellow fever is that the whites of the eyes and the skin gain a yellowish tint.

Given just this information, the cells of which organ are most likely being destroyed?

A) eyes B) liver C) stomach D) pancreas Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 25) Boris has many tattoos and has recently started having a yellowish tinge to his skin. What should he be tested for before he donates blood?

A) diverticulosis B) cirrhosis C) hepatitis C D) Helicobacter pylori Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

5 .

26) Carlotta developed indigestion and pain under her navel over the weekend. As the workweek progressed, the pain worsened and moved to a point in the lower right abdomen and she started to vomit and experience nausea and fever. You suspect that she is suffering from ________.

A) peptic ulcer B) heartburn C) colorectal cancer D) appendicitis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) The destruction of this organ would mean that you would no longer be able to absorb vitamin B12 through the digestive system.

A) liver B) salivary glands C) large intestine D) stomach Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 28) If you took a new, strong antibiotic, which vitamin would you most likely need that you didn't need before?

A) vitamin A B) vitamin K C) vitamin C D) vitamin E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 29) Cleft palate is a hereditary condition in which the roof of the mouth does not completely fuse before birth. What things likely will be more difficult with cleft palate?

A) eating and speaking B) breathing C) salivating D) looking over the shoulder Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 30) Stratified squamous epithelium is tissue that can take a lot of physical wear and tear, but compared with some other tissues, it does not absorb water-soluble materials well. Which of the following is least likely to be lined by stratified squamous epithelium?

A) mouth B) esophagus C) small intestine D) anus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

6 .

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A later stage of gum inflammation in which bacteria grow in pockets between the gums and the teeth and in which teeth may become loose is called ________.

Answer: periodontitis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Each time Cyrus drinks milk, he develops gas, bloating, and abdominal discomfort. He probably has ________.

Answer: lactose intolerance Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Food is sent along the GI tract by means of a wave-like process called ________.

Answer: peristalsis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) ________ is a hormone secreted by the cells in the stomach lining that functions to increase gastric juice release.

Answer: Gastrin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) ________, a hormone secreted by the small intestine, stimulates the release of sodium bicarbonate to help neutralize the pH of the small intestine.

Answer: Secretin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Food traveling through the pharynx would next go to the ________.

Answer: esophagus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) ________, produced by the liver, is a mixture of water, ions, cholesterol, pigments, and salts that help in the digestion of lipids.

Answer: Bile Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Triglycerides initially travel in the blood stream away from the small intestine in ________ of the lymphatic system.

Answer: lacteals Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) Most nutrient absorption occurs in the ________, a major organ of the digestive system.

Answer: small intestine Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

7 .

10) The ________ contains beneficial bacteria that synthesize vitamin K and some of the B vitamins.

Answer: colon Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The ________ is connected to the GI tract and has no digestive function, but may have a role in the defense of the body against disease.

Answer: appendix Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) ________ cancer is the second-leading cause of cancer deaths, but early detection by screening for polyps can save many lives.

Answer: Colorectal Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The dentist covers the tooth layer, known as the ________, with a protective sealant to keep bacteria in the mouth from damaging it.

Answer: enamel Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

8 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Gallbladder B) Appendix C) Stomach D) Rectum E) Esophageal cancer F) Large intestine G) Mouth H) Cirrhosis I) Small intestine J) Salivary glands 1) A person with frequent heartburn is more likely to eventually develop this condition than others.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) This organ in the digestive system functions to store food and break down proteins before transferring chyme to the duodenum.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A muscular tube that absorbs water and some nutrients and stores waste material.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Three pairs of glands that secrete fluids, moisten and lubricate food, and contain digestive enzymes that hydrolyze starches.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Samantha drank a lot of alcohol over many years and now suffers from this fatty degeneration of the liver.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) The region of the large intestine that when stretched stimulates the defecation reflex and allows for the passage of feces.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Severe pain in the lower right abdomen along with fever and nausea is often a sign of an infection in this structure.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) An opening at one end of the gastrointestinal tract that functions in mechanical digestion and the breakdown of carbohydrates by secreting amylase.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

9 .

9) When partly digested food enters the duodenum, this organ squirts bile into the small intestine.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The pancreatic duct and common bile duct join and then empty into this organ.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) E 2) C 3) F 4) J 5) H 6) D 7) B 8) G 9) A 10) I Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Your friend is trying to tell you that human teeth are not alive. You disagree. Why would you say that a tooth in an adult is alive?

Answer: A tooth is partly made up of living tissues because it has blood vessels and nerves as well as a connective tissue called cementum. Damage to the tooth can cause serious pain due to the presence of nerves.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Emery believes mucus is unhealthy, so he is always spitting it out. Explain to Emery why mucus produced by the GI tract is beneficial.

Answer: The lining of the GI tract called the mucosa produces mucus. Mucus helps to protect the lining of the GI tract from rough substances in food and from digestive enzymes. Mucus also lubricates the lumen, allowing food to slide through easily.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) George is experiencing problems with damaged cartilage in his knee and is eating cartilage from the bones of his steak so that his knee will more readily heal. Explain why he is not necessarily going to succeed in speeding up the repair of his knee.

Answer: The digestive system breaks down large molecules such as carbohydrates and proteins into smaller molecules, monosaccharides and amino acids, respectively. These components are then used as needed in various parts of the body. Therefore, eating cartilage will not necessarily make the cartilage in George's body heal faster.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 4) The stomach is an extremely hostile place. What protects it from digesting itself?

Answer: The mucus produced by its lining is protective and alkaline so damage due to hydrochloric acid is prevented. The lining cells actually make and release an inactive protein called pepsinogen rather than active pepsin directly. The cells of the stomach lining are rapidly replaced. Finally, gastric juices are normally released only when food is present, and the food will dilute the juices and reduce the chance of damage.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

10 .

5) If you had a friend with a peptic ulcer, would you recommend that he or she take aspirin for the pain? Why or why not?

Answer: No. Aspirin blocks the production of prostaglandins, a type of chemical that helps protect the digestive system's lining from acid attack. Without the prostaglandins, the lining of the stomach would be even more susceptible to damage.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 15A Nutrition and Weight Control Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A 21-year-old, otherwise healthy person should be physically active about how many minutes per day to sustain weight loss? A) 30 - 45 minutes B) 120 minutes C) 20 - 30 minutes D) 60 - 90 minutes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Which of the following statements is correct? A) There is no healthy minimum level of HDLs. B) It is not possible to add extra hydrogen atoms to a polyunsaturated fat. C) We need about 8 tablespoons of fat per day. D) A blood cholesterol level of less than 200 mg/dl is recommended. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Which of the following substances has the lowest glycemic index? A) fiber B) glucose C) white bread D) white rice Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Oat fiber will to some extent block lipid uptake by the digestive system.

Which of the following conditions would potentially be more likely in a person eating large amounts of oat fiber? A) night blindness and xerophthalmia B) scurvy and poor wound healing C) pellagra D) fatigue, numbness, and tingling in the hands and feet Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis

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5) If a certain brand of daily vitamin were to contain 600% of the minimum daily requirement of riboflavin, what risks would there be to those who take that brand? A) liver damage B) none known C) scurvy D) rickets Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 6) In former times, the British Royal Navy required their captains to provide citrus fruits in order to prevent scurvy. This action provided their sailors with this vitamin. A) thiamin B) niacin C) vitamin C D) vitamin B-12 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Which of the following factors would increase the basal metabolic rate?

A) female gender B) larger muscle mass C) greater fatty tissue D) increased age Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) A dentist had a new patient who was abnormally slender for her height. How could the dentist determine if the person suffered from bulimia? A) There would be evidence of water retention. B) The teeth and gums would be damaged. C) Extensive weight gain would be observed. D) High blood sugar levels would be present. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) According to the chapter, a person might prevent atherosclerosis by following these dietary guidelines.

Answer: Reduce intake of saturated and trans fats and instead consume monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats (including omega-3 fatty acids). Saturated fats are found in red meat, butter, and certain other dairy products. Trans fats are in margarine and some packaged foods. Canola, olive, and peanut oils have monounsaturated fats while polyunsaturated fats are found in some fish.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) What are some specific health benefits of indigestible carbohydrates and where can a person find them?

Answer: Fiber is indigestible carbohydrates. Eating foods with high fiber content can lower LDLs and help in weight loss. It also improves constipation and hemorrhoids by absorbing water and softening stools. It is found in fruits, whole grains, dried beans, and vegetables.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Some people believe that an all-vegetable diet will mean that vegetarians will not have a proper balance of amino acids needed to build proteins. Explain why this is false.

Answer: It is possible to obtain the correct balance of amino acids by eating complimentary proteins such as beans paired with corn or rice, along with tofu.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) According to this chapter, what should a person take to promote proper bone development?

Answer: Vitamin D, phosphate, and calcium are all needed for bones.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) According to the contents listed on the box of a certain brand of cereal, it contains 19 grams of carbohydrates but claims that no sugar is present. How is this possible?

Answer: The cereal may contain starches and fiber rather than simple sugars.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 16 The Urinary System Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Destruction of this organ (or organs) would mean a person could no longer make urea.

A) urinary bladder B) kidneys C) liver D) spleen Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) The lack of voluntary control over urination because of the inability to control the external urethral sphincter is called ________.

A) urinary incontinence B) renal failure C) urination D) micturition Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which can be defined as the failure to completely empty urine from the bladder?

A) detrusor B) urinary incontinence C) urinary retention D) urination Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Which pathogen would most likely be responsible for a urinary tract infection caused by improper wiping after defecation?

A) Chlamydia B) Escherichia coli C) Mycoplasma D) Salmonella Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Which is a hormone that reduces blood volume and pressure and increases urine volume?

A) erythropoietin B) atrial natriuretic peptide C) aldosterone D) renin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) Someone who has just had a glass of wine will soon make less of this hormone.

A) renin B) aldosterone C) atrial natriuretic peptide D) antidiuretic hormone Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) An abrupt cessation of kidney function is called ________.

A) chronic renal failure B) pyelonephritis C) cystitis D) acute renal failure Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Which of these people is most likely to have kidney trauma in an accident?

A) An obese, older individual B) A person of average weight C) An obese, younger person D) An elderly person with almost no body fat Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 9) Thick, smooth muscle located at the junction of the bladder and urethra that aids in pushing stored urine into the urethra is called the ________.

A) external urethral sphincter B) internal urethral sphincter C) urinary sphincter D) medial urethral sphincter Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The hormone erythropoietin acts to stimulate cells that are located in the ________ of an adult.

A) blood B) kidneys C) spleen D) red bone marrow Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) A hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland that regulates the amount of water reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubules and the collecting ducts of nephrons is known as ________.

A) aldosterone B) atrial natriuretic peptide C) antidiuretic hormone D) diuretic hormone Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Substances such as alcohol that promote the formation of urine are known as ________.

A) diuretics B) renal stimulators C) antidiuretics D) hormones Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Which of the following is a disease characterized by the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine caused by a deficiency of ADH? A) diabetes mellitus B) diabetes insipidus C) pyelonephritis D) cystitis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Which of the following is a hormone that regulates the reabsorption of sodium by the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts?

A) angiotensin B) ANP C) ADH D) aldosterone Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) A region of the nephron that regulates the blood pressure in the afferent arteriole, which stimulates the release of aldosterone, is the ________.

A) loop of the nephron B) glomerular capsule C) juxtaglomerular apparatus D) glomerulus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) The nephron is under hormonal control for sodium and water reabsorption at the ________. A) glomerular capsule B) proximal convoluted tubule C) loop of the nephron D) distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) When a person's blood pH is too low, the kidneys will restore a more healthy balance by ________.

A) secreting more sodium ions into the urine B) reabsorbing more hydrogen ions from the filtrate C) secreting excess hydroxide ions into urine D) slowing ventilation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 18) The interstitial fluid in this region of the kidney has the highest solute concentration.

A) inner renal medulla B) outer renal medulla C) adipose capsule D) renal cortex Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 19) Which of the following does not normally move to any great extent from the blood into the filtrate at the renal corpuscle?

A) plasma proteins B) water C) hydrogen ions D) urea Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 20) A person has large amounts of protein in his or her urine as determined by a urinalysis. The area of the nephron that must be malfunctioning is the ________.

A) loop of the nephron B) distal convoluted tubule C) glomerulus D) collecting duct Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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21) Proteins are supposed to be eaten in relatively small amounts compared with other nutrients such as carbohydrates. One of the problems associated with eating large amounts of protein in the diet is the production of excess ________ by the cells of the liver.

A) ammonia B) uric acid C) urea D) creatinine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Cloudy urine would indicate which of the following?

A) water imbalance B) too much protein in the diet C) bacteria in the urinary system D) low pH Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) Under the influence of atrial natriuretic hormone (ANP), you would expect to see an increase in ________.

A) plasma volume B) blood pressure C) urine volume D) sodium reabsorption Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) One of the most significant complications associated with kidney failure is an inability to ________.

A) remove toxins from the blood B) regulate blood pH C) regulate blood volume D) All of the above are significant complications.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 25) Which of the following would not be reabsorbed (removed from the filtrate and returned to the blood) at the proximal convoluted tubule?

A) creatinine B) urea C) glucose D) bicarbonate Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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26) An individual is moderately dehydrated and reaches for a beer to quench his thirst. While this person thinks that he is hydrating himself, he is actually causing additional dehydration.

Why is this the case?

A) The alcohol in the beer inhibits antidiuretic hormone.

B) The alcohol in the beer causes a decrease in sodium reabsorption in the nephron.

C) The alcohol in the beer inhibits aldosterone.

D) The alcohol in the beer causes an increase in the activity of renin.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) You just drank several glasses of lemonade, which is highly acidic. Which of the following will occur in your urine?

A) Your urine will contain a lot of bicarbonate.

B) The pH of your urine will increase.

C) The pH of your urine will decrease.

D) There will not be any major changes to the urine.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 28) A patient has a tumor that causes her to secrete an excess amount of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). You would expect that the excessive level of ADH will ultimately cause ________.

A) decreased blood pressure B) increased blood pressure C) an increase in urine volume D) increased ventilation rate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 29) What benefit do animals get from having very long loops of the nephron?

A) They can send more glucose back to circulation.

B) They make less nitrogenous waste products.

C) They can send more water back to circulation.

D) They can excrete more salt.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 30) If a person were stranded for two days with virtually no drinking water, you would expect the following to occur.

A) production of dilute urine B) a decrease in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion C) a decrease in aldosterone secretion D) production of concentrated urine Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) ________ is an active form of the protein that stimulates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone.

Answer: Angiotensin II Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) ________ involves the relaxation of the external urethral sphincter, emptying the bladder.

Answer: Urination Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) When small amounts of urine escape because of sudden increases in abdominal pressure and force urine past the external sphincter, it is referred to as ________.

Answer: stress incontinence Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) ________ is the filtration of the blood using artificial devices because of failure or impairment of the kidneys.

Answer: Hemodialysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) In the male, an enlarged ________ gland may squeeze the urethra, causing urinary retention.

Answer: prostate Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) The peritoneum can function as a dialyzing membrane in a procedure called ________.

Answer: continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) ________ refers to a decrease or complete cessation of glomerular filtration.

Answer: Renal failure Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Relaxation of the ________ releases urine from the body.

Answer: external urethral sphincter Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) ________ are the functional units of the kidneys and are responsible for the formation of urine.

Answer: Nephrons Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The portion of the nephron that filters blood is called the ________.

Answer: renal corpuscle Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) The glomerular capsule and a tuft of capillaries called the ________ form the renal corpuscle. Answer: glomerulus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) If water were flowing from area "A" to area "B" through a semipermeable membrane, we might expect area "B" to be ________ in solute concentration compared to "A." Answer: higher Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 13) Filtrate moves from the space within the glomerular capsule to ________, the portion of the renal tubule with microvilli. Answer: proximal convoluted tubule Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A portion of the renal tubule that resembles a hairpin turn that may have short loops or long loops is called the ________. Answer: loop of the nephron Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) The ________ of several nephrons empty into a single collecting duct that eventually drains into the renal pelvis. Answer: distal convoluted tubule Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Respiratory B) Urinalysis C) Urinary D) Kidneys E) Tubular secretion F) Nephrons G) Digestive H) Urinary bladder I) Urethra J) Ureters 1) An excretory organ involved with filtration of body fluids and the elimination of nitrogenous wastes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Tube-like structures that are lined with muscle and function to transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) If this muscular tube were to become blocked, urine could not be expelled to the outside of the body Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) When we wish to determine a patient's health using their urine, we perform this test.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The elimination of solid food residues occurs in this system.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The elimination of carbon dioxides and water and body heat occurs in this system.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The system that eliminates nitrogenous wastes, excess water, salts, and excess ions from the body.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) This is a muscular, bag-like structure that stores urine.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Cocaine would be eliminated from the body by the kidneys by this process.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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10) These are the functional units of the kidney and are responsible for the formation of urine.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) D 2) J 3) I 4) B 5) G 6) A 7) C 8) H 9) E 10) F Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Provide the path of the urine from the kidney to the outside. Make sure your explanation includes all structures and muscles that would be encountered as the urine leaves the body.

Answer: Urine forms in the nephrons, which then drain into the renal pelvis, out to the ureters, and eventually to the urinary bladder. Urine amounts build up to 200 milliliters in the urinary bladder and the detrusor muscle contracts. This causes the internal urethral sphincter to relax, releasing urine into the urethra. About this time, a person feels the urge to urinate. The external urethral sphincter relaxes in order to release urine from the body.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Why is urinalysis used for medical and drug testing? Give several examples of tests that can be performed through urinalysis.

Answer: Urinalysis tells us about the general health of body organs. It can detect a variety of substances that an individual may have filtered from the bloodstream. Because urine consists of about 95% water, the remaining 5% consists of substances from the body. These substances can be drugs, microorganisms, small molecular subunits of nutrients (such as glucose), or various cellular components (red blood cells or white blood cells are abnormal constituents of urine).

Any substance that is ingested, inhaled, or injected may show up in the analysis, depending on the solubility of the compound. These analyses can also be used to determine the general health of an individual.

(Examples given will be variable. Students might mention pregnancy tests, specific drugs tests, and so forth.)

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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3) What are some of the problems associated with kidney transplants and what are some ways the issues can be resolved? Answer: Kidney transplants must match as closely as possible so the recipient's immune system doesn't attack the new kidney. The ideal donor is an identical twin but often an immediate family member can be a match. The risk of rejection increases with decreasing degrees of relatedness between the donor and the recipient. Where exact matches cannot be found, transplant recipients are required to take drugs that suppress their immune system to prevent rejection. There is a new method of enhancing acceptance by suppressing the recipient's immune system through radiation to reduce his or her own cells responsible for rejection. After that, they receive stem cells from the donor's bone marrow. The kidneys can only be kept alive for 48 to 72 hours after the donor dies. If that is not a possibility, the person may have to stay on a dialysis machine. There are measures to increase the number of possible organs. Donors might be paid for their contribution (a person can do quite well with only one kidney). However, in the United States, organ donors cannot be legally paid for their gift, unlike in some other countries. Kidneys available for transplantation are always in short supply, which causes some people to go overseas to buy kidneys, legally or illegally. In some other countries individuals must opt out of donation rather than the situation in the United States, where donors must opt in to donate. There are larger pools of donated organs in countries with opt-out systems. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Compare and contrast hemodialysis and CAPD. Answer: Both forms of dialysis have the same end goal, which is to remove nitrogenous wastes, regulate blood volume, and regulate pH (i.e., to replace kidney functions). During hemodialysis, blood is removed from the patient and is exposed to dialysate in an artificial kidney machine. The blood is then returned to the body. This type of dialysis takes several hours, usually several times a week, in a hospital setting and is limiting to the patient. In CAPD, the dialysate is emptied into the abdominal cavity where dialysis takes place in the body; the patient's peritoneum serves as the dialyzing membrane. CAPD can be performed at home. The patient leaves the fluid for several hours and then drains it off. The next cycle then begins. This type of dialysis is gentler and allows the patient more freedom but comes with the cost of increasing risk of infection (peritonitis). Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) A 30-year-old female complains of frequent and painful urination. A urinalysis is performed and the results indicate the presence of bacteria in the urine. What problem does this woman have? From an anatomical perspective, explain to the patient why she is more likely to suffer from this disorder than her husband. What sort of treatment would be appropriate? Answer: The problem is a urinary tract infection (UTI). Women are more likely to suffer from UTIs because the female urethra is shorter than the male urethra and their external urethral orifice (opening) is closer to the anus than it is in males. Very often, UTIs are caused by E. coli bacteria, which are normal residents of the large intestine. Fecal bacteria do not have to travel far to come into contact with the external opening of the female urethra.

Antibiotics would be an appropriate treatment. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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6) Constant regulation of blood pH is critical. There are several ways (and several organ systems) involved in this regulation. Fully explain two different ways that regulation of blood pH is achieved through the urinary system.

Answer: The student can describe the carbonic acid buffering system, which involves H+ and HCO3-. They could approach this from the nephron's perspective or from the perspective of the blood. They might also explain how adjusting the respiratory rate can help make adjustments in blood pH. More specifically, if blood pH is too low, then the kidneys may remove excess hydrogen ions from the blood and excrete them in urine. Second, by returning bicarbonate to the blood, the kidneys sustain the important carbonic acid buffering system of the blood.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Suppose that your roommate is on a 48-hour fast for food and drink. This means that she has no nutrients or liquids entering her system. What would happen to her blood pressure and why?

What hormones would be triggered by the lack of incoming liquids? Explain how these hormones work and what the end result would be concerning her blood pressure and urine volume.

Answer: Her blood pressure should decline due to a lack of incoming fluids. The lack of water would decrease plasma volume, ultimately lowering blood pressure. Because of this, aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) should be signaled. Aldosterone will increase sodium reabsorption, which encourages water reabsorption. ADH will directly increase water reabsorption. Collectively, these will send water back to circulation in an attempt to keep blood volume and pressure up. This will decrease urine volume.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 8) A 45-year-old diabetic has entered the hospital. Routine blood work shows that his blood pH is dropping and is currently at 7.3 (normal blood pH is about 7.4). Explain something that could be going on in the kidneys to cause a drop in blood pH. If the acidosis cannot be reversed quickly, what type of immediate treatment might the patient need to restore kidney function?

There are two types of this treatment. How do they differ from each other? What sorts of complications might be expected?

Answer: Some form of kidney or nephron damage has occurred and renal failure is occurring.

(Anything reasonable works hereif acute renal failure, then it can be caused by inflammation, certain drugs, poison; in the case of a diabetic, however, it is more likely to be chronic renal failure, caused by the negative effects of high blood glucose levels on the blood vessels of the kidneys.) This patient will need dialysis if this does not reverse on its own. Hemodialysis uses a machine to filter the blood. Blood must be taken into the machine, filtered, and returned to the patient. Another option is continuous peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), in which dialysis fluid is placed in the abdomen and the peritoneum serves as the dialyzing membrane. Infection is a major concern with dialysis, particularly with CAPD. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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9) After a routine urinalysis, you get a report back from the lab. This report flags any abnormal values. For each of the values, indicate whether the test result is normal or abnormal. For any test results that are abnormal, speculate on what might have caused the abnormal value.

Tested for: Glucose Bacteria pH Protein

Result: Absent Present 3.0 Elevated

Is this normal If abnormal, indicate what might be or abnormal? causing the problem.

Answer: These are suggested answers. Students sometimes come up with something creative that also makes sense!

Is this normal If abnormal, indicate what might be or abnormal? causing the problem.

Normal This could be a UTI or Abnormal contamination of the urine during the collection process.

This pH is too low (pH of urine pH 3.0 Abnormal usually does not drop below about 4.5). Perhaps the patient is suffering from acidosis and the nephrons are trying to remove the excess H+. This could also be the result of kidney failure.

As a general rule, proteins should Protein Elevated Abnormal not be found in the urine. This might indicate damage to the nephrons, specifically to the glomeruli where filtration occurs. The condition of having too much protein in the urine is called proteinuria.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Tested for: Glucose Bacteria

Result: Absent Present

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 17 Reproductive Systems Multiple-Choice Questions 1) How many chromosomes are provided to a zygote from each gamete? A) 23 B) 46 C) 46 pairs D) None of the above Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Which one of the following occurs toward the end of spermatogenesis? A) fertilization B) mitosis C) meiosis and structural changes D) ovulation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Alterations to the positioning of the testes in males serve the purpose of ________. A) allowing more room for the urethra B) adjusting the temperature needed for production of healthy sperm C) allowing glands to release their contents D) allowing for an erection to occur Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The structure that is shared between the male reproductive and urinary systems is the ________. A) prostate gland B) seminal vesicles C) urethra D) seminiferous tubules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Sperm become mature and capable of fertilizing an egg in the ________. A) vas deferens B) urethra C) seminiferous tubules D) epididymis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) When sperm enter the epididymis, they ________.

A) are mature B) are incapable of moving on their own C) are ready to fertilize an egg D) come from the vas deferens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Glands that produce secretions just before ejaculation that may function to lubricate or rinse urine from the urethra are called ________.

A) prostate B) vas deferens C) bulbourethral D) endometrium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Which of the following tests is not used to detect prostate cancer?

A) PSA blood test B) a rectal exam C) PAP test D) All of these are used to detect prostate cancer.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The sperm structure that helps penetrate the egg cell is the ________.

A) midpiece B) tail C) ATP D) acrosome Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The midpiece of the mature sperm contains mitochondria that provide metabolic energy for the trip to the egg. Fructose (simple sugar) is used as fuel by the sperm. From where is this fructose secreted?

A) prostate gland B) seminal vesicles C) bulbourethral gland D) acrosome Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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11) A fertility doctor is trying to determine why a couple is infertile. It has been determined that the woman is fertile so the problem must be with her partner. In analyzing the partner's semen, the doctor notices that it seems to be lacking in the alkaline substance that balances acidity in the female reproductive tract. The structure malfunctioning must be the ________.

A) bulbourethral glands B) prostate gland C) seminal vesicles D) urethra Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) Which hormone in men could be manipulated to eliminate sperm production without producing problems with the maintenance of secondary sex characteristics?

A) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) B) testosterone C) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) D) luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 13) Because of its function, this hormone is often called interstitial cell-stimulating hormone.

A) GnRH B) LH C) FSH D) inhibin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Anabolic steroids are a synthetic version of ________.

A) testosterone B) estrogen C) progesterone D) inhibin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) A male has been tested and his sperm seem to be normal. They are motile and seem to be surviving for the appropriate amount of time. However, the sperm don't seem to be able to fertilize an egg. What part of the sperm is most likely to be malfunctioning?

A) the tail B) the head C) the midpiece D) the acrosome Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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16) Which of these can be described as the release of the oocyte from an ovary?

A) menstruation B) ovulation C) implantation D) fertilization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) A structure covered by the anterior labia minora that contains many nerve endings and functions in sexual arousal in females is called the ________.

A) uterus B) vagina C) clitoris D) cervix Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Which of the following signals the end of the reproductive period in females?

A) menopause B) endometriosis C) ovulation D) follicle formation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) The tubes that extend from the uterus and function to transport the immature egg from the ovary to the uterus are known as ________.

A) vas deferens B) cervix C) oviducts D) seminiferous tubules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) The smooth muscle located within the uterus that stretches to accommodate the developing fetus forms the ________.

A) endometrium B) cervix C) oviducts D) uterine wall Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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21) Which of the following hormones is not involved in the male reproductive system?

A) FSH B) LH C) testosterone D) progesterone Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 22) What do the cells that form the outer sphere of the mature Graafian follicle become once luteinizing hormone transforms the cells?

A) ovum B) follicle C) corpus luteum D) endometrium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 23) The functions of the corpus luteum are all of the following except ________.

A) to maintain the endometrium B) to secrete follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) C) to secrete progesterone D) to secrete estrogen Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) During a normal female reproductive cycle, the unique hormone produced only after ovulation is ________ made by the ________.

A) progesterone; corpus luteum B) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH); anterior pituitary C) gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH); hypothalamus D) luteinizing hormone (LH); anterior pituitary Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 25) When a female has low levels of estrogen and progesterone, ________.

A) she is ovulating B) her uterus is ready to accept an embryo C) she is pregnant D) she is menstruating Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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26) Prostaglandins are thought to cause ________.

A) PID B) menstrual cramps C) vaginitis D) endometriosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 27) A bacterial infection of the pelvic organs is known as ________.

A) vaginitis B) PMS C) endometriosis D) PID Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 28) Which contraceptive device is inserted into the uterus by a physician and is highly successful at preventing pregnancy or at dislodging the embryo if implanted?

A) condom B) Implanon C) diaphragm D) IUD Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 29) Which sterilization technique involves cutting the vas deferens on each side to prevent sperm from leaving the body?

A) hysterectomy B) tubal ligation C) vasectomy D) testicular deactivation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 30) The semen from a male who has had a vasectomy would include each of the following except ________.

A) sperm B) secretions from the prostate gland C) secretions from the bulbourethral glands D) secretions from the seminal vesicles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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31) Which of the following statements is false?

A) Females enter menopause when their follicles become overly responsive to LH and FSH. B) The pH of the vagina is acidic to deter microbial growth.

C) Females are born with more primary follicles than they have at puberty.

D) In oogenesis, meiosis is completed only if fertilization occurs.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 32) When a female is using birth control pills, the first 3 weeks of her cycle most closely resemble the ________ in a female who is not using hormonal contraception.

A) ovulatory B) menses phase C) post-ovulatory D) pre-ovulatory Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 33) A pregnant woman (first trimester) is concerned that she has been exposed to a chemical that blocks estrogen and progesterone receptors so that the body does not recognize these hormones.

The most important reason she should be worried about this is because ________.

A) GnRH may be inhibited B) luteinizing hormone (LH) may cause the release of another egg C) ovulation might occur D) menstruation may occur, thus causing the embryo or early fetus to be lost Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 34) A 25-year-old female has just had the Implanon system inserted for contraception. Six months later, she is concerned because she is not menstruating. This is ________ and the reason is because she has an increased level of ________.

A) abnormal; luteinizing hormone (LH) B) normal; progesterone C) normal; estrogen D) abnormal; follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

7 .

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) The ________ are the structures that occur between the ovaries and the uterus.

Answer: oviducts Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The ________ serves for sperm storage and maturation in males.

Answer: epididymis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The ________ is the layer in the uterus where an embryo should implant.

Answer: endometrium Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The external genitalia or ________ are the reproductive structures that lie outside the vagina.

Answer: vulva Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Cells that are located between the seminiferous tubules of the testis and whose function is to produce androgens are called ________.

Answer: interstitial cells Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The ________ are tubes that conduct sperm from the epididymis to the urethra.

Answer: vas deferens Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The ________ contains enzymes that spill out from the sperm and digest through the layers surrounding the secondary oocyte to assist fertilization.

Answer: acrosome Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) ________ is a hormone produced by the seminiferous tubules that inhibits FSH from stimulating the production of sperm cells.

Answer: Inhibin Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The anterior pituitary gland secretes ________ in men, which causes the cells that will become sperm to be more sensitive to the effects of testosterone.

Answer: follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 10) The secretions of the ________ contain fructose and prostaglandins.

Answer: seminal vesicles Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

8 .

11) The hormones FSH and LH are produced by the ________.

Answer: anterior pituitary gland Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The ________ secretes both estrogen and progesterone, and if fertilization does not occur, this structure degenerates.

Answer: corpus luteum Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 13) The ________ is a cylindrical organ whose role in reproduction is to deliver the sperm to the female reproductive system.

Answer: penis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) ________ stimulates the production of testosterone by the interstitial cells of the testis.

Answer: Luteinizing hormone (LH) Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) The secretion of the ________ gland is alkaline to counteract the acidity of the female reproductive tract.

Answer: prostate Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

9 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Prostate gland B) Oviduct C) Penis D) Glans penis E) Ovaries F) Endometrium G) Vas deferens I) Uterus J) Seminal vesicle K) Vagina L) Testis 1) A gland that produces alkaline secretions, which function to activate sperm and reduce the acidity of the female reproductive system.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) One of a pair of glands that produces fluid that nourishes sperm and assists movement of sperm in the female reproductive tract.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge H) Cervix 3) The lining of the uterus that is lost and replaced on a monthly basis in the form of menstrual fluid and serves for the site of implantation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A muscular tube in females used for sexual reproduction that receives the penis during sexual intercourse and serves as the birth canal.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The reproductive organ in males that produces sperm and testosterone for reproduction.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) The opening of the uterus that extends into the vagina.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The pear-shaped organ in females that houses and nourishes the developing fetus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The organs in females that produce the sex hormones and the eggs for reproduction.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) A region located at the tip of the penis that has a high concentration of nerves for sexual arousal.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10 .

10) The male organ that delivers sperm to the female's reproductive tract.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The name of the THIRD tube(ule)s that sperm enter after they have been produced in the first tubule.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The zygote typically begins its development into an embryo here.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) A 2) J 3) F 4) K 5) L 6) H 7) I 8) E 9) D 10) C 11) G 12) B Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) What are the four stages involved in the human sexual response?

Answer: The first step involves excitement, which occurs during foreplay. In males, the penis fills with blood and an erection occurs. In females, blood flow increases to the breasts, nipples, labia, and clitoris. The vaginal walls seep fluid, which helps lubricate the vagina and makes insertion of the penis much easier. The second step is called the plateau. In men, blood flow increases to the testes, which enlarge, and muscle contraction pulls them closer to the body. In females, the outer third of the vagina swells because blood flow increases to this area. Breathing rate and heart rate continue to increase. Orgasm is the third step of arousal; muscle contractions of the reproductive structures are characteristic of this stage. In males, ejaculation occurs, while in females, rhythmic contractions in the vagina and uterus take place. The last stage is called resolution, which involves the return to normal of the body functions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Speculate as to why the success rate of treatment is much higher for cancers such as testicular and prostate compared with ovarian cancer.

Answer: Testicular cancer affects men in their young-adult to middle-aged years. If testicular cancer is detected early, the chance of survival is nearly 100%, but self-examination and detection are essential. For prostate cancer, like testicular cancer, the key to survival is early detection. If the cancer is still contained within the prostate when detected, the chances for survival for 5 years are 95%. Unfortunately, there is no self-exam or routine testing that is used for ovarian cancer. This makes early detection difficult.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) What are the main differences in the formation of the egg and sperm in males and females?

Answer: Sperm formation, or spermatogenesis, in males occurs in the seminiferous tubules, which involves the development of four sperm cells from each spermatogonium. A mature male produces millions of sperm. In contrast, a mature female usually produces only one egg (technically a secondary oocyte) each month. Also, oogenesis begins during fetal development but egg development is arrested and won't continue until ovulation and fertilization take place. In oogenesis there will be only one viable egg produced and three polar bodies.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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4) Using fertility awareness as a means of birth control requires a detailed understanding of the female reproductive cycle. Given what you know about the cycle, when exactly should a woman avoid sex to prevent pregnancy if she is relying on fertility awareness? Make sure to explain your answer. What are the challenges to this method of birth control?

Answer: Fertility awareness involves avoiding sex before and after ovulation occurs. Because sperm can live between 2 and 5 days (2 to 3 days is most typical), sex should be avoided between 2 and 5 days prior to ovulation. After ovulation has occurred, the egg only lives about 1 day, and sex should be avoided during this time. However, because the timing of the female cycle is variable, it can be difficult to pinpoint exactly when ovulation will occur.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Assume that a female has a "normal" 28-day reproductive cycle. She is concerned about the times in which she may get pregnant. Her partner tells her that the only day she has to worry about in terms of getting pregnant is the day she ovulates. Explain to her why this is not the case.

Answer: Typically, an egg survives about 1 day and sperm survive about 2 or 3 days (but possibly up to 5 days). This means any sperm deposited in the female system a few days prior to ovulation could fertilize the egg. Since the egg only lives about 1 day, the female should be concerned about the day following ovulation. This typically gives a 4-day window of concern.

Further, the timing of ovulation is uncertain so this must be accounted for as well.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) After a fertility analysis, it is determined that the semen a male produces has the appropriate number of functional sperm cells, yet he is still having problems with his fertility. This indicates that something other than the sperm is causing the problem. List one potential structure that could be causing the problem and what the problem would be.

Answer: The student could answer about any of the accessory glands in the male system. For example, malfunctions of the prostate, seminal vesicles, or the bulbourethral glands could cause problems.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) An experimental male birth control method has been developed that inhibits gonadotropinreleasing hormone (GnRH). Does this drug have the ability to prevent sperm production? Justify your answer. Indicate any potential side effects that might be of concern to the male.

Answer: Yes. If GnRH were inhibited, then there would be no release of FSH or LH from the pituitary. Without LH, the testes will not produce testosterone. Without testosterone, no sperm will be made. However, this may not be agreeable to the male because inhibition of testosterone interferes with sperm production and the maintenance of secondary sex characteristics.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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8) The following table compares various methods of hormonal birth control for women. Fill in each blank with the appropriate information: Explain how to use the method. Be specific What hormones Method on timing issues! does it contain?

Oral contraception (combination birth control pills) DepoProvera injection Implanon Ortho Evra (patch) NuvaRing In general, how do all these methods work to prevent pregnancy? Be detailed and include all the relevant hormones.

Answer: Explain how to use the method. Be specific What hormones on timing issues! does it contain?

Method 21 days of active pills followed by 7 days Estrogen and Oral progesterone contraception off (combination birth control pills) DepoProvera Progesterone An injection that lasts 3 months Surgically implanted capsules that last years Progesterone injection Place a patch on the skin for a week, replace Estrogen and Implanon for a second week, replace for a third week, progesterone Ortho Evra and no patch on the fourth week (patch) Insert ring in vagina near the cervix for 21 NuvaRing days, then remove for 7 days Estrogen and progesterone Methods with estrogen and progesterone prevent maturation and ovulation of eggs.

Progesterone-only methods may prevent ovulation; these methods also thicken cervical mucus and make the endometrium unsuitable for implantation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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9) Describe the "path" of a sperm cell from its production until it leaves the male body.

Answer: Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubes and enter the epididymis. Here the sperm mature, become capable of fertilizing an egg and of moving on their own. From the epididymis the vas deferens transfers the sperm to the urethra. The urethra conducts sperm (in semen) out of the body through the penis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) In general, how do all the hormonal birth control methods for women work to prevent pregnancy? Be detailed and include all the relevant hormones.

Answer: Methods with estrogen and progesterone prevent maturation and ovulation of eggs (specifically they suppress the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland).

Progesterone-only methods may prevent ovulation; these methods also thicken cervical mucus and make the endometrium unsuitable for implantation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 17A Special Topic: Sexually Transmitted Diseases and AIDS Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which is the most reliable method for preventing both pregnancy and contraction of a sexually transmitted disease?

A) a condom B) abstinence C) sterilization D) a diaphragm Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The term sexually transmitted infection is used to refer to infections ________.

A) caused by bacteria B) caused by viruses C) that cannot be treated D) that have no symptoms Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The STD that will always produce symptoms is ________.

A) gonorrhea B) chlamydia C) syphilis D) HPV infection Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Your former roommate went through a fairly promiscuous stage during her freshman year.

Now she feels certain that she has an STD, possibly more than one STD. Too embarrassed to go to the doctor, she wants to take antibiotics that you had left over from a case of strep throat. She tells you that antibiotics will wipe out whatever she has. Which of the following STDs would your antibiotics definitely not eliminate?

A) gonorrhea B) chlamydia C) syphilis D) HPV infection Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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5) A 25-year-old female is in early labor. After delivering the baby (by a normal vaginal delivery), the patient asks the doctor about some symptoms she had during pregnancy, including discharge and painful urination. She has a history of multiple sex partners and very rarely used condoms. You suspect a potential STD is the cause. The biggest risk at this point is ________. A) There is no major risk at this point. B) to the mother: an untreated STD is almost always fatal C) to the baby: he or she can be infected while moving through the birth canal D) to the mother: she may become infertile Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) Which statement is false concerning STDs? A) Bacterial STDs can be treated with antibiotics. B) Permanent infertility can be the result of an untreated STD. C) STDs are routinely tested for during all physical examinations. D) Most viral STDs can never be eliminated from the body. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the use of drug therapy in an HIV- positive patient? A) If drug therapy is used in a confirmed HIV-positive patient, all HIV viruses can be successfully eliminated from the body. B) Protease inhibitors can slow the assembly of new viruses. C) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors can help to slow the virus from entering into host chromosomes. D) Each of these statements is correct. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Concerning HIV, which of these statements is false? A) HIV is a retrovirus. B) HIV proofreads when copying its genetic material so mistakes are not made. C) HIV must interact with a receptor on the host to infect it. D) HIV utilizes the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy its RNA to DNA. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Why are treatable diseases like chlamydia so widespread in the world? Answer: Many STDs go undetected or can be asymptomatic, meaning there are no visible symptoms or that these symptoms are short lived and go away, leading the person to believe that he or she is cured. Symptoms of these diseases are variable depending on the site of infection; therefore, the symptoms can go largely undetected for long periods of time. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Why is a male more likely than a female to seek treatment for chlamydia and gonorrhea? Answer: In males, the most common site of infection is the urethra and the symptoms are noticeable, including burning during urination. In females, the pelvic organs are most commonly infected and these infections are less likely to produce symptoms. Because males are more likely than females to experience noticeable symptoms, they are more likely to seek diagnosis and treatment. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) We often hear young teenagers claim that oral sex doesn't count as "real" sex. While oral sex won't cause pregnancy, it does have many of the same risks associated with "real" sex.

Explain to one of these young teenagers what sorts of risks come with alternative forms of sexual contact, such as oral sex. Answer: Oral sex can allow for the transmission of STDs into the throat or even the eyes. Certain STDs can be transmitted to mucus membranes other than the reproductive tract. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Why is it not possible for HIV medications to eliminate HIV in a confirmed HIV+ patient? Answer: Once a person has been confirmed as HIV+, the virus has already infected the cells. While medications can limit the further infection of new host cells, it cannot do anything about the cells that are already infected. Most drugs are aimed at preventing replication of HIV. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Select two classes of HIV drugs and fully explain how they work. Can they cure HIV? Answer: Students may describe reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, or integrase inhibitors.

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors prevent the conversion of viral RNA to DNA. Protease inhibitors block the processing of viral proteins needed to properly package the viruses.

Fusion inhibitors block receptor sites on the host cell. Integrase inhibitors prevent viral DNA from integrating into host chromosomes. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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6) Name That STD! Choose from the following STDs. You may use each choice more than once.

In some cases, there may be several correct answers.

Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, Genital herpes, Syphilis ∙ Which STD usually causes death if it is left untreated? ∙ This STD goes through three stages before causing death. ∙ Which STD is suspected after an abnormal PAP test in females? ∙ Name two STDs that can be contracted on mucus membranes other than those of the reproductive systems. ∙ If an STD is detected early, many can be easily treated. Which STD can't be treated (meaning, you can't ever get rid of it, even though it may be managed)? ∙ Name three STDs that may have no symptoms (in either men or women). ∙ John has symptoms of an STD (burning sensation while urinating and a yellowish discharge from the urethra) that popped up 3 days after sexual contact with a questionable partner. Based on his symptoms and this timing, John probably has which STD? ∙ This STD can cause genital warts. ∙ Which STD can cause a rash over the entire body? ∙ Several STDs can be transmitted by oral sex. Name one. ∙ For which STD is there now a vaccine available for females?

Answer: ∙ Which STD usually causes death if it is left untreated? syphilis ∙ This STD goes through three stages before causing death: syphilis ∙ Which STD is suspected after an abnormal PAP test in females? HPV infection ∙ Name two STDs that can be contracted on mucus membranes other than those of the reproductive systems: gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis ∙ If an STD is detected early, many can be easily treated. Which STD can't be treated (meaning you can't ever get rid of it even though it may be managed)? genital herpes ∙ Name three STDs that may have no symptoms (in either men or women): gonorrhea, chlamydia, HPV infection ∙ John has symptoms of an STD (burning sensation while urinating and a yellowish discharge from the urethra) that popped up 3 days after sexual contact with a questionable partner. Based on his symptoms and this timing, John probably has which STD? gonorrhea ∙ This STD can cause genital warts: HPV infection ∙ Which STD can cause a rash over the entire body? syphilis ∙ Several STDs can be transmitted by oral sex. Name one: gonorrhea,chlamydia, syphilis ∙ For which STD is there now a vaccine available for females? HPV infection Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

4 .

Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 18 Development throughout Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) During the pre-embryonic period a single sperm passes through the zona pellucida. In the vast majority of cases, where does this process occur?

A) in the uterus B) in the ovary C) in the oviduct D) in the placenta Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Which cells migrate to the gonads, where they differentiate into immature cells that will eventually become sperm or oocytes?

A) primordial germ cells B) embryonic disk C) allantois D) yolk sac Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which of the following is false concerning fertilization?

A) Several sperm must contribute their DNA to the egg.

B) Enzymes are released from the acrosome of the sperm to penetrate the egg.

C) Most sperm die on their way to the egg.

D) The process can take hours to complete.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Normally, fertilization occurs in the ________ and implantation occurs in the ________.

A) vagina; uterus B) uterus; ovary C) fallopian tube (oviduct); uterus D) ovary; fallopian tube (oviduct) Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The pre-embryo becomes a hollow ball of cells with a fluid-filled cavity by about day 6 of development. This stage is called a ________.

A) blastocoel B) morula C) blastula D) blastocyst Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

1 .

6) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during pre-embryonic development?

A) morula → cleavage → implantation → blastocyst B) implantation → cleavage → morula → blastocyst C) cleavage → morula → blastocyst → implantation D) cleavage → blastocyst → morula → implantation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) In fetal circulation, most blood is shunted away from the lungs. Why is this the case?

A) The lungs have their own circulation.

B) The lungs don't need any blood.

C) The lungs do not form until right before birth.

D) The fetus receives oxygen at the placenta and the lungs are not yet fully functional.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) When two secondary oocytes are released from the ovaries and are fertilized by different sperm cells, it is called ________.

A) fraternal twins B) identical twins C) conjoined twins D) clones Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Identical twins occur when ________.

A) two eggs are released and are fertilized by two different sperm B) two eggs are released and are fertilized by the same sperm C) one egg is released and is fertilized by one sperm, and the pre-embryo later splits into two D) one egg is released and is fertilized by one sperm, and the fetus later splits into two Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) In ectopic pregnancy the vast majority of implantations occur in the ________.

A) oviduct B) uterus C) vagina D) ovary Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

2 .

11) Carla is taking a home pregnancy test to find out if she is pregnant. If this test comes back positive, which hormone has it detected in Carla's urine? A) estrogen B) relaxin C) progesterone D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) Environmental agents that disrupt development of the embryo or fetus are called ________.

A) vectors B) cytokinins C) teratogens D) aldosterone Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Primordial germ cells can be found in the ________.

A) yolk sac B) chorion C) allantois D) placenta Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Which is the temporary vessel that shunts most blood past the fetal liver?

A) foramen ovale B) ductus venosus C) ductus arteriosus D) aorta Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) The union of the sperm and the egg that results in a cell with 46 chromosomes is called a(n) ________.

A) embryo B) zygote C) fetus D) trophoblast Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

3 .

16) The process of morphogenesis in development begins ________ after fertilization.

A) 12 weeks B) immediately C) 3 weeks D) 20 weeks Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) Which of the following is a germ layer that forms the lining of the urinary, respiratory, and digestive tracts?

A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) mesoderm D) embryonic disk Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Which of the following maintains the corpus luteum and stimulates it to continue to produce the hormone progesterone?

A) human chorionic gonadotropin B) progesterone C) estrogen D) testosterone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) Heart cells in the embryo will be derived from which germ layer?

A) mesoderm B) endoderm C) ectoderm D) none of the above Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) The development of organ systems in the embryo is prioritized based on when the system is needed. One of the first organ systems to develop in the embryo is the ________ system, while one of the last systems to develop is the ________ system.

A) nervous; circulatory B) digestive; reproductive C) nervous; respiratory D) excretory; respiratory Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

4 .

21) The fetal period is characterized by ________.

A) the formation of organ systems B) neurulation C) germ layer formation D) growth and preparation of fetal organ systems for their eventual functions Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Developmental problems present at birth are known as ________.

A) birth defects B) type 2 diabetes C) teratogenic D) gastrulation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 23) Which of the following is a neural tube defect that involves incomplete development of the brain and results in stillbirth or death shortly after birth?

A) spina bifida B) neurulation C) anencephaly D) morphogenesis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 24) A condition in which the placenta forms in the lower half of the uterus and covers the cervix, which may result in premature birth or maternal hemorrhage, is called ________.

A) cesarean section B) neural tube C) colostrum D) placenta previa Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 25) What is the term for when a baby is born buttocks first?

A) placental stage B) labor C) breech birth D) blue baby Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

5 .

26) When your mother is mad at you she likes to remind you that she spent 48 hours in painful labor to bring you into the world! Specifically, she means that she spent a long time in the ________ stage of labor.

A) expulsion B) dilation C) third trimester D) placental Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) A pregnant female is a week past her due date and her doctor decides to induce labor. Her physician will use pitocin, which is a synthetic form of which natural hormone?

A) estrogen B) progesterone C) oxytocin D) prolactin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 28) Labor is directly triggered by the hormone ________ which also triggers ________ after birth.

A) estrogen; milk production B) estrogen; milk ejection C) oxytocin; milk ejection D) oxytocin; milk production Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 29) A male has a genetic disease coded for on his Y chromosome. Which parent passed on this trait?

A) the mom B) the dad C) either the mom or dad D) neither parent: it is a spontaneous mutation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 30) A baby is born with spina bifida, which is a neural tube defect. This problem most likely initiated at which time in development?

A) the pre-embryonic period B) the embryonic period C) early in the fetal period D) late in the fetal period Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

6 .

31) Why do harmful agents cause the most severe birth defects during the embryonic period?

A) This is a period of rapid differentiation when cells and tissues acquire specific functions, and organs form.

B) This is when substances pass most easily through the placenta.

C) The mother's hormones are at the highest levels at this time.

D) The embryo has not yet implanted into the uterus.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) The ________ is a group of cells that will develop into the chorion.

Answer: trophoblast Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Sometimes splitting of the pre-embryo is incomplete during the development of twins and ________ twins result.

Answer: conjoined Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The blastocyst attaches to the ________ about 6 days after fertilization and begins to digest its way inward.

Answer: endometrium Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A(n) ________ occurs when the blastocyst implants outside the uterus.

Answer: ectopic pregnancy Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The period that begins at week 9 of development is the ________.

Answer: fetal period Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) About a day after fertilization, the zygote undergoes ________, which is a rapid series of cell divisions.

Answer: cleavage Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Once the fertilized ovum has divided into two cells it is called the ________.

Answer: pre-embryo Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The ________ is an extraembryonic membrane that surrounds the embryo and serves to protect and cushion the embryo.

Answer: amnion Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

7 .

9) ________ is a type of neural tube defect in which part of the spinal cord develops abnormally, as does the adjacent area of the spine.

Answer: Spina bifida Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) ________ are blocks of mesoderm that eventually form skeletal muscles of the neck and trunk, connective tissue, and vertebrae.

Answer: Somites Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) ________ is the primary germ layer that forms the nervous system and the outer layer of skin and its derivatives such as hair, nails, oil glands, sweat glands, and mammary glands.

Answer: Ectoderm Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The ________ develops where the vertebral column will later form.

Answer: notochord Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The ________ is a primary germ layer that gives rise to muscle, bone, connective tissue, and organs such as the heart, kidneys, ovaries, and testes.

Answer: mesoderm Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) The ________ is the organ that delivers oxygen and nutrients and removes carbon dioxide and wastes for the embryo and later fetus.

Answer: placenta Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

8 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Ovulation B) Cleavage C) Implantation D) Human chorionic gonadotropin E) Chorion F) Zygote G) Parturition H) Blastocyst I) Fertilization J) Placenta K) Polyspermy L) Morula 1) Process by which the blastocyst attaches to the uterine lining and begins to digest its way inward.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The rapid mitotic division of the zygote as it moves along the oviduct on its way to the uterus, becoming a pre-embryo.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Process during which a single sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, which will eventually result in the fusion of the egg and sperm nuclei and the development of a zygote.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) An abnormal condition in which more than one sperm fertilizes the egg.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A secondary oocyte is released from the ovary and travels down the oviduct.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) During cleavage, the stage at which the pre-embryo becomes a solid ball with more than 12 cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The fertilized ovum that contains genetic material from both parents for a total of 46 chromosomes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The extraembryonic membrane that contributes to the formation of the placenta.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

9 .

9) The hormone secreted by the blastocyst that is found in the mother's urine and is the basis for most pregnancy tests.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Increases its size after it frees itself from the zona pellucida.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) Another name for birth.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Orchestrates all interactions between the mother and the embryo and later fetus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) C 2) B 3) I 4) K 5) A 6) L 7) F 8) E 9) D 10) H 11) G 12) J Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) A significant percentage of pre-embryos fail to continue their development or to implant in the uterus. Explain what may happen to prevent development from continuing.

Answer: Causes may include major chromosomal abnormalities in the zygote or an inhospitable uterine environment. Examples might be the presence of an IUD or low levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Explain how a pregnancy tests works. Make sure to indicate the hormone that the test detects and what the role of that hormone is during early pregnancy.

Answer: Pregnancy tests detect the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) made by the blastocyst (specifically the chorion). This hormone signals the corpus luteum to continue secreting progesterone, which is necessary for maintenance of the endometrium.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) What physiological processes are involved in lactation?

Answer: The hormone prolactin stimulates milk production in the mammary glands. Estrogen and progesterone inhibit milk production during pregnancy; these two hormones decline in concentration after birth, allowing milk production to begin. Colostrum is secreted after birth during the interval prior to milk being available. Milk production continues after birth while the infant is suckling, which stimulates the production of prolactin. Oxytocin causes milk ejection.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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4) Compare and contrast breast-feeding with bottle-feeding infants.

Answer: Breast-feeding may have several benefits for both mother and child. Many people believe that breast milk is easier to digest, and when compared with cow or goat milk, there are fewer allergies involved with breast milk and a possible increase in digestive problems associated with bottle-feeding, such as constipation or obesity. There are also immunological benefits for the child, as well, because colostrum and maternal milk contain antibodies and proteins that boost the infant's immune system that bottle feeders will not receive. Because the infant must work harder for breast milk than bottled milk, this exertion may promote the development of the jaws, teeth, and facial muscles. Breast-feeding is not possible if the mother is taking medications that can be transferred to the infant or if the mother is HIV positive, which would prevent breast-feeding and make bottle-feeding optimal in these situations.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) What are some of the possible factors associated with aging?

Answer: The changes in immune system, hormone secretion, cellular and molecular changes in the cell, and the effects of free radicals have all been hypothesized to contribute to the aging process. There are many ontogenetic changes in the body throughout an individual's development. Hormone levels change throughout a person's life such as in the decline of growth hormone concentrations with age in both genders and as well as estrogen decline in females with age. The rate of cell division slows with age. This involves the chromosomes and the telomeres that protect the ends of the chromosomes. Free radicals may also contribute to the aging process by damaging cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) It is possible for an individual to be genotypically one gender but phenotypically the opposite gender. Suppose an individual is genotypically male (XY) but has developed as a female.

Explain what has happened and when it might have happened.

Answer: While genotypic sex is determined at conception, the expression of the Y chromosome does not begin until the 6th week of development when the SRY region of the Y chromosome should be expressed in males. If this is not expressed, the individual will develop as a female, which is what occurred in this case.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) How does the nervous system change with aging?

Answer: The following changes occur: brain mass decreases; conduction velocity of nerve fibers decreases; release of neurotransmitters occurs more slowly; senses (hearing, vision, taste and smell) become less acute.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Suppose someone told you that the activities of a pregnant female have no effect on the embryo during early embryonic development because the placenta is not fully formed until later.

How would you respond to this statement?

Answer: This is certainly an inaccurate statement because the embryo is particularly susceptible to damage during periods of rapid development, some of which occur prior to complete placental development. Often, some of this damage can be done before the female even realizes that she is pregnant.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 11 .

9) Certain medications that have major medical benefits can have tragic consequences when taken by a pregnant woman; for example, the drug thalidomide and the acne drug Acutane, which are both available only by prescription in this country. When a drug such as Acutane is prescribed to a female, she is also educated on the risks of becoming pregnant while on the drug and is prescribed a method of hormonal birth control to ensure that pregnancy does not occur. Suppose a woman taking this drug did manage to become pregnant. How much responsibility should be with the drug makers and physician who prescribed the medication? Should these drugs be available at all? Answer: This is purely opinion based. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation 10) Several types of untreated sexually transmitted diseases can lead to scarring in the oviducts of the female. This can potentially lead to infertility because the sperm cannot get to the egg that has been released. What options might a female in this situation have if she wanted to conceive?

Answer: Variable answers are possible. An example might be to use in vitro fertilization (or some variation of this procedure). Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 11) Both the nucleus in the head of the sperm and the mitochondria in the midpiece of the sperm include genetic information (DNA) about the father. The offspring, however, only contains nuclear DNA from the father but both mitochondrial and nuclear DNA from the mother.

Why does the newborn lack the father's mitochondrial DNA? Answer: During fertilization, the nucleus of the sperm from the sperm's head and the nucleus of the ovum fuse. The remaining parts of the sperm, such as the midpiece and the tail, degenerate. The midpiece includes the mitochondria of the father; therefore the genetic information from the midpiece will not be part of the zygote. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 18A Special Topic: Autism Spectrum Disorders Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Autism is characterized by ________. A) impaired communication skills B) unusual patterns of behavior C) poor social skills D) all the above Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Children who have an ASD in which they can speak at length about their favorite topics would be diagnosed with ________. A) autism B) Asperger syndrome C) PDD-NOS D) fragile X syndrome Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which of the following is not one of the diagnostic criteria for ASDs? A) impairments in social behavior B) impairments in communication C) aggressive behaviors D) repetitive behaviors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) How can autism be differentiated from Asperger syndrome? A) Autism can involve failure to develop age-appropriate relationships with peers while children with Asperger syndrome do develop age-appropriate relationships with peers. B) Children with autism may have no spoken language or delayed language development while children with Asperger syndrome have no clinically significant delay in speech development. C) Children with Asperger syndrome may have repetitive patterns of behavior while those with autism do not. D) Children with Asperger syndrome may lack the ability for imaginative play while those with autism do not. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

1 .

5) Based on the information presented in this chapter, you can conclude that the genetic basis of autism spectrum disorders must follow a ________ pattern of inheritance.

A) dominant B) recessive C) sex-linked D) none of the above Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) Which of these statements concerning autism spectrum disorders (ASDs) is false?

A) ASDs affect girls more frequently than boys.

B) Symptoms typically appear by 1-3 years old.

C) They last a lifetime.

D) They can be associated with other medical conditions.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) The most reliable diagnostic tool for autism spectrum disorders is ________.

A) neuroimaging B) observation C) genetic testing D) the use of screening tests Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Hypotheses for the cause of autism include or have included in the past ________.

A) vaccinations B) aberrant parenting C) genetics D) all the above Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.

Answer: Table 18a.1 contains all the possible criteria used to diagnose these two ASDs. The basic difference between the two disorders is that autism has delayed or no language development whereas Asperger syndrome has no clinically significant delay in language development. Both disorders include repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior and both have impairments in the area of social interaction.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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2) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs. Answer: Potential answers include the uterine environment during pregnancy, complications during pregnancy and delivery, maternal exposure to thalidomide, and maternal development of rubella (German measles) during pregnancy. Vaccines have been discussed as a potential environmental trigger but there is no scientific evidence to support this theory.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) A large percentage of the public believes that vaccines have a role in the development of autism. What information would you use to explain to a friend that there is no scientific evidence to suggest that vaccines cause autism?

Answer: Possible answers include: 1) The interpretation of a link between autism and the MMR vaccine initially came from a 1998 paper, and most of the authors of that paper have since retracted the interpretation of such a link. Further, in 2010, the editors of the journal that published the paper fully retracted it from the published record; 2) All data on the topic of vaccines and autism frequently have been reviewed by the Institute of Medicine, which concluded that there is no link between the MMR vaccine and autism, and no link between thimerosal-containing vaccines and autism. Therefore there is no reason to change childhood immunization schedules.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Explain the two main types of studies that showed the genetic basis of ASDs. Answer: First, family studies involving non-twin siblings reveal a genetic basis. These family studies show higher than expected rates of autism among family members. For example, the rate of recurrence of autism in siblings of autistic individuals is 2% to 6%, which is 10 to 60 times greater than the prevalence of autism in the general population. Second, researchers studying the genetics of autism also have compared the incidence of autism in monozygotic (identical) and dizygotic (fraternal) twins. If one monozygotic twin has autism, then there is a 75% chance that the other twin will have autism. In contrast, if one dizygotic twin has autism, then there is a 3% chance that the other twin will have autism. (Note that this falls within the 2% to 6% rate of recurrence among non-twin siblings.) These comparative findings indicate a genetic basis for autism because the incidence among twins is higher when they are nearly genetically identical.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) What therapies can be used for those with ASDs? Answer: Possible answers include educational interventions (e.g., IEP, Picture Exchange Communication System, Speaks4me), medications to treat behavioral features that often accompany ASDs (e.g., aggression, impulsivity), and complementary and alternative medicine (e.g. nutritional therapiesthese should be checked with the child's pediatrician before beginning them). Clinical trials also are underway to test the effectiveness of oxytocin for improving social function.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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6) Explain how neuroimaging brought new results to the study of ASDs, and why it is not yet recommended for use in the diagnosis of ASDs. Answer: Neuroimaging helps to identify the structural and functional differences in the brains of those with ASDs. Many of these differences may develop during the prenatal period. Since people with ASDs use different cognitive strategies and different brain areas for information processing, imaging the brain during cognitive tasks holds great potential for the identification of ASDs. Despite the recent advancements in neuroimaging for ASDs, there are no reliable markers for these disorders; therefore neuroimaging is not yet recommended as a diagnostic tool. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 19 Chromosomes and Cell Division Multiple-Choice Questions 1) DNA that has wrapped around histones and is in a condensed form following interphase is called ________. A) chromatin B) nucleosomes C) chromosomes D) karyokinesis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) In which stage of mitosis does exchange of genetic material between chromosomes (crossing- over) occur? A) prophase I B) anaphase I C) prophase II D) none of the above Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) In which phase does the chromatin condense into chromosomes, the nuclear membrane disintegrates, and the centrioles migrate to the poles as spindle fibers are organized? A) interphase B) anaphase C) prophase D) telophase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) If a cell begins mitosis with 36 chromosomes, there will be ________ chromosomes in each cell after mitosis and each daughter cell will be ________ genetically. A) 36; identical B) 36; different C) 18; identical D) 18; different Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) A process that parcels out the duplicated copies of genetic material for cell division in eukaryotes is called ________.

A) nucleosome B) meiosis C) histone D) mitosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Cancer is associated with problems related to the regulation of ________.

A) mitosis B) meiosis I C) meiosis II D) cytokinesis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A cell with a diploid number of 24 fails to undergo cytokinesis while performing mitosis so that the daughter cells do not form. How many chromosomes will be in the resulting cell?

A) 96 B) 48 C) 24 D) 12 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) An entire cell cycle can be completed in about ________.

A) 1-2 hours B) 24 hours C) 48 hours D) 1 week Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Which of the following phases of mitosis is not matched with the appropriate activities that occur during that phase?

A) anaphase: homologous pairs separate B) telophase: new nuclear envelope forms and the mitotic spindle disassembles C) prophase: nuclear membrane disappears D) metaphase: chromosomes line up in the center of the cell Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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10) The separation of daughter cells is called ________.

A) karyokinesis B) mitosis C) nucleosome D) cytokinesis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) Which of the following characterizes Klinefelter syndrome?

A) XO B) XXX C) three copies of chromosome 21 D) XXY Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The most appropriate form of cell division for repairing an injured tissue is ________.

A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) cloning Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in ________.

A) number of functional gametes produced B) when it is completed C) size of gametes produced D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A process in which a sister chromatid inherited from the mother and a sister chromatid inherited from the father pair up and form tetrads and exchange DNA to form genetically diverse gametes is called ________.

A) cell cycle B) prophase C) cytokinesis D) crossing over Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) In which phase of meiosis I do homologues separate?

A) prophase II B) anaphase C) metaphase I D) anaphase I Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) Polar bodies are unique products of ________.

A) cytokinesis B) oogenesis C) mitosis D) spermatogenesis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) The exchange of genetic material during crossing over causes which of the following?

A) genetic variation B) stasis C) heterozygosity D) homozygosity Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Human cells that have completed telophase I will each contain ________ chromosomes, which will be in a(n) ________ form.

A) 46; replicated B) 46; unreplicated C) 23; replicated D) 23; unreplicated Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) Children born with Down syndrome have inherited an extra chromosome so their diploid number is 47 rather than 46 chromosomes. What is this genetic condition called?

A) trisomy 21 B) triploid C) haploid 21 D) monoploidy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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20) How do mitosis and meiosis differ from each other? A) The goal of mitosis is to produce cells that are genetically identical to the original parent cell; the goal of meiosis is to produce cells that contain twice the number of chromosomes as the original parent cell.

B) The cells formed by mitosis are diploid; the cells formed by meiosis are haploid. C) Mitosis results in the production of gametes; meiosis results in the production of cells, which are used for the organism's growth and replacement of damaged cells. D) Synapsis and crossing over occur in mitosis to ensure new combinations of genetic material; synapsis and crossing over do not occur in meiosis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) If a sperm cell contains 6 chromosomes, it must have come from an original parent cell that contained ________ chromosomes.

A) 4 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Crossing over occurs during ________ and is important because it ________.

A) telophase II; creates daughter cells B) prophase I; generates variation C) anaphase II; separates the homologous pairs D) metaphase I; reduces the chromosome number by half Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) Why is meiosis II needed for gamete (egg and sperm) production?

A) to generate genetic diversity B) to make the gametes haploid C) to get unreplicated chromosomes in the gametes D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) What is decreased during the process of meiosis?

A) the size of chromosomes B) the number of cells C) the number of chromosomes D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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25) You are looking at diagrams of cells in the process of division and are uncertain as to what process you are viewing (mitosis or meiosis). You determine that the cells you are looking at have 7 chromosomes. You can confidently assume that these cells are in which phase based on this odd chromosome number?

A) metaphase B) metaphase I C) metaphase II D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 26) A gene on the Y chromosome causes a rare disease. A woman married to a man with the disease has three children. The first two are daughters without the disease. The third is a son.

What is the probability that he will have the gene?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100% Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 27) Nondisjunction could occur during ________.

A) metaphase B) telophase C) anaphase II D) prophase I Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) Oogenesis is completed at ________.

Answer: fertilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The arrangement of an individual's chromosomes by size and centromere location is called the ________.

Answer: karyotype Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The ________ cells are those body cells of humans that contain 23 chromosomes.

Answer: gamete (sex) Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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4) The ________ are the 22 pairs of chromosomes not including the X and Y chromosomes.

Answer: autosomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The ________ are the 23rd pair of chromosomes that carry the traits that determine gender.

Answer: sex chromosomes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Two replicated chromosomes are joined together at a region on the chromosome called the ________.

Answer: centromere Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The failure of either homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II is called ________.

Answer: nondisjunction Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair in meiosis is called ________.

Answer: crossing over Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Crossing over in Prophase I and ________ in Metaphase I increase the genetic variation from one generation to another.

Answer: independent assortment Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) One out of every 800 to 1000 infants born will have three copies of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21), a condition known as ________.

Answer: Down syndrome Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) ________ is a syndrome that occurs in females who have only a single X chromosome (XO).

Answer: Turner syndrome Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The preparation for cell division that precedes mitosis is called ________.

Answer: interphase Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The condition in which there is only one representative of a particular chromosome in a cell is called ________.

Answer: monosomy Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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14) Each cell contains two chromosomes with genes for the same traits; these chromosomes are called ________.

Answer: homologous pairs Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) During gamete formation at the end of Telophase I the ploidy of the daughter cells is ________ and each chromosome consists of ________ chromatid(s).

Answer: haploid; two Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Interphase B) Telophase C) Cytokinesis D) Haploid E) Metaphase F) Gene G) Anaphase H) Crossing over I) Anaphase I 1) Longest period of the cell cycle.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The division of the cytoplasm, which occurs at the end of mitosis and meiosis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A phase in meiosis in which homologous pairs are separated from each other.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A phase in mitosis in which the chromosomes line up at the center of the cell. J) Independent assortment Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The shuffling of maternal and paternal forms of genes in prophase I. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A phase in mitotic division in which the sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A phase in the mitotic division in which a nuclear membrane forms around each group of chromosomes at the two poles.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) This cell possesses only a single set of chromosomes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) A specific segment of the chromosome's DNA that directs the synthesis of a single protein.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The method of reshuffling genes by randomly aligning them in metaphase I. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Answers: 1) A 2) C 3) I 4) E 5) H 6) G 7) B 8) D 9) F 10) J Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Explain two important sources of genetic variation in meiosis. Evolutionarily speaking, why do you think is it important that there is recombination of the genes in meiosis?

Answer: Crossing over and independent assortment provide genetic diversity within a species.

This is important because without genetic diversity there is very little chance of a species adapting to the ever-changing environmental conditions. Species with low genetic diversity have a high probability of going extinct if the environmental conditions change.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Suppose that mitosis was used to produce our gametes. What unique problems would be encountered?

Answer: First, the chromosome number would double each generation since mitosis produces diploid cells. Second, there would be a lack of diversity in the resulting cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Compare and contrast the processes of oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

Answer: In spermatogenesis, there are four viable haploid gametes produced, each with only one set of chromosomes. In oogenesis, one viable egg with 23 chromosomes and three polar bodies that play no part in fertilization or sexual reproduction are produced. Also, spermatogenesis continues to completion in the testes. However, oogenesis does not continue to completion in the ovaries; it is completed only if the egg is fertilized.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) What are the results of nondisjunction, and why are these chromosome alterations so detrimental to an individual?

Answer: Nondisjunction can occur when homologous chromosomes fail to separate in meiosis I or when sister chromatids fail to separate in meiosis II. This can result in either too few or too many chromosomes in the gametes. If such a gamete unites with a normal gamete during fertilization, then the zygote will have an excess or deficit of chromosomes. An example of an excess number of autosomal chromosomes is Down syndrome (Trisomy 21). When nondisjunction of sex chromosomes occurs, gametes end up with too many sex chromosomes or none at all. When a gamete with an abnormal number of sex chromosomes unites with a normal gamete at fertilization, the resulting zygote has an abnormal number of sex chromosomes.

Examples include Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) and Turner syndrome (XO). These are all detrimental and the effects will vary depending on which chromosome is missing or which is extra, but all seem to be problematic because of the extra genetic material or because of the missing genes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) A 42-year-old woman becomes pregnant. Her physician recommends amniocentesis (a test for fetal chromosomal disorders). When the results are analyzed by the laboratory, it is determined that the fetus has 47 chromosomes. Name and fully explain what caused this disorder. When the woman and her husband consult a genetic counselor, they are told that this problem is likely to have occurred in the woman's egg cells as opposed to her 50-year-old husband's sperm cells.

Explain why.

Answer: The fetus has a trisomy. This resulted when one of the parents' gametes had a nondisjunction and was carrying an extra chromosome. During nondisjunction, chromosomes fail to separate properly in meiosis. While this can happen in male or female gametes, the likelihood in this case was that the egg cell was the culprit because the risk of nondisjunction increases with age in women since eggs are the same age as the female and older cells are susceptible to damage.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) Suppose a researcher claims to be able to make a hybrid animal that is a cross between a goat and a horse. This animal has been termed "gorse." The normal diploid number for a goat is 60 and the normal diploid number for a horse is 62. Ignore the ethics here and answer the following: Based on normal meiosis, a goat gamete (haploid) should have ________ chromosomes, while a horse gamete (haploid) should have ________ chromosomes. This means we would expect our hybrid gorse to contain a total of ________ chromosomes per cell. Let's assume our researcher beats the odds and this hybrid gorse survives. Even if the hybrid survives, it is likely that it will be sterile. Referring back to the above numbers, when the hybrid produces its gametes there should be a problem. Explain what that problem will be.

Answer: The goat gamete should have 30 chromosomes, while the horse gamete should have 31 chromosomes. The gorse should have 61 chromosomes per cell. Because of the odd chromosome number (recall that diploid cells have chromosomes in pairs) there will be complications in aligning the chromosomes during meiosis I. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 7) A baby is born with the genotype XYY. This sort of disorder is the result of nondisjunction during meiosis. In the case of the XYY genotype, can you be certain of which parent had the nondisjunction in their gamete? Explain your answer.

Answer: In this case, it can be certain that the nondisjunction was in the sperm cell. Since women do not have a Y chromosome, it would be impossible for the egg cell to contain a Y chromosome. The sperm must have contained two Y chromosomes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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8) Complete the following table concerning mitosis and meiosis: Mitosis

Meiosis I

Meiosis II

Answer:

Mitosis

Meiosis I

Meiosis II

Is the starting parent cell diploid or haploid?

Diploid

Diploid Haploid Haploid (but with replicated chromosomes) Haploid

Is the starting parent cell diploid or haploid?

Are the daughter cells diploid or haploid?

Are the daughter cells genetically identical to the parent?

Are the daughter cells diploid or Diploid haploid?

Are the daughter cells genetically identical to the Yes parent?

No

No

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) Eukaryotic cell division consists of interphase and cell division. Explain what happens in the three parts of interphase (G1, S and G2).

Answer: In the "S" stage DNA synthesis occurs. Chromosomes duplicate and sister chromatids are formed. The part prior to S is G1, in which cell growth occurs. DNA synthesis is followed by G2, in which the cell further grows, now with double chromatid chromosomes in its nucleus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 19A Special Topic: Stem CellsA Repair Kit for the Body Multiple-Choice Questions 1) At which point or stage would the majority of cells in the embryo no longer be stem cells?

A) the pre-embryo stage B) in the blastocyst C) after organogenesis D) A large number of stem cells would exist in all these stages.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Which of the following areas is not known to contain stem cells?

A) the skin B) bone marrow C) the umbilical cord D) muscle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A cell with the ability to differentiate into several different types of cells is considered ________.

A) totipotent B) unipotent C) multipotent D) pluripotent Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Stem cell lines are developed from ________.

A) multipotent cells B) inner cell mass cells from a blastocyst C) cells collected from umbilical cords D) cells collected from amniotic fluid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Which one of the following correctly describes the order of stem cells from the lowest degree of flexibility (unipotent) to the highest degree of flexibility (totipotent)?

A) embryonic stem cells < adult stem cells < zygote B) embryonic stem cells < zygote < adult stem cells C) adult stem cells < zygote < embryonic stem cells D) adult stem cells < embryonic stem cells < zygote Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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6) Which one of the following correctly describes the order of stem cells from the lowest degree of flexibility to the highest degree of flexibility? A) unipotent < multipotent < pluripotent < totipotent B) multipotent < unipotent < pluripotent < totipotent C) pluripotent < unipotent < totipotent < multipotent D) unipotent < multipotent < totipotent < pluripotent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Which of the following statements is false concerning stem cells and stem cell research? A) Stem cells are created as the result of in vitro fertilization procedures. B) Stem cells that are desirable for research come from embryos that are only a few days old. C) Stem cell research in the United States is federally funded under all circumstances. D) Stem cells are not yet differentiated. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Which statement best describes the difference between therapeutic and reproductive cloning? A) Therapeutic cloning involves producing medications, while reproductive cloning is used for in vitro fertilization procedures. B) Therapeutic cloning produces cells that are not genetically identical to their source, while reproductive cloning produces cells that are genetically identical to their source. C) Therapeutic cloning is used to produce stem cells that can be coerced into differentiating into a specific cell type, while reproductive cloning is used to produce organisms identical to what they were cloned from. D) There really aren't any differences between therapeutic and reproductive cloning. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) Which of the following is not needed in a reproductive cloning procedure? A) an egg cell B) a diploid cell C) a sperm cell D) a surrogate mother Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Which of the following creates pluripotent stem cells without the need to destroy an embryo? A) embryonic stem cell removal from unused embryos at fertility clinics B) retrieval of stem cells from umbilical cord blood C) retrieval of stem cells from adult bone marrow D) induced pluripotent stem cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) How is a stem cell different from a "normal" cell? (Use a liver cell as an example.)

Answer: A "normal" cell has differentiated and is expressing specific genes related to a particular cell type and has turned off genes unrelated to its function. Stem cells have yet to differentiate and have the potential to express any genes they have, depending on the environment they are in.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Explain how a stem cell line would be developed.

Answer: Stem cell lines are created by removing cells from an embryo at the blastocyst stage of development. The cells would need to come from the 20-30 cells that compose the inner cell mass.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Before stem cell research was such a prominent topic in the news, many people were misinformed about embryonic stem cell research. Many people thought that this form of stem cell research could only be completed by collecting stem cells from electively aborted fetuses.

Explain specifically where embryonic stem cells come from when used for research and why these cells would not typically be found in aborted fetuses.

Answer: Embryonic stem cells are harvested from embryos that are composed of only 20-30 cells and are only a few days old. Since a female would not know she is pregnant at this time, it would be impossible to collect these cells from the embryo of a natural fertilization. In order to collect these cells, in vitro fertilization using donor egg and sperm must occur to create the embryos from which the stem cells will be harvested a few days later.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 4) Most people assume that cloning refers only to whole organism or reproductive cloning.

Explain how therapeutic cloning is different from reproductive cloning.

Answer: While reproductive cloning is used to create a new individual, therapeutic cloning is not. In this procedure, the nucleus from an individual would be placed into an egg from which the nucleus was previously removed to create an embryo. This embryo would divide in order to produce stem cells. Those cells would then be removed and coerced to differentiate into a specific type of cell (and not into a new organism), which would be transplanted into a patient.

The transplanted cells are used to replace faulty cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Describe several potential applications for embryonic stem cell research.

Answer: Answers provided here will be variable. It is most likely that students will describe how stem cells have the potential to cure many different human conditions. In particular, students will likely discuss how SCNT can be used to produce cells that can be coerced into differentiating into a specific cell type needed by a patient.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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6) As stem cell research rapidly developed, it became a political and ethical issue. Describe how the ethical and political approach towards stem cell research has changed in the past decade.

Answer: During the Bush administration, starting in 2001, embryonic stem cell research did not receive federal funding unless the research used previously existing stem cell lines. This limited the genetic diversity in stem cell lines. In 2009 the Obama administration allowed the use of new stem cell lines, however the ethical standards became stricter. In 2010, a court ruling blocked federal funding for all embryonic stem cell research.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 20 Genetics and Human Inheritance Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Specific segments of DNA that are the functional units of inheritance are called ________.

A) chromosomes B) genes C) chromatids D) telomeres Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) In this heredity pattern, both alleles appear in the phenotype of the heterozygote.

A) codominance B) complete dominance C) pleiotropy D) multiple alleles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) If your parents are heterozygous for a gene, what is the chance that you will have at least one copy of it?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Which genetic condition can be described as the inheritance of the heterozygous phenotype, which is expressed as an intermediate between the dominant and recessive alleles?

A) dominance B) codominance C) incomplete dominance D) epistasis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) When one gene causes multiple effects, it is called ________.

A) incomplete dominance B) multiple alleles C) codominance D) pleiotropy Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) If two chromosomes have the same genes, they are said to be ________.

A) autosomal B) polypeptides C) homologues D) traits Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) If the two parents each are heterozygous for widow's peak and having freckles, what is the chance that any of their children will have the same phenotype?

A) 9/16 B) 3/16 C) 1/2 D) 1/16 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Adel has freckles, autosomal dominant, so please provide her genotype.

A) FF B) Ff C) ff D) Can't say for certain Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge it could be FF or Ff. 9) Albinism is an example of ________.

A) codominance B) complete dominance C) incomplete dominance D) sex-influenced trait Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Albinism is due to the inability to make ________.

A) tyrosine B) melanin C) hair D) collagen Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) Mary died suddenly of an aortic aneurysm (i.e., where one of the body's largest blood vessels suddenly bursts). What condition should her children worry about?

A) hemophilia B) Turner syndrome C) Marfan syndrome D) albinism Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) If someone were heterozygous for a recessive genetic illness, then they are ________.

A) a carrier B) pleiotropic C) epistatic D) allelic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) In which condition are both alleles apparent in the heterozygous phenotype?

A) pleiotropy B) codominance C) epistasis D) complete dominance Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) This blood-clotting problem is usually sex-linked.

A) hemophilia B) sickle-cell anemia C) red-green color blindness D) albinism Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) Which is a condition caused by a sex-linked inheritance in which a male child will bleed extensively because he lacks the physiological properties to form a blood clot?

A) color blindness B) male-pattern baldness C) hemophilia D) sickle-cell disease Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) A cardiac researcher is trying to determine if a pattern of very high blood cholesterol is genetic in a group of Pennsylvania Dutch. Therefore, the scientist looks through years of medical records, plus patterns of marriage through several generations. The investigator is doing a type of hereditary research called ________.

A) back crossing B) pedigree analysis C) linkage mapping D) title searching Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 17) Paul was an orphan found wandering a city street when he was 2 years old. At age 52 he began to experience muscle spasms and was having difficulty walking. Which of the following genetic disorders is most probable?

A) PKU B) CF C) Huntington's Disease D) Marfan syndrome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 18) Carol has tested positive for phenylketonuria, or PKU, so let's help plan her diet when she gets to school. Which of the following things should she be most careful about?

A) beans B) tomatoes C) diet cola D) potatoes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 19) Thalassemia is a very serious disorder that affects hemoglobin. It is caused by an autosomal recessive gene. If both a woman and a man are carriers, then what is the chance that they will have a child with the disease?

A) 100% B) 75% C) 50% D) 25% Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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20) Diabetes mellitus type 2 (DM2) is partly hereditary and, if uncontrolled, can lead to kidney disease and heart failure and an increased risk of stroke and blindness. From this information alone, you could say that DM2 is an example of ________.

A) pleiotropy B) epistasis C) codominance D) polygenes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) The gene for Tay-Sachs disease codes for a nonfunctional form of the enzyme hexosaminidase A (or Hex A). It has been found that a person with only one-third the maximum amount of Hex A can function absolutely normally. Please characterize the heredity of TaySachs disease.

A) codominant B) recessive C) dominant D) multiple allelic Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 22) If Hani has type A blood and his mother has type B blood, which of the following is the most likely genotype of Hani's father?

A) IBIB B) IBi C) ii D) IAIA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 23) Favism is a disease in which a person cannot tolerate a certain type of bean. It is caused by an X-linked, recessive gene. If Joe has it, which statement would be true?

A) All his sons will have it.

B) His daughters will carry it.

C) Joe's father had it.

D) Half of Joe's sons will have it.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 24) Babies were accidentally switched at the hospital! Mr. and Mrs. Fire both have type O blood.

Which of the following four babies of the same age is most likely the Fire child?

A) baby with type A B) baby with type B C) baby with type AB D) baby with type O Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5 .

25) In a family both parents have freckles and widow's peak. Both of these traits are dominant: F=freckles, W=widow's peak. They have a child that has no widow's peak and no freckles.

Which one is a possible dihybrid genotype of their child?

A) FfWw B) ffWw C) ffww D) FFww Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 26) In a family both parents have freckles and widow's peak. Both of these traits are dominant: F=freckles, W=widow's peak. What is the correct phenotypic ratio of the next generation if the parents were heterozygous? The order of the genotypes is: Freckled with widow's peak: Freckled, straight hairline: no freckles with widow's peak: no freckles, straight hairline.

A) 9:3:1:1 B) 9:3:3:1 C) 9:1:1:3 D) 1:3:3:9 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) An individual with the genotype AaBbCC is able to produce what type of gametes?

A) A,B,a,b or C B) Aa, Bb or Cc C) ABC, AbC, aBC, or abC D) AaBbCC Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A(n) ________ directs the making of a protein.

Answer: gene Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) PKU is a hereditary condition only seen if a person has two copies of the gene. Therefore, it is said to be ________.

Answer: recessive Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The principle that states that different homologous chromosomes travel randomly to different ends of the cell is ________.

Answer: independent assortment Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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4) Often in complete dominance, the recessive allele codes for a nonfunctional ________.

Answer: protein Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A cross involving one gene between two heterozygous parents is called a(n) ________.

Answer: monohybrid cross Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A genetic condition in which abnormal hemoglobin form, red blood cells become crescent shaped, and cells get stuck together is called ________.

Answer: sickle-cell anemia Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Individuals that carry different alleles for a given gene are considered ________ for those alleles.

Answer: heterozygous Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) A genetic cross between two individuals who are heterozygous for two traits of interest is called a ________.

Answer: dihybrid cross Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) ________ are genes that exist in more than two allelic forms. The genes responsible for the human ABO blood types are an example of this phenomenon.

Answer: Multiple alleles Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The ability of one gene to have multiple effects on two or more aspects of the phenotype is referred to as ________.

Answer: pleiotropy Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) A(n) ________ is someone who displays the dominant phenotype but who is heterozygous for a trait and can, therefore, pass the recessive allele to descendants.

Answer: carrier Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) An autosomal recessive disorder in which a young person produces thick mucus and excessively salty sweat and has serious respiratory problems is ________.

Answer: cystic fibrosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The presence of the ________ chromosome means that a person will probably appear to be male.

Answer: Y Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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14) ________ traits involve the expression of certain autosomal genes that are not located on the sex chromosomes but that are powerfully influenced by the presence of sex hormones, so the expression of these genes differs between males and females.

Answer: Sex-influenced Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Autosomes B) Phenotype C) Incomplete dominance D) Duplication E) Heterozygous F) Codominance G) Linkage H) Pedigree I) Gene J) Deletion 1) The cause of cri-du-chat syndrome.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The alteration of a chromosome that involves the addition of a piece of chromosome.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) A chart showing the genetic connections among individuals in a family.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A situation in which both alleles for a certain trait produce functional proteins.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) A condition in which someone has different alleles for the same gene.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) This is what chromosomes other than X and Y are called.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A segment on a chromosome that directs the synthesis of a specific polypeptide or protein, which may play either a structural or functional role in the cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The observable physical traits of an individual.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) People with dark hair usually also inherit dark eyes. Why is this usually the case?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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10) The expression of the trait in heterozygous individuals is somewhere between the expression of the trait in the homozygous recessive and homozygous dominant individual.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) J 2) D 3) H 4) F 5) E 6) A 7) I 8) B 9) G 10) C Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) What are the differences between complete dominance and codominance?

Answer: In complete dominance, the homozygous genotype results in the dominant phenotype, while the homozygous recessive genotype results in the expression of the recessive phenotype.

The individuals with the heterozygous genotype in complete dominance can be referred to as carriers that are able to pass the recessive allele on to their offspring but won't actually express this gene themselves. This is because the recessive allele is masked. In the case of codominance, both alleles are expressed equally so both proteins are synthesized and appear to be expressed equally, depending on the traits.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Why are pedigrees useful to track genetic disorders?

Answer: Pedigrees can be used to track genetic disorders within families. Individuals with hemophilia can trace the inheritance of these genes back through their family heritage in order to identify the source of the trait. Genetically, these family trees of inheritance can be used to determine the exact generation in which a disorder appears or which individual may have been a carrier for the disorder and whether a couple should risk having a child with a particular trait.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) What are the ethical and legal issues involved with gene testing?

Answer: Gene testing is a double-edged sword in terms of what will be done with the information gathered. One side of the argument is, if you were tested, would you want to know that you have an untreatable, incurable disorder that the current medical field is unable to deal with? Would you want your employer or health insurance provider to be aware of a situation like this? On the other side of the argument, wouldn't you want to know so that you and your family could plan ahead? Also, if you have a treatable disorder, would you want to know as soon as possible to prevent further pain and suffering? How would an insurance company react to this information, especially if the treatment is expensive? Many current treatments and therapies are rejected by these companies as it is. How can society deal with this situation and still allow people the right to know what disorder they've inherited? What about the mental anguish associated with the knowledge of a life-threatening genetic disorder?

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of chronic villus sampling (CVS) in comparison to amniocentesis?

Answer: The results can be made available within a few days, which might make it easier both legally and medically to have an abortion. Additionally, some birth defects may be prevented if they are caught early enough. However, with CVS there is a slightly greater chance of causing a miscarriage compared with amniocentesis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Duffy factor is due to a chemical that occurs on the membranes of red blood cells and is sometimes used as a blood-typing attribute in the same way that ABO and Rh factor blood types are used. Recent research has found that people with Duffy factor are about 40% less likely to be infected with HIV, given similar circumstances. Since HIV affects white blood cells, how would you characterize the Duffy factor gene and why?

Answer: It is pleiotropic since it causes different effects in different tissues.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 6) If two genes are on the same chromosomes and we look at a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous parents, will we see a pattern of 9:3:3:1? Why or why not?

Answer: No. Because the genes are linked, there will not be independent assortment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) Henry has the sickle cell trait. Why might it be a bad idea for him to go on that hiking vacation that is being planned for the high Andes?

Answer: Sickling of the red blood cells can occur if the bearer of the gene travels to areas of high elevation with lower oxygen concentrations.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Hakeem, given up for adoption as an infant, has red-green color blindness. Is this fact useful in helping him to track down his biological father? Explain.

Answer: This condition is sex-linked and, since Hakeem is a male, means that he inherited the trait from his mother. Thus, he will need to find something else to narrow the field in his search for his biological dad.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) Why is Duchenne muscular dystrophy less common in females than males?

Answer: The condition is X-linked recessive. For a woman to have this disorder, she would have to receive it in both her X chromosomes, meaning that both parents had to pass it via their X chromosomes. A male only has to receive the disorder on his single X chromosome to express the trait.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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10) Why might some women bodybuilders who are taking illegal steroids (testosterone-like compounds) be in greater danger of going bald than other women? Answer: Pattern baldness is sex-influenced, meaning that the presence of testosterone influences the expression of the trait. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 11) Gene testing allows the parents to learn more about their child in the pre-natal period. However, there are genetic disorders, such as Huntington's disease that show no phenotypic signs until age 35. This disease is caused by a dominant allele, resulting in degeneration of the brain, muscle spasms, and death within a decade or two. Because it is caused by a dominant allele, 50% of the offspring will carry the disease. If you knew that someone in your family had Huntington's disease, would you get tested early on before you start a family and have your own children? Would you rather not know your fate, even if it means that you may pass the dominant allele of this disease to your offspring? Answer: This is purely opinion based. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 6 Evaluation 12) Duplication can be advantageous for evolution, because while the correctly functioning DNA segment remains intact, duplication also provides new copies of genes that can be altered to new functions.

Unfortunately, duplication can also result in human genetic disorders. Please provide an example of a human genetic disorder that occurs when certain DNA sequences are duplicated. Answer: Humans suffering from Fragile X syndrome have abnormally long repeats on their X chromosome. This makes the chromosome fragile and it can easily break, causing mental retardation, hyperactivity, attention deficit, and large ears. Multiple repeats on the autosomal chromosome 9 can also cause mental retardation, squintingeyes, and bulbous nose. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 21 DNA and Biotechnology Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a method of gene amplification that involves complimentary primers and uses heat to unzip DNA to make multiple copies of a particular gene?

A) vector B) polymerase chain reaction C) sticky ends D) recombinant Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) In which part of the molecule does tRNA pair with mRNA? A) rRNA B) codon C) anticodon D) gene Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Which of the following brings tRNA with an amino acid close enough to mRNA to permit interaction and the assembly of amino acids to form a protein?

A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) ribosome D) mRNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Segments of DNA that increase the rate of transcription of certain genes are known as ________.

A) enhancers B) polymerases C) short tandem repeats D) introns Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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5) A chemical that delivers amino acids one at a time in the ordered sequence specified by the mRNA strand is called ________.

A) DNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) STR Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) This technique has thousands of DNA sequences on a slide and is used to determine which are active at the time.

A) microarray B) PCR C) recombinant DNA D) translation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) This rare condition was the first to be experimentally treated with gene therapy.

A) sickle cell anemia B) Down syndrome C) SCID D) AIDS Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The process of using each strand of a DNA molecule as a template to form a new strand is called ________.

A) semi-conservative replication B) conservative replication C) transcription D) translation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) If a mutation occurred in this area, it would not directly change the specific placement of an amino acid in the resulting polypeptide.

A) gene B) codon C) exon D) intron Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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10) Which of the following is a process in translation in which tRNA molecules deliver amino acids in the correct sequence, causing peptide bonds to form and increasing the length of the polypeptide chain?

A) initiation B) elongation C) termination D) transcription Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The base sequences that are left behind after the introns have been spliced out by enzymes are the ________.

A) genes B) anticodons C) exons D) phosphates Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) Which of the following is the signal that functions to begin transcription and consists of a sequence on the DNA? A) mRNA B) promoter C) vector D) exon Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The process in which the mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomal subunits come together during translation is called ________.

A) initiation B) elongation C) termination D) deletion Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) The following is a part of a gene sequence: ATCAGC. What would the resulting product of transcription be?

A) TAGTCG B) UAGUCG C) GACGTC D) CUGCUA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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15) The process in which a tRNA with a long chain of amino acids is released from the ribosome due to the stop codon not corresponding with a particular anti-codon that causes the t-RNA to fall off, leaving only the polypeptide chain, is called ________. A) initiation B) elongation C) termination D) deletion Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 16) The extra sequences of nucleotides that are excised out of the mRNA prior to leaving the nucleus are called ________.

A) exons B) vestigial sequences C) tRNA D) introns Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) Which of the following uses patterns of STR fragments that have been cut by restriction enzymes and sorted by size?

A) DNA fingerprinting B) DNA sequencing C) cloning D) genetic engineering Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) Which chemical carries the DNA's instructions for synthesizing a particular protein from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

A) transfer RNA B) messenger RNA C) RNA transcriptase D) ribosomal RNA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) Which process converts the nucleotide language of mRNA into the amino acid language of a protein?

A) DNA Replication B) transcription C) translation D) meiosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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20) Why are the complementary base pairing rules so important when a cell needs to copy its DNA? A) The cells need both strands to be accurate because each strand codes for one half of the gene.

B) As long as there is one strand, a copy can be made by following the pairing rules.

C) Unless the bases pair up correctly, the DNA strand can break apart.

D) Transcription cannot proceed unless the pairs are in the proper sequence.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 21) Why do transcription and translation take place in two different locations?

A) DNA is located in the nucleus, while the ribosomes needed for translation are not in the nucleus.

B) DNA is located in the nucleus, while the ribosomes needed for translation are found outside the cell.

C) DNA is located in the nucleus, while the ribosomes needed for transcription are found outside the cell.

D) Translation takes place in the nucleus, while the DNA is located elsewhere.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 22) Genes are really just segments of DNA in patterns of A's, T's, G's, and C's. How does an RNA polymerase "know" where to start transcribing at the beginning of a particular gene?

A) The polymerase finds the end of the previous gene and copies past that point.

B) The polymerase starts transcribing anywhere because the beginning point only counts during translation.

C) It looks for a specific promoter region that marks the beginning of a gene.

D) RNA polymerase does not know so it has to rely on the ribosome to help it start at the correct place.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) If there are 64 potential codons that code for various amino acids but only about 20 specific amino acids, what must be true about the genetic code?

A) Most of the codons are not used.

B) There are two codons for each amino acid and the rest are stop codons.

C) All are used, but bacteria and plants each have 20 different amino acids each.

D) Multiple codons code for the same amino acid.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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24) DNA fingerprinting is now widely used to tie a particular suspect to the DNA samples found at a crime scene. What benefits can be derived from this technology in fighting crime?

A) "Persons of interest" can be excluded more rapidly as suspects so police can focus on other leads.

B) A jailed convict can be proven to have not had a connection to evidence found at a crime scene.

C) Solid matches can aid a District Attorney's case in proving guilt to a jury.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 25) The genetic code only works because each codon is read in a specific manner that results in the correct amino acid being placed in that particular spot. What physically places each amino acid by matching up the correct codon?

A) tRNA B) mRNA C) DNA D) rRNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 26) Point mutations can occur in any given cell type, but they mostly only affect that one cell and cells produced by it. What cell type, if mutated, would allow the mutation to be passed on to family members for generations?

A) glial cells like those that produce a myelin sheath B) skin cells C) white blood cells D) gametes such as an egg or sperm Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) The p53 gene is a tumor-suppressing gene that prevents damaged cells from undergoing cell division. If this gene ceases to function due to a mutation what will happen to the cell?

A) Tumors will be suppressed.

B) The cell will die.

C) Uncontrolled cell division will occur.

D) The cell will be prevented from undergoing division.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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28) UV rays from the sun cause a specific type of improper base pairing called a thymine dimer.

If a cell cannot correct this problem, the section of DNA can be removed, causing a deletion of several nucleotides. What will this cause?

A) A point mutation forms that leads to a change in one amino acid.

B) A point mutation forms that leads to changes in a handful of amino acids.

C) The codons shift by one letter and all the codons before the mutation are changed.

D) The codons could shift by one letter and all the codons after that point would be off.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 29) A new antibiotic is developed that interferes with the way tRNA fits into bacterial ribosomes.

How would this kill them?

A) The bacteria would be unable to produce necessary enzymes to carry out basic metabolism.

B) The tRNA would be unable to carry out transcription.

C) Ribosomes will not be able to produce mRNA and cell functions will halt.

D) tRNA would not unwind the DNA to allow DNA polymerase to copy it, thus cell division stops.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) Translation occurs at the ________.

Answer: ribosome Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) A (n) ________ is composed of one sugar (deoxyribose or ribose), one phosphate, and one nitrogenous base.

Answer: Nucleotide Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ is attached to a specific amino acid and transports it to the appropriate region of mRNA. Answer: Transfer RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The end product of transcription is the production of a(n) ________.

Answer: RNA transcript Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) ________ are small pieces of DNA separate from the bacterial chromosome.

Answer: Plasmids Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) The ________ is used to convert the linear sequences of bases in DNA to the sequence of amino acids in proteins. Answer: genetic code Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Changes in the DNA are called ________.

Answer: mutations Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) If you could not synthesize nor acquire deoxyribose in any way, you could not make the nucleic acid ________.

Answer: DNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) The amount of DNA can be increased when primers are heated with a mix of the original small amount of DNA, DNA polymerase, and nucleotides in the process known as ________.

Answer: PCR Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The gene for one form of hemophilia is added to a harmless virus and then the virus is given to someone with the hereditary disease. The virus is acting as a(n) ________.

Answer: vector Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 11) RNA usually is ________ stranded Answer: single Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The manipulation of genetic material for human purposes, the practice of ________, began almost as soon as we began to understand the language of DNA. Answer: genetic engineering Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) The nitrogenous base found in RNA but not DNA is ________.

Answer: uracil Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A group of identical organisms that are all descendants from a single ancestor is known as a(n) ________.

Answer: clone Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Genome B) DNA polymerases C) Gene therapy D) Guanine E) Thymine F) RNA polymerase G) Codons H) Biotechnology I) Epigenetics 1) The alteration of gene activity without DNA sequence change.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) The science of making a living cell perform a task considered useful by humans in a controlled way.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The RNA "words" are called this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The process of replacing a faulty gene with healthy functional genes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) An enzyme that binds with the promoter on DNA and then synthesizes mRNA. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) According to base pairing rules, adenine will only pair with this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) An individual's complete set of DNA. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Enzymes that link the sugars and phosphates of the newly attached nucleotides to form a new strand during DNA replication.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) According to base pairing rules, cytosine will only pair with this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) I 2) H 3) G 4) C 5) F 6) E 7) A 8) B 9) D

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Some t-RNA often contains sections of noncomplimentary, unusual bases (i.e., other than U, C, A, and G) which are added after transcription. What area of the t-RNA would never contain

such odd bases in a living organism?

Answer: They would never be found in the anticodon because there would be no way to pair with any codon of the m-RNA. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 2) Why is DNA replication semi-conservative?

Answer: DNA is replicated in a semi-conservative process because this method has been hypothesized to be optimal for reducing replication errors in the copying process. This process involves opening the double-stranded DNA and using these strands as templates to produce new strands.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) Explain why some people fear genetically modified foods despite commercial

organization claims that these foods are safe for human consumption.

Answer: Some people feel that genetically modified foods haven't been around long enough to assess the long-term effects of consumption. These foods may contain allergens that could lead

to serious medical problems. The use of genetically modified foods could lead to herbicide resistance in other agricultural crops and weeds due to cross-pollination. Pollination of these

plants could contaminate other plants and produce super weeds.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Compare and contrast DNA and RNA. Answer: guanine, DNA is double-stranded; contains the sugar deoxyribose, possesses cytosine, adenine and thymine; and is restricted to the nucleus. RNA is single stranded; contains a

ribose sugar, possesses cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil (instead of thymine); and functions in protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. Both nucleic acids are composed of nucleotides and function in gene expression.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Genetically modified (GM) salmon have now been approved for sale in the United States.

10 What concerns do you think people may have? .

Answer: There is concern that the GM salmon may escape and outcompete the wild species.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) The text says that bovine somatotropin can be given to cows to boost milk production.

Suppose that it would be possible to alter the genes of cows so that the animals always made

7) Gene therapy is being explored as a means of permanently correcting a defective gene to cure a disease rather than to merely treat symptoms with drugs. Ideally it would be best to correct these defective genes before a baby is even born. But if it's possible to change diseased genes, what about changing genes that regulate other characteristics like height or eye color? Would it be desirable to change the genes of babies for more cosmetic purposes?

Answer: The answer to this question is largely a matter of opinion. It's clear to anyone that curing genetic disorders would be of great benefit. Changing genes for cosmetic reasons is less justifiable. Benefits and risks must be weighed.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) Both DNA and RNA polymerases must be able to copy from a template strand with great accuracy. Still, either one can make mistakes that could lead to a mutation. For which one of these polymerases would a mistake be the most serious in the long term? Explain your answer.

Answer: RNA polymerase makes mRNA, a molecule used in translation for a short period of time before it is broken down. DNA is the permanent record of a gene so errors made by DNA polymerase are permanent.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 9) The drug Humulin is a modified form of the human insulin protein that is used to treat diabetes. Describe the process that would allow a drug company to take this gene and, using bacteria, produce large amounts of this human protein.

Answer: An insulin gene is isolated from a human pancreatic cell. This DNA is inserted into a bacterial plasmid, which is taken up by a bacterial cell. The cells are grown in volume and the protein is collected.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 10) Scientists study the genomes of many different living organisms besides humans. For example, organisms like fruit flies, yeasts, and mice are studied. Of what value is understanding the genes of a mouse in comparison to that of a human? Are the two even remotely comparable?

Answer: The basic metabolic machinery of all cells is essentially the same. Mice and humans have 90% of the same genetic makeup.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 21A Special Topic: Cancer Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancerous cells? A) immortality B) contact inhibition C) unusual shapes and sizes D) All of the above are characteristics of cancerous cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Which of the following is a typical means of halting normal cell division? A) the shortening of telomeres B) increasing the activity of p53 C) activating oncogenes D) triggering apoptosis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Dietary choices that can increase the risk of certain cancers include ________. A) diets high in saturated fats B) diets high in antioxidants C) high-fiber diets D) diets low in cured foods Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Which statement is not correct concerning cell division and cancer? A) Normal cells are limited in how many times they can divide. B) Cancerous cells can become immortal. C) Oncogenes protect against cancer. D) Apoptosis can be used to kill cancerous cells in the body.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Which of the following cancers is often not detected until a late stage because of a lack of routine diagnostic testing? A) prostate B) cervical C) ovarian D) breast Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

1 .

6) An allele known as BRCA1 is often found in women with breast and ovarian cancer.

However, some women develop these cancers and do not have the BRCA1 allele. In addition, some women who have BRCA1 never develop breast or ovarian cancer. How can this be explained?

A) This must be an example of pleiotropy.

B) These types of cancers are in no way associated with specific alleles.

C) Something other than the gene must factor into whether cancer develops.

D) The BRCA1 allele must be dominant.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) In order to be successful, chemotherapy drugs have to stop cell division. The most likely method for this would be to ________.

A) denature all the enzymes in the cell so division can't occur B) speed up the cell cycle in the cancerous cells C) stop cellular respiration so the cancerous cells don't have energy D) interfere with the function of the spindle fibers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 8) If a person had cancer that had already metastasized by the time of diagnosis, the treatment options at this point would most likely include ________.

A) surgery B) radiation C) chemotherapy D) immunotherapy Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) Which type of cancer had the largest percentage of deaths among women in 2009?

A) breast B) ovarian C) pancreatic D) lung and bronchus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) A(n) ________ is an abnormal mass of tissue that is surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue and that usually remains at the site where it forms.

Answer: benign tumor Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Cells can activate a genetic suicide program in response to a signal in the body. This programmed cell death is called ________.

Answer: apoptosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ can be detected through a blood test that detects a specific antigen called PSA. Answer: Prostate cancer Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The removal and analysis of a piece of tissue that is suspected to be cancerous is called a(n) ________.

Answer: biopsy Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) ________ is a treatment method in which rapidly dividing cells are killed using drugs instead of radiation.

Answer: Chemotherapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) An oncologist (a physician that specializes in cancer) compares two biopsy samples by looking at the percentage of cells in mitosis. Sample #1 has 15% of cells in mitosis and Sample #2 has 8% of cells in mitosis. These samples are of the same tissue type. Which sample is likely to be cancerous and why? Why is it important that the two samples being compared came from the same tissue type?

Answer: Sample #1 is more likely to be cancerous because of the elevated level of mitosis. The samples must be of the same variety in order to make a comparison since different types of tissues have different rates of mitosis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.

Answer: Malignant tumors are invasive and have the potential to metastasize in the body.

Metastasis involves malignant cells breaking off from the primary tumor and moving through body fluids such as blood or lymph. When the malignant cells land in new areas of the body, secondary tumors develop.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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3) How does chemotherapy work as a treatment for cancer? Why is it not always effective?

Answer: Chemotherapy relies on toxic drugs that kill dividing cells. The faster a cell divides, the more susceptible it is to the drugs. Because cancerous cells divide quickly, they are susceptible to chemotherapy. However, healthy cells in the body that divide quickly are also damaged by the chemotherapy. Cancer cells containing mutations in p53 genes are difficult to kill with chemotherapy because this technique is intended to damage the DNA of the cancer cell and trigger programmed cell death. However, because of the mutations in p53, many cancer cells are unable to self-destruct in response to DNA damage.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) An adult patient has just received a diagnosis of brain cancer and is undergoing treatment.

Based on what you know about cell division and cancer, why does this seem unusual?

Answer: In adults, neurons typically do not undergo mitosis. Since cancer is uncontrolled mitosis, it seems odd that neurons would become cancerous. Thus, it must be the glial cells of the central nervous system that are cancerous.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 5) Certain new cancer therapies deal with the inhibition of angiogenesis (formation of blood vessels). How would inhibition of blood vessel formation be beneficial in terms of treating cancer?

Answer: Blocking blood vessel formation to a tumor ultimately starves the tumor and blocks routes by which malignant cells can enter the bloodstream and travel to other sites.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) Describe the cancer stem cell hypothesis. How might this explain the inability of traditional cancer treatments such as radiation and chemotherapy to completely eradicate tumors?

Answer: The cancer stem cell hypothesis suggests that only certain cells in a tumor are capable of continual cell division and initiating the growth of new tumors. Traditional cancer therapies have focused on killing the rapidly dividing cancer cells (progenitor cells) but may not target cancer stem cells. Thus, while death of progenitor cells would shrink the tumor, cancer stem cells could replenish the population, causing the tumor to return.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 22 Evolution and Our Heritage Multiple-Choice Questions 1) With the problems related to fossilization listed in the text, which of these creatures would be least likely to be successfully fossilized?

A) turtle B) rose flower C) rhinoceros D) clam Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) Changes that occur at the genetic level in populations are classified as ________.

A) chemical evolution B) microevolution C) gradualism D) macroevolution Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Different forms of a gene are called ________.

A) proteins B) genome C) alleles D) chromosomes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Which of the following is true of chimpanzees compared with humans?

A) Chimps have larger patellae.

B) Chimps have S-shaped spines.

C) Chimps have smaller shoulder blades.

D) Chimps have opposable big toes.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The adult human jawbone, or mandible, arises embryonically from a gill arch. The arch and the mandible are said to be ________.

A) homologous structures B) analogous structures C) convergent structures D) coevolved structures Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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6) Which can drive microevolution and occurs when individuals move in and out of populations?

A) speciation B) gene flow C) founder effect D) adaptation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Today's atmosphere on Earth is made up of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water.

According to all models, which of these was largely absent 3.8 billion years ago?

A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) carbon dioxide D) water Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Almost all cacti are native to the Americas, but there is a small, relatively uncommon group of plants closely related to cacti native to tropical western Africa. How can we explain this given the information in this chapter?

A) The plants might have floated across the Atlantic.

B) This might have been caused by divergent evolution.

C) The continents were once connected.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 9) Which of the following refers to the ability of early hominins to walk on two feet?

A) bipedalism B) digitigrade C) plantigrade D) tetrapedal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) Which suggests that life evolved from chemicals slowly increasing in complexity over a period of millions of years?

A) natural selection B) creationism C) gradualism D) chemical evolution Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) Which of the following species is most likely to be infected with the newly discovered human virus Zeta 1?

A) orangutan B) mouse C) potto D) kangaroo Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 12) You, as a cell biologist, discover that there is strong evidence that chloroplasts, found in plant and algal cells, are descended from bacteria but not eukaryotes. What theory would explain this finding?

A) macroevolution B) endosymbiont C) back to front D) bottleneck Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 13) The relative number of reproductively viable offspring produced by individuals is called ________.

A) homology B) immigration C) fitness D) taxonomy Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A protein similar to the human Rh blood factor (due to a specific set of genes) can be found in many animals. In which of the following is it least likely to be found?

A) chimpanzees B) goats C) dogs D) parrots Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 15) Which of the following is not a primate characteristic?

A) rotating shoulders B) stereoscopic vision C) large litter size D) flattened nails instead of claws Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) Which of the following is one method of acquiring genetic changes in a population caused by a change in the DNA? A) genetic drift B) mutation C) founder effect D) bottleneck effect Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) Which of the following is a correctly written scientific name?

A) Australopithecus afarensis B) homo sapiens C) musca domesticus D) Acer pennsylvanicus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 18) Which refers to the different rates at which various traits evolve? A) natural selection B) adaptation C) mosaic evolution D) molecular clock Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) Which of the following is true of the evolution of humans? A) It is complex, with some dead ends. B) Humans evolved from chimpanzees. C) Organs evolved in concert. D) Humans separated from apes about one million years ago.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 20) Which of these trends occurred first in hominin evolution? A) large brain B) bipedalism C) tool use D) writing Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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21) If an average female A. afarensis weighed 24 kg, what would you estimate the weight of an average male to be? A) 24 kg B) 18 kg C) 36 kg D) 66 kg Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 22) Which of the following groups has more species?

A) kingdom B) order C) phylum D) domain Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) If you hear a friend call someone a "Neanderthal," why might it conceivably be a compliment?

A) They were more lightly built than modern people and therefore physically more attractive.

B) They cared for those that were old and sick.

C) They were more creative than modern people.

D) They had better tools than the modern species.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 24) The Euphorbia of desert parts of Africa and India are succulent and have thorns but are superficially very similar to the unrelated cacti native to the deserts of the Americas. This pair of plant groups represents an example of ________.

A) convergent evolution B) apostatic selection C) homology D) divergent evolution Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

25) Imagine that you are an archaeologist on a dig somewhere in East Asia and you begin to excavate an area littered with stone tools that also has the remains of an ancient fire.

Subsequent

carbon dating of the charcoal from the fire yields a date of 200,000 years before the present.

Given these circumstances, which species would you expect most likely set that fire?

A) Australopithecus afarensis B) Homo erectus C) Homo ergaster D) Ardipithecus ramidus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 5 .

26) The Abuja family had 10 children by 1950, but due to ill health, there is now only one surviving grandchild. The Bacchus family had 3 children in 1950 and now has 6 grandchildren.

Which statement about these families is correct?

A) The Abuja family had greater gene flow.

B) The Abuja family had more gene drift.

C) The Bacchus family exhibits the bottleneck effect.

D) The Bacchus family has greater fitness.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 27) Plants from the genus Solanum include such common vegetables as potatoes and eggplants.

The many species include some plants native to tropical West Africa as well as closely related species native to tropical South America. What might you reasonably conclude?

A) The trunks of the plants were used as canoes to cross the Atlantic Ocean.

B) Convergent evolution occurred.

C) The group must have mutated twice.

D) West Africa and South America were once joined.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 28) Before contact with Europeans, the people of a tiny, isolated group of South Pacific islands had a population of around 50,000 people. Because of poor management of their own resources, the population fell to around 5000 by about the year 1750. When Europeans finally arrived, they brought smallpox and after the ensuing epidemic, only about 800 islanders were left alive. The unusual genetic makeup of the native population is due to what phenomenon?

A) genetic drift B) bottleneck effect C) gene flow D) speciation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 29) Astronomers have detected the presence of various chemicals in deep space similar to those thought to have been synthesized in Earth's early atmosphere. The environments where those deep space molecules originated would be most likely to contain ________.

A) low oxygen, ultraviolet light, methane, nitrogen, and hydrogen B) oxygen, no ultraviolet light, and carbon monoxide C) abundant oxygen, ultraviolet light, methane, nitrogen, and hydrogen D) abundant oxygen, no ultraviolet light, methane, nitrogen, and hydrogen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) ________ can behave as an enzyme and may have been the first macromolecule leading to the first cells.

Answer: RNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) ________ is the study of the geographic distribution of organisms.

Answer: Biogeography Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) ________ is the relative number of reproductively viable offspring left by an individual.

Answer: Fitness Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) A group of living things whose members can successfully breed with one another is called a(n) ________.

Answer: species Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) ________ dating uses potassium/argon ratios and can be used to determine absolute age.

Answer: Radiometric Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A difference in appearance between males and females in a species is called ________.

Answer: sexual dimorphism Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Broadly defined, ________ is descent with modification from a common ancestor.

Answer: evolution Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) One result of natural selection is that populations become better suited to their particular environment by a process called ________.

Answer: adaptation Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The order of mammals to which humans belong is the ________.

Answer: primates Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) If many living and fossil species of camelids, a mammal family containing camels, lamas, and alpacas, can be found in the Americas, but only two can be found in Asia and one can be found in Africa, camelids probably evolved in ________.

Answer: the Americas Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7 .

11) If the atmospheric layer known as the ________ were to disappear, we would be exposed to intense ultraviolet radiation.

Answer: ozone Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) A(n) ________ is a group of individuals of the same species that live in a particular area.

Answer: population Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) ________ occurs when allele frequencies within a population change randomly because of chance alone.

Answer: Genetic drift Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) Genetic drift that occurs in small, new colonies is called ________.

Answer: founder effect Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) The proposition that the mitochondria in our cells descended from engulfed bacteria is called the ________ theory.

Answer: endosymbiont Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

8 .

Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Latin binomial B) Homo erectus C) Chimpanzees D) Neanderthals E) Australopithecus africanus F) Astragalus G) Convergent evolution H) Ardipithecus ramidus I) Founder effect J) Homo habilis 1) The Amish are a small, isolated group of people who came from Europe and settled in the United There is a set of unusual genetic conditions among them. This type of genetic States. drift

is called ________.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) According to the text, this is the earliest member of the genus Homo to appear in the fossil record.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Whales appear to be most closely related to cows based on the presence of a specifically shaped ________ in the feet of ancient whale ancestors.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The group of hominins living in the colder climates of Europe who have larger brains than modern humans.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) The "Upright Man" who possibly evolved in east Africa and first appears in the fossil record about 1.6 million years ago and was a wanderer or nomad.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Sugar gliders from Australia and flying squirrels from North America are not closely related 9 mammals but they do resemble one another in appearance and locomotion. This would . illustrate

the phenomenon of ________.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) The two-part name that consists of the genus followed by the species name first developed by

9) These slender or gracile australopithecines are found later in the fossil record than A. afarensis.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) This living animal is most likely to share the most diseases with humans, given that the more closely related two things are, the more likely they are to suffer from the same infectious diseases.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) I 2) J 3) F 4) D 5) B 6) G 7) A 8) H 9) E 10) C Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Discuss the major trends in hominin evolution.

Answer: Bipedalism (walking on two feet) evolved early and may have set the stage for increases in brain size, which in turn are linked to cultural developments such as tool use and language. The degree of sexual dimorphism decreased.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) DDT was first used as an insecticide in 1942. Resistance genes existed before this time in houseflies and other insects. By 1970, no farmer would bother using this chemical. Why? Answer: As DDT was used, the susceptible animals died and only those with the natural ability to detoxify the poison were left to reproduce. Thus, the only insects left to reproduce were those with the successful trait. Farmers soon learned that the chemical was a waste of money.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 3) What factors contribute to genetic variation in populations?

Answer: The factors include crossing over and independent assortment during gamete production, new combinations arising as a result of fertilization, and mutations.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) What is the evidence that supports evolution?

Answer: The evidence for evolution is biogeography (the geographical distribution of species), the fossil record, comparative anatomy, comparative embryology, and analysis of DNA, RNA, and protein structure.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) Explain the basic ideas of natural selection proposed by Charles Darwin.

Answer: Darwin's ideas included: 1) Within a species there is variation and some of this variation has a genetic basis; 2) some individuals have more surviving offspring than do others because their particular inherited characteristics make them better suited to their environment; 3) traits of more successful individuals become more common in the population.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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6) How does fitness relate to family size?

Answer: It depends on the ability of the children themselves to have children. Greater fitness is associated with larger families only if all or most of the progeny live to be reproductively successful. Survival is not enough.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) As you visit the high desert of southeastern Arizona, you come to a flowing stream that disappears into the sand. You notice that insects are flying up to the moist sand for a drink, but as the flow varies and waves of muddy water wash over the animals, fine soil particles cover them and entomb them. The beginnings of what process have you just witnessed and what might the next steps be?

Answer: Commonly, fossilization occurs in this way: decay of soft parts; impregnation with minerals; pressure from additional, overlaying layers; and formation of solid rock. For discovery, most fossils must be exposed through uplift and erosion.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 8) A set of regulator genes is known to be very similar in both humans and flies. This fact is used to indicate what about the two species?

Answer: It is evidence of common ancestry.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 9) What anatomical features help primates to live in trees?

Answer: Flattened fingers, excellent depth perception, rotating shoulder joints, and large brains to process information and provide hand-eye coordination all help primates to live in trees.

Grasping hands and feet are also important.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 10) Recently, the bones (not fossils) of a possible new species of humans (in the genus Homo) have been found on an island in Indonesia (an island nation southeast of Asia). These people were alive as recently as 17,000 years ago. According to the information in this chapter, why do you think they probably used tools?

Answer: Stone tool use started as early as 2.5 million years ago within the genus Homo.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 23 Ecology, the Environment, and Us Multiple-Choice Questions 1) American Bison consume only plants, so we would say they are ________.

A) carnivores B) herbivores C) omnivores D) producers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) When measuring the energy transfer between trophic levels, only the energy that makes up the dry weight of the body mass can be measured. This weight is known as ________.

A) muscle B) caloric intake C) kilocalories D) biomass Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Alfalfa plants occur symbiotically with bacteria that can convert nitrogen gas to ammonium in a process called ________.

A) nitrogen fixation B) fertilizers C) nitrification D) nitroprocessing Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The saguaro is a giant cactus that is found primarily in desert regions of Arizona. This is information about the cacti's ________.

A) habitat B) niche C) biosphere D) succession Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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5) The total physical, chemical, and biological requirements of a species are said to be its ________. A) community B) population C) niche D) biosphere Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Which of the following contains the most species of living things?

A) biosphere B) niche C) ecosystem D) community Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) The volcanic island Selkirk arose from the North Atlantic off Iceland in 1948. The first organisms to start living there are said to be ________.

A) central species B) climax species C) pioneer species D) rogue organisms Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) The sequence of changes in the species that make up a community is called ________.

A) ecological succession B) pioneer progression C) climax community D) progressive adaptation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) A small woods was cleared for a new building but then the builders went bankrupt.

Over the ensuing years, plants and animals moved back into the plot in a process called ________.

A) climax community B) biological magnification C) secondary succession D) primary succession Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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10) An area had no previous community and had no existing soil at first, but then living things started occupying the area. This situation would be called ________. A) biological magnification B) primary succession C) climax community D) secondary replacement Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) Rattlesnakes eat grain-eating rodents, so the snakes would be in which trophic level?

A) producers B) primary consumers C) decomposers D) secondary consumers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 12) The interactions and exchange of energy between all feeding levels is known as a ________.

A) food web B) feeding frenzy C) trophic level D) food succession Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Living organisms that consume plants, animals, and detritus to maintain their metabolism are referred to as ________.

A) carnivores B) omnivores C) parasites D) producers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) What is mainly responsible for the loss of biodiversity globally?

A) poaching B) introduced species C) pet trade D) habitat destruction Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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15) If a plant could not get enough phosphorus then it could not make ________. A) fat B) vitamin A C) ATP D) proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 16) Which cycle involves materials moving through a series of transfers, from living to nonliving systems and then back again?

A) biogeochemical B) geological C) uranium-lead D) continental Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) It is important for cattle to add proteins to their body, so which plant would be best for them to eat?

A) alfalfa B) oats C) corn D) barley Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 18) Ammonium is converted to nitrates (NO3-) by this process.

A) nitrification B) nitrogen fixation C) nitrofaction D) calcification Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) A coyote eats a variety of animals and even consumes a little plant matter, so it would be best characterized as ________.

A) autotrophic B) photosynthetic C) a producer D) a consumer Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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20) A certain species of tiny wasp lays its eggs within the bodies of caterpillars, whereupon the larvae of the wasp consume the 10-gram caterpillar. Assuming that the entire victim was consumed, what would be the total mass of the eventual adult wasps that emerge from the caterpillar?

A) 10 grams B) 1 gram C) 100 grams D) 2 grams Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 21) The shaggy-mane mushroom lives beneath broadleaf forest trees and aids in decomposition of forest litter. You have just learned something about what specific type of ecological information concerning this fungus?

A) the biosphere B) the population dynamics C) the niche D) the phosphorus cycle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 22) A certain species of flea only drinks the blood of elephants. How would you best describe this flea's trophic level?

A) producer B) primary consumer C) secondary consumer D) decomposer Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) If you were raising frying chickens, how much meat could you produce given a metric ton (1000 kg, or 2200 lbs) of feed?

A) 200 kg B) 100 kg C) 800 kg D) 1000 kg Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 24) Which of these options would be the most efficient human food source?

A) beef B) soybeans C) swordfish D) chicken Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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25) Park officials needed to repair the old mill dam in a state park and so had to drain the pond behind, killing all the animals and many of the plants in the water. After the pond reformed and many years passed, a certain species of fish established itself in the pond and remained there for more than 400 years. Which most directly describes the role of that type of fish?

A) climax species B) pioneer C) producers D) invaders Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 26) Predict the result when a phosphate-containing chemical is released by a factory into a pond.

A) All living things will always die in such cases.

B) Eutrophication will occur.

C) Climax species will invade.

D) Predatory fish will increase in population faster than other living things.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 27) Crop rotation occurs where different types of plants are grown on the land each season. If you had no access to chemical fertilizers, which of the following would be best to include in your rotation cycle?

A) corn B) tobacco C) cotton D) beans Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 28) The element molybdenum is vital in the process of nitrogen fixation. For which crop would molybdenum be most critical to ensure success?

A) alfalfa B) wheat C) cauliflower D) apples Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis

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29) The Humboldt Current, a river of cold water running deep beneath the Pacific Ocean, sweeps eastward toward the South American coast until it hits the coastline where it is forced upward near the surface. Deep sediments come up along with the cold water. Predict what you would find along that coast.

A) tremendous biomass B) very few sea birds C) lots of rain D) limited algae Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 30) Dieldrin was a chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticide that was remarkably useful against termites because it did not seem to degrade when applied to wood. What issue would you expect with its use?

A) biological magnification B) expressive toxicity C) chlorination D) decomposition Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) ________ describes the number of individuals at each trophic level multiplied by their dry weight.

Answer: Pyramid of biomass Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) ________ is an important component of many biological molecules, including the genetic material DNA and energy transfer molecules such as ATP. Answer: Phosphorus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) The study of the interactions among organisms and between organisms and the environment is called ________.

Answer: ecology Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The biosphere consists of many ________, each consisting of the organisms in a specific geographic area and their physical environment.

Answer: ecosystems Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) All the potentially interacting species in an ecosystem are said to make up a(n) ________.

Answer: community Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) A plot of water-soaked soil will have less of the form of nitrogen known as ________ than dry soil.

Answer: nitrates Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 7) The progression of species that would take place in an abandoned field is called ________.

Answer: secondary succession Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The recent increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide has produced ________, according to the textbook and most scientists.

Answer: global warming Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) The fly agaric, a giant toadstool, consumes dead organic material so it is said to be a ________.

Answer: decomposer Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 10) A(n) ________ is a diagram in which blocks represent each trophic level.

Answer: ecological pyramid Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) The sedimentary rock known as ________ stores carbon deposited by the shells of ocean animals.

Answer: limestone Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) On average, about ________% of the energy in one trophic level is transferred to the next.

Answer: 10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Two human activities, burning fossil fuels and ________, are important causes of the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.

Answer: deforestation Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) A(n) ________ includes all the individuals of the same species that can potentially interact.

Answer: population Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) The process by which light energy is used by plants, algae, and cyanobacteria to form sugar is called ________.

Answer: photosynthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) The ________ cycle lacks an atmospheric component.

Answer: phosphorus Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Herbivores B) Carbon dioxide C) Producers D) Carnivore E) Limestone F) Ecology G) Primary consumers H) Decomposers I) Transpiration J) Omnivores 1) Water evaporation from leaves is called this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) A lion feeds only on mammals, so would be said to be this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 3) These are organisms that consume both live plants and animals to fulfill their metabolic requirements in an ecosystem.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) Yeasts consume garbage and other dead organic matter so they are called this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 5) This form of carbon results from cell respiration.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) Most of the non-cycling carbon is in this form.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) The animals that consume plants, algae, or cyanobacteria for their metabolic requirements.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) The animals that eat plants exclusively as their main energy source.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) Diatoms perform photosynthesis, so they fill this role in the community.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The study of the relationships between organisms and their environment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) I 2) D 3) J 4) H 5) B 6) E 7) G 8) A 9) C 10) F

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Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) What are the differences between primary and secondary succession?

Answer: Primary succession involves the invasion of living organisms in an area that had no previous existing community or soil. Soil forms from the erosion of rock material in which plants can establish and spread throughout the ecosystem. Over time, a climax community forms complete with plants, animals, fungi, and bacterial species. Secondary succession occurs when an established ecosystem is cleared either by human activity or natural processes.

Secondary

succession involves opportunistic species such as grasses, weeds, and shrubs that invade and establish.

If the ecosystem is not disturbed, then these plants will eventually be outcompeted by other plants.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) Why is it wiser to eat a diet with more plants in it than one with more meat?

Answer: Energy is lost as it is transferred from one trophic level to the next. Only 10% of the energy in a given food source is available to an organism in the next trophic level. There is more energy food in food material closer to the primary production than at the carnivore end of the

web. There is more available energy in plant material than in a comparable amount of meat material. scarce, Plant matter is also cheaper and easier to store and ship to areas where food is which has a definite advantage over shipping animal products. Increasing world population levels would seem to require that we eat more plants and fewer animals.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

3) How has human activity added to eutrophication of freshwater lakes?

Answer: variety ofThe addition of various chemical compounds to the environment can have a effects on the ecosystem. One example is the addition of phosphorus into the environment

by runoff from fertilizers used in farming areas. When phosphorus levels increase, algae populations grow exponentially and form algal blooms. A major consequence of these algal blooms is the depletion of oxygen, which ultimately affects fish populations that can't tolerate anoxic conditions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) Hoda, now pregnant, barbequed a shark that her uncle caught in a bay. Upstream from that bay was an old coal mine that was draining into the local river. What should you warn Hoda about?

11 Answer: The mine may be leaking mercury into . the water. Sharks are high on the energy pyramid and naturally magnify nondegradable substances such as mercury. Pregnant women should be warned not to eat such fish.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 5) A developer plans to chop down several healthy trees on her property, burn them, and

6) A visitor to a tropical American forest will probably never get to see a jaguar, the largest native cat species in the Americas, but will see many plant-eating monkeys. Use your knowledge of energy pyramids to explain the rarity of the predatory cats. Answer: There should normally be fewer predators (and less biomass) at the secondary (or higher) consumer level than at the primary level. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 7) A backhoe operator is helping to clear land that will be used for a poultry farm when the equipment opens up a hidden chamber in which old electrical transformers have been buried. The operator knows that transformers contain PCBs. Why should this person warn the owners of the land? Answer: PCBs can cause cancer and are nondegradable, posing a threat to workers at the poultry farm and to consumers of the chickens and eggs produced there. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) Why is the total biomass of secondary consumers normally less than that of primary consumers? Answer: Only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level passes on to the next. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) PCBs were frequently used in electrical transformers. A young man digs in an abandoned industrial site, finding old transformers, and sells the copper wire from them to a scrap yard. What health problems might the young man have in the future?

Answer: PCBs may have a feminizing effect on him and reduce his sperm count or even cause prostate or testicular cancer. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 10) What are the benefits of maintaining biodiversity? Answer: Benefits include: Genetic diversity is helpful for crossbreeding and genetic engineering; plants may serve as sources of new medicines for people; promoting healthy ecosystems by cleaning the air and water, pollinating crops, building soil, and recycling nutrients. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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Biology of Humans, 4e (Goodenough/McGuire) Chapter 24 Human Populations, Limited Resources, and Pollution Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The influx of individuals into a population by the arrival of individuals from another population is ________. A) emigration B) immigration C) migration D) dispersal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) Which is known as unrestricted growth at a constant rate? A) exponential growth B) immigration C) logistic growth D) Sshaped growth Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Of the following, the social trend that would cause the fastest population increase is ________. A) declining fecundity B) lower nutritional values C) more older men getting married D) decreasing age of first pregnancy Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) This method of generating energy has in the past resulted in accidents that in turn cause cancer. A) biofuels B) nuclear energy C) hydroelectric D) geothermal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Air pollution over a long period of time can cause this condition. A) malaria B) influenza C) emphysema D) measles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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6) Which is the number of years it will take for a population to double at a particular rate of growth? A) birth rate B) doubling time C) death rate D) age structure Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) Which of the following is a density independent population-regulating factor? A) a tornado B) a famine C) a parasite D) an outbreak of a new, lethal flu strain Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 8) If the age structure of a country shows a large base and a tapering shape, we would guess that the population of this country will ________. A) stay the same as it is now B) decline in numbers C) increase in numbers D) We cannot predict population change using age structure. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 9) This type of chemical results in damage to the ozone layer of the stratosphere. A) argon B) chlorofluorocarbons C) nitrogen D) 2,4 D Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 10) The increase of agricultural yields due to the development of high-yield varieties of crops and the use of modern cultivation methods is referred to as the ________. A) wonder crops B) crop revolution C) green revolution D) farm aid Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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11) Imagine a chart showing the number of people in different age groups (e.g., 0-5 years old) as blocks in proportion to the number of people in each age group. If each of these age blocks is shown stacked with the youngest at the bottom and the oldest at the top, what shape will the whole stack assume when there is a rapid population doubling time?

A) normal pyramid B) uniform column C) inverted pyramid D) hourglass Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 12) This type of forest is disappearing fastest.

A) great oaks B) maple C) kelp D) tropical Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) Which of the following activities is likely to deplete an aquifer fastest?

A) massive xerophytic tree planting B) deep-well drilling for farms C) using chlorofluorocarbons D) employing molybdenum-based fertilizers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 4 Analysis 14) Underground water supplies within porous rock are called ________.

A) chambers B) watersheds C) aquifers D) wasserlagen Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) If we wished to reduce global climate change, which of the following would not be targeted for reduction?

A) nitrogen B) carbon dioxide C) methane D) nitrous oxide Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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16) Which of the following is an example of direct water usage?

A) home drinking water B) agricultural irrigation C) steam generation D) power plant cooling Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 17) The increase and decrease of individuals in a population around the carrying capacity in response to resource availability and other environmental factors is known as which growth pattern?

A) exponential growth B) logistic growth C) zero growth D) death rate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 18) In which area would significant water conservation have the greatest impact?

A) power plant cooling B) agriculture C) the home D) car washes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 19) Many forest plants and animals have been found to have chemicals in them that can be used for medicines. Which of the following is least helpful in preserving this resource?

A) eating more hamburgers B) limiting new housing developments C) encouraging paper and wood recycling D) promoting nut tree growing Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 20) Which community will need to plan for more schools? One with a population structure shaped like a(n) ________.

A) pyramid B) inverted pyramid C) box D) column Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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21) This gas traps 20 times the heat that carbon dioxide does.

A) methane B) argon C) nitrogen D) oxygen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 22) The social security fund is maintained by a federal tax on the earnings of employed people.

Which group of workers should be encouraged to live temporarily in the country?

A) young unmarried males B) young married couples C) elderly females D) retired couples Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 23) The ozone in the atmosphere can be damaged by which of the following?

A) carbon dioxide B) chlorine C) methane D) oxygen Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 24) Valparaiso, Chile, is the city closest to Antarctica. With reduced CFC use, what health condition will probably change, and how?

A) There will be fewer skin cancers.

B) There will be an increase in cataracts.

C) There will be an increase in lung cancer.

D) There will be fewer bacterial infections.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 25) A national planner is aware that the income tax revenues will fall in 30 years, so it would be best to increase the money coming into the budget at that time. Which of the following would be the most productive option?

A) Sponsor more research into late-onset Alzheimer disease research.

B) Promote men's health programs.

C) Increase childhood vaccination programs.

D) Build better highways.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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26) Generally, the homicide rate is higher in cities with large populations than in smaller municipalities. How, then, would you characterize homicides as population-controlling factors?

A) They are like floods.

B) They are like infectious diseases.

C) They are unlike famine.

D) They are unlike parasites.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 27) Of the following, the most important cause of deforestation is ________.

A) city expansion B) farming C) fires caused by lightening D) continental drift Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1) Germany is a very affluent European nation, so we would assume that its ecological footprint would most likely be ________.

Answer: large Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 2) Overgrazing transforms marginal farmlands to deserts, a process called ________.

Answer: desertification Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 3) Doubling time will increase with a(n) ________ average age of first birth in women.

Answer: older Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) ________ describes how populations change in size.

Answer: Population dynamics Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Ozone in the atmosphere shields us from ________.

Answer: ultraviolet radiation Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) In ________ countries the doubling time is often small.

Answer: less developed Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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7) The ________ is the development of high-yield varieties of crops and the use of modern cultivation methods, including the use of farm machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation.

Answer: Green Revolution Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 8) Irrigating land can lead to a buildup of salt in the soil called ________.

Answer: salinization Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) ________ spread more easily in crowded conditions than in places with a sparser population.

Thus, these are density-dependent regulating factors.

Answer: Infectious diseases and parasites Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 10) ________ are events that bring about death that are not related to the density of individuals in a population.

Answer: Density-independent regulating factors Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 11) Population increases may be stopped by reduced resources or by the buildup of ________.

Answer: wastes Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 12) The ________ drift up to the stratosphere, where UV radiation causes them to break down to their atomic form, one of which breaks down ozone.

Answer: chlorofluorocarbons Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 13) ________ are events that have a greater impact on the population as conditions become more crowded.

Answer: Density-dependent regulating factors Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 14) If a great volcano blew up and almost everyone nearby was killed, we would say that this was due to a ________ regulating factor.

Answer: density-independent Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 15) A(n) ________ is determined by the rates at which individuals are added to and subtracted from the population.

Answer: population growth rate Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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Matching Questions Match each definition in the first column to the correct term in the second column.

A) Death rate B) Carrying capacity C) Ozone D) Desertification E) Density-dependent F) Skin cancer G) Emigration H) Carbon footprint I) Chlorofluorocarbons J) Age structure 1) This form of oxygen can irritate the eyes and the respiratory system.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 2) If you found an old refrigerator that still works, it would probably have this type of compound as a refrigerant.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 3) Ultraviolet light can cause this potentially deadly skin disease.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 4) The amount of carbon dioxide a person puts into the atmosphere is said to be this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 5) Age classes grouped into pre-reproductive, reproductive, and post-reproductive categories.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 6) A measure of the decrease in population size due to removal of individuals by disease, predation, or natural causes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 7) A certain herbivore selectively destroys some types of plants on rangeland but not others.

After those animals have left the area, those tasty plants no longer grow on the plot of land so we would say that this has been reduced there.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 8) Tuberculosis is caused by an infectious bacterium and causes an annual death toll of 13 million people worldwide. It is this kind of regulating factor.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge 9) When marginal farmland is turned into desert, the process is termed this.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge

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10) Along with death, this decreases population size.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 1 Knowledge Answers: 1) C 2) I 3) F 4) H 5) J 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) D 10) G Short Answer and Essay Questions 1) Discuss some of the factors that cause population size to fluctuate around the carrying capacity.

Answer: Growth of population will increase as long as the death rate and emigration of members does not exceed the birth rate and the immigration rate of the population. At some point, the natural resources will become a limiting factor. Resources such as food availability, water, habitat, and available space will have an effect, and the ecosystem can no longer accommodate the increasing populations. Once the resources are depleted, the weak will struggle for these resources and the population numbers will decrease to such a point at which the resources are no longer a limiting factor and the populations can increase in number again. Diseases and infections become more prevalent with overcrowding so these will also contribute to population decline. Predation on a species can also be a factor that controls the number of prey species.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 2) What difference does it make if you choose to eat a hamburger from a fast-food place rather than from a restaurant using locally grown beef?

Answer: According to the textbook, tropical deforestation followed by using the land for cattle grazing supplies North American beef for fast food places. Students may also realize that hauling beef from a great distance expends more energy fossil fuels than that from local farmers. The latter will require some creativity in the part of the student.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 5 Synthesis 3) A certain relatively dry country has begun to desalinate seawater. If you were one of the managers of an irrigation project using this water, what measures would you adopt?

Answer: According to the chapter, a manager would recommend low water usage in farming by drip irrigation. The ideal would also include keeping the price for that water high so that people will be more careful with wastage.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 4) The Green Revolution impacted Indonesia's food supply in a positive way. Comment on its effects on the country's ecological footprint.

Answer: There are high financial costs: These non-traditional practices can require 100 times more energy and minerals than the old-fashioned ways. Environmental damage is often greater also.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension

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5) Why is it important that humans attempt to control their numbers and begin to identify renewable resources? Answer: Opinions will vary with this response. The direct impact humans have on the environment may be a powerful force in shaping and forming the world around us. If human population growth and our use of resources don't slow down dramatically, we run the risk of reducing the carrying capacity of the planet. Educational programs have helped inform people about considering the environment in regard to fossil fuels and feeding an overcrowded world. Recycling efforts have helped improve the situation but burning fossil fuels at the current rate is expediting the destruction of many habitats. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 2 Comprehension 6) If the women of Transylpolkonia traditionally delay having their first child until they are in their late 30s but the women of Chaldokia normally start their families in their teens, which nation will be most likely to have an increasing population? Answer: The Chaldokians will have a more rapidly growing populace due to their early age at first reproduction. Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application 7) What are the issues around the use of biofuels as an alternative to fossil fuels? Answer: Biofuels are made up of dead living things such as sugar cane. However, using food crops to produce fuel so that we can run our vehicles may cause food prices to rise. There are also concerns that irrigating biofuel crops will add to our shortage of water.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Level 3 Application

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