Medical Terminology Learning Through Practice 1st Edition by Paula Bostwick TEST BANK

Medical Terminology Learning Through Practice 1st Edition Bostwick Test Bank Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 1 Learning Terminology, Word Roots, and Combining Forms 1) The abbreviation for "as needed" is A) PRN B) IM C) ASA D) AMA 2) LOC is the abbreviation for: A) laceration B) hypertension C) treatment D) level of consciousness 3) The physician has ordered the medication "po." The nurse will administer this: A) intramuscularly.

B) by mouth.

C) as needed.

D) three times a day 4) The physician has documented the patient had an "AMI." The nurse understands the patient experienced what?

A) congestive heart failure B) acute myocardial infarction C) shortness of breath D) hypertension 5) The physician ordered the medication to be administered tid. The nurse will administer the medication how often?

A) twice a day B) three times a day C) four times a day D) daily 6) Admission orders include "npo." The nurse knows that the patient: A) is allergic to penicillin.

B) may have nothing by mouth.

C) is experiencing shortness of breath.

D) has congestive heart failure.

7) Word roots are used to: A) identify the basic meaning.

B) modify the 1 Easy meaning.

C) link words together.

D) provide term definition.

8) The study of disease is A) neuro B) patho C) cardio D) bio

logy.

9) The term hepatomegaly means: A) around the colon.

B) epigastric.

C) abnormal menses.

D) enlarged liver.

10) The abbreviation for complete blood count is: A) CDC B) CBC C) WBC D) AMI 11) Insulin was first used to treat diabetes in what year?

A) 1922 B) 1923 C) 1924 D) 1927 12) The plural of kidney is

.

13) The plural of tongue is

.

14) The plural of virus is

.

15) The plural of nucleus is A) nuclei B) nucleuises C) nuclears D) nucleiis

.

16) The plural of femur is

.

17) The plural of cuspid is

.

18) The plural of denture is 19) The plural of fungus is A) fungis B) funguises C) fungi D) fungies

. .

20) The plural of breath is

.

21) The plural of narcotic is

.

22) The plural of electrocardiogram is 23) The plural of abscess is

. .

24) The plural of reflex is

.

25) The plural of tremor is

.

26) The plural of glomerulus is

.

27) The plural of macula is A) maculae B) maculaes C) maculai D) macules

.

28) The plural of suture is 29) The plural of fossa is 30) The plural of urethra is A) urethras B) urethraes C) urethreas D) urethres

. . .

31) The plural of pneumonia is

.

32) The plural of thrombocyte is

.

33) The plural of lobotomy is

.

34) The plural of psychosis is

.

35) The plural of osteoplasty is

.

36) The plural of neuralgia is

.

37) The plural of incisor is

.

38) The plural of decibel is

.

39) The plural of ganglion is 40) The plural of radix is

. .

41) The plural of lunula is

.

42) The plural of furuncle is 43) The plural of acne is

. .

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 1 Learning Terminology, Word Roots, and Combining Forms 1) The abbreviation for "as needed" is A) PRN B) IM C) ASA D) AMA Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) LOC is the abbreviation for: A) laceration B) hypertension C) treatment D) level of consciousness Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) The physician has ordered the medication "po." The nurse will administer this: A) intramuscularly.

B) by mouth.

C) as needed.

D) three times a day Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4) The physician has documented the patient had an "AMI." The nurse understands the patient experienced what?

A) congestive heart failure B) acute myocardial infarction C) shortness of breath D) hypertension Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The physician ordered the medication to be administered tid. The nurse will administer the medication how often?

A) twice a day B) three times a day C) four times a day D) daily Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) Admission orders include "npo." The nurse knows that the patient: A) is allergic to penicillin.

B) may have nothing by mouth.

C) is experiencing shortness of breath.

D) has congestive heart failure.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7) Word roots are used to: A) identify the basic meaning.

B) modify the 1 Easy meaning.

C) link words together.

D) provide term definition.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Forming Medical Terms Learning Objective: 01.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) The study of disease is A) neuro B) patho C) cardio D) bio

logy.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) The term hepatomegaly means: A) around the colon.

B) epigastric.

C) abnormal menses.

D) enlarged liver.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Forming Medical Terms Learning Objective: 01.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10) The abbreviation for complete blood count is: A) CDC B) CBC C) WBC D) AMI Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Using Medical Terminology and Its Different Forms Learning Objective: 01.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Insulin was first used to treat diabetes in what year?

A) 1922 B) 1923 C) 1924 D) 1927 Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: The Language of Medicine Learning Objective: 01.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) The plural of kidney is

.

Answer: kidneys Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 13) The plural of tongue is Answer: tongues Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

14) The plural of virus is

.

Answer: viruses Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) The plural of nucleus is A) nuclei B) nucleuises C) nuclears D) nucleiis

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 16) The plural of femur is

.

Answer: femurs Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) The plural of cuspid is Answer: cuspids Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

18) The plural of denture is

.

Answer: dentures Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 19) The plural of fungus is A) fungis B) funguises C) fungi D) fungies

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) The plural of breath is

.

Answer: breaths Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) The plural of narcotic is Answer: narcotics Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

22) The plural of electrocardiogram is

.

Answer: electrocardiograms Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) The plural of abscess is

.

Answer: abscesses Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) The plural of reflex is

.

Answer: reflexes Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 25) The plural of tremor is Answer: tremors Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

26) The plural of glomerulus is

.

Answer: glomeruli Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) The plural of macula is A) maculae B) maculaes C) maculai D) macules

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 28) The plural of suture is

.

Answer: sutures Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) The plural of fossa is

.

Answer: fossae Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30) The plural of urethra is A) urethras B) urethraes C) urethreas D) urethres

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 31) The plural of pneumonia is

.

Answer: pneumonias Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) The plural of thrombocyte is

.

Answer: thrombocytes Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) The plural of lobotomy is Answer: lobotomies Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

34) The plural of psychosis is

.

Answer: psychoses Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The plural of osteoplasty is

.

Answer: osteoplasties Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) The plural of neuralgia is

.

Answer: neuralgias Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 37) The plural of incisor is Answer: incisors Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

38) The plural of decibel is

.

Answer: decibels Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The plural of ganglion is

.

Answer: ganglia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 40) The plural of radix is

.

Answer: radices Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) The plural of lunula is Answer: lunulae Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

42) The plural of furuncle is

.

Answer: furuncles Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) The plural of acne is

.

Answer: acnes Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pluralizing Terms Learning Objective: 01.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 2 Prefixes 1) The prefix dys- identifies: A) dental pain B) inflammation C) incision D) abnormal 2) The prefix for away from is: A) aB) abC) adD) ambi3) The prefix for without is: A) aB) abC) adD) ambi4) The prefix for against is: A) ambiB) tachyC) antiD) ab5) The prefix for both is: A) semiB) malC) reD) ambi6) The prefix for before is: A) anteB) primiC) postD) af7) The prefix for toward is: A) paraB) adC) diD) ect(o)-

8) The prefix for self is: A) autoB) metaC) paraD) cata9) The prefix for slow is: A) BradyB) ApoC) AutoD) Ad10) The prefix for twice is: A) AmbiB) BiC) AnteD) Ad11) The prefix for derived is: A) RetroB) ApoC) IntraD) Sub12) The prefix for short is: A) HemiB) PolyC) UniD) Brachy13) The prefix for down is: A) CataB) InterC) PeriD) Supra14) The prefix for without is: A) SemiB) AnC) AntiD) De15) The prefix for against is: A) UltraB) ContraC) ReD) Eu-

16) The prefix for together is: A) DeB) CoC) BradyD) Un17) The prefix for outside is: A) mes(o)B) infraC) ect(o)D) ex18) The prefix for toward is: A) AnaB) InterC) SupraD) Trans19) The prefix for not is: A) DiaB) EpiC) DiD) Sub20) The prefix for difficult is: A) UnB) DeC) BradyD) Dys21) The prefix for within is: A) ContraB) EndoC) CoD) De22) The prefix for over is: A) PerB) PeriC) EpiD) Infra-

23) The prefix for external is: A) ExoB) PeriC) TransD) Ex24) The prefix for out of is: A) ExoB) PeriC) TransD) Ex25) The prefix for beneath is: A) InterB) IntraC) InfraD) Extra26) The prefix for without is: A) SupraB) ExoC) ExtraD) Epi27) The prefix for above norm is: A) EuB) HypoC) HyperD) Mal28) The prefix for half is: A) BiB) IntraC) HemiD) Iso29) The prefix for between is: A) InfraB) InterC) IntraD) Dys30) The prefix for below normal is: A) EuB) HyperC) HypoD) Mal-

31) The prefix for well is: A) UnB) EuC) DeD) Re32) The prefix for within is: A) EpiB) SupraC) PerD) Intra33) The prefix for same is: A) IsoB) HemiC) Mon(o)D) Pluri34) The prefix for bad is: A) MalB) ReC) SemiD) Syl35) The prefix for middle is: A) paraB) periC) mesoD) micro36) The prefix for large is: A) isoB) microC) megaD) pan37) The prefix for small is: A) meg(a)B) panC) pluriD) micr(o)-

38) The prefix for single is: A) multiB) monoC) polyD) tri39) The prefix for after is: A) MetaB) Par(a)C) DysD) Pan40) The prefix for single is: A) PolyB) UniC) PluriD) Meg(a)41) The prefix for all is: A) MultiB) TriC) BrachyD) Pan42) The prefix for several is: A) BrachyB) HemiC) PluriD) Poly43) The prefix for through is: A) AnaB) PerC) PeriD) Ad44) The prefix for many is: A) BiB) MultiC) IsoD) Uni45) The prefix for beside is: A) ApoB) ParaC) ExoD) Intra-

46) The prefix for around is: A) DiaB) CataC) PeriD) Extra47) The prefix for after is: A) PostB) PreC) PrimiD) Pro48) The prefix for again is: A) AnB) BradyC) ReD) Tachy49) Postsurgical means A) after B) before C) during D) after it started 50) Unilateral means

surgery.

side

51) Parasympathetic means A) after B) beside C) under D) over

the sympathetic system.

52) Microorganism means

organism.

53) Quadriplegia means

limbs paralysis.

54) Hemiplegia means

side paralysis.

55) Hyperactive means to be A) under B) overly C) slowly D) lowly

active.

56) To be abducted is to be A) taken away B) added to C) put on top of D) put away 57) Postnasal means A) under B) in front of C) behind D) over

.

the nose.

58) Medication given subcutaneously is A) above B) under C) around D) away from 59) Microscopic means too 60) Diplopia means

to be seen. vision.

61) Intracellular means

the cell.

62) Postdischarge means

discharge.

63) A large cell is a

the skin.

cyte.

64) Dysmenorrhea means A) difficult B) heavy C) light D) normal

menses.

65) Malabsorption means A) inadequate B) adequate C) excess D) minute

absorption.

66) The client's heart rate is slow. The nurse recognizes this as

cardia.

67) The patient receives an injection into the muscle. This is an

muscular injection

68) To perspire is to

crete fluid through the skin.

69) A pandemic affects A) all B) a select C) none D) some 70) Multipara is 71) Asepsis is

.

pregnancies. organisms

72) The patient is immune against himself. The patient is 73) The patient is having a reaction to a toxin. This is

. phylaxisis.

74) The therapist is performing adduction exercises. The therapist is bringing the extremities the body.

75) The patient's uterus is tipped backward. This is

version.

76) The client has excessive vomiting. The nurse documents this a 77) What does the prefix in antibiotic mean?

A) against B) near C) for D) far 78) What does the prefix in tachycardia mean?

A) front B) fast C) slow D) back 79) The prefix for around is: A) CircumB) CataC) PerD) Retro-

emesis.

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 2 Prefixes 1) The prefix dys- identifies: A) dental pain B) inflammation C) incision D) abnormal Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) The prefix for away from is: A) aB) abC) adD) ambiAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) The prefix for without is: A) aB) abC) adD) ambiAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4) The prefix for against is: A) ambiB) tachyC) antiD) abAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The prefix for both is: A) semiB) malC) reD) ambiAnswer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) The prefix for before is: A) anteB) primiC) postD) afAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Time Learning Objective: 02.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7) The prefix for toward is: A) paraB) adC) diD) ect(o)Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) The prefix for self is: A) autoB) metaC) paraD) cataAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Prefixes Learning Objective: 02.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) The prefix for slow is: A) BradyB) ApoC) AutoD) AdAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10) The prefix for twice is: A) AmbiB) BiC) AnteD) AdAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) The prefix for derived is: A) RetroB) ApoC) IntraD) SubAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) The prefix for short is: A) HemiB) PolyC) UniD) BrachyAnswer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13) The prefix for down is: A) CataB) InterC) PeriD) SupraAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) The prefix for without is: A) SemiB) AnC) AntiD) DeAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) The prefix for against is: A) UltraB) ContraC) ReD) EuAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16) The prefix for together is: A) DeB) CoC) BradyD) UnAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) The prefix for outside is: A) mes(o)B) infraC) ect(o)D) exAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) The prefix for toward is: A) AnaB) InterC) SupraD) TransAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19) The prefix for not is: A) DiaB) EpiC) DiD) SubAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) The prefix for difficult is: A) UnB) DeC) BradyD) DysAnswer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) The prefix for within is: A) ContraB) EndoC) CoD) DeAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22) The prefix for over is: A) PerB) PeriC) EpiD) InfraAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) The prefix for external is: A) ExoB) PeriC) TransD) ExAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) The prefix for out of is: A) ExoB) PeriC) TransD) ExAnswer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25) The prefix for beneath is: A) InterB) IntraC) InfraD) ExtraAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) The prefix for without is: A) SupraB) ExoC) ExtraD) EpiAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) The prefix for above norm is: A) EuB) HypoC) HyperD) MalAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28) The prefix for half is: A) BiB) IntraC) HemiD) IsoAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Learning Objective: 02.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) The prefix for between is: A) InfraB) InterC) IntraD) DysAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) The prefix for below normal is: A) EuB) HyperC) HypoD) MalAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31) The prefix for well is: A) UnB) EuC) DeD) ReAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) The prefix for within is: A) EpiB) SupraC) PerD) IntraAnswer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) The prefix for same is: A) IsoB) HemiC) Mon(o)D) PluriAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34) The prefix for bad is: A) MalB) ReC) SemiD) SylAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The prefix for middle is: A) paraB) periC) mesoD) microAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) The prefix for large is: A) isoB) microC) megaD) panAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37) The prefix for small is: A) meg(a)B) panC) pluriD) micr(o)Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) The prefix for single is: A) multiB) monoC) polyD) triAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The prefix for after is: A) MetaB) Par(a)C) DysD) PanAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Prefixes Learning Objective: 02.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40) The prefix for single is: A) PolyB) UniC) PluriD) Meg(a)Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) The prefix for all is: A) MultiB) TriC) BrachyD) PanAnswer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) The prefix for several is: A) BrachyB) HemiC) PluriD) PolyAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43) The prefix for through is: A) AnaB) PerC) PeriD) AdAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) The prefix for many is: A) BiB) MultiC) IsoD) UniAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) The prefix for beside is: A) ApoB) ParaC) ExoD) IntraAnswer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46) The prefix for around is: A) DiaB) CataC) PeriD) ExtraAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The prefix for after is: A) PostB) PreC) PrimiD) ProAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Time Learning Objective: 02.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) The prefix for again is: A) AnB) BradyC) ReD) TachyAnswer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49) Postsurgical means A) after B) before C) during D) after it started

surgery.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) Unilateral means

side

Answer: one Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) Parasympathetic means A) after B) beside C) under D) over

the sympathetic system.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) Microorganism means

organism.

Answer: small Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53) Quadriplegia means

limbs paralysis.

Answer: four Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) Hemiplegia means

side paralysis.

Answer: half Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) Hyperactive means to be A) under B) overly C) slowly D) lowly

active.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56) To be abducted is to be A) taken away B) added to C) put on top of D) put away

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) Postnasal means A) under B) in front of C) behind D) over

the nose.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Time Learning Objective: 02.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 58) Medication given subcutaneously is A) above B) under C) around D) away from Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Time Learning Objective: 02.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

the skin.

59) Microscopic means too

to be seen.

Answer: small Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) Diplopia means

vision.

Answer: double Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) Intracellular means

the cell.

Answer: within Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) Postdischarge means

discharge.

Answer: after Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Time Learning Objective: 02.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63) A large cell is a

cyte.

Answer: megalo Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 64) Dysmenorrhea means A) difficult B) heavy C) light D) normal

menses.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) Malabsorption means A) inadequate B) adequate C) excess D) minute

absorption.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) The client's heart rate is slow. The nurse recognizes this as Answer: brady Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

cardia.

67) The patient receives an injection into the muscle. This is an Answer: intra Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) To perspire is to

crete fluid through the skin.

Answer: ex Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) A pandemic affects A) all B) a select C) none D) some

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) Multipara is

pregnancies.

Answer: many Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Size and Quantity Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

muscular injection

71) Asepsis is

organisms

Answer: without Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) The patient is immune against himself. The patient is

.

Answer: autoimmune Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Prefixes Learning Objective: 02.06 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) The patient is having a reaction to a toxin. This is

phylaxisis.

Answer: ana Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) The therapist is performing adduction exercises. The therapist is bringing the extremities the body.

Answer: toward Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

75) The patient's uterus is tipped backward. This is

version.

Answer: retro Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 76) The client has excessive vomiting. The nurse documents this a Answer: hyper Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77) What does the prefix in antibiotic mean?

A) against B) near C) for D) far Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 78) What does the prefix in tachycardia mean?

A) front B) fast C) slow D) back Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Presence or Quality Learning Objective: 02.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

emesis.

79) The prefix for around is: A) CircumB) CataC) PerD) RetroAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Prefixes Related to Position or Location Learning Objective: 02.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 3 Suffixes 1) The suffix -itis identifies: A) dental pain B) inflammation C) incision D) abnormal 2) Identify the suffix for pain.

A) –phonia B) –kinesia C) –algia D) –phoria 3) Identify the suffix for weakness.

A) –asthenia B) –desis C) –dynia D) –phoria 4) Identify the suffix for cell.

A) –emia B) –emic C) –cyte D) –uria 5) Identify the suffix for hernia.

A) –opia B) –megaly C) –penia D) –cele 6) Identify the suffix for separate.

A) –crit B) –meter C) –scopy D) –gen 7) Identify the suffix for binding.

A) –phoria B) –dynia C) –desis D) –algia

8) Identify the suffix for toward.

A) –ad B) –clast C) –stat D) –tropy 9) Identify the suffix for condition of cells.

A) –penia B) –pathy C) –cytosis D) –opia 10) Identify the suffix for skin.

A) –uria B) –derma C) –emic D) –globulin 11) Identify the suffix for dilation.

A) –ectasia B) –pathy C) –rrhea D) –ptosis 12) Identify the suffix for killing.

A) –cide B) –crine C) –malacia D) –para 13) Identify the suffix for pain.

A) –algia B) –desis C) -asthenia D) –phobia 14) Identify the suffix for in the shape of.

A) –version B) –tropy C) –clast D) –form 15) Identify the suffix for removal of.

A) –stomy B) –tome C) –ectomy D) –pexy

16) Identify the suffix for recording.

A) –scope B) –gram C) –graph D) –graphy 17) Identify the suffix for condition.

A) -cytosis B) –ema C) –leptic D) –pathy 18) Identify the suffix for breaking.

A) –clasis B) –clast C) –stat D) –oid 19) Identify the suffix for swelling.

A) –ema B) –edema C) –ism D) –iasis 20) Identify the suffix for vomiting.

A) –plegic B) –leptic C) –ema D) –emesis 21) Identify the suffix for producing.

A) –rrhea B) –para C) –parous D) –pnea 22) Identify the suffix for recording instrument.

A) –gram B) –graph C) –graphy D) –meter

23) Identify the suffix for sensation.

A) –phoria B) –kinesia C) –kinesis D) –esthesia 24) Identify the suffix for process of recording.

A) –gram B) –graphy C) –graph D) –scope 25) Identify the suffix for production.

A) –poiesis B) –poietin C) –para D) –poietic 26) Identify the suffix for movement.

A) –kinesia B) –phobia C) –phonia D) –asthenia 27) Identify the suffix for binding.

A) – phoria B) –dynia C) –desis D) –phoria 28) Identify the suffix for a recording.

A) –gram B) –graph C) –graphy D) –meter 29) Identify the suffix for producing.

A) –pepsia B) –para C) –parous D) –plastic 30) Identify the suffix for condition.

A) –opia B) –phrenia C) –edema D) –ema

31) Identify the suffix for a pathological condition.

A) –iasis B) –philia C) –emesis D) –ism 32) Identify the suffix for pertaining to.

A) –porosis B) –poietic C) –poiesis D) –para 33) Identify the suffix for removal.

A) –metry B) –scope C) –phil D) –pheresis 34) Identify the suffix for treatment.

A) –logist B) –tropia C) –ics D) –ic 35) Identify the suffix for condition.

A) –osis B) –pathy C) –sis D) –ion 36) Identify the suffix for the process of surgical cutting.

A) –stomy B) –ectomy C) –tomy D) –pathy 37) Identify the suffix for softening.

A) –dynia B) –malacia C) –stasis D) –penia

38) Identify the suffix for deficiency.

A) –trophy B) –plasty C) –penia D) –lysis 39) Identify the suffix for enlargement.

A) –megaly B) –sclerosis C) –lysis D) –stomy 40) Identify the suffix for breakdown or destruction.

A) –lysis B) –trophy C) –tomy D) –osis 41) Identify the suffix for drooping.

A) –statis B) –cele C) –ptosis D) –oma 42) Identify the suffix for stopping.

A) –stasis B) –oma C) –plasia D) –cyte 43) Identify the suffix for tumor.

A) –oma B) –plasia C) –ectasis D) –tripsy 44) Identify the suffix for expanding.

A) –trophy B) –ectasis C) –emesis D) –tripsy 45) Identify the suffix for to form a new opening.

A) –stenosis B) –stomy C) –oid D) –stosis

46) Identify the suffix for resembling.

A) –oid B) –emesis C) –stosis D) –plasia 47) Identify the suffix for discharge.

A) –tocia B) –rrhea C) –logy D) –lepsy 48) Identify the suffix labor or birth.

A) –tocia B) –gravida C) –parous D) –logy 49) Identify the suffix for to practice.

A) –logy B) –pathy C) –gensis D) –praxia 50) Identify the suffix for turning.

A) –version B) –pnea C) –sthenia D) –malacia 51) Identify the suffix for numbness.

A) –phasia B) –paresis C) –plegia D) –algia 52) Identify the suffix for speech.

A) –lexia B) –phasia C) –malacia D) –phage

53) Identify the suffix for lessening in density.

A) –malacia B) –porosis C) –philia D) –lepsy 54) Identify the suffix for eating.

A) –phage B) –pnea C) –penia D) –paresis 55) Identify the suffix for rupture.

A) –pnea B) –osmia C) –otia D) –rrhexis 56) Identify the suffix for breathing.

A) –pnea B) –philia C) –oma D) –emesis 57) Identify the suffix for decrease in cell numbers.

A) –penia B) –opia C) –plegia D) –clast 58) Identify the suffix for vision.

A) –osis B) –ptosis C) –stenosis D) –opia 59) Identify the suffix for growing.

A) –stenosis B) –physis C) –clast D) –opia 60) Identify the suffix for immature tumor.

A) –oma B) –ptosis C) –blastoma D) –malacia

61) Identify the suffix for narrowing.

A) –opia B) –stenosis C) –blast D) –phage 62) Identify the suffix for lack of strength.

A) –leptic B) –mania C) –stenia D) –asthenia 63) Identify the suffix for view of.

A) –phil B) –genic C) –opsy D) –gen 64) Identify the suffix for feeling.

A) –phoria B) –mania C) –leptic D) –pnea 65) Identify the suffix for breaking.

A) –blast B) –clasis C) –opia D) –pnea 66) Identify the suffix for urine.

A) –uria B) –emia C) –ectomy D) –phage 67) The suffix for skin is 68) The suffix for blood is 69) The suffix -oxia identifies:

. . .

70) The suffix –globulin identifies:

.

71) An excision or removal is a(an)

.

72) A substance that produces or causes is a

.

73) An instrument used for a visual examination is a(n) 74) An erythrocyte is a(n) 75) separation.

.

.

is the percentage of volume of a blood sample that is composed of cells after

76) A bone cell is a(n)

.

77) A red blood cell is a(n)

.

78) A lack of oxygen is

.

79) The study of skin disorders is

.

80) Intentional breaking of a bone is 81) Turning backward is

.

.

82) An instrument used to view small objects is a 83) Pus in the urine is

.

.

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 3 Suffixes 1) The suffix -itis identifies: A) dental pain B) inflammation C) incision D) abnormal Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Identify the suffix for pain.

A) –phonia B) –kinesia C) –algia D) –phoria Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) Identify the suffix for weakness.

A) –asthenia B) –desis C) –dynia D) –phoria Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4) Identify the suffix for cell.

A) –emia B) –emic C) –cyte D) –uria Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) Identify the suffix for hernia.

A) –opia B) –megaly C) –penia D) –cele Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) Identify the suffix for separate.

A) –crit B) –meter C) –scopy D) –gen Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7) Identify the suffix for binding.

A) –phoria B) –dynia C) –desis D) –algia Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) Identify the suffix for toward.

A) –ad B) –clast C) –stat D) –tropy Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) Identify the suffix for condition of cells.

A) –penia B) –pathy C) –cytosis D) –opia Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10) Identify the suffix for skin.

A) –uria B) –derma C) –emic D) –globulin Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Identify the suffix for dilation.

A) –ectasia B) –pathy C) –rrhea D) –ptosis Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) Identify the suffix for killing.

A) –cide B) –crine C) –malacia D) –para Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13) Identify the suffix for pain.

A) –algia B) –desis C) -asthenia D) –phobia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Identify the suffix for in the shape of.

A) –version B) –tropy C) –clast D) –form Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) Identify the suffix for removal of.

A) –stomy B) –tome C) –ectomy D) –pexy Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Surgical or Procedure Processes Learning Objective: 03.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16) Identify the suffix for recording.

A) –scope B) –gram C) –graph D) –graphy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Identify the suffix for condition.

A) -cytosis B) –ema C) –leptic D) –pathy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) Identify the suffix for breaking.

A) –clasis B) –clast C) –stat D) –oid Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19) Identify the suffix for swelling.

A) –ema B) –edema C) –ism D) –iasis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Identify the suffix for vomiting.

A) –plegic B) –leptic C) –ema D) –emesis Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Identify the suffix for producing.

A) –rrhea B) –para C) –parous D) –pnea Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22) Identify the suffix for recording instrument.

A) –gram B) –graph C) –graphy D) –meter Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Identify the suffix for sensation.

A) –phoria B) –kinesia C) –kinesis D) –esthesia Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Identify the suffix for process of recording.

A) –gram B) –graphy C) –graph D) –scope Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25) Identify the suffix for production.

A) –poiesis B) –poietin C) –para D) –poietic Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Identify the suffix for movement.

A) –kinesia B) –phobia C) –phonia D) –asthenia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) Identify the suffix for binding.

A) – phoria B) –dynia C) –desis D) –phoria Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28) Identify the suffix for a recording.

A) –gram B) –graph C) –graphy D) –meter Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Identify the suffix for producing.

A) –pepsia B) –para C) –parous D) –plastic Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) Identify the suffix for condition.

A) –opia B) –phrenia C) –edema D) –ema Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31) Identify the suffix for a pathological condition.

A) –iasis B) –philia C) –emesis D) –ism Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) Identify the suffix for pertaining to.

A) –porosis B) –poietic C) –poiesis D) –para Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) Identify the suffix for removal.

A) –metry B) –scope C) –phil D) –pheresis Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34) Identify the suffix for treatment.

A) –logist B) –tropia C) –ics D) –ic Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) Identify the suffix for condition.

A) –osis B) –pathy C) –sis D) –ion Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) Identify the suffix for the process of surgical cutting.

A) –stomy B) –ectomy C) –tomy D) –pathy Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Surgical or Procedure Processes Learning Objective: 03.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37) Identify the suffix for softening.

A) –dynia B) –malacia C) –stasis D) –penia Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) Identify the suffix for deficiency.

A) –trophy B) –plasty C) –penia D) –lysis Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) Identify the suffix for enlargement.

A) –megaly B) –sclerosis C) –lysis D) –stomy Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40) Identify the suffix for breakdown or destruction.

A) –lysis B) –trophy C) –tomy D) –osis Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Surgical or Procedure Processes Learning Objective: 03.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) Identify the suffix for drooping.

A) –statis B) –cele C) –ptosis D) –oma Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) Identify the suffix for stopping.

A) –stasis B) –oma C) –plasia D) –cyte Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43) Identify the suffix for tumor.

A) –oma B) –plasia C) –ectasis D) –tripsy Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) Identify the suffix for expanding.

A) –trophy B) –ectasis C) –emesis D) –tripsy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) Identify the suffix for to form a new opening.

A) –stenosis B) –stomy C) –oid D) –stosis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Surgical or Procedure Processes Learning Objective: 03.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46) Identify the suffix for resembling.

A) –oid B) –emesis C) –stosis D) –plasia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) Identify the suffix for discharge.

A) –tocia B) –rrhea C) –logy D) –lepsy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) Identify the suffix labor or birth.

A) –tocia B) –gravida C) –parous D) –logy Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49) Identify the suffix for to practice.

A) –logy B) –pathy C) –gensis D) –praxia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) Identify the suffix for turning.

A) –version B) –pnea C) –sthenia D) –malacia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) Identify the suffix for numbness.

A) –phasia B) –paresis C) –plegia D) –algia Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52) Identify the suffix for speech.

A) –lexia B) –phasia C) –malacia D) –phage Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) Identify the suffix for lessening in density.

A) –malacia B) –porosis C) –philia D) –lepsy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) Identify the suffix for eating.

A) –phage B) –pnea C) –penia D) –paresis Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55) Identify the suffix for rupture.

A) –pnea B) –osmia C) –otia D) –rrhexis Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) Identify the suffix for breathing.

A) –pnea B) –philia C) –oma D) –emesis Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) Identify the suffix for decrease in cell numbers.

A) –penia B) –opia C) –plegia D) –clast Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58) Identify the suffix for vision.

A) –osis B) –ptosis C) –stenosis D) –opia Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) Identify the suffix for growing.

A) –stenosis B) –physis C) –clast D) –opia Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) Identify the suffix for immature tumor.

A) –oma B) –ptosis C) –blastoma D) –malacia Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61) Identify the suffix for narrowing.

A) –opia B) –stenosis C) –blast D) –phage Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) Identify the suffix for lack of strength.

A) –leptic B) –mania C) –stenia D) –asthenia Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) Identify the suffix for view of.

A) –phil B) –genic C) –opsy D) –gen Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64) Identify the suffix for feeling.

A) –phoria B) –mania C) –leptic D) –pnea Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Sensation and Feelings Learning Objective: 03.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) Identify the suffix for breaking.

A) –blast B) –clasis C) –opia D) –pnea Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) Identify the suffix for urine.

A) –uria B) –emia C) –ectomy D) –phage Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67) The suffix for skin is

.

Answer: derma Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) The suffix for blood is

.

Answer: emia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) The suffix -oxia identifies:

.

Answer: oxygen Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) The suffix –globulin identifies:

.

Answer: protein Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71) An excision or removal is a(an)

.

Answer: ectomy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Surgical or Procedure Processes Learning Objective: 03.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) A substance that produces or causes is a

.

Answer: poietin Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Processes Learning Objective: 03.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) An instrument used for a visual examination is a(n) Answer: scope Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) An erythrocyte is a(n)

.

Answer: red blood cell Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Conditions or Symptoms Learning Objective: 03.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

75) separation.

is the percentage of volume of a blood sample that is composed of cells after

Answer: hematocrit Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Pathology or Diagnosis Learning Objective: 03.07 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 76) A bone cell is a(n)

.

Answer: osteocyte Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77) A red blood cell is a(n)

.

Answer: erythrocyte Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 78) A lack of oxygen is

.

Answer: anoxia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

79) The study of skin disorders is

.

Answer: Dermatology Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 80) Intentional breaking of a bone is

.

Answer: osteoclasis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 81) Turning backward is

.

Answer: retroversion Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 82) An instrument used to view small objects is a Answer: microscope Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Additional Miscellaneous Medical Suffixes Learning Objective: 03.08 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

83) Pus in the urine is

.

Answer: pyuria Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Suffixes Related to Body Parts or Chemical Elements Learning Objective: 03.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 4 The Human Body: An Orientation 1) Cells do not include which of the following?

A) cell membrane B) nucleus C) cytoplasm D) cystoplasm 2) Tendons are a type of: A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) nerve tissue 3) The system that secretes hormones is the A) endocrine system.

B) cardiovascular system.

C) lymphatic system.

D) immune system.

4) The system that controls excretion of fluid waste is the A) sensory system.

B) blood system.

C) digestive system.

D) urinary system.

5) The heart is located in the A) abdominal cavity.

B) pelvic cavity.

C) thoracic cavity.

D) cranial cavity.

6) The area just below the umbilical region is the A) hypochondriac B) hypogastric C) epigastric D) iliac 7) The stomach is A) Distal B) Proximal C) Inferior D) Superior

to the large intestine.

8) The term pertaining to the navel is A) hypochondriac.

B) epigastric.

C) umbilical.

D) iliac.

9) The liver is best described as a(n) A) cell.

B) tissue.

C) system.

D) organ.

10) Groups of tissues that work together to perform a specific function are A) cells.

B) organs.

C) systems.

D) tissues.

11) This tissue covers the internal and external body surfaces.

A) epithelial B) connective C) nerve D) cardiovascular 12) The term pertaining to the abdomen and chest is A) abdominopelvic.

B) abdominothoracic.

C) craniothoracic.

D) pelvothoracic.

13) The A) Diaphragm B) Abdominal C) Thoracic D) Cranial

muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

14) The urinary system would NOT include which of the following?

A) Kidneys B) Ureters C) Liver D) Bladder 15) The body system that secretes hormones to regulate the body's activities is the A) sensory B) cardiovascular C) lymphatic D) endocrine

16) Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the right upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity?

A) Appendix B) Kidney C) Liver D) Spleen 17) Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the sternum?

A) Epigastric B) Hypochondriac C) Hypogastric D) Lumbar 18) Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?

A) Abdominal and pelvic B) Cranial and spinal C) Dorsal and ventral D) Abdominal and thoracic 19) The area above the stomach is called: A) epigastrick B) epigastric C) hypogastrick D) hypogastric 20) The term for the area around the navel is: A) umbilikal B) umilicale C) umbilical D) ummbilikal 21) This muscle divides the abdominal and thoracic cavities: A) diaphragm B) diafram C) pelvic D) pelvik 22) The spinal and cranial cavities make up what cavity?

A) Ventral B) Dorsal C) Pelvic D) Thoracic

23) The system that breaks down food is known as the A) Endocrine B) Respiratory C) Digestive D) Cardiovascular

system.

24) plane divides the body into anterior and posterior positions.

A) Midsagittal B) Frontal C) Lateral D) Transverse 25) The A) Frontal B) Midsagittal C) Coronal D) Transverse

plane divides the body into left and right halves.

26) RUQ stands for:

.

27) The hip bone joins the A) Proximal B) Distal C) Lateral D) Medial

end of the thighbone.

28) The body space above the abdominal cavity is the

cavity.

29) Movement including contracting and relaxing is performed by 30) Messages are transmitted by A) Muscle B) Nerve C) Epithelial D) Connective 31) The brain is contained within the

tissue.

cavity.

32) The major cavity in the front of the body is the A) Ventral B) Dorsal C) Thoracic D) Abdominal

cavity.

tissue.

33) The major cavity in the back of the body is the A) Ventral B) Dorsal C) Thoracic D) Abdominal

cavity.

34) The area of the body immediately above the umbilical region is the 35) Lying on the spine facing upward is the

region.

position.

36) Lying on the stomach facing downward is the

position

37) The client has a superficial cut on her finger. The health care provider understands this is .

A) Deep B) Near the surface C) On the side of the finger D) On the back of the finger 38) The organs.

system is responsible for sending and receiving messages from the sensory

39) The nurse explains to the patient the gallbladder is in the A) Right upper B) Right lower C) Left upper D) Left lower

quadrant.

40) The nurse assesses the for the spleen which is located in this quadrant A) Right upper B) Right lower C) Left upper D) Left lower

.

41) The patient states he is having pain in his low back. This is what region?

A) Lumbar B) Inguinal C) Epigastric D) Umbilical 42) The nurse identifies the patient's appendix may be inflamed if the patient is having pain in which quadrant?

A) Right upper B) Right lower C) Left upper D) Left lower

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 4 The Human Body: An Orientation 1) Cells do not include which of the following?

A) cell membrane B) nucleus C) cytoplasm D) cystoplasm Answer: D Explanation: The three basic parts of the cell include the cell membrane, nucleus, and cytoplasm Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Tendons are a type of: A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) nerve tissue Answer: B Explanation: Connective tissue holds and connects body parts. Tendons are made of connective tissue.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3) The system that secretes hormones is the A) endocrine system.

B) cardiovascular system.

C) lymphatic system.

D) immune system.

Answer: A Explanation: The endocrine system includes glands that secrete hormones that regulate many of the body's activities.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 4) The system that controls excretion of fluid waste is the A) sensory system.

B) blood system.

C) digestive system.

D) urinary system.

Answer: D Explanation: The urinary system eliminates metabolic waste, helps to maintain acid–base and water–salt balance, and helps regulate blood pressure.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The heart is located in the A) abdominal cavity.

B) pelvic cavity.

C) thoracic cavity.

D) cranial cavity.

Answer: C Explanation: The heart is in the thoracic cavity, which also holds the lungs and major blood vessels.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Cavities Learning Objective: 04.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6) The area just below the umbilical region is the A) hypochondriac B) hypogastric C) epigastric D) iliac Answer: B Explanation: The hypogastric region is just below the umbilical region.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 7) The stomach is A) Distal B) Proximal C) Inferior D) Superior

to the large intestine.

Answer: D Explanation: The stomach is above the large intestine.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) The term pertaining to the navel is A) hypochondriac.

B) epigastric.

C) umbilical.

D) iliac.

Answer: C Explanation: Umbilical is the term that refers to the navel area.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9) The liver is best described as a(n) A) cell.

B) tissue.

C) system.

D) organ.

Answer: D Explanation: Groups of tissues that work together to perform a specific function are organs.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 10) Groups of tissues that work together to perform a specific function are A) cells.

B) organs.

C) systems.

D) tissues.

Answer: B Explanation: Groups of tissues that work together to perform a specific function is are organs.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) This tissue covers the internal and external body surfaces.

A) epithelial B) connective C) nerve D) cardiovascular Answer: A Explanation: The epithelial tissue covers the internal and external body surfaces.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12) The term pertaining to the abdomen and chest is A) abdominopelvic.

B) abdominothoracic.

C) craniothoracic.

D) pelvothoracic.

Answer: B Explanation: Abdomino refers to the abdomen and thoracic refers to chest.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Body Cavities Learning Objective: 04.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 13) The A) Diaphragm B) Abdominal C) Thoracic D) Cranial

muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

Answer: A Explanation: The diaphragm is the muscle separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Cavities Learning Objective: 04.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) The urinary system would NOT include which of the following?

A) Kidneys B) Ureters C) Liver D) Bladder Answer: C Explanation: The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. The liver is found in the digestive system Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15) The body system that secretes hormones to regulate the body's activities is the A) sensory B) cardiovascular C) lymphatic D) endocrine Answer: D Explanation: The system that includes the glands that secrete the hormones that regulate many of the body's activities is the endocrine system.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 16) Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the right upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity?

A) Appendix B) Kidney C) Liver D) Spleen Answer: C Explanation: The liver is located beneath the diaphragm in the right upper quadrant.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the sternum?

A) Epigastric B) Hypochondriac C) Hypogastric D) Lumbar Answer: A Explanation: The epigastric region lies distal to the sternum.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18) Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?

A) Abdominal and pelvic B) Cranial and spinal C) Dorsal and ventral D) Abdominal and thoracic Answer: D Explanation: The diaphragm divides the abdominal and thoracic cavities.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 19) The area above the stomach is called: A) epigastrick B) epigastric C) hypogastrick D) hypogastric Answer: B Explanation: The epigastric area is above the stomach.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) The term for the area around the navel is: A) umbilikal B) umilicale C) umbilical D) ummbilikal Answer: C Explanation: The umbilical area is located around the navel.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21) This muscle divides the abdominal and thoracic cavities: A) diaphragm B) diafram C) pelvic D) pelvik Answer: A Explanation: The diaphragm divides the abdominal and thoracic cavities.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 22) The spinal and cranial cavities make up what cavity?

A) Ventral B) Dorsal C) Pelvic D) Thoracic Answer: B Explanation: The dorsal cavity is divided into the cranial and spinal cavities.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) The system that breaks down food is known as the A) Endocrine B) Respiratory C) Digestive D) Cardiovascular

system.

Answer: C Explanation: The digestive system is responsible for breaking down food.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24) plane divides the body into anterior and posterior positions.

A) Midsagittal B) Frontal C) Lateral D) Transverse Answer: B Explanation: The frontal or coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior positions.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 25) The A) Frontal B) Midsagittal C) Coronal D) Transverse

plane divides the body into left and right halves.

Answer: B Explanation: The midsagittal plane is the imaginary line that divides the body into equal right and left halves.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) RUQ stands for:

.

Answer: right upper quadrant Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27) The hip bone joins the A) Proximal B) Distal C) Lateral D) Medial

end of the thighbone.

Answer: A Explanation: The hip bone is proximal to the thighbone Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 28) The body space above the abdominal cavity is the

cavity.

Answer: thoracic Explanation: The thoracic cavity is above the abdominal cavity Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Cavities Learning Objective: 04.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Movement including contracting and relaxing is performed by

tissue.

Answer: muscle Explanation: Muscle tissue contracts and expands which allows the body to move.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30) Messages are transmitted by A) Muscle B) Nerve C) Epithelial D) Connective

tissue.

Answer: B Explanation: The nervous system regulates body activities and sends and receives messages.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 31) The brain is contained within the

cavity.

Answer: cranial Explanation: The cranial cavity holds the brain.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Cavities Learning Objective: 04.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) The major cavity in the front of the body is the A) Ventral B) Dorsal C) Thoracic D) Abdominal

cavity.

Answer: A Explanation: The ventral cavity is on the front side of the body Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Cavities Learning Objective: 04.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33) The major cavity in the back of the body is the A) Ventral B) Dorsal C) Thoracic D) Abdominal

cavity.

Answer: B Explanation: The dorsal cavity is on the back side of the body.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Cavities Learning Objective: 04.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 34) The area of the body immediately above the umbilical region is the Answer: epigastric Explanation: The epigastric region is the area above the umbilical.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) Lying on the spine facing upward is the

position.

Answer: supine Explanation: Supine is lying on the spine facing upward Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) Lying on the stomach facing downward is the

position

Answer: prone Explanation: Prone is lying on the abdomen facing downward.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

region.

37) The client has a superficial cut on her finger. The health care provider understands this is .

A) Deep B) Near the surface C) On the side of the finger D) On the back of the finger Answer: B Explanation: Superficial is near the surface Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) The organs.

system is responsible for sending and receiving messages from the sensory

Answer: Nervous Explanation: The nervous system regulates most body activities and sends and receives messages from the sensory organs.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Body Structure and Organization Learning Objective: 04.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The nurse explains to the patient the gallbladder is in the A) Right upper B) Right lower C) Left upper D) Left lower

quadrant.

Answer: A Explanation: The right upper quadrant contains the liver, gallbladder, pancreas and part of the intestinal tract.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40) The nurse assesses the for the spleen which is located in this quadrant A) Right upper B) Right lower C) Left upper D) Left lower

.

Answer: C Explanation: The left upper quadrant contains the stomach, spleen and parts of the liver, pancreas and intestines.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) The patient states he is having pain in his low back. This is what region?

A) Lumbar B) Inguinal C) Epigastric D) Umbilical Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) The nurse identifies the patient's appendix may be inflamed if the patient is having pain in which quadrant?

A) Right upper B) Right lower C) Left upper D) Left lower Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Directional Terms, Planes, and Regions Learning Objective: 04.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 5 The Integumentary System 1) The oil-producing glands are the A) sebaceous glands B) sweat glands C) sudoriferous glands D) apocrine glands 2) The middle layer of skin is called the A) subcutaneous B) corium C) dermis D) epidermis 3) The epidermis does not include which of the following?

A) stratified squamous epithelium B) stratum corneum C) stratum germinativum D) lunula 4) The dermis includes A) connective tissue B) adipose tissue C) the pores D) hairs 5) Nails are made of A) lunula B) cuticles C) keratin D) adipose 6) Exocrine glands A) do not secrete B) secrete outward C) only appear after puberty D) are only located in the hypodermis 7) An antigen contains A) allergens B) exudate C) sweat D) pus

8) It is suspected the patient has tuberculosis. Upon the provider's order, the nurse will administer which of the following tests?

A) Schick test B) patch test C) Mantoux test D) scratch test 9) A type of primary lesion is a(n) A) erosion B) angioma C) vesicle D) keloid 10) A type of secondary lesion is a A) nodule B) crust C) tumor D) wheal 11) A type of vascular lesion is a(n) A) ecchymosis B) fissure C) bulla D) vesicle 12) A pilonidal cyst contains A) blood B) sebum C) hair D) ulcers 13) German measles is a rash caused by A) rosacea B) rubella C) rubeola D) varicella 14) Chicken pox is a rash caused by A) roseola B) varicella C) rubella D) rosacea

15) A type of vascular disorder is A) furuncles B) carbuncles C) rosacea D) pruritus 16) Herpes viruses can cause A) cold sores B) chicken pox C) pilonidal cysts D) vascular cyst 17) The overproduction of sebum can cause A) seborrhea B) burns C) lupus D) vitiligo 18) A type of skin cancer is A) onychia B) keratosis C) melanoma D) scabies 19) A graft that uses skin from one's own body is a(n) A) autograft B) allograft C) heterograft D) xenograft 20) Identify the combining form for adip/o A) skin B) sweat C) fungus D) fatty 21) Match the combining form for dermat/o.

A) Fungus B) Hair C) Skin D) Black 22) Match the combining form for hidr/o.

A) Horney tissue B) Black C) Nail D) Sweat

23) Match the combining form for ichthy/o.

A) Skin B) Sweat C) Fish, scaly D) Yellow 24) Match the combining form for kerat/o.

A) Dry B) Horney tissue C) Hair D) Sebum 25) Match the combing form for pil/o.

A) Nail B) Hair C) Dry D) Skin 26) Match the combining form for myc/o.

A) Fungus B) Black C) Sweat D) Nail 27) Match the combining form for melan/o.

A) Nail B) Hair C) Black D) Fatty 28) The prefix pertaining to fingernail is A) OnychB) OncoC) TrichD) Xer29) A teenage patient has skin eruptions on his face and upper back. The nurse recognizes this as: A) Scleroderma B) Acne C) Psoriasis D) Seborrhea

30) The medical assistant identifies the fatty tissue as: A) Striae B) Adipose C) Squamous D) Epithelium 31) Excessive production of sebum is know as: A) Scleroderma B) Acne C) Anhidrosis D) Seborrhea 32) This is a malignant cancer of the basal layers of the epidermis: A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Malignant melanoma C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) Basal cell carcinoma 33) A large blister is a(n): A) Erosion B) Fissure C) Bulla D) Cyst 34) Exposure of the skin to heat, chemicals, or electricity may result in: A) Burns B) Onychitis C) Paronychia D) Fissures 35) The client has been exposed to mites. The health care provider would assess what area of the body for eruptions?

A) Fingers B) Hair C) Axillae D) Forearm 36) The health care provider identifies a localized pus-producing infection that originated in a hair follicle as a: A) Carbuncle B) Furuncle C) Abscess D) Roseola

37) This narrow band of epidermis surrounds the nail.

A) Lunula B) Epilation C) Depilation D) Cuticle 38) This is the surgical repair of skin: A) Dermatology B) Dermatoplasty C) Allograft D) Autograft 39) The patient is sweating profusely. This would be documented as: A) Ceruminous B) Diaphoresis C) Keratitis D) Dermatitis.

40) The patient has a large bluish-purple area on her arm. This is documented as: A) Petechiae B) Purpura C) Rosacea D) Ecchymosis 41) Acute form of dermatitis is: A) Urticarial B) Hives C) Candidiasis D) Eczema 42) A deep furrow or crack in the skin is a(n): A) Erosion B) Fissure C) Bulla D) Cyst 43) An inflamed hair follicle is known as: A) Carbuncle B) Furuncle C) Gangrene D) Folliculitis 44) What occurs with necrosis?

A) Tissue erosion B) Tissue death C) Tissue inflammation D) Tissue infection

45) This is due to chronic pressure on the skin over bony parts.

A) Scales B) Fissure C) Erosion D) Decubitus 46) Another term for pus is: A) Exudate B) Pruritus C) Hidrosis D) Furuncle 47) The patient states he cannot stop itching. How will this be documented?

A) Urticaria B) Ecchymosis C) Pruritus D) Petechiae 48) A blackhead is A) Furuncle B) Carbuncle C) Comedo D) Eczema 49) This is a firm raised mass of scar tissue.

A) Scale B) Keloid C) Wheal D) Bulla 50) A polyp is a: A) Freckle B) Small elevated mass C) Mass that projects upward D) Small patch on the skin.

51) Cutting of tissue for microscopic examination is a/an: A) Biopsy B) Mohs C) Plastic surgery D) Curettage

52) This is a contagious skin disorder often caused by staphylococci: A) Tinea B) Ringworm C) Impetigo D) Eczema 53) Athlete's foot is caused by what type of infection?

A) Viral B) Fungus C) Bacterial D) Internal 54) A plantar wart occurs where?

A) Hand B) Foot C) Head D) Trunk 55) Shingles are a result of: A) Tinea infestation B) Mites C) Scabies D) Herpes 56) Measles is also known as A) Rosacea B) Rubeola C) Rubella D) Varicella 57) The physician may order what type of agent to control itching?

58) The skin includes the body's sensors for sensations and 59) The largest body organ is the

.

.

60) The cells in the stratum corneum die off and fill with

.

61) The excretion of waste material through the skin is through 62) The topmost layer of skin is the

.

63) The cells that help determine skin color are 64) The bottom sublayer of the epidermis is the stratum 65) Hair grows out of the

.

.

. .

66) The study, diagnosis, and treatment of skin disorders is/are 67) A freckle is an area of discoloration known as a 68) A papule is a small, elevated

.

.

.

69) The cutting of tissue for microscopic examination is a(n) 70) When collagen fibers stretch, they form

.

or stretch marks.

71) The patient has a rash on her left arm. The nurse anticipates the physician will order .

72) Seborrheic dermatitis is also known as 73) Comedones are also called

.

.

74) This disease is characterized by abnormal thickening of the skin 75) Excessive production of sebum is due to A) overactive sebaceous glands B) underactive sebaceous glands C) recurrent skin conditions D) multiple skin eruptions

.

76) Pediculosis is an inflammation caused by A) insects B) fungi C) viruses D) bacteria

.

77) The nurse identifies an inflammation in the nail as A) Blackheads B) Onychitis C) Psoriasis D) Onychopathy 78) The most common noncancerous neoplasms are a(n) A) callus B) basil cell carcinoma C) keratosis D) alopecia areata 79) A hard, thickened area of skin is a(n)

.

.

.

.

80) The health care provider identifies a thickening of skin on the toe as a(n)

.

81) The health care provider who assists the physician with the use of brushes to remove wrinkles is assisting with: .

82) The scraping of dead tissue is curettage or

.

83) Burning wounds to control bleeding is

.

84) An agent that decreases inflammation is a(n) 85) An agent that adds oils to skin is a(n)

. .

86) The medical assistant notices the patient has inflammation in the nail fold and documents this as: .

87) The medical assistant assist the physician in the application of cold liquid nitrogen or .

88) The teenage patient has very oily skin. The health care provider anticipates the physician ordering an over-the-counter .

89) The client states that he has concerns regarding his baldness. Baldness would be documented as: .

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 5 The Integumentary System 1) The oil-producing glands are the A) sebaceous glands B) sweat glands C) sudoriferous glands D) apocrine glands Answer: A Explanation: Oil producing glands are sebaceous. Sweat glands are sudoriferous glands or apocrine glands Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) The middle layer of skin is called the A) subcutaneous B) corium C) dermis D) epidermis Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3) The epidermis does not include which of the following?

A) stratified squamous epithelium B) stratum corneum C) stratum germinativum D) lunula Answer: D Explanation: The epidermis is made of up of the stratified squamous epithelium, stratum corneum, and the stratum germinativum. Lunula is the whitish half-moon within the nail.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 4) The dermis includes A) connective tissue B) adipose tissue C) the pores D) hairs Answer: A Explanation: The dermis contains connective tissue.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) Nails are made of A) lunula B) cuticles C) keratin D) adipose Answer: C Explanation: Nails are made of hard keratin.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6) Exocrine glands A) do not secrete B) secrete outward C) only appear after puberty D) are only located in the hypodermis Answer: B Explanation: Exocrine glands secrete outward only.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 7) An antigen contains A) allergens B) exudate C) sweat D) pus Answer: A Explanation: The antigen is the substance that contains the allergen.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 05.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) It is suspected the patient has tuberculosis. Upon the provider's order, the nurse will administer which of the following tests?

A) Schick test B) patch test C) Mantoux test D) scratch test Answer: C Explanation: The Mantoux test is the skin screening test for tuberculosis.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 05.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9) A type of primary lesion is a(n) A) erosion B) angioma C) vesicle D) keloid Answer: C Explanation: A vesicle is a primary lesion and is a mass which contains pus.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 10) A type of secondary lesion is a A) nodule B) crust C) tumor D) wheal Answer: B Explanation: A crust is a secondary lesion resulting from dried pus or blood on the surface of the skin.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) A type of vascular lesion is a(n) A) ecchymosis B) fissure C) bulla D) vesicle Answer: A Explanation: Ecchymosis is a bluish-purple skin mark related to an injury that can cause blood to leak out of blood vessels.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12) A pilonidal cyst contains A) blood B) sebum C) hair D) ulcers Answer: C Explanation: A pilonidal cyst contains hair.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 13) German measles is a rash caused by A) rosacea B) rubella C) rubeola D) varicella Answer: B Explanation: German measles is a disease caused by a rash due to rubella virus.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Chicken pox is a rash caused by A) roseola B) varicella C) rubella D) rosacea Answer: B Explanation: Varicella is a virus known to cause chickenpox.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15) A type of vascular disorder is A) furuncles B) carbuncles C) rosacea D) pruritus Answer: C Explanation: Rosacea is a vascular disorder that appears as red blotches on the skin around the nose and cheeks.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 16) Herpes viruses can cause A) cold sores B) chicken pox C) pilonidal cysts D) vascular cyst Answer: A Explanation: Herpes virus can cause a cold sore, fever blister, or shingles.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) The overproduction of sebum can cause A) seborrhea B) burns C) lupus D) vitiligo Answer: A Explanation: Seborrhea is excessive production of sebum.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Integumentary System Learning Objective: 05.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18) A type of skin cancer is A) onychia B) keratosis C) melanoma D) scabies Answer: C Explanation: Melanoma is a skin cancer.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 19) A graft that uses skin from one's own body is a(n) A) autograft B) allograft C) heterograft D) xenograft Answer: A Explanation: An autograft uses skin from one's own body.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Identify the combining form for adip/o A) skin B) sweat C) fungus D) fatty Answer: D Explanation: Adip/o is the combining term for fatty.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21) Match the combining form for dermat/o.

A) Fungus B) Hair C) Skin D) Black Answer: C Explanation: Dermat/o is the combining term for skin.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 22) Match the combining form for hidr/o.

A) Horney tissue B) Black C) Nail D) Sweat Answer: D Explanation: Hidr/o is the combining term for sweat.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Match the combining form for ichthy/o.

A) Skin B) Sweat C) Fish, scaly D) Yellow Answer: C Explanation: Ichthy/o is the combining term for fish or scaly.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24) Match the combining form for kerat/o.

A) Dry B) Horney tissue C) Hair D) Sebum Answer: B Explanation: Kerat/o is the combining term for horny tissue.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 25) Match the combing form for pil/o.

A) Nail B) Hair C) Dry D) Skin Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Match the combining form for myc/o.

A) Fungus B) Black C) Sweat D) Nail Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27) Match the combining form for melan/o.

A) Nail B) Hair C) Black D) Fatty Answer: C Explanation: Melan/o is the combining term for black.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 28) The prefix pertaining to fingernail is A) OnychB) OncoC) TrichD) XerAnswer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) A teenage patient has skin eruptions on his face and upper back. The nurse recognizes this as: A) Scleroderma B) Acne C) Psoriasis D) Seborrhea Answer: B Explanation: Acne vulgaris is a skin condition with eruptions on the face and upper back. It usually begins in puberty.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30) The medical assistant identifies the fatty tissue as: A) Striae B) Adipose C) Squamous D) Epithelium Answer: B Explanation: Adipose tissue is the fatty tissue within the subcutaneous layer of the skin.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 31) Excessive production of sebum is know as: A) Scleroderma B) Acne C) Anhidrosis D) Seborrhea Answer: D Explanation: Anhidrosis is the inability to sweat.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) This is a malignant cancer of the basal layers of the epidermis: A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Malignant melanoma C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) Basal cell carcinoma Answer: B Explanation: Basal cell carcinoma is a malignant cancer of the basal layers of the epidermis.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33) A large blister is a(n): A) Erosion B) Fissure C) Bulla D) Cyst Answer: C Explanation: A large blister is a bulla.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 34) Exposure of the skin to heat, chemicals, or electricity may result in: A) Burns B) Onychitis C) Paronychia D) Fissures Answer: A Explanation: Burns are due to exposure of the skin to heat, chemicals, electricity, radiation, or other irritants.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The client has been exposed to mites. The health care provider would assess what area of the body for eruptions?

A) Fingers B) Hair C) Axillae D) Forearm Answer: A Explanation: Scabies is a contagious skin eruption that occurs between fingers, areas on the trunk, and in the male genitalia due to mites.

Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36) The health care provider identifies a localized pus-producing infection that originated in a hair follicle as a: A) Carbuncle B) Furuncle C) Abscess D) Roseola Answer: B Explanation: A furuncle originates in a hair follicle.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 37) This narrow band of epidermis surrounds the nail.

A) Lunula B) Epilation C) Depilation D) Cuticle Answer: D Explanation: The cuticle is a narrow band of epidermis that surrounds the nail.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) This is the surgical repair of skin: A) Dermatology B) Dermatoplasty C) Allograft D) Autograft Answer: B Explanation: Dermatoplasty is the surgical repair of skin.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39) The patient is sweating profusely. This would be documented as: A) Ceruminous B) Diaphoresis C) Keratitis D) Dermatitis.

Answer: B Explanation: Diaphoresis is the process of sweating profusely.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 40) The patient has a large bluish-purple area on her arm. This is documented as: A) Petechiae B) Purpura C) Rosacea D) Ecchymosis Answer: D Explanation: Ecchymosis is a bluish-purple skin mark that is due to blood leaking out of vessels.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) Acute form of dermatitis is: A) Urticarial B) Hives C) Candidiasis D) Eczema Answer: D Explanation: Eczema is an acute form of dermatitis often caused by allergies.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42) A deep furrow or crack in the skin is a(n): A) Erosion B) Fissure C) Bulla D) Cyst Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) An inflamed hair follicle is known as: A) Carbuncle B) Furuncle C) Gangrene D) Folliculitis Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) What occurs with necrosis?

A) Tissue erosion B) Tissue death C) Tissue inflammation D) Tissue infection Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45) This is due to chronic pressure on the skin over bony parts.

A) Scales B) Fissure C) Erosion D) Decubitus Answer: D Explanation: A decubitus is also known as a pressure ulcer.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 46) Another term for pus is: A) Exudate B) Pruritus C) Hidrosis D) Furuncle Answer: A Explanation: Exudate is pus.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The patient states he cannot stop itching. How will this be documented?

A) Urticaria B) Ecchymosis C) Pruritus D) Petechiae Answer: C Explanation: Pruritus is intense itching.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48) A blackhead is A) Furuncle B) Carbuncle C) Comedo D) Eczema Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) This is a firm raised mass of scar tissue.

A) Scale B) Keloid C) Wheal D) Bulla Answer: B Explanation: A keloid is a firm raised mass of scar tissue.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) A polyp is a: A) Freckle B) Small elevated mass C) Mass that projects upward D) Small patch on the skin.

Answer: C Explanation: A polyp is a mass that projects upward.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51) Cutting of tissue for microscopic examination is a/an: A) Biopsy B) Mohs C) Plastic surgery D) Curettage Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) This is a contagious skin disorder often caused by staphylococci: A) Tinea B) Ringworm C) Impetigo D) Eczema Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) Athlete's foot is caused by what type of infection?

A) Viral B) Fungus C) Bacterial D) Internal Answer: B Explanation: Tinea pedis is caused by a fungus.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54) A plantar wart occurs where?

A) Hand B) Foot C) Head D) Trunk Answer: B Explanation: Plantar warts occur on the soles of the feet Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) Shingles are a result of: A) Tinea infestation B) Mites C) Scabies D) Herpes Answer: D Explanation: The herpes virus is responsible for shingles.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) Measles is also known as A) Rosacea B) Rubeola C) Rubella D) Varicella Answer: B Explanation: Rubeola is measles with a rash.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57) The physician may order what type of agent to control itching?

Answer: Antipruritic Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 05.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 3-5 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 58) The skin includes the body's sensors for sensations and

.

Answer: pain Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) The largest body organ is the

.

Answer: skin Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) The cells in the stratum corneum die off and fill with

.

Answer: keratin Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61) The excretion of waste material through the skin is through

.

Answer: pores Explanation: Secretions exit the body through pores or tiny openings in the skin surface Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) The topmost layer of skin is the

.

Answer: epidermis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) The cells that help determine skin color are

.

Answer: melanocytes Explanation: Melanocytes produce pigment called melanin.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 64) The bottom sublayer of the epidermis is the stratum

.

Answer: germinativum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65) Hair grows out of the

.

Answer: follicle Explanation: Hair grows upward from the root through the follicle.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) The study, diagnosis, and treatment of skin disorders is/are

.

Answer: dermatology Explanation: The field of dermatology studies, diagnoses, and treats ailments of the skin.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 05.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) A freckle is an area of discoloration known as a Answer: macule Explanation: A freckle is a macule or area of discoloration.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) A papule is a small, elevated Answer: mass Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

.

69) The cutting of tissue for microscopic examination is a(n)

.

Answer: biopsy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) When collagen fibers stretch, they form

or stretch marks.

Answer: striae Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) The patient has a rash on her left arm. The nurse anticipates the physician will order .

Answer: antihistamines Explanation: Antihistamines are medications used to control allergic skin reactions.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 05.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) Seborrheic dermatitis is also known as

.

Answer: dandruff Explanation: Seborrheic dermatitis are scaly eruptions on the face and scalp, is due to the overproduction of seborrhea.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

73) Comedones are also called

.

Answer: blackheads Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) This disease is characterized by abnormal thickening of the skin

.

Answer: scleroderma Explanation: Scleroderma is a chronic disease with abnormal thickening of the skin caused by the formation of new collagen.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) Excessive production of sebum is due to A) overactive sebaceous glands B) underactive sebaceous glands C) recurrent skin conditions D) multiple skin eruptions

.

Answer: A Explanation: Seborrhea is due to overactive sebaceous glands.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

76) Pediculosis is an inflammation caused by A) insects B) fungi C) viruses D) bacteria

.

Answer: A Explanation: Pediculoses are skin conditions caused by insects.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77) The nurse identifies an inflammation in the nail as A) Blackheads B) Onychitis C) Psoriasis D) Onychopathy

.

Answer: B Explanation: Onych- is nail and -itis is inflammation.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 78) The most common noncancerous neoplasms are a(n) A) callus B) basil cell carcinoma C) keratosis D) alopecia areata Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

79) A hard, thickened area of skin is a(n)

.

Answer: callus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 80) The health care provider identifies a thickening of skin on the toe as a(n)

.

Answer: corn Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 81) The health care provider who assists the physician with the use of brushes to remove wrinkles is assisting with: .

Answer: dermabrasion Explanation: Dermabrasion is the use of brushes and emery papers to remove scars, wrinkles and tattoos.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 82) The scraping of dead tissue is curettage or Answer: debridement Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

.

83) Burning wounds to control bleeding is

.

Answer: cauterization Explanation: Cauterization is the burning of an area to stop bleeding.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 84) An agent that decreases inflammation is a(n)

.

Answer: Anti-inflammatory Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 05.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 85) An agent that adds oils to skin is a(n)

.

Answer: emollient Explanation: Emollients are agents that moisten the skin by adding oils to it.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 05.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 86) The medical assistant notices the patient has inflammation in the nail fold and documents this as: .

Answer: Paronychia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 05.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

87) The medical assistant assist the physician in the application of cold liquid nitrogen or .

Answer: cryosurgery Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 88) The teenage patient has very oily skin. The health care provider anticipates the physician ordering an over-the-counter .

Answer: astringent Explanation: Astringents temporarily lessen the formation of oily material on the surface of the skin.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 05.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 89) The client states that he has concerns regarding his baldness. Baldness would be documented as: .

Answer: alopecia Explanation: Alopecia occurs when the hair falls out.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Major Terms Describing the Structure and Function of the Skin and Body Membranes Learning Objective: 05.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 6 The Musculoskeletal System 1) When bone tissue dies, it is absorbed by: A) Osteoblasts B) Osteoclasts C) Osseous tissue D) Osteocytes 2) Bone marrow is not important in the creation of: A) WBCs. B) platelets.

C) RBCs. D) cerebral fluid.

3) The lower jawbone is known as the: A) Maxillary B) Mandible C) Lacrimal D) Nasal 4) The main bone of the thigh is the: A) Humus B) Ulna C) Tibia D) Femur 5) Voluntary muscles are what type of muscle?

A) Striated B) Cardiac C) Visceral D) Fascia 6) The humerus attaches to what?

A) Radius B) Scapula C) Thorax D) Sternum 7) Bands of fibrous tissue that connect muscles to bones are: A) Tendon B) Ligament C) Cartilage D) Fascia

1

8) Below the thoracic cavity is what area?

A) Cranial B) Chest C) Pelvic D) Cardiac 9) A joint, or a point where two bones meet, is known as a (an): A) Acromion B) Articulation C) Bursa D) Tendon 10) A physician who focuses on treating disorders of the foot is a(n): A) Osteopath B) Rheumatologist C) Podiatrist D) Chiropractor 11) A graphic image of the electrical activity of muscles is a(n): A) Discography B) Myelography C) Electromyogram D) Bone scan 12) A test that can be used to detect gout is: A) Serum calcium B) Creatine phosphokinase C) Uric acid D) Serum phosphorus 13) A goniometer measures the movement in: A) joints.

B) bones.

C) muscles.

D) connective tissue.

14) A closed fracture is best described as a fracture of the bone with A) an open wound.

B) a shattered bone.

C) no open wound.

D) bent bone.

15) A compound fracture is a best described as break in a bone with: A) An open wound B) A shattered bone C) No open wound D) Bent bone 2

16) Muscles that contract abnormally in disease such as multiple sclerosis are: A) Flaccid B) Spastic C) Rigid D) Rigorous 17) Osteomyelitis may be cause by a: A) Inflammation B) Infection C) Arthritis D) Crepitus 18) A wasting away of tissue, organs or cells, usually the result of disease or loss of blood supply, is known as: A) Hypertrophy B) Muscular dystrophy C) Atrophy D) Myositis 19) A surgical procedure to repair a bone is known as a(an): A) Osteoclasty B) Osteoblasty C) Myoplasty D) Osteoplasty 20) An analgesic is used to assist with: A) Infection B) Inflammation C) Pain D) Stiffness 21) NSAIDS do not contain A) Relaxants B) Steroids C) Anti-inflammatories D) Antibiotics.

but do reduce inflammation.

22) An opening in a bone is called a: A) Fossa B) Fissure C) sulcus D) foramen

3

23) Red blood cells start to develop in A) compact bone B) long bones C) bone marrow D) flat bones 24) The spinal column includes the: A) lumbar vertebrae B) clavicle C) maxillary bones D) scapula 25) The bones of the extremities include which of the following?

A) clavicle B) tibia C) pelvis D) sternum 26) An element important in the formation of bone is: A) phosphorus B) osteoclast C) ammonia D) estrogen 27) The mandible is a bone that forms the: A) top of the skull B) jaw C) hip D) shoulder 28) Muscles include A) bones B) joints C) articulations D) none of these 29) An incision into a bone is a(n) A) arthrography B) electromyogram C) osteotomy D) subluxation

4

30) The physical therapist is performing adduction on the skeletal system. This movement is in which direction?

A) Toward the body B) Away from the body C) Above the body D) Below the body 31) A type of musculoskeletal injury is a(n) A) orthotic B) laminectomy C) spur D) sprain 32) Match the combining form arthr/o with its closest definition: A) bent B) bursa C) joint D) arm 33) Match the combining form calcane/o with its closest definition.

A) heel B) joint C) arm D) neck 34) Match the combining form ankyl/o with its closest definition.

A) joint B) heel C) calcium D) bent 35) Match the combining form carp/o with its closest definition.

A) acetabulum B) arm C) wrist D) knuckle 36) Match the combining form brachi/o with its closest definition.

A) arm B) bursa C) heel D) cartilage

5

37) Match the combining form burs/o with its closest definition.

A) heel B) calcium C) bursa D) joint 38) Match the combining form calcane/o with its closest definition.

A) heel B) joint C) wrist D) neck 39) Match the combining form carp/o with its closest definition.

A) bent B) calcium C) wrist D) arm 40) Match the combining form cephal/o with its closest definition.

A) Wrist B) Head C) Cartilage D) Knuckle 41) Match the combining form cervic/o with its closest definition.

A) Neck B) Skull C) Rib D) Fingers 42) Match the combining form chondr/o with its closest definition.

A) Rib B) Skull C) Cartilage D) Wrist 43) Match the combining form condyl/o with its closest definition.

A) Knob B) Neck C) Wrist D) Head 44) Match the combining form fasci/o with its closest definition.

A) Fascia B) Neck C) Bursa D) Wrist 6

45) Match the combining form cost/o with its closest definition.

A) Rib B) Cartilage C) Knuckle D) Fingers 46) Match the combining form crani/o with its closest definition.

A) Head B) Skull C) Rib D) Neck 47) Match the combining form dactyl/o with its closest definition.

A) Fingers B) Rib C) Neck D) Skull 48) Match the combining form femor/o with its closest definition.

A) Femur B) Fiber C) Hump D) Fascia 49) Match the combining form fibr/o with its closest definition.

A) Femur B) Fiber C) Fascia D) hump 50) Match the combining form humer/o with its closest definition.

A) Ilium B) Hump C) Humerus D) Fiber 51) Match the combining form ili/o with its closest definition.

A) Hump B) Femur C) Ischium D) Ilium

7

52) Match the combining form ischi/o with its closest definition.

A) Ilium B) Ischium C) Hump D) lamina 53) Match the combining form kyph/o with its closest definition.

A) Hump B) Fiber C) Femur D) Fascia 54) Match the combining form lamin/o and with its closest definition.

A) Fascia B) Lamina C) Fiber D) hump 55) Match the combining form leiomy/o with its closest definition.

A) Upper jaw B) Smooth muscle C) Muscle D) lumbar 56) Match the combining form lumb/o with its closest definition.

A) tailbone B) middle of back C) connect to ribs D) located in neck 57) Match the combining form stern/o with its closest definition.

A) Vertebra B) Scapula C) Spine D) Sternum 58) Match the combining form maxill/o with its closest definition.

A) Upper jaw B) Muscle C) Knee D) Foot 59) Match the combining form metacarp/o with its closest definition.

A) finger B) toe C) palm of hand D) forearm 8

60) Match the combining form my/o with its closest definition.

A) Muscle B) Bone marrow C) Pelvis D) Rod-shaped 61) Match the combining form myel/o with its closest definition.

A) Muscle B) Bone marrow C) Pelvis D) Rod-shaped 62) Match the combining form oste/o with its closest definition.

A) Foot B) Bone C) Knee D) Spine 63) Match the combining form patell/o with its closest definition.

A) Foot B) Toe C) Knee D) Spine 64) Match the combining form ped/I with its closest definition.

A) Toe B) Spine C) Pubes D) Foot 65) Match the combining form pub/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Foot C) Knee D) Pubes 66) Match the combining form rachi/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Rod-shaped C) Forearm bone D) Finger

9

67) Match the combining form rhabd/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Rod-shaped C) Forearm bone D) Finger 68) Match the combining form pod/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Foot C) Toe D) Pelvis 69) Match the combining form scapul/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Shoulder bone C) Sternum D) chest bone 70) Match the combining form scoli/o with its closest definition.

A) Vertebra B) Bowed C) Crooked D) Foot 71) The breastbone or A) clavicle B) spine C) sternum D) ulna

extends down the chest.

72) Pain radiating down the leg from the lower back is known as: A) rickets B) sciatica C) spur D) talipes calcaneus 73) This is the result of a vitamin D deficiency.

A) Calcar B) Sciatica C) Spur D) Rickets 74) Ossification, the hardening process of the bones, is dependent on A) Vitamin D, potassium, and phosphorus B) Vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus C) Calcium, vitamin, B and potassium D) Calcium, vitamin, B and phosphorus 10

.

75) Bones are made of

tissue.

76) When bone dies, it is absorbed by 77) Bone hardening is called 78) Bone-forming cells are

. .

.

79) The patient has pain radiating down the leg from a herniated disk. This will be documented in the medical records as .

80) The patient fell and fractured the longest part of the bone or the:

.

81) The patient is complaining of stiffness of the joints is also known as: 82) A disease with loss of bone density common in postmenopausal women is

.

83) The child is experiencing abnormal tone or tension in a muscle. The nurse recognizes this as: .

84) The patient is complaining of severe joint pain. The medical assistant expects a referral to a(n): .

85) The five bones of the palm are the

.

86) The nurse assesses the top of the infant's skull for the soft spots or:

.

87) The patient stated he has a history of joint pain due to erosion of cartilage and bone. This is documented as: .

88) The patient has gangrene and had his leg cut off below the knee. The nurse documents this as a(n): .

89) The patient has been unable to use her right hand due to a stroke. The nurse assesses the patient's hand for: .

90) The patient needs the removal of a vertebra due to a herniated disk due to pain. This is also known as a: .

91) The patient has an injury due to overuse of a muscle. This is a:

.

92) The physician documents the patient has myalgia. The nurse understands that is: A) muscle pain B) joint pain C) neck pain D) foot pain 11

.

93) This is the term for a muscle repair:

.

94) When muscles are flabby, they are described as being:

.

95) This disorder is may be associated with Parkinson's disease.

A) tremor B) tetany C) rigor D) myositis 96) The patient had a joint repair or a(n)

.

97) The patient experienced a knee injury. The physician will perform what procedure to visualize the joint through a small incision?

98) Elevated levels of this chemical indicate gout.

12

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 6 The Musculoskeletal System 1) When bone tissue dies, it is absorbed by: A) Osteoblasts B) Osteoclasts C) Osseous tissue D) Osteocytes Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Bone marrow is not important in the creation of: A) WBCs. B) platelets.

C) RBCs. D) cerebral fluid.

Answer: D Explanation: Bone marrow is needed for RBC, WBC, and platelet creation.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) The lower jawbone is known as the: A) Maxillary B) Mandible C) Lacrimal D) Nasal Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) The main bone of the thigh is the: A) Humus B) Ulna C) Tibia D) Femur Answer: D Explanation: The femur is located in the thigh and is the largest bone in the body.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) Voluntary muscles are what type of muscle?

A) Striated B) Cardiac C) Visceral D) Fascia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) The humerus attaches to what?

A) Radius B) Scapula C) Thorax D) Sternum Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) Bands of fibrous tissue that connect muscles to bones are: A) Tendon B) Ligament C) Cartilage D) Fascia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) Below the thoracic cavity is what area?

A) Cranial B) Chest C) Pelvic D) Cardiac Answer: C Explanation: The pelvic cavity is below the thoracic cavity.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) A joint, or a point where two bones meet, is known as a (an): A) Acromion B) Articulation C) Bursa D) Tendon Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) A physician who focuses on treating disorders of the foot is a(n): A) Osteopath B) Rheumatologist C) Podiatrist D) Chiropractor Answer: C Explanation: The podiatrist's specialty is foot disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 06.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) A graphic image of the electrical activity of muscles is a(n): A) Discography B) Myelography C) Electromyogram D) Bone scan Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 06.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) A test that can be used to detect gout is: A) Serum calcium B) Creatine phosphokinase C) Uric acid D) Serum phosphorus Answer: C Explanation: Testing for gout occurs with a uric acid test.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 06.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) A goniometer measures the movement in: A) joints.

B) bones.

C) muscles.

D) connective tissue.

Answer: A Explanation: A goniometer is used to measure range of motion in joints.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 06.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) A closed fracture is best described as a fracture of the bone with A) an open wound.

B) a shattered bone.

C) no open wound.

D) bent bone.

Answer: C Explanation: With a closed fracture, the skin has not been penetrated by the bone.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) A compound fracture is a best described as break in a bone with: A) An open wound B) A shattered bone C) No open wound D) Bent bone Answer: A Explanation: A compound fracture occurs when the bone has penetrated the skin.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Muscles that contract abnormally in disease such as multiple sclerosis are: A) Flaccid B) Spastic C) Rigid D) Rigorous Answer: B Explanation: Spastic muscles have abnormal contractions and may be seen in multiple sclerosis.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Osteomyelitis may be cause by a: A) Inflammation B) Infection C) Arthritis D) Crepitus Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) A wasting away of tissue, organs or cells, usually the result of disease or loss of blood supply, is known as: A) Hypertrophy B) Muscular dystrophy C) Atrophy D) Myositis Answer: C Explanation: Atrophy is the shrinking of muscle due to disuse or other diseases.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) A surgical procedure to repair a bone is known as a(an): A) Osteoclasty B) Osteoblasty C) Myoplasty D) Osteoplasty Answer: D Explanation: Osteoplasty is the surgical repair of a bone.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical terms Learning Objective: 06.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) An analgesic is used to assist with: A) Infection B) Inflammation C) Pain D) Stiffness Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 06.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) NSAIDS do not contain A) Relaxants B) Steroids C) Anti-inflammatories D) Antibiotics.

but do reduce inflammation.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 06.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

22) An opening in a bone is called a: A) Fossa B) Fissure C) sulcus D) foramen Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Red blood cells start to develop in A) compact bone B) long bones C) bone marrow D) flat bones Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) The spinal column includes the: A) lumbar vertebrae B) clavicle C) maxillary bones D) scapula Answer: A Explanation: The lumbar vertebrae are in the middle of the back.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) The bones of the extremities include which of the following?

A) clavicle B) tibia C) pelvis D) sternum Answer: B Explanation: The tibia is located in the lower leg.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) An element important in the formation of bone is: A) phosphorus B) osteoclast C) ammonia D) estrogen Answer: A Explanation: Phosphorus, calcium, and vitamin D are important for bone formation.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) The mandible is a bone that forms the: A) top of the skull B) jaw C) hip D) shoulder Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) Muscles include A) bones B) joints C) articulations D) none of these Answer: D Explanation: Muscles attach to bones and joints at articulations for movement.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) An incision into a bone is a(n) A) arthrography B) electromyogram C) osteotomy D) subluxation Answer: C Explanation: Osteoplasty is surgical repair of the bone.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical terms Learning Objective: 06.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) The physical therapist is performing adduction on the skeletal system. This movement is in which direction?

A) Toward the body B) Away from the body C) Above the body D) Below the body Answer: A Explanation: Adduction is movement toward the body Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

31) A type of musculoskeletal injury is a(n) A) orthotic B) laminectomy C) spur D) sprain Answer: D Explanation: A sprain is an injury or trauma to a ligament.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) Match the combining form arthr/o with its closest definition: A) bent B) bursa C) joint D) arm Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) Match the combining form calcane/o with its closest definition.

A) heel B) joint C) arm D) neck Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

34) Match the combining form ankyl/o with its closest definition.

A) joint B) heel C) calcium D) bent Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) Match the combining form carp/o with its closest definition.

A) acetabulum B) arm C) wrist D) knuckle Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) Match the combining form brachi/o with its closest definition.

A) arm B) bursa C) heel D) cartilage Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) Match the combining form burs/o with its closest definition.

A) heel B) calcium C) bursa D) joint Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) Match the combining form calcane/o with its closest definition.

A) heel B) joint C) wrist D) neck Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) Match the combining form carp/o with its closest definition.

A) bent B) calcium C) wrist D) arm Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

40) Match the combining form cephal/o with its closest definition.

A) Wrist B) Head C) Cartilage D) Knuckle Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) Match the combining form cervic/o with its closest definition.

A) Neck B) Skull C) Rib D) Fingers Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) Match the combining form chondr/o with its closest definition.

A) Rib B) Skull C) Cartilage D) Wrist Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

43) Match the combining form condyl/o with its closest definition.

A) Knob B) Neck C) Wrist D) Head Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) Match the combining form fasci/o with its closest definition.

A) Fascia B) Neck C) Bursa D) Wrist Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) Match the combining form cost/o with its closest definition.

A) Rib B) Cartilage C) Knuckle D) Fingers Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

46) Match the combining form crani/o with its closest definition.

A) Head B) Skull C) Rib D) Neck Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) Match the combining form dactyl/o with its closest definition.

A) Fingers B) Rib C) Neck D) Skull Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) Match the combining form femor/o with its closest definition.

A) Femur B) Fiber C) Hump D) Fascia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

49) Match the combining form fibr/o with its closest definition.

A) Femur B) Fiber C) Fascia D) hump Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) Match the combining form humer/o with its closest definition.

A) Ilium B) Hump C) Humerus D) Fiber Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) Match the combining form ili/o with its closest definition.

A) Hump B) Femur C) Ischium D) Ilium Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

52) Match the combining form ischi/o with its closest definition.

A) Ilium B) Ischium C) Hump D) lamina Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) Match the combining form kyph/o with its closest definition.

A) Hump B) Fiber C) Femur D) Fascia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) Match the combining form lamin/o and with its closest definition.

A) Fascia B) Lamina C) Fiber D) hump Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

55) Match the combining form leiomy/o with its closest definition.

A) Upper jaw B) Smooth muscle C) Muscle D) lumbar Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) Match the combining form lumb/o with its closest definition.

A) tailbone B) middle of back C) connect to ribs D) located in neck Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) Match the combining form stern/o with its closest definition.

A) Vertebra B) Scapula C) Spine D) Sternum Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

58) Match the combining form maxill/o with its closest definition.

A) Upper jaw B) Muscle C) Knee D) Foot Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) Match the combining form metacarp/o with its closest definition.

A) finger B) toe C) palm of hand D) forearm Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) Match the combining form my/o with its closest definition.

A) Muscle B) Bone marrow C) Pelvis D) Rod-shaped Answer: A Explanation: The combining form my/o means muscle.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

61) Match the combining form myel/o with its closest definition.

A) Muscle B) Bone marrow C) Pelvis D) Rod-shaped Answer: B Explanation: The combining form myel/o means bone marrow or spinal cord.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) Match the combining form oste/o with its closest definition.

A) Foot B) Bone C) Knee D) Spine Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) Match the combining form patell/o with its closest definition.

A) Foot B) Toe C) Knee D) Spine Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

64) Match the combining form ped/I with its closest definition.

A) Toe B) Spine C) Pubes D) Foot Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) Match the combining form pub/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Foot C) Knee D) Pubes Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) Match the combining form rachi/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Rod-shaped C) Forearm bone D) Finger Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

67) Match the combining form rhabd/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Rod-shaped C) Forearm bone D) Finger Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) Match the combining form pod/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Foot C) Toe D) Pelvis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) Match the combining form scapul/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Shoulder bone C) Sternum D) chest bone Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23

70) Match the combining form scoli/o with its closest definition.

A) Vertebra B) Bowed C) Crooked D) Foot Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) The breastbone or A) clavicle B) spine C) sternum D) ulna

extends down the chest.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) Pain radiating down the leg from the lower back is known as: A) rickets B) sciatica C) spur D) talipes calcaneus Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24

73) This is the result of a vitamin D deficiency.

A) Calcar B) Sciatica C) Spur D) Rickets Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) Ossification, the hardening process of the bones, is dependent on A) Vitamin D, potassium, and phosphorus B) Vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus C) Calcium, vitamin, B and potassium D) Calcium, vitamin, B and phosphorus Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) Bones are made of

tissue.

Answer: osseous Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 76) When bone dies, it is absorbed by

.

Answer: osteoclasts Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 25

.

77) Bone hardening is called

.

Answer: ossification Explanation: The hardening of the process and development of osteocytes is called ossification.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 78) Bone-forming cells are

.

Answer: osteoblasts Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 79) The patient has pain radiating down the leg from a herniated disk. This will be documented in the medical records as .

Answer: sciatica Explanation: Sciatica occurs when the disk is compressed and presses on the neural canal. This can lead to pain radiating down the leg from the lower back.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 80) The patient fell and fractured the longest part of the bone or the: Answer: shaft Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26

.

81) The patient is complaining of stiffness of the joints is also known as: Answer: ankylosis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 82) A disease with loss of bone density common in postmenopausal women is

.

Answer: Osteoporosis Explanation: Osteoporosis is due to a loss of bone density and is more common in postmenopausal women.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 83) The child is experiencing abnormal tone or tension in a muscle. The nurse recognizes this as: .

Answer: dystonia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 84) The patient is complaining of severe joint pain. The medical assistant expects a referral to a(n): .

Answer: rheumatologist Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 06.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27

85) The five bones of the palm are the

.

Answer: metacarpals Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 86) The nurse assesses the top of the infant's skull for the soft spots or:

.

Answer: fontanelles Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Musculoskeletal System Learning Objective: 06.01 Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 87) The patient stated he has a history of joint pain due to erosion of cartilage and bone. This is documented as: .

Answer: osteoarthritis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 88) The patient has gangrene and had his leg cut off below the knee. The nurse documents this as a(n): .

Answer: amputation Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical terms Learning Objective: 06.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28

89) The patient has been unable to use her right hand due to a stroke. The nurse assesses the patient's hand for: .

Answer: contractures Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 90) The patient needs the removal of a vertebra due to a herniated disk due to pain. This is also known as a: .

Answer: laminectomy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical terms Learning Objective: 06.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 91) The patient has an injury due to overuse of a muscle. This is a:

.

Answer: strain Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 92) The physician documents the patient has myalgia. The nurse understands that is: A) muscle pain B) joint pain C) neck pain D) foot pain Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29

.

93) This is the term for a muscle repair:

.

Answer: myoplasty Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical terms Learning Objective: 06.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 94) When muscles are flabby, they are described as being: Answer: flaccid Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 95) This disorder is may be associated with Parkinson's disease.

A) tremor B) tetany C) rigor D) myositis Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 96) The patient had a joint repair or a(n)

.

Answer: Arthroplasty Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical terms Learning Objective: 06.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30

.

97) The patient experienced a knee injury. The physician will perform what procedure to visualize the joint through a small incision?

Answer: Arthroscopy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical terms Learning Objective: 06.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 98) Elevated levels of this chemical indicate gout.

Answer: Uric acid Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 06.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 7 The Nervous System 1) A part of a neuron is a(n) A) nerve B) cell body C) receptor D) acetylcholine 2) Neurotransmitters: A) Transmit signals B) Conduct impulses C) Act as energy D) Are the basic nerve 3) Inflammation of a nerve is: A) ventriculitis B) neuritis C) cerebellitis D) encephalitis 4) The brainstem includes the A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) pons D) diencephalons 5) The innermost layer of meninges is the A) pia mater B) epidural C) arachnoid D) dura mater 6) The patient is having difficulty moving the muscles in his legs. The nurse identifies that which part of the spinal cord may be affected?

A) cervical B) coccygeal C) brachial D) sacral 7) The health care provider teaches a group of medical assistants that a meningocele is associated with A) Tay-Sachs B) spina bifida C) hydrocephalus D) concussion 1

8) The medical assistant recognizes a symptom of Alzheimer's disease as A) jerking B) apraxia C) paresthesia D) demyelination 9) A neurological symptom may be: A) bleeding B) paralysis C) coughing D) emesis 10) The patient is having difficulty sleeping. Which of the following agents may be prescribed to induce sleep?

A) hypnotic B) analgesic C) anticonvulsant D) antibiotic 11) Match the medical term neuroplasty with its closest definition.

A) Dissection of a nerve B) Suturing of a severed nerve C) Surgical repair of a nerve D) Surgical removal of a nerve 12) Match the combining form gli/o with its closest definition.

A) Meninges B) Bone marrow C) Spine D) neuroglia 13) Pain in the head is: A) cephalgia B) gliomatosis C) neuritis D) meningocele 14) Match the combining form gangli/o with its closest definition.

A) Brain B) Ganglion C) Nerve D) Vagus nerve

2

15) Match the combining form encephal/o with its closest definition.

A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Ventricle D) Brain 16) Match the combining form crani/o with its closest definition.

A) Brain B) Cranium C) Bone D) Spine 17) Match the combining form cerebr/o with its closest definition.

A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain D) Skull 18) Match the combining form cerebell/o with its closest definition.

A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain D) Skull 19) Match the combining form mening/o with its closest definition.

A) Neuroglia B) Meninges C) Nerve D) Spine 20) Match the combining form myel/o with its closest definition.

A) Bone marrow B) Spine C) Nerve D) Brain 21) Match the combining form neur/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Cranium C) Nerve D) Nervous 22) Match the combining form spin/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Nerve C) Brain D) Cranium 3

23) Match the combining form thalam/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Vagus nerve C) Ventricle D) Thalamus 24) Match the combining form vag/o with its closest definition.

A) Ventricle B) Vagus nerve C) Vagal D) Nerve 25) Match the combining form ventricul/o with its closest definition.

A) Ventricle B) Vagus C) Spine D) Brain 26) The ability to respond to a stimulus is: A) Conductivity B) Excitability C) Sensory D) Efferent 27) These carry information from sensory receptors to the central nervous system.

A) Efferent neurons B) Afferent neurons C) Interneurons D) Stimulus 28) This carries impulses away from the cell body.

A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Synapse D) Neurotransmitter 29) This is the ability to transmit a signal.

A) Excitability B) Conductivity C) Stimulus D) Sensory

4

30) This carries information to muscles and glands.

A) Afferent neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Conductivity D) Interneurons 31) The brain is protected by the: A) Ventricles B) Cranium C) Cerebrospinal fluid D) Fissures 32) This fluid serves as shock absorber for the brain.

A) Cerebrospinal B) Cranium C) Ventricles D) Fissures 33) These cavities within the brain contain cerebral spinal fluid.

A) Meninges B) Cranium C) Fissures D) Ventricles 34) The client has experienced a head injury to the frontal lobe. The health care provider identifies that this injury may affect: A) Taste B) Memory C) Emotions D) Hearing 35) The physician may inject anesthetics into this space to help address pain.

A) Dura mater B) Pia mater C) Subdural space D) Epidural space 36) This system stimulates organs, glands, and senses.

A) Somatic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system

5

37) This system is activated under stress.

A) Somatic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system 38) This test is a recording of electrical and movement patterns during sleep.

A) nerve conduction velocity B) SPECT C) PET D) polysomnography 39) This test provides highly accurate images of the brain structures and physiology.

A) Nerve conduction velocity B) SPECT C) PET D) Polysomnography 40) This test is an x-ray of the spinal cord that includes the injection of contrast material.

A) Myelogram B) Encephalogram C) Lumbar puncture D) Evoked potentials 41) If the physician suspects the client has head trauma, this may be ordered: A) Myelogram B) Encephalogram C) Lumbar puncture D) Transcranial sonogram 42) If the physician suspects the child has meningitis, this procedure may be done: A) Myelogram B) Encephalogram C) Lumbar puncture D) Transcranial sonogram 43) Which of the following is not part of the neuron: A) cell body B) dendrites C) axon D) pons 44) The basic element of the nervous system is a A) neuron B) cell body C) axon D) dendrite 6

.

45) The nurse explains to a group of students that all neurons have two basic properties and .

A) excitability, conductivity B) efferent, afferent C) epinephrine, norepinephrine D) sensory, motor 46) The central nervous system consists of the brain and 47) The

.

lobe of the brain controls memory, equilibrium, emotion, and hearing

48) Human activity is controlled by the body's 100 billion

cells.

49) The nerve impulse is stimulated to jump over the synapse by a 50) The space a nerve impulse jumps over is called the 51) 52) The

.

.

neurons carry information from sensory receptors to the central nervous system. lobe controls and interprets senses and taste.

53) Thin branches that conduct nerve impulses toward the cell are

.

54) Nerve impulses are received or transmitted by tissue or organs that are called 55) Cephalgia is pain in the

.

.

56) The health care provider explains to the class that the four major brain divisions are the brainstem, cerebellum, cerebrum, and the .

57) An involuntary muscular contraction in response to a stimulus is known as a

.

58) The health care provider identifies damage to the occipital lobe that could affect forms of expression and .

59) The outer layer of the meninges is the 60) The arachnoid runs across the 61) There are 12 pairs of

mater. space.

nerves.

62) The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and 63) Electrical impulses of the brain are recorded in a(n) 64) An overproduction of fluid in the brain is

. .

7

divisions.

65) The client has paralysis of one side of her face. The health care provider suspects: A) Bell's palsy B) cerebral palsy C) tics D) ataxia 66) A child is experiencing chronic, recurrent seizure activity known as: 67) An inflammation of the spinal cord is

.

.

.

68) Deterioration in mental capacity particularly in the elderly is A) dementia B) Parkinson's C) Huntington Chorea D) multiple sclerosis

.

69) The infant experienced damage to the cerebrum at or prior to birth which may cause .

70) The collection of symptoms that may occur prior to a seizure are known as an

.

71) The patient has had a stroke and is having difficulty speaking. This should be documented as: .

72) The patient experienced a syncopal episode or 73) A brain cancer.

.

is removal of a portion of the brain to treat epilepsy and other disorders, such as

74) Tumor that arises from a neuroglia is a(n)

.

75) The patient has a disease with muscle weakness due to an overproduction of antibodies. This disease is: .

76) Inflammation of the meninges is

.

77) A tumor that arises from the meninges is a(n)

.

78) The patient stated he falls asleep at work routinely. The health care provider suspects: .

79) Inflammation of the nerves is 80) Partial or complete paralysis is

. .

81) The patient had a thrombus which blocked a blood vessel and caused a 8

stroke.

82) Inflammation of the spinal nerve roots is

.

83) The client is having lower back and leg pain due to nerve inflammation. The health care provider suspects: .

84) The health care provider assesses the reflex on the plantar surface of the foot for which reflex?

85) The health care provider tests for a Babinski's reflex on a 45-year-old male. What should the normal response be?

A) no response B) flexion C) extension D) hyperflexion

9

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 7 The Nervous System 1) A part of a neuron is a(n) A) nerve B) cell body C) receptor D) acetylcholine Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Neurotransmitters: A) Transmit signals B) Conduct impulses C) Act as energy D) Are the basic nerve Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) Inflammation of a nerve is: A) ventriculitis B) neuritis C) cerebellitis D) encephalitis Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) The brainstem includes the A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) pons D) diencephalons Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The innermost layer of meninges is the A) pia mater B) epidural C) arachnoid D) dura mater Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) The patient is having difficulty moving the muscles in his legs. The nurse identifies that which part of the spinal cord may be affected?

A) cervical B) coccygeal C) brachial D) sacral Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) The health care provider teaches a group of medical assistants that a meningocele is associated with A) Tay-Sachs B) spina bifida C) hydrocephalus D) concussion Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) The medical assistant recognizes a symptom of Alzheimer's disease as A) jerking B) apraxia C) paresthesia D) demyelination Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) A neurological symptom may be: A) bleeding B) paralysis C) coughing D) emesis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) The patient is having difficulty sleeping. Which of the following agents may be prescribed to induce sleep?

A) hypnotic B) analgesic C) anticonvulsant D) antibiotic Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 07.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Match the medical term neuroplasty with its closest definition.

A) Dissection of a nerve B) Suturing of a severed nerve C) Surgical repair of a nerve D) Surgical removal of a nerve Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 07.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) Match the combining form gli/o with its closest definition.

A) Meninges B) Bone marrow C) Spine D) neuroglia Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) Pain in the head is: A) cephalgia B) gliomatosis C) neuritis D) meningocele Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Match the combining form gangli/o with its closest definition.

A) Brain B) Ganglion C) Nerve D) Vagus nerve Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) Match the combining form encephal/o with its closest definition.

A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Ventricle D) Brain Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Match the combining form crani/o with its closest definition.

A) Brain B) Cranium C) Bone D) Spine Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Match the combining form cerebr/o with its closest definition.

A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain D) Skull Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) Match the combining form cerebell/o with its closest definition.

A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain D) Skull Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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19) Match the combining form mening/o with its closest definition.

A) Neuroglia B) Meninges C) Nerve D) Spine Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Match the combining form myel/o with its closest definition.

A) Bone marrow B) Spine C) Nerve D) Brain Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Match the combining form neur/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Cranium C) Nerve D) Nervous Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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22) Match the combining form spin/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Nerve C) Brain D) Cranium Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Match the combining form thalam/o with its closest definition.

A) Spine B) Vagus nerve C) Ventricle D) Thalamus Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Match the combining form vag/o with its closest definition.

A) Ventricle B) Vagus nerve C) Vagal D) Nerve Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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25) Match the combining form ventricul/o with its closest definition.

A) Ventricle B) Vagus C) Spine D) Brain Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) The ability to respond to a stimulus is: A) Conductivity B) Excitability C) Sensory D) Efferent Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) These carry information from sensory receptors to the central nervous system.

A) Efferent neurons B) Afferent neurons C) Interneurons D) Stimulus Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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28) This carries impulses away from the cell body.

A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Synapse D) Neurotransmitter Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) This is the ability to transmit a signal.

A) Excitability B) Conductivity C) Stimulus D) Sensory Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) This carries information to muscles and glands.

A) Afferent neurons B) Efferent neurons C) Conductivity D) Interneurons Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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31) The brain is protected by the: A) Ventricles B) Cranium C) Cerebrospinal fluid D) Fissures Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) This fluid serves as shock absorber for the brain.

A) Cerebrospinal B) Cranium C) Ventricles D) Fissures Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) These cavities within the brain contain cerebral spinal fluid.

A) Meninges B) Cranium C) Fissures D) Ventricles Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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34) The client has experienced a head injury to the frontal lobe. The health care provider identifies that this injury may affect: A) Taste B) Memory C) Emotions D) Hearing Answer: C Explanation: The frontal lobe controls voluntary movements, emotional expression and moral behavior.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The physician may inject anesthetics into this space to help address pain.

A) Dura mater B) Pia mater C) Subdural space D) Epidural space Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) This system stimulates organs, glands, and senses.

A) Somatic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) This system is activated under stress.

A) Somatic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) This test is a recording of electrical and movement patterns during sleep.

A) nerve conduction velocity B) SPECT C) PET D) polysomnography Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) This test provides highly accurate images of the brain structures and physiology.

A) Nerve conduction velocity B) SPECT C) PET D) Polysomnography Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

40) This test is an x-ray of the spinal cord that includes the injection of contrast material.

A) Myelogram B) Encephalogram C) Lumbar puncture D) Evoked potentials Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) If the physician suspects the client has head trauma, this may be ordered: A) Myelogram B) Encephalogram C) Lumbar puncture D) Transcranial sonogram Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) If the physician suspects the child has meningitis, this procedure may be done: A) Myelogram B) Encephalogram C) Lumbar puncture D) Transcranial sonogram Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

43) Which of the following is not part of the neuron: A) cell body B) dendrites C) axon D) pons Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) The basic element of the nervous system is a A) neuron B) cell body C) axon D) dendrite

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) The nurse explains to a group of students that all neurons have two basic properties and .

A) excitability, conductivity B) efferent, afferent C) epinephrine, norepinephrine D) sensory, motor Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

46) The central nervous system consists of the brain and

.

Answer: spinal cord Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The

lobe of the brain controls memory, equilibrium, emotion, and hearing

Answer: temporal Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) Human activity is controlled by the body's 100 billion

cells.

Answer: nerve Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) The nerve impulse is stimulated to jump over the synapse by a Answer: neurotransmitter Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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.

50) The space a nerve impulse jumps over is called the

.

Answer: synapse Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51)

neurons carry information from sensory receptors to the central nervous system.

Answer: Afferent Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) The

lobe controls and interprets senses and taste.

Answer: parietal Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) Thin branches that conduct nerve impulses toward the cell are Answer: dendrites Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

.

54) Nerve impulses are received or transmitted by tissue or organs that are called

.

Answer: receptors Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) Cephalgia is pain in the

.

Answer: head Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) The health care provider explains to the class that the four major brain divisions are the brainstem, cerebellum, cerebrum, and the .

Answer: diencephalon Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) An involuntary muscular contraction in response to a stimulus is known as a Answer: reflex Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

.

58) The health care provider identifies damage to the occipital lobe that could affect forms of expression and .

Answer: vision Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) The outer layer of the meninges is the

mater.

Answer: dura Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) The arachnoid runs across the

space.

Answer: subdural Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) There are 12 pairs of

nerves.

Answer: cranial Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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62) The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and

divisions.

Answer: parasympathetic Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Nervous System Learning Objective: 07.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) Electrical impulses of the brain are recorded in a(n)

.

Answer: electroencephalogram Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 64) An overproduction of fluid in the brain is

.

Answer: hydrocephalus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) The client has paralysis of one side of her face. The health care provider suspects: A) Bell's palsy B) cerebral palsy C) tics D) ataxia Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

.

66) A child is experiencing chronic, recurrent seizure activity known as:

.

Answer: epilepsy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) An inflammation of the spinal cord is

.

Answer: myelitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) Deterioration in mental capacity particularly in the elderly is A) dementia B) Parkinson's C) Huntington Chorea D) multiple sclerosis

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) The infant experienced damage to the cerebrum at or prior to birth which may cause .

Answer: cerebral palsy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

70) The collection of symptoms that may occur prior to a seizure are known as an

.

Answer: aura Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) The patient has had a stroke and is having difficulty speaking. This should be documented as: .

Answer: dysphasia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) The patient experienced a syncopal episode or

.

Answer: fainted Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) A brain cancer.

is removal of a portion of the brain to treat epilepsy and other disorders, such as

Answer: Lobectomy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 07.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

74) Tumor that arises from a neuroglia is a(n)

.

Answer: glioma Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) The patient has a disease with muscle weakness due to an overproduction of antibodies. This disease is: .

Answer: myasthenia gravis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 76) Inflammation of the meninges is

.

Answer: meningitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77) A tumor that arises from the meninges is a(n) Answer: meningioma Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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.

78) The patient stated he falls asleep at work routinely. The health care provider suspects: .

Answer: narcolepsy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 79) Inflammation of the nerves is

.

Answer: neuritis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 80) Partial or complete paralysis is

.

Answer: palsy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 81) The patient had a thrombus which blocked a blood vessel and caused a Answer: thrombotic Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24

stroke.

82) Inflammation of the spinal nerve roots is

.

Answer: radiculitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 83) The client is having lower back and leg pain due to nerve inflammation. The health care provider suspects: .

Answer: sciatica Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 07.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 84) The health care provider assesses the reflex on the plantar surface of the foot for which reflex?

Answer: Babinski's Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 85) The health care provider tests for a Babinski's reflex on a 45-year-old male. What should the normal response be?

A) no response B) flexion C) extension D) hyperflexion Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 07.03 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 25

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 8 The Sensory System 1) The sensory system does not include: A) sight B) touch C) hearing D) perception 2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the cornea?

A) It has no blood supply B) It is white C) It is transparent D) It has no blood supply and is transparent 3) The health care provider teaches the students that the uvea includes the A) retina B) iris C) rods D) cones 4) The health care provider explains to the adolescent that hearing can be damaged at or above A) 40dB B) 60dB C) 130dB D) 90dB 5) The nurse administers an agent that causes the pupil to contract. The nurse identifies this agent as a(n): A) eye drop B) miotic C) mydriatic D) antiseptic 6) Identify the combining form audi/o with its closest definition.

A) eyelid B) hearing C) wax D) cornea 7) Identify the combining form blephar/o with its closest definition.

A) Cornea B) Hearing C) Pupil D) Eyelid

1

8) Identify the combining form cycl/o with its closest definition.

A) Ciliary body B) Cornea C) Cochlea D) Pupil 9) Identify the combining form corne/o with its closest definition.

A) Cochlea B) Cornea C) Conjunctiva D) Wax 10) Identify the combining form cerumin/o with its closest definition.

A) Hearing B) Wax C) Eyelid D) Cornea 11) Identify the combining form core/o with its closest definition.

A) Pupil B) Cornea C) Cochlea D) Hearing 12) Identify the combining form conjunctiv/o with its closest definition.

A) Eyelid B) Cornea C) Conjunctiva D) Cochlea 13) Identify the combining form cochle/o with its closest definition.

A) Eyelid B) Cornea C) Conjunctiva D) Cochlea 14) Identify the combining form ocul/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Eye C) Hearing D) Tears 15) Identify the combining form aur/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Eye C) Hearing D) Mastoid process 2

16) Identify the combining form nas/o with its closest definition.

A) Nose B) Eardrum C) Hearing D) Cornea 17) Identify the combining form myring/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Hearing C) Cornea D) Nose 18) Identify the combining form mastoid/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Hearing C) Mastoid process D) Cornea 19) Identify the combining form kerat/o with its closest definition.

A) Tears B) Iris C) Cornea D) Nose 20) Identify the combining form ir/o with its closest definition.

A) Hearing B) Eye C) Iris D) Tears 21) Identify the combining form presby/o with its closest definition.

A) Old B) Pupil C) Lens D) Eye 22) Identify the combining form tympan/o with its closest definition.

A) Middle ear B) Darkness C) Outer ear 23) Identify the combining form scler/o with its closest definition.

A) Darkness B) Uvea C) White of eye D) Lens 3

24) Identify the combining form retin/o with its closest definition.

A) Eye B) Lens C) Pupil D) retina 25) Identify the combining form pupill/o with its closest definition.

A) Lens B) Pupil C) Retina D) Uvea 26) Identify the combining form phac/o with its closest definition.

A) Pupil B) Retina C) Lens D) Eye 27) Identify the combining form scot/o with its closest definition.

A) Darkness B) Light C) Old D) Lens 28) Identify the combining form ophthalm/o with its closest definition.

A) Uvea B) Eye C) Lens D) Pupil 29) Identify the combining form lacrim/o with its closest definition.

A) Nose B) Cornea C) Tears D) Lens 30) The sclera supports the

.

31) The ciliary muscles are used for

.

32) The client is having difficulty with shades of black and white. The nurse identifies that the are the sensors of shades of black and white.

33) The cones are receptors of bright light and

.

34) The medical assistant will be testing the patient's vision using the 4

chart.

35) The auricle is in the

ear.

36) Olfactory organs are located within the: 37) Taste buds contain

cavity.

cells.

38) The patient has a severe eye infection. The health care provider will make a referral to a(n): .

39) The test used for glaucoma is:

.

40) The patient is experiencing farsightedness or 41) Strabismus is due to

.

of the eyes.

42) The physician diagnoses the patient with keratitis. The medical assistant identifies that as an inflammation of the .

43) The patient states she has a constant ringing in her ears. This should be documented as .

44) Functions of the ear include hearing and

.

45) Sensory organs are also known as sensory

.

46) The outer layer of the eye is covered by the

.

47) The posterior surface of the eyelid is lined with the 48) The posterior section of the eye is the

.

.

49) The process of bending light rays is called 50) Refraction takes place in the

.

.

51) The eyeball is supported by the

.

52) When the health care provider has the patient focus on objects at varying distance, he is assessing .

53) The area of the eye that decodes light waves and sends information to the brain is the .

54) The medical term for cornea transplant is

.

55) The patient needs surgical repair of the eyelids, which is also known as 5

.

56) The anterior chamber of the eyeball lies between the cornea and the 57) The posterior chamber of the eyeball lies between the lens and the 58) Increased ocular pressure of the aqueous humor causes 59) The lacrimal glands secrete

. .

61) The tympanic membrane is also known as the

.

62) The olfactory organs control the sense of

.

63) Most taste buds are contained within the

.

, a nonmedical specialist that performed a routine eye

65) A medical specialist who treats the eyes is a(n) 66) A nonmedical hearing specialist is a(n) 67) Hyperopia is also known as 68) Nearsightedness is also known as

.

.

60) The external ear has a structure called an auricle or

64) The patient went to a(n) examination.

.

. .

. .

69) The patient has one eye that deviates inward. This should be documented as:

.

70) The health care provider documents deviation of one eye outward as .

71) The nurse identifies that the patient is experiencing double vision or

.

72) Upon assessment, the health care provider identifies that the patient has cloudiness of the lens of the eye, or .

73) The nurse assesses the patient's response to light by checking what part of the eye?

A) Iris B) Pupil C) Lens D) Uvea 74) The patient is having difficulty distinguishing black and white shades. The health care provider suspects what is affected?

6

75) The patient cannot sense any red tones. The health care providers suspect what is affected?

7

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 8 The Sensory System 1) The sensory system does not include: A) sight B) touch C) hearing D) perception Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the cornea?

A) It has no blood supply B) It is white C) It is transparent D) It has no blood supply and is transparent Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) The health care provider teaches the students that the uvea includes the A) retina B) iris C) rods D) cones Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) The health care provider explains to the adolescent that hearing can be damaged at or above A) 40dB B) 60dB C) 130dB D) 90dB Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The nurse administers an agent that causes the pupil to contract. The nurse identifies this agent as a(n): A) eye drop B) miotic C) mydriatic D) antiseptic Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 08.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) Identify the combining form audi/o with its closest definition.

A) eyelid B) hearing C) wax D) cornea Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) Identify the combining form blephar/o with its closest definition.

A) Cornea B) Hearing C) Pupil D) Eyelid Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) Identify the combining form cycl/o with its closest definition.

A) Ciliary body B) Cornea C) Cochlea D) Pupil Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) Identify the combining form corne/o with its closest definition.

A) Cochlea B) Cornea C) Conjunctiva D) Wax Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) Identify the combining form cerumin/o with its closest definition.

A) Hearing B) Wax C) Eyelid D) Cornea Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Identify the combining form core/o with its closest definition.

A) Pupil B) Cornea C) Cochlea D) Hearing Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) Identify the combining form conjunctiv/o with its closest definition.

A) Eyelid B) Cornea C) Conjunctiva D) Cochlea Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) Identify the combining form cochle/o with its closest definition.

A) Eyelid B) Cornea C) Conjunctiva D) Cochlea Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Identify the combining form ocul/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Eye C) Hearing D) Tears Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) Identify the combining form aur/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Eye C) Hearing D) Mastoid process Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Identify the combining form nas/o with its closest definition.

A) Nose B) Eardrum C) Hearing D) Cornea Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Identify the combining form myring/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Hearing C) Cornea D) Nose Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) Identify the combining form mastoid/o with its closest definition.

A) Eardrum B) Hearing C) Mastoid process D) Cornea Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) Identify the combining form kerat/o with its closest definition.

A) Tears B) Iris C) Cornea D) Nose Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Identify the combining form ir/o with its closest definition.

A) Hearing B) Eye C) Iris D) Tears Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Identify the combining form presby/o with its closest definition.

A) Old B) Pupil C) Lens D) Eye Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

22) Identify the combining form tympan/o with its closest definition.

A) Middle ear B) Darkness C) Outer ear Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Identify the combining form scler/o with its closest definition.

A) Darkness B) Uvea C) White of eye D) Lens Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Identify the combining form retin/o with its closest definition.

A) Eye B) Lens C) Pupil D) retina Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) Identify the combining form pupill/o with its closest definition.

A) Lens B) Pupil C) Retina D) Uvea Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Identify the combining form phac/o with its closest definition.

A) Pupil B) Retina C) Lens D) Eye Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) Identify the combining form scot/o with its closest definition.

A) Darkness B) Light C) Old D) Lens Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) Identify the combining form ophthalm/o with its closest definition.

A) Uvea B) Eye C) Lens D) Pupil Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Identify the combining form lacrim/o with its closest definition.

A) Nose B) Cornea C) Tears D) Lens Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) The sclera supports the

.

Answer: eyeball Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 31) The ciliary muscles are used for

.

Answer: focusing Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 10

32) The client is having difficulty with shades of black and white. The nurse identifies that the are the sensors of shades of black and white.

Answer: rods Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) The cones are receptors of bright light and

.

Answer: color Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 34) The medical assistant will be testing the patient's vision using the Answer: Snellen Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 08.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The auricle is in the

ear.

Answer: external Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

chart.

36) Olfactory organs are located within the:

cavity.

Answer: nasal Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 37) Taste buds contain

cells.

Answer: receptor Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) The patient has a severe eye infection. The health care provider will make a referral to a(n): .

Answer: Ophthalmologist Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 08.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The test used for glaucoma is:

.

Answer: Tonometry Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 08.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

40) The patient is experiencing farsightedness or

.

Answer: hyperopia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) Strabismus is due to

of the eyes.

Answer: misalignment Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) The physician diagnoses the patient with keratitis. The medical assistant identifies that as an inflammation of the .

Answer: cornea Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) The patient states she has a constant ringing in her ears. This should be documented as .

Answer: tinnitus Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

44) Functions of the ear include hearing and

.

Answer: equilibrium Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) Sensory organs are also known as sensory

.

Answer: receptors Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 46) The outer layer of the eye is covered by the

.

Answer: eyelid Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The posterior surface of the eyelid is lined with the Answer: conjunctiva Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

.

48) The posterior section of the eye is the

.

Answer: sclera Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) The process of bending light rays is called

.

Answer: refraction Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) Refraction takes place in the

.

Answer: cornea Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) The eyeball is supported by the

.

Answer: sclera Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

52) When the health care provider has the patient focus on objects at varying distance, he is assessing .

Answer: accommodation Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) The area of the eye that decodes light waves and sends information to the brain is the .

Answer: retina Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) The medical term for cornea transplant is

.

Answer: keratoplasty Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 08.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) The patient needs surgical repair of the eyelids, which is also known as Answer: blepharoplasty Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 08.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

.

56) The anterior chamber of the eyeball lies between the cornea and the

.

Answer: iris Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) The posterior chamber of the eyeball lies between the lens and the Answer: iris Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 58) Increased ocular pressure of the aqueous humor causes Answer: Glaucoma Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) The lacrimal glands secrete

.

Answer: moisture Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

.

.

60) The external ear has a structure called an auricle or

.

Answer: pinna Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) The tympanic membrane is also known as the

.

Answer: eardrum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) The olfactory organs control the sense of

.

Answer: smell Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) Most taste buds are contained within the

.

Answer: papillae Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

64) The patient went to a(n) examination.

, a nonmedical specialist that performed a routine eye

Answer: optometrist Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) A medical specialist who treats the eyes is a(n)

.

Answer: ophthalmologist Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 08.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) A nonmedical hearing specialist is a(n)

.

Answer: audiologist Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 08.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) Hyperopia is also known as

.

Answer: farsightedness Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

68) Nearsightedness is also known as

.

Answer: myopia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) The patient has one eye that deviates inward. This should be documented as:

.

Answer: esotropia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) The health care provider documents deviation of one eye outward as .

Answer: exotropia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) The nurse identifies that the patient is experiencing double vision or Answer: diplopia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

.

72) Upon assessment, the health care provider identifies that the patient has cloudiness of the lens of the eye, or .

Answer: cataracts Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 08.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) The nurse assesses the patient's response to light by checking what part of the eye?

A) Iris B) Pupil C) Lens D) Uvea Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) The patient is having difficulty distinguishing black and white shades. The health care provider suspects what is affected?

Answer: Rods Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) The patient cannot sense any red tones. The health care providers suspect what is affected?

Answer: Cones Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Sensory System Learning Objective: 08.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 9 The Endocrine System 1) The health care provider understands that the adrenal glands regulate A) Testosterone B) Estrogen C) Electrolytes D) Progesterone 2) The thyroid gland is located where?

A) Above the kidneys B) Either side of the trachea C) Ovaries D) Testes 3) Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the: A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Thyroid D) Parathyroid 4) Insulin is secreted by the: A) Ovaries B) Testes C) Liver D) Pancreas 5) The pancreas helps maintain proper levels of blood A) Insulin B) Glucose C) Testosterone D) Estrogen 6) Insulin is produced by A) Alpha B) Beta C) Glucagon D) Islet 7) Glucagon is produced by A) Alpha B) Beta C) Pancreas D) Islet

cells.

cells.

1

.

.

8) One example of a male hormone produced in the testes is A) Glucagons B) Estrogen C) Progesterone D) Testosterone 9) Sperm are produced in the A) Ova B) Ovaries C) Pancreas D) Testes 10) Vasopressin increases water A) Absorption B) Excretion C) Production D) Secretion

.

.

.

11) This is characterized by enlarged features, especially in the extremities and face and is caused by hypersecretion of the pituitary hormone after puberty.

A) Acromegaly B) Dwarfism C) Cretism D) Gigantism 12) This hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland; it works alongside epinephrine / adrenaline to give the body sudden energy in times of stress.

A) Sympathomimetic B) Electrolyte C) Suprarenal D) Catecholamines 13) This hormone affects the onset of puberty and also regulates the sleep-wake cycles.

A) Estrogen B) Testosterone C) Thymosin D) Melatonin 14) This hormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism.

A) Parathyroid hormone B) Growth hormone C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Thyroid hormone

2

15) This disorder is caused by a deficiency of thyroid secretion.

A) Hyperparathyroidism B) Goiter C) Exophthalmos D) Hypothyroidism 16) This is caused by an over secretion of the adrenal gland.

A) Cushing syndrome B) Exophthalmos C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Graves disease 17) What hormone promotes water reabsorption within the body?

A) Growth hormone B) Thyroid hormone C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Parathyroid hormone 18) A disease of a lymph node or gland is: A) Gonadopathy B) Glucogenesis C) Glycolysis D) Adenopathy 19) Production of glucose is: A) Glycolysis B) Glucogenesis C) Gonadotropin D) Pancreatitis 20) Bulging of the eyes is A) Graves disease B) Exophthalmos C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Goiter

.

21) Lack of iodine in the diet can cause a(n) A) Graves disease B) Exophthalmos C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Goiter 22) In the pancreas, A) Alpha ; raises B) Alpha; lowers C) Beta; raises D) Beta; lowers

.

cells secrete insulin, which

3

blood levels of glucose.

23) Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

A) thyroid B) pancreas C) pituitary D) lacrimal.

24) Which hormone is NOT secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A) prolactin B) antidiuretic hormone C) thyroid-stimulating hormone D) growth hormone 25) A goiter is an enlargement of the A) Adrenal glands B) Pituitary gland C) Thyroid gland D) Pancreas 26) The patient is experiencing hypoparathyroidism. The nurse would assess for: A) Tetany B) Anemia C) Kidney failure D) Weight loss 27) The patient is complaining of excessive fatigue, and weight gain. Which of the following glandular functions does the health care provider assess?

A) Parathyroid B) Adrenal C) Pituitary D) Thyroid 28) The patient has hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone. The health care provider evaluates the patient for: A) Hypervolemia B) Dehydration C) Myxedema D) Tetany 29) Hormones are only effective in A) cells with receptors B) ducts C) exocrine glands D) apocrine glands

4

30) Melatonin is released by the A) hypothalamus B) pineal gland C) pituitary gland D) thyroid 31) Calcitonin is secreted by A) parathyroid cells B) thymus cells C) thyroid cells D) adrenal cells 32) Acromegaly is caused by an abnormality of the A) adrenal glands B) thyroid glands C) pituitary gland D) thymus gland 33) Symptoms of diabetes include A) polydipsia B) polyuria C) tumors D) both polydipsia and polyuria 34) The adrenal glands are not responsible for which of the following?

A) Metabolism B) Growth C) Fluid and electrolyte balance D) Blood sugar levels 35) Identify the combining form adren/o with its closest definition.

A) Glucose B) Adrenal glands C) Gland D) Parathyroid 36) Identify the combining form gluc/o with its closest definition.

A) Gland B) Glycogen C) Glucose D) Pancreas 37) Identify the combining form glyc/o with its closest definition.

A) Gland B) Glycogen C) Glucose D) Pancreas 5

38) Identify the combining form gonad/o with its closest definition.

A) Sex glands B) Thyroid gland C) Glucose D) Glycogen 39) Identify the combining form pancreat/o with its closest definition.

A) Parathyroid B) Thyroid C) Gland D) Pancreas 40) Identify the combining form parathyroid/o with its closest definition.

A) Parathyroid B) Thyroid C) Gland D) Pancreas 41) Identify the combining form thyroid/o with its closest definition.

A) Parathyroid B) Thyroid C) Gland D) Pancreas 42) Hormones are secreted by 43) A group of receptors form

. tissue.

44) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the: A) blood B) lymph C) target cells D) other glands 45) Exocrine glands secrete into

.

.

46) The health care provider identifies the hypothalamus as being in the brain pituitary.

A) posterior B) superior C) lateral D) inferior 47) The

gland releases melatonin, a hormone believed to affect sleep.

48) The pituitary gland is also called the

.

6

to the

49) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is the 50) The

.

connects the two lobes of the thyroid gland.

51) The adrenal cortex is the A) outer B) inner C) posterior D) medial

portion of each adrenal gland.

52) Catecholamines are hormones that are secreted in response to

.

53) List one thing that the adrenal glands regulate.

A) Metabolism B) Hunger C) Blood sugar levels D) Thyroid 54) The health care provider explains that insulin is secreted when blood sugar levels are .

A) high B) low C) normal D) unstable 55) Prolactin stimulates

production.

56) The health care provider identifies that adrenaline is secreted by the

.

57) The patient states that he has excessive and constant thirst. The medical assistant documents this as: .

58) The patient has Graves disease. The health care provider assesses the eyes for: A) exophthalmos B) weight gain C) decreased metabolic rate D) increased fatigue 59) The parathyroid glands are responsible for

.

levels.

60) The patient had her thyroid removed. The nurse assesses the patient for sign and symptoms of .

A) hypocalcemia B) hypercalcemia C) hyperkalemia D) hypokalemia 7

61) The nurse assesses the patient's electrolyte levels which are regulated by the 62) The health care provider identifies the major androgen as:

.

.

63) The patient had a hypersecretion of growth hormone after puberty. This would be documented as: .

64) The patient is urinating excessive amounts. The health care provider assesses for: 65) Hypoadrenalism is also known as

.

.

66) The health care provider explains that excessive amounts of insulin may cause: A) hypoglycemia B) hyperglycemia C) hypocalcemia D) hypercalcemia

.

67) The health care provider stresses the importance of managing blood sugar levels to avoid damage to the kidneys or .

A) diabetic nephropathy B) lung disease C) gastrointestinal disease D) bone disease 68) The nurse assesses for symptoms of insulin shock with may include: A) tremors, bradycardia, hunger, dizziness, and cool moist skin B) tremors, tachycardia, hunger, dizziness, and cool moist skin C) tremors, tachycardia, insomnia, dizziness, and flushed skin D) tremors, bradycardia, fatigue, dizziness, and flushed skin 69) The hormone that promotes development of female sex characteristics is:

.

70) The female patient complains of excessive and abnormal hair growth. This will be documented as: .

71) The thymus gland is part of both the endocrine and

systems.

72) The health care provider identifies this hormone as being responsible for lowering blood calcium levels: .

73) This pharmacological agent raises the blood sugar:

.

74) The patient had the pituitary gland removed. This is documented as:

.

75) The pregnant patient that has a posterior pituitary tumor may have difficulty with labor due to a lack of what hormone being produced?

8

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 9 The Endocrine System 1) The health care provider understands that the adrenal glands regulate A) Testosterone B) Estrogen C) Electrolytes D) Progesterone Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) The thyroid gland is located where?

A) Above the kidneys B) Either side of the trachea C) Ovaries D) Testes Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the: A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Thyroid D) Parathyroid Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

.

4) Insulin is secreted by the: A) Ovaries B) Testes C) Liver D) Pancreas Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The pancreas helps maintain proper levels of blood A) Insulin B) Glucose C) Testosterone D) Estrogen Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) Insulin is produced by A) Alpha B) Beta C) Glucagon D) Islet

cells.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

.

7) Glucagon is produced by A) Alpha B) Beta C) Pancreas D) Islet

cells.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) One example of a male hormone produced in the testes is A) Glucagons B) Estrogen C) Progesterone D) Testosterone Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) Sperm are produced in the A) Ova B) Ovaries C) Pancreas D) Testes

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

.

10) Vasopressin increases water A) Absorption B) Excretion C) Production D) Secretion

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) This is characterized by enlarged features, especially in the extremities and face and is caused by hypersecretion of the pituitary hormone after puberty.

A) Acromegaly B) Dwarfism C) Cretism D) Gigantism Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) This hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland; it works alongside epinephrine / adrenaline to give the body sudden energy in times of stress.

A) Sympathomimetic B) Electrolyte C) Suprarenal D) Catecholamines Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) This hormone affects the onset of puberty and also regulates the sleep-wake cycles.

A) Estrogen B) Testosterone C) Thymosin D) Melatonin Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) This hormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism.

A) Parathyroid hormone B) Growth hormone C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Thyroid hormone Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) This disorder is caused by a deficiency of thyroid secretion.

A) Hyperparathyroidism B) Goiter C) Exophthalmos D) Hypothyroidism Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) This is caused by an over secretion of the adrenal gland.

A) Cushing syndrome B) Exophthalmos C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Graves disease Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) What hormone promotes water reabsorption within the body?

A) Growth hormone B) Thyroid hormone C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Parathyroid hormone Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) A disease of a lymph node or gland is: A) Gonadopathy B) Glucogenesis C) Glycolysis D) Adenopathy Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) Production of glucose is: A) Glycolysis B) Glucogenesis C) Gonadotropin D) Pancreatitis Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Bulging of the eyes is A) Graves disease B) Exophthalmos C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Goiter

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Lack of iodine in the diet can cause a(n) A) Graves disease B) Exophthalmos C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Goiter

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

22) In the pancreas, A) Alpha ; raises B) Alpha; lowers C) Beta; raises D) Beta; lowers

cells secrete insulin, which

blood levels of glucose.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

A) thyroid B) pancreas C) pituitary D) lacrimal.

Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Which hormone is NOT secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A) prolactin B) antidiuretic hormone C) thyroid-stimulating hormone D) growth hormone Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) A goiter is an enlargement of the A) Adrenal glands B) Pituitary gland C) Thyroid gland D) Pancreas Answer: C Explanation: A goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) The patient is experiencing hypoparathyroidism. The nurse would assess for: A) Tetany B) Anemia C) Kidney failure D) Weight loss Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) The patient is complaining of excessive fatigue, and weight gain. Which of the following glandular functions does the health care provider assess?

A) Parathyroid B) Adrenal C) Pituitary D) Thyroid Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) The patient has hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone. The health care provider evaluates the patient for: A) Hypervolemia B) Dehydration C) Myxedema D) Tetany Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Evaluate Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Hormones are only effective in A) cells with receptors B) ducts C) exocrine glands D) apocrine glands Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) Melatonin is released by the A) hypothalamus B) pineal gland C) pituitary gland D) thyroid Answer: B Explanation: The pineal gland is responsible for the release of melatonin.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

31) Calcitonin is secreted by A) parathyroid cells B) thymus cells C) thyroid cells D) adrenal cells Answer: C Explanation: Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid to lower blood calcium.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) Acromegaly is caused by an abnormality of the A) adrenal glands B) thyroid glands C) pituitary gland D) thymus gland Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) Symptoms of diabetes include A) polydipsia B) polyuria C) tumors D) both polydipsia and polyuria Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

34) The adrenal glands are not responsible for which of the following?

A) Metabolism B) Growth C) Fluid and electrolyte balance D) Blood sugar levels Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) Identify the combining form adren/o with its closest definition.

A) Glucose B) Adrenal glands C) Gland D) Parathyroid Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) Identify the combining form gluc/o with its closest definition.

A) Gland B) Glycogen C) Glucose D) Pancreas Answer: C Explanation: The combining form gluc/o means glucose.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) Identify the combining form glyc/o with its closest definition.

A) Gland B) Glycogen C) Glucose D) Pancreas Answer: B Explanation: The combining form glyc/o means glycogen Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) Identify the combining form gonad/o with its closest definition.

A) Sex glands B) Thyroid gland C) Glucose D) Glycogen Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) Identify the combining form pancreat/o with its closest definition.

A) Parathyroid B) Thyroid C) Gland D) Pancreas Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

40) Identify the combining form parathyroid/o with its closest definition.

A) Parathyroid B) Thyroid C) Gland D) Pancreas Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) Identify the combining form thyroid/o with its closest definition.

A) Parathyroid B) Thyroid C) Gland D) Pancreas Answer: B Explanation: The combining form thyroid/o means thyroid gland.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) Hormones are secreted by

.

Answer: glands Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

43) A group of receptors form

tissue.

Answer: target Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the: A) blood B) lymph C) target cells D) other glands Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) Exocrine glands secrete into

.

Answer: ducts Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

.

46) The health care provider identifies the hypothalamus as being in the brain pituitary.

A) posterior B) superior C) lateral D) inferior Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The

gland releases melatonin, a hormone believed to affect sleep.

Answer: pineal Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) The pituitary gland is also called the

.

Answer: hypophysis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is the Answer: adenohypophysis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

.

to the

50) The

connects the two lobes of the thyroid gland.

Answer: isthmus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) The adrenal cortex is the A) outer B) inner C) posterior D) medial

portion of each adrenal gland.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) Catecholamines are hormones that are secreted in response to Answer: stress Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) List one thing that the adrenal glands regulate.

A) Metabolism B) Hunger C) Blood sugar levels D) Thyroid Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17

.

54) The health care provider explains that insulin is secreted when blood sugar levels are .

A) high B) low C) normal D) unstable Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) Prolactin stimulates

production.

Answer: milk Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) The health care provider identifies that adrenaline is secreted by the

.

Answer: adrenal medulla Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) The patient states that he has excessive and constant thirst. The medical assistant documents this as: .

Answer: polydipsia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18

58) The patient has Graves disease. The health care provider assesses the eyes for: A) exophthalmos B) weight gain C) decreased metabolic rate D) increased fatigue

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) The parathyroid glands are responsible for

levels.

Answer: calcium Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) The patient had her thyroid removed. The nurse assesses the patient for sign and symptoms of .

A) hypocalcemia B) hypercalcemia C) hyperkalemia D) hypokalemia Answer: A Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

61) The nurse assesses the patient's electrolyte levels which are regulated by the

.

Answer: adrenal glands Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) The health care provider identifies the major androgen as:

.

Answer: testosterone Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) The patient had a hypersecretion of growth hormone after puberty. This would be documented as: .

Answer: acromegaly Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 64) The patient is urinating excessive amounts. The health care provider assesses for: Answer: diabetes insipidus Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

.

65) Hypoadrenalism is also known as

.

Answer: Addison disease Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) The health care provider explains that excessive amounts of insulin may cause: A) hypoglycemia B) hyperglycemia C) hypocalcemia D) hypercalcemia Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) The health care provider stresses the importance of managing blood sugar levels to avoid damage to the kidneys or .

A) diabetic nephropathy B) lung disease C) gastrointestinal disease D) bone disease Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

.

68) The nurse assesses for symptoms of insulin shock with may include: A) tremors, bradycardia, hunger, dizziness, and cool moist skin B) tremors, tachycardia, hunger, dizziness, and cool moist skin C) tremors, tachycardia, insomnia, dizziness, and flushed skin D) tremors, bradycardia, fatigue, dizziness, and flushed skin Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) The hormone that promotes development of female sex characteristics is: Answer: estrogen Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) The female patient complains of excessive and abnormal hair growth. This will be documented as: .

Answer: hirsutism Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) The thymus gland is part of both the endocrine and Answer: immune Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

systems.

.

72) The health care provider identifies this hormone as being responsible for lowering blood calcium levels: .

Answer: calcitonin Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Endocrine System Learning Objective: 09.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) This pharmacological agent raises the blood sugar:

.

Answer: antihypoglycemic Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 09.06 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) The patient had the pituitary gland removed. This is documented as:

.

Answer: hypophysectomy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 09.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) The pregnant patient that has a posterior pituitary tumor may have difficulty with labor due to a lack of what hormone being produced?

Answer: oxytocin Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 09.04 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 10 The Blood System 1) Vitamin K is used to stop bleeding, which means it is a(n): A) Anticoagulant B) Thrombolytic C) Coagulant D) Hemostatic 2) When a disease is in remission, it A) Is recurring B) Has disappeared C) Is dormant D) Is worsening 3) Blood cultures are tests for: A) Viral infections B) Anemia C) Bacterial infections D) Liver disorders 4) The solid part of blood does not contain A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) platelets D) plasma 5) One type of plasma protein is A) fibrinogen B) erythropoietin C) heparin D) hematocrit 6) Red blood cells are A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) erythrocytes 7) Eosinophils stain A) bright red B) bright yellow C) dark purple D) grey

1

8) The nurse understands that the blood type that has no antigens is A) A B) B C) O D) D 9) The most common blood test ordered for a routine medical check-up is a(n): A) HCT B) PT C) CBC D) ESR 10) Anemia is a general term for a blood disorder in which A) red blood cells do not transport enough oxygen B) red blood cells transport too much oxygen C) there is an excessive increase in white blood cells D) there is excessive iron in the blood 11) The nurse assesses a patient for bruising due to this bleeding disorder: A) leukemia B) hemochromatosis C) thrombocytopenia D) eosinophilia 12) Which of the following is defined as an agent to stop bleeding?

A) thrombolytics B) anticoagulants C) coagulants D) hemostatics 13) Chemotherapy is used to cause a A) remission B) relapse C) recurrence D) regression 14) The fluid part of blood is A) Albumin B) WBC C) RBC D) Plasma 15) Plasma consists of 92 percent A) Electrolytes B) Proteins C) Water D) Gases

.

.

2

16) Gamma globulins are important to the function of the A) Immune B) Renal C) Cardiovascular D) Endocrine

system.

17) The cells in blood that destroy foreign substances are A) Erythrocytes B) Thrombocytes C) Leukocytes D) Platelets 18) About one-half of leukocytes are A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes 19) The nurse understands that A) Antigens B) Histamine C) Antibodies D) lymph 20) Rh factor is a type of A) Antigen B) Histamine C) Antibody D) Lymph

.

.

is released during allergic reactions.

.

21) Any disease of the blood with abnormal material present is a type of A) Leukemia B) Dyscrasia C) Anemia D) Antigen 22) Erythroblastosis fetalis is also known as RH factor A) Compatibility B) Incompatibility C) Remission D) Relapse

3

.

.

23) To prevent blood clots, the nurse administers what to most surgical patients?

A) Coagulants B) Anticoagulants C) Thrombolytics D) Hemostatics 24) Identify the combining form agglutin/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) Blood C) White D) agglutinin 25) Identify the combining form eosin/o with its closest definition.

A) Agglutinin B) Eating C) Eosinophil D) white 26) Identify the combining form erythr/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating 27) Identify the combining form hem/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating 28) Identify the combining form leuk/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating 29) Identify the combining form phag/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating 30) The term for blood clot is: A) thrombocytopenia B) thrombocyte C) thrombus D) thrombolytic 4

31) A cell involved in blood clotting is a(n): A) Eosinophil B) Thrombocyte C) Thrombocytopenia D) hemodialysis 32) A cell that consumes other substances is a: A) thrombocyte B) phagocyte C) leukocyte D) hemocyte 33) The white blood cells that increase during an allergic reaction are: A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) monocytes D) lymphocytes 34) The patient has been diagnosed with anemia that is due to the lack of vitamin B12. This is which of the following?

A) Iron-deficiency B) Aplastic C) Pernicious D) Sickle cell 35) The patient has been diagnosed with an anemia in which the bone marrow fails to produce enough red blood cells. This is which of the following?

A) Iron-deficiency B) Aplastic C) Pernicious D) Sickle cell 36) The formed elements of the blood are: A) Plasma, albumin, fibrinogen B) Erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets C) Hemoglobin, leukocytes, lymphocytes D) Albumin, platelets, lymphocytes 37) Platelets release A) Fibrinogen B) Fibrin C) Thrombin D) thromboplastin

to initiate the blood clotting process.

5

38) Identify the correct spelling for the term that describes the withdrawal of blood for examination.

A) Phlebatomie B) Phlebotomy C) Pflebotomy D) Pflebatomie 39) With this disease, there is an abnormal increase in the red blood cells.

A) Pancytopenia B) Purpura C) Hemolysis D) Polycythemia 40) and are essential for blood coagulation.

A) Heparin, histamine B) Fibrinogen, prothrombin C) Thromboplastin, gamma globulins D) Thrombin, albumin 41) A leukocyte is a(n): A) Immature cell B) White blood cell C) Red blood cell D) Blood protein 42) The destruction of red blood cells is: A) Hematocrit B) Hemoglobin C) Hemolysis D) Hemogenesis 43) This is the largest blood cell.

A) Monocyte B) Lymphocyte C) Thrombocyte D) Granulocyte 44) Blood does not do which of the following?

A) Transports nutrients B) Regulates body temperature C) Maintains fluid volume D) Secrete hormones

6

45) The average adult has about A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 7

liters of blood circulating within the body.

46) The liquid part of the blood is known as

.

47) The solid part of the blood contains

cells.

48) The main group of plasma proteins that helps regulate water movement between blood and tissue is .

49) A process that uses centrifuging to take a patient's blood and return only the red blood cells is known as .

50) The health care provider explains to the patient that some elements of the blood, such as , prevent clotting during normal circulation.

51) Leukocytes, which protect against disease in various ways such as by destroying foreign substances, are also known as .

A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Platelets D) Plasma 52) Platelets adhere to damaged tissue and each other to control vessel.

loss from a blood

53) The patient is having a blood transfusion reaction where the clumping of the antigens has stopped the flow of blood. The nurse recognizes this clumping as: .

54) The health care provider explains to the patient that coagulation is the changing of a semisolid or gel into a .

55) The patient has a condition that occurs when the red blood cells do not transport enough oxygen to the tissues. The health care provider identifies this as: .

56) A hemorrhagic disorder in which there is a greater tendency to bleed due to the lack of a clotting factor called factor VIII is a disorder called .

57) The patient has been diagnosed with a major disease involving white blood cells or .

58) The health care provider explains that the patient has a malignant tumor of the bone marrow or .

7

59) During the assessment, the health care provider identifies multiple, tiny hemorrhages under the skin. This should be documented as: .

60) The diagnostic procedure as anemia or leukemia.

is used in the diagnosis of various blood disorders, such

61) Neutrophils are the most plentiful 62) Heparin is a(n)

.

63) Agranulocytes include A) Lymphocytes, monocytes B) Lymphocytes and erythrocytes C) Monocytes and neutrophils D) Erythrocytes and neutrophils 64) People with types of blood.

.

and

.

blood type can receive blood transfusions from people with all other

65) Hemolysis is a A) RBC B) WBC C) Plasma D) Platelets

membrane disorder.

66) Thalassemia is a

blood disorder.

67) Aspirin is a well-known

.

68) To assess a protein in the red blood cells that aids in the transport of oxygen to the cells of the body, the nurse would review which laboratory value?

69) What blood type would a health care provider explain to a patient's family as being universal donor?

70) What class of medications would be prescribed to decrease clotting?

71) Identify the four plasma proteins.

72) The patient has sustained kidney damage. The nurse identifies that which hormone may be affected that will affect the production of red blood cells?

73) A sedimentation rate test identifies information regarding and kidney disorders.

inflammation, sickle cell

74) The patient had a heart attack due to a clot. Which class of agents may be administered to dissolve blood clots?

8

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 10 The Blood System 1) Vitamin K is used to stop bleeding, which means it is a(n): A) Anticoagulant B) Thrombolytic C) Coagulant D) Hemostatic Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) When a disease is in remission, it A) Is recurring B) Has disappeared C) Is dormant D) Is worsening Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) Blood cultures are tests for: A) Viral infections B) Anemia C) Bacterial infections D) Liver disorders Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 10.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) The solid part of blood does not contain A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) platelets D) plasma Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) One type of plasma protein is A) fibrinogen B) erythropoietin C) heparin D) hematocrit Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) Red blood cells are A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) erythrocytes Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) Eosinophils stain A) bright red B) bright yellow C) dark purple D) grey Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) The nurse understands that the blood type that has no antigens is A) A B) B C) O D) D Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) The most common blood test ordered for a routine medical check-up is a(n): A) HCT B) PT C) CBC D) ESR Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 10.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) Anemia is a general term for a blood disorder in which A) red blood cells do not transport enough oxygen B) red blood cells transport too much oxygen C) there is an excessive increase in white blood cells D) there is excessive iron in the blood Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) The nurse assesses a patient for bruising due to this bleeding disorder: A) leukemia B) hemochromatosis C) thrombocytopenia D) eosinophilia Answer: C Explanation: Thrombocytopenia is a bleeding disorder with insufficient platelets to aid in the clotting process.

Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) Which of the following is defined as an agent to stop bleeding?

A) thrombolytics B) anticoagulants C) coagulants D) hemostatics Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) Chemotherapy is used to cause a A) remission B) relapse C) recurrence D) regression Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) The fluid part of blood is A) Albumin B) WBC C) RBC D) Plasma

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) Plasma consists of 92 percent A) Electrolytes B) Proteins C) Water D) Gases

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Gamma globulins are important to the function of the A) Immune B) Renal C) Cardiovascular D) Endocrine

system.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) The cells in blood that destroy foreign substances are A) Erythrocytes B) Thrombocytes C) Leukocytes D) Platelets Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) About one-half of leukocytes are A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

.

19) The nurse understands that A) Antigens B) Histamine C) Antibodies D) lymph

is released during allergic reactions.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Rh factor is a type of A) Antigen B) Histamine C) Antibody D) Lymph

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Any disease of the blood with abnormal material present is a type of A) Leukemia B) Dyscrasia C) Anemia D) Antigen

.

Answer: B Explanation: Dyscrasia is a general term for any disease of the blood with abnormal material present.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

22) Erythroblastosis fetalis is also known as RH factor A) Compatibility B) Incompatibility C) Remission D) Relapse

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) To prevent blood clots, the nurse administers what to most surgical patients?

A) Coagulants B) Anticoagulants C) Thrombolytics D) Hemostatics Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Identify the combining form agglutin/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) Blood C) White D) agglutinin Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) Identify the combining form eosin/o with its closest definition.

A) Agglutinin B) Eating C) Eosinophil D) white Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Identify the combining form erythr/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) Identify the combining form hem/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) Identify the combining form leuk/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Identify the combining form phag/o with its closest definition.

A) Red B) White C) Blood D) eating Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) The term for blood clot is: A) thrombocytopenia B) thrombocyte C) thrombus D) thrombolytic Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

31) A cell involved in blood clotting is a(n): A) Eosinophil B) Thrombocyte C) Thrombocytopenia D) hemodialysis Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) A cell that consumes other substances is a: A) thrombocyte B) phagocyte C) leukocyte D) hemocyte Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) The white blood cells that increase during an allergic reaction are: A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) monocytes D) lymphocytes Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

34) The patient has been diagnosed with anemia that is due to the lack of vitamin B12. This is which of the following?

A) Iron-deficiency B) Aplastic C) Pernicious D) Sickle cell Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The patient has been diagnosed with an anemia in which the bone marrow fails to produce enough red blood cells. This is which of the following?

A) Iron-deficiency B) Aplastic C) Pernicious D) Sickle cell Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) The formed elements of the blood are: A) Plasma, albumin, fibrinogen B) Erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets C) Hemoglobin, leukocytes, lymphocytes D) Albumin, platelets, lymphocytes Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) Platelets release A) Fibrinogen B) Fibrin C) Thrombin D) thromboplastin

to initiate the blood clotting process.

Answer: D Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) Identify the correct spelling for the term that describes the withdrawal of blood for examination.

A) Phlebatomie B) Phlebotomy C) Pflebotomy D) Pflebatomie Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 10.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) With this disease, there is an abnormal increase in the red blood cells.

A) Pancytopenia B) Purpura C) Hemolysis D) Polycythemia Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

40) and are essential for blood coagulation.

A) Heparin, histamine B) Fibrinogen, prothrombin C) Thromboplastin, gamma globulins D) Thrombin, albumin Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) A leukocyte is a(n): A) Immature cell B) White blood cell C) Red blood cell D) Blood protein Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) The destruction of red blood cells is: A) Hematocrit B) Hemoglobin C) Hemolysis D) Hemogenesis Answer: C Explanation: Hemolysis is the breakdown of red blood cells.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

43) This is the largest blood cell.

A) Monocyte B) Lymphocyte C) Thrombocyte D) Granulocyte Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) Blood does not do which of the following?

A) Transports nutrients B) Regulates body temperature C) Maintains fluid volume D) Secrete hormones Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) The average adult has about A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 7

liters of blood circulating within the body.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

46) The liquid part of the blood is known as

.

Answer: plasma Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The solid part of the blood contains

cells.

Answer: blood Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) The main group of plasma proteins that helps regulate water movement between blood and tissue is .

Answer: albumin Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) A process that uses centrifuging to take a patient's blood and return only the red blood cells is known as .

Answer: plasmapheresis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

50) The health care provider explains to the patient that some elements of the blood, such as , prevent clotting during normal circulation.

Answer: heparin Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) Leukocytes, which protect against disease in various ways such as by destroying foreign substances, are also known as .

A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Platelets D) Plasma Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) Platelets adhere to damaged tissue and each other to control vessel.

loss from a blood

Answer: blood Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) The patient is having a blood transfusion reaction where the clumping of the antigens has stopped the flow of blood. The nurse recognizes this clumping as: .

Answer: agglutination Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17

54) The health care provider explains to the patient that coagulation is the changing of a semisolid or gel into a .

Answer: Solid Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) The patient has a condition that occurs when the red blood cells do not transport enough oxygen to the tissues. The health care provider identifies this as: .

Answer: anemia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) A hemorrhagic disorder in which there is a greater tendency to bleed due to the lack of a clotting factor called factor VIII is a disorder called .

Answer: von Willebrand disease Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) The patient has been diagnosed with a major disease involving white blood cells or .

Answer: Leukemia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

58) The health care provider explains that the patient has a malignant tumor of the bone marrow or .

Answer: multiple myeloma Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) During the assessment, the health care provider identifies multiple, tiny hemorrhages under the skin. This should be documented as: .

Answer: purpura Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) The diagnostic procedure as anemia or leukemia.

is used in the diagnosis of various blood disorders, such

Answer: bone marrow biopsy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 10.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) Neutrophils are the most plentiful

.

Answer: leukocytes Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

62) Heparin is a(n)

.

Answer: Anticoagulant Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) Agranulocytes include A) Lymphocytes, monocytes B) Lymphocytes and erythrocytes C) Monocytes and neutrophils D) Erythrocytes and neutrophils

and

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 64) People with types of blood.

blood type can receive blood transfusions from people with all other

Answer: AB Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

65) Hemolysis is a A) RBC B) WBC C) Plasma D) Platelets

membrane disorder.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) Thalassemia is a

blood disorder.

Answer: hereditary Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 10.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) Aspirin is a well-known

.

Answer: anticoagulant Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) To assess a protein in the red blood cells that aids in the transport of oxygen to the cells of the body, the nurse would review which laboratory value?

Answer: Hemoglobin Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

69) What blood type would a health care provider explain to a patient's family as being universal donor?

Answer: Type O Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Blood System Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) What class of medications would be prescribed to decrease clotting?

Answer: Anticoagulants Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) Identify the four plasma proteins.

Answer: Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen and prothrombin Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) The patient has sustained kidney damage. The nurse identifies that which hormone may be affected that will affect the production of red blood cells?

Answer: Erythropoietin Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

73) A sedimentation rate test identifies information regarding and kidney disorders.

inflammation, sickle cell

Answer: joint Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 10.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) The patient had a heart attack due to a clot. Which class of agents may be administered to dissolve blood clots?

Answer: Thrombolytics Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 10.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 11 The Cardiovascular System 1) The procedure used to remove the disease lining of an artery is: A) Endarterectomy B) Valvotomy C) Artherectomy D) Arteriotomy 2) The two most common veins used in a coronary artery bypass graft are: A) Mammary and femoral B) Mammary and brachial C) Mammary and saphenous D) Mammary and cephalic 3) The cardiologist may use a(n) A) Stent B) Bypass C) Angioscopy D) atherectomy

to hold a blood vessel open.

4) The patient has hypertension. The physician may order what type of medication to treat this?

A) Lipid-lowering B) Anticoagulant C) Vasodilator D) Vasoconstrictor 5) This medication is used to increase the force of the myocardial contraction.

A) Vasoconstrictors B) Anticoagulants C) Thrombolytics D) Cardiotonics 6) Thrombolytics are used to: A) Dissolve blood clots B) Normalize heart rate C) Increase the myocardial contraction D) Decrease blood clotting.

7) The patient has edema. The physician may order what classification of medication?

A) Antihypertensive B) Diuretic C) Antiarrhythmic D) Thrombolytic

1

8) Antiarrhythmics help to regulate: A) Blood pressure B) Clotting time C) Heart rate D) Chest pain 9) The cardiovascular system does not include which of the following?

A) coronary circulation B) pulmonary circulation C) systemic circulation D) lymphatic circulation 10) A bypass or CABG is usually performed to A) cure cancer B) correct bradycardia C) create a new passage for blood D) none of these 11) The blood vessel that brings oxygenated blood to the heart is the A) carotid artery B) pulmonary vein C) femoral artery D) popliteal artery 12) A myocardial infarction is also known as a(n) A) stroke B) heart attack C) CVA D) aneurysm 13) A type of surgery on blood vessels does not include: A) endarterectomy B) arteriotomy C) angioplasty D) venipuncture 14) The outer covering of the heart is the A) pericardium B) endocarditis C) cardiomyopathy D) ventricle 15) The bicuspid valve controls blood flow between the A) heart and lungs B) arteries and veins C) atrium and ventricle D) none of these 2

16) Echocardiography is a diagnostic test that uses A) nuclear medicine imaging B) sound waves C) electrical waves D) none of these 17) Fatty substances are also known as A) lipids B) enzymes C) beta blockers D) proteins 18) Diuretics are used to treat A) hypertension B) hypotension C) edema D) both hypertension and edema 19) The measure of the force of blood surging against artery walls is called: A) Blood pressure B) Systole C) Diastole D) Contraction 20) The lower chambers of the heart are called the A) Septum B) Atria C) Ventricles D) Aorta 21) Saphenous veins transport deoxygenated blood from the A) Arms B) Legs C) Heart D) Brain

.

.

22) The blood moves in a surge caused by the muscular contraction of the heart. This surge is called the .

A) Blood pressure B) Contraction C) Pulse D) Circulation

3

23) Triglycerides are fatty substances or A) Enzymes B) Cholesterol C) Serum D) Lipids

.

24) A 24-hour electrocardiogram can be done with a(n) A) Arteriography B) Holter monitor C) Ventriculogram D) Venography 25) Abnormally low blood pressure is called A) Essential B) Hypotension C) Hypertension D) Hypertensive

.

26) Plaque in the wall of an artery is called a(n) A) Atheroma B) Atherosclerosis C) Embolus D) Thrombus

.

27) A surgical incision into an artery is a(n) A) Embolectomy B) Atherectomy C) Arteriotomy D) Thrombectomy

.

28) Angina can be relieved with the help of A) Antihypertensives B) Cardiotonics C) Antiarrhythmics D) Antianginals

.

29) The heart is covered by the A) Pericardium B) Ventricle C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

.

30) The outermost layer of the heart is the A) Pericardium B) Epicardium C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

4

31) The middle layer of the heart is the A) Pericardium B) Epicardium C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

32) The inner layer of the heart is the A) Pericardium B) Epicardium C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

33) The atria and ventricles are separated from each other by a(n) A) Septum B) Pulmonary vein C) Pulmonary artery D) Aorta 34) Blood flow within the heart is regulated by A) Ventricles B) Atria C) Valves D) Septum

.

.

35) The health care provider explains to the patient that the arteries primarily carry blood.

A) Deoxygenated B) Oxygenated C) Nutrient poor D) Oxygen poor 36) The lining of the arteries is the A) Myocardium B) Epicardium C) Endothelium D) Endocardium

.

37) The space in the arteries through which the blood flows is the A) Lumen B) Valve C) Septa D) Endocardium

5

.

38) The valves prevent the backflow of blood into the heart.

A) Mitral B) Semilunar C) Tricuspid D) atrioventricular 39) The circulation of blood within the heart is A) Systemic B) Pulmonary C) Coronary D) Lymphatic

circulation.

40) The flow of blood between the heart and lungs is A) Systemic B) Pulmonary C) Coronary D) Lymphatic 41) The flow of blood around the body is A) Systemic B) Pulmonary C) Coronary D) Lymphatic

circulation.

circulation.

42) The back of the knee receives blood from the A) Carotid B) Femoral C) Popliteal D) Brachial

artery.

43) The contraction phase of blood pressure is A) Blood pressure B) Systole C) Diastole D) Conduction

.

44) The relaxation phase of blood pressure is A) Blood pressure B) Systole C) Diastole D) Conduction 45) Normal heart rhythm is called A) Sinus B) Tachycardia C) Bradycardia D) Fibrillation

.

rhythm.

6

46) During auscultation, the nurse hears a soft humming sound. The nurse should document this as a: A) Bruit B) Rub C) Gallop D) Murmur 47) A frictional sound heard on auscultation. The health care provider should document this as a: A) Bruit B) Rub C) Gallop D) Murmur 48) The patient states he experiences pain and limping when walking. The health care provider recognizes this as: A) Bruit B) Rub C) Gallop D) Claudication 49) Identify the combining form angi/o with its closest definition.

A) Aorta B) Blood vessel C) Fatty matter D) Artery 50) Identify the combining form aort/o with its closest definition.

A) Aorta B) Blood vessel C) Fatty matter D) Artery 51) Identify the combining form atri/o with its closest definition.

A) Aorta B) Blood vessel C) Atrium D) Artery 52) Identify the combining form cardi/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Heart C) Vein D) Blood clot

7

53) Identify the combining form thromb/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Heart C) Vein D) Blood clot 54) Identify the combining form pericardi/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Heart C) Pericardium D) Blood clot 55) Identify the combining form phleb/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Artery C) Vein D) Blood clot 56) Identify the combining form sphygm/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Pressure C) Pulse D) Blood clot 57) The tricuspid valve is a type of

valve.

58) An echocardiogram uses sound waves to create an image of the structure and movement of the .

59) When the pulse rate is fast, it is known as: 60) A

draws blood for testing.

61) The diagnostic viewing of the heart and its large blood vessels is known as 62) Phlebitis is an inflammation of a(n)

.

.

63) Auscultation is listening to sounds with a

.

64) Hypertension due to an unknown cause is known as

.

65) A diagnostic tool used to measure electricity flowing through the heart is a(n): 66) Blockages of blood flow causing damage to the heart are known as: 67) The layman's term for hypertension is

.

8

. .

68) The patient's chief complaint is a feeling of light-headedness. The caregiver identifies the blood pressure is low. The medical term for this is .

69) Nutrients leave the capillaries via

.

70) Capillaries transport this waste material

.

71) The carotid artery supplies blood to the A) head and neck B) head and shoulders C) neck and upper arms D) head and upper arms

and

72) Diastole is the

.

phase of a heartbeat.

73) The endothelium is the lining of the 74) The pericardium provides

. to the heart.

75) The health care provider explains to the patient that the pulmonary veins carry blood.

76) Blood flows from the left atrium through the mitral valve in the 77) A septum separates the A) atria and ventricles B) atria and pulmonary valve C) ventricles and mitral valve D) pulmonary and mitral valve

and

.

.

78) The largest artery is the 79) The medical assistant will use a

to measure blood pressure.

80) The patient has been diagnosed with a weakness in the artery wall.The health care provider explains to the patient that this is known as a(n) .

81) The health care provider understands that a fatty deposit in an artery is a(n):

.

82) The nurse is assessing the heart rate of a patient. The heart rate is 48 beats/minute. This would be documented as: .

83) The patient's heart has suddenly stopped. The health care provider recognizes this as: .

84) The medical assistant identifies that the patient has a bluish color to his lips and fingers. This should be documented as: .

9

85) An inflammation of the endocardium is:

.

86) A tumor within the heart chamber is a(n):

.

87) The physician suspects the patient had a myocardial infarction. The nurse anticipates which laboratory testing being ordered?

88) The patient is experiencing an irregular heart rate, the nurse anticipates the patient having what rhythm?

89) The physician would order a 24-hour period.

monitor to measure the patient's heart activity over a

10

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 11 The Cardiovascular System 1) The procedure used to remove the disease lining of an artery is: A) Endarterectomy B) Valvotomy C) Artherectomy D) Arteriotomy Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 11.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) The two most common veins used in a coronary artery bypass graft are: A) Mammary and femoral B) Mammary and brachial C) Mammary and saphenous D) Mammary and cephalic Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 11.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) The cardiologist may use a(n) A) Stent B) Bypass C) Angioscopy D) atherectomy

to hold a blood vessel open.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) The patient has hypertension. The physician may order what type of medication to treat this?

A) Lipid-lowering B) Anticoagulant C) Vasodilator D) Vasoconstrictor Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 11.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) This medication is used to increase the force of the myocardial contraction.

A) Vasoconstrictors B) Anticoagulants C) Thrombolytics D) Cardiotonics Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 11.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) Thrombolytics are used to: A) Dissolve blood clots B) Normalize heart rate C) Increase the myocardial contraction D) Decrease blood clotting.

Answer: A Explanation: Thrombolytics are used to dissolve blood clots Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 11.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) The patient has edema. The physician may order what classification of medication?

A) Antihypertensive B) Diuretic C) Antiarrhythmic D) Thrombolytic Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 11.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) Antiarrhythmics help to regulate: A) Blood pressure B) Clotting time C) Heart rate D) Chest pain Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 11.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) The cardiovascular system does not include which of the following?

A) coronary circulation B) pulmonary circulation C) systemic circulation D) lymphatic circulation Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) A bypass or CABG is usually performed to A) cure cancer B) correct bradycardia C) create a new passage for blood D) none of these Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 11.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) The blood vessel that brings oxygenated blood to the heart is the A) carotid artery B) pulmonary vein C) femoral artery D) popliteal artery Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) A myocardial infarction is also known as a(n) A) stroke B) heart attack C) CVA D) aneurysm Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) A type of surgery on blood vessels does not include: A) endarterectomy B) arteriotomy C) angioplasty D) venipuncture Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 11.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) The outer covering of the heart is the A) pericardium B) endocarditis C) cardiomyopathy D) ventricle Answer: A Explanation: The pericardium is the outer protective sac.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) The bicuspid valve controls blood flow between the A) heart and lungs B) arteries and veins C) atrium and ventricle D) none of these Answer: C Explanation: The bicuspid or mitral valve controls the flow of blood between the atria and ventricles.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Echocardiography is a diagnostic test that uses A) nuclear medicine imaging B) sound waves C) electrical waves D) none of these Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Fatty substances are also known as A) lipids B) enzymes C) beta blockers D) proteins Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) Diuretics are used to treat A) hypertension B) hypotension C) edema D) both hypertension and edema Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) The measure of the force of blood surging against artery walls is called: A) Blood pressure B) Systole C) Diastole D) Contraction Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) The lower chambers of the heart are called the A) Septum B) Atria C) Ventricles D) Aorta

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Saphenous veins transport deoxygenated blood from the A) Arms B) Legs C) Heart D) Brain Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

.

22) The blood moves in a surge caused by the muscular contraction of the heart. This surge is called the .

A) Blood pressure B) Contraction C) Pulse D) Circulation Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Triglycerides are fatty substances or A) Enzymes B) Cholesterol C) Serum D) Lipids

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) A 24-hour electrocardiogram can be done with a(n) A) Arteriography B) Holter monitor C) Ventriculogram D) Venography Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

.

25) Abnormally low blood pressure is called A) Essential B) Hypotension C) Hypertension D) Hypertensive

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Plaque in the wall of an artery is called a(n) A) Atheroma B) Atherosclerosis C) Embolus D) Thrombus

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) A surgical incision into an artery is a(n) A) Embolectomy B) Atherectomy C) Arteriotomy D) Thrombectomy

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 11.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) Angina can be relieved with the help of A) Antihypertensives B) Cardiotonics C) Antiarrhythmics D) Antianginals

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 11.06 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) The heart is covered by the A) Pericardium B) Ventricle C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) The outermost layer of the heart is the A) Pericardium B) Epicardium C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

31) The middle layer of the heart is the A) Pericardium B) Epicardium C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) The inner layer of the heart is the A) Pericardium B) Epicardium C) Myocardium D) Endocardium

.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) The atria and ventricles are separated from each other by a(n) A) Septum B) Pulmonary vein C) Pulmonary artery D) Aorta Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

.

34) Blood flow within the heart is regulated by A) Ventricles B) Atria C) Valves D) Septum

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The health care provider explains to the patient that the arteries primarily carry blood.

A) Deoxygenated B) Oxygenated C) Nutrient poor D) Oxygen poor Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) The lining of the arteries is the A) Myocardium B) Epicardium C) Endothelium D) Endocardium

.

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) The space in the arteries through which the blood flows is the A) Lumen B) Valve C) Septa D) Endocardium Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) The valves prevent the backflow of blood into the heart.

A) Mitral B) Semilunar C) Tricuspid D) atrioventricular Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The circulation of blood within the heart is A) Systemic B) Pulmonary C) Coronary D) Lymphatic

circulation.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

.

40) The flow of blood between the heart and lungs is A) Systemic B) Pulmonary C) Coronary D) Lymphatic

circulation.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) The flow of blood around the body is A) Systemic B) Pulmonary C) Coronary D) Lymphatic

circulation.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) The back of the knee receives blood from the A) Carotid B) Femoral C) Popliteal D) Brachial Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

artery.

43) The contraction phase of blood pressure is A) Blood pressure B) Systole C) Diastole D) Conduction

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) The relaxation phase of blood pressure is A) Blood pressure B) Systole C) Diastole D) Conduction

.

Answer: C Explanation: Diastole is the relaxation phase of blood pressure.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) Normal heart rhythm is called A) Sinus B) Tachycardia C) Bradycardia D) Fibrillation

rhythm.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

46) During auscultation, the nurse hears a soft humming sound. The nurse should document this as a: A) Bruit B) Rub C) Gallop D) Murmur Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) A frictional sound heard on auscultation. The health care provider should document this as a: A) Bruit B) Rub C) Gallop D) Murmur Answer: B Explanation: A frictional sound is a rub and may indicate a pericardial disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) The patient states he experiences pain and limping when walking. The health care provider recognizes this as: A) Bruit B) Rub C) Gallop D) Claudication Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

49) Identify the combining form angi/o with its closest definition.

A) Aorta B) Blood vessel C) Fatty matter D) Artery Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) Identify the combining form aort/o with its closest definition.

A) Aorta B) Blood vessel C) Fatty matter D) Artery Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) Identify the combining form atri/o with its closest definition.

A) Aorta B) Blood vessel C) Atrium D) Artery Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

52) Identify the combining form cardi/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Heart C) Vein D) Blood clot Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) Identify the combining form thromb/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Heart C) Vein D) Blood clot Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) Identify the combining form pericardi/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Heart C) Pericardium D) Blood clot Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

55) Identify the combining form phleb/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Artery C) Vein D) Blood clot Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) Identify the combining form sphygm/o with its closest definition.

A) Blood vessel B) Pressure C) Pulse D) Blood clot Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) The tricuspid valve is a type of

valve.

Answer: atrioventricular Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

58) An echocardiogram uses sound waves to create an image of the structure and movement of the .

Answer: heart Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) When the pulse rate is fast, it is known as: Answer: tachycardia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) A

draws blood for testing.

Answer: phlebotomist Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 11.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) The diagnostic viewing of the heart and its large blood vessels is known as Answer: Angiocardiography Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

.

62) Phlebitis is an inflammation of a(n)

.

Answer: vein Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) Auscultation is listening to sounds with a

.

Answer: stethoscope Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 64) Hypertension due to an unknown cause is known as

.

Answer: Essential Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) A diagnostic tool used to measure electricity flowing through the heart is a(n): Answer: electrocardiogram Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

.

66) Blockages of blood flow causing damage to the heart are known as:

.

Answer: Myocardial infarctions Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) The layman's term for hypertension is

.

Answer: high blood pressure Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) The patient's chief complaint is a feeling of light-headedness. The caregiver identifies the blood pressure is low. The medical term for this is .

Answer: Hypotension Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) Nutrients leave the capillaries via

.

Answer: osmosis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

70) Capillaries transport this waste material

.

Answer: Carbon monoxide Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) The carotid artery supplies blood to the A) head and neck B) head and shoulders C) neck and upper arms D) head and upper arms

and

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) Diastole is the

phase of a heartbeat.

Answer: relaxation Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) The endothelium is the lining of the

.

Answer: arteries Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23

.

74) The pericardium provides

to the heart.

Answer: protection Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) The health care provider explains to the patient that the pulmonary veins carry blood.

Answer: oxygenated Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 76) Blood flows from the left atrium through the mitral valve in the Answer: left ventricle Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77) A septum separates the A) atria and ventricles B) atria and pulmonary valve C) ventricles and mitral valve D) pulmonary and mitral valve

and

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24

.

78) The largest artery is the Answer: aorta Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Cardiovascular System Learning Objective: 11.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 79) The medical assistant will use a

to measure blood pressure.

Answer: Sphygmomanometer Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 80) The patient has been diagnosed with a weakness in the artery wall.The health care provider explains to the patient that this is known as a(n) .

Answer: Aneurysm Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 81) The health care provider understands that a fatty deposit in an artery is a(n): Answer: atheroma Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25

.

82) The nurse is assessing the heart rate of a patient. The heart rate is 48 beats/minute. This would be documented as: .

Answer: bradycardia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 83) The patient's heart has suddenly stopped. The health care provider recognizes this as: .

Answer: cardiac arrest Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 84) The medical assistant identifies that the patient has a bluish color to his lips and fingers. This should be documented as: .

Answer: cyanosis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 85) An inflammation of the endocardium is:

.

Answer: endocarditis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26

86) A tumor within the heart chamber is a(n):

.

Answer: intracardiac tumor Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 87) The physician suspects the patient had a myocardial infarction. The nurse anticipates which laboratory testing being ordered?

Answer: cardiac enzymes Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 88) The patient is experiencing an irregular heart rate, the nurse anticipates the patient having what rhythm?

Answer: atrial fibrillation Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 11.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 89) The physician would order a 24-hour period.

monitor to measure the patient's heart activity over a

Answer: Holter Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 11.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 12 The Respiratory System 1) Identify the combining term nas/o with its closest definition A) Mouth B) Nose C) Trachea D) larynx 2) Identify the combining term or/o with its closest definition A) Mouth B) Oxygen C) Pharynx D) Diaphragm 3) Identify the combining term pharyng/o with its closest definition A) Voice B) Pleura C) Air D) pharynx 4) Identify the combining term phon/o with its closest definition A) Voice B) Pleura C) Air D) pharynx 5) Identify the combining term pneum/o with its closest definition A) Voice B) Pleura C) Air D) pharynx 6) Identify the combining term spir/o with its closest definition A) Chest B) Nose C) Breathing D) oxygen 7) Identify the combining term steth/o with its closest definition.

A) Chest B) Nose C) Breathing D) oxygen

1

8) Identify the combining term trache/o with its closest definition.

A) Tonsils B) Trachea C) Thorax D) diaphragm 9) Respiration is the taking in of air and the expelling of A) carbon dioxide B) nitrous oxide C) oxygen D) none of these 10) The point at which the trachea divides is known as the A) middle lobe B) mediastinum C) alveolus D) bronchus 11) Most of the thoracic cavity is occupied by the A) pleura B) diaphragm C) lungs D) hilum 12) Tapping over the lung area to see if the lungs are clear is called A) auscultation B) percussion C) stethoscope D) bronchography 13) A streptococcal infection is usually detected via a A) throat culture B) blood gases test C) bronchial lavage D) pulmonary function test 14) Listening with a stethoscopy is: A) auscultation B) percussion C) stethoscope D) bronchography 15) Abnormally fast breathing is A) bradypnea B) tachypnea C) hyperpnea D) apnea 2

16) Asthma is due to A) anxiety B) allergy C) infection D) all of these 17) Pneumonia is a general term for infection of the A) alveoli B) bronchi C) pleura D) pharynx 18) Promoting coughing to expel mucus is aided by A) antitussives B) expectorants C) decongestants D) anabolic steroids 19) Food is prevented from going into the larynx by the: A) Glottis B) Epiglottis C) Pharynx D) Tonsils 20) The left lung is divided into A) 3, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 3, 4 D) 4, 3

lobes, while the right lung is divided into

21) A test that provides a radiological picture of the trachea and bronchi is a A) Bronchoscopy B) Bronchography C) Mediastinoscopy D) Mediastinography 22) Hypoxemia is a deficient amount of oxygen in amount of oxygen in the .

A) Tissue, blood B) Blood, tissue C) Lungs, heart D) Heart, lungs

3

.

.

, while hypoxia is a deficient

23) COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is a term applied to any disease that causes chronic obstruction of the and .

A) Alveoli, lungs B) Bronchial tubes, alveoli C) Lungs, alveoli D) Bronchial tubes, lungs 24) A pulmonary embolism is a clot in the: A) Lungs B) Bronchioles C) Trachea D) Pharynx 25) An artificial opening in the trachea is a: A) Tracheotomy B) tracheostomy C) Trachectomy D) Tracheoplasty 26) The patient states she has asthma. What type of medications would the health care provider anticipate the patient is taking?

A) Decongestants B) Antitussives C) Bronchodilators D) Expectorants 27) The exchange of air between the body and the outside environment is

respiration.

28) The transporting of oxygen to the body's cells and the removal of carbon dioxide from those cells is respiration.

29) Breathing in is called inspiration or

.

30) Air passes through the larynx to the

.

31) Food is prevented from entering the windpipe by the 32) The bronchi divide into smaller branches called

. .

33) The nurse identifies the topmost section of the lung which is called the patient.

34) The health care provider states the left lung has A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 4

lobes.

to the

35) The physician explains to the patient that a bronchoscope is a device used to view the .

36) The nurse documents bleeding from the nose as 37) The nostrils are also called external

.

.

38) Hairs in the nasal cavity are

.

39) The pharynx is divided into A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

section(s).

40) The physician documents "pharynx" and the medical assistant recognizes this as the .

41) The health care provider documents the windpipe as the

.

42) The health care provider documents the back part of the throat as the 43) The vocal cords are strips of

tissue.

44) The Adam's apple is made of thyroid

.

45) The point at which the trachea divides is the

.

46) Breathing out is known as expiration or 47) The

.

.

in the lungs perform the exchange of gases.

48) The pharyngeal tonsils are the

.

49) The patient is experiencing hoarseness. The health care provider documents this as .

50) Tapping over the lung area is

.

51) The patient has blood in his sputum. The health care provider recognizes this may indicate .

A) tuberculosis B) tonsillitis C) pleuritis D) diphtheria 5

52) A tube used to view a body cavity is a(n)

.

53) The medical assistant understands that a sweat test is a test for 54) Inflammation of the nose is

.

.

55) The nurse documents normal breathing as 56) Abnormal slow breathing is

.

.

57) Abnormally fast breathing is

.

58) Abnormally shallow breathing is

.

59) Abnormally deep breathing is

.

60) Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient is having difficulty breathing. The nurse notifies the physician that the patient is experiencing .

61) The nurse determines the patient is experiencing periods when there is no breathing. This is known as .

62) The medical assistant determines the physician wants to identify the organism growing in the oral airway when a culture is ordered.

63) The child is making a high-pitched crowing sound when breathing. The nurse recognizes this as .

64) The patient is coughing up blood. This should be documented as 65) A collapsed lung is a(n)

.

66) Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria called 67) Black lung is also known as 68) Inflammation of a lung is 69) Dysphonia is

.

.

. .

.

70) Surgical puncture of the pleural cavity is

.

71) An agent that relieves coughing is a(n)

.

72) Identify the combining term lob/o with its closest definition: 73) Identify the combining term adenoid/o with its closest definition: 6

. .

74) Identify the combining term alveol/o with its closest definition:

.

75) Identify the combining term bronch/o with its closest definition:

.

76) Identify the combining term bronchiol/o with its closest definition: 77) Identify the combining term capn/o with its closest definition:

. .

78) Identify the combining term epiglott/o with its closest definition: 79) Identify the combining term laryng/o with its closest definition:

7

. .

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 12 The Respiratory System 1) Identify the combining term nas/o with its closest definition A) Mouth B) Nose C) Trachea D) larynx Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Identify the combining term or/o with its closest definition A) Mouth B) Oxygen C) Pharynx D) Diaphragm Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) Identify the combining term pharyng/o with its closest definition A) Voice B) Pleura C) Air D) pharynx Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) Identify the combining term phon/o with its closest definition A) Voice B) Pleura C) Air D) pharynx Answer: A Explanation: The combining term phon/o means voice or sound.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) Identify the combining term pneum/o with its closest definition A) Voice B) Pleura C) Air D) pharynx Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) Identify the combining term spir/o with its closest definition A) Chest B) Nose C) Breathing D) oxygen Answer: C Explanation: The combining term spir/o means breathing.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) Identify the combining term steth/o with its closest definition.

A) Chest B) Nose C) Breathing D) oxygen Answer: A Explanation: The combining term steth/o means chest.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) Identify the combining term trache/o with its closest definition.

A) Tonsils B) Trachea C) Thorax D) diaphragm Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) Respiration is the taking in of air and the expelling of A) carbon dioxide B) nitrous oxide C) oxygen D) none of these Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) The point at which the trachea divides is known as the A) middle lobe B) mediastinum C) alveolus D) bronchus Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Most of the thoracic cavity is occupied by the A) pleura B) diaphragm C) lungs D) hilum Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) Tapping over the lung area to see if the lungs are clear is called A) auscultation B) percussion C) stethoscope D) bronchography Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) A streptococcal infection is usually detected via a A) throat culture B) blood gases test C) bronchial lavage D) pulmonary function test Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Listening with a stethoscopy is: A) auscultation B) percussion C) stethoscope D) bronchography Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) Abnormally fast breathing is A) bradypnea B) tachypnea C) hyperpnea D) apnea Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Asthma is due to A) anxiety B) allergy C) infection D) all of these Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Pneumonia is a general term for infection of the A) alveoli B) bronchi C) pleura D) pharynx Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) Promoting coughing to expel mucus is aided by A) antitussives B) expectorants C) decongestants D) anabolic steroids Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) Food is prevented from going into the larynx by the: A) Glottis B) Epiglottis C) Pharynx D) Tonsils Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) The left lung is divided into A) 3, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 3, 4 D) 4, 3

lobes, while the right lung is divided into

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) A test that provides a radiological picture of the trachea and bronchi is a A) Bronchoscopy B) Bronchography C) Mediastinoscopy D) Mediastinography Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

.

22) Hypoxemia is a deficient amount of oxygen in amount of oxygen in the .

A) Tissue, blood B) Blood, tissue C) Lungs, heart D) Heart, lungs

, while hypoxia is a deficient

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is a term applied to any disease that causes chronic obstruction of the and .

A) Alveoli, lungs B) Bronchial tubes, alveoli C) Lungs, alveoli D) Bronchial tubes, lungs Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) A pulmonary embolism is a clot in the: A) Lungs B) Bronchioles C) Trachea D) Pharynx Answer: A Explanation: A clot in the lungs is a pulmonary embolism.

Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) An artificial opening in the trachea is a: A) Tracheotomy B) tracheostomy C) Trachectomy D) Tracheoplasty Answer: B Explanation: A tracheostomy is an artificial opening into the trachea.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 12.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) The patient states she has asthma. What type of medications would the health care provider anticipate the patient is taking?

A) Decongestants B) Antitussives C) Bronchodilators D) Expectorants Answer: C Explanation: Bronchodilators are used to dilate the walls of the bronchi during an asthmatic attack Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) The exchange of air between the body and the outside environment is Answer: external Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

respiration.

28) The transporting of oxygen to the body's cells and the removal of carbon dioxide from those cells is respiration.

Answer: internal Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Breathing in is called inspiration or

.

Answer: inhalation Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) Air passes through the larynx to the

.

Answer: trachea Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 31) Food is prevented from entering the windpipe by the Answer: epiglottis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

.

32) The bronchi divide into smaller branches called

.

Answer: bronchioles Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) The nurse identifies the topmost section of the lung which is called the patient.

to the

Answer: apex Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 34) The health care provider states the left lung has A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

lobes.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The physician explains to the patient that a bronchoscope is a device used to view the .

Answer: airways Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

36) The nurse documents bleeding from the nose as Answer: Epistaxis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 37) The nostrils are also called external

.

Answer: nares Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) Hairs in the nasal cavity are

.

Answer: cilia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The pharynx is divided into A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

section(s).

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

.

40) The physician documents "pharynx" and the medical assistant recognizes this as the .

Answer: throat Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) The health care provider documents the windpipe as the

.

Answer: trachea Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) The health care provider documents the back part of the throat as the Answer: oropharynx Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) The vocal cords are strips of

tissue.

Answer: epithelial Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

.

44) The Adam's apple is made of thyroid

.

Answer: cartilage Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) The point at which the trachea divides is the

.

Answer: mediastinum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 46) Breathing out is known as expiration or

.

Answer: exhalation Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The

in the lungs perform the exchange of gases.

Answer: capillaries Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

48) The pharyngeal tonsils are the

.

Answer: adenoids Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) The patient is experiencing hoarseness. The health care provider documents this as .

Answer: laryngitis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) Tapping over the lung area is

.

Answer: percussion Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) The patient has blood in his sputum. The health care provider recognizes this may indicate .

A) tuberculosis B) tonsillitis C) pleuritis D) diphtheria Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

52) A tube used to view a body cavity is a(n)

.

Answer: endoscope Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) The medical assistant understands that a sweat test is a test for Answer: cystic fibrosis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) Inflammation of the nose is

.

Answer: rhinitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) The nurse documents normal breathing as

.

Answer: eupnea Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

.

56) Abnormal slow breathing is

.

Answer: bradypnea Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) Abnormally fast breathing is

.

Answer: tachypnea Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 58) Abnormally shallow breathing is

.

Answer: hypopnea Explanation: Hypopnea is shallow breathing.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) Abnormally deep breathing is

.

Answer: hyperpnea Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

60) Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient is having difficulty breathing. The nurse notifies the physician that the patient is experiencing .

Answer: dyspnea Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) The nurse determines the patient is experiencing periods when there is no breathing. This is known as .

Answer: apnea Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) The medical assistant determines the physician wants to identify the organism growing in the oral airway when a culture is ordered.

Answer: sputum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 12.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) The child is making a high-pitched crowing sound when breathing. The nurse recognizes this as .

Answer: stridor Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

64) The patient is coughing up blood. This should be documented as Answer: hemoptysis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) A collapsed lung is a(n)

.

Answer: atelectasis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria called

.

Answer: bacilli Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) Black lung is also known as

.

Answer: anthracosis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

.

68) Inflammation of a lung is

.

Answer: pneumonitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) Dysphonia is

.

Answer: hoarseness Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) Surgical puncture of the pleural cavity is

.

Answer: pleurocentesis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 12.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) An agent that relieves coughing is a(n)

.

Answer: antitussive Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 12.06 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

72) Identify the combining term lob/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: lobe of the lung Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 12.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) Identify the combining term adenoid/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: adenoid Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) Identify the combining term alveol/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: alveolus Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) Identify the combining term bronch/o with its closest definition: Answer: bronchus Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

.

76) Identify the combining term bronchiol/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: bronchiole Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply; Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77) Identify the combining term capn/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: carbon dioxide Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 78) Identify the combining term epiglott/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: epiglottis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 79) Identify the combining term laryng/o with its closest definition: Answer: larynx Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Respiratory System Learning Objective: 12.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

.

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 13 The Lymphatic System and Body Defense 1) The lymph system functions to and .

A) filter harmful substances from tissues, move fat into the blood B) filter harmful substances produce antibodies C) produce antibodies, decrease tissue edema D) produce antibodies move proteins to tissues 2) Lymph cells, or lymphocytes, produce specialized proteins that help fight disease, known as: A) Antigens B) Plasma C) Antibodies D) Toxins 3) The smallest organ of the lymphatic system is the: A) Spleen B) Thymus C) Liver D) Thyroid 4) Disease-causing agents are known as: A) Macrophages B) Lymphocytes C) Antigens D) Pathogens 5) Vaccination produces what type of immunity?

A) Natural B) Acquired C) Humoral D) Immunoglobulin 6) The two types of acquired active immunity are A) active, cell-mediated B) active, humoral C) cell-mediated, passive D) humoral, cell-mediated 7) Which of these are proteins produced by T cells?

A) Interferons and interleukins B) Gamma globulins C) Antitoxins and antigens D) Suppressor cells

1

and

.

8) A gland that is involved in immune responses is the: A) Thyroid gland B) Thymus gland C) Parathyroid gland D) Spleen 9) The helper cell: A) Stimulates immune response.

B) Prevent or lessen certain diseases.

C) Destroys disease causing cells.

D) Regulates the immune system.

10) Which of the following are true of macrophages?

A) They produce antigens.

B) They trap and digest cellular debris.

C) They remove old blood cells.

D) They are responsible for cellular immunity.

11) Antibodies are produced by: A) Thymosin B) B lymphocytes C) T cells D) The spleen 12) Thymosin distributes: A) B cells B) T cells C) Macrophages D) Antigens 13) Immunoglobulin is a synonym for A) Antigen B) Antibody C) T cell D) B cell

.

14) Cytotoxic cells perform which of the following functions?

A) Aid in the destruction of infected cells.

B) Stimulate the immune response.

C) Suppress B cells D) Suppress the immune response.

15) Lymphocytes that attack foreign cells or cells within the body infected with viruses are: A) Cytotoxic cells B) T cells C) B cells D) Interleukins 2

16) Antitoxins are types of: A) Antigens B) Antibodies C) Gamma globulins D) Interleukins 17) This system transports lymph from the tissues throughout the body and returns fluids to circulation.

A) Immune B) Cardiovascular C) Lymphatic D) Endocrine 18) The HIV virus is transmitted by: A) Air B) Blood and other body fluids C) Contaminated surfaces D) Contaminated insects 19) Allergies are often caused by: A) Antigens B) T cells C) B cells D) Lymphocytes 20) Which of the following are not considered to be an opportunistic infection?

A) Kaposi's sarcoma B) Pneumocystis jiroveci C) cytomegalovirus D) lymphoma 21) Hodgkin's lymphoma is caused by: A) HIV B) AIDS C) Radiation D) Unknown 22) Which of the following is true about anaphylactic reactions?

A) They occur over a few days.

B) They can be deadly.

C) They only happen once.

D) They can be treated with oral allergy medications.

3

23) Which of the following is not considered to be an autoimmune disease?

A) Lupus B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Osteoarthritis D) Scleroderma 24) Substances that influence reactions in the lymph and immune systems are A) antibodies B) macrophages C) antigens D) all of these 25) The medical term for the removal of the spleen is: A) Spleenetomy B) Splenectomy C) Splenomegaly D) Spleenomegaly 26) An organ of the lymph system is the A) lung B) spleen C) gallbladder D) pancreas 27) A disease-causing agent is a(n) A) pathogen B) macrophage C) antibody D) antitoxin 28) Genetic characteristics provide A) acquired active immunity B) natural immunity C) acquired passive immunity D) humoral immunity 29) The first antigen to be produced after an infection is A) immunoglobulin E B) immunoglobulin D C) immunoglobulin M D) immunoglobulin A 30) Some types of opportunistic infections are A) cancer B) pneumonia C) fungal infections D) all of these 4

31) HIV can be transmitted A) during birth B) via sexual contact C) in infected blood D) all of these 32) A common cancer of the lymph system is A) lymphoma B) splenomegaly C) sarcoidosis D) mononucleosis 33) The physician has told the patient there is metastasis. The nurse explains to the patient this means A) a disease is localized B) a disease has spread C) an anaphylactic reaction is taking place D) none of these 34) The health care provider explains to the patient a lymphadenectomy is the A) removal of a lymph node B) repair of a lymph node C) incision into a lymph node D) biopsy of the spleen 35) The fluid that circulates through the lymph system is: A) Blood B) Lymph C) Waste D) Oxygenated 36) Lymph contains A) red B) white C) platelet D) hemoglobin

blood cells.

37) Lymph nodes assist in the A) Immune response B) Breakdown of red blood cells C) Breakdown of fat D) Breakdown of proteins

5

38) The organ of the lymph system that serves as a filter is the A) Liver B) Spleen C) Kidneys D) Plasma 39) The process of "eating" pathogens is called

.

40) Humoral immunity is provided by

cells.

41) Suppressor cells suppress other immune cells and

cells.

42) An immune system's overresponse to a stimulus is called a(n) 43) An abnormal reaction to an allergen is called

.

.

44) Identify the combining term aden/o with its closest definition:

.

45) Identify the combining term immun/o with its closest definition:

.

46) Identify the combining term lymph/o with its closest definition:

.

47) Identify the combining term lymphaden/o with its closest definition:

.

48) Identify the combining term lymhangi/o with its closest definition:

.

49) Identify the combining term thym/o with its closest definition: 50) Identify the combining term tox/o with its closest definition:

. .

51) The health care provider documents the medical term for enlargement of the spleen as .

52) The thymus is no longer producing thymosin. The health care provider would expect to see a decrease in the number of: .

53) A physician that specializes in diagnosing and treating allergic reactions is a(n) 54) This immunoglobulin is effective against bacteria, viruses, and toxin: A) IgG B) IgA C) IgD D) IgM

. .

55) This is a severe response to an allergen, symptoms develop quickly and, if the health care provider does not act quickly, death can occur: .

6

56) This immunoglobulin is found in breast milk, nasal fluid, tears, sweat, and gastric juices: .

A) IgG B) IgA C) IgD D) IgM 57) The patient comes to the physician's office stating that his skin has been red and itchy since contact with leaves growing up a tree. This is most likely a(an): reaction.

58) Inflammation of the lymph nodes is: 59) Removal of the thymus is a

. .

60) This is caused by blocked lymph flow:

.

61) This immunity develops following direct exposure to a pathogen: 62) A substance which produces an allergic reaction is a(n) 63) This is an x-ray of the lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes: 64) This agent suppresses the immune response:

. . .

.

65) This is cancer of the lymph system usually diagnosed in early adulthood: lymphoma.

7

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 13 The Lymphatic System and Body Defense 1) The lymph system functions to and .

A) filter harmful substances from tissues, move fat into the blood B) filter harmful substances produce antibodies C) produce antibodies, decrease tissue edema D) produce antibodies move proteins to tissues Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Lymph cells, or lymphocytes, produce specialized proteins that help fight disease, known as: A) Antigens B) Plasma C) Antibodies D) Toxins Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) The smallest organ of the lymphatic system is the: A) Spleen B) Thymus C) Liver D) Thyroid Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) Disease-causing agents are known as: A) Macrophages B) Lymphocytes C) Antigens D) Pathogens Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) Vaccination produces what type of immunity?

A) Natural B) Acquired C) Humoral D) Immunoglobulin Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) The two types of acquired active immunity are A) active, cell-mediated B) active, humoral C) cell-mediated, passive D) humoral, cell-mediated Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

and

.

7) Which of these are proteins produced by T cells?

A) Interferons and interleukins B) Gamma globulins C) Antitoxins and antigens D) Suppressor cells Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) A gland that is involved in immune responses is the: A) Thyroid gland B) Thymus gland C) Parathyroid gland D) Spleen Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) The helper cell: A) Stimulates immune response.

B) Prevent or lessen certain diseases.

C) Destroys disease causing cells.

D) Regulates the immune system.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) Which of the following are true of macrophages?

A) They produce antigens.

B) They trap and digest cellular debris.

C) They remove old blood cells.

D) They are responsible for cellular immunity.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Antibodies are produced by: A) Thymosin B) B lymphocytes C) T cells D) The spleen Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) Thymosin distributes: A) B cells B) T cells C) Macrophages D) Antigens Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) Immunoglobulin is a synonym for A) Antigen B) Antibody C) T cell D) B cell

.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Cytotoxic cells perform which of the following functions?

A) Aid in the destruction of infected cells.

B) Stimulate the immune response.

C) Suppress B cells D) Suppress the immune response.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) Lymphocytes that attack foreign cells or cells within the body infected with viruses are: A) Cytotoxic cells B) T cells C) B cells D) Interleukins Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Antitoxins are types of: A) Antigens B) Antibodies C) Gamma globulins D) Interleukins Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) This system transports lymph from the tissues throughout the body and returns fluids to circulation.

A) Immune B) Cardiovascular C) Lymphatic D) Endocrine Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) The HIV virus is transmitted by: A) Air B) Blood and other body fluids C) Contaminated surfaces D) Contaminated insects Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) Allergies are often caused by: A) Antigens B) T cells C) B cells D) Lymphocytes Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Which of the following are not considered to be an opportunistic infection?

A) Kaposi's sarcoma B) Pneumocystis jiroveci C) cytomegalovirus D) lymphoma Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Hodgkin's lymphoma is caused by: A) HIV B) AIDS C) Radiation D) Unknown Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

22) Which of the following is true about anaphylactic reactions?

A) They occur over a few days.

B) They can be deadly.

C) They only happen once.

D) They can be treated with oral allergy medications.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Which of the following is not considered to be an autoimmune disease?

A) Lupus B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Osteoarthritis D) Scleroderma Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Substances that influence reactions in the lymph and immune systems are A) antibodies B) macrophages C) antigens D) all of these Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) The medical term for the removal of the spleen is: A) Spleenetomy B) Splenectomy C) Splenomegaly D) Spleenomegaly Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms in the Immune System Learning Objective: 13.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) An organ of the lymph system is the A) lung B) spleen C) gallbladder D) pancreas Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) A disease-causing agent is a(n) A) pathogen B) macrophage C) antibody D) antitoxin Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) Genetic characteristics provide A) acquired active immunity B) natural immunity C) acquired passive immunity D) humoral immunity Answer: B Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) The first antigen to be produced after an infection is A) immunoglobulin E B) immunoglobulin D C) immunoglobulin M D) immunoglobulin A Answer: C Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) Some types of opportunistic infections are A) cancer B) pneumonia C) fungal infections D) all of these Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

31) HIV can be transmitted A) during birth B) via sexual contact C) in infected blood D) all of these Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) A common cancer of the lymph system is A) lymphoma B) splenomegaly C) sarcoidosis D) mononucleosis Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) The physician has told the patient there is metastasis. The nurse explains to the patient this means A) a disease is localized B) a disease has spread C) an anaphylactic reaction is taking place D) none of these Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

34) The health care provider explains to the patient a lymphadenectomy is the A) removal of a lymph node B) repair of a lymph node C) incision into a lymph node D) biopsy of the spleen Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 13.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The fluid that circulates through the lymph system is: A) Blood B) Lymph C) Waste D) Oxygenated Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) Lymph contains A) red B) white C) platelet D) hemoglobin

blood cells.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) Lymph nodes assist in the A) Immune response B) Breakdown of red blood cells C) Breakdown of fat D) Breakdown of proteins Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) The organ of the lymph system that serves as a filter is the A) Liver B) Spleen C) Kidneys D) Plasma Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The process of "eating" pathogens is called

.

Answer: Phagocytosis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 40) Humoral immunity is provided by

cells.

Answer: Plasma Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 13

41) Suppressor cells suppress other immune cells and

cells.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) An immune system's overresponse to a stimulus is called a(n)

.

Answer: allergy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) An abnormal reaction to an allergen is called

.

Answer: hypersensitivity Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) Identify the combining term aden/o with its closest definition: Answer: gland Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

.

45) Identify the combining term immun/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: immunity Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 46) Identify the combining term lymph/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: lymph Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) Identify the combining term lymphaden/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: lymph nodes Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) Identify the combining term lymhangi/o with its closest definition: Answer: lymphatic vessels Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

.

49) Identify the combining term thym/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: thymus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) Identify the combining term tox/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: poison Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) The health care provider documents the medical term for enlargement of the spleen as .

Answer: splenomegaly Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) The thymus is no longer producing thymosin. The health care provider would expect to see a decrease in the number of: .

Answer: T cells Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

53) A physician that specializes in diagnosing and treating allergic reactions is a(n)

.

Answer: allergist Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) This immunoglobulin is effective against bacteria, viruses, and toxin: A) IgG B) IgA C) IgD D) IgM

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) This is a severe response to an allergen, symptoms develop quickly and, if the health care provider does not act quickly, death can occur: .

Answer: anaphylaxis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

56) This immunoglobulin is found in breast milk, nasal fluid, tears, sweat, and gastric juices: .

A) IgG B) IgA C) IgD D) IgM Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) The patient comes to the physician's office stating that his skin has been red and itchy since contact with leaves growing up a tree. This is most likely a(an): reaction.

Answer: allergic Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 58) Inflammation of the lymph nodes is:

.

Answer: lymphadenitis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) Removal of the thymus is a

.

Answer: thymectomy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

60) This is caused by blocked lymph flow:

.

Answer: lymphedema Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) This immunity develops following direct exposure to a pathogen:

.

Answer: acquired Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) A substance which produces an allergic reaction is a(n)

.

Answer: allergen Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function in the Lymphatic System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) This is an x-ray of the lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes: Answer: lymphangiogram Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

.

64) This agent suppresses the immune response:

.

Answer: immunosuppressor Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Lymphatic and Immune System Learning Objective: 13.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) This is cancer of the lymph system usually diagnosed in early adulthood: lymphoma.

Answer: Hodgkin's Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 13.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 14 The Digestive System and Body Metabolism 1) The alimentary canal includes the A) appendix B) esophagus C) liver D) pancreas 2) Digestive enzymes convert A) proteins into amino acids B) sugars into glucose C) fats into fatty acids D) all of these 3) The taste buds are contained in the A) papillae B) frenulum C) cheeks D) lips 4) Gastric juice contains A) emesis B) hydrochloric acid C) rugae D) papillae 5) The liver secretes A) pepsin B) amylase C) bile D) amino acids 6) A gastroscopy is a procedure for examining the A) liver B) pancreas C) gallbladder D) stomach 7) According to the medical record, the patient is experiencing dysphagia. The health care provider knows that this is: A) a refusal to eat B) a tendency to overeat C) difficulty in swallowing D) the inability to swallow

1

8) A condition with blood in the stool is A) melena B) hematochezia C) both melena and hematochezia D) steatorrhea 9) The patient is experiencing vomiting. Which pharmacological agent would the nurse expect to be ordered?

A) antacid B) antispasmodic C) cathartic D) antiemetic 10) The physician has ordered a cholangiogram. The medical assistant explains to the patient that this is a(an): A) incision into the common bile duct.

B) removal of the colon.

C) removal of the gallbladder.

D) x-ray image of the bile vessels.

11) Identify the combining term cheil/o with its closest definition.

A) Intestine B) Colon C) Tongue D) Lips 12) Identify the combining form duoden/o with its closest definition.

A) Duodenum B) Intestines C) Esophagus D) Stomach 13) Identify the combining form bucc/o with its closest definition.

A) Cheek B) Gallbladder C) Bile D) Abdomen 14) Identify the combining form cec/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Bile C) Cecum D) Cheek

2

15) Identify the combining form colon/o with its closest definition.

A) Cecum B) Colon C) Abdomen D) Bile 16) Identify the combining form duoden/o with its closest definition.

A) Duodenum B) Intestines C) Esophagus D) Stomach 17) Identify the combining form chol/e with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Colon C) Bile D) Cecum 18) Identify the combining form choleangi/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Bile C) Bile vessels D) Cecum 19) Identify the combining form cholecyst/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Bile C) Bile vessels D) Cecum 20) Identify the combining form choledoch/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Common bile duct C) Bile vessels D) Cecum 21) Identify the combining form esophag/o with its closest definition.

A) appendix B) esophagus C) liver D) pancreas 22) Identify the combining form gastr/o with its closest definition.

A) small intestine B) large intestine C) stomach D) liver 3

23) Identify the combining form gloss/o with its closest definition.

A) Tongue B) Glucose C) Sugar D) Glycogen 24) Identify the combining form gluc/o with its closest definition.

A) Tongue B) Glucose C) Sugar D) Glycogen 25) Identify the combining form glycogen/o with its closest definition.

A) Tongue B) Glucose C) Sugar D) Glycogen 26) Identify the combining form hepat/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth 27) Identify the combining form ile/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth 28) Identify the combining form jejun/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth 29) Identify the combining form labi/o with its closest definition.

A) Intestine B) Colon C) Tongue D) Lip

4

30) Identify the combining form lingu/o with its closest definition.

A) Intestine B) Colon C) Tongue D) Lip 31) Identify the combining form or/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth 32) Identify the combining form pancreat/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Pancreas 33) Identify the combining form hepat/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Liver C) Lung D) Pylorus 34) Identify the combining form pharyng/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Peritoneum C) Pharynx D) Pylorus 35) Identify the combining form proct/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Peritoneum C) Anus D) Pylorus 36) Identify the combining form pylor/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Peritoneum C) Anus D) Pylorus 37) Identify the combining form saliv/o with its closest definition.

A) Sigmoid B) Fats C) Saliva D) Mouth 5

38) Identify the combining form steat/o with its closest definition.

A) Sigmoid B) Fats C) Saliva D) Mouth 39) Identify the combining form stomat/o with its closest definition.

A) Sigmoid B) Fats C) Saliva D) Mouth 40) The motions that help move the food along the alimentary canal are called 41) Digestive enzymes convert proteins into

.

42) Complex sugars are reduced to 43) The chewing of food is called 44) After chewing, swallowing or

.

. . takes place.

45) The taste buds are contained in small raised areas of the tongue called 46) The tongue is connected to the floor of the mouth by the

.

.

47) The lingual tonsils are the two mounds of tissue at the back of the

.

48) On either side of the mouth are masses of lymphatic tissue called the 49) The fleshy sockets that hold the teeth are called the

.

50) The flap of tissue that prevents food from entering the trachea is the 51) The cardiac sphincter prevents reflux into the

tonsils.

.

.

52) The nurse explains to a group of students that the upper, rounded portion of the stomach is the .

53) The narrow bottom part of the stomach is the 54) The longest intestine is the

.

intestine.

55) The patient has been diagnosed with sialadenitis. The medical assistant recognizes this is an inflammation of the glands.

6

56) A contagious liver disease is

.

57) The patient has stools passing through an abnormal opening in a tissue wall. The healthcare provider identifies a(n) .

58) An irritation of the intestinal tract with loose stools is called

.

59) Spasms in the gastrointestinal tract can be relieved with

.

60) The movement of food through the alimentary canal is referred to as 61) Amino acids become converted proteins due to 62) The cecum is part of the

.

enzymes.

intestine.

63) The healthcare provider assesses the hard palate or the

.

64) The healthcare provider explains to the patient that pepsin is an enzyme that aids in digestion.

65) Stomach acids such as hydrochloric acid are important for

.

66) The patient states he is having trouble digesting food. The health care provider documents this as: .

67) The patient states she is experiencing a lot of gas. The health care provider documents this as: .

68) The healthcare provider documents emesis with blood as:

.

69) The patient's admitting diagnosis is bulimia. The nurse recognizes this as: A) vomiting after eating B) overeating C) nausea with food D) not eating 70) The patient is experiencing cholelithiasis. The nurse identifies this as 71)

.

are specialists in diseases of the digestive system.

72) An ileostomy results in the discharge of fecal matter through an opening in the 73) The patient is scheduled for a colectomy. The nurse explains to the patient that this is the removal of the .

74) If the patient has tongue cancer, what type of procedure may occur?

7

.

75) What type of surgery might an obese patient have?

A) Gastric resection B) Colectomy C) Gastrectomy D) Hemorrhoidectomy 76) If the patient has been diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, the nurse would assess what part of the body?

77) The medical assistant identifies which hepatitis as being transmitted through contact with contaminated blood? (Hint: Just list the letter.)

8

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 14 The Digestive System and Body Metabolism 1) The alimentary canal includes the A) appendix B) esophagus C) liver D) pancreas Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Digestive enzymes convert A) proteins into amino acids B) sugars into glucose C) fats into fatty acids D) all of these Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) The taste buds are contained in the A) papillae B) frenulum C) cheeks D) lips Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) Gastric juice contains A) emesis B) hydrochloric acid C) rugae D) papillae Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The liver secretes A) pepsin B) amylase C) bile D) amino acids Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) A gastroscopy is a procedure for examining the A) liver B) pancreas C) gallbladder D) stomach Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) According to the medical record, the patient is experiencing dysphagia. The health care provider knows that this is: A) a refusal to eat B) a tendency to overeat C) difficulty in swallowing D) the inability to swallow Answer: C Explanation: Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) A condition with blood in the stool is A) melena B) hematochezia C) both melena and hematochezia D) steatorrhea Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) The patient is experiencing vomiting. Which pharmacological agent would the nurse expect to be ordered?

A) antacid B) antispasmodic C) cathartic D) antiemetic Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 14.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) The physician has ordered a cholangiogram. The medical assistant explains to the patient that this is a(an): A) incision into the common bile duct.

B) removal of the colon.

C) removal of the gallbladder.

D) x-ray image of the bile vessels.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Identify the combining term cheil/o with its closest definition.

A) Intestine B) Colon C) Tongue D) Lips Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) Identify the combining form duoden/o with its closest definition.

A) Duodenum B) Intestines C) Esophagus D) Stomach Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) Identify the combining form bucc/o with its closest definition.

A) Cheek B) Gallbladder C) Bile D) Abdomen Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Identify the combining form cec/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Bile C) Cecum D) Cheek Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) Identify the combining form colon/o with its closest definition.

A) Cecum B) Colon C) Abdomen D) Bile Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) Identify the combining form duoden/o with its closest definition.

A) Duodenum B) Intestines C) Esophagus D) Stomach Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) Identify the combining form chol/e with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Colon C) Bile D) Cecum Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) Identify the combining form choleangi/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Bile C) Bile vessels D) Cecum Answer: C Explanation: The combining form choleangi/o means bile vessel.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) Identify the combining form cholecyst/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Bile C) Bile vessels D) Cecum Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Identify the combining form choledoch/o with its closest definition.

A) Gallbladder B) Common bile duct C) Bile vessels D) Cecum Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Identify the combining form esophag/o with its closest definition.

A) appendix B) esophagus C) liver D) pancreas Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

22) Identify the combining form gastr/o with its closest definition.

A) small intestine B) large intestine C) stomach D) liver Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Identify the combining form gloss/o with its closest definition.

A) Tongue B) Glucose C) Sugar D) Glycogen Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Identify the combining form gluc/o with its closest definition.

A) Tongue B) Glucose C) Sugar D) Glycogen Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) Identify the combining form glycogen/o with its closest definition.

A) Tongue B) Glucose C) Sugar D) Glycogen Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Identify the combining form hepat/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) Identify the combining form ile/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) Identify the combining form jejun/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Identify the combining form labi/o with its closest definition.

A) Intestine B) Colon C) Tongue D) Lip Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) Identify the combining form lingu/o with its closest definition.

A) Intestine B) Colon C) Tongue D) Lip Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

31) Identify the combining form or/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Mouth Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) Identify the combining form pancreat/o with its closest definition.

A) Ileum B) Jejunum C) Liver D) Pancreas Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) Identify the combining form hepat/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Liver C) Lung D) Pylorus Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

34) Identify the combining form pharyng/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Peritoneum C) Pharynx D) Pylorus Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) Identify the combining form proct/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Peritoneum C) Anus D) Pylorus Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) Identify the combining form pylor/o with its closest definition.

A) Pancreas B) Peritoneum C) Anus D) Pylorus Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) Identify the combining form saliv/o with its closest definition.

A) Sigmoid B) Fats C) Saliva D) Mouth Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) Identify the combining form steat/o with its closest definition.

A) Sigmoid B) Fats C) Saliva D) Mouth Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) Identify the combining form stomat/o with its closest definition.

A) Sigmoid B) Fats C) Saliva D) Mouth Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

40) The motions that help move the food along the alimentary canal are called Answer: peristalsis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) Digestive enzymes convert proteins into

.

Answer: amino acids Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) Complex sugars are reduced to

.

Answer: glucose Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) The chewing of food is called

.

Answer: mastication Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

.

44) After chewing, swallowing or

takes place.

Answer: deglutition Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) The taste buds are contained in small raised areas of the tongue called

.

Answer: papillae Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 46) The tongue is connected to the floor of the mouth by the

.

Answer: frenulum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The lingual tonsils are the two mounds of tissue at the back of the Answer: tongue Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

.

48) On either side of the mouth are masses of lymphatic tissue called the

tonsils.

Answer: palatine Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) The fleshy sockets that hold the teeth are called the

.

Answer: gums Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) The flap of tissue that prevents food from entering the trachea is the Answer: Epiglottis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) The cardiac sphincter prevents reflux into the Answer: esophagus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

.

.

52) The nurse explains to a group of students that the upper, rounded portion of the stomach is the .

Answer: fundus Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) The narrow bottom part of the stomach is the

.

Answer: pylorus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) The longest intestine is the

intestine.

Answer: small Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) The patient has been diagnosed with sialadenitis. The medical assistant recognizes this is an inflammation of the glands.

Answer: salivary Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

56) A contagious liver disease is

.

Answer: hepatitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 57) The patient has stools passing through an abnormal opening in a tissue wall. The healthcare provider identifies a(n) .

Answer: fistula Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 58) An irritation of the intestinal tract with loose stools is called

.

Answer: dysentery Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) Spasms in the gastrointestinal tract can be relieved with Answer: antispasmodics Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 14.06 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

.

60) The movement of food through the alimentary canal is referred to as Answer: peristalsis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 61) Amino acids become converted proteins due to

enzymes.

Answer: digestive Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) The cecum is part of the

intestine.

Answer: large Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) The healthcare provider assesses the hard palate or the Answer: roof of the mouth Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

.

.

64) The healthcare provider explains to the patient that pepsin is an enzyme that aids in digestion.

Answer: protein Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 65) Stomach acids such as hydrochloric acid are important for

.

Answer: digestion Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) The patient states he is having trouble digesting food. The health care provider documents this as: .

Answer: dyspepsia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) The patient states she is experiencing a lot of gas. The health care provider documents this as: .

Answer: flatulence Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

68) The healthcare provider documents emesis with blood as:

.

Answer: hematemesis Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 69) The patient's admitting diagnosis is bulimia. The nurse recognizes this as: A) vomiting after eating B) overeating C) nausea with food D) not eating Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) The patient is experiencing cholelithiasis. The nurse identifies this as Answer: gallstones Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71)

are specialists in diseases of the digestive system.

Answer: Gastroenterologists Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Digestive System Learning Objective: 14.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

.

72) An ileostomy results in the discharge of fecal matter through an opening in the Answer: abdomen Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 14.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 73) The patient is scheduled for a colectomy. The nurse explains to the patient that this is the removal of the .

Answer: colon Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 14.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) If the patient has tongue cancer, what type of procedure may occur?

Answer: glossectomy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 14.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) What type of surgery might an obese patient have?

A) Gastric resection B) Colectomy C) Gastrectomy D) Hemorrhoidectomy Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 14.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

.

76) If the patient has been diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, the nurse would assess what part of the body?

Answer: Abdomen Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77) The medical assistant identifies which hepatitis as being transmitted through contact with contaminated blood? (Hint: Just list the letter.)

Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 14.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 15 The Urinary System 1) Urine travels from the ureters to the A) kidney B) bladder C) meatus D) glomerulus 2) The functional unit of a kidney is a(n) A) nephron B) calculus C) hilum D) artery 3) In urinalysis, bilirubin in the urine may indicate disease of the A) kidney B) liver C) pancreas D) gallbladder 4) Which substance is measured in urinary test as an indicator of kidney function?

A) Creatinine B) Urea C) Sugar D) Uric acid 5) The health care provider orders a renogram that is used to study the function of the A) bladder B) kidney C) urethra D) ureter 6) The artificial maintenance of kidney function is A) dialysis B) renography C) pyelography D) cystography 7) Cystitis is an inflammation of the A) cyst B) urethra C) ureter D) bladder

1

8) Kidney failure may result in A) nocturnal enuresis B) uremia C) polyuria D) nocturia 9) A pyelotomy is an incision into the A) renal pelvis B) bladder C) pleura D) pylorus 10) A diuretic can reduce A) urination B) edema C) spasms D) pain 11) Which of the following statements about the urinary system is not true?

A) It maintains the proper water balance within the body.

B) It removes waste products.

C) It is the system for urine excretion.

D) Nephrology is the study of the urinary system.

12) The part of the urinary system that is responsible for removing dissolved waste and other substances from the blood and urine is (are) A) Bladder B) Kidneys C) Urethra D) Ureters 13) The nurse is assessing a patient's urinary output and identifies the patient has had no urinary output in 10 hours. The nurse documents this condition is as: A) polyuria B) oliguria C) anuria D) nocturia 14) A blood test to detect A) ketones B) phenylketones C) albumin D) urinalysis

is routinely performed on infants.

2

15) The outer portion of the kidneys is the A) medulla B) nephron C) cortex D) hilum 16) A function of the nephron is to: A) carry urine to the bladder B) remove waste products C) excrete ketones D) produce waste products 17) The tubes that connect each kidney to the urinary bladder are known as: A) urethra B) nephrons C) ureters D) meatus 18) The collecting area for urine in the center of the kidney is (are) the: A) ilum B) cortex C) renal pelvis D) glomerulus 19) The normal pH range of urine is: A) 1.3–5.6 B) 1.001–1.035 C) 5–9 D) 9–12 20) The presence of acetones, ketones, and glucose may indicate: A) Kidney failure B) Diabetes C) Infection D) Liver disease 21) A retrograde pyelogram is an x-ray of the: A) Urinary tract B) Bladder C) Kidney, bladder, and ureters D) Kidney, bladder, and liver 22) A urinary tract infection or UTI can occur in any of the following EXCEPT: A) Kidneys B) Bladder C) Ureters D) Gallbladder 3

23) The patient cannot control his urine or feces. The nurse would document this as: A) Atresia B) Hematuria C) Incontinence D) Oliguria 24) End-stage renal disease, or ESRD, is a A) mild B) moderate C) fatal D) severe

disease if not treated.

25) Atresia can refer to: A) Renal disease B) Narrowing of ureters C) Pus in urine D) Lack of urine 26) Hematuria is A) Blood in the urine B) Lack of urine production C) Decreased urine production D) Pus in urine 27) The health care provider tells the medical assistant to schedule the patient for the removal of a kidney. The medical assistant notifies surgery that the patient needs a: A) Nephrolysis B) Nephrostomy C) Nephrectomy D) Nephrolithotomy 28) The removal of the bladder, usually when cancer is present, is a A) Cystopexy B) Cystoplasty C) Cystectomy D) Cystorrhaphy 29) The removal of a diseased ureter is called a(n): A) Ureteroplasty B) Ureterectomy C) Ureterorrhaphy D) Ureteropexy

4

30) Blood enters the kidney through the: A) Renal vein B) Renal artery C) Renal pelvis D) Renin 31) Drugs that are used to treat an overactive bladder include: A) Antibiotics B) Antispasmodics C) Diuretics D) Anticholinergics 32) This group of drugs when given to the patient increases the secretion of urine.

A) Antibiotics B) Antispasmodics C) Diuretics D) Anticholinergics 33) Dysuria is: A) Lack of urine B) Painful urination C) Lack of bladder control D) Frequent urination 34) Oliguria is: A) Scanty urine B) Painful urination C) Lack of bladder control D) Frequent urination 35) Cystorrhaphy is bladder: A) suturing B) removal C) repair D) scoping 36) A urostomy is the A) removal of a kidney.

B) removal of a ureter.

C) surgical opening into the abdomen to drain urine.

D) use of a scope to retrieve urinary stones.

37) The urinary system is also known as the renal or 38) Urine is produced by

system.

.

39) The outer protective layer of the kidneys is the 5

.

40) The inner portion of the kidney is the

.

41) The blood vessels, nerves and ureters enter and leave the kidneys through a depression called a (n) .

42) A glomerulus is a group of

.

43) The hollow, muscular organ that stores urine is the 44) The ureters enter the bladder through the 45) An indwelling catheter aids in

. .

.

46) Dialysis done outside the body is

dialysis.

47) The medical terminology for kidney stones is 48) Any kidney tumor is called a(n) 49) Painful urination is

.

.

.

50) The involuntary discharge of urine or feces is 51) Pus in the urine is 52) Excess urea in the blood is

.

. .

53) Surgical enlargement of the meatus is a(n)

.

54) The creation of a surgical opening in the abdomen through which urine exits the body is a(n) .

55) Secretion of urine can be controlled with anticholinergics and

.

56) High blood pressure can be relieved when edema is reduced through the use of 57) Identify the combining form calic/o with its closest definition: 58) Identify the combining form cyst/o with its closest definition:

. .

59) Identify the combining form glomerul/o with its closest definition: 60) Identify the combining form meat/o with its closest definition: 61) Identify the combining form nephr/o with its closest definition: 6

. . .

.

62) Identify the combining form pyel/o with its closest definition:

.

63) Identify the combining form ren/o with its closest definition:

.

64) Identify the combining form trigon/o with its closest definition: 65) Identify the combining form ur/o with its closest definition:

. .

66) Identify the combining form ureter/o with its closest definition:

.

67) Identify the combining form urethr/o with its closest definition:

.

68) Identify the combining form vesic/o with its closest definition:

.

69) A specialist in diseases of the lower urinary tract, bladder, and urethra, is called a

.

70) A procedure that allows a physician to look into the bladder and examine its interior is termed a .

71) Frequent urination is:

.

72) The presence of white cells in the urine, usually indicating infection, is 73) The tube that transports urine from the bladder to the outside is the

. .

74) The physician would use this abbreviation to order this blood test to determine the level of urea in the blood: .

75) The kidneys are located in this space behind the abdominal cavity:

7

.

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 15 The Urinary System 1) Urine travels from the ureters to the A) kidney B) bladder C) meatus D) glomerulus Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) The functional unit of a kidney is a(n) A) nephron B) calculus C) hilum D) artery Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) In urinalysis, bilirubin in the urine may indicate disease of the A) kidney B) liver C) pancreas D) gallbladder Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) Which substance is measured in urinary test as an indicator of kidney function?

A) Creatinine B) Urea C) Sugar D) Uric acid Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) The health care provider orders a renogram that is used to study the function of the A) bladder B) kidney C) urethra D) ureter Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) The artificial maintenance of kidney function is A) dialysis B) renography C) pyelography D) cystography Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) Cystitis is an inflammation of the A) cyst B) urethra C) ureter D) bladder Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) Kidney failure may result in A) nocturnal enuresis B) uremia C) polyuria D) nocturia Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) A pyelotomy is an incision into the A) renal pelvis B) bladder C) pleura D) pylorus Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) A diuretic can reduce A) urination B) edema C) spasms D) pain Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 15.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) Which of the following statements about the urinary system is not true?

A) It maintains the proper water balance within the body.

B) It removes waste products.

C) It is the system for urine excretion.

D) Nephrology is the study of the urinary system.

Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) The part of the urinary system that is responsible for removing dissolved waste and other substances from the blood and urine is (are) A) Bladder B) Kidneys C) Urethra D) Ureters Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

13) The nurse is assessing a patient's urinary output and identifies the patient has had no urinary output in 10 hours. The nurse documents this condition is as: A) polyuria B) oliguria C) anuria D) nocturia Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.02 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) A blood test to detect A) ketones B) phenylketones C) albumin D) urinalysis

is routinely performed on infants.

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) The outer portion of the kidneys is the A) medulla B) nephron C) cortex D) hilum Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

16) A function of the nephron is to: A) carry urine to the bladder B) remove waste products C) excrete ketones D) produce waste products Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) The tubes that connect each kidney to the urinary bladder are known as: A) urethra B) nephrons C) ureters D) meatus Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) The collecting area for urine in the center of the kidney is (are) the: A) ilum B) cortex C) renal pelvis D) glomerulus Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

19) The normal pH range of urine is: A) 1.3–5.6 B) 1.001–1.035 C) 5–9 D) 9–12 Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) The presence of acetones, ketones, and glucose may indicate: A) Kidney failure B) Diabetes C) Infection D) Liver disease Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) A retrograde pyelogram is an x-ray of the: A) Urinary tract B) Bladder C) Kidney, bladder, and ureters D) Kidney, bladder, and liver Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

22) A urinary tract infection or UTI can occur in any of the following EXCEPT: A) Kidneys B) Bladder C) Ureters D) Gallbladder Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) The patient cannot control his urine or feces. The nurse would document this as: A) Atresia B) Hematuria C) Incontinence D) Oliguria Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) End-stage renal disease, or ESRD, is a A) mild B) moderate C) fatal D) severe

disease if not treated.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

25) Atresia can refer to: A) Renal disease B) Narrowing of ureters C) Pus in urine D) Lack of urine Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Hematuria is A) Blood in the urine B) Lack of urine production C) Decreased urine production D) Pus in urine Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) The health care provider tells the medical assistant to schedule the patient for the removal of a kidney. The medical assistant notifies surgery that the patient needs a: A) Nephrolysis B) Nephrostomy C) Nephrectomy D) Nephrolithotomy Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9

28) The removal of the bladder, usually when cancer is present, is a A) Cystopexy B) Cystoplasty C) Cystectomy D) Cystorrhaphy Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) The removal of a diseased ureter is called a(n): A) Ureteroplasty B) Ureterectomy C) Ureterorrhaphy D) Ureteropexy Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) Blood enters the kidney through the: A) Renal vein B) Renal artery C) Renal pelvis D) Renin Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

31) Drugs that are used to treat an overactive bladder include: A) Antibiotics B) Antispasmodics C) Diuretics D) Anticholinergics Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 15.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) This group of drugs when given to the patient increases the secretion of urine.

A) Antibiotics B) Antispasmodics C) Diuretics D) Anticholinergics Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 15.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) Dysuria is: A) Lack of urine B) Painful urination C) Lack of bladder control D) Frequent urination Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

34) Oliguria is: A) Scanty urine B) Painful urination C) Lack of bladder control D) Frequent urination Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) Cystorrhaphy is bladder: A) suturing B) removal C) repair D) scoping Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) A urostomy is the A) removal of a kidney.

B) removal of a ureter.

C) surgical opening into the abdomen to drain urine.

D) use of a scope to retrieve urinary stones.

Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

37) The urinary system is also known as the renal or

system.

Answer: excretory Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) Urine is produced by

.

Answer: filtration Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) The outer protective layer of the kidneys is the

.

Answer: cortex Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 40) The inner portion of the kidney is the

.

Answer: medulla Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

41) The blood vessels, nerves and ureters enter and leave the kidneys through a depression called a (n) .

Answer: hilum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) A glomerulus is a group of

.

Answer: capillaries Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) The hollow, muscular organ that stores urine is the

.

Answer: bladder Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) The ureters enter the bladder through the

.

Answer: trigone Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

45) An indwelling catheter aids in

.

Answer: urination Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 15.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 46) Dialysis done outside the body is

dialysis.

Answer: peritoneal Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) The medical terminology for kidney stones is Answer: nephrolithiasis Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) Any kidney tumor is called a(n)

.

Answer: nephroma Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

.

49) Painful urination is

.

Answer: dysuria Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) The involuntary discharge of urine or feces is Answer: incontinence Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) Pus in the urine is

.

Answer: pyuria Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Remember Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) Excess urea in the blood is

.

Answer: uremia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

.

53) Surgical enlargement of the meatus is a(n)

.

Answer: meatotomy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 54) The creation of a surgical opening in the abdomen through which urine exits the body is a(n) .

Answer: urostomy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) Secretion of urine can be controlled with anticholinergics and

.

Answer: diuretics Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 15.06 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) High blood pressure can be relieved when edema is reduced through the use of Answer: antihypertensives Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pharmacological Terms Learning Objective: 15.06 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17

.

57) Identify the combining form calic/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: calix Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 58) Identify the combining form cyst/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: bladder Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 59) Identify the combining form glomerul/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: glomerulus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 60) Identify the combining form meat/o with its closest definition: Answer: meatus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18

.

61) Identify the combining form nephr/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: kidney Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 62) Identify the combining form pyel/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: renal pelvis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 63) Identify the combining form ren/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: kidney Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 64) Identify the combining form trigon/o with its closest definition: Answer: trigone Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19

.

65) Identify the combining form ur/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: urine Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 66) Identify the combining form ureter/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: ureter Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 67) Identify the combining form urethr/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: urethra Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 68) Identify the combining form vesic/o with its closest definition: Answer: bladder Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20

.

69) A specialist in diseases of the lower urinary tract, bladder, and urethra, is called a

.

Answer: urologist Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 70) A procedure that allows a physician to look into the bladder and examine its interior is termed a .

Answer: cystoscopy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 15.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71) Frequent urination is:

.

Answer: polyuria Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 72) The presence of white cells in the urine, usually indicating infection, is Answer: pyuria Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 15.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21

.

73) The tube that transports urine from the bladder to the outside is the

.

Answer: urethra Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 74) The physician would use this abbreviation to order this blood test to determine the level of urea in the blood: .

Answer: BUN Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Abbreviations Learning Objective: 15.07 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 75) The kidneys are located in this space behind the abdominal cavity: Answer: retroperitoneal Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Urinary System Learning Objective: 15.01 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22

.

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 16 The Male Reproductive System 1) Prostate cancer can be diagnosed by A) testing of prostate-specific antigen B) biopsy C) digital rectal exam D) semen analysis 2) Sperm is produced in the A) testes B) prostate C) epididymis D) vas deferens 3) A common cancer site in the male reproductive system is the A) testes B) prostate C) both testes and prostate D) sperm 4) Circumcision is the removal of the A) testis B) prepuce C) epididymis D) none of these 5) A vasectomy is performed for A) cancer control B) birth control C) correction of sexual dysfunction D) increased hormone production 6) A vasovasostomy is performed to A) reverse a vasectomy B) remove a tumor C) reverse an orchiectomy D) none of these 7) Impotence is the A) inability to fertilize ova B) inflammation of the prostate C) inability to maintain an erection D) enlargement of veins

1

8) A hydrocele is a(n) A) type of hernia B) form of priapism C) inflammation of the hypospadias D) male reproductive organ 9) Screening tests for prostate cancer include a(n) A) urethrogram B) PSA C) DRE D) all of these 10) A common birth defect in males is a(n) A) undescended testicle B) impotence C) priapism D) prostate cancer 11) The most important male sex hormone is

.

12) The part of the testes where sperm is stored is the 13) The prostate gland secretes

.

fluid.

14) Inhibin inhibits the production of

(abbreviation).

15) The area between the penis and anus is called the

.

16) The sperm is propelled forward by its tail called a

.

17) The Cowper's gland is another name for the

gland.

18) A semen analysis is done when a couple is having 19) The inability to produce sperm is called

problems. .

20) Cryptorchism is a birth defect in which one or more of the testicles has failed to 21) Identify the combining form andr/o with its closest definition:

.

22) Identify the combining form balan/o with its closest definition:

.

23) Identify the combining form epididym/o with its closest definition:

.

24) Identify the combining form orch/o with its closest definition:

.

25) Identify the combing form prostat/o with its closest definition:

.

2

.

26) Identify the combining form sperm/o with its closest definition: 27) Inflammation of the glans penis is

.

.

28) Identify the combining form scrot/o with its closest definition: 29) Any disease peculiar to men is known as

.

.

30) Identify the combining form semin/o with its closest definition: 31) Inflammation of the prostate is 32) This is an x-ray of the urethra and prostate: A) Semen analysis B) Urethrogram C) PSA test D) DSE 33) Swelling of male breast tissue is known as: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele 34) This is a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicles: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele 35) The lack of one or both testicle(s) is: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele 36) This is the medical term for undescended testicles: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele

3

.

37) An abnormal opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis is known as: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia 38) An abnormal opening of the urethra on the top side of the penis is known as: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia 39) An abnormal narrowing of the foreskin over the penis is: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia 40) The inability to produce sperm is: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia 41) Semen without living sperm is: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele 42) Scanty production of sperm is: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele 43) This is a persistent, painful erection: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele 44) A group of herniated vessels near the testes is: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele 4

45) A disorder that involves curvature of the penis is: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis 46) Inflammation of the epididymis is: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis 47) These are venereal sores: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis 48) This is a tumor of the testicle: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis 49) This is the medical term for the removal of a testicle A) orchidectomy B) prostatectomy C) castration D) TURP 50) This is the is the removal of a portion of the prostate.

A) orchidectomy B) vasectomy C) castration D) TURP 51) Removal of both testicles is: A) orchidectomy B) prostatectomy C) castration D) TURP

5

52) This is a form of male birth control: A) orchidectomy B) vasectomy C) castration D) TURP

6

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 16 The Male Reproductive System 1) Prostate cancer can be diagnosed by A) testing of prostate-specific antigen B) biopsy C) digital rectal exam D) semen analysis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Sperm is produced in the A) testes B) prostate C) epididymis D) vas deferens Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) A common cancer site in the male reproductive system is the A) testes B) prostate C) both testes and prostate D) sperm Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) Circumcision is the removal of the A) testis B) prepuce C) epididymis D) none of these Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 16.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) A vasectomy is performed for A) cancer control B) birth control C) correction of sexual dysfunction D) increased hormone production Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 16.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) A vasovasostomy is performed to A) reverse a vasectomy B) remove a tumor C) reverse an orchiectomy D) none of these Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 16.05 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2

7) Impotence is the A) inability to fertilize ova B) inflammation of the prostate C) inability to maintain an erection D) enlargement of veins Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) A hydrocele is a(n) A) type of hernia B) form of priapism C) inflammation of the hypospadias D) male reproductive organ Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) Screening tests for prostate cancer include a(n) A) urethrogram B) PSA C) DRE D) all of these Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3

10) A common birth defect in males is a(n) A) undescended testicle B) impotence C) priapism D) prostate cancer Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) The most important male sex hormone is

.

Answer: testosterone Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) The part of the testes where sperm is stored is the

.

Answer: epididymis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 13) The prostate gland secretes

fluid.

Answer: prostatic Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4

14) Inhibin inhibits the production of

(abbreviation).

Answer: FSH Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Abbreviation Learning Objective: 16.07 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) The area between the penis and anus is called the

.

Answer: perineum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 16) The sperm is propelled forward by its tail called a

.

Answer: flagellum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 17) The Cowper's gland is another name for the

gland.

Answer: bulbourethral Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5

18) A semen analysis is done when a couple is having

problems.

Answer: fertility Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 19) The inability to produce sperm is called

.

Answer: oligospermia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Cryptorchism is a birth defect in which one or more of the testicles has failed to Answer: descend Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 21) Identify the combining form andr/o with its closest definition: Answer: men Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6

.

.

22) Identify the combining form balan/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: glans penis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Identify the combining form epididym/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: epididymis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Identify the combining form orch/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: testes Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 25) Identify the combing form prostat/o with its closest definition: Answer: prostate gland Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7

.

26) Identify the combining form sperm/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: sperm Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) Inflammation of the glans penis is

.

Answer: balanitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 28) Identify the combining form scrot/o with its closest definition: Answer: scrotum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 29) Any disease peculiar to men is known as

.

Answer: andropathy Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8

.

30) Identify the combining form semin/o with its closest definition: Answer: semen Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 31) Inflammation of the prostate is Answer: Prostatitis Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) This is an x-ray of the urethra and prostate: A) Semen analysis B) Urethrogram C) PSA test D) DSE Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Male Reproductive System Learning Objective: 16.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 33) Swelling of male breast tissue is known as: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9

.

34) This is a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicles: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) The lack of one or both testicle(s) is: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) This is the medical term for undescended testicles: A) cryptorchism B) gynecomastia C) anorchia D) hydrocele Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10

37) An abnormal opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis is known as: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) An abnormal opening of the urethra on the top side of the penis is known as: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) An abnormal narrowing of the foreskin over the penis is: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11

40) The inability to produce sperm is: A) phimosis B) hypospadias C) epispadias D) aspermia Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 41) Semen without living sperm is: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) Scanty production of sperm is: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12

43) This is a persistent, painful erection: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 44) A group of herniated vessels near the testes is: A) Oligospermia B) Azoospermia C) priapism D) varicocele Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) A disorder that involves curvature of the penis is: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13

46) Inflammation of the epididymis is: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) These are venereal sores: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 48) This is a tumor of the testicle: A) chancroids B) seminoma C) Peyronie Disease D) epididymitis Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 16.03 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14

49) This is the medical term for the removal of a testicle A) orchidectomy B) prostatectomy C) castration D) TURP Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) This is the is the removal of a portion of the prostate.

A) orchidectomy B) vasectomy C) castration D) TURP Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 51) Removal of both testicles is: A) orchidectomy B) prostatectomy C) castration D) TURP Answer: C Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15

52) This is a form of male birth control: A) orchidectomy B) vasectomy C) castration D) TURP Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 16.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 17 The Female Reproductive System 1) Female sex cells are called A) ovaries B) gonads C) follicles D) gametes 2) Gestation is the period of A) pregnancy B) birth C) ovulation D) menstruation 3) Lactation occurs A) during pregnancy B) after birth C) during menstruation D) during gestation E) Lactation occurs after birth to provide milk for the infant.

4) The mature female egg cell is the A) ova B) ovaries C) embryos D) fetuses 5) A female egg is released A) during menarche B) during menstruation C) during ovulation D) before puberty 6) The primary female hormones is/are A) estrogen B) testosterone C) progesterone D) both estrogen and progesterone 7) Contraceptive devices include A) condoms B) sponges C) spermicides D) all of these

1

8) A Pap smear can detect A) ovarian cancer B) cervical cancer C) breast cancer D) colon cancer 9) Excessive menstrual bleeding is A) menometrorrhagia B) dysmenorrhea C) menorrhagia D) metrorrhagia 10) A sexually transmitted disease is A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) chlamydia D) all of these 11) The ovaries release eggs into the uterine

.

12) The female breasts are also known as the mammary A) glands B) organs C) hormones D) ducts

.

13) Eggs that are not fertilized are expelled during

.

14) Prior to menopause, estrogen levels start to decrease during 15) The 40 weeks of fetal development are known as 16) The middle layer of uterine tissue is the

. .

.

17) The space between the labia majora and the anus is called the

.

18) The dark-pigmented area surrounding the breast nipple is the

.

19) Prolactin is a female hormone that promotes 20) Kegel exercises can strengthen

.

muscles.

21) Identify the combining form salping/o with its closest definition: 22) Identify the combining form perine/o with its closest definition: 23) Identify the combining form oophor/o with its closest definition: 2

. . .

24) Identify the combining form oo with its closest definition:

.

25) Identify the combining form metr/o with its closest definition:

.

26) Identify the combining form men/o with its closest definition:

.

27) Identify the combining form mast/o with its closest definition:

.

28) Identify the combining form lact/o with its closest definition:

.

29) Identify the combining form mamm/o with its closest definition:

.

30) Identify the combining form hyster/o with its closest definition:

.

31) Identify the combining form gynec/o with its closest definition:

.

32) Identify the combining form galact/o with its closest definition:

.

33) Identify the combining form episi/o with its closest definition:

.

34) Identify the combining form colp/o with its closest definition:

.

35) Identify the combining form cervic/o with its closest definition: 36) Identify the combining form amni/o with its closest definition: 37) A vaginal hemorrhage is

. .

.

38) A hysterosalpingography is a procedure that contrast medium has been injected

the uterus and uterine tubes after a

39) A reduction mammoplasty refers to a(n) 40) Surgical repair of the uterus is:

. .

41) The patient tells the health care provider that sexual intercourse is painful. This would be documented as: .

42) A breast augmentation is a A) mammoplasty B) mastopexy C) gynecomastia D) mastectomy

.

3

43) The physician tells the patient that she needs a myomectomy. Explain to the patient that this is the: A) removal of fibroid tumors B) incision into the fallopian tube C) removal of fallopian tube D) removal of ovarian cyst 44) This is the removal of the fallopian tube:

.

45) The patient is having a tubal ligation. This is performed during a

.

46) The patient is experiencing painful periods accompanied by heavy bleeding. The health care provider would evaluate the patient for .

47) A backward turn of the uterus is known as

.

48) The specialist that diagnoses and treats disorders of the female reproductive system is a .

49) Breast cancer may be treated surgically by a: A) salpingectomy B) lumpectomy C) oophorectomy D) mastopexy 50) The absence of menstruation is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia 51) Painful cramping associated with menstruation is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia 52) A scanty menstrual period is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia

4

53) Uterine bleeding between menstrual periods is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia 54) Painful sexual intercourse is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea 55) Inflammation of the cervix is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea 56) Abnormal vaginal discharge is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea 57) Inflammation of the breast is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea

5

Medical Terminology, 1e (Bostwick) Chapter 17 The Female Reproductive System 1) Female sex cells are called A) ovaries B) gonads C) follicles D) gametes Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 2) Gestation is the period of A) pregnancy B) birth C) ovulation D) menstruation Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 3) Lactation occurs A) during pregnancy B) after birth C) during menstruation D) during gestation E) Lactation occurs after birth to provide milk for the infant.

Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

1

4) The mature female egg cell is the A) ova B) ovaries C) embryos D) fetuses Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 5) A female egg is released A) during menarche B) during menstruation C) during ovulation D) before puberty Answer: C Explanation: Female egg is released during ovulation.

Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 6) The primary female hormones is/are A) estrogen B) testosterone C) progesterone D) both estrogen and progesterone Answer: D Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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7) Contraceptive devices include A) condoms B) sponges C) spermicides D) all of these Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 8) A Pap smear can detect A) ovarian cancer B) cervical cancer C) breast cancer D) colon cancer Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 17.03 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 9) Excessive menstrual bleeding is A) menometrorrhagia B) dysmenorrhea C) menorrhagia D) metrorrhagia Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.04 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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10) A sexually transmitted disease is A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) chlamydia D) all of these Answer: D Explanation: Syphilis, gonorrhea and chlamydia are sexually transmitted diseases.

Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.04 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 0-1 minute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 11) The ovaries release eggs into the uterine

.

Answer: tube Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 12) The female breasts are also known as the mammary A) glands B) organs C) hormones D) ducts

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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13) Eggs that are not fertilized are expelled during

.

Answer: menstruation Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 14) Prior to menopause, estrogen levels start to decrease during

.

Answer: perimenopause Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 15) The 40 weeks of fetal development are known as

.

Answer: gestation Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 16) The middle layer of uterine tissue is the

.

Answer: myometrium Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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17) The space between the labia majora and the anus is called the

.

Answer: perineum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 18) The dark-pigmented area surrounding the breast nipple is the Answer: areola Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 19) Prolactin is a female hormone that promotes

.

Answer: lactation Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.01 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 20) Kegel exercises can strengthen

muscles.

Answer: perineal Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.04 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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.

21) Identify the combining form salping/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: fallopian tube Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 22) Identify the combining form perine/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: perineum Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 23) Identify the combining form oophor/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: ovary Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 24) Identify the combining form oo with its closest definition: Answer: egg Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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.

25) Identify the combining form metr/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: uterus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 26) Identify the combining form men/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: menstruation Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 27) Identify the combining form mast/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: breast Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 28) Identify the combining form lact/o with its closest definition: Answer: milk Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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.

29) Identify the combining form mamm/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: breast Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 30) Identify the combining form hyster/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: uterus Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 31) Identify the combining form gynec/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: female Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 32) Identify the combining form galact/o with its closest definition: Answer: milk Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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.

33) Identify the combining form episi/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: vulva Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 34) Identify the combining form colp/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: vagina Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 35) Identify the combining form cervic/o with its closest definition:

.

Answer: cervix Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 36) Identify the combining form amni/o with its closest definition: Answer: amnion Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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.

37) A vaginal hemorrhage is

.

Answer: colporrhagia Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 38) A hysterosalpingography is a procedure that contrast medium has been injected

the uterus and uterine tubes after a

Answer: x-rays Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 39) A reduction mammoplasty refers to a(n)

.

Answer: breast reduction Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 40) Surgical repair of the uterus is:

.

Answer: uteroplasty Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Word Building in the Female Reproductive System Learning Objective: 17.02 Bloom's: Understand Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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41) The patient tells the health care provider that sexual intercourse is painful. This would be documented as: .

Answer: dyspareunia Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 42) A breast augmentation is a A) mammoplasty B) mastopexy C) gynecomastia D) mastectomy

.

Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 43) The physician tells the patient that she needs a myomectomy. Explain to the patient that this is the: A) removal of fibroid tumors B) incision into the fallopian tube C) removal of fallopian tube D) removal of ovarian cyst Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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44) This is the removal of the fallopian tube:

.

Answer: salpingectomy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 45) The patient is having a tubal ligation. This is performed during a

.

Answer: laparoscopy Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 46) The patient is experiencing painful periods accompanied by heavy bleeding. The health care provider would evaluate the patient for .

Answer: endometriosis Difficulty: 3 Hard Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 47) A backward turn of the uterus is known as

.

Answer: retroversion Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.04 Bloom's: Apply Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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48) The specialist that diagnoses and treats disorders of the female reproductive system is a .

Answer: gynecologist Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Diagnostic, Procedural, and Laboratory Terms Learning Objective: 17.03 Bloom's: Knowledge Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 49) Breast cancer may be treated surgically by a: A) salpingectomy B) lumpectomy C) oophorectomy D) mastopexy Answer: B Difficulty: 1 Easy Topic: Surgical Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 50) The absence of menstruation is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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51) Painful cramping associated with menstruation is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 52) A scanty menstrual period is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 53) Uterine bleeding between menstrual periods is: A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) oligomenorrhea D) metrorrhagia Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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54) Painful sexual intercourse is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea Answer: A Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 55) Inflammation of the cervix is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 56) Abnormal vaginal discharge is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea Answer: D Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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57) Inflammation of the breast is: A) dyspareunia B) cervicitis C) mastitis D) leukorrhea Answer: C Difficulty: 2 Medium Topic: Pathological Terms Learning Objective: 17.05 Bloom's: Analyze Est Time: 1-3 minutes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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