Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1: Introduction Chapter 2: Strategy Chapter 3: Design of Products and Services Chapter 4: Projects Chapter 5: Strategic Capacity Management Chapter 6: Learning Curves Chapter 7: Manufacturing Processes Chapter 8: Facility Layout Chapter 9: Service Processes Chapter 10: Waiting Line Analysis and Simulation Chapter 11: Process Design and Analysis Chapter 12: Quality Management Chapter 13: Statistical Quality Control Chapter 14: Lean Supply Chains Chapter 15: Logistics and Distribution Management Chapter 16: Global Sourcing and Procurement Chapter 17: The Internet of Things and ERP Chapter 18: Forecasting Chapter 19: Sales and Operations Planning Chapter 20: Inventory Management Chapter 21: Material Requirements Planning Chapter 22: Work center Scheduling
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
Operations and Supply Chain Management 17th Edition Jacobs Test Bank 1) One reason for studying operations and supply chain management (OSCM) is which of the following? A) OSCM is essential for understanding organizational behavior. B) Most business graduates do OSCM work regardless of their job title. C) All managers should understand the basic principles that guide the design of transformation processes. D) E)
OSCM is a required course in all business degree programs. OSCM is the most rigorous business discipline.
2)
The goods-services continuum consists of which set of the following categories?
A) B) C)
No goods, some goods, even mix, some service, no service Pure goods, core goods, core services, pure services No service, some service, good service, excellent
D) E)
Self-service, help desk service, face-to- face service, service-with- a-smile None of these choices are correct
service
3)
Which of the following are defined as core goods?
A) B) C)
Chemicals Airlines Data storage systems
D) E)
Hotels None of these choices are correct
4)
Which of the following are not listed in the text as jobs in OSCM?
A) B) C) D) E)
Department store manager Project manager Hospital administrator Data center manager Call center manager
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
5)
Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes services from goods?
A) B) C) D) E)
Service jobs are unskilled. A service is intangible. Services are perishable. Services are heterogeneous. None of these choices are correct
6) Which of the following is not a way that operations and supply processes are categorized?
A) B) C) D) E)
Planning Return Delivery Selecting Making
7) One of the "package of features" that make up a service is:
A) B) C) D) E)
appearance facilitating goods packaging cost implied use
8) Which of the following is not a measure of operations and supply chain management efficiency used by Wall Street? A) B) C) D)
Inventory turnover Revenue per employee Receivable turnover Earnings per share
E)
Asset turnover
9) Which of the following is a measure of operations and supply management efficiency used by Wall Street? A) B) C) D) E)
Dividend payout ratio Current ratio Receivable turnover Earnings per share growth Financial leverage
10) will
All other things remaining the same, if the sales revenue increases, asset turnover ratio
A) B) C)
increase. decrease. stay the same. F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
D) E)
may increase or decrease. there is no way to tell for sure.
11)
Inventory turnover measures:
A) B) C) D) E)
the efficiency in turning inventory into sales. liquidity. the speed of receivables collection. liquidity and the efficiency in turning inventory into sales. none of the these.
12)
The correct order in the good-services continuum is goods.
A) B) C) D) E)
pure services - core Services - core goods - pure pure goods - pure services - core services - core goods. pure goods - pure services - core goods - core services. pure goods - core goods - core services - pure services. core goods - core services - pure goods - pure services.
13)
The goods-services continuum consists of which set of the following categories?
A) B) C)
No goods, some goods, even mix, some service, no service Pure goods, core goods, core services, pure services No service, some service, good service, excellent
D) E)
Self-service, help desk service, face-to- face service, service-with- a-smile None of these choices are correct service
14)
consists of the processes needed to operate an existing supply chain strategically.
A) B)
Planning Sourcing
C) D) E)
Making Delivering Returning
15) involves the selection of suppliers that will deliver the goods and services needed to create the firm’s product.
A) B) C) D) E)
Planning Sourcing Making Delivering Returning
16)
is where the major product is produced or the service provided.
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
A) B) C) D) E)
Planning Sourcing Making Delivering Returning
17) is where carriers are picked to move products to warehouses and customers, coordinate and schedule the movement of goods and information through the supply network, develop and operate a network of warehouses, and run the information systems. A) B) C) D) E)
Planning Sourcing Making Delivering Returning
18) involves processes for receiving worn-out, defective, and excess products back from customers and support for customers who have problems with delivered products.
A) B) C) D) E)
Planning Sourcing Making Delivering Returning
19) Which of the following is not a “Core Service”? A) B) C) D)
Hotels Airlines Internet service providers Universities
20) What is the term that emphasizes how a factory’s capabilities could be used strategically to gain advantage over a competing company?
A) B) C)
Manufacturing strategy Just-in-time Total quality control
D) E)
Lean manufacturing Total quality management
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
21) This philosophy is an integrated set of activities designed to achieve high-volume production using minimal inventories of parts that arrive exactly when they are needed.
A) B) C)
Manufacturing strategy Just-in-time Total quality control
D) E)
Lean manufacturing Total quality management
22)
This concept aggressively seeks to eliminate causes of production defects.
A) B) C)
Manufacturing strategy Just-in-time Total quality control
D) E)
Lean manufacturing Total quality management
23) This philosophy seeks to achieve high customer service with minimum levels of inventory investment. D) Lean A) Manufacturing strategy B) Just-in-time C) Total quality control
manufacturing E) Total quality management
24) What is known as managing the entire organization so it excels in all dimensions of products and services important to the customer?
A) B) C)
Manufacturing strategy Just-in-time Total quality control
D)
Lean manufacturing F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
E)
Total quality management
25)
Efficiency means doing the right things to create the most value for the company.
⊚
true
⊚
false
26)
Effectiveness means doing the right things to create the most value for the company.
⊚
true
⊚
false
27) A doctor completes a surgical procedure on a patient without error. The patient dies anyway. In operations management terms, we could refer to this doctor as being efficient but not effective. ⊚
true
⊚
false
28)
A worker can be efficient without being effective.
⊚
true
⊚
false
29)
A process can be effective without being efficient.
⊚
true
⊚
false
30) Operations and supply chain management is defined as the design, operation, and improvement of the systems that create and deliver the firm's primary products and services. ⊚
true
⊚
false
31) The term "value" refers to the relationship between quality and the price paid by the consumer. F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
⊚
true
⊚
false
32) Attempting to balance the desire to efficiently use resources while providing a highly effective service may create conflict between the two goals.
⊚
true
⊚
false
33) Central to the concept of operations strategy are the notions of operations focus and trade-offs. ⊚
true
⊚
false
34) OSCM is concerned with management of the trickiest parts of the system that produces a good or delivers a service. ⊚
true
⊚
false
35)
OSCM is a functional field of business with clear line management responsibilities.
⊚
true
⊚
false
36) The supply network can be thought of as a pipeline through which cash, material, and information flow. ⊚
true
⊚
false
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs. https://www.stuvia.com/user/AnswersCOM 37)
Supply networks cannot be constructed for every product or service.
⊚
true
⊚
false
38) "Operations" refers to manufacturing and service processes used to transform resources employed by a firm ⊚
true
⊚
false
39) "Supply chain" refers to processes that move information and material to and from the manufacturing and ⊚
true
⊚
false
40)
"Supply chain" includes only inbound freight and inventory.
⊚
true
⊚
false
41) It is critical that a sustainable strategy meet the needs of shareholders and employees first, and then focus on into products desired by customers.
service processes of the firm.
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
preserving the environment.
⊚
true
⊚
false
42) Planning is where a firm must determine how anticipated demand will be met with available resources. ⊚
true
⊚
false
43) Although planning involves determining how the various supply chain processes (sourcing, making, delivering, and returning) will be met, planning itself is not considered a supply chain process. ⊚
true
⊚
false
44) The supply chain processes mentioned in the textbook are planning, sourcing, delivering, and returning. ⊚
true
⊚
false
45) All managers should understand the basic principles that guide the design of transformation processes. ⊚
true
⊚
false
46) Operations and supply management changes constantly because of the dynamic nature of competing in global business and the constant evolution of information technology. ⊚
true
⊚
false F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
47)
Internet technology has made the sharing of reliable real-time information expensive.
⊚
true
⊚
false
48) Capturing information directly from the source through such systems as point-of-sale, radio-frequency identification tags, bar-code scanners, and automatic ⊚ true ⊚ false
49) Use of systems like point-of-sale, radio-frequency identification tags, bar-code scanners, and automatic recognition has made it more difficult to understand what all the information is saying. ⊚
true
⊚
false
recognition has had little impact on operations and supply chain management.
50) Operations and supply chain processes can be conveniently categorized as planning, sourcing, making, and delivering. ⊚
true
⊚
false
51) A major aspect of planning involves developing a set of metrics to monitor the supply chain. ⊚
true
⊚
false
52) Returning involves processes for receiving worn-out, defective, and excess products back from customers but does not involve support for customers who have problems with the product. ⊚
true
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
⊚
false
53) Delivering is not considered in supply chain analysis when outside carriers are contracted to move products to customers. ⊚
true
⊚
false
54)
Services are intangible processes that cannot be weighed or measured.
⊚
true
⊚
false
55)
Service innovations can be patented.
⊚
true
⊚
false
56)
Services are homogeneous.
⊚
true
⊚
false
57)
Services are defined and evaluated as a package of features that affect the five senses.
⊚
true
⊚
false
58)
Automobiles and appliances are classified as "pure goods."
⊚
true
59)
Core service providers integrate tangible goods into their product.
⊚
false
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
⊚
true
⊚
false
60) "Product-service bundling" refers to a company building service activities into its product offerings for its customers. ⊚
true
⊚
false
61) In contrast to careers in finance and marketing, careers in OSCM involve hands-on involvement with people and processes. ⊚
true
⊚
false
62)
A supply chain manager is an OSCM job while a purchasing manager is not.
⊚
true
⊚
false
63) Just-in-time (JIT) production was a major breakthrough in manufacturing philosophy pioneered by the Japanese.
⊚
true
⊚
false
64)
Lean manufacturing refers to just-in-time production coupled with total quality control.
⊚
true
⊚
false
65) The Baldrige National Quality Award was started under the direction of the National Institute of Standards and Technology. ⊚
true
⊚
false
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
66) The approach that advocates making revolutionary changes as opposed to evolutionary changes is called "creation theory." ⊚
true
⊚
false
67) The approach that advocates making revolutionary changes as opposed to evolutionary changes is called ⊚
true
⊚
false
"business process reengineering."
68) Business process reengineering, which seeks revolutionary change, is contrasted with total quality management which commonly advocates incremental change. ⊚
true
⊚
false
69) The "triple bottom line" relates to the economic, employee, and environmental impact of a firm's strategy. ⊚
true
⊚
false
70)
Sustainability is the ability to maintain profits in a system.
⊚
true
⊚
false
71) "Green belt" programs are coordinated public works projects aimed a placing an environmentally friendly zone around major cities. ⊚
true
⊚
false
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
72) Green and black belt programs teach six-sigma quality tools to managers at many corporations.
⊚
true
⊚
false
73) The central idea of supply chain management is to apply a total system approach to managing the flow of information, materials, and services from raw material suppliers through factories and warehouses to the end customer. ⊚
true
⊚
false
74) The term "electronic commerce" refers to the buying and selling of electronic products and devices. ⊚
true
⊚
false
75) The term "electronic commerce" refers to the use of the Internet as an essential element of business activity. ⊚
true
⊚
false
76) "Business analytics" involves the analysis of data through a unique combination of linear programming, game theory, and queuing theory to better solve business problems. ⊚
true
⊚
false
77) The mathematical results of Business Analytics are used to automate decision making and eliminate the decision maker. ⊚
true
⊚
false
78)
Services cannot be stored. F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
⊚
true
⊚
false
79)
Service does not require interaction with the customer.
⊚
true
⊚
false
Answer Key
Test name: Chapter 01 Test Bank
1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8) 9) 10) 11) 12) 13) 14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19)
C B C D A D B D C A D D B A B C D E D
20)
A
21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) 27) 28) 29) 30) 31) 32) 33)
B C D E FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE TRUE F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
34) 35) 36) 37) 38) 39) 40)
FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE
41)
FALSE
42) 43) 44) 45) 46) 47) 48) 49) 50) 51) 52) 53) 54) 55) 56) 57) 58) 59) 60) 61)
TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE
62)
FALSE
63) 64) 65) 66) 67) 68) 69) 70) 71) 72) 73) 74) 75) 76) 77) 78) 79)
TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
Student name: 1) Which of the following is not a major strategic operational competitive dimension that forms a company's competitive position?
A) B) C)
Cost or price Delivery speed Delivery reliability
D) E)
Management acumen Coping with changes in demand
2) A major competitive dimension that forms a company's strategic operational competitive position in their A) B) C)
Cost or price Focus Automation
strategic planning is which of the following? D) Straddling E) Activity- system mapping
3) When developing an operations and supply chain strategy, which of the following is an important productspecific criterion to consider?
A) B)
Technical liaison and support Learning curve
size D)
Production lot
E)
Total quality
C)
Competitor's product performance
management
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs. https://www.stuvia.com/user/AnswersCOM
4) In development of an operations and supply chain strategy, which of the following may be an important productA) B) C)
Focus Production lot size Supplier after-sale support
specific criteria to consider? D) Learning
curve
5) What is the process called where a company seeks to match the benefits of a successful position while maintaining its existing position in offering customers a variety of differing services?
A) B) C)
Operations capability analysis Straddling Order qualifying
D) E)
Order winning Inter- functional analysis
6)
An activity-system map is which of the following?
A)
A network guide to route airlines
where
E)
A timeline
B) C) D)
A listing of activities that make up a project A diagram that shows how a company's strategy is delivered to customers A facility layout schematic noting what is done
displaying major planned events
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
7)
Which of the following is a partial measure of productivity?
A) B)
Output ÷ Materials Output ÷ (Labor + Capital + Energy)
Inputs
D)
Output ÷
E)
All of these
C)
Output ÷ All resources used choices are correct
A) B)
Output ÷ Materials Output ÷ (Labor + Capital + Energy)
Inputs D)
Output ÷
E)
All of these
C)
Output ÷ All resources used choices are correct
9)
Which of the following is a total measure of productivity?
A) B)
Output ÷ Materials Output ÷ (Labor + Capital + Energy)
Inputs
D)
Output ÷ F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
E)
All of these
C)
Output ÷ Labor
choices are correct
10) If all you knew about a production system was that total daily output was 400 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 400 units was 350 hours, what kind of A) B) C)
partial measure multifactor measure total measure
productivity measure could you use to compute productivity? D) global measure E) All of these choices are correct
11) If all you knew about a production system was that total daily output was 400 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 400 units was 350 hours, and the total materials used were 425 units, what kind of productivity measure(s) could you use to compute productivity?
A) B) C)
Partial measure Multifactor measure Total measure
D) E)
Partial measure and Multifactor measure Multifactor
measure and Total measure
12) The total output from a production system in one day is 500 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 500 units is 350 hours. Using the appropriate productivity measure, which of the following numbers represents the resulting productivity ratio?
A) B)
D) 0.411 1.000 E) None of 1.428 thesechoices are correct F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
C)
0.700
13) The total output from a production system in one day is 900 units and the total labor necessary to produce the 900 units is 900 hours. Using the appropriate productivity measure, what is the resulting productivity ratio?
A) E) B) C)
1.000 D) 0.411 None of 1.428 thesechoices are correct 0.700
14) Larry's Auto Body Repair Shop had revenues that averaged $60,000 per week in April and $50,000 per week in May. During both months, the shop employed six full-time (40 hours ÷ week) workers. In April the firm also had four part-time workers working 25 hours per week, but in May there were only two part-time workers and they only worked A)
−20.00%
B)
−15.82%
10 hours per week. What is the percentage change in labor productivity from April to May for Larry's Auto Body Repair? C) D)
8.98% 2.30%
E)
−25.00%
A) B) C)
D) 27,800 3,200 E) Not enough 11,905 information to calculate 19,533
16) A process has a total measure of productivity of 1.41 and total inputs of 9,050. What was the output?
A) B) C)
3,750 12,761 18,104
D) E)
21,850 Not enough information to calculate
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
17)
Various financial data for SunPath Manufacturing for 2019 and 2020 follow.
2019
2020
Capital Employed Other What is the percentage change in SunPath's total productivity measure between 2019 and 2020? C)
−0.53
D) E)
2.88 10.39
What is the percentage change in the energy partial productivity measure for SunPath between 2019 and 2020?
A)
−9.22%
B)
2.33%
C)
−0.53%
D) E)
2.88% 22.2%
19)
Various financial data for SunPath Manufacturing for 2019 and 2020 follow.
2019
2020
Capital Employed Other 0 0 Raw Materials 45,00 51,00 What is the percentage 0 0 change in the labor partial Energy10,00 9,000 productivity measure for 0 SunPath between 2019 and 2020? C)
−0.53
A)
−9.22 D)
2.88
B)
2.33
10.39
E)
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
20) 2019
Various financial data for SunPath Manufacturing for 2019 and 2020 follow. 2020 Capital Employed Other
What is the percentage change in the multifactor labor and raw materials productivity measure for SunPath between 2019 and 2020? A)
−9.22 C)
D)
−0.53
−2.88 B)
2.33
E)
10.39
21) If the employees of a firm attend a training program, then the time to assemble one unit is reduced by 10%. The training program will
A) B) C)
increase the labor productivity only. increase the multifactor productivity only. increase both labor and multifactor productivity.
D) E)
decrease capital productivity. have no effect on productivity.
22) If the material usage per unit of final product decreases to half of the current usage, then the firm will double the material productivity.increase the multifactor productivity.decrease capital productivity.have no effect on productivity.
A) I B) II C) D) III E) IV
both I and II
23) The nature of risks lends them to a three-step risk management process that can be applied to situations where disruptions are possible. There are three steps to the process. A)
Identify the sources of potential disruptions.
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
Which of the following is not one of those steps? B)
Insure to protect against the risks.
C) D)
Assess the potential impact of the risk. Develop plans to mitigate the risk.
24) An operations and supply chain strategy must be integrated with the organization's corporate strategy. ⊚
true
⊚
false
25)
Operations effectiveness relates to the profitability of the core business processes.
⊚
true
⊚
false
26) Operations and supply chain strategy can be viewed as part of a planning process that coordinates operational goals ⊚
true
⊚
false
27) There are two characteristics of a product or service that define quality: design quality and cost. with those of the larger organization.
⊚
true
⊚
false
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
28) The corporate strategy is operationalized through a set of operations and supply chain decisions. ⊚
true
⊚
false
29) An operation can excel simultaneously on all competitive dimensions. This is what makes a truly great operations company. ⊚
true
⊚
false
30) Straddling occurs when activities are incompatible so that more of one thing necessitates less of another. ⊚
true
⊚
false
31) One of the competitive dimensions that forms the competitive position of a company when planning its strategies is cost. ⊚
true
⊚
false
32)
One of the competitive dimensions
that forms the competitive position of a company when planning its strategies is delivery speed. ⊚
true
⊚
false
33) One of the competitive dimensions that forms the competitive position of a company when planning its ⊚
true
⊚
false F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
34) The process where a company seeks to match the benefits of a successful position while maintaining its existing position by adding new features, services, and technologies ⊚
true
⊚
false
35) The process where a company seeks to match the benefits of a successful position while maintaining its existing position by adding new features, services, and technologies ⊚
true
⊚
false
36) By following a straddling strategy, firms can broaden their capabilities and effectively compete with more focused strategies is making the best trade-off.
into its current portfolio is called flexibility.
into its current portfolio is called straddling.
firms in markets requiring low cost for success. ⊚
true
⊚
false
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
37) An order winner is a set of criteria that differentiates the products or services of one firm from another. ⊚
true
⊚
false
38) An order winner is a set of screening criteria that permits a firm's products to be considered as possible candidates for purchase. ⊚
true
⊚
false
39) An order qualifier is a set of screening criteria that permits a firm's products to be considered as possible candidates for purchase. ⊚
true
⊚
false
40) Activity-system maps show how a company's strategy is delivered through a set of tailored activities. ⊚
true
⊚
false
41) Activity-system maps are useful in understanding how well a system of activities fits the overall company's strategy. ⊚
true
⊚
false
42) Operations risk is the likelihood of a disruption that would impact the ability of a company to continuously supply products or services. ⊚
true
⊚
false
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
43) Risk mapping involves assessment of the probability or relative frequency of an event against the aggregate severity of the loss. ⊚
true
⊚
false
44)
Activity-system maps depict the geographic reach of a company's business strategies.
⊚
true
⊚
false
45) An operations strategy must resist change because of the long-term nature of equipment and personnel investments.
⊚
true
⊚
false
46) Operations and supply strategy can be viewed as part of a planning process that coordinates operational goals with ⊚
true
⊚
false
47) The job of operations and supply chain strategy is to deliver the most feature-rich, highest quality product at the lowest price within specified parameters of delivery time and customization. ⊚
true
⊚
false
48)
Productivity is a relative measure.
⊚
true
⊚
false
49) In a partial measure of productivity, the denominator of the ratio would include all resources used or all inputs. F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
those of the larger organization.
⊚
true
⊚
false
50) In a multifactor measure of productivity, the denominator of the ratio would include all resources used or all inputs. ⊚
true
⊚
false
51) The triple bottom line considers evaluating the firm against social, economic, and environmental criteria. ⊚
true
⊚
false
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
52) Sustainability means meeting a firm's current needs without excessively compromising the ability of future ⊚
true
⊚
false
53) The social impact of the triple bottom line concept pertains to fair and beneficial business practices toward labor, the community, and the region in which a firm conducts its business. generations to meet their own needs.
⊚
true
⊚
false
54) A firm's business practices toward its labor force pertain mainly to the economic aspect of the triple bottom line concept. ⊚
true
⊚
false
55) According to the economic aspect of the triple bottom line concept, the firm is required to compensate shareholders by paying dividends and growing the value of their common ⊚ true ⊚ false
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
56) Within a sustainability framework, the economic dimension of the triple bottom line concept goes beyond just profit for the firm but also provides lasting economic benefit to society. ⊚
true
⊚
false
stock faster than their competitors.
57) Within a sustainability framework, the environmental dimension of the triple bottom line concept has to do with labor, the community, and the region in which a firm conducts its business. ⊚
true
⊚
false
Answer Key
Test name: Chapter 02 Test Bank
1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8) 9) 10) 11) 12) 13) 14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19)
D A A C B C A B D A D B A C B B D E B
20)
C
21) 22) 23) 24)
C C B TRUE F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
3 3
Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
25) 26) 27) 28) 29) 30) 31) 32) 33) 34) 35) 36) 37) 38) 39) 40)
FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE
41)
TRUE
42) 43) 44) 45) 46) 47) 48) 49) 50) 51) 52) 53) 54) 55) 56) 57)
FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE
Student name: 1) Which of the following is not a typical phases of product development?
A) B) C)
Concept development Value engineering System-level design
D) Testing and refinement E) Production/ramp-up
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
2)
Which of the following is a characteristic of concurrent engineering?
A) B) C) D)
Integrated computer-assisted design Using automated guided vehicles Separate development teams working at once Having an excellent forecasting system
E)
The design- build-test cycle
3) Which of the following is primarily used to help design products that will connect product attributes with customer desires?
A) B) C)
Phase 0: Planning House of quality matrix Value analysis/value engineering
D) Concurrent engineering E) System-level design
4) Design for manufacturing and assembly delivers product improvements by emphasizing which of the following?
A)
Reducing product quality during the assembly
process
B)
Simplification
of the product by reducing the number of separate parts C) Reducing equipment in the production process D) Designing products so they can be manufactured by a virtual factory E)
Designing products that customers will want
5) Which of the following is a time-to-market performance measure used in judging product development performance?
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
A) B) C)
Frequency of new-product introductions Product reliability Customer loyalty
D) E)
Yield Value analysis
6) What dimension of competitiveness does time-to- market performance in product design and process selection affect?
A) B)
Engineering hours per project The cost of ongoing service
design D)
Aesthetics of
E)
None of these
C)
Responsiveness to customer needs choices are correct
7)
What dimension of competitiveness does quality in product design affect?
A) B)
Engineering hours per project The cost of ongoing service
design D)
Aesthetics of
E)
None of these
C)
Responsiveness to customer needs choices are correct
8)
A reason that firms must develop more new products than ever is which of the following?
A)
Product life cycles are shorter.
labs.
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
E)
The increased
B) C) D)
Commitments to joint venture partners. They are replacing old customers with new ones. To amortize heavy investments in development
difficulty of defending patents and trade names.
9) Concept development assumes a proven technology in which variant of the generic product development process?
A) B) C)
Technology-push products Quick-build products Complex systems
D) E)
Platform products Process- intensive products
10) Similarity of projects allows for a streamlined and highly structured development process in which variant of the A) B) C)
Technology-push products Customized products Complex systems
generic product development process? D) Quick-build products E) Process- intensive products
11) Sensitivity analysis of the base-case financial model is a useful tool for which of the following reasons?
A)
To determine how long the development process can profitably last
B)
To understand how many technical people are needed to make the
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
project a success C) To help understand the basic trade-offs of resources committed and cash received D) To identify the necessary product launch date E)
To set marketing and sales budgets
12)
Advocates of financial modeling of product design projects argue that:
A) financial analysis focuses on measurable quantities only. B) financial analysis brings discipline and control to the product development process. C) sufficiently rigorous financial analysis can accurately forecast the product's profit potential. D) E)
financial analysis is as solid as the assumptions that go into the model. financial analysis nurtures innovation and creativity.
13) System integration and validation are an important step in which variant of the generic product development process?
A) B) C)
Technology-push products Customized products Complex systems
D) E)
Quick-build products Process- intensive products
14) Consumer electronics is an example of a product developed in which variant of the generic product development process?
A) B) C)
Technology-push products Customized products Platform products
D) E)
Quick-build products Process- intensive products
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
15)
The most basic categories of cash flow for a typical new product do not include:
A) B) C)
Depreciation Ramp-up cost Development cost
D) E)
Sales revenue Marketing cost
16) Economic analysis of product development projects is useful in which of the following circumstances?
A) B) C)
Factory location Distribution decisions Go/no-go milestones
D) E)
Demand estimation Pricing
17) Economic analysis of product development projects must evaluate which of the following?
A) B) C)
Planned profitability of the product Expected market share to be attained Net present value of profits
D) E)
Timing and amount of net cash flow Demand elasticity of the product
18) D) A) units. B) C)
Quality function deployment (QFD): is a place is a manufacturing function aimed at lowering cost by reducing the portion of rejected fills the house of quality matrix with the designer's aspirations for the product. starts with studying and listening to customers.
where the quality assurance function is housed. E) is another term for value engineering. F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
19)
The aim of quality function deployment (QFD) is:
A) B) C) D)
to facilitate house of quality analysis. to provide value analysis/value engineering input. to integrate design for manufacturing and assembly (DFMA). to facilitate better cooperation between business
functions. E) to get the voice of the customer into the design of a product.
20)
The purpose of value analysis/value engineering (VA/VE) is to:
A) B) C)
simplify products and processes improve the value that customers find in existing products relate the customer's needs to technical specifications
D) E)
meet budgets and improve the results of financial models facilitate better cooperation between business functions
21)
Which of the following is not a typical phase of product development?
A) B) C)
Concept development Planning System-level design
D) Early market feedback E) Production/ramp-up
22) A)
Performance measures discussed for development projects do not include frequency of
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
new product introductions. B) yield. C) percentage sales coming from very old products. D) cost of materials and tooling. E) conformance —reliability in use.
23) A core competency has three characteristics. Which of the following is not one of those characteristics?
A) B) C)
It provides potential access to a wide variety of markets. It provides a low cost. It increases perceived customer benefit.
D)
It is hard for competitors to imitate.
24) In this phase, the needs of the target market are identified, alternative product concepts are generated and evaluated, and one or more concepts are selected for further development and testing.
A) B) C)
Phase 1: Concept development Phase 2: System-level design Phase 3: Detail design
D) E)
Phase 4: Testing and refinement Phase 5: Production ramp-up
25) This phase includes the definition of the product architecture and the decomposition of the product into A) B) C)
Phase 1: Concept development Phase 2: System-level design Phase 3: Detail design
subsystems and components. D) Phase 4: Testing and refinement E) Phase 5: Production ramp-up
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
26) This phase includes the complete specification of the geometry, materials, and tolerances of all the unique parts in the product and the identification of all the standard parts to A) B) C)
Phase 1: Concept development Phase 2: System-level design Phase 3: Detail design
be purchased from suppliers. D) E)
Phase 4: Testing and refinement Phase 5: Production ramp-up
27) This phase involves the construction and evaluation of multiple preproduction versions of the product.
A) B) C)
Phase 1: Concept development Phase 2: System-level design Phase 3: Detail design
D) E)
Phase 4: Testing and refinement Phase 5: Production ramp-up
28)
In this phase, the product is made using the intended production system.
A) B) C)
Phase 1: Concept development Phase 2: System-level design Phase 3: Detail design
D) E)
Phase 4: Testing and refinement Phase 5: Production ramp-up
29) An important issue when developing a new service or changing an existing one is the question of how different the new service is compared to the current services offered by the firm. Which of the following is not a general factor to A) B)
Similarity to current services Similarity of expected customers to current
consider when determining this?
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
customers
C) D)
Similarity to current processes Financial justification
30)
The inherent value of the product in the marketplace is:
A) B) C)
conformance quality. overall quality. customer quality.
D) E)
meaningful quality. design quality.
31)
The degree to which the product or service design specifications are met is:
A) B) C)
conformance quality. overall quality. customer quality.
D) E)
meaningful quality. design quality.
32)
Concept development is one of the typical phases of product development.
⊚
true
⊚
false
33) Early prototypes of a new product, using the same geometry and material processes as the production versions, are usually constructed during the concept development phase of the product development process.
⊚
true
⊚
false F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
34) A key decision point in the generic development process during "Phase 4: Testing and Refinement" is concept approval. ⊚
true
⊚
false
35) A key decision point in the generic development process during "Phase 1: Concept Development" is project approval. ⊚
true
⊚
false
36) The generic development process outlined in the textbook is followed by many, if not most, of the firms in the Fortune 500. ⊚
true
⊚
false
37) Target customers are specified during "Phase 0: Planning" of the generic product development process. ⊚
true
⊚
false
38)
The main purpose of concurrent engineering is to improve product quality.
⊚
true
⊚
false
39) Quality function deployment is an engineering analysis whose purpose is to simplify products and processes. ⊚
true
⊚
false
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
40) Quality function deployment involves listening to customers to determine the characteristics of a superior product. ⊚
true
⊚
false
41) Designing a new product for aesthetics and for the user is generally termed industrial design. ⊚
true
⊚
false
42) One of the methodologies that can aid in designing a new product for customers is a house of quality matrix. ⊚
true
⊚
false
43) Value analysis/value engineering has as its objective to increase product quality and reduce costs. ⊚
true
⊚
false
44)
DFMA stands for design for manufacturing and assembly.
⊚
true
⊚
false
45) In a concurrent engineering approach to product design and development, an integration team ensures that various parts of the product are compatible with the needs of the target customer. ⊚
true
⊚
false
46)
A key tool of a quality function deployment team is the house of quality matrix.
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
⊚
true
⊚
false
47)
A contract manufacturer is an
organization capable of manufacturing and/or purchasing all of the components needed to produce a finished product or device. ⊚
true
⊚
false
48) Specialized design firms tend to have highly developed processes that support the needs of particular industries. ⊚
true
⊚
false
49)
Core competencies are those things that everyone in the firm must be able to do well.
⊚
true
⊚
false
50)
A competency is not core if it is easy for competitors to imitate.
⊚
true
⊚
false
51)
One goal of having a core competency is to do something better than anyone else.
⊚
true
⊚
false
52) The conclusion of the product development process is when the product is withdrawn from the market. ⊚
true
⊚
false F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
53) In the generic product development process, Phase 2 (system-level design) begins with corporate strategy and ⊚
true
⊚
false
54) In the generic product development process, collecting customer needs is accomplished during Phase 0 (planning). ⊚
true
⊚
false
55) The "house of quality" matrix is a technique that relates customer requirements to concrete operating or engineering goals. incorporates market objectives.
⊚
true
⊚
false
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
56) One of the major benefits of DFMA is that products are designed that customers will want. ⊚
true
⊚
false
57) Incorporation of environmental considerations in the design and development of products or services is called ecodesign. ⊚
true
⊚
false
58) Ecodesign replaces one or more of the other requirements considered in the design process. ⊚
true
⊚
false
59) Because ecodesigned products are innovative and have better environmental performance, they can be of a slightly ⊚
true
⊚
false
lesser quality than the market standard.
60) The ecodesign approach focuses exclusively on the design and commercial launch phases of the product's life cycle.
⊚
true
⊚
false
61)
Designing a service is very similar to designing a product.
⊚
true
⊚
false
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
62) In determining how different a new service is compared to the current services offered by the firm, there are four things to consider. ⊚
true
⊚
false
63)
Designing a new service is costly.
⊚
true
⊚
false
64) In service design, divergence is a measure of how different a new service is from the existing services of the firm. ⊚
true
⊚
false
65) Operational design and development decisions involve deciding if the firm should go ahead with a given decision or stop now. ⊚
true
⊚
false
66) The best way to understand the financial implications of a product development project is to construct a base-case financial model. ⊚
true
⊚
false
67) Sensitivity analysis uses mathematical models to model consumer acceptance of a new product based on the features that are included. ⊚
true
⊚
false
68)
An increase in cost will result in an increase in the NPV.
⊚
true
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
⊚
false
69)
Productivity is a measure of how hard workers work.
⊚
true
⊚
false
70)
DPMO measures variability.
⊚
true
⊚
false
71) Measures that relate to the reliability of the product in use are referred to as conformance quality. ⊚
true
⊚
false
72)
Ultimate value is the measure of the value of a product in the marketplace.
⊚
true
⊚
false
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 03 Test Bank
1)
B
2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8)
C B B A C B A
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
9) 10) 11) 12) 13) 14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19) 20) 21)
D B C B C C A C D C E A D
22)
C
23) 24) 25) 26) 27) 28) 29) 30) 31) 32) 33) 34) 35) 36) 37) 38) 39) 40) 41) 42)
B A B C D E B E A TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE
43)
FALSE
44) 45) 46) 47) 48) 49) 50) 51) 52) 53) 54)
TRUE FALSE TRUE TRUE TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
5 1
Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
55) 56) 57) 58) 59) 60) 61) 62) 63)
TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE FALSE TRUE
64)
FALSE
65) 66) 67) 68) 69) 70) 71) 72)
FALSE TRUE FALSE FALSE FALSE TRUE TRUE FALSE
Student name:
A) B) C)
Job orders Sub-jobs Work packages
1) D) E)
A project can be subdivided into which of the following? Sub-paths Events and decisions
2)
A project starts out as which of the following?
A) B) C)
A statement of work Critical path method (CPM) A series of milestones
D) E)
A Gantt chart A latest-start- time estimate
3)
What is a work breakdown structure? F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
A) B) C)
A list of the activities making up the higher levels of the project A definition of the hierarchy of project tasks, subtasks, and work packages A depiction of the activities making up a project
D) E)
A Gantt chart A structure that is incompatible with the critical path method
4)
In a Gantt chart, the horizontal axis is usually which of the following?
A) B)
Activities Cost
C) D) E)
Profit Time Milestones
5)
Which of the following is a graphic project report used
A) B) C) D)
Project proposal Approved project plan Humphrey chart Equipment and supplies chart
E)
Cost and performance tracking schedule
in project management?
6) An advantage of a pure project where self-contained teams work full time on a project is which of the following?
A) B) C) D)
Team members can work on several projects. Functional area is a "home" after the project is completed. There are duplicated resources. Lines of communication are shortened.
E)
Overall organizational policies and goals can be ignored.
7) Some of the advantages of a functional project where the project is housed in a functional division include which of the following?
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
A) B)
The project manager has full authority over the project. Team pride, motivation, and commitment are
D) E)
Needs of the client are secondary. None of these choices are correct
high. C)
A team member can work on several projects.
8) A series of projects that are organized in such a way that each project utilizes people from different functional areas is using which of the following organizational structures? A) Matrix project
B) C)
Integrated task force Functional project
D) E)
Pure project Cross- functional flexible team
9) You are looking at a chart that has the terms BCWS, BCWP, and AC indicating lines on the chart. What kind of chart are you looking at?
A) B) C)
Gantt chart PERT chart Bar/milestone chart
D) E)
Total program cost breakdown EVM chart
10)
PERT is an abbreviation for which of the following methodologies?
A) B) C) D)
Product evaluation, result, and treatment Programming and evaluation realization technology Program evaluation and review technique Process evaluation and review technology
E)
It is a name, not an abbreviation for anything.
F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
11) You have just been assigned to oversee a series of projects. Functional areas will loan you personnel for each project, and separate project managers will be responsible for separate projects. These project managers will report to you. Which project management structure is being used?
A) B) C)
Pure project Task force Matrix project
project D)
Functional
E)
PERT
12) You have been placed in charge of a large project. Shortened communication lines are required to ensure quick resolution of problems as they arise. You recognize that the project is going to take a lot of time and require a lot of team pride, motivation, and commitment by all members. Which project management structure should you use in this situation?
A) B) C)
Pure project Task force Matrix project
project D)
Functional
E)
PERT
13) here:
A simple project listing of five activities and their respective time estimates are presented
Activity
Immediate Predecessor
Time in Days E
D
2 F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
A B C D
None 1 A 2 A 1 B and C
3
Using CPM, which activities make up the critical path?
A) B) C)
A, C, D, E A, B, D, E A, C, B, D, E
D) E)
A, D, E None of these choices are correct
14) A simple project listing of five activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented here:
Activity Immediate Predecessor Time A None B A C A D B and C E D
in Days 3 2 1 3 4
Using CPM, what is the latest finish time for the last activity in this project (i.e., the total time to complete the project)? A) 10 days D) 8 days 12 days B) 7 days E)
C)
9 days
15) A simple project listing of five activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented here:
Activity
Immediate Predecessor
Time in Days E A B
D
1
None 2 A 2 F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
C D
A 1 B and C
3
Using the CPM, which activities have slack in this project? A) B)
A B
C) D) E)
C D C and E
16) A company must perform a maintenance project consisting of seven activities. The activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented here: Activity Designat ion Immediat e Predeces Time in Days sor Break down both machines A None 3 Clean machine 1 B A Clean machine 2 C A
3 3
Using CPM, which activities make up the critical path?
A) B) C)
A, B, D, F, G A, C, E, F, G A, C, B, F, E
D) E)
A, D, E None of these choices are correct
17) A company must perform a maintenance project consisting of seven activities. The activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented here: Activity Designat Immediat Time in machin ion e Predeces sor Days es Final test
G
F
2 F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
5 7
Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
Break down both machines A
None 3
Clean machine 1 Clean machine 2 Re-set machine 1 Re-set machine 2 Re-calibrate both
B C D E F
D
A) D) 12 B)
E)
13 days
9 days C) 11 days days 10 days
A A B C and
E
3 3 1 2 1
Using CPM, what is the latest finish time for the last activity in this project (i.e., the total time to complete the project)?
18) A company must perform a maintenance project consisting of seven activities. The activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented here:
Activity Designat Immediat Time in Using CPM, which ion e Predec es Days activities have slack in this project? sor A None 3 Break down both machines B A 3 Clean machine 1 Clean machine 2 C A 3 Re-set machine 1 D B 4 Re-set machine 2 E C 2 Re-calibrate both F D and E 1 machines Final test G F 1
A) B)
A, B, C B, D
C) D) E)
Only C C, E F, G
19) For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early start time is 8 and the late start time is 10. Which of the following statements is true? F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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Test Bank for Operations and Supply Chain Management 16th Edition Jacobs.
A) B) C)
The late finish is 12. The early finish is 10. The slack for this activity is 2.
D) E)
The duration of this activity is 2. The activity is on the critical path.
20) For an activity in a CPM analysis, the early finish time is 20 and the late finish time is 20. Which of the following statements is true?
A) B) C)
The activity's late start must happen before its early start. The activity is on the critical path. The slack for this activity is 20.
D) E)
The duration of this task is zero. The duration of this task is 20.
21) A listing of immediate predecessor activities is important information in a CPM analysis for which of the following reasons?
A) B) C) D)
It specifies the relationships in the CPM network of activities. It provides useful timing information. It includes cost information. It is the probability information required in the
final step of CPM. E) None of these choices are correct
22) You have just performed a CPM analysis and have found that more than one path through the project network has A) B) C) D)
You have incorrectly performed the analysis. You have multiple critical paths. Only one path is optimal. More than one path is optimal.
zero slack values. What can you conclude? E) The project will not be completed by the desired time. F. ROBERT JACOBS, 2024
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