Biology A Guide to the Natural World with MasteringBiology, 5E David Krogh Test Bank.pdf (22)

Match the following. Answers may be used more than once.

A) steroid hormone B) amino-acid-based hormone C) peptide hormone 34) Estrogen Topic: Section 28.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Growth hormone Topic: Section 28.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Adrenaline Topic: Section 28.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Receptors inside cell Topic: Section 28.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) A

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Match the following.

A) posterior pituitary B) thyroid C) adrenal cortex D) pancreas E) anterior pituitary 38) Calcitonin Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Glucocorticoids Topic: Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Section 28.5 40) Prolactin Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Insulin Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Oxytocin Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 38) B 39) C 40) E 41) D 42) A

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Match the following.

A) increases heart rate and blood pressure B) stimulates contraction of the uterus C) increases blood calcium levels D) stimulates estrogen production and egg development in females E) increases metabolic rate 43) Oxytocin Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Follicle-stimulating hormone Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) Parathyroid hormone Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Epinephrine Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) T3 and T4 Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) E 48) Where are the parathyroid glands located?

Answer: The parathyroid glands are located in the neck on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland.

Topic: Section 28.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Human growth hormone is composed of 191 amino acids. This would place it in which class of hormone?

Answer: peptide Topic: Section 28.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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50) A friend tells you that his Aunt Jane is being treated for a brain disorder that is causing her to produce too much of the glucocorticoid hormones. Your friend looked up the hormone and (correctly) found it to be produced by the adrenal glands. He says he doesn't understand why a brain disorder should have anything to do with the adrenal glands. What do you tell your friend to help him understand the connection between the two?

Answer: You tell him ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) stimulates the adrenal gland and is produced in the pituitary gland. Its release is regulated by the hypothalamus of the brain. Too much ACTH would result in too much glucocorticoid production.

Topic: Section 28.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 51) A diabetic friend of yours passes out shortly after taking her insulin injection. She regains consciousness and asks you to give her one of the glucose tablets she carries in her purse.

Another friend steps in and says, "Wait! You shouldn't give sugar to a diabetic!" Recalling what you learned about the endocrine system, you give your diabetic friend the glucose tablet she asked for. Why did you trust the request of your diabetic friend for the glucose tablet and not the other friend who thought he was being helpful (but wasn't)?

Answer: Insulin reduces blood sugar and probably reduced it too much this time. The low blood sugar made her faint, and the glucose tablet would help raise blood sugar to normal levels.

Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 52) What gland and hormone control the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex?

Answer: The anterior pituitary and ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) control the release of cortisol.

Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) The hormone that stimulates mammary gland development and milk production is ________.

Answer: prolactin Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Which endocrine gland is associated with proper development of certain white blood cells?

Answer: thymus Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) Which hormones stimulate the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium?

Answer: mineralocorticoids Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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56) What would be the logical consequences of hormones traveling via the circulatory system as compared to the action-potential-based stimuli of the nervous system? Are these consequences necessarily a disadvantage? Answer: Hormones would be slower to act. The process of transport through blood would necessarily take at least a few seconds, whereas rapid transmission of stimuli through neurons can take less than one second.

Hormones cannot be as selective as nervous system stimuli because neurons are nearly "plugged in" (with a synapse in between) to the cell(s) you want to stimulate. Neurons can stimulate a few skeletal muscles at a time and target precisely which ones to stimulate.

Hormones will stimulate whatever cells they encounter that have the right receptors. That is a big part of why neurons rather than hormones stimulate skeletal muscle.

The effects of hormones are also longer lasting because they may exert their influence on cells for however long they remain attached to receptors. Thus, the slower response time and less-selective nature may only be a disadvantage for responses requiring split-second timing and coordination (such as motor control). For ongoing control of bodily functions where split-second timing is less critical (such as reproductive cycles and most aspects of metabolism), the endocrine system responses would be more energy efficient because continuous stimulation by neurons would use tremendous amounts of ATP compared to the production and release of hormone molecules.

Topic: Section 28.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 57) Long ago, the pituitary gland was nicknamed the "master gland" of the endocrine system.

Based on what you have learned from this section, provide an argument for why this nickname is undeserved or at least less deserved.

Answer: Before the role of the hypothalamus was more fully understood, the fact that most pituitary gland hormones control secretions of other endocrine glands certainly did make the pituitary gland seem like the controlling force behind the endocrine system. We now know that the pituitary does very little on its own without direction from the hypothalamus. The larger role for the hypothalamus makes sense when we consider its position as a receiving station for a great deal of input from the nervous system. The hypothalamus is therefore in a good position to direct responses to that input using the endocrine system. Finally, in addition to directing the actions of the anterior pituitary through its own hormones, the hypothalamus also makes the hormones that are actually released from the posterior pituitary (and controls the timing of their release as well).

Topic: Section 28.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

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58) As you may have heard before, stress can kill you! Explain the connection between the deleterious effects of stress and the endocrine system.

Answer: Much has been made in horror movies about being "scared to death," and it probably does happen rarely that adrenaline and noradrenaline (or epinephrine and norepinephrine) and the fight or flight (or fright!) response contribute to a heart attack. However, the bigger culprit is cortisol and the longer-term stress response. Cortisol is actually cannibalizing your own body in its efforts to keep blood sugar levels high by breaking down proteins like those in your muscles.

Cortisol also weakens the immune system and increases the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Topic: Section 28.5 Skill: Application/Analysis

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Refer to the figure below, and then answer the following question(s).

59) The endocrine gland indicated by a "1" corresponds to the: A) pineal.

B) thyroid.

C) adrenal cortex.

D) thymus.

E) pancreas.

Answer: C Topic: Section 28.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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60) The endocrine gland indicated by a "2" corresponds to the: A) pineal.

B) thyroid.

C) adrenal cortex.

D) thymus.

E) pancreas.

Answer: B Topic: Section 28.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 29 Defending the Body: The Immune System 1) Any substance that can cause an immune response is a/an: A) nonspecific defense.

B) microbe.

C) interferon.

D) antigen.

E) antibody.

Answer: D Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The skin serves as which type of defense against pathogens?

A) adaptive immunity B) protective immunity C) barrier to infection D) innate response E) complement Answer: C Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Helpful bacteria that produce lactic acid would be a defense found in which part of the body?

A) female reproductive tract B) stomach C) skin D) urinary tract E) respiratory tract Answer: A Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which part of the immune system does not target specific microbial invaders?

A) antibodies B) specific defense C) antigens D) innate response Answer: D Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Which of the following would be best categorized as a phagocyte?

A) mast cell B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) dendritic cell Answer: C Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following cells release histamine?

A) mast cells B) lymphocytes C) eosinophils D) dendritic cells Answer: A Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which cells in the immune system produce memory cells?

A) mast cells B) lymphocytes C) eosinophils D) dendritic cells Answer: B Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The response that targets specific (and only specific) pathogens is the: A) phagocytosis response.

B) barrier to infection.

C) inflammatory response.

D) innate response.

E) adaptive immune response.

Answer: E Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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9) In which type of response are Toll-Like Receptors (TLR's) important to pathogens? A) protective immunity B) adaptive immunity C) barrier to infection D) innate response E) complement response Answer: D Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Signaling proteins that alert the immune system an infection is present and that sometimes directly fight pathogens are the: A) complement proteins.

B) antibodies.

C) cytokines.

D) histamines.

E) antihistamines.

Answer: C Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Histamine causes which of the following?

A) TLR production B) increased permeability and dilation of blood vessels C) antibody production D) complement protein production E) the anti-inflammatory response Answer: B Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which part of the innate response cuts holes in the cell membranes of pathogens?

A) complement proteins B) histamines C) antibodies D) cytokines E) fibrin Answer: A Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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13) Which part of the innate response can sometimes kill bacteria outright but mainly speeds up metabolism, improving the immune response?

A) histamine B) macrophage attack C) protective immunity D) fever E) fibrin Answer: D Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following best describes the place adaptive immunity occupies in the animal kingdom?

A) All animals except sponges have adaptive immunity.

B) Only vertebrates, echinoderms, and mollusks have adaptive immunity.

C) Only vertebrates have adaptive immunity.

D) Only mammals have adaptive immunity.

E) Only humans have adaptive immunity.

Answer: C Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Lymphocytes and other white blood cells are produced in the: A) thymus gland.

B) lymph nodes.

C) bone marrow.

D) heart.

Answer: C Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Lymphocytes that become part of cell-mediated immunity arm of the adaptive immune response develop in the: A) bone marrow.

B) thymus.

C) intestine.

D) lymph nodes.

E) spleen.

Answer: B Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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17) Lymphocytes that become part of antibody-mediated immunity arm of the adaptive immune response develop in the: A) bone marrow.

B) thymus.

C) intestine.

D) lymph nodes.

E) spleen.

Answer: A Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The lymphocyte group that includes both CD4 receptor "helper" and CD8 receptor "killer" cells would be the: A) macrophages.

B) mast cells.

C) dendritic cells.

D) T-cells.

E) B-cells.

Answer: D Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The lymphocyte group that includes antibody-producing cells would be the: A) macrophages.

B) mast cells.

C) dendritic cells.

D) T-cells.

E) B-cells.

Answer: E Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Lymphatic tissue closely associated with the bloodstream as well as lymphatic circulation is found in the: A) tonsils.

B) spleen.

C) thymus.

D) bone marrow.

E) intestine.

Answer: B Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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21) Which statement about the B cells' abilities to produce antibodies is most accurate?

A) B cells wait to encounter an antigen and then copy it. B) There are no B cells until an antigen is encountered. C) There may be 100 million different B-cells, each producing a different antibody. D) Most B cells are capable of producing any kind of antibody. E) B cells don't produce antibodies until they develop in the thymus. Answer: C Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Infected body cells can self-identify for destruction by the immune system by: A) placing fragments of the infectious agent on their surfaces. B) reshaping their membranes into a pattern that B cells recognize. C) secreting hormones that stimulate macrophages. D) releasing histamine. E) becoming dendritic cells. Answer: A Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) CD4 and CD8 T cells are likely to become active when they: A) interact with B-cells. B) travel through the spleen. C) travel through lymph nodes. D) are attracted by the inflammatory response. E) dock with a dendritic cell with a matching antigen. Answer: E Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Why does producing a large "clone" of activated T cells also provide long-term immunity? A) More cells are produced than necessary. B) Some of the T cells can become B cells. C) Some of the T cells become memory cells. D) Leftover antibodies last a long time. E) The cloned cells are stronger than the original cells. Answer: C Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) What is the explanation for why B cells come in so many different types that can produce so many different antibodies? A) The genome of B cells is much larger than other body cells. B) B cells can recombine their genes with T cells. C) B cells can recombine their genes with the pathogen. D) B cells have gene fragments that can shuffle or recombine. E) B cells can regulate shape to match the antigen. Answer: D Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Cells in the body that have been infected by a virus or bacteria are specifically killed by: A) cytotoxic B cells. B) mast cells. C) dendritic cells. D) regulatory T cells. E) cytotoxic T cells. Answer: E Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Cells that help initiate the adaptive immune response by placing microbial antigens on their surfaces are generally referred to as: A) helper T cells.

B) antigen-presenting cells. C) B cells. D) mast cells. E) regulatory T cells. Answer: B Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Place the following in proper sequence regarding activation of the cell-mediated response: (1) dendritic cell migrates to lymph node, (2) T cells divide rapidly, (3) dendritic cell ingests pathogen, (4) CD4 and CD8 cells dock with dendritic cell, (5) dendritic cell presents antigen on its surface. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 C) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 D) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 E) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 Answer: E Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

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29) Which of the following best describes the role of regulatory T cells?

A) Regulatory T cells are a kind of helper T cell that stimulates B cells.

B) Regulatory T cells are a kind of helper T cell that stimulates cytotoxic T cells.

C) Regulatory T cells help limit the immune system response.

D) Regulatory T cells stabilize and support memory cells.

E) Regulatory T cells stimulate natural killer cells to attack tumors.

Answer: C Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) A plasma cell is a cell that has differentiated from a: A) B cell.

B) mast cell.

C) T cell.

D) dendritic cell.

Answer: A Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which of the following is not true of antibodies?

A) There are many different kinds of antibodies.

B) Antibodies are secreted by plasma cells.

C) Vaccines can stimulate production of antibodies.

D) T cells produce antibodies.

E) Antibodies bind to antigens.

Answer: D Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Once you have had a primary exposure to a specific antigen and encounter this antigen again, you will mount a rapid immune response due to: A) memory cells.

B) antigen-presenting cells.

C) antibodies.

D) cytotoxic T cells.

Answer: A Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

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33) Clumping of antibodies and antigens is referred to as: A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) antigen presentation. D) neutralization. Answer: B Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Attaching an antibody to an antigen so that the antigen cannot attach to anything else is referred to as: A) coagulation.

B) agglutination.

C) antigen presentation.

D) neutralization.

Answer: D Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) The virus HIV, which causes AIDS, infects: A) mast cells.

B) B cells.

C) T cells.

D) phagocytes.

Answer: C Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) AIDS has become a more manageable illness in developed countries in recent years due to: A) vaccines.

B) changes in the viral genome.

C) medications that keep HIV from copying itself.

D) general resistance in the human population.

E) declining disease rates in most areas of the world.

Answer: C Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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37) What does it mean when we say a vaccine is based on an "attenuated" virus?

A) The vaccine is a live virus that has been heat-killed.

B) The vaccine is a live virus that has been chemically damaged.

C) The vaccine is a similar species to the virus that isn't harmful (e.g., cowpox for smallpox).

D) The vaccine isn't the virus at all, just similar-shaped chemicals.

E) The vaccine is based on a virus that has been rendered harmless by lab-induced mutation.

Answer: E Topic: Section 29.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

A) AIDS B) type 1 diabetes C) allergies D) anaphylactic shock Answer: B Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 39) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that affects women in far greater numbers than men?

A) type 1 diabetes B) AIDS C) allergies D) lupus Answer: D Topic: Section 29.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) Which of the following would best be defined in part as an immune system overreaction?

A) autoimmune disease B) chronic disease C) allergies D) cell-mediated response E) cytotoxic T cell action Answer: C Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Application/Analysis

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41) What do many of the different kinds of allergies have in common?

A) They cause histamine release.

B) They result in high blood pressure.

C) They contribute to autoimmune disorders.

D) All allergens are living things.

Answer: A Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 42) Why may a transplanted organ be rejected by the immune system?

A) The organ contains different blood antigens.

B) The immune system produces a severe allergic response.

C) The organ contains different T cells.

D) The organ contains different B cells.

E) The organ has non-self surface recognition molecules.

Answer: E Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 43) Immune therapy research with potential to work in alleviating both organ rejection and autoimmune disease involves: A) antibodies.

B) regulatory T cells.

C) vaccines.

D) cytotoxic T cell action.

Answer: B Topic: Section 29.6 Skill: Application/Analysis 44) An antigen is any foreign substance that elicits an immune response.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) Macrophages and dendritic cells can both be antigen presenting cells.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Complement proteins are antibodies produced by skin cells.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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47) Dendritic cells are the histamine-producing cells of the immune system.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) Stomach acid is one of our natural defenses against bacteria in food.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Cytokines are molecules that cut holes in bacterial membranes.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) There are different Toll-Like Receptors for bacteria and viruses.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Phagocytes can ingest pathogens, cells, and cell parts in the body.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) The natural killer (NK) cell specializes in attacking bacteria.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) T cells are a type of lymphocyte.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) T cells develop in the thalamus.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) Helper T cells are also called CD4 cells due to the receptors found on their surfaces.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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56) Lymph "glands" (nodes) swelling is a sign that an infection is present.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Antibodies are produced by plasma cells and regulatory T cells.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) B cells are the main cells of the cell-mediated pathway.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) B cell receptors are specific to only one antigen.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) Antibodies may help phagocytes grab and ingest bacteria.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) Smallpox vaccines used today are heat-killed cowpox viruses.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) AIDS is an autoimmune disease.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Therapy involving Toll-Like Receptors may be useful in treating some autoimmune disorders and cancers.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 29.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Match the following.

A) limit the immune response B) facilitates adaptive response C) B cell that makes antibodies D) antigen-presenting cell E) directly kills cells 64) Helper T cell Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) Plasma cell Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) Regulatory T cell Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) Cytotoxic T cell Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) Dendritic cell Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) E 68) D 69) Inflammation is a type of ________ immune response.

Answer: innate Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 70) What is a phagocyte?

Answer: parts. A phagocyte is a cell capable of ingesting another cell or cell Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 71) The inflammatory response is caused by the chemical ________.

Answer: histamine Topic: Section 29.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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72) Antibodies are a part of our ________ immune response.

Answer: adaptive Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 73) Cowpox inoculation worked as a somewhat effective vaccine against smallpox because its viral particles were similar enough in ________ to smallpox viral particles.

Answer: structure Topic: Section 29.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Refer to the scenario below, and then answer the following question(s).

You are walking in the park and see a few people crowded around a young lady who is lying on the grass. You notice a few wasps circling around some food on a nearby picnic table, and you ask what happened. One fellow says, "She was stung a minute ago and passed out right after saying something like, 'a penguin.'" You look and find an EpiPen® in the bag clutched in her hand. Recalling your first aid training, you inject her in her thigh with the EpiPen®. She quickly revives and lives happily ever after.

74) What happened to the young lady?

Answer: She was going into anaphylactic shock from the sting of a wasp.

Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 75) Between the hint in the name and what you learned in this section, speculate as to what an EpiPen® contains.

Answer: The EpiPen® contains an injection of adrenaline, also known as epinephrine.

Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

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76) Explain the ways in which the two arms of the adaptive immune response are very effective yet different in their responses to pathogens. Be sure to compare and contrast their respective strengths and weaknesses.

Answer: The antibody-mediated response produced by B cells mainly uses "chemical warfare," in that the plasma cells that produce the antibodies do not directly kill pathogens themselves.

Instead, the antibody molecules they produce kill the pathogens by agglutinating them and making them easier targets for phagocytes. This response is very effective at killing large numbers of small organisms in blood and body fluids but would be less effective against larger targets. The cell-mediated response produces killer cytotoxic T cells that are able to directly attack and kill larger "prey," such as infected body cells. This way the cytotoxic T cells can go after pathogens that have infected cells and other places out of reach of antibodies. Of course, killing one large cell at a time is much slower than releasing many thousands of antibody molecules that go on to kill many thousands of pathogens, but each has a role to play in fighting infection.

Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 77) Compare and contrast the benefits of histamine and histamine-producing cells with their potential risks to the health of the human body.

Answer: Histamine is released as part of the normal inflammatory response and, in particular, helps the innate response when the body's natural barriers have been breached. The increased blood vessel permeability in an injured area helps bring in phagocytes that will help clean up cellular debris and kill pathogens that may have entered. However, histamine is also behind many allergic reactions, locally producing the annoying symptoms of allergies such as hay fever, excess mucus production, irritated eyes, etc. More seriously, when an allergen has entered the blood circulation and histamine is released into larger blood vessels, vasodilation, blood-pressure drop, and reduced airway opening of anaphylactic shock may occur.

Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 78) Even though they are different species, cowpox exposure can render immunity to smallpox.

Compare the connections between this fact and the causes of autoimmune disorders.

Answer: Recognition of something as foreign or "non-self" is all about structure and shape.

Cowpox can render immunity to smallpox based on similar shapes of their viral antigens. The cowpox virus evokes an immune response that produces antibodies and memory cells, and when similarly shaped smallpox viruses enter the body, a prompt, strong immune response follows.

Basically the same thing happens with autoimmune disorders. When a pathogen that has antigens shaped similarly to body tissues (e.g., has amino acid sequences similar to those found on body tissues) invades the body, it evokes an immune response that may also attack those similarly shaped tissues.

Topic: Section 29.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

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Refer to the figure below, and then answer the following question(s).

79) The figure above shows antibody-mediated immunity. The cells indicated by a "1" are: A) bacterial cells.

B) cytotoxic T cells.

C) helper T cells.

D) memory cells.

E) plasma cells.

Answer: D Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

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80) The figure above shows antibody-mediated immunity. The cells indicated by a "2" are: A) bacterial cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) helper T cells. D) memory cells. E) plasma cells. Answer: E Topic: Section 29.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

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Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 30 Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath 1) The human cardiovascular system is comparable in some ways to a car's: A) engine. B) electrical system. C) cooling system. D) transmission system. Answer: C Topic: Section 30.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 2) What is the relationship of bone marrow to the cardiovascular system? A) Bone marrow produces red blood cells. B) Bone marrow helps keep the blood moving through the body. C) Bone marrow produces chemicals that help carry carbon dioxide in the blood. D) Bone marrow breaks down old blood cells. Answer: A Topic: Section 30.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The formed elements account for about what percentage of the total volume of blood? A) 100 percent B) 45 percent C) 75 percent D) 10 percent Answer: B Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following may be found in blood plasma? A) water, proteins, nutrients, and ions B) water, proteins, and ions C) water and proteins D) water Answer: A Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) If a person is unable to clot blood properly, which of the following might be lacking?

A) platelets B) red blood cells C) white blood cells D) ions Answer: A Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Many people regularly donate plasma. Which of the following substances is not given when the plasma is donated?

A) electrolytes B) antibodies C) water D) red blood cells Answer: D Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 7) Which blood component is made of fragments of cells rather than a complete cell?

A) red blood cells B) platelets C) white blood cells D) plasma Answer: B Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Formed elements in the blood consist of all the parts below except: A) plasma proteins.

B) white blood cells.

C) platelets.

D) red blood cells.

Answer: A Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Erythrocyte is another term for: A) plasma protein.

B) white blood cell.

C) platelet.

D) red blood cell.

Answer: D Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2 .c.

10) If someone has an iron deficiency in the diet, which part of the blood would this mainly impact? A) plasma proteins B) red blood cells C) platelets D) white blood cells Answer: B Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Why do new red blood cells survive for only a few months?

A) The heart pumps red blood cells so often that their membranes deteriorate.

B) The oxygen that red blood cells carry damages their organelles.

C) Red blood cells do not have most organelles or a nucleus.

D) The hemoglobin that red blood cells carry is toxic.

Answer: C Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following best describes High-Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)?

A) HDLs are transport proteins that carry lipids from tissues to the liver.

B) HDLs are transport proteins that carry lipids from the liver to tissues.

C) HDLs are large versions of the cholesterol molecule.

D) HDLs are critical components to the oxygen-carrying ability of red blood cells.

Answer: A Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of the following is true of the relationship of red blood cells to the other formed elements?

A) Red blood cells make up about half of the formed elements.

B) Red blood cells make up over 99 percent of the formed elements.

C) Red blood cells are the only formed element not made in bone marrow.

D) Red blood cells are the most important formed element involved in blood clotting.

E) Red blood cells are the only formed element without a plasma membrane.

Answer: B Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3 .c.

14) Which of the following best describes fibrinogen?

A) Fibrinogen is the connective tissue in the wall of an artery.

B) Fibrinogen is the protein portion of the hemoglobin molecule.

C) Fibrinogen is a transport lipoprotein that carries cholesterol.

D) Fibrinogen is a lipid found in platelets.

E) Fibrinogen is a plasma protein involved in clotting.

Answer: E Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Which vessels are structurally suited for the central purpose of allowing substances to pass in and out of them through their entire lengths?

A) arterioles B) veins C) arteries D) capillaries E) semilunar valves Answer: D Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Veins always carry blood: A) toward the heart.

B) toward the capillaries.

C) away from the lungs.

D) away from the heart.

Answer: A Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) People with high blood pressure often take medication to lower blood pressure. Some of these medications might do this by: A) increasing the blood volume.

B) relaxing the smooth muscles in the arteries.

C) opening the valves in the veins.

D) increasing the number of platelets in the blood.

Answer: B Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

4 .c.

18) The outer layer of an artery or vein is composed of: A) epithelium. B) smooth muscle. C) connective tissue. D) cartilage. Answer: C Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) What happens when the diameter of an artery decreases?

A) Its semilunar valves open.

B) Its epithelial cells stretch.

C) The heart rate decreases.

D) The blood pressure decreases.

E) The blood pressure increases.

Answer: E Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Blood flow from the heart, to the lungs, and back to the heart is known as the: A) pericardial circulation.

B) pulmonary circulation.

C) coronary circulation.

D) systemic circulation.

Answer: B Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which structure contains deoxygenated blood?

A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) aorta D) pulmonary vein E) pulmonary artery Answer: E Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

5 .c.

22) A heart murmur would be associated with the malfunction of which structure?

A) aorta B) pacemaker C) heart muscle D) atrioventricular valves E) heart epithelial tissue Answer: D Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the lungs?

A) left ventricle B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) right atrium Answer: C Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which vein in the body carries oxygenated blood?

A) coronary vein B) superior vena cava C) inferior vena cava D) pulmonary vein E) Veins never carry oxygenated blood.

Answer: D Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Nerve-like muscle cells that function as the heart's pacemaker are found in the: A) left ventricle.

B) right ventricle.

C) coronary arteries.

D) atrioventricular valves.

E) sinoatrial node.

Answer: E Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

6 .c.

26) When a doctor uses a stethoscope to listen to your heart and hears the lub-dub sound, she is actually listening to the: A) valves in the heart closing. B) blood surging through the arteries. C) contraction of the cardiac muscle in the ventricles. D) electrical signals that control heartbeat. Answer: A Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) Which chamber of the heart is connected to the aorta? A) right ventricle B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) left atrium Answer: B Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Why is the left side of the heart stronger than the right side of the heart? A) The left side pumps blood to the right side of the body, which has more muscle mass. B) The left side receives more oxygen from the lungs. C) The right side pumps only to the lungs, and the left side pumps blood around the whole body. D) The right side pumps blood only to the brain, and the left side pumps blood around the whole body. Answer: C Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 29) The coronary arteries that bring blood to the heart branch off from the: A) aorta. B) vena cava. C) pulmonary artery.

D) pulmonary vein.

Answer: A Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7 .c.

30) Which factor contributes to plaque formation in coronary arteries? A) inflammation of the lining where LDLs have attached B) inflammation of the lining where HDLs have attached C) protein deposits in the interior D) fat cells clogging the interior Answer: A Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which of the following will raise HDL and lower LDL levels?

A) exercise B) replacing unsaturated fat in the diet with saturated fat C) drinking more milk D) stopping the use of anti-inflammatory medications Answer: A Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 32) In an area that has been "set up" for a heart attack by plaque formation, what is the most direct final trigger likely to be?

A) a sudden rise in HDL levels B) a sudden drop in LDL levels C) thinning of the blood D) blood clot formation in the swollen area E) eating a fatty meal Answer: D Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) What relationship between LDLs and HDLs is the healthiest?

A) high levels of both HDLs and LDLs B) high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs C) low levels of LDLs and high levels of HDLs D) low levels of both HDLs and LDLs Answer: C Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8 .c.

34) Which of the following usually drain blood from a capillary bed?

A) arteries B) venules C) veins D) arterioles Answer: B Topic: Section 30.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Some of the fluid that leaks out of the capillaries is pulled back nearer to the end of the capillary bed by: A) higher blood pressure in the capillaries.

B) suction from valves.

C) higher osmotic pressure in the capillaries.

D) low interstitial fluid pressure.

Answer: C Topic: Section 30.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) What force is most important in returning blood back to the heart in the veins?

A) contraction of the skeletal muscles in the body B) contraction of the ventricles on the heart C) gravity D) osmotic pressure of proteins in the blood Answer: A Topic: Section 30.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Which is the best description of the function of the respiratory system?

A) delivers carbon dioxide to the blood B) fills the lungs with air C) facilitates gas exchange between the environment and body cells D) delivers oxygen to the blood Answer: C Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) The tiny air sacs of the lungs are called: A) bronchi.

B) trachea.

C) alveoli.

D) bronchioles.

Answer: C Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9 .c.

39) The combination of large numbers and small size collectively gives alveoli what characteristic that is essential to their function?

A) low air resistance B) easy inflatability C) low surface area D) high surface area Answer: D Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Application/Analysis 40) The movement of air in and out of the lungs is called: A) cellular respiration.

B) ventilation.

C) external respiration.

D) internal respiration.

Answer: B Topic: Section 30.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) When the diaphragm contracts, the thoracic cavity ________, and you ________.

A) gets larger; exhale B) gets larger; inhale C) gets smaller; inhale D) gets smaller; exhale Answer: B Topic: Section 30.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) During gas exchange, oxygen and carbon dioxide always move: A) down their concentration gradients.

B) into the alveoli.

C) out of the blood.

D) into the blood.

Answer: A Topic: Section 30.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Most of the oxygen in human blood is: A) carried in the plasma membrane of red blood cells.

B) carried on albumin.

C) carried in hemoglobin.

D) dissolved in the plasma.

Answer: C Topic: Section 30.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10 .c.

44) The blood consists entirely of blood cells and water. Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) Water and plasma proteins make up about 99 percent of blood plasma.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Because they are cell fragments, not cells, platelets are a component of plasma, not a formed element.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Ions in plasma are also known as electrolytes.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) Arteries always carry blood that is oxygen rich.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Veins are smaller blood vessels than capillaries.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Blood in the pulmonary arteries is moving toward the heart.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) The stimuli for contraction of the heart come from within the heart rather than from the nervous system.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

11 .c.

52) The left ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Inflammation is a typical part of the initial process that can result in a heart attack.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Blockage of the aorta is the most common fatal heart attack.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) Some proteins are too large to leave the capillaries.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Valves in veins are important features that help keep blood moving back toward the heart.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Capillaries are essentially water-tight vessels, so nutrients and gases diffuse in and out, but water stays put.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) The trachea branches into left and right bronchioles.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) When the thoracic cavity gets smaller, the pressure inside the lungs increases.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) Contraction of the diaphragm causes exhalation to occur.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 30.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12 .c.

61) Pulmonary ventilation occurs because of pressure differences between the lungs and the external environment. Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 30.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Match the following.

A) pumps blood to the aorta B) receives blood from the pulmonary veins C) pumps blood to the pulmonary arteries D) receives blood from the superior vena cava 62) Right atrium Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Right ventricle Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Left atrium Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) Left ventricle Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 62) D 63) C 64) B 65) A

13 .c.

Match the following.

A) "windpipe" B) "upper throat" C) small air passageways D) tiny air sacs E) "voice box" 66) Alveoli Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) Pharynx Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) Bronchioles Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) Trachea Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 70) Larynx Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 66) D 67) B 68) C 69) A 70) E 71) The technical term for a white blood cell is ________.

Answer: leukocyte Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 72) A friend has been asked to be a bone marrow donor for her sister. She tells you that her sister has low red blood cell counts that drop more every day. Your friend doesn't understand why blood transfusion wouldn't work without having to do a bone marrow treatment. How would you explain the need for the bone marrow donation to your friend?

Answer: Like all red blood cells, transfused RBCs have a short (120 days) life span, but new bone marrow gives the sister cells she needs to make more blood cells on her own.

Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

14 .c.

73) What technique is used to separate blood into plasma and formed elements?

Answer: Spinning the blood in a centrifuge is the technique used.

Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 74) Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?

Answer: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) Why does exchange occur only in capillaries and not in arteries or veins?

Answer: Only capillaries consist of one layer of cells for ready diffusion of materials; arteries and veins have too many layers of cells for diffusion to occur.

Topic: Section 30.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 76) List the pathway a single red blood cell would follow from the superior vena cava to the lungs.

Answer: The blood cell would follow this pathway: superior vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs.

Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 77) Arteries branch into smaller and smaller arteries until they become small-diameter ________ that enter the capillary bed.

Answer: arterioles Topic: Section 30.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 78) An athletic friend of yours recently had a blood test, asked for a copy of the report, and looked up numbers for his "total cholesterol," or combined LDL/HDL numbers. An online source lists his total as slightly high. He says, "My doctor's a quack! He told me my cholesterol was fine!" You press your friend for more details and come to understand that his LDL levels are within the healthy range, but his HDL levels are higher than average. What do you say to your friend to help him understand his doctor's comments?

Answer: The doctor was right. Even if it makes "total cholesterol" seem higher than average, having higher HDL levels is good, because having high higher HDL levels helps to counteract the negative effects of LDLs. Topic: Section 30.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

15 .c.

79) Particularly with regard to gas exchange, why do we have respiratory and cardiovascular systems, but flatworms, which are only a few cells thick, don't?

Answer: Diffusion is a relatively slow process, and cells that are more than a few layers of cells removed from the environment would not receive enough oxygen. Carbon dioxide would not be removed efficiently either. The cells in flatworms are close enough to the environment to perform gas exchange directly with the environment. The overwhelming majority of our cells is too far away for this, and these cells need a delivery system to bring oxygen and remove carbon dioxide for them. The respiratory system is a way of bringing a huge surface area of air in contact with a huge surface area of blood flow in order to accomplish efficient gas exchange and transport.

Topic: Section 30.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 80) Prepare an argument for why the following statement is incorrect: The formed elements are the only important part of blood, and plasma is just the water they're carried in.

Answer: Although the formed elements perform some of the better-known functions of blood, plasma is much more than just water. It contains nutrients, carries wastes for disposal, and even helps RBCs with the job of gas transport by carrying much of the carbon dioxide back to the lungs. There are important proteins such as immunoglobulins for defense, albumin for maintaining osmotic balance, and clotting proteins. Plasma has carrier molecules such as the LDLs and HDLs that carry cholesterol, and the balance of cholesterol is important in maintaining healthy coronary arteries. Finally, there are electrolytes and hormones, which make use of the transportation system provided by the cardiovascular system.

Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 81) Discuss the effects of holding one's breath for more than a minute.

Answer: Normally, carbon dioxide diffuses from your cells and into the blood and is carried to the lungs, where it diffuses into the alveoli and is exhaled. This all occurs because carbon dioxide concentration in the blood is lower than that in the tissue fluids and cells and higher than that in the alveoli. When you hold your breath, the concentration of carbon dioxide in the alveoli increases and prevents diffusion of carbon dioxide from the blood into them. Thus, the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood begins to increase. Eventually, this increasing carbon dioxide concentration in blood prevents diffusion of carbon dioxide from the tissue fluids and cells into the blood.

Topic: Section 30.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

16 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the following question(s).

82) Which drawing, A, B, or C, depicts a formed element involved in the body's immune response?

Answer: B Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 83) Which drawing, A, B, or C, depicts a formed element involved in gas exchange?

Answer: A Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 84) Which drawing, A, B, or C, depicts a formed element important in clotting?

Answer: C Topic: Section 30.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

17 .c.

Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 31 Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, Nutrition, and Elimination 1) Which of the following is an accessory organ in the digestive system? A) the skin B) the lungs C) the pancreas D) the kidneys Answer: C Topic: Section 31.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Blood carries most nutrients straight from the small intestine to which organ? A) the heart B) the liver C) the kidneys D) the stomach E) the pancreas Answer: B Topic: Section 31.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Digestion of which organic molecule takes a somewhat more complicated route than most nutrients? A) carbohydrate B) fat C) protein D) nucleic acid Answer: B Topic: Section 31.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The outermost layer of the digestive tract is the: A) muscularis externa. B) submucosa. C) serosa. D) mucosa. Answer: C Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

1 .c.

5) Which layer of the digestive tract is actually in contact with the food?

A) muscularis externa B) submucosa C) serosa D) mucosa Answer: D Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Most of the blood vessels and nerves in the digestive tract are located in the layer of: A) muscularis externa.

B) submucosa.

C) serosa.

D) mucosa.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which type of muscle is involved in peristalsis in the intestine?

A) cardiac B) skeletal C) smooth D) voluntary Answer: C Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) In the digestive system, the villi are: A) muscles in the digestive system that push the food along.

B) finger-like projections of the mucosa.

C) glands that release digestive enzymes.

D) blood vessels that pick up nutrients from the digestive system.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) How do fats leave the digestive system and enter the bloodstream?

A) in the veins B) in the capillaries C) in the arteries D) in the lymphatic vessels Answer: D Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2 .c.

10) Chemical digestion begins in the: A) mouth.

B) stomach.

C) large intestine.

D) small intestine.

Answer: A Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) What problem might result from damage to the epiglottis?

A) A person would no longer be able to taste food.

B) Food would be able to enter the respiratory passageway.

C) Food would not be digested properly.

D) A person would no longer be able to swallow.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 12) The upper throat may be referred to as the: A) pharynx.

B) epiglottis.

C) larynx.

D) trachea.

Answer: A Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) How does food move from the pharynx to the stomach?

A) Gravity alone pushes food through the trachea.

B) Gravity alone pushes food through the esophagus.

C) Peristalsis and gravity push food through the trachea.

D) Peristalsis and gravity push food through the esophagus.

Answer: D Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which is the main organic molecule that is digested by the secretions of the stomach?

A) carbohydrate B) lipid C) nucleic acid D) protein Answer: D Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3 .c.

15) What is the function of the rugae, or folds in the stomach? A) The rugae push food down toward the intestine. B) The rugae allow the stomach to expand when food enters. C) The rugae neutralize excess acid. D) The rugae manufacture bile. Answer: B Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) The mixture of food and digestive juices that leaves the stomach is called: A) cud.

B) chyme.

C) pepsin.

D) trypsin.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following best describes the stomach's role in absorption?

A) The stomach absorbs most nutrients.

B) The stomach absorbs mostly large proteins.

C) The stomach absorbs some drugs and alcohol but few nutrients.

D) The stomach absorbs acids.

Answer: C Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which structure regulates the passage of food from the stomach into the small intestine?

A) the pharynx B) the epiglottis C) the stomach submucosa D) the pyloric sphincter Answer: D Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Why doesn't the hydrochloric acid produced by the stomach digest its own lining cells?

A) The stomach has a dense connective tissue lining.

B) Lining cells produce a protective mucus layer.

C) The cells make chemicals that quickly neutralize all the acid.

D) The acid is specific to proteins, not cells.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4 .c.

20) In addition to breaking down food, what other valuable function does stomach acid perform? A) Stomach acid kills bacteria and other pathogens in food. B) Stomach acid activates enzymes in the small intestine. C) Stomach acid recycles chlorine. D) Stomach acid converts waste molecules into bile. Answer: A Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Most digestion occurs in the: A) large intestine.

B) mouth.

C) stomach.

D) small intestine.

Answer: D Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Most of the absorption of digested food takes place in the: A) stomach.

B) esophagus.

C) large intestine.

D) small intestine.

Answer: D Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Roughly how long is the small intestine?

A) 6 feet B) 14 feet C) 20 feet D) 30 feet Answer: C Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) What is the first part of the small intestine that receives food from the stomach?

A) duodenum B) ileum C) jejunum D) cecum Answer: A Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5 .c.

25) How would blockage of the pancreatic duct affect the digestive system?

A) The food in the small intestine would be more basic (alkaline).

B) It would have little effect because liver enzymes would take over.

C) The small intestine would contain acidic, mostly undigested chyme.

D) The stomach would be unable to function.

Answer: C Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Gallstones are a problem when they: A) get stuck in the folds of the small intestine.

B) block the cystic duct or common bile duct.

C) break and release enzymes.

D) break and release cholesterol.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The main function of the gallbladder is to: A) make bile.

B) make gallstones.

C) store and concentrate digestive enzymes.

D) store and concentrate bile.

Answer: D Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which organ is central to the body's metabolism of nutrients?

A) the stomach B) the kidneys C) the liver D) the small intestine Answer: C Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) What is the main function of the colon?

A) to complete the digestion of lipids B) to absorb water and vitamin K C) to control nutrients it will send to the rest of the body D) to digest and absorb carbohydrates Answer: B Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

6 .c.

30) The appendix is attached to which portion of the large intestine?

A) the cecum B) the colon C) the rectum D) the ileocecal valve Answer: A Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which of the following is an example of a nutrient that helps to regulate bodily processes?

A) protein B) water C) lipid D) potassium Answer: D Topic: Section 31.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following is a trace mineral?

A) sodium B) sulfur C) phosphorus D) iodine Answer: D Topic: Section 31.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which category of nutrient would be best described as compounds needed in small amounts in the diet to facilitate chemical reactions in the body?

A) lipids B) trace minerals C) vitamins D) enzymes Answer: C Topic: Section 31.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Deficiency of which nutrient can cause muscle cramps, irregular heartbeat, or paralysis?

A) potassium B) sulfur C) iron D) copper Answer: A Topic: Section 31.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7 .c.

35) Calories are a measure of the: A) nutritional value of food.

B) amount of energy the food contains.

C) weight of the food.

D) amount of minerals and vitamins a food contains.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following has the most stored energy per gram?

A) minerals B) proteins C) carbohydrates D) lipids Answer: D Topic: Section 31.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) In what way are the essential amino acids different from nonessential amino acids?

A) Nonessential amino acids are not necessary for any proteins we make.

B) Nonessential amino acids are not absorbed by the digestive tract.

C) Essential amino acids cannot be made and must be obtained from food.

D) Essential amino acids are the ones exclusively used to make enzymes.

Answer: C Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) What is unusual about soy protein as opposed to other plant protein sources?

A) Soy protein has all essential amino acids in the proper proportions.

B) Soy protein has the same saturated fat levels as animal fat.

C) Soy protein has more energy per gram than lipids.

D) Soy protein has only one-tenth the energy per gram of other proteins.

Answer: A Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be digested?

A) disaccharides B) starches C) high fructose corn syrup D) fibers Answer: D Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8 .c.

40) The measure of how blood glucose levels are affected by a given amount of carbohydrate is: A) sugar input. B) glycemic load. C) monosaccharide ratio. D) insulin index. Answer: B Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) What is the difference between fats and oils?

A) Oils are mostly made of saturated fat.

B) Fats are mostly made of unsaturated fat.

C) Oils are liquids and fats are solid at room temperature.

D) Fats are always healthier as long as they are mostly saturated.

Answer: C Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Which of the following types of fat are the least healthy?

A) trans fat B) polyunsaturated fat C) saturated fat D) monounsaturated fat Answer: A Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Why are large amounts of red meat and butter not healthy choices in the diet?

A) They contain too much protein.

B) They contain a lot of saturated fat.

C) Most people cannot digest them.

D) They contain excessive amounts of fiber.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Why are saturated fats considered a less healthy nutrient?

A) Because saturated fats are from animal sources, they can produce allergic reactions.

B) Saturated fats cannot be used for energy as the other fats can.

C) Saturated fats raise HDL levels, which contributes to heart disease.

D) Saturated fats raise LDL levels, which contributes to heart disease.

Answer: D Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9 .c.

45) In a traditional food pyramid, which type of food would be closest to the base?

A) dairy products B) fish and poultry C) whole grain foods D) vegetables E) fruits Answer: C Topic: Section 31.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Place the following in order of the movement of urine through the urinary system: (1) urethra, (2) ureter, (3) kidney, (4) urinary bladder.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 3, 4, 1, 2 C) 1, 3, 2, 4 D) 2, 3, 4, 1 E) 3, 2, 4, 1 Answer: E Topic: Section 31.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) The knot of capillaries in a nephron, where filtration of blood occurs, is the: A) glomerulus.

B) bowman's capsule.

C) proximal tubule.

D) distal tubule.

E) collecting duct.

Answer: A Topic: Section 31.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) What affect does ADH secretion have on the kidneys?

A) Water stays trapped in the kidney tubules.

B) Urine output increases.

C) The filtration rate increases.

D) Water moves out of the kidney tubules.

E) Blood pressure to the kidneys decreases.

Answer: D Topic: Section 31.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10 .c.

49) Why does alcohol ingestion increase urine output?

A) The alcohol increases blood pressure.

B) The alcohol suppresses ADH production.

C) The alcohol stimulates ADH production.

D) The alcohol redirects blood flow away from the skin and to the kidneys.

E) The alcohol is converted to excess water by the liver.

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Voluntary control of urination is accomplished by: A) an external sphincter made of skeletal muscle.

B) an internal sphincter of smooth muscle.

C) the skeletal muscle of the bladder.

D) contraction of the ureters.

Answer: A Topic: Section 31.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Digestion is a process of mechanical and chemical breakdown of larger food molecules into smaller ones that can be absorbed.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 31.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) Most digested food is absorbed into the blood by the villi of the small intestine.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Sodium is a nutrient because it provides us with energy.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 31.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Minerals are always chemical elements, not compounds.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 31.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) A "nutritional" calorie is actually 1,000 of the energy unit calories.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 31.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

11 .c.

56) Soy protein and nearly all animal protein sources provide all the essential amino acids needed in the diet.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Fiber is defined as a complex carbohydrate that is digestible.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) About 99 percent of the fluid the kidney processes is recycled back into the body.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 31.9 Skill: Application/Analysis 59) The tube leading from the bladder that carries urine out of the body is the ureter.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 31.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) The urethra is different lengths in men and women.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 31.11 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12 .c.

Match the following.

A) water and vitamin K absorbed B) secretes enzymes and chemical buffers C) most digestion and absorption D) transport of food only 61) Stomach Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Large intestine Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Esophagus Topic: Section 31.3 E) turns food to chyme Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Pancreas Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) Small intestine Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 61) E 62) A 63) D 64) B 65) C

13 .c.

Match the following.

A) tube sensitive to ADH B) contraction forces urine out the body C) carries urine to the bladder D) carries urine from the bladder out of the body 66) Urethra Topic: Section 31.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) Ureter Topic: Section 31.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) Urinary bladder Topic: Section 31.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) Collecting duct Topic: Section 31.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 66) D 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) The layer of the digestive tract that contains smooth muscle is the ________.

Answer: muscularis externa Topic: Section 31.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 71) A classmate tells you that his mother had her gallbladder removed, and he says she wants to cut down on fat in her diet. He comments that he's not sure why because lipase is the enzyme that breaks down fats, and bile stored in the gallbladder isn't an enzyme. Although his

last statement connection?is factually true, how would you help your classmate understand this Answer: Bile greatly increases the efficiency of lipase by emulsifying fats, and fat digestion would therefore be compromised by a lack of bile.

Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 72) What are the two main chemicals secreted by the gastric pits in the stomach?

Answer: hydrochloric acid and pepsin Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14 .c.

73) Chemical elements that are needed to help form bodily structures and to facilitate chemical reactions in the body are ________.

Answer: minerals Topic: Section 31.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 74) Which nutrient has the highest caloric content?

Answer: fats Topic: Section 31.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) A friend tells you that she wants to try to be a strict vegetarian or vegan, but her parents are discouraging her from doing so. Her parents say she will not get enough protein or vitamins.

What advice can you offer your friend to help her convince her parents she will get enough protein and vitamins on a vegetarian or vegan diet?

Answer: Although it is true that animal nutrient sources provide more of the essential amino acids and perhaps more of the fat-soluble vitamins, soy protein and other supplements can effectively deal with those protein and vitamin issues.

Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Application/Analysis 76) Complex carbohydrates that are digestible are known as ________.

Answer: starches Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 77) The functional units of the kidneys are the ________.

Answer: nephrons Topic: Section 31.9 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 78) Which part of the brain is responsible for producing and controlling the release of the hormone ADH? Answer: hypothalamus Topic: Section 31.10 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

15 .c.

79) Formulate reasons in support of why the duodenum could be described both structurally and functionally as the "crossroads" of the digestive tract.

Answer: No other place in the digestive tract has so much input from other parts of the digestive system. The stomach dumps in liquefied chyme. Bile produced in the liver and stored/concentrated in the gallbladder flows through the common bile duct toward the duodenum. Buffers and digestive enzymes from the pancreas are also delivered to the duodenum.

Functionally speaking, many changes begin in the duodenum as well. Acidic chyme is neutralized. Fats, which have been largely untouched by the digestive process, will start to be digested when hit by pancreatic lipase and bile. A whole new crop of enzymes from the pancreas will begin working on the digestion of proteins and carbohydrates as well.

Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 80) Could someone add body fat by eating a diet low in fat but high in carbohydrates? Defend your answer.

Answer: Yes. It doesn't take lipids to make lipids. Both carbohydrates and proteins can be converted into lipids by the body's cells. The excess carbohydrate and protein that is not immediately needed for energy or other uses is converted to triglycerides and stored in fat cells.

Topic: Section 31.7 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 81) Propose an argument for why the urinary system is much more than just a waste filtration site and is also a major player in the game of homeostasis.

Answer: Although the nephrons of the kidneys do filter wastes from blood, many useful substances and a great deal of water also pass into them. Through reabsorption of these molecules, the kidneys can regulate which substances, and how much of them, should be retained. Regulated mostly by hormones, the kidneys will reabsorb as much or as little sodium and other ions as necessary to maintain homeostasis. Similarly, through the control of ADH from the hypothalamus/posterior pituitary, varying amounts of water can be reabsorbed according to the body's needs.

Topic: Section 31.10 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

16 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

82) Which organ, A, B, or C, produces digestive enzymes and chemical buffers?

Answer: C Topic: Section 31.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

17 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

83) Which structure, A, B, C, or D, transports urine using peristalsis?

Answer: B Topic: Section 31.11 Skill: Application/Analysis

18 .c.

Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 32 An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development 1) The process of fertilization produces a/an: A) embryo.

B) blastula.

C) morula.

D) gastrula.

E) zygote.

Answer: E Topic: section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The phase during which embryonic cells arrange themselves into three layers is called: A) cleavage.

B) gastrulation.

C) organogenesis.

D) fertilization.

E) induction.

Answer: B Topic: section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) A difference between a morula and a blastula is that the: A) morula is a solid ball of tightly packed cells, whereas the blastula has a cavity in the center.

B) blastula has fewer cells than the morula.

C) morula has a hollow center, but the blastula doesn't.

D) morula is a well-developed embryo, and the blastula is an earlier stage of development.

Answer: A Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 4) If an organism is missing the outer layer of skin upon birth, which of the following might be the cause?

A) improper development of the mesoderm B) improper development of the endoderm C) improper development of the ectoderm D) improper development of the endoderm and the mesoderm Answer: C Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

1 .c.

5) Which characteristic is typical of the vegetal pole of an embryo? A) The vegetal pole is composed of a single, large cell. B) The vegetal pole is always hollow. C) The vegetal pole contains relatively less yolk. D) The vegetal pole has a relatively greater proportion of yolk. E) The vegetal pole is the site of the development of the mouth. Answer: D Topic: section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following happens first in vertebrate development?

A) development of the neural plate B) development of the neural crest C) development of the neural tube D) development of the notochord Answer: D Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which is true regarding somites in an embryo?

A) Somites will become vertebrae.

B) Somites are found inside the notochord.

C) Somites will form the skull.

D) Somites will form the lungs.

Answer: A Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) In sea urchin development, the archenteron becomes the: A) ectoderm.

B) endoderm.

C) digestive tube.

D) lungs.

Answer: C Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Of the choices listed, the first event that occurs during embryonic development is: A) germ layer formation.

B) blastula formation.

C) organogenesis.

D) cleavage.

Answer: D Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2 .c.

10) Which of the following is a morula?

A) a fertilized egg B) the group of cells that form the archenteron C) a tightly packed ball of early embryonic cells D) a hollow sphere of cells Answer: C Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) During which stage of development do cells arrange themselves into three layers?

A) morula B) cleavage C) gastrulation D) organogenesis Answer: C Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following is true of the animal pole of a zygote?

A) The animal pole is closer to the nucleus than the vegetal pole.

B) The animal pole is hollow.

C) The animal pole becomes the entire embryo.

D) The animal pole produces larger cells than the vegetal pole.

Answer: A Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) The blastocoel is: A) a fertilized egg.

B) the group of cells that form the archenteron.

C) a fluid-filled cavity.

D) a hollow sphere of cells.

Answer: C Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3 .c.

14) Migration of which of the following to different parts of the embryo produces various tissues and organs? A) morula cells B) the animal pole C) the blastocoel D) neural crest cells E) notochord cells Answer: D Topic: Section 32,1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Place the following steps of organogenesis in the correct order: (1) neural crest cells break away, (2) neural folds grow into a neural tube, (3) the notochord induces development of the neural plate.

A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 2 C) 3, 1, 2 D) 2, 3, 1 E) 3, 2, 1 Answer: E Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 16) What is the effect of higher concentration of bicoid protein in part of a fruit fly embryo?

A) It will develop into the posterior end of the organism.

B) It will develop into the heart of the organism.

C) It will develop into the head end of the organism.

D) It lowers the chances of embryo survival.

Answer: C Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 17) A basic description of the function of morphogens is that they: A) stimulate the formation of the ectoderm.

B) affect the course of local development.

C) kill cells during development.

D) stop all embryonic growth.

Answer: B Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4 .c.

18) At which of the following levels does bicoid work in fruit flies?

A) regulation of development of the head end, middle, and posterior end B) regulation of development of organ systems C) regulation of development of organs only in the thorax region of the organism D) regulation of development of wings Answer: A Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 19) Which of the following is a process by which an initial set of genes turns on a second set of regulatory genes, which eventually turns on a third set of genes?

A) developmental chain reaction B) gastrulation C) the sonic hedgehog sequence D) the genetic cascade E) somite production Answer: D Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 20) Which cells are most important in initiating the production of bicoid protein?

A) limb bud cells B) posterior portion cells C) nurse cells D) neural tube cells Answer: C Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) ZPA cells of the chick embryo produce which morphogen?

A) sonic hedgehog B) sonic chicken C) bicoid D) chicken wing factor Answer: A Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5 .c.

22) How long is the DNA in the homeobox sequence?

A) 4 base pairs B) 68 base pairs C) 180 base pairs D) 362 base pairs Answer: C Topic: Section 32.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) What is the significance of the homeobox sequence studied in animal species?

A) Certain genetic instructions for development have changed very little over time.

B) Certain genetic instructions for development have changed a great deal over time.

C) Certain genetic instructions vary based on structural differences.

D) Certain genetic instructions vary based on phyla.

Answer: A Topic: Section 32.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 24) Predict what would happen if a fruit fly regulatory gene that codes for a leg replaced a frog gene in the same position.

A) The frog would produce a fruit fly leg.

B) The gene would kill the frog embryo.

C) The frog would produce a frog leg.

D) The frog would produce a leg that is part frog and part insect.

Answer: C Topic: Section 32.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 25) Two populations of cells may end up segregating themselves into different layers during development because they have different: A) DNA. B) sizes.

C) apoptosis programming.

D) phospholipid molecules.

E) cell adhesion molecules.

Answer: E Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

6 .c.

26) What action by the individual cells involved can assist processes involving cell movement such as gastrulation?

A) transcription factors B) microfilament growth C) invagination D) evagination E) phagocytosis Answer: B Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) Without programmed cell death, your ________ might look more like a ________.

A) hand; paddle B) head; hand C) leg; heart D) foot; hoof Answer: A Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Development occurs: A) throughout the life of the organism.

B) only in non-dividing cells.

C) only during growth of the organism.

D) only in animals.

Answer: A Topic: Section 32.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) The end of a zygote that contains less yolk is the animal pole.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) In general, the endoderm gives rise to tissues located deeper in the body than those from the ectoderm.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7 .c.

31) The blastocoel is the hollow cavity in the morula.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Cleavage includes the stage of development between the zygote and blastula.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) The blastula is the stage of embryonic development in which cells migrate.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Gastrulation begins at the sea urchin blastula's vegetal pole.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) The mesoderm refers to the middle layer produced during gastrulation.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) The blastula contains an internal structure called the archenteron.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) The mouth is the last thing produced by growth of the archenteron through the sea urchin gastrula.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) The archenteron is mostly made of the mesoderm.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) The notochord induces the formation of the neural plate in vertebrates.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8 .c.

40) Somites are repeating blocks of ectodermal tissue.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Cleavage and gastrulation take place in animals such as humans and birds but not in frogs.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Early vertebrate embryos share a general similarity in shape in the period following somite development.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Cells first arrange themselves into layers during organogenesis.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) During cleavage, the vegetal pole of a frog egg contains larger cells than the animal pole.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) The lenses of the eye are produced from the endoderm.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Bicoid mRNAs are produced by the zygote.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Even small concentrations of bicoid protein will cause the anterior portion of an organism to form there.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9 .c.

48) Bicoid is only one type of morphogen.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Factual 49) In chickens, the wings develop from a zone of polarizing activity (ZPA).

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Homeobox sequences vary widely from one species to another.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Versions of homeobox genes have been found in plants and fungi.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) Without cell adhesion, the primitive gut probably wouldn't develop during gastrulation.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Eye cells can become beak cells once they are committed.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Cell death during development will always have negative, possibly fatal, effects on normal development.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) Cells become more and more specialized as development progresses.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Different cell layers may have different cell adhesion molecules.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10 .c.

57) Menopause and puberty are both examples of developmental changes.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 32.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Match the following. Answers may be used more than once.

A) mesoderm B) ectoderm C) endoderm 58) Skeletal system Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Digestive tract lining Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) Outer layer of skin Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) Most muscle Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Liver and lungs Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) A 62) C

11 .c.

Match the following. Answers may be used more than once.

A) cleavage B) organogenesis C) gastrulation 63) Archenteron develops Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Neural tube forms Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) Morula develops Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) Neural crest cells migrate Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 63) C 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) The morula stage is part of which phase of embryonic development? Answer: cleavage Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) A zygote with animal and vegetal poles demonstrates what characteristic of some animal zygotes? Answer: polarity Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) What are the three germ layers produced during gastrulation? Answer: endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12 .c.

70) You are a substitute teacher in a high school biology lab class on the day the students are dissecting frogs. A particularly bright student happens to notice that the left adrenal gland is malformed in her frog. She asks if a problem in embryonic development could have caused that.

Although there may be more than one reason, what might you propose as an explanation based on embryonic development?

Answer: Neural crest cells that produce part of the gland may have died or failed to migrate properly.

Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 71) You are a substitute teacher in a high school biology lab class on the day the students are dissecting fetal pigs. One student finds that his pig's lungs, liver, pancreas, and digestive organs are either missing or small and malformed. The student scratches his head with his clean hand and says, "What went on here?" Although there may be more than one reason, what might you propose as an explanation based on embryonic development?

Answer: It is possible that many of the endoderm cells of the embryo died or did not develop properly.

Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 72) The earliest stage of development in which cells move to particular places in the developing embryo is ________.

Answer: gastrulation Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 73) During gastrulation in sea urchins, which forms first, the mouth or the anus?

Answer: the anus Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 74) The capacity of some embryonic cells to direct the development of other embryonic cells is called ________.

Answer: induction Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) A highly conserved sequence of 180 base pairs that controls development in many species is a/an ________.

Answer: homeobox Topic: Section 32.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13 .c.

76) Programmed cell death is also known as ________.

Answer: apoptosis Topic: Section 32.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 77) What are the three phases of early embryonic development in animals, and what key events occur during each phase?

Answer: The three phases of early embryonic development in animals are cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis. During cleavage, the zygote divides multiple times, producing a larger number of smaller cells. The result is a morula, a tightly packed ball of cells. Next, the morula develops a liquid-filled cavity (the blastocoel) and becomes a blastula. The second phase of early embryonic development is gastrulation, during which the three tissue layers–ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm–form. The gastrula also contains the archenteron, which will become the digestive tube. The third phase of early embryonic development is organogenesis. During organogenesis, the organs begin to form. In vertebrates, the first important event in organogenesis is the development of the neural tube, which represents the future brain and spinal cord.

Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 78) Evaluate and explain the importance of positional information and morphogens in induction.

Answer: The general instructions cells follow in gastrulation get them into general position, but in order to produce the specific structures and organs of an animal's body, the cells have to have a sense of where they are and which way they should be going. The "where" is "positional information." Because cells cannot see, such information must usually be communicated chemically. Morphogens are one general category of chemical messengers that impart positional information and influence development of neighboring cells. Now the cells have more specific information about what genes need to be turned on and how they should grow.

Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 79) If you could stop diffusion of substances in fruit fly zygotes, could you stop normal development? Why or why not?

Answer: Yes. Morphogens must diffuse from where the nurse cells deposit the morphogen mRNA. It is the diffusion gradient of high to low concentration that imparts positional information to cells. If all of the morphogens stayed at the anterior end, no "center" of the organism would exist–only anterior and posterior would exist. Normal organogenesis would not occur.

Topic: Section 32.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

14 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

80) Which label, A, B, or C, points to a structure formed from the archenteron during gastrulation?

Answer: B Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

15 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

81) Which structure, A, B, C, or D, induces formation of the neural tube?

Answer: C Topic: Section 32.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

16 .c.

Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 33 How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction 1) Which of the following is considered a gamete? A) embryo B) child C) oocyte D) zygote Answer: C Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) If a chemical were to destroy all oocytes: A) sperm would not form. B) sperm would form but have no chromosomes. C) eggs would not form. D) eggs would form but have no chromosomes. Answer: C Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Through what structure does an oocyte travel on its way to the uterus? A) uterine tube B) cervix C) vagina D) ovary Answer: A Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) On average, about how often does ovulation occur? A) every 6 months B) every 28 days C) every 14 days D) every day Answer: B Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

1 .c.

5) Sperm are made in the: A) testes.

B) epididymis.

C) ovary.

D) vas deferens.

Answer: A Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following is a structure in which sperm mature and are stored?

A) vas deferens B) testis C) accessory glands D) epididymis Answer: D Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Implantation occurs in the: A) ovary.

B) vagina.

C) uterine tube.

D) uterus.

Answer: D Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The specialized tissue of the uterus where implantation occurs is the: A) cervix.

B) vagina.

C) endometrium.

D) uterine tube.

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) The stages of follicle development are: A) tertiary follicle, secondary follicle, primary follicle, corpus luteum.

B) ovarian follicle, mature follicle, oocyte.

C) corpus luteum, tertiary follicle, secondary follicle, primary follicle.

D) primary follicle, secondary follicle, tertiary follicle, corpus luteum.

Answer: D Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2 .c.

10) Fraternal twins develop when: A) one egg is fertilized by two sperm.

B) two eggs are fertilized by one sperm.

C) multiple ovulations occur, and two eggs are fertilized.

D) one egg is fertilized by one sperm, but the resulting cells separate from one another and continue development.

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) What changes occur in the endometrium as the time of possible fertilization approaches?

A) Menstruation occurs.

B) The endometrium enters the proliferative phase.

C) The endometrium enters the secretory phase.

D) The endometrium secretes estrogen.

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which structure would be best described as helping to prepare the female tract for pregnancy and maintain it during the early phases of pregnancy?

A) vagina B) uterine tube C) oocyte D) corpus luteum Answer: D Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) From which structure does the corpus luteum develop?

A) oocyte B) tertiary follicle C) primary follicle D) secondary follicle Answer: B Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3 .c.

14) Why does a female have millions of ovarian follicles as a fetus but has perhaps just over a thousand in her early fifties?

A) Several hundred follicles ovulate per monthly cycle and deplete the follicle supply at a steady rate.

B) Several thousand follicles ovulate per monthly cycle and deplete the follicle supply at a steady rate.

C) Natural degeneration of follicles speeds up in later years.

D) Production of new follicles from stem cells slows in her fifties.

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 15) Which statement concerning gamete production is correct?

A) Sperm cells can be produced only at certain points in the reproductive cycle.

B) The number of sperm a man can produce is essentially unlimited, whereas the number of eggs a woman can potentially produce is limited.

C) A man is born with all of the sperm he will need for the rest of his life.

D) Progestins stimulate development of new follicles.

Answer: B Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Spermatids are produced by: A) spermatogonia.

B) primary spermatocytes.

C) secondary spermatocytes.

D) sertiary spermatocytes.

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Sperm development begins in the: A) prostate gland.

B) seminiferous tubules.

C) epididymis.

D) vas deferens.

Answer: B Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4 .c.

18) The vas deferens ducts empty sperm into the: A) seminal vesicles. B) epididymis.

C) uterus. D) urethra. Answer: D Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which of these is not a supporting gland in males?

A) prostate gland B) seminal vesicle C) epididymis D) bulbourethral gland Answer: C Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Development of sperm occurs from the: A) inside of the seminiferous tubule toward the outside.

B) outside of the epididymis toward the inside.

C) outside of the seminiferous tubule toward the inside.

D) middle of the penis toward the prostate gland.

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) The sequence of development of sperm is: A) primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, tertiary spermatocyte, spermatid, sperm.

B) primary spermatocyte, spermatogonia, sperm.

C) immature sperm, mature sperm, secondary sperm, spermatocyte.

D) spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, sperm.

Answer: D Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) When a spermatogonium divides, it produces one primary spermatocyte and: A) two secondary spermatocytes.

B) one spermatogonium.

C) one spermatid.

D) one nurse cell.

Answer: B Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5 .c.

23) Sperm development takes about: A) 1 month.

B) 28 days.

C) 6 months.

D) 2.5 months.

Answer: D Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) A fertility doctor is trying to determine why a couple is infertile. It has been determined that the woman is fertile, so the problem may be with the man. In analyzing his semen, the doctor notices adequate sperm production, but the sperm are largely inactive. He concludes that the semen may be lacking in proper nutrients for the sperm. Which structure would be the most likely candidate for the source of the problem?

A) urethra B) seminiferous tubules C) vas deferens D) seminal vesicles Answer: D Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 25) Why is it useful for accessory glands to produce alkaline substances to accompany sperm?

A) Alkaline substances neutralize the acidic environment of the vagina.

B) Alkaline substances produce a pH optimum for nutrient absorption.

C) Alkaline substances are mainly fats used for energy.

D) Alkaline substances function as enzymes needed for swimming.

Answer: A Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) A man has been experiencing reduced urine flow problems. After examination by his doctor, the diagnosis is an enlarged prostate gland. What is the connection between prostate enlargement and reduced urine flow?

A) The prostate is located where the ureters enter the bladder.

B) The prostate surrounds the urethra, the tube that transmits sperm and urine.

C) An enlarged prostate is a sign of cancer that affects the kidneys.

D) An enlarged prostate is a sign of cancer that affects the bladder.

Answer: B Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

6 .c.

27) The portion of a sperm that carries enzymes needed for fertilization is the: A) tail. B) nucleus. C) acrosome. D) mitochondrion. Answer: C Topic: Section 33.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which of the following statements concerning sperm and fertilization is correct?

A) The first sperm that approaches the egg is the one to fertilize the egg.

B) Many sperm release their enzymes before one can get through.

C) The first capacitated sperm fertilizes the egg.

D) Several sperm must contribute their DNA to the egg for fertilization to occur.

Answer: B Topic: Section 33.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) What prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing one egg?

A) release of granules that harden the membrane outside of the oocyte B) atresia C) phagocytosis by accessory cells once one sperm contacts the membrane D) egg immediately divides and becomes impervious to sperm Answer: A Topic: Section 33.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) An ectopic pregnancy is: A) implantation of the embryo in the uterus.

B) another name for fraternal twins.

C) another name for identical twins.

D) attachment of an embryo outside the uterus.

Answer: D Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Three weeks after conception, which of the following has happened in an embryo?

A) organ formation B) neural tube formation C) limb bud formation D) primitive eye formation Answer: B Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7 .c.

32) Immature versions of all the major organ systems have formed by about what point in pregnancy?

A) 16 days B) 3 weeks C) 12 weeks D) not until at least 30 weeks Answer: C Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which of the following best describes the period during which the developing offspring is considered a fetus?

A) from fertilization to three weeks B) from fertilization to eight weeks C) the first trimester only D) the third trimester only E) from nine weeks until birth Answer: E Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which of these becomes the baby?

A) outer cell mass B) trophoblast C) inner cell mass D) placenta Answer: C Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) When does the fetus achieve about 15 percent of its birth weight and start kicking?

A) at the end of embryonic phase B) at the start of organogenesis C) in the first trimester D) in the second trimester E) in the third trimester Answer: D Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

8 .c.

36) Why is production of lung surfactant important for a baby?

A) Without lung surfactant, the baby's lungs do not develop properly.

B) Lung surfactant may block the placenta from exchanging oxygen.

C) Lung surfactant keeps the lung sacs from collapsing.

D) Lung surfactant keeps the lungs from sticking to the diaphragm.

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) How many sperm participate in the formation of fraternal twins?

A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) In the human birth process, what does labor refer to?

A) the period between birth and expulsion of the placenta B) the period between the first contraction and dilation of the cervix C) the last part of the process when the fetus is expelled from the vagina D) regular contractions of uterine muscles Answer: D Topic: Section 33.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Which hormone stimulates the muscular contractions associated with birth of a child?

A) estrogen B) progesterone C) luteinizing hormone D) oxytocin Answer: D Topic: Section 33.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) What is the "afterbirth" associated with the birth process?

A) the amniotic fluid B) the blood lost from the uterus in the weeks after birth C) the placenta D) the process of cutting the umbilical cord Answer: C Topic: Section 33.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9 .c.

41) How much does the cervix ultimately dilate during labor? A) 10 centimeters B) 5 centimeters C) 3 centimeters D) 1 centimeter Answer: A Topic: Section 33.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Normally, anywhere from one to four sperm fertilize the egg.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Semen is the mixture of sperm and secretions from male reproductive glands. Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) As sperm are made, they travel through the vas deferens and are stored in the seminal vesicles until ejaculation. Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) Fallopian tube is another name for the uterine tube. Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Ejaculation initially deposits the sperm in the uterus. Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Ovulation refers to growth of the primary follicle. Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) An egg is not a gamete. Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10 .c.

49) In humans, females contribute more resources to reproduction and development than males.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Women produce oocytes from stem cells from puberty all throughout life.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) An egg implants in the uterus and awaits sperm for fertilization.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) An ovarian follicle is a developing oocyte and the follicular cells surrounding it.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Corpus luteum translates as "yellow body."

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Menstruation refers to the later life cessation of the monthly ovarian cycle.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) A woman begins puberty with about 400,000 follicles.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Sperm are fully mature when they reach the epididymis.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) There is an epididymis adjacent to each testis.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

11 .c.

58) Sperm development requires temperatures somewhat cooler than found in the rest of the body.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Sperm develop in the seminal vesicles.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) The male stem cells in sperm production are the spermatogonia.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) It generally takes the enzymes from dozens of sperm for one sperm to gain access to the oocyte membrane.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Sperm cells do not need a nucleus and expel it during development as a weight-saving tactic.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Human embryos do not go through a morula stage of development as do most other animals.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Human pregnancy lasts an average of about 38 weeks.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) The developing organism is referred to as a fetus during its first eight weeks.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12 .c.

66) The normal position of the fetus at the start of labor is "upside down."

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 33.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Match the following.

A) makes female hormones B) sperm storage C) sperm stem cell D) becomes the fetal portion of the placenta E) enzyme storage 67) Epididymis Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) Trophoblast Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) Spermatogonia Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 70) Corpus luteum Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 71) Acrosome Topic: Section 33.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 67) B 68) D 69) C 70) A 71) E 72) The release of an oocyte from an ovary is called ________.

Answer: ovulation Topic: Section 33.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 73) Implantation occurs in the ________ of the uterus.

Answer: endometrium Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13 .c.

74) Primary and secondary ________ develop into spermatids.

Answer: spermatocytes Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) What is the long tube through which mature sperm are transported to the urethra during ejaculation?

Answer: vas deferens Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 76) Enzymes are carried in the ________ of a sperm.

Answer: acrosome Topic: Section 33.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 77) Which is the only trimester to include both the embryo and fetal stages?

Answer: first trimester Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 78) Given the loss of childbearing ability and negative health effects associated with menopause, there is cause to question why it exists given that evolution usually selects against most negative health effects and reduced fertility. Appraise and compare the two possible explanations covered in this section.

Answer: One hypothesis is that human females are simply following the same pattern seen in some other mammalian species. That is, menopause comes at a point in the female life span when she will have time to raise one last offspring to the point of independence from maternal care. This helps to ensure that offspring will not be born so late in life that the mother will not be around to offer nourishment and protection. Menopause only seems to come earlier in the life span than it does in other mammalian species because of relatively recent improvements in the human life span. Another possibility, the "grandmother hypothesis," suggests that postmenopausal women may improve the reproductive success of their children with additional care for both her children and grandchildren.

Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

14 .c.

79) Propose reasons to explain why the female reproductive system evolved a menstrual cycle, but the male system does not adhere to any kind of true cycle.

Answer: The strategies of the male and female reproductive systems are vastly different. The male is set up to simply deliver millions of sperm to the female reproductive tract. The female produces oocytes but also has the job of providing shelter, nourishment, etc. for the potential developing offspring. The purpose of the menstrual cycle is to prepare the uterus for the developing embryo in case fertilization has occurred. The buildup of the lining and blood supply in the uterus prepares for this eventuality. If fertilization doesn't occur, this nutrient source isn't needed and is therefore discarded during menstruation (otherwise, it would cost a lot of the body's resources to maintain). As a sperm-delivery system, a man doesn't have to prepare for the development of the child at all and needs continuous sperm production rather than a cycle.

Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 80) Evaluate this statement: By the end of the first trimester, most growth in a fetus is in size, not complexity.

Answer: It is the embryo and early fetal stages when the overwhelming majority of specialization and development occurs. The pattern of organ systems is laid out, organogenesis is well underway, and immature versions of all the major organ systems form by 12 weeks. Up until the end of the first trimester, the majority of development consists of establishing the complex variety of organs and organ systems that make up a human. Although some further development of organs does occur, from the 13th week on, it is mainly growth in size rather than production of new organs that occurs.

Topic: Section 33.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

15 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

81) Which item, A, B, C, D, or E, represents the structure that maintains the female reproductive tract during the early part of pregnancy?

Answer: E Topic: Section 33.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

16 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

82) Which item, A, B, C, D, or E, is a secondary spermatocyte?

Answer: C Topic: Section 33.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

17 .c.

Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 34 An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology 1) Which of the following might cause an exponential increase in deer populations across the United States? A) reduction in parasites that are found in emaciated deer B) reduction in the population of wolves and bobcats C) increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels D) improvement in forest soil Answer: B Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of the following might an ecologist study? A) general nature of digestive enzymes of deer B) genetics of mosquitoes C) effects of increasing carbon dioxide on forest growth D) function of the immune system in human populations Answer: C Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Studying the egg production rates of a certain species of frog in a particular pond would be an example of studying ecology at which level? A) ecosystem B) population C) biosphere D) community Answer: B Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 4) Studying the changes in densities of pocket gophers when large herbivores such as elk are excluded from mountain forests would be an example of studying ecology at which level? A) community B) ecosystem C) biosphere D) population Answer: A Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

1 .c.

5) Studying the amount of carbon stored in the forest floor per hectare in a boreal forest in Canada after a fire would be an example of studying ecology at which level?

A) biosphere B) ecosystem C) community D) population Answer: B Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 6) Studying the variations in the number of carp in Lake Erie over a 20-year period would be an example of studying ecology at which level?

A) community B) population C) ecosystem D) biosphere Answer: B Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 7) Studying the total amount of oxygen generated and released into the atmosphere by living things would be an example of studying ecology at which level?

A) community B) population C) ecosystem D) biosphere Answer: D Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 8) A community ecologist might study: A) the behavior of a species in its natural environment.

B) all the members of a single species that live together in a single geographic area.

C) the rates of increase or decrease in the population size of individual species in different environments.

D) the interactions among species living in a single area.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2 .c.

9) Generally speaking, which of the following would be the best description of ecology?

A) study and preserve the environment B) study and conserve the environment C) study the environmental conditions that plants and animals depend on for survival D) study the interactions of living things with each other and their environments Answer: D Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Which of the following is true of exponential growth?

A) Exponential growth occurs when there are many environmental limits to reproduction.

B) Exponential growth resembles an S-shaped curve when plotted on a graph.

C) Exponential growth is growth that continues accelerating with time.

D) Exponential growth resembles a straight line when plotted on a graph.

Answer: C Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following is true of logistic growth?

A) Logistic growth occurs when predators are very limited in population size.

B) Logistic growth may start in a way that resembles exponential growth but slows and stabilizes.

C) Logistic growth describes the growth of a population in an environment with an unlimited carrying capacity.

D) Logistic growth is plotted as a J-shaped curve.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following is true of a population's intrinsic rate of increase?

A) It is the rate at which a population would grow if there were no external limits to growth.

B) It is the death rate minus the birth rate, or a measure of annual population change in a population near K. C) It is the rate at which populations grow in nature in the face of all environmental limits.

D) It occurs when the birth rate equals the death rate.

Answer: A Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3 .c.

13) The maximum population density of a given species that a defined geographical area can sustain over time is known as the: A) community capacity.

B) ecosystem capacity.

C) maximum yield.

D) carrying capacity.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Which of the following would be an example of environmental resistance?

A) food supply increasing along with a population B) bacteria populations producing more toxic waste as they grow C) slow gestation periods D) life span that increases with population size Answer: B Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 15) A population of rabbits introduced to an island grows rapidly for a few years, and then growth slows and stabilizes. The population becomes stable because: A) the intrinsic rate of increase has declined.

B) environmental resistance declined.

C) immigration was reduced.

D) the carrying capacity has been reached.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 16) K, in population growth equations, refers to: A) carrying capacity.

B) the predation factor.

C) environmental resistance.

D) biotic potential.

Answer: A Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4 .c.

17) A negative rate of increase, or a negative r, means that: A) the population is shrinking.

B) the population has a short generation time.

C) death rates have decreased.

D) there is zero population growth.

Answer: A Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) A population's intrinsic rate of increase can be calculated by: A) subtracting r from K. B) multiplying r by K. C) multiplying r by the initial population size, N. D) subtracting birth rate from death rate.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The average amount of time that passes between the birth of a woman and the birth of her child is called: A) reproductive time.

B) generation time.

C) birth rate.

D) population rate.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Which of the following would be a valid, general pattern seen in generation time?

A) Nearly all K-selected organisms have short generation times.

B) Species with the fastest growth rates have the longest generation times.

C) The larger the species is, the longer its generation time tends to be.

D) All vertebrates have long generation times.

Answer: C Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) If a population's death rate is 5 percent and birth rate is 10 percent, its r value would be: A) 15 percent.

B) 5 percent.

C) 50 percent.

D) essentially zero.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 5 .c.

22) Which of the following organisms represent a K-selected species?

A) whales B) houseflies C) grasshoppers D) salmon Answer: A Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Which of the following is a density dependent limiting factor?

A) weather B) rain C) frost D) food supply Answer: D Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of the following species would be classified as an opportunistic species?

A) humans B) houseflies C) chimpanzees D) kangaroos Answer: B Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Mosquitoes have a short life span and produce a very large number of eggs. This is typical of a/an: A) K-selected species.

B) equilibrium species.

C) r-selected species.

D) density dependent species.

Answer: C Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Which of the following would be a characteristic of a K-selected species?

A) Most K-selected species live until older age.

B) All K-selected species live very long life spans.

C) Individuals tend to die at all ages in the life span.

D) Most die at relatively young ages.

Answer: A Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6 .c.

27) Oak trees grow slowly and put a lot of resources into the trunk, bark, and roots. Seeds are relatively heavy. In the plant kingdom, oaks might be considered: A) density independent.

B) r-selected.

C) opportunistic.

D) K-selected.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Humans would be typical of which survivorship curve category?

A) early-loss species B) constant-loss species C) late-loss species D) late-gain species E) early-gain species Answer: C Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Most insects would be typical of which survivorship curve category?

A) early-loss species B) constant-loss species C) late-loss species D) late-gain species E) early-gain species Answer: A Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) "Life is a lottery and it makes sense simply to buy many tickets" is a strategy for organisms that exhibit: A) K-selected growth.

B) sigmoidal growth.

C) density dependent growth.

D) density independent growth.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7 .c.

31) A biologist is studying the population dynamics of pocket gophers in a meadow in central Oregon. She noted that, when population numbers are high, death rates from disease and starvation increase. This is an example of: A) r-selected growth.

B) the principle of intrinsic rate of growth.

C) exponential growth.

D) density dependent control.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 32) Which of the following items can be classified as a density independent factor in population growth?

A) food supply B) disease C) temperature D) drinking water supply Answer: C Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which of the following would be generally true of r-selected species?

A) Most live until older age.

B) All live very short life spans.

C) R-selected species are larger organisms that produce few offspring.

D) R-selected species are smaller organisms that produce many offspring.

Answer: D Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) You are doing field study work with a scientist studying spiders in the Amazon rainforest.

You come across a previously undiscovered species of spider and set up a video camera with a zoom lens to observe it closely without disturbing it. You see the female spider lay two eggs, kill an ant that tried to eat one of the eggs, and preserve the ant to feed the hatchlings the next day.

She lays two more eggs as soon as the two offspring grow larger and leave. When your mentor asks for a monthly update, what exciting news do you have for her about this species?

A) It exhibits unusual r-selected tendencies.

B) It exhibits unusual K-selected tendencies.

C) It exhibits unusual intelligent learning tendencies.

D) It exhibits unusual zero population growth tendencies.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

8 .c.

35) From the time of the industrial revolution until about 50 years ago, the human population growth rate most closely resembles: A) linear growth.

B) exponential growth.

C) variable, unpredictable growth.

D) fluctuating increases and decreases, with overall slow growth.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) A population with a fertility rate of 2.1 will: A) slowly shrink.

B) slowly grow.

C) double each generation.

D) decrease by half each generation.

E) exhibit zero population growth.

Answer: E Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) What would be a reasonable conclusion about a country with a fertility rate of about 1.6?

A) The population will grow at a yearly rate of 1.6 percent.

B) The population is likely to shrink.

C) Zero population growth will occur.

D) It must be a relatively young population.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) What would be logical to conclude about a country with a population pyramid having a disproportionately large number of individuals in the 15—44 year old range?

A) The country is a developed country.

B) The country will exhibit little population growth.

C) The country will exhibit large population growth.

D) The country will exhibit zero population growth.

Answer: C Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9 .c.

39) Which is true of predictions about the expected population of the United States in the year 2050?

A) The U.S. population will exceed 1.5 billion.

B) Immigration is not expected to have a large effect on the U.S. population.

C) The population is expected to grow about 43 percent.

D) Emigration is expected to have a large effect on the U.S. population.

Answer: C Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) Ecologists often say that one individual living in a developed country cannot be counted as ecologically equal to one individual from a developing country because: A) the fertility rates are the same.

B) the use of natural resources per person is different.

C) r is different.

D) K is different.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 41) A country's fertility rate suggests zero population growth, but it shows an increase of 20—30 percent over 50 years. What might account for this?

A) better food availability B) a larger proportion of post-reproductive females C) higher environmental resistance D) lower logistic growth E) immigration Answer: E Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) The job of an ecologist is to preserve the natural world.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) All the members of a single species of frog in a particular pond would be an example of a population.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10 .c.

44) A community of organisms and the physical environment with which they interact is an ecosystem.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) A population that grows by an unvarying number of new units added to the population per unit of time is undergoing exponential growth.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Arithmetic growth will produce a faster population increase over time than an exponential growth curve.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) The carrying capacity of an environment can cause a population initially growing very quickly to level off, resulting in an S-shaped curve.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 48) The intrinsic rate of increase of a population is usually referred to as "r."

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) The intrinsic rate of growth of a population is calculated by adding the death rate and the birth rate.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Most r-selected species are small and short lived.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Most K-selected species have short generation times.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

11 .c.

52) Elephants are good examples of r-selected species.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) K-selected species are also called equilibrium species.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Equilibrium species are usually limited by density dependent factors.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) Life tables are used to predict how many individuals will be born in any specific year.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Total human fertility rates have dropped globally in the past 50 years.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Except for the period during which the bubonic plague occurred, the human population demonstrated logistic growth from the Middle Ages until about 50 years ago.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) The total fertility rate is defined as the average number of children born to each woman in a population.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Per capita use of resources and CO2 emissions may be just as important as population size when considering stress to the global environment.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12 .c.

Match the following.

A) straight line graph of growth B) J-curve graph of growth C) carrying capacity D) birth rate minus death rate E) S-curve graph of growth 60) Exponential growth Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) Logistic growth Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Arithmetic growth Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Intrinsic rate of increase Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Maximum sustainable population density Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 60) B 61) E 62) A 63) D 64) C 65) Define the term biosphere.

Answer: The biosphere is the portion of the Earth that supports life.

Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) What is the relationship between a community and an ecosystem?

Answer: An ecosystem is the larger, more inclusive level that includes communities and the physical environment with which they interact.

Topic: Section 34.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13 .c.

67) A friend tells you that vintners use yeast that produce alcohol to turn grape juice into wine.

He also observes that wine must still have living yeast in it because vintners don't pasteurize wine to kill the yeast. To make wine himself, he explains, he added wine to grape juice with the expectation that the yeast would turn the juice into wine. It didn't work, and your friend wonders why not. In terms of population ecology, what can you explain to your friend about the death of his yeast?

Answer: Vintners do not have to kill the yeast in their wines because the yeast have already died. The death of yeast in wine is a classic case of exponential growth hitting hard against environmental resistance. The alcohol that yeasts produce as they ferment the sugars in grape juice are toxic at high levels and cause the population to collapse. Your friend's experiment did not work because the wine he added to his grape juice did not contain living yeast.

Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 68) Species that are introduced to new habitats, such as islands, often exhibit very high growth rates, but then growth rates level off. Explain this phenomenon, and describe the different patterns of growth.

Answer: Growth is exponential while the species exploits a new niche; growth levels off (or sometimes crashes) when resources become limiting.

Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) What would be the "r" value or intrinsic rate of growth of a population that had 50 births and 40 deaths per year out of 1000?

Answer: 0.01 or 1 percent (0.05 - 0.04 = 0.01) Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 70) Environmental pressures on a population, such as temperature and pH, are density ________ factors.

Answer: independent Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 71) An "S" shaped curve would be indicative of ________ growth.

Answer: logistic Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 72) Why are K-selected species also known as equilibrium species?

Answer: Their populations tend to be relatively stable and close to the carrying capacity (K).

Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

14 .c.

73) Species with individuals that die equally or linearly at all different ages throughout their life span are known as ________-loss species.

Answer: constant Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 74) Species with populations that are likely to rise and fall rapidly in reaction to variations in the environment are referred to as ________ species.

Answer: opportunist Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) What is the total fertility rate number associated with zero population growth, and why?

Answer: About 2.1, as that is 2 plus allowance for children born who do not produce children due to premature death or infertility.

Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 76) What factors may affect the carrying capacity for a species in an environment? Is the carrying capacity usually a fixed number, and why or why not?

Answer: All resources required by an organism, including nutrients, space or territory, climate, and so on, affect carrying capacity. Some elements in carrying capacity are fixed, such as the square footage for sunlight to fall on vegetation. Others, such as food availability, are not fixed and vary according to changes in weather, climate, and other factors. Additionally, the population itself can affect carrying capacity. Many r-selected species can grow somewhat beyond carrying capacity, deplete resources, and lower carrying capacity before the population crashes.

Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 77) Compare the trends seen in the characteristics of r-selected and K-selected species, also noting exceptions learned in your study of population ecology.

Answer: K-selected organisms tend to be larger organisms with longer life spans, which protect their evolutionary/genetic investment by offering more care of offspring. Conversely, r-selected species tend to be smaller with shorter life spans, offering little or no care for offspring. Kselected species tend to reach equilibrium with carrying capacity and population size remains fairly steady. The r-selected species are more likely to fluctuate in numbers. Sea turtles are a notable exception of a larger, long-lived species (like most K-selected species) that offers no care to offspring (like most r-selected species). Considering the majority of plant species that produce large numbers of seeds and can hardly be imagined "caring" for offspring(r-selected characteristics), there are some, such as cacti, that live very long and may produce smaller numbers of seeds (characteristics of K-selected species).

Topic: Section 34.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 15 .c.

78) Evaluate why intrinsic rate of increase alone is not necessarily an indication of how quickly a population will grow over a given period of time compared to that of another population or species.

Answer: There are several factors involved in how quickly a population will increase in size.

Differences in generation time have a big impact on how quickly a population can grow. A lower death rate compared to birth rate would have no advantage in the short term when a bacterium can go through many thousands of generations in less time than it takes a mammal to go through one. How a species deals with carrying capacity is another factor. K-selected species may be more stable, while an r-selected species may crash after overpopulation reduces resources and actually reduces carrying capacity. Age structure of a population is another factor. Regardless of its current rate of growth, a population with lots of younger individuals who are or soon will be entering reproductive age will have a faster rate of growth in the near future. Finally, immigration can change expected outcomes of population growth based on the intrinsic rate of growth. Even a population expected to decline may increase if immigration offsets the deficit.

Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

79) What does the graph of Daphnia population growth suggest about this species?

A) The slow start suggests long generation time and a K-selected species.

B) The J-curve suggests short generation time and an r-selected species.

C) The straight line suggests a changing carrying capacity.

D) The high numbers suggest arithmetic increase.

Answer: B Topic: Section 34.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

16 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

80) Which graph, A, B, or C, represents a population likely to exhibit the greatest population rate increase over the next few decades?

Answer: A Topic: Section 34.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

17 .c.

Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 35 An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology 1) In a typical ecosystem, a species whose removal would have a bigger impact than any other would be a/an: A) community species.

B) ecological dominants.

C) dominant species.

D) keystone species.

Answer: D Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) A small number of species that are abundant in a given community are called: A) community species.

B) ecological dominants.

C) dominant species.

D) keystone species.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Keystone species are: A) always at the top of the food chain.

B) always the most numerous.

C) never at the top of the food chain.

D) might be of any number, anywhere on the food chain.

Answer: D Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) An accidental spill of a pesticide locally wiped out the most abundant species of butterfly in coastal California. Most of the bird species in the area had fed on this butterfly, but they switched prey to moths, and thus the birds showed only a small decrease in population size. The butterflies were a/an: A) keystone species, and thus they were driven to extinction very easily.

B) endangered species.

C) ecological dominant, but they were not a keystone species.

D) pioneer species.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Application/Analysis

1 .c.

5) Biodiversity includes the: A) genetic diversity within only the keystone species.

B) distribution of species in only one population.

C) diversity of species in a given area.

D) number of individuals in a population.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) On a hike along the desert slope of the Sierra Nevada Mountains in California, you notice that there is an abundance of pinyon pine and juniper trees. We would identify these two plants as: A) competitors.

B) mutualistic species.

C) ecological dominants.

D) symbiotic species.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 7) The coral organisms on a coral reef cannot be replaced by any other organism. For that reason, we identify those species as: A) ecological dominants.

B) keystone species.

C) mutualistic species.

D) symbiotic species.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Choose the characteristic associated with a top predator who is also a keystone species.

A) the largest animal in the community B) the fastest animal in the community C) a species that can easily cause extinction of the community D) a species whose loss may alter diversity within the community Answer: D Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2 .c.

9) A botanist has found that the giant saguaro, Carnegiea gigantea, lives in the Sonoran Desert below the freeze line and in some very dry regions (such as Yuma) to the eastern edge of Arizona. She has described the ________ of saguaro.

A) resource spectrum B) vital resource C) resource band D) habitat Answer: D Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) The "address" where a species lives within a certain area is identified as its: A) ecosystem.

B) habitat.

C) community.

D) population.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The "occupation" of a species in an area is identified as its: A) habitat.

B) community.

C) niche.

D) population.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Barnacles live on exposed rocks washed over by waves at the shore. This is a description of the barnacles': A) community.

B) habitat.

C) niche.

D) ecosystem.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

3 .c.

13) Barnacles are filter-feeding molluscs that live by filtering plankton from seawater. This is a description of the barnacles': A) community.

B) habitat.

C) niche.

D) ecosystem.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) In interspecific competition, the competitors are generally competing for: A) mates.

B) coexistence.

C) social status.

D) resources.

Answer: D Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) A red-shouldered hawk chases a falcon away from a dead squirrel. This is an example of: A) interspecific competition.

B) coexistence.

C) mutualism.

D) commensalism.

Answer: A Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 16) You are doing biology field work studying two species of lizards on a small volcanic island.

Although quite hostile to each other when they accidentally meet, the two species usually remain in separate parts of the island. Species A seems to live and hunt insects only in the lower grassland part of the island. Species B seems to live and hunt only in the upper rocky areas.

Species A has a short tongue but has longer legs and is a faster runner. Species B is short, squat, runs slower, but has a long tongue. You observe Species A chasing down some pretty large, fastmoving insects, while Species B meanders from rock to rock, using its long tongue to get insects hiding between rocks and in cracks. What principle of ecology do your two lizard species demonstrate?

A) competitive exclusion B) resource partitioning C) coexistence D) convergent evolution Answer: B Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

4 .c.

17) When placed in the same habitat, Paramecium aurelia will replace Paramecium caudatum.

This is an example of: A) mutualism.

B) commensalism.

C) parasitism.

D) competitive exclusion.

Answer: D Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) If two species of woodpeckers eat two different kinds of beetle larvae on pine trees in a forest, we would identify that as: A) mutualism.

B) resource partitioning.

C) competitive exclusion.

D) commensalism.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 19) If we find an orange plant that lacks chlorophyll living on a green plant, it is likely that the orange plant is a: A) parasite.

B) commensal.

C) predator.

D) host.

Answer: A Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 20) The population of a carnivore has doubled this year. Predict what will likely happen to the population of its prey over the next 12 months.

A) It will also increase.

B) It is likely to decrease.

C) It will remain stable, like all predator—prey relationships.

D) It will be erratic but increase slightly.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

5 .c.

21) A harmless moth that resembles a poisonous wasp is an example of: A) mutualism.

B) commensalism.

C) Batesian mimicry.

D) Müllerian mimicry.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) For a parasite living in human skin, the person is the: A) prey.

B) victim.

C) mimic.

D) host.

Answer: D Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 23) When faced with a threat, gopher snakes and bull snakes, who have markings similar to rattlesnakes, will "rattle" their tails in brush to sound like a rattlesnake. In this case, the gopher and bull snakes are mimics, and the rattlesnake is the: A) predator.

B) prey.

C) model.

D) commensal.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 24) You are doing field work on a small, uninhabited island. You are supplementing your food supply with fish that live in some of the ponds on the island. You catch a brightly colored fish with red and black stripes, filet it, pan fry it, and spit out your first bite because it tastes like it had been soaked in urine. Back at camp, your guide from a nearby island is pan frying fish with red and black stripes he caught in an adjacent pond. When you tell him not to eat those, he smiles and says these are the best-tasting fish in the whole island chain! You look closer and see the pattern of the red and black stripes is just a little different from the fish you caught.What principle of ecology have you just experienced firsthand?

A) commensalism B) mutualism C) Müllerian mimicry D) Batesian mimicry Answer: D Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

6 .c.

25) The Venus flytrap, a carnivorous plant, might be considered a: A) parasite.

B) predator.

C) mutualistic plant.

D) pioneer.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Two moths with similar markings each produce a chemical that makes their bird predators sick to their stomach if eaten. Which principle of ecology does this demonstrate?

A) commensalism B) mutualism C) Müllerian mimicry D) Batesian mimicry Answer: C Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) An interaction in which one species benefits and the other is not affected is classified as: A) commensalism.

B) mutualism.

C) coevolution.

D) competition.

Answer: A Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Which of the following is an example of coevolution?

A) the reliance of flowers and bees on each other B) the visual acuity of eagles and hawks C) the development of a watertight seed D) the ability of plants to use sunlight to make their own fuel Answer: A Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

7 .c.

29) Many plant species produce flowers of a certain color and shape to attract honeybees.

These plants produce nectar, and the bees transport pollen from one plant to another while searching for nectar. This is an example of: A) succession. B) predation. C) commensalism.

D) mutualism.

Answer: D Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Many bromeliads are epiphytes on the bark of tropical trees. They do not tap into the vascular system of the trees, but they collect the nutrientrich water that drips through the canopy of the trees. This is an example of: A) predation.

B) succession. C) mutualism. D) commensalism. Answer: D Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 31) Generally speaking, the term for the process by which two species drive each other's evolution is: A) succession. B) coevolution. C) competition. D) mutualism. Answer: B Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) A landslide in the Oregon Cascades causes all the soil in a 30-meter by 300-meter section of a mountain to fall away, taking the trees and their roots and all other vegetation with it.

Within three years, however, lichens and some small herbaceous plants can be seen on the surface of the remaining rock. This is an example of: A) secondary succession. B) primary succession. C) a climax community. D) facilitation. Answer: B Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Application/Analysis

8 .c.

33) Many farms in New England were abandoned in the 1800s as settlers reached the more fertile grasslands of the Midwest. These farms had been planted in different crops, but within five to ten years the farms appeared to have similar herbaceous and small tree species on them.

This is an example of: A) convergent evolution.

B) primary succession.

C) coevolution.

D) secondary succession.

Answer: D Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which of the following happens when a new island arises from the ocean and life begins to colonize the island?

A) competitive exclusion B) coevolution C) primary succession D) secondary succession Answer: C Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) What do we call the first species that invade a new island that has risen from the ocean?

A) pioneer species B) climax communities C) commensals D) invaders Answer: A Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) After succession, a stable group of species that persists over long periods is referred to as a: A) coevolution group.

B) climax community.

C) population.

D) competitive population.

Answer: B Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

9 .c.

37) The process in succession in which the actions of early-arriving species enable the success of later-arriving species is: A) coevolution.

B) mutualism.

C) facilitation.

D) mimicry.

Answer: C Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Ecological dominants are typically the top predators in a community.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) A community is a more inclusive category than a population.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) Communities with the most biodiversity are found in areas with low geographic diversity.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Ecological dominants are always the most abundant members of a community.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Because their absence may have negative repercussions for population control and resource use for the whole community, lions on the African savanna are identified as a keystone species.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) To be a keystone species, an organism must be the most numerous species in an environment.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10 .c.

44) Genetic diversity may be one of the characteristics of a biologically diverse community.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Factual 45) Biodiversity is essential for all communities to survive.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) The term "niche" is usually limited to a description of the physical surroundings in which a species is normally found.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Competitive exclusion of native organisms is a frequent result of the introduction, by humans, of non-native organisms to an environment.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) Competition among species may lead to resource partitioning in an ecosystem.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Kudzu replacing native plants is a type of predation.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) A flea is considered to be a predator on a dog.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) The number of prey species is one of several factors determining the number of predators that can live in an area.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

11 .c.

52) Parasites usually kill their hosts.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Batesian mimicry involves several harmful species evolving the same kind of characteristics.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) A mutualistic relationship involves two species who both benefit from the relationship.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) In a commensal relationship, one species benefits while the other one is harmed.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Commensalism often results in competitive exclusion.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Organisms in communities may be important factors in the evolution/adaptation of other organisms in the community.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) Climax communities in succession are those that persist for long periods of time.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Pioneers are the first invaders of a newly exposed habitat.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

12 .c.

Match the following.

A) may result in resource partitioning B) living with or on a host for nourishment C) a species enables the success of another D) series of community replacements in a barren area E) killing/eating prey for nourishment 60) Interspecific competition Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) Parasitism Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Predation Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Facilitation Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Primary succession Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 60) A 61) B 62) E 63) C 64) D 65) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?

Answer: The greater the geographic diversity the more biodiversity.

Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) A species whose absence would bring about major changes in a community is called a ________.

Answer: keystone species Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13 .c.

67) Low genetic diversity, narrow geographic distribution of species, and few different species in an area would be correlated with low ________.

Answer: biodiversity Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) A horseshoe crab walking on the bottom of shallow coastal waters, feeding on algae, invertebrates, and other small life forms, describes the horseshoe crab's ________.

Answer: niche Topic: Section 35.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) G. F. Gause's experiments with interaction of Paramecium caudatum and P. aurelia resulted in his describing the principle of ________.

Answer: competitive exclusion Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 70) A chameleon avoiding predation by being colored similarly to its surroundings demonstrates which strategy?

Answer: camouflage Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 71) Two ways that one species obtains its nourishment at the expense of another are predation and ________.

Answer: parasitism Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 72) An interaction between species in which one benefits and the other is essentially unaffected is ________.

Answer: commensalism Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 73) When two species, such as bees and angiosperms, both benefit from their interdependent relationship, this is referred to as ________.

Answer: mutualism Topic: Section 35.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

14 .c.

74) Which form of biological succession occurs in an area where most life has been destroyed, but fertile soil remains?

Answer: secondary succession Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) Demonstrate why keystone species play a large role in community despite the fact that they may be present in relatively small numbers.

Answer: While the number of keystone species individuals may be low (e.g., sea stars, sea otters), particularly when they are top predators, their influence may be quite large with regard to population control and maintaining species diversity. The sea star, for example, is a top predator that prevents overpopulation and potential depletion of resources. Also, by keeping some of the more prolific competitors for other niches in check (e.g., mussels) sea stars allow less prolific competitors such as barnacles to survive. By preventing competitive exclusion of barnacles and other species, sea stars maintain species diversity in their communities.

Topic: Section 35.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 76) Throughout the story of the evolution of parasites, we frequently see a shift from parasites that seriously harmed their hosts, to those who evolve benign, nearly commensal relationships with their hosts. Evaluate why parasites are more likely to evolve "live and let live" relationships while predators do not.

Answer: Although both predators and parasites depend on their prey or hosts (respectively) as a food source, the key difference is that parasites often depend on their hosts as their habitat as well. A parasite that kills its host too quickly has literally eaten itself out of house and home.

Natural selection would favor parasite species that keep their hosts alive much longer so that the parasites could live long, reproductive lives in their hosts.

Topic: Section 35.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 77) Explain the differences between a primary succession and a secondary succession. Give an example of each type of succession.

Answer: In primary succession, there is little or no soil or life left, and whatever soil may be left is devoid of nutrients. It is succession from primary bedrock with extremely limited ability to support life. Examples include succession following glacial scouring, a landslide, or exposure of new rock by geologic or volcanic action. Typically, only pioneer species such as lichens can start succession in such areas. Secondary succession occurs after a severe disturbance, but significant soil, small organisms, and nutrients remain, making it far more hospitable to the reemergence of native life forms. Examples include old-field succession and succession after a fire or hurricane.

Secondary succession will begin with higher soil fertility and may therefore begin succession at a point further along than the pioneer species that initiate primary succession.

Topic: Section 35.6 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

15 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the following question(s).

78) The graph indicated by a "1" demonstrates which principle of community ecology?

A) biodiversity B) ecological dominants C) facilitation D) resource partitioning E) competitive exclusion Answer: E Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 79) The graph indicated by a "2" demonstrates which principle of community ecology?

A) biodiversity B) ecological dominants C) facilitation D) resource partitioning E) competitive exclusion Answer: E Topic: Section 35.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

16 .c.

Biology: A Guide to the Natural World, 5e (Krogh) Chapter 36 An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes 1) Which of the following is a biotic factor of an ecosystem?

A) soil minerals B) water C) oxygen D) bacteria Answer: D Topic: Section 36.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) What is the term for movement of water and nutrients between biotic and abiotic portions of an ecosystem?

A) bio-cycling B) biogeochemical cycling C) decomposer-detrital cycling D) energy cycling Answer: B Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) One of the proposed solutions to global warming is to grow a large number of trees. This could be effective because: A) trees would move carbon from CO2 in the atmosphere to organic molecules.

B) the gross primary production of trees moves CO2 into soil.

C) plant carbon is different from atmospheric carbon.

D) when decomposed, plant carbon is impossible to convert back to CO2.

E) plants are the base of all ecological food chains.

Answer: A Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 4) CO2 makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.

A) 0.035 B) 0.35 C) 3.5 D) 35 E) 37 Answer: A Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

1 .c.

5) Photosynthesizers take in carbon dioxide, whereas decomposers ________ carbon dioxide. A) yield up B) take in C) destroy D) fix Answer: A Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Nitrogen gas in the atmosphere is converted to forms of nitrogen usable by vegetation via: A) assimilation.

B) denitrification.

C) fixation.

D) nitrification.

E) decomposition.

Answer: C Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Why have legumes been planted as a cover crop to improve the soil fertility of a field?

A) Legumes aid organic decomposition.

B) The leaves of legumes absorb more nitrogen than other plants.

C) Legumes need about 100 times less nitrogen than other plants.

D) Legumes have carbon-fixing bacteria in their root nodules.

E) Legumes have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their root nodules.

Answer: E Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) What major agricultural innovation in the early twentieth century allowed for production of far more food on arable land?

A) the discovery of crop rotation B) use of fish as fertilizer C) concentration of carbon fertilizer D) industrial nitrogen fixation E) genetically modified crops Answer: D Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2 .c.

9) Why are nitrogen and the nitrogen cycle important to living things? A) Nitrogen is an essential part of all organic molecules. B) Nitrogen is an essential part of proteins, RNA, and DNA. C) Nitrogen is an important biotic component of ecosystems. D) The release of nitrogen from fossil fuels counteracts global warming. E) The release of nitrogen during cellular respiration contributes to global warming. Answer: B Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) About how much of the atmosphere is composed of nitrogen?

A) 1 percent B) 23 percent C) 52 percent D) 78 percent Answer: D Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) What is the "downside" to extensive use of synthesized nitrogen-containing fertilizers?

A) The use of the fertilizers results in fertilizer resistance in crops.

B) The use of the fertilizers results in loss of a large percentage of crops to fertilizer burn every year C) Nitrogen-rich runoff contributes to algal blooms and dead zones in bodies of water.

D) The expense of the process makes food less affordable.

E) Synthesized nitrogen interferes with transport in some plants.

Answer: C Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following was historically considered to be the biggest limiting factor in worldwide food production up until the last century?

A) nitrogen B) carbon C) seed availability D) land Answer: A Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3 .c.

13) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Glaciers make up about 20 percent of Earth's freshwater pool.

B) An aquifer is a pool of freshwater perched over the base groundwater that is accessible by humans.

C) Transpiration moves saltwater to the atmosphere and then to freshwater pools on Earth's surface.

D) About 2.5 percent of Earth's water is fresh at any given time.

E) The process of respiration is critical for maintaining the freshwater pools on Earth's surface.

Answer: D Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) The two main processes that return water to the atmosphere are evaporation and: A) leaching.

B) transpiration.

C) runoff.

D) aquifer containment.

Answer: B Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Groundwater that is trapped between two layers of impermeable rock is called a/an: A) confined well.

B) confined aquifer.

C) unconfined aquifer.

D) unconfined well.

Answer: B Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) An astounding 20 percent of the world's freshwater runoff comes from what single source?

A) icebergs B) aquifer discharge C) the Great Lakes D) the Mediterranean Sea E) the Amazon River Answer: E Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

4 .c.

17) Which of the following water uses is estimated to be the highest in human society? A) households B) agriculture C) sewage systems D) industry Answer: B Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) What is the main consideration in determining a trophic level? A) energy loss level B) efficiency level C) feeding level D) community level E) production level Answer: C Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Herbivores would usually be placed in which trophic level? A) first B) second C) third D) fourth E) either the third or fourth Answer: B Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Which of the following trophic levels could include carnivores? A) first B) second C) third D) fourth E) either the third or fourth Answer: E Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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21) What role is a wolf playing when it eats a rabbit that eats grass on a prairie in Wisconsin? A) producer B) primary consumer C) secondary consumer D) tertiary consumer E) detritivore Answer: C Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Decomposer fungi are examples of a: A) producer. B) primary consumer. C) secondary consumer. D) tertiary consumer. E) detritivore. Answer: E Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 23) A dung beetle is an example of a: A) producer. B) primary consumer. C) secondary consumer. D) tertiary consumer. E) detritivore. Answer: E Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 24) As a general rule, for each jump up in trophic level, about how much does the available energy drop? A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 90 percent E) practically 100 percent Answer: D Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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25) Phytoplankton are: A) producers.

B) primary consumers.

C) secondary consumers.

D) tertiary consumers.

E) detritivores.

Answer: A Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Net primary production is: A) the amount of material a plant accumulates as a result of photosynthesis.

B) the net energy received by plants after subtracting what is turned into plant material.

C) the total energy received by plants from sunlight.

D) the total energy received by plants from sunlight in usable wavelengths.

E) only the energy received by plants that is converted into protein.

Answer: A Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following would produce an ecosystem with a small number of trophic levels?

A) an ecosystem with short growing seasons B) coldwater ocean ecosystems C) an ecosystem in which insects are absent D) an ecosystem small in size and biomass Answer: D Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) The Venus flytrap is a photosynthetic plant that can trap and eat small insects. The Venus flytrap is a: A) secondary consumer.

B) producer.

C) tertiary consumer.

D) both a producer and secondary consumer.

E) both a producer and tertiary consumer.

Answer: D Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Application/Analysis

7 .c.

29) Humans function primarily at which trophic levels?

A) producers; primary consumers B) all trophic levels C) secondary consumers; tertiary consumers D) primary consumers; secondary consumers Answer: D Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) The lowest layer of the atmosphere, from sea level to about 7.4 miles, is the: A) troposphere.

B) stratosphere.

C) ozone layer.

D) ionosphere.

Answer: A Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) About 99 percent of the UV radiation that the sun showers on Earth is blocked by: A) stratospheric ozone.

B) stratospheric greenhouse gases, such as CO2 and water.

C) the magnetic fields that surround the Earth.

D) tropospheric greenhouse gases, such as CO2 and water.

E) ground level ozone.

Answer: A Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) The "ozone hole" is caused by the: A) buildup of toxic ozone in the troposphere over cities such as Los Angeles from human-caused pollution.

B) depletion of ozone in the troposphere by chemicals such as CFCs. C) depletion of ozone in the stratosphere by chemicals such as CFCs. D) increase in warming due to high levels of ozone in the troposphere.

E) depletion of ozone in the troposphere due to greenhouse gases.

Answer: C Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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33) CO2 is a greenhouse gas because it: A) increases the heat capacity of the stratosphere.

B) increases the reflection of short-wave energy from the sun.

C) traps long-wave heat energy near Earth's lower atmosphere.

D) traps short-wave energy near Earth's lower atmosphere.

E) causes the destruction of ozone in the near-surface atmosphere.

Answer: C Topic: Section 36.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Which major problem for land-based ecosystems would result from global warming?

A) A rise in sea levels would drive in competitors.

B) A danger would result for species that cannot migrate in response to habitat change.

C) The excess CO2 could be lethal.

D) Increased fire danger would result in northern United States and Canada.

Answer: B Topic: Section 36.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Ecosystems in the United States experience seasonality because: A) Earth is tilted with respect to the orbit around the sun.

B) the rotation of Earth causes a rhythmic circulation of Earth's atmosphere.

C) Earth rotates on it's axis relative to the sun.

D) there is a predictable seasonal solar activity cycle.

E) Earth is closer to the sun in summer and farther away in winter.

Answer: A Topic: Section 36.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) The "rain shadow" effect occurs because: A) cloud shadows move from east to west, dropping moisture on the east of mountain ranges in the northern hemisphere.

B) cool air masses warm as they move closer to the sun, dropping moisture on the west side of mountains.

C) air cools as it rises and drops most of its moisture on one side of the mountain, and then mostly dry air moves to the other side of the mountain.

D) clouds don't drop moisture over mountain chains.

E) precipitation patterns follow the tilt of Earth's axis.

Answer: C Topic: Section 36.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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37) At about 30 degrees north and south of the equator there are dry regions on Earth. Why? A) Warm air rises and evaporates, leaving dry, cool air with no clouds.

B) Cool air falls, is warmed, and absorbs moisture.

C) Warm air falls and absorbs moisture as it cools near the surface.

D) Cool air rises, and water condenses.

E) Air flows laterally across the land from the temperate zone.

Answer: B Topic: Section 36.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) Earth is generally hotter at the equator because: A) the sun shines over the equator evenly through the year, rather than seasonally.

B) Earth's rotation on a tilted axis increases seasonality.

C) the natural oval shape of Earth places the equator nearer the sun than the poles.

D) the Earth receives the most direct sunlight over the course of the year at the equator.

E) Earth's rotation on a tilted axis creates an atmospheric drag at the equator, warming the air.

Answer: D Topic: Section 36.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Which of the following best describes a biome?

A) large terrestrial regions with similar climate and similar types of plant life B) small terrestrial regions with similar climate and the similar communities of organisms C) three different classes of ecosystems based on high, medium, or low rainfall D) three different classes of ecosystems based high, medium, or low temperature Answer: A Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) Tundra is characterized by: A) low rainfall, deep water penetration, and trees with a vibrant understory of moss.

B) high rainfall, slowly growing trees, and low temperatures.

C) low rainfall, coniferous trees, and permafrost.

D) low rainfall, dry soils, and permafrost.

E) low rainfall, seasonally wet soils, and permafrost.

Answer: E Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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41) Taiga is characterized by: A) pines as an early successional stage before deciduous trees, rich understory, and cold climate.

B) few ecological dominants, short growing seasons, and sparse deciduous trees.

C) poor drainage over permafrost, few to no trees, and short growing season; shrubs and sedges dominate.

D) permafrost, short growing seasons, and sparse coniferous trees.

E) coniferous forest, low tree diversity, and no permafrost.

Answer: E Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Nutrient-poor and often acidic soils with low amounts of organic matter are often found in a ________ ecosystem.

A) desert B) temperate grassland C) tropical rain forest D) deciduous forest E) chaparral Answer: C Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The temperate deciduous forest is composed of a high diversity of deciduous trees that lose their leaves in the fall because of low soil fertility.

B) Agriculture is often not very successful in a tropical forest because of the poor soils.

C) The high species diversity of a tropical rain forest is supported by a high diversity of soil organisms, high soil fertility, and high rainfall.

D) Agriculture is often not very successful in grasslands because of the poor soils.

Answer: B Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Is there photosynthetic activity in the benthic zone of the ocean?

A) No, because nutrient availability is too low.

B) No, because this is below the photic zone.

C) Yes, because this is the zone of high light penetration and photosynthetic activity.

D) Yes, because this is the richest zone for nutrient turnover due to microbial activity.

E) Yes, because high light and high nutrient conditions are optimal for phytoplankton production.

Answer: B Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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45) A marine biologist designs a study to measure net primary productivity in the world's oceans.

She travels to the coastal zone of each continent, takes measurements from north, south, east, and west points along the continent, and combines her data into a global average. Will these measurements be accurate?

A) No, because ocean productivity is greatest past the intertidal zone.

B) Yes, but only if she is sure to sample different climatic zones carefully, because production in different climatic zones may vary by an order of magnitude.

C) No, because the continental edges have much higher productivities than the open ocean.

D) No, because ocean life is greatest near the poles and decreases toward the equator.

E) Yes, because although production in different climate zones differs, the open ocean is well mixed because of strong ocean circulation patterns.

Answer: C Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Application/Analysis 46) The coastal zone is best described as the: A) area between high and low tide.

B) main profundal zone of the ocean.

C) zone where freshwater and saltwater mix.

D) area between high tide and the edge of the continental shelf.

E) area between low tide and the start of the benthic zone.

Answer: D Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Coral reefs are highly productive and diverse ecosystems because : A) they are made of limestone that supports many species of zooplankton with high productivity.

B) corals produce limestone skeletons that create habitats for many ocean species.

C) they are composed of polyps that live in and are adapted to warm, shallow tropical waters with high nutrient availability.

D) they have high turnover rates with high polyp production.

Answer: B Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) In lakes, rooted plants may grow in the ________ zone but no photosynthesizing life is found in the ________ zone.

A) littoral; profundal B) profundal; pelagic C) littoral; pelagic D) benthic; profundal E) littoral; benthic Answer: A Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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49) Oligotrophic lakes have: A) low oxygen concentrations in the summer.

B) clear water with high production.

C) clear water with low nutrient levels.

D) high nutrient levels and high production by phytoplankton.

E) the largest numbers and diversity of organisms.

Answer: C Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Which aquatic ecosystem is characterized by ocean tides and river flow stirring up nutrients and producing abundant life?

A) the pelagic zone B) the intertidal zone C) estuaries D) coral reefs E) wetlands Answer: C Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) The biotic factors in an ecosystem include all organic materials, living and nonliving.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) Photosynthesis is the main process by which carbon dioxide moves from the atmosphere to biomass.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Respiration is the only major process through which carbon moves from organic molecules back to the atmosphere.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Atmospheric N2 is useless to plants.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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55) Too much nutrient runoff, particularly from nitrogen fertilizers, can cause dead zones in bodies of water.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Lakes and rivers account for slightly more available freshwater than groundwater does.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Human industry is responsible for more nitrogen fixation worldwide than soil bacteria.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) An animal that exclusively eats grasses would be both a primary consumer and an herbivore.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) An animal that eats a primary consumer is categorized as being in the second trophic level.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) There would be roughly the same biomass of secondary consumers as tertiary consumers in an ecosystem.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) Most of the gases in the atmosphere are found in the troposphere.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Recent evidence has shown chlorofluorocarbons have no effect on ozone.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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63) Scientists predict climate change related to CO2 will increase temperatures over the next century but will have no effect on sea level or precipitation patterns.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Warm air can hold more moisture than cold air.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) Areas near the equator tend to be wetter because of the combination of ocean evaporation and rising air.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) Both the taiga and tundra are known for having permafrost soils.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) The North American prairie and the Russian "steppes" are both temperate grasslands.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) Hot weather is common to all deserts.

Answer: FALSE Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) Tropical rainforests are known for having high biodiversity but relatively poor soil.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 70) Overall, the abundance of life is higher in the coastal zones of marine ecosystems than the open ocean.

Answer: TRUE Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

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Match the following.

A) abundant trees; many woody and herbaceous plants B) prairie; somewhat lower rainfall than forests C) evergreen shrubs; rainy winters/dry summers D) conifers; low species diversity E) "treeless plain"; permafrost 71) Tundra Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 72) Taiga Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 73) Temperate grassland Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 74) Chaparral Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) Temperate deciduous forest Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 71) E 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) An aquifer that may contribute some surface water is a/an ________ aquifer.

Answer: unconfined Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 77) A carnivore, such as a lion, that mainly eats herbivores, such as zebras and wildebeests, would be placed at which trophic level?

Answer: As a secondary consumer, the lion would be in the third trophic level.

Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 78) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?

Answer: stratosphere Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16 .c.

79) You are hiking with a friend and reach the peak of a mountain after a long climb. On your climb upward, you had a clear trail with a little grass and small shrubs along the way. But looking down the other side, you see lush vegetation and many broadleaf trees farther down the slope. Your friend wonders why there is such a big difference. What explanation can you offer your friend?

Answer: You're seeing a rain shadow effect. Air drops its moisture on the way up the other side of the mountain, and the air may even take away moisture on the way down the side you just climbed.

Topic: Section 36.6 Skill: Application/Analysis 80) The tropical savannahs of Africa are a type of tropical ________.

Answer: grassland Topic: Section 36.7 Skill: Application/Analysis 81) You have been working with a marine biologist on a trip from Baltimore through the Chesapeake Bay, to the open ocean, and back to test salinity levels and the kinds of plankton that live in each sampled area. The marine biologist is very nearsighted and she cannot see more than a few feet without the eyeglasses she lost two days ago when out on the open ocean. She arises one morning late in the trip, with no idea where the ship is. But after an hour of hearing you report salinity readings that vary by as much as 1 percent, she says, "So, we're in the Chesapeake Bay?" How did she (correctly) make that conclusion based on the information provided?

Answer: Estuaries such as the Chesapeake Bay are the only marine environments where salinity varies so much.

Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Application/Analysis 82) From studying ecosystems and biomes, it may seem as if there is complete "bottom up" control, that the producers determine the life and success of the ecosystem. Yet closer examination shows "top down" control by the third trophic level is essential as well. Evaluate why this is so, citing at least one good example.

Answer: Producers certainly serve as the foundation of an ecosystem, providing the net primary production that supports the rest of the ecosystem. However, the upper trophic levels provide population controls on the other consumers, which provides the necessary balance and prevents depletion of resources. The intentional flooding of an area in Venezuela that produced many small islands, some with insufficient size or biomass to support secondary consumers is a good example. Without secondary consumers, herbivores depleted resources and essentially destroyed the ecosystem. Somewhat larger islands with enough biomass to support the third trophic level maintained a more balanced ecosystem.

Topic: Section 36.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

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83) Many animal rights activists and "Hunger Watch" groups have claimed that if beef cattle and other sources of meat were eliminated, more people could be fed. What is the ecological theory behind the argument that humans should eat a greater proportion of their food "lower in the food chain"? Also speculate about a situation in which this principle may be less applicable.

Answer: Because available energy is significantly reduced with each step up the food chain, the agricultural land devoted to growing animal feed could feed a much larger number of people.

Each step up the food chain or web "wastes" up to 90 percent of the calories captured by producers, and perhaps more where warm-blooded animals are considered. However, there are exceptions to this principle. Some areas, such as parts of the North American plains, have soil and growing conditions that are not suitable for food crops. In such areas, growing grasses that support livestock is arguably a sensible idea.

Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 84) Evaluate the similarities and differences between marine and freshwater ecosystems of the biosphere.

Answer: Both systems have many things in common. A photic zone where photosynthesis occurs and supports abundant life is found in both marine and freshwater ecosystems. There may be more biodiversity closer to shore in both cases, where nutrient-rich runoff from land and a greater variety of plant life may be found supporting the ecosystem. And if a lake is deep enough to have a profundal zone out of the reach of solar energy, it will have low productivity and low biodiversity as seen in deeper open ocean areas. Marine and freshwater ecosystems differ in that lakes, due to relatively smaller size than oceans, are largely unaffected by tidal influence (with the possible exception of the largest of lakes such as Lake Superior). Therefore lakes will have stable shorelines with more rooted plants. Lakes and rivers will also have nothing quite like the huge, prolific coral reefs found in marine ecosystems.

Topic: Section 36.8 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

18 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

85) In this diagram, the blue heron is playing which role in the ecosystem when it eats the garter snake?

A) primary consumer and second trophic level B) secondary consumer and third trophic level C) tertiary consumer and third trophic level D) tertiary consumer and fourth trophic level Answer: D Topic: Section 36.2 Skill: Application/Analysis

19 .c.

Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.

86) Looking at the boxed portions of these two diagrams, it seems clear that all the areas where Earth gets very high rainfall (dark areas of top diagram) do not match precisely with places where we have tropical rainforests (black and white dotted portions of boxed area of bottom diagram). Propose a reason for this.

Answer: Consistent rainfall and relatively stable, warmer temperatures are necessary for survival of the communities found in a tropical rainforest. Other factors such as latitude and placement of mountains affect climate in such a way that it may not be suitable for tropical rainforest ecosystems.

Topic: Section 36.4 Skill: Application/Analysis

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