ORGB Organizational Behavior 3rd Canadian Edition By Debra Nelson, James Quick, Ann Armstrong, Chris

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Chap 01_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The study of individual differences is the main focus of anthropology. a. True b. False 2. A change initiative often results in failure. a. True b. False 3. It is often how we behave in the midst of change that determines whether change will fail or result in success. a. True b. False 4. Management involves the coordination of activities and human resources for the accomplishment of organization goals. a. True b. False 5. Skill development is facilitated by structured practice and feedback. a. True b. False 6. A business firm’s interaction with the environment is a characteristic of an open system. a. True b. False 7. Total quality management is a total dedication to continuous improvement. a. True b. False 8. A complete understanding of organizational behaviour requires only an understanding of the organizational context within which human behaviour is acted out. a. True b. False 9. Global competition is a leading force driving change at work. a. True b. False 10. The study and management of organizational behaviour is primarily an art rather than a science. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_ORGB3 11. Early research with individuals, groups, and organizations in the midst of environmental change found that change is often experienced as a threat, which leads to a reliance on well-learned and dominant forms of behaviour. a. True b. False 12. A manager who applies the design thinking approach will be relying on past successes. a. True b. False 13. In the midst of change, people often become rigid and reactive rather than open and responsive. a. True b. False 14. Organizational behaviour is considered a blended discipline. a. True b. False 15. The informal organization is the unofficial part of the system. a. True b. False 16. A questioning and probing attitude is at the core of critical thinking. a. True b. False 17. Role set, norms, and intragroup and intergroup behavioural dynamics are key aspects in the field of psychology. a. True b. False 18. Total quality management is an employee-oriented philosophy of management. a. True b. False 19. The hierarchy of authority or chain of command is an important feature of the informal organization. a. True b. False 20. The Six Sigma approach is characterized by self-directed work teams and an orientation on quality. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Which is an example of the snake pit metaphor or the “dark side”? a. a rational, logical approach to work b. working in teams c. workplace violence d. human behaviour in times of change

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Chap 01_ORGB3 22. What represents the core technology of a postsecondary educational institution? a. library, laboratories, classrooms, and computer equipment b. registration and billing systems c. athletic programs d. student brain power 23. What distinguishes medicine from psychology? a. the study of the individual b. the study of society c. health and wellness programs d. the study of design 24. The Human Resource Manager of the organization considers certain skills necessary to be successful. Which skills is she/he looking for in new employees? a. resource management, oral communication, computer use, and numeracy b. resource management, thinking skills, computer skills, and oral communication c. thinking skills, computer and document use, and oral communication d. resource management, reading mathematics, communication, and critical thinking 25. How does the discipline of organizational behaviour distinguish itself from other disciplines? a. by emphasizing absolutes b. by emphasizing the situation c. by emphasizing the organization d. by emphasizing the organizational system 26. What is best reflected by the unofficial and less visible part of the system? a. social surface b. informal organization c. overt organization d. formal organization 27. Why was the open system view of an organization established? a. to better understand an organization’s function b. to better understand the individual c. to better understand individual behaviour and group processes d. to better understand the structural dimensions of organizations 28. Which discipline emphasizes the design, implementation, and coordination of administrative and organizational systems? a. psychology b. management c. anthropology d. sociology 29. What is represented by the hiring of new staff and the purchase of material? a. outputs b. throughputs c. inputs d. transformations 30. When contrasting Six Sigma to TQM, executive ownership in Six Sigma can be compared to TQM’s selfdirected work teams. What element of TQM can be compared to Six Sigma’s business results-oriented philosophy? a. cross-functional b. quality oriented c. self-directed d. quality initiated Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB3 31. How is objective knowledge developed in any field of study? a. through basic and applied research b. through past practices and training c. through experience d. through a review of the relevant literature 32. Alex told his supervisor about the inconsistencies between the new product and the old. What is he demonstrating? a. critical thinking b. job performance c. subjective knowledge d. organizational reality 33. Managing organizational behaviour in a turbulent environment is challenging. Globalization, workforce diversity, and technological innovation are three factors that contribute to this challenge. What is the fourth factor? a. job analysis b. employee compensation c. customer satisfaction d. moral and ethical behaviour 34. Within what context does organizational behaviour occur? a. the group context b. the organizational context c. the external environment context d. the individual context 35. Which statement best applies to total quality management (TQM)? a. Quality is machine driven with quality improvements resulting from use of robotic equipment. b. Quality is an employee-oriented philosophy required by quality engineers. c. Quality is the responsibility of specialists who randomly perform quality checks on items as they leave the assembly line. d. Quality is a customer-oriented philosophy with important implications for virtually all aspects of organizational behaviour.

36. Starbucks Canada is the main competitor to Tim Hortons. What part of an organization does this represent? a. labour market b. transformation technology c. external task environment d. formal structure 37. Dorian has started a cultural shift at his organization in quality processes. Which type of reaction will he most likely face in the early stages? a. rigid and reactive b. open and responsive c. angry and defiant d. emotional and reactive 38. Which independent discipline evolved from the disciplines of psychology, sociology, engineering, anthropology, management, and medicine? a. organizational understanding b. organizational perspective c. organizational behaviour d. organizational research 39. A manager states that Cheryl is an outstanding employee because she has a high need for achievement. What perspective is the manager using to explain Cheryl’s behaviour? a. cultural b. internal c. interactive d. external

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Chap 01_ORGB3 40. What is the term for an organization’s suppliers, customers, and regulatory agencies? a. market b. general environment c. external task environment d. political economy 41. Which discipline includes studying human behaviour? a. engineering b. psychology c. anthropology d. sociology 42. Which organization recently went on record to the public stating that it lost focus and stopped listening to its customers? a. General Motors b. Enron c. Fannie Mae d. Toyota 43. Which discipline is especially important to our understanding of organizational culture? a. psychology b. medicine c. anthropology d. sociology 44. What does organizational behaviour study? a. psychosocial actions, individual behaviour, and organizational structure b. psychosocial actions, interpersonal behaviour, and group processes c. interpersonal behaviour, group dynamics in organizations, and work design d. individual behaviour, the structure of the organization, and group processes 45. Which discipline includes culture and the study of learned behaviour? a. psychology b. management c. anthropology d. sociology 46. Which discipline focuses on human productivity and efficiency in the workplace? a. anthropology b. engineering c. sociology d. psychology 47. What did the Hawthorne Studies uncover? a. viewing an organization as clockworks b. the importance of the informal organization and its impact on productivity c. delegating authority downward and throughout the organization d. the workflow and scheduling of work for production efficiency 48. The internal perspective of human behaviour has resulted in a range of motivational theories. What does this perspective imply? a. similarity among individuals b. conflict among individuals c. individuals are best understood by external forces d. individuals are best understood from inside

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Chap 01_ORGB3 49. What are the “clockworks” and “snake pit” metaphors illustrating about organizations? a. the orderly idealized view of organizational behaviour b. the view of the organization versus the view of the individual c. the conflicts, stress, and struggles in organizations d. the confusion of the work in organizations 50. Psychology is the study of the science of human behaviour. What discipline is sociology the science of? a. social circumstances b. individuals c. society d. environmental forces 51. Having a positive attitude, asking questions, listening to the answers, and being committed to success is behaviour that will help an individual adapt to which of the following? a. change b. denial c. organizational differences d. contingency 52. What is the relationship between abductive reasoning and design thinking? a. passively accepting the direction of others with more knowledge b. designing a new solution without relying on the past c. designing a solution that uses critical thinking and a process orientation d. not experimenting with new ideas and information 53. What are the four challenges related to change for managers in contemporary organizations? a. globalization, technology, religiosity, and ethics b. globalization, workforce diversity, ethics and character, and technology c. globalization, demography, diversity, and ethics d. globalization, technology, diversity, and employee attitudes 54. What is an important advantage of the application of knowledge and skills for understanding organizational behaviour? a. experiential learning b. rote memorization c. imitating others d. reading 55. What is a significant aspect of total quality management (TQM)? a. the use of computers b. employee-driven suggestion systems c. continuous improvement and attention to customer needs d. the suboptimization of resource allocation 56. During a learning activity, mastery of basic objective knowledge takes place. What will happen next? a. development of specific skills and abilities b. application of knowledge and skills c. Bloom’s Remembering of basic objective knowledge d. memorization

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Chap 01_ORGB3 57. What are the four phases that Six Sigma uses to tackle problems? a. evaluate, analyze, improve, change b. measure, analyze, change, control c. measure, analyze, improve, control d. define, analyze, improve, change 58. Company XYZ uses quantitative data to predict cost savings. Which approach to quality management is company XYZ using? a. the Shanin system b. Six Sigma c. TQM d. Taguchi’s method 59. Which of the following applies to the Six Sigma philosophy for companywide quality improvement? a. improving quality within the outsourcing process b. decision making based on qualitative data c. customer-driven approach d. decreased inputs 60. What converts inputs to outputs in an open system? a. task structure b. robots c. technology d. borrowed financial resources 61. What change-related challenges are critical for the study and management of organizational behaviour? a. workforce demographic change and diversity b. workforce motivation c. rivalry between other countries d. economic competition 62. What is the term for using a wide range of tools, knowledge, and/or techniques to transform inputs into outputs? a. task environment b. structure c. technology d. mission 63. What must organizations respond to for success in global competition? a. changes in information technology b. changes in wage structure c. changes in demography d. ethnic, religious, and gender diversity 64. Where is an organization’s task reflected? a. in its input materials b. in its structure c. in its human resources d. in its mission or purpose 65. Martha uses her knowledge of organizational behaviour principles at work. What is she demonstrating? a. learning b. skill development c. subjective knowledge d. essential skills 66. What makes developing skills different from acquiring objective knowledge? a. structured practice and feedback b. deduction c. empirical testing d. induction

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Chap 01_ORGB3 67. What is the foundation of the Canadian economy? a. goods sector b. manufacturing sector c. foreign trade d. domestic trade 68. Which science studies individual behaviour and group dynamics in organizational settings? a. organizational development b. organization theory c. organizational behaviour d. organization design Match the following: a. Economic activity outside the firm b. An organization’s primary concern, goal, and/or reason for existence c. Tools, equipment, and procedures for transforming inputs into outputs d. An organization that receives inputs from the environment and releases outputs to the environment e. The result of an organization’s conversion process, i.e., products, services f. The specific setting within which organizational behaviour is enacted 69. Technology 70. Open System 71. Environment 72. Task 73. Output 74. Organizational Context Match the following: a. Dedication to continuous improvement and meeting customer demands b. Research results or scientific information c. Learning and mastery of physical and social abilities d. The primary concern for managers in the 21st century e. Knowledge of results 75. Skill Development 76. Objective Knowledge 77. Total Quality 78. Feedback 79. Change

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Chap 01_ORGB3 Match the following: a. The applied science of energy and matter b. The science of human behaviour c. The science of human-learned behaviour and study of organizational culture d. A discipline concerned with the study of administrative and organizational systems e. The science of society and study of groups 80. Psychology 81. Anthropology 82. Management 83. Engineering 84. Sociology 85. Identify the major reasons why managing organizational behaviour will be challenging during changing times.

86. continuing technological innovation PTS: 1 REF: Change Creates Opportunities OBJ: LO 6 4. What is the difference between objective knowledge and skill development?

87. working with others 7) continuous learning 8) thinking skills 9) computer use While the skills are used in different degrees and at different levels of complexity in different types of work, they are all needed. All these skills are used in the study of organizational behaviour.

PTS: 1 REF: Learning about Organizational Behaviour OBJ: LO 7 6. Briefly identify the major drivers of change in the current work environment.

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Chap 01_ORGB3 88. Briefly identify the four phases Six Sigma uses to tackle problems.

89. In addition to basic enabling skills, Human Resources and Skills Development Canada identified nine essential skills necessary to be successful for work, learning, and life. Briefly identify four of these skills.

90. Provide an example of a business firm as an open system.

91. Explain why it is important to study organizational behaviour.

92. Distinguish between informal and formal organizations. Are they complementary or contradictory?

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Chap 01_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. b

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Chap 01_ORGB3 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB3 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. e 74. f 75. c 76. b 77. a 78. e 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB3 83. a 84. e 85. Reasons include: 1) the increasing globalization of organizations’ operating territory 2) the increasing diversity of organizational workforces 3) the continuing demand for higher levels of moral and ethical behaviour at work 86. Objective knowledge is the information gained from research and scholarly activity. Answers to scientific questions resulting from research studies form the knowledge base for effectively managing organizations. Skill development refers to the practice and feedback associated with mastering behavioural abilities necessary for successful management.

87. Change is driven by: 1) the increasing globalization of organizations’ operating territory 2) the increasing diversity of organizational workforces 3) the continuing demand for higher levels of moral and ethical behaviour at work 4) continuing technological innovation 88. (1) measure, (2) analyze, (3) improve, and (4) control 89. The nine were identified through research and are needed to be successful in most types of work and life. The nine are: 1) reading text 2) document use 3) numeracy 4) writing 5) oral communication 90. An open system gathers or receives inputs from its environment, transforms these inputs through application of technology, and provides a finished product to the environment or marketplace. A Heinz food processing plant purchases raw tomatoes, onions, and other vegetables from the environment. It then mixes and cooks these ingredients and converts them into ketchup. The ketchup is bottled, packaged, and shipped to the marketplace.

91. Of the four principal ingredients (task, technology, structure, and people) of an organization, employees are the most difficult to manage and change. Individuals display numerous differences, group norms can influence productivity, and leaders can fail. Motivation, leadership, and group dynamics are very difficult to understand. Greater understanding of these behavioural phenomena can enhance one’s managerial effectiveness.

92. The formal organization consists of positions, departments, organization levels, and the authority and lines of communication that link organization parts and people together. The personal relationships and friendships between two or more organizational members constitute an informal organization. The formal and informal can coexist, be mutually reinforcing, or be in conflict. The task of the manager is to be aware of the informal and try to manage the situation so that the informal supports and furthers the goals of the formal organization.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Individuals with ability diversity are entering the workforce in increasing numbers and are productive members of the organization. a. True b. False 2. Rule-based theories of ethics emphasize the outcome of the act in arriving at universal moral rights and wrongs. a. True b. False 3. The Internet and electronic innovation have made surveillance of employees more widespread. a. True b. False 4. The glass ceiling is a phenomenon unique to Canada and the United States. a. True b. False 5. High uncertainty avoidance is associated with high risk taking. a. True b. False 6. A Japanese manager employed at the Toyota plant in Cambridge, Ontario is an expatriate. a. True b. False 7. A diverse workforce can improve a company’s marketing plans. a. True b. False 8. Whistle blowers can be perceived as either heroes or vile wretches. a. True b. False 9. Hofstede’s research on culture showed that national culture explains more differences in work-related attitudes than in age. a. True b. False 10. Consequential theories of ethics emphasize the consequences or results of behaviour. a. True b. False

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Chap 0_ORGB3 11. Globalization implies that the world is free from national boundaries and that it is really a borderless world. a. True b. False 12. A cultural orientation where people belong to a loose social framework and their primary concern is for themselves and their families is based on power distance. a. True b. False 13. A collectivistic culture displays an orientation in which relationships and group decision making are valued. a. True b. False 14. Distributive justice is the fairness of the process by which outcomes are allocated in an organization. a. True b. False 15. North Americans are more suspicious of labour-saving robots than are the Japanese because employers often use them to cut jobs. a. True b. False 16. Gender harassment involves implicit or explicit demands for sexual favours. a. True b. False 17. Working from home is called working from a satellite office. a. True b. False 18. Employees are more likely to support technology changes that increase the skill requirements of their job. a. True b. False 19. A transnational business firm operates only in the European Union. a. True b. False 20. While women’s participation in the workforce is increasing, their share of the rewards of participation is not increasing commensurately. a. True b. False

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Chap 0_ORGB3 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. According to Hofstede, who most likely exhibits low power distance, short-term orientation, and individualism? a. South American employees b. Japanese employers c. North American managers d. managers in the European Union 22. What theory suggests that right and wrong are determined by the consequence of the action and we should maximize the most good for the greatest number of people? a. utilitarianism b. cultural relativism c. rule-based ethics d. universal moralism 23. Why do managers believe that dealing with diversity is important? a. to manage and motivate diverse work groups b. an increase in foreign-born employees across Canada c. changing demographics d. multiple cultural differences 24. What is the key finding of Hofstede’s research? a. Age explains the majority of differences in generational attitudes. b. Gender explains the majority of differences in work-related attitudes between countries. c. National culture explains the majority of differences in work-related attitudes between countries. d. The selected profession explains the majority of differences in work-related attitudes between countries.

25. Sahil informed the board of directors that the company was falsifying financial reports What has occurred? a. Sahil believes that there is a lack of procedural justice. b. Sahil believes the accounting department is acting ethically. c. Sahil is concerned about his corporate and social responsibility. d. Sahil has engaged in whistle-blowing.

26. Your goal as manager is to increase employees’ sensitivity to cultural differences among people within your organization. Which of the following would help you achieve your goal? a. requiring a time orientation with high uncertainty avoidance b. encouraging employees to work as individuals c. forming teams based on cultural similarities d. cross-cultural task forces or teams 27. Which of the following best describes a transnational organization? a. the global and national interests are linked in an overriding perspective b. a prevalent ethnic viewpoint begins to be held strongly in the consciousness of managers c. the organization’s nationality is held strongly in the consciousness of managers even though the organization competes on a global scale d. the global viewpoint supersedes national issues

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Chap 0_ORGB3 28. A computer system is used in decision making to ensure compliance with accessibility standards. What type of system is being used? a. expert system b. MIS system c. CAD system d. technology system 29. Zack believes in promoting the best individuals, and gives monthly awards to those employees who have achieved the most for the company. What is Zack promoting? a. high uncertainty avoidance b. consensus decision making c. individualism d. low risk taking 30. Tina always uses her boss’s title when introducing him, and behaves in a formal manner. What does she exhibit? a. gender diversity b. collectivism c. power distance d. socialism 31. Which of the following is considered a risk in the globalization of business? a. diversity must be a key strategy b. families will not be left intact c. values will begin to erode d. prejudices may prevent managers and employees from having cooperative interactions 32. A manufacturer of products for outdoor enthusiasts offers flextime and the opportunity to take up to four months in unpaid leaves of absence. What generation would find this type of organization most appealing? a. millennials b. baby busters c. baby boomers d. baby boomlets 33. What would be the most effective way to launch a KFC franchise in China? a. develop an alliance with another Asian KFC franchise, such as in Japan or Taiwan, and share the risk in China b. develop a consortium of Western and Asian entrepreneurs to begin the KFC franchise in China c. develop a joint venture with government bodies in China d. develop a relationship with a broker in Singapore to identify sources for Asian venture capital 34. Kaitlyn wonders if she would make the same decision as her employee if she had been in the same situation.

Which theory is this an example of? a. cultural based b. motive based c. consequence based d. rule based 35. Which circumstance best describes the act of negotiating with a Mexican organization? a. Women on your negotiation team must wear long pants. b. You must make an appointment before the meeting. c. Business cards should be exchanged at the onset of the meeting. d. Members of the Mexican organization will favour saying “maybe” when meaning “no”.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 36. What is a common outcome when younger workers and older workers complete projects together? a. a reduction in the younger workers’ negative beliefs about older workers b. an increase in the younger workers’ resentment towards older workers c. younger workers need greater motivation d. an increase in conflict 37. What generation of workers strives for moral rights and takes a more activist position on employee rights? a. baby boomers b. silent generation c. generation X d. generation Y 38. Why is there a job shortage among middle-aged workers? a. increased workforce b. decreased workforce c. organizations are growing globally d. companies are getting flatter organizations 39. Which theory do organizations most commonly subscribe to? a. consequential ethics b. cultural relativism c. rule-based ethics d. universal moralism 40. Which of the following includes honesty, loyalty, sincerity, courage, reliability, trustworthiness, benevolence, sensitivity, and cooperativeness? a. virtues b. humanity c. ethics d. values 41. What type of sexual harassment involves implicit or explicit demands for sexual favours by threatening negative job-related consequences or promising job-related rewards? a. biased sexual force b. sexual coercion c. gender harassment d. sexual exploitation 42. According to the textbook’s Business Guide to Cultural Differences, which characteristic is similar for Japan and Mexico? a. appointments b. dress c. gifts d. negotiations 43. What part of an organization is most significantly affected by the globalization of business? a. human resource management b. marketing c. management information systems d. operations 44. What is an expatriate manager? a. one who has left a transnational organization to work for a competitor b. one who works in a foreign-owned company within his or her own country c. one who has given his or her allegiance to a transnational organization over a more national/domestic perspective d. one who works in a country other than his or her home country Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 45. Zainab is impatient, wants short-term gratification, and puts family before work. What generation of workers does she most likely represent? a. silent generation b. baby busters c. baby boomers d. millennials 46. Women occupy less than 10 percent of executive-level jobs in Canada. What is the term for this phenomenon? a. work obstacles b. glass ceiling c. glass cliff d. boardroom exclusion 47. According to Hofstede’s cross-cultural research, what quality is most valued by Japanese managers? a. individualism b. a short time perspective c. group loyalty and unity d. high risk taking 48. According to the textbook’s Business Guide to Cultural Differences, in which culture is a small gift generally appreciated as a gesture of goodwill? a. Mexico b. Canada c. Saudi Arabia d. Japan 49. Where is sexual harassment in the workplace more likely to occur? a. where there is minimal publicity b. in a company where there are an equal number of males and females c. in a male-dominated environment d. Where the company has an ability to settle complaints with minimal disruption 50. What is necessary in order to manage diversity? a. complying with the Canadian Employment Equity Act b. assimilating women and minorities into a dominant male culture c. examining hidden assumptions held by employees d. being a good corporate citizen 51. What concept suggests that work occurs where people are? a. the digital age b. the wireless office c. the real-time office d. the virtual office 52. A male employee is issued a written reprimand when returning late from lunch. A female employee in the same department returns late and is not disciplined. What is this issue a question of? a. uniform standards b. sexual harassment c. distributive justice d. procedural justice 53. What term describes individuals born between 1965 and 1976? a. baby boomers b. Generation Y c. swing generation d. Generation X

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Chap 0_ORGB3 54. A CEO takes a reduction in salary and bonus as the company struggles with downsizing, layoffs, and staying profitable. What type of justice does this portray? a. compensative b. distributive c. procedural d. ethical 55. Spiro’s new job has flexibility, in that he can work from home, which allows him to save commuting time a few days each week, and allows him to get his kids to school these mornings. What is Spiro engaging in? a. e-mailing b. using an intranet c. using the Internet d. telecommuting 56. What is the purpose of McJOBS? a. to increase the number of workers in Canadian organizations b. to recruit, train, and retain individuals with disabilities at McDonalds c. to recruit, train, and retain all individuals who work at McDonalds d. to recruit the best and brightest for positions at McDonalds 57. Cultures that value leisure time, freedom and personal control exhibit which of Hofstede’s values? a. power distance b. short-term orientation c. indulgence d. uncertainty avoidance 58. What is essential according to Japanese business culture? a. punctuality b. directness c. shaking hands d. making an appointment 59. What is a benefit of workplace diversity? a. critical thinking increases as employees must take more time to try to understand what the others are saying b. the time increases for making decisions due to cultural variations c. the best people can be hired for the organization d. diversity can lead to reduced communication 60. How are social responsibility and code of ethics similar to each other? a. Both involve an individual who believes there has been a moral wrong. b. Both believe there is an ethical imperative. c. Both subscribe to the character theory of ethics. d. Both require either the individual or the organization to behave ethically.

61. Larger office facilities are sometimes broken into a network of smaller workplaces that are located close to employees’ homes. What is the term for this type of work arrangement? a. reservations b. cellular offices c. hoteling d. satellite offices 62. What was the original term used to describe transnational organizations? a. transglobal b. international c. multinational d. globalized Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 63. What is the major difference between prejudice and discrimination? a. Discrimination has more of an impact on productivity than prejudice. b. Prejudice refers to an attitude and discrimination refers to behaviour. c. Prejudice has more of an impact on productivity than discrimination. d. Prejudice refers to behaviour and discrimination refers to an attitude.

64. Xuang Lee uses personal connections to help his son obtain a job. What practice is he engaging in? a. favouritism b. NAFTA c. perestroika d. guanxi 65. You are the manager of a department with a diverse work group, where white males comprise the largest subgroup. Many of the white males resent having to work alongside female and minority employees who have less seniority and work experience but are paid the same. Several conflicts between the white males and other employees have disrupted the workplace. What approach would be most appropriate and effective in dealing with this situation? a. indicate that inappropriate behaviour is not tolerated, and encourage open and frank discussions in a series of meetings b. fire the white male perpetrators c. extend preferential treatment to female and minority employees d. urge female and minority employees to take legal action against those who have caused problems 66. What has been the result of the ever-increasing use of the Internet and electronic innovation in the workplace? a. a greater level of respect for the employee b. surveillance of employees is more widespread c. limitation of economic growth in North America d. the ability to appropriate value 67. Which statement best summarizes age diversity in Canada? a. Middle-aged adults are increasing in number while seniors are decreasing. b. Seniors are increasing in number while children and youth are decreasing. c. Youth are increasing in number. d. Children and youth are increasing in number while seniors are decreasing.

68. When Dieter travels from his home in Europe to visit his daughter in Canada, he does not recognize the symbols on the road signs. What is Dieter experiencing? a. language differences b. microcultural differences c. language interpretation d. educational differences 69. Which of the following countries is associated with lower labour costs for organizations? a. Canada b. United States c. Mexico d. Italy

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Chap 0_ORGB3 70. There have been significant demographic changes in the Canadian workplace. What has this resulted in? a. increasing diversity b. decreasing diversity c. increased legislation d. the opportunity for use of lower-cost labour in other countries 71. Sharon modified the technology to adapt it to her team’s needs. What has Sharon done? a. invented the technology b. collaborated with her team c. innovated the technology d. reinvented the technology Match the following: a. An organizational informant or someone who reports corporate wrongdoing b. Fairness of the process and/or criteria used to allocate outcomes c. A credo or recorded set of accepted and ethical behaviour d. A public statement in which one agrees to follow a set of ethical standards 72. Code of Ethics 73. Procedural Justice 74. Whistle-blower 75. Professional Oath Match the following: a. Rules, procedures, tools, and equipment used to transform inputs to organizational outputs b. Working from home c. Informing the authorities of wrongdoings within their company d. Electro-mechanical devices designed and operated to perform manufacturing tasks e. Representation of human knowledge as a computer program f. Creative application of new technology 76. Expert System 77. Technology 78. Reinvention 79. Telecommuting 80. Robots 81. Whistle-blowing

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Chap 0_ORGB3 Match the following: a. McJOBS b. Individual attitudes present in the workforce c. Individual differences present in the workforce d. Individuals born between 1946 and 1964 e. An artificial barrier that prevents women from advancing above a certain organizational level f. Individuals born between 1965 and 1976 82. Diversity 83. Glass Ceiling 84. Prejudice 85. Ability Diversity 86. Baby Busters 87. Baby Boomers Match the following: a. Match the following: b. An ethical perspective that focuses on results of behaviour c. The collective ethical conduct of an organization d. Fairness of outcomes received by organizational members e. Suggests that right and wrong is determined by the consequences of the action 88. Utilitarianism 89. Distributive Justice 90. Social Responsibility 91. Consequential Theory Match the following: a. A cultural orientation in which individuals belong to tightly knit social frameworks b. The concept of borderless marketplace c. The locus and distribution of power within the organization d. A business firm that operates in numerous countries and employs a multicultural workforce e. A Canadian business official who works for a Canadian subsidiary in Spain 92. Collectivism 93. Power Distance 94. Globalization 95. Expatriate Manager 96. Transnational

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Chap 0_ORGB3 97. What technological changes have been taking place in virtually all work environments and what impact will they have on workers?

98. Describe North American business culture using Hofstede’s dimensions of cultural differences.

99. Are legal requirements and ethical standards synonymous?

100. What are some of the significant workforce composition changes that have been taking place since World War II? (Mention three.)

101. Imagine that you are working for an organization that produces a highly controlled and experimental drug that is targeted for the treatment of a rare virus. Unfortunately, someone close to you has contracted the disease, and it appears that the only hope this person has is to obtain the experimental drug. At this time, however, there is absolutely no way you could obtain the drug under legal means. Using each of the three classifications of ethical theories (consequential, rule-based, and cultural), briefly describe what you would do.

102. Briefly discuss the issues an organization would want to consider or understand if it were interested in a business venture within China.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. d

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Chap 0_ORGB3 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. c 70. a 71. d 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. d 76. a 77. a 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 83. e 84. b 85. a 86. f 87. d 88. e 89. d 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. c 94. b 95. e 96. d 97. The major changes include telecommuting, use of expert systems, robotics, use of the Internet, digital telecommunications, desktop computing capability (measured in terabytes), networking, improvements in traditional materials which will mean declines in jobs that produce raw materials, advances in biotechnology (i.e., ability to manipulate life forms at the cellular and subcellular levels), and superconductivity.

Implications for managers and employees include the use of computers for monitoring employees (double-edged sword), emphasis on managers’ technical skills as well as human and conceptual skills, use of participative management styles, open communication, and the need to help workers manage the stress of their work. Workers must constantly learn and adapt to changing technology so that organizations can remain competitive. Managers must grapple with the challenge of helping workers adapt and make effective use of new technologies.

98. The business and economic culture emphasizes individualism, low to moderate power distance, low to moderate uncertainty avoidance (or moderate risk taking), masculinity, and short-term time orientation.

99. They are close but not the same. Staying just within the law could also border on being unethical. In other words, a person could be found to have met legal technical requirements but his or her _ehavior might be considered unacceptable from an ethical viewpoint.

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Chap 0_ORGB3 100. ∙ More women in the workforce—up to 61.5 percent in 2017. ∙ Increase in Aboriginal population. ∙ The number of female political leaders has grown dramatically worldwide in recent decades. In the 1970s there were only five such leaders. In the 1990s, 21 female leaders came into power, and women around the world are leading major global companies. ∙ Proportion of seniors within the population has been steadily growing since 1960. Seniors are expected to comprise around 25 percent of the population by 2036. ∙ Increase in foreign-born population. ∙ More individuals with disabilities in the workforce.

M

101. Consequential: Under this perspective you could argue that the greatest good will be served (saving your friend), and you may rationalize stealing the drug to save the life. Here, good consequences do not always follow from right actions.

Rule-based theory: Under this perspective the character of the act would not allow you to steal the drug. The character of the act, not the effect, is the driving force. Under Kant’s categorical imperative it simply is wrong to steal, a necessary universal standard. The self-interest of human beings is God’s providence, or there are rule-based guides to moral behaviour.

Cultural relativism: Here, you would do what is right given the context. If a more consequential base were the norm, then you would likely take the drug.

102. Chinese managers’ business practices have been shaped by the Communist party, socialism, feudalistic values, and guanxi (the practice of building networks for social exchange). In China, the family is regarded as being responsible for a worker’s productivity, and in turn the company is responsible for the worker’s family. Chinese managers have very little experience with rewards and punishments, and are reluctant to use them in the workplace. Americans would need to build their own networks, understand the Chinese chain of command, and negotiate slow, general agreements in order to interact effectively.

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Chap 03_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Fundamental attribution error is the tendency to make attributions to external causes when focusing on someone else’s behaviour. a. True b. False 2. An example of a first-impression error would be where speakers with higher vocal pitch are believed to be more competent than those with lower voices. a. True b. False 3. The affectivity of individuals can impact group affect either positively or negatively. a. True b. False 4. Personality is defined as a relatively stable set of characteristics that influence an individual’s behaviour. a. True b. False 5. Impression management is the process by which individuals try to control the impressions others have of them. a. True b. False 6. In self-serving bias, when we succeed we take credit for it; when we fail, we blame the situation. a. True b. False 7. High self-monitors can adjust their behaviour to fit the situation. a. True b. False 8. The tactical persona reflects the way people actually see themselves. a. True b. False 9. The way individuals interpret the events around them has a strong influence on their behaviour. a. True b. False 10. High achievers are more likely to attribute their success to others and good luck. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_ORGB3 11. Self-serving bias is also known as the Pygmalion effect. a. True b. False 12. Introverts are less likely to be depressed, and therefore are happier and more satisfied with romantic relationships. a. True b. False 13. Heredity has been found to not be a determinant of personality. a. True b. False 14. Individuals laughing off an offensive comment as a joke could be aligning actions as a form of impression management. a. True b. False 15. The most common method of assessing personality is through projective testing. a. True b. False 16. Sue is attractive so we assume that she is also successful, warm, and kind. This is the horn effect. a. True b. False 17. People with high self-esteem and internal locus of control tend to be higher performers and are more satisfied with their jobs. a. True b. False 18. Past experiences have no bearing on one’s perception of a target. a. True b. False 19. A person who dresses outlandishly is more likely to be perceived. a. True b. False 20. There are no differences in interview performance between candidates who engage in impression management techniques and those who do not. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_ORGB3 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. In a conversation with a friend you attribute your performance in this class to the type of exams and their relative difficulty. What type of attribution are you making? a. ability b. external c. luck d. internal 22. A manager attributes an employee’s poor performance to a lack of effort or ability. What error is the manager probably making? a. self-serving bias b. fundamental attribution c. discounting attribution d. consistency attribution 23. In which organizational situation does impression management come into play? a. a potential employee is interviewed b. a retiring employee is given an exit interview c. members of the top management team meet d. a current employee is disciplined 24. Bob believes in doing what is necessary to achieve his goals and maintains emotional distance in most situations.

What personality trait is he displaying? a. Machiavellianism b. narcissism c. self-monitoring d. neuroticism 25. What does general mental ability have a strong correlation with? a. emotional stability b. extraversion c. work performance d. work commitment 26. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of sixth sense? a. sensing b. thinking c. intuition d. perceiving 27. Which of the following also means primacy effect? a. selective perception b. first-impression error c. self-fulfilling prophecy d. a stereotype 28. Tora organizes her thinking and the way in which she assembles and interprets information about her colleague Kyle. What characteristic is she demonstrating? a. situational cues b. cognitive structure c. attitude structuring d. self-concept 29. What is a difference between internal and external locus of control a. internal is self and external is situation or others b. internal is situation and external is self action c. internal is beliefs and external is control d. internal is self and external is overall view Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_ORGB3 30. Which of the following types would you consider an employee to be if he pays attention to information gathering? a. intuition b. sensing c. judging d. perceiving 31. What do attribution biases imply about managers? a. Managers must be very wary of the cognitive process in decision-making. b. Managers must always be correct in their perceptions. c. Managers must take into account the fundamental tendency for people to make external attributions for their behaviour. d. Managers must know as much as possible about individual differences and determine the cause of behaviour and perceived source of responsibility.

32. What is the term for the relatively stable set of characteristics that influences an individual’s behaviour? a. integrative approach b. perceptual process c. personality d. predispositions 33. What are self-disclosure, ingratiation, aligning actions, and altercasting methods of? a. impression management b. self-disclosure c. perception management d. attribution theory 34. What is one of the most important determinants of high self-efficacy? a. an internal locus of control b. previous success c. the tendency to be a low self-monitor d. high self-esteem 35. Dorian is having trouble with her team. Her boss suggests using MBTI. Why would her boss suggest this? a. to understand individual differences b. to identify what motivates employees c. to understand why people do what they do d. to identify how to motivate employees 36. What approach for understanding individual differences in a scientific and consistent way explains that behaviour is a function of the person and the environment? a. abnormal psychology b. interactional psychology c. study of individual differences d. learning styles and abilities 37. Which three traits make up the dark triad? a. narcissism, psychopathy, self-monitoring b. psychopathy, core self-evaluation, Machiavellianism c. Machiavellianism, psychopathy, narcissism d. Machiavellianism, neuroticism, selflessness 38. What includes both social context and discounting principle as characteristics? a. perceiver b. interaction c. target d. situation

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Chap 03_ORGB3 39. Your roommate attributes her good test results to her diligent study habits and her low test results to the instructor’s poorly-worded questions. Which attribution theory is your roommate demonstrating? a. consensus error b. fundamental attribution error c. acceptance error d. self-serving bias 40. Assume you are an employment interviewer and you make an incorrect hiring decision based on the applicant’s physical appearance. What caused you to make this error? a. selective perception b. self-fulfilling prophecy c. first-impression error d. stereotype 41. A supervisor has high expectations of a new employee that may affect that employee’s behaviour. What principle of social perception is the supervisor demonstrating? a. impression management b. self-fulfilling prophecy c. stereotyping d. perceptual bias 42. According to the MBTI tool, which preference reflects what we pay attention to or how we prefer to gather information? a. extraversion/introversion b. judging/perceiving c. sensing/intuiting d. thinking/feeling 43. Dana goes to a car dealership to buy a car. The salesman is warm and friendly; however, Dana believes he is acting this way just to sell her a car. What could be the reason for his warm and friendly attitude towards Dana? a. cognitive miser b. situation c. perceiver d. target 44. Which high-performing employees are associated with emotional stability and extraversion? a. individuals who work with numbers, such as accountants b. customer service employees c. work teams d. managers 45. Which is an example of an external attribution? a. I did well on the exam because I had the answers. b. I did well on the exam because I studied hard. c. I did well on the exam because it was easy. d. I did well on the exam because I am smart.

46. What is the most common method of assessing personality? a. the self-report questionnaire b. projective tests c. behavioural measures d. the Rorschach inkblot test 47. Which trait would you consider if you wanted to hire a person who is hardworking, organized, and dependable? a. conscientiousness b. introversion c. anxious d. extraversion

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Chap 03_ORGB3 48. What does research indicate about individuals who are introverted, conscientious employees? a. they leave work when their tasks are complete b. they prefer to work alone c. they are more likely to be absent from work d. they are less likely to be absent from work 49. Amy believes she controls what happens to her. What personality characteristic does she exhibit? a. self-efficacy b. internal locus of control c. core internal self-evaluation d. external locus of control 50. What is the HEXACO personality model? a. another name for the MBTI Instrument b. a personality assessment tool c. a model that measures and evaluates lesser known traits d. a model that incorporates the dark triad into the Big Five 51. What is the term for the extent to which people base their behaviour on cues from other people and situations? a. self-efficacy b. self-esteem c. self-control d. self-monitoring 52. What is the term for the tendency to make attributions to internal causes when focusing on someone else’s behaviour? a. the fundamental cognitive error b. the discounting principle c. the fundamental attribution error d. the self-serving bias 53. Which of the following best summarizes attribution theory? a. specifying correct or appropriate behaviour b. observing behaviour c. explaining causes of behaviour d. measuring behaviour 54. You encounter a warm and personable car salesperson, but you don’t assume that this behaviour reflects the salesperson’s personality. Which social perception principle are you using? a. perceiver b. social context c. discounting d. cognitive bias 55. What type of employee is most likely to display positive affectivity? a. those who have an internal locus of control b. those who have low self-efficacy c. those who are self-monitors d. those who have high anxiety

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Chap 03_ORGB3 56. Which characteristic applies to self-efficacy? a. a belief that one has self- or situational control b. a feeling of one’s self-worth c. the extent to which one bases behaviour on cues from other people and situations d. a belief about one’s capability to deal with life’s events and challenges 57. A company has increased its workforce diversity in the last few years. Which barrier to social perception has most likely been reduced by those individuals who are hiring new employees? a. first-impression error b. stereotyping c. the primacy effect d. selective perception 58. What should managers who want to promote positive affectivity do? a. give positive feedback in order to increase self-esteem b. allow participative decision making and provide pleasant working conditions c. hire those with an external orientation d. reduce the anxiety in jobs 59. All of the employees in the group you supervise have an internal locus of control. What is the best way to manage them? a. provide explicit and frequent job instructions b. provide considerable leeway for them to determine how to perform their work c. provide frequent discipline to group members for slowness and lack of initiative d. provide close supervision 60. When conducting an interview, what is most likely to influence your first impression of an interviewee? a. physical appearance b. verbal communication c. nonverbal communication d. inferred intentions 61. You are a manager who understands the implications of self-esteem on work behaviour. What is the best way to manage your staff? a. clearly measure the results of employee tasks b. give appropriate challenges and opportunities for success c. clearly tie rewards to performance d. provide continual positive feedback 62. Individuals with positive affect are more satisfied with their jobs and are more likely to engage in what kinds of workplace behaviours? a. positive affectivity behaviours b. organizational citizenship behaviours (OCBs) c. leadership behaviours d. negative affectivity behaviours

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Chap 03_ORGB3 63. An employee who does not get along well with other employees but generates the most sales is evaluated only on sales performance. What does this exemplify? a. cognitive miser b. self-fulfilling prophecy c. selective perception d. stereotyping 64. What is the term for the way in which factors such as skills, abilities, personalities, perceptions, attitudes, values, and ethics differ from one individual to another? a. variation in traits b. individual differences c. group differences d. personality 65. Abel pays close attention to the behaviour of others and adjusts his own behaviour accordingly. What is Abel demonstrating? a. low self-esteem b. high self-esteem c. low self-monitoring d. high self-monitoring 66. What has the greatest influence on shaping personality? a. consequences of behaviour and the environment b. genetics and environment c. thoughts and feelings d. the person and the situation 67. What are the three rules about behaviour that Kelley’s attribution model relies on? a. distinctiveness, context, consistency b. resemblance, consistency, situational c. context, distinctiveness, discounting d. consensus, distinctiveness, consistency 68. What is the theory that explains how we pinpoint the causes of our own behaviour and that of other people? a. self-concept b. discounting principle c. attribution d. perception 69. Which assessment tool is one of the world’s most popular self-report questionnaires? a. HEXACO model b. MBTI instrument c. Big Five model d. projective test 70. What three major categories are part of the observation component of social perception? a. timing of information, availability of information, and consistency of information b. characteristics of ourselves, the target person, and the situation c. characteristics of ourselves, the target person, and consistency of information d. availability of information, the target person, and the situation 71. How many MBTI preference combinations exist? a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 18

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Chap 03_ORGB3 72. Monica is a manager and likes to wear jeans to work but instead chooses to dress more professionally as all her colleagues do. What is this a form of? a. defensive behaviour b. impression management c. attribution d. self-fulfilling prophecy Match the following: a. Extent to which peers in the same situation behave the same way b. How individuals pinpoint the causes of their own behaviour and that of others c. A popular instrument based on Jungian personality theory d. Suggested that human similarities and differences could be understood by combining preferences e. Behaviour is a function of the person and the environment 73. Consensus 74. Interactional Psychology Approach 75. Carl Jung 76. MBTI 77. Attribution Theory Match the following: Match the following: a. Facial expressions, body posture, and eye movement b. A generalization about a particular group of people c. A view of another person based on first encounter d. Expectations of others affect our interactions with them 78. Self-Fulfilling Prophecy 79. First Impression 80. Nonverbal Communication 81. Stereotype Match the following: a. The way in which factors such as skills, abilities, personalities, values, and ethics vary from one person to another b. A relatively stable set of characteristics that influences one’s behaviour c. Behaviour is a function of the person and his or her environment d. A person’s general feeling of self-worth 82. Interactional Psychology 83. Self-Esteem 84. Personality 85. Individual Differences

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Chap 03_ORGB3 Match the following: a. A broad set of personality traits that refers to self-concept and is comprised of locus of control, selfesteem, generalized self-efficacy, and emotional stability b. One’s generalized belief about situational and self-control c. When focusing on one’s behaviour the tendency toward internal attributions for successes and external attributions for failures d. The extent to which people base their behaviour on cues from others and the situation e. Positive and negative mood dispositions at work 86. Self-Serving Bias 87. Self-Monitoring 88. Core Self-Evaluation 89. Locus of Control 90. Affectivity 91. Identify and explain barriers to social perception.

92. Discuss the different personas used in impression management and when they are best used.

93. Identify the most common errors that affect the attribution process and briefly discuss the implications for managers.

94. How could a manager use self-fulfilling prophecies to improve a work group?

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Chap 03_ORGB3 95. Using the five personality characteristics identified in the chapter under “Other Important Personality Traits” as important for understanding organizational behaviour, describe an individual who would most likely be a strong performer.

96. The basis for understanding individual differences stems from an early contention that behaviour is a function of the person and the environment. This idea has been developed by the interactional psychology approach to personality. Briefly explain the basic propositions of this approach.

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Chap 03_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. True 20. False 21. b 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. c 26. c

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Chap 03_ORGB3 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. d 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_ORGB3 55. a 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. d 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. a 74. e 75. d 76. c 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_ORGB3 83. d 84. b 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. b 90. e 91. Stereotyping stems from generalizing about a group of people. Selective perception involves using only information that supports one’s preconceived view of someone. One’s initial interaction with another may lead to an incorrect conclusion or first-impression error. Pet theories one has of behaviour may produce inaccurate perception. A selffulfilling prophecy occurs in a situation where one’s expectations about people affect interaction with them in such a way that expectations are fulfilled.

Projection is the overestimation of the number of people who share our beliefs, values, and behaviours.

Halo effect occurs when one aspect of a person is viewed positively, resulting in all aspects of that person being assumed positive. The horn effect is the opposite. Contrast effect is the tendency to diminish or enhance the measure of one target through comparison with another recently observed target. Recency effect is the tendency to weight recent events more than earlier events.

92.

Authentic persona reflects the way a person actually sees themselves and this style is used with true friends and family.

Ideal persona is a reflection of how the individual wished they were and this style may be used on job interviews and early in relationships in order to make a good impression.

Tactical persona is typically used to achieve a certain goal by manipulating others. It is more scheming, disingenuous, and more obviously seen as false.

93. The two key errors include: ∙ the fundamental attribution error, which is the tendency to make attributions to internal causes when focusing on someone else’s behaviour, and ∙ the self-serving bias, which means individuals make internal attributions for their own successes and external attributions for their own failures.

Managers are affected by attributions in all aspects of their job which include evaluating performance and rewarding employees. The extent to which these attributions are more internal or external would have major implications for performance reviews and for rewards.

94. If a supervisor is told that a work group contains individuals with high achievement potential, this information may get translated into high expectations of the supervisor and he/she may set high goals and objectives for the group (that is, higher goals and objectives than would otherwise be set). With high expectations and goals, group members may respond with unusually strong effort and meet the high goals and objectives.

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Chap 03_ORGB3 95. An internal locus of control, high self-esteem, high self-efficacy, moderate to high self-monitoring, and positive affectivity are likely to be displayed by a high performer.

96. ∙ Behaviour is a function of a continuous, multidirectional interaction between the person and the situation. ∙ The person is active in this process and both is changed by situations and changes situations. ∙ ∙ People vary in many characteristics, including cognitive, affective, motivational, and ability factors. Two interpretations of situations are important: the objective situation and the person’s subjective view of the situation.

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Chap 04_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The longer the time between measuring an attitude and observing behaviour, the weaker the relationship of an attitude with observed behaviour. a. True b. False 2. Employees building homes for Habitat for Humanity is an example of corporate social responsibility. a. True b. False 3. The acronym ABC in the ABC model stands for attitude, behavioural intention, and commitment. a. True b. False 4. More educated workers are more likely to emphasize the extrinsic part of the job. a. True b. False 5. Cognitive dissonance is the tension produced when there is a conflict between attitudes and behaviour. a. True b. False 6. Substantial social learning occurs through cognitive dissonance. a. True b. False 7. Social constraints affect the relationship between attitudes and behaviour. a. True b. False 8. Bill is dissatisfied with his job and he constantly gossips about coworkers. He is engaging in workplace deviance behaviour. a. True b. False 9. One can never affect one’s level of attractiveness. a. True b. False 10. Different values generate different ethical behaviours. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_ORGB3 11. Values are fairly stable and will never change over time. a. True b. False 12. Most organizations will guide their employees’ ethical behaviour by having a code of conduct. a. True b. False 13. Persuasion is more successful when messages are framed with the same emotion as that felt by the receiver. a. True b. False 14. It is easier to persuade individuals with lower or higher self-esteem. a. True b. False 15. Low-Machs are more likely to engage in ethically questionable behaviour. a. True b. False 16. Behaviour that is considered above and beyond the call of duty on behalf of the organization is known as organizational citizenship. a. True b. False 17. Affect is the cognitive component of an attitude. a. True b. False 18. Normative commitment is an employee’s tendency to remain in an organization because the person cannot afford to leave. a. True b. False 19. The greater the attitude specificity, the stronger an attitude linkage to behaviour. a. True b. False 20. Employee absenteeism and job satisfaction are positively related. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_ORGB3 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Mabel receives a bonus when she meets her sales targets. What will likely happen as a result? a. She will skip work when she receives her bonus. b. She will perform better. c. She will seek higher rewards. d. Her performance will decrease in the future.

22. What is the term used to refer to contradictions between emotions experienced and expressed? a. emotional dissonance b. emotional display rules c. emotional contagion d. organizational emotions 23. Suppose an employee remains with a firm because he or she faces significant exit barriers. What characterizes this situation? a. organizational citizenship b. continuance commitment c. withdrawal syndrome d. dysfunctional attachment 24. Emma states to her friend after class, “I hate math.” What is influencing Emma’s attitude towards math? a. understanding b. information and experience c. evaluation d. direct experience 25. Attitudes are learned. What are two major influences? a. repeated behaviour and affect b. direct experience and social learning c. random behaviour modelling and unconscious motivation d. cognitive dissonance and negative affectivity 26. Which of the following best identifies the behavioural component of an attitude? a. observation b. attitude scales c. physiological indicators d. clinical testing 27. What two major factors influence ethical behaviour? a. individual characteristics and organizational factors b. religion and value system c. terminal and instrumental values d. level of ethical reasoning and intelligence 28. Job satisfaction encourages organizational citizenship behaviour. What is an example of this behaviour? a. a tendency to exhibit strong ethical behaviour within the organization b. a tendency to express dissatisfaction to others c. a tendency to help out others d. a tendency to complain about the organization

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Chap 04_ORGB3 29. Suppose a salesperson is required to sell a damaged DVD player but believes this act to be unethical. What is the salesperson experiencing? a. the embarrassment of cognitive dissonance b. the euphoria of cognitive dissonance c. the tension of cognitive dissonance d. a moral conflict 30. Which statement best exemplifies the concept of locus of control with regards to ethics? a. Individuals with an internal locus of control tend to make more ethical decisions than others. b. Individuals with an internal locus of control are more likely to exhibit uncontrollable behaviour. c. Other people control individuals who have a strong internal locus of control. d. An individual’s locus of control has little to do with ethical behaviour.

31. What characteristics affect the persuasion process? a. source, intended, and directed b. source, intended, and message c. source, target, and message d. source, directed, and message 32. What are the three major source characteristics affecting persuasion? a. expertise, credibility, and charisma b. expertise, charisma, and attractiveness c. expertise, trustworthiness, and attractiveness d. credibility, charisma, and attractiveness 33. What are among the things that negatively affect employees’ work attitudes? a. relaxed work climate b. demanding job over which employees have no control c. conflicts with other departments d. attentive manager 34. Desiree wants to remain with the organization due to her strong alignment with the organizational goals. What type of commitment is she demonstrating? a. normative b. attitudinal c. affective d. intentional 35. What is a set of emotions, beliefs, and behaviours that are expressed with some degrees of favour or disfavour? a. mood b. beliefs c. values d. attitude 36. What are the components of attitudes? a. behavioural, affective, and interactive c. cognitive, interactive, and behavioural

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b. cognitive, behavioural, and affective d. personal, cognitive, and behavioural

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Chap 04_ORGB3 37. A manager asks an employee if she would use a new computer software package. What is the manager attempting to determine? a. behavioural intention b. affect c. dissonance reduction d. cognition 38. What is a pleasurable or positive emotional state resulting from the appraisal of one’s job or job experiences? a. job satisfaction b. job morale c. job involvement d. loyalty 39. What is the focus of the “conventional” level of Kohlberg’s Levels of Moral Development? a. self-interest b. universal values c. principles of justice d. expectations of others 40. What may develop when one’s attitudes and required job behaviour conflict? a. affect b. cognitive dissonance c. behavioural tendency d. attitude consonance 41. What does JDI measure as compared to MSQ? a. JDI measures job satisfaction while MSQ measures job performance. b. Both measure job satisfaction. c. JDI measures work attitude while MSQ measures job satisfaction. d. JDI measures job performance while MSQ measures job satisfaction.

42. Darcy Bloom’s Remembers the time she went skydiving 30 years ago because of the great joy and exhilaration she felt. What does this demonstrate? a. Perception can affect memory. b. Emotions have the ability to affect memory. c. Adrenaline can fuel memory. d. Risky activities can cause positive emotions.

43. Which statement best describes work values? a. They describe an employee’s perception of loyalty in the workplace. b. They are an employee’s perception of their value in the workplace. c. They affect an employee’s perception of their individual values. d. They influence an employee’s perception of right and wrong in the workplace.

44. What is the term for counterproductive behaviour that violates organizational norms and causes harm to others in the organization? a. job dissatisfaction b. organizational citizenship behaviour c. job descriptive index d. workplace deviance behaviour 45. What is the term for the strength of an individual’s identification with an organization? a. behavioural commitment b. normative commitment c. organizational commitment d. continuance commitment

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Chap 04_ORGB3 46. Which of the following is an example of an internal locus of control? a. Farid made a mistake and acknowledged this to his colleagues. b. Farid made a mistake and said it was due to his supervisor not providing the proper instructions. c. Farid believes that fate affects the outcome of his tasks. d. Farid believes that he must do what other employees do.

47. Sabeen smiles and maintains her composure while serving a rude and frustrating customer. What is she engaging in? a. emotional display rules b. locus of control c. positive emotions d. emotional labour 48. Sandrine is extremely loyal to her company and therefore has no plans to leave. What is Sandrine experiencing? a. continuance commitment b. affective commitment c. job displacement d. employee turnover 49. Which statement is an example of the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion? a. Persuasion occurs over the routes of message, target, and source characteristics. b. The likelihood that an attitude will change is largely dependent on the amount of time spent attempting to change the attitude. c. Attitudinal change is a function of three interactive routes: physical, mental, and visual. d. Persuasion occurs through two routes: the central and the peripheral.

50. What are the two major cognitive routes to persuasion? a. Persuasion occurs through central and peripheral routes. b. Persuasion occurs through direct and peripheral routes. c. Persuasion occurs through central and circular routes. d. Persuasion occurs through direct and central routes.

51. What represents an individual’s judgments about what is good versus what is bad? a. message b. values c. ethic d. attitude 52. Employees of an airline attend work during a blizzard even though travel is as treacherous for them as for the airline’s customers. What is the term for this behaviour? a. continuance commitment b. affective commitment c. organizational citizenship behaviour d. organizational involvement 53. What is the process of moving through stages of maturity in terms of making ethical decisions? a. cognitive moral development b. ethical moral development c. morality theory d. ethics decision-making process

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Chap 04_ORGB3 54. In what circumstance are job satisfaction and employee performance likely to be positively related? a. when pay is linked to attendance b. when non-participative techniques are used c. when valued rewards are tied directly to performance d. when employee turnover is high 55. The example set by an ethical manager that alters employees’ attitudes is an example of which of the following? a. modelling b. direct experience c. cognitive dissonance d. social perception 56. Demi demonstrates short-lived, intense reactions when things go wrong at work. What is occurring? a. Demi is experiencing intense behaviour. b. Demi is persuading. c. Demi displays her emotions. d. Demi is experiencing organizational citizenship behaviour.

57. According to your text book, which statement best reflects the findings reported on OCBs in relation to coworkers’ behaviours? a. There was no link between OCBs and coworkers’ behaviours. b. Good deeds are not likely to be contagious due to variation in whether individuals are high or low OCBs. c. If a coworker chose to perform OCBs, other coworkers on the team were more likely to do so. d. The impact of one worker’s OCBs cannot be spread throughout an entire department.

58. The authors of your text would be considered a persuasive source in attempting to change employee attitudes about the benefits of employee empowerment. What is most commonly the cause of the authors’ persuasive ability? a. their age b. their trustworthiness c. their writing skills d. their expertise 59. Which statement best exemplifies the relationship between job satisfaction and organizational performance? a. Companies with satisfied workers have better performance. b. It does not exist. c. It is similar to that between job satisfaction and individual performance. d. It has not been investigated.

60. The CEO knows the way she treats her employees during the layoff is critical. Why does she feel this way? a. Less value is placed on autonomy, independence, and achievement. b. Moving the laid-off employees out of the company quickly will reduce dialogue with remaining employees. c. There will be greater intrinsic satisfaction. d. Preserving the dignity of employees will preserve the company’s reputation.

61. What do low-Mach individuals most value? a. emotional detachment b. loyalty and personal relationships c. the “get it done anyway” mentality d. manipulation of others Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB3 62. Which statement best reflects the relationship between job satisfaction and absenteeism? a. Job satisfaction and absenteeism are not related. b. When job satisfaction is high, absenteeism is high. c. When job satisfaction is high, absenteeism is low. d. When job satisfaction is low, absenteeism is low.

63. You are a supervisor who strongly believes in keeping an open line of communication with your employees; you always keep your office door open and instruct your assistant not to screen phone calls from employees. What do these conditions illustrate? a. lack of connection between attitudes and appropriate behaviour b. attitude specificity c. non-compliance with social constraints d. cognitive dissonance 64. Tula has a one-hour commute each way to work. This causes her to have high levels of anxiety and she is less productive at work. How will her long commute affect her job satisfaction? a. It will have no effect on her job satisfaction. b. It could decrease her job satisfaction. c. It could increase job satisfaction. d. It could decrease job dissatisfaction.

65. An individual holds a negative attitude toward women in management because of a cultural belief system but does not display behaviour consistent with that attitude when in a group. What most likely explains the weak link between the attitude and the behaviour in this example? a. social constraints b. low self-monitoring c. poor measurement timing d. low attitude relevance 66. Dora is willing to do whatever it takes to get her own way at work. What concept is behind her actions? a. strong in external locus of control b. self-cognition c. low in cognitive moral development d. Machiavellian 67. What personality trait influences individual ethical decision making? a. narcissism b. self-monitoring c. locus of control d. psychopathy 68. Which of the following is an example of a high-Mach individual? a. He is easily manipulated by others. b. He accepts authority better than a low-Mach individual. c. He exhibits very strong corporate loyalty. d. He believes that any means justify the desired ends.

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Chap 04_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Direct cognitive processing of the message’s content b. Perceived obligation to remain with an organization c. The individual is not motivated to pay much attention to the message’s content d. Identification with an organization e. Desire to remain in an organization 69. Affective Commitment 70. Organizational Commitment 71. Normative Commitment 72. Central Route 73. Peripheral Route Match the following: a. A good feeling about one’s job and work b. An instrument using five-point scales for measuring job satisfaction c. An employee’s intention to remain as an organizational member because of a strong desire to do so d. A source characteristic of a message e. Involves direct cognitive processing of a message’s content 74. Expertise 75. Job Satisfaction 76. MSQ 77. Affective Commitment 78. Central Route Match the following: a. The emotional component of an attitude b. Reflects a person’s perceptions and beliefs c. A conflict between attitudes and behaviour d. Acquisition of attitudes through observing others e. Powerful influence on our attitudes 79. Cognition 80. Direct Experience 81. Cognitive Dissonance 82. Modelling 83. Affect

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Chap 04_ORGB3 84. Briefly discuss the relationship between job satisfaction and performance. Are satisfied workers more productive or are productive workers more satisfied?

85. What elements need to be present in order for one’s influence attempt to be successful?

86. Identify several positive and negative work attitudes and indicate the importance of positive work attitudes.

87. What aspects of one’s existence and environment shape attitudes?

88. Briefly explain the ABC model and provide an example of each model element.

89. Discuss the individual factors that affect ethical behavior.

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Chap 04_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. True 20. False 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. a

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Chap 04_ORGB3 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. c 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB3 55. a 56. c 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. d 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. e 70. d 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. e 79. b 80. e 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB3 83. a 84. The link between satisfaction and performance has been widely explored. One view holds that satisfaction causes good performance. However, this has very limited support as there are several other equally important causes of good performance. The other view, that performance leads to satisfaction, has tended to have more validity when the performance leads to rewards that are valued and clearly tied to performance.

85. The person trying to influence and change the attitude of another has to be trustworthy or credible, knowledgeable, and display a pleasing appearance. The receptor of the persuasion attempt must feel comfortable and free of fear in order to receive the message. The correctness and completeness of the message are crucial for a successful attitude influence attempt. Incomplete and/or inaccurate information may produce a failed message.

86. Respect, commitment, and loyalty are positive work attitudes. Employees who possess these attitudes are more likely to be satisfied with their jobs and are good performers. Negative work attitudes (disrespect, disloyalty, and belligerence) are likely to be associated with poor attendance, poor work, and job dissatisfaction.

87. Family members, friends, coworkers, and significant others can influence our attitudes; this is social learning. Young persons acquire attitudes through watching the behaviour of others; this is called modelling. Direct experience with significant events (floods, fires, labour strikes) can also influence attitude formation.

88. The ABC model represents the nature of an attitude or set of attitudes by focusing on three attitude components: affect, behavioural intention, and cognition. Affect is the emotional aspect of an attitude, or “I like my supervisor.”

One’s inclination to behave in a certain manner is the second element of attitude. One can be supportive, aggressive, or even hostile toward a coworker. If hostile toward a fellow employee, you will probably not help the individual and may even try to harm him or her. The third attitude component is cognition, or thought that reflects perceptions and belief. “I believe Mary is lazy and therefore I must closely supervise her” indicates the cognitive feature of an attitude.

89.

Individual ethical behaviour is affected by values, locus of control, Machiavellianism, and cognitive moral development.

Values are a person’s judgments about what is good versus what is bad. This will affect ethical behaviour. Those with an internal locus of control make more ethical decisions than do externals. High-Machs care little for the conventional notions of right and wrong and will behave less ethically. A person’s level of cognitive moral development will also affect ethical behaviour. Higher levels of cognitive moral development will lead to more ethical behaviour.

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Chap 05_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Managers often make assumptions about what motivates employees. a. True b. False 2. ERG’s growth need, McClelland’s need for achievement, and Maslow’s self-actualization are similar. a. True b. False 3. Workplace injustice can trigger aggressive reactions that harm both individuals and the organization. a. True b. False 4. Employees are motivated by extremely difficult, challenging goals. a. True b. False 5. Treating employees fairly in who gets what is known as interactional justice. a. True b. False 6. Motivating Olympic athletes by offering cash rewards happens only in North America. a. True b. False 7. The key constructs in the expectancy theory of motivation are the valence of an outcome, expectancy, and equity. a. True b. False 8. Process theories identify internal factors, typically unfulfilled needs that influence motivation. a. True b. False 9. Instrumentality is the value of a reward. a. True b. False 10. The need for affiliation describes individuals who are motivated by competition. a. True b. False 11. Needs of workers are similar across cultures. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB3 12. As organizations become increasingly international, pay inequities will become less prevalent. a. True b. False 13. Expectancy theory contends that employees must see a strong link between their efforts and results. a. True b. False 14. A distinguishing feature of Maslow’s need hierarchy is the progression hypothesis that says only ungratified needs motivate behaviour. a. True b. False 15. McGregor’s Theory Y states that people are by nature resistant to change. a. True b. False 16. McClelland’s theory addresses the newest need to emerge in research: the need for autonomy. a. True b. False 17. Inequity exists when one person’s ratio of inputs to outputs is different than the ratio of a comparison person. a. True b. False 18. According to McClelland, personalized power benefits many. a. True b. False 19. Goals narrow one’s attention by directing efforts toward goal-achievement-related activities. a. True b. False 20. ERG theory explains both progression need and gratification up the hierarchy and regression when people are faced with frustration. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. People who feel they’ve been fairly treated are more likely to engage in which of the following? a. retaliation types of behaviours b. OCBs c. workplace deviance behaviours d. motivational behaviours

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Chap 05_ORGB3 22. In your department you have an employee named Sam, a 24-year-old single father who works for minimum wage. You would expect that Sam is trying to satisfy which need? a. social b. esteem c. self-actualization d. physiological 23. ERG’s growth category is equivalent to which of Maslows’ needs? a. safety and security b. self-esteem and self-actualization c. interpersonal esteem and social d. social and safety 24. What type of individual is an employee who does not show concern over a colleague’s larger bonus? a. an equitable individual b. an entitled individual c. an equity-sensitive individual d. a Benevolent 25. Which hypothesis suggests that when people are frustrated by their inability to meet needs at the next higher level in the hierarchy, they regress to lower-level needs and intensify their desire to gratify these needs? a. ERG regression b. Maslow’s progression c. Theory X d. needs theory 26. What factor is commonly used to motivate Olympic athletes? a. extra training rewards b. recognition rewards c. cash rewards d. patriotism rewards 27. If individuals’ needs for power, achievement, and affiliation are subconscious, how would a manager know which one motivates which employee? a. Employees can take a written test to determine their needs. b. Employees should be asked which need motivates them. c. It is not necessary to know which need motivates which employee. d. A manager who knows their staff well can reasonably determine who values which need.

28. Josh is comfortable with an equity ratio greater than Dan, even though they perform the same job, work the same hours, and their work effort is very similar. According to revisions in equity theory, which statement exemplifies Josh? a. Josh is an Entitled. b. Josh is a Giver. c. Josh is a Benevolent. d. Josh lacks loyalty.

29. Tyra has dreamed of making a lot of money since she was young. That has driven her to achieve great career success. What is Tyra motivated by? a. internal motivators b. external incentives c. Maslow’s needs d. high need for affiliation 30. An important revision to Adams’s original equity theory involves individual preferences for equity. Which of the following applies to an equity-sensitive individual? a. uncomfortable with an equity ratio less than that of a comparison other b. uncomfortable with an equity ratio greater than that of a comparison other c. comfortable with an equity ratio less than that of a comparison other d. comfortable with an equity ratio equal to that of a comparison other Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB3 31. What is a defining characteristic of equity theory? a. It focuses on distributive justice. b. It focuses on procedural justice. c. It focuses on interactional justice. d. It focuses on equation justice.

32. Which statement best summarizes equity theory? a. There is a high need for power, affiliation, and achievement. b. Motivation is a function of perceived fairness in a social exchange. c. It is based on motivation and hygiene factors. d. The theory is based on a hierarchy of needs.

33. You own and operate a small business that employs 25 people. You are considering cancelling extended health and dental insurance for your employees because of increasing costs. If you do cancel these benefits, which need will become of greater concern to your employees? a. safety and security b. self-esteem c. affiliation d. self-actualization 34. Your manager has a strong desire to control others. Which learned need does this manager subconsciously exhibit? a. power b. achievement c. affiliation d. safety and security 35. Nora, as a manager, has a high concern for others and is interested in pursuing organizational goals as part of the larger group. What does Nora demonstrate? a. high need for personal power b. high need for socialized power c. high need for affiliation d. high need for achievement 36. What does the statement, “What are my chances of getting the rewards I value if I satisfactorily complete my job” exemplify? a. valence b. instrumentality c. expectancy d. equity 37. According to the text, what is one of the major aspects of McClelland’s theory? a. The needs that drive motivation are fixed within a person and cannot be changed by external forces. b. Environmental factors will affect which needs motivate a person. c. Managers cannot determine which needs will motivate their employees. d. A good manager can change what motivates an employee.

38. Which new need, not addressed by McClelland’s needs theory, has emerged in research? a. need for autonomy b. need for bureaucracy c. need for direction d. need for freedom 39. From a productivity perspective, which component of organizational behaviour has a more significant impact on the organization? a. motivation b. attitudes c. perception d. personality Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB3 40. An employee who tries to get their colleague’s bonus cut because of perceived inequity is engaging in which strategy to restore equity? a. altering’s one’s outcomes b. altering one’s inputs c. rationalizing the inequity d. altering the comparison other’s outcomes 41. According to expectancy theory, what do individuals base their behaviour on? a. dissatisfaction b. unfulfilled needs c. feelings of equity d. anticipated outcomes 42. Which theory includes the factors of effort, performance, and outcomes? a. goal-setting b. two-factor c. ERG d. expectancy 43. Which statement would best express your feelings if you did not receive the same recognition as your colleague, for the same amount of effort and work, in a project you had completed together? a. benevolence b. negative inequity c. positive inequity d. distributive justice 44. Which of the following best describes scientific management? a. It was put forward in the early 2000s. b. It was the first formal theory of motivation. c. It was a theory focused on studying working conditions and employee morale. d. It had no influence on future motivation theories.

45. According to Maslow, when does an individual stop being satisfied by a need? a. never b. when other needs become obvious c. when the need is mostly satisfied d. when new needs come into play 46. What motivational theory uses the terms specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound? a. goal-setting b. need c. ERG d. expectancy 47. According to the textbook, what is a key component for goal-setting theory? a. extrinsic rewards b. moral maturity c. autonomous workforce d. employee commitment 48. Theory X management would engage in which of the following behaviours? a. assume that employees will be internally motivated b. allow employees to make decisions related to their jobs c. monitor employees closely to make sure they are not “slacking off” d. engage in a participative style of management

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Chap 05_ORGB3 49. Which is an example of a SMART goal? a. Have it done by Friday and use the correct document formatting this time. b. By Friday I want to see progress on the new warehouse proposal. c. Complete the report as soon as possible. d. Complete your draft proposal for the new employee benefits program by Friday at 12h. We’ll meet then and make plans to finalize.

50. In what way are the motivation theories of Maslow and ERG similar? a. Maslow’s belongingness falls into ERG’s growth. b. Maslow’s five classifications align to ERG’s three classifications. c. Maslow progression theory aligns to ERG’s regression hypothesis. d. Maslow’s self-actualization falls into ERG’s existence classification.

51. What is the term for the importance and value placed on a reward in expectancy theory? a. instrumentality b. valence c. need satisfaction d. likelihood 52. Marla is motivated by challenge, personal satisfaction, and doing interesting work. What is Marla is motivated by? a. external incentives b. Theory X c. intrinsic factors d. Maslow’s physiological need 53. What are the first and last needs in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs model? a. achievement, power b. security, social c. power, affiliation d. physiological, self-actualization 54. According to expectancy theory, what is the probable employee reaction when they have repeatedly failed and the likelihood of reward has dropped? a. reducing effort b. increasing input c. increasing effort d. raising outcome valence 55. What is one of the causes of motivational problems according to expectancy theory? a. mistrust of one’s manager b. disbelief in a relationship between effort and performance c. receiving valued rewards d. strong instrumentality 56. Which factor would be an element of a goal that states sales must increase by three percent? a. time bound b. measurable c. achievable d. realistic

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Chap 05_ORGB3 57. Which statement best exemplifies current motivation theories? a. The reinforcement approach to motivation has been found to be superior to other motivational models. b. The motivational models that make strong economic assumptions regarding human motivation have received the most universal acceptance. c. There are several approaches to motivation, and one or another may be useful in specific organizational contexts, with specific individuals or groups, at different times. d. Freud’s psychodynamic theory of motivation has generally been supported with the strongest empirical evidence.

58. Which statement best summarizes Maslow’s progression hypothesis? a. Needs are ordered. b. Individuals will move down the hierarchy as well as up the hierarchy. c. Only ungratified needs motivate behaviour. d. Bloom’s Higher Order needs are more important than lower order needs.

59. Bill knows that employees will exert higher levels of effort when goals are specific and challenging. This is the basis of which theory? a. goal setting b. equity c. needs d. ERG 60. Which of the following is a process theory of motivation? a. Maslow’s theory b. ERG theory c. equity theory d. McClelland’s theory 61. What will allowing employees to participate in the setting of their goals do? a. increase their self-motivation b. increase their clarity c. increase their commitment d. increase their specificity 62. According to the expectancy theory of motivation, what can employees most easily adjust? a. reward b. expectancy c. reward distribution d. effort 63. What need applies to wanting to be successful in your job? a. security b. achievement c. affiliation d. power and dominance 64. What do High nPow individuals have a desire to accomplish? a. challenging goals b. influencing others and changing people or events c. developing relationships with coworkers d. emotional growth

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Chap 05_ORGB3 65. When dealing with her employees, Maria takes the time to find out what kinds of rewards each of her employees prefers and will then attempt to offer those in the work environment. She is likely following which motivation theory? a. equity theory b. goal setting theory c. expectancy theory d. Theory X 66. Derek’s manager considered him lazy and self-centred. What theory is this an example of? a. Theory X b. Theory Y c. Theory Z d. motivation 67. You have accepted a job offer and will shortly begin working in your first professional job. Your company provides a very competitive salary and benefit package. Your attention is now directed to learning and advancement opportunities. What would ERG and Theory X and Y call your new concerns? a. relatedness and Theory X b. existence and Theory Y c. growth and Theory Y d. growth and Theory X 68. What can organizations do to keep rewards individualized enough to meet various employee needs (needs theory) while trying to ensure that everyone feels that all the different rewards are fair (equity theory)? a. give employees a choice of rewards and allow them to choose b. give rewards based on seniority in the company c. pick different rewards depending on an employee’s job d. make the whole reward process complex 69. What has research found with regard to the level of difficulty of goals? a. The highest level of effort occurs when goals are moderately difficult. b. Goals should be moderately easy for peak performance to occur. c. Very hard and difficult to achieve goals are best for employees. d. Goal difficulty level has no bearing on level of effort from employee.

70. Sadie is climbing Mount Kilimanjaro because she loves the physical challenge of pushing her body. What is motivating Sadie? a. external incentives b. Maslow’s needs c. Theory X d. internal motivators Match the following: a. Arousal and activation of goal-directed behaviour b. Factors and conditions outside the person that may explain and predict a person’s behaviour c. Attributes and characteristics inside the individual that determine behaviour 71. Motivation 72. Internal 73. External

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Chap 05_ORGB3 74. What are some of the characteristics of high achievers?

75. Briefly identify and explain the goal-setting theory.

76. How can expectancy theory be used to understand behaviour and predict performance?

77. Equity theory can be used to explain consequences stemming from differences in pay. Assume many employees in a department feel underpaid. What do you predict their behaviour and performance to be?

78. Is McGregor’s Theory Y more appropriate given today’s issues of managing organizational behaviour? Explain.

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Chap 05_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. b 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. a 26. c

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Chap 05_ORGB3 27. d 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB3 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. a 69. a 70. d 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. High achievers prefer to be in situations where they fully use their talents and apply their knowledge. They set moderate goals, or ones that are achievable. They like to receive feedback concerning how well they are performing.

The feedback should be given fairly quickly and should be reflective of progress toward goal achievement. Finally, high achievers do not like having external events or other people interfere with progress toward goals.

75. It is the process of establishing desired results that guide and direct behaviour. According to this theory, people with specific, challenging goals will outperform those with general, “do your best goals” or no goals at all. The higher the goal, the better the performance; that is, people work harder to reach difficult goals, as long as they are committed to the goal and have the skills to achieve it. Goal setting is most effective when there is feedback regarding progress.

76. If a person’s valued rewards are known, if the likelihood of achieving these outcomes is realistic, and if one’s efforts lead to high performance which in turn results in receipt of valued rewards, the work situation can be adjusted by the supervisors to enhance employee success.

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Chap 05_ORGB3 77. Some may reduce their contributions or performance. Others may leave the organization. The other or comparison person can be changed. Or, the inequity can be rationalized and eventually accepted. A few workers may even try to alter the comparison person’s inputs and outputs.

78. Yes. Employee empowerment, participative management, teamwork, total quality management, and other modern management approaches and techniques can be facilitated more easily under a Theory Y set of assumptions about employees. Theory Y recognizes employee initiative, employee interest in self-improvement, and employee willingness to assume greater responsibilities. The interests and abilities of employees can be more fully utilized under a Theory Y approach.

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Chap 06_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The cognitive appraisal approach to stress emphasizes the fit between a person and his or her environment in terms of individual abilities and task or role demands. a. True b. False 2. Emotional toxins typically don’t spread through a work environment, resulting in a range of disturbances. a. True b. False 3. Self-reliant individuals tend to be better at transformational coping. a. True b. False 4. Type A behaviour is also labelled coronary-prone behaviour. a. True b. False 5. Prolonged stress is dangerous. a. True b. False 6. According to Harry Levinson and Freudian psychoanalytic theory, self-image is the embodiment of a person’s perfect self. a. True b. False 7. As Sybil is a pessimist it is understandable that she may have low levels of achievement and possibly even depression during times of stress. a. True b. False 8. Individuals who display hardiness tend to be Type A personalities. a. True b. False 9. Individuals who do not react well to stress generally exhibit a willingness to take on new challenges as well as commitment to the organization. a. True b. False 10. Interrole conflict is caused by conflicting expectations related to a single role. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_ORGB3 11. Change and lack of control are two of the most stressful demands people face at work. a. True b. False 12. World class athletes use stress-induced energy in positive and productive ways. a. True b. False 13. Interrole conflict occurs when an employee has a major report due by the end of the day and at the same time, has a sick child at home. a. True b. False 14. Individual interventions related to stress are generally sufficient and there is no need for the organization to interfere. a. True b. False 15. Individuals working in a unhealthy workplace are three times more likely to report substance abuse. a. True b. False 16. Employee assistance programs have been designed in part to provide help to employees in coping with nonwork demands. a. True b. False 17. Role ambiguity and task uncertainty both indicate lack of information. a. True b. False 18. The ERI and JDCS models link factors of job strain to negative consequences. a. True b. False 19. The fight-or-flight response to stress is based on an environmental demand that upsets a person’s natural steady state according to the homeostatic approach. a. True b. False 20. Stress may be a by-product of open office designs. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_ORGB3 21. Transformational coping is actively changing an event into something less subjectively stressful by viewing it in a broader life perspective. a. True b. False 22. Nonwork demands may broadly be identified as home demands from an individual’s personal life environment and personal demands that are self-imposed. a. True b. False 23. It is unfortunate that stress carries a negative connotation as though it were something to be avoided. a. True b. False 24. Type B personalities display insecure behaviour and may respond aggressively in conflict situations. a. True b. False 25. Primary stress prevention is designed to reduce and possibly eliminate the source of stress, or the stressor. a. True b. False 26. Diet may play a direct role in stress and stress management a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

27. Which of the following best exemplifies the person-environment fit approach to stress? a. the notion that perception and cognitive evaluations of situations differ and accordingly stress is mostly determined by perception b. the idea that a lack of fit between a person’s self-image or concept and their ideal generates large stress c. the fit between external and internal role expectations d. the belief that effort will lead to performance 28. Which statement about stress and performance would be suggested by the Yerkes-Dodson law? a. Stress and performance are inversely related. b. Performance tends to be greatest in the midrange of the stress-performance curve. c. Stress and performance are unrelated. d. Initial stress (or the onset of stress) causes performance to drop significantly.

29. What is the term for the adverse psychological, physical, behavioural, and organizational consequence that may occur as a result of stressful events? a. anxiety disorder b. distress c. stress response d. stressor Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB3 30. Which statement best exemplifies the stress response sequence? a. It is based on cognition that results in the release of chemical messengers. b. It redirects blood to the brain and large muscle groups. c. It increases alertness through improved vision, hearing and other sensory processes. d. It suppresses the immune system.

31. A young, single parent is trying to get a university degree while working full time. What is the root of her stress? a. intrarole conflict b. work overload c. role ambiguity d. interrole conflict 32. Which statement applies to individuals possessing a Type A personality? a. They tend to be relatively calm in difficult situations. b. They are socially secure. c. They become aggressive when faced with conflict and other work-related difficulties. d. They are less prone than Type B personalities to heart attacks.

33. What demonstrates the best practice if you want to minimize stress during change? a. providing a short notice period of the change to discourage worry b. presenting the final solution for the change c. communicating the change involved and the reasons behind it d. delegating work unequally to team members 34. What is role ambiguity? a. the confusion stemming from a situation where expectations of two roles conflict b. the confusion one experiences related to the expectations of others c. the confusion a person has in reconciling job demands and personal values d. the confusion stemming from conflicting expectations within a single role 35. Which of the following applies to self-reliance as a pattern of behaviour? a. healthy, secure, and psychologically distant b. healthy, secure, and interdependent c. healthy, secure, and overdependent d. healthy, secure, and counterdependent 36. What is an organizational cost of distress? a. interpersonal conflicts b. performance loss c. medical illness d. sabotage 37. One stress-handling strategy is considered an alternative to transformational coping and may lead to short-term stress reduction at the cost of long-term healthy life adjustment. What is this strategy? a. stress avoidance b. regressive coping c. counterdependence d. tertiary prevention

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Chap 06_ORGB3 38. Which of the following is synonymous with the term “strain”? a. eustress b. distress c. stress d. tension 39. How are the homeostatic/medical approach and the cognitive appraisal approach similar? a. Both consider their approaches to be on Freudian psychoanalysis. b. Both consider stress to be a form of strain. c. Both consider stress a result of person-environment interaction. d. Both consider there to be task, role and physical demands.

40. A father is called at work because his twin sons have hurt themselves at school. What is the cause of stress? a. role demands and home demands b. physical demands and home demands c. interpersonal demands and personal demands d. task demands and role demands 41. What is a defining characteristic of the person-environment fit approach in studying and understanding stress? a. cognitive appraisal of the stress situation b. ego involvement c. social and organizational role stress d. homeostasis 42. What characteristic is linked to stress vulnerability? a. extraversion b. openness to experience c. self-monitoring d. self-efficacy 43. What does EAP stand for? a. Employer Assistance Plan c. Employee Assistance Program

b. Employment Adjustment Program d. Employees’ Advancement Plan

44. What is the most notable self-imposed personal demand? a. civic duties b. child rearing c. being a perfectionist d. workaholism 45. What is important for preventing the accumulation of unnecessary muscular tension? a. leisure time pursuits b. strength training c. physical exercise d. flexibility training 46. What does research indicate as the most disturbing aspects of noise? a. Chronic noise triggers the fight or flight stress response. b. Urban, occupational, and everyday noise are not under the radar. c. Noise can be lethal. d. People get used to noise.

47. What personality dimension does the psychoanalytic approach to stress include? a. self-monitoring b. self-efficacy c. internal/external control d. self-image Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB3 48. What best summarizes the job demand-control-support model? a. high job demand contributes to job strain b. low job control and high support contributes to job strain c. high job demand plus low job control and support contributes to job strain d. low job support contributes to job strain 49. Which statement best exemplifies the role of secondary prevention stress management? a. Reduce, modify, or eliminate the demand causing stress. b. Eliminate key environmental sources of stress or provide direct intervention to reduce the source of the stress. c. Alter or modify the individual’s or the organization’s response to a demand. d. Heal individual or organizational symptoms of distress and strain.

50. What are the two major categories of “role stress” at work? a. role conflict and role ambiguity b. role conflict and role overload c. role ambiguity and role overload d. role overload and ethical conflict 51. What is the relationship between level of stress and self-efficacy? a. low b. medium c. high d. none 52. What personality type tends to be resistant to distress? a. individuals who are overindependent b. individuals who possess personality hardiness c. individuals who are counterdependent d. individuals who are considered Type A 53. What is the GP3 time management system? a. set, prioritize, plan, and praise b. strategize, plan, and praise c. set, plan, and praise d. systemize, prioritize, and praise 54. What is a major shortcoming of technological innovation? a. provides access to global market b. blurs the line between work and home c. permits routine tasks to be dealt with easier d. results in inconsistent or incompatible expectations 55. Which approach to stress is based on the concept of homeostasis? a. social psychological b. psychoanalytical c. medical d. psychological-cognitive

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Chap 06_ORGB3 56. You provide flexibility and support for your employees during the very busy times of the year. What type of preventive stress management is your approach an example of? a. stressor directed b. secondary prevention c. asymptomatic d. symptom directed 57. Which situation would result in the highest risk of health disorders? a. Type B individuals in Type A organizations b. Type A individuals in Type B organizations c. Type B individuals in Type B organizations d. Type A individuals in Type A organizations 58. What stage of stress prevention would involve the strategies of job redesign, goal setting, and career management? a. secondary stage b. primary stage c. reduction stage d. escalating stage 59. You are a working parent. You have a major sales presentation at work on Monday and a sick child at home on Sunday night. What are you likely to experience? a. role ambiguity b. person–role conflict c. interrole conflict d. intrarole conflict 60. What best exemplifies an employee assistance program? a. a prevention approach to relieve or reduce stress b. a first-level or primary stress prevention approach c. an aftercare program for drug-addicted employees d. an organizational approach to stress prevention 61. Which of the following is an example of interpersonal demands? a. extreme environment b. time pressures c. strenuous activities d. sexual harassment 62. What best illustrates the aim during tertiary prevention stress management? a. help employees through effort-reward management b. help employees prevent stress through strong communication c. help employees by giving them more control d. help employees deal with stress symptoms by debriefing and time off 63. Courtney has regular team meetings, and provides opportunities for his staff to express opinions. What management standard and competency is Courtney demonstrating? a. support and visible approach b. demand and managing workload c. control and visible approach d. control and participative approach 64. Which of the following is the cause of missed deadlines, a sense of being overwhelmed, and constant rushing? a. need for a work modification plan b. lack of positive thinking c. lack of physical exercise d. poor time management Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB3 65. Connie is an employee at a company in Europe. According to your textbook, what does research indicate is most likely a source of stress for Connie? a. lack of home time b. increasing work hours c. tight deadlines and working at high speeds d. technology changes 66. Which of the following indicates the characteristic of an individual who is relatively good at transformational coping? a. hardiness personality b. external locus of control c. overdependence d. low tolerance for ambiguity 67. What is the term for the unconscious preparation to fight or flee that a person experiences when faced with any demand? a. instinct b. avoidance c. arousal d. stress 68. What is the term for healthy or normal stress? a. eustress b. normstress c. stressless d. nostress 69. You supervise 10 employees, one of whom is clearly a Type A personality. How do you effectively manage this employee? a. Try to maintain a certain level of conflict with the employee because this will stimulate higher performance. b. Assist the employee through encouraging time management applications and convincing the person to pace him or herself. c. Frequently remind the employee about schedules and deadlines. d. Keep the employee very busy by adding tasks and projects to the person’s workload.

70. Which of the following is synonymous with eustress? a. unhealthy stress b. performance c. healthy stress d. productivity 71. Soo Lee wants to leave the party immediately. She is finding it difficult to engage with all the new people attending. What is Soo Lee experiencing? a. distress b. a stressor c. a negative reaction d. strain 72. Dalia is a great friend and a hard-worker. However she is considered overdependent by her parents and boyfriend. What behaviour is Dalia exhibiting for them to think this? a. organized and calm response to challenges b. introverted c. extraverted d. disorganized and anxious response to challenges

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Chap 06_ORGB3 73. A coal miner loses consciousness while underground. What category of work demand does this situation belong to? a. physical b. role c. task d. interpersonal 74. According to research, what increases the risk of physical and mental health conditions? a. high responsibilities and low decision making b. low responsibilities and high decision making c. low demands and high control d. high demands and low control 75. What two elements exist within the psychoanalytic approach? a. self-image and stress b. stress and work environment c. work environment and ego-ideal d. ego-ideal and self-image 76. A manager presses employees for both very fast work and high-quality work. What would this manager likely cause? a. interrole conflict b. role ambiguity c. intrarole conflict d. person–role conflict 77. A manager instructs an employee to ship an item with a minor defect to a customer. What is this an example of? a. non-role conflict b. role ambiguity c. person–role conflict d. interrole conflict 78. You are a supervisor of claims adjusters for a property and casualty insurance company; you assign and reassign adjusters to handle routine and emergency situations. Your managerial skills are being severely tested because several adjusters are threatening to quit after short-term emergency assignments. What short-term approach to their stressful situation would be most appropriate? a. Reduce work demands and set clear expectations. b. Rotate them back to their home location and place them on medical leave. c. Place them on EAP. d. Arrange for psychological counselling.

79. Which statement best summarizes the psychoanalytic approach? a. Stress results from a discrepancy between the idealized self and the real self-image. b. Stress results from a discrepancy between one’s self-esteem and self-monitoring. c. Stress results from a discrepancy between task demands and role demands. d. Stress results from a discrepancy between role expectations and self-image.

80. Which of the following phenomena is synonymous with the weak organ hypothesis? a. psychoanalytic phenomenon b. Yerkes-Dodson phenomenon c. Achilles’ heel phenomenon d. Myers-Briggs phenomenon

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Chap 06_ORGB3 81. What is an example of the secondary prevention method of organizational stress? a. goal setting b. role negotiation c. job redesign d. team building 82. What approach to stress includes the fight-or-flight stress response? a. psychoanalytic b. homeostatic c. person-environment fit d. cognitive appraisal Match the following: a. Change and lack of control b. Strenuous activities and hazardous substances c. Child and day care arrangements d. Abrasive personalities and domineering leadership e. Confused expectations coming from others 83. Task Demands 84. Interpersonal Demands 85. Home Demands 86. Role Ambiguity 87. Physical Demands Match the following: a. A healthy independent behaviour pattern with the individual being able to develop supportive attachments to others b. A personality resistant to distress c. An unhealthy, insecure pattern of behaviour that leads to separation from others d. Coronary-prone behaviour e. An unhealthy, insecure pattern of behaviour that leads to excessive attempts to achieve security through relationships with others 88. Hardiness 89. Counterdependence 90. Self-Reliance 91. Overdependence 92. Type A Personality

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Chap 06_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Recover from stressful events more quickly b. A thinking style or a person’s internal self-talk approach to distress c. A planning and prioritizing approach to one’s activities and job tasks d. Discussing difficult experiences e. An opportunity to rest and recover 93. Opening Up 94. Physical Exercise 95. Time Management 96. Positive Thinking 97. Leisure Time Activities Match the following: a. The embodiment of a person’s perfect self b. An equilibrium or steady state of bodily functioning c. Adverse consequences of stress d. The unconscious preparation to fight or flee e. The view of one’s self 98. Homeostasis 99. Stress Response 100. Distress 101. Self-Image 102. Ego-Ideal 103. How can job redesign modify a job to prevent excessive stress?

104. What are some of the differences between Type A and Type B personalities?

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Chap 06_ORGB3 105. Briefly indicate how you can prevent distress in preparing for the final exam of the course in which you are using this book.

106. Identify co-related organizational stress prevention methods to the individual stress prevention methods of learned optimism, time management, leisure time activities, physical exercise, relaxation training, diet, opening up, and professional help.

107. Which of the four approaches to stress appears most useful in understanding job and work-related stress?

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Chap 06_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. True 26. False

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Chap 06_ORGB3 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB3 55. c 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. d 63. d 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. d 73. a 74. d 75. d 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB3 83. a 84. d 85. c 86. e 87. b 88. b 89. c 90. a 91. e 92. d 93. d 94. a 95. c 96. b 97. e 98. b 99. d 100. c 101. e 102. a 103. Job redesign can change a number of job characteristics, including the number of tasks and the task completion sequence, job decision latitude or autonomy, production standards (qualitative and quantitative), specificity of information for job completion, and the equipment or technology used. Greater job decision latitude, more emphasis on output quality, unambiguous job descriptions, and flexibility in task sequencing can minimize distressful aspects of the job and possibly lead to greater job performance and success.

104. Type A persons tend to frequently be in a hurry, feel insecure, need to be liked, usually are counting accomplishments, try to exercise control over situations, exhibit tension, and are more prone to heart attacks. Type B persons tend to have an internal locus of control, are more socially secure, less ego involved in their work, are less stress prone, manage distress more effectively, have greater stress coping ability, and are less prone to heart attacks.

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Chap 06_ORGB3 105. Throughout the semester a student should remain in good physical health and engage in a regular exercise regime.

This will better ensure one’s stamina during final exam time. Second, the student can adopt a time management approach to studying the text material each week of the semester. Third, a study group could be formed for exam review purposes as well as a social support network. Finally, positive self-talk and thinking as well as self-confidence building can be practiced to develop the attitude that an exam is an opportunity to achieve success rather than avoid failure.

106. Positive thinking Identify pessimistic thoughts and then distract yourself from these thoughts Time management Flextime Leisure time activity Sponsored recreation Physical exercise Wellness program Relaxation training Work breaks Diet Nutrition classes Opening up Mentoring and social support groups Professional help Employee assistance programs 107. Of the four approaches (homeostatic, cognitive appraisal, person-environment, and psychoanalytic), personenvironment seems most appropriate to understand job-stress-producing situations. When one’s fit (in terms of skill, ability, and knowledge) with the job is close, distress is less likely to develop and job performance is more likely to be at or above standard.

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Chap 07_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Creativity is not widespread in the population but it can be easily learned through systematic training. a. True b. False 2. Formulating a set of decision rules for making inventory re-ordering decisions is an example of programmed decision making. a. True b. False 3. Studies indicate that anonymous electronic brainstorming groups outperform face-to-face brainstorming groups in the number of ideas generated. a. True b. False 4. Given the assumptions of the rational model, it is unrealistic. a. True b. False 5. The garbage can model asserts that decision making is organizational anarchy. a. True b. False 6. In groups, participants engage in discussions that can make them lose their focus. a. True b. False 7. Managers generally react the same to risk situations due to their education, training and experience. a. True b. False 8. A method to prevent groupthink is to bring in outside experts to evaluate the group process. a. True b. False 9. Time constraints don’t prevent managers from using group decision techniques. a. True b. False 10. Problem finding and recognition is an important early step in decision making. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_ORGB3 11. Heuristics are shortcuts in decision making that save mental activity. a. True b. False 12. Women tend to be more averse to risk taking, while men are prone to escalation of commitment. a. True b. False 13. In a decisional situation where the decision maker can calculate the probability of success for each alternative, conditions are uncertain. a. True b. False 14. After giving intuition tests to more than 10,000 executives, Agor has concluded that in most cases higher management positions were not held by individuals with higher levels of intuition. a. True b. False 15. A recent research study found a strong link between cognitive moral development and intuition. a. True b. False 16. Research suggests that individuals may be more prone to escalation of commitment than groups. a. True b. False 17. Culture really doesn’t make a difference in how people make decisions; the same principles apply everywhere. a. True b. False 18. Managers should acknowledge that some individuals do not respond well to participative decision making. a. True b. False 19. Evidence suggests that group brainstorming is less effective than a comparable number of individuals working alone. a. True b. False 20. Satisficing is the practice of adopting an acceptable solution. a. True b. False 21. Research shows that creativity is something you either have or you do not. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB3 22. A review of the research on intuition suggests that while intuition cannot be taught, managers can be trained to rely more fully on the prompting of their intuition. a. True b. False 23. Illusions of unanimity are considered to be a symptom of groupthink. a. True b. False 24. According to Henry Mintzberg, managers are predisposed to use a more systematic approach to decision making that is consistent with the rational model. a. True b. False 25. The tendency to continue to support a failing course of action is known as consistency theory. a. True b. False 26. For individuals to fully engage in workplace participation and feel empowered, they must commit to parts of the task, and never be part of the final outcome. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

27. Cirque du Soleil has consistently made effective decisions, as reflected by its continued success.

What is the best explanation for Cirque du Soleil’s good decision making? a. finding a good fit between type of decision and choice of decision-making model b. making consistent use of the bounded rationality model of decision making c. understanding the skill sets of the founders and letting each founder make decisions in his area of expertise d. applying the blue ocean approach and not backing down from their original decisions 28. What best corresponds to the cognitive style in the first step of the Z model? a. feeling b. sensing c. intuiting d. thinking 29. When is a group approach to decision making appropriate? a. when the problem is highly structured b. when breadth of experience is needed to solve a problem c. when employees are indifferent to the outcome d. when technical accuracy is not important

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Chap 07_ORGB3 30. What could an organization do to increase creativity? a. provide specific or identifiable rewards b. give all workers private offices c. rotate workers through different jobs and expose them to different projects d. emphasize competition for creative ideas and increase in money 31. Cara believes in her solution to the problem. At this point, 500 hours and several thousand dollars have gone into implementing the solution, even though the business is still declining. What is most likely occurring? a. sunk cost loss b. escalation of commitment c. failure to analyze the alternatives objectively d. conflicted reason theory 32. What is a characteristic of participative decision making? a. higher levels of employee job satisfaction b. rapid decision making c. less creativity among employees d. interpersonal rivalry within a group 33. What is a key organizational requirement for participation and empowerment? a. a clear group goal b. a supportive culture c. a team with individual motivation d. an instrumental reward system 34. Which statement best summarizes the bounded rationality model of problem solving and decision making? a. Managers critically view the world as complex and multivariate. b. Managers generate a wide array of decision options and select the one that meets all decision criteria. c. Managers are comfortable making decisions without identifying all options. d. Managers follow statistical rules for decision making.

35. In what stage of creativity does one engage in other activities while the mind considers a problem? a. preparation b. illumination c. verification d. incubation 36. What does the decision maker strive to do in the rational model? a. select the most feasible alternative b. select the first alternative that is satisfactory c. select the best possible alternative d. select the alternative agreeable to the majority 37. Your text discusses recent research examining the effects of cultural diversity on decision making. What is the outcome when individuals in a group are racially dissimilar? a. They engage in behaviour that discourages dissenting perspectives. b. They engage in less open information sharing. c. They arrive at better decisions than racially similar groups. d. They tend to become less committed to decisions.

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Chap 07_ORGB3 38. What is a key finding about intuition and managers? a. Intuition appears to have a negative effect on managerial decision making. b. Managers can be trained to rely more fully on their intuition. c. Intuition does not appear to be related to ethical decision making. d. Intuition can be taught to low-performing managers 39. Your text discusses research on the impact of moods on tasks that involve considerable cognitive demands.

What does the research suggest? a. Mood doesn’t really make a difference. b. The relationship between mood and tasks requiring high cognitive demands is curvilinear. c. Positive moods result in better performance. d. Negative moods result in better performance of tasks involving cognitive demands.

40. What is the majority-wins rule? a. a group heuristic c. the nominal group technique

b. groupthink d. a social decision scheme

41. Which response could be summarized as a deterioration of mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment resulting from in-group pressures? a. groupthink b. the risky shift c. group polarization d. the recency effect 42. Which combination will result in the highest payoff when employees can’t participate in all stages of the decision-making process? a. identifying problems, generating alternatives, and selecting solutions b. generating alternatives, planning implementations, and evaluating results c. generating alternatives, selecting solutions, and evaluating results d. identifying problems, planning implementations, and evaluating results 43. Your text discusses a recent review of the decision situation in the Challenger incident. What two variables did the review identify as being important to the groupthink phenomenon? a. leadership style and time constraints b. decision consequence and time constraints c. decision consequence and leadership style d. group insulation and time constraints 44. Who first proposed the model of bounded rationality? a. Victor Vroom b. Carl Jung c. Herbert Simon d. Phillip Yetton

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Chap 07_ORGB3 45. Which of the following best explains the concept of responsive creativity? a. responding to problems presented to you because you want to be creative b. discovering problems because you want to be creative c. discovering problems because you are expected to by the organization d. responding to problems presented to you because it is part of your job 46. What is the final step in the decision-making process? a. gathering feedback b. implementing a course of action c. follow up d. exploring alternatives 47. What is an example of right-side brain activity? a. designing flowchart work processes b. preparing tax submissions c. developing visions and strategic plans d. managing day-to-day operations 48. Which technique is valuable in its ability to come up with potential problems? a. brainstorming b. the nominal group c. dialectical inquiry d. devil’s advocacy 49. You are ready to select your courses for your final year before graduation. All but two of your courses are electives. Which model will you most likely use for your selections? a. the garbage can model b. the irrational model c. the random model d. the bounded rationality model 50. What is the difference between the left side and right side of the brain? a. Left side is for detail and planning while right side is for mental maps. b. Left side is for creativity while right side is for logic. c. Left side is for logic while right side is for creativity. d. Left side is for cognitive limits while right side is for creativity.

51. What is the initial step in a problem-solving decision situation? a. data analysis b. alternatives generation c. problem recognition d. feedback 52. You own and operate a small pizza shop that has been profitable but is in need of a renovation. After you begin the renovation you discover that a pizza chain has bought a vacant building two blocks away and plans to open a shop within 120 days. Undoubtedly, competition will intensify. You decide to accelerate the renovation work.

What are you trying to do? a. avoid risk b. minimize risk c. escalate risk d. manage risk 53. Which structured approach to decision making could be summarized as generating alternatives silently, preventing criticism of alternatives, and using a voting process to identify group choices? a. dialectical inquiry b. devil’s advocacy c. group polarization d. the nominal group

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Chap 07_ORGB3 54. What action should Vanda take to minimize groupthink? a. denigrate the opposition b. encourage rationalization c. manipulate group members in order to increase peer pressure d. re-examine the alternatives 55. What is a key principle of the bounded rationality model? a. certainty b. satisficing c. optimizing d. researching 56. What type of brain function is ideal for decision making? a. right-brain domination b. left-brain domination c. brain-neutralization d. brain-lateralization 57. What can result in firing people, exiting a business, or admitting wrong? a. gathering information b. identifying a problem c. reaching breakeven point d. making a decision 58. What are the characteristics of an effective decision? a. timely, acceptable, and efficient b. timely, acceptable, and specific c. timely, acceptable, and achievable d. timely, acceptable, and meets the desired objective 59. According to the textbook, which of the following is an example of escalation of commitment? a. Cirque du Soleil b. Holland American Cruise Line vs. Carnival Cruise line c. British Airways and Air France’s Concorde operations d. Ford vs. General Motors 60. Electronic brainstorming overcomes two common problems that can produce verbal group brainstorming failure.

What are the problems? a. bounded rationality and evaluation apprehension b. information overload and evaluation apprehension c. evaluation apprehension and production blocking d. production blocking and information overload 61. Which of the following indicates an outcome of group polarization? a. group members move toward becoming significantly less cautious b. group discussion produces shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members c. group members move from extreme attitudes toward more moderate attitudes d. group members drive decisions toward consensus

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Chap 07_ORGB3 62. Which idea indicates an assumption that is based on the rational model of decision making? a. the decision maker can calculate the probability of success for each alternative b. all possible alternatives can’t be known to decision makers c. outcomes can’t be optimized to their maximum d. the preferences of the decision maker are inconsistent 63. Which of the following best summarizes heuristics, as found in the bounded rationality model? a. an algorithm based on complex decision making b. a complex decision rule used in complex situations c. a shortcut in decision making that saves mental activity d. a mathematical approach to decision making 64. How can you effectively manage decisions in order to avoid escalation of commitment? a. Don’t have individuals making initial investment decisions. b. Don’t reward people who admit to poor decisions. c. Don’t allow graceful exits from poor decisions. d. Don’t split the responsibility for decisions about projects.

65. According to the text, what characteristic is necessary for empowerment to be realized in the work environment? a. supportive b. directive c. goal oriented d. autonomous 66. What social decision-making scheme is used most often in a judgment task that involves a matter of preference or opinion? a. the majority-wins rule b. the two-thirds majority rule c. the truth-wins rule d. the consensus rule 67. You are a manager in an organization that wants to encourage employee creativity. What should you avoid? a. close supervision b. participative decision making c. flexible organizational structure d. peer support 68. What do the social comparison approach and the persuasive arguments view have in common as a source of explanation? a. group polarization b. cognitive dissonance c. groupthink d. bounded rationality 69. What is the final step in the Z model of problem solving? a. collect data and examine b. objective analysis of all alternatives c. diagnosis several options d. impact analysis on how the people involved will be affected

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Chap 07_ORGB3 70. Which assumption applies to creativity in making decisions? a. It is fast or leads to quick decisions. b. It may lead to more ethical decisions. c. It involves learned patterns of information. d. It is as elusive a concept as intuition in decision making.

71. Which of the following influences the diminishment of creative activity? a. avoiding ambiguity and fearing failure b. implementing open and flexible structure c. providing supportive supervision d. allowing participative decision making 72. As a project group leader, you have recognized the benefits of conflict and some disagreement among project members in solving difficult problems. Accordingly, what are you likely to use with your group? a. devil’s advocacy b. brainstorming c. nominal group techniques d. dialectical inquiry 73. According to research discussed in your text, which statement applies to successful managers versus unsuccessful managers? a. Unsuccessful managers take more risks, b. Successful are very set in their ways. c. They are the same regarding risk aversion. d. Successful managers take more risks.

74. Your manager’s approach to creativity involves searching for the “right” answers and avoiding problems outside her own area of expertise. What is she experiencing? a. inflexible maps b. structured thinking c. mental locks d. cognitive structure 75. According to Agor, what must organizations do to maximize performance? a. analyze data for decision making b. rely on patterns of learned information c. acquire intuitive and analytical minds d. provide empowerment 76. Which response indicates a key principle of the normative decision model? a. the manager must apply the blue ocean approach b. the manager must optimize through solution selection c. the manager must satisfice d. the manager should use the decision method most appropriate for a given decision situation 77. What is used to brainstorm alternative solutions in the Z model of problem solving? a. sensing b. thinking c. intuiting d. feeling

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Chap 07_ORGB3 78. According to research, what should an organization do to achieve the highest creative performance? a. provide a supportive environment b. implement flexible structures c. place individuals as part of a team with diverse skills d. identify a match between individual and organizational influences 79. In what stage of creativity does the individual sense an insight for solving the problem? a. preparation b. illumination c. verification d. incubation 80. Which of the following terms could be described as shifts between risk taking and caution, sometimes adopting extreme attitudes? a. group polarization b. satisficing c. poor group decisions d. groupthink 81. What does Mintzberg’s research suggest about intuition and managerial roles? a. Intuition has not been shown to be very effective as an antidote to over analysis. b. Managers rarely use intuition. c. Managers make judgments based on hunches. d. In most cases managers use a systematic step-by-step approach to decision making.

82. What is an antidote to groupthink in self-managed teams? a. the use of dialectical inquiry b. welcoming dissent c. the use of nominal groups d. brainstorming 83. What is the cognitive bias where one decides to completely ignore dangerous or negative information? a. clustering illusion b. ostrich effect c. blind-spot bias d. bandwagon effect 84. What is considered a characteristic of groupthink? a. individuality b. illusion of invulnerability c. illusion of unanimity d. devil’s advocate 85. Which of the following is an example of a programmed decision situation? a. purchasing a new mainframe computer b. reordering raw materials from an established supplier c. arranging financing for construction of a new office building d. considering purchase of a parts manufacturer 86. What influences risk taking? a. environment and genetics b. group members’ influence c. personality style and level of risk d. individual tendency and organizational factors Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB3 87. Fatima’s objective is to maximize the number of alternatives in addressing the project’s problem. Which approach should she use with the group? a. brainstorming b. nominal grouping c. the Delphi technique d. dialectical inquiry 88. Which statement is characteristic of quality teams? a. They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality. b. They operate in parallel fashion to the organization’s structure. c. They provide advice to managers who still retain decision-making authority. d. They emphasize the generation of ideas.

89. Which of the following terms could be described as generating as many ideas as possible and suspending judgement until all ideas have been suggested? a. quality circle b. nominal group technique c. dialectical inquiry d. brain storming Match the following: a. A relatively simple problem that can be solved with a standard rule b. Logical, systematic problem solving c. A solution that is timely and acceptable d. An unstructured, unique problem situation that requires a creative solution e. The practice of selecting an acceptable but not always the best solution 90. Programmed Decision 91. Satisficing 92. Rational Model 93. Nonprogrammed Decision 94. Effective Decision Match the following: a. A tendency to conclude that a person who does X well will do Y and Z well b. A tendency to value information you have received most recently c. A tendency to look for information that confirms our own views d. A tendency to avoid extremes e. A tendency to feel a diffusion of responsibility 95. Confirmation Bias 96. Halo Effect 97. Group Decision Making 98. Recency Effect 99. Central Tendency

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Chap 07_ORGB3 Match the following: a. A simple decision rule b. An inclination to choose options displaying minimal risk c. A decisional situation where options have probabilities of success d. Giving employees authority to make decisions e. A situation where a person continues to follow/implement an option even though its chances of success are minimal and possibly declining 100. Risk Aversion 101. Risk 102. Empowerment 103. Escalation of Commitment 104. Heuristics 105. A large municipality (250,000 citizens) is trying to decide where to locate a new community recreational centre.

The problem is relatively unstructured. There is a decision quality requirement that is significant. Not one person has sufficient information and many community groups may desire to provide input. Opportunity for conflict exists between groups and neighbourhoods competing for the centre. If one person (city manager) makes the decision, many people may not be strongly committed to making the centre successful. Would an individual or group be most useful for this decision? Justify your answer.

106. What are the elements of the decision-making process?

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Chap 07_ORGB3 107. an objective is formulated followed by 3) gathering information and data analysis so that problem parameters are known and understood.

4) Alternatives are generated and evaluated so that 5) a course of action (or option) can be selected and 6) implemented. Once implemented, the solution 7) must be monitored (through feedback) and 8) adjustments made as follow up and control are exercised.

PTS: 1 REF: The Decision-Making Process OBJ: LO1 2. What individual and organization influences affect creativity?

108. What are advantages and disadvantages of group decision making?

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Chap 07_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. False 26. False

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Chap 07_ORGB3 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB3 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. a 72. d 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB3 83. b 84. b 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. a 89. d 90. a 91. e 92. b 93. d 94. c 95. c 96. a 97. e 98. b 99. d 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. e 104. a 105. Group. Advantages of a group decision include: 1) more knowledge and information through the pooling of group member resources, 2) increased acceptance and commitment to the decision, 3) greater understanding of the decision.

The time for a group decision may, however, be longer. Given the unstructured and uncertain nature of this decision, a group would be more effective.

106. The decision-making process is multi-step in nature and begins with: 1) problem finding and recognition, or the perception that something is wrong and requires correction. Next, Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB3 107. Abstract and divergent thinking, imagery and associational abilities, and dreams and unconscious processes contribute to creativity. Also, persons who have independent judgment, tolerance for ambiguity, intrinsic motivation, intuition, and self-confidence tend to be creative. Organizationally, supportive supervisors and peers, flexible structure, and participative decision making tend to encourage creativity. Providing the opportunity for failure and rewards can also benefit creativity.

108. In a group decision-making situation, more information and knowledge is available, and greater solution acceptance and commitment to success are likely. Decision quality may be greater. Disadvantages include spending too much time on solving the problem, internal competitive pressures that may inhibit member contribution, and a strong personality dominating the group and discouraging input. Groupthink may also victimize the group and result in a poor-quality decision because criticism is stifled.

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Chap 08_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. A memo from the company president to all employees is an example of one-way communication. a. True b. False 2. Women prefer face-to-face communication, whereas men are comfortable sitting side by side and concentrating on some focal point in front of them. a. True b. False 3. People’s confidence in their ability to decode nonverbal communication is greater than their accuracy in doing so. a. True b. False 4. A good reflective listener does not lead the speaker according to the listener’s own thoughts and feelings. a. True b. False 5. Two-way communication is faster and should be used in an emergency situation. a. True b. False 6. When people from one culture view those in another culture through the lens of a stereotype, they are in effect discounting the individual differences within the other culture. a. True b. False 7. Nonverbal communication can be as meaningful as factual information in conveying a message to someone. a. True b. False 8. Modern technologies may challenge our ability to maintain trust in relationships. a. True b. False 9. Communication styles and channels are very similar for men and women. a. True b. False 10. A communication medium low in richness might be good for sending numeric or factual data. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_ORGB3 11. Interpersonal communication is not central to health and well-being. a. True b. False 12. Status differences can influence the content and manner in which a message is sent from a subordinate to someone higher in the organization. a. True b. False 13. Evoking a shared or common meaning in another person is called reflective listening. a. True b. False 14. Defensive communication can be successfully confronted with factual information. a. True b. False 15. A paradox created by the new, modern communication technology lies in the danger that managers cannot get away from the office. a. True b. False 16. It is difficult to draw general conclusions about people’s satisfaction with one-way versus two-way communication. a. True b. False 17. Dynamic facial actions and expressions in a person’s appearance are key clues of truthfulness, especially in deception situations. a. True b. False 18. An important method for determining if a message has been received and understood is to solicit and examine feedback. a. True b. False 19. New communication technologies may make people less patient with face-to-face communication. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

20. What does communication technology significantly limit or eliminate? a. written communication b. nondefensive communication c. dominant communication d. nonverbal communication

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Chap 08_ORGB3 21. Which statement best exemplifies the process or repeating back, a component of reflective listening? a. I hear you saying that you are very upset about this problem and that you are not yet clear about what is causing it. b. My sense is that you are feeling very upset about the problem and may be worried about the customer’s reaction when you inform him. c. Yes, I understand. d. .What do you think if we do this to solve the problem with the customer?

22. What is an effective method for reducing or overcoming communication barriers resulting from gender differences? a. seeking clarification of meaning b. using frequent metaphors c. using face-to-face communication d. using more technical terms with precise meanings 23. What is the most important gateway through the communication barrier of cultural diversity? a. Be direct. b. Learn other languages. c. Don’t judge other cultures. d. Increase cultural awareness and sensitivity.

24. Which statement is an example of nondefensive communication? a. The cheque is in the mail. Don’t call me again. b. Mary is always late to meetings. c. The report looks good but I need to talk to Dan about one recommendation before I approve it. d. I sent the memo through intra-company mail. They must have lost it.

25. Which field of study examines individuals’ perception and use of space, including territorial space? a. proxemics b. kinesics c. paraspacity d. spatial differentiation 26. A manager comments to her secretary, “Why is Nancy always hard to find when there is a deadline? She is a such a loafer.” What defensive tactic does this statement represent? a. regression b. deception c. labelling d. misleading information 27. When a receiver understands the meaning of the sender’s message, what is this process? a. creating the message b. encoding c. giving feedback d. decoding

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Chap 08_ORGB3 28. Why are disfluencies in speech important? a. because what follows disfluency is typically contextually significant b. because they distract us from the message c. because they happen only through written communication d. because they lead to miscommunication 29. What tends to increase with the use of computer-mediated communication? a. flaming b. tact c. stress d. patience 30. What is an outcome of a defensive communication exchange? a. strained working relationships b. successful problem solving c. task efficiency d. a productive work environment 31. What is the term for the study of body movements, including posture, in nonverbal communication? a. proxemics b. kinesics c. posturics d. paralanguage 32. When is one-way communication best used? a. for disciplinary issues b. in emergency situations c. when you want shared meaning to occur d. when you need interaction with another person 33. Gordon is the VP of Operations. He rarely has the time or the interest in communicating with the first-line managers. What is the most significant barrier to communication in this situation? a. status difference b. lack common understanding c. gender differences d. cultural diversity 34. Which defensive tactic is used when an individual is attempting to manipulate and control others? a. power play b. raising doubts c. labelling d. put-down 35. What is one of the major social problems of digital communication? a. its transparency b. its morality c. its personal and often anonymous nature d. unlimited amount of information 36. Which of the following factors would you use if you wanted effective performance in your organization? a. power plays b. interpersonal communication c. grapevine communication d. defensive communication 37. Who is decoding a message? a. Darwin, who is composing a text c. Danielle, who is listening to a voicemail

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b. Camryn, who is writing a memo d. Albert, who is leading a team meeting

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Chap 08_ORGB3 38. Why is the emotional element of a digital message difficult to assess? a. because of the anonymity b. because of the lack of nonverbal cues c. because of the short length of most messages d. because the receiver can’t decode the message 39. When individuals consume digital content that conforms to their already held opinions, what is this known as? a. fake news b. digital communication c. social media d. an echo chamber 40. Your boss speaks with you about a significant production problem within the plant. During the conversation, what response do you avoid? a. asking questions for clarification b. not giving any feedback to your boss c. paraphrasing the concern being expressed d. making eye contact 41. Darlene will be speaking to her new employee about errors that have occurred. She wants to ensure that the employee clearly understands what is required to improve. Which is the most effective form of communication? a. telephone b. formal numeric report c. face-to-face discussion d. electronic mail 42. You are a supervisor who needs to communicate with several employees about below-standard or unsatisfactory work. What is the best way to send your message? a. a text b. an e-mail message c. a memo posted on a bulletin board d. a face-to-face meeting 43. What is an example of haptics? a. an intimate conversation b. a pat on the shoulder c. eye contact d. keeping one’s distance 44. What medium is considered high in rich information? a. flyer b. telephone c. personalized memo d. electronic mail 45. Which generation is considered to be “digital natives”? a. baby boomers b. millennials c. baby busters d. generation X 46. You are a supervisor who manages more than 20 employees, each of whom occupies a different job. At a project meeting with eight of your employees, you want to discuss the importance and meaning of communication in your team and within the organization. What point would you emphasize? a. Supervisory communication is normally one-way. b. Face-to-face communication is inefficient. c. Formal communication channels should be used at all times. d. Communication evokes a shared or common meaning in another person.

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Chap 08_ORGB3 47. Keeping your employees updated on goals, procedures, and organizational expectations would fall under which of the four communication skills used by good managers? a. informative management style b. expressiveness c. persuasiveness d. empathy and sensitivity 48. What element of the communication model contains the thoughts and feelings the communicator is attempting to elicit in the receiver? a. the information b. the data c. the message d. the feedback 49. In the context of a communication message, what does “richness” refer to? a. the number of analyzable elements in the message b. the amount of data that can be sent via the medium c. the ability of the medium to evoke meaning d. the amount of feeling that is communicated 50. Deana is watching her colleague closely. She is unsure if the individual is providing her with the correct information. What could be an indicator of her colleague lying or providing misinformation? a. stuttering or stammering b. rapid eye movement c. rapid speech rate d. inconsistencies in nonverbal cues 51. What is another term for multitasking? a. asynchronus activity b. echo chamber c. polyphasic activity d. flaming 52. What percentage of meaning in a message can be conveyed by nonverbal communication? a. 10 to 20 b. 25 to 40 c. 45 to 70 d. 65 to 90 53. What completes the message in interpersonal communication? a. emotion b. message c. perceptual screens d. feedback 54. Who is encoding a message? a. Sonia, who is writing a financial report c. Hunter, who is giving a speech

b. Bill, who is reading Jesse’s memo d. Farooq, who is listening to office gossip

55. When can nonverbal communication be used? a. committee meeting b. e-mail c. telephone call d. voice mail

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Chap 08_ORGB3 56. Sophie does not understand why an employee is not performing his job. She calls him in to have a discussion.

According to the principles of reflective listening, what would be the appropriate process to solve this problem? a. inform the employee of the problem, followed by the action to be taken and the expectations b. carefully listen to the employee and then offer constructive criticism c. carefully listen to the employee and then tell him what your decision is d. carefully listen to the employee and repeat back what you are hearing 57. When a doctor is explaining to her patient about her upcoming operation but is using medical terms that the patient does not understand, what is the doctor using? a. gateways b.feedback b. jargon c. appropriate language 58. Which of the following best describes a perceptual screen? a. a window through which we interact with people that influences the quality, accuracy, and clarity of our communication b. information fed back that completes two-way communication c. the thoughts and feelings that the communicator is attempting to elicit in the receiver d. the ability of a medium or channel to elicit or evoke meaning in the receiver 59. What conveys as much as 65 to 90 percent of the content of a message? a. numeric examples b. tone of voice c. written forms of communication d. nonverbal communication 60. What generally results in a lack of tact and graciousness in communication? a. face-to-face communication b. computer-mediated communication c. telephone communication d. written communication 61. Generally, what type of supervisors are those who express their thoughts, ideas, and speak up at meetings? a. high Machs b. expressive managers c. introverts d. extroverts 62. Communication problems cause organizational problems and drain profitability. What could prevent about 20 percent of the problems? a. two-way communication b. one-way communication c. communication policy guidelines d. lack of information 63. What are tone, volume and tempo? a. kinesics b. paralanguage c. proxemics d. attitude

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Chap 08_ORGB3 64. You witness an incident at work where a supervisor loudly criticizes an employee in front of several other employees. Later, you learn that the employee didn’t make any mistake. What was the supervisor’s communication an example of? a. paralanguage b. dominant defensiveness c. a territorial space violation d. nondefensive communication 65. A supervisor sends a message to employees who comprise a diverse workgroup. What should both the sender and the receivers be sensitive to? a. the verbal characteristics of the message b. non-feedback c. perceptual screens d. the informal communication channel 66. According to the text, what do managers with the most effective work units engage in? a. only face-to-face communication b. networking with their superiors c. reliable, infrequent communication d. one-way communication 67. What is another term for passive-aggressive behaviour? a. nonassertive defensiveness b. subordinate defensiveness c. starting as subordinate defensiveness and ending up as dominant defensiveness d. no defensiveness 68. Why are cultural values and behaviour confusing barriers to communication? a. because they are shared by a group of people b. because they are very obvious and visible c. because they are invisible and silent d. because culture is not a filter that affects communication 69. What is one of the benefits of digital communication? a. It makes it quicker to reach decisions within a group. b. People with social anxiety can share their thoughts from a safe environment. c. People are more cooperative when communicating with others. d. It is more private.

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Chap 08_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Communication characterized by passive, submissive, withdrawing behaviour b. Communication without words or use of language c. Communication characterized by active, aggressive, and attacking behaviour d. Bands of space extending outward from oneself e. Study of an individual’s perception and use of space 70. Territorial Space 71. Proxemics 72. Dominant Defensiveness 73. Subordinate Defensiveness 74. Nonverbal Communication Match the following: a. One’s view of the world and its influence on interpersonal communication b. Feedback from receiver for purpose of checking accuracy of sender’s message 75. Reflective Listening 76. Perceptual Screening Match the following: a. The characteristic of a communication medium or channel that evokes meaning in the receiver b. Meaningful data c. The content, thoughts, and feelings of the sender d. Symbols and words used in meaningful communication e. The person transmitting a message 77. Richness 78. Message 79. Sender 80. Language 81. Information Match the following: a. Interactive communication b. Aggressive, attacking, angry communication and/or passive, withdrawing communication c. Constructive, healthy communication in working relationships 82. Two-Way Communication 83. Nondefensive Communication 84. Defensive Communication

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Chap 08_ORGB3 85. As an applicant in a job interview, what nonverbal communication should you use and what should you avoid?

86. How do communication technologies affect behaviour?

87. Identify the elements of the communication model and provide an example of each.

88. What are some of the barriers to effective classroom communication?

89. How can you be a reflective (or better) listener in the classroom?

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Chap 08_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. d 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. a 26. c

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Chap 08_ORGB3 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB3 55. a 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. e 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. c 79. e 80. d 81. b 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB3 83. c 84. b 85. Eye contact can be very positive as nonverbal communication in a job interview. Correct posture, appropriate dress, head nodding, and a firm handshake are also important nonverbal communication. Failure to make and maintain eye contact, poor posture, and inappropriate clothing should be avoided. Some note taking can be helpful as nonverbal communication, but too much note taking could be distracting and convey the impression that the interviewee has not prepared for the interview.

86. The new communication technologies provide faster, more immediate access to information than was available in the past. Computer-mediated communication is more impersonal in nature and the nonverbal cues we rely on to decipher a message are also absent. In addition, clues to power position may not be available so the social context of the exchange is altered. Communication through technological means has had a tendency to equalize participation. The potential for overload is also much greater. Polyphasic activity (doing more than one thing at a time) is also encouraged with new technology. Finally, the new technologies may make people less patient with face-to-face communication.

87. The basic elements are sender, receiver, message, feedback, and perceptual screening. The sender formulates a message and transmits it through a channel to a receiver. The channel can be a telephone, letter, memo, or electronic mail. The message may consist of data, information, thoughts, and even the feelings/emotions of the sender. The receiver may feed back or return a message to the sender. Feedback enhances clarity and understanding but takes time. Perceptual screening refers to the sender’s and receiver’s views of the world that may influence message understanding. As an example of the model, a supervisor can convey a message (through face-to-face interaction) to an employee, who may raise questions about the message in an effort to understand it. These questions are a form of feedback.

88. There are at least three communication barriers in the college or university classroom. One is the status differences between student and professor. Students may be reluctant to speak in class or ask questions. A second barrier is jargon and technical language. Many courses have unique terms, symbols, and other technical characteristics that may inhibit effective classroom communication until students understand some of the technical language. A third barrier is physical distance, especially in a large classroom or lecture hall. Students may not be able to hear or adequately see the professor, thereby inhibiting the communication process.

89. The student can be a better listener by providing feedback to the instructor that indicates understanding of the material being covered. This feedback can be in the form of repeating back the information to confirm understanding.

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Chap 09_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The behaviour standards that a work group expects of its members are its norms. a. True b. False 2. Informal groups have established goals and metrics for measuring their success. a. True b. False 3. A process gain is an advantage of teams. a. True b. False 4. Social loafing decreases as team commitment increases. a. True b. False 5. Lack of clarity about individual roles and responsibilities is the defining characteristic in the forming stage. a. True b. False 6. Whereas psychological intimacy is more emotion based, integrated involvement is more behaviour and activity based. a. True b. False 7. A person’s sense of who they are based on group membership is known as individuality. a. True b. False 8. Group maintenance functions are commonly performed or provided by the designated group leader. a. True b. False 9. In the performing stage of development, the group requires a coaching style from the leader. a. True b. False 10. Informal groups are sometimes called emergent groups. a. True b. False 11. Internal competition increases cohesion within a team. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB3 12. Larger groups are more cohesive than smaller groups. a. True b. False 13. After its formation, a group goes through stages of development that unfortunately cannot be predicted. a. True b. False 14. Psychological intimacy can be achieved only through work teams a. True b. False 15. The group process dimension includes the who, the what, the where, the when, and the why of the group. a. True b. False 16. Performance norms are among the most important group norms from the organization’s perspective. a. True b. False 17. All work teams are groups, but not all groups are work teams. a. True b. False 18. According to Tuckman, a group goes through predictable stages of development after it is developed. a. True b. False 19. The punctuated equilibrium model of group development proposes that groups do not necessarily progress linearly from one step to another in a predetermined sequence. a. True b. False 20. The collaborator is data driven, information sensitive, and one who adheres to performance standards. a. True b. False 21. Communication gatekeepers serve a maintenance role or function within groups. a. True b. False 22. Groups emphasize shared leadership, mutual accountability, and collective work products. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_ORGB3 23. Cohesion is “the interpersonal glue” that makes the members of a group stick together a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

24. What are the two benefits of belonging to a cohesive team or group? a. integrated involvement and achievement b. improved psychological intimacy and recognition c. enhanced job satisfaction and improved performance d. increased recognition and integrated involvement 25. A team has been assembled that includes employees from marketing, finance, human resources, and sales. What is this known as? a. a virtual team b. a cross-functional team c. a temporary team d. a self-managed team 26. What kind of team relies on digital tools of communication to plan and execute their tasks? a. virtual b. autonomous c. homogeneous d. self-managed 27. Which of the following is an example of a task function of a group? a. summarizing ideas b. testing consensus c. expressing members feelings d. gatekeeping communication 28. What are the process losses that occur due to challenges associated with coordinating the efforts of a group? a. social loafing b. conflict resolution c. coordination losses d. coordination gains 29. Which statement summarizes the punctuated equilibrium model of group development? a. Teams experience relational conflicts at the same times and in the same contexts. b. Groups progress linearly from one stage to another in sequential steps or stages. c. Groups alternate between periods of inertia and progress toward goals with bursts of energy. d. Teams experience relational conflicts at the same time but in different contexts.

30. Which model of group development includes periods of inertia with bursts of energy as work groups develop and deadlines approach? a. virtual team model b. five stages model c. punctuated equilibrium model d. boundary model 31. What term is used to describe a group’s ability to produce more than expected from each individual member? a. social identity b. social loafing c. process gain d. process losses

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Chap 09_ORGB3 32. Which of the following is an example of a maintenance function of a group? a. elaborating ideas b. summarizing ideas c. seeking information d. supporting others 33. What is another term for self-managed teams? a. autonomous work groups b. cross-functional work teams c. quality teams d. quality circles 34. What teams have the autonomy to plan, organize, and implement work practices and make all decisions regarding the project within the team? a. cross-functional teams b. self-managed teams c. production teams d. virtual teams 35. Which groups are typically less diverse as they are voluntarily formed around a specific activity or need? a. informal b. formal c. virtual d. official 36. What is a one of the factors that influence group effectiveness? a. no weaknesses b. group structure c. formal designated leadership d. intragroup conflict 37. What is a joint action by a team of people in which individual interests are subordinated to team unity? a. teamwork b. diversity c. skill differentiation d. coordination 38. Which of the following would most likely cause people to engage in immoral acts, or even violent behaviour, even though they are committed members of their group? a. a decline in group cohesion b. an emphasis on social loafing c. a loss of individuality d. absence norms for moral behaviour 39. Which issues are addressed by the group development model? a. task, authority, and cultural b. personal, task, and authority c. interpersonal, task, and authority d. cultural, interpersonal, and task 40. What term indicates a skill that will contribute to more effective empowerment within a team? a. negotiating b. self-gaining and competition c. modelling d. cooperating and helping 41. In which stage of group development does the leader need to adopt a coaching style due to team challenges? a. storming b. norming c. forming d. performing 42. Which term is synonymous with the concept of “interpersonal glue”? a. group dynamics b. group cohesion c. group complexities d. group synergy

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Chap 09_ORGB3 43. During which stage of the group development model are a common set of member behaviours formed? a. storming b. forming c. performing d. norming 44. When looking at the group development model, what is important to Bloom’s Remember? a. groups need to progress through the different stages in the same order b. groups will spend the same amount of time in each stage c. groups progress through the stages in the time and order appropriate to their needs d. groups will progress through the stages in exactly the same order 45. What is an example of behaviour norms within a work group? a. a corporate code of ethics b. the vision and mission c. group cohesion and membership d. groupthink and support 46. Donna is aware that task roles are important to group effectiveness. When she suggested that they set up an agenda and discuss all the aspects of the work, which task role was she practising? a. testing ideas b. seeking information c. initiating activities d. evaluating effectiveness 47. Which of the following can be written or unwritten and specifies what group members should do? a. work group goals b. expectation consistency c. work group norms d. role congruence 48. An individual who feels emotional closeness to other team members is experiencing which social benefit? a. social identity b. process gain c. loss of individuality d. psychological intimacy 49. What is one of the social benefits of being on a productive team? a. control and sanctions b. increased cohesiveness c. reduced tension d. psychological intimacy 50. Dana finds her team seeks little guidance from her and can make decisions as a team. What stage is this an example of? a. norming b. forming c. storming d. performing 51. What best describes the relationship between cooperative and competitive behaviours as part of work team process? a. They are complementary. b. They are opposites. c. They are role specific. d. They reflect team diversity.

52. What is a factor that negatively influences the development of group cohesiveness? a. member satisfaction b. prestige of the group c. social status of the group d. unpleasant experiences

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Chap 09_ORGB3 53. What is likely to be the outcome if Max takes on the contributor role in a team? a. He will provide data and necessary information for problem solutions. b. He will collaborate. c. He will play a good devil’s advocate. d. He will act as good facilitator, listener, and communicator.

54. A project task force with established goals and success metrics can be considered what kind of group? a. informal b. assigned c. formal d. boundary 55. Over time, Mitsie has found herself engaging in behaviour which the group supports, but with little individual accountability and sometimes violent and aggressive behaviours towards others. Which group behaviour is Mitsie exhibiting? a. integrated involvement b. group cohesion c. group sanctions d. loss of individuality 56. Which statement best summarizes social loafing? a. It is a norm of behaviour within a group. b. It is supportive of the development of group cohesion. c. It is a stimulant to increased group performance. d. It is a group member exerting less effort than they would if working alone.

57. Which of the following is most consistent with the notion that groups alternate between periods of inertia and bursts of energy as they develop? a. punctuated equilibrium b. forming–storming stage c. evolution–revolution d. storming–norming stage 58. What will cooperative rewards enhance in work teams? a. individual satisfaction b. accuracy of performance c. speed of performance d. group satisfaction 59. What term is synonymous for a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common mission, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable? a. work team b. effective group c. cohesive group d. group 60. When is it appropriate to use teams? a. when knowledge and talent needed are simple and routine b. when work is more complicated and/or voluminous than one person can handle c. in a non-competitive market d. when knowledge and talent is placed in highly skilled individuals

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Chap 09_ORGB3 61. Which of the following best describes a group? a. people working independently b. a collection of people working toward a common objective c. people without common relationships d. two or more people who interact with common interests and objectives 62. As a member of a quality circle, you frequently check with other members to make sure all are focused on the same problem and that everyone has opportunities to contribute. What group maintenance function are you performing? a. testing ideas b. seeking consensus c. giving information d. gatekeeping communication 63. Which of the following best summarizes a team? a. two or more people who are loosely tied together, but each member works independently b. many people who are quickly assembled to perform a task that may take only a few minutes c. several people who are joined together but the performance or contribution of any particular member is inconsequential for the team’s output d. a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common goal for which they are mutually accountable 64. Team members are unclear about individual roles and responsibilities. What stage is this typical of? a. adjourning b. norming c. forming d. performing 65. Mary wants to prevent social loafing. What could be a potential solution? a. providing motivational training b. setting clear group goals c. providing formal evaluation of member contributions d. emphasizing task functions 66. Different types of teams can be analyzed using which broad categories? a. authority differentiation, teamwork, decision-making authority b. decision-making authority, team permanence, authority differentiation c. skill differentiation, management level, organizational context d. team permanence, skill differentiation and authority differentiation 67. An accounting team of employees who produce a tangible product and who have high permanence, low skill differentiation, and high authority differentiation would be considered what type of team? a. service team b. production team c. advisory team d. temporary team

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Chap 09_ORGB3 68. What is one of the reasons virtual teams fail to satisfy their client’s requirements? a. Dissimilar values result in conflict. b. Team members don’t get along. c. Virtual communication is less productive than face-to-face interaction. d. Virtual teams are not as committed.

69. What are all work teams? a. crews b. leaders c. groups d. experts Match the following:

Match the following: a. Emotional closeness to other group members b. A task function of a team c. Closeness to the group and its members achieved through tasks and activities d. Ability to enjoy competition and play fair e. A maintenance function of a team or group 70. Competitive Behaviour 71. Consensus Testing 72. Integrated Involvement 73. Psychological Intimacy 74. Diagnosing Problems

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Chap 09_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Team that does not meet face-to-face b. A work team that can make decisions formally made by managers c. How varied the team members’ skills are from one another d. People with different expertise and experience working toward a common goal e. How much autonomy and decision-making responsibility is distributed among team members 75. Self-managed team 76. Virtual team 77. Skill differentiation 78. Cross-functional team 79. Authority differentiation Match the following: a. A group member who fails to contribute to group tasks and relies on others to carry the group b. A strong group characteristic that functions to keep members together as a group; or the force that ties group members together c. An expected behaviour that group members use as a standard d. The phenomenon of a group member losing his/her sense of belonging, contribution to the group, and accountability to the group e. Two or more persons with complimentary skills and commitment to one another to accomplish a task goal 80. Loss of Individuality 81. Norm 82. Social Loafer 83. Cohesion 84. Team 85. Discuss the differences between Tuckman’s five-stage model and the punctuated equilibrium model.

86. Discuss the characteristics of high-performing virtual teams.

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Chap 09_ORGB3 87. What factors of a group work situation affect cohesiveness?

88. Identify and briefly discuss Tuckman’s five-stage model of group development.

89. Distinguish between task and maintenance functions of groups, providing an example of each.

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Chap 09_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. False 23. True 24. c 25. b 26. a

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Chap 09_ORGB3 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB3 55. d 56. d 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. d 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. e 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. a 77. c 78. d 79. e 80. d 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB3 83. b 84. e 85. Tuckman’s five-stage model suggests a group’s progress through five stages of development, which include forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Groups evolve through the stages in a sequential fashion with predictable behaviours associated with each stage. The punctuated equilibrium model suggests the five-stage model may be unrealistic. It proposes that groups do not necessarily progress linearly from one step to another in a predetermined sequence, but alternate between periods of inertia and bursts of energy as work groups develop.

86.

- Team members are suited to work in virtual teams, possessing good communication skills, high emotional intelligence, and the ability to work independently. Team size is manageable, with no more than ten people, and roles are clearly defined.

- Teams are led by individuals who foster trust among team members, encouraging dialogue and clarifying goals and deadlines.

- Though dispersed geographically, virtual teams come together and meet faces-to-face at several critical times during the relationship—at kickoff, during onboarding, and to celebrate milestones.

- Teams have the right technology that integrates a variety of communications media as appropriated for different types of collaboration. This includes conference calling, direct calling and text messaging, and discussion forums.

87. Numerous factors can positively and negatively influence cohesiveness; some of these are size or number of employees, length of time for task accomplishment and length of time the group is together, external pressures, organization, location and prestige of the group, group norms, internal competitive behaviour, and closeness of supervision. Large groups (more than 25 to 30 employees) may inhibit the development of cohesiveness. The longer the time period for group development, the greater the cohesiveness. External pressures (in the form of close supervision) could accelerate development of cohesion. The higher the prestige, the more likely cohesiveness will develop. Strong group norms also increase cohesiveness. However, internal competitive behaviour may hinder cohesiveness.

88.

The first step is forming, where team members are unclear about individual roles and responsibilities and tend to be polite while they determine what is expected of them. Members are discovering the team’s purpose, objective, and external relationship and are testing those boundaries.

Storming involves members competing for position. There is considerable conflict and power struggles; cliques and factions within the group begin to form.

Norming brings agreement and consensus. Roles and responsibilities become clear and accepted.

In performing, the team becomes more strategically aware and clear about its mission and purpose. Members do not need to be instructed but may ask for assistance from the leader with personal or interpersonal development.

Adjourning is the final stage. When the group’s purpose is completed, the group disbands.

T h

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Chap 09_ORGB3 89. Task functions relate to getting the job done, the problem solved, and/or evaluating results. Seeking and distributing information, assembling and coordinating resources, diagnosing the problem, assigning personnel, and controlling work activities are task functions. Maintenance functions involve keeping the group operating in positive ways and retaining individuals or group members. Mutual support, tension reduction, conflict resolution, and enforcing group norms are maintenance functions.

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Chap 10_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. A zero-sum outcome means that both sides have gained something. a. True b. False 2. When your objective is to learning from the situation, you should use a competing style of conflict management. a. True b. False 3. Forty percent of workplace conflict is personality clashes. a. True b. False 4. Avoiding, as a conflict management style, is low on assertiveness and on cooperativeness. a. True b. False 5. One conflict management techniques is to improve the communication between the conflicting parties. a. True b. False 6. A mediator can impose a resolution to the conflicting parties. a. True b. False 7. Integrative negotiation is an approach where there is a reasonable expectation of arriving at a mutually beneficial agreement. a. True b. False 8. Relationship conflict is considered an affective conflict. a. True b. False 9. Changing personnel by transferring them to another department or firing them is an effective conflict management technique. a. True b. False 10. The major problem associated with the high versus middle versus low power relationship is suboptimization. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_ORGB3 11. If arbitration is not successful, then the next step is litigation. a. True b. False 12. Workplace conflict can be more prevalent than conflict in a social setting. a. True b. False 13. Another term for payback is coalition building. a. True b. False 14. Character assassination is an effective way to resolve conflicts. a. True b. False 15. The accommodating style of conflict management involves ignoring the situation and hoping it will go away or resolve itself. a. True b. False 16. Task conflict arises from disagreements about how work will be accomplished. a. True b. False 17. Conflict is more likely in an organizational setting because parties have similar goals. a. True b. False 18. Functional conflict is a necessary and desirable component of having a diverse team. a. True b. False 19. Negotiation is a joint process of finding a mutually acceptable solution to a conflict. a. True b. False 20. When an issue is trivial and there are more important issues a manager should use an avoiding style to handle conflict. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_ORGB3 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. When is conflict dysfunctional? a. when it’s determined by the group’s leader b. when it increases productivity c. when it’s aimed at task issues d. when it reduces group performance 22. What is a negotiation approach in which each party seeks to maximize its resources? a. spiral bargaining b. integrative negotiation c. distributive negotiation d. collective bargaining 23. George’s approach to resolving conflict among his staff is to try to reach a solution that satisfies the concerns of both employees who are involved in the conflict. What conflict handling style is this? a. accommodating b. collaborating c. forcing d. avoiding 24. Which process brings in a neutral third party to help parties make their own decisions to resolve a dispute? a. mediation b. arbitration c. litigation d. negotiation 25. On what two behavioural dimensions can a conflict management style be classified? a. cooperativeness and degree of competition b. cooperativeness and degree of compromise c. cooperativeness and accommodation d. cooperativeness and assertiveness 26. Greta needs finance’s numbers to finalize her marketing report. Finance has been delaying getting the data to her and she is frustrated. Which source of process conflict is this? a. responsibility b. task interdependence c. common resources d. functional 27. Which type of negotiation is referred to as win–win? a. negotiated settlement b. integrative negotiation c. distributive negotiation d. collective bargaining 28. What is the best conflict-handling style to use when quick, decisive action is vital? a. forcing b. compromising c. collaborating d. avoiding 29. What style of conflict management will result in negative evaluations from others in the workplace if overused? a. compromising b. collaborating c. competing d. avoiding

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Chap 10_ORGB3 30. Bob and Maria are in a conflict over the limited number of laptops that each group needs to accomplish their tasks. Their boss decides to purchase more laptops so both groups will have enough to work. Which conflict management technique is this? a. increased communication b. superordinate goals c. expanding resources d. changing structure 31. What is the conflict management technique that is highly ineffective and also commonly known as payback? a. retribution b. bullying c. withdrawing resources d. coalition building 32. Management at BV Enterprises is in negotiation with their equipment operators as they seek to agree on a new contract. Resources are limited and everyone feels that whatever one side wins, the other side loses. This is a. distributive negotiation. b. integrative negotiation. c. win–win negotiation. d. BATNA. 33. Ivan can often resort to personal attacks on coworkers if they disagree with his opinion on a work-related issue.

What source of conflict is this? a. process conflict b. task conflict c. relationship conflict d. cognitive conflict 34. Steven is a very difficult employee to work with no matter who he is teamed up with. He is the source of conflict wherever he works in the organization. Management has decided to fire Steven. Which conflict management technique is this? a. changing personnel b. changing structure c. expanding resources d. managing proactively 35. As a manager, you want to foster positive conflict. Which response is an example of positive conflict? a. conflict that leads to more effective decision making b. conflict that increases hostility c. conflict that wastes resources d. conflict that diverts energy from work 36. What is one of the behaviours that can result in escalating conflict? a. Machiavellianism b. communication c. consultation d. character assassination 37. Dolvett oversees a number of individuals. He decides he must stimulate conflict to move his area forward. Which response indicates why he would want to stimulate conflict within his area? a. when group members are highly cohesive b. when the group needs more creativity c. when there is only one source of conflict d. when there has been a tendency to overuse the devil’s advocate perspective 38. How are disagreements over wages and working conditions between a union and an employer usually resolved? a. expending resources b. going on strike c. changing union leaders d. undertaking negotiations Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB3 39. Which of the following cannot be done by a mediator? a. reason b. suggest c. dictate d. facilitate 40. Doreen gives up some control on the new project in order to secure agreement. What are Doreen’s actions an example of? a. an accommodating stance b. an avoiding stance c. a compromising stance d. a collaborating stance 41. In order for parties in negotiation to form an agreement, what must there must be? a. a win-win strategy b. a negative bargaining zone c. mediation d. a ZOPA or bargaining range 42. When someone challenges Sofia’s ideas, she backs off. What is this conflict management style? a. accommodating b. collaborating c. compromising d. competing 43. What is the best approach to negotiation when you are dealing with a culture that values collectivism? a. avoiding b. accommodating c. collaborating d. competing 44. Which conflict resolution style is best used when people need time to cool down and regain perspective? a. accommodating b. forcing c. compromising d. avoiding 45. What percentage of HR professionals deal with conflict? a. 99 b. 75 c. 67 d. 52 46. Jones tries to balance the needs of others with his own and is always ready to give up something if the other party does as well in order to reach a solution to a conflict. What style is this? a. accommodating b. collaborating c. compromise d. forcing 47. As a conflict management technique, an organizational goal that is more important to both parties in a conflict than their individual or group goals is known as which of the following? a. a commitment goal b. a resource goal c. a superordinate goal d. a conflict management goal 48. What is an example of task conflict? a. goal differences between parties b. different ideas about how to accomplish a project c. team member issues d. unfair resource allocations

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Chap 10_ORGB3 49. As a conflict management style, forcing is ________on the assertiveness scale and __________ on the cooperativeness scale. a. low; high b. high; low c. low; low d. high; high 50. Two departments in a university are engaged in a conflict because they have to share one administrative assistant. What is the source of this process conflict? a. interdependence b. common resources c. jurisdictional ambiguity d. authority relationships 51. What does cognitive conflict include? a. interpersonal conflict b. task conflict and relationship conflict c. task conflict and process conflict d. relationship conflict 52. Which conflict resolution style is best when you find you are wrong and want to show your reasonableness? a. accommodating b. compromising c. avoiding d. collaborating 53. What can be one of the positive consequences of conflict? a. affecting group cohesion b. stimulating creativity c. directs energy to important work tasks d. improving management of resources 54. Which conflict management style results in less conflict and better performance? a. avoiding b. compromising c. collaborating d. accommodating 55. What do the sources of process conflict include? a. interdependence, interpersonal reactions, responsibility b. goal differences, authority, responsibility c. responsibility, authority, resources d. interdependence, common resources, responsibility 56. What is the best conflict-handling style to use when the issues are more important to others than to yourself and you want to maintain good relations? a. forcing b. accommodating c. compromising d. collaborating 57. Although there appears to be no evidence that men are better negotiators than women or vice versa, what often happens to women during negotiations? a. Women are treated as equal to men. b. Women are deemed to be too aggressive. c. Women are frequently discriminated against in offers made. d. Women often win generous offers.

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Chap 10_ORGB3 58. Two employees in Laura’s group are arguing. Instead of taking steps to resolve the conflict, Laura does nothing and hopes it will disappear. What ineffective conflict management technique does this represent? a. avoidance b. retribution c. non-commitment d. coalition building 59. Which of the following research findings indicates a style used by ineffective managers? a. a combination of competing and avoiding styles b. a combination of avoiding and competing styles c. a combination of accommodating and compromising styles d. a combination of collaborating and competing styles 60. When a neutral third party works out a resolution between two parties in conflict, and that outcome is binding, what is this referred to? a. arbitration b. mediation c. litigation d. communication 61. Which ineffective conflict management technique involves reacting with antagonism and/or aggression? a. anger b. avoidance c. dissonance d. hostility 62. You are supervising two work crews that work in adjacent departments performing nearly the same task. You decide to create a competitive situation between them as a means of increasing productivity and performance.

What must you understand for your approach to be successful? a. This situation can only be positive. b. Conflict may emerge and hostile and aggressive behaviours may be disruptive. c. Functional conflict creates a negative climate. d. Friendly competition does not have to be supervised.

63. Which conflict resolution style is win–win, involves arriving at mutually beneficial outcomes but can be very time consuming and is not always achievable? a. accommodating b. forcing c. compromising d. collaborating 64. Hussain has just received an email from a coworker that is making him very angry. Taking a few minutes to cool off and think before replying reflects which step of relationship conflict management? a. address the issue privately b. pause c. have a productive conversation d. use active listening techniques 65. On Twitter, participants receive information selectively, and choose to associate with like-minded individuals.

Researchers refer to this as a. a public sphere. b. challenging views. c. a bubble. d. an echo chamber.

66. What is one of the causes of conflict or disagreement between two or more parties? a. resource dependency b. incompatible goals c. mutual interest d. goal congruence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB3 67. Bobbie often disagrees with her team members on task-related issues. Although some members don’t like her for that reason, they do admit that she causes them to come up with better ideas. What is this an example of? a. negative conflict b. dysfunctional conflict c. functional conflict d. disruptive conflict 68. What is an “I win, you lose” outcome in conflict management? a. sum-one situation b. assertiveness c. a zero-sum situation d. positive settlement 69. What is the negotiation strategy that operates under zero-sum conditions? a. win–win b. distributive c. integrative d. mediation 70. What is conflict that is emotional and aimed at a person rather than an issue? a. task conflict b. relationship conflict c. process conflict d. cognitive conflict Match the following: a. Conflict that is constructive and beneficial b. Conflict due to difficulties in interpersonal interactions c. An unhealthy, potentially destructive disagreement between two or more persons d. Conflict arising due to disagreements about how work will be accomplished e. Conflict based on differences about work goals 71. task conflict 72. functional conflict 73. process conflict 74. dysfunctional conflict 75. relationship conflict Match the following: a. deliberate decision to take no action in resolving a conflict b. concerned about another person’s goals more than your own so you give in to or assist the other person c. you continue to pursue your goal despite the objection of someone else and the correctness of his or her position d. both parties to a conflict move toward each other e. the disputing parties recognize that it is in their best interest to work together 76. collaborating 77. accommodating 78. forcing 79. compromising 80. avoiding Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB3 Match the following: a. attempting to shift the balance of power by convincing others of the merits of the position b. an attempt to label or discredit an opponent c. reacting with antagonism and/or aggression d. when a person feels justified in taking some course of action, because the other party did it too e. doing nothing in the hopes that the conflict will disappear 81. character assassination 82. retribution and retaliation 83. coalition building 84. hostility 85. avoidance 86. What is meant by cognitive sources of conflict, and what do they include?

87. List and explain the effective conflict management techniques.

88. What is the difference between integrative and distributive negotiation?

89. How would you rank the five styles of conflict management in terms of their conflict-resolving effectiveness?

90. How can conflict be functional and positive?

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Chap 10_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. b

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Chap 10_ORGB3 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB3 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. d 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. e 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. b 76. e 77. b 78. c 79. d 80. a 81. b 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB3 83. a 84. c 85. e 86. Cognitive sources of conflict are task or process oriented. They include: ∙ Task conflict, which arises from differences in perspectives about work details and goals. ∙ Process conflict, which describes disagreements about how work will be accomplished.

87.

Superordinate goals: when organizational goals are more important to both parties in a conflict than their individual or group goals.

Expanding resources: providing more resources.

Changing personnel: if a particular individual is the source of the conflict then a solution might be to transfer them to another department or fire the individual.

Changing structure: changing the organization’s structure by appointing an integrator to act as a go-between between groups who may be in conflict. Or putting together cross-functional teams to overcome communication barriers and goal differences between departments.

Improve communication: improving communication between conflicting parties; giving them a chance to come together and build trust.

88. Distributive: competitive perspective; zero-sum conditions; claims value; gains made at someone's expense; labour vs. management; parties are focused on winning rather than finding common ground; win–lose situation; win at any cost; not good for relationships.

Integrative: focused on interests and issues where there is a reasonable expectation of arriving at a mutually beneficial agreement. assumption that settlements exist to create win–win situation; preferable to distributive bargaining; creates value; builds long-term relationships; facilitates working together.

89. The nature and sources of conflict will greatly determine the style or styles to be used in resolving a conflict. In many conflict situations, however, a style of avoiding is likely to be least effective. Competing may also not fully resolve a conflict; in fact, competing may even exacerbate and prolong a conflict situation. Accommodation may be successful if one’s position is not extreme and it is done to enhance goodwill as well as resolve a conflict. Compromising and collaborating are probably the best approaches, but may be the most difficult and time consuming. If the parties in conflict are faced with a superordinate goal or problem of significant mutual concern, a collaboration approach can be most beneficial. When the parties are relatively equal in terms of their respective conflict positions, a negotiating approach in an attempt to compromise may be most appropriate. Thomas argues that all five styles are appropriate, but the style should appropriately match the situation.

90. Conflict stems from disagreements or differences between two or more persons, groups, or organizations. The positive face of conflict is displayed in constructive conflict situations where new ideas are expressed, persons are motivated to change, creative problem solving emerges, underlying issues surface, and greater energy is brought to bear on a problem situation. When the outcome of a conflict situation is positive, conflict is healthy and constructive.

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Chap 11_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Guidelines for using coercive power ethically include warning before punishing. a. True b. False 2. The least effective power bases, which include legitimate power, are the ones most likely to be used by managers. a. True b. False 3. In the Milgram experiments most participants stopped administering powerful “shocks” when they realized how dangerous they were to the “learners.” a. True b. False 4. Someone who oversees 100 other people who require input or assistance for their daily tasks would have a high degree of visibility. a. True b. False 5. A police officer exercises both legitimate and coercive power when she subdues a criminal. a. True b. False 6. Referent power is linked with organizational effectiveness. a. True b. False 7. Expert power has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction in comparison to the other forms of power. a. True b. False 8. Referent power has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction. a. True b. False 9. Personal appeals influence tactics rely on flattery and compliments. a. True b. False 10. Only the boss’s needs and styles should be accommodated by the employee. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_ORGB3 11. Referent power is the most dangerous interpersonal form of power. a. True b. False 12. One way of expanding your sphere of influence is by cultivating relationships. a. True b. False 13. Groups have power to the extent that they control strategic contingencies. a. True b. False 14. When a supervisor denies your request to be considered for a job transfer because you have a unique expertise, he is exercising expert power. a. True b. False 15. 16. Political behaviour involves actions officially sanctioned by an organization that are taken to influence others in order to meet one’s personal goals. a. True b. False 16. Groups seen as powerful tend to be given more resources from top management. a. True b. False 17. Political skill is an interpersonal attribute that has no bearing on managerial success. a. True b. False 18. Power does not reside in people but in relationships between people and situations. a. True b. False 19. Authority is legitimate power. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

20. What type of power has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction? a. legitimate b. reward c. expert d. referent

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Chap 11_ORGB3 21. A group’s power can be based on the extent to which they control the activities that other groups depend on in order to complete their tasks. This is known as a. a coercive base of power. b. non-substitutability of the group’s function. c. a strategic contingency perspective. d. an influence map.

22. Which influence tactic is most likely to be effective in organizations that value democratic decision making? a. rational persuasion tactics b. personal appeals tactics c. consultation tactics d. pressure tactics 23. Barbara can be difficult to work for, but she does put in a lot of effort and has earned her management role.

When she asks you to do something, you will do it because “she’s the boss.” What type of power is this? a. personal b. legitimate c. reward d. expert 24. Phillipe made a decision not officially sanctioned by the organization in order to influence others to meet his sales goal. What is Phillipe engaging in? a. illegitimate power b. utilitarian power c. coercion behaviour d. political behaviour 25. Why is it important to manage political behaviour at work? a. because it will decrease trust issues b. because it can lead to power grabs c. because the perception of dysfunctional behaviour can lead to dissatisfaction d. because it can lead to higher needs for social power 26. What type of power is least likely to be available to a non-supervisory, technical employee? a. referent b. expert c. knowledge d. legitimate 27. As a management trainee, you are assigned to a mentor who you respect and you gain considerable insight into the nature of management and how to behave in different managerial situations. What type of power is your relationship with your mentor based on? a. legitimate b. reward c. expert d. referent 28. Which statement would be an example of what an employee might say if they wish to get you in a good mood? a. If you don’t do this, you are fired. b. You owe me. c. Only you can do this job right. d. Everyone agrees with me.

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Chap 11_ORGB3 29. What separates political behaviour from organizational politics? a. Political behaviour can be undertaken only by managers. b. Political behaviour is self-serving and undertaken for personal gain. c. Organizational politics are about personal power gains. d. Organizational power is related to legitimate bases of power.

30. Your colleagues says, “I will take you to lunch if you support me.” What does this exemplify? a. ingratiation b. an inspirational appeal c. consultation d. an exchange 31. The ability to collect, control and distribute information is which base of power? a. informational power b. gatekeepers’ power c. position power d. expert power 32. What is the relationship between reward power and coercive power? a. Both lead to compliance. b. Both lead to influence. c. Both lead to power. d. Both lead to authority.

33. Dependency on someone is decreased when the resource they control is a. scarce. b. easily available elsewhere. c. important. d. hard to find.

34. Bob is the “go-to” person for any questions about the history of the museum collection; everyone in the organization knows him. Bob’s influence is based on a. substitutability. b. visibility. c. centrality. d. cultivating relationships.

35. What term describes the ability to get things done through positive interpersonal relationships outside the formal organization? a. informal authority b. political skill c. the use of power d. the use of expert knowledge 36. Which type of power is characterized as the power base of the future because it has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction? a. referent power b. reward power c. legitimate power d. expert power 37. What is self-determination with regards to empowerment? a. a personal connection to the work b. a person’s belief that they have the skills to do the job well c. a feeling of having control over the way work is accomplished d. feeling of high organizational commitment

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Chap 11_ORGB3 38. What is the key to managing political behaviour? a. maintaining tight control over rewards b. clarifying goals and performance objectives c. open communication d. encouraging competition for resources 39. According to research, which influence tactic is the least effective? a. ingratiation b. coalition c. pressure d. exchange 40. Why is it difficult to determine if a power-related behaviour is ethical or not? a. because participants could be lying b. because there might be too much information that influences one’s decision c. because of procedural justice d. because the interpretation of behaviour is often dependent on perception 41. Julia appeals to her friends’ loyalty to get them to help her move into her new apartment on the weekend. What influence tactic is she using? a. consultation b. personal appeals c. coalition d. exchange 42. Dave wants his colleague to keep his secret of stealing products from the organization. What type of power is Dave most likely to exercise? a. referent b. normative c. personal d. coercive 43. Assume you are a senior accounting major. A friend who is taking an accounting course seeks you out for tutorial assistance. What is this is an example of? a. reward power b. legitimate power c. referent power d. expert power 44. Political skill comprises four components. Which is the component that refers to an individual’s skill at building relationships with others? a. sincerity b. interpersonal influence c. social awareness d. networking ability 45. What is the first step in managing your relationship with your boss? a. being dependable and honest b. understanding what motivates their behaviour and expectations c. assessing yourself d. selectively using your boss’s time and resources 46. With regards to empowerment, what is the term for an employee’s personal connection to their work? a. self-determination b. meaning c. competence d. impact Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB3 47. What influence tactic is least effective, regardless of the circumstance of the situation? a. pressure b. upward appeals c. consultation d. ingratiation 48. What is “competence” in regard to the essence of empowerment? a. the fit between the work role and employees’ values and beliefs b. the belief that one’s job makes a difference within the organization c. the degree to which one has control over their work d. the belief that one has the ability to do the job well 49. All the employees in the call centre need their manager’s approval before confirming any product returns. This manager would have a high level of a. visibility. b. cultivating relationships. c. centrality. d. substitutability.

50. What set of dimensions comprises the essence of empowerment? a. teamwork, delegation, trust, and autonomy b. meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact c. delegation, trust, competence, and autonomy d. meaning, teamwork, competence, and trust 51. What is empowerment? a. removing tight controls from the employee b. creating challenging goals for the employee c. creating opportunities for the employee d. giving employees the authority to make their own decisions with respect to their work task 52. What was the experiment that involved college-aged men who were assigned either a prisoner or guard role and which investigated the effects of perceived power? a. the Hawthorne Experiment b. the Pygmalion Effect c. the Milgram Experiments d. the Stanford Prison Study 53. Your new boss has several years of managerial experience in your firm’s industry but, as someone hired from outside the firm, he doesn’t have specific knowledge of operational matters for your company. You want to develop an effective work relationship with him. What should you do? a. Provide information on performance deficiencies in the organization. b. Try to encourage a better match between his management style and those he supervises. c. Limit his time with other employees. d. Share information and keep him informed.

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Chap 11_ORGB3 54. What is one way to reduce political activity? a. determining a performance appraisal process b. providing a range of uncertainty c. setting unclear goals d. managing scarce resources 55. Dora has an impact on Cory’s behaviour. What is occurring? a. dominance b. authority c. power d. influence 56. What is the most important thing to Bloom’s Remember about influence tactics? a. Only savvy managers should be using them. b. Different tactics should be used for different purposes and for different people. c. They should be used only with subordinates. d. The most effective tactics should be used in all situations.

Political Behaviour in Organizations OBJ: LO5 BLM: Bloom’s Higher Order 28. Whistle blowing is an example of what kind of political behaviour? a. vertical b. internal c. external d. illegitimate 57. What did the Milgram experiments investigate? a. the use of coercive power b. the perceived power of prison guards c. how obedient individuals could be to authority figures d. the use of unwelcome behaviour to influence others 58. What is the term for the ability to influence another person? a. power b. dominance c. control d. authority 59. What is the term for actions not officially sanctioned by an organization that are taken to influence others in order to meet personal goals? a. political behaviour b. social power c. legitimate power d. organizational politics 60. According to the text, what is one of the three questions to ask when determining if the use of power is ethical in a given situation? a. Does the behaviour respect the rights of all parties? b. Does the behaviour respect distributive justice concepts? c. Does the behaviour respect customers’ rights? d. Does the behaviour favour the company?

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Chap 11_ORGB3 61. Hunter, your coworker, gets others involved to support his new training plan proposal. Before the decision-making meeting, he meets with coworkers one-on-one, he explains his ideas, shows his documents, asks for feedback and directly asks for support when the time comes to make the decision. What influence tactic is Hunter using? a. exchange b. consultation c. upward appeals d. ingratiation 62. ”It’s not what you know but who you know” is reflective of which way of expanding one’s sphere of influence? a. centrality b. cultivating relationships c. visibility d. substitutability 63. Whoever holds the password to the wifi holds the power. This exemplifies which factor of dependence? a. cultivating relationships b. visibility c. centrality d. substitutability 64. Which influence tactic can be summarized as a desire to seek participation in making a decision? a. pressure b. exchange c. consultation d. ingratiation 65. Bob, a construction manager, uses a large amount of data to support his building proposal. What influence tactic is he using? a. ingratiation approach b. rational persuasion c. inspirational appeals d. coalition building 66. What type of power do charismatic individuals usually have? a. legitimate b. expert c. referent d. reward 67. What is any unwanted physical or verbal behaviour that offends or humiliates another person? a. harassment b. coercion c. power d. authority 68. One of the ways of using reward power ethically is to a. not tie performance to rewards. b. offer no monetary rewards, only recognition. c. offer only credible rewards. d. offer rewards with little value to employees.

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Chap 11_ORGB3 Match the following: a. “If you don’t start reporting on time your pay will be docked.” b. seeking someone else’s participation in making a decision c. “You do this for me and I will do that for you” d. logical argument and factual information used to influence e. praising or complimenting someone you want to influence 69. pressure 70. exchange 71. consultation 72. rational persuasion 73. ingratiation Match the following: a. giving employees the authority to make their own decisions b. sense of personal connection to the work c. the belief that one has the ability to do the job well d. having control over how one does their work e. a person’s belief that their contributions matter to the organization 74. meaning 75. empowerment 76. competence 77. impact 78. self-determination Match the following: a. legitimate power b. the degree that someone must rely on someone else to achieve their goals c. the process of affecting thoughts and behaviour of others d. power based on interpersonal attraction e. power based on knowledge 79. dependence 80. referent power 81. authority 82. influence 83. expert power

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Chap 11_ORGB3 84. If behaviour still persists or corrective action is not taken, file a complaint with the Human Rights Commission.

PTS: 1 REF: Using and Abusing Power in Organizations OBJ: LO3 4. List and define the four components of political skill.

85. What are the six major bases of interpersonal power according?

86. Distinguish among power, authority, and influence.

87. Why is organizational political behaviour important to study and understand?

88. What steps can be taken to address harassment/bullying in organizations?

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Chap 11_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. d

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Chap 11_ORGB3 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. d 52. d 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB3 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. c 71. b 72. d 73. e 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. e 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB3 83. e 84. Social awareness: refers to the accurate perception and evaluation of social situations.

Interpersonal influence: describes an individual’s ability to influence and engage others.

Networking ability: an individual’s skill at building relationships with others.

Sincerity: a person’s ability to be authentic and genuine with others.

85. Six forms of interpersonal power that managers use: • Positional: reward, coercive, legitimate, informational.

• Personal: referent and expert power.

86. Power is the ability to influence another person. Authority is legitimate power or the right to influence another person.

Influence is the process of affecting the thoughts and behaviour of someone else.

87. All organizations exhibit political behaviour; it is obvious in some organizations and not visible in others. Organizational politics concerns the use of power and influence in organizations. Power and influence tactics can benefit the organization and its members, as well as produce negative consequences. Positive influence tactics can facilitate decision making whereas negative influence tactics (pressure, for example) can alienate and discourage employees. If the organization benefits from one’s influence, then many, maybe all, within the organization gain or experience positive outcomes.

88.

1. Make it clear to the perpetrator that a line has been crossed and ask them to stop.

2. If the unwanted behaviour continues, tell a person in authority about the situation.

3. Document all alleged incidents.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. According to LMX theory, out-group members are more likely to support the values of the organization and become models of appropriate behaviour. a. True b. False 2. Trait theories of leadership place emphasis on the leader’s ability to develop meaningful interpersonal relationships with employees. a. True b. False 3. Leaders agitate for change and new approaches, whereas managers advocate stability and the status quo. a. True b. False 4. The situational leadership model by Hersey and Blanchard suggests that a leader’s behaviour should be adjusted to the maturity level of the followers. a. True b. False 5. Transformational leaders, manage diverse and complex inputs, and emphasize vision over goals. a. True b. False 6. Adolf Hitler is an example of a charismatic leader. a. True b. False 7. Leadership and management are two distinct, yet complementary systems of action in organizations. Effective leadership controls complexity in the organization and its environment while management produces useful change in organizations. a. True b. False 8. Transformational leaders inspire and excite followers to high levels of performance. a. True b. False 9. The “country club” leader does just enough to get by. a. True b. False 10. Transactional leaders use formal rewards and punishments to manage followers. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 11. Leaders who lead by serving others are known as democratic leaders. a. True b. False 12. The Michigan leadership studies concluded that less direct control allows employee to be more productive and engaged. a. True b. False 13. Female leaders prefer transactional relationships with followers. a. True b. False 14. According to the text, effective leadership produces useful change. a. True b. False 15. The path–goal approach to leadership postulates that the basic role of the leader is to clear the subordinate’s path to the goal. a. True b. False 16. The Leadership Grid approach to leadership evaluates the (9,9) team manager as the very best style of managerial behaviour. a. True b. False 17. Followers are most valuable to a leader and organization when they actively contribute. a. True b. False 18. When the task is difficult and employees are highly trained, a directive style of leadership should be used. a. True b. False 19. The Michigan leadership studies saw the dimensions of leadership as coexisting. a. True b. False 20. Some researchers argue that emotional intelligence is more important for effective leadership than either IQ or technical skills. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_ORGB3 21. Effective followers are active, independent, critical thinkers. a. True b. False 22. According to contingency theories, no leadership style is best in all situations. a. True b. False 23. One finding of research on LMX theory shows that members of the out-group who communicate more often with their superiors tend to receive lower performance ratings. a. True b. False 24. Fiedler believed that leadership styles are very flexible and can be changed by the leader, depending on the situation. a. True b. False 25. Healthy organizations need both effective leadership and good management. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

26. What is most commonly a transformational leader’s action ? a. be more or less successful depending on the situation b. think the same way as a transactional leader c. possess superhuman or even mystical qualities d. inspire followers to perform beyond expectations 27. Which statement best summarizes emotional intelligence and leadership? a. Emotional intelligence can be learned through honest feedback. b. Leaders with low emotional intelligence don’t necessarily make poor decisions or lose their effectiveness. c. While most people gain emotional intelligence as they age, everyone starts with the same amount. d. Leadership can be learned; unfortunately, emotional intelligence is given.

28. As a supervisor, you find yourself in a situation where you are gratified by accomplishing tasks and getting work done. What is the term for your leadership behaviour? a. employee-centred b. task-oriented c. autocratic d. controlling with close supervision

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Chap 12_ORGB3 29. According to the contingency theory developed by Fiedler, what is the most appropriate action when a misfit is found between the leader and the situation? a. Develop better assessment techniques for leaders and group members. b. Remove the leader and replace him/her with someone that will result in a fit. c. Attempt to change the leader’s behaviour through training. d. Reengineer the situation to fit the leader’s style.

30. What best describes followers who tend to be passive and are not capable of independent and critical thinking? a. survivors b. effective c. alienated d. sheep 31. What is a defining characteristic of the early trait theory studies? a. that the elements that made someone a good leader were intrinsic b. that leaders all behaved in similar ways c. that leaders had a higher level of intelligence than others d. that leaders had a lower stress tolerance level than others 32. According to House’s path–goal theory, what variables are used to determine the most appropriate leader behaviour? a. position power and leader-member relations b. authority characteristics and task characteristics c. subordinate characteristics and workplace characteristics d. leader behaviour style and follower style 33. What do trait theories of leadership attempt to do? a. suggest leaders can be trained and learn leadership behaviours b. emphasize the situation in classifying approaches to leadership c. focus on leaders’ physical attributes, personality, and abilities d. fit traits to various situations 34. What two orientations of leadership does the Ohio State leadership research suggest? a. autocratic and democratic b. task-centred and concerned for production c. initiating structure and consideration d. P-oriented and M-oriented 35. When a leader’s behaviour is focused on getting the job done, according to the Ohio State studies, what is this referred to as? a. controlling b. employee orientation c. initiating structure d. consideration

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Chap 12_ORGB3 36. According to Blake and Mouton’s Leadership Grid, what is a characteristic of the “country club manager”? a. builds a highly productive work team b. conforms to requirements and puts considerable pressure on employees to perform c. exerts minimal effort to get work done d. creates a happy work environment and applies minimal supervision 37. According to the Hersey-Blanchard leadership model, which leadership style exemplifies the readiness for very mature followers? a. employee-centred b. delegating c. democratic d. autocratic 38. What does the University of Michigan call leaders who focus on relationships? a. relationship oriented b. consideration c. production oriented d. employee oriented 39. What is the role of an effective leader? a. controlling resources to accomplish tasks b. producing stability, order, and efficiency c. controlling the future of the organization and acting as enablers of change in organizations d. achieving short-term results 40. Which statement is an example of charismatic leadership? a. It has potential for high achievement but also risks destructive courses of action. b. It is based on actions and behaviours. c. It is very different from transformational leadership. d. It is an effective leadership approach when combined with personalized power motivation.

41. Which leader style does the path–goal theory suggest should be used with employees who are highly trained professionals with an achievable but challenging task? a. supportive b. directive c. achievement-oriented d. participative 42. Which statement applies to followership in contrast to leadership? a. Followership has been viewed from a traditional perspective as passive. b. Followership has been viewed as not as highly differentiated. c. Followership has had extensive research and is fully supported. d. Followership has not been extensively researched.

43. What was the general conclusion of the Michigan studies? a. The emotional climate of the work situation is not really affected by leadership style. b. Anxiety may be the result of either autocratic or democratic leadership styles. c. Less direct control allows employees to be more productive and engaged. d. Employee stress is associated with production-oriented styles of leadership.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 44. Which statement best summarizes transformational leaders? a. They rely on contractual arrangements to manage employees. b. They use reward and punishment to shape employee behaviour. c. They inspire and stimulate followers to high performance levels. d. They use legitimate and reward power.

45. What does Fiedler recommend that managers do in order to be effective? a. treat employees differently depending upon the task b. carefully assess and diagnose the situation c. adjust their position power d. change their leadership style to fit the situation 46. What theory proposes that effective leaders should adjust their behaviour to the maturity level of the followers? a. contingency model b. situational leadership c. laissez-faire leadership d. production-oriented 47. In the Hersey-Blanchard leadership model, what is an example of the telling style? a. low relationship concern and high task behaviour b. high consideration and task orientation c. low relationship concern for task and employees d. consideration and low concern for the task 48. What is the key characteristic of the leader–member exchange theory? a. leaders form two groups of followers (in-groups and out-groups) b. leaders develop relationships with followers based on the principle of who does what and how much for whom c. followership depends on the degree that a task is satisfying d. followership is based on member perceptions of equity 49. According to path–goal theory, which leader style is necessary when employees have ambiguous tasks? a. achievement b. supportive c. participative d. directive 50. What is an example of the leadership behaviour style used when joint decision-making activities are necessary? a. directive b. relationship-oriented c. participative d. achievement-oriented 51. You are a manager using Fiedler’s approach to leadership. Which intervention would you find most effective? a. ensuring you recruit leaders with flexible leadership approaches b. reengineering the situation to fit the leader’s style c. monitoring leadership orientation through the LPC constantly to detect any change in orientation d. providing the necessary training to remedy the lack of fit between the leader and the situation

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Chap 12_ORGB3 52. What is a result of research on LMX theory? a. No difference existed between in-group or out-group members on performance ratings when communication from the supervisor increased. b. In-group members are more likely to engage in organizational citizenship behaviours. c. In-group members are more likely to retaliate against the organizations. d. Decreased communication between the supervisor and out-group members tends to lead to higher performance ratings.

53. What is an example of the positive face of charismatic leadership? a. to engage action and positive behaviour b. to create personalized power motivations c. to inspire followers and motivate them d. to create situational contingencies 54. What do contingency theories of leadership focus on? a. characteristics of the leader b. characteristics of the task c. characteristics of the follower d. characteristics of the situation 55. Which statement summarizes basic ideas regarding leadership and management? a. They involve the management of major change efforts within the organization. b. They consist of very similar activities. c. They involve the alignment of people to the overall direction of the organization through communication. d. They are two distinct yet complementary systems of action in organizations.

56. What is the LPC scale? a. an attitudinal scale that measures leadership style b. a highly reliable instrument for evaluation c. an instrument that evaluates the type of person a leader likes the most d. a projective technique in which the leader evaluates a person they least prefer to work with 57. Which are the least disruptive and the lowest-risk followers? a. sheep b. survivors c. yes-people d. alienated 58. What is the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership model based on? a. leader–follower relationships b. task structure c. maturity level of employees d. type of power 59. Which of the following summarizes the impoverished manager? a. emphasizes efficient production b. maintains the status quo c. exerts just enough effort to avoid being fired d. creates a happy, comfortable work environment 60. What type of theory identifies leadership behaviours that are most effective in specific situations? a. contingency b. behavioural c. trait d. transformational Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 61. Which statement most accurately summarizes initiating structure leader behaviour? a. It is a directive, strong and controlling relationship structure. b. It is a delegation of authority and responsibility. c. It is a leader behaviour aimed at defining and organizing work relationships and roles. d. It is a collaborative, responsive, and interactive structure.

62. What type of power is associated with charismatic leadership? a. reward b. referent c. expert d. legitimate 63. According to the Ohio State studies, when a leader nurtures friendly working relationships and encourages mutual trust, what is this referred to as? a. employee oriented b. initiating structure c. consideration d. democratic management 64. Which statement best summarizes the assumptions made by leaders who are engaging in a path–goal leadership style? a. They structure the situation so it best fits their leadership style. b. They adapt their behaviour and style to fit the characteristics of the followers and the work environment. c. They adapt their behaviour and style to fit the characteristics of the followers. d. They adapt their behaviour and style to fit the characteristics of the work environment.

65. What is suggested by research regarding male and female leaders? a. Women tend to use a less people-oriented style that is more inclusive and empowering. b. Women tend to use a more people-oriented style that is more inclusive and empowering. c. Men tend to rely on position power to be effective leaders. d. Women tend to be personally power-driven rather than socially power-driven.

66. What is the situational leadership style for S2 (selling)? a. low task and high relationship b. low relationship and low task c. high task and low relationship d. high task and high relationship 67. What is a major difference between trait and behavioural theories of leadership? a. Trait theories suggest that leaders have certain physical attributes while behaviour theories focus on intrinsic factors. b. Trait theories emphasize personality and ability attributes versus actions and behaviours. c. Trait theories emphasize the leader as opposed to the situation. d. Trait theories emphasize personality and ability attributes and behaviour theories focus on the followers.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 68. Which statement best summarizes the support for trait theories in identifying universal distinguishing attributes of leaders? a. Trait theory studies have tended to conclude that there are strong implications for training and development rather than selection. b. Trait studies have identified physical attributes as being more important to leadership than personality or abilities such as intelligence. c. When looking at physical attributes, height has been the indicator of a leader attribute . d. Findings on traits as a basis for explaining universal leader effectiveness have found no solid conclusions.

69. In the Hershey-Blanchard Situational Leadership model, what determines a follower’s maturity? a. emotional quotient or IQ b. level of moral development c. ability and willingness to accept responsibility d. age and years of experience 70. According to research conducted by Fiedler, what indicates how a leader can be effective? a. position power b. the favourableness of the situation c. task structure d. the least preferred co-worker 71. Which leadership approach would you use if you wanted to demonstrate that leaders may form different relationships with followers? a. the substitute for leadership approach b. transactional theory c. LMX theory d. followership theory 72. What does research indicate about “felt trustworthiness”? a. the degree to which employees believe their boss trusts them b. the degree to which employees trust their leaders c. the degree to which employees believe their boss respects them d. the degree to which individuals feel positively regarding co-workers 73. According to the Michigan studies on leadership, what best represents a work environment characterized by close supervision and many written rules and regulations? a. subordinate-centred b. autocratic c. production-oriented d. employee-centred 74. What useful guidelines have emerged from extensive leadership research? a. Task-oriented leadership is the most successful style. b. Good leaders are poor followers. c. Trait theories are more valid than behavioural theories. d. No two leaders are the same and there is value in this diversity.

75. What is involved in leadership in contrast to management? a. problem solving b. organizing and staffing c. setting a direction for the organization d. planning and budgeting Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 Match the following: a. one who is designated to lead by the organization b. process of being guided and directed in the accomplishment of a task c. a leader without authority d. process of guiding and directing the behaviour of people in the workplace e. someone who plans, organizes, and controls the organization 76. formal leader 77. informal leader 78. manager 79. followership 80. leadership Match the following: a. one who can motivate others and initiate change and development b. a leader who relies on coercive and reward power c. a leader who can inspire and excite followers to high levels of performance d. a leader with extreme referent power e. emphasis on physical attributes or personality characteristics 81. transformational leader 82. trait theory 83. charismatic leader 84. transactional leader 85. leader 86. What are the basic differences among the trait, behavioural, and contingency types or categories of leadership theories?

87. Briefly explain House’s path–goal theory of leadership.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 88. What are the characteristics of an effective follower?

89. What is the difference between a leader and a manager?

90. Compare and contrast the Ohio State leadership model with the Leadership Grid.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. True 26. d

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Chap 12_ORGB3 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. b 52. b 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. c 70. b 71. c 72. a 73. c 74. d 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. e 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB3 83. d 84. b 85. a 86. Trait theories focus on personality traits and physical attributes of the leader, including aggressiveness, cooperativeness, adaptability, emotionality, height, intelligence, and general appearance. Trait theorists have attempted to identify traits most closely associated with effective leadership. No standard list of traits has emerged after decades of trait research. Behavioural theories emphasize leader behaviours and styles of leadership.. Many of these theories have focused on two dimensions of leader behaviour: task orientation and employee concern. Contingency theories attempt to classify situations in which leaders with particular behaviours can be successful. Fiedler focuses on the situational characteristics of position power, task structure, and leader-member relations. A leader with weak position power, good relations with employees, but an unstructured task will tend to be successful if they have a more considerate and participatory leadership style. By their nature, contingency theories are “if–then” theories. Contingency theories examine the situation and leader behaviours in their approaches to leader effectiveness.

87. In the path–goal theory, the leader attempts to clarify the path to the follower’s goal so that they can be successful.

Different leader behaviour styles can be used depending upon follower characteristics and the task environment. For example, a directive style is more appropriate when followers are inexperienced but the task is difficult and unstructured. When the task is structured and workers are experienced, a supportive style is more appropriate.

88. An effective follower exercises self-discipline and requires minimal supervision. They are committed to the organization and fully supports its mission and goals. Third, the effective follower engages in self-study and is enhancing their skills so as to increase the contribution to the organization. Competence and professionalism are important. Finally, effective followers display initiative, are honest and credible, and greatly desire success for the organization.

89. A manager performs tasks associated with the management process, including planning, organizing, and controlling. If the manager can inspire others and guide them toward objectives of mutual interest, the manager is also a leader. A leader can initiate, motivate, and bring about change. A manager may or may not be able to do these things.

90. These approaches to leadership are similar in that each focuses on two dimensions of leadership. Consideration in the Ohio State model corresponds to concern for people in the Grid; initiating structure of Ohio State is similar to concern for production in the Grid. A difference, however, in these theories is that the Ohio State approach emphasizes behaviours and the Grid tends to focus on leader attitudes as well as behaviour.

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Chap 13_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Role demands are the expectations placed on newcomers. a. True b. False 2. It is not important for managers to demonstrate organizational values. a. True b. False 3. Stories that aren’t backed by reality can lead to cynicism and mistrust. a. True b. False 4. Values are the deepest level of culture. a. True b. False 5. It is the managers not the leaders who play a crucial role in sharing and reinforcing the culture of an organization. a. True b. False 6. A retirement dinner would be a good example of a rite of enhancement. a. True b. False 7. Leaders communicate the culture through themes they focus on. a. True b. False 8. The stages of socialization are: stage 1, anticipatory socialization; stage 2, change and acquisition; and the final stage is encounter. a. True b. False 9. An organizational culture that encourages confidence and risk taking among employees, has leadership that produces change, and focuses on the changing needs of customers reflects a strong culture perspective. a. True b. False 10. Managers who want to change the culture of their area must first look at who their employees are. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_ORGB3 11. Assumptions are often unconscious. Organization members may not be aware of their assumptions and may be reluctant or unable to discuss them or change them. a. True b. False 12. Public announcement of corporate wrongdoing on the part of an executive is a rite of degradation. a. True b. False 13. Enacted values are what the members say they value. a. True b. False 14. Symbols of organizational culture are called rituals. a. True b. False 15. It is important that managers set examples to guide behaviour. a. True b. False 16. The implementation of formal ethics guidelines might be expected to improve ethical behaviour, yet some studies have shown the exact opposite—institution of formal ethics codes can actually lead to less ethical behaviour among employees. a. True b. False 17. Assumptions are the deepest and most fundamental level of an organization’s culture. a. True b. False 18. Deeply held beliefs that guide behaviour and tell members of an organization how to perceive and think about things are called values. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

19. What is the first action a leader must take when attempting to change an organization’s culture? a. replace the artifacts of the old culture with the artifacts of the new culture b. adding newcomers c. removing any older employees d. maintaining the same rituals

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Chap 13_ORGB3 20. What artifact of organizational culture is characterized by the “Always Fresh” sign at Tim Hortons? a. story b. symbol c. ritual d. rite 21. On his first day of work, Mark noticed that all employees called the CEO by his first name. What aspect of culture is this an example of? a. ritual b. story c. ceremony d. symbol 22. What is one of the disadvantages of a weak organizational culture? a. resistance to change b. increased stability, which causes stagnation c. barrier to diversity d. every change to the organization will result in a change to the culture, which causes employee confusion and stress 23. What best summarizes the concept of assumptions? a. behavioural tendencies or enacted values present within an organization b. unwritten rules of conduct frequently violated by new employees c. deeply held beliefs that guide the behaviour of an organization’s members d. ideas that are widely known and formally communicated throughout an organization 24. Dora always smiles and says the customers come first when there are issues at work. At home, she confesses to being tired of dealing with customers and feels that many customers are taking advantaging of the business.

What is occurring? a. a difference between cultural values and organizational values b. a difference between Dora’s espoused values and enacted values c. a difference between company values and personal values d. a difference between observable values and behavioural values 25. Which element of managing culture is represented by the way a corporate leader deals with a product recall? a. how a leader allocates rewards b. how a leader reacts to crises c. what a leader pays attention to d. how a leader behaves 26. In which stage of socialization do employees learn their actual job tasks and clarify their roles? a. congruence b. anticipatory socialization c. encounter d. membership 27. When an organization revises its selection strategies to more accurately reflect the new culture, what does this allow them to do? a. hire a larger number of employees in a shorter time b. reinforce the old vision c. revise task allocations with current staff d. hire new employees who have the desired values and attitudes.

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Chap 13_ORGB3 28. In what ways can managers help develop an ethical organization? a. by enforcing their code of ethics b. by being good role models c. by discouraging whistle-blowing d. by letting employees establish their own ethical boundaries 29. What artifact is argued to be the most effective way to reinforce values? a. stories b. ceremonies c. symbols d. rituals 30. What are the three components of organizational culture? a. structure, symbols, and rites b. artifacts, stories, and rites c. structure, affective systems, and individuals d. Individuals, assumptions, and values 31. Employees of Stillwater Designs know that if monthly sales are higher than sales in the same month of the previous year then founder and CEO Steve Irby will hold a barbeque for them. What is this an example of? a. rituals b. stories c. ceremonies and rites d. personal enactment 32. What are the most visible and accessible levels of culture? a. socialization processes b. artifacts c. assumptions d. values 33. Which statement would most likely characterize why changing an organization’s culture can be so difficult? a. Attitudes are not changeable. b. Norms adjust with changing leader personalities. c. Behaviour is unconfrontational. d. Assumptions are deeply ingrained, even below consciousness.

34. The engineering department has slightly different behaviours and values than the marketing department. What is this an example of? a. dominant culture b. subculture c. organizational boundaries d. mini-culture 35. In the encounter stage of socialization, what are some examples of interpersonal demands that newcomers must adapt to? a. leadership styles, group pressure b. different ways of doing their job c. role expectations d. role conflict 36. The president of your school awards scholarships at a banquet to high-achieving students. What is this an example of? a. a ritual b. a ceremony c. personal enactment d. a symbol Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB3 37. At what stage of the socialization process do employees begin to master the demands of the job? a. change and acquisition b. encounter c. anticipatory d. interpersonal demands 38. Which term can be summarized as the consistent, observable and shared patterns of basic behaviour in organizations. It includes norms, values and beliefs which define what behaviours are appropriate and expected. a. organizational culture b. value system c. socialization d. psychological contract 39. Ria is on her second day at her new job. She is still in the encounter phase of socialization. Her boss has given her much flexibility in experimenting with new/different ways of doing her job. This would be a reflection of which element of the encounter stage? a. fit demands b. interpersonal demands c. role demands d. task demands 40. What process transforms newcomers from outsiders to effective, participating members of the organization? a. organizational revitalization b. the interview process c. organizational socialization d. recruitment 41. You overhear a long-service employee at your company tell a recent hire, “That’s the way we do it here.” What is this an example of? a. story b. ceremony c. ritual d. symbol 42. When a poor performing employee gets coached and supported and is given multiple opportunities to succeed, this is a reflection of which component of managing culture? a. how leaders react to crises b. how leaders behave c. how leaders hire and fire individuals d. how leaders allocate rewards 43. What are the two components in the anticipatory socialization stage? a. realism and congruence b. realism and encounter c. encounter and acquisition d. congruence and acquisition 44. Rosie learned about the company through their websites, annual reports, and recruitment brochures. Why is it important for Rosie to learn about the organization prior to applying for a position? a. so she can see if there is value competence b. so she can see if there is value mutuality c. so she can see if there is value congruence d. so she can see if there is value realism 45. According to your textbook, what is the essence of an organization’s culture? a. the intention behind the story b. values c. assumptions d. the interpretation of the artifact

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Chap 13_ORGB3 46. Adding newcomers to the organization, socializing them into the desired culture, and removing older members as appropriate would be one approach to what? a. creating a dominant culture b. eliminating subcultures c. weakening the organizational culture d. changing an existing culture 47. What is a culture that facilitates change to meet the needs of stockholders, customers, and employees? a. an adaptive culture b. a strong culture c. an empowering culture d. a dominant culture 48. What is part of anticipatory socialization that will lead to higher job satisfaction for a new employee? a. performance evaluation b. interpersonal demands c. role ambiguity d. realistic job expectations 49. Changing an existing culture is difficult and one of the approaches involves which of the following? a. third-party intervention b. helping current members buy into a new set of values c. testing for values change d. analyzing assumptions about the old culture 50. What is an effective way to evaluate the success of cultural change? a. by asking employees b. by using the Glaxo model of measurement c. by looking at behaviour and enacted values d. by measuring assumptions 51. If socialization is effective, what is the outcome for newcomers? a. Newcomers understand and adapt to the company’s norms and values. b. Newcomers work with considerable uncertainty. c. Newcomers interpersonal demands arise from relationships at work. d. Newcomers understand company policies.

52. Husky Injection Molding Systems provides an onsite fitness centre as well as employee incentives for keeping fit.

According to the textbook, what is Husky illustrating? a. an assumption b. an artifact c. an enacted value d. an espoused value 53. What do studies on the strong culture model suggest? a. Strong cultures are associated with less turnover. b. Moderate economic performance leads to strong cultures. c. Strong cultures were associated with positive long-term economic performance. d. Higher diversity leads to a strong culture.

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Chap 13_ORGB3 54. What is one of the problems of strong cultures? a. They are not very stable. b. Take too many risks. c. They may hinder employee performance. d. They may not be able to adapt to a changing industry or environment.

55. Which statement indicates the difference between artifacts and basic assumptions? a. Artifacts are stories and rituals while basic assumptions are unconscious beliefs. b. Artifacts are testable while basic assumptions are not. c. Artifacts are values while basic assumptions are assumptions. d. Artifacts are historically based while basic assumptions are perception based.

56. What is the key to understanding culture through artifacts? a. identifying the visible portion of culture b. identifying symbols, the most important artifact of culture c. figuring out what the artifacts mean d. the awareness of how values are communicated through culture 57. How many levels of organizational culture are there? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 58. Which goal best summarizes the primary purpose of socialization? a. to transmit the organization’s core values to new members b. to communicate the importance of trust as a cultural attribute c. to identify employees who do not fit with the cultural values d. to assess individual attributes for future placement and potential 59. How does one identify the end of the socialization process? a. when individuals feel their role demands lessen b. when newcomers must prove they belong c. when an individual’s performance is almost at an acceptable level d. when newcomers identify as members of the group 60. What two types of congruence are important to anticipatory socialization? a. leadership style/job demand and communication skills/team skills b. individual ability/job demand and individual values/organizational values c. individual ability/job demand and communication skills/team skills d. leadership style/job demand and individual values/organization values

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Chap 13_ORGB3 61. Which of the following best summarizes an adaptive culture? a. one that responds to rather than anticipates changing customer needs b. one that changes its environment c. one that values an orderly management process d. one that encourages confidence and risk taking among employees 62. What is the term for an everyday organizational practice that is repeated over and over? a. culture b. symbol c. ritual d. rite 63. What is a corporate logo? a. a rite of integration c. an indication of the organization’s product

b. a symbol d. a ritual

64. Which statement is an example of a function of organizational culture? a. Culture in an organization will tend to be less conflicted. b. Culture serves as a control mechanism for shaping behaviour c. Culture will result in less turnover. d. Culture will impose a more adaptable perspective.

65. What is an example of a rite of enhancement? a. an employee of the month award b. a kick-off banquet to introduce a new product c. a retirement party d. a job transfer to a new department 66. What is one of the considerations management must make before deciding to hire a candidate? a. how well the candidate will fit in with the organization’s culture b. if the candidate will have intentions to quit c. determining what benefits the candidate wants d. how aware the candidate is of the job tasks 67. What is demonstrated when a corporate president is the first employee to give blood during a corporate blood drive? a. rite of integration b. behavioural artifact c. symbolism d. ritual

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Chap 13_ORGB3 Match the following: a. An organizational culture with consensus on the values that drive the company with an intensity recognizable to outsiders b. The overarching core values shared by most members of the organization c. A risk taking, change-oriented culture d. A micro-culture created within a subset unit of the organization e. Beliefs and concerns of great importance 68. Subculture 69. Strong culture 70. Adaptive culture 71. Values 72. Dominant culture Match the following: a. Transformation of newcomers into effective members of the organization b. Third stage of socialization c. Compatibility of goals between individual and organization d. Physical and mental requirements of a job e. Second stage of socialization 73. Congruence 74. Task Demands 75. Organizational Socialization 76. Change and Acquisition 77. Encounter Match the following: a. Visible indication of organizational culture b. Awards to sales contest winners c. A graduation dinner and party d. Public ridicule of executive mistakes e. A corporate logo or sports team mascot 78. Symbol 79. Artifact 80. Rites of enhancement 81. Rites of Passage 82. Rite of Degradation

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Chap 13_ORGB3 Match the following: a. What the CEO says he/she values b. Values demonstrated through behaviour c. Leadership that increases authority and responsibility of those closest to the problem d. Deeply held belief e. Communication of culture by unspoken messages 83. Enacted Value 84. Assumption 85. Espoused Value 86. Symbols 87. Empowerment 88. Provide an organizational example of each of the following artifacts: stories, rituals, and symbols.

89. How can corporate leaders (the CEO and other top officers) shape, communicate, and reinforce organizational culture?

90. What are the basic functions of corporate culture?

91. Briefly explain anticipatory socialization and how the organization can facilitate one’s entry into the organization.

92. Briefly discuss the two perspectives or theories regarding the relationship between organizational culture and performance.

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Chap 13_ORGB3

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Chap 13_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. c

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Chap 13_ORGB3 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. c 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB3 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. e 72. b 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. e 78. e 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB3 83. b 84. d 85. a 86. e 87. c 88. A corporate story about the founder’s first sale to someone in a parking lot becomes corporate folklore and functions to acculturate new employees. Each Friday morning, employees take turns buying doughnuts for the staff meeting; this is an example of a ritual. A corporate colour or logo is a symbol.

89. What leaders pay attention to: If leaders are consistent in their focus, employees receive clear signals about what is important in the organization.

How leaders react to crises: The CEO’s approach to crisis and their ability to escape the crisis is important in signalling to employees and other shareholders cultural values.

How leaders behave: Employees observe the behaviour of leaders to find out what the organization values. Through role modelling, teaching, and coaching, leaders teach and reinforce the values of the organizational culture.

How leaders allocate rewards: Reward systems must establish and reinforce consistent cultural values.

How leaders hire and fire individuals: Leaders shape culture through the selection of newcomers and how they manage performance issues and firing of employees.

90. The basic function of a culture is that it serves as a control mechanism for shaping behaviour. Culture provides a sense of identity to members and increases their commitment to the organization. When employees internalize the values of the company, they find their work intrinsically rewarding and identify with their fellow workers. Motivation is enhanced, and employees are more committed. Culture also provides an element of stability and predictability to an organization. Culture shapes the way employees respond to stress and conflict, and helps to provide direction when the unexpected occurs.

91. Anticipatory socialization involves being introduced to and learning about the organization prior to entry as an employee.

Realistic job previews, effective interviewing, and effective print materials (annual report, benefit package, job description, and others) can aid significantly in acquainting someone with the firm.

92. The strong culture view states that organizations with “strong” cultures perform better than other organizations. This type of culture is also highly resistant to change. The strong culture hypothesis is based on three arguments. First, strong cultures will be characterized by goal alignment. Second, high motivation will result from shared values by members. Third, strong cultures provide control without the oppressive effects of a bureaucracy. Empirical results partially support this view of culture and performance. Two nagging questions include the chicken or egg criticism, i.e., does better performance lead to stronger cultures; and, what if a strong culture leads an organization in the wrong direction?

The “adaptive culture” is based on values/beliefs that focus on the changing needs of culture. Cultures based on adaptation show significantly better long-term performance when changes are based on the needs of shareholders, customers, and employees.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Employee performance usually improves with increasingly challenging goals. a. True b. False 2. A fixed ratio of reinforcement is very similar to continuous reinforcement. a. True b. False 3. Mastering detail is a characteristic of thinkers. a. True b. False 4. Reward systems based upon entitlement encourage performance improvement. a. True b. False 5. The two central ingredients in goal-setting programs are planning and evaluation. a. True b. False 6. Operant conditioning is the process of modifying behaviour through rewards and punishments. a. True b. False 7. A three-day unpaid suspension for excessive tardiness is a negative reinforcement for an employee. a. True b. False 8. The more errors you make, the better, in terms of learning. a. True b. False 9. If poor performance can’t be attributed to work design or organizational process problems, then supervision should examine the employee. a. True b. False 10. Interpersonal involvement is a trait of feelers. a. True b. False 11. The attempt to strengthen behaviour by attaching no consequences to it is considered to be extinction. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 12. A strength of 360-degree feedback is the extent to which there is a high level of agreement with supervisory evaluations. a. True b. False 13. Individual (or employee) goal setting should precede organizational goal setting. a. True b. False 14. Organizations get the performance they reward, not the performance they want. a. True b. False 15. The heart of goal-setting theory is the strong positive relationship between goal level and task performance. a. True b. False 16. Performance measurement problems include deficiency, unreliability and validity. a. True b. False 17. There is no evidence that self-efficacy and social reinforcement will influence work behaviours. a. True b. False 18. The two central ingredients in goal-setting programs are planning and evaluation. a. True b. False 19. Mentoring relationships typically go through three phases. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

20. What is the most common reason for employees not making good use of feedback? a. They are experiencing times of stress. b. They have a low level of agreement with supervisory evaluations. c. They have been shown to have no relationship to improving job performance. d. They decrease commitment to organizational goals.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 21. You are the manager of a men’s clothing department in a large department store. Thirteen sales associates report to you; all of them are experienced. Within the past week, two customers have complained about Ellen, a sales associate in the tie and fragrance section. No other complaints have been received concerning other sales associates. Ellen had never received complaints when she worked in other sections. Ellen has worked in the tie and fragrance section only one other time and that was only for a few days. What must the supervisor consider before jumping to a premature conclusion that Ellen is solely to blame? a. the reliability of the information as well as ensuring important aspects of performance are not overlooked b. the rate of pay Ellen was receiving and the rate others were receiving c. the consensus about Ellen’s current performance d. the customer distinctiveness and the accuracy of the information 22. Which of the following best summarizes Bandura’s theory of social learning? a. task-specific self-efficacy b. self-monitoring c. continuous reinforcement d. needs hierarchy 23. Who originated the goal-setting and performance-planning program called management by objectives (MBO)? a. Albert Bandura b. Peter Drucker c. CHOICE BLANK d. B.F. Skinner e. Willard Marriott 24. Which employees improve greatly using 360-degree feedback? a. top achievers b. low achievers c. those who often receive positive feedback d. those who overrate themselves 25. A supervisor determined a reason for poor employee performance prior to speaking with the employee. What behaviour is the supervisor engaging? a. electronic performance monitoring b. recency effect c. fundamental attribution bias d. self-evaluation of the employee 26. An employee is asked to reconstruct his actions while working on a project and identify what worked well.

What is occurring? a. after-events review b. corrective action c. performance management d. 360-degree feedback 27. According to the text, what is General Electric well known for? a. talent management b. excellent management skills c. performance management d. motivation 28. Which of the following could be an outcome of punishment? a. job recognition b. job security c. job promotion d. job demotion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 29. What is the first step in the performance measurement process? a. measuring performance b. assessing the impact of performance behaviours c. defining performance in behavioural terms d. rewarding positive performance behaviours 30. Which statement summarizes the relationship between entitlement and work? a. The power of entitlement to rewards rests on a direct link between performance and rewards. b. The concept of entitlement is not different from the meaning of earning. c. Earning engenders passive, irresponsible behaviour. d. Merit raises in some organizations have come to be viewed as entitlements and this has resulted in a reduction of their positive value.

31. What type of behaviour is required to achieve active engagement by an employee during performance appraisal? a. determining peer-competitive goals b. demonstrating vulnerability and openness to challenges c. being passive and compliant d. challenging the supervisor’s ideas about future development 32. In what type of environment are goal-setting programs easiest to implement? a. unpredictable b. mature c. stable d. dynamic 33. What is a non-response approach that weakens behaviour? a. negative reinforcement b. punishment c. intermittent reinforcement d. extinction 34. What is an important aspect of a mentoring relationship? a. coaching and counselling b. peer feedback c. disciplining the subordinate d. formal training 35. Which of the following is an implication for an intuitor personality preference? a. interpersonal involvement b. empirical data c. practical applications d. theoretical frameworks 36. FedEx has used multiple methods of performance appraisal. What is an example of one approach that is a more novel, non-traditional method? a. direct measures of performance (e.g., number of boxes loaded per eight-hour shift) b. employee evaluation of supervisors through a survey-feedback-action system c. supervisor ratings of employees d. subjective peer ratings

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Chap 14_ORGB3 37. What can be done to ensure reliability in a performance appraisal system? a. appraising the appropriate dimensions of performance b. capturing evaluations from multiple sources and at different times over the course of the evaluation period c. ensuring that employees clearly understand what dimensions are being evaluated d. measuring the dimensions of performance in a valid way 38. Which statement best summarizes how learning applies to the work environment? a. Learning is primarily ad hoc and accidental. b. Learning is primarily a change in behaviour acquired through experience and knowledge. c. Learning is primarily a cognitive activity. d. Learning is primarily acquired through formal training programs.

39. Which personality prefers decision making as well as interpersonal involvement? a. intuitor b. feeler c. thinker d. introvert 40. What is an example of fixed interval? a. a promotion is based on seniority when the space becomes available b. a salary is given every two weeks for continued performance c. a salesperson is rewarded with a sale after a number of phone calls d. a bonus is given for every 50 trees planted 41. Which statement best summarizes a key element in performance management? a. It is important that quantifiable behaviours are measured. b. It is important that all important behaviours are measured. c. It is important that qualitative behaviours are measured. d. It is important that employees are aware of the goals assigned.

42. John was given the opportunity to make a highly visible presentation to the board of directors as a reward for his exceptional job performance. However, John was extremely nervous about the presentation. How did John view the opportunity? a. as extinction b. as a positive reinforcement c. as a negative reinforcement d. as punishment 43. What is NOT considered one of the four sources of task-specific self-efficacy critical to Bandura’s social learning theory? a. prior experiences b. behaviour models c. assessment of current physical and emotional capabilities d. intelligence quotient

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Chap 14_ORGB3 44. As a supervisor, you want to reduce the stress associated with work within your employees’ goal-setting guidelines. What do you do? a. Apply a personality test to better match fit. b. Identify the goal(s) clearly or specifically. c. Clarify task-role expectations. d. Tie rewards more closely to outcomes.

45. As a supervisor, you want to enhance the performance of your employees. What method do you choose? a. allowing them to participate in goal setting b. closely controlling their behaviour c. setting their goals d. giving them hard goals 46. At work, you do not respond to a co-worker’s sarcastic comments but do compliment the sarcastic colleague for constructive comments. What approaches are you using? a. positive and negative consequences b. positive consequences c. extinction and positive reinforcement d. extinction and negative reinforcement 47. Which of the following is a positive consequence under operant conditioning? a. money-based reinforcement b. performance feedback c. routine pay for performance d. social recognition 48. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective performance appraisal system? a. self-correcting behaviour b. reliability c. validity d. responsiveness 49. Which of the following best summarizes management by objectives (MBO)? a. facilitating interaction for setting goals, evaluating performance, and tracking progress b. formulating corporate strategy and objectives c. exerting superior control of subordinate behaviour d. setting objectives for employees and following up 50. As a supervisor you decide to use positive reinforcement to increase the probability that desired job performance will be repeated. What is NOT appropriate for use as positive reinforcement? a. providing no response or feedback when an employee fails to complete a task on time b. increasing an employee’s salary after evaluation c. giving an employee a promotion after several outstanding performance reviews d. allowing an employee to go home early but providing full pay 51. Military staff are put through a variety of scenarios, in a safe environment, and where errors are likely to occur.

What type of learning is taking place? a. self-regulation prompting b. after-events review c. error management training d. social learning theory

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Chap 14_ORGB3 52. Which statement best summarizes the fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement? a. a fixed number of responses occur before reinforcement b. reinforcement follows every response c. reinforcement follow periodically d. a response occurs after a specific period of time 53. What is the term for an individual’s beliefs and expectations about his or her ability to successfully accomplish a specific task? a. self-esteem b. self-efficacy c. self-consciousness d. self-monitoring behaviour 54. How can 360-degree feedback be improved? a. the addition of a full picture of an individual’s performance b. the addition of a self-reflection component c. the addition of a systematic coaching component d. the addition of performance review by superiors, peers, followers, and customers 55. Which statement indicates the difference between reinforcement and punishment? a. Reinforcement is positive while punishment is negative. b. Reinforcement can be negative while punishment can be positive. c. Reinforcement applies to extinction while punishment applies to behaviour. d. Reinforcement is continuous while punishment is intermittent.

56. Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning? a. expectancy theory b. reinforcement theory c. ERG d. Maslow’s needs 57. What is the process of modifying behaviour through positive or negative consequences following specific behaviours? a. Pavlovian conditioning b. classical conditioning c. integrated model of conditioning d. operant conditioning 58. What is characteristic of a work goal? a. task-specific b. reasonable deadlines c. gain-sharing responsibility d. qualitative perspective 59. What is used when a random number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs? a. fixed ratio schedule b. variable interval schedule c. fixed interval schedule d. variable ratio schedule 60. What schedule of reinforcement produces a high rate of response that is vigorous, steady, and resistant to extinction? a. intermittent b. fixed interval c. variable d. continuous

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Chap 14_ORGB3 61. What is the difference between “the what” and “how” of goal setting? a. input as compared to output equity perceptions in the goal setting process b. clearly stated and consistent goal compared to the pathway to lead to the goal c. a clear and consistent pathway compared to a clear, consistent and measurable goal d. applicable to all employees as compared to multiple pathways 62. Which type of pay for performance is preferred by individuals who have a high need for achievement? a. non-specific performance plan b. individual incentive plan c. group performance plan d. incentive plan 63. Which type of employee would most likely find it acceptable to be monitored electronically? a. one who is unclear of their task and role within the organization b. one who has a strong commitment and identification with the organization c. one who desires simplified supervision and independence d. one who desires a minimal performance evaluations by his/her supervisor 64. What is a prerequisite for successful goal-setting programs, such as management by objectives (MBO)? a. supervisory goal commitment b. a relatively benign or stable environment c. the connection between goals/outcomes/rewards d. organizational commitment 65. What is a defining characteristic for the development of self-efficacy? a. the individual must pick easier tasks in order to become more successful b. the individual must succeed at a challenging task c. the individual must develop a strong internal source of control d. the individual must develop a high degree of self-monitoring 66. One of your employees periodically fails to clean up his work area at the end of his work shift. Instead of issuing punishment or discipline, you decide to try an extinction approach to the situation. What would you do? a. Fire the worker. b. Ignore the worker for a while. c. Clean up the area yourself. d. Reassign the worker to a less desirable job.

67. What is the key component of the MBO? a. objectives b. company mission c. company vision d. job description

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Chap 14_ORGB3 68. A manager reduces an employee’s pay when the employee comes to work late and refrains from doing so when the employee is on time. What has the manager done? a. used extinction to reduce undesirable behaviour b. used intermittent reinforcement c. positively reinforced the employee’s on-time behaviour d. negatively reinforced the employee’s on-time behaviour 69. What best exemplifies appropriate feedback to an employee that will lead to increased job performance? a. unrecorded b. provided in written form only c. constructive and specific d. one-way 70. You supervise a group of outside sales representatives and want to produce the highest level of sales performance. Which reinforcement schedule should you adopt? a. continuous b. variable interval c. intermittent d. fixed interval 71. What belief is the basis of the social learning theory? a. Learning is strongly connected to need-based drives. b. Learning occurs through observing other people and modelling their behaviour. c. Learning occurs because of behavioural consequences. d. Learning occurs based on group norms.

72. Suppose a medical doctor’s performance is evaluated on interpersonal skills to complement necessary technical diagnostic and treatment skills. What characteristic of performance does this reflect? a. need to be specific in setting goals b. importance of setting difficult but achievable goals c. multidimensional nature of performance in most work settings d. qualitative and quantitative dimensions of performance 73. Who is the founder of operant conditioning? a. Drucker b. Bandura c. Jung d. Skinner 74. Ernie has not met his sales targets for several months and as a result is moved to a new store in an area that is far from his home. He now needs to drive to work rather than walk, his preferred method. What does this example illustrate? a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. punishment d. extinction 75. What type of decision is synonymous with reward allocation? a. simultaneous decisions about when to reward people b. sequential decisions about which outcomes will be rewarded c. simultaneous decisions about individual perceptions and reward levels d. sequential decisions about whom to reward and how and when to reward them Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 76. Corrine’s performance was measured and assessed during her first year at the company. What occurred? a. performance appraisal b. performance management c. management by objectives d. a control system 77. Suppose two supervisors evaluated an employee’s performance using the same set of rating scales but arrived at different conclusions or results. What does this suggest about the evaluation instrument? a. It is invalid. b. It is sufficient. c. It is unreliable. d. It is unbiased.

Match the following: a. Reinforcement following every response b. Reinforcement after a specific time has elapsed c. Reinforcement after a random time period d. Reinforcement after a fixed number of responses e. Reinforcement after a random number of responses 78. Fixed Ratio 79. Variable Ratio 80. Fixed Interval 81. Continuous 82. Variable Interval Match the following: a. Task accomplishment b. Evaluation of employee behaviour c. Consistency of rating across time and/or people doing the rating d. Accurate definition of job performance e. Information provided to employee about his/her performance 83. Performance 84. Validity 85. Feedback 86. Reliability 87. Performance Appraisal

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Chap 14_ORGB3 Match the following: a. An attempt to weaken a behaviour by attaching no consequences b. A salary increase c. Behaviour change induced by either positive or negative consequences d. A one-week disciplinary layoff e. A change in behaviour acquired through knowledge acquisition 88. Punishment 89. Extinction 90. Operant Conditioning 91. Learning 92. Positive Consequences Match the following: a. Generally a two-person working relationship in which one is guiding the other b. A work situation where the employee expects one or more rewards c. A well-rounded performance review from supervisors, peers, and customers d. A reference or judgment concerning an employee’s behaviour e. A benefit for successful job performance 93. Mentoring 94. Reward 95. Entitlement 96. 360 degree feedback 97. Attribution Match the following: a. Individual who prefers analysis of data and logical explanation of problems b. A theory of learning that focuses on observation of others and modelling c. Individual who prefers specific empirical data and looks for practical applications d. Process of specifying desired results e. A performance-planning and goal-setting program that focuses on the supervisor–employee relationship 98. Social Learning Theory 99. Thinker 100. Sensor 101. MBO 102. Goal Setting

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Chap 14_ORGB3 103. Why have many organizations found management by objectives to be an effective approach to improving and sustaining high levels of performance?

104. How can schedules of reinforcement be used in the work situation?

105. Briefly distinguish between positive and negative reinforcement and provide a job-related example of each.

106. What are characteristics of effective goals?

107. Briefly define performance, indicate how performance can be evaluated, and mention attributes of a good performance appraisal system.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. False 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. a

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Chap 14_ORGB3 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. c 61. b 62. d 63. b 64. d 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. d 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. c 75. d 76. b 77. c 78. d 79. e 80. b 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 83. a 84. d 85. e 86. c 87. b 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. e 92. b 93. a 94. e 95. b 96. c 97. d 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. d 102. e 103. Goal setting is an essential element of MBO programs. The goal setting takes place between supervisor and employee through a highly interactive and participative format. Following the development of a clear understanding of the employee’s job, the two individuals formulate goals, set time frames and priorities for goal achievement, and evaluate performance (or results) against the goals. Goal achievement then leads to another round of goal setting.

104. A weekly paycheque is a continuous schedule of reinforcement. Every time an employee meets or exceeds a production standard (on a daily, weekly, or monthly basis), a cash bonus can be given. This is a fixed ratio schedule.

Periodically, an employee could be given a day off for outstanding performance. This is a variable interval schedule.

After 5 to 20 or more successful sales, a sales representative could be given a small bonus, a variable ratio schedule.

Once a month an attendance bonus can be given to those employees with perfect job attendance. This is a fixed internal schedule.

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Chap 14_ORGB3 105. Behaviour that is desirable can be elicited through issuing preferred consequences. If a pay increase (reward and positive consequence) follows exceptional job performance, the employee is likely to continue high-level performance in the future. A negative consequence is usually undesirable and can be used to change behaviour from negative to positive. An employee who is frequently tardy can be disciplined by docking his/her pay, a negative consequence.

The employee may come to work promptly in order to not lose pay.

106. Goal characteristics that are likely to lead to increased performance include: difficult, specific, measurable and quantifiable, challenging, prioritized, and time-bound.

107. Positive, or functional, work behaviour is performance. Performance can be assessed through direct observation, counting units produced, reviewing goals accomplished, and/or by rating the functionality of employee behaviour. A good performance appraisal system produces valid and reliable measures of performance, captures significant work behaviour, assembles data for feedback to the employee, allows for employee input, and results in equitable rewards.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The job characteristics model generally takes a person-job fit approach to the design of work. a. True b. False 2. Herzberg suggested that only certain jobs should be enriched and that the first step is to select the jobs appropriate for job enrichment. a. True b. False 3. Job meaningfulness can be increased by giving feedback, skill variety and task identify. a. True b. False 4. The meaning of work is the way a person interprets and understands the value of work as part of life. a. True b. False 5. Telecommuting has been around since the 1970s. a. True b. False 6. Jobs that exhibit skill variety, task identity and significance, autonomy, and experience feedback are more likely to be satisfying. a. True b. False 7. A fundamental limitation of work simplification is that it undervalues the human capacity for thought and ingenuity. a. True b. False 8. The social information processing model emphasizes objective core job characteristics. a. True b. False 9. Employees are more engaged and utilized with task variety. a. True b. False 10. W. Edwards Deming founded and developed scientific management. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_ORGB3 11. The biological approach to job design emphasizes the job incumbent’s interaction with physical aspects of work. a. True b. False 12. The human spirit’s response to job characteristics and work design is equally as important as the design of the work. a. True b. False 13. The anthropocentric approach places human considerations at the centre of job design decisions. a. True b. False 14. Job context is determined by the amount of responsibility in the job. a. True b. False 15. Job rotation and cross-training are variations of job enrichment. a. True b. False 16. The use of electronic bulletin boards may be a source of technostress. a. True b. False 17. An increasing number of knowledge workers are emerging in response to competition. a. True b. False 18. Task significance in the job characteristics model is the degree to which one’s job requires completion of a whole task. a. True b. False 19. Employee growth need strength moderates the relationship between core job dimensions and personal and work outcomes according to the job characteristics model. a. True b. False 20. Job enlargement proposes to overcome the limitations of overspecialized work, such as boredom. a. True b. False 21. Scientific management involves enriching job tasks and demands. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 22. Japanese place greater importance on a work design strategy that encourages worker control rather than manager control of the workplace. a. True b. False 23. Jobs in organizations are interdependent and designed to make a contribution to the organization’s overall mission and goals. a. True b. False 24. Telecommuting is the most common form of alternative work arrangements. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

25. What does scientific management emphasize? a. work simplification b. standard-hour wage payment systems c. worker training for increased job responsibilities d. definition of management authority 26. What is the term for standardization and the narrow, explicit specification of task activities for workers? a. job enlargement b. production efficiency c. work simplification d. job description 27. What is a benefit for employees experiencing job enrichment and job enlargement strategies? a. commitment b. job satisfaction c. productivity d. involvement 28. What is an organizational position? a. a job in relation to other parts of the organization b. the title given to a certain level within an organization c. an employee’s specific work and task activities in an organization d. the specific role and expectations with respect to a given job 29. What core job characteristic is most closely associated with job enlargement? a. job autonomy b. skill variety c. task significance d. task identity 30. Which of the following indicates factors that result in the Motivating Potential Score of a job? a. job enrichment + job enlargement b. skill variety + task identity + task significance c. task significance + task identity + task variety d. individual abilities + team abilities Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 31. What are the three types of autonomy included in the Work Design Questionnaire? a. work feedback, task variety, and decision making b. work variety, task significance, and decision making c. work scheduling, task significance, and feedback d. work scheduling, work methods, and decision making 32. Which term applies to the type of characteristics in the SIP model? a. objective b. pessimistic c. subjective d. optimistic 33. Mark works in a job that is open for redefinition, and he is able to adjust communication boundaries as well as job tasks. Which concept does Mark’s job design summarize? a. task variety b. i-deals c. autonomy d. job crafting 34. Which statement indicates a characteristic of telecommuting? a. Many telecommuters have felt an intense sense of social isolation . b. Telecommuting does not have the potential to create sweatshops of the 21st century. c. Telecommuting is associated with a higher quality of employee–supervisor relationship d. Telecommuting is a permanent work arrangement.

35. Which statement explains the anthropocentric job design approach? a. It places emphasis on union-management cooperation in designing jobs. b. It places human considerations at the centre of job design decisions. c. It places emphasis on individual worker skills. d. It places engineering considerations first in specifying job tasks.

36. What did the research of Oldham and Cummings suggest regarding increasing job enrichment? a. stress decreases b. creativity decreases c. creativity increases d. compensation increases 37. What is a characteristic of job crafting? a. the employee is an active participant in redefining their job b. the employee acts as an agent for the principal c. the employee provides the necessary effort d. the employee supports the organization 38. Which sector are the majority of the population now working in? a. service b. production c. entrepreneurship d. education

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Chap 15_ORGB3 39. You are an office manager and are trying to find ways to enlarge or expand several clerical jobs that you supervise. What is your best approach? a. rotate employees among several positions b. reschedule work into a flextime arrangements c. more effectively match worker skills to job requirements d. increase the number and variety of tasks or duties performed by each individual 40. Which statement most accurately summarizes the technocentric system? a. It gives industrial efficiency the greatest weight and is used most often in Scandinavia. b. It gives technology and engineering the most weight in job design decisions. c. It gives more attention to technical than engineering considerations in job design. d. It gives human considerations the most importance in job design decisions.

41. What is a significant difference between job enlargement and job enrichment? a. Enlargement empowers employees whereas enrichment does not. b. Enrichment can be successful only with supervisory retraining. c. Enlargement has a minimal impact on employee motivation. d. Enrichment vertically loads a job whereas enlargement horizontally loads a job.

42. Which of the following addresses the problem of overspecialization? a. increasing the emphasis on integration b. increasing authority at lower levels c. increasing the variety in jobs d. increasing participation 43. Your text describes differences in the dimensions of work among countries. Conversely, in which areas are there similarities? a. work content and job content b. job enrichment and satisfaction c. determinants of job involvement d. positive feedback and valued rewards 44. Why was the concept of job enlargement developed? a. a need to reengineer jobs due to an increase in the utilization of technology b. a disappointing effect of job rotation c. a need to overcome the limitations of overspecialized work d. a decrease in productivity 45. Which country established funding to research work-life well-being? a. Spain b. Canada c. Sweden d. Japan 46. With respect to the number of service jobs, what job skills may be most important given the nature or structure of our economy? a. interpersonal skills b. strategic skills c. conceptual skills d. technical skills

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Chap 15_ORGB3 47. Which statement is supported by research on the social information-processing view of job design? a. Group pressure is more important in the definition of task complexity than an objective measure. b. Daydreaming is more important than objective task complexity as an additional motivator. c. The subjective feedback of others may be more important to a person’s motivation than an objective estimate of the task difficulty. d. An objective probability estimate is still the best estimate of a task’s difficulty and consequently a good indicator of the potential motivational properties of a task.

48. What is an example of how task significance of a job can be enhanced for an individual? a. the employee receives rewards for their task completion b. the fundraiser obtains increasing level of supports for students c. the radiologist develops the photographs of patients d. the individual who collects food meets a person who requires the food for his family 49. What is an example of a work outcome? a. skill variety b. job satisfaction c. feedback d. job knowledge 50. A secretarial employee is given the responsibility and signature authority to handle certain types of correspondence. What has occurred? a. The job has been enlarged. b. The job has been rotated. c. The job has been enriched. d. The job has been horizontally loaded.

51. What is the term for the process of connecting jobs and departments into a coordinated, cohesive whole? a. integration b. ingratiation c. structuring d. differentiation 52. Which of the following best summarizes the meaning of a job? a. a sequence of experiences b. a set of specific work and task activities c. an effortful, productive activity d. an activity where value comes from performance 53. What is a documented result of involuntary job loss? a. re-establishment of goal-setting b. risk of stroke c. improved life balance d. integration of activities 54. What is a major difference between the job characteristics theory and earlier approaches to job design? a. Earlier approaches differentiate in the manner in which work was defined. b. Earlier approaches differentiated among individuals. c. The job characteristics theory is a universal approach. d. The job characteristics theory emphasizes the interaction between the individual and attributes of the job.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 55. A nurse is required to give medication, check heart rate, check blood pressure, update medical charts, and book specialist appointments? Which job characteristic best defines this nurse? a. skill variety b. task identity c. task significance d. autonomy 56. Sora can conduct work anywhere in the world due to an interconnected platform of computer, telecommunication, and information technology services. What is this an example of? a. network b. virtual office c. flexible technology d. intranet 57. What is a key moderating influence in the job characteristics model? a. employee growth need strength b. job knowledge c. esteem and reputation d. meaningful job-related interaction 58. As an employee you have full freedom in decision making. What concept does this statement summarize? a. autonomy b. skill variety c. task significance d. task identity 59. What core job dimension in the job characteristics model is linked to the psychological state of experiencing responsibility for work outcomes? a. feedback b. autonomy c. task significance d. task identity 60. Which of the following is synonymous with basic building blocks of an organization? a. power and influence b. authority-responsibility relationships c. integration and differentiation d. jobs 61. What would you use if you wanted to apply variations of job enlargement? a. job enrichment and job rotation b. work specialization and job enrichment c. specialization and cross-training d. job rotation and cross-training 62. What is a characteristic of the German approach to job design and work organizations? a. value hierarchy and authority relationships b. focus on collectivism c. strongly endorse unionism d. emphasize personal identity and social benefits of work 63. What approach was developed to incorporate motivational factors into the design of the job? a. scientific management b. job enrichment c. job characteristics d. robotics 64. What is a job characteristic of an employee who works in finance/payroll? a. skill variety b. autonomy c. task significance d. task identity

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Chap 15_ORGB3 65. Which statement best summarizes an international view of job design? a. The job enrichment approach has been applied the most in international cultures. b. The biological approach appears to be the most common approach. c. Asian and Western approaches are very different but within each area there are marked similarities. d. Each country’s perspective is forged within its unique cultural and economic system and is distinct from others.

66. What is the characteristic of the job design method aimed at increasing motivational factors? a. job rotation b. job enrichment c. cross-training d. job enlargement 67. When might employees experience technostress? a. when their performance is monitored electronically b. when job enrichment is successful c. when their job tasks are certain d. when their flextime is used 68. Which statement summarizes a key problem with job enrichment as a strategy for work design? a. It impacts self-efficacy. b. It overemphasizes individual differences. c. Increasing variety has its motivational limits. d. It is based on a complex motivational theory.

69. According to Frederick Taylor, what best summarizes the role of management and the industrial engineer in scientific management? a. ensuring the organization adds economic value b. calibrating and defining each task carefully c. setting appropriate strategic and financial goals d. providing the strategic direction 70. What is a shortcoming of scientific management? a. It works only in manufacturing settings. b. It empowers employees too much. c. It undervalues the human capacity for thought and creativity. d. It removes or reduces managerial authority of supervisors.

71. Which of the following applies to workers as they adjust to job enrichment? a. no change initially to productivity b. increase in resignations c. initial decline in productivity d. increase in productivity 72. Which job design approach focuses on human interactions with computer, information, and other operational systems? a. perceptual/motor approach b. biological approach c. mechanistic approach d. work adaptation approach Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 73. All employees must be present to perform job duties during a required core time but starting and ending work times can vary. What type of work arrangement is occurring? a. flextime b. job sharing c. compressed work week d. task restructuring 74. Moira’s job entails completion of a whole task or a very identifiable part. What is this an example of? a. task significance b. skill variety c. autonomy d. task identity 75. What does JDS stand for in job characteristics theory? a. job diagnostic survey b. job design survey c. job design satisfaction d. job diagnostic satisfaction 76. What is the term for effortful, productive activity that results in a product or a service? a. a job b. work c. role outcomes d. role expectations 77. What is a limitation of job simplification? a. ambiguity b. complexity c. lack of training d. boredom 78. What is differentiation? a. process of differentiating and appointing authority of the work for the organization b. process of subdividing and departmentalizing the work of the organization c. process of job design and performance of the work in the organization d. process of organizing and controlling of the work in the organization 79. A professor selects a textbook, formulates course objectives, specifies course requirements, determines instructional methods, prepares exams, and evaluates student performance. What does the professor obtain from this process? a. task specificity b. autonomy c. skill heterogeneity d. feedback 80. What research is job enrichment based on? a. Maslow’s need for esteem c. Vroom’s expectancy model of motivation

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b. Herzberg’s two-factor motivation theory d. McClelland’s power motive

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Chap 15_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Degree of completion of whole task or identifiable part b. Use of multiple skills and performance of different activities c. Discretion and freedom in performance of job tasks d. Information about job performance e. Importance of job to organization 81. Feedback 82. Task Identity 83. Skill Variety 84. Task Significance 85. Autonomy Match the following: a. Employment terms that are customized b. Technology and engineering as central to job design c. Human considerations as central to job design d. Tension associated with new and advancing technologies e. The most commonly used job design measure 86. Job Diagnostic Survey 87. Technostress 88. Technocentric 89. Anthropocentric 90. i-deals Match the following: a. A designated set of tasks and work activities b. Purposeful activity in manufacturing a product or providing a service c. Detailed task specification and standardization d. Incorporates motivational factors into the design of the job e. A job enlargement strategy 91. Work Simplification 92. Job Rotation 93. Job 94. Work 95. Job Enrichment

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Chap 15_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Working at home or from a remote location through a data/communication system b. Working longer shifts over fewer days c. Core work time with variable start and quit time d. Two persons working less than full time in the same job but at different times e. Job restudy and analysis for purposes of engineering job modification 96. Telecommuting 97. Flextime 98. Job Redesign 99. Compressed Workweek 100. Job Sharing 101. Briefly identify core job dimensions of the job characteristics model and describe aspects of the model.

102. How have the Americans, Germans, and Japanese approached job design in recent years?

103. What are the important, basic elements of scientific management as developed by Frederick Taylor?

104. Distinguish between job enlargement and job enrichment, and provide an example showing any differences in these two job design approaches.

105. Identify and briefly describe several recently developed alternative work patterns.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. True 24. False 25. a 26. c

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Chap 15_ORGB3 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. d 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. d 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 83. b 84. e 85. c 86. e 87. d 88. b 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. e 93. a 94. b 95. d 96. a 97. c 98. e 99. b 100. d 101. The five core job characteristics are skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback from the job itself. If there is a high degree of skill variety, an opportunity to start and complete the whole task or entire job (task identity), and job tasks are important for organizational success, the job incumbent will more likely experience meaningfulness of the work. Job autonomy, or freedom to decide, can produce a feeling of personal accountability and responsibility for results in the job incumbent. Feedback, or knowledge of results, gives the job incumbent performance information and an understanding about whether the job is being properly performed. The three psychological states of meaningful work, ownership and responsibility, and sense of a job well done can lead to enhanced work motivation, high job satisfaction, and low levels of job absenteeism and employee turnover.

102. For many years (decades), Americans have focused on task specification and careful matching of the person to the job. More recently, Americans have begun to emphasize cross-training, mastery of multiple skills, and vertical job expansion, in part through empowerment. The Japanese since WWII have focused more strongly on the work group and cooperative working relationships. Multiple skills and job competencies and attention to the collective detail are emphasized. For decades, the Germans adopted a technology and engineering approach and focused strongly on precision and high quality. More recently, Germans have combined their technocentric job design approach with a stronger concern for human factors and the social context of work.

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Chap 15_ORGB3 103. Taylor’s focus was on job tasks; he used concepts of industrial engineering to enhance efficiency of task performance. He broke a job down into its simplest tasks, determined through time and motion analyses the most efficient method for performing each simple task, and then carefully trained each worker to perform the task to achieve peak efficiency. He clearly delineated the roles of supervisor and worker, experimented with numerous pay incentive systems, and correctly matched workers to jobs.

104. Job enlargement involves expanding the job horizontally or adding more tasks of a similar nature but possibly more difficulty. Job enrichment involves vertical as well as horizontal expansion of the job. The vertical dimension is extended through adding decisional authority. A secretary can be given several additional tasks as job enlargement and then delegated decisional or signature authority for certain types of correspondence and documents.

105. The workweek has been altered from the standard 5-day, 40-hour schedule by many employers. Flextime, one variation, allows employees to come to work and leave work as they choose as long as they work a standard week and they are at their work stations during a core time (possibly 9 a.m. to 3 p.m.). The compressed workweek involves scheduling 40 hours, or less, of work in less than five days. Two alternatives are four 10-hour days or three 12-hour work days. Job sharing is another new arrangement where two persons may share or split one job.

Telecommuting involves employees working away from the company, usually at home, through the use of technology.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Organic forms of organization are simple, informal, and standardized. a. True b. False 2. A divisional structure groups people according to their function in the organization. a. True b. False 3. In a functional structure, an employee generally will be working with individuals who are experts in the area. a. True b. False 4. Most organizations start off as a simple structure. a. True b. False 5. The greater the differentiation, the greater the complexity and the greater the need for integration. a. True b. False 6. Usually, the more specialized the jobs within an organization, the more departments are differentiated within that organization. a. True b. False 7. A matrix structure will generally involve project teams. a. True b. False 8. Strategies and goals provide legitimacy to the organization. a. True b. False 9. A future manager must have a job description for every employee. a. True b. False 10. The geographic dispersion of an organization’s offices, plants, and personnel is known as spatial integration. a. True b. False 11. As an organization grows, additional people reduce the strain on the owner a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 12. For virtual organizations to be successful, they need to focus on developing trust, an identity, and high standards of behaviour. a. True b. False 13. The need to change as specified by the organizational strategy is always communicated throughout the organization. a. True b. False 14. Matrix structures typically impose tri-authority. a. True b. False 15. Horizontal differentiation accounts for the difference in authority and responsibility in the organizational hierarchy. a. True b. False 16. A job description is an example of formalization. a. True b. False 17. Differentiation is the process of deciding how to divide the work in an organization. a. True b. False 18. The four contextual variables are design, size, technology, and environment. a. True b. False 19. The degree to which jobs are narrowly defined and depend on unique expertise defines standardization. a. True b. False 20. High school can be considered a highly structured environment a. True b. False 21. Researchers disagree as to which of the four contextual variables is most important a. True b. False

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Chap 16_ORGB3 22. An employee who works with ill-defined duties and changing expectations generally do not consider this stressful. a. True b. False 23. Employees working with managers who have a large span of control generally have coordinated activities which are routine. a. True b. False 24. Organizations which are product based are typically experiencing a shorter life cycle. a. True b. False 25. One factor in determining the choice of structure for an international business is the level of horizontal differentiation. a. True b. False 26. Large-scale organizations tend to exhibit specialization, formalization, and complexity. a. True b. False 27. A start-up company typically has work variability, few rules, and decisions made by the owner. a. True b. False 28. Designing and building linkage coordination mechanisms is known as specialization. a. True b. False 29. The degree of vertical differentiation affects organizational effectiveness, but there is no consistent finding that flatter or taller organizations are better. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

30. In terms of Perrow’s technology framework, what is a key principle of problem analyzability? a. whether the solution can be reduced by quantitative methods b. the amount and type of information searched for in order to solve problems c. the type of technology being used in the transformation process d. whether the solution can be reduced by qualitative methods

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Chap 16_ORGB3 31. What is a key consideration in the choice of structure for managing an international business? a. hierarchy, global product, and global divisional b. level of vertical differentiation; level of horizontal differentiation; and degree of formalization, specialization, standardization, and centralization c. level of vertical differentiation; level of integration; and degree of formalization, specialization, standardization, and centralization d. level of integration; level of horizontal differentiation; and degree of formalization, specialization, standardization, and centralization 32. What best describes the concept of an organization chart? a. the specific tasks for each job b. the number of people who are employed by an organization c. formal lines of authority and supervisor-employee reporting relationships d. the number of positions in each department 33. What is the beginning of the organizational design process? a. the organization’s goals b. diagramming channels of communication c. arranging jobs into departments d. task specifications of each job 34. Which type of structure is Domino’s pizza outlet an example of? a. an adhocracy b. a simple structure c. a divisional form d. a machine bureaucracy 35. What kind of differentiation is characterized by the employee’s specialized knowledge, training, and job scope? a. departmental b. vertical c. horizontal d. spatial 36. What contextual variable could be defined as anything outside the boundaries of the organization? a. technology b. internal labour market c. size d. environment 37. What is the process of constructing and adjusting an organization’s structure to achieve its goals? a. strategy-structure fit b. strategic management c. organizational reconfiguration d. organizational design 38. Which of the following best summarizes the changing forces that managers are experiencing? a. an efficiency orientation that supports an organic structure b. an efficiency orientation that results in on-time delivery and a quality orientation c. an efficiency orientation that focuses on manager-employee relationships d. an efficiency orientation that supports a professional bureaucracy 39. Nora reports to a manager in marketing as well as a manager in corporate communications. What type of structure is Nora’s job an example? a. decentralized structure b. organic structure c. matrix structure d. simple structure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 40. What best exemplifies a web-like structure within a networked organization? a. some or all operating functions are contracted to other organizations and managed centrally b. some or all of the jobs are specialized and managed centrally c. some or all of the organization consists of independent enterprises with a defined set of policies and procedures d. some or all the structure represents a molecular structure and de-emphasizes hierarchy 41. What type of organization uses a web-like structure where some or all of its operating functions are contracted to other organizations? a. cellular b. circle c. virtual d. network 42. What do shorter life cycles put pressure on organizations to have? a. formalization of job requirements and interpersonal relationships at work b. greater specialization and standardization c. flexibility and efficiency d. hierarchical control and centralized decision making 43. According to Woodward’s classification theme for technology, what is needed when the technology is more complex? a. more complex administration b. more investment in training c. more participative leadership d. more investment capital 44. According to Woodward’s classification scheme for technology, which of the following applies to custom home building? a. process is non-sequential b. batches are large c. process is continuous d. batches are small 45. What factor is dominant in a global organization? a. horizontal differentiation b. vertical differentiation c. spatial differentiation d. strategic differentiation 46. Which of the following applies to a mechanistic structure? a. formalization is high, specialization is high, and centralization is high b. formalization is high, specialization is high, and centralization is low c. formalization is low, specialization is low, and complexity is high d. standardization is low, specialization is high, and complexity is high 47. What is an example of how a centralized structure is affected by the strategic decision process? a. The strategic decision process will become more reactive rather than proactive. b. The strategic decision process will move forward incrementally. c. The strategic decision process will be initiated by only a few dominant individuals. d. The strategic decision process will become more politicized.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 48. Which of the following applies to an organization that confronts a situation with scarce resources, large amounts of change, and many competitors? a. high environmental certainty b. high strategic disadvantage c. high environmental uncertainty d. difficult to achieve a profit 49. Which statement best describes the relationship between span of control and authority? a. The relationship is different depending on the circumstances. b. The relationship depends on the number of tasks in a given position. c. The relationship depends on who reports to whom in the chain of command. d. The relationship depends on the number of levels in the organization.

50. What is a consequence of an inappropriate or misaligned structure? a. lower levels of conflict b. good responses to a changing environment c. poor quality decision-making d. lower levels of teamwork 51. What is one factor that may negatively affect the structure of the organization? a. a differentiation dimension b. a reliance on technology c. the personality of the CEO d. clear decision making 52. Which of the following factors would you use if you wanted to have a shorter life cycle in an organization? a. there would need to be greater formalization b. there would need to be a degree of specialization c. there would need to be greater vertical differentiation d. there would need to be greater flexibility 53. What is the difference between an organic structure and a mechanistic structure? a. an organic structure is not bound by job descriptions while in mechanistic they are b. an organic structure has longer communication channels while in mechanistic the communication channel is short c. an organic structure has large spans of control while in mechanistic the span of control is small d. an organic structure has very close supervision while in mechanistic supervision is random 54. What is the process of breaking organizational goals into tasks and dividing work? a. organization charting b. integration c. differentiation d. coordination 55. What best summarizes an organization’s complexity? a. the number of employees within it b. the difficulty of coordinating its different parts c. the number of activities and amount of differentiation d. the number of levels within it

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Chap 16_ORGB3 56. What is the difference between structural dimensions and purpose within organizational design elements? a. structural dimensions influence the organizational processes while purpose influences the organizational strategies b. structural dimensions influence the context of the organization while purpose considers how well the structure fits the purpose c. structural dimensions influence how managers perceive structural needs while purpose considers how well the structure meets the purpose d. structural dimensions characterize the organizational process while purpose considers the formal lines of authority 57. The Royal Bank of Canada decided to move its loan-processing work from headquarters to branch banks in order to avoid bottlenecks. What is this an example of? a. formalization b. decentralization c. specialization d. standardization 58. Which statement contrasts the structural roles of managers today with those of managers of the future? a. Future managers will strictly adhere to boss-employee authority relationships. b. Future managers will encourage cross-functional collaboration, speed, and flexibility. c. Future managers will tend to get things done by giving employees orders. d. Future managers will adopt a relatively narrow functional focus.

59. Which department would most likely be an example of a flexible structure due to the nature of its work? a. human resource management b. research and development c. marketing d. operations 60. Which basic design dimension has been affected by technology? a. complex structures b. environmental pressures c. centralized structures d. organizational hierarchies 61. What is the term for the tools, techniques, and actions used by an organization to transform inputs into outputs? a. technology b. transformation process c. work design d. throughput 62. What affects the strategic decision process for centralization? a. incremental and precise strategic moves b. differentiation not balanced with integrative mechanisms c. more politicized strategic decision process d. initiative by a few dominant employees 63. Which organization has the greatest complexity? a. a car rental office at a busy airport b. a high school basketball team c. an auto dealership’s repair shop d. a university

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Chap 16_ORGB3 64. An organization with a strategy of differentiation from the competition would benefit from what type of structure? a. organic b. mechanistic c. simple d. strategic 65. What is the term for anything outside the boundaries of an organization? a. the technology b. the contextual variables c. the environment d. the market 66. What is a centralized organization? a. one where an employee’s role is defined by formal documentation b. one where the decisions are made at lower levels of the organization c. one where the decisions are made at the senior levels of the organization d. one that has a large span of control 67. Which of the following factors would you use if you wanted to create an organizational structure that is standardized? a. work activities are described and performed routinely; little variation b. tasks are subdivided into separate jobs; formal job descriptions c. number of activities within an organization; number of jobs within an organization d. decision making held at the top; limited decisions making in lower levels 68. What is the difference between managers of today and managers of the future? a. Managers of today work from a functional structure while managers of the future work within a matrix structure. b. Managers of today and managers of the future are very similar. c. Managers of today get things done by coaching their workers while managers of the future get things done by controlling their workers. d. Managers of today get things done by giving orders while managers of the future get things done by negotiating.

69. What is the term for the degree to which the organization has official rules, regulations, and procedures? a. specialization b. formalization c. complexity d. standardization 70. What is usually associated with a tall hierarchy of authority? a. centralization b. a loose chain of command c. informal and unofficial work roles d. decentralization 71. What best describes divisional structures? a. the creation of self-contained units that focus on products, services, clients, or geographical regions b. the creation of democratic decision making c. the creation of dual authority structures d. the creation of reporting relationships Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 72. Tim is in Human Resources, Fatima is in Webservices, and Xio is in Operations. Which type of structure is this an example of? a. functional structure b. basic structure c. matrix structure d. geographic structure 73. Your organization is increasing its differentiation based on changes in its external complexity. What are the next steps for the organization? a. train employees in communication b. improve and/or increase integration c. develop teams d. clarify roles 74. A manager asks the question, “How much standardization should be required in the output of each position?”

What is this manager demonstrating? a. an understanding of liaison roles b. an understanding of designated integrators c. an understanding of task forces d. an understanding of basic design dimensions 75. What term is best summarized as temporary network organizations consisting of independent enterprises? a. cellular structure b. virtual structure c. circle structure d. network structure 76. What is the process of linking the organization together by jobs and departments? a. organizational structure b. strategic management c. organizational reconfiguration d. organizational design 77. An automobile plant performs predominantly routine operating tasks, such as installing brakes. What type of structure is this? a. functional b. matrix c. simple d. divisional 78. What is the term for the process of coordinating the different parts of an organization? a. hierarchy of authority b. integration c. horizontal differentiation d. horizontal complexity 79. What basic design dimension would be most appropriate for decentralizing the decision making within an organization? a. complexity and specialization b. formalization and standardization c. formalization and specialization d. standardization and specialization 80. Which organizational design has a combination of two structures? a. simple b. functional c. matrix d. divisional

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Chap 16_ORGB3 81. What is the relationship between charismatic leaders and organic structures? a. greater compatibility as structure influences leadership b. greater compatibility as structure influences political considerations c. greater compatibility as structure influences the economic factors d. greater compatibility as structure influences justice expectations 82. What is characteristic of environmental uncertainty? a. It is a stable variable that most influences flexibility in organizational design. b. It is a contextual variable that most influences organizational design. c. It is a contextual variable the influences the enactment of organizational design. d. It is a stable variable that influences formalization of organizational design.

83. What is the term for the extent to which work activities are defined and routinely performed in the same way? a. complexity b. standardization c. formalization d. centralization 84. Two HR advisors each have their assigned tasks within the same organization. Their job descriptions indicate different requirements. What type of differentiation is this? a. formalization b. specialization c. standardization d. proximity difference 85. According to Dess and Beard, what variables would you use to assess the degree of environmental uncertainty? a. capacity, demand and supply, and economic growth b. global GDP, domestic GDP, and local market conditions c. volatility, complexity, and analyzability d. volatility, capacity, and complexity 86. Which factors are generally greater in larger organizations? a. cross functional authority, span of control b. formalization, specialization, and standardization c. formalization, complexity, and authority d. vertical integration, standardization, and organic characteristics 87. What is the term for an organization that is divided by geographic location? a. functional b. simple c. divisional d. matrix

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Chap 16_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Grouped according to product, service, client b. Based by department and job title c. A combination of structures of authority d. Low formalization 88. Divisional 89. Matrix 90. Functional 91. Simple Match the following: a. The number of units, activities, and programs within an organization b. The sequence of reporting relationships comprising the chain of command c. Procedures, regulations, and job-defining documents that specify an employee’s role d. The division of labour and specification of task requirements e. Retention of decision authority at the top 92. Specialization 93. Complexity 94. Formalization 95. Hierarchy of Authority 96. Centralization Match the following: a. This variable influences how the design dimensions of structure should be enacted b. Problem analyzability versus task variability c. The number of employees, total assets, or units produced d. Tools, procedures, techniques, information, and machines used to create output e. Area, activities, or people outside the boundaries of an organization 97. Strategy and Goals 98. Size 99. Relationship between Technology and Basic Design Dimensions 100. Environment 101. Technology

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Chap 16_ORGB3 Match the following: a. The process of crafting and adjusting the structure of an organization b. Jobs, organizational units, and their linkage c. Geographic dispersion of organizational units d. A graphic representation of jobs, functions, and organizational units e. Degree of vertical differentiation through reporting relationships and span of control 102. Organization Design 103. Organization Structure 104. Spatial Differentiation 105. Organization Chart 106. Hierarchy of authority Match the following: a. The view or perception of change and disturbance outside the organization b. Stages of organization development c. Structural arrangements stemming from a stable or relatively unchanging environment d. A desired state and one or more courses of action necessary to achieve the desired state e. The organization of product markets outside a firm’s home country 107. Mechanistic Structure 108. Life Cycle 109. Strategy and Goals 110. Environmental Uncertainty 111. Globalization 112. What are some of the questions that Mintzberg believes a manager should use as a guide to designing the best organizational structure? Describe the options of one.

113. What are some distinguishing characteristics of the external environment of a large commercial airline such as Air Canada and WestJet?

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Chap 16_ORGB3 114. What are the defining characteristics of the Woodward, Perrow, and Thompson approaches to technology?

115. For each of the five structural configurations, identify an appropriate integrative mechanism.

116. To be effective, organizations must design and build linkage and coordination mechanisms. What is this process known as? What does it involve? And what are these types of mechanisms designed to achieve?

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Chap 16_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. True 22. False 23. True 24. True 25. True 26. True

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Chap 16_ORGB3 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. a 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 55. c 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. c 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. c 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 83. b 84. b 85. d 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. d 92. d 93. a 94. c 95. b 96. e 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. e 101. d 102. a 103. b 104. c 105. d 106. e 107. c 108. b 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB3 111. e 112. a. How many tasks should a given position in the organization contain, and how specialized should each task be? b. How standardized should the work content of each position be? c. What skills, abilities, knowledge, and training should be required for each position? d. What should be the basis for the grouping of positions within the organization into units, departments, divisions, and so on? e. How large should each unit be, and what should be the span of control (that is, how many individuals should report to each manager)? f. How much standardization should be required in the output of each position? g. What mechanisms should be established to help individuals in different positions and units adjust to the needs of other individuals? h. How centralized or decentralized should decision-making power be in the chain of authority? Should most of the decisions be made at the top of the organization (centralized) or be made down in the chain of authority (decentralized)?

113. The environment of the commercial airline industry can be very volatile when fuel prices fluctuate significantly in the short run, individual airlines adjust airfares up or down by a few to hundreds of dollars, airline employees strike, a terrorist threat is made to an airline, or bad weather interrupts air travel. The airline environment is changing, dynamic, complex, and may be subject to significant financial loss even when more tickets are sold.

114. Woodward used a technical complexity scale to classify organizations into unit, mass, or process types of production.

This model can be used on both large and small organizations. Perrow used task variety and problem analyzability to classify technology at the level of the department and above. Thompson focused on interdependence with the general conclusion that increased interdependence leads to greater organizational complexity with a corresponding need for decentralized decision making.

115. For a simple structure, integration can be accomplished through direct supervision by an owner or top manager.

Standard operating rules and procedures function as integrative mechanisms in the large-scale machine bureaucracy.

The professional bureaucracy is integrated through the professional skill and knowledge of its employees or members. Minimum quality standards of output provide integration in the divisionalized form. A temporary task force or project team functions as integration in the adhocracy.

116. This process is known as integration and involves coordinating the different parts of the organization. Integration mechanisms are designed to achieve unity among individuals and groups in various jobs, departments, and divisions in the accomplishment of organizational goals and tasks. Integration helps keep the organization in a state of dynamic equilibrium, a condition in which all the parts of the organization are interrelated and balanced.

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Chap 17_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. People resist change for rational reasons. a. True b. False 2. Quality programs are an organization-wide intervention technique that involves goal setting between employees and managers. a. True b. False 3. A key to managing the resistance to change is to plan for it and be ready with a variety of strategies for using the resistance as feedback. a. True b. False 4. Survey feedback can be used to determine other organization development techniques that may be appropriate to improve the performance of the organization. a. True b. False 5. The employee–supervisor relationship is not critical in the change process. a. True b. False 6. Management by objectives programs can result in competition among employees. a. True b. False 7. Evidence suggests that successful coaching can result in increased self-awareness; however, there is no correlation to more effective leadership competencies. a. True b. False 8. Organization development (OD) is considered a non-systematic approach to overcome chaotic change. a. True b. False 9. The protest of a work group to a change in compensation methods is an internal force for change. a. True b. False 10. The initial step in Levinson’s diagnostic model is data analysis using force field techniques. a. True b. False

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Chap 17_ORGB3 11. Modification of a business firm’s mission is a transformational change. a. True b. False 12. Resistance to change may result in a request for feedback or additional information. a. True b. False 13. The contemporary view of change holds that resistance is simply a form of feedback and that feedback can be used productively to manage the change process. a. True b. False 14. A widely used intervention method whereby employee attitudes are solicited using a questionnaire is known as team building. a. True b. False 15. The traditional view of “resistance to change” was to treat it as something to overcome. a. True b. False 16. The individual or group that undertakes the task of introducing and managing a change in an organization is an agent of the status quo. a. True b. False 17. Effective coaching relationships depend on a professional, experienced coach, an executive who is motivated to learn and change, and a good fit between the two. a. True b. False 18. Researchers tend to agree that rapid change is more likely to succeed since it creates more momentum than other approaches to the pace of change. a. True b. False 19. The contemporary view of change makes an attempt to treat the resistance to change as something to overcome. a. True b. False 20. Unplanned change is incremental and results from a deliberate decision to alter the organization. a. True b. False

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Chap 17_ORGB3 21. A recent survey of CEOs stated that they believed problems arrived suddenly 50 percent of the time. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

22. Why does Gap Inc. issue an annual ethical report? a. to ensure that employee behaviour is managed b. to ensure that its suppliers fully comply with their ethical code of conduct c. to show that they encourage ethical behaviour and that they are working with their suppliers to help them comply with their code of ethics d. to ensure that employees comply with the ethical code of conduct 23. Internal change agents have certain strong advantages in managing the change process. What is considered a disadvantage? a. They understand the organization’s culture. b. They know the organization’s political system. c. They will be careful because they have to live with the outcomes. d. They may be too close to the organization to remain objective.

24. Which statement applies to organization development? a. It emphasizes intervention at the lowest possible level of the organization. b. It focuses primarily on the individual in bringing about change. c. It is a systematic approach that applies behavioural science theory and research. d. It is for unstructured problem solving in organizations.

25. According to Kotter, what should be the first steps in implementing change? a. be a transformational leader and visionary b. create effective support systems and structures c. create a sense of urgency as well as a vision d. create an alternative structure and belief system 26. Which key strategy for managing resistance to change would the phrase “that which we create, we support” reflect? a. communication b. creativity c. participation d. support 27. External change agents have certain strong disadvantages. What is considered an advantage? a. limited understanding of organization’s culture b. employees will be suspicious c. no past ties to leaders d. limited organizational history

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Chap 17_ORGB3 28. What is the final step in Lewin’s change model? a. refreezing b. moving c. transition d. change 29. What is the second part to Levinson’s diagnostic analysis? a. understanding the organization’s history b. understanding the organization’s external stakeholder groups c. understanding the organization’s relationships and functions d. understanding the organization as a whole, especially focus on structure and processes 30. An oil company adjusts the price on gasoline in response to an excise tax increase. What type of change is this? a. incremental b. strategic c. nonreversible d. transactional 31. Which country passed a law to include the rights of employees during a reorganization process? a. Sweden b. Finland c. Norway d. Iceland 32. What is the OD method that involves an outside consultant helping managers and employees improve processes such as communication, conflict resolution, and decision making? a. survey feedback b. team building c. process consultation d. sensitivity training 33. According to your textbook, what method provides the most beneficial leadership training? a. a combination of classroom learning and on-the-job experience b. a combination of technology and applied learning c. a combination of one-to-one learning and on-the-job experience d. a combination of case studies and classroom learning 34. According to your text, what is the general thinking regarding the proper pace of change for organizations? a. Change in a large organization will occur incrementally in parts of the firm b. Researchers can’t agree on which pace of change is most beneficial. c. Short, sharp changes are actually rare and not experienced by most firms. d. Rapid change is more likely to succeed since it creates momentum.

35. An organization installs an exercise room and hires a dietician. What is most likely the cause of these actions? a. a reduction in company profits and high employee turnover b. a realization that human assets require maintenance just like machines c. an acknowledgement that coaching is an investment in top-level managers d. a need to modify job structure and reporting mechanisms 36. What is the result of an organization making a large-scale change, such as restructuring? a. a radical change b. a transformational change c. a transactional change d. a strategic change Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB3 37. How does technological change bring about profound changes? a. Technological change results in control being transferred to upper levels within the organization because of the upper echelon’s access to more and better information. b. Technological change results in frustration. c. Technological change results in changes in work relationships and organizational structures. d. Technological change results in richer forms of communication.

38. What part of the organization can be changed to encourage employees to become more ethical? a. operations and materials b. sales force c. culture d. top management 39. Your text describes an innovation at GE called WorkOut sessions. What is the purpose of these sessions? a. to set the strategic direction of the organization b. to make the organization faster, less complex, and able to respond effectively to change c. to identify the competitive moves of competitors d. to identify the success factors that will lead to better performance within markets 40. According to Lewin, what indicates a change from the status quo? a. moving b. unfreezing c. changing d. refreezing 41. What does research indicate about the relationship between change and resistance? a. Resistance to change can be used productively. b. Resistance to change results in dysfunction. c. Resistance to change results in rumours and non-factual information. d. Resistance to change results in distrust and lack of credibility.

42. A librarian facing the implementation of an automated system will no longer interact with customers. What would you call this type of resistance to change? a. disruption of interpersonal relationships b. fear of failure c. fear of the unknown d. fear of loss 43. What are hotels in Toronto doing to improve the experience of new immigrant employees? a. providing examples of ethical conduct in the workplace b. providing English as a second language courses c. providing opportunities to socialize d. Providing technological change incentives 44. How does Lewin view the status quo? a. as a restraining force b. as a non-moveable force c. as a state of equilibrium d. as an acceleration force

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Chap 17_ORGB3 45. Why might external change agents be preferred by employees? a. because they are viewed as having limited knowledge of the organization’s history and won’t be trapped by the past b. because they are viewed as being the outside expert c. because they are viewed as having the support of top management d. because they are viewed as being impartial 46. What could cause an internally initiated change to stall, or even be viewed as unsuccessful? a. congruent values b. a competitor’s response c. uncertainty reductions d. organizational politics 47. According to Lewin’s model, what must be present for change efforts to be successful? a. top management support b. effective communication c. the three-stage process d. resource allocation 48. What is an example of an unplanned corporate change? a. installing a computer-controlled machine tool b. preparing materials and making arrangements for a workforce diversity-training workshop c. responding to an increase in the excise tax on gasoline d. scheduling production runs for the peak vacation period of June through August 49. When would an empathic and supportive approach to change be most appropriate? a. when there is significant goal conflict b. when change is accepted but implementation is difficult because of job loss c. when the source of resistance is misinformation d. when employees lack knowledge and skills for change 50. Which company has a goal of being a socially responsible business and purchases goods only from companies sanctioned by the Rainforest Alliance? a. Starbucks b. Caribou c. McDonald’s Europe d. KFC 51. What is the outcome when an organization changes its mission, culture, goals, strategy, and structure? a. transformational change b. strategic change c. transactional change d. turnaround 52. What is an internal force that can stimulate the need for change? a. competitors’ pricing decisions b. labour market c. changes in employees’ expectations d. effective date of new federal employment law 53. Which tool could assist with change? a. empathetic listening b. active listening c. active participation d. active support Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB3 54. Action learning is an effective, individual-focused intervention. What does action learning enhance? a. role negotiation b. leadership skills c. executive coaching d. team building 55. Which organization development technique is appropriate for an organization that is large and that aims to solicit employees’ attitudes? a. survey feedback b. management by objectives c. process consultation d. team building 56. What is the term for a person who acts as the initiator and assumes responsibility for change management? a. arbitrator b. liaison official c. consultant d. change agent 57. What is an example of an organization development effort that can relieve role ambiguity and conflict? a. management by objectives b. survey feedback c. team building d. process consultation 58. Why is resistance to change based on cultural values so difficult to overcome? a. because employees don’t trust the change agent b. because cultural values are not very deep c. because cultural assumptions are often unconscious d. because employees’ perception of their values fit will not change 59. Which stage in Lewin’s change model can be summarized as establishing new attitudes, values, and behaviours resulting in a new status quo? a. change b. refreezing c. unfreezing d. moving 60. An organization moves to a radically different and sometimes unknown future state. What type of change is this? a. transactional b. strategic c. incremental d. transformational 61. What is most commonly the cause for employees feeling threatened when a new computer system is installed which will lessen their workload? a. fear of the unknown b. fear of failure c. fear of loss d. a justice issue

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Chap 17_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Making small changes to the organization b. Organizational restructuring c. Employee skill deficiencies d. Someone who facilitates significant change e. The most massive scope of change in an organization 62. Internal Force for Change 63. Strategic Change 64. Incremental Change 65. Transformational Change 66. Change Agent Match the following: a. Solicitation of employee attitudes through questionnaires b. Goal setting and performance planning between employee and supervisor c. Change agent facilitation to improve individual and organizational processes d. Intra- and intergroup process improvements e. An attempt to culturally embed quality throughout the organization 67. Team Building 68. Survey Feedback 69. Process Consultation 70. Management by Objectives 71. Quality Programs Match the following: a. An initial step in any organization development effort b. The change effort c. New attitudes and values are established as the norm d. A determination of employee skills and competencies that are required e. A systematic approach to organizational improvement that applies behavioural science knowledge 72. Diagnosis 73. Needs Analysis 74. Organization Development 75. Intervention 76. Refreezing

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Chap 17_ORGB3 Match the following: a. A special investment in top-level managers b. Correction of the fit between individual skills and job tasks c. Matching of individual career aspirations and organizational career opportunities d. Pioneered in Europe; involves action learning e. A response by organizations due to the stress in the workplace 77. Leadership Training and Development 78. Job Redesign 79. Health Promotion Programs 80. Executive Coaching 81. Career Planning 82. What is organization development and what areas of an organization may require change and development if performance has significantly suffered?

83. Distinguish between incremental, strategic, and transformational changes and provide an example of each.

84. Briefly explain Lewin’s change model.

85. What are the differences and similarities of management by objectives (MBO) and role negotiation, and process consultation and leadership training and development?

86. What are some of the reasons for resisting organizational change?

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Chap 17_ORGB3 87. Identify at least three external and three internal forces for organizational change.

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Chap 17_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. c

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Chap 17_ORGB3 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB3 55. a 56. d 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. e 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. e 72. a 73. d 74. e 75. b 76. c 77. d 78. b 79. e 80. a 81. c

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Chap 17_ORGB3 82. Organization development (OD) is a systematic set of efforts (interventions) designed to improve performance. The basic OD model begins with diagnosis of problems and needs analyses. Next, one or more interventions are applied to stimulate improvement. Results are monitored and, if necessary, more intervention takes place to continue improvement. The basic areas of an organization targeted for improvement are structure, communication and information flow, job design, interpersonal and intergroup relationships, decision and leadership styles, reward systems, and methods of individual and organizational learning.

83. Incremental changes are small but positive; eliminating a duplicate form and procedure in scheduling production runs would be incremental. A strategic change is greater than an incremental adjustment. A new distribution channel, allowing subunits to make or buy components, and adding a product line are changes that can impact the entire organization. Transformational changes are even greater than strategic changes. They may radically change an organization. A merger of two firms or the closing of a large plant are examples of transformational change.

84. Lewin’s change model uses force-field analysis to change problems. Lewin contends that a person’s behaviour is the product of two opposing forces. One force pushes toward preserving the status quo, and the other force pushes for change. When the forces are roughly equal, current behaviour is maintained. For change to occur, forces maintaining the status quo must be overcome. Lewin’s model is a three-step process. Step 1 begins with unfreezing or placing an emphasis on reducing forces for the status quo. Individuals are encouraged to discard old behaviours by carefully examining the reward system and showing that certain current behaviours are not valued. Step 2 is moving or developing new attitudes, values, and behaviours. In this stage, individuals are provided the rationale for needed change as well as training to help in employee development. Employees should be given an overarching vision for the change of behaviour. Step 3 reinforces the new attitudes, values, and behaviours through a process called refreezing.

Managers should ensure that the culture and formal reward systems encourage the new behaviours and avoid rewarding the old ways of operating.

85. MBO is an organization-wide approach that starts with supervisor-employee role/job clarification, then goal setting and performance planning, implementation and execution of plans for goal achievement, and ends with review of results and revision of goals and plans. Role negotiation is a part of MBO in that the supervisor and employee clarify the employee’s job and role to remove ambiguity and to prevent role conflict. It is also an individual focused intervention.

Process consultation focuses on key organizational processes such as communication, conflict resolution, problem solving, leader-member relationships, and intergroup linkages. An outside consultant functions as a change facilitator in the improvement of these processes. He or she assists individuals and groups. Leadership training and development is usually accomplished by either going off-site for training classes or using a combination of classroom learning and on-job experiences. Action learning is one of these combination methods. In action learning, leaders take on unfamiliar problems or familiar problems in unfamiliar settings. The leaders work on the problems and meet weekly in small groups made up of individuals from different organizations. The outcome of action learning is that leaders learn about themselves through the challenges of their comrades.

While process consultation is an organizational-level intervention, leadership training focuses on the individual as the target. However, both interventions use feedback from others or outsiders on either process issues at the macro level or individual styles at the micro level to improve the functioning of either the organization or individual.

86. Many employees fear change because of uncertainty of outcomes. They may fear failure and/or loss of work.

Interpersonal relationships may be jeopardized; friends may leave and new friendships may be slow to develop.

Organizational policies and interpersonal conflicts may negatively interfere with change. Finally, assumptions and values ingrained in an organization’s culture may be severely tested with some of them failing or changing.

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Chap 17_ORGB3 87. Labour market imbalances, general economic changes, and global marketplace developments are external forces for change. The quality of the labour pool, product prices, and availability of raw materials can impact an organization and its ability to survive, grow, and develop. Internal forces for change can be skill deficiencies in employees, weak supervisory leadership, and inadequate approaches to conflict management. Ineffective communications between workers and supervisors, frequent production downtime, and interpersonal conflicts can hinder organizational performance.

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Chap 18_ORGB3 Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Emotional intelligence tends to decrease as one advances through life. a. True b. False 2. Goleman’s belief is that emotional competencies are not as important to people’s success as raw intelligence or technical know-how. a. True b. False 3. Goleman’s argument on emotional intelligence versus intellectual intelligence suggests that they are equally important to an individual’s success. a. True b. False 4. Occupational excellence means continually honing skills that can be marketed across organizations. a. True b. False 5. In Holland’s occupational choice research, persons with enterprising personalities are analytical, curious, and independent. a. True b. False 6. A career path can be very similar to a career ladder. a. True b. False 7. Career management is a lifelong process of learning about self, jobs, and organizations; setting personal career goals; developing strategies for achieving the goals; and revising the goals based on work and life experiences. a. True b. False 8. Holland’s typology has been used to classify occupational types and occupations but the typology has not been used to predict career choices of international participants. a. True b. False 9. Psychological contracts are commonly written as provisions of personal employment agreements. a. True b. False 10. Women have been quicker to share the provider role than men have been to share responsibilities at home. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB3 11. Older workers have lower rates of tardiness and absenteeism, are more safety conscious, and are more satisfied with their jobs than are younger workers. a. True b. False 12. Project allegiance means that when an organization gains productivity while a person gains work experience, renegotiation of the relationship must occur. a. True b. False 13. The flexible work schedule is a method that can help individuals deal with work-home conflict. a. True b. False 14. Most junior employees are left to negotiate their own mentoring relationships. a. True b. False 15. A person may make several occupational choices during the establishment and maintenance career stages. a. True b. False 16. Work–home conflicts are a particular problem for working women. a. True b. False 17. Enterprising is one of Holland’s six types of organizational values characterized by a set of interests and values. a. True b. False 18. A career is a journey. a. True b. False 19. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs relates to organizational choice. a. True b. False 20. The immediate supervisor is the best mentor for an individual. a. True b. False 21. Realistic job previews are part of anticipatory socialization. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_ORGB3 22. Occupational choice is an important decision of the maintenance career stage. a. True b. False 23. The best way to stay employed is to see yourself as being in business for yourself, even if you work for someone else. a. True b. False 24. Although the concept of the career is undergoing a paradigm shift, the paternalistic attitude that organizations take care of employees remains the same and will no doubt continue. a. True b. False 25. Top managers may be less willing to grant alternative work arrangements to men than to women. a. True b. False 26. The stigma associated with frequent job changes has largely disappeared. a. True b. False 27. Emotional intelligence has not been shown to be important to career success in different cultures. a. True b. False 28. According to the expectancy theory view of how individuals choose organizations, individuals choose organizations that maximize positive outcomes and avoid negative outcomes. a. True b. False 29. Almost 40 percent of new managers fail within the first 18 months on the job. a. True b. False 30. Mentoring usually ends in the establishment career stage. a. True b. False 31. Under the concept of the new career paradigm, project allegiance has replaced corporate allegiance. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_ORGB3 32. An intentional and purposeful commitment to taking charge of your professional life will be necessary in managing the new career. a. True b. False 33. The career lattice is an approach that builds competencies by moving individuals vertically through different levels of the organization. a. True b. False 34. Organizations require individuals who are specialized and can focus on one job. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

35. Which of the following are examples of John Holland’s six types? a. remove obstacles and short-term wins b. artistic and stable c. investigative and conventional d. urgency and vision 36. What is generally the outcome of traditional recruiting practices? a. conflict between the individual’s attempt to attract several organizations and the organization’s need to select the best candidate b. conflict within the individual due to low job satisfaction as a result of unrealistically high expectations c. conflict between the individual’s desire for several job offers and the need to make a good choice d. conflict between the organization’s effort to attract candidates and the individual’s choice of an organization 37. What would you do if you wanted to develop a broad knowledge of the organization in which you work? a. I would engage in a career path, in which I would have many different experiences within the organization. b. I would engage in a career ladder, in which I would progress through increasingly senior positions. c. I would engage in a career lattice in which I would move up and down within the organization to complete projects. d. I would engage in a career lattice in which I move laterally within the organization.

38. According to your text, which statement best explains the life of an individual’s career? a. Your career is complex. b. Your career is a journey. c. Your career will go through similar stages. d. Your career will be determined by family background.

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Chap 18_ORGB3 39. According to your text, what is an important fact about emotional intelligence (EI)? a. EI is innate and individuals cannot be trained. b. EI is less important as the employee goes up the career ladder. c. EI can be developed and tends to improve throughout life d. EI is subject to different cultures and therefore difficult to generalize.

40. What is a relatively new source of work–home conflict? a. need for childcare b. lack of transportation c. neighbourhood crime d. need for eldercare 41. Which statement summarizes the late adulthood stage, specified by the career stage model? a. This stage finds the person learning the job and adapting to working life. b. This stage is the high achievement stage. c. This stage is typically the final stage in an individual’s career in which he/she attempts to maintain productivity. d. This stage is typically the final stage in an individual’s career in which possible career changes are considered.

42. What would be an appropriate occupation for a person with a technical/functional competence anchor? a. factory machine operator b. accountant c. assembly line worker d. freelance photographer 43. What is a common phenomenon during the maintenance stage? a. career plateau b. demotion and downgrade job changes c. lowered job performance and termination d. transition to nonsupervisory positions 44. According to the expectancy view of organizational choice, individuals choose organizations based on their perception of the organization. Why does perception play the biggest role in their choice? a. It satisfies their basic needs. b. It satisfies their social needs. c. It treats employees in an equitable manner. d. It maximizes positive outcomes and avoids negative outcomes.

45. Which of the following is synonymous with the new career paradigm? a. subordinating strategic direction to “corporate headquarters” b. identifying with and focusing on what is happening in one’s adopted occupation c. allowing job rewards to be routinely deferred into the future d. business unit marketing depends on the corporate agenda 46. Donna works in sales and frequently travels. She finds she is not happy due to the frequent travel and commission basis for her salary. Which anchor is Donna experiencing? a. creativity anchor b. technical/functional competence anchor c. autonomy and independence anchor d. security/stability anchor

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Chap 18_ORGB3 47. Establishment is a time of big transitions in both personal and work life. At work, three major tasks face the newcomer:two of these tasks are negotiating effective psychological contracts and managing the stress of socialization. What is the third task? a. undertaking change and acquisition b. beginning anticipatory socialization c. transitioning from outsider to insider d. resisting socialization 48. What does Edgar Schein’s research refer to as self-perceived talents, motives, and values that guide an individual’s career decisions? a. visions b. career planning c. life goals d. career anchors 49. What is a key strategy if your goal is for continuous employment? a. Choose a field of study that will be in high demand well into the future. b. Use the first six months of the socialization process to become thoroughly familiar with the organization’s culture. c. Identify future stars within the organization and attempt to develop a positive relationship with them. d. View yourself as being in business for yourself, even if you work for someone else.

50. How can inherent conflicts between the individual and the organization regarding job choice be avoided? a. use of a mediator b. conflict resolution c. reality counselling d. realistic job preview 51. Which statement explains the four-stage career model? a. Work and personal life are inseparable. b. The establishment stage could be 5 years to 20 years. c. The four stages are mutually exclusive. d. Withdrawal could occur as early as 45 years of age.

52. What is a research finding related to older workers? a. increased rates of absenteeism due to health issues b. higher rates of safety violations c. lower rates of stress d. lower rates of tardiness and absenteeism 53. What is a characteristic of discrete exchange? a. the organization gains productivity while the employee gains rewards based on future market value b. the organization gains productivity while the employee gains work experience c. the organization gains employee commitment while the employee gains employment and career opportunities that are standardized for equity reasons d. the organization obtains employee loyalty while the employee gains job security

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Chap 18_ORGB3 54. What assumption drives Holland’s theory on occupational choices? a. People choose occupations based on what they perceive their strengths have been. b. People choose occupations for economic reasons. c. People choose occupations that match their own personality. d. People choose occupations using vocational inventory instruments.

55. In which stage does the individual maintain their productivity while trying to progress toward career goals? a. establishment b. maintenance c. withdrawal d. advancement 56. What gives potential employees both positive and negative information about a job they are applying for? a. straight-talk interview b. training manual c. realistic job preview d. realistic interview 57. What is the most difficult phase of a mentoring relationship? a. separation b. redefinition c. cultivation d. initiation 58. An organization has an Aboriginals group, a diversity group, and a people enablement group. What is this organization demonstrating? a. the use of group to facilitate withdrawal into retirement b. the use of teams as a source of socialization c. the use of network groups as a source for mentoring d. the use of network groups to facilitate the recruitment of minorities 59. According to research conducted by Levinson, which finding relates to the establishment stage? a. the individual has a sense of achievement b. the individual seeks a mentor to provide guidance and coaching c. the individual seeks greater responsibility as well as upward mobility d. the individual begins to separate from his/her parents and is less emotionally and financially dependent 60. Which of the following applies to occupational excellence? a. relying on the firm to specify jobs and their associated occupational skill base b. identifying with and focusing on what is happening in the firm c. forgoing technical or functional development in favour of firm-specific learning d. continually honing skills that can be marketed across organizations 61. In which high-achievement-oriented stage do people focus on increasing their competence? a. entry and apprenticeship b. establishment c. advancement d. maintenance

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Chap 18_ORGB3 62. How can the concept of project allegiance be described? a. the constant rearrangement of reporting relationships as projects require b. financial and reputation rewards stem from project outcomes c. the organization gains project outcomes and the individual gains experience and shared success d. the shared employer and employee commitment to organizational excellence 63. According to Levinson, what is an important personal life transition stage that includes beginning to separate from one’s parents and becoming less emotionally and financially dependent? a. career establishment b. career advancement c. career maintenance d. career separation 64. Which statement is an example of flextime, compressed work weeks, work-at-home arrangements, part-time hours, job sharing, and leave options? a. They are expensive but necessary in today’s working environment. b. They are time savers because they allow employees to spend more time at work. c. They are alternative work arrangements necessary to manage work–home conflicts. d. They are initiatives directed toward women to attract them to the job market.

65. What is the lifelong process of learning about self, jobs, and organizations? a. job searching process b. career paradigm c. the subjective element d. career management 66. Research indicates that at one particular career stage, an individual is more likely to experience a mid-life crisis.

Which response supports the research findings? a. A midlife crisis is more likely during the establishment stage. b. A midlife crisis is more likely during the advancement stage. c. A midlife crisis is more likely during the maintenance stage. d. A midlife crisis is more likely during the withdrawal stage.

67. What does research indicate has increased in recent years? a. single career advancement b. dual-career partnerships c. same sex career partnerships d. partnerships in which only one person is working 68. Suzy was anxious to start work and earning money. She decides to work for the first organization that offers her a job, even though the location and salary are not what she wanted. What best explains her decision? a. Suzy is generating a short-term win. b. Suzy demonstrates perceived fit. c. Suzy demonstrates job fit. d. Suzy satisficed.

69. What is an important issue for someone in the maintenance career stage? a. career regression b. sustaining performance c. retirement d. finding a career anchor

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Chap 18_ORGB3 70. What is the most common explanation for why newly hired managers to flame out or fail within the first 18 months? a. lack of internal political skills b. tendency to be confused or uncertain about what their bosses expect c. inability to achieve the two or three most important objectives of the new job d. failure to build good relationships with peers and subordinates 71. You are in a new job. What approach to change should you adopt to be successful in the new career paradigm? a. Appreciate that there are different models of change for different types of change. b. Become a transformational leader. c. Develop change management skills. d. Think of change not as a disruption to your work, but as the central focus of your work.

72. What is most commonly the cause of mentor success or failure? a. selecting the “top dog” as your mentor b. personality compatibility with your mentor c. desire to have a career path just like your mentor d. providing mentor details to other employees within the organization 73. What is the term for the pattern of work-related experiences that span the course of a person’s life? a. growth b. career c. advancement d. job ladder 74. What is an example of the subjective element of a career? a. the number of jobs in your chosen occupation b. applying for and receiving an occupational license c. your perception of your potential in a chosen occupation d. your organizational orientation to a new job 75. What is the term for a relationship where both people have important job roles? a. career stressor b. conflicting careers c. dual-career partnership d. conflicting partnership 76. Which of Holland’s personality types would match the occupation of actuarial scientist? a. conventional b. artistic c. enterprising d. investigative 77. What percentage of new mangers fail within the first year and a half in their new role? a. 40 b. 47 c. 50 d. 53

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Chap 18_ORGB3 78. Which of the following applies to the practice of giving potential employees a realistic picture of the job they are applying for? a. providing prospective candidates with results of a job satisfaction survey b. providing both positive and negative information regarding the organization c. providing value clarification services in order to ensure there is a culture/personality fit d. providing the candidate with the strengths of the organization with respect to its position in the industry and its strategic capabilities 79. Fatima is provided with informal advice on the political climate within the organization and informal roles people within the group hold. What is occurring? a. informational support as part of the psychological contract b. evaluative support as part of the psychological contract c. protection from stressors as part of the psychological contract d. emotional support as part of the psychological contract 80. Who is responsible for career management? a. the organization b. the employee and the organization c. the employee and society d. the organization and society 81. What type of support for the newcomer includes empathy, esteem, caring, and love? a. emotional b. modelling c. informational d. evaluative 82. What is a probable result of an RJP? a. lower job information c. lower organizational commitment

b. less effective match d. realistic expectations

83. What type of person is likely to be successful in the new career paradigm? a. someone who is able to tolerate ambiguity b. someone who is paralyzed by change c. someone who is hierarchical d. someone who is inflexible 84. What would be an appropriate career for someone with a security/stability career anchor? a. entrepreneur b. full-time professor c. commercial airline pilot d. salesperson 85. Which career stage is synonymous with the topics of sustaining performance and becoming a mentor? a. withdrawal b. establishment c. maintenance d. advancement 86. What is summarized by an implicit agreement between an individual and an organization that specifies what each is expected to give and receive in the relationship? a. psychological contract b. work agreement c. reciprocity agreement d. employment contract

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Chap 18_ORGB3 87. What is best described as the sequence of job experiences that employees move along during their career? a. career ladders b. career path c. career growth d. career lattice 88. What kind of support is being provided by a mentor who tells a new employee about the power structure in the firm? a. modelling b. emotional c. informational d. protection 89. What is an example of a recent contemporary business issue for individuals in the advancement stage? a. flextime b. health care c. establishment d. eldercare 90. According to Kathy Kram, what is a key characteristic of a successful mentoring program in the maintenance stage? a. individuals who have reached a career plateau would be ideal b. mentors should have an innate ability to understand their role, with no training required c. a graceful exit if there is a mismatch between the mentor and mentee d. individuals should be identified as mentors to ensure the appropriate individuals are involved Match the following: a. Discretionary work schedule b. Disengagement career stage c. A significant set of career problems for many in their 30s and 40s d. Lack of upward career mobility e. Career stage with little job and career change 91. Dual Careers 92. Flextime 93. Maintenance 94. Career Plateau 95. Withdrawal

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Chap 18_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Both people have important career roles b. An individual who can be important to career success c. Sequence of job experiences d. Specified progression of job experiences e. A person being mentored 96. Mentor 97. Career Path 98. Dual-career Partnership 99. Career Ladder 100. Protégé Match the following: a. The third stage of career stability b. Examples of negative and positive information about the job c. One may enter management ranks of the organization in this stage d. Implicit employment arrangement e. Provides advice about organizational policies 101. Psychological Contract 102. Mentor 103. Maintenance 104. Advancement 105. Realistic Job Preview Match the following: a. Pattern of work-related experiences spanning one’s life b. Employment opportunities are standardized c. Everyone is responsible for adding value d. Holland’s efficient and practical personality type e. The career exploration stage for individuals 106. Conventional 107. Career 108. Establishment 109. Old career paradigm 110. New career paradigm

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Chap 18_ORGB3 Match the following: a. Probability of moving higher in your career is low b. Individual-organizational efforts to achieve career success c. Set of self-perceived talents, motives, and values that guide career d. Functional specialization as career anchor e. After a person retires from a full-time position but before the person’s permanent withdrawal from the workforce 111. Career Management 112. Career Anchor 113. Technical/Functional 114. Bridge Employment 115. Career Plateau 116. How can a mentor help one’s career?

117. Which of John Holland’s personality types are you most likely to find pursuing degrees in business administration?

118. What are some of the ways to reduce the stress and strains of a dual-career situation?

119. Briefly discuss the differences between the new versus the old meanings of “career” as a result of the paradigm shift.

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Chap 18_ORGB3 120. Briefly describe the four-stage career model and indicate one or more important activities in each stage.

121. What is career management from the individual’s perspective and from the organization’s perspective?

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Chap 18_ORGB3 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. False 23. True 24. False 25. True 26. True

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Chap 18_ORGB3 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. False 31. True 32. True 33. False 34. False 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. d 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB3 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. d 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. a 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. b 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. d 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB3 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. c 91. c 92. a 93. e 94. d 95. b 96. b 97. c 98. a 99. d 100. e 101. d 102. e 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. d 107. a 108. e 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB3 111. b 112. c 113. d 114. e 115. a 116. When one embarks on a new career or joins a new organization, considerable uncertainty exists. A mentor can reduce this uncertainty through coaching, counselling, and providing protection. The mentor can guide one through the mine fields of organizational politics, expose one to opportunities, and allow one to be visible to those who make promotion decisions. The mentor can help a person be in the right place at the right time.

117. The three types of realistic, enterprising, and conventional are more likely to be found in business courses. These personality types tend to be associated with the occupation and career fields of accounting, financial management, sales and marketing, and small business management as well as managing large-scale organizations.

118.

Frequent communication about job-related problems, work scheduling, and nonwork time management is essential.

Careful individual and joint career planning, sharing of family and household tasks, alternating whose career takes precedence, and working to minimize jealousy are also important activities and decisions of dual-career couples.

119. The time of the fast track to the top of the hierarchical organization has passed. Also gone is the idea of lifetime employment in a single organization. The paternalistic attitude that organizations take care of employees no longer exists. Individuals now take on more responsibility for managing their own careers. The old career is giving way to a new career characterized by discrete exchange, occupational excellence, organizational empowerment, and project allegiance.

120. The four-stage model begins with career establishment, moves to the advancement stage, followed by maintenance, and finally withdrawal. In the establishment stage, organizational entry and the transition to the world of work occur.

Job and occupational learning and technical experience are very important. If one successfully learns and performs, promotions based on technical and later managerial competence advance the individual upward into positions if increasing responsibility. The maintenance stage may require some retraining and additional learning to sustain performance as promotional opportunities diminish. The late maintenance and early withdrawal stage involve careful planning for retirement.

121. For the individual, career management is a lifelong process of self-assessment, setting job and career goals, pursuing career strategies, and revising plans based on job and career experiences. Career management is important for the organization because the firm wants to maximize the contribution of each employee. Accordingly, the organization carefully selects, trains, and places individuals to achieve a high level of employee performance and job satisfaction.

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