How Children Develop (Canadian Edition) 6th By Siegler, Gaffran, Graham, Gershoff, Eisenberg TEST BA

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Chap 01_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which statement about naturalistic observation is NOT true? a. Researchers try not to influence the behaviors of the individuals they are observing. b. Researchers must ensure that the effects they observe are due to the variables they intentionally manipulated. c. Obtaining sufficient interrater reliability is important. d. The principal objective is to observe how people act in their usual surroundings.

2. Variables U and W have a correlation of –0.86. If it is known that Keira has a low score on U, which statement would be the BEST prediction about her score on W? a. Keira is likely to have a high score on W. b. Keira is likely to have a low score on W. c. Keira's score on W is likely to be higher than her score on U. d. Keira's score on W cannot be predicted from her score on U. 3. Which method is the BEST way to divide participants into groups for an experiment? a. dividing participants by hair color b. allowing participants to choose which group to join c. dividing participants by where their names fall on an alphabetic list d. flipping a coin for each participant 4. Evidence for the enduring epigenetic impact of early experiences and behaviors on development comes from what type of research? a. research on methylation b. meta-analysis c. longitudinal studies d. cross-sectional designs 5. Which statement about individuals' contributions to their own development is TRUE? a. Most individuals rarely actively contribute to their own development. b. Infants are incapable of actively contributing to their own development. c. Individuals' active contributions to their own development strengthen as they age. d. Individuals' active contributions to their own development weaken as they age.

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Chap 01_6ce 6. Considering the research on preschoolers' ability to provide accurate testimony about past events, which piece of advice would be the MOST important for an interviewer to be told prior to interviewing a young child? a. Bring a doll to aid the child in answering your questions. b. Make sure you know the answers to the questions before asking the child. c. If you do not think the child has answered a question accurately, ask the question again. d. Ask questions that will help children to testify accurately.

7. Which statement is NOT part of the logic of experimental designs? a. Two or more groups of participants vary on one or more variables at the outset. b. The participants within one group are given an experience that differs in only one way from the experience given to participants in the other group. c. The participants in different groups behave differently after the experiences. d. The different experiences are concluded to have caused the subsequent difference in behavior.

8. Which premise is at the foundation of the scientific method? a. If a hypothesis is repeatedly tested and found incorrect, it must be abandoned. b. Some hypotheses cannot be tested scientifically. c. Beliefs that are plausible to many experts are assumed to be accurate. d. The scientific method is founded on all of these.

9. Which basic step of the scientific method is unique to that method? a. Form a hypothesis. b. Develop a method to test the hypothesis. c. Ask a question. d. Draw a conclusion.

10. Which statement about epigenetics is TRUE? a. One's hereditary information stays constant throughout life. b. One's DNA can be altered by experience. c. Early experiences can alter the expression of one's genes. d. All of these statements are true.

11. Researchers interested in understanding the process of change are MOST likely to use a _____ design. a. correlational b. microgenetic c. longitudinal d. cross-sectional

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Chap 01_6ce 12. Variables X and Y are negatively correlated, indicating that as the level of X increases, the level of Y _____, and as the level of X decreases, the level of Y _____. a. increases; increases b. increases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. decreases; decreases 13. One study discussed in the text demonstrated that the grades of children who were highly engaged in school changed in more positive directions than would have been predicted by genetic background or family environment alone. This finding is MOST supportive of the theory of a. Watson. b. Johnson. c. Dweck. d. Piaget.

14. A researcher would be MOST likely to use a microgenetic design to examine which topic? a. basic pattern of age-related changes in a particular skill b. pattern of stability and change in individual children's development in a particular area c. how change in a particular skill occurs d. how individual differences remain stable over long periods of time 15. Which person is MOST likely to develop schizophrenia, based on current research findings? a. Stacey, whose first cousin suffers from the disorder b. Margaret, whose grandfather suffers from the disorder c. Brandon, whose father suffers from the disorder d. Michael, whose sister suffers from the disorder 16. All demonstrate nature's influence on our development EXCEPT a. the genome. b. their personality. c. epigenetics. d. genetic differences.

17. When a child overcomes obstacles in development related to poverty or other negative experiences, he can be said to be _____, according to the text. a. resilient b. strong c. optimistic d. full of GRIT

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Chap 01_6ce 18. The text describes a study examining the link between sleeping with a nightlight in infancy and later developing nearsightedness. This study exhibited which type of problem? a. negative-correlation b. third-variable c. causal-relationship d. direction-of-causation 19. In which data-gathering method do researchers try to remain unobtrusive? a. a naturalistic interview b. a structured interview c. naturalistic observation d. structured observation 20. Which is likely the first environmental influence on development that we encounter? a. the womb b. the house we live in c. the elementary school we attend d. our parents' interaction with us 21. Darwin completed a biographical sketch of his own son, demonstrating his interest in child development, in what was called a. evolutionary theory. b. the psychosexual stages of development. c. the psychosocial stages of development. d. the baby biography.

22. Research studies engaging in _____ designs often reveal that practices that are rare or nonexistent in one's own culture are common in other cultures. a. cross-sectional b. longitudinal c. cross-cultural d. experimental 23. Romanian-born children who were adopted by British families _____ fared BEST in weight gain after adoption. a. before age 6 months b. between the ages of 6 and 24 months c. between the ages of 24 and 42 months d. after 42 months

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Chap 01_6ce 24. The internal validity of a measure involves the extent to which a. the effects of an experiment are truly due to conditions the researcher intended to manipulate. b. different observers of the same behavior agree. c. the results of a study hold when studies are conducted with different participants and different methods. d. participant's performance is similar on two or more occasions.

25. Crib speech is a(n) a. demonstration of the importance of nature on development. b. early indication of schizophrenia. c. phenomenon Freud observed and used as a partial basis for his theory. d. example of an individual's contributions to his or her own development.

26. A researcher would be MOST likely to use a cross-sectional design to examine which topic? a. typical pattern of age-related changes in a particular skill b. pattern of stability and change in individual children's development in a particular area c. how change in a particular skill occurs d. how individual differences remain stable over long periods of time 27. A town committee learns that there is a strong negative correlation between the number of inches of daily rainfall and the number of children who use the neighborhood playgrounds each day. If the committee were to conclude that high rainfall is caused by children not using the playground, which type of problem would MOST likely be occurring? a. third-variable b. direction-of-correlation c. direction-of-causation d. insufficient-knowledge 28. Which statement about longitudinal design is TRUE? a. Loss of participants can threaten external validity. b. Longitudinal design is particularly useful for examining age-related changes in typical performance. c. Longitudinal design is the least time-consuming of the designs for examining development. d. Research questions regarding stability or change over time are not well-suited for longitudinal design.

29. Which item is NOT one of the four factors Scarr identified as involved in the differences among siblings? a. sociocultural context b. genes c. children's choice of environments d. treatment by parents and others

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Chap 01_6ce 30. Siegler and Jenkins's examination of the development of the counting-on strategy is an example of _____ design. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. experimental d. microgenetic 31. Which research design allows researchers to infer cause-and-effect associations between variables? a. structured b. correlational c. experimental d. none of these 32. Which of Scarr's factors is BEST related to the theme of the active child? a. genetic differences b. different choices of environment c. differences in treatment by parents and others d. different reactions to similar experiences 33. With which statement would stage theorists NOT agree? a. Behaviors of children at different ages differ sharply. b. A child's entry into a new stage involves a gradual shift from one way of experiencing the world to a different way of experiencing it. c. Children of a particular age show wide-ranging similarities across a variety of situations. d. When children enter a new cognitive stage, they demonstrate their new way of thinking across a broad spectrum of tasks.

34. Which is a major group of contemporary philosophers and psychologists that argue for the importance and relevance of evolution in relation to human development? a. nativists b. evolutionary psychologists c. empiricists d. Freudians

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Chap 01_6ce 35. Dr. Jefferson is a psychologist interested in 4-year-old Shawn's knowledge of the differences between animals and vehicles. The psychologist gives Shawn a multiple-choice picture test in which he must write the letter of the correct answer on a separate piece of paper. However, Shawn has trouble identifying and writing some letters. On two separate occasions, Shawn receives the same score on the test. This method has _____ validity and _____ reliability. a. good; good b. good; poor c. poor; good d. poor; poor 36. Which statement BEST characterizes the results of research on children from Romanian orphanages? a. Positive experiences in later childhood cannot counteract the effect of negative early childhood experiences. b. Positive experiences in later childhood counteract the effect of negative early childhood experiences. c. The impact of positive experiences on children's resiliency depends on the timing and extent of the neglect. d. Neglect in infancy always has severe and lasting consequences.

37. Which factor is an example of how children shape their own development? a. play style b. socioeconomic status c. number of siblings d. all of these 38. Which variable is LEAST likely to be an independent variable in an experiment? a. TV-viewing behavior b. family size c. hours of teacher training d. parental involvement in school 39. The study that examined the lying behavior of 3-, 4-, and 5-year-olds utilized which type of design? a. cross-sectional b. microgenetic c. experimental d. longitudinal

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Chap 01_6ce 40. A correlation of –1.00 indicates that a. there is no relationship between the two variables. b. the two variables increase together. c. the two variables decrease together. d. as one variable increases, the other variable decreases.

41. One of the earliest examples of research conducted for the benefit of children was a. Watson's experiments on the effects of reward and punishment. b. the Earl of Shaftesbury's effort to reform child labor practices. c. Freud's dream analysis. d. Locke's advocacy of early discipline and later freedom.

42. The possibility that the correlation between two variables may actually be the result of an additional unspecified attribute is referred to as the _____ problem. a. insufficient-variable b. third-variable c. experimental-design d. direction-of-causation 43. Which statement describes the results of research by Dweck on children's beliefs about intelligence? a. Children who believe that intelligence is a fixed entity are more likely than are other children to persist in the face of difficulty. b. Children who believe that intelligence can be increased by learning are more likely than are other children to say they are dumb when faced with a challenge. c. Children who believe that intelligence is a fixed entity are more likely than are other children to think that a very challenging problem is too hard for them. d. Children who believe that intelligence can be decreased are more likely than are other children to quit trying at challenging tasks.

44. A method that allows researchers to gather information from a large number of participants simultaneously by presenting them a uniform set of items is referred to as a(n) a. interview. b. cross-sectional study. c. longitudinal study. d. questionnaire.

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Chap 01_6ce 45. Professor Bryson is a researcher who asks children a series of predetermined questions about how much they like to play with their siblings. He is using a. naturalistic observation. b. structured observation. c. a clinical interview. d. a structured interview.

46. A method for combining the results from independent studies to determine a general conclusion on the topic is known as a. meta-analysis. b. factor analysis. c. longitudinal design. d. cross-sectional design.

47. Researchers would be LEAST likely to examine the effect of _____ on _____ with experimental design. a. children's TV viewing habits; sibling relationships b. teachers' testing procedures; children's school achievement c. poverty; children's beliefs about intelligence d. social skills training; children's ability to make friends 48. Which statement about the study on the development of popularity discussed in the text is TRUE? a. The microgenetic design allowed for conclusions to be made about age-related changes in popularity. b. The cross-sectional design allowed for age-related differences among children in popularity to be examined. c. The longitudinal design allowed for the investigation of how changes in popularity occur. d. The longitudinal design allowed for the stability of individual differences to be examined.

49. According to the text, differences between U.S. and Mayan childhood sleeping patterns are due to differences in a. laws. b. financial circumstances. c. cultural values. d. family structure.

50. Which expression is MOST likely to represent the correlation between age of child and reading speed among children who are able to read? a. 1.00 b. 0.60 c. 0 d. –0.60 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 51. Attributes that vary across individuals and situations are termed a. variables. b. correlates. c. causes. d. coefficients.

52. What do longitudinal designs do? a. study children on the verge of a developmental change in order to examine the processes that produce changes b. compare groups of children who are of different ages on the same variable c. follow the same children over a period of time d. use random assignment 53. Groups created through random assignment would NOT be comparable with regard to a. socioeconomic status. b. number of children in family. c. IQ score. d. experimental group.

54. One study discussed in the text demonstrated that infants with a particular form of one of the genes influencing production of neurotransmitters associated with effortful attention had lower effortful attention than other infants when they also were exposed to poor parenting. What principle is demonstrated by this study? a. Environment plays a crucial role in the expression of genes. b. The expression of genes plays a crucial role in one's environment. c. Some genetic influences operate regardless of environment. d. Current research methods often do not allow researchers to separate the influences of genetics and environment.

55. Which philosopher offered the argument that children should be provided with maximum freedom and no formal education prior to the age of reason at approximately age 12? a. Rousseau b. Plato c. Aristotle d. Locke 56. Which group has stressed the general learning mechanisms that are thought to be possessed by infants? a. nativists b. evolutionary psychologists c. empiricists d. Freudians Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 57. Test–retest reliability refers to the a. level of agreement between different observers of the same behavior. b. improvement of children over time in abilities such as mathematics. c. degree to which a test measures what it is intended to test. d. degree of similarity in the results of the same measure when it is given at two different times.

58. A class of 3rd-grade children is split into two groups through random assignment. Group A is given training in a new game, and group B is not. Group A is referred to as the _____ group, and group B is referred to as the _____ group. a. dependent; independent b. independent; dependent c. control; experimental d. experimental; control 59. Naturalistic observation would probably be the method of choice for a researcher interested in which topic? a. toddlers' responses to their parents' encouragement to touch a dangerous object b. frequency of bullying behavior among schoolchildren c. beliefs of children in an elementary school class about how smart their classmates are d. a single child's feelings about his friendships 60. One main conclusion based on the Romanian adoption study is that a. development is a direct result of sociocultural experiences. b. there is no impact of social experiences on the developmental process. c. the timing of experiences influences their effect on development. d. development is a general result of biological influences.

61. Who developed the baby biography? a. Darwin b. Locke c. Freud d. Watson 62. Third-variable problems are an issue with which type of research design? a. correlational b. experimental c. cross-sectional d. longitudinal

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Chap 01_6ce 63. What is a hypothesis? a. a research question b. a conclusion yielded by research c. a method used to answer a question d. a testable prediction 64. Which scenario provides the BEST example of how children actively contribute to their own development? a. Joshua's bright blue eyes cause strangers to shower him with attention, which influences his wariness around strangers. b. Analisa's mother's anxiety about her daughter's academic success causes Analisa to panic whenever she takes an exam. c. Manny's quiet nature influences him to seek out other quiet children, with whom he plays quiet games, and to stay away from the more rambunctious children in his class. d. Bree's parents are both highly educated and surround her with books and puzzles, leading Bree to be an intellectually curious child.

65. Which family group in the United States has the HIGHEST percentage of the population below the poverty line? a. married-couple Hispanic families b. married-couple White families c. single-mother Asian families d. single-mother Black families 66. Which research design has a limitation regarding being used to study many variables of interest at the same time? a. correlational b. experimental c. cross-sectional d. longitudinal 67. A researcher is interested in thoroughly exploring 8-year-old Jane's thoughts and feelings about living in poverty. The researcher's BEST option for obtaining this information would be a. a clinical interview. b. a structured interview. c. naturalistic observation. d. structured observation.

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Chap 01_6ce 68. Which type of design compares the behavior of groups of children who are of different ages? a. microgenetic b. cross-sectional c. landscape d. longitudinal 69. Which view of changes in height would lead to a view that height development is smooth and continuous? a. view A: measuring the height of a boy at yearly intervals from birth to age 18 b. view B: examining changes in height from one year to the next from birth to age 18 c. Both view A and view B make changes in height look continuous. d. Both view A and view B make changes in height look discontinuous.

70. Structured observation would probably be the method of choice for a researcher interested in which topic? a. how toddlers respond to their parents' encouragement to touch a dangerous object b. frequency of bullying behavior among school children c. beliefs of the children in an elementary school class about how smart their classmates are d. a single child's feelings about his friendships 71. Who bears the GREATEST responsibility for ensuring that children are unharmed when participating in psychological research? a. government b. university at which the research is conducted c. individual researcher d. participants 72. Which item would NOT be considered part of the sociocultural context involved in an American child's language development? a. number of words in a child's vocabulary b. town budget for speech therapy c. parental knowledge of child development d. modern American value for education 73. Who did NOT propose a stage theory related to child development? a. Piaget b. Freud c. Erikson d. Darwin

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Chap 01_6ce 74. Which theoretical perspective proposes that two interconnected brain areas, the hippocampus and the cortex, simultaneously encode new information during learning? a. Darwin's theory of evolution b. Piaget's theory of cognitive development c. Active Systems Consolidation Theory d. psychosexual stages of development 75. The study of stable changes in gene expression that are mediated by the environment is referred to as a. epigenetics. b. evolutionary psychology. c. neuroscience. d. genometrics.

76. The emergence of theories such as those of Piaget and Freud in the early twentieth century reflected the a. nature versus nurture aspect of development. b. continuity versus discontinuity aspect of development. c. way in which children shape their own development. d. sociocultural context related to development.

77. Stella has experienced poverty her entire life. Which is NOT an aspect related to cumulative risk that puts Stella at risk for hindered successful development? a. attending an inferior day-care center b. increased exposure to pollution c. attending an A-rated school d. residing in a single-parent home 78. Dr. Stott is a researcher interested in examining the association between how humorous children are and their school achievement. Two research assistants go to children's homes and judge children as "not funny at all," "slightly funny," or "very funny." Upon comparison of the observers' judgments, it is apparent that the observers have a high level of disagreement as to children's humor level. This measure of humor level has poor a. test–retest reliability. b. interrater reliability. c. internal validity. d. interrater validity.

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Chap 01_6ce 79. What was demonstrated by the study on toddlers' play behaviors in which the TV show Jeopardy! was being shown in the room while the children were playing? a. Toddlers' play behavior is unaffected by background exposure to TV. b. Toddlers are likely to choose watching TV, rather than playing, even when the toys are interesting. c. Background exposure to TV is disruptive to toddlers, even if they watch little of the show. d. Toddlers are able to learn from TV if the items in the room are compatible with the content of the TV show.

80. A researcher is interested in the development of depression. She interviews children ages 5, 9, and 13 about their depressive symptoms. This is an example of which type of design? a. longitudinal b. experimental c. microgenetic d. cross-sectional 81. Which factor is NOT an enduring theme in the study of child development? a. nature and nurture b. continuity and discontinuity c. stress and adaptation d. individual differences in development 82. According to the text, which is NOT an aspect related to child development that has been influenced by Darwin's work on evolution? a. infant attachment b. gender identity c. innate fear d. learning 83. Which is the GREATEST limitation of laboratory experiments? a. poor interrater reliability b. third-variable problem c. inability to ensure that all participants are exposed to the same scenario d. questionable external validity 84. Which theorist developed one of the best known stage theories of cognitive development? a. Piaget b. Scarr c. Freud d. Erikson

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Chap 01_6ce 85. Which statement does NOT express a benefit of structured observation? a. The researcher can design the context to elicit the behavior of interest. b. Researchers are able to observe behaviors that occur only infrequently. c. Children feel comfortable in their own environment. d. All children are observed in the same situation.

86. The validity of a test refers to the a. consistency of the test. b. extent to which two raters agree on its result. c. degree to which it measures what it is intended to measure. d. level of agreement between different observers of the same behavior.

87. Which research design fails to provide data regarding change over time? a. microgenetic b. experimental c. cross-sectional d. longitudinal 88. Which factor is the GREATEST obstacle to poor children's chances of successful development? a. accumulation of various disadvantages b. growing up in a single-parent home or without biological parents c. lack of parental involvement in their schooling d. genetic disadvantages 89. To examine whether children's cognitive development occurs in stages, Professor Blue observes four groups of children. Each child's performance on cognitive tasks is observed two or more times over a period of 2 years. Which group is MOST likely to lead Professor Blue to conclude that development occurs continuously? a. group A, whose performance on a single task is observed twice each year b. group B, whose performance on multiple tasks is observed twice each year c. group C, whose performance on a single task is observed every week d. group D, whose performance on multiple tasks is observed every week 90. Of Aristotle, Locke, and Plato, which philosopher(s) believed that all knowledge comes from experience, meaning that infants are born without innate knowledge? a. Locke only b. Plato only c. Aristotle and Locke only d. Plato and Aristotle only

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Chap 01_6ce 91. The term used for the social class measure based on income and education is a. race. b. socioeconomic status. c. culture. d. sociocultural context.

92. Which statement BEST answers the question of whether development is fundamentally continuous or discontinuous? a. Development is fundamentally continuous. b. Development is fundamentally discontinuous. c. Some domains of development, such as cognitive development, are fundamentally discontinuous, whereas other domains, such as social development, are fundamentally continuous. d. Whether development is fundamentally continuous or discontinuous depends on perspective—how development is examined as well as how often it is examined.

93. To examine the effectiveness of empathy training on children's sharing behavior, 2 months of training are provided to 3-year-old children living in rural Georgia. Six months later, the children's sharing behaviors are measured and compared to their pre-training sharing behavior. Improvements are considered the result of the empathy training. Which factor is a potential source of internal invalidity? a. All the children were from rural Georgia. b. Children's sharing behavior may improve with the simple passage of time. c. The observers of the sharing behavior may disagree. d. Children who were the best sharers before the training were not necessarily the best after the training.

94. A researcher is interested in examining whether offering children candy as an incentive to share will increase preschoolers' sharing behavior. A group of preschoolers is brought into the laboratory to play with some interesting toys. The preschoolers are split into two groups through random assignment. Group A is told that they will get candy each time they share, and group B is not told anything about candy or sharing. Results indicate that preschoolers in group A share more than do preschoolers in group B, and the researcher concludes that offering children candy for sharing caused the children in group A to share more. Which statement BEST describes a possible limitation of this study? a. Children in group A may have been naturally kinder than were children in group B. b. Causation cannot be inferred from this type of study. c. These findings may not generalize beyond the laboratory setting. d. There may be a third-variable problem.

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Chap 01_6ce 95. A correlation coefficient of 0.00 indicates that as the level of one variable increases, the level of the other variable a. increases. b. decreases. c. varies randomly. d. stays constant.

96. To examine the effect of empathy training on teenagers' bullying behaviors, a researcher splits a group of high school students into two groups through random assignment. Group A is shown a movie about an interesting science experiment, and group B is shown a movie about students being harmed by bullies. Group A would be the _____ group, and group B would be the _____ group. a. dependent; independent b. independent; dependent c. control; experimental d. experimental; control 97. The relationship between nature and nurture on developmental outcomes can BEST be described by which statement? a. Nature is more influential on developmental outcomes than nurture. b. Nurture is more influential on developmental outcomes than nature. c. There is a bidirectional interaction between nature and nurture that influences developmental outcomes. d. There is no relationship between nature and nurture on developmental outcomes.

98. Which statement BEST describes the value of random assignment in experimental designs? a. It enables researchers to fully control the specific experience of the different groups of participants. b. It helps to ensure that participants receiving different treatments are similar at the start of the experiment. c. It allows researchers to accurately determine the direction of causation. d. It removes the possibility of encountering the third-variable problem.

99. A longitudinal design would be MOST useful for which research question? a. Are older children better than younger children at playing hopscotch? b. What are the similarities and differences in the TV-viewing habits of elementary school students and junior high school students? c. Do children who are empathetic preschoolers become empathetic teenagers? d. How do children learn to solve jigsaw puzzles?

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Chap 01_6ce 100. Which statement qualifies as a hypothesis? a. Children whose parents argue in their presence are more likely than other children to try illegal drugs. b. Which parental behaviors are associated with an increased likelihood of teenage illegal drug use? c. What are the differences between children whose parents argue in their presence and those whose parents do not argue in their presence? d. There are many differences between children whose parents argue in their presence and those whose parents do not argue in their presence.

101. External validity is an issue in which research design, due to repeatedly testing the same children? a. microgenetic b. experimental c. cross-sectional d. longitudinal 102. Stage theories regard development as a. active. b. passive. c. continuous. d. discontinuous.

103. Which activity is NOT a core component of effortful attention? a. exerting effort on tasks b. controlling emotions c. focusing attention d. inhibiting impulses 104. The term "reliability" does NOT refer to the a. consistency of measurements. b. similarity in results when a variable is measured at two different time points. c. ability to generalize measurements. d. level of agreement in observations by different observers.

105. Which statement is NOT a general reason to learn about child development, as outlined in the text? a. Knowledge regarding child development can help caregivers raise children. b. Research on child development can aid social policy development and adoption. c. Knowledge of child development can provide a more thorough understand of human nature. d. Research on child development can assist the development of court orders regarding child custody.

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Chap 01_6ce 106. Kochanska and her colleagues probably chose to study toddlers' compliance with their mothers' requests with the methodology they used because a. children tend to feel most comfortable in their own homes. b. they wanted all children to be exposed to identical situations. c. they were interested in children's subjective experience of the event. d. of all of these factors.

107. Variables A and B are positively correlated, indicating that as the level of A _____, the level of B _____. a. increases; decreases b. increases; stays the same c. decreases; decreases d. decreases; stays the same 108. In which country are infants expected to sleep in their own bed, separate from their parents, by 6 months of age? a. Japan b. South Korea c. the United States d. Mexico 109. Neurotransmitters can BEST be described as a. electrical impulses in the brain. b. chemicals involved in communication between brain cells. c. gene defects that produce schizophrenia. d. what early philosophers theorized reflected children's core nature at birth.

110. Professor Stetson would like to examine whether children who are high math achievers have better memories than do low math achievers. Her research should utilize a. a clinical interview. b. a laboratory experiment. c. a correlational design. d. random assignment.

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Chap 01_6ce 111. Rachel is a 6-month-old who has recently learned to sit up on her own. Her mother places two toys in front of her: a soft yellow stuffed animal within her reach and a colorful rattle slightly out of her reach. Seeing both toys, Rachel chooses the one she finds more appealing to play with. Over time, choices such as these do NOT influence development of a. personality. b. crawling. c. an understanding of cause and effect. d. gross motor skills.

112. Which statement expresses a disadvantage of naturalistic observation? a. Memory of participants for past events is often inaccurate and incomplete. b. It can feel artificial to the participants. c. Reports are often biased to reflect favorably on the participants. d. It has a limited value for studying infrequent behaviors.

113. The study in which 6-year-old children were presented with a 5-day training program designed to improve effortful attention demonstrated that experience can a. improve intelligence test scores but not brain processes. b. change brain processes but not intelligence test scores. c. improve both intelligence test scores and brain processes. d. change neither intelligence test scores nor brain processes.

114. Which statement about the troubled homes in Patterson's study is NOT true? a. Children responded to parents' punishment by behaving less aggressively. b. Children often acted in an angry manner. c. Children responded to their parents' anger with hostility. d. Parents reacted to children's hostility with increased anger.

115. The accumulation of disadvantages over years of development is referred to as a. methylation. b. genome. c. effortful attention. d. cumulative risk.

116. Which example illustrates discontinuity in development? a. the transition from caterpillar to chrysalis to butterfly b. trees growing taller each year c. the blooming of flowers d. the cultivation of crops each fall

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Chap 01_6ce 117. Which child in the United States is MOST likely to live below the poverty line? a. Brice, who is White, non-Hispanic and whose parents are currently divorced b. Tracey, who is Hispanic and whose parents have recently remarried c. Suan, who is African American and lives in a single-mother household d. Chris, who is White, non-Hispanic and lives in a single-mother household 118. Which item is a potential source of internal invalidity? a. passage of time b. inconsistent findings across different groups of participants c. observer disagreement d. conflicting scores on multiple test days 119. Suppose a researcher found out that there was a strong positive correlation between the number of minutes parents spend reading to children and the number of minutes parents spend engaging in athletic activity with children. If the researcher concluded that engaging in high levels of athletic activity with children causes parents to read to them more often, which type of problem would MOST likely be occurring? a. third-variable b. direction-of-correlation c. direction-of-causation d. insufficient-knowledge 120. Longitudinal designs are particularly useful for examining a. continuity and discontinuity in development. b. age differences on a particular variable. c. the processes that produce changes. d. cause-and-effect relationships.

121. Which statement describes a potential disadvantage of the interview method? a. The interview method has limited value for studying infrequent behaviors. b. Individuals may distort the way that events happened. c. It is difficult to gather information about participants' subjective experiences. d. It does not enable the researcher to examine the subject in an in-depth manner.

122. To examine how children interact with their elementary school teachers on a daily basis, a researcher would probably use the _____ method. a. naturalistic interview b. structured interview c. naturalistic observation d. structured observation

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Chap 01_6ce 123. A class of 3rd-grade children is split into two groups through random assignment. Group A is given training in a new game, and group B is not. Training in the new game is referred to as the _____ variable, and gameplaying skill at the conclusion of the study is referred to as the _____ variable. a. dependent; independent b. independent; dependent c. control; experimental d. experimental; control 124. Dr. Schmidt is studying the effectiveness of a new reading program on minority children who have experienced an impoverished family background and low maternal involvement. She will separate children into two groups; one that gets the new reading program and one that uses the current reading program. She will also use random assignment to create her two groups. The groups created in this manner would NOT be comparable with regard to which characteristic? a. minority status b. maternal involvement c. family income level d. paternal education level 125. Which factor is NOT considered part of the sociocultural context? a. neighborhood b. societal values c. historical era d. genes 126. What is the biochemical process that reduces expression of a variety of genes and is involved in regulating reactions to stress? a. methylation b. meta-analysis c. genome d. nurture 127. Which is NOT an ethical standard to which psychological researchers are expected to adhere? a. assisting participants to improve on the variables of interest b. obtaining informed consent c. counteracting negative outcomes of research d. preserving participants' anonymity

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Chap 01_6ce 128. Longitudinal design would be appropriate to examine a. the typical pattern of age-related changes in a particular skill. b. the pattern of stability and change in individual children's development in a particular area. c. how change in a particular skill occurs. d. all of these.

129. Freud developed the _____ development. a. psychosexual stages of b. psychosocial stages of c. theory of moral d. theory related to child cognitive 130. Which factor is NOT one identified by Scarr (1992) that can lead children from the same family to turn out very different from each other? a. genetic similarities b. differences in treatment by family members c. different environmental conditions d. differences in reactions to similar experiences 131. In the research by Blackwell, Trzeniewski, and Dweck described in the text, researchers created an educational program for low-income middle school students. The children who showed the MOST substantial improvement in math grades were those children who initially believed that intelligence _____ and who were provided with information about how _____. a. is an unchanging quantity; memory works b. is an unchanging quantity; learning alters the brain c. improves through learning; memory works d. improves through learning; learning alters the brain 132. If a child is resilient, she is more likely to have all of these characteristics, compared to other children, EXCEPT a. positive personal qualities. b. a close relationship with at least one parent. c. a close relationship with at least one adult other than their parents. d. a supportive school environment.

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Chap 01_6ce 133. To examine his hypothesis that children's creativity levels decrease with age, Dr. Leno asks children how many imaginary friends they have and considers their answers to be a measure of their creativity. A second researcher, Dr. Letterman, disagrees that the answers are a measure of creativity and instead believes that the number of imaginary friends a child has is an indicator of level of mental disturbance. Dr. Letterman believes Dr. Leno's measure of creativity has a problem with its a. external validity. b. relevance to the hypothesis. c. reliability. d. interrater agreement.

134. Which brain structure is particularly important for learning and memory? a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. pons 135. Recent research conducted by Ferguson (2015) and Furuya-Kanamori and Doi (2016) concluded what regarding the impact of playing violent video games on childhood and adolescent aggression? a. Their results indicated a direct link between the two. b. They found that those who play fewer violent video games demonstrated increased prosocial behaviors. c. Their results were inconclusive. d. They concluded that the effect of playing violent video games on childhood and adolescent aggression were minimal.

136. The extent to which two variables are related is referred to as their a. causal direction. b. coefficient. c. relativity. d. correlation.

137. The external validity of a measure involves the extent to which a. the effects of an experiment are truly due to conditions the researcher intended to manipulate. b. different observers of the same behavior agree. c. the results of a study will hold when studies are conducted with different participants and methods. d. independent measurements of a given behavior are consistent.

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Chap 01_6ce 138. Research has determined that this brain area is involved in emotional reactions. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. hypothalamus d. pons 139. Choose two of the following philosophers: Aristotle, Locke, Plato, Rousseau. Describe one similarity and one difference between the two.

140. The text describes several reasons for the importance of studying child development. Why is studying child development of interest or importance to you personally?

141. Explain what effortful attention is and describe its components. What has been associated with difficulty in exerting effortful attention?

142. Katie and Natasha are sisters. Natasha has a lot of friends and is well liked by her peers. Katie, in contrast, has few friends and is constantly the target of her peers' teasing. Using the four factors Scarr identified as involved in differences among siblings, describe why these sisters might be so different when it comes to their peer relations. For each of the four factors, provide a specific example.

143. Explain how changes in sociocultural factors are demonstrated with childcare outside of the home in the United States.

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Chap 01_6ce 144. Describe one advantage and one disadvantage of each of these designs: (a) cross-sectional, (b) longitudinal, and (c) microgenetic.

145. Describe what ethical issues researchers must consider when they are conducting research with children.

146. A researcher is interested in the impact of a new type of training diaper on the age at which toddlers become potty trained. The researcher plans to split a group of 100 toddlers into two groups—in one group, members will wear the new training diapers until they are potty trained, and in the other, members will wear their usual diapers. Answer these questions about this study: (1) What is the researcher's hypothesis? (2) How should the researcher split the 100 toddlers into two groups? (3) Which group is the experimental group, and which is the control group? (4) What is the independent variable? (5) What is the dependent variable? (6) What results will the researcher need to make a conclusion about the effectiveness of the new training diaper? (7) Will the researcher be able to conclude that there is a cause-and-effect association? Why or why not?

147. What do developmental psychologists mean when they say that children play an active role in their own development? Provide a detailed example of this concept.

148. Describe the results of Werner's Kauai study in terms of how children who encountered prenatal or birth challenges fared in different environments. What are the implications of these results for the nature nurture question?

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Chap 01_6ce 149. Based on the findings from Werner's study, outline the three characteristics of children who demonstrate resilience.

150. Explain why low socioeconomic status and poverty put children at a cumulative risk in terms of developmental outcomes.

151. Considering the long history of the issue of playing violent video games and child and adolescent aggression, what advice would you provide to parents?

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Chap 01_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. d 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. a 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. d 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 83. d 84. a 85. c 86. c 87. a 88. a 89. d 90. c 91. b 92. d 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. b 99. c 100. a 101. d 102. d 103. a 104. c 105. d 106. b 107. c 108. c 109. b 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_6ce 111. d 112. d 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. b 122. c 123. b 124. d 125. d 126. a 127. a 128. b 129. a 130. a 131. b 132. d 133. b 134. a 135. d 136. d 137. c

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Chap 01_6ce 138. a 139. Answers will vary based on the two philosophers chosen. However, some common similarities and differences among them are as follows. Both Plato and Aristotle were Greek philosophers who lived in the fourth century B.C. and were interested in how children's development was influenced by their nature and the nurture they received. Also, both Plato and Aristotle believed that the long-term welfare of society was dependent on the proper raising of children. Plato viewed the raising of boys as a difficult challenge for caregivers. Plato viewed self-control and discipline as the major goal of education. Aristotle, on the other hand, was concerned with fitting child rearing to the needs of each child. Additionally, Plato believed that children have innate knowledge while Aristotle believed that all knowledge comes from experience and that the infant mind is blank.

Like Aristotle, Locke, an English philosopher, viewed the child as a blank slate, or tabula rasa. Locke believed that the most important goal of child rearing is the growth of character. Locke believed that parents need to set good examples for children and to avoid indulging children early in life. He also believed that once discipline and reason were instilled in the child that authority over the child should be lessened. Rousseau, a French philosopher, believed that parents and society should give children complete freedom from the beginning.

140. Answers will vary but should discuss on the relevance of studying child development to one or more of the following: (1) raising children, (2) developing and choosing social policies, and (3) developing an understanding of human nature.

141. Effortful attention involves voluntary control of one's own emotions and thoughts, including impulse control, the control of emotions, and focusing one's attention. Difficulty in exerting effortful attention has been associated with behavioral problems, mental illness, and poor academic skills.

142. Scarr identified four factors that can lead children from the same family to turn out different from each other, as is the case for Katie and Natasha. These include (1) genetic differences, (2) differences in treatment by parents and others, (3) differences in reactions to similar experiences, and (4) differences in choices of environments. For Katie and Natasha, any one of these can result in stark differences between them. Perhaps their genetic makeup, even though they have the same biological parents, is drastically different. It could be that Natasha was born with a more outgoing personality than Katie, which could explain being well liked and having many friends. Perhaps they were treated differently by their parents. Maybe Natasha was favored as a small child or given extra attention by one or both of her parents. Also, each sister may react differently to similar situations. Katie may interpret events more negatively than Natasha. Perhaps Katie is not actually teased by her peers, but she interprets their comments as such. Finally, each sister may have specific preferences for how they like to spend their time, which could involve social activities where friendships are formed.

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Chap 01_6ce 143. General characteristics of society are able to influence development but also reflect views of development as well.

For instance, today many children in the United States attend or will attend childcare outside of their home. This recent change reflects changes in the broader sociocultural context of development. This change demonstrates the historical era, economic structure, and cultural beliefs and values. Fifty years ago, very few children attended childcare outside of their home. Instead, most were cared for by their stay-at-home mother while their father was the primary breadwinner. However, today there are more opportunities for women who have young children to work outside the home. This may even be a necessity for many households, considering the current economic conditions. Furthermore, the current culture holds that mothers should be able to work outside of the home if they wish to do so. With this change comes the belief that experiencing childcare outside of the home is not detrimental or otherwise harmful to children.

144. Cross-sectional: One advantage of this design is that it is quick and easy to administer. A disadvantage is that it is uninformative about the stability of individual differences over time.

Longitudinal: One advantage of this design is that it reveals individual children's patterns of change over long periods of time. A disadvantage is that it is difficult to keep all participants in the study.

Microgenetic: One advantage of this design is that it reveals individual change patterns over short periods of time in detail. A disadvantage of this design is that it does not yield data regarding change patterns over long periods of time.

145. The Society for Research on Child Development has developed a code of ethics for researchers to follow when it comes to conducting research with children. These include being sure that the research does not harm children, obtaining informed consent prior to collecting data, preserving participants' anonymity, discussing with caregivers any information from the research that may be important for the welfare of the child, trying to avoid any negative consequences of participating in the research, and debriefing the children once the research is over.

146. The hypothesis in this study would be that those toddlers who use the new type of training diaper will potty train faster than those using their usual diapers. For the purposes of this study, the research should evenly divide the 100 participants between the two groups, randomly assigning participants to each group. In this design, the control group is the group of toddlers who are using their usual diapers and the experimental group is the group of toddlers who are using the new type of training diaper. The independent variable is the training diaper used and the dependent variable is the speed of potty training. In order for the hypothesis to be supported by the data collected, the researcher will need to compare the average time it takes to potty train each group of children. If the experimental group, on average, potty trained at a faster rate than did the control group, then the research can say that results support the hypothesis of the study. If this is the case, the research can say that the new type of training diaper is effective in potty training but cannot say that it causes faster potty training. There are other confounding variables that could help the toddler potty train faster, such as parent reactions, rewards, and so on.

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Chap 01_6ce 147. Children play an active role in their own development in terms of attention, language use, and play behaviors.

Children first begin to shape their own development through their selection of what they attend to. This is evident, for example, in a newborn's preference for attending to things that move and make noise, which helps her learn about her world, as well as her own mother's face, which leads to social interaction and strengthening of the mother–infant bond. Once children learn to talk, they often talk to themselves when left alone, which may help improve speech. Also, through play children not only learn about their environment but find a way in which to entertain themselves. Children's contributions to their own development strengthen and broaden as they grow older and become increasingly able to choose and shape their environments.

148. Werner found that children who experienced prenatal or birth challenges were more likely to develop difficulties.

However, the development of these difficulties as well as the degree of the difficulties was dependent on the child's home environment. Specific environmental influences included parents' income, education, mental health, and parental relationships. For instance, by the age of 2 years, toddlers who lived in middle-income families did not experience complications associated with prenatal or birth challenges. Also, by 10 years of age, prenatal and birth challenges were related to psychological problems if the child was growing up in poor conditions. Those who experienced prenatal and birth challenges along with environmental challenges were more likely to develop serious learning and behavior problems by 10 years of age and by the age of 18 had already been arrested, experienced mental health problems, or even become a parent. However, roughly 33% of those who experienced prenatal or birth challenges and environmental challenges showed signs of resilience.

The results of Werner's work lend support for the implication of nature and nurture interaction to produce developmental outcomes. Nature and nurture work together to shape development. To assume that one is more important than the other, or even that the two are of equal importance, oversimplifies the developmental process and does not accurately reflect the bidirectional interaction of the two on development.

149. Resilient children have three main characteristics. They are likely to have positive personal qualities, such as high intelligence or an optimistic outlook on life. They are also likely to have a close relationship with at least one parent. They are also likely to have a close relationship with at least one adult other than their parents, such as a grandparent or teacher.

150. Children from impoverished families tend to fare worse than children raised in more affluent families. This is not surprising due to the way in which poverty can become a cumulative risk factor for developing children. For instance, children living in poverty are more likely to live in dangerous neighborhoods, to attend inferior childcare centers and schools, and to be exposed to increased levels of pollution. Their parents also often read to them less, provide fewer books in the home, and are less involved in their education. They are also more likely to grow up in single-parent homes or to be raised by neither biological parent. All of these disadvantages combine to put children at cumulative risk in terms of developmental outcomes.

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Chap 01_6ce 151. Even though the issue of playing violent video games and childhood and adolescent aggression has been contested by politicians, advocacy groups, and researchers for a considerable amount of time, more recent research indicates a minimal effect of playing violent video games and childhood and adolescent aggression. However, a minimal effect is not the same as a nonexistent relationship between the two. Considering this, advice regarding this issue to parents may be to monitor what their children are playing, to engage and play the game with their child, or to limit unmonitored exposure. Also, recent meta-analysis results indicate that playing violent video games is not a major cause of aggression. This means that other factors are at play.

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Chap_02_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which statement about the fetal birth experience is TRUE? a. The pain experienced by the fetus during birth is comparable to the pain experienced by the mother. b. The compression of the skull in the birth canal can cause the premature disappearance of the fontanel. c. The forcing of amniotic fluid from the fetus's body as it is compressed in the birth canal promotes the newborn's first breath. d. All of these statements are true.

2. Infants in what geographic part of Canada are more likely to die before their first birthday than are infants in other parts of the country? a. the North b. Ontario c. Quebec d. the Prairies 3. A multiple-risk model of prenatal and later development applies MOST directly to the effects of a. low IQ. b. poverty. c. disease. d. gender.

4. Embryonic cells are also known as a. stem cells. b. divided cells. c. fertilized eggs. d. zygotic cells.

5. Shelby is a Canadian woman expecting her first child. She is nervous about the birth and delivery. What is the likelihood that she will have a surgical delivery by cesarean? a. 15% b. 20% c. 28% d. 45%

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Chap_02_6ce 6. As described in the text, some researchers believe the amount of time newborns spend in _____ sleep is beneficial for the development of the _____ system. a. REM; visual b. non-REM; visual c. REM; auditory d. non-REM; auditory 7. The fetus experiences tactile stimulation in the womb as a result of a. the mother's digestive system. b. the mother touching her abdomen. c. other people interacting with the mother. d. the fetus's own activity.

8. Maya was born at 34 weeks and weighed 1,800 grams. Remmy was born at 39 weeks and weighed 1,800 grams. Of these two newborns, who is considered to be small for gestational age? a. Maya b. Remmy c. both Maya and Remmy d. neither Maya nor Remmy 9. Identical twins most often originate when a. two eggs are fertilized by two sperm. b. an egg splits and is fertilized by two sperm. c. an inner cell mass splits in half. d. an embryo splits in half.

10. Which item would likely be MOST interesting to a scientist interested in embryos? a. an X-ray of the internal organs of a 2-year-old child b. ultrasound images of an unborn fetus 4 weeks following conception c. a blood test of a pregnant woman d. a picture of all of the members of a family 11. Which statement about sensitive periods in prenatal development is TRUE? a. All major organ systems share the same sensitive period. b. Teratogens have the most serious effect on prenatal development immediately before a system's sensitive period. c. A sensitive period is the time when a system's basic structures are being formed. d. The sensitive period of limb development occurs several weeks before the limbs begin to form.

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Chap_02_6ce 12. Which factor is a reason that some children are resilient in the face of multiple developmental hazards? a. inadequate prenatal nutrition b. teratogens c. responsive parental care d. welfare 13. Marcy is learning about maternal influences on fetal health. Which maternal characteristic does NOT tend to have a negative impact on the health of the fetus? a. low socioeconomic status b. malnutrition c. genital herpes d. immature eggs 14. At _____, a fetus is likely to be the MOST active. a. 7 weeks b. 12 weeks c. 25 weeks d. 32 weeks 15. Gloria recently gave birth and is learning about risks factors associated with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which factor is NOT currently thought to be a contributor? a. smoking near the infant b. putting baby to sleep on his tummy c. dressing baby too warmly during sleep d. putting baby to sleep on his back 16. Which adjective describes a characteristic of the placenta? a. transparent b. watery c. watertight d. semipermeable 17. According to research presented in the text, mothers whose diet was high in Arctic fish had babies with an increased likelihood of a. Minamata disease. b. hearing loss. c. later attentional, cognitive, and neuromotor difficulties. d. limb deformity.

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Chap_02_6ce 18. _____ can be used as an intervention for low-birth-weight infants. a. Physical contact b. Auditory stimulation c. Visual stimulation d. Olfactory stimulation 19. Direct evidence for fetal learning comes from studies of a. habituation. b. phylogenetic continuity. c. apoptosis. d. fetal programming.

20. Which organ acts as a defensive barrier against toxins and infections? a. umbilical cord b. amniotic sac c. placenta d. amniotic fluid 21. Which statement about intervention programs aimed at helping low-birth-weight babies is TRUE? a. The success of the intervention is unrelated to the initial health status of the infant. b. The more risks the infant endures, the more successful the intervention will likely be. c. The positive results are especially clear for children who were relatively heavier at birth. d. Most intervention programs produce large gains.

22. Cell migration occurs during which period? a. apoptosis b. fetal c. germinal d. embryonic 23. Recent research has demonstrated a link between the development of schizophrenia and maternal contraction of which disease in the first trimester? a. cytomegalovirus b. rubella c. genital herpes d. influenza

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Chap_02_6ce 24. The information in which statement would be considered evidence that infant crying and adult aversion to it have adaptive significance? a. Babies who cry more are more likely to be abandoned than are those who cry less. b. The peak time for crying is in the evening. c. Babies who are with their mothers throughout the day and night cry more frequently than do other babies. d. Babies who cry more are more likely to survive times of severe hardship, such as famine.

25. The nose and the mouth are almost fully formed during the _____ week of prenatal development. a. 4th b. 6th c. 8th d. 10th 26. Lenae is a newborn. She is likely to prefer to listen to a. another woman's voice over her mother's voice. b. her mother's language over another language. c. novel stories rather than familiar stories. d. Newborns show no auditory preferences.

27. In Canada and the United States, what percentage of clinically recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage? a. between 1 and 5% b. between 6 and 15% c. between 10 and 20% d. between 20 and 50% 28. Quiet sleep, active awake, alert awake, and drowsing are examples of a. types of sleep. b. autostimulation. c. newborn states. d. none of these.

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Chap_02_6ce 29. What advice should be given to expectant parents who are interested in educating their child in a foreign language and classical literature before birth? a. Fetuses have no ability to learn anything while in the womb; thus, any talking, singing, or reading you do will not be remembered by the fetus after birth. b. Although your child may come to recognize and even prefer the patterns of the language and literature he or she is exposed to while in the womb, babies are unable to hear specific words or learn any kind of factual knowledge while in the womb. c. You will give your child a sufficient head start if you pipe foreign language and classical literature recordings into the womb. d. If you want your child to become fluent in a foreign language and appreciate literature, you must start before the child is born.

30. Which sound(s) does the fetus hear? a. intonation and pattern of the mother's speech b. voices of people talking to the mother c. blood pumping through the mother's vascular system d. maternal sounds, such as her heartbeat, breathing, and digestion 31. All of these activities are performed by fetuses EXCEPT a. sucking. b. moving chest wall in and out. c. scratching itches. d. swallowing.

32. Once sperm have entered the vagina, how many typically get close to the egg? a. one or two b. approximately 200 c. hundreds of thousands d. millions 33. Which description CORRECTLY identifies the effect of thalidomide on developing fetuses? a. safe for fetuses of all ages b. unsafe for fetuses of all ages c. harmful to fetuses between the 4th and 6th weeks after conception but safe at other times d. safe for fetuses between the 4th and 6th weeks after conception but harmful at other times

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Chap_02_6ce 34. In terms of newborns' ability to learn from auditory stimulation while asleep, research has shown that newborns a. cannot learn from auditory stimulation while asleep. b. can learn from auditory stimulation while asleep because they spend proportionately more time in REM sleep than do adults. c. can learn from auditory stimulation while asleep because they spend proportionately more time in nonREM sleep than do adults. d. seem to be able to learn from auditory stimulation while asleep because their brains do not become disconnected from external stimulation to the extent that adult brains do.

35. Common soothing techniques, including rocking, swaddling, and singing, are all effective because they involve a. moderately intense stimulation. b. lengthy time investments on the part of caregivers. c. trying to figure out why the baby is crying. d. tactile stimulation.

36. Which item is an example of the active participation of the fetus in its own development? a. fetal alcohol syndrome b. hormonal influence on development of sex organs c. placental defence against toxins and infections d. cephalocaudal development 37. Cell differentiation refers to the _____ of cells. a. relocation b. specialization c. migration d. death 38. Which pattern of maternal alcohol consumption is considered acceptable in terms of avoiding harmful effects? a. drinking several drinks over a quick period of time, only a few times during pregnancy b. drinking one and only one drink per day c. drinking large amounts of alcohol on a frequent basis d. There is no acceptable use of maternal alcohol consumption.

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Chap_02_6ce 39. Habituation indicates that a fetus _____ a stimulus. a. likes b. dislikes c. has learned to recognize d. has failed to perceive 40. Which of these is NOT considered to be a teratogen? a. poor nutrition b. illegal drugs c. environmental pollutants d. cigarette smoke 41. On average, Western newborns spend _____ hours sleeping and _____ hour(s) crying. a. 16; 1 b. 12; 1 c. 12; 2 d. 16; 2 42. The heart has achieved its basic adult structure by the _____ week of prenatal development. a. 4th b. 6th c. 8th d. 11th 43. The fact that researchers interested in human developmental processes often examine rats is an indication that they believe in a. stem cell flexibility. b. the ethical treatment of animals. c. apoptosis. d. phylogenetic continuity.

44. Which activity is consistent with the beliefs of the Beng people of West Africa about when life begins? a. elaborately painting newborns' faces b. protecting the umbilical stump from drying out and falling off c. allowing newborns to cry for several minutes before tending to them d. All of these activities are consistent with those beliefs.

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Chap_02_6ce 45. Mitosis is another term for a. cell migration. b. apoptosis. c. cell division. d. cell differentiation.

46. Premature babies are those who are born at _____ weeks after conception or earlier. a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 38 47. Being _____ is NOT associated with an increased risk of being of low birth weight. a. exposed to teratogens b. a twin c. exposed to high levels of airborne pollution d. a first born 48. Which statement about environmental pollutants is TRUE? a. There is no evidence that environmental pollutants can impair prenatal development. b. Only pollutants that are ingested can impair prenatal development. c. Only pollutants that pass through the respiratory system can impair prenatal development. d. Environmental pollutants can have significant and sometimes disastrous consequences on fetal and child development.

49. Reproductive cells that contain only half the genetic material of all the other cells in the body are referred to as a. gametes. b. embryos. c. zygotes. d. genetic cells.

50. Forms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder include a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. fetal alcohol effects. c. both fetal alcohol disease and fetal alcohol syndrome. d. both fetal alcohol syndrome and fetal alcohol effects.

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Chap_02_6ce 51. Which process is an example of cell differentiation? a. splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts b. death of cells between the ridges on the hand plate c. movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain d. specialization of eye cells 52. In terms of the fetus's taste experiences and preferences, the fetus a. does not drink or eat through its mouth, and thus it has no taste experiences or preferences. b. ingests amniotic fluid, but the fluid has a constant flavour, and thus the fetus has no taste preferences. c. ingests amniotic fluid, but it cannot distinguish amongst different flavours in the fluid and thus has no taste preferences. d. ingests amniotic fluid, can distinguish amongst different flavours in the fluid, and prefers sweet flavours.

53. The presence of _____ determines whether a fetus develops female or male sex organs. a. testosterone produced by the mother b. progesterone produced by the mother c. androgens produced by the fetus d. progesterone produced by the fetus 54. Colic may be associated with issues with the newborn's _____ system. a. limbic b. nervous c. respiratory d. digestive 55. The term "fetal programming" refers to a. individual differences in teratogenic effects that occur as a result of genetic differences. b. prenatal learning of sounds, tastes, and smells. c. genetic differences in ability to learn prenatally. d. the later emergence of effects of the prenatal period.

56. Infant mortality rates have been _____ for decades and across cultural contexts. a. higher for girls than for boys b. roughly the same c. unstable d. higher for boys than for girls

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Chap_02_6ce 57. Which statement is good advice for a new parent concerned about SIDS? a. Allow smokers to smoke in the house but not in the baby's room. b. Put the baby to sleep on her back. c. Make sure the baby sleeps with a pillow. d. Put the baby to sleep with warm clothes and a warm blanket.

58. The pair of factors that is MOST common amongst resilient children is _____ and _____. a. responsive care; intelligence b. education; social welfare c. prenatal nutrition; education d. genetic advantages; responsiveness to others 59. Research demonstrating that it is the scent of amniotic fluid that guides a newborn rat to its mother's nipple is evidence of a. the similarity of rats and humans in their taste preferences. b. fetal learning. c. phylogenetic continuity. d. rats' poor maternal instincts.

60. Which occurrence is an example of mitosis? a. splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts b. death of cells between the ridges on the hand plate c. movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain d. specialization of eye cells 61. Which statement(s) about the number of males and females is/are TRUE? Statement A: Sperm containing a Y chromosome swim faster than those containing an X chromosome.

Statement B: Male fetuses are more vulnerable to miscarriage than are female fetuses.

Statement C: Cultural values and governmental policy contribute to the differences in the number of male and female babies born and raised in some societies. a. statements A and C only b. statement C only c. statements A and B only d. statements B and C only 62. Gametes form through the process of a. mitosis. b. conception. c. meiosis. d. germinalization.

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Chap_02_6ce 63. A transparent, fluid-filled membrane that surrounds and protects the fetus is called the a. neural tube. b. amniotic fluid. c. amniotic sac. d. placenta.

64. Gina and Margaret are pregnant at the same time. Gina's fetus is quite active throughout the day, whereas Margaret's fetus is rather inactive. Which explanation would be the BEST guess as to how active their infants will be? a. Gina's infant is likely to be more active than is Margaret's infant. b. Margaret's infant is likely to be more active than is Gina's infant. c. Gina's infant and Margaret's infant will probably be similar in activity level, as all infants have similar levels of activity. d. There is no way to predict postnatal activity level from prenatal activity level, so no guess can be made about the infants' activity levels.

65. By the _____ week of prenatal development, the external genitalia are developed. a. 4th b. 6th c. 8th d. 16th 66. Which effect is NOT a result of neonatal abstinence syndrome? a. low birth weight b. breathing problems c. feeding difficulties d. cardiac malformations 67. Which statement about the long-term outcomes for low-birth-weight babies in comparison to babies of normal weight is NOT true? a. Low-birth-weight babies are more likely to be hyperactive. b. Low-birth-weight babies are more likely to have trouble with peer relations. c. The majority of low-birth-weight babies end up similar to normal-weight babies in the long term. d. Low-birth-weight babies have a decreased level of medical complications, lower rates of neurosensory deficits, and reduced illness rates.

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Chap_02_6ce 68. Which statement about the timing of effects of teratogens is FALSE? a. The sensitive period for the development of the external genitalia occurs prior to the sensitive period for the heart. b. The sensitive periods for the central nervous system and the heart are the same. c. Exposure to teratogens during the fetal period is likely to lead to major structural defects. d. There is no sensitive period in relation to the timing of effects of teratogens.

69. Infants whose mothers are _____ are 3 to 4 times more likely to die before their first birthday than those whose mothers are _____. a. 30 years or older; between the ages of 20 and 29 b. 15 years or younger; between the ages of 23 and 29 c. 35 years or older; 15 years or younger d. 20 years or younger; 30 years or older 70. Which statement about the "survival of the fittest" principle and conception is TRUE? a. This principle applies only to the process of egg release from the fallopian tube, not to the other processes involved in conception. b. The eggs that manage to reach the sperm are likely to be healthy, as eggs with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the sperm. c. The sperm that manage to reach the egg are likely to be healthy, as sperm with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the egg. d. This principle does not come into play until a child is born.

71. Which condition is NOT associated with poverty? a. poor nutrition b. drug abuse c. environmental hazards d. improved prenatal care 72. Teratogens are most likely to harm the development of the teeth during weeks a. 1–6. b. 5–38. c. 8–12. d. 12–16.

73. Which statement about apoptosis is TRUE? a. Apoptosis is a necessary part of development. b. Apoptosis signals there might be a problem with prenatal development. c. Apoptosis explains why stem cells are sought after by researchers. d. Apoptosis is also called cell migration.

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Chap_02_6ce 74. Laura and Mark are new parents whose baby cries for 3 to 4 hours a day for no apparent reason. They have had their baby examined by a pediatrician, who was unable to find any medical reason for the excessive crying. Laura and Mark's baby appears to be suffering from a. cocaine withdrawal. b. neglect. c. colic. d. fetal alcohol syndrome.

75. Which statement about prenatal development of the heart is TRUE? a. By 6 weeks, the heart has developed into its basic adult structure. b. At 12 weeks, the heart begins to beat and circulate blood. c. By 4 weeks, the heart is beating and circulating blood. d. At 16 weeks, the heart develops into its basic adult structure.

76. Which event is thought to be due to apoptosis? a. splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts b. loss of cells between the ridges on the hand plate c. movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain d. specialization of eye cells 77. The EARLIEST time at which fetal habituation has been observed is _____ weeks. a. 16 b. 25 c. 30 d. 37 78. The placental membrane allows _____ to pass through it. a. oxygen and blood b. blood, urea, and nutrients c. all antibodies, urea, and oxygen d. oxygen, nutrients, minerals, and some antibodies 79. Marla smoked marijuana while pregnant. This behaviour can affect her fetus's a. learning and memory after birth. b. facial development. c. head size. d. neural tube development.

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Chap_02_6ce 80. Scientific evidence has demonstrated that a. when saccharin was injected into amniotic fluid, the mothers' urine showed that the fetuses ingested more amniotic fluid because it had been sweetened. b. when offered chocolate milk versus orange juice, preterm infants drank more chocolate milk. c. fetuses smiled more when fed a sugar solution than when fed a saline solution. d. the idea that fetuses prefer sweet flavours is merely an assumption that was made based on research conducted with newborns.

81. Apoptosis refers to a. programmed cell death. b. cell reproduction. c. cell migration. d. cell division.

82. Habituation involves a(n) _____ heart rate response. a. increased b. decreased c. unpredictable d. variable 83. If sexual intercourse takes place near the time the egg is released, _____ is possible. a. conception b. implantation c. fertilization d. meiosis 84. Maria just had a baby at 38 weeks after conception. Her newborn weighed 2200 grams and would be labelled as a. premature. b. small for gestational age. c. small for prenatal age. d. none of these.

85. Which activity is NOT a function of the placenta? a. allowing for the transport of nutrients to the fetus b. allowing for the removal of waste products from the fetus c. cushioning the fetus d. providing a barrier to infection

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Chap_02_6ce 86. For teratogens that show a dose–response relation a. any level of exposure to the teratogen causes an equivalent likelihood of a defect. b. the greater the exposure to the teratogen, the greater the likelihood of a defect. c. the greater the exposure to the teratogen, the lesser the likelihood of a defect. d. detrimental effects are seen only at very high exposure levels.

87. The likelihood of a prenatal defect and the severity of the defect from exposure to teratogens are generally dependent on a. amount of exposure. b. genetic susceptibility. c. levels of exposure to other teratogenic agents. d. sensitive periods.

88. A fetus can be expected to begin making movements around _____ after conception. a. 3 hours b. 5 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 5 months 89. Jacquelyne is a new parent and is having a hard time soothing her newborn when he cries. Which action is LEAST likely to soothe her crying baby? a. giving the infant a taste of sugar b. showing the infant a colourful picture c. patting the infant repetitively on the back d. swaddling the infant in a blanket 90. David and Dwayne are identical twins. What does this mean in terms of their genetic makeup? a. The DNA from their mother is the same but differs in terms of what they received from their father. b. The DNA from their father is the same but differs in terms of what they received from their mother. c. They have inherited different DNA from both of their parents. d. They have exactly the same DNA. 91. Jeremy has done rather well even though he has been faced with multiple risks. He can be said to have a. practical success. b. developmental resilience. c. pliability. d. persistent opposition.

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Chap_02_6ce 92. The _____ operates as a protective buffer for the developing fetus. a. umbilical cord b. amniotic fluid c. neural tube d. placenta 93. Claire is pregnant and smokes cigarettes daily. Which statement about the effects of cigarette smoke on her fetus is TRUE? a. Exposure to secondhand smoke is unlikely to affect her fetus. b. Her fetus gets less oxygen when she smokes. c. The amniotic sac prevents her fetus from being exposed to cancer-causing agents in tobacco. d. None of these statements is true.

94. Francine is pregnant and is concerned about premature birth and low birth weight. Which factor does she NOT have to worry about as a risk factor for these complications? a. cocaine use b. malnutrition c. cigarette smoking d. the sex of the infant 95. Which statement about infant mortality in Canada over the past several decades is TRUE? a. The Canadian infant mortality rate has increased. b. The Canadian infant mortality rate has remained stable. c. The Canadian infant mortality ranking has gotten worse in comparison with other countries. d. The Canadian infant mortality ranking has gotten better in comparison with other industrialized countries.

96. In general, prenatal development occurs in such a manner that areas close to the _____ develop earlier than do areas farther away from it. a. spinal cord b. heart c. head d. large intestine 97. The brain and lungs are well enough developed by the _____ week that the fetus has a chance of surviving on its own without medical intervention. a. 14th b. 28th c. 34th d. 37th Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_6ce 98. Stem cells a. have varying genetic makeups. b. contain half the genetic material of the individual. c. do not have a fixed function. d. have stable genetic makeups.

99. Adam and Andrea are fraternal twins. Which statement explains how they formed? a. They developed from one fertilized egg that divided into three different cell masses at the moment of conception. b. They were formed when two different eggs were released from the ovary into the fallopian tube and were fertilized. c. They were formed via two different sperm entering the same egg. d. Fraternal and maternal twins are formed exactly the same way.

100. Which statement is TRUE regarding antidepressants? a. Antidepressant medications do not benefit those suffering from depression. b. Treatment for depression during pregnancy can reduce the risk of postpartum depression. c. Antidepressant medications are not harmful to the developing fetus. d. Around 15% of pregnant women take antidepressant medications.

101. Which concept is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs about prenatal development? a. The effects of thalidomide on prenatal development vary depending on when during the pregnancy the mother took the drug. b. Infants born prematurely already have all the correct structures but in miniature. c. Female eggs contain minuscule preformed human beings. d. None of these concepts is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs.

102. Which maternal disease during pregnancy is LEAST likely to have a direct negative effect on the health of the baby? a. HIV b. genital herpes c. rubella d. cytomegalovirus 103. All low-birth-weight babies are a. premature. b. small for gestational age. c. less than 1,500 grams in weight at birth. d. less than 2,500 grams in weight at birth.

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Chap_02_6ce 104. A baby weighing 2,000 grams at birth is considered to be a. premature and of low birth weight. b. of low birth weight and small for gestational age. c. premature and small for gestational age. d. of low birth weight.

105. When do most miscarriages occur? a. prior to implantation b. immediately following fertilization c. before the pregnancy is clinically detectable d. within the first 6 months of gestation 106. Regarding the flexibility of a cell's function during the embryonic and fetal periods, cells are a. initially flexible and then become inflexible. b. initially inflexible and then become more flexible. c. flexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods. d. inflexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.

107. In regard to fetal activity and inactivity, fetuses a. do not have true sleep states, but they do have periods of inactivity while awake. b. have periods of high activity and rest while awake, and they have both active and quiet sleep states. c. are essentially asleep most of the day and night, but their sleep can be active or quiet. d. are in constant motion throughout the day and night.

108. After the implantation of the zygote, as the ball of cells begins to differentiate, the inner cell mass becomes the a. fetus. b. gamete. c. embryo. d. support system.

109. By the _____ week of prenatal development, most of the movements that will be present at birth have appeared. a. 4th b. 6th c. 12th d. 16th

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Chap_02_6ce 110. Regarding amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, newborns spend a. proportionately more time in REM sleep than do adults. b. proportionately more time in non-REM sleep than do adults. c. proportionately the same time in REM and non-REM sleep as do adults, though they differ from adults on the total amount of sleep. d. approximately the same time in REM sleep as do adolescents.

111. Roughly _____ of couples experience recurrent miscarriages. a. 1% b. 5% c. 7% d. 9% 112. A mad scientist wishes to create a nonhuman animal with a tongue on its back. Presuming that the scientist believes in phylogenetic continuity, when would the scientist be MOST likely to perform the cell transplant? a. early in the fetal period b. late in the germinal period c. early in the embryonic period d. early in the germinal period 113. At 8 months gestation, a fetus hears a phone ring repeatedly and is likely to experience _____ over the course of several minutes. a. initial changes in heart rate, with decreased changes as the ringing continues b. initial changes in heart rate, with increased changes as the ringing continues c. no changes in heart rate initially but increased changes as the ringing continues d. no changes in heart rate throughout the ringing 114. In Canada, which substance is the MOST common cause of injury to the fetal brain? a. alcohol b. illegal drugs c. toxoplasma d. cigarette smoke 115. Swaddling is considered a(n) a. form of child abuse. b. effective method of soothing a crying baby. c. productive way to encourage a newborn's first breath. d. type of colic.

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Chap_02_6ce 116. Regarding taste and smell, amniotic fluid a. has a constant taste and smell. b. can take on a variety of flavours but has a constant smell. c. has a constant taste but can take on a variety of odours. d. can take on a variety of flavours and odours.

117. The fetal behaviour of swallowing is thought to a. continually clean the internal organs as they develop. b. promote the normal development of the palate. c. be somewhat harmful to the development of the intestines. d. be one of the earliest prenatal movements.

118. A simple form of learning that involves a decrease in response to repeated or continued stimulation is called a. sensitization. b. desensitization. c. habituation. d. dishabituation.

119. The small sacs of the newborn's lungs are forced open by the a. squeezing of the fetus's body as it moves through the birth canal. b. birth cry after the fetus exits the birth canal. c. squeezing of the fetus's head as it passes through the mother's pelvic bones. d. vigorous rubbing of the newborn's body by the medical staff immediately following birth.

120. How do childbirth practices in Bali differ from those in Canada? a. Canadians place less emphasis on the immediate social integration of the newborn than do the Balinese. b. The Balinese tend to have a greater level of medical intervention than do Canadians. c. Balinese women know little about childbirth prior to their own experience of it, in comparison with Canadian women, who tend to be well informed. d. Canadians tend to have more friends and relatives at the birth than do the Balinese.

121. Phylogenetic continuity refers to the a. expectation that some cells are programmed for suicide and thus selectively disappear. b. notion that stem cells may be the key to curing diseases such as Parkinson's and Alzheimer's. c. idea that humans share some characteristics and developmental processes with other animals. d. relation between a cell's function before and after migration.

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Chap_02_6ce 122. A tube containing the blood vessels connecting the fetus and placenta is called the a. umbilical cord. b. amniotic sac. c. neural tube. d. spinal tube.

123. Researchers working on regenerative medicine are interested in early embryonic stem cells because of their a. developmental flexibility. b. genetic makeup. c. size. d. specialized function.

124. Which sequence lists the periods of prenatal development in the CORRECT developmental progression from earliest to latest? a. embryo, fetus, zygote b. zygote, fetus, embryo c. fetus, zygote, embryo d. zygote, embryo, fetus 125. Newborns considered to be premature are those born _____, whereas those considered to be small for gestational age are those born _____. a. at 35 weeks or earlier; weighing less than 2,500 grams b. underweight; weighing less than 2,500 grams c. at 35 weeks or earlier; weighing substantially less than normal for their age d. at 37 weeks or earlier; weighing substantially less than normal for their age 126. Which statement about newborn sleep is TRUE? a. Newborns continue to get visual stimulation through their closed eyelids. b. Newborns spend more time than adults do in non-REM sleep. c. Newborns may be able to learn while asleep. d. All of these statements are true.

127. Conception can be defined as a. the union of egg and sperm. b. sexual intercourse. c. meiosis. d. the embedding of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall.

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Chap_02_6ce 128. The idea that humans share some developmental processes with other animals because of their shared evolutionary history is referred to as a. FASD. b. developmental resilience. c. fetal programming. d. phylogenetic continuity.

129. Cell division in the embryonic period is referred to as a. meiosis. b. apoptosis. c. neurosis. d. mitosis.

130. Zora and Jenny are twins. Zora is born weighing 2,000 grams, and Jenny is born weighing 3,000 grams.

Which statement BEST characterizes Zora and Jenny's chances of completing high school, based on the research on low-birth-weight children? a. Zora and Jenny are equally likely to complete high school. b. Zora is more likely to complete high school than is Jenny. c. Jenny is more likely to complete high school than is Zora. d. The likelihood of Zora and Jenny completing high school cannot be predicted based on research on low-birth-weight children.

131. A fertilized egg is termed a(n) a. embryo. b. zygote. c. fetus. d. gamete.

132. Cephalocaudal development refers to the tendency for development to take place from _____ to _____. a. head; body b. body; head c. inside; outside d. outside; inside 133. Amongst which age group in Canada is cannabis use during pregnancy the most common? a. 15- to 24-year-olds b. 25- to 29-year-olds c. 30- to 35-year-olds d. 36-year-olds and older

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Chap_02_6ce 134. Environmental agents that have the potential to cause harm during prenatal development are referred to as a. illegal drugs. b. dermatogens. c. teratogens. d. thalidomides.

135. Which statement about the rate of prenatal development is TRUE? a. Earlier development takes place at a more rapid pace than later development. b. Later development takes place at a more rapid pace than earlier development. c. The pace of development remains relatively continuous. d. Development begins slowly, speeds up, and then slows down again.

136. Which statement about the development of sex organs is TRUE? a. If the mother produces testosterone, then the fetus will develop male organs; if the mother produces estrogen, then the fetus will develop female sex organs. b. If the fetus produces testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces estrogen, then it will develop female sex organs. c. If the fetus produces high levels of testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces moderate levels of testosterone, then it will develop female sex organs. d. If the fetus produces androgens, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces no androgens, then it will develop female sex organs.

137. Negative developmental outcomes are particularly likely when there are a. genetic defects. b. multiple risk factors. c. psychiatric disorders. d. educational disadvantages.

138. Cousins Chloe and Emma have not seen each other since they were children. Each woman now has a 4week-old infant, and the two women and their babies are reunited at a family gathering. The two babies are napping in the same room when Chloe's baby bangs her leg on the crib and begins to cry. In this situation, it is MOST likely that Chloe and Emma will both a. think that the crying baby is her own and be unable to identify whether the baby is hungry or in pain. b. know that the crying baby is Chloe's but be unable to identify whether the baby is hungry or in pain. c. think that the crying baby is her own, but Chloe will know that the baby is in pain. d. know that the crying baby is Chloe's, and Chloe will know that the baby is in pain.

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Chap_02_6ce 139. The study that was referred to in the text of children born in the Netherlands during World War II demonstrated which finding about prenatal malnutrition? a. It is difficult to separate the effects of malnutrition from the other effects of poverty. b. The effects of malnutrition were most severe when the malnutrition began late in the pregnancy. c. The effects of malnutrition can be eliminated if the baby has adequate nutrition starting at birth. d. Fetal programming related to metabolism impacted later health and weight in adulthood.

140. Which sense is LEAST stimulated in the uterus? a. taste b. sight c. hearing d. smell 141. The teratogenic effect of which substance can BEST be characterized as a sleeper effect? a. DES b. thalidomide c. cigarette smoke d. alcohol 142. Andrea drank alcohol while pregnant and just gave birth to a baby that has been diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome. Which of the following is NOT associated with this disorder? a. increased risk of SIDS b. cognitive impairment c. facial deformities d. hyperactivity 143. During prenatal development, the inner cell mass becomes the _____, and the rest of the cells become the support system, including the _____. a. embryo; amniotic sac and placenta b. neural tube; embryo c. placenta and amniotic sac; neural tube d. embryo; neural tube and placenta 144. In terms of REM versus non-REM sleep, newborns spend a. a greater amount of time in REM sleep than in non-REM sleep. b. a greater amount of time in non-REM sleep than in REM sleep. c. equal amounts of time in REM sleep and in non-REM sleep. d. proportionately more time in non-REM sleep than do adults.

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Chap_02_6ce 145. Epigenetics can be considered the notion that a. prenatal development begins with a new miniature individual already preformed. b. new structures and functions emerge throughout prenatal development. c. prenatal development begins in the centre of the body of the new individual. d. Eve was created out of Adam's rib.

146. Infants tend to prefer _____ based on prenatal experiences. a. loud sounds b. bland flavours c. flowery smells d. sweet tastes 147. Research conducted by Witt and colleagues (2015) found that amongst U.S. mothers who had a C-section, almost _____ did not appear to have any pregnancy complications. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 60% 148. Which statement about fetal exposure to alcohol is NOT true? a. Alcohol in the mother's blood crosses the placenta into the fetus's bloodstream. b. The fetus smells alcohol through the amniotic sac. c. The fetus drinks alcohol-laden amniotic fluid. d. The fetus's poor ability to metabolize alcohol causes the alcohol to remain in the fetus's system for an extended period.

149. Severe emotional stress and alcohol consumption during pregnancy have which effect on the child in common? a. SIDS b. hyperactivity c. cognitive impairment d. small head size 150. The neural tube is a groove formed in the top layer of differentiated cells in the embryo that eventually becomes the a. internal organs. b. brain and spinal cord. c. digestive system. d. inner layers of skin.

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Chap_02_6ce 151. Preterm infants whose mothers participated in an intervention that included all factors EXCEPT _____ showed fewer behaviour problems at age 5 in comparison with mothers who did not receive the intervention. a. focus on increasing parental self-confidence b. support sessions c. teaching about parents' responsiveness d. explaining disciplinary techniques 152. In Grassy Narrows First Nation in Ontario, mercury levels in fish remain above safe levels and people continue to develop symptoms of a. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. b. sudden infant death syndrome. c. Minamata disease. d. abstinence syndrome.

153. At the end of her pregnancy, Joshua's mother's diet included a lot of ginger. It is MOST likely that newborn Joshua will a. have no memory for the smell or taste of ginger because maternal diet does not affect prenatal experience. b. have no memory for the smell or taste of ginger because fetal memory is very short lived. c. remember the smell and taste of ginger, but this memory will last only a week or two after birth. d. remember the smell and taste of ginger well into his first year.

154. The study by Michael Rutter discussed in the text demonstrated that the incidence of psychiatric problems amongst English children was particularly heightened when the family experienced _____ or more risk factors. a. two b. three c. four d. five 155. The three layers of the inner cell mass develop into a. different parts of the body of the fetus. b. the fetus, the zygote, and the embryo. c. the embryo, the placenta, and the umbilical cord. d. different parts of the neural tube.

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Chap_02_6ce 156. According to the text, which factor is NOT a reason for the high number of surgical deliveries in Canada? a. multiple births b. convenience scheduling c. maternal obesity d. paternal request 157. Smoking by pregnant women does NOT contribute to _____ in the unborn child. a. decreased IQ b. increased risk of SIDS c. increased risk of FASD d. slowed fetal growth 158. How many chromosome pairs do gametes contain? a. 13 b. 23 c. 49 d. 92 159. Which sound is a newborn MOST likely to prefer? a. mother's voice b. mother's voice, muffled c. mother's voice, at a faster rate of speech d. father's voice 160. Brenda is 35 years old and pregnant with her first child. Her advanced age does NOT place her at greater risk for a. fetal chromosomal abnormalities. b. birth complications. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. fetal death.

161. For which fetal behaviour is there no clear explanation? a. breathing movements b. hiccups c. swallowing d. moving arms and legs

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Chap_02_6ce 162. Which statement about the levels of genetic similarity of identical twins, same-sex fraternal twins, and other same-sex sibling pairs is TRUE? a. Same-sex fraternal twins and other same-sex sibling pairs have an equal level of genetic similarity, and they are both less genetically similar than are identical twins. b. Same-sex fraternal and identical twins have an equal level of genetic similarity, and they are both more genetically similar than are other same-sex sibling pairs. c. Same-sex fraternal twins are less genetically similar than are identical twins and more genetically similar than are other same-sex sibling pairs. d. Identical twins, same-sex fraternal twins, and other same-sex sibling pairs all have equal levels of genetic similarity.

163. Michelle is pregnant with her first child. Which of the following is the MOST likely threat to prenatal development? a. illegal drugs b. miscarriage c. alcohol d. herpes 164. It is difficult to isolate the effects of malnutrition on prenatal development because malnutrition often coincides with a. poverty. b. older mothers. c. rubella. d. mercury consumption.

165. How many sperm are ejaculated during sexual intercourse? a. 200 million b. 500 million c. 200 d. 500 166. The effects of thalidomide BEST demonstrate a. sensitive periods of development. b. the cumulative effect. c. the dose–response relation. d. the sleeper effect.

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Chap_02_6ce 167. Erin is a new mother and is concerned about her infant's crying. What can you tell Erin to help ease her concerns? a. Infant crying peaks at about 6 weeks of age. b. Infant crying tends to be worse in the morning. c. All newborn crying is a result of discomfort. d. None of these statements is true.

168. Which statement(s) about cultural goals regarding childbirth is/are TRUE? Statement A: All cultures aim to protect the survival and health of both mother and baby.

Statement B: All cultures want to ensure the social integration of the new person.

Statement C: All cultures have similar childbirth practices. a. statements A and C only b. statement C only c. statements A and B only d. statements B and C only 169. If the theory presented in the text about newborn sleep states is accurate, in which newborn would a decrease in REM sleep be MOST likely to be seen? a. Baby Emma, who is deprived of visual stimulation during the day b. Baby Elijah, who is provided with a high level of extra visual stimulation during the day c. Baby Sofia, who is deprived of auditory stimulation during the day d. Baby Manny, who is provided with a high level of extra auditory stimulation during the day 170. Researchers have demonstrated that _____ can aid low-birth-weight newborns. a. massage b. nutritional supplements c. increased time in the isolette d. good health care 171. Which condition is a characteristic of REM sleep? a. deep sleep state b. regular breathing c. absence of eye movements d. irregular heart rate 172. A belief in phylogenic continuity is necessary for developmentalists to a. understand that prenatal experiences can affect adult development. b. predict rates of infant mortality. c. test hypotheses about human development on chimpanzees. d. comprehend how stem cells function.

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Chap_02_6ce 173. The belated emergence of effects of prenatal experience that inform the physiological set points that will govern physiology in adulthood is called a. habituation. b. phylogenetic continuity. c. apoptosis. d. fetal programming.

174. Roughly _____ of women experience postpartum depression. a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% 175. Which is the BEST advice for parents regarding how quickly they should respond to their infant's cries? a. They should respond quickly to all the infant's cries, as immediate response will instill confidence in the infant. b. They should respond slowly to all the infant's cries so that the infant will learn to regulate her or his crying. c. They should respond quickly to severe distress, but less quickly to minor upset. d. They should respond quickly to minor upset, but less quickly to severe distress.

176. The study in which cells located in the eye region of a frog embryo were moved to its belly demonstrated which property of cell functions? a. The location of a given cell before migration determines its function. b. The location of a given cell after migration determines its function. c. The genetic makeup of a given cell before migration determines its function. d. The genetic makeup of a given cell after migration determines its function.

177. Babies born into poverty are more likely than are other babies to experience all EXCEPT a. low birth weight. b. SIDS. c. death in the first year of life. d. healthy nutrition.

178. The Beng people of West Africa believe that life begins a. at conception, as an angel is believed to enter the fertilized egg. b. during the third trimester, as this is the time at which independent thoughts are believed to begin. c. at birth, as the newborn is introduced to the sun at this time. d. when the umbilical stump drops off, as this is when the newborn is believed to emerge from the spirit village and become a person.

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Chap_02_6ce 179. Describe a day in the life of an 8-month-old fetus. Include a description of types of sensations seen, heard, tasted, smelled, and felt by the fetus.

180. Provide examples of maternal and environmental factors that affect prenatal development.

181. Describe the newborn's states of arousal.

182. Sherilyn and Michael are new parents and cannot agree on how much their newborn baby boy knows about his new world. Sherilyn insists that the baby does not recognize anything and that he would not know the difference if he were suddenly transported to a different planet. Michael, however, argues that the baby learned a lot while in utero and now recognizes many features of his world. Identify which parent is more accurate and discuss at least four pieces of evidence to support that parent's view.

183. Identify and describe the four major developmental processes underlying the development of a fetus. For each process, provide an explanation of what occurs and when as well as an example.

184. Describe the differences and similarities of the effects of teratogens in the embryonic period and in the fetal period. Explain why these differences and similarities exist.

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Chap_02_6ce 185. Describe how birth is likely to be experienced by the fetus/newborn and explain the functions served by squeezing the fetus/newborn as it passes through the birth canal.

186. Describe the multiple-risk model and how it applies to the association between poverty and birth outcomes.

Be sure to give specific examples to support the description.

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Chap_02_6ce Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_6ce 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. a 50. d 51. d 52. d 53. c 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_6ce 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. d 66. d 67. d 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. d 73. a 74. c 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_6ce 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. b 87. d 88. b 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. b 98. c 99. b 100. b 101. a 102. a 103. d 104. d 105. c 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_6ce 111. a 112. c 113. a 114. a 115. b 116. d 117. b 118. c 119. b 120. a 121. c 122. a 123. a 124. d 125. d 126. c 127. a 128. d 129. d 130. c 131. b 132. a 133. a 134. c 135. a 136. d 137. b

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Chap_02_6ce 138. d 139. d 140. b 141. a 142. a 143. a 144. c 145. b 146. d 147. c 148. b 149. b 150. b 151. d 152. c 153. d 154. c 155. a 156. d 157. c 158. b 159. b 160. d 161. b 162. a 163. b 164. a 165. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_6ce 166. a 167. a 168. c 169. b 170. a 171. d 172. a 173. d 174. d 175. c 176. b 177. d 178. d 179. While it is not completely dark inside of the womb, what the 8-month-old fetus can see is limited. The fetus does experience touch, or tactile stimulation, as a result of its own activity. The fetus can also bump and push into the wall of the uterus. By 8 months, the fetus can also respond to maternal movements. This suggests that the fetus's vestibular systems are functioning prior to birth. The fetus can also taste the flavours that are contained in amniotic fluid and shows a preference for sweet flavours. The amniotic fluid also has an odour and often reflects the diet of the mother. The fetus is able to experience these smells. The fetus also hears sound and noise while in the womb.

The prenatal environment includes maternal sounds related to the mother's digestive system, heartbeat, and so on.

The fetus can also hear the mother speaking. By 8 months, the fetus can also detect noises taking place outside of the mother's body. At this age the fetus can also detect the mother talking.

180. Environmental factors that can be detrimental to prenatal development include exposure to lead, which can lead to reduced intelligence and the development of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder symptoms. It is also related to miscarriage, preterm birth, and low birth rate. Maternal factors that can impede prenatal development include age, nutrition, health, and stress. For instance, infants born to mothers younger than 15 years of age are more likely to die before their first birthday, while infants born to mothers who are in their late 30s or 40s have an increased risk of developing fetal chromosomal abnormalities and birth complications.

181. State refers to a continuum of arousal, ranging from deep sleep to intense activity. During a 24-hour period, newborns experience a total of six states, ranging from quiet sleep to crying. Within this general pattern, however, there is a great deal of individual variation. Some infants cry relatively rarely, whereas others cry for hours every day; some babies sleep much more, and others much less, than the 16-hour average. Some infants spend more than the average of 2½ hours in the awake-alert state, in which they are fairly inactive but attentive to the environment.

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Chap_02_6ce 182. Michael is more accurate. Research has demonstrated that the fetus is able to learn from its prenatal experiences during the last trimester of pregnancy, after the central nervous system has developed to support learning.

Evidence of fetal learning comes from studies of habituation, which involves a decrease in response to repeated or continued stimulation. Fetuses as young as 30 weeks of gestation have shown habituation to visual and auditory stimuli. With this learning ability, fetuses learn the sound of their mothers' voice. They also remember the smell of the amniotic fluid that they were in. They also remember other sounds they heard prenatally.

183. There are four major developmental processes that underlie the transformation of a zygote into an embryo and then to a fetus. The first is cell division. This is also known as mitosis. Through continuous cell division during the course of pregnancy, the zygote transforms into a newborn. The second process, called cell migration, occurs during the embryonic period. This is where cells move away from their original location. Neurons that originate inside of the embryonic brain travel to the outer regions of the developing brain. The third process is called cell differentiation. Initially, all embryonic cells are interchangeable and equivalent and are referred to as stem cells.

The cells then start to specialize in terms of function and structure. One key determinant is when cells are turned on or expressed. Another is the cells' location. The fourth developmental process is cell death. The selective death of certain cells is genetically programmed and is called apoptosis. This is needed for certain features to fully develop, such as fingers. The webbing between the fingers needs to die off, so to speak, for the fingers to actually form.

184. A teratogen is an external agent that can cause damage or death during prenatal development. The effects of teratogen exposure during prenatal development can vary based on the timing of exposure. For instance, exposure during the embryonic period may result in major structural abnormalities, while exposure during the fetal period may result in physiological defects and minor structural abnormalities. Also, many teratogens cause damage only if they are present during a sensitive period in prenatal development. The major organ systems are most vulnerable to damage at the time when their basic structures are being formed.

185. It is unlikely that the birth experience is painful to the fetus/newborn. The baby experiences squeezing as it moves through the birth canal, which is not likely to be painful. Additionally, this squeezing serves important functions. It temporarily reduces the overall size of the fetus's large head, allowing it to pass safely through the mother's pelvic bones. This is possible because the skull is composed of separate plates that can overlap one another slightly during birth. The squeezing also stimulates the production of hormones that help the fetus withstand mild oxygen deprivation during birth and to regulate breathing after birth. The squeezing of the fetus's body also forces amniotic fluid out of the lungs, in preparation for the newborn's first crucial gasp of air.

186. The multiple-risk model highlights that risk factors tend to occur together. For example, a woman who is so addicted to alcohol, cocaine, or heroin that she continues to abuse the substance even though she is pregnant is likely to be under a great deal of stress and unlikely to eat well, take vitamins, earn a good income, seek prenatal care, have a strong social support network, or take good care of herself in other ways. Furthermore, whatever the cumulative effects of these prenatal risk factors, they will likely be compounded after birth by the mother's continuation of her unhealthy lifestyle and by her resulting inability to provide good care for her child. A negative developmental outcome is more likely when there are multiple risk factors.

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Chap_03_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. _____ mediate the pathways between genes and behaviour. a. Endophenotypes b. Regulator genes c. Sex chromosomes d. Alleles 2. Which property is NOT a mechanism for genetic inheritance of disease? a. combined action of multiple genes b. dominant–recessive patterns c. sex-linked inheritance d. hormonal abnormalities 3. The two hemispheres of the brain communicate via the a. interneurons. b. corpus callosum. c. glial cells. d. association areas.

4. Which effect(s) is/are an example of the relationship between the child's phenotype and the child's environment? Effect A: effect of the environment created by the child's parents on the child's behaviour.

Effect B: effect of the child's interests on the environment the child seeks out. Effect C: effect of the child's behaviour on the parents' responses to the child. a. both effects A and B b. both effects A and C c. both effects B and C d. effects A, B, and C 5. Intermediate phenotypes that do not involve overt behaviour are called a. endophenotypes. b. regulator genes. c. sex chromosomes. d. alleles.

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Chap_03_6ce 6. A researcher finds that for a particular trait, first cousins are more similar than are third cousins. This researcher has evidence that the trait is a. heritable. b. polygenic. c. multifactorial. d. all of these.

7. Crossing over refers to a. the development of female genitalia by an XY zygote. b. a process by which two members of a chromosomal pair swap sections of DNA. c. the random shuffling of the members of the 23 chromosomal pairs in the formation of egg and sperm. d. a change in a section of DNA caused by environmental factors.

8. A person who has a genetic disorder that results from a chromosomal anomaly possesses a. two recessive genes for the disorder. b. extra or missing genes. c. multiple genes that code for the disorder. d. more or fewer than the normal number of chromosomes.

9. Information from multiple sensory systems is processed and integrated in the a. frontal lobe. b. corpus callosum. c. glial cells. d. association areas.

10. Gene expression can be suppressed by the process of a. methylation. b. mutation. c. recession. d. myelination.

11. Which of the following is NOT part of the model of hereditary and environmental influences on development? a. genotype b. environment c. phenotype d. learning via modelling

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Chap_03_6ce 12. Which factor is NOT associated with obesity? a. social isolation b. ethnicity c. diabetes d. adequate sleep 13. For twins who grow up together, the degree of similarity of the environment is assumed to be equal. This is known as the a. equal environments assumption. b. heritability assumption. c. population heritability hypothesis. d. genome-wide association.

14. Psychological traits such as empathy, aggression, and shyness follow the _____ type of inheritance pattern. a. dominant–recessive b. X-linked c. polygenic d. heterozygous 15. Professor Thomas is conducting an fMRI study with infant participants. This means that the infant participants will need to be _____, which limits the kinds of research questions that can be investigated. a. awake b. asleep c. dreaming d. crying 16. Genetic influence in behaviour genetics family studies is demonstrated by _____ correlations for higher degrees of _____ similarity. a. higher; genetic b. lower; genetic c. higher; environmental d. lower; environmental 17. Which statement is an example of experience-expectant processes? a. Individuals are able to remember the details of a magazine article after they have read it. b. Children who are born with cataracts that are not removed early enough will have permanently impaired vision. c. Rats that are trained to use just one limb to get a food reward have increased dendritic material in the particular area of the motor cortex that controls the movement of that limb. d. All of these statements are examples of experience-expectant processes.

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Chap_03_6ce 18. Regulator genes are responsible for a. ensuring that all of the sperm's genetic material is inserted into the egg. b. activating and deactivating other genes. c. determining which genes go into which cell. d. establishing an embryo's sex.

19. When do environmental influences on development begin? a. at birth b. immediately after birth c. during infancy d. during prenatal development 20. Which statement about the process of myelination is TRUE? a. Myelination occurs in a similar pattern in humans and chimpanzees. b. Cortical areas become myelinated at approximately the same rates. c. Myelination begins at the cortex and moves down into the brainstem. d. Myelination begins in the brain before birth and continues into early adulthood.

21. Imagine that researchers estimated the heritability score for trait T to be 75%. Which statement is a CORRECT interpretation of this estimate? a. There is little individuals can do to improve their level of trait T. b. John Smith's level of trait T is 75% due to his genes. c. Differences between males and females on trait T are 75% due to differences in the genetic makeup of males and females. d. This heritability estimate tells us nothing about the relative contribution of genetic and environmental factors to the development of trait T in an individual.

22. A large study of monozygotic and dizygotic twin pairs across multiple countries found that the correlations in IQ between co-twins _____ with age for dizygotic twins and _____ with age for monozygotic twins. a. decreased; increased b. increased; decreased c. increased; stayed the same d. decreased; stayed the same 23. Children living in poverty are not necessarily at a heightened risk for a. being overweight or obese. b. schizophrenia. c. cardiovascular disease. d. psychiatric illness.

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Chap_03_6ce 24. Which factor is a problem with the assumption that the similarities of twins in the Minnesota Study are due to genetic factors? a. Not all of the twins were identical. b. The environments of the twins may have been similar. c. The adoptive parents and siblings were not compared to the biological twins and siblings. d. All of these factors are problems with the assumption.

25. Genes are sections of a. chromosomes. b. proteins. c. genotypes. d. phenotypes.

26. The manner in which individuals develop phenylketonuria is an example of a. genotype–environment interaction. b. phenotype–environment interaction. c. direct inheritance. d. polygenic inheritance.

27. Down syndrome originates from a. chromosomal anomalies. b. polygenic inheritance. c. dominant–recessive patterns. d. gene anomalies.

28. Which example does NOT illustrate experience-dependent plasticity? a. the increased activity in left-brain areas for children with dyslexia who were given extra training in sounds and letters b. the enlarged cortical representation of the left hand for Braille readers c. the extra dendritic spines on the cortical neurons of monkeys reared in a complex environment d. the activation in the visual cortex of congenitally blind individuals when reading Braille 29. A clear relationship between the severity of the gene anomaly and the resulting phenotype is displayed by examining the genetic underpinnings of a. Down syndrome. b. Williams syndrome. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. all of these.

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Chap_03_6ce 30. It is currently estimated that humans have about _____ genes. a. 20,000 b. 35,000 c. 100,000 d. 275,000 31. Which factor is the basis of evolution? a. random assortment of chromosomes b. mutations c. the process of crossing over d. all of these factors 32. Kevin and Rita are concerned that their 3-year-old son James sometimes eats what appears to be too little and sometimes eats what appears to be too much. They should a. allow James to have complete control over the types of food he eats. b. punish James for not finishing all the food on his plate. c. alter the home environment in ways that promote positive health outcomes for James. d. reward James with foods he likes, such as cookies, for eating nutritious foods.

33. Which was used in a research study to determine whether the effects of family SES on school achievement could be genetically mediated? a. genome-wide association study b. genome-wide complex trait analysis c. heritability analysis d. adoptive twin study 34. Which statement about traits that involve polygenic inheritance is TRUE? a. These traits are passed down from either the mother or the father directly to the offspring. b. These traits are expressed only if an individual has a dominant gene. c. Offspring have a one in four chance of possessing a trait if the parents possess it. d. Many common human disorders are believed to result from interactions amongst multiple inherited genes, often in conjunction with environmental factors.

35. Children who suffer brain damage a. tend to experience a shift in the area in which a particular brain function is located. b. can always make a complete and long-term recovery. c. suffer long-term consequences only if they are particularly genetically vulnerable to synapse elimination. d. All of the answers are correct.

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Chap_03_6ce 36. In the process of synaptogenesis a. axons are insulated. b. neurons are created through cell division. c. connections between neurons are formed. d. the brain eliminates unnecessary synapses.

37. The cerebral cortex constitutes _____ of the human brain. a. 10% b. 25% c. 80% d. 100% 38. A study that examines whether adopted children's scores on a particular measure are more highly correlated with their adoptive parents' scores or their biological parents' scores is referred to as a(n) _____ study. a. adoption b. adoptive twin c. twin d. heritability 39. During synaptogenesis, each neuron forms synapses with approximately how many other neurons? a. tens b. hundreds c. thousands d. millions 40. Which behaviour genetics research result provides the BEST evidence of the importance of environmental factors in the development of a particular trait? a. An adoption study shows that the correlation between adoptive children and their adoptive parents is higher than is the correlation between the children and their biological parents. b. An adoptive twin study shows that the correlation between identical twins who grew up together is higher than is the correlation between identical twins who grew up apart. c. A twin study shows that the correlation between identical twins is higher than is the correlation between same-sex fraternal twins. d. A family study shows that the correlation between siblings reared together is higher than is the correlation between siblings reared apart.

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Chap_03_6ce 41. In regard to the chromosomes that parents pass on to their offspring, parents pass on a. exact copies of their chromosomes to their offspring. b. exact copies of their chromosomes to their offspring, except when a mutation occurs in the offspring's genes. c. chromosomes that are constituted differently than their own because of random assortment and crossing over. d. exact copies of their chromosomes to their offspring, but the genes are expressed differently because of patterns of dominance.

42. Which statement does NOT describe a problem associated with the use of formula for infant feeding in underdeveloped countries? a. The formula is often mixed with polluted water. b. The formula does not contain antibodies against infections. c. The formula is frequently diluted because of high cost. d. Mothers in underdeveloped countries are more likely to use formula for infant feeding.

43. Marked changes in physical development that have occurred over generations are referred to as a. historical anomalies. b. generation-dependent plasticity. c. secular trends. d. growth disturbances.

44. The different rates of synapse production in different areas of the brain indicate the a. inability of the brain to develop simultaneously in multiple areas. b. differences in the timing of development of different skills and behavioural categories. c. different rates of synapse elimination. d. All of the answers are correct.

45. The frontal area of the cortex approaches maturity a. at birth. b. when the grey matter has fully replaced the white matter. c. in early adulthood. d. when synapse generation outpaces synapse elimination.

46. Disease W is a recessive gene disease. Individuals with _____ will suffer from disease W. a. one disease W gene and one healthy gene b. two disease W genes c. two healthy genes d. two disease W genes and one healthy gene

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Chap_03_6ce 47. Which statement regarding children whose parents overregulate their eating behaviour is TRUE? a. They are less likely to struggle with their weight as adults. b. They are better at regulating their own food intake. c. They are less likely to struggle with their weight as adults and are better at regulating their own food intake. d. They are more likely to have a higher BMI and other risk factors for adult obesity.

48. _____ lead(s) to extremely high rates of fetal and infant mortality. a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Both Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome d. Neither Edwards syndrome nor Patau syndrome 49. Genes code for a. the production of proteins. b. specific behaviours. c. the construction of DNA. d. traits.

50. Infant taste preferences a. are innate. b. are learned in the first few weeks of life. c. differ from adult taste preferences. d. most likely do not have an evolutionary origin.

51. Behaviour genetics rests in part on the premise that to the extent genetic factors are important, individuals who _____ should be more similar than are individuals who _____. a. are closely related; are unrelated b. are unrelated; are closely related c. have lived together; have not lived together d. have not lived together; have lived together 52. What is the observable expression of an individual's genetic material? a. his or her genome b. his or her genotype c. his or her phenotype d. the environment

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Chap_03_6ce 53. Which part of the neuron is the LARGEST in size? a. axon b. synapse c. cell body d. dendrite 54. Synaptic pruning refers to which process? a. elimination b. generation c. repair d. arborization 55. DTI has been used to investigate all of these EXCEPT a. model white-matter development during early postnatal development. b. model myelination during early postnatal development. c. localization of electrical signals within the brain during activity. d. atypical patterns of brain connectivity amongst toddlers with autism.

56. Which statement is TRUE? a. Mutations aside, the structure of DNA remains fixed throughout one's life. b. Epigenetic mechanisms can alter the expression of genes. c. Changes in the expression of genes can be passed on to offspring. d. Each gene is a segment of DNA that is the code for the production of particular proteins.

57. Which type of prenatal testing uses fetal cells taken from the placenta to detect genetic anomalies? a. preimplantation genetic diagnosis b. noninvasive prenatal testing c. aneuploidy d. chorionic villus sampling 58. _____ use a powerful electromagnet to detect fluctuations in cerebral blood flow in different areas of the brain. a. EEG b. ERP c. MEG d. fMRI

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Chap_03_6ce 59. A cross-sectional study of children who were born with cerebral damage and a control group of children with no brain damage demonstrated that a. the two groups showed no differences in IQ. b. the two groups showed no differences in IQ at the age of 6, but the group with brain damage had lower average IQ at older ages. c. the group with brain damage had lower average IQ at the age of 6, but the groups showed no differences at older ages. d. the two groups showed no differences in IQ through puberty, but the group with brain damage had lower average IQ at older ages.

60. The complete set of genes is referred to as a a. genome. b. genesis. c. genotype. d. genode.

61. Which statement describes the results of a large twin study conducted in multiple countries on the genetic and environmental influences on IQ? a. Genetic influences decrease with age. b. Genetic influences remain stable with age. c. Genetic influences increase with age. d. Environmental influences remain stable with age.

62. The amount of variability of a trait that is due to genetic and environmental factors is referred to as a. heritability. b. inheritance. c. the genotype. d. shared genes.

63. As environmental variability increases, heritability estimates will a. increase. b. decrease. c. remain the same. d. sometimes increase and sometimes decrease.

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Chap_03_6ce 64. A researcher finds that for a particular trait, the correlation between identical twins is greater than is the correlation between nontwin siblings. This result demonstrates that a. environmental factors are important in the development of this trait. b. genetic factors are important in the development of this trait. c. genetic factors are not important in the development of this trait. d. environmental factors are not important in the development of this trait.

65. Which statement presents an example of a secular trend? a. African Canadian children mature more quickly than do their European Canadian peers. b. Females generally reach puberty before their male peers do. c. The average child growing up in North Korea is several inches shorter than is the average child growing up in North America. d. Adults in North America are several inches taller than their same-sex great-grandparents were.

66. Which part of the neuron receives input from other cells? a. axon b. synapse c. cell body d. dendrite 67. Which statement is the BEST evidence for the notion that individuals actively construct their environment? a. Identical twins are quite similar in intelligence, regardless of whether they are reared together or apart. b. Identical twins are more similar than are fraternal twins in intelligence. c. Fraternal twins are more similar in intelligence when they are reared together than when they are reared apart. d. Fraternal twins become less similar in intelligence as they get older.

68. An adoptive twin study is conducted to examine the role of genetics and environment on sociability. Which result would lead to a conclusion that environmental factors are important in the development of this trait? a. Identical twins reared together are more similar on the trait than are identical twins reared apart. b. Identical twins reared together are no more similar on the trait than are identical twins reared apart. c. Identical twins reared together are less similar on the trait than are identical twins reared apart. d. Identical twins reared apart are more similar on the trait than are fraternal twins reared apart.

69. Which method for examining the specific areas of the brain associated with particular behaviours, thoughts, and feelings is MOST likely to be used with infants and young children? a. positron emission tomography (PET) scan b. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) c. electrophysiological recording d. autopsy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 70. When is neurogenesis complete? a. 2 weeks after conception b. by the midway point of gestation c. 9 months after birth d. age 6 71. Which statement about mutations is TRUE? a. Mutations may make an individual more likely to survive long enough to produce offspring. b. Mutations always occur in germ cells. c. Mutations are the only source of genetic disease. d. Mutations are created when two members of a pair of chromosomes swap pieces of DNA. 72. During which time is brain damage LEAST likely to lead to permanent deficiencies? a. prenatal development b. the first year of life c. early childhood d. adulthood 73. Ashley is currently 5 months pregnant. When she had an ultrasound performed, her obstetrician found a suspected abnormality with her pregnancy. Today, he is taking a sample of the amniotic fluid to do further testing. What type of test is this? a. prenatal screening test b. CVS c. amniocentesis d. IVF 74. When several genes contribute to a particular phenotypic outcome, this is referred to as a. Mendelian inheritance. b. a heterozygous inheritance. c. multifactorial expression. d. polygenic inheritance.

75. Genes guarantee that humans will be similar to each other in certain ways. What are these? a. at the species level b. at the individual level c. at both the species and the individual level d. neither at the species nor the individual level

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Chap_03_6ce 76. Kody, a boy, and Shakira, a girl, are brother and sister. They both inherit the same recessive allele for trait T on their X chromosome from their mother. What is the relative likelihood of Kody and Shakira expressing trait T? a. Both Kody and Shakira are likely to express trait T. b. Kody is more likely than is Shakira to express trait T. c. Shakira is more likely than is Kody to express trait T. d. Neither Kody nor Shakira is likely to express trait T. 77. In 2017, the Canadian government passed this act that is intended to prohibit the use of hereditary data in decisions about insurance or employment. a. Prenatal Screening Act b. Genetic Discrimination Bill c. Genetic Non-Discrimination Act d. Prenatal Diagnostic Requirement Act 78. In an individual with poor myelination, the MOST likely cause would be found in his a. glial cells. b. interneurons. c. synapses. d. axon terminals.

79. Which statement about human mothers' milk is NOT true? a. It contains beneficial bacteria. b. It contains fatty acids that have a positive effect on IQ. c. It contains the mother's antibodies. d. It is nutritionally superior to formula.

80. Pamela and her mother both have a strong aversion to cheese. Consider these paths. Path A: Pamela genetically inherited "cheese aversion" from her mother. Path B: Pamela's mother's own genetically inherited "cheese aversion" led her to create a "cheese aversion" environment in which Pamela developed. Path C: Pamela's mother's aversion to cheese caused Pamela's genotype to change. Which path(s) could have caused this similarity between Pamela and her mother in their strong aversion to cheese? a. both paths A and B b. both paths A and C c. both paths B and C d. path B only

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Chap_03_6ce 81. Brain cells that are specialized for transmitting electrical messages are called a. neurons. b. dendrites. c. synapses. d. glial cells.

82. _____ is an optical imaging technique that measures neural activity by detecting metabolic changes that lead to differential absorption of infrared light in brain tissue. a. NIRS b. ERP c. MEG d. fMRI 83. Which part of the neuron conducts electrical impulses towards the cell body? a. axon b. synapse c. interneuron d. dendrite 84. When an expected form of sensory input is absent, the areas of the brain that normally would have become specialized as a result of that experience typically a. die off. b. can be reorganized to serve another function. c. interfere with other areas of the brain that are serving related functions. d. continue to strengthen their synapses until some low level of the sensory input can be perceived.

85. Which statement describes evidence for the importance of environmental factors in the development of a particular trait? a. An adoptive twin study shows that the correlation between identical twins who grew up together is higher than is the correlation between identical twins who grew up apart. b. A twin study shows that the correlation between identical twins is higher than is the correlation between fraternal twins. c. An adoption study shows that the correlation between adoptive children and their biological parents is higher than is the correlation between the children and their adoptive parents. d. All of the statements describe such evidence.

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Chap_03_6ce 86. According to the World Health Organization, _____ of infants worldwide did not receive vaccinations in 2016. a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 12% 87. Which infant is at an increased risk for delayed or slowed brain growth? a. Gerardo, who is Latino and whose parents are middle class b. Bree, who is Caucasian and whose parents are of high SES c. Ami, who is Asian and whose parents are middle-class d. Juan, who is Latino and whose parents are of low SES 88. Jerome is 20 years old. He is now likely _____ times heavier and _____ times taller than he was at birth. a. 5 to 7; 3 b. 10 to 12; 2 c. 15 to 20; 3 d. 10; 4 89. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is MOST important for the processing of emotion and auditory information? a. temporal b. parietal c. frontal d. occipital 90. The majority of human genes are devoted to making human beings a. male or female. b. primates. c. animals. d. humans.

91. Traits that are influenced by genetic factors are considered a. multifactorial. b. heritable. c. sex-linked. d. environmental.

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Chap_03_6ce 92. Behaviour genetic studies have revealed that fraternal twins reared together and identical twins reared together are equally similar on trait Q. This indicates the importance of a. shared genetics. b. nonshared genetics. c. shared environment. d. nonshared environment.

93. Younger people can generally recover from brain damage to a greater extent than can adults because of a. plasticity and timing. b. plasticity and experience. c. timing and experience. d. reorganization and experience.

94. Which structures increase the speed and efficiency of electrical impulse transmission? a. myelin sheaths b. synapses c. dendrites d. glial cells 95. Which statement about genes is TRUE? a. Genes that are turned off by regulator genes remain off for the remainder of the person's life. b. Regulator genes function without input from the environment. c. Genes belong to extensive networks of genes and do not function in isolation. d. All of the statements are true.

96. Different forms of a gene are referred to as a. alleles. b. regulators. c. recessive genes. d. chromosomes.

97. In the past few years, the proportion of Canadian children and adolescents who are overweight has a. levelled off. b. doubled. c. increased. d. tripled.

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Chap_03_6ce 98. Which process INCREASES the capacity of dendrites to form connections with other neurons? a. synaptic pruning b. arborization c. myelination d. formation of axon spines 99. In an adoption study designed to examine genetic and environmental influences, the correlation between _____ on a particular trait is compared to the correlation between _____ on that trait. a. adopted children and their adoptive parents; biological children and their biological parents b. fraternal twins raised apart; identical twins raised apart c. identical twins raised apart; identical twins raised together d. adopted children and their adoptive parents; adopted children and their biological parents 100. Parents who reward their children with sweets for eating vegetables are likely to be influencing their children to a. dislike vegetables even more but also come to dislike sweet, fatty foods. b. prefer vegetables over sweet, fatty foods. c. develop a strong preference for both vegetables and sweet, fatty foods. d. dislike vegetables even more and have a stronger preference for sweet, fatty foods.

101. Which statement provides the BEST evidence for the argument that intelligence has a genetic influence? a. Identical twins are not identical in IQ. b. Identical twins are more similar in intelligence than are fraternal twins. c. Fraternal twins are more similar in intelligence when they are reared together than when they are reared apart. d. Fraternal twins become less similar in intelligence as they get older.

102. In regard to the pattern of synaptogenesis in the prefrontal cortex and the visual cortex, synaptogenesis a. occurs at approximately the same rate in these two areas across the life span. b. occurs earlier in the prefrontal cortex than in the visual cortex. c. is complete earlier in the visual cortex than in the prefrontal cortex. d. occurs at a faster rate in the prefrontal cortex than in the visual cortex.

103. Carrie complains to her doctor about having trouble with physical and cognitive tasks that she used to be able to do easily. Her doctor runs a number of tests and determines that Carrie's brain is not efficiently transmitting information. Which problem is LEAST likely to be a culprit? a. The synapses in her nervous system have collapsed. b. The myelin in her nervous system is decaying. c. The dendrites in her nervous system are not properly passing along information to other cells. d. All of these are equally likely culprits.

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Chap_03_6ce 104. Behaviour genetics rests in part on the premise that to the extent environmental factors are important, individuals who _____ should be more similar than are individuals who _____. a. are closely related; are unrelated b. are unrelated; are closely related c. have lived together; have not lived together d. have not lived together; have lived together 105. Sex-linked disorders associated with the X chromosome are a. more likely to affect males. b. more likely to affect females. c. equally likely to affect males and females. d. a result of fragile-X syndrome.

106. This type of testing is typically offered to those who have an increased likelihood of carrying the recessive gene for Tay Sachs. a. carrier genetic testing b. genetic testing c. newborn screening d. pharmacogenomics testing 107. This type of screening involves a tiny pinprick to the infant's heel. a. carrier genetic testing b. newborn screening c. prenatal testing d. prenatal diagnostic screening 108. The heritability score for athletic ability estimates the a. relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors in the development of an individual's athletic ability. b. amount of variation in athletic ability in an entire population that is due to differences in their genes. c. level of genetic influence on an individual's athletic ability. d. extent of influence of evolution on a population's athletic ability.

109. Humans continue to generate new neurons throughout life, particularly in the a. amygdala. b. temporal lobe. c. corpus callosum. d. hippocampus.

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Chap_03_6ce 110. A twin study is conducted to examine the role of genetics and environment on the fondness of individuals for chocolate. Which result would lead to the conclusion that genetic factors are important in the development of this trait? a. Twins who have lived together are more similar on the trait than are twins who have lived apart. b. Twins who have lived apart are more similar on the trait than are twins who have lived together. c. Identical twins are more similar on the trait than are fraternal twins. d. Fraternal twins are more similar on the trait than are identical twins.

111. Which individual has an increased likelihood of carrying the recessive gene for Tay Sachs? a. Maria, who is from the Caribbean b. Mark, who is African Canadian c. Samantha, who is Latino d. Jacob, who is of Eastern European Jewish descent 112. Kim is a 4-year-old who has just been in an accident and has sustained damage to an area of the brain that is specialized for a particular skill. Her doctor tells her parents that she is lucky to be so young; she should recover her ability in this domain. Her doctor is counting on Kim's brain to a. create new neurons to replace the damaged ones. b. become rewired as a different area takes over for the damaged area. c. regenerate brain tissue. d. direct her skeletal and muscular system to work harder at the skill.

113. Heritability estimates for IQ appear to be a. stable across the SES spectrum. b. higher for those of high SES than for those of low SES. c. higher for those of low SES than for those of high SES. d. unpredictable across the SES spectrum.

114. _____ is a normal part of development, which is evident via _____. a. Hyperconnectivity; synaptic pruning b. Cell death; synaptic pruning c. Hyperconnectivity; plasticity d. Cell death; synesthesia 115. Children share _____ of their genetic material with each of their grandparents. a. one-half b. one-third c. one-quarter d. one-eighth

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Chap_03_6ce 116. The folds of the cerebral cortex a. hold the myelin that increases the efficiency of the neurons. b. permit the brain to be constantly bathed in protective fluid. c. facilitate the communication of its different lobes. d. allow more cortex to be packed into a small area.

117. A child's genotype is directly related to a. the parents' genotypes. b. the parents' phenotypes. c. the child's phenotype. d. all of these factors.

118. Which statement about genetics is TRUE? a. DNA is made up of two twisted chromosomes. b. Genes are made up of two twisted chromosomes. c. Chromosomes are made up of two twisted strands of DNA. d. Genes are made up of two twisted strands of DNA. 119. Developmental changes such as puberty, greying hair, and the reduced organ capacity that comes with age are caused in part by a. norm of reaction. b. homozygous alleles. c. polygenic inheritance. d. regulator genes.

120. The finding that identical twins reared together are more similar in intelligence than are identical twins reared apart is evidence for the a. importance of genetic factors. b. importance of environmental factors. c. interplay between genes and environment. d. all of these.

121. Testing fragments of fetal DNA that enter the mother's bloodstream as a form of prenatal testing is referred to as a. preimplantation genetic diagnosis. b. noninvasive prenatal testing. c. aneuploidy. d. chorionic villus sampling.

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Chap_03_6ce 122. Epigenetics is MOST relevant to which relationship? a. child's environment child's phenotype b. child's phenotype child's environment c. child's genotype child's phenotype d. child's environment child's genotype 123. Which factor is NOT a component of experience-dependent plasticity? a. more synapses per neuron b. increased dendritic spines on cortical neurons c. thicker cortex d. sensitive periods 124. The Early Development Inventory (EDI) is used to measure children's developmental health a. at birth. b. at age two years. c. at the time of school entry. d. during early adolescence.

125. Which statement about sex determination is TRUE? a. The mother's egg always determines the sex of the offspring. b. The father's sperm always determines the sex of the offspring. c. Sometimes it is the mother's egg and sometimes it is the father's sperm that determines the sex of the offspring. d. The mother's egg and the father's sperm jointly determine the sex of the offspring.

126. Which design would be ideal for studying behaviour genetics? a. adoption study b. family study c. adoptive twin study d. twin study 127. Mandy and Candy are fraternal twins who were reared together. Bernie and Ernie are identical twins who were reared together. Which statement is MOST likely to be true? a. Mandy and Candy are more genetically similar to each other than are Bernie and Ernie. b. Mandy and Candy are as genetically similar to each other as are Bernie and Ernie. c. Mandy and Candy have the same level of shared environment as do Bernie and Ernie. d. Mandy and Candy have a greater level of shared environment than do Bernie and Ernie.

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Chap_03_6ce 128. The three main components of neurons are a. axons, interneurons, and dendrites. b. cell bodies, glials, and synapses. c. dendrites, cell bodies, and axons. d. cell bodies, axons, and myelin.

129. Changes in the brain's electrical activity in response to a particular stimulus are referred to as a. functional magnetic resonance images. b. electrophysiological recordings. c. norms of reaction. d. event-related potentials.

130. The capacity of the brain to be shaped by experience is referred to as a. neurogenesis. b. myelination. c. synaptic pruning. d. plasticity.

131. Which is NOT an example of how associative learning can impact food choices of children? a. children being more likely to select foods that have been marketed using popular cartoon characters b. children refusing to eat foods they are unfamiliar with c. children selecting fast-food choices due to the prizes or toys offered d. children earing food items because they believe that other children like those food items 132. Which statement about synapses is TRUE? a. Synapses keep the neuron functioning. b. Synapses are the connections between neurons. c. Synapses conduct electrical signals away from the cell body. d. Synapses contain DNA. 133. The World Health Organization estimates that vaccines prevent _____ deaths worldwide each year from diseases. a. 1 million b. 2 to 3 million c. 4 million d. 5 million

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Chap_03_6ce 134. Eddie and Freddy are identical twins who grew up in the same home but then went their separate ways after high school. Eddie moved to the Midwest and became a family farmer. Freddy moved to New York City and became a high-powered attorney. A university research project measures their DNA methylation levels at age 6, age 36, and age 60. Which statement MOST likely reflects the results? a. Eddie and Freddy will have virtually no differences in their methylation levels. b. Eddie and Freddy will have vastly different methylation levels at all ages. c. Eddie and Freddy's methylation levels at age 6 will be similar but will diverge as they get older. d. There is no way to predict Eddie and Freddy's comparative methylation levels.

135. Alysa and her husband, Bradley, would like to have a baby. Today, Alysa has an appointment with her obstetrician, who will determine if she is a transporter of a specific disorder that could impact the development of a future potential baby. This is known as a. carrier genetic testing. b. newborn screening. c. prenatal testing. d. paternal testing.

136. Which occurrence is NOT likely to be due to environmental factors? a. Females generally reach puberty before their male peers. b. In contemporary industrialized nations, adults are several inches taller than their same-sex greatgrandparents were. c. Canadian girls today tend to begin menstruating a few years earlier than did their ancestors. d. None of these occurrences is due to environmental factors.

137. Which statement about synesthesia is NOT true? a. Experiencing the sound of a bell as the colour yellow is an example of synesthesia. b. Synesthesia may be experienced by newborns. c. Synesthesia is caused by an overabundance of synapses. d. Synesthesia is not experienced by infants and newborns.

138. Which item is NOT a source of variability in physical development amongst individuals? a. genes b. nutrition c. chronic stress d. body image

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Chap_03_6ce 139. Synapse elimination generally occurs as a result of a. brain damage. b. nutritional deficiencies. c. normal overabundance of synapses. d. mental retardation.

140. Which area of the brain is involved in memory processes? a. amygdala b. temporal lobe c. corpus callosum d. hippocampus 141. Which sequence lists the CORRECT order of events in the development of a male? a. Y chromosome encodes protein, production of testosterone, prenatal formation of testes b. Y chromosome encodes protein, prenatal formation of testes, production of testosterone c. prenatal formation of testes, Y chromosome encodes protein, production of testosterone d. production of testosterone, Y chromosome encodes protein, prenatal formation of testes 142. Phenylketonuria originates from a. a chromosomal anomaly. b. sex-linked inheritance. c. a dominant–recessive pattern. d. polygenic inheritance.

143. Times when the human brain is in particular need of external experience to develop normally are referred to as a. experience-dependent plasticity phases. b. sensitive periods. c. cycles of vulnerability. d. critical moments.

144. _____ detects magnetic fields generated by electrical currents in the brain. a. EEG b. ERP c. MEG d. fMRI

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Chap_03_6ce 145. Michael and Scott are identical twin 7-year-old boys. Michael spends a great deal of time learning to master the game of chess while Scott plays tennis, golf, and baseball. Michael's and Scott's neural connections will develop differently through experience-_____ processes. a. expectant b. protected c. independent d. dependent 146. Which statement about sex determination is TRUE? a. The presence of a single X chromosome makes an individual female. b. The presence of a single X chromosome makes an individual male. c. The presence of a Y chromosome makes an individual female. d. The presence of a Y chromosome makes an individual male.

147. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is MOST important for foresight and goal-directed behaviour? a. temporal b. parietal c. frontal d. occipital 148. Which list identifies the CORRECT sequence of the developmental processes of neurons? a. neurogenesis, migration, axon growth, arborization, myelination b. neurogenesis, axon growth, arborization, migration, myelination c. neurogenesis, arborization, myelination, migration, axon growth d. axon growth, arborization, myelination, neurogenesis, migration 149. _____ can be done at any point in an individual's life span to diagnose a disease or find genetic clues that predict the likelihood of developing a disease. a. Genetic testing b. Newborn screening c. Prenatal testing d. Carrier genetic testing 150. Juan and Kaya would like to have a baby. They are getting tested to determine if either of them is a carrier of a recessive gene for sickle-cell disease. What is the likelihood that their child would develop the disease if both parents are carriers? a. 10% b. 25% c. 35% d. 75% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 151. _____ genes are expressed when an individual is heterozygous for a trait that follows a Mendelian inheritance pattern. a. Recessive b. Dominant c. Polygenic d. Allele 152. Which statement about the cerebral cortex is NOT true? a. The function of the cerebral cortex is essentially identical across a wide variety of animal species. b. The lobes of the cerebral cortex differ in the general tasks with which they are associated. c. The size of the cerebral cortex is unrelated to its function. d. All of these statements are true.

153. If the correlation between identical twins on trait R is higher than is the correlation between fraternal twins on trait R, behaviour geneticists conclude that a. genetic factors are important in the development of trait R. b. genetic factors are irrelevant to the development of trait R. c. environmental factors are irrelevant in the development of trait R. d. genetic factors and environmental factors play equivalent roles in the development of trait R. 154. Cole was born with nonfunctioning hands and must use his feet for most tasks that are typically done with one's hands. Considering experience-expectant plasticity, the MOST likely thing that will happen to the area of Cole's cortex that would normally process sensory information from the hands is that the area will a. reorganize to process sensory information from his feet. b. atrophy as a result of synaptic pruning. c. interfere with the functioning of nearby areas of the brain. d. disintermediate.

155. Results of a study that randomly assigned mother infant dyads either to an intervention encouraging breastfeeding or to a control condition without intervention indicated all EXCEPT a. it is difficult to encourage mothers to breast-feed. b. any relation between breast-feeding and cognitive development can be accounted for by social class. c. only infants with a specific allele that regulates fatty acids show benefits from being breast-fed. d. there is no well-established nutritional superiority of breast milk.

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Chap_03_6ce 156. A change in a section of DNA that is the result of either a random, spontaneous error or environmental factors is referred to as a. polygenic inheritance. b. a dominant–recessive pattern. c. random assortment. d. a mutation.

157. Shared-environment influences have been demonstrated for a. schizophrenia. b. positive emotions in toddlers. c. personality. d. all of these.

158. Which statement about genetics is TRUE? a. Genes are sections of chromosomes. b. Chromosomes are sections of genes. c. Chromosomes are sections of DNA. d. DNA is a section of a gene.

159. An important finding of the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart is the extent of the a. similarity of the twins in a wide range of behavioural traits. b. similarity of the twins in a wide range of physical traits. c. differences between the twins on the vast majority of behavioural traits. d. differences between the twins on many physical traits.

160. Young children who suffer damage to the language area of the cortex generally a. recover to a greater extent than do adults who suffer the same damage. b. recover to a lesser extent than do adults who suffer the same damage. c. recover to an extent equal to that of adults who suffer the same damage. d. fail to recover.

161. Sensitive periods are relevant to experience-_____ plasticity. a. dependent b. independent c. expectant d. protected

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Chap_03_6ce 162. An unwillingness to eat unfamiliar diets is referred to as a. associative learning. b. a secular trend. c. plasticity. d. food neophobia.

163. Which infant is at an increased risk of SIDS? a. Brandon, who is Latino b. Stacey, whose parents are of high SES c. Samantha, who is Asian d. Marcus, whose parents are of low SES 164. Jacquelynne is 6 months pregnant and is having blood drawn for genetic testing of her baby. What type of testing is this? a. prenatal screening test b. PKU testing c. newborn screening d. pharmacogenomics testing 165. With the exception of the genes on the X and Y chromosomes, how many copies of each type of gene does an individual generally carry? a. one b. two c. three d. four 166. An individual who is heterozygous for a trait has inherited two _____ alleles for that trait. a. of the same b. different c. dominant d. recessive 167. Which condition is NOT an effect of malnutrition? a. delayed intellectual development b. lethargy and withdrawal c. brain damage d. increased hyperactivity

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Chap_03_6ce 168. Which statement about physical growth is TRUE? a. Physical growth is quite regular over time. b. Humans grow for a smaller proportion of their life span than do other species. c. Growth tends to be even across different parts of the body. d. Growth is uneven over time.

169. Which type of prenatal testing uses fetal cells taken from the amniotic fluid to detect genetic anomalies? a. preimplantation genetic diagnosis b. noninvasive prenatal testing c. amniocentesis d. chorionic villus sampling 170. Which statement BEST characterizes current scientific thought on the human genome? a. The greatest portion of the genome is made up of what is now considered "junk" DNA. b. A small part of the genome is made up of protein-coding genes, and a much larger part regulates the activity of genes. c. The genome is split about evenly between protein-coding genes and "junk" DNA. d. The majority of the genome is made up of protein-coding genes, and a much smaller part is made up of noncoding DNA. 171. The brain and nervous system are both influenced by a. endophenotypes. b. regulator genes. c. sex chromosomes. d. alleles.

172. Which factor does NOT contribute to obesity? a. activity level b. TV-viewing habits c. speed of eating d. healthy nutrition 173. Imagine that researchers estimated the heritability score for trait W to be 45%. Which statement is a CORRECT interpretation of this estimate? a. Differences between African Canadians and European Canadians on trait W are 45% due to differences in their genetic makeup. b. Jane Doe's level of trait W is 45% due to her genes. c. The amount of variation in trait W in an entire population is 45% due to genetic factors. d. All of these statements are correct interpretations of the estimate.

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Chap_03_6ce 174. Lenny is a very active toddler who began to crawl, pull himself up to a standing position, walk, climb, and run at a very early age. Which statement is NOT an example of a way in which Lenny's phenotype may affect his environment? a. Chasing Lenny and keeping him safe has made his parents very tired and stressed, resulting in a lack of patience with Lenny. b. Lenny regularly seeks out new adventures, such as climbing to the top of his backyard swing set, in which he often gets injured and must be seen by a doctor. c. In an attempt to get Lenny to use his high activity level in a constructive manner, his parents enrol him in a gymnastics class. d. Lenny's father is also quite active, and he frequently brings Lenny to the playground, athletic games, and amusement parks.

175. What is the simplest pattern of gene expression? a. dominant–recessive b. dominant–dominant c. recessive–recessive d. recessive–dominant 176. Deaf individuals' responses to peripheral visual stimuli are evidence of a. a sensitive period. b. experience-dependent plasticity. c. experience-expectant plasticity. d. myelination.

177. Which condition is a direct effect of malnutrition? a. brain damage b. poverty c. delayed intellectual development d. decreased expectations of child from adults 178. Which are used in attempts to link multiple DNA segments with particular traits? a. genome-wide association studies b. genome-wide complex trait analyses c. heritability analyses d. adoptive twin studies

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Chap_03_6ce 179. Dr. Spock is interested in examining genetic and environmental influences on enjoyment of reading. She has decided to include fraternal twins in her study. If she finds that the correlation between fraternal twins on enjoyment of reading is higher than is the correlation between _____ on this measure, then she has evidence for the influence of _____. a. identical twins; environment and genetics b. non-twin siblings; environment and genetics c. fraternal twins reared apart; environment d. identical twins reared apart; genetics 180. Molecules that carry all the biochemical instructions involved in the formation and functioning of an organism are referred to as a. chromosomes. b. genes. c. DNA. d. the genome.

181. Experience-_____ plasticity allows an individual's personal experiences to shape brain development. a. dependent b. independent c. expectant d. protected 182. Which twins are LEAST similar in intelligence? a. identical twins in childhood b. identical twins in adulthood c. fraternal twins in childhood d. fraternal twins in adulthood 183. Which statement about neurogenesis is TRUE? a. It concludes at around 18 weeks after conception. b. It is predetermined by genetics throughout life. c. It increases and decreases depending on the environment. d. None of these statements is true.

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Chap_03_6ce 184. Consider the following statements. Statement A: congenitally blind individuals show activation of the visual cortex when reading Braille. Statement B: deaf individuals' responses to peripheral visual stimuli are several times stronger than those of hearing people. Which statement represents evidence of the ability of the human brain to reorganize when an expected form of sensory experience is absent? a. statement A only b. statement B only c. both statements A and B d. neither statement A nor statement B 185. Which factor(s) directly contribute(s) to a child's phenotype? a. the child's genotype and the parents' phenotypes b. the child's environment c. the parents' genotypes d. the child's genotype and environment 186. Genetic testing during in vitro fertilization in which the fertilized eggs are tested for a specific genetic disorder is referred to as a. preimplantation genetic diagnosis. b. noninvasive prenatal testing. c. aneuploidy. d. chorionic villus sampling.

187. There are _____ overweight and obese children and adolescents worldwide. a. 100 million b. 180 million c. 250 million d. 380 million 188. Which statement about gene expression is TRUE? a. All genes possessed by an individual are expressed continuously. b. All genes contained in a particular cell are expressed in that cell, but not all genes are contained in every cell. c. Some genes are expressed for only a short period of the cell's life. d. All genes possessed by an individual are expressed at some point in the individual's life.

189. The influence of the child's _____ on his or her _____ represents the active child theme. a. genotype; phenotype b. environment; phenotype c. phenotype; environment d. genotype; environment Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 190. Which factor is NOT a possible reason for smaller brain size amongst infants from low-SES families? a. the level of stress in the home b. environmental toxins c. prenatal nutrition d. a richness-deprived environment 191. Over the life span, the density of synapses in a particular cortical area a. increases at a stable rate throughout life. b. continues to increase sharply after birth and then remains stable throughout life. c. decreases at a steady rate after birth. d. continues to increase sharply after birth and shows some level of decrease with age.

192. This is a genetic disorder that results from either missing chromosomes or having extra chromosomes. The severity of this disorder depends on the location of the chromosomal abnormality. a. trisomy 18 b. Patau syndrome c. aneuploidy d. sickle-cell disease 193. An individual suffers brain damage to one small area of the brain. As a result, he struggles to process visual information. Which area has MOST likely been injured? a. frontal lobe b. corpus callosum c. occipital lobe d. parietal lobe 194. _____ is a variant of the MRI that uses the rate of water diffusion to model 3-D spatial location to study how brain networks develop. a. EEG b. ERP c. DTI d. fMRI 195. Many psychiatric and behavioural disorders are believed to involve a. gene anomalies. b. polygenic inheritance. c. Mendelian patterns. d. chromosomal anomalies.

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Chap_03_6ce 196. An individual receives _____ copy/copies of each gene from his or her mother. a. one b. two c. three d. four 197. A male zygote has the _____ pattern of sex chromosomes. a. XX b. XY c. YY d. XY or YY 198. Which statement about heritability estimates is TRUE? a. Heritability estimates suggest the existence of genes for particular behavioural patterns, such as divorce. b. Heritability estimates can differ dramatically for groups of people in very different environments. c. Heritability estimates are informative in determining the relative genetic and environmental contributions to the development of a particular individual. d. Heritability estimates indicate the level of changeability of the trait.

199. Genes themselves make up about _____ of the human genome. a. 1% b. 20% c. 96% d. 100% 200. The gene that codes for characteristic X has two alleles. Allele D is dominant, and allele r is recessive. If the father is homozygous for trait X with allele r and the mother is heterozygous for trait X, the chance that one of their offspring will exhibit form r for trait X is a. 0%. b. 25%. c. 50%. d. 75%.

201. How does neurogenesis occur? a. through cell division b. through cell death c. through myelination d. through synaptogenesis

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Chap_03_6ce 202. Plasticity is highest and thus recovery from brain damage is MOST likely when _____ is occurring. a. neuron migration b. neurogenesis c. cell differentiation d. synaptic pruning 203. In adolescence, the proportion of body fat a. increases in both boys and girls. b. decreases in both boys and girls. c. increases in boys and decreases in girls. d. decreases in boys and increases in girls.

204. Research on the effects of abusive parenting on children with a particular genotype demonstrated that a. child abuse is genetically inherited. b. specific genetic risk factors can make some individuals more susceptible than others to particular environmental events. c. some people have a greater extent of brain plasticity than do others. d. children's phenotypes lead them to be active creators of their own environments.

205. For a right-handed person, the left hemisphere processes information in a piecemeal, linear manner, whereas the right hemisphere processes information in a holistic manner. This occurrence is a result of a. association area specialization. b. corpus callosum communication. c. frontal lobe management. d. cerebral lateralization.

206. Identical twins Ilyse and Lauren both have a gene for trait H. The gene for trait H is expressed only when a child eats rice before the age of 2. Ilyse and Lauren are separated at birth, and Ilyse lives in Japan, where babies begin eating rice at an early age. Lauren lives in Canada, and she is not given rice before the age of 2.

Ilyse develops trait H, whereas Lauren does not develop the trait. This is an example of a. polygenic inheritance. b. genotype–environment interaction. c. phenotypical variety. d. the dominant–recessive pattern of inheritance.

207. Experience-_____ plasticity relies on normal human experience for normal brain development. a. dependent b. independent c. expectant d. protected Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 208. The impulsive, irrational behaviour characteristic of adolescents may be due to a. an underdeveloped prefrontal cortex. b. a steady decrease in white matter. c. underproduction of association areas. d. synaptic pruning.

209. A method of producing DNA is referred to as a. gene sequencing. b. genome. c. gene synthesis. d. genotype.

210. Geneticist Geri notices that a woman exhibits trait L. With certainty, she asks the woman, "Which of your parents also exhibits this trait?" The woman is surprised that Geri knew that one of her parents has to also display trait L. Knowing which fact would have cleared up the woman's confusion? a. Trait L is governed by a dominant allele. b. Trait L is governed by a recessive allele. c. Trait L involves polygenic inheritance. d. None of these would help to clear up the confusion.

211. The weight of adopted children is a. more strongly related to the weight of their adoptive parents than to the weight of their biological parents. b. more strongly related to the weight of their biological parents than to the weight of their adoptive parents. c. unrelated to either the weight of their biological parents or the weight of their adoptive parents. d. equally related to the weight of their biological and adoptive parents.

212. Behaviour geneticists believe that _____ of the behavioural traits of human beings are influenced at least to some degree by genetic factors. a. none b. a small percentage c. about half d. all

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Chap_03_6ce 213. Which factor plays a central role in determining which of the brain's synapses will be eliminated and which will be maintained? a. the frequency with which they are activated b. sensitive periods c. their genetic potential d. random variability 214. Undernutrition and malnutrition are almost always associated with a. poverty. b. teenage mothers. c. drug abuse and alcoholism. d. all of these.

215. Polygenic inheritance refers to a. a single gene affecting multiple traits. b. the blending of genes in heterozygous individuals. c. dominant–recessive patterns of inheritance. d. the combined action of multiple genes.

216. The superior ability of adults who were born blind to discriminate changes in musical pitch is evidence of a. a sensitive period. b. experience-dependent plasticity. c. experience-expectant plasticity. d. myelination.

217. Imagine an infant who is given special glasses to wear from birth. The glasses do not allow the infant to see any colour; rather, the world appears to the infant in shades of grey. The child's brain development would probably be affected through experience-_____ processes. a. protected b. expectant c. dependent d. independent 218. This type of testing is genetic testing during pregnancy. a. prenatal testing b. PKY testing c. newborn screening d. pharmacogenomics testing

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Chap_03_6ce 219. A finding that siblings reared together are more similar in intelligence than are half-siblings (individuals who share one parent) reared together would be evidence for the a. importance of genetic factors. b. importance of environmental factors. c. interplay between genes and environment. d. all of these.

220. The twin-study design compares a. siblings who have lived together to those who have not. b. same-sex twins to opposite-sex twins. c. identical twins reared together to identical twins reared apart. d. identical twins to fraternal twins.

221. Which statement about autism spectrum disorder is TRUE? a. It is likely that autism spectrum disorder is caused by the MMR vaccine. b. It is clear that the cause of autism spectrum disorder is solely genetic. c. There are approximately 25 candidate genes associated with autism spectrum disorder. d. Autism spectrum disorder is known to be highly heritable.

222. Which is a disorder that causes a severe birth defect that culminates in death by the age of 5 years? a. Down syndrome b. Edwards syndrome c. Tay Sachs d. Patau syndrome 223. Notable differences in the degree of placenta sharing is referred to as a. methylation. b. epigenetics. c. heritability. d. chorionicity.

224. A recessive gene governs trait M. If a child exhibits trait M, then _____ trait M. a. both her parents must also exhibit b. both her parents must have the recessive gene for c. one of her parents has the gene for d. the child has to have a dominant gene for

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Chap_03_6ce 225. Lenny is a very active toddler who began to crawl, pull himself up to a standing position, walk, climb, and run at a very early age. Describe the two general ways in which a child's phenotype "creates" his or her environment. Then provide specific examples of how Lenny may actively create his environment.

226. Compare and contrast experience-expectant plasticity and experience-dependent plasticity.

227. Jake's biological father has hazel eyes, and Jake's biological mother has green eyes. Jake has brown eyes.

Describe the concepts of the dominant–recessive pattern of inheritance and polygenic inheritance, and explain how Jake might have inherited brown eyes.

228. Describe the types of brain plasticity.

229. Describe three environmental factors that play a role in obesity in Canada.

230. Describe the components of the neuron and explain how neurons transfer information to one another.

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Chap_03_6ce 231. Describe three mechanisms for genetic diversity, and give examples of each mechanism. Discuss how these processes can result in beneficial genetic outcomes, as well as how they can produce diseases and disorders.

232. Provide a detailed description of how an individual's sex is determined. Be sure to explain the determination from the moment of conception to the "molding" of maleness or femaleness.

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Chap_03_6ce Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. d 21. d 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. c 44. b 45. c 46. b 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 55. c 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. d 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 83. d 84. b 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. a 97. a 98. b 99. d 100. d 101. b 102. c 103. b 104. c 105. a 106. a 107. b 108. b 109. d 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 111. d 112. b 113. b 114. b 115. c 116. d 117. a 118. c 119. d 120. b 121. b 122. d 123. d 124. c 125. b 126. c 127. c 128. c 129. d 130. d 131. b 132. b 133. b 134. c 135. a 136. a 137. d

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Chap_03_6ce 138. d 139. c 140. d 141. b 142. c 143. b 144. c 145. d 146. d 147. c 148. a 149. a 150. b 151. b 152. b 153. a 154. a 155. d 156. d 157. b 158. a 159. a 160. a 161. c 162. d 163. d 164. a 165. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 166. b 167. d 168. d 169. c 170. b 171. a 172. d 173. c 174. d 175. a 176. c 177. b 178. a 179. c 180. c 181. a 182. d 183. c 184. c 185. d 186. a 187. d 188. c 189. c 190. c 191. d 192. c 193. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 194. c 195. b 196. a 197. b 198. b 199. a 200. c 201. a 202. d 203. d 204. b 205. d 206. b 207. c 208. a 209. c 210. a 211. b 212. d 213. a 214. a 215. d 216. c 217. b 218. a 219. a 220. d 221. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_6ce 222. c 223. d 224. b 225. Children are active creators of the environment in which they live in two important ways. First, by their nature and behaviour, they actively evoke certain kinds of responses from others. If Lenny is an outgoing infant and toddler, he will encourage others in his environment to attend to him by his smiles and giggles as well as other friendly and welcoming reactions to others. The second way in which children create their own environment is by actively selecting surroundings and experiences that match their interests, talents, and personality characteristics. Since Lenny is very active and began exploring his environment early, he will selectively attune to objects in his environment for exploration, rather than depending primarily on his parents for entertainment.

226. The collaboration between nature and nurture in building the brain occurs differently for two kinds of plasticity.

Experience-expectant plasticity involves the general experiences that almost all infants have just by being human.

Experience-dependent plasticity involves specific, idiosyncratic experiences that children have as a result of their particular life circumstances.

227. Many of an individual's genes are never expressed; others are only partially expressed. This is because one-third of human genes have two or more different forms, or alleles. The alleles of a given gene influence the same trait or characteristic, but they contribute to different developmental outcomes. Per the dominant–recessive pattern of inheritance, some genes have only two alleles, one of which is dominant and the other recessive. In this pattern, there are two possibilities: a person can inherit two of the same allele, or the person can inherit two different alleles. When an individual is homozygous, with either two dominant or two recessive alleles, the corresponding trait will be expressed. When an individual is heterozygous for a trait, the instructions of the dominant allele will be expressed. So for Jake, both of his parents had to possess the recessive allele for brown eyes, resulting in Jake having brown eyes. Polygenic inheritance, on the other hand, occurs when many different genes contribute to any given phenotypic outcome. In this instance, a single gene can affect multiple traits; both alleles can be fully expressed or blended in heterozygous individuals; and some genes are expressed differently, depending on whether they are inherited from the mother or from the father. Taking this perspective of inheritance, it could be that Jake has brown eyes because of the genes from both of his parents blending together.

228. Plasticity is the capacity of the brain to be molded or changed by experience. There are two different kinds of plasticity. One kind involves the general experiences that almost all infants have just by being human. This form of plasticity is referred to as experience-expectant. The second kind, referred to as experience-dependent, involves specific, idiosyncratic experiences that children have because of their life circumstances, such as growing up in Canada, experiencing frequent cuddling or abuse, or being an only child or one of many siblings.

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Chap_03_6ce 229. Environmental influences play a major role in obesity in Canada. Although the rates of childhood obesity have levelled off in the past few years, a large portion of Canadian children continue to be classified as obese. Although daily physical activity is mandatory in most provincial schools, Canadian children spend less time playing outside than in previous times. Children also get less exercise because they rarely walk or bike to school. At the same time, children spend increasingly more hours per day in front of screens, which is more highly predictive of obesity than amount of physical activity. Moreover, unhealthy foods are often cheaper and more readily available than healthier foods.

230. Neurons constitute the grey matter of the brain. These cells are specialized for sending and receiving messages between the brain and all parts of the body, as well as within the brain itself. Sensory neurons transmit information from sensory receptors that detect stimuli in the external environment or within the body. Motor neurons transmit information from the brain to muscles and glands; and interneurons act as intermediaries between sensory and motor neurons. All neurons are made up of three main components: (1) a cell body, which contains the basic biological material that keeps the neuron functioning; (2) dendrites, fibres that receive input from other cells and conduct it towards the cell body in the form of electrical impulses; and (3) an axon, a fibre that conducts electrical signals away from the cell body to connections with other neurons. Neurons communicate with one another at synapses, which are microscopic junctions between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendritic branches of another. In this communication process, electrical and chemical messages cross the synapses and cause the receiving neurons either to fire, sending a signal on to other neurons, or to be inhibited from firing.

231. Several mechanisms contribute to genetic diversity amongst people. One such mechanism is mutation, a change that occurs in a section of DNA. Some mutations are random, while others are caused by environmental factors.

Unfortunately, most mutations are harmful. Those that occur in germ cells can be passed on to offspring; many inherited diseases and disorders originate from a mutated gene. Occasionally, however, a mutation makes individuals more viable by increasing their resistance to some diseases or by increasing their ability to adapt to an important environmental component. A second mechanism that promotes variability amongst individuals is the random assortment of chromosomes in the formation of egg and sperm. During gamete division, the 23 pairs of chromosomes are shuffled randomly. After a sperm and an egg unite, the odds are zero that any two individuals will have the same genotype. A third mechanism that aids variability is a process called crossing over; when gametes divide, the two members of a pair of chromosomes sometimes swap sections of DNA. Thus, some of the chromosomes that parents pass on to their offspring are constituted differently from their own.

232. An individual's sex is determined by the sex chromosomes. Females have two identical chromosomes, XX. Males have one X chromosome and one smaller Y chromosome. Because a female has only X chromosomes, the division of her gametes results in all her eggs having an X. Males, however, are XY, resulting in half of the sperm containing an X chromosome and the other half containing a Y chromosome. Therefore, it is the father who determines the sex of the baby. It is the presence of a Y chromosome that makes a fetus male. A gene on the Y chromosome encodes the protein that triggers the prenatal formation of testes by activating genes on other chromosomes. The testes then produce the hormone testosterone.

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Chap 04_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. _____ theorists would be MOST interested in differences in the ways Chinese and Canadian mothers teach their young children how to count. a. Sociocultural b. Piagetian c. Information-processing d. Dynamic-systems 2. Which topics are included in information-processing theories? a. assimilation and accommodation b. object permanence and conservation c. guided participation and social scaffolding d. rules and strategies 3. Compared with the other theories described in the chapter, dynamic-systems theories place particular emphasis on children's a. memory. b. actions. c. interest in the social world. d. age-related changes.

4. The process of repeating information over and over again in order to remember it is considered _____ by the information-processing approach. a. effective b. to be due to poor myelination c. utilization deficient d. irrational 5. Shelby has mastered deferred imitation. This is an indication that she has developed a. enduring mental representations. b. symbolic representation. c. egocentrism. d. conservation.

6. Strategies and processes are part of _____ theory. a. dynamic-systems b. sociocultural c. Piagetian d. information-processing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 7. Esther Thelen, Linda Smith, and colleagues concluded that the A-not-B task was influenced by motor activities and attention. Which theoretical perspective influenced this conclusion? a. dynamic-systems b. overlapping waves c. sociocultural d. information-processing 8. Leslie is reading a sentence about cars. Which item is NOT likely to be in her working memory? a. the visual appearance of the letters c-a-r-s b. her general knowledge about cars c. the sound of the word "cars" d. that 90% of drivers text while driving 9. According to core-knowledge theorists, children do NOT form naïve theories of a. physics. b. psychology. c. biology. d. botany.

10. Jenny watches her big brother climb from the couch to the coffee table, a behaviour she has never attempted herself. The next day, Jenny climbs up on the couch and then over to the coffee table. Jenny's behaviour is referred to as a. post-observation modelling. b. replication. c. deferred imitation. d. symbolic representation.

11. Research from this perspective shows that 3-year-olds understand deception much better when they are actively involved in perpetrating the deceit than when they merely witness the same deception being perpetrated by others. a. information-processing theory b. dynamic-systems theory c. Piaget's theory d. core-knowledge theory 12. Which item is NOT one of the four core-knowledge systems proposed by Spelke? a. inanimate objects and their mechanical interactions b. the minds of people and other animals capable of goal-directed actions c. letters, such as letters for forming words and sentences d. spatial layouts and geometric relations Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 13. _____ theory is particularly concerned with private speech. a. Dynamic-systems b. Overlapping waves c. Piagetian d. Sociocultural 14. Monica's grandmother wants to teach her granddaughter a new concept. Piaget's theory would suggest that Monica's grandmother should a. try to teach the concept as early as possible and then find a way for Monica to learn the concept by actively experiencing it. b. wait to teach the concept until Monica's way of thinking is appropriate and then find a way for Monica to learn the concept by actively experiencing it. c. try to teach the concept as early as possible and carefully explain all the relevant aspects of the concept to Monica. d. wait to teach the concept until Monica's way of thinking is appropriate and carefully explain all the relevant aspects of the concept to Monica.

15. In which situation would Michael Tomasello be MOST interested? a. an older sibling teaching a younger sibling the truth about the Tooth Fairy b. the increased mathematical reasoning skills of an older child in comparison with a younger child c. young infants' inability to retrieve hidden objects d. the increased memory skills of an older child in comparison with a younger child 16. Which description is an illustration of behavioural variation in young children's addition strategies? a. faster performance on easy problems than on difficult problems b. use of at least three different addition strategies on different problems c. ineffective use of the retrieval strategy on difficult problems d. poorer performance on difficult problems than on easy problems 17. The view that BEST represents information-processing theories is of the child as a. social being. b. scientist. c. computational system. d. product of evolution.

18. Which theory focuses on the theme of the active child? a. information-processing b. sociocultural c. dynamic-systems d. all of these theories Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 19. Which theory places the LEAST emphasis on children's own efforts to understand the world? a. information-processing b. sociocultural c. dynamic-systems d. Piagetian 20. The concept of social scaffolding is MOST similar to the concept of a. joint attention. b. guided participation. c. intersubjectivity. d. private speech.

21. While Sumana is sitting in a highchair at a restaurant with her family, she throws her cracker off the tray and watches as it falls to the ground. Then she throws her spoon off the tray and watches as it falls. Next, she throws her peas and her drink off the tray before her family realizes what is happening. What age is Sumana MOST likely to be? a. 8 months b. 11 months c. 15 months d. 21 months 22. Which statement about content knowledge is NOT true? a. Content knowledge improves recall of new material. b. Content knowledge increases with age. c. Content knowledge generally interferes with learning. d. When children have more content knowledge than do adults, children remember new information better than do adults.

23. According to Piaget's theory, Juan, who is in the _____ stage of cognitive development, should be able to conduct a systematic scientific experiment. a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. concrete operational 24. Children first come to think abstractly and reason hypothetically in Piaget's _____ stage. a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. concrete operational Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 25. Which statement does NOT describe a characteristic of Piaget's stages? a. The transitions from one stage to another are instantaneous. b. Children proceed through the stages in a fixed order. c. The type of thinking typical of a particular stage pervades thinking across diverse content areas. d. The type of thinking typical of a particular stage is qualitatively different from the type of thinking typical of the previous stage.

26. With which statement about planning would information-processing theorists NOT agree? a. Young children often overestimate their abilities, causing them not to plan. b. Planning often requires inhibiting goal-directed behaviour. c. The quality of planning tends to stabilize in preadolescence. d. Information-processing theorists would agree with all of these statements.

27. Which characteristic is NOT shared by children's rudimentary theories and those of formal scientific theories? a. They identify fundamental units for dividing relevant objects and events into a few basic categories. b. They explain many phenomena in terms of a few fundamental principles. c. They explain events in terms of unobservable causes. d. There are no shared characteristics between children's rudimentary theories and formal scientific theories.

28. Guided participation refers to the process by which more knowledgeable people a. arrange situations in ways that allow less knowledgeable people to succeed at a level beyond their current abilities. b. allow less knowledgeable people to attempt things on their own while being observed by the more knowledgeable people. c. essentially complete a task for less knowledgeable people while making them believe that they are participating. d. defer to the intuition of less knowledgeable people to guide the more knowledgeable people.

29. Working memory involves a. attending to and processing information. b. retaining information. c. inhibiting counterproductive actions. d. all of these.

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Chap 04_6ce 30. Myelination does NOT a. increase connectivity amongst brain regions. b. contribute to greater processing speed. c. enhance the ability to resist distractions. d. improve efficiency of neural communication.

31. The study discussed in the text involving American and Chinese college students who were asked to solve two problems, one that required a solution similar to the strategy in the Hansel and Gretel story and one that required a solution similar to a strategy in a Chinese fairy tale, demonstrated the impact of _____ on analogical problem solving. a. culturally specific content b. informal theories c. differences in parents' educational practices d. social scaffolding 32. Who would be MOST likely to engage in private speech? a. 5-year-old Mike, who is working on a task he has done many times before b. 3-year-old Natalia, who is working on a challenging task c. 6-year-old Elijah, who is working on a challenging task d. 12-year-old Theresa, who is working on a task she has done many times before 33. According to Piaget, which behaviour develops FIRST? a. deferred imitation b. resolution of the A-not-B error c. mental representation of objects not currently being perceived d. infant "scientific experiments" 34. Which theory of cognitive development focuses on examining how change occurs as well as the natureversus-nurture controversy? a. information-processing b. sociocultural c. dynamic-systems d. all of these theories 35. The _____ theory is especially concerned with how variable children's thinking is at any given point in development. a. Piagetian b. dynamic-systems c. sociocultural d. overlapping waves Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 36. Ned's general knowledge about cars and trucks is an example of information stored in _____ memory. a. working b. long-term c. sensory d. short-term 37. Which list represents Piaget's stages in the CORRECT chronological order, from earliest to latest? a. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational b. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational c. sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational d. preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational 38. Which theory of cognitive development is the broadest in terms of age range and content? a. information-processing b. sociocultural c. Piagetian d. dynamic-systems 39. The best definition of centration is a. perceiving the world solely from one's own point of view. b. using one object to stand for another. c. tending to focus on a single, perceptually striking feature of an object or event. d. having difficulty taking other people's perspectives.

40. Piaget believed that infants develop the concept of object permanence at approximately _____ months. a. 5 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 41. _____ theory focuses on the structure of the cognitive system and the mental activities used to deploy attention and memory to solve problems. a. Dynamic-systems b. Information-processing c. Piagetian d. Sociocultural

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Chap 04_6ce 42. Constructivism blends elements of which systems? a. nativism, information-processing, Piagetian b. sociocultural, dynamic-systems, Piagetian c. information-processing, sociocultural d. constructivism, nativism, dynamic-systems 43. The repetition of other people's behaviour a substantial time after it originally occurred is referred to as a. deferred imitation. b. egocentrism. c. symbolic representation. d. object permanence.

44. Now that Nate is an adult, his memories of childhood are in his a. long-term memory. b. working memory. c. executive functions. d. information-processing core.

45. Zach is now old enough to think abstractly and master such topics as algebra and geometry. He is in Piaget's _____ stage of cognitive development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 46. Amanda has developed egocentrism. This is characteristic of Piaget's _____ stage. a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. concrete operational 47. Research demonstrating that playing numerical board games increases preschoolers' numerical knowledge provides support for a. both information-processing theories and Piagetian theory. b. neither information-processing theories nor Piagetian theory. c. information-processing theories but not Piagetian theory. d. Piagetian theory but not information-processing theories.

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Chap 04_6ce 48. Mira, who is 8 years old, has loved animals since she was a preschooler, and she knows a lot of information about them. She takes a trip to the zoo with her friend Danielle. Danielle is 10 years old, and although she likes animals, she does not know nearly as much about them as Mira does. According to informationprocessing theories, who is likely to learn more from a guided tour by an animal expert, Mira or Danielle? a. Danielle, because she is older and thus better able to remember things b. Mira, because she is younger and has a more pliable memory structure c. Danielle, because she has so much more to learn d. Mira, because her higher level of knowledge enables her to have better memory for new information 49. Accommodation refers to the process by which children a. create a stable understanding. b. translate incoming information into a form that fits concepts they already understand. c. adapt current knowledge structures in response to new experiences. d. balance assimilation and adaptation to create a stable understanding of the world.

50. The period within Piaget's theory in which intelligence is expressed through sensory and motor abilities is called the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 51. In their perspective on the extent to which the child is an active participant in his or her own development, dynamic-systems theories are MOST similar to a. Piagetian theory. b. sociocultural theories. c. information-processing theories. d. none of these.

52. A dynamic-systems theorist would MOST likely be interested in the development of which attribute? a. crawling b. memory c. executive functioning skills d. preference

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Chap 04_6ce 53. Young children can be defined as _____ in that they believe that members of a species have a fixed inner essence that makes then what they are. a. nativist b. essentialist c. domain-specific d. constructivist 54. According to Piaget, which factor does NOT contribute to young children's problems with conservation of liquid tasks? a. focus on static state rather than transformation b. centration c. egocentrism d. formal operational thought 55. According to information-processing theories, young children have particular difficulty with planning because a. planning requires inhibiting the desire to solve the problem. b. they have trouble thinking of multiple steps in succession. c. the parietal lobe of the brain is one of the last parts to mature. d. they tend to underestimate their ability to solve problems.

56. According to Piaget, infants are able to _____ before they are able to _____. a. repeat actions on the environment that bring interesting results; integrate reflexes into more complex behaviours b. search for hidden objects; repeat others' actions long after they have occurred c. repeat others' actions long after they have occurred; repeat actions on the environment that bring interesting results d. search for hidden objects; integrate reflexes into more complex behaviours 57. Which adjective does NOT describe a characteristic of formal operational thought? a. systematic b. abstract c. advanced d. one-dimensional 58. Which aspect of Piaget's theory is LEAST likely to be considered an asset by current cognitive developmentalists? a. integrated depiction of cognitive development from birth through adolescence b. observations of age-related changes in children's behaviour c. tasks for testing children's abilities at different ages d. the exact ages at which children are able to complete cognitive tasks Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 59. Individual variability in the development of walking would be most interesting to psychologists within which perspective? a. Piagetian b. dynamic-systems c. sociocultural d. information-processing 60. The Heathcock, Lobo, and Galloway study described in the text found that preterm infants' reaching appeared to be improved by a. increasing infants' motivation to reach. b. providing practice with reaching by guiding infants' arm movements. c. providing infants with interesting objects placed very close to them. d. all of these modifications.

61. Brenda is on her way to the grocery store and did not make a written list. The mental list of items she needs to purchase are in her a. long-term memory. b. working memory. c. executive functions. d. information-processing core.

62. This limited understanding of children hinders the full understanding of the concept of natural selection. a. nativism b. essentialist c. domain-specific d. constructivism 63. This refers to the tendency to reach for a hidden object where it was last found, rather than in the new location where it was last hidden. a. object permanence b. deferred imitation c. A-not-B error d. symbolic representation 64. Children make the transition from Piaget's preoperational to concrete operational stage at around _____ years of age. a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 12 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 65. Which behaviour is an example of rehearsal? a. repeating a phone number several times between looking it up and dialing it b. intentionally focusing on the last four digits of a phone number when looking it up c. improvement over time in one's ability to remember a 10-digit phone number one has dialed several times d. all of these behaviours 66. Which statement does NOT present a reason developmental psychologists find theories of child development useful? a. Theories raise fundamental questions about human nature. b. Theories provide definitive answers to key questions about child development. c. Theories motivate new research. d. Theories provide frameworks for understanding important phenomena.

67. Task analysis refers to a. a researcher's determination of the level of difficulty of a task presented to children. b. the method by which computers break down commands into their smallest parts. c. identification of an individual's goals, information in the environment, and processing strategies. d. all of these.

68. Which factor integrates working memory and long-term memory? a. strategies b. executive functioning c. problem solving d. task analysis 69. Myelination and increased connectivity amongst brain regions contribute to which development with age? a. faster processing b. more frequent rehearsal c. better encoding d. more selective attention 70. Joint attention begins in a. the 1st month of life. b. late infancy. c. the preschool years. d. adolescence.

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Chap 04_6ce 71. Dr. Waldron is conducting an experiment and shows a child two clay "sausages" that are identical in size and shape. He then allows the child to watch as he rolls one of the clay sausages into a longer, thinner sausage.

Dr. Waldron then asks the child whether the two clay sausages still contain the same amount of clay. A child in Piaget's preoperational stage would be MOST likely to say a. "Yes, they have the same amount of clay." b. "No, the longer sausage has more clay than the shorter sausage." c. "No, the shorter sausage has more clay than the longer sausage." d. "Wait, I don't understand. How did you make that sausage bigger?"

72. The perspective that infants have substantial innate knowledge of evolutionarily important domains is referred to as a. nativism. b. core-knowledge. c. domain-specific. d. constructivism.

73. The father of 4-year-old Annabelle and 9-year-old Shana tells his daughters that they need to buy 10 items at the supermarket, including 5 items to make cake (eggs, flour, butter, sugar, and chocolate) and 5 items for lunch (milk, bread, peanut butter, jelly, and apples). He asks Annabelle to help him remember the cake ingredients, and he asks Shana to help him remember the lunch items. What is MOST likely to happen? a. Annabelle will pay careful attention only to her 5 items, but Shana will pay the same attention to all 10 items. b. Annabelle and Shana will both repeat their own 5 items over and over until they select the items at the store. c. Annabelle will pay equal attention to all 10 items, and Shana will repeat her own 5 items over and over until they select the items at the store. d. Annabelle will repeat all 10 items, and Shana will repeat only her own 5 items, over and over, until they select the items at the store.

74. With which statement does the overlapping waves theory agree? a. At any given time, children possess several different strategies for solving a particular problem. b. Children cycle through strategies, regardless of whether they are effective. c. Children of a given age use a particular strategy to solve a particular class of problems. d. With development, children add strategies to their repertoire without removing older strategies.

75. Sociocultural theories suggest that to help their students learn, teachers a. ensure that children's existing knowledge does not interfere with learning new concepts. b. make learning a cooperative activity. c. provide an environment that can be actively experienced by children. d. do task analysis to determine children's specific difficulties.

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Chap 04_6ce 76. Understanding new problems by recognizing parallels with familiar problems is referred to as a. analogical problem solving. b. planning. c. overlapping waves. d. strategy comparison.

77. The view that BEST represents sociocultural theories is of the child as a. social being. b. scientist. c. computational system. d. product of evolution.

78. According to dynamic-systems theories, _____ is NOT related to children's selection amongst alternative approaches to a problem. a. efficiency of the approach b. novelty of the approach c. relative success of the approach d. similarity to other approaches 79. According to information-processing theories, cognitive development does NOT occur as children go through the process of a. acquiring new strategies. b. coming to utilize innate understandings of crucial concepts. c. expanding the amount of information they can process at one time. d. becoming increasingly efficient at executing basic mental activities.

80. _____ theory emphasizes that other people and the surrounding nation contribute greatly to children's development. a. Dynamic-systems b. Information-processing c. Piagetian d. Sociocultural 81. Reflexes are the primary manner of interacting with the world for children of what age? a. newborn b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months

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Chap 04_6ce 82. The dynamic-systems approach considers _____ to be a mechanism for change. a. variation and selection b. assimilation and accommodation c. intersubjectivity and scaffolding d. private speech and personification 83. Which behaviour do information-processing theorists consider to be a basic process? a. selective attention b. encoding c. rehearsal d. autobiographical memory 84. Which theoretical perspective views children as entering the world equipped with general learning abilities as well as specialized learning mechanisms that allow them to quickly and effortlessly acquire information of evolutionary importance? a. information-processing theory b. dynamic-systems theory c. Piaget's theory d. core-knowledge theory 85. Working memory is limited in a. both the length of time it can retain information and in its capacity. b. neither the length of time it can retain information nor in its capacity. c. the length of time it can retain information but not in its capacity. d. its capacity but not in the length of time it can retain information.

86. The simplest and most frequently used mental activities are referred to as a. strategies. b. core processes. c. basic processes. d. executive functions.

87. Ten-year-old Bryan is going to call his grandmother. After his mother tells Bryan his grandmother's phone number, Bryan repeats it to himself while he goes to the phone to dial it. Bryan is utilizing a. selective attention. b. planning. c. autobiographical memory. d. rehearsal.

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Chap 04_6ce 88. Psychologists working within the dynamic-systems approach would NOT be interested in a. memory. b. social interaction. c. action. d. scaffolding.

89. Which list places infants' skills in the order in which Piaget suggested they are acquired? a. integrate reflexes into more complex behaviours, modify reflexes to make them more adaptive, repeat actions on the environment that bring interesting results, search for hidden objects b. integrate reflexes into more complex behaviours, search for hidden objects, modify reflexes to make them more adaptive, repeat actions on the environment that bring interesting results c. modify reflexes to make them more adaptive, repeat actions on the environment that bring interesting results, integrate reflexes into more complex behaviours, search for hidden objects d. modify reflexes to make them more adaptive, integrate reflexes into more complex behaviours, repeat actions on the environment that bring interesting results, search for hidden objects 90. Which factor is NOT a major type of executive function? a. inhibition of actions b. enhancement of working memory c. knowledge of reasoning strategies d. maintenance of cognitive flexibility 91. Kevin and his mother are playing with a squeaky toy. Kevin's mother squeezes the toy in front of him and then hides it under a blanket. Kevin has fun finding the toy under the blanket and then giving it back to his mother. After several rounds of this game, Kevin's mother hides the toy behind a pillow instead of under the blanket. Rather than looking behind the pillow, however, Kevin lifts the blanket to look for the toy. What age is Kevin MOST likely to be? a. 7 months b. 9 months c. 13 months d. 15 months 92. Professor Stott is conducting an experiment where he shows a child two clay "sausages" that are identical in size and shape. He then allows the child to watch as he rolls one of the clay sausages into a longer, thinner sausage. Professor Stott then asks the child whether the two clay sausages still contain the same amount of clay. This experiment was designed to examine a. object permanence. b. egocentrism. c. symbolic representations. d. conservation.

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Chap 04_6ce 93. Which statement is TRUE according to information-processing theories? a. Cognitive development occurs through a series of sudden changes. b. Children of different ages think in qualitatively different ways. c. Significant cognitive changes occur during brief transition periods between stages. d. Changes are constantly occurring.

94. Which statement about guided participation is TRUE? a. It typically occurs in a situation in which a parent is explicitly trying to teach something to his or her child. b. It ensures that less knowledgeable people do not attempt activities that are outside of their skill level. c. It is a core component of most elementary school classrooms. d. It includes cultural artifacts, values, and symbol systems.

95. Austin is presented with the pendulum problem described in the text. He begins his experiments with the belief that the heaviness of the weight is the most important factor, tests his belief with unsystematic experiments, and concludes that his belief is accurate even though no clear conclusion could be drawn.

Austin is in Piaget's _____ stage. a. concrete operational b. formal operational c. sensorimotor d. preoperational 96. Sociocultural theorists do NOT focus on children as a. teachers. b. products of their culture. c. learners. d. theorists.

97. Dr. Brown conducts a study in which participants are presented with the pendulum problem described in the text and are asked to determine which factor or factors influence the amount of time it takes the pendulum to swing through a complete arc: the length of the string, the heaviness of the weight, the height from which the weight is dropped, or some combination of these factors. Which comparison is MOST likely to be made by an individual in Piaget's formal operational stage? a. heavy weight on short string versus light weight on long string, both dropped from the same height b. heavy weight on long string versus light weight on short string, both dropped from the same height c. light weight on short string dropped from high position versus light weight on short string dropped from lower position d. light weight on long string dropped from high position versus light weight on short string dropped from lower position

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Chap 04_6ce 98. The understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are out of view is referred to as object a. existence. b. permanence. c. recollection. d. stability.

99. Which is the BEST example of guided participation? a. Clarisa's grandfather gives her explicit instructions on how to kick a soccer ball with the side of her foot. b. Mark's teacher asks a few of his classmates if Mark can play on the playground with them. c. Marika's mother holds the screwdriver in the screw so that Marika can turn it without it falling out. d. Jabar's mother holds his block tower steady so that she can place a final block on top while Jabar watches.

100. Mark is clearly in Piaget's _____ stage of cognitive development. He can solve conservation problems correctly. a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. concrete operational 101. Piaget viewed the child as a a. social being. b. scientist. c. computational system. d. product of evolution.

102. Thirteen-month-old Rami and his mother are playing with a musical toy. Rami's mother shows Rami the toy and then hides it under a blanket. Rami has fun finding the toy under the blanket and then giving it back to his mother. After several rounds of this game, Rami's mother hides the toy behind a pillow instead of under the blanket. Rami will be MOST likely to a. behave as if the toy has vanished. b. search for the toy under the blanket. c. search for the toy behind the pillow. d. search for the toy behind his mother's back.

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Chap 04_6ce 103. Juan is now able to reason logically about objects and events. He is in Piaget's _____ stage of cognitive development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 104. Which factor is NOT a central property of Piaget's theory? a. qualitative change b. broad applicability c. brief transitions d. variant sequence 105. Jacob and his mother are driving home from school. Jacob, who is sitting in the backseat behind his mother, is telling a story about his foot getting hurt. Of course, his mother, who is driving, cannot see his foot, but Jacob keeps pointing to his foot, saying, "Mommy, see where I have my boo-boo?" Jacob is suffering from a. egocentrism. b. poor symbolic representations. c. centration. d. a lack of conservation.

106. Which theories of cognitive development highlighted continuity and discontinuity in the developmental process? a. Piaget and core-knowledge b. information-processing and dynamic-systems c. sociocultural and core-knowledge d. information-processing and sociocultural 107. Which statement is NOT true regarding Piaget's theory of cognitive development? a. Piaget's theory is vague about the mechanisms that give rise to children's thinking and that produce cognitive growth. b. Piaget's theory overestimates the contribution of the social world to cognitive development. c. Infants and young children are more cognitively competent than Piaget recognized. d. Piaget's theory depicts children's thinking as being more consistent than it is.

108. Vygotsky's theory is a type of _____ theory. a. information-processing b. sociocultural c. Piagetian d. dynamic-systems Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 109. Margo is 4 years old and has a pet cat. As she pets her cat, he begins to meow loudly. Margo then gets up and pours some water for her cat in his bowl. Margo is demonstrating which characteristic of children's theories about their world? a. Children identify fundamental units for dividing relevant objects and events into a few basic categories. b. Children explain many phenomena in terms of a few fundamental principles. c. Children explain events in terms of unobservable causes. d. Children do not develop theories about their world.

110. The fact that most children in all societies master the basic grammar of their native language quickly and effortlessly appears to support the idea of a. the language acquisition device. b. object permanence. c. deferred imitation. d. symbolic representation.

111. Which statement can help explain why children tend to lie about transgressions as they get older? a. As they get older, they are more apt to imagine negative consequences for their actions. b. As they get older, they are better able to generate ways of avoiding negative consequences. c. As they get older, they are more apt to imagine negative consequences for their actions and are better able to generate ways of avoiding them. d. Research has not determined that children tend to lie about transgressions as they get older.

112. According to dynamic-systems theories, development is NOT a. a process of organizing and integrating. b. determined by evolution. c. characterized as a steady progression. d. determined by cultural experiences.

113. When people miss certain details of situations because other information draws their attention, they have failed to _____ the missing details. a. remember b. organize c. encode d. associate

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Chap 04_6ce 114. Which theory is best at explaining cognitive development? a. Piagetian b. information-processing c. dynamic-systems d. No one theory best explains cognitive development. Instead, these theories work best together to explain development.

115. Which statement about intersubjectivity is TRUE? a. The skills involved in intersubjectivity do not emerge until the second year of life. b. Scaffolding is an example of intersubjectivity. c. Sociocultural theorists believe that intersubjectivity is the foundation of cognitive development. d. All of these statements are true.

116. According to Piaget's theory, _____ should be able to think abstractly about all the factors involved in "life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness." a. all older children, adolescents, and adults b. no older children but all adolescents and adults c. some adolescents and adults d. None of the answers is correct.

117. According to dynamic-systems theories, which aspect is a constant across the process of development? a. change b. learning mechanisms c. memory capacity d. learning through scaffolding 118. Bonnie is a preschooler whose father works outside the home and whose mother stays home with her. On learning that her friend's mother works outside the home, Bonnie is confused because she believes that only fathers work outside the home. Piaget would say that Bonnie is in a state of a. chaos. b. maladjustment. c. disequilibrium. d. dissimilation.

119. Which statement about information is TRUE? a. Information that is not encoded is not remembered later. b. Information that is not remembered was not encoded. c. Information that is not associated is not generalized later. d. Information that is not generalized was not associated.

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Chap 04_6ce 120. The term "conservation concept" refers to the idea that a. all nature is of vital importance and thus worth preserving. b. perceptions of the world differ depending on point of view. c. a particular object can be used to stand for another object. d. merely changing the appearance of objects does not change their key properties.

121. The process by which people translate incoming information into a form that fits concepts they already understand is called a. equilibration. b. adaptation. c. accommodation. d. assimilation.

122. Sam and his mother are building a wooden box, using a hammer and nails. If Sam's mother would like to teach him how to hammer a nail, which behaviour would NOT be considered high-quality social scaffolding? a. hammering all of the nails while Sam watches b. holding a nail while Sam hammers c. explaining to Sam how to hold the hammer d. demonstrating to Sam how to hammer a nail into the board 123. The mutual understanding that people share during communication is referred to as a. social scaffolding. b. guided participation. c. intersubjectivity. d. proximal development.

124. Ann Brown's community-of-learners program is BEST supported by _____ theory. a. dynamic-systems b. sociocultural c. information-processing d. Piagetian 125. Jacob and his mother are driving home from school. Jacob, who is sitting in the backseat behind his mother, is telling a story about his foot getting hurt. Of course, his mother, who is driving, cannot see his foot, but Jacob keeps pointing to his foot, saying, "Mommy, see where I have my boo-boo?" According to Piaget's stages, Jacob would MOST likely be under the age of a. 3. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8.

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Chap 04_6ce 126. Domain-specific understanding does NOT allow children to a. distinguish between living and nonliving things. b. understand the variability in the thinking of others. c. anticipate that inanimate objects they encounter for the first time will remain stationary unless an external force is applied to them. d. anticipate that animals they encounter for the first time might move on their own.

127. Miguel is sitting in his highchair at breakfast time. As if to drive his parents crazy, Miguel picks up each and every piece of food, from mushy peaches to crunchy Cheerios, and drops it onto the floor. Sometimes he drops just one piece, and sometimes he drops multiple pieces simultaneously, as though he wants to see whether there is a difference in the result. As he drops each piece, he carefully watches as it hits the floor.

According to Piaget, Miguel is MOST likely to be at what age? a. 6 months b. 10 months c. 16 months d. 26 months 128. Sociocultural theories refer to the values, economic circumstances, symbol systems, and skills that are involved in everyday interactions as a. cultural tools. b. cultural by-products. c. social constructs. d. social instruments.

129. The overlapping waves theory is a perspective on the development of a. content knowledge. b. problem solving. c. planning. d. memory strategies.

130. Which theory does NOT address the question of how change occurs? a. Piagetian b. information-processing c. sociocultural d. dynamic-systems

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Chap 04_6ce 131. According to Piagetian theory, young infants' goals are _____, and older infants' goals are more _____. a. concrete; abstract b. abstract; concrete c. realistic; unrealistic d. unrealistic; realistic 132. The process by which children balance assimilation and accommodation to create stable understanding is referred to as a. equilibration. b. adaptation. c. alteration. d. calibration.

133. Which memory strategies are cited by information-processing theories? a. selective attention and rehearsal b. rehearsal and encoding c. generalizing and selective attention d. encoding, selective attention, and rehearsal 134. Which statement about executive functioning is TRUE? a. It is fully developed by approximately age 19. b. Its quality in early childhood is highly predictive of occupational status in adulthood. c. It is directly related to IQ and cannot be taught. d. All of these statements are true.

135. Private speech is conceived of by Vygotsky to be a(n) a. error that young children make. b. example of something that adults explicitly teach children. c. cultural tool. d. step towards internalizing parents' statements.

136. Amy and her father are playing with a squeaky toy. Amy's father is squeezing the toy in front of Amy. Amy is very excited and reaches for the toy. Amy's father, however, quickly hides the toy behind his back. At this point, Amy turns away from her father and begins to look at the ladybug design on her dress. Amy is probably approximately what age? a. 1 month b. 6 months c. 10 months d. 15 months

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Chap 04_6ce 137. Encoding refers to a. representing features of objects in memory. b. recognizing objects. c. generalizing from one event to another. d. goal-directed behaviour.

138. Which term does NOT identify one of Piaget's stages? a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. postoperational d. preoperational 139. Which of these theorists would be MOST interested in the development of children's ability to inhibit their habitual response to speak when playing "The Quiet Game"? a. dynamic-systems b. sociocultural c. Piagetian d. information-processing 140. According to Piaget, infants of what age begin to show interest in toys, animals, and people beyond their own bodies? a. 12 months b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 10 months 141. When Delia's father places a rattle in her hand, Delia often brings the rattle to her mouth to suck on it.

According to Piaget's theory, Delia likely developed this skill at approximately what age? a. newborn b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 10 months 142. Theorists hypothesize that _____ enables young children to rapidly master the complicated systems of grammatical rules that are present in all human languages. a. the language acquisition device b. object permanence c. deferred imitation d. symbolic representation

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Chap 04_6ce 143. Stacey is 2 years old and learning about her environment. As she does so, her language skills expand. She is best able to identify objects as either people, animals, or nonliving things. Stacey is demonstrating which characteristic of children's theories about their world? a. Children identify fundamental units for dividing relevant objects and events into a few basic categories. b. Children explain many phenomena in terms of a few fundamental principles. c. Children explain events in terms of unobservable causes. d. Children do not develop theories about their world.

144. Professor Schmidt is an information-processing theorist. This means that he places particular emphasis on a. what changes occur. b. when change occurs. c. how change occurs. d. for whom change occurs.

145. Research following a dynamic-systems perspective has demonstrated that the A-not-B error appears to be caused by a. lack of the concept of object permanence. b. poor motivation to find the toy. c. previous attention and reaching to location A. d. all of these.

146. The representation of specific details of objects and events in memory is referred to as a. remembering. b. encoding. c. recalling. d. recognizing.

147. Lanae has recently developed the ability to reason logically about features of the world. She is in Piaget's _____ stage. a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. concrete operational 148. Which problem-solving sequence is typical according to information-processing theories? a. goal, obstacle, strategy b. obstacle, strategy, goal c. memory, goal, strategy d. goal, strategy, memory

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Chap 04_6ce 149. According to the dynamic-systems perspective, development a. involves long periods of relatively stable phases. b. is characterized by a series of predictable improvements. c. is changing constantly and involves some regressions. d. is described by all of these.

150. The experiment in which Piaget asks what a doll would see if it were sitting in a chair across the table from a child was designed to examine a. centration. b. egocentrism. c. symbolic representations. d. conservation.

151. Core-knowledge constructivist theories share all these characteristics with formal scientific theories EXCEPT they a. identify fundamental units for dividing relevant objects and events into a few basic categories. b. explain cognitive development as something that is quickly and easily acquired. c. explain many phenomena in terms of a few fundamental principles. d. explain events in terms of unobservable causes.

152. The pendulum problem described in the text is used to examine children's a. systematic thinking. b. egocentrism. c. symbolic representations. d. conservation.

153. Gregory and his father are baking cookies together. Which factor would NOT be considered by sociocultural theorists to be a cultural tool involved in this interaction? a. their language b. the temperature needed to bake the cookies c. concepts of masculine and feminine roles d. the recipe 154. According to Piaget, the accomplishment that characterizes the first few months of life is infants' ability to a. search for hidden objects. b. react to the world with reflexes. c. repeat others' actions long after they have occurred. d. integrate reflexes into more complex behaviours.

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Chap 04_6ce 155. Which statement is the BEST example of centration? a. Bill thinks a big empty box is heavier than a small box full of rocks. b. Fiona gives her newborn brother her favourite doll when he is crying. c. Bryson yells to his father from another room, "See, Daddy, I did it!" d. Marla pretends to have a sword fight using a stick as a sword.

156. When trying to remember something, individuals often focus only on the information that is most relevant to their current goal. They likely ignore and do not focus on other information. What is this strategy called? a. selective attention b. planning c. analogical problem solving d. rehearsal 157. The child as scientist is to _____ theory as the child as well-adapted product of evolution is to _____ theory. a. Piagetian; core-knowledge b. dynamic-systems; sociocultural c. information-processing; dynamic-systems d. Piagetian; dynamic-systems 158. Which list BEST represents the phases of Piaget's equilibration process? a. equilibrium, disequilibrium, assimilation b. disequilibrium, adaptation, accommodation c. adaptation, assimilation, equilibrium d. equilibrium, disequilibrium, equilibrium 159. Kevin and his mother are playing with a squeaky toy. Kevin's mother squeezes the toy in front of him and then hides it under a blanket. Kevin has fun finding the toy under the blanket and then giving it back to his mother. After several rounds of this game, Kevin's mother hides the toy behind a pillow instead of under the blanket. Rather than looking behind the pillow, however, Kevin lifts the blanket to look for the toy. Which statement is TRUE? a. Kevin does not know the toy still exists. b. Kevin is making the A-not-B error. c. Kevin is approximately 6 months old. d. All of these statements are true.

160. Sociocultural theories posit that the values of a culture do NOT influence _____ in its members. a. memories b. thoughts c. skills d. encoding Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 161. Robert's mother pours a cup of milk for him and then realizes that the cup has a small crack in the rim. Not wanting her son to cut his lip, she pours the milk into another cup. The second cup happens to be shorter and wider than the first cup. Robert is not upset because he knows that the amount of milk has remained the same. Robert is at LEAST _____ years old. a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 162. Arden is sitting in a tree and has a perfect view of his twin brother George digging a hole and burying a treasure. A few weeks later, the boys want to dig up the buried treasure, but leaves are covering the area, making it impossible to see the loosened dirt where George dug the hole. According to the dynamic-systems perspective, which brother is more likely to remember where the treasure is? a. A prediction cannot be made, as memory is not a focus of the dynamic-systems perspective. b. Arden would be more likely to remember the location. c. George would be more likely to remember the location. d. The brothers would have an equal chance of remembering the location.

163. Hernando is _____ months of age. According to Piaget, he is now able to form enduring mental representations. a. 4 b. 6 c. 12 d. 18 164. The theory that infants have substantial innate knowledge of evolutionarily important domains is to _____ as the theory that infants build increasingly advanced understanding by combining rudimentary innate knowledge with subsequent experiences is to _____. a. nativism; constructivism b. essentialism; empiricism c. constructivism, empiricism d. nativism; essentialism 165. Information about a particular content area is known as a. domain-specific. b. task analysis. c. problem solving. d. overlapping waves.

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Chap 04_6ce 166. What was demonstrated by Levin and her colleagues in their study in which children walked in a circular motion while holding onto a 7-foot metal bar on a pivot? a. Lecturing children is not an effective strategy to get them to learn difficult concepts. b. Some concepts are too abstract for young children to comprehend. c. Children can learn concepts beyond what is considered age-appropriate by actively experiencing the concepts. d. Children are not able to conserve length until age 8.

167. This theoretical perspective views children as having some innate knowledge in domains of special evolutionary importance and domain-specific learning mechanisms for rapidly and effortlessly acquiring additional information in those domains. a. information-processing theory b. dynamic-systems theory c. Piaget's theory d. core-knowledge theory 168. The attempt to overcome obstacles and attain goals is referred to as a. problem solving. b. working memory. c. encoding. d. task analysis.

169. Which approach is especially concerned with how the many facets of the child function as an integrated whole to produce behaviour? a. information-processing b. dynamic-systems c. Piagetian d. sociocultural 170. Research done from a dynamic-systems perspective demonstrated that _____ helped infants succeed at Anot-B tasks. a. giving the baby more time to think about the location of the object after it was hidden in location B b. allowing the baby to reach for the object in location A multiple times c. placing weights on the baby's arms before hiding the object at location B d. none of these

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Chap 04_6ce 171. Piaget's theory suggests that to help their students learn, teachers should a. ensure that children's existing knowledge does not interfere with learning new concepts. b. make learning a cooperative activity. c. provide an environment that can be actively experienced by children. d. do task analysis to determine children's specific difficulties.

172. Myelin acts as a(n) a. insulator. b. storage area. c. automatic encoder. d. speed controller.

173. Devon has just begun to use objects to stand for other objects. For instance, his current favourite game is to pretend to play guitar on a toy golf club. Devon is probably in Piaget's _____ stage. a. formal operations b. sensorimotor c. preoperational d. concrete operational 174. According to sociocultural theories, the level at which parents can optimally support children's learning is a. the level at which children can perform without assistance. b. a level that is slightly higher than the level at which children can perform without assistance. c. a level that is significantly higher than the level at which children can perform without assistance. d. at all of these levels equally.

175. The entirety of an individual's knowledge makes up his or her a. long-term memory. b. working memory. c. executive functions. d. information-processing core.

176. Piaget believed that the BEST way for children to learn is through a. rewards and punishments. b. modelling peers and adults. c. explicit instruction from adults. d. experimenting with the world on their own.

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Chap 04_6ce 177. The dynamic-systems approach is intended to counter which disadvantage of other theories of cognitive development? a. the inability to explain infants' apparent innate knowledge of some domains b. the lack of emphasis on how others help children learn c. the lack of attention to strategic variability d. the impression that children's thinking and their actions are independent 178. The perspective that infants build increasingly advanced understanding by combining rudimentary innate knowledge with subsequent experiences is referred to as a. nativism. b. core-knowledge. c. domain-specific. d. constructivism.

179. Several times during Carmen's first week of school, she mistakenly opened the closet door when she meant to open the door to the bathroom. The BEST explanation for Carmen's mistake is that Carmen a. failed to recall the location of the door. b. had utilization deficiency. c. failed to associate the location of the door with other knowledge. d. had not encoded the location of the bathroom door.

180. Which aspect(s) of working memory change(s) with age from childhood to adolescence? a. speed and structure of subsystems b. capacity c. speed and capacity d. speed, capacity, and structure of subsystems 181. Which statement presents an example of a symbolic representation? a. Jared puts a bowl on his head and tells his father he has on a firefighter's helmet. b. Alicia tells her mother she wants to be a doctor when she grows up. c. Lucas watches his grandmother remove the top from a container and then tries to take it off himself the following day. d. Tricia sees her father's shoes and is able to think of her father, even though he is out of view.

182. Who proposed the most prominent nativist theory, which is called core-knowledge theory? a. Elizabeth Spelke b. Henry Wellman c. Susan Gelman d. Lev Vygotsky

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Chap 04_6ce 183. Avia is in the _____ stage of cognitive development, according to Piaget. She is now able to represent her experiences in language and symbolic thought. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 184. Piaget believed that children of different ages think in _____ ways. a. quantitatively different b. quantitatively similar c. qualitatively different d. qualitatively similar 185. Ten-month-old Claudia and her mother are playing. Claudia's mother looks up at the ceiling fan and says, "Claudia, look at the fan. Around and around it goes!" Claudia notices that her mother is looking up, so Claudia looks up at the fan as well. Claudia and her mother are engaging in a. joint attention. b. social scaffolding. c. guided participation. d. social referencing.

186. Which child is MOST likely to lie about committing a transgression? a. Stan, who is 5 years old b. Maryam, who is 4 years old c. Micah, who is 6 years old d. Stella, who is 7 years old 187. Which factor do information-processing theories NOT consider to be a basic process? a. working memory b. encoding c. recalling d. associating 188. Does Piaget consider any sources of continuous development? If so, describe them and provide examples. If not, discuss one facet of development that you believe to be continuous, and explain why you believe Piaget was wrong on this issue.

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Chap 04_6ce 189. While core-knowledge theorists believe that development reflects the operation of domain-specific as well as general learning mechanisms, they disagree regarding how much knowledge is inborn. With this in mind, compare and contrast the nativism and constructivism views.

190. Explain the advantages of the theoretical perspectives used to explain cognitive development in children.

191. Describe how intelligence is conceived of within each of the five theories described in this chapter (Piagetian, information-processing, core-knowledge, sociocultural, and dynamic-systems).

192. Think about a recent problem that you have had to solve. Then complete a task analysis of your problem solving. Be sure to describe your goals, subgoals, and relevant facts, as well as any inferences you had to make or biases that you had. Also, be sure to describe any errors you made in your processing.

193. Describe the aspect of each theory that you found most interesting or accurate. Would it be possible to unify these aspects into one supertheory? Why or why not?

194. Define and describe the features of guided participation and explain why it is a core component of the sociocultural perspective. Use an example to illustrate the features.

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Chap 04_6ce 195. Each of the five theories discussed in this chapter (Piagetian, information-processing, core-knowledge, sociocultural, and dynamic-systems) has implications for teaching methods. Explain what those are for each theoretical perspective.

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Chap 04_6ce Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. a 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. a 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 83. b 84. d 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. d 90. c 91. b 92. d 93. d 94. d 95. a 96. d 97. c 98. b 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. c 103. c 104. d 105. a 106. a 107. b 108. b 109. b 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 111. c 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. c 116. c 117. a 118. c 119. b 120. d 121. d 122. a 123. c 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. c 128. a 129. b 130. a 131. a 132. a 133. a 134. b 135. d 136. b 137. a

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Chap 04_6ce 138. c 139. d 140. c 141. b 142. a 143. a 144. c 145. c 146. b 147. d 148. a 149. c 150. b 151. b 152. a 153. b 154. d 155. a 156. a 157. a 158. d 159. b 160. d 161. c 162. c 163. d 164. a 165. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_6ce 166. c 167. d 168. a 169. b 170. c 171. c 172. a 173. c 174. b 175. a 176. d 177. d 178. d 179. d 180. c 181. a 182. a 183. b 184. c 185. a 186. d 187. a 188. Answers will vary in terms of what students view as a continuous facet of development. However, answers should emphasize that although Piaget placed some emphasis on continuous aspects of cognitive development, the most famous part of his theory concerns discontinuous aspects, which he depicted as distinct stages of cognitive development.

189. Researchers who emphasize innate knowledge are often labelled nativists; those who emphasize the generation of increasingly sophisticated domain-specific theories on top of the innate foundation are often labelled constructivists.

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Chap 04_6ce 190. Developmental theories provide a framework for understanding important phenomenon related to child development. Developmental theories also raise crucial questions about human nature. These theories also lead to a better understanding of child development.

191. Piaget viewed intelligence as qualitatively different based on the age of the child. He was able to explain the cognitive level of children based on age level and describe how intelligence grows as children get older.

Information-processing theory views intelligence based on structure of the cognitive system and the mental activities used to deploy attention and memory to solve problems. Core-knowledge theories view children as having some innate knowledge in domains related to evolutionary advantage and domain-specific learning capabilities. Sociocultural theories view intelligence and learning as based on the surrounding culture and socially driven. Dynamic-systems theory views intelligence and cognitive development as based on a series of complex systems.

192. Answers will vary based on the problem chosen. However, all answers should discuss the use of task analysis.

Task analysis is a research technique of identifying goals, relevant information in the environment, and potential processing strategies for a problem.

193. Answers will vary but should discuss each theory covered in the text (Piaget's, information-processing, coreknowledge, sociocultural, and dynamic-systems). Answers should specify at least one aspect of each theory that the student found interesting. Answers should also discuss the possibly unifying of all five theories into one large supertheory.

194. Guided participation is a process in which more knowledgeable individuals organize activities in ways that allow less knowledgeable people to learn. Sociocultural theories emphasize that other people and the surrounding culture contribute greatly to child development, making guided participation an active contributor to development.

195. Piaget's theory suggests that children's distinctive ways of thinking at different ages need to be considered in deciding how to teach them. This theory also suggests that children learn best by interacting with the environment.

Based on information-processing theories, learning math can be fun through the use of interactive board games.

Core-knowledge theories explain how the essentialist aspect of child thinking inhibits the understanding of concepts such as natural selection, and how explaining concepts using unfamiliar animals assists students in understanding such concepts. Sociocultural theories provide implications for education through the use of scaffolding. The dynamic-systems perspective notes how complex systems influence development, education, and learning.

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Chap 05_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The development of _____ is an example of experience-expectant plasticity. a. stereopsis b. tonic neck c. perceptual narrowing d. strabismus 2. Newborns' bias toward _____ is an underlying factor in their attraction to human faces. a. oval-shaped objects b. arrangements with more elements in the upper half than in the lower half c. objects with irregularities around the perimeter d. configurations with some dark elements and some light elements 3. The idea that we learn by doing is called a. social knowledge. b. object permanence. c. active learning. d. rational learning.

4. At the age of 2 months, infants exhibit a. stable reaching. b. pre-reaching movements. c. poorly controlled reaching. d. continuation of reflexes.

5. Piaget's observation that young infants do not manually search for hidden objects a. has been proven to be false. b. has been supported by research. c. has been refuted by research. d. cannot accurately be examined.

6. Of sensation and perception, _____ involve(s) the organization and interpretation of information. a. both sensation and perception b. sensation c. perception d. neither sensation nor perception

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Chap 05_6ce 7. Studies in which young infants were given "sticky mittens" demonstrated that a. disrupting the necessity of reaching disrupted the natural maturation process. b. increased ability to interact with objects was associated with decreased interest in social partners. c. object exploration led to earlier reaching. d. pre-reaching behaviours emerged prior to 4 months of age.

8. Mark is being held upright by his mother, with his feet touching her lap, when he begins to make stepping motions with his feet. He is demonstrating the _____ reflex. a. stepping b. sucking c. swallowing d. moro 9. At what age can infants learn through instrumental conditioning? a. at birth b. 6 months c. 10 months d. 15 months 10. The preferential-looking technique is founded on the expectation that infants will a. look longer at objects they like or find interesting. b. look away from complicated or frightening objects. c. recognize familiar patterns. d. lose interest in objects that are familiar.

11. The types of patterns that infants appear to prefer are those a. with which they are very familiar. b. that provide maximum new information. c. that are unpredictable. d. that are simple.

12. Infant pre-reaching movements generally emerge before _____ months of age. a. 2 to 3 b. 3 to 4 c. 4 to 5 d. 5 to 6

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Chap 05_6ce 13. The _____ reflex is NOT known to have any adaptive significance. a. rooting b. tonic neck c. sucking d. grasping 14. Research conducted by Esther Thelen supported which theoretical perspective? a. Piaget's theory of cognitive development b. theory of mind c. sociocultural context d. dynamic-systems 15. Who will fare worst at determining the spatial location of a sound? a. Angela, who is 3 days old b. Sam, who is 6 months old c. Thomas, who is 18 months old d. Brenda, who is 2 years old 16. Infants' use of prior experience to make inferences about the future is referred to as a. observational learning. b. instrumental conditioning. c. habituation. d. rational learning.

17. Most North American infants can walk alone easily between _____ months of age. a. 9 and 12 b. 9 and 15 c. 11 and 14 d. 12 and 16 18. _____ indicates learning through classical conditioning. a. Realizing the association between the UCS and the UCR b. Realizing the association between the UCR and the CR c. The occurrence of the CS just before the UCR d. The occurrence of the CR upon exposure to the CS

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Chap 05_6ce 19. Newborns prefer which taste? a. salty b. spicy c. sweet d. sour 20. Five-month-old Judy sees a novel sight—flowers arranged in a vase. The MOST important cue that would help Judy know whether she is seeing a single object or multiple objects is a. differences in the textures and shapes of the flowers and vase. b. independent movement of the flowers as they are removed from the vase. c. common movement as her mother moves the full vase from the counter to the table. d. All of these cues are equally useful.

21. Neurons that are activated when a monkey observes another being perform a goal-directed action as though the monkey were performing the action are referred to as _____ neurons. a. memory b. repeat c. imitation d. mirror 22. Which statement BEST describes researchers' current view of young infants' ability to mentally represent objects? a. Young infants are able to mentally represent objects, but they do not have any expectations about the behaviour of objects that are out of sight. b. Young infants are able to mentally represent objects, but they are unable to act on these mental representations. c. Young infants are able to mentally represent objects and to act on these mental representations. d. Young infants are unable to mentally represent objects.

23. An infant plays with a toy block in the dark, so he cannot see it. Later, he is shown a ball as well as the block. He realizes that it was the block, not the ball, that he played with in the dark through a. intermodal perception. b. bimodal distribution. c. visual localization. d. interobject recognition.

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Chap 05_6ce 24. Which theme has been contentious within developmental psychology since the inception of the field? a. nature versus nurture b. continuity versus discontinuity c. stability versus instability d. active versus passivity 25. Bree is an 11-month-old baby girl who insists on trying to walk in order to explore and navigate her environment. However, she is not very good at walking and does much better at crawling. Yet she refuses to crawl. This demonstrates the vital role of a. balance. b. motivation. c. posture control. d. perceptual skills.

26. Binocular disparity results in the perception of depth through which process? a. optical expansion b. object segregation c. stereopsis d. apoptosis 27. _____ drives the other-race effect in infants. a. Frequent exposure to faces of a similar race b. The race of the infant c. The inherent racism of the infant d. Minimal exposure to faces of a similar race 28. The study in which infants were first presented with a cube in multiple locations and then were presented with the same cube and a larger cube that was placed farther away demonstrated that infants a. preferred to look at the original cube. b. perceived the multiple presentations of the original cube as a single object. c. were unable to differentiate between the cubes. d. perceived each presentation of the cubes as a unique object.

29. Statistical learning involves a. extracting from the environment those elements that remain stable. b. learning the relationship between one's own behaviour and its result. c. decreased response to repeated stimulation. d. forming associations between stimuli that occur in a predictable pattern.

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Chap 05_6ce 30. The other-race effect refers to a. preference for own-race faces over other-race faces. b. superior discrimination between own-race faces than between other-race faces. c. superior discrimination between human faces than between other primate faces. d. the combination of all of these.

31. Research demonstrating that young infants reach for objects in the dark is evidence of their a. conception of object permanence. b. inability to mentally represent objects. c. innate learning mechanism. d. excellent night vision.

32. A 6-month-old infant watches as his sister hides behind a door. While the infant is turned away from his sister for a moment, the sister moves from behind the door and hides under a bed. Suddenly, the wind pushes the partially open door even farther open, until it touches the wall. The 6-month-old is MOST likely to a. stare at the fully open door, expecting his sister to appear from behind it. b. stare at the fully open door, surprised that the door was able to fully open with his sister behind it. c. turn away from the door, demonstrating no surprise that the door was able to fully open with his sister behind it. d. turn to his mother and ask where his sister went.

33. Fixed patterns of action that occur in response to particular stimulation are called a. intermodal tasks. b. tactile senses. c. somatosensory reactions. d. reflexes.

34. Changes in the ability to perceive differences in stimuli that happen with experience are referred to as a. perceptual narrowing. b. sensory decay. c. perceptual decline. d. sensory contraction.

35. Baby Janet has a patch over one eye because of an eye infection. She will be unable to use which depth perception cue? a. optical expansion b. object segregation c. relative size d. binocular disparity

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Chap 05_6ce 36. _____ is indicative of a possible neurological problem. a. The existence of the tonic neck reflex b. Persistence of any neonatal reflexes past infancy c. An abnormally strong sucking reflex d. The disappearance of the grasping reflex 37. The decrease in response to repeated presentation of the same stimulus is referred to as a. habituation. b. dishabituation. c. operant learning. d. observational learning.

38. The preferential-looking method enables researchers to assess a. contrast sensitivity. b. visual acuity. c. visual scanning. d. habituation.

39. The change in retinal image size as a moving object gets closer, causing more and more of the background to be occluded, is referred to as a. retinal enlargement. b. perceptual constancy. c. optical expansion. d. relative size.

40. The use of preferential looking to measure infants' visual acuity draws from research demonstrating that infants consistently prefer to look at _____ over _____. a. simple designs; complex designs b. the colour red; the colour blue c. their mothers' faces; their fathers' faces d. a pattern; a grey block 41. The result that infants of depressed mothers tend to smile less than do other infants is thought to be caused, at least in part, by a. operant conditioning. b. statistical learning. c. classical conditioning. d. habituation.

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Chap 05_6ce 42. This is a dramatic demonstration of auditory–visual blending. a. the McGurk effect b. contrast sensitivity c. visual scanning d. perceptual constancy 43. These early researchers concluded that infants' motor development was governed by brain maturation. a. Jean Piaget and Erik Erikson b. Abraham Maslow and Sigmund Freud c. Arnold Gesell and Myrtle McGraw d. Mary Ainsworth and Sigmund Freud 44. What did research by Baillargeon examining infants' attention to a screen that rotated into the space occupied by hidden objects that were either tall or short demonstrate about infants' thinking about objects? a. Infants cannot mentally represent objects that are out of their view. b. Infants know that hidden objects still exist, but they are unable to remember their size. c. Infants are able to reason about some characteristics of unseen objects. d. Infants reach differently for objects depending on their size.

45. Light-sensitive neurons that are highly concentrated in the fovea are referred to as a. cone cells. b. the retina. c. cubes. d. acuity neurons.

46. The vast majority of North American infants can sit without support by _____ months of age. a. 4 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 47. Which depth perception cue is the LAST to develop? a. binocular disparity b. auditory localization c. optical expansion d. monocular depth cues

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Chap 05_6ce 48. Which statement about the development of reaching is NOT true? a. Vision is necessary for accurate reaching. b. Successful reaching begins at about 3 to 4 months of age. c. Reaching becomes stable at about the same time that infants can sit independently. d. Infants seem to have a sense of how long their arms are.

49. Dr. Jones has presented an infant with a succession of black and white paddles with increasingly narrow stripes and increasingly narrow gaps between them. He wants to determine when the infant can no longer distinguish between the striped paddles and a grey one. Dr. Jones is assessing the infant's a. contrast sensitivity. b. visual acuity. c. visual scanning. d. habituation.

50. The relationship between early musical experiences and the development of language and literacy is related to a. perceptual narrowing. b. sensory decay. c. perceptual decline. d. sensory contraction.

51. The identification of separate objects in a visual array is called a. shape constancy. b. subjective contour. c. pattern perception. d. object segregation.

52. Which statement is an ACCURATE portrayal of the impact of nurture on infants' motor development? a. Infants develop motor skills on their own schedule, regardless of child-rearing practices. b. Child-rearing practices can accelerate but not retard infants' motor development. c. Child-rearing practices can retard but not accelerate infants' motor development. d. Child-rearing practices can either accelerate or retard infants' motor development.

53. Piaget developed his concept of object permanence by observing young a. infants' expectation that objects continue to exist even when hidden. b. infants' failure to search for hidden objects. c. children's expectation that objects continue to exist even when hidden. d. children's failure to attempt to move permanently attached objects.

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Chap 05_6ce 54. Two infants of different ages, Diego and Hannah, are tested with the preferential-looking technique to determine their visual acuity. A series of black and white striped patterns are presented individually next to a grey square. Diego can distinguish stripes that are narrower than the stripes Hannah can distinguish.

Compared with Hannah, Diego has a. a smaller retina. b. better object segregation. c. more cones. d. better contrast sensitivity.

55. Among infant-directed speech, adult-directed speech, infant-directed singing, and adult-directed singing, 6month-old infants show a preference for a. any singing over any speech. b. any speech over any singing. c. infant-directed singing over infant-directed speech. d. infant-directed speech over any singing.

56. Many current theorists of motor development, including Esther Thelen, take the _____ approach. a. dynamic-systems b. evolutionary c. Piagetian d. changing-modules 57. Which form of learning is probably the simplest? a. classical conditioning b. habituation c. observational learning d. rehearsal 58. Young children who are given the opportunity for increased self-directed visual experiences also experience a(n) a. increase in their vocabularies. b. increase in their motor skill progression. c. decrease in self-locomotion. d. decrease in visual perception.

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Chap 05_6ce 59. This is a reward that reliably follows a behaviour and increases the likelihood that the behaviour will be repeated. a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 60. By approximately what age can infants smoothly track slow-moving objects? a. at birth b. 4 months c. 10 months d. 17 months 61. A 6-month-old infant is trying very hard to reach a colourful rattle that is on the floor in front of her. The infant's mother mistakenly drops a blanket over the rattle, concealing it from the infant. The infant reacts by looking away from the covered rattle and picking up another nearby toy. How would Piaget attribute the infant's reaction? a. The infant's reaching behaviour is not consistent with her understanding. b. The infant has a short attention span. c. The infant lacks problem-solving skills. d. The infant lacks object permanence.

62. The "visual cliff" was designed to evaluate a. self-locomotion skills. b. depth perception. c. scale errors. d. stereopsis.

63. Research examining young infants' reaching for small and large objects in a darkened room demonstrated that young infants a. have excellent night vision. b. do not have an innate learning mechanism for object size. c. have poor night vision. d. are able to think about the characteristics of invisible objects.

64. Which statement about self-locomotion is NOT true? a. All infants begin self-locomotion with belly crawling. b. Infants typically begin to walk independently at approximately 11 to 12 months. c. Most belly crawlers shift to hands-and-knees crawling. d. Infants adjust their mode of self-locomotion according to their perception of the surface.

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Chap 05_6ce 65. To examine whether infants can perceive a difference between two stimuli, Professor Thomas first shows one stimulus to the infant until he is no longer interested in the object. Professor Thomas then shows a new stimulus to the infant and records whether the infant becomes interested in the new stimulus. This method is called the _____ technique. a. habituation b. preferential-looking c. contrast-sensitivity d. pattern-recognition 66. Research by Needham and Baillargeon demonstrated that 8-month-old infants are better able than are 4month-old infants to use which piece of information in their understanding of object segregation? a. common movement b. common texture c. knowledge about the world d. all of these 67. An infant learns a new way to climb up on the living room sofa by watching his older sibling through which type of learning? a. classical conditioning b. statistical learning c. observational learning d. instrumental conditioning 68. The fact that experience can lead infants to become less sensitive to distinctions that they could make at earlier stages in development has been demonstrated in all of these domains EXCEPT a. speech perception. b. tactile interpretation. c. face perception. d. intermodal perception.

69. Regarding infants' perception of pictures, infants do NOT a. perceive pictures as depictions of real objects. b. have the visual acuity to perceive the differences between two-dimensional and three-dimensional objects. c. understand that the nature of two-dimensional objects means that they cannot be picked up. d. interpret the pictured objects as real because their poor perceptual constancy inhibits them from doing so.

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Chap 05_6ce 70. Research by Baillargeon in which infants looked longer at a screen that rotated 180 degrees than at a screen that rotated up and stopped at the top of a box used the _____ paradigm in the test of whether the infants were able to mentally represent the box. a. visual preference b. violation-of-expectancy c. habituation d. preferential-looking 71. _____ was first discovered by Pavlov in his research with dogs. a. Observational learning b. Classical conditioning c. Perceptual learning d. Operant conditioning 72. Relative size is an example of which type of depth cue? a. pictorial b. binocular c. disparity d. expansion 73. The study discussed in the text in which infants were first presented with a cube and then were presented with the same cube and a larger cube that was placed farther away demonstrated that infants a. are unable to form memories about the relative size of objects. b. do not need visual experience for the development of size constancy. c. are influenced by the retinal size of an image to a greater extent than are adults. d. fail to differentiate between objects that are located at varying distances.

74. Most research examining the development of motor milestones has been conducted with Western children, making results a. inaccurate. b. misleading. c. both inaccurate and misleading. d. neither inaccurate nor misleading.

75. The closer an object is to a person, the _____ there is. a. more binocular disparity b. less binocular disparity c. more perceptual constancy d. less perceptual constancy

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Chap 05_6ce 76. The developmental maturity of infants' cones contributes to their a. excellent visual acuity. b. rapid visual scanning. c. slow pattern perception. d. poor contrast sensitivity.

77. James has a disorder in which his two eyes do not line up in the same direction. Which disorder is this? a. stereopsis b. tonic neck c. perceptual narrowing d. strabismus 78. Samantha is watching a children's television program and tries to pass an object to the character through the screen. She is demonstrating a _____ error. a. scale b. grasp c. media d. motor 79. The sharpness of visual discrimination is called a. habituation. b. visual acuity. c. visual scanning. d. contract sensitivity.

80. Perceptual constancy enables a baby to perceive a. that the toy in current view is the same as the one he viewed prior to blinking. b. a moving point-light display as a person who is walking. c. that Mommy is a constant size as she walks toward him despite the fact that her size on his retina changes. d. that the cat is still whole when it stands behind a table leg.

81. Active learning is an important aspect of which theories of cognitive development? a. Piaget's theory and dynamic-systems theory b. theory of mind and biopsychosocial perspective c. theory of mind and dynamic-systems theory d. biopsychosocial perspective and dynamic-systems theory

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Chap 05_6ce 82. Baby Chiara learns that the sound of the door opening regularly comes before the sight of mail dropping from the mail slot to the floor. Baby Chiara has learned this through what type of learning? a. statistical learning b. habituation c. instrumental conditioning d. observational learning 83. Four-month-old infants respond more to a film _____ than to a film _____. a. of a monkey hopping; of a human hopping b. that matches the sounds they are hearing; that doesn't match the sounds they are hearing c. showing a face in which lips move out of sync with the speech they hear; showing a face in which lips move in sync with the speech they hear d. showing a person saying "Peekaboo!"; showing a hand beating a drumstick against a block 84. Which culture does not actively encourage motor development in infants? a. Gusii b. Wolof c. Kung San d. urban China 85. Pictorial cues are also referred to as _____ depth cues. a. perceptive b. binocular c. stereotypical d. monocular 86. A father puts his 5-month-old infant in his crib and then leaves the room. With which statement would Piaget be MOST likely to agree? a. The infant can mentally represent his father. b. The infant fails to comprehend that his father still exists. c. The infant knows that his father still exists but cannot remember what his father looks like. d. The infant knows that his father still exists but does not know how to get his father to come back to his room.

87. Optical expansion is a cue used to perceive a. depth. b. colour. c. relative size. d. patterns.

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Chap 05_6ce 88. To elicit _____, the auditory syllable ba is dubbed onto a video of a person speaking the syllable ga.

Someone watching this will hear the syllabus da. a. the McGurk effect b. contrast sensitivity c. visual scanning d. perceptual constancy 89. A researcher taking a dynamic-systems approach to motor development would be MOST likely to examine the impact of _____ on the development of crawling. a. cortical maturation b. multiple variables c. muscle strength d. vision 90. Which statement about infants' colour vision is TRUE? a. By the end of the 1st month, infants' colour vision is similar to that of adults. b. Four-month-olds prefer more complex colours to basic colours. c. Two-month-olds respond similarly to two different shades of blue. d. All of these statements are true.

91. Which of the following BEST describes what an affordance is? a. ability b. possibility for action c. perception d. memory 92. Research using shallow and steep inclines has NOT demonstrated that a. inexperienced crawlers are poor judges of what they can and cannot handle. b. infants are able to transfer judgment skills learned as crawlers to walking. c. experienced crawlers will disregard parents' encouragement when it is inconsistent with their own judgment. d. infants have to learn from experience what they can and cannot do.

93. To examine whether infants can perceive a difference between a square of uniform colour and a square with a pattern on it, a researcher displays the two squares side by side. The researcher records the number of seconds infants look at each square. This method is called the _____ technique. a. habituation b. preferential-looking c. contrast-sensitivity d. pattern-recognition Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce 94. Beginning at what age do infants use common movement as a cue for object segregation? a. at birth b. 2 months c. 5 months d. 8 months 95. By what age does a developing child's visual acuity approach that of adults? a. 8 weeks b. 8 months c. 2 years d. 6 years 96. Recent research has concluded that infants learn more when they choose what they learn about. This supports the notion of a. social knowledge. b. object permanence. c. active learning. d. rational learning.

97. Which statement about the development of an auditory spatial map is NOT true? a. It is entirely a result of maturation. b. It requires integration of auditory information and information from what infants see and touch. c. It is important for auditory localization. d. It is a mental representation of how sounds are organized in space.

98. An infant who is using social referencing would learn a. not to crawl down a steep incline by seeing another infant fall. b. to crawl around an obstacle by seeing an adult crawl around the obstacle. c. to avoid crawling off the side of a bed by seeing an adult's fearful facial expression. d. to crawl sooner than other infants do because her parents provide a lot of encouragement.

99. Of sensation and perception, _____ involve(s) the processing of basic information by the receptors in the eyes, ears, and skin as well as the brain. a. both sensation and perception b. sensation c. perception d. neither sensation nor perception

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Chap 05_6ce 100. Current theorists emphasize that early motor development does NOT result from a. developing neural mechanisms. b. posture control. c. perceptual skills. d. an increase in infants' weight.

101. The combining of information from two or more sensory systems is referred to as _____ perception. a. intrasensory b. extrasensory c. intermodal d. multichannel 102. Infant Greta hears a bell that she cannot see and immediately turns toward the sound. This is an indication that Greta has which ability? a. auditory localization b. auditory segregation c. pattern perception d. music perception 103. When an infant looks longer at one of two stimuli presented side by side, researchers can infer that the infant a. prefers that stimulus. b. can discriminate between the stimuli and favours one side over the other. c. favours one side over the other. d. can discriminate between the stimuli and prefers that stimulus.

104. Research on the music perception of infants has demonstrated that, with experience, humans a. become less sensitive to differences in musical stimuli. b. become more sensitive to differences in musical stimuli. c. come to prefer consonant music over dissonant music. d. come to prefer dissonant music over consonant music.

105. A recent study by Cole and colleagues found that infants' walking patterns are affected by a. how frequently they walk naked. b. whether they typically wear cloth diapers or disposable diapers. c. whether they are naked or wearing a diaper when they walk. d. all of these factors.

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Chap 05_6ce 106. Which sensory reaction is an example of perception? a. experiencing visual stimulation as a round green apple b. light stimulation activating the retina's cones c. activation of sweetness receptors on the tongue d. coldness triggering nerves in skin 107. The research by Thelen in which infants were partially immersed in a tank of water demonstrated _____ to be responsible for the disappearance of the stepping reflex. a. changing ratio of weight to strength b. cortical maturation c. visual maturation d. motivation 108. The process by which the visual cortex combines the differing neural signals caused by binocular disparity, resulting in depth perception, is called a. optical expansion. b. stereopsis. c. binocular disparity. d. monocular vision.

109. Which activity is NOT an example of self-locomotion? a. crawling b. walking c. reaching d. "bum shuffles" 110. Research on infants' statistical learning indicates that infants appear to prefer statistical patterns that are a. perfectly predictable. b. very complex. c. neither too easy nor too hard. d. unpredictable.

111. Which groups of infants would know their own limitations if placed at the top of a steep incline? a. beginning and experienced crawlers but not walkers b. beginning and experienced walkers but not crawlers c. experienced crawlers and experienced walkers d. experienced crawlers and all walkers

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Chap 05_6ce 112. Research examining infants' sitting skills and their 3-D object completion skills suggests that a. there is overlap in the brain maturation required for each of these skills. b. 3-D object completion is necessary for skilled sitting. c. there is a great deal of interaction between visual development and motor development. d. there are specific brain regions devoted to each of these skills.

113. Closing the fingers around an object that is pressed to the palm demonstrates the _____ reflex. a. rooting b. sucking c. swallowing d. grasping 114. Charlie is 3 months old and consistently swipes clumsily toward the general area of objects he sees. He is engaged in a. pre-reaching movements. b. self-locomotion. c. gross motor skills. d. reflexive movement.

115. Perceptual learning is necessary for a. exhibiting differentiation. b. the development of intermodal perception. c. statistical reasoning. d. the effectiveness of classical conditioning.

116. Infants as young as _____ look longer at visual displays in which dimensions in each modality are congruent. a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 9 months d. 13 months 117. The study by Langlois and colleagues discussed in the text in which infants interacted with a woman wearing either an attractive face mask or an unattractive face mask demonstrated that infants a. cannot perceive differences between attractive and unattractive faces. b. were more positive and played more with the woman when she was attractive than when she was unattractive. c. don't care whether people are attractive or unattractive; they derive the same amount of pleasure from playing with an attractive or an unattractive person. d. were calmer and more attentive when interacting with the woman when she was unattractive than when she was attractive.

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Chap 05_6ce 118. An infant's sibling always jumps off his bed with a loud bang after he wakes up from his nap. He then comes downstairs and greets the infant with a tickle, making the infant laugh and cough reflexively. Eventually, the infant begins to laugh and cough reflexively when he hears the bang, even before he sees his brother. In this scenario, the laugh and cough in response to the bang are a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned response.

119. Habituation to a stimulus and increased response to a novel stimulus does NOT indicate a. a preference for novelty. b. the ability to differentiate between the two stimuli. c. learning. d. a preference for the characteristics of the novel stimulus over the old one.

120. When young infants (younger than 2 months) look at complex shapes or pictures, they tend to look at a. the perimeter. b. the inner detail. c. low-contrast areas. d. large sections simultaneously.

121. When comparing how young children learn from in-person interactions and noncontingent interactions, which statement is TRUE? a. Young children learn better from noncontingent interactions compared to in-person interactions. b. The way in which young children learn from in-person and noncontingent interactions is directly related to their gender. c. There is no real difference in how young children learn when comparing in-person interactions to noncontingent interactions. d. Young children learn better from in-person interactions compared to noncontingent interactions.

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Chap 05_6ce 122. Seven-month-old Vivi is presented with a trapezoidal object that adults would perceive as a rectangle placed on a diagonal, with one side closer than the other side, similar to the window from the Yonas, Cleaves, and Pettersen study described in the text. During the first set of trials, a patch is placed over one of Vivi's eyes, and the object is presented in front of her. During the second set of trials, the patch is removed and the object is again presented. Researchers record Vivi's reaches toward the object. The MOST likely result will be that Vivi reaches a. toward the longer side on both sets of trials. b. toward the longer side on the first set of trials but equally toward both sides on the second set of trials. c. equally toward both sides on the first set of trials but toward the longer side on the second set of trials. d. toward the longer side when viewed with one eye closed.

123. How clearly an individual can see is referred to as his visual a. contrast. b. scanning ability. c. acuity. d. constancy.

124. Individual differences in motor maturity at _____ months of age predict children's academic achievement at the age of 14 years. a. 4 b. 5 c. 10 d. 24 125. Research by Baillargeon in which 4½-month-old infants were shown a screen that apparently rotated through a box and a screen that rotated up and stopped at the top of the box demonstrated that infants a. looked longer at the screen when it rotated the full 180 degrees than when it stopped. b. looked longer at the screen when it stopped than when it rotated the full 180 degrees. c. looked at both events for the same length of time. d. were unable to mentally represent the box when it was out of view.

126. Which statement about 3-month-old Isabella's vision is TRUE? a. Isabella prefers blue over red. b. Isabella's colour vision is similar to that of an adult. c. Isabella is unable to smoothly track slow-moving objects. d. Isabella tends to look only at the outer edges of complex shapes.

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Chap 05_6ce 127. When a child tries to pick up an object from a 2-D representation, he or she is demonstrating a _____ error. a. scale b. grasp c. media d. motor 128. Older infants are NOT sensitive to the correspondence between a. monkey facial movements and monkey vocalizations. b. emotional expressions in faces and voices. c. visual and auditory stimuli produced by moving objects. d. their own visual and tactile experience as they manipulate objects.

129. The cue that is MOST important for object segregation is common a. movement. b. colour. c. texture. d. distance.

130. Infants FIRST become capable of self-locomotion at approximately _____ months of age. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 131. Binocular disparity results from a. poor visual memory. b. the distance between a person's two eyes. c. background occlusion. d. the difference between close items and faraway items.

132. Developmental changes in which experience fine-tunes the perceptual system are referred to as a. perceptual narrowing. b. sensory decay. c. perceptual decline. d. sensory contraction.

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Chap 05_6ce 133. An infant's sibling always jumps off his bed with a loud bang after he wakes up from his nap. He then comes downstairs and greets the infant with a tickle, making the infant laugh and cough reflexively. Eventually, the infant begins to laugh and cough reflexively when he hears the bang, even before he sees his brother. In this scenario, the loud bang is a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned response.

134. Before the age of 4 months, which type of exploration of the environment is MOST common? a. oral b. manual c. self-locomotive d. smell 135. Cousins Bailey, Sofia, and Zola are playing at an indoor baby gym. Bailey has recently begun to crawl, Sofia has been crawling for a while, and Zola has recently begun to walk. The three cousins' attention is suddenly grabbed by the pleasing sounds of a familiar toy that has rolled down a too-steep incline. Which cousin(s) is/are likely to attempt to go down the incline? a. Zola b. Bailey and Sofia c. Bailey and Zola d. Sofia 136. When Shelly picks up her sleeping baby quickly, her baby throws back his head and expends his arms and then rapidly draws them in. Her baby is demonstrating the _____ reflex. a. rooting b. sucking c. swallowing d. moro 137. Which of these is a disorder in humans in which the two eyes do not line up in the same direction? a. stereopsis b. tonic neck c. perceptual narrowing d. strabismus

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Chap 05_6ce 138. This form of depth perception emerges around 4 months of age and is complete within just a few weeks. a. optical expansion b. stereopsis c. binocular disparity d. monocular vision 139. Research by Meltzoff and colleagues indicates that very young children are able to learn from what kinds of models? a. adults but not children b. children but not adults c. both children and adults d. neither children nor adults 140. Month-old infants have the ability to link their visual experience with their _____ experience. a. tactile b. auditory c. proprioceptive d. oral 141. Infants can detect changes in music that adults cannot. This phenomenon is thought to demonstrate a. perceptual narrowing. b. sensory decay. c. perceptual decline. d. sensory contraction.

142. Experience shapes preference for a. own-race faces over other-race faces. b. top-heavy stimuli over bottom-heavy stimuli. c. attractive faces over unattractive faces. d. all of these.

143. Research by Meltzoff in which 18-month-olds observed either an adult or a mechanical device pull at two ends of a dumbbell demonstrated that children can learn by imitating what? a. the behaviour of adults b. both the behaviour and intentions of adults c. the behaviour of adults and inanimate objects d. both the behaviour and intentions of adults and inanimate objects

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Chap 05_6ce 144. Movement is an important cue for a. shape constancy. b. subjective contour. c. pattern perception. d. object segregation.

145. The development of _____ is a classic example of experience-expectant plasticity. a. optical expansion b. stereopsis c. binocular disparity d. monocular vision 146. When two segments always move together in the same direction and at the same speed, _____ has occurred. a. common movement b. common texture c. knowledge about the world d. all of these 147. Rebecca suffers from strabismus and as an adult experiences pervasive challenges in binocular vision. By what age could she have received treatment that would have been effective in treating the disorder? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 3 years 148. An infant randomly makes many vocalizations throughout the day. Some of her vocalizations elicit no response from her parents, but several elicit laughter and hugging from her parents. Eventually, she increases how frequently she makes those vocalizations in order to elicit laughter and hugs through which type of learning? a. classical conditioning b. perceptual learning c. observational learning d. instrumental conditioning

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Chap 05_6ce 149. Parents who are concerned about the habituation effect of their children watching violent acts on television are worried that their children will a. learn how to commit violent acts. b. cease to be shocked by violence. c. become angered by the violence. d. look up to violent people as role models.

150. The use of diapers may _____ development. a. promote fine motor skill b. hinder motor skill c. hinder perceptual d. promote perceptual 151. A study examining infants' response to a pad worn under the arm by their own mother versus one that had been worn by another woman demonstrated that 2-week-old infants a. cannot distinguish between the scent of their mother and the scent of another woman. b. can distinguish between the scent of their mother and the scent of another woman but do not show a preference. c. prefer their own mother's scent to that of another woman. d. prefer the scent of another woman to that of their mother.

152. When an infant turns her head and opens her mouth in the direction of a touch, she is demonstrating the _____ reflex. a. rooting b. sucking c. swallowing d. moro 153. Which statement about research on infants' and adults' ability to differentiate between pairs of human faces and between pairs of monkey faces is TRUE? a. By the age of 6 months, infants can successfully differentiate between pairs of monkey faces and between pairs of human faces, and this ability remains constant throughout life. b. At 6 months of age, infants can successfully differentiate between pairs of human faces but not between pairs of monkey faces, and this pattern remains throughout adulthood. c. At 6 months of age, infants can successfully differentiate between pairs of human faces and between pairs of monkey faces, but older infants and adults have lost the ability to differentiate between monkey faces. d. At 6 months of age, infants are unable to differentiate between pairs of human faces and between pairs of monkey faces, but both of these abilities develop by the age of 9 months.

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Chap 05_6ce 154. Learning the relations between one's own behaviour and its consequences is a. statistical learning. b. instrumental conditioning. c. classical conditioning. d. perceptual learning.

155. Which statement about the association between speed of habituation in infancy and general cognitive ability is TRUE? a. There is no association between habituation in infancy and general cognitive ability. b. There is a small association between habituation in infancy and general cognitive ability in early childhood, but this association disappears later in life. c. There is a large association between habituation in infancy and general cognitive ability in early childhood, but this association disappears later in life. d. There is a substantial association between habituation in infancy and general cognitive ability even into adulthood.

156. Research by Hannon and Trehub on North American infants as well as North American and Balkan adults demonstrated that _____ perceived changes in simple rhythms, and _____ perceived changes in complex rhythms. a. all groups; infants b. all groups; infants and Balkan adults c. infants and Balkan adults; Balkan adults d. both groups of adults; infants 157. Researchers are able to assess infants' _____ using the preferential-looking method. a. habituation b. visual acuity c. contrast sensitivity d. visual scanning 158. _____ is an example of a scale error. a. Attempting to put one's own foot into a tiny doll shoe b. Attempting to reach for an object that is too far away c. Misjudging that one can successfully walk down a too-steep incline d. Mistakenly believing that a large sponge is heavier than a large rock

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Chap 05_6ce 159. The violation-of-expectancy procedure is founded on the expectation that infants a. lose interest in events that are familiar. b. look longer at possible events. c. are interested in events that are inconsistent with their knowledge. d. lose interest in events that violate their expectations.

160. By _____, toddlers are as good at learning labels from objects via video chat as they are from in-person interactions. a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 2 years d. 3 years 161. Which scenario is the BEST example of an infant's discovery of an affordance? a. Roger learns that the beep of a microwave often means he will soon be given his bottle. b. Xena learns to bang on a drum by watching her brother bang on it. c. Henry learns that his grandma kisses him whenever she holds him. d. Leah learns that she can sit in chairs that are low to the ground.

162. Scale errors are thought to be a result of young children's a. overconfidence in their own abilities. b. underdeveloped depth perception. c. failure to integrate perception and planning of action. d. inexperience with self-locomotion.

163. Research on the music perception of infants has NOT demonstrated that North American infants a. have preferences for some musical sounds over others. b. can remember the key of songs they have heard previously. c. are able to perceive note changes that adults are unable to perceive. d. are less able to detect changes in complex rhythm than are adults.

164. Which factor is involved in active learning? a. surprise b. motivation c. improved neural mechanisms d. rational learning

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Chap 05_6ce 165. In terms of perceptual and motor development, which statement does NOT present a reason as to why infancy is such an important time? a. Extremely rapid changes occur in perception, action, learning, and cognition during the first 2 years of life. b. Infant development in perception, action, learning, and cognition are intertwined. c. The methods used to investigate infants' development in perception, action, learning, and cognition are similar to methods used to study older children. d. Most recent research on perceptual and motor development has focused on infants and young children.

166. The brains of 7-month-old infants process the locations at which other people are touched using the corresponding areas of their own a. somatosensory cortex. b. hindbrain. c. cerebellum. d. motor cortex.

167. What is perceptual narrowing? Provide at least one example of perceptual narrowing, and explain its benefit.

168. Describe the process by which an infant might learn to make his siblings laugh through (a) instrumental conditioning and (b) observational learning.

169. Describe the visual abilities of newborn infants and research methodologies used to study infant vision development.

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Chap 05_6ce 170. Provide a detailed explanation of how infants' motor development occurs.

171. Provide a detailed description of how researchers have examined 4-month-old infants' auditory–visual intermodal perception, and discuss the results of these studies.

172. Discuss three cues used for depth perception. For each type of cue, provide a definition, an example, and the age at which it develops.

173. Explain some of the different reflexes that are present at birth and provide an example of each one you describe. Make sure to highlight which reflexes have adaptive significance and which do not.

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Chap 05_6ce Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. d 52. d 53. b 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. c 75. a 76. d 77. d 78. c 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce 83. b 84. d 85. d 86. b 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. b 93. b 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. d 101. c 102. a 103. d 104. a 105. c 106. a 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce 111. c 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. b 116. b 117. b 118. c 119. d 120. a 121. d 122. d 123. c 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. b 128. a 129. a 130. c 131. b 132. a 133. a 134. a 135. c 136. d 137. d

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Chap 05_6ce 138. b 139. c 140. d 141. a 142. b 143. b 144. d 145. b 146. a 147. d 148. d 149. b 150. b 151. c 152. a 153. c 154. b 155. d 156. b 157. b 158. a 159. c 160. c 161. d 162. c 163. d 164. a 165. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_6ce 166. a 167. Perceptual narrowing is defined as developmental changes in which experiences fine-tune the perceptual system.

Perceptual narrowing can be seen when infants, who are relatively inexperienced with music, can detect differences between musical stimuli that adults cannot. Developmental changes in which experience fine-tunes the perceptual system are observed across numerous domains, such as face perception and speech production. In these instances, experience leads the young learner to begin to "lose" the ability to make distinctions that he or she could make at earlier points in development. In each case, this perceptual narrowing permits the developing child to become especially attuned to patterns in biological and social stimuli that are important in his or her environment.

168. (a) Instrumental conditioning is another name for operant conditioning. This is a form of learning where infants learn through positive reinforcement. So, in the case of learning laughter, an infant would be rewarded for laughing in a social context. Rewards can be affection from adults or others in the social setting. Once the infant is rewarded for the behaviour, he is more likely to repeat it. (b) Observational learning is learning that occurs due to modelling or imitating the behaviour of those around us. In the case of learning to laugh, the infant would see others laughing in the environment and would then imitate the behaviour that they see.

169. It was originally assumed that newborn infants' vision was underdeveloped and that they could barely function in this area. However, this is false. Newborns are able to see at birth and immediately begin using their eyes to explore their world by scanning their surroundings and pausing to look at objects of interest. While the vision of newborns is not as developed as that of adults, their vision develops rapidly in the first few months of life.

Researchers studying the vision development of infants have used preferential looking, automatic eye trackers, head-mounted infant eye trackers, and habituation.

170. While there is some variation in the timing of motor skill development, most infants will roll over between 2 and 5 months of age, sit without support between 5 and 8 months of age, pull self to a standing position between 6 and 10 months of age, and walk independently between 11 and 15 months of age. Early motor development results from a confluence of numerous factors that include developing neural mechanisms; increases in infants' strength, posture control, balance, and perceptual skills; as well as changes in body proportions and motivation. And as motor development progresses, infants are better able to explore and manipulate the world around them, which facilitates learning about the world.

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Chap 05_6ce 171. Through the phenomenon of intermodal perception, the combining of information from two or more sensory systems, including vision and auditory, an event is experienced as a unitary, coherent event. Research suggests that infants can integrate information received from their various senses. Researchers have discovered that infants possess various forms of auditory–visual intermodal perception. In studies of this mode of perception, infants simultaneously view two different videos side by side, while listening to a soundtrack that is synchronized with one of the videos but not the other. If an infant responds more to the video that goes with the soundtrack, it is taken as evidence that the infant detects the common structure in the auditory and visual information. Another study showed 4-month-olds two videos: one presented a person playing peekaboo, and the other presented a hand beating a drumstick against a block. The infants responded more to the film that matched the sounds they were hearing. When they heard a voice saying "Peekaboo!" they looked more at the person, but when they heard a beating sound, they looked longer at the hand. In another study, 4-month-olds responded more to a film of a "hopping" toy animal in which the sounds of impact coincided with the animal's landing on a surface than they did to a film in which the impact sounds occurred while the animal was in midair. At this age, infants can also draw more abstract connections between sights and sounds. Three- to 4-month-olds look longer at visual displays in which dimensions in each modality are congruent, such as a ball rising and falling at the same rate as a whistle rising and falling in pitch. One of the most dramatic demonstrations of auditory–visual blending is an illusion known as the McGurk effect. To elicit this illusion, the auditory syllable ba is dubbed onto a video of a person speaking the syllable ga. Someone watching this display will hear the syllable da, which is intermediate between ba and ga. Research has shown that 4½-month-olds can experience this illusion: they treat the da sound as familiar after familiarization with the McGurk stimulus, even though they did not actually ever hear da.

172. Depth perception and distance knowledge are both needed to successfully navigate the environment. One cue that infants are sensitive to very early on is optical expansion, in which the visual image of an object increases in size as the object comes towards us. Having two eyes also aids in the early development of depth perception. Because of the distance between our eyes, the retinal image of an object at any instant is never quite the same in both eyes.

Consequently, the eyes never send the same signal to the brain, a phenomenon known as binocular disparity. The closer the object we are looking at, the greater the disparity between the two images; the farther away the object, the less the disparity. In a process known as stereopsis, the visual cortex computes the degree of disparity between the eyes' differing neural signals and produces the perception of depth. This form of depth perception emerges quite suddenly at around 4 months of age and is generally complete within a few weeks. At about 6 months of age, infants begin to become sensitive to a variety of monocular depth cues. These cues are also known as pictorial cues because they can be used to portray depth in pictures.

173. All newborns are born with organized patterns of actions known as reflexes. Some of these have adaptive qualities while others do not. Some of the major newborn reflexes include the grasping reflex, where the newborns close their fingers around anything that presses against the palm of their hand. When their cheek is stroked, infants demonstrate the rooting reflex by turning their head in the direction of the touch and opening their mouth. Oral contact with a bottle or breast nipple results in the sucking reflex, followed by the swallowing reflex. Both of these reflexes are needed for survival. Other reflexes, such as the tonic neck reflex, do not have known survival qualities. For this reflex, when an infant's head turns or is to one side, the arm on that side of the body extends while the arm and knee on the other side flex.

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Chap 06_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Imagine that a young child is presented with a novel word, "encyclopedia," when her grandmother says, "Oh, look at the encyclopedia." In front of the child are two objects, a bright pink-covered book—"book" is a word the child already knows—and a green onion, an object the child has never seen before. The child is MOST likely to make the assumption that the novel word refers to the a. book. b. pages of the book. c. onion. d. colour of the onion.

2. Which statement about infant-directed speech is NOT true? a. Infant-directed speech affects infants' attention to language. b. Infant-directed speech is necessary for language mastery. c. Infants learn new words better when the words are presented in infant-directed speech. d. Infants prefer infant-directed speech to adult-directed speech, even when it is in an unfamiliar language.

3. Imagine that a young child is presented with a novel word, "puppy," when her uncle says, "What a sweet puppy" In front of the child are two objects, a stuffed dog—"dog" is a word the child already knows—and a can opener, an object the child has never seen before. The child makes the assumption that the novel word refers to the can opener through an expectation referred to as a. the mutual exclusivity assumption. b. fast mapping. c. the whole-object assumption. d. cross-situational word learning.

4. Studies of congenitally deaf children who had never been exposed to any formal sign language demonstrated that the children a. learned only a small number of "homesigns," and did so by modelling their parents. b. invented only a small number of "homesigns" to communicate just their basic needs. c. spontaneously imposed a rudimentary grammar using their "home signs." d. combined their "home signs" in a structure similar to that of their parents' spoken language.

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Chap 06_6ce 5. Which of these is the LEAST convincing piece of evidence for the sensitive-period hypothesis related to language development? a. Genie's language ability never fully developed. b. Different neural mechanisms are used to process a second language by individuals who learned the second language in infancy and those who learned a second language after puberty. c. The most proficient English speakers amongst immigrants to the United States are those who began learning English before age 7. d. Adults are more likely than are children to experience permanent language impairment from brain damage.

6. Which cue would a young child NOT be able to use when interpreting the meaning of a novel word used by an adult? a. where the adult is looking or pointing b. whether the novel word was used as a noun, an adjective, or a verb c. the intentionality of the adult using the novel word d. Young children are capable of using all these cues to interpret word meaning.

7. Which statement about infant-directed speech is TRUE? a. Infant-directed speech is used in all cultures. b. Infant-directed speech is used only by mothers. c. Infant preference for infant-directed speech may be a result of its emotional tone. d. Infant-directed speech applies only to spoken languages; sign language by deaf mothers does not have any characteristics of infant-directed speech.

8. Which speech sound is LEAST likely to be uttered by an infant who has not yet begun to babble? a. goo b. gaga c. aaah d. oooh 9. Six-month-old Liana, 9-month-old Joshua, and 11-month-old Sadie all live in English-speaking homes in English-speaking communities. Which statement is MOST likely to be true about their abilities to discriminate amongst sounds that are found in Mandarin Chinese but are not found in English? a. Liana will be the most able. b. Sadie will be the most able. c. Liana and Joshua will be equally able, and both will be more able than Sadie. d. Joshua and Sadie will be equally able, and both will be more able than Liana.

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Chap 06_6ce 10. The utterances of nonhuman communicators are considered to have limited or no _____, which is a defining feature of language. a. semantics b. morphemes c. phonemes d. syntax 11. Nate is 2 years old and is talking to his mother. Which statement is his mother MOST likely to correct? a. "I maded this picture for you." b. "No do that." c. "Gooses have four legs." d. "I wuv you."

12. Research has demonstrated that viewing of infant educational videos by infants around the age of 12 months is a. related to increases in vocabulary only when caregivers view the videos with the infants. b. positively associated with vocabulary size. c. negatively associated with vocabulary size. d. unrelated to vocabulary size.

13. The notion that an infinite number of sentences and ideas can be expressed through a finite set of words is referred to as a. production. b. generativity. c. construction. d. infinitivity.

14. What can parents do to positively influence their preschoolers' ability to produce narratives? a. ask elaborative questions during conversations b. teach grammatical rules when reading books c. encourage the child to think about future events d. model complex word combinations 15. Johnson and Newport's study of the English proficiency of Korean and Chinese immigrants in the United States demonstrated that knowledge of English grammar was associated with the a. length of time individuals had lived in the United States. b. age at which individuals began learning English. c. individuals' motivation to learn English. d. length of time individuals had lived in the United States and the age at which individuals began learning English.

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Chap 06_6ce 16. The study by Eimas and colleagues that examined infants' comprehension of speech sounds varying between /b/ and /p/ used which technique? a. habituation b. preferential listening c. examination of facial expressions d. violation of expectancy 17. Which idea is NOT used as evidence to support nativist views of language development? a. Children acquire language very rapidly and with no direct instruction. b. Nonhumans are unable to learn language. c. Children are motivated to use language to communicate with others. d. Groups of deaf children not exposed to language invented their own sign language.

18. Using signs to communicate is referred to as a. comprehension. b. knowledge. c. construction. d. production.

19. Toddler Arielle sees a baby being tickled by a boy and hears her mother say, "The boy is tickling the baby."

Arielle has never heard anyone use the word "tickling." Arielle figures out that "tickling" is what the boy is doing to the baby, not what the baby is doing (laughing and waving her arms in delight), through a. syntactic bootstrapping. b. intersubjectivity. c. fast mapping. d. attending to the linguistic category of the novel word.

20. Infants likely learn _____ from the distributional properties of language. a. that the distinction between /ba/ and /pa/ is important in their language b. the meaning of the sound produced by "ed" as in "walked" c. that the sound /ch/ frequently comes before the sound /oo/ but never before the sound /b/ d. the meaning of the sound produced by "s" in "runs" 21. In one study cited in the text, when preschool children were shown a picture of a catlike animal and an experimenter either simply labeled the animal "dog" (group A) or said, "You're not going to believe this, but this is actually a dog" (group B), how likely were the children to extend the word to other catlike stimuli? a. In that study, both groups of children readily extended the word. b. In that study, both groups of children were similarly reluctant to extend the word. c. In that study, Group A was more reluctant than was group B to extend the word. d. In that study, Group B was more reluctant than was group A to extend the word.

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Chap 06_6ce 22. The number of words children know is NOT related to a. the number of words that they hear. b. their caregivers' vocabularies. c. their socioeconomic status. d. their genetic predisposition to acquire language.

23. Morphemes refer to the a. rules for combining words of a language. b. elementary units of sound. c. pairs of words in a language that have the same sound but different meanings. d. smallest units of meaning.

24. The average 5-year-old child is _____ the average college student at the basic grammatical structure of his or her native language. a. much less competent than b. slightly less competent than c. as competent as d. more competent than 25. Bilingual infants are less likely than are monolingual infants to a. abide by the whole-object assumption. b. follow the mutual-exclusivity principle. c. learn words with fast mapping. d. use pragmatic cues.

26. Children's syntactic development refers to their learning of the a. meaning system and words of their language. b. cultural rules for how their language is used. c. rules for combining the words in their language. d. sound system of their language.

27. Which utterance is the MOST developmentally advanced? a. "Read book." b. "Am reading book." c. "Book!" d. "Me read book."

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Chap 06_6ce 28. The phenomenon that in any language, certain sounds are more likely to occur together than are others is referred to as a. prosody. b. pragmatics. c. word segmentation. d. distributional properties.

29. Children's first sentences can often be described as _____ speech. a. holophrastic b. telegraphic c. overregulated d. pragmatic 30. According to Noam Chomsky, babies are born with a. a learning module that controls language acquisition and other aspects of cognitive functioning. b. knowledge of the specific sounds involved in language. c. knowledge of the general grammatical rules of all languages. d. a genetic predisposition to acquire non-native language.

31. Which word is generally the first word spoken by infants who speak English? a. daddy b. hi c. milk d. no 32. Theorists who have disputed Chomsky's view of language development by pointing out that the communicative function of language is key to understanding language development would be MOST interested in a. electrical activity in the brain taking place while speaking. b. deaf children's development of their own sign language with a regular grammatical structure in the absence of language exposure. c. children's ability to use social context to interpret others' speech. d. the statistical regularities of speech.

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Chap 06_6ce 33. Which statement about infants' early word production is NOT true? a. The proportion of nouns in very young children's vocabulary is related to the proportion of nouns in their mothers' speech to them. b. The rate of vocabulary development is associated with the amount of speech infants hear. c. One-word utterances typically have the same meaning as adults' single words. d. Highly educated mothers have children with larger vocabularies than those of children with lesseducated mothers.

34. Avi is 13 months old and has a large vocabulary for her age. The words she can say are referred to as her a. distributional properties. b. productive vocabulary. c. categorical perception. d. word segmentation.

35. _____ refers to the fact that certain sounds are more likely to appear together than are others in language. a. Distributional properties b. Voice onset time c. Categorical perception d. Word segmentation 36. An overly narrow interpretation of the meaning of a word is called a. overextension. b. underextension. c. babbling. d. pragmatics.

37. Which of these skills typically develops LATEST? a. reciprocal conversation b. comprehension of multiple meanings of words c. ability to use information about others' perspectives in conversation d. production of narratives 38. Research examining groups of deaf children who had no exposure to formal spoken or signed languages has demonstrated that a. children rarely go beyond the linguistic input they receive. b. although children sometimes go beyond the linguistic input they receive, their spontaneous language remains far from qualifying as a true language. c. children do go beyond the linguistic input they receive, and their spontaneous language can develop into a true language. d. children who are not exposed to a formal language are unable to comprehend or produce language.

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Chap 06_6ce 39. _____ is NOT an example of a way in which adults help toddlers learn words. a. Putting vocal stress on new words b. Repeating new words c. Saying new words in the first position in a sentence d. Labelling objects when the child is attending to them 40. Which of these would NOT be considered a symbol? a. spoken language b. a picture c. a map d. a facial expression 41. Infants' preparations for speaking do NOT include a. practice producing sounds. b. games like peekaboo. c. following an adult's gaze when the adult is talking. d. discovering where words begin and end in fluent speech.

42. Kayla is talking to her infant daughter. Based on what you know about IDS, you can expect Kayla to do all of these EXCEPT a. use slower speech. b. enhance the clarity of vowel sounds. c. show less pitch variability. d. use exaggerated facial expressions.

43. The perception of speech sounds as belonging to discrete categories is known as a. prosody. b. voice onset time. c. categorical perception. d. word segmentation.

44. Which factor is NOT involved in learning language? a. phonological development b. semantic development c. pragmatic development d. production development

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Chap 06_6ce 45. Two-year-old Shana is shown a novel object. The object is 6 centimetres wide, is made out of blue wire, and is in the shape of an octagon. An adult tells Shana, "This is a glub." Of these objects, which is Shana MOST likely to later believe is a glub? a. a 12-centimetre octagonal object made out of red felt b. a 6-centimetre square object made out of green ceramic c. a 2-centimetre triangular object made out of blue plastic d. a 10-centimetre rectangular object made out of orange wire 46. In regard to their ability to learn language, nonhuman primates a. have essentially no ability to learn how to use words to communicate. b. can learn vocabulary and symbol combinations, but the communicative system they can acquire is not generally considered to be a language. c. naturally use language to communicate with other members of their species, although their languages are not as complex as human languages. d. do not have the vocal apparatus for producing speech, but when they are taught a sign language, they are able to learn a complex language.

47. Determining word meanings by tracking the correlations between labels and meanings across scenes and contexts is known as a. the mutual exclusivity assumption. b. fast mapping. c. the whole-object assumption. d. cross-situational word learning.

48. Which type of word is generally the MOST prominent amongst the first words English-speaking children learn? a. noun b. verb c. adjective d. preposition 49. The study by Eimas and colleagues that examined infants' comprehension of speech sounds demonstrated that 1- and 4-month-old infants differentiated between a. /pa/ with a VOT of 60 ms and /pa/ with a VOT of 80 ms. b. /ba/ with a VOT of 20 ms and /pa/ with a VOT of 40 ms. c. /pa/ with a VOT of 20 ms and /pa/ with a VOT of 40 ms. d. /ba/ with a VOT of 60 ms and /pa/ with a VOT of 80 ms.

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Chap 06_6ce 50. Which child is demonstrating overextension? a. Mandi uses the word "cup" for any container that holds liquid, including vases and birdbaths. b. Carla substitutes easier sounds for ones that are hard to say, such as "tuck" for "stuck." c. Eddie expresses his desire for his parents to read to him by using a single word, "book." d. Robbie leaves out difficult parts of words, as when he uses "tend" for the word "pretend."

51. Researchers with a connectionist view of language development would be MOST interested in a. young children's sensitivity to pragmatic cues. b. specific links between particular brain structures and specific language abilities. c. critical periods for language acquisition. d. children's overregularization errors.

52. Adults perceive speech sounds a. continuously. b. categorically, when the sounds come from their native language, and continuously, when the sounds do not come from their native language. c. categorically, perceiving all phonemic categories used in human language. d. categorically, perceiving only phonemic contrasts used in their native language.

53. Descriptions of past events that have the basic structure of a story are referred to as a. collective monologues. b. anecdotes. c. cooperative dialogues. d. narratives.

54. What is intersubjectivity? a. judgments made across time periods b. when two interacting partners share a mutual understanding c. infants' ability to determine meanings of words from context d. use of the grammatical structure of an entire sentence to figure out meaning 55. Which statement about children who are exposed to two languages from birth is NOT true? a. Children exposed to two languages often confuse the grammar of the two languages. b. Children exposed to two languages may appear to lag behind monolingual children on some language measures. c. Children exposed to two languages tend to perform better than monolingual children on cognitive measures. d. Children exposed to two languages correctly use the phonological systems of each language to pronounce words in that language and not words in the other language.

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Chap 06_6ce 56. Which of these factors is NOT a pragmatic cue? a. focus of the speaker's attention b. grammatical category of the word c. speaker's intention d. speaker's emotional response 57. Which phrase is an example of overregularization? a. referring to all four-legged animals as "doggie" b. calling a rabbit "wabbit" c. using the word "gooses" d. using the word "elbow" to refer to a knee 58. There are more than _____ languages worldwide that are based on gestures, including ASL. a. 100 b. 150 c. 200 d. 400 59. The study by DeLoache and her colleagues that used a "shrinking room" demonstrated that young children's trouble with scale models is due to their a. trouble dealing with dual representation. b. inability to remember the location of a hidden toy. c. poor imagination skills. d. difficulty comprehending the meaning of maps.

60. _____ is a system in which a finite set of words can be combined to generate an infinite number of sentences. a. Comprehension b. Production c. Generativity d. Symbolic thought 61. The length of time between when air passes through the lips and when the vocal cords start vibrating is referred to as a. prosody. b. voice onset time. c. categorical perception. d. word segmentation.

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Chap 06_6ce 62. The fact that only humans acquire language in the normal course of development indicates that language is a. species-specific. b. species-universal. c. pragmatic. d. syntactic.

63. The fact that language learning is achieved by typically developing infants across the globe indicates that language is a. species-specific. b. species-universal. c. pragmatic. d. syntactic.

64. Steffy is a baby who uses "baby signs." It can be expected that she a. may be deaf. b. will experience delays in the development of spoken language. c. is emotionally disturbed. d. will have a larger spoken vocabulary at age 3.

65. Maggie has just begun to babble. How old is she likely to be? a. 8 weeks b. 5 months c. 7 months d. 12 months 66. The ability to understand what another person says is called language a. comprehension. b. knowledge. c. construction. d. production.

67. Children's phonological development refers to their learning of the a. meaning system and words of their language. b. cultural rules for how their language is used. c. rules for combining the words in their language. d. sound system of their language.

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Chap 06_6ce 68. Which theorist proposed Universal Grammar? a. Skinner b. Newport c. Chomsky d. Pinker 69. _____ is NOT a symbolic artifact. a. A map b. A scale model c. The written word "tree" d. A phone 70. A broad interpretation of the meaning of a word is referred to as a. overextension. b. underextension. c. babbling. d. pragmatics.

71. In the English language, the _____ is an example of a morpheme. a. word "called" b. plural "s" c. sound /th/ d. /r/ sound 72. The distinctive mode of speech used when speaking to infants and toddlers is referred to as a. infant-directed speech. b. prosody. c. pragmatics. d. syntax.

73. When caregivers follow the baby's lead, looking at and commenting on whatever the infant is looking at, _____ has occurred. a. judgement b. orientation c. joint attention d. prosody

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Chap 06_6ce 74. Children's overregularization errors are an indicator that they a. use words they are able to produce in place of those they are not yet able to produce. b. internalize grammatical rules. c. are able to remove the nonessential elements of speech to reduce the number of words per utterance. d. memorize the plural forms of individual nouns and the tenses of individual verbs.

75. Infants' sensitivity to the distributional properties of the speech they hear helps them a. pick words out of speech streams. b. differentiate between speech sounds and nonspeech sounds. c. pay more attention to their mothers' speech than to other people's speech. d. attend to paternal speech patterns.

76. Toddler Arielle sees a baby being tickled by a boy and hears her mother say, "The boy is tickling the baby."

Arielle, who has never heard anyone use the word "tickling," is MOST likely a. not to consider what the word "tickling" refers to, as young children are unable to determine the meaning of a word after a single exposure. b. to know that the word "tickling" is relevant to the scene she has just witnessed, but not be able to determine whether "tickling" refers to what the boy did, what the baby did, or what the two of them did together. c. to believe that "tickling" refers to what the baby did. d. to believe that "tickling" refers to what the boy did.

77. Research examining the association between infants' ability to detect differences amongst speech sounds at the age of 6 months and their later language skills has demonstrated that 6-month-old infants a. who were better able to detect differences scored higher on some tests of language skills at later ages. b. who were better able to detect differences scored lower on some tests of language skills at later ages. c. varied in their ability to detect differences, but there was no association between this ability and later language skills. d. did not vary in their ability to detect differences, and thus there was no association between this ability and later language skills.

78. Infants generally begin to associate words with their referents a. at 3 months of age. b. at 12 months of age. c. well before they can produce any words. d. with explicit instruction by their caregivers.

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Chap 06_6ce 79. The words a child can say are referred to as the child's a. distributional properties. b. productive vocabulary. c. categorical perception. d. word segmentation.

80. Children are MOST likely to extend a novel noun to a novel object with the same a. texture. b. shape. c. colour. d. size.

81. Dual representation refers to the notion that a symbolic artifact must be represented as both a. a real object and something useful. b. something useful and a depiction of something other than itself. c. a depiction of something other than itself and a real object. d. a communicative device and a real object.

82. Which of these has been established by studying people's response to speech sounds? a. stress patterns b. distributional properties c. distinctions between speech sounds d. all of these 83. Which statement about toddlers and word order is TRUE? a. Children in the telegraphic speech phase are as likely to say two words in the correct order for their native language as to say the two words in the wrong order. b. Children know about the correct order for word combinations before they put two words together themselves. c. Children learn about word order through trial and error. d. Word order is consistent across most languages of the world, so children's appropriate use of word order is experience-independent.

84. Language is a. neither species-specific nor species-universal. b. species-specific. c. species-universal. d. both species-specific and species-universal.

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Chap 06_6ce 85. Jaimson is right-handed. This means that language is primarily represented in a. the left hemisphere of his brain. b. the right hemisphere of his brain. c. the left and right hemispheres of his brain equally. d. either hemisphere of his brain, as individuals differ greatly as to which part of their brain controls language.

86. In the English language, "walked" contains "walk" and "ed," which are both a. words. b. morphemes. c. phonemes. d. syntax.

87. When young children talk with their peers, they generally a. speak holophrastically. b. listen to each other's narratives. c. take turns talking in a series of non sequiturs. d. engage in lengthy dialogues.

88. Learning _____ is considered part of pragmatic development. a. how to produce the /r/ sound b. the rules of negation c. how to take turns during conversations with others d. the contrast between the meanings of the words "table" and "desk" 89. The characteristic intonation patterns, tempo, rhythm, and cadence with which a language is spoken are referred to as a. harmony. b. melody. c. accent. d. prosody.

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Chap 06_6ce 90. Baby Jane lives with her family for 5 months and then is adopted by a family that lives in a different country and speaks a different language. According to research, in regard to Baby Jane's ability to distinguish amongst speech sounds in her new environment, it is likely that she will be able to a. make only distinctions that were relevant in her native environment. b. make distinctions in her new environment but will show greater ability in the sounds that are similar to those heard in her native environment. c. make distinctions in her new environment with nearly the same proficiency as in her native environment. d. develop her ability to make distinctions in her new environment over her first year.

91. Which statement about children's use of private speech is TRUE? a. Young children's use of private speech when in the presence of others is a possible sign of developmental delay. b. Young children talk to themselves primarily as a form of entertainment. c. Private speech typically ceases at about the same time children begin to string three words together. d. Private speech eventually becomes internalized as thought.

92. Which statement is evidence of general learning mechanisms that underlie all learning? a. Distributional learning helps infants track sequences of human actions. b. First words are similar across cultures. c. Children with no exposure to language have been observed to develop their own language. d. Identical twins develop their own language to communicate with each other.

93. Which statement about infants' ability to distinguish between speech sounds is TRUE? a. Newborns can discriminate only between speech sounds they have heard before. b. Newborns possess an innate ability to discriminate between speech sounds they have never heard before. c. Babies must learn to distinguish between speech sounds as they learn which contrasts are important for their native language. d. Babies gain the ability to distinguish between speech sounds that are not used in their native language as they mature.

94. In a study by Hirsh-Pasek and Golinkoff, when infants were shown two videotaped scenes, one with a woman kissing keys while holding a ball and the other with a woman kissing a ball while holding keys and hearing "She's kissing the keys," infants a. were sensitive to word order. b. learned from syntactic bootstrapping. c. used intention to comprehend meaning. d. did all of these.

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Chap 06_6ce 95. The finding that infants pay attention to the speaker's intentions when interpreting the meaning of the speaker's words supports the importance of _____ in language development. a. the simultaneous activity of interconnected processing units b. Universal Grammar c. a language-specific learning module d. social interaction 96. Which statement about the vocalizations and babbling of deaf infants is TRUE? a. Until approximately 6 months of age, deaf infants produce vocalizations similar to those of hearing infants. b. The vocal babbling of deaf infants begins at the same time as that of hearing babies. c. Deaf infants exposed to ASL begin babbling manually at about 12 months of age. d. Deaf infants do not engage in vocal babbling.

97. _____ is an example of a symbolic activity. a. Listening to music b. Drawing a picture c. Helping to make cookies d. Going to a restaurant 98. Which of these is NOT associated with IDS? a. pitch variability. b. few questions. c. slower speech. d. word repetition.

99. When young children converse with other young children, their conversations can generally be described as a. monologues. b. collective monologues. c. dialogues. d. collective dialogues.

100. Which statement is an indicator that babbling by older infants depends on experience? a. Babies babble sounds that are not in their native language. b. Deaf infants babble vocally and manually. c. French adults were able to distinguish between babbling by babies from French-speaking families and babbling by babies from Arabic- and Cantonese-speaking families. d. Infants and toddlers who babble do so in their native language.

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Chap 06_6ce 101. Based on the research reviewed in the text, which statement is the BEST advice one could give new parents regarding viewing of educational videos by their infants? a. Keep viewing under 1 hour per day. b. There is no amount of video viewing that has been demonstrated to be valuable. c. View educational videos with your baby. d. Ensure that your baby watches only educational videos.

102. Which statement presents the BEST evidence of a sensitive period for language development? a. Deaf adults who learned ASL as their native language are more proficient than those who learned ASL as a second language. b. Genie eventually learned to comprehend and speak English after intensive training. c. Adults are more likely than children to suffer permanent language impairment from brain damage. d. The length of time Chinese and Korean immigrants had been in the United States was more strongly associated with their English proficiency than was the age at which they had come to the United States.

103. Branson and Amanda want to make sure that their child speaks both English and Spanish. Which statement is the BEST advice for these parents? a. As long as the child is exposed to the second language for an extended period of time, it does not matter when exposure to the language begins. b. Wait to expose the child to a second language until he or she is old enough to be motivated to learn the language. c. Expose the child to the second language as early as possible. d. Begin exposure to the second language well after you are sure the child has learned the native language completely and proficiently.

104. In the study by Brown cited in the text in which preschool children were shown hands kneading material in a container, young children tended to interpret "some sib" as the a. material. b. container. c. act of kneading. d. any of these.

105. The foundation of intersubjectivity is a. judgement. b. orientation. c. joint attention. d. prosody.

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Chap 06_6ce 106. A study by Baldwin in which an experimenter showed 18-month-olds two novel objects and then concealed those objects in containers demonstrated that children a. use adults' focus of attention as a cue to word meaning. b. are influenced by the grammatical category of new words. c. often make incorrect assumptions about the meaning of new words. d. are unable to use intentionality when interpreting the meaning of novel words.

107. The history of Nicaraguan Sign Language (NSL) and its status as a true language with its own grammar is evidence for the _____ view of language development. a. interactionist b. nativist c. connectionist d. gestural-language specificity 108. Research conducted by Fernald on infants' comprehension of the meaning of the emotional tone of infantdirected speech indicated that a. infants cannot differentiate between positively toned and negatively toned speech. b. although infants can differentiate between positively toned and negatively toned speech, they do not behave as if they comprehend the meaning of the emotional tone. c. infants exhibit appropriate facial emotion when listening to positively toned and negatively toned speech. d. infants can differentiate between positively toned and negatively toned speech only in their native language.

109. In the English language, syntactic development involves learning the difference between a. "tree" and "grass." b. "tree" and "trees." c. "The tree is growing in the grass" and "The grass is growing in the tree." d. "The bees are in the tree" and "The bees are in the grass."

110. Using the distributional properties of language is an example of what type of learning? a. statistical learning b. habituation c. perceptual learning d. instrumental conditioning

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Chap 06_6ce 111. Samantha is experiencing a "vocabulary spurt." How old is she likely to be? a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 24 months 112. In the English language, /d/ and /k/ are examples of a. letters. b. morphemes. c. phonemes. d. syntax.

113. A _____ is a symbol. a. word b. person's smile c. computer d. colour 114. Of these phrases, which is MOST likely to be spoken by a child in the telegraphic speech phase? a. "Ouch head" b. "The bunny" c. "Apple eat" d. "Baby sleeping" 115. Preschoolers Cal and Jacob are playing with toy trucks. Jacob says, "My mommy took me to watch the construction at the end of the street." Cal responds, "This dump truck is yellow and black. I have one like this at my house." Then Jacob says, "They were digging up the road with a backhoe. They are putting a big pipe under the road." Cal then says, "I also have a green cement truck. It can turn. I got it for my birthday."

This conversation is an example of a. telegraphic speech. b. a cooperative dialogue. c. parallel speech. d. a collective monologue.

116. The cultural practice of referring to ships as female is an example of something an individual would learn with _____ development. a. semantic b. metalinguistic c. pragmatic d. syntactic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_6ce 117. To use a map, children must be able to understand it as a. a piece of paper with lines and pictures. b. a representation of real roads and buildings. c. both a piece of paper and a representation of something real. d. a valuable symbolic artifact.

118. Which expression is an example of telegraphic speech? a. "Mommy!" b. "Want Mommy!" c. "I need Mommy!" d. "Mommy, would you please come here?"

119. In studies by DeLoache and her colleagues, 2½-year-olds who could not use the information from the scale model to find the large version of the toy in the large room were said to be having trouble representing the model as a. a real object. b. a symbol. c. either a real object or a symbol. d. a communicative device.

120. Syntactic bootstrapping refers to children's use of the _____ as a cue to figure out the meaning of a novel word. a. focus of adults' attention b. grammatical category of the novel word c. structure of the whole sentence d. contrastive use of a familiar and an unfamiliar word 121. Toddler Seth calls all his stuffed animals—including teddy bears, bunnies, dogs, and ducks—bear. When shown pictures of a teddy bear and a toy stuffed rabbit and asked to point to the bear, which behaviour is Seth's MOST likely response? a. He will point to both the rabbit and the bear. b. He will point to neither the rabbit nor the bear. c. He will point to only the bear. d. It is unclear whether he will point to the bear or the rabbit, but he will point to one and only one of the objects.

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Chap 06_6ce 122. Which statement about the results of Janet Werker's research on 6- to 12-month-old infants' ability to distinguish between speech sounds that are not important in their native language is TRUE? a. Infants of all ages were able to distinguish between the speech sounds. b. Infants of all ages were unable to distinguish between the speech sounds. c. Infants 6 to 8 months old were unable to distinguish between the speech sounds, but 10- to 12month-olds were able to make the distinctions. d. Infants 6 to 8 months old were able to distinguish between the speech sounds, but 10- to 12-montholds were unable to make the distinctions.

123. Learning _____ is considered part of semantic development. a. how to produce the /r/ sound b. the rules of negation c. how to take turns during conversations with others d. the contrast between the meanings of the words "table" and "desk" 124. What is the MOST common drawing subject for young children? a. tree b. house c. person d. sun 125. Which word is one of the first words spoken in English, Mandarin, and Cantonese? a. daddy b. hi c. milk d. no 126. _____ is a way in which parents play a role in their children's grammatical development. a. Explicit instruction of grammar b. Filling in missing parts of incomplete utterances c. Correcting grammatical errors d. Direct teaching of the native language 127. Which bit of conversation is an example of a narrative? a. "Grandma, please take me to the park. I want to go to the park and do the twisty slide." b. "Daddy and I went to the park today. I went on the big twisty slide." c. "Yay, I love the park. This twisty slide is so much fun." d. "Kelsey said she will take me to the park tomorrow. I am going to go down the twisty slide."

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Chap 06_6ce 128. Bergelson and Swingley demonstrated that when 6-month-old infants were shown pictures of common items and researchers named one item, infants a. could point to the named item. b. behaved the same whether the word was in their native language or not. c. did not recognize the label. d. looked at the correct picture more often than at the other pictures.

129. The period before approximately age 5 is considered to be the _____ period for language development. a. sensitive b. acceptable c. exclusive d. suitable 130. Children's semantic development refers to their learning of the a. meaning system and words of their language. b. cultural rules for how their language is used. c. rules for combining the words in their language. d. sound system of their language.

131. David is drawing a picture of a house. Which skill is NOT necessary for him to have in order to draw a house? a. the ability to symbolize b. planning c. spatial coordination d. gross motor skills 132. Which word is generally the first word spoken by infants who speak Cantonese? a. mommy b. hi c. milk d. no 133. Which phrase does NOT describe a characteristic of babbling by older infants? a. independent of experience b. repeated simple consonant–vowel combinations c. can be vocal or manual d. similar rhythm and intonation patterns as native language

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Chap 06_6ce 134. The English language uses _____ of the approximately _____ sounds used in the world's languages. a. 26; 50 b. 22; 400 c. 34; 75 d. 45; 200 135. Which ability is subject to perceptual narrowing? a. infant-directed talk b. sound discrimination c. word segmentation d. metalinguistic knowledge 136. The _____ perspective is oriented around computational modelling. a. connectionist b. nativist c. innate d. interactionist 137. Danny is a Canadian English–speaking child and just said his first word. Which of these is MOST likely to be that word? a. mommy b. go c. bunny d. tree 138. Which idea is used as evidence to support Skinner's view of language development? a. Children acquire language very rapidly and with no direct instruction. b. The sounds produced by infants are affected by parents' smiling and touching in response. c. Human languages share many characteristics. d. Groups of deaf children not exposed to language invented their own sign language.

139. Can nonhuman primates learn language? Provide a brief description of research conducted in this area and what the general results have been. Discuss three differences between human and nonhuman communicators.

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Chap 06_6ce 140. Baby Josie has just begun babbling. Describe the different characteristics of babbling that she is demonstrating.

141. Describe three pieces of evidence supporting the notion of a sensitive period for language acquisition. What implications does this evidence have for exposing congenitally deaf children to a sign language?

142. Describe the concepts of intersubjectivity and joint attention, and explain how they relate to language development. Provide an example of each one and explain how it will be likely to help the development of language.

143. Define and provide two examples of (a) overextension and (b) overregularization. For each type of error, describe what a child's errors of this type tell us about her language development.

144. Describe the relative impact of nature and nurture on language development as proposed by Chomsky and Skinner. Provide descriptive examples.

145. The development of language involves several areas of development—phonological, semantic, syntactic, and pragmatic. Briefly explain what development in each of these areas entails.

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Chap 06_6ce Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_6ce 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. d 52. d 53. d 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_6ce 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. b 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. d 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_6ce 83. b 84. d 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. c 89. d 90. c 91. d 92. b 93. b 94. a 95. d 96. a 97. b 98. b 99. b 100. c 101. c 102. d 103. c 104. a 105. c 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. d 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_6ce 111. c 112. c 113. a 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. b 120. c 121. c 122. d 123. d 124. c 125. a 126. b 127. b 128. d 129. a 130. a 131. d 132. a 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. a 137. a

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Chap 06_6ce 138. b 139. No animals other than humans naturally develop language. In one of the complex examples of nonhuman animal communication, vervet monkeys reveal the presence and identity of predators through specific calls, telling their listeners whether they should look down to avoid a snake or look up to avoid an eagle. Researchers have had limited success in training nonhuman primates to use complex communicative systems. One early effort was an ambitious project in which a dedicated couple raised a chimpanzee (Vicki) with their own children. Although Vicki learned to comprehend some words and phrases, she produced virtually no recognizable words.

Subsequent researchers attempted to teach nonhuman primates sign language. Washoe, a chimpanzee, and Koko, a gorilla, became famous for their ability to communicate with their human trainers and caretakers using manual signs. Washoe could label a variety of objects and could make requests. But the consensus is that, however impressive Washoe's and Koko's "utterances" were, they do not qualify as language because they contained little evidence of syntactic structure. The most successful sign-learning nonhuman is Kanzi, a great ape of the bonobo species. Kanzi's sign learning began when he observed researchers trying to teach his mother to communicate with them by using a lexigram board, a panel composed of a few graphic symbols representing specific objects and actions. Kanzi's mother never caught on, but Kanzi did, and over the years his lexigram vocabulary increased from 6 words to more than 350. He is now very adept at using his lexigram board to answer questions, to make requests, and even to offer comments. He often combines symbols, but whether they can be considered syntactically structured sentences is not clear. There are also several well-documented cases of nonprimate animals that have learned to respond to spoken language. Kaminski, Call, and Fischer found that Rico, a border collie, knew more than 200 words and could learn and remember new words using some of the same kinds of processes that toddlers use. Alex, an African-gray parrot, learned to produce and understand basic English utterances, although his skills remained at a toddler level.

140. Babbling, which begins between 6 and 10 months of age, involves producing syllables made up of a consonant followed by a vowel that are repeated in strings. Babies babble a limited set of sounds, some of which are not part of their native language. Native language exposure is a key component in the development of babbling. As their babbling becomes more varied, it gradually takes on the sounds, rhythm, and intonational patterns of the language infants hear daily. However, it is still very difficult to tell what language an infant is speaking by listening to his or her babbling alone.

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Chap 06_6ce 141. A considerable body of evidence suggests that, in fact, the early years constitute a sensitive period for language during which languages are learned relatively easily. After this period, which ends sometime between age 5 and puberty, language acquisition is much more difficult and ultimately less successful. Relevant to this hypothesis, there are several reports of children, such as Genie, who barely developed language at all after being deprived of early linguistic experience. Other areas of research provide much stronger evidence for the sensitive-period hypothesis. Adults, who are well beyond the sensitive period, are more likely to suffer permanent language impairment from brain damage than are children, presumably because other areas of the young brain can take over language functions. Moreover, adults who learned a second language after puberty use different neural mechanisms to process that language than do adults who learned their second language from infancy. These results strongly suggest that the neural circuitry supporting language learning operates differently during the early years. In an important behavioural study, Johnson and Newport (1989) tested the English proficiency of Chinese and Korean immigrants to the United States who had begun learning English either as children or as adults. The results reveal that knowledge of key aspects of English grammar was related to the age at which these individuals began learning English but not to the length of their exposure to the language. The most proficient were those who had begun learning English before the age of 7. A similar pattern has been described for first-language acquisition in the Deaf community: individuals who acquired ASL as a first language when they were children become more proficient signers than do individuals who acquired ASL as a first language as teens or adults. Johnson and Newport also observed a great deal of variability among "late learners"—those who were acquiring a second language, or a sign language as their first formal language, at puberty or beyond. The evidence for a critical period in language acquisition has some very clear practical implications. For instance, deaf children should be exposed to sign language as early as possible.

142. Successful communication requires intersubjectivity, in which two interacting partners share a mutual understanding.

The foundation of intersubjectivity is joint attention, which, early on, is established by the parent's following the baby's lead, looking at and commenting on whatever the infant is looking at. By 12 months of age, infants have begun to understand the communicative nature of pointing, with many also being capable of meaningful pointing themselves.

143. (a) Overextension is using a word in a broader context than is appropriate, such as when children use "dog" for any four-legged animal. Most overextensions represent an effort to communicate rather than a lack of knowledge. (b) Overregularization errors occur when children treat irregular forms of words as if they were regular. For instance, a child who previously said "men" and "went" may begin producing novel forms such as "mans" and "goed."

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Chap 06_6ce 144. The study of language development emerged from a theoretical debate about the processes through which language is acquired. In the 1950s, B. F. Skinner wrote a book entitled Verbal Behaviour, in which he presented a behaviourist theory of language development. Behaviourists believed that development is a function of learning through reinforcement and punishment of overt behaviour. Skinner argued that parents teach children to speak by means of the same kinds of reinforcement techniques that are used to train animals to perform novel behaviours.

In what was probably the most influential science book review ever published, Noam Chomsky countered Skinner by pointing out some of the reasons language cannot be learned through the processes of reinforcement and punishment. One key reason is that we can understand and produce sentences that we have never heard before. The explanation of such instances must be that, contrary to Skinner's proposal, we know details about the structure of our native language that we have not been taught. In his own explanation of language development, Chomsky proposed that humans are born with a Universal Grammar, a hard-wired set of principles and rules that govern grammar in all languages. Chomsky's account is consistent with the fact that the underlying structures of the world's languages are fundamentally similar. His strongly nativist account also provides an explanation for why most children learn language with exceptional rapidity, while nonhumans do not.

145. The first step in language development is phonological development. This is the mastery of the sound system of the language. Semantic development is also required. This involves learning the system for expressing meaning in a language, including words and morphemes, which are the smallest units of meaning in a language. Syntactic development is learning to express an idea of any complexity by combining words into sentences. However, only certain combinations in any given language are allowed. Syntactic development then entails learning how words and morphemes are combined. Additionally, acquiring an understanding of how language is typically used is required. This is called pragmatic development.

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Chap 07_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Research demonstrating infants' habituation to a constant pattern was concerned with their knowledge of a. future events timing. b. temporal order. c. event duration. d. event duration ratios.

2. The understanding that numbers should always be recited in the same order represents a. one–one correspondence. b. stable order. c. cardinality. d. order relevance.

3. Researcher Barnes is interested in infants' ability to retrieve a hidden toy after they are relocated to the side opposite of the hiding place. The first group of infants is carried to the opposite side, and the second group is encouraged to crawl to the opposite side. Which result would be expected? a. Infants who are carried to the opposite side and those who crawl there will both do very well on the task. b. Infants who are carried to the opposite side will be more successful than will those who crawl there. c. Infants who crawl to the opposite side will be more successful than will those who are carried there. d. Most infants will fail at this task, regardless of whether they are carried to the opposite side or crawl there themselves.

4. The study that compared the spatial skills of aboriginal children growing up in the Australian desert with those of their White peers growing up in cities demonstrated the importance of a. the active child. b. nature. c. sociocultural context. d. discontinuous development.

5. Monique regularly fails at false-belief problems. This means that she likely does NOT understand a. the relation between beliefs and actions. b. how other people's desires can be different from their own. c. the difference between what is true and what is false. d. that others can hold an incorrect belief when they themselves know the truth.

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Chap 07_6ce 6. Preschoolers believe that the essence of a living thing a. can change as it grows up. b. comes from its parents. c. depends on the environment in which it grows up. d. is a result of DNA. 7. Many erroneously believe that spatial thinking is related to only a. vision. b. hearing. c. touch. d. taste.

8. Anna, a 6-month-old infant, is being tickled on the tummy by her grandmother. The grandmother repeatedly tickles Anna twice and then pauses for Anna's giggles. With the tickles, Anna's grandmother says, "Beep, beep." After a minute or so of this, Anna becomes bored and stops giggling. Anna's grandmother then changes the pattern to three tickles and "Beep, beep, beep." Which response to the change in number of tickles is Anna MOST likely to make? a. Anna remains bored. b. Anna begins to giggle again. c. Anna adds two and three and giggles five times. d. Anna says, "Wow, three tickles!"

9. Which phrase is NOT a characteristic of naïve psychological concepts? a. refer to invisible mental states b. develop early in life c. linked to each other in cause–effect relations d. involved in understanding only the self 10. When 12-month-olds saw an experimenter look at and demonstrate an interest in one of two toy stuffed kittens, they a. were surprised when the experimenter then held the other kitten. b. were not surprised when the experimenter then held the other kitten. c. were surprised when the experimenter held that kitten. d. responded similarly no matter which kitten the experimenter held.

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Chap 07_6ce 11. The parents of Elizabeth, a 2-year-old, are trying to teach her what hammers are. Which action would be MOST likely to help her learn this new category? a. describing what hammers look like b. showing her a nail c. demonstrating what hammers do d. showing her a range of atypical hammers 12. Daniel, who is 5 years old, and his brother James, who is 3 years old, watch a magic show. Which reaction would NOT be expected? a. James actively tries to figure out how the magician does his tricks. b. Daniel is fascinated by the lack of an obvious causal mechanism. c. James does not find the magic tricks very interesting. d. Daniel believes that the magical effects have no cause.

13. The understanding that the number of objects in the set corresponds to the last number stated represents a. one–one correspondence. b. stable order. c. cardinality. d. order relevance.

14. Developmental psychologists have settled on which description of children's understanding of living things? a. Children have only a shallow understanding of living things until they are 7 to 10 years old. b. Children understand the essential characteristics of living things by the age of 5. c. Young children simultaneously possess both mature and immature biological understandings. d. Children are fascinated by living things, especially animals.

15. Young children have difficulty understanding that plants are alive because children equate being alive with a. being able to move. b. breathing. c. being able to dance. d. having fur.

16. Which factor is NOT an aspect of psychological understanding that emerges by the early part of the second year? a. understanding intention b. a sense of self c. theory of mind d. intersubjectivity

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Chap 07_6ce 17. Which statement BEST describes the ability of 6-month-old infants to use landmarks to code the locations of hidden objects? a. Six-month-old infants are unable to use landmarks. b. Six-month-old infants are able to use landmarks when there is only a single landmark and it is very close to the hidden object. c. Six-month-old infants are able to use landmarks when there are many possible landmarks and one landmark is located right next to the hidden object. d. Six-month-old infants are able to use landmarks regardless of the number of landmarks and proximity to the hidden object.

18. Which statement BEST characterizes the findings of cross-cultural research on children's understanding of false beliefs? a. The pattern of development is very consistent across cultures. b. Children in Western cultures develop the understanding earlier than do children in Eastern cultures. c. Children in Western cultures develop the understanding later than do children in Eastern cultures. d. Children in developed countries develop the understanding earlier than do children in developing countries.

19. Which level of category hierarchies is the MOST specific? a. basic b. subordinate c. superordinate d. supersubordinate 20. The study that examined kindergartners' ability to point to various locations in their classroom while imagining a walk from their seat to the teacher's chair demonstrated that kindergarten children a. are essentially unable to imagine spatial arrangements. b. have poor recall of their classroom arrangements. c. can easily imagine spatial arrangements while standing stationary. d. have mental representations of space that are improved with self-generated motion.

21. Which category do children usually learn first? a. superordinate b. subordinate c. basic d. supersubordinate

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Chap 07_6ce 22. The ability to precisely and accurately code locations in the absence of straightforward landmarks is a. fully developed by age 2. b. fully developed by age 7. c. fully developed by adulthood. d. incomplete in some adults.

23. A form of pretense in which an object is used as something other than itself is known as a. a theory of mind module. b. object substitution. c. perceptual categorization. d. naïve psychology.

24. The mutual understanding that people share during communication is known as a. understanding intention. b. a sense of self. c. joint attention. d. intersubjectivity.

25. Which statement does NOT support the claim of nativists that children are born with a "biology module"? a. Across cultures, children are fascinated by plants and animals. b. Japanese 5-year-olds are more likely than their Israeli peers to believe that inanimate objects can feel pain. c. Children throughout the world organize information about living things in very similar manners. d. Children learn about animals and learn about them much more quickly than about many other aspects of the environment.

26. When 3-year-old children are presented with the categories of people, caterpillars, and chimpanzees, and asked which two are most similar, research indicates that they will MOST likely choose a. people and caterpillars. b. people and chimpanzees. c. caterpillars and chimpanzees. d. any of the three possible pairs with equal likelihood.

27. A plate and a clock would be put into the same category if the categorization were based on a. a superordinate–subordinate relationship. b. cross-class correspondence. c. perceptual similarities. d. functional similarities.

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Chap 07_6ce 28. Which group lists the three objects in subordinate/basic/superordinate order? a. flower/daisy/plant b. hammer/screwdriver/tool c. sedan/car/vehicle d. food/fruit/apple 29. The most specific level within a category hierarchy is called a _____ level. a. subordinate b. perceptual c. basic d. superordinate 30. Make-believe activities in which children create new symbolic relations, acting as if they were in a situation different from their actual one, is called a. pretend play. b. intersubjectivity. c. object substitution. d. theory of mind.

31. Which list places the types of play in a typical developmental progression? a. object substitution, sociodramatic play, pretend play b. sociodramatic play, object substitution, pretend play c. pretend play, object substitution, sociodramatic play d. object substitution, pretend play, sociodramatic play 32. Which research finding would be MOST consistent with a nativist perspective on children's development of the understanding of space? a. Spatial information is processed in a part of the brain that is separate from the parts of the brain that process other information. b. Arm movement is necessary for infants' initial concepts of space. c. Language shapes spatial development. d. Infants exposed to different cultural practices develop spatial understanding at different rates.

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Chap 07_6ce 33. Which statement is NOT an argument used by nativists to support the idea that people have a biology module? a. During earlier periods of our evolution, it was crucial for human survival that children learn quickly about animals and plants. b. Children throughout the world are fascinated by plants and animals, and learn about them quickly and easily. c. Children throughout the world organize information about plants and animals in very similar ways. d. Children during the preschool years tend to believe that plants are not alive.

34. Research has suggested that pretend play and sociodramatic play a. cause children to experience setbacks in psychological understanding. b. reflect children's most basic level of psychological understanding. c. are correlated with higher levels of social understanding. d. increase children's egocentrism.

35. Cases where adults who were born blind undergo surgery to restore sight have provided evidence that a. self-locomotion, even without visual input, is sufficient for perfect development of the ability to mentally represent space. b. the stream of visual information that accompanies self-locomotion is important for an individual's current sense of space only. c. early visual experience is important for full development of the ability to mentally represent space. d. individuals who are blind are better able to mentally represent space than are those with normal vision.

36. Which statement about the ability of 5-year-olds to make logical inferences about time is TRUE? a. Similar to their inability to estimate the passage of time, 5-year-olds are entirely unable to make logical inferences about time. b. Although they are able to estimate the passage of time, 5-year-olds are entirely unable to make logical inferences about time. c. Children who are 5 years old are able to make logical inferences about time only when the situation does not involve distracting features. d. Children who are 5 years old are able to make logical inferences about time that are similar to those of adults.

37. A study by Taylor demonstrated that compared with children who do not have imaginary companions, children who do have imaginary companions a. are more intelligent. b. are more likely to be depressed or anxious. c. watch more television. d. have more advanced theories of mind.

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Chap 07_6ce 38. The middle level within a category hierarchy is called a _____ level. a. subordinate b. perceptual c. basic d. superordinate 39. The spatial thought of 3-month-old infants can be based on a. vision. b. hearing. c. either vision or hearing. d. neither vision nor hearing.

40. Which list is an example of a category hierarchy? a. people/grown-ups/Mommy b. men/Daddy/Grandpa c. people/plants/animals d. people/Daddy/firemen 41. Trisha, who is 3 years old, views an event in which no cause is visible. She is likely to a. expect that someone tricked her. b. actively search for the cause. c. laugh. d. grasp that something strange has happened.

42. Telling children that _____ is likely to influence the age at which children understand that plants are alive. a. plants bend towards sunlight b. plants drink water c. animals eat plants d. plants grow 43. Which category would a young child be MOST likely to learn first? a. colour b. blue c. sky blue d. dark blue

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Chap 07_6ce 44. Children tend to engage in pretend play, at least occasionally, until approximately what age? a. 3 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d. 12 years 45. In the domain of spatial representation and learning, nativists and empiricists agree on which statement? a. Certain parts of the brain are specialized for coding particular types of spatial information. b. Children possess an innate module that is specialized for representing and learning about space. c. Children's experience with vision is essential to development of spatial representations. d. General information-processing skills are the key to spatial representation.

46. A hypothesized brain mechanism devoted to understanding other human beings is referred to as a. a theory of mind module. b. naïve psychology. c. perceptual categorization. d. a false-belief problem.

47. Infants' discriminations between numerical sets depend in large part on a. their familiarity with the items. b. the ration of the number of entities in them. c. the ratio of the numbers. d. whether the infants were able to touch the items.

48. Which level of category hierarchies do children usually learn FIRST? a. basic b. subordinate c. superordinate d. supersubordinate 49. Children's early categories correspond MOST closely to the categories that adults consider a. superordinate. b. basic. c. subordinate, but children also sometimes form their own superordinate categories. d. basic, but children also sometimes form their own basic categories.

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Chap 07_6ce 50. Developmental psychologists and other researchers have found that the development of a theory of mind is severely impaired for a. only children. b. children with autism spectrum disorder. c. children with imaginary friends. d. first-born children.

51. On which statement would nativists and empiricists NOT agree? a. Certain parts of the brain are specialized for coding certain types of spatial information. b. Infants have an understanding of rudimentary spatial concepts. c. Self-locomotion promotes processing of spatial information. d. Language and other cultural tools shape spatial development.

52. A structured understanding of how desires, beliefs, perceptions, and emotions influence behaviour is referred to as a theory of a. mind. b. behaviour. c. thought. d. psychology.

53. When surgery has restored sight to people who were born either blind or with severely impaired vision, they are unable to use visual information to represent space as well as those who never experienced impaired vision. This finding lends support to the role that _____ plays in spatial abilities. a. vision b. hearing c. touch d. taste 54. Amelia, a 5-year-old, is told a story about a girl named Brenda. Brenda is looking for her favourite doll.

Although Brenda thinks the doll is under the bed, it really is in the kitchen cabinet. When Amelia is asked where Brenda will look for her doll, Amelia will MOST likely predict that Brenda will look in which location(s)? a. under the bed b. in the kitchen cabinet c. in the garage d. both under the bed and in the kitchen cabinet

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Chap 07_6ce 55. The Phillips and colleagues study that recorded infants' looking times when they were presented with actors holding stuffed toy kittens was examining infants' understanding of the connection between a. beliefs and actions. b. desires and beliefs. c. abilities and actions. d. desires and actions.

56. The study examining infants' ability to do simple arithmetic that showed infants one or two dolls and then either added or subtracted a doll from behind a screen demonstrated that infants were surprised in which of these scenarios?

Scenario A: A doll is placed behind a screen where another doll was initially present, and lowering of the screen reveals a single doll.

Scenario B: A doll is removed from behind a screen where two dolls were initially present, and lowering of the screen reveals a single doll.

Scenario C: A doll is placed behind a screen where another doll was initially present, and lowering of the screen reveals two dolls.

Scenario D: A doll is removed from behind a screen where two dolls were initially present, and lowering of the screen reveals two dolls. a. both scenarios A and D b. both scenarios B and C c. scenario A only d. scenario C only 57. The understanding that any set of discrete objects or events can be counted represents a. one–one correspondence. b. stable order. c. cardinality. d. abstraction.

58. When children engage in activities where they enact miniature dramas with other children or adults, they are engaging in a. pretend play. b. sociodramatic play. c. solitary play. d. object substitution.

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Chap 07_6ce 59. General ideas or understandings that can be used to group together objects, events, qualities, or abstractions that are similar in some way are referred to as a. concepts. b. perceptions. c. theories. d. beliefs.

60. Wesley and his mother are focusing intentionally on the same reference. What is occurring? a. understanding intention b. a sense of self c. joint attention d. intersubjectivity 61. The coding of spatial locations relative to one's own body, without regard to the surroundings, is known as a. dead reckoning. b. egocentric spatial representation. c. egotistic spatial representation. d. external environment representation.

62. The view that living things have an essence inside them that makes them what they are is referred to as a. naturism. b. essentialism. c. nativism. d. spiritism.

63. A task that tests a child's understanding that other people will act in accord with their own ideas even when the child knows that those ideas are incorrect is called a. a theory of mind. b. naïve psychology. c. perceptual categorization. d. a false-belief problem.

64. Which statement would be considered evidence that an infant has formed the category "furniture"? a. The infant habituates after repeatedly being shown pictures of tables. b. After repeatedly being shown pictures of tables, the infant dishabituates to a picture of a sofa. c. After repeatedly being shown pictures of tables, chairs, sofas, dressers, and grandfather clocks, the infant dishabituates to a picture of a car. d. After repeatedly being shown pictures of tables, chairs, sofas, dressers, and grandfather clocks, the infant does not dishabituate to a picture of a car.

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Chap 07_6ce 65. Isabella, who is 5 years old, observes her little brother counting the nine pennies in front of him. He first lines up all the pennies, and then begins to count them, starting from the middle of the line, proceeding first all the way to the end of the line on the right, and then continuing with the left-most penny and counting to the right, ending on the penny directly to the left of the penny he counted first. He counts "1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9" and then says, "I have nine pennies." When Isabella is asked if her brother counted correctly, which response is she MOST likely to make? a. "Yes, that's the way I would count them. It's right." b. "That's the right number of pennies, but I would not count them that way." c. "You shouldn't count that way. That's not the right number of pennies." d. "That's not the right number of pennies. He only counted the middle penny once."

66. Trevor is in preschool and loves tractor trailers. Which question would he be LEAST likely to ask his teacher about a tractor trailer? a. What are trucks for? b. What do trucks like to eat? c. How much stuff can fit in that truck? d. Why are trucks so big?

67. Chen and Siegler's study about 1- and 2-year-olds' use of tools demonstrated that the older toddlers were more likely than were the younger toddlers to a. try to use their hands instead of a tool. b. generalize the causal nature of what they had learned on previous problems to new superficially different tools. c. ask their mothers for help. d. actively search for causes when no cause was immediately apparent.

68. Which pair would Iris, a 6-month-old infant, be MOST likely to place in the same category? a. elephant and fish b. chandelier and chair c. towel and rug d. baby and caterpillar 69. The general level within a category hierarchy is called a _____ level. a. subordinate b. perceptual c. basic d. superordinate

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Chap 07_6ce 70. Which of these describes the purpose of concepts? a. help us understand the world b. tell us how to emotionally react to new experiences c. provide a basis by which to group together objects d. serve all of these functions 71. Six-month-old infants are NOT able to a. discriminate between two durations when their ratio is 2:1. b. detect a repetitive order of events over time. c. remember the order of events for a substantial period. d. sense the duration of events.

72. Which concept is NOT at the centre of naïve psychology? a. actions b. appearances c. desires d. beliefs 73. The finding that babies smile less at rabbits than they do at people indicates that they a. can distinguish between animals and inanimate objects. b. can differentiate between people and other animals. c. know that animals and humans both belong to the category of living things. d. have all of these skills.

74. Jerome is now 2 years old. This means that his understanding of the connection between people's _____ and actions is likely established. a. beliefs b. desires c. abilities d. goals 75. Which scenario is an example of sociodramatic play? a. Alvaro is playing school with his brother, and Alvaro is the teacher. b. Fiona is holding a play phone to her ear and saying "Hello?" c. Sander is dressed up as a ghost for Halloween. d. Beatrice is putting a plate on her head and saying "See my hat?"

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Chap 07_6ce 76. Jenny recently mastered an understanding of the connection between desires and actions. She is likely what age? a. 6 months b. 8 months c. 12 months d. 18 months 77. The Lourenco and Longo study in which a particular decoration was associated with either the larger or the smaller of two displays demonstrated that infants have a a. specific concept of number. b. specific concept of time. c. specific concept of space. d. general magnitude concept.

78. Jane, an 18-month-old, is pretending to put on makeup using a small block as her lipstick. Jane is a. demonstrating a false belief. b. engaging in object substitution. c. demonstrating her underdeveloped theory of mind. d. engaging in sociodramatic play.

79. Which statement supports the claim that children are born with a "theory of mind module"? a. Certain areas of the brain of children with autism spectrum disorder appear to be atypically sized. b. Preschoolers with older siblings do better on false-belief tasks than do those without older siblings. c. General information-processing skills are essential for understanding that other people might have different knowledge than the children themselves possess. d. Children with autism spectrum disorder tend to have fewer interactions with other people than do others.

80. Children's psychological understanding begins to emerge by about what age? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years

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Chap 07_6ce 81. The study that compared the spatial skills of aboriginal children growing up in the Australian desert with those of their White peers growing up in Australian cities demonstrated that a. the lack of pressure exerted by parents of White children to develop spatial skills enabled children to gain greater insight into spatial orientations. b. the lack of humanmade landmarks, such as street signs, in the desert resulted in poor spatial ability in aboriginal children. c. familiarity of context, not the importance of spatial ability in everyday life, was associated with the memory for spatial location. d. the importance of spatial ability in aboriginal culture resulted in better memory for spatial location in aboriginal children regardless of context.

82. Grouping together objects that have similar appearances is referred to as _____ categorization. a. perceptual b. manifestation c. picture d. observation 83. Which influence is NOT cited by empiricists when explaining the development of preschoolers' theory of mind from age 3 to age 5? a. increasing experience with other people b. improved information-processing capacity c. brain maturation d. solitary play experiences 84. Which statement BEST expresses Piaget's beliefs about infants' spatial representations? a. Self-locomotion is key to the development of spatial coding. b. Landmarks are necessary for infants' spatial coding. c. Infants are able to code space correctly only if they remain in a single location. d. Infants' ability to reach for objects precedes their development of spatial coding.

85. On the subject of growth, preschoolers believe that a. living things can only grow larger. b. living things can grow both larger and smaller. c. animals but not plants can grow larger. d. inanimate things can grow in the same manner as living things.

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Chap 07_6ce 86. The research of Krascum and Andrews on children's ability to learn about wugs and gillies demonstrated that giving children the _____ was particularly important. a. subordinate and superordinate categories of the objects b. shapes and colours of the objects c. functions of the objects' features d. way in which the objects move 87. The understanding that objects can be counted left to right, right to left, or in any other order represents a. one–one correspondence. b. stable order. c. cardinality. d. order irrelevance.

88. _____ is the realization that all sets of N objects have something in common. a. Numeric arithmetic b. Counting c. Abstraction d. Numerical equality 89. On false-belief problems, children who do not yet have a complete understanding of the relation between their own beliefs and others' beliefs a. have difficulty understanding that other people could have false beliefs when they themselves know the truth. b. have difficulty understanding that other people could know the truth when they themselves have false beliefs. c. believe that others will not be convinced of the truth. d. believe that others will be difficult to fool.

90. Trevor, a 2-year-old who loves the colour red, is told a story about a boy named Andy. In the story, Andy loves the colour blue. When Trevor is asked to choose the colour crayon that Andy would likely choose when drawing a picture, Trevor will MOST likely a. select red because it is his favourite colour. b. select blue because it is Andy's favourite colour. c. select yellow in an attempt to find a compromise. d. choose randomly between red and blue.

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Chap 07_6ce 91. The existence of a TOMM is advocated by a. nativists. b. empiricists. c. neurologists. d. nurturists.

92. Which group is made up of members of the same perceptual category? a. lizard, kangaroo, salmon b. mat, hat, cat c. sofa, grandfather clock, table d. iPad, picture frame, book 93. Pretend play emerges at about the age of _____; sociodramatic play emerges at about the age of _____. a. 1 year; 2.5 years b. 1 year; 18 months c. 18 months; 2.5 years d. 2.5 years; 4 years 94. Tina, a 3-year-old, is shown a Cheerios box and then shown that it contains marbles. If asked what her friend Mark will think upon seeing the box for the first time, Tina will MOST likely say that Mark will think it contains a. Cheerios. b. marbles. c. Raisin Bran. d. beads.

95. Which list places children's understandings in a typical developmental progression? a. distinction between living and nonliving things, people from animals, plants are living b. distinction between living and nonliving things, plants are living, people are animals c. people are animals, distinction between living and nonliving things, plants are living d. plants are living, distinction between living and nonliving things, people are animals 96. Emily, a 7-month-old infant, is sitting on the floor in a nearly empty room. On each side of her is a television screen. Every 10 seconds, an interesting picture appears on the screen to her left. The screen to her right remains blank. Emily is then rotated so that the screen that has been showing the interesting pictures is now to her right. Where will Emily look in anticipation of the interesting picture? a. directly in front of her b. to her left c. to her right d. behind her Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_6ce 97. In the study discussed in the text in which 9- to 11-month-old infants were shown a series of actions and then given opportunities to reproduce the actions, _____ was necessary for the infants to reproduce the actions accurately. a. a causal relationship amongst the actions b. prior experience with the objects c. practice reproducing the actions d. an opportunity to crawl to the objects on their own 98. A commonsense level of understanding of other people and oneself is referred to as a. naïve psychology. b. basic psychology. c. an informal theory. d. a theory of mind.

99. Children typically succeed on false-belief problems by the age of _____ years. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8 100. The realization that all sets of N object have something in common is called a. algebraic inequality. b. numerical equality. c. subitizing. d. counting commonality.

101. Which category do children generally form last? a. flower b. oak c. tree d. plant 102. The understanding that each object must be labelled by a single number word represents a. one–one correspondence. b. stable order. c. cardinality. d. order relevance.

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Chap 07_6ce 103. A category that is organized by set–subset relations is known as a a. perceptual category. b. superordinate category. c. basic category. d. category hierarchy.

104. Which statement about the development of children's ability to categorize objects based on appearance is TRUE? a. The ability to categorize objects by shape develops at approximately 12 months of age. b. Twelve-month-olds often categorize objects largely by specific parts of an object, rather than based on the object as a whole. c. The ability to categorize objects based on overall shape develops at approximately 3 years of age. d. The ability to categorize objects based on shape and size is fully developed by 18 months of age.

105. Trains, boats, and buses are members of the same _____ category. a. causal b. subordinate c. superordinate d. perceptual 106. Which statement would BEST support nativists' view of causal reasoning? a. Causal reasoning is evident during the first year. b. Parents explicitly teach children about causal relations. c. The development of causal reasoning is delayed in blind children. d. Children can reason about living things before they can reason about inanimate objects.

107. Which factor is NOT a principle underlying counting that preschoolers have acquired? a. one–one correspondence b. stable order c. cardinality d. order relevance 108. On the subject of healing, preschoolers believe that a. only people, not plants or animals, can heal. b. living things, not inanimate objects, can heal. c. living things and inanimate objects can both heal. d. inanimate objects, not living things, can heal.

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Chap 07_6ce 109. Sheira, a 2-year-old, is told a story about a girl named Brenda. Brenda is looking for her favourite doll.

Although Brenda thinks the doll is under the bed, it really is in the kitchen cabinet. When Sheira is asked where Brenda will look for her doll, Sheira will MOST likely predict that Brenda will look in which location(s)? a. under the bed b. in the kitchen cabinet c. in the garage d. both under the bed and in the kitchen cabinet 110. The development of this spatial skill requires early visual experiences. a. face perception b. mental rotation c. spatial awareness d. space recognition 111. It is NOT true that children can reason about a. the future before they can reason about the present. b. the past before they can reason about the future. c. the present before they can reason about the past. d. recent past events before they can reason about events that occurred far in the past.

112. Amanda has autism spectrum disorder. She is NOT likely to have trouble with a. showing concern for people when they are distressed. b. interacting with other people. c. false-belief problems. d. spending time by herself.

113. Lack of visual experience during _____ limits subsequent spatial development. a. early infancy b. toddlerhood c. childhood d. adolescence 114. Kathryn, a 4-year-old child, is told a story about a baby turtle who is raised by a mommy and a daddy giraffe. When asked what the turtle will grow up to be, Kathryn is MOST likely to say a a. grown-up giraffe. b. grown-up turtle. c. very tall turtle with a long neck. d. baby turtle.

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Chap 07_6ce 115. Which error is common amongst 8-year-olds? a. confusing past and future b. not accounting for current time when predicting amount of time in the future c. failing to distinguish which past event occurred more recently d. perceiving duration differently depending on whether their attention is focused on it 116. Harry, a 3-year-old, is shown a raisin box and then is shown that the box contains pennies. If asked what he had thought the box contained before being shown its true contents, Harry will MOST likely say he had thought it contained a. raisins. b. pennies. c. popcorn. d. quarters.

117. The debate between nativists and empiricists reflects what fundamental, unresolved question about human nature? a. Do children shape their own concepts, or are they passive recipients of the concepts taught to them by others? b. Do children form all concepts through the same mechanisms, or do they possess special mechanisms for forming a few particularly important concepts? c. In what ways is concept development continuous, and in what ways is it discontinuous? d. Do all children learn concepts in the same manner, or does the sociocultural context matter?

118. Nativists differ from empiricists in that nativists believe that children are born with a. the ability to remember. b. a sense of the concept of time. c. the ability to form associations. d. a sense of the concept of vehicle.

119. Infants are first able to code space relative to a. their own immediate position. b. prominent landmarks. c. the intersection of a ceiling and a wall or two walls. d. other nearby people.

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Chap 07_6ce 120. Differences between the counting abilities of preschoolers in China and the United States appear to indicate that a. differences in language can affect the rate of development of the ability to count. b. differences in the ability to count to 10 are apparent at age 3. c. Chinese children do not show superior counting ability for numbers lower than 30. d. all of these statements are true.

121. Aidan, a 4-year-old child, is told a story about a girl who wants to grow to be taller than her daddy, but she is still a young girl. When asked if the girl will get her wish, Aidan is MOST likely to a. predict that she will get her wish. b. predict that she will not get her wish. c. say that if her mom and dad are both tall, she will be tall too. d. be confused by this false belief.

122. _____ is NOT amongst the psychological concepts that emerge at the end of the first year and the beginning of the second. a. Understanding of intention b. Understanding of other's emotions c. Joint attention d. Understanding of other's beliefs 123. The MOST basic sense of time is a. timing of future events. b. temporal order. c. event duration. d. ratio of duration of events.

124. Which statement about play is TRUE? a. Pretend play is a type of object substitution. b. Pretend play is a type of sociodramatic play. c. Object substitution is a type of sociodramatic play. d. Sociodramatic play is a type of pretend play.

125. An organized understanding of how mental processes such as intentions, desires, beliefs, perceptions, and emotions influence behaviour is known as a. a theory of mind. b. naïve psychology. c. perceptual categorization. d. a false-belief problem.

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Chap 07_6ce 126. Which statement is NOT one of the counting principles proposed by Gelman and Gallistel? a. Any set of discrete objects or events can be counted. b. The numbers should always be recited in the same order. c. Objects must be counted from left to right. d. The number of objects in the set corresponds to the last number counted.

127. Children at the age of _____ can count but have no idea whether 3 is bigger than 5 or 5 is bigger than 3. a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years 128. False-belief problems examine children's understanding of the relation between a. their own beliefs and actions. b. others' desires and beliefs. c. others' beliefs and actions. d. the objective facts and others' actions.

129. When 7-year-old Jacob is asked why giraffes came to exist, he is MOST likely to use _____ in his explanation. a. a physical process b. a biological process c. a purpose d. magic 130. Wayne is using a _____. This is an example of an object substitution. a. scale model of a room to show where a toy is hidden in a larger room b. toy backhoe, rather than a toy dump truck, to haul blocks c. play stove to cook pretend broccoli cheese soup d. a bowl as a magician's hat 131. By the age of _____ years, the majority of children understand that human beings are animals that are similar in many ways to other animals. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

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Chap 07_6ce 132. Emilio, an 11-month-old infant, is sitting on the floor in a nearly empty room. On each side of him is a television screen. Every 10 seconds, an interesting picture appears on the screen to his right. The screen to his left remains blank. Emilio is then rotated so that the screen that has been showing the interesting pictures is now to his left. Where will Emilio look in anticipation of the interesting picture? a. directly in front of him b. to his left c. to his right d. behind him 133. Which category would be considered by researchers to be a child-created basic category that is likely to disappear as the child matures? a. objects with wheels b. food c. objects that make you cool d. places we go 134. _____ appears to be a major factor in infants' development of a sense of space independent of their own location. a. Direct instruction from adults b. The experience of being carried around complex rooms c. Self-locomotion d. The ability to sit up 135. Empiricists would consider which finding to be evidence for their position on the development of numerical perception? a. The intraparietal sulcus is deeply involved in representing numerical magnitude. b. There are large cultural differences in children's numerical understanding. c. Specific neurons respond most strongly when a particular number of objects is displayed. d. There is a genetic tendency to learn numerical representations of objects in space.

136. Describe the notion of a theory of mind module.

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Chap 07_6ce 137. How do preschool-age children engage in causal reasoning?

138. Explain how Erica, a young child, forms a category hierarchy of a tree.

139. Describe the development of children's understanding of inheritance. Give examples of the differences between the beliefs of preschoolers and the beliefs of school-age children.

140. How does an understanding of cause–effect relations help children form categories? In addition, how does an understanding of how objects are grouped into categories assist children's understanding of cause–effect relations? (Hint: Think about the study by Krascum and Andrews using imaginary wugs and gillies.)

141. Describe how pretend play and sociodramatic play are associated with children's psychological understanding, and explain why this association exists.

142. Do infants have any understanding of number? Give an example to support your answer. Are infants able to perform simple arithmetic (e.g., 1 + 1 = 2)? Discuss the evidence supporting the claim that they can. What is an alternative explanation to this evidence?

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Chap 07_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_6ce 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. b 51. d 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_6ce 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. d 70. d 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. d 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_6ce 83. d 84. c 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. a 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. c 94. b 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. b 102. a 103. d 104. b 105. c 106. a 107. d 108. b 109. b 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_6ce 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. d 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. a 120. a 121. b 122. d 123. b 124. d 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. c 129. c 130. d 131. a 132. b 133. a 134. c 135. b

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Chap 07_6ce 136. Investigators have proposed the existence of a theory of mind module (TOMM), a hypothesized brain mechanism devoted to understanding other human beings. Advocates of this position argue that among typical children exposed to a typical environment, the TOMM matures over the first 5 years, producing an increasingly sophisticated understanding of people's minds. These investigators cite evidence from brain-imaging studies showing that certain areas of the brain are consistently active in representing beliefs across different tasks, and that the areas are different from those involved in other complex cognitive processes, such as understanding grammar.

137. Causal reasoning grows during the preschool period. Preschoolers seem to expect that if a variable causes an effect, it should do so consistently. When 4-year-olds see a potential cause produce an effect inconsistently, they infer that some variable that they cannot see must cause the effect; when the same effect occurs consistently, they do not infer that a hidden variable was important. Preschoolers' emerging understanding that events must have causes also seems to influence their reactions to magic tricks. Most 3- and 4-year-olds fail to see the point of such tricks; they grasp that something strange has happened but do not find the "magic" humorous or actively try to figure out what caused the strange outcome. By age 5, however, children become fascinated with magic tricks precisely because no obvious causal mechanism could produce the effect.

138. The category hierarchies that young children form often include three levels: the general one, which is called the superordinate level; the very specific one, called the subordinate level; and the medium or in-between one, called the basic level. As its name suggests, the basic level is the one that children usually learn first. Thus, Erica would typically form categories of medium generality such as "tree" before forming more general categories such as "plant" or more specific ones such as "oak."

139. Preschool-age children know that physical characteristics tend to be passed on from parent to offspring. Older preschoolers also know that certain aspects of development are determined by heredity rather than by environment. For instance, 5-year-olds realize that an animal of one species raised by parents of another species will become an adult of its own species. Coexisting with this understanding are numerous misguided beliefs about inheritance. Many preschoolers believe that mothers' desires can play a role in their children's inheritance of physical qualities, such as having blue eyes. Many preschoolers also believe that adopted children are at least as likely to look like their adoptive parents as like their birth parents. In other situations, preschoolers' belief in heredity is too strong, leading them to deny that the environment has any influence. For example, preschoolers tend to believe that differences between boys and girls in play preferences are due totally to heredity. Related to this general belief in the importance of heredity is one of the most basic aspects of children's biological beliefs— essentialism, the view that living things have an essence inside them that makes them what they are. This essence is viewed as being inherited from one's parents and being maintained throughout the organism's life. Thinking in terms of such essences seems to make it difficult, both for children and for many adults, to understand and accept biological evolution.

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Chap 07_6ce 140. Understanding causal relations is crucial in forming many categories. This was evident in a study conducted by Krascum and Andrews. The researchers told 4- and 5-year-olds about two categories of imaginary animals: wugs and gillies. Some of the preschoolers were provided only physical descriptions of the animals. Other children were provided the same physical descriptions, plus a simple causal story that explained why wugs and gillies are the way they are. After the children in both groups were given the information about these animals, they were shown pictures and asked which animal was a wug and which animal was a gilly. The children who were told why wugs and gillies have the physical features they do were better at classifying the pictures into the appropriate categories. When tested the next day, those children also remembered the categories better than did the children who were given the physical descriptions without explanations.

141. One way in which children learn about other people's thinking, and also about many other aspects of the world, is through play. Play refers to activities that are pursued for their own sake, with no motivation other than the enjoyment they bring. The earliest play occurs in the first year. Over the next few years, children's increasing understanding of other people contributes to their play becoming more social as well as more complex. One early milestone in the development of play is the emergence, at around 18 months of age, of pretend play, makebelieve activities in which children create new symbolic relations. When engaged in pretend play, children act as if they were in a different situation than their actual one. They often engage in object substitution, ignoring many of a play object's characteristics so that they can pretend that it is something else.

About a year later, toddlers begin to engage in sociodramatic play, a kind of pretend play in which they enact miniature dramas with other children or adults. Sociodramatic play is more complex and more social than is object substitution. In addition to being fun, pretend play may expand children's understanding of the social world.

Children who engage in greater amounts of pretend play tend to show greater understanding of other people's thinking and emotions. The type of pretend play in which children engage also matters: social pretend play is more strongly related to understanding other people's thinking than is nonsocial pretend play. Preschoolers also learn from watching others' pretend play.

142. Nativists argue that children are born with a core concept of number that includes special mechanisms for representing and learning about the relative numbers of objects in sets, counting, and simple addition and subtraction. Empiricists argue that children learn about numbers through the same types of experiences and learning mechanisms that help them acquire other concepts and that infants' numerical competence is not as great as nativists claim. They also note the existence of large differences in numerical understanding among children of different cultures and document the contributions of instruction, language, and cultural values to these differences.

With this in mind, infants can perform approximate arithmetic on numerical representations. Four- to 5-montholds dishabituate when it appears that adding one or two objects to an initial set of one or two objects has produced more or fewer objects than the correct number; infants of the same age also dishabituate when shown unexpected subtractive outcomes with similarly small sets of objects. Older infants dishabituate to surprising addition and subtraction outcomes on larger sets (5 to 10) of objects. Wynn and colleagues conducted an experiment where a 5-month-old sees a doll on a stage. A screen comes up, hiding the doll from the infant's sight.

Next, the infant sees a hand place a second doll behind the screen and then sees the hand emerge from behind the screen without the doll, thus seeming to have left the second doll with the first one. Finally, the screen drops down, revealing either one doll or two. Most 5-month-olds look longer when there is only one doll, suggesting that they expected that 1 + 1 should equal 2. Similar results are seen with subtraction.

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Chap 08_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The fact that children can influence the behaviour of other people demonstrates _____ effects on intelligence. a. passive b. evocative c. interactive d. active 2. Practical intelligence is measured on which intelligence test? a. WISC b. Stanford–Binet c. both WISC and Stanford–Binet d. neither WISC nor Stanford–Binet 3. Sandra Scarr has proposed three processes by which an individual's genes are associated with the type of environment he or she encounters. Which of Scarr's processes involves children's influence on other people's behaviour? a. active b. passive c. evocative d. inductive 4. According to the text, of grade 4 students with poor word-identification skills, _____ said they would rather clean their rooms than read. a. 10% b. 25% c. 40% d. 65% 5. Nursery rhymes are particularly good at fostering which pre-reading skill? a. comprehension monitoring b. phonemic awareness c. understanding multiple perspectives d. learning that words have spaces between them 6. The genetic component of intelligence becomes larger during a. prenatal development. b. infancy. c. childhood. d. adolescence and adulthood.

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Chap 08_6ce 7. Michael loves to play video games. While his parents limit his screen time due to concerns regarding video game use, Michael is likely to display improvement in all of these EXCEPT _____ as a result of playing video games. a. executive functioning b. problem-solving skills c. reading skills d. general intelligence 8. _____ is/are an example of the metacognitive understanding necessary for writing. a. Knowledge of proper spelling b. Letter formation skills c. Command of punctuation d. Appreciation for the need to plan 9. Stan is taking the WISC-V and is asked, "How are a mountain and a river alike?" Which subtest does this question assess? a. verbal comprehension b. visual-spatial processing c. fluid reasoning d. working memory 10. Intelligence is viewed as a(n) _____ to think and learn, and any measure of intelligence must be _____. a. invisible capacity; based on observable behaviour b. obvious ability; covert c. learned ability; observational d. genetic ability; empirical 11. Which statement is TRUE? a. Attending school makes children smarter. b. Intelligence differences amongst elementary school children can best be explained by age differences. c. Minimal cognitive skills are measured in IQ tests. d. Education increases general intelligence.

12. Which word is a child LEAST likely to use phonological recoding to read? a. the b. kind c. yellow d. planet

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Chap 08_6ce 13. Which factor is NOT a potential reason for mathematics anxiety? a. the unambiguous right/wrong status of answers to many mathematics problems b. the realistic peer comparisons in which many children engage c. the belief that mathematics is closely linked to intelligence d. the frustrating periods with no apparent progress in mathematics 14. Playing video games has been associated with improvement in all of these EXCEPT a. executive functioning. b. problem-solving skills. c. reading skills. d. general intelligence.

15. The MOST commonly used intelligence test for children age 6 and older is the a. Stanford–Binet Intelligence Test for Children. b. Binet–Simon Intelligence Test. c. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children. d. Thurstone Intelligence Test.

16. Which statement about the association between the intellectual quality of the family environment and children's IQ scores is NOT true? a. There is a confirmed causal relation between the intellectual quality of the family environment and IQ score. b. IQ score is positively correlated with the intellectual quality of the family environment throughout childhood. c. The intellectual quality of the family environment at an early age is associated with IQ score at a later age. d. If the intellectual quality of the family environment decreases, IQ score tends to decrease as well.

17. When asked to solve the problem 6 × 3 = ? × 2, Arianna answers, "Eighteen." She probably does NOT yet have the concept of a. multiplication. b. division. c. mathematical equality. d. generational integers.

18. Which skill is NOT necessary for writing? a. accurate spelling b. use of correct punctuation c. providing necessary background information d. visually based retrieval Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 19. Research examining the associations between IQ scores and outcomes such as income and occupational success has demonstrated that a. IQ score is more closely related to individuals' occupational success than any other factor ever studied. b. regardless of the socioeconomic status of an individual's family of origin, individuals with high IQ scores always succeed. c. other factors, such as motivation and social skills, have little impact on economic success. d. people with comparable IQ scores tend to make similar amounts of money, despite variability in level of education.

20. Mandi scored high on measures of mathematical ability and also scored high on measures of reasoning ability.

Her scores lend support for the a. view of a general intelligence. b. idea that fluid intelligence is the basis for all cognitive tasks. c. idea of separate intelligences. d. belief that crystallized intelligence is the main component of intelligence.

21. The ability to think on the spot is referred to as _____ intelligence. a. fluid b. general c. practical d. crystallized 22. The WISC-V is MOST consistent with which notion of intelligence? a. intelligence as a single entity b. intelligence as a few basic abilities c. intelligence as numerous processes d. the three-stratum theory of intelligence 23. Which subject evokes the MOST anxiety amongst students? a. reading b. writing c. mathematics d. science 24. Carroll proposed the _____ theory of intelligence. a. multiple intelligences b. primary mental abilities c. g d. three-stratum Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 25. Which strategy appears to be the BEST way to help the reading of children with dyslexia? a. deemphasizing letter–sound relations b. emphasizing visually based retrieval c. providing extra practice in letter sound connections d. generating alternative pronunciations of vowels when sounding out does not work 26. In the past _____, Project Head Start provided a wide range of services to more than 36 million children in the United States. a. 10 years b. 30 years c. 50 years d. 100 years 27. The acquisition of phonological recoding skills would enable a learner to a. understand that the word at has both the /a/ sound and the /t/ sound. b. fluently read the sentence "See the cat." c. sound out the word cat. d. learn about the features of a cat from a sentence he or she reads about cats.

28. Playing video games appears to increase _____ intelligence. a. general b. crystallized c. fluid d. naturalistic 29. _____ is a negative emotional state that leads to fear and avoidance of math. a. Mathematics anxiety b. Dyslexia c. Mathematics disability d. Reduced executive function 30. Kayla is a ballerina. She is MOST likely to have high levels of _____ intelligence. a. naturalistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. intrapersonal d. interpersonal

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Chap 08_6ce 31. Numerical magnitude representations are NOT required for a. comprehending that 10 represents more of something than does 8. b. knowing whether 6 or 9 indicates a greater number of objects. c. correctly estimating where 700 is on a number line from 1 to 1000. d. understanding that the written word three represents three objects.

32. Martin is majoring in political science. He probably has a high level of _____ intelligence. a. naturalistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. intrapersonal d. interpersonal 33. The arithmetic strategy of recalling answers from memory is MOST similar to a. mental modelling. b. phonological recoding. c. visually based retrieval. d. the strategy choice process.

34. Tests of fluid intelligence a. peak in old age. b. correlate more highly with tests of factual knowledge about the world than they do with the ability to draw inferences. c. include knowledge about geometric facts. d. have a different developmental course than do tests of crystallized intelligence.

35. A typical sequence of actions used to organize repeated events is referred to as a a. mental model. b. script. c. strategy. d. scheme.

36. Carroll's proposed resolution to the various theories of intelligence involves a. a focus on the differentiation between knowledge and capacity. b. a proposal to include additional abilities, such as social understanding and knowledge of one's strengths and weaknesses. c. a hierarchical model of intellectual ability and processes. d. all of these.

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Chap 08_6ce 37. A child's intelligence quotient is a. an exact measure of her general intelligence. b. an indicator of her standard deviation. c. the mean intelligence score of her age mates. d. a score that takes into account the mean and standard deviation of intelligence scores for children of the same age.

38. With age, the IQ scores of adopted children and their biological parents become _____ correlated, and the IQ scores of adopted children and their adoptive parents become _____ correlated. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less 39. Sternberg is the founder of which theory of intelligence? a. multiple intelligences b. theory of successful intelligence c. g d. three-stratum 40. The multiple intelligences theory is supported by studies of a. patients with brain damage. b. prodigies. c. patients with brain damage and prodigies. d. neither patients with brain damage nor prodigies.

41. Which piece of advice would be MOST beneficial for low-income parents who want to help their preschooler become a better reader? a. Read to your child at least twice each week. b. When you read to your child, read slowly and methodically. c. Stick to picture-only books; wait to introduce books with words until your child demonstrates a basic awareness of written words. d. Ask your child questions about the stories, and relate the content of the books to the child's own experiences.

42. Which test is a commonly used measure of the quality of the family environment? a. Simon–Binet b. WISC c. HOME d. QFE Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 43. Sternberg's theory of intelligence views traditional theories of intelligence as a. too narrow. b. not capable of being properly measured. c. including an insufficient number of intelligences. d. including only observable behaviours.

44. _____ is NOT an example of the metacognitive knowledge that plays a role in writing. a. Recognizing that readers may not have the same knowledge as the writer b. Continuously updating one's understanding of the verbal description c. Understanding the need to plan d. Understanding the need for revision 45. The change in genetic influence on intelligence with age is a result of a. brain connections formed in adolescence. b. increasing freedom to choose one's own environments. c. brain connections formed in adolescence and increasing freedom to choose one's own environments. d. neither brain connections formed in adolescence nor increasing freedom to choose one's own environments.

46. The STRONGEST predictor of young elementary school students' ability to sound out and spell words is their kindergarten performance on measures of a. letter name knowledge. b. phonological recoding. c. phonemic awareness. d. IQ. 47. Of these pairs of ages, the correlation between IQ score at one age and IQ score at the later age is HIGHEST for which pair? a. 3 years and 5 years b. 7 years and 9 years c. 5 years and 10 years d. 8 years and 9 years 48. Children with dyslexia have problems with reading due primarily to weakness in a. phonological processing. b. comprehension. c. strategy–choice process. d. letter recognition.

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Chap 08_6ce 49. Seven abilities that were proposed by Thurstone as crucial to intelligence and cognitive functioning are referred to as a. crystallized intelligence. b. fluid intelligence. c. primary mental abilities. d. general intelligence.

50. Janice's parents are not avid readers. However, because Janice loves books, her parents read to her every night. This demonstrates _____ effects on intelligence. a. passive b. evocative c. interactive d. active 51. The perceptual-reasoning section of the WISC measures a. skill in using language. b. the ability to manipulate information in short-term memory. c. the ability to focus attention. d. spatial and logical abilities.

52. Crystallized intelligence includes which skill? a. speed of neural transmission in the brain b. ability to determine the next item in a sequence c. knowledge of the periodic table d. capacity to solve novel puzzles 53. Sternberg's theory of intelligence does NOT include _____ abilities. a. practical b. creative c. analytic d. mental health 54. To be very successful at comprehending what they are reading, children do NOT need to be able to a. quickly identify words. b. form a mental model of the idea being depicted in the text. c. monitor their comprehension. d. possess multiple intelligences.

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Chap 08_6ce 55. _____ is NOT a pre-reading skill. a. Phonemic awareness b. Learning the direction that words are to be read c. Phonological recoding d. Learning that words have spaces between them 56. IQ scores have been found to correlate with school grades and achievement test scores a. only at the time of testing. b. 5 years later. c. unreliably. d. both at the time of testing and years later.

57. A poet is MOST likely to have a high level of _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. musical 58. The lessening of rules in a particular family for each subsequent child is an example of the a. shared environment. b. nonshared environment. c. evocative effect. d. passive effect.

59. The process of keeping track of one's own understanding of text is referred to as a. mental modelling. b. comprehension monitoring. c. the strategy–choice process. d. phonological processing.

60. Which statement is an example of an active effect of the genotype on a child's scientific understanding? a. Sally is interested in science, so she joins the science club at school. b. Gabriel loves to go to the science museum, so his parents take him often. c. Charlotte is curious about scientific phenomena, so her parents explain many scientific phenomena to her. d. Blake's parents love to read about science, so they have many science books and magazines in their home.

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Chap 08_6ce 61. Which statement is TRUE regarding the genetic component of intelligence? a. There is one major gene that contributes to intelligence. b. There are a small number of mastery genes that contribute to intelligence. c. There are many different genes that contribute to and interact to contribute to intelligence. d. There is no genetic component related to intelligence.

62. Which statement supports the distinction between fluid and crystalized intelligence? a. Knowledge of word meanings is correlated with knowledge of arithmetic problems to a higher degree than to speed of information processing. b. Intelligence tests correlate with people's knowledge of subjects they have not studied in school. c. Children who do well on one intellectual task tend to do well on other intellectual tasks. d. Speed of neural transmission is positively correlated with brain volume.

63. Which part of the brain is activated when someone is experiencing mathematics anxiety? a. intraparietal sulcus b. amygdala c. frontal lobe d. pons 64. Which factor is NOT on Sameroff's environmental risk scale? a. being a member of a visible minority b. negative mother–child interactions c. having no father or stepfather at home d. maternal mental health problems 65. Phonological recoding skills involve: a. sounding out. b. visually based retrieval. c. mental model production. d. comprehension monitoring.

66. Clara is taking a test and is asked to "repeat the following numbers in order." Which subtest does this question assess? a. verbal comprehension b. visual-spatial processing c. fluid reasoning d. working memory

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Chap 08_6ce 67. The likelihood of using visually based retrieval increases when a. the words are longer. b. children become stronger at phonological recoding. c. children are reading easy words. d. the words are less regular in their letter–sound correspondences.

68. Studies using Sameroff's environmental risk scale have demonstrated that a. the fewer risks in a child's environment, the lower the child's IQ score tends to be. b. mothers' high school completion status has no impact on children's IQ score. c. environmental risks have long-term effects on children's intellectual development. d. there is more stability in children's IQ scores than in their environments.

69. Thurstone's primary mental abilities do NOT include a. verbal meaning. b. picture completion. c. spatial visualization. d. rote memory.

70. IQ score is NOT a strong predictor of success in the _____ domain. a. economic b. occupational c. academic d. social 71. Eric has an IQ of 100 at age 5 and an IQ of 100 at age 22. What can be said about his intelligence in comparison to others his age? a. Eric has become comparatively less intelligent, as his IQ should increase with age. b. Eric has become comparatively less intelligent, as it is more difficult to get a high score at age 5 than it is at age 22. c. Eric has become comparatively more intelligent, as it is more difficult to get a high score at age 22 than it is at age 5. d. Eric's comparative intelligence has remained stable.

72. The type of intelligence that is hypothesized to influence people's ability to think and learn on all intellectual tasks is referred to as _____ intelligence. a. fluid b. practical c. crystallized d. general

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Chap 08_6ce 73. Which approach(es) is/are a DIRECT way of identifying words? a. both visually based retrieval and phonological recoding b. visually based retrieval c. phonological recoding d. neither visually based retrieval nor phonological recoding 74. Of phonemic awareness and mastery of letter names, _____ is/are causally related to later reading achievement. a. neither phonemic awareness nor mastery of letter names b. both phonemic awareness and mastery of letter names c. phonemic awareness d. mastery of letter names 75. Which statement is TRUE regarding socioeconomic status and education? a. Fewer children from low-SES families have the kinds of experiences during summer vacation that allow them to increase their academic achievement. b. Children from high-SES families demonstrate increased academic gains during the school year when compared with children from low-SES families. c. Fewer children from middle-SES families have the kinds of experiences during summer vacation that allow them to increase their academic achievement. d. Children from low-SES families demonstrate increased academic gains during the school year when compared with children from middle-SES families.

76. When asked what she would like to be when she grows up, Samantha says a novelist. She is MOST likely to have a high level of _____ intelligence. a. naturalistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. intrapersonal d. interpersonal 77. Which statement about HOME scores is the BEST representation of current research? a. They correlate positively with IQ score at the same age but not at a later age. b. They exert a causal influence on IQ score at the same age but not at a later age. c. They correlate positively with IQ score both at the same age and at a later age. d. They exert a causal influence on IQ score both at the same age and at a later age.

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Chap 08_6ce 78. Which factor is NOT involved in the association between poverty and impaired intellectual growth? a. diet b. level of intellectual stimulation c. gender d. level of emotional support 79. A passive effect of genotype on environment occurs as a result of the a. child's influence over other people's behaviour. b. overlap between a child's genotype and the genotypes of his or her biological parents. c. child seeking out environments that are consistent with his or her genotype. d. adoption agency's choice of parents for a newborn.

80. Thurstone portrayed intelligence as involving a. g. b. fluid and crystallized intelligence. c. seven primary mental abilities. d. 22 tertiary abilities.

81. Reading comprehension is NOT influenced by a. children's content knowledge. b. the amount of reading children do. c. the amount parents read to children as preschoolers. d. interpersonal intelligence.

82. Intelligence can be described as a. a single trait. b. a few abilities. c. many processes. d. difficult to define.

83. What is the extent of influence of the shared environment and genetics on IQ score in children living in affluent and impoverished families? a. For children living in both types of families, the influence of the shared environment is stronger than is the influence of genetics. b. For children living in both types of families, the influence of genetics is stronger than is the influence of the shared environment. c. For children living in affluent families, the influence of the shared environment is stronger than is the influence of genetics, and the pattern is reversed for impoverished families. d. For children living in impoverished families, the influence of the shared environment is stronger than is the influence of genetics, and the pattern is reversed for affluent families.

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Chap 08_6ce 84. Measurements of intelligence directly measure a. behaviour on tasks that require intelligence. b. the capacity to think and learn. c. both behaviour on tasks that require intelligence and capacity to think and learn. d. neither behaviour on tasks that require intelligence nor capacity to think and learn.

85. On a typical intelligence test, a score of 130 is a. 1 standard deviation below average. b. average. c. 1 standard deviation above average. d. 2 standard deviations above average.

86. Which statement about tests of the intellectual achievement of affluent and poor children in various countries is TRUE? a. Affluent children in the United States score higher than do affluent children in countries with greater income equality. b. Affluent children in the United States score much lower than do affluent children in countries with greater income equality. c. Poor children in the United States score higher than do poor children in countries with greater income equality. d. Poor children in the United States score lower than do poor children in countries with greater income equality.

87. Which test could be given to a child to measure numerical mathematical representation? a. counting from 1 to 30 b. placing numbers on a number line c. adding 2 + 2 and 3+ 3 d. all of these 88. During the school year, the achievement test scores of low-SES children tend to _____; during the summer, their scores tend to _____. a. remain constant while those of high-SES children rise; drop or remain constant while those of highSES children rise b. rise similarly to those of high-SES children; drop while those of high-SES children remain constant c. remain constant while those of high-SES children rise; drop while those of high-SES children remain constant d. rise similarly to those of high-SES children; drop or remain constant while those of high-SES children rise

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Chap 08_6ce 89. Poets and teachers MOST likely demonstrate which of Gardner's intelligences? a. linguistic b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. naturalistic 90. Which of these is NOT a subtest of the WISC-V? a. verbal comprehension b. visual-spatial processing c. fluid reasoning d. naturalistic intelligence 91. Which arithmetic strategy usually develops FIRST? a. decomposition b. retrieval c. counting from 1 d. counting from the larger addend 92. Practical intelligence refers to a. the ability to draw inferences and understand relations between concepts not encountered previously. b. the part of intelligence that is common to all intellectual tasks. c. factual knowledge about the world. d. mental abilities important for success in many situations and not measured on intelligence tests.

93. Which advice would be BEST to give to the parents of a preschooler who want to help their child become a better reader in elementary school? a. Teach your child to break words into their component sounds. b. Teach your child that words have spaces between them and that reading is done from left to right. c. Teach your child to identify all letters of the alphabet. d. Allow your child to explore a variety of books on his or her own.

94. Crystallized intelligence refers to a. the ability to think and learn on all intellectual tasks. b. factual knowledge about the world. c. the ability to think on the spot. d. individuals' memory span.

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Chap 08_6ce 95. Children use _____ to choose between phonological recoding and visually based retrieval. a. a strategy–choice process b. knowledge of strategic decisions c. a decision–rule process d. comprehension monitoring 96. Karen loves to write stories and novels. She would MOST likely demonstrate which type of intelligence, according to Gardner? a. intrapersonal b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. naturalistic 97. Higher levels of mathematics anxiety are associated with a. being a boy. b. parents and teachers who are anxious about their own mathematical ability. c. lower levels of activity in particular parts of the brain when individuals are presented with mathematics problems. d. all of these.

98. A meta-analysis of studies on the relation between IQ and total number of years of formal education indicated that an extra year attending school increases IQ scores by _____ points. a. 2 b. 3 to 6 c. 7 d. 1 to 5 99. _____ effects of the genotype emerge through children influencing other people's behaviours. a. Passive b. Evocative c. Interactive d. Active 100. Which statement about Project Head Start is TRUE? a. Participants show lasting gains in intellectual performance. b. Participants show higher math skills at the end of the program. c. Participants are more likely than are nonparticipants of similar backgrounds to enrol in college. d. There are no long-term effects of participating in the program.

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Chap 08_6ce 101. A composer is MOST likely to have a high level of _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. musical 102. How do educational experiences have a positive effect on IQ scores? a. As education level increase, general intelligence scores decrease. b. Educational experiences increase general intelligence. c. Education increases specific cognitive skills measured on IQ tests. d. Education has no positive effect on IQ scores.

103. The uncertainty about the causal nature of the association between HOME scores at infancy and children's later IQ scores is founded on the possibility of which type of gene–environment relations? a. active b. passive c. evocative d. inductive 104. Which arithmetic strategy is typically the FASTEST? a. decomposition b. retrieval c. counting from 1 d. counting from the larger addend 105. Mental models of the sizes of numbers are referred to as a. numerical magnitude representations. b. symbolic numerical magnitudes. c. mathematical equality estimates. d. visually based representations.

106. George has been an engineer for the majority of his career. He is MOST likely to have a high level of _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. musical

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Chap 08_6ce 107. The influence of the shared environment _____ with age; the influence of the nonshared environment _____ with age. a. remains stable; increases b. decreases; increases c. increases; decreases d. decreases; remains stable 108. Considering the research on the influence of schooling on IQ, which statement would be the BEST advice to give to a state board of education? a. Have children start grade 1 when they are 7 years old, rather than the traditional age of 6 years. b. Allow parents to push a child ahead one or two grades if they believe the child is ready. c. Lengthen the school year by shortening summer vacation. d. Create grades 13 and 14 to extend the number of years in high school.

109. With age, adopted children's IQ scores and the IQ scores of their biological parents become _____ correlated because of _____ gene–environment interactions. a. less; active and evocative b. less; passive c. more; active and evocative d. more; passive 110. The Flynn effect is believed to be caused by a. genetics. b. changes in environment. c. the highest IQ individuals. d. gender differences.

111. Which factor is NOT a plausible explanation for the Flynn effect? a. increased societal emphasis on abstract problem solving b. increased exposure to new technologies c. improvements in the lives of low-income families d. deterioration in educational opportunities for middle-class families 112. Pastor Thomas would MOST likely demonstrate high levels of which type of intelligence, according to Gardner? a. interpersonal b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. naturalistic

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Chap 08_6ce 113. Binet postulated that intelligence a. consists of factual knowledge about the world. b. develops with age, and thus there are few differences amongst same-age individuals. c. is composed of high-level abilities. d. is not associated with everyday matters, such as school performance.

114. Which of these is NOT considered a primary mental ability? a. word fluency b. verbal meaning c. reasoning d. musical talent 115. Which statement about the Carolina Abecedarian Project is TRUE? a. The project was small in scale and aimed at providing a positive preschool experience for 3- and 4year-old children. b. The project concentrated on children who were only slightly at risk for developmental problems, such as those in moderate levels of poverty. c. The project focused only on the participating child rather than on the entire family. d. The project demonstrated that it is possible to design interventions that have lasting effects on the intellectual development of poor children.

116. Sandra Scarr has proposed three processes by which an individual's genes are associated with the type of environment he or she encounters. The _____ process proposed by Scarr is NOT relevant for children who are adopted outside their biological family. a. active b. passive c. evocative d. inductive 117. To facilitate children's physical growth, the Aboriginal Head Start Program in Urban and Northern Communities provides a. maternal vocational training. b. nutritional resources. c. stimulating day-care environment. d. marriage counselling.

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Chap 08_6ce 118. Between 5% and 8% of children perform so poorly in math that they are classified as having a. mathematics anxiety. b. mathematics disability. c. limited executive function. d. dyslexia.

119. Who developed the multiple intelligences theory? a. Binet b. Sameroff c. Simon d. Gardner 120. Proceeding directly from the visual form of a word to its meaning is referred to as a. phonological recoding. b. phonemic awareness. c. strategy–choice process. d. visually based retrieval.

121. Which word is a child MOST likely to use phonological recoding to read? a. at b. book c. pencil d. dog 122. Which child is probably the BEST at comprehending what he reads? a. Abraham, who rereads passages he does not understand b. Brian, who spends a great deal of cognitive resources on sounding words out c. Carlos, who reads all material quickly d. Drew, who reads infrequently 123. Which word is a child MOST likely to use visually based retrieval to read? a. she b. they c. somebody d. jacket

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Chap 08_6ce 124. Mr. Smith is a farmer. Which type of intelligence would he likely demonstrate, according to Gardner? a. intrapersonal b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. naturalistic 125. Which skill makes learning to write particularly difficult compared with learning to read? a. necessity of content knowledge b. metacognitive understanding c. meeting both low-level and high-level goals d. necessity of basic capacities 126. Children in _____ do NOT acquire greater mathematical proficiency than do children in high-achieving European countries. a. China b. Japan c. the United States d. South Korea 127. The Abecedarian project was based on all of these EXCEPT a. limiting exposure to new skills. b. encouraging exploration. c. mentoring basic skills. d. celebrating developmental advances.

128. Sean is in kindergarten and has advanced reading skills for his age. During which stage of school is he likely to be a better reader than are his peers? a. elementary school b. middle school c. high school d. elementary, middle, and high school 129. Sternberg's theory of intelligence proposes that intelligence a. includes varied intelligences, from linguistic and spatial to interpersonal and intrapersonal. b. involves the ability to achieve success in life. c. is composed of only a single, general intelligence. d. is immutable.

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Chap 08_6ce 130. The likelihood of using phonological recoding increases when a. the words are shorter. b. children become stronger at this skill. c. children become bored with reading. d. the words are less regular in their letter sound correspondences.

131. Gardner's theory of intelligence proposes that intelligence is composed of a. fluid and crystallized intelligence. b. eight intelligences. c. a hierarchy of g, abilities, and processes. d. primary mental abilities.

132. Intelligence tests are BEST used with children who are at least _____ old. a. 6 months b. 5 years c. 2 years d. 10 years 133. Michael has always been a farmer. He is MOST likely to have a high level of _____ intelligence. a. naturalistic b. bodily-kinesthetic c. intrapersonal d. interpersonal 134. Which statement about knowledge of numerical magnitudes is NOT true? a. Older children can represent the magnitudes of larger numbers more easily than can younger children. b. Understanding of numerical magnitudes likely helps children rule out implausible answers. c. Direct instruction in the accuracy of numerical magnitude representations has little effect on arithmetic proficiency. d. Overall mathematical knowledge is related to children's knowledge of numerical magnitudes.

135. Visually based retrieval is a method used to a. identify words. b. decode words. c. match letters to their sounds. d. solve a problem.

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Chap 08_6ce 136. Reading comprehension and writing are NOT enhanced by a. metacognitive understanding. b. content knowledge. c. automatization. d. naturalistic intelligence.

137. Studies using Sameroff's environmental risk scale have demonstrated that a. the number of risks in a child's environment is a better predictor of IQ score than any single risk alone. b. an unemployed head of household is the strongest risk factor for low IQ. c. maternal anxiety is the strongest risk factor for low IQ. d. environmental risks have only short-term effects on children's intellectual development.

138. The historical rise in IQ scores may reflect increased societal emphasis on abstract problem solving and reasoning. Which statement would support this view? a. Scores on tests of fluid intelligence have increased almost twice as much compared to tests of other forms of intelligence. b. Scores on tests of mathematical reasoning have increased almost twice as much compared to tests of other forms of intelligence. c. Scores on tests of crystalized intelligence have increased almost twice as much compared to tests of other forms of intelligence. d. Scores on tests of general intelligence have increased almost twice as much compared to tests of other forms of intelligence.

139. According to Carroll's integration of theories of intelligence, which properties influence a person's skill at a particular type of problem? a. fluid and crystallized intelligence b. g, moderately general abilities, and specific processes c. general intelligence d. primary mental abilities 140. Which ability is NOT a component of self-discipline? a. ability to read others' intentions b. ability to follow rules c. ability to avoid impulsive reactions d. ability to inhibit actions

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Chap 08_6ce 141. The Flynn effect is the a. effect of poverty on IQ score. b. influence of schooling on IQ score. c. overarching influence of g on lower mental abilities. d. increase in average IQ scores over the past several generations.

142. Which sequence lists Chall's stages of reading development in the CORRECT chronological order? a. coordinating multiple perspectives, fluency in reading simple material, phonemic awareness, phonological recoding skills, acquiring information from print b. phonemic awareness, phonological recoding skills, coordinating multiple perspectives, fluency in reading simple material, acquiring information from print c. phonemic awareness, fluency in reading simple material, phonological recoding skills, coordinating multiple perspectives, acquiring information from print d. phonemic awareness, phonological recoding skills, fluency in reading simple material, acquiring information from print, coordinating multiple perspectives 143. In regard to the influence of practical intelligence on occupational success, people high in practical intelligence tend to have a. less occupational success than do others. b. more occupational success than do others, but this effect largely disappears once IQ score is taken into account. c. more occupational success than do others, and this effect remains even once IQ score is taken into account. d. There is no association between practical intelligence and occupational success.

144. Which individual is MOST likely to experience mathematics anxiety? a. Brad, who is in grade 1 b. Lee, who is in grade 7 c. Juan, who is in grade 10 d. Rebecca, who is in grade 9 145. The differing relations between shared environments and genetics amongst richer and poorer families have not been found in any country EXCEPT a. Great Britain. b. Germany. c. Sweden. d. the United States.

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Chap 08_6ce 146. The majority of early-intervention programs in the 1960s that were designed to enhance the intellectual development of poor children a. were well-planned, large-scale programs. b. initially increased children's IQ scores substantially. c. were ineffective in preventing assignment to special-education classes and decreasing the likelihood of being held back a year in school. d. had long-term effects on IQ scores.

147. When asked what 3 + 2 equals, Hillary puts up three fingers of one hand and two fingers on the other hand and counts "1, 2, 3, 4, 5." Hillary has used which arithmetic strategy? a. decomposition b. retrieval c. counting from 1 d. counting from the larger addend 148. As children use counting strategies more frequently, they become a. more likely to use retrieval. b. less accurate. c. more likely to become frustrated. d. more likely to use counting from 1.

149. Binet's approach to intelligence has persuaded the field of child development to a. concentrate on the effect of race on intelligence. b. examine age-related changes more carefully. c. study the influences of nature versus nurture. d. focus on individual differences.

150. Bradley is taking the WISC-V and is given several blocks. He is asked to make the blocks look exactly like a picture he is shown. Which subtest does this question assess? a. verbal comprehension b. visual-spatial processing c. fluid reasoning d. working memory 151. Children who were administered the Binet–Simon Intelligence Test were asked to do all of these EXCEPT a. interpret proverbs. b. solve puzzles. c. sequence cartoon jokes. d. invent words.

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Chap 08_6ce 152. The multiple intelligences theory includes _____ intelligence. a. interpersonal b. fluid c. rote memory d. normal 153. Lee loves to play chess and has mastered the game. Which type of intelligence would he likely demonstrate, according to Gardner? a. intrapersonal b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. naturalistic 154. Which piece of evidence does NOT support the existence of g? a. Some tests of intelligence increase steadily with age, whereas others do not. b. Overall scores on intelligence tests correlate positively with achievement test scores. c. Intelligence tests correlate with people's knowledge of subjects they have not studied in school. d. Children who do well on one intellectual task tend to do well on other intellectual tasks.

155. An individual's IQ of 92.5 indicates that he a. is more intelligent than most of his peers. b. is 1/2 a standard deviation below the mean for his age group. c. has an intelligence score higher than only 16% of his peers. d. is of average intelligence.

156. Acquiring phonemic awareness would enable a learner to a. determine that the word cat and the word hat start with different sounds. b. match the letter c to the sound /k/ and the letter t to the sound /t/. c. sound out the word cat. d. learn about the features of a cat from a sentence he or she reads about cats.

157. When asked to explain how they arrived at an incorrect answer to a mathematical problem, children who demonstrate gesture speech mismatches a. are more likely to be developmentally delayed. b. tend to have a heightened readiness to learn from instruction. c. have less variability in their thought than do other children. d. learn less from instruction than do children whose speech and gestures are consistent.

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Chap 08_6ce 158. Phoebe is in grade 8 and is 13 years, 6 months old. Nancy is also in grade 8 and is 13 years, 7 months old.

Trina is in grade 9 and is 13 years, 8 months old. Research would indicate that a. Nancy's IQ score will be higher than the IQ scores of Phoebe and Trina. b. Nancy's IQ score will be closer to Phoebe's IQ score than to Trina's IQ score. c. Trina's IQ score will be closer to Phoebe's IQ score than to Nancy's IQ score. d. Nancy's IQ score will be equally close to Phoebe's and Trina's IQ scores.

159. The existence of prodigies such as Mozart is evidence of the theory of intelligence developed by which scholar? a. Gardner b. Sternberg c. Binet d. Carroll 160. Which factor is NOT a contributor to mathematics disability? a. mathematics anxiety b. poor working memory for numbers c. poor executive function d. damage to the amygdala 161. Participation in the experimental early-intervention programs in the 1960s did NOT result in a. sustained increases in IQ scores. b. decreased use of the welfare system. c. decreased rate of assignment to special-education classes. d. rapid increases in IQ scores.

162. Which statement(s) about the effects of IQ score and years of education on amount of money earned is TRUE? Statement A: Amongst people with comparable IQ scores, those who complete more years of education earn more money.

Statement B: Amongst people with the same level of education, people with higher IQ scores earn more money. a. statement A only b. statement B only c. both statement A and statement B d. neither statement A nor statement B

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Chap 08_6ce 163. A scientist is MOST likely to have a high level of _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. logical-mathematical c. spatial d. musical 164. Janie, who is 3 years old, is pretending to write. Her mother asks her to write the word birds on a red piece of paper and then the word squirrel on a blue piece of paper. It is MOST likely that both papers will have some _____, and _____. a. legible letters; the red paper will have more letters than will the blue paper b. legible letters; the red and blue papers will have the same number of letters c. horizontal marks; the red paper will contain more marks than will the blue paper d. horizontal marks; the red and blue papers will contain the same number of marks 165. The multiple intelligences theory does NOT include _____ intelligence. a. logical-mathematical b. musical c. naturalistic d. emotional 166. Which word is a child LEAST likely to use visually based retrieval to read? a. cat b. mommy c. grandma d. boy 167. The few studies that have examined the association between HOME scores and children's IQ scores in adoptive families have indicated that the associations for children who are adopted are _____ the associations found with children living with their biological parents. a. lower than b. exactly the same as c. almost the same as d. greater than 168. The genetic contribution to intelligence a. remains stable across the life span. b. is strongest when individuals are young. c. becomes greater as individuals get older. d. is an artificial concept.

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Chap 08_6ce 169. Amber is taking the WISC-V and is asked to "pick an object from each pair to make a group of objects that go together." Which subtest does this question assess? a. verbal comprehension b. visual-spatial processing c. fluid reasoning d. working memory 170. Which statement about individuals' intelligence tests at different ages is TRUE? a. The correlation between individuals' IQ scores at a particular age and their scores 5 years later is approximately 0.90. b. On average, individuals' IQ scores increase 13 points between age 4 and age 17. c. If intelligence tests are administered according to instructions, there should be no change in an individual's IQ score with age. d. Children who take an intelligence test at age 12 and again at age 17 show an average change, up or down, of 7 points.

171. _____ view of intelligence hypothesizes intelligence as comprising numerous distinct processes. a. Thurstone's b. Simon's c. The nativist d. The information-processing 172. IQ calculation relies on the fact that intelligence scores fall into what type of distribution? a. normal b. standard deviated c. skewed d. double-mean 173. Mathematical equality refers to the a. concept that the values on the two sides of an equal sign must balance. b. equivalent solutions generated by multiple accurate strategies. c. fact that good math students and perfectionists are equally accurate. d. procedure for selecting amongst alternative ways to solve a problem.

174. Describe Sternberg's theory of successful intelligence. What does he propose is included in successful intelligence?

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Chap 08_6ce 175. Think about your fellow students in high school or university. Describe two of them, one whose IQ score (at least your assumption of it) is consistent with his or her grades in the way in which you would expect, and one whose IQ score is less consistent with his or her grades. For the person whose IQ score is less consistent with his or her grades, explain the inconsistency. What other factors appear to have an influence on grades for this person?

176. Describe the phenomenon known as the Flynn effect. Give a detailed explanation of why you believe this phenomenon has occurred. Are there any alternative explanations? Why or why not?

177. Consider the theoretical perspectives related to intelligence that have been covered in this chapter. Based on what you have reviewed, what is your own view of intelligence? Provide a detailed description of your perspective along with an argument about why your perspective is correct.

178. Define practical intelligence and give an example of it. Explain the relationships among practical intelligence, IQ, and occupational success.

179. Simone has always hated math class. She tries to avoid math if she can, putting off her homework and not studying for her math class. She doesn't think she is good at math compared to her peers. What is going on with Simone and why?

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Chap 08_6ce 180. A school principal who is interested in the impact of schooling on children's IQ scores needs to acquire evidence for the relationship between schooling and intelligence. Write a brief review of the relevant research on the topic.

181. Describe the prereading skills that are associated with later reading ability. Are these prereading skills causally related to later reading ability? Explain the causal or correlational associations.

182. What is an IQ? Describe how IQ scores are computed. Why are IQ scores calculated in this manner? What is the advantage to this method of computation?

183. Describe the controversy about how intelligence should be defined. What resolution has been proposed by John Carroll?

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Chap 08_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. b 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. d 73. b 74. c 75. a 76. c 77. c 78. c 79. b 80. c 81. d 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 83. d 84. a 85. d 86. d 87. b 88. d 89. a 90. d 91. c 92. d 93. c 94. b 95. a 96. a 97. b 98. d 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. c 103. b 104. b 105. a 106. c 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 111. d 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. d 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. d 120. d 121. c 122. a 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. c 127. a 128. d 129. b 130. d 131. b 132. b 133. a 134. c 135. a 136. d 137. a

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Chap 08_6ce 138. a 139. b 140. a 141. d 142. d 143. c 144. d 145. d 146. b 147. c 148. a 149. d 150. b 151. d 152. a 153. c 154. a 155. b 156. a 157. b 158. b 159. a 160. d 161. a 162. c 163. b 164. c 165. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_6ce 166. c 167. a 168. c 169. c 170. d 171. d 172. a 173. a 174. Robert Sternberg's theory of successful intelligence envisions intelligence as "the ability to achieve success in life, given one's personal standards, within one's sociocultural context." In his view, success in life reflects people's ability to build on their strengths, to compensate for their weaknesses, and to select environments in which they can succeed. Sternberg proposed that success in life depends on three types of abilities: analytic, practical, and creative. Analytic abilities involve the linguistic, mathematical, and spatial skills that are measured by traditional intelligence tests. Practical abilities involve reasoning about everyday problems, such as how to resolve conflicts with other people. Creative abilities involve intellectual flexibility and innovation that allow adaptation to novel circumstances.

175. Answers for this question will vary. However, students should discuss other factors that can predict success when discussing the student who earned high academic grades but they consider to have low intelligence. Other factors include practical intelligence, environmental characteristics, and motivation level. They could also discuss the importance of general intelligence in terms of the person whose academic grades do not reflect their high level of intelligence.

176. The Flynn effect is a consistent rise in average IQ scores that has occurred over the past 80 years in many countries. The cause of the Flynn effect remains controversial. Some researchers argue that the key factors are improvements in the lives of low-income families, such as improved nutrition, health, and education. Another explanation is increased societal emphasis on abstract problem solving and reasoning.

177. Answers for this item will vary considering that students need to provide their own view of intelligence. Students may discuss a single trait of intelligence (general intelligence), two types of intelligence (fluid and crystalized intelligence), or even John B. Carroll's three-stratum theory of intelligence. They may also discuss some of the alternative views on intelligence, such as Gardner's theory or Sternberg's theory.

178. Practical intelligence can be defined as skills useful in everyday life but not measured by traditional intelligence tests. This may include accurately reading other people's intentions and motivating others to work effectively as a team. Research has shown that practical intelligence predicts occupational success beyond the influence of IQ score.

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Chap 08_6ce 179. Simone is demonstrating mathematics anxiety, a negative emotional state that leads to fear and avoidance of math.

This could have developed as early as grade 1 and may cause lifelong problems for her. There are many reasons for mathematics anxiety, including the unambiguous right/wrong status of answers to many mathematics problems, the widespread belief that mathematics is closely linked to intelligence, and the frustrating periods with no apparent progress that mathematics learning often entails. Mathematics anxiety is more common in girls than boys and among those who do poorly in math. It can also be taught by parents and teachers who themselves are anxious about mathematics.

180. Attending school makes children smarter. One type of evidence for this comes from a study that examined IQ scores of older and younger Israeli children in grades 4, 5, and 6. Older children within each grade did somewhat better than younger children within that grade on each part of the test. However, children who were only slightly older, but who had a year more schooling, did much better than the slightly younger children in the grade below them. The positive effects of education on IQ scores is a result of education increasing several specific cognitive skills measured on IQ tests, such as inferential reasoning and logical memory. Additionally, average IQ and achievement test scores rise during the school year but not during summer vacation.

181. Preschoolers acquire certain basic information about reading just from looking at books and having their parents read to them. They learn that text is read from left to right; that, after they reach the right end of a line, the text continues at the extreme left of the line below; and that words are separated by small spaces. Many parents teach their children the names of most letters in the alphabet. While this knowledge is positively correlated with reading achievement in middle school, it is not a causal relationship. Other factors, such as children's interest in books and parents' interest in their children's reading, stimulate both early knowledge of the alphabet and later high reading achievement. Phonemic awareness is both correlated to and the cause of later reading achievement.

182. IQ is an abbreviation for intelligence quotient. It is a quantitative measure, typically with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. It is used to indicate a child's intelligence relative to that of other children of the same age. Early developers of intelligence tests observed that many easy-to-measure aspects of intelligence fall into a normal distribution, which is symmetrical around a mean (average) value, with most scores falling relatively near the mean. The farther a score is from the mean, the smaller the percentage of people who obtain it. The normal distribution found in intelligence test scores of children of a given age means that most IQ scores are close to the mean, with relatively few children obtaining very high or very low scores. Early designers of IQ tests made an arbitrary decision that has been maintained ever since: a score of 100 is given to children who score exactly at the mean for their age at the time the test is developed. IQ scores also reflect the standard deviation, which is 15 for most IQ tests. An advantage of this scoring system is that IQ scores at different ages are easy to compare, despite the great increases in knowledge that accompany development in all children.

183. There are various ways in which intelligence is defined. For instance, some view intelligence as a single trait, such as general intelligence. Others hold that there are two different types of intelligence, fluid intelligence and crystalized intelligence. Fluid intelligence is the ability to think on the spot to solve novel problems, and crystalized intelligence is factual knowledge about the world. Yet a third view holds that intelligence is comprised of numerous distinct processes. These processes include remembering, perceiving, attending, comprehending, encoding, associating, generalizing, planning, reasoning, and so on. To help resolve these competing theories, John B. Carroll proposed the three-stratum theory of intelligence. At the top of the hierarchy is general intelligence, fluid and crystalized intelligence are in the middle, and at the bottom are many specific processes.

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Chap 09_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. _____ theories are primarily concerned with children's ability to think and reason about their own and other people's thoughts, feelings, motives, and behaviour. a. Social learning b. Ecological c. Psychoanalytic d. Social cognitive 2. Which developmental issue is of main concern for ecological theories? a. continuity versus discontinuity b. critical periods c. nature versus nurture d. active learning versus passive learning 3. According to Freud, which personality structure develops into the individual's sense of self? a. the id b. the superid c. the ego d. the superego 4. Which statement about media and children is TRUE? a. Media violence has been found to have little impact on children's aggressive behaviour. b. Media violence reduces children's aggressive behaviour. c. The evidence is clear that media violence has an immediate but not long-term effect on children's aggressive behaviour. d. There is evidence that media violence has both an immediate effect and a long-term effect on children's aggressive behaviour, but there is a great deal of debate about these findings.

5. Which stage begins with the start of sexual maturation? a. phallic b. latency c. genital d. oral 6. What is the last stage of development, according to Freud? a. phallic stage b. oral stage c. genital stage d. latency period Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_6ce 7. Social-learning theory emphasizes the importance of _____ as a mechanism of development. a. imitation b. punishment c. contexts d. reinforcement 8. During which stage does the superego develop? a. phallic b. latency c. anal d. genital 9. Which characteristic does NOT describe the id? a. unconscious b. primitive c. impulsive d. realistic 10. Albert Bandura is recognized for his contributions to a. psychosocial theory. b. ecological theory. c. behaviourism. d. social-learning theory.

11. Consistent with research on nonhuman primates and rodents, children who have been exposed to adverse rearing conditions demonstrate disruptions in their a. hormonal systems. b. genetic influences. c. limbic system functions. d. cultural influences.

12. _____ is a step that can be taken at the microsystem level to fight against the negative effects of media on children. a. Parental control of children's access b. School-based programs to educate children about the effects of media c. Violent media d. Regulation of advertising

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Chap 09_6ce 13. Ethological theorists draw a parallel between imprinting in other animals and _____ in humans. a. the extended period of immaturity b. play preferences of males and females c. innate visual preferences for an oval shape with more components in the top half d. the critical period for attachment 14. Which factor involved in ADHD is part of the chronosystem? a. perception of drug companies that ADHD drugs will be profitable b. health authorities' evaluation of ADHD medications c. requirement that children sit still and concentrate while at school d. advent of compulsory schooling 15. Even though his parents have explained to him that it is dishonest and therefore wrong to tell lies, Zachary once again lies to his sister about where her favourite blanket is. Shortly after doing so, he feels intensely sorry for what he has done. According to Erikson's theory, Zachary appears as if he has successfully resolved which crisis? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. industry versus inferiority c. initiative versus guilt d. basic trust versus mistrust 16. Long-standing contributions of psychoanalytic theories to developmental psychology do NOT include a. the significance of early experience. b. the notion that a great portion of one's mental life occurs outside consciousness. c. an emphasis on the development of identity. d. the influence of one's sexual nature on development.

17. The superego is ruled by a. the conscience. b. reasoning and logic. c. conscious impulses. d. the reality principle.

18. John Watson is known for his contributions to a. psychoanalysis. b. behaviourism. c. information-processing approaches. d. imprinting.

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Chap 09_6ce 19. To examine children's use of aggression in dealing with social problems, Dodge and his colleagues a. interviewed children about why they are aggressive with their peers. b. examined the contexts in which children display aggression. c. examined whether aggressive children are able to take the perspective of others. d. presented children with hypothetical stories in which they were the victims of another child's ambiguous actions.

20. If the id, as theorized by Freud, could speak, which statement would it be MOST likely to say? a. "Let's consider our options." b. "I want it NOW!" c. "That's not the right thing to do." d. "That's going to cause problems in the future."

21. One of the most notable contributions of social cognitive theories is that they a. can advise parents on how to deal with children's problematic behaviour. b. view the effect of children's social experience as dependent on their interpretations of the experiences. c. focus on the role of the unconscious. d. concentrate on the influence of biological factors on development.

22. According to Freud, _____ leads to the emergence of the superego in children. a. coping with the intense sexual desires of the genital stage b. coping with the intense sexual desires of the phallic stage c. the need to suppress immediate gratification in the anal stage d. the need to suppress immediate gratification in the phallic stage 23. Michael is 16 years old. Which stage of development is he currently in, according to Freud? a. phallic stage b. oral stage c. genital stage d. latency period 24. When a child is driven by mastery or by others' views of their success, they are experiencing a. achievement motivation. b. the entity orientation. c. a hostile attributional bias. d. self-socialization.

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Chap 09_6ce 25. The chronosystem involves the a. settings in which the child is not a direct participant. b. change in person or environment over time. c. general beliefs, values, customs, and laws of the larger society. d. activities, roles, and relationships in which the child directly participates.

26. Dawn, who is 3 years old, wants a toy that her friend is holding. Without regard for her friend's feelings or her parents' rules about taking other children's toys, Dawn uses all her strength to pull the toy from her friend's hands. Freud would assert that Dawn is primarily being led by her a. superego. b. id. c. ego. d. conscience.

27. _____ is an example of the way in which children play an active role in their own development. a. Reciprocal determinism b. Behaviour modification c. Operant conditioning d. Systematic desensitization 28. According to Selman, young children's thinking about other people is a. surprisingly abstract. b. less egocentric. c. complex. d. unrelated to their level of cognitive development.

29. According to Freud, children's identification with the same-sex parent begins when a. they imprint onto him or her. b. their biological urges come into play. c. they must repress their sexual feelings for their opposite-sex parent. d. they internalize their parents' beliefs, values, and attitudes.

30. Jeremy is taking geometry this year and is focused on mastering the subject. He spends time each day studying for geometry and really likes learning the subject. Jeremy is demonstrating a. achievement motivation. b. the entity orientation. c. a hostile attributional bias. d. self-socialization.

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Chap 09_6ce 31. Operant conditioning relies on the expectation that individuals a. can reduce their fear of objects or experiences if they are repeatedly exposed to them. b. are programmed to imitate others' behaviours and reactions. c. tend to repeat behaviours that lead to favourable outcomes and stop behaviours that result in unfavourable outcomes. d. are able to think and reason about their behaviours.

32. Mary and Ben are new parents. John Watson would likely advise them to treat their child with a. respect. b. hostile attributions. c. affection. d. objectivity.

33. Which statement provides an example of reciprocal determinism? a. A child becomes fearful of snakes after being bitten by one. b. A child who tends to treat others with kindness influences her peers' behaviour, which in turn influences the child. c. A child with poor academic self-efficacy is more likely than other children to withdraw from school work. d. A child continues to throw temper tantrums because he gets what he wants as a result.

34. The id is ruled by a. the conscience. b. the pleasure principle. c. conscious impulses. d. the reality principle.

35. With his information-processing theory of social problem solving, Kenneth Dodge is particularly interested in children's a. ability to take the perspective of others. b. use of aggression as a strategy. c. propensity to learn from others' rewards and punishment. d. reactions to failure.

36. Using social media platforms would be located in the _____ bioecological level. a. exosystem b. macrosystem c. microsystem d. mesosystem

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Chap 09_6ce 37. According to Selman, children in stage 4 a. believe that others' different perspectives stem from possession of different knowledge. b. realize that others have different perspectives and are able to think about others' points of view. c. are able to systematically compare their own and another person's points of view. d. attempt to understand others' views by comparing them to the generalized other.

38. Reza tends to base his self-worth on the approval he receives or does not receive from other people. When given a choice, he is likely to choose situations in which he can _____. He is considered to have an _____ orientation. a. be assured of success; entity/helpless b. be assured of success; incremental/mastery c. enjoy the challenge of a difficult problem; entity/helpless d. enjoy the challenge of a difficult problem; incremental/mastery 39. Which theorist claimed that he could train any child to become any kind of specialist, regardless of the characteristics of the child's ancestors? a. Skinner b. Watson c. Freud d. Bandura 40. Which factor associated with child maltreatment is NOT within the microsystem? a. parental alcohol dependence b. community violence c. children who have developmental disabilities d. abusive spousal relationship 41. According to Erikson, if adolescents do not successfully develop a core sense of identity, they will experience a. mistrust. b. role confusion. c. isolation. d. shame and doubt.

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Chap 09_6ce 42. The parents of 2-year-old Joshua are frustrated with his screaming when he wants something. Which scenario is an example of intermittent reinforcement? a. His parents always give Joshua what he wants, whether or not he screams. b. His parents always give Joshua what he wants only when he screams. c. Sometimes his parents give Joshua what he wants when he screams, and sometimes they refuse to give him what he wants when he screams. d. His parents never give Joshua what he wants when he screams.

43. Many evolutionary psychologists believe that _____ is/are an evolved platform for learning. a. computers b. books c. school d. play 44. On the issue of continuous versus discontinuous development, theories of social cognition a. view development as continuous. b. view development as discontinuous. c. vary as to whether they view development as continuous or discontinuous. d. see the issue of continuity versus discontinuity as irrelevant.

45. According to Freud, which personality structure is primitive? a. the id b. the superid c. the ego d. the superego 46. If the ego, as theorized by Freud, could speak, which statement would it be MOST likely to say? a. "Let's figure out how to make this work." b. "I want it NOW!" c. "That's not the right thing to do." d. "That's going to cause problems in the future."

47. Bandura did NOT come to emphasize the role of a. attention. b. memory. c. retrieval. d. role taking.

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Chap 09_6ce 48. John Watson advised parents to treat their children with a. respect. b. hostile attributions. c. affection. d. objectivity.

49. According to Freud, the phallic stage encompasses approximately what age(s)? a. 2 to 3 years b. 3 to 6 years c. 6 to 12 years d. the beginning of sexual maturation through adulthood 50. The fourth stage in Freud's theory, which lasts from age 6 to age 12, is called the a. phallic stage. b. oral stage. c. genital stage. d. latency period.

51. A person who believes that intelligence can grow as a function of experience is considered by Dweck and her colleagues to have a(n) _____ theory of intelligence. a. learning b. entity c. incremental d. mastery 52. Children who demonstrate a mastery orientation in response to failure a. tend to focus on their own evaluations of themselves, rather than others' evaluations of them. b. believe that intelligence is a fixed trait. c. believe that they are smart in nearly all contexts. d. give up when they experience failure.

53. According to Freud, infants are in which stage of development? a. immediate gratification b. anal c. comfort d. oral

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Chap 09_6ce 54. Research by Dweck and colleagues on the association between individuals' theories of intelligence and their math achievement demonstrated that a. ability-focused praise had a positive influence on math achievement. b. grade 7 students with an entity theory of intelligence had stable math scores over 2 years. c. teaching students to modify their theory of intelligence can lead to an improvement in their grades. d. all of these are true.

55. The family is part of which level of the bioecological model? a. the mesosystem b. the microsystem c. the macrosystem d. the chronosystem 56. Which factor associated with child maltreatment is within the child's exosystem? a. poor parental self-esteem b. difficult temperament c. parental drug dependence d. unemployment 57. Ethological theorists hypothesize that the play preferences of males and females are due to a. parents' encouragement. b. evolved predispositions. c. imprinting. d. the desire to be like others of the same sex.

58. Jayden is an infant and, as all infants do, seeks immediate gratification. Freud would say that Jayden is ruled by his a. conscience. b. superego. c. erogenous zones. d. id.

59. According to Freud, children begin to identify with their same-sex parent in the _____ stage. a. genital b. phallic c. latency d. anal

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Chap 09_6ce 60. Individuals in the anal stage are focused on conflict surrounding a. breast-feeding. b. parents' choice of intellectual pursuits for the child. c. toilet training. d. the conscience.

61. If the superego, as theorized by Freud, could speak, which statement would it be MOST likely to say? a. "Let's consider our options." b. "I want it NOW!" c. "That's not the right thing to do." d. "That's going to cause problems in the future."

62. Evolutionary psychologists suggest that the prolonged period of human children's immaturity is a. wasteful. b. a result of the nested structure of human contexts. c. caused by parents' reinforcement of children's immature behaviour. d. adaptive.

63. Media is located in which bioecological level? a. exosystem b. macrosystem c. microsystem d. mesosystem 64. Watson employed _____ to create fear of a white rat in "Little Albert." a. systematic desensitization b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. role taking 65. Erikson's stages are characterized by a. the personality structure that emerges during the particular stage. b. a specific crisis that must be resolved. c. the erogenous zones in which the psychic energy is focused. d. a particular manner of responding to reward and reinforcement.

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Chap 09_6ce 66. On which point do Freud and current developmental psychologists disagree? a. existence of infantile amnesia b. effect of repression on early memory c. importance of close early relationships d. idea that much of human behaviour stems from unconscious processes 67. Melissa uses time-outs for her child when he misbehaves, a practice based on the idea that _____ is a positive reinforcement to misbehaviour. a. whining b. learning c. withdrawal d. attention 68. Which statement about the contribution of psychoanalytic theories to psychology is TRUE? a. Psychoanalytic theories have yielded important practical applications, such as the procedure of systematic desensitization. b. The importance placed on subjective experience is now viewed as outdated. c. The specifics have been scientifically tested and supported. d. The emphasis on early experience has endured into current views of development.

69. The macrosystem involves the a. settings in which the child is not a direct participant. b. temporal dimension. c. general beliefs, values, customs, and laws of the larger society. d. activities, roles, and relationships in which the child directly participates.

70. Which condition would be the MOST interesting to an ethological theorist? a. aggression b. role taking c. societal value placed on independence d. divorce 71. Which factor is a benefit of meditation? a. improved immune system functioning b. improved attention c. both improved immune system functioning and improved attention d. neither improved immune system functioning nor improved attention

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Chap 09_6ce 72. The parents of 2-year-old Joshua are frustrated with his screaming when he wants something. According to Skinner, which of these would be the BEST advice to give Joshua's parents if they wish to stop Joshua's screaming? a. Give Joshua what he wants, whether or not he screams. b. Always give Joshua what he wants when he screams. c. Sometimes give Joshua what he wants when he screams, and sometimes refuse to give him what he wants when he screams. d. Never give Joshua what he wants when he screams.

73. Explicit predictions based on principles of learning theories can be a. empirically tested. b. clinically observed. c. empirically observed. d. clinically tested.

74. Traditional learning theorists emphasize the importance of _____ on children's development. a. cognitive factors b. internal forces c. subjective experience d. external factors 75. The use of _____ provides evidence of a resilient brain. a. experimental designs b. neuroimaging techniques c. survey methods d. observational studies 76. A hostile attributional bias is a likely result of a. poor perceived self-efficacy. b. a maladaptive pattern of reinforcement and punishment. c. physical abuse. d. an entity theory of aggression.

77. Which of the following are avoided in most theories of social development? a. instincts b. imprinting c. brain systems d. genetic adaptations

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Chap 09_6ce 78. Freud's contributions to developmental psychology do NOT include an emphasis on the importance of a. unconscious processes. b. close relationships. c. early experience. d. objective experience.

79. Which statement describes a weakness concerning the majority of learning theories? a. They fail to consider biological influences on development and behaviour outcomes. b. They fail to consider genetic and environmental influences on development and behaviour outcomes. c. They fail to consider social and cultural influences on development and behavioural outcomes. d. A major weakness of learning theories does not exist.

80. According to the text, which type of praise or criticism would be MOST likely to be associated with children developing an incremental/mastery orientation in response to failure? a. "I think you need to try harder." b. "You're very smart at these problems." c. "You just can't do math." d. "I'm proud of you."

81. _____ is part of the mesosystem. a. Parents' contact with a child's soccer coach b. Societal importance placed on the athletic prowess of boys c. A child's favourite TV show d. A father's job as a truck driver 82. During which stage does the ego develop? a. phallic b. latency c. oral d. anal 83. Eliza tends to base her self-worth on her own effort and learning. When given a choice, she is likely to choose situations in which she can _____. She is considered to have an _____ orientation. a. be assured of success; entity/helpless b. be assured of success; incremental/mastery c. enjoy the challenge of a difficult problem; entity/helpless d. enjoy the challenge of a difficult problem; incremental/mastery

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Chap 09_6ce 84. The central issue in Erikson's first stage is a. developing high standards. b. achieving a sense of autonomy. c. developing a sense of trust. d. mastering skills important to the culture.

85. Role taking can be best defined as a. adopting the perspective of another person. b. forming a solid identity. c. becoming intimate with another person. d. deciding on a career path.

86. Children's _____ lead them to choose certain environments over others. a. personal characteristics b. temperament c. biological distributions d. genetic influences 87. The exosystem involves the a. settings in which the child is not a direct participant. b. temporal dimension. c. general beliefs, values, customs, and laws of the larger society. d. connections amongst the contexts in which the child directly participates.

88. Behaviour modification is a(n) a. way to help children overcome a hostile attributional bias. b. approach used to help people conquer their fears. c. form of therapy that is useful for changing undesirable behaviours. d. treatment to cure autism.

89. Children spend the MOST time in which activity? a. going to school b. nonspecific play with friends c. athletics d. media interaction

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Chap 09_6ce 90. A person who believes that intelligence is fixed is considered by Dweck and her colleagues to have a(n) _____ theory of intelligence. a. learning b. entity c. incremental d. mastery 91. Children with ADHD a. tend to be of below-average intelligence. b. typically show severe emotional disturbances. c. have difficulty inhibiting impulses to act. d. are more likely to be female.

92. The age of the child is part of the _____ of the bioecological model. a. mesosystem b. microsystem c. chronosystem d. macrosystem 93. Which characteristic is NOT true of children who use media screens heavily? a. more advanced social skills b. poorer grades c. higher levels of obesity d. lower arousal levels when viewing violence 94. The bioecological model stresses the _____ nature of all relationships within the microsystem. a. one-dimensional b. direct c. indirect d. bidirectional 95. Which of the following theories is primarily concerned with the survival value of particular behaviours? a. social learning b. ethological c. psychoanalytic d. social cognitive

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Chap 09_6ce 96. Compared to Freud's theory, Erikson's theory a. has fewer stages. b. is more focused on the influence of sexual pleasure on development. c. spans from infancy to old age. d. views development as more continuous.

97. Watching sitcoms and films would be located in the _____ bioecological level. a. exosystem b. macrosystem c. microsystem d. mesosystem 98. In a study that examined the amount of time male and female newborns looked at human faces and at mobiles, results demonstrated that a. both male and female infants primarily looked at mobiles. b. both male and female infants primarily looked at faces. c. male infants looked longer at mobiles and female infants looked longer at faces. d. female infants looked longer at mobiles and male infants looked longer at faces.

99. In which of Freud's stages of development does sexual energy get channeled into socially acceptable activities? a. phallic stage b. oral stage c. genital stage d. latency period 100. Evolutionary psychologists posit that parents spend the great deal of time and resources that they do in raising their children because a. their genes will be perpetuated only if their children survive long enough to reproduce. b. they have been socialized to do so by imitating their own parents. c. their children's affection and attention serve as positive reinforcements. d. their children are imprinted on them.

101. Which sequence lists the stages of Freud's theory in the CORRECT developmental order? a. anal, phallic, oral, latency, genital b. oral, latency, genital, phallic, anal c. genital, oral, anal, phallic, latency d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

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Chap 09_6ce 102. Which statement about intermittent reinforcement is TRUE? a. Intermittent reinforcement is effective only with adults. b. Behaviours supported by intermittent reinforcement are difficult to extinguish. c. Intermittent reinforcement is the key to behaviour modification. d. The discipline strategy of time-outs is based on intermittent reinforcement.

103. Bandura's Bobo doll study did NOT demonstrate that a. children can learn through imitation. b. children's behaviour may be inconsistent with what they have learned. c. seeing others rewarded and punished can influence a child's behaviour. d. reinforcement is necessary for learning.

104. Bronfenbrenner contributed to which of the following theories? a. the bioecological model b. the theory of social cognition c. the psychosexual perspective d. behaviourism 105. Which learning theory considered the role of cognition in influencing behaviour? a. behaviourism b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. social cognitive theory 106. Which concept is MOST closely related to a hostile attributional bias? a. entity theory b. incremental theory c. performance goals d. learning goals 107. Which statement about children's exposure to pornography is TRUE? a. Most pornographic websites require adult verification. b. The number of pornographic websites is very small, preventing children from having ready access. c. Exposure to pornography is associated with tolerance of aggression towards women. d. Exposure to pornography is associated with less tolerance of extramarital sex.

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Chap 09_6ce 108. According to Freud's theory, infants fear a. delay of gratification. b. loss of love. c. potty training. d. hunger.

109. What can parents do to help their children successfully resolve Erikson's basic trust versus mistrust stage? a. be consistent and warm in their caretaking b. help the children have successful experiences c. not be highly controlling d. instill socially acceptable behaviours 110. Which statement presents an important aspect of learning theories that differs from psychoanalytic theories? a. Psychoanalytic theories are based on observations, whereas learning theories are not. b. Learning theories are based on observations, whereas psychoanalytic theories are not. c. Learning theories are based on principles derived from experiments, whereas psychoanalytic theories are not. d. Psychoanalytic theories are based on principles derived from experiments, whereas learning theories are not.

111. Social cognitive theories are considered somewhat incomplete because they fail to a. discuss the role of biological factors in development. b. see children as actively involved in their own development. c. fully consider cognitive factors. d. have any real-world implications.

112. Which stage of development, according to Freud, begins in adolescence and includes completion of sexual maturation? a. phallic stage b. oral stage c. genital stage d. latency period 113. Parental-investment theory can be used to explain a. differences in rates of child abuse perpetrated against biological children versus stepchildren. b. imprinting. c. societal changes in views of women in the workforce. d. hostile attributional biases.

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Chap 09_6ce 114. According to Selman, 6- to 8-year-old children a. believe that others' different perspectives stem from possession of different knowledge. b. realize that others have different perspectives and are able to think about others' points of view. c. are able to systematically compare their own and another person's points of view. d. believe that others cannot have a different perspective from their own.

115. Research using rodents and nonhuman primates has found that _____ are disrupted by adverse early life experiences. a. hormonal systems b. genetic influences c. limbic system functions d. cultural influences 116. Carlos feels guilty when he disobeys his parents' rule about not eating cookies before dinner. Freud would see Carlos's guilt as a sign that he has developed a(n) a. superego. b. fixation. c. id. d. ego.

117. _____ is part of the chronosystem. a. The societal belief that men should be breadwinners b. A father's job loss c. The societal shift in the employment status of women over the past decade d. A mother's practice of taking her daughter to work on Take Your Daughter to Work Day 118. According to Freud, which personality structure develops FIRST? a. the id b. the superid c. the ego d. the superego 119. Contemporary learning theorists emphasize the importance of _____ on children's development. a. socialization b. internal forces c. subjective experience d. context

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Chap 09_6ce 120. What do psychoanalytic theories emphasize in relation to development? a. social reasoning b. external factors as sources of development c. continuity of individual differences d. the importance of cognitive factors in development 121. According to Freud, in every stage, children a. must channel their psychic energy outside of their body. b. face conflicts related to a particular erogenous zone. c. constrain the id with the superego. d. do all of these.

122. Which concept is NOT included in Dweck's theory of self-attribution and achievement motivation? a. incremental theory b. mastery orientation c. performance d. learning goals 123. Bree and her husband have a newborn baby boy. What can they do to help their son successfully resolve Erikson's basic trust versus mistrust stage? a. be consistent and warm in their caretaking b. help the child have successful experiences c. not be highly controlling d. instill socially acceptable behaviours 124. Imprinting is of particular concern to _____ theorists. a. bioecological b. psychoanalytic c. ethological d. social learning 125. Professor Albright studies the evolutionary bases of behaviour. His focus is on a. ethology. b. the entity theory. c. the social-learning theory. d. information processing.

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Chap 09_6ce 126. Which statement about Selman's stage theory of role taking is TRUE? a. Before adolescence, children are unable to acknowledge the existence of perspectives different from their own. b. Children's progress through the stages is strongly related to their progress through Piaget's stages. c. Although the theory describes stages, Selman believed that most individuals progress through these changes in a simultaneous fashion. d. By approximately age 10, children can assess whether another person's view is typical of most people in their social group.

127. According to Freud, if a person's fundamental needs are not met during a particular stage, the person may a. become fixated on the issues relevant to that stage. b. experience an identity crisis. c. make hostile attributions. d. develop infantile amnesia.

128. Bernard believes that his intelligence is fixed and that there is little he can do to change it. When Bernard encounters failure, he would be expected to a. work persistently to solve the problem. b. believe that his failure is due to a lack of effort. c. believe he is still smart regardless of the failure. d. feel helpless.

129. Parental-investment theory explains the higher rate of murder committed by stepfathers against stepchildren than of murder committed by fathers against biological children in terms of the difference in a. time spent with the children. b. genetic similarity. c. attachment. d. societal endorsement.

130. According to Erikson, if a person does not successfully resolve the conflict of a particular stage, the person a. becomes fixated on the needs of that stage. b. makes hostile attributions. c. develops infantile amnesia. d. continues to struggle with the issue.

131. Bandura's theory did NOT a. emphasize the role of cognitive aspects of learning. b. hold that direct reinforcement is required for learning. c. focus on the role of observations of others. d. acknowledge the active role children play in their own development.

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Chap 09_6ce 132. For which of the following functions is the prefrontal cortex NOT responsible? a. emotion regulation b. language c. selective attention d. empathy 133. According to evolutionary psychologists, which situation is NOT associated with the large size of the human brain (relative to body size) in comparison with other species? a. birth occurring at a more mature stage of development b. increased social complexity c. prolonged period of immaturity and dependence d. high level of neural plasticity 134. Matt is watching his older brother, Zach, get punished for breaking a house rule. Matt is experiencing a. vicarious reinforcement. b. intermittent reinforcement. c. behaviour modification. d. reciprocal determinism.

135. Psychoanalytic theories view development as driven by a. external factors. b. biological maturation. c. the multiple contexts in which children develop. d. children's active shaping of their own development.

136. Which personality structure is considered the conscience? a. the ego b. the id c. the superego d. the subego 137. The _____ is NOT a personality structure hypothesized by Freud. a. ego b. superego c. id d. superid

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Chap 09_6ce 138. With respect to the nature of children and development, theories of social cognition emphasize a. self-socialization. b. reinforcement and imitation. c. the stages children progress through as they develop. d. the contexts of which children are a part.

139. Simone is 8 years old and enjoys spending her free time playing soccer. Her favourite subject in school is math. Which stage of development is she currently in, according to Freud? a. phallic stage b. oral stage c. genital stage d. latency period 140. Evolutionary psychology is primarily concerned with a. the effects of various levels of context on human development. b. understanding how humans are similar to and different from other animals, especially other primates. c. the differences between developing within species-typical environments and developing within species-atypical environments. d. the application of natural selection and adaptation to human behaviour.

141. Freud's stages are characterized by a. the context that is important during that time period. b. a specific crisis that must be resolved. c. the erogenous zones in which the psychic energy is focused. d. a particular manner of responding to reward and reinforcement.

142. While Alex is swinging on the school playground's monkey bars, he kicks Michael on the shoulder. If Michael has a hostile attributional bias, he will believe a. Alex kicked him intentionally. b. Alex kicked him accidentally. c. he got in Alex's way. d. he deserved to be kicked.

143. The mesosystem involves the a. settings in which the child is not a direct participant. b. general beliefs, values, customs, and laws of the larger society. c. activities, roles, and relationships in which the child directly participates. d. connections amongst the contexts in which the child directly participates.

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Chap 09_6ce 144. The bioecological model views development as being due to a. nature. b. nurture. c. the interaction between nature and nurture. d. nature when a person is young and nurture as the person gets older.

145. The superego is based on a. the reality principle. b. internalization of parents' standards for acceptable behaviour. c. the pleasure principle. d. none of these.

146. Seth and his preschool friend frequently dump all the books off the bookshelf in the classroom. One day, Seth observes his friend being punished by their preschool teacher after she saw his friend dumping the books. After seeing his friend punished, Seth never again dumps books off the bookshelf. Seth has learned through a. imitation. b. punishment. c. vicarious reinforcement. d. reciprocal determinism.

147. Pria's friends love to gossip, and they wish Pria would gossip more than she currently does. According to operant conditioning, which scenario is likely to increase Pria's gossiping? a. Her friends yell at her when she is not gossiping and threaten that they will not be friends with her if she does not gossip more. b. Her friends stop talking to her altogether. c. Her friends pay lots of attention to her when she is gossiping and walk away when she is not gossiping. d. Her friends explain to her why they want her to gossip more and ask her to please do so.

148. Which theories largely focus on aspects of behaviour that serve an adaptive function? a. ethological and evolutionary b. social cognitive and social learning c. operant conditioning and social learning d. psychosocial and psychosexual

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Chap 09_6ce 149. An entity/helpless orientation refers to the a. belief that intelligence can grow as a result of experience. b. belief that intelligence is fixed. c. tendency to attribute success and failure to enduring aspects of the self and to give up in the face of failure. d. tendency to attribute success and failure to amount of effort expended and to persist in the face of failure.

150. Freud theorized that individuals' development is propelled by a. their instinctual drives. b. the contexts in which they live. c. interpretations of their parents' behaviour. d. their attributional biases.

151. The ego is ruled by a. the conscience. b. reasoning and logic. c. conscious impulses. d. the reality principle.

152. Which of these is NOT a goal theorized to be important by Erikson's first five stages of development? a. differentiation b. trust c. identity d. initiative 153. _____ is part of the exosystem. a. Parents' contact with a child's soccer coach b. Societal importance placed on the athletic prowess of boys c. A child's soccer team d. A father's job as a truck driver 154. On the topic of continuous versus discontinuous development, learning theories a. propose that development is continuous. b. propose that development is discontinuous. c. propose that development is continuous within the major stages of development. d. do not address the issue of continuity and discontinuity.

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Chap 09_6ce 155. According to Erikson, when parents support their toddlers' development of self-control without instigating a loss of self-esteem, toddlers will develop a sense of a. industry. b. autonomy. c. trust. d. initiative.

156. _____ is part of the macrosystem. a. The societal belief that men should be breadwinners b. A father's job loss c. The societal shift in the employment status of women over the past decade d. A mother's practice of taking her daughter to work on Take Your Daughter to Work Day 157. Which concept is NOT included in Dweck's theory of self-attribution and achievement motivation? a. entity theory b. helpless orientation c. performance goals d. effort 158. According to Dodge's information-processing theory of social problem solving, aggressive children's primary problem is that they a. have a bias in their interpretations of others' behaviours. b. expect aggressive behaviour to be useful in getting along with others. c. do not possess the ability to formulate socially acceptable goals. d. have a poor capacity to generate strategies to achieve their goals.

159. According to Erikson, children develop a conscience during which stage? a. initiative versus guilt b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. basic trust versus mistrust d. identity versus role confusion 160. _____ can be used to fight against the negative effects of media on children at the macrosystem level. a. Parental control of children's access b. Community centre programs aimed at children c. Violent media d. Regulation of advertising

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Chap 09_6ce 161. Which statement is a criticism of the bioecological model? a. There is a lack of emphasis on biological factors. b. It is not possible to test its hypotheses. c. There is a lack of emphasis on the social environment. d. It uses experimental measures to examine the theory.

162. The scientific study of evolutionary bases of behaviour is known as a. ethology. b. the entity theory. c. the social-learning theory. d. information processing.

163. Which statement does NOT describe an effect of media violence on children? a. Media violence heightens viewers' psychological arousal. b. Media violence increases viewers' emotional sensitivity to violence. c. Media violence teaches new behaviours and inspires imitation. d. Media violence increases accessibility of viewers' own aggressive thoughts and tendencies.

164. Observing someone else receive a reward or punishment is called _____, according to Albert Bandura. a. vicarious reinforcement b. intermittent reinforcement c. behaviour modification d. reciprocal determinism 165. According to Erikson, successful resolution of the industry versus inferiority crisis involves a. achieving a core sense of identity. b. developing a conscience. c. mastering important skills and cooperating with others. d. identifying with one's powerful parent.

166. The behaviour modification strategy of time-outs is based on the idea that _____ is a positive reinforcement. a. whining b. learning c. withdrawal d. attention

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Chap 09_6ce 167. The active role children play in their own development is a central focus of a. the bioecological approach. b. all ecological theories of development. c. ethology. d. evolutionary psychology.

168. Danny is an adult who behaves selfishly and impulsively. He appears to seek immediate gratification and ignore any potential negative consequences. Freud would say that Danny is ruled by his a. conscience. b. superego. c. erogenous zones. d. id.

169. During which stage are sexual impulses repressed, leaving energy to be channeled into socially acceptable activities? a. phallic b. latency c. anal d. genital 170. The view that children choose certain environments for themselves is similar to Bandura's concept of a. intermittent reinforcement. b. behaviour modification. c. reciprocal determinism. d. self-socialization.

171. The goal of the ego is to a. balance the demands of the id with the external world. b. maximize the individual's pleasure. c. control the individual's behaviour on the basis of moral beliefs. d. seek security for the individual.

172. Ecological theories of development stress the importance of a. self-socialization. b. reinforcement and imitation. c. the stages children progress through as they develop. d. children as a part of the larger species.

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Chap 09_6ce 173. Which statement is a criticism of evolutionary psychology? a. There is a lack of emphasis on biological factors. b. It is not possible to test its hypotheses. c. There is a lack of emphasis on the social environment. d. It uses experimental measures to examine the theory.

174. _____ is an example of an aspect of SES that occurs at the level of the exosystem. a. Government policies b. Employment status of parents c. Neighbourhood d. Changes in types of jobs over time 175. Which factor is the primary contribution of ethology and evolutionary psychology? a. emphasis on children's biological nature b. empirical testing of hypotheses c. emphasis on the child's social environment d. emphasis on nutrition on development 176. Rhonda believes that her intelligence can grow with experience. When Rhonda encounters failure, she would be expected to a. work persistently to solve the problem. b. believe that her failure is due to a lack of ability. c. believe she is dumb. d. feel helpless.

177. In Freud's theory, the biologically based, instinctual drives that inspire behaviour, thoughts, and feelings are referred to as a. motivational orientation. b. psychic energy. c. erogenous zones. d. intuition.

178. Freud's oral stage corresponds with which of Erikson's stages? a. initiative versus guilt b. basic trust versus mistrust c. autonomy versus shame and doubt d. industry versus inferiority

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Chap 09_6ce 179. Which factor is NOT emphasized in ecological theories? a. sociocultural context b. continuity c. active role of the child d. genetic influences 180. Playing video games would be located in the _____ bioecological level. a. exosystem b. macrosystem c. microsystem d. mesosystem 181. Describe the conflict that characterizes each of the first five stages of Erikson's theory. For each stage, describe what a successful resolution is as well as what an unsuccessful resolution is.

182. Describe the phenomenon of imprinting.

183. Describe the basic principles of Albert Bandura's social-learning theory. How does his view differ from that of traditional learning theorists? How is it the same?

184. Outline the current debate over media violence and children's exposure to it.

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Chap 09_6ce 185. Describe the principles of intermittent reinforcement and behaviour modification.

186. Describe the principle of intermittent reinforcement. Why does it make the behaviour so difficult to extinguish?

187. Describe the importance of play from the perspective of evolutionary psychology.

188. Compare and contrast Freud's and Erikson's perspectives on what happens if a child's fundamental needs are not met during a particular stage or if an individual does not successfully resolve the conflict of a particular stage.

189. Describe the three personality structures theorized by Freud. Explain the "job" of each structure, as well as the developmental stage during which each structure develops.

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Chap 09_6ce Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. a 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. b 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_6ce 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. b 50. d 51. c 52. a 53. d 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_6ce 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. d 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. d 73. a 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_6ce 83. d 84. c 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. c 89. d 90. b 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. d 95. b 96. c 97. a 98. c 99. d 100. a 101. d 102. b 103. d 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. c 108. b 109. a 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_6ce 111. a 112. c 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. a 120. c 121. b 122. c 123. a 124. c 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. d 129. b 130. d 131. b 132. b 133. a 134. a 135. b 136. c 137. d

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Chap 09_6ce 138. a 139. d 140. d 141. c 142. a 143. d 144. c 145. b 146. c 147. c 148. a 149. c 150. a 151. b 152. a 153. d 154. a 155. b 156. a 157. d 158. a 159. a 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. b 164. a 165. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_6ce 166. d 167. a 168. d 169. b 170. c 171. a 172. d 173. b 174. b 175. a 176. a 177. b 178. b 179. d 180. a

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Chap 09_6ce 181. During the first year of life, Erikson theorized that infants are in the basic trust versus mistrust stage. The crucial issue for the infant is developing a sense of trust. If the mother is warm, consistent, and reliable in her caregiving, the infant learns that she can be trusted. More generally, the baby comes to feel good and reassured by being close to other people. If the ability to trust others when it is appropriate to do so does not develop, the person will have difficulty forming intimate relationships later in life. From 1 year of age to roughly 3 years, children are in the autonomy versus shame and doubt stage. The challenge for the child is to achieve a strong sense of autonomy while adjusting to increasing social demands. Erikson speculated that during this period, the dramatic increases that occur in every realm of children's real-world competence foster children's desires to make their own choices.

Infants' newfound ability to explore the environment on their own changes family dynamics, initiating a longrunning battle of wills with caregivers. If parents provide a supportive atmosphere that allows children to achieve self-control without the loss of self-esteem, children gain a sense of autonomy. In contrast, if children are subjected to severe punishment or ridicule, they may come to doubt their abilities. From ages 4 to 6 children are in the initiative versus guilt stage. Erikson saw this period as the time during which children come to identify with, and learn from, their parents. The child is constantly setting goals and working to achieve them. Erikson believed that a crucial attainment is the development of conscience. The challenge for the child is to achieve a balance between initiative and guilt. From the age of 6 until puberty, children are in the stage of industry versus inferiority.

This stage is crucial for ego development. Children master cognitive and social skills that are important in their culture, and they learn to work industriously and to cooperate with peers. Successful experiences give the child a sense of competence, but failure can lead to excessive feelings of inadequacy or inferiority. From adolescence to early adulthood, children are in the stage of identity versus role confusion. Erikson saw adolescence as a critical stage for the achievement of a core sense of identity. The dramatic physical changes of puberty and the emergence of strong sexual urges are accompanied by new social pressures. Caught between their past identity as a child and the many options and uncertainties of their future, adolescents must resolve the question of who they really are or live in confusion about what roles they should play as adults.

182. Ethological approaches have frequently been applied to developmental issues. The prototypical, and best known, example is the study of imprinting made famous by Konrad Lorenz. Imprinting is a process by which newborn birds and mammals of some species become attached to their mother at first sight and follow her everywhere, a behaviour that ensures that the baby will stay near a source of protection and food. For imprinting to occur, the infant has to encounter its mother during a specific critical period very early in life.

183. Social-learning theory, like other learning-oriented theories, attempts to account for personality and other aspects of social development in terms of learning mechanisms. However, unlike Skinner's focus on reinforcement, sociallearning theory emphasizes observation and imitation. Albert Bandura has argued that most human learning is inherently social in nature and is based on observation of the behaviour of other people. Children learn rapidly and efficiently simply from watching what other people do and then imitating them. Although direct reinforcement can increase the likelihood of imitation, it is not necessary for learning. Children can learn from indirect models, that is, from reading books and from watching TV or movies, in the absence of any direct reinforcement for their behaviour. Observational learning depends on basic cognitive processes of attention to others' behaviour, encoding what is observed, storing the information in memory, and retrieving it at some later time in order to reproduce the behaviour observed earlier. Unlike earlier learning theorists like Watson and Skinner, Bandura emphasized the active role of children in their own development, describing development as a reciprocal determinism between children and their social environment.

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Chap 09_6ce 184. Extensive reviews of the vast amount of research on this issue have led many researchers to conclude that media violence increases aggression and violence and is therefore a risk factor for positive youth development.

However, a recent meta-analysis by Ferguson suggests that video games in particular may have only minimal effect on children's and adolescents' aggression. However, this work was heavily criticized by other scientists who argue that the analysis suffered from methodological weaknesses and underestimated the negative effects of video games. The presence of such heated debate in the pages of a major scientific journal clearly demonstrates the high stakes on both sides of the issue, as well as the societal importance of better understanding the effects of media violence on children. Exposure to media violence has an impact in four different ways. First, seeing actors engage in aggression teaches aggressive behaviours and inspires imitation of them. Second, viewing aggression activates the viewer's own aggressive thoughts, feelings, and tendencies. This heightened aggressive mindset makes it more likely that the individual will interpret new interactions and events as involving aggression and will respond aggressively. Furthermore, when aggression-related thoughts are frequently activated, they may become part of the individual's normal internal state. These factors may lead to a hostile attributional bias. Third, media violence is exciting and arousing for most youth, and their heightened physiological arousal makes them more likely to react violently to provocations right after watching violent films. Finally, frequent long-term exposure to media violence gradually leads to emotional desensitization. Emotional desensitization is a reduction in the level of unpleasant physiological arousal most people experience when observing violence. Because this arousal normally helps inhibit violent behaviour, emotional desensitization can render violent thoughts and behaviours more likely. These factors, taken together, can help to explain disturbing findings like those from a recent longitudinal study in New Zealand: individuals who watched more television during childhood were more likely to engage in antisocial behaviours later in their lives, including criminal convictions, and receive diagnoses of antisocial personality disorders.

185. Intermittent reinforcement is based on an inconsistent response to a behaviour. Sometimes a behaviour is followed by a reward and sometimes it is not. Behaviour modification is a form of therapy based on operant conditioning in which reinforcement contingencies are changed to encourage more adaptive behaviour.

186. Intermittent reinforcement is inconsistent responses to the behaviour of another person. An example would be sometimes punishing unacceptable behaviour and other times ignoring it. As Skinner discovered in his research with animals, intermittent reinforcement makes behaviours resistant to extinction. If a behaviour is only occasionally rewarded, an animal is likely to maintain the expectation that the next performance of the behaviour may produce the reward, leading to persistence of the behaviour even in the absence of reward. Inadvertently, parents often encourage unwanted behaviour in their children by applying intermittent reinforcement.

187. Many evolutionary psychology theorists have suggested that play is an evolved platform for learning. Children develop motor skills by racing and wrestling with one another, throwing toy spears, or kicking a ball into a goal.

They try out and practice a variety of social roles. One of the main virtues of play is that children can experiment in a situation with minimal consequences.

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Chap 09_6ce 188. According to Freud, if fundamental needs are not met during any of the stages of psychosexual development, children may become fixated on those needs, continually attempting to satisfy them and to resolve associated conflicts. These unsatisfied needs, and the person's ongoing attempts to fulfill them, are unconscious and are expressed in indirect or symbolic ways. In Freud's view, the child's passage through the stages of psychosexual development shapes the individual's personality for life. Erikson proposed eight age-related stages of development that span infancy to old age. Each stage is characterized by a specific crisis, or set of developmental issues, that the individual must resolve. If the dominant issue of a given stage is not successfully resolved before the onset of the next stage, the person will continue to struggle with it.

189. The three personality structures according to Freud are the id, the superego, and the ego. The id is the earliest and most primitive of the personality structures. It is unconscious and operates with the goal of seeking pleasure. The id is present at birth. The ego is the second personality structure to develop and develops during the oral stage.

The ego is the rational, logical, and problem-solving component of personality. The superego develops during the phallic stage and consists of internalized moral standards.

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Chap 10_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which factor is NOT a source of toxic stress for children? a. physical abuse or neglect b. poverty and maternal deprivation c. exposure to war d. extracurricular activities 2. Which methodology has NOT been used to classify young children on their temperamental style? a. laboratory observations b. parental reports of children in various contexts c. interviews of children d. brain activity assessment 3. A 4-month-old infant is habituated to pictures of people expressing surprise. The infant is then presented with a picture of a person expressing happiness. The infant is likely to a. display no renewed interest in the pictures, as infants this young are unable to differentiate between emotions. b. dishabituate to the new picture but not comprehend the difference in meaning between the first set of pictures and the new picture. c. dishabituate to the new picture and comprehend the emotional meaning of the facial expressions. d. cry, as the happy face is likely to elicit fear in an infant this age.

4. _____ indicates that the same temperament characteristic that puts some children at high risk for negative outcomes when exposed to a harsh home environment also leads them to blossom when their home environments are positive. a. Co-regulation b. Emotion coaching c. Goodness of fit d. Differential susceptibility 5. Which emotion is identified EARLIEST by children? a. disgust b. shame c. happiness d. anger

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Chap 10_6ce 6. The process by which a caregiver provides the needed comfort or distraction to help a child reduce his or her distress is called a. co-regulation. b. self-comforting behaviour. c. self-distraction. d. co-distraction.

7. Marion and Lee want to encourage their child to respond to her wrongdoings with guilt rather than shame.

Which would NOT be the best advice for them regarding this? a. Communicate love and respect for the child. b. Emphasize the badness of the behaviour, rather than of the child. c. Teach the child to understand the consequences of her actions for others. d. Criticize the child for her actions.

8. _____ is considered to be part of emotional intelligence. a. Processing speed b. Ability to control impulses c. Reasoning d. Verbal fluency 9. Thoughts of suicide may occur in those who suffer from this mental disorder. a. anxiety b. depression c. stress d. psychosis 10. Wesley is an infant and just demonstrated his FIRST negative emotion. What is it likely to be? a. anger b. sadness c. fear d. distress 11. _____ involve(s) the inability to regulate the emotions of fear and worry. a. Anxiety disorders b. Depression c. Toxic stress d. Psychosis

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Chap 10_6ce 12. Which individual is MOST likely to suffer from depression? a. Brandon, a boy who is 10 years old b. Sam, a girl who is 7 years old c. Rebecca, a girl who is 13 years old d. John, a boy who is 17 years old 13. Which parental behaviour has NOT been associated with the development of an anxiety disorder in children? a. overprotection b. overinvolvement c. encouraging children to engage in risky behaviours d. monitorization 14. Children who receive _____ from their parents tend to display better emotional understanding compared to children who do not. a. emotion coaching b. self-distraction c. social competence d. co-regulation 15. Which brain structures are associated with experiencing an anxiety disorder? a. the hypothalamus and the thalamus b. the frontal lobe and the hypothalamus c. the amygdala and the hippocampus d. the temporal lobe and the amygdala 16. Which emotional regulation strategy would an older child be LEAST likely to attempt? a. trying to see negative things in a positive light b. mental distraction c. self-comforting d. thinking about the meaning of events in a different light 17. _____ is NOT considered to be part of emotional intelligence. a. Persistence b. Ability to delay gratification c. Empathy d. Verbal fluency

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Chap 10_6ce 18. When infants realize they can control a particular event, they experience a. sadness. b. surprise. c. disgust. d. happiness.

19. The development of emotional regulation is NOT characterized by a(n) a. decrease in reliance on other people. b. decrease in the experience of negative emotions. c. increase in the use of planful problem solving. d. increase in the use of effective regulating strategies.

20. When do anxiety disorders typically develop? a. during toddlerhood b. during childhood c. during adolescence d. during young adulthood 21. To be able to engage in social referencing, infants need to be able to a. label emotions. b. understand the causes of emotions. c. comprehend the meaning of emotions. d. view emotions.

22. Which of these is NOT a reason girls tend to have higher risk for and rates of depression? a. Girls express more internalizing emotions than boys. b. Pubertal changes are more difficult for girls. c. Girls experience more stressful peer relationships. d. Girls report more body satisfaction compared to boys.

23. Asian and Southeast Asian parents often try to induce _____ in their children. a. embarrassment b. shame c. guilt d. pride

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Chap 10_6ce 24. Which emotion is thought to have an evolutionary basis as it helps humans avoid potential poisons or disease-causing bacteria? a. surprise b. sadness c. anger d. disgust 25. Which goal is NOT a motive to use a display rule? a. to prevent hurting someone's feelings b. to protect oneself from looking bad c. to get information about an ambiguous event d. to make someone else feel good 26. Which parental practice in response to a child doing something wrong is likely to influence the child to feel shame rather than guilt? a. telling the child that he or she did a mean thing, rather than that he or she is mean b. publicly humiliating the child c. helping the child to understand the consequences of his or her actions for others d. communicating respect and love in disciplinary situations 27. Compared with other children, those who regulate their emotions well and are academically competent have parents who respond to their children's negative emotions with a. teasing. b. disregard. c. support. d. threats.

28. The degree to which an individual's temperament is compatible with the demands and expectations of his or her social environment is called a. co-regulation. b. emotion coaching. c. goodness of fit. d. differential susceptibility.

29. Which factor has NOT been related to individual differences in children's cortisol levels? a. internalizing problems b. emotion regulation c. behavioural problems d. empathy

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Chap 10_6ce 30. This emotion involves a cognitive understanding that something is not as it usually is, rather than just a physical reaction to being startled. a. happiness b. fear c. surprise d. disgust 31. Some researchers believe that self-conscious emotions do not emerge until the second year of life because these emotions depend on children's understanding that a. other people experience emotions as well. b. important others can evaluate them. c. they themselves are entities distinct from other people. d. guilt is an appropriate reaction to bad behaviour.

32. Which factor is NOT needed for separation anxiety to be considered a mental disorder? a. severity b. temporary period of time c. persistence d. interference with behaviour 33. About what percentage of children and adolescents in Canada meet the diagnostic criteria for a mood disorder? a. 2% b. 4.5% c. 10.5% d. 15.8% 34. Twins Sheree and Caitlin, who are 3 years old, each just successfully completed a jigsaw puzzle. Sheree's puzzle was simple, and she completed it easily. Caitlin's puzzle was more difficult, and it took a lot of effort for her to complete it. Which twin is more likely to experience pride in her accomplishment? a. Sheree is more likely than is Caitlin to experience pride. b. Caitlin is more likely than is Sheree to experience pride. c. Sheree and Caitlin are equally likely to experience pride. d. Neither Sheree nor Caitlin is likely to experience pride because they are both too young.

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Chap 10_6ce 35. The effects of _____ on differences in temperament across cultural groups _____ been supported by scientific evidence. a. neither cultural practices nor genetic factors; has b. both cultural practices and genetic factors; have c. cultural practices; have not d. genetic factors; have not 36. Results of studies implementing the _____ illustrate that even at a few months of age, infants are attuned to their mother's emotional expressions and behaviours, and experience distress when their mothers do not react as they have come to expect. a. Still-Face Paradigm b. AFFEX c. Strange Situation d. Attachment Paradigm 37. Which of these is more common among girls and accounts for much of the gender difference in depression? a. self-distraction b. co-regulation c. co-rumination d. self-regulation 38. Children who are less sensitive to their environments and tend to do well in most environments are thought of as a. orchids. b. dandelions. c. roses. d. thorns.

39. Children's sense of well-being both internally and externally is referred to as a. mental health. b. toxic stress. c. emotion socialization. d. differential susceptibility.

40. Which emotion is self-conscious? a. anger b. shame c. fear d. sadness

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Chap 10_6ce 41. At 2 years old, Greg is told a story about Jimmy, a boy whose favourite toy has just been broken. When Greg is asked what Jimmy is feeling, Greg is likely to indicate a. happiness. b. sadness. c. shame. d. that he is unable to predict Jimmy's emotion.

42. The ability to discriminate and identify different emotions in others a. is associated with social competence. b. is associated with lower levels of behavioural problems. c. helps children respond appropriately to others' emotions. d. is positively associated with increased self-esteem.

43. Part of the definition of temperament is that individual differences are a. entirely genetic. b. biologically based. c. environmentally based. d. unrelated to genetics.

44. Which statement about the stability of temperament is TRUE? a. Temperament, by definition, is a style exhibited primarily during infancy and thus does not persist into childhood. b. All temperamental dimensions are stable from infancy into later childhood. c. No aspects of temperament are stable from the prenatal period into infancy. d. Some aspects of temperament tend to be more stable than others.

45. When children were told a story about a child who felt one way but tried to hide her emotions and pretend to feel another way, approximately _____ of 3- and 4-year-olds and approximately _____ of 5-year-olds understood the difference between real and false emotions. a. 20%; 20% b. 20%; 50% c. 50%; 80% d. 80%; 100% 46. Developmental psychologists do NOT define emotions as a. subjective feelings. b. the desire to take action. c. the physiological correlates of feelings. d. smiles that are directed at people.

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Chap 10_6ce 47. Twelve-month-old infants are _____ to comprehend the emotional tone of others' faces, and/but are _____ to comprehend the emotional tone of others' voices. a. able; able b. able; unable c. unable; able d. unable; unable 48. _____ is/are NOT a characteristic of guilt. a. Feelings of remorse b. Regret about one's behaviour c. Empathy for the injured party d. Feelings of exposure and degradation 49. Emotion coaching does NOT include a. discussing children's emotions. b. helping children express emotions appropriately. c. guiding children to learn ways of coping with emotions. d. ensuring that children understand the differences between the various self-conscious emotions.

50. Which of these is NOT a self-conscious emotion? a. guilt b. fear c. surprise d. pride 51. Which parental practice in response to a child doing something wrong is likely to influence the child to feel guilt rather than shame? a. saying "You're a bad boy" b. publicly humiliating the child c. helping the child to understand the consequences of his or her actions for others d. removing expressions of love in disciplinary situations 52. A set of skills that help individuals achieve their goals in interpersonal interactions while maintaining positive relations with others is referred to as a. emotional regulation. b. delay of gratification. c. intelligence. d. social competence.

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Chap 10_6ce 53. When children are in situations or environments that they perceive to be frightening, threatening, or overwhelming, they can experience a. stress. b. rumination. c. a mental disorder. d. trauma.

54. The gender difference in _____ is NOT an important contributor to the difference in rates of depression in adolescent females and males. a. academic achievement b. likelihood of rumination c. concern with physical appearance d. difficulty with the biological changes of adolescence 55. Social smiles tend to emerge by the _____ month of life. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 6th 56. Many cultural variations in children's experiences of self-conscious emotions appear to be associated with cultural differences in the a. importance placed on the individual versus the importance placed on the social group. b. level of emotional maturity expected of children. c. age at which children understand that they themselves are entities separate from others. d. distinction between shame, guilt, and embarrassment.

57. Children start to show awareness of adults' demands and begin to regulate themselves accordingly at about _____ of age. a. 9 to 12 months b. 15 to 18 months c. 1 to 2 years d. 3 to 4 years 58. Most infants begin to express surprise by _____ months of age. a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

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Chap 10_6ce 59. In terms of emotional regulation, as they get older, children a. are better able to select appropriate strategies. b. rely on their parents more. c. use behavioural strategies to a greater extent. d. engage in co-regulation more.

60. Higher levels of cortisol are a. associated with lower levels of depression. b. associated with extreme fearful responses. c. associated with easy temperamental characteristics. d. typically caused by maltreatment.

61. Children and adolescents with an anxiety disorder may also suffer from a. panic attacks. b. phobias. c. both panic attacks and phobias. d. neither panic attacks nor phobias.

62. Which of these is an indirect way in which parents affect the emotional development of their children? a. teaching sons not to cry b. how they react to their child crying c. teaching that hitting is not "nice" d. yelling at their children 63. Which statement is NOT true of those suffering from depression? a. Those with depression have unrealistic expectations about themselves and social relationships. b. Depressed individuals tend to engage in equifinality. c. Depressed individuals tend to ruminate about negative life events. d. Difficult peer relationships are both a cause and an outcome of depression.

64. _____ is a physiological reaction to some change or threat in the environment. a. Stress b. Rumination c. Mental disorder d. Equifinality

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Chap 10_6ce 65. Chloe, who is 3 years old, has broken a cup and is trying to hide the pieces under a towel. She is primarily experiencing a. anger. b. embarrassment. c. guilt. d. shame.

66. Extensively discussing emotional problems with a peer is referred to as a. rumination. b. co-rumination. c. reiteration. d. co-reiteration.

67. Which statement about the origins of cultural differences in emotion is TRUE? a. Parental socialization plays a large part in the development of emotions that are appropriate to the culture. b. Differences in emotional experience appear to be nearly entirely due to environmental, as opposed to genetic, differences. c. Differences in emotional expression appear to be largely due to genetic differences. d. Emotional experiences have equivalent meanings across cultures.

68. Which child is MOST likely to mention emotions such as pride, shame, embarrassment, and jealousy in conversation? a. 2-year-old Penny b. 5-year-old Jake c. 6-year-old Breanne d. 8-year-old Stacey 69. Which situation is LEAST likely to contribute to an increase in depressive symptoms? a. early puberty in girls b. early puberty in boys c. late puberty in girls d. late puberty in boys 70. Which of these provides the MOST important context for issues related to goodness of fit? a. family b. childcare centre c. organized team sports d. neighbourhood

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Chap 10_6ce 71. Which factor is NOT a physical or cognitive symptom of depression? a. difficulties sleeping b. significant changes in weight c. irritability d. inability to concentrate 72. The act of focusing on one's own negative emotions and negative self-appraisals and on their causes and consequences, without engaging in efforts to improve one's situation, is referred to as a. rumination. b. co-regulation. c. self-distraction. d. self-regulation.

73. Which scenario is an example of social referencing? a. Jessica sucks her thumb when her brother takes away her favourite doll. b. Jose smiles when he opens a gift from his grandmother, even though he does not like the new shirt she has given him. c. Stacey hears her parents arguing and begins to cry. d. Henry looks up at his mother after he falls and, on seeing her content expression, gets up without crying.

74. Which method is NOT a manner in which children can learn to associate certain people or events with fear and anxiety? a. conditioning b. observation c. instruction d. direction 75. Infants frequently produce social smiles during interactions with a. television. b. toys. c. parents. d. strangers.

76. In comparison with U.S. children, Japanese children are LESS likely to experience which emotion as a consequence of personal success? a. shame b. pride c. guilt d. embarrassment Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce 77. What is the general conclusion regarding the relationship between exposure to adverse childhood experiences and problems in adulthood? a. The likelihood of experiencing a mental or physical health problem for white males decreased as exposure to adverse child experiences increased. b. The likelihood of experiencing a mental or physical health problem decreased as exposure to adverse child experiences increased. c. The likelihood of experiencing a mental or physical health problem increased as did exposure to adverse childhood experiences, regardless of gender, race, and education level. d. There is no relationship between adverse childhood experiences and problems in adulthood.

78. _____ is an emotional reaction to a sudden, unexpected event. a. Happiness b. Fear c. Surprise d. Disgust 79. Professor Carpentier tends to take a functionalist approach to understanding emotional development in children. He has proposed that emotions a. have little impact on cognition. b. are innate and thus are unaffected by socialization. c. promote action toward a goal. d. do not emerge until a child has a sense of self.

80. _____ is a mental disorder that involves a sad or irritable mood along with physical and cognitive changes that affect the child or adolescent's ability to behave and interact in a normal way. a. Depression b. Anxiety c. Stress d. Psychosis 81. When anger is a frequent emotion expressed in the family home, children tend to display all of these EXCEPT a. high self-esteem. b. reduced social competence. c. depression. d. anxiety.

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Chap 10_6ce 82. Who is more likely to engage in rumination in response to stress? a. Carla, a girl who is Caucasian b. Mark, a boy who is Caucasian c. Stanley, a boy who is African Canadian d. Hernando, a boy who is Latino Canadian 83. _____ decreases the likelihood that an infant will experience separation anxiety in a particular situation. a. Being between the ages of 11 and 13 months b. Crawling away from a parent (rather than the parent departing) c. Living in a non-Western culture d. All of these 84. Which list is the chronological order (from earliest to latest) in which children are able to identify emotions in others? a. anger/fear, happiness, sadness, self-conscious emotions b. happiness, self-conscious emotions, sadness, anger/fear c. happiness, sadness, anger/fear, self-conscious emotions d. self-conscious emotions, anger/fear, happiness, sadness 85. Children who exhibit _____ are LEAST likely to be socially competent. a. control of emotions b. planning of strategies to resolve upsetting situations c. avoidance of stressful situations altogether d. delay of gratification 86. Which statement about the origins of cultural differences in emotion is TRUE? a. Parental socialization plays a minor part in the development of emotions that are appropriate to the culture. b. Differences in emotional experience appear to be entirely due to environmental, as opposed to genetic, differences. c. Differences in emotional expression appear to be largely due to genetic differences. d. The same emotional experience may have different meanings across cultures.

87. Which statement BEST represents developmentalists' view of emotions and feelings? a. Emotions are a part of feelings. b. Feelings constitute one of the components of emotion. c. "Emotions" and "feelings" are synonyms; they have the same meaning. d. Emotions and feelings are entirely separate; neither is part of the other.

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Chap 10_6ce 88. Twin and adoption studies have demonstrated that a. there is no genetic component to temperament. b. temperament is entirely due to genetic factors. c. identical twins are more similar than are fraternal twins on many aspects of temperament. d. stepsiblings are more similar than are biological siblings on many aspects of personality.

89. Which factor is NOT part of the stress response? a. increased heart rate b. decreased perspiration c. secretion of stress hormones d. increased blood flow to the brain 90. In comparison with preschool children, children in elementary school are a. more understanding of how, when, and why emotions occur. b. less likely to be worried about real-life issues. c. more emotionally negative. d. more likely to be angry at someone who harms them accidentally.

91. Professor Lorry is conducting a study on infant temperament. Which method of measuring temperament will NOT provide her with confidence in her assessments? a. laboratory observation b. EEG c. parental reports d. a combination of laboratory observation, EEG, and parental reports 92. Separation anxiety or distress due to separation from the parent who is the child's primary caregiver emerges around _____ months of age. a. 4 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8 93. Of types of stimuli that elicit particular emotional responses, frequency of particular emotions, and intensity of emotional responses, which change during childhood? a. types of stimuli b. types of stimuli and frequency of particular emotions c. types of stimuli and intensity of emotional responses d. types of stimuli, frequency of particular emotions, and intensity of emotional responses

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Chap 10_6ce 94. Which family is MOST likely to raise a child who is socially skilled, understands others' emotions, and is generally well adjusted? a. a family in which negative emotions are particularly prevalent b. a family in which positive emotions are particularly prevalent c. a family in which an equal level of positive and negative emotions are expressed d. a family in which all negative emotions in the home involve the adults and not the children 95. What type of therapy is common for treating depression among children and adolescents and is used in approximately 7% of children in Western Canada? a. cognitive behavioural therapy b. drug therapy c. psychotherapy d. exposure therapy 96. Looking away from an upsetting stimulus in order to regulate one's level of arousal is referred to as a. co-regulation. b. self-comforting behaviour. c. self-distraction. d. co-distraction.

97. Repetitive actions that regulate arousal by providing a mildly positive physical sensation are called a. co-regulation. b. self-comforting behaviour. c. self-distraction. d. co-distraction.

98. The use of discussion and other forms of instruction to teach children how to cope with and properly express emotions is known as a. emotion coaching. b. self-distraction. c. social competence. d. co-regulation.

99. Compared with supportive parents, parents who react in an unsupportive manner when their children are upset are more likely to have children who are a. emotionally competent. b. socially competent. c. prone to aggression. d. successful in school.

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Chap 10_6ce 100. The aspect of emotional understanding that develops LATEST is understanding a. of emotional ambivalence. b. that one can feel two negative emotions simultaneously. c. the difference between real and false emotions. d. the distinction between fear and anger.

101. Mark's parents frequently argue with each other. Even though his parents do not express anger towards him frequently, he is more likely to have all of these EXCEPT a. behaviour problems. b. high self-esteem. c. deficits in social competence. d. poor self-regulation.

102. Elementary school children are less likely to be afraid of monsters than are preschool children because older children have a. better night vision. b. a better understanding of reality. c. better language skills. d. more coping skills.

103. Chronic conditions that may persist throughout childhood and into adulthood are called a. toxic stress. b. mental disorders. c. rumination. d. equifinality.

104. Which statement is NOT true regarding stress? a. Stress can be a common experience in childhood and adolescence. b. Periodic stress can serve the adaptive function of mobilizing the child to take actions to reduce the stimulus that is provoking the anxiety. c. Stress becomes problematic when it is chronic. d. Stress always leads to the development of a mental disorder.

105. Which child is MOST likely to experience separation anxiety in the situation described? a. 5-month-old Anton, who is placed in a car seat by his parent who then disappears from his view b. 13-month-old Jordan, who walks away from her parent into another room c. 23-month-old Ellie, who is playing on the floor when her parent leaves the room d. 15-month-old Sebastian, who is placed into his crib by his parent, who then leaves the room

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Chap 10_6ce 106. The FIRST clear sign of happiness in infants is a. the expression of love toward the mother. b. the social smile. c. laughter. d. smiling.

107. Research on the physiological bases of temperament has demonstrated that _____ are associated with temperament. a. heart rate and respiratory characteristics but not brain activation patterns b. brain activation patterns but not heart rate and respiratory characteristics c. both brain activation patterns and heart rate and respiratory characteristics d. neither brain activation patterns nor heart rate and respiratory characteristics 108. In general, the development of emotional regulation is NOT characterized by a. decreasing reliance on others for help in regulating emotions. b. increasing ability to select appropriate strategies. c. increasing use of cognitive strategies. d. decreasing control over physiological reactions.

109. This is a prominent system for coding emotions in infants that links particular facial expressions and facial muscle movements with specific emotions. a. REM b. AFFEX c. AREM d. SFEX 110. Which scenario describes a social smile? a. Newborn Timmy smiles during his sleep. b. At 3 months, Indira smiles when her father talks to her. c. Alexa smiles at 1 month when her mother strokes her cheek. d. All of the scenarios describe a social smile.

111. Which child is LEAST likely to experience separation anxiety in the situation described? a. 8-month-old Gianna, who is placed in a car seat by her parent who then disappears from her view b. 13-month-old Nolan, who walks away from his parent into another room c. 10-month-old Evan, who is playing on the floor when his parent leaves the room d. 15-month-old Cecile, who is placed into her crib by her parent, who then leaves the room

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Chap 10_6ce 112. Extensively discussing and self-disclosing emotional problems with another person is referred to as a. rumination. b. co-regulation. c. co-rumination. d. self-regulation.

113. Which emotional experience is thought to have an evolutionary basis to help people avoid potential poisons or disease-causing bacteria? a. happiness b. fear c. surprise d. disgust 114. Emil, who is 4 years old, has a doctor's appointment today and knows he will need to get a shot. Which behaviour is Emil LEAST likely to display in response to this negative situation? a. having a temper tantrum b. realizing that this situation cannot be controlled and trying to distract himself by thinking about the lollipop he will get following the shot c. refusing to stop playing with his toys as his mother is trying to get him ready to go to the doctor's office d. telling his mother he does not need the shot 115. Which stimulus is LEAST likely to elicit a smile in a 7-month-old infant? a. a smiling stranger b. an interesting object c. being able to control a particular event d. a parent's tickle on the tummy 116. Researchers have found that children whose parents use emotion coaching demonstrate all of these EXCEPT a. social competence. b. empathy. c. less depression. d. more problem behaviours.

117. Which statement about older infants' displays of sadness is NOT true? a. Infants often display sadness in the same contexts in which they display anger. b. Displays of sadness are less frequent than displays of anger. c. Infants show anger but not sadness when they are unable to control their environment. d. Infants are capable of experiencing sadness.

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Chap 10_6ce 118. Recent studies of the connection between specific genes and aspects of temperament have demonstrated that a. most temperamental capacities have no genetic component. b. genetic temperamental tendencies are sometimes more likely to be expressed when the family environment is suboptimal and sometimes when it is optimal. c. individual differences in positive emotions tend to be more genetically based than are individual differences in negative emotions. d. Recent studies have demonstrated all of these.

119. Which temperamental style was NOT identified by Thomas and Chess in their New York Longitudinal Study? a. slow to warm up b. easy c. difficult d. quick to calm down 120. All children benefit from a home environment that is a. positive. b. inactive. c. not a good fit. d. negative.

121. Which statement about infant smiling is TRUE? a. All infant smiling is reflexive. b. Infants' smiling induces parents to have more positive social interactions with them. c. Young infants rarely smile at strangers. d. Infants are unlikely to smile at auditory stimuli.

122. Which statement about the association between emotional development and cognitive development is TRUE? a. Emotions are independent of cognition, and therefore the two are unassociated. b. Cognitive development influences children to become less emotional as they develop from infancy through adolescence. c. Cognitive changes influence the types of stimuli that elicit particular emotional responses. d. None of the statements is true.

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Chap 10_6ce 123. The process of initiating, inhibiting, or modulating emotions in order to accomplish one's goals is referred to as emotional a. restriction. b. constriction. c. repression. d. regulation.

124. The emotion of which child would be the EASIEST for other children to understand? a. Mia, who feels disappointment at getting a sweater for her birthday but who puts on a happy face anyway b. J. T., who feels ashamed about lying to his parents about breaking his father's new pen c. Kerry, who is saddened by a reminder of her pet's death d. Jing, who is happy because he is going to the park with his friend 125. Which dimension is NOT considered to be part of temperament? a. emotional intelligence b. activity level c. smiling and laughter d. attention span 126. Which statement about negative emotions is TRUE? a. Negative emotions are easily interpreted. b. Negative emotions decline in response to situations between age 3 and 6 years. c. Infants show a wide variety of highly discernible facial expressions. d. Infants display only generalized distress.

127. Research conducted by Halberstadt and colleagues found that when _____ is expressed in the home, children tend to report higher levels of _____. a. happiness; happiness b. happiness; sadness c. anger; disgust d. disappointment; happiness 128. Roger, who is 10 months old, is sitting on the floor of his room happily playing with his toys. The phone rings, and his mother leaves the room to get it. Roger begins to cry. Roger is experiencing a. separation anxiety. b. loneliness. c. fear of strangers. d. jealousy.

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Chap 10_6ce 129. Which statement represents the BEST advice to give parents who would like to foster positive emotional development in their children? a. Demonstrate that others experience the emotions that children themselves feel by expressing a wide variety of intense emotions. b. Teach children about the circumstances in which emotions should and should not be expressed and the consequences of expressing and not expressing them. c. Ensure that children will be able to relate to the discussion by talking to children about anger during a serious family conflict. d. Discuss the futility of displaying negative emotion so that children will understand parents' disapproval of these displays.

130. In regard to the ability of young children to identify emotions, young children are a. essentially unable to identify others' emotions. b. best at identifying happiness, and they have difficulty differentiating among negative emotions until they are older. c. best at identifying sadness, and they have difficulty differentiating among positive emotions until they are older. d. able to differentiate among positive emotions and among negative emotions equally well.

131. Social referencing refers to a. the ability to understand others' emotions. b. the use of a caregiver's cues to decide how to respond to an ambiguous situation. c. smiles directed at people rather than at objects. d. patterns of sociability and emotionality learned from significant others.

132. Self-conscious emotions are different from other emotions in that they a. relate to our consciousness of others' reactions to us. b. are more easily discerned from facial expressions. c. develop earlier. d. are always focused on other people.

133. Edward Tronick and colleagues developed _____ to explore parental influences on the emotional development of their children. a. the Still-Face Paradigm b. the AFFEX c. an inaccurate system d. an unreliable method

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Chap 10_6ce 134. Which statement is NOT true of adolescents who were high in emotional intelligence as children? a. They have fewer mental health problems. b. They engage in lower risk behaviours. c. They have better strategies for coping with stress. d. They have increased antisocial behaviours.

135. Feelings of _____ include a focus on oneself. a. guilt b. shame c. both guilt and shame d. neither guilt nor shame 136. Bryson is 3 years old. His fears are MOST likely to involve which of the following? a. pleasing teachers b. being physically attacked c. being separated from his mother d. ghosts and monsters 137. Which cognitive strategy might Jasmine use to regulate her emotions? a. repeatedly stroking the hem of her shirt b. waiting for her mother to soothe her c. distracting herself by playing with another toy d. negotiating with her mother to get the new crayons early, rather than late, in the shopping trip 138. A social group's informal norms about the demonstration of emotion and when and where they should be suppressed or masked are referred to as a. display rules. b. social referencing. c. demonstration motives. d. emotion regulation.

139. Which child who has healthy family relationships is LEAST likely to display negative emotions? a. 12-month-old Kiana b. 20-month-old Trey c. 26-month-old Riley d. 36-month-old Amaris

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Chap 10_6ce 140. Which child is LEAST likely to grow up to be emotionally and socially competent? a. a Tamang Buddhist child living in Nepal whose parents criticize him when he expresses negative emotion b. a child growing up in a dangerous neighbourhood with emotionally supportive parents c. a Japanese child who frequently expresses negative emotion d. a European American child who frequently expresses negative emotion 141. Which factor is NOT a "nature" influence on the development of depression? a. elevated levels of cortisol b. activation of the prefrontal cortex and amygdala c. a heritability index of 40% d. low levels of parental sensitivity 142. The causes of which type of emotion tend NOT to change as children develop? a. anger b. pride c. happiness d. self-conscious emotions 143. While expressions of surprise tend to be brief, they usually transform into which emotional expression? a. happiness b. fear c. surprise d. disgust 144. Which statement BEST represents developmentalists' view of emotions and cognitions? a. Emotion is a part of cognition. b. Emotion includes cognitive responses to thoughts or experiences. c. Emotion usually occurs before cognition. d. Emotion and cognition are entirely separate; they typically occur independently.

145. Which statement about the development of anger is TRUE? a. Infants are incapable of experiencing anger. b. During the 1st year of life, it is easy to differentiate between infants' anger and distress. c. By their 1st birthday, children often express anger toward other people. d. Anger develops later than the self-conscious emotions.

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Chap 10_6ce 146. Children who reside in homes where happiness is frequently expressed tend to display all of the following EXCEPT a. increased social skills. b. increased aggression. c. increased self-esteem. d. healthy adjustment.

147. The direct and indirect influence that parents have on their children's standards, values, and ways of thinking is referred to as a. emotion socialization. b. discipline. c. emotional regulation. d. social referencing.

148. Bart, an 11-month-old, is playing on the floor of his room when his older brother steers a remote-control car (that Bart has never seen) toward him. Bart immediately looks up at his father, who is on the verge of yelling, "Stop, it's going to hit Bart!" Bart then breaks into quickly flowing tears. Bart has engaged in a. emotional regulation. b. self-socialization. c. social referencing. d. display rules.

149. Discrete emotions theory holds that a. the basic emotions are innate and distinct from early in life. b. emotional facial expressions must be learned. c. a select few emotions are present at birth, and the others are a function of experience. d. children must learn to fear strangers.

150. Children with this temperament are more likely to develop an anxiety disorder. a. fearful b. easy c. slow to warm up d. slow to calm down

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Chap 10_6ce 151. Dr. Ey takes a functionalist approach to understanding emotional development. Which statement would she be MOST likely to make? a. "The purpose of anger is to initiate movement to eliminate an obstacle to one's goal." b. "Developmental changes in the experience of joy/pleasure are due to accumulating social experiences." c. "Distinct emotions are innate and present from early in life." d. "There is a direct link between the inner emotional state of fear and the facial expression that accompanies it."

152. The ability of preschoolers to delay gratification has NOT been found to be associated with a. academic competence 10 years later. b. ability to deal with frustration 10 years later. c. decreased drug use in adulthood. d. clear learning experiences.

153. About what percentage of children and adolescents suffer from an anxiety disorder? a. 3% b. 7% c. 12% d. 15% 154. Which condition is NOT a characteristic of difficult babies, as classified by Thomas and Chess? a. irregular body functions b. difficult at first but became easier with time c. slow to adjust to new situations d. intensely emotional 155. Newborns' emotions are MOST frequently regulated in which way? a. by intentionally averting their gaze in distressing situations b. through self-soothing c. through other people's attempts to soothe and distract the baby d. by initiating the "fight or flight" response 156. The concept that certain risk factors do not always lead to a mental disorder is called a. equifinality. b. multifinality. c. rumination. d. mental disorder.

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Chap 10_6ce 157. In this procedure, mothers and their infants are brought into a laboratory where the infants are strapped in a highchair. The mother is then seated 1.5 feet away from the infant, from which position she can interact with her infant. a. the Still-Face Paradigm b. the AFFEX c. the Strange Situation d. the Attachment Paradigm 158. At 4 years old, Doug is told a story about Jimmy, a boy whose favourite toy has just been broken. When Doug is asked what Jimmy is feeling, Doug is likely to indicate a. happiness. b. sadness. c. shame. d. that he is unable to predict Jimmy's emotion.

159. Twin and adoption studies have demonstrated that a. there is no genetic component to temperament. b. temperament is entirely due to genetic factors. c. genes account for a small portion of variation in temperament. d. genes account for a substantial portion of variation in some aspects of temperament.

160. Kaye is very impulsive but exhibits low levels of behaviour problems. It is likely that her home environment is a. positive. b. inactive. c. not a good fit. d. negative.

161. A circumstance in which the same temperament characteristics that puts some children at high risk for negative outcomes when exposed to a harsh home environment also causes them to blossom when their home environment is positive is called a. differential susceptibility. b. goodness of fit. c. social competence. d. display rule.

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Chap 10_6ce 162. Lia is less emotionally competent than other children her age, a problem that causes her much difficulty with her peers. Which circumstance is NOT a possible cause of Lia's poor emotional competence? a. Lia's parents express a great deal of negative emotion in their home. b. Lia's parents feel unable to cope with her negative emotions. c. Lia's parents commonly talk to her about emotions. d. Lia was born with this characteristic and it cannot be changed.

163. The set of abilities that researchers have proposed are key to competent social functioning is referred to as a. attachment. b. emotional regulation. c. emotional intelligence. d. empathy.

164. Which of these stimuli is LEAST likely to elicit a smile in a 2-month-old infant? a. a smiling stranger b. an interesting object c. being able to control a particular event d. a parent's tickle on the tummy 165. _____ is a psychotherapeutic approach that is very effective in treating depression and anxiety in children. a. Cognitive behavioural therapy b. Drug therapy c. Psychotherapy d. Exposure therapy 166. During late in the 1st year of life, children are _____ to laugh at unexpected events and/but are _____ to take pleasure in making other people laugh. a. likely; likely b. likely; unlikely c. unlikely; likely d. unlikely; unlikely 167. Children's decreased reliance on parents for help with emotional regulation as they get older does NOT reflect a. their increased ability to negotiate ways to resolve situations. b. increasing maturation of neurological systems. c. changes in adults' expectations of them. d. changes in the temporal lobe.

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Chap 10_6ce 168. The study by Judy Dunn discussed in the text demonstrated that discussions of emotions with family members at ages 2 and 3 were associated at age 6 with a. understanding of others' emotions. b. worrying and anxiety. c. secure attachment. d. emotional intensity.

169. _____ is an example of a cognitive emotional regulation strategy. a. Repetitive rubbing of a special object such as a blanket b. Averting one's attention to a nondistressing object c. Downplaying the importance of the situation d. Having a temper tantrum 170. Baby Rachel sucks her thumb and rubs the ribbons in her baby doll's hair in response to fear-provoking situations. Baby Rachel is engaging in a. gaze aversion. b. self-comforting. c. emotional restriction. d. mental distraction.

171. Which statement is MOST likely to be true across a variety of cultures? a. Children whose parents are dismissive of their negative emotions tend to be particularly emotionally negative. b. Parents who tease their children and promote their expression of anger tend to do so without thoughts of the consequences of these practices. c. Children who do not regulate their negative emotions well tend to have problems in their interpersonal relationships. d. None of these statements is likely to be true across a variety of cultures.

172. Thomas and Chess labelled babies who took a long time to adjust to new experiences, tended to react negatively and intensely to stimuli and events, and were irregular in their eating and sleeping habits as a. slow to warm up. b. easy. c. difficult. d. quick to calm down.

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Chap 10_6ce 173. While the chance of lifetime depression increases for both boys and girls during adolescence, the increase is a. the same for both sexes. b. twice as fast for boys. c. three times as fast for boys. d. twice as fast for girls.

174. Emotional self-regulation does NOT include a. eliminating subjective negative feelings. b. modulating one's interpretation of evocative situations. c. appropriately inhibiting facial expressions related to one's feelings. d. initiating actions related to one's feelings.

175. Mark has always been very impulsive. Because of his family environment, he is currently exhibiting high levels of behaviour problems. Which family environment characteristic is NOT likely associated with his behaviour problems? a. positive b. inactive c. poor fit d. negative 176. Which emotion is identified LATEST by children? a. disgust b. shame c. happiness d. anger 177. Children who have highly responsive temperaments have been described as _____ because they thrive when conditions are good but wither when they are bad. a. orchids b. dandelions c. roses d. thorns 178. Recent theorists have proposed that infant temperament is captured by several dimensions. Which item is NOT one of those dimensions? a. difficulty level b. fear c. activity level d. smiling and laughter

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Chap 10_6ce 179. Which ability is typical of a 3-year-old child? a. identifying the causes of others' negative emotions b. labelling others' self-conscious emotions c. identifying the causes of others' positive emotions d. fully understanding how others' memories of past emotional events can trigger the same emotions 180. Which statement is supported by Mischel's findings on delay of gratification? a. Preschoolers' ability to delay gratification does not predict adjustment beyond preschool. b. The ability to delay gratification is related to SAT scores and rational thinking in adolescence. c. The ability to delay gratification is based primarily on parental socialization. d. Delay of gratification cannot be reliably tested until approximately age 8.

181. Children who are impulsive seem to have more problems and are less sympathetic to others if they are exposed to all of these parenting practices EXCEPT _____ parenting. a. hostile b. supportive c. intrusive d. negative 182. The concept that various causes can lead to the same mental disorder is called a. equifinality. b. multifinality. c. rumination. d. mental disorder.

183. Which factor is NOT associated with experiencing traumatic stress? a. unusually high levels of negative emotions b. depression c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. extracurricular activities 184. Which statement about infants' fear of strangers is correct? a. Infants' fear of strangers occurs in early infancy and quickly disappears. b. All infants experience fear of strangers to a similar degree across a variety of contexts. c. Infants' fear of strangers occurs well after the start of separation anxiety. d. Infants' fear of strangers emerges at around the age of 6 or 7 months.

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Chap 10_6ce 185. Which behaviour is an example of the use of a display rule? a. Maddie covers her eyes when she is feeling shy. b. Damon tries not to look scared as he rides a roller coaster. c. Jasmine stops her temper tantrum because her mother threatens punishment. d. As he is about to jump off the couch, Warren looks at his grandmother to see if she looks angry.

186. The experience of overwhelming levels of stress without support from adults to help mitigate the effects of that stress is referred to as a. toxic stress. b. traumatic stress. c. rumination. d. mental disorder.

187. Individual differences in emotional, motor, and attentional reactivity and self-regulation that occur early in life are referred to as a. personality. b. socialization. c. temperament. d. emotional regulation.

188. The initial signs of fear develop at approximately _____ months of age. a. 6 to 7 b. 2 to 3 c. 4 to 5 d. 8 to 9 189. Walter Mischel's procedure in which preschool children were asked to wait for a considerable amount of time in order to receive a greater number of treats was designed to assess which characteristic? a. intelligence b. attentiveness c. delay of gratification d. social competence 190. Which dimension is probably LEAST affected by cultural norms and practices? a. the experience of basic emotions b. expression of anger c. amount of crying by infants d. feelings of pride

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Chap 10_6ce 191. Describe the concept of emotional intelligence. To what extent is emotional intelligence associated with intelligence? How is emotional intelligence associated with success in life? Describe a friend (or yourself) who is particularly high or particularly low in emotional intelligence, and discuss how this person's emotional intelligence and intelligence have affected a particular aspect of his or her life.

192. How do developmental psychologists define emotion? Be specific in the definition.

193. What are display rules, and how might children come to learn the display rules of their community?

194. Compare and contrast depression and anxiety disorders in childhood and adolescence.

195. What are some current treatment options for internalizing mental disorders? Are they effective?

196. Describe the notion of goodness of fit. Give an example of a child who fits well with his or her parents' parenting style and an example of a child who does not fit well with his or her parents' style. What are the likely outcomes for these two children? Be specific.

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Chap 10_6ce 197. In what ways is emotional regulation necessary for social competence?

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Chap 10_6ce Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. a 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. d 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. d 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. c 79. c 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce 83. b 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. b 88. c 89. b 90. a 91. d 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. b 102. b 103. b 104. d 105. d 106. d 107. c 108. d 109. b 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce 111. b 112. c 113. d 114. b 115. a 116. d 117. c 118. b 119. d 120. a 121. b 122. c 123. d 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. a 129. b 130. b 131. b 132. a 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. d 137. d

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Chap 10_6ce 138. a 139. d 140. c 141. d 142. d 143. a 144. b 145. c 146. b 147. a 148. c 149. a 150. a 151. a 152. d 153. b 154. b 155. c 156. b 157. a 158. b 159. d 160. a 161. a 162. c 163. c 164. b 165. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_6ce 166. a 167. d 168. a 169. c 170. b 171. c 172. c 173. d 174. a 175. a 176. b 177. a 178. a 179. c 180. b 181. b 182. a 183. d 184. d 185. b 186. a 187. c 188. a 189. c 190. a

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Chap 10_6ce 191. Answers will vary in terms of examples provided but should discuss both cognitive and emotional intelligence based on the text. Cognitive intelligence refers to the ability to reason about, learn from, and remember verbal or visual information. Emotional intelligence refers to an individual's ability to cognitively process information about emotions and to use that information to guide both their thoughts and behaviours. Importantly, emotional intelligence involves the ability to understand one's own emotions as well as the emotions of others, as perceived through their facial expressions, body movements, and verbal tone.

192. Emotions can be defined as a combination of physiological and cognitive responses to thoughts or experiences.

Emotions have several components. These include neural responses; physiological factors, including heart rate, breathing rate, and hormone levels; subjective feelings; emotional expressions; and the desire to take action, including the desire to escape, approach, or change people or things in the environment.

193. Display rules are a social or cultural group's informal norms about when, where, and how much one should show emotions, as well as when and where displays of emotion should be suppressed or masked by displays of other emotions. Display rules sometimes require that children express an emotion that is not matched with their felt emotion. The two main strategies for engaging in display rules are simulating an emotion (such as pretending to love an aunt's cooking) and masking an emotion (such as pretending not to be afraid of an approaching bully).

194. Depression is a mental disorder that involves a sad or irritable mood along with physical and cognitive changes that interfere with daily life. Anxiety disorders are a set of mental disorders that involve the inability to regulate fear and worry. Both disorders can occur during childhood and adolescence, although anxiety disorders occur more in this age group. With both disorders, girls are more likely to experience the disorder than are boys. Both disorders are more likely to increase as children get older. The development of both disorders is affected by genetic and environmental influences.

195. Drug therapy is a common treatment for depression in children and adolescents. The drugs typically used to treat children and adolescents are different than the class of drugs used to treat depression in adults. Significant concerns have been raised about the possibility that antidepressants may increase the risk of suicidal thinking and suicidal behaviour among some adolescents. A psychotherapeutic approach known as cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) has been found to be very effective in treating both depression and anxiety in children. In CBT, children learn to recognize when they are having maladaptive thoughts and learn ways to actively modify those thoughts and their reactions to them. CBT has been found to be more effective at reducing anxiety symptoms than other forms of treatment. CBT is as effective at treating depression as drug therapy, and the combination of CBT and drug therapy can be particularly effective in reducing depressive symptoms.

196. Answers will vary but should clearly define goodness of fit and use information provided in text to support their examples. According to the text, how well a child's temperament matches the demands of a particular context is called goodness of fit. The family provides arguably the most important context for issues related to goodness of fit. Research indicates that children who are impulsive or low in emotional regulation seem to have more problems and are less sympathetic to others if exposed to hostile, intrusive, and/or negative parenting, rather than to supportive parenting. Similarly, children prone to emotions such as anger are more likely to have behavioural problems such as aggression if exposed to hostile parenting or low levels of positive parenting.

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Chap 10_6ce 197. The development of emotion regulation has important consequences for children, especially with regard to their social competence. Social competence is a set of skills that helps individuals achieve their personal goals in social interactions while maintaining positive relationships with others. Children who have the ability to inhibit inappropriate behaviours, delay gratification, and use cognitive methods of controlling their emotion and behaviour tend to be well adjusted and liked by their peers and by adults. Moreover, children and adolescents who are able to deal constructively with stressful situations generally are better adjusted than are children who lack these skills.

Children who are unable to successfully regulate their emotions are at higher risk of becoming victims of bullying compared with their peers who are better at emotion regulation.

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Chap 11_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Erikson theorized that identity foreclosure takes place when identity a. is based on little exploration of choices. b. represents the opposite of what is valued by one's parents. c. is in "time-out." d. is diffused.

2. Hina is a young adolescent. If asked to describe herself, which statement is she LEAST likely to say? a. "I just don't understand why sometimes I am so nice and other times I am so mean." b. "I don't have that many friends." c. "I have more friends than Kate because she isn't as nice a person as I am." d. "I can be a real introvert sometimes."

3. According to the Human Rights Campaign (2018), in the United States, _____ states have enacted antibullying laws that protect LGBTQ students. a. 5 b. 12 c. 19 d. all 4. Psychologists have suggested that cultural variations in self-esteem are NOT likely to be associated with differences in a. the meaning of self-esteem. b. comfort with being praised. c. the function of self-criticism. d. parent child attachment.

5. Who is MORE likely to have a less consistent ethnic identity? a. Amanda, who is White b. Juan, who currently lives in the United States but is originally from Brazil c. Marcellus, who is African American d. AviYah, whose mother is White and father is African American

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Chap 11_6ce 6. Which statement about the age at which same-sex attractions first become noticed by gay, lesbian, and bisexual individuals is TRUE? a. Males and females do not differ in the age at which same-sex attractions are first recognized. b. Males typically notice same-sex attractions at an earlier age than do females. c. Females typically notice same-sex attractions at an earlier age than do males. d. Bisexual individuals typically notice same-sex attractions at an earlier age than do gay and lesbian individuals.

7. Michael is an adolescent whose parents have always expected him to become a lawyer. Without considering any other options throughout high school or college, Michael applies to law school. Erikson would say Michael has made what type of identity choice? a. confusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement 8. Mothers who are easily overwhelmed and inconsistent in responding to their infants are more likely than are other mothers to have infants who are a. insecure/resistant. b. disorganized/disoriented. c. difficult. d. insecure/avoidant.

9. It is common for sexual-minority youth to experience their first same-sex attraction between the ages of a. 2 and 5. b. 5 and 10. c. 10 and 15. d. 15 and 20.

10. Which behaviour is NOT considered an indicator that a child is developing a sense of self? a. displaying separation distress b. demonstrating joint attention c. turning towards a noise d. showing happiness when controlling objects 11. As children become adolescents, their self-esteem increasingly becomes based on a. their academic achievement. b. their own internalized standards. c. peers' evaluations. d. their appearance.

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Chap 11_6ce 12. In 2017, hate crimes against sexual-minority youth made up _____ of all hate crimes in the United States. a. 5% b. 8% c. 16% d. 24% 13. Children recognize themselves in the mirror starting at approximately what age? a. 12 months b. 18 months c. 24 months d. 36 months 14. The process of adjusting to a new culture while retaining some aspects of one's culture of origin is referred to as a. bicultural identity. b. sexual-minority status. c. gender identity development. d. acculturation.

15. Young people who experience same-sex attractions are considered a. sexual-minority youth. b. to have a bicultural identity. c. to be experiencing acculturation. d. gender-minority youth.

16. When asked to describe himself, Marcus says, "I have a lot of friends because I am fun to be with and I stand up for my friends. I am pretty smart in reading, but I feel kind of dumb in science because all of the other kids get better grades on their tests than I do. Even though I don't study as much as I should, and I am not as fast a runner as the other kids, other kids like me and I like myself." Marcus is MOST likely to be how old? a. 3 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 14 years 17. To assess self-esteem, researchers generally do NOT ask children about a. how they feel about themselves in general. b. their perceptions of their academic ability. c. their perceptions of their social acceptance. d. their parents' expectations of them.

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Chap 11_6ce 18. Noticing discrepancies between one's own performance and others' performance is founded on a. social comparison. b. self-esteem. c. overconfidence. d. an adolescent sense of self.

19. Which statement is TRUE of ethnic-minority youth and their ethnic identity? a. The final status of ethnic identity for all minority individuals is ethnic-identity achievement. b. Higher levels of ethnic identity are generally associated with behavioural problems. c. The development of a bicultural identity can provide some benefits. d. Lessening of commitment to the ethnic group is considered part of ethnic-identity achievement.

20. According to Erikson, adolescents who have an incomplete and incoherent sense of self have identity a. foreclosure. b. moratorium. c. diffusion. d. confusion.

21. Which factor has NOT been shown to be associated with the quality of infants' attachment? a. maternal trauma b. socioeconomic status c. specific genes d. number of children in the family 22. The use of interventions in regards to self-awareness with children who have ASD indicates that a. children with ASD can be taught how to interact with others. b. children with ASD can be guided into developing empathy for others. c. children with ASD can be guided into having greater self-awareness. d. interventions are largely ineffective.

23. As adolescents move into late adolescence, their sense of self is more likely to a. place an emphasis on others' perceptions of them. b. involve confusion about contradictions in the self. c. reflect internalized values. d. focus on parental expectations.

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Chap 11_6ce 24. In the Strange Situation, baby Olivia clings to her mother, plays little with the toys in the room, and is extremely distressed when her mother leaves the room. When her mother returns to the room and picks her up, Olivia arches her back to get away from her mother. Olivia falls into which attachment category? a. disorganized/disoriented b. insecure/resistant c. secure d. insecure/avoidant 25. The MOST likely source of the differences in peer relationships between children who were securely attached as infants and those who were insecurely attached as infants are differences in a. the quality of adult models. b. opportunities for peer interaction. c. abilities to use social comparisons. d. internal working models.

26. By what age is a rudimentary sense of self present? a. 2 to 4 months b. 7 to 8 months c. 12 to 14 months d. 18 to 20 months 27. Mary Ainsworth's laboratory test used for measuring infants' attachment to their caregivers is referred to as the a. Strange Situation. b. Internal Working Model. c. Reciprocity Test. d. Stranger Interaction Test.

28. It is most likely that children will begin to identify with their ethnic or racial group between the ages of a. 2 and 4. b. 3 and 6. c. 5 and 8. d. 7 and 10.

29. Which social factor is LEAST likely to promote the development of high self-esteem? a. parental sensitivity b. peer acceptance c. evaluating oneself on the basis of peer perceptions d. having a secure attachment to one's parents

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Chap 11_6ce 30. Researchers have found that children with ASD typically refer to themselves in the _____ person. a. first b. second c. third d. Children with ASD do not refer to themselves.

31. Which statement is TRUE regarding "race"? a. There is a clear genetic basis for racial differences. b. "Race" and "ethnicity" are terms representing the same concept. c. There is no genetic basis for there being separate "races." d. Environmental influences determine the appearance of race.

32. Which parenting practice is associated with more mature identity formation? a. control b. warmth c. discouraging individuality d. monitoring 33. Attachment theory was proposed by a. Harlow. b. Ainsworth. c. Bowlby. d. Lorenz.

34. Which behaviour would NOT be exhibited during the Strange Situation by an infant who is classified as disorganized/disoriented? a. displaying fearful smiles while approaching the mother b. demonstrating severe distress when the mother leaves the room c. clinging to the mother rather than playing with toys d. failing to greet the mother during reunions and ignoring her while she is in the room 35. Which attachment category is often associated with infants whose mothers exhibit abusive behaviour? a. insecure/resistant b. secure c. disorganized/distressed d. insecure/avoidant

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Chap 11_6ce 36. Maui is 3 years old and is a member of an ethnic minority group. She is LEAST likely to a. engage in some behaviours characteristic of the ethnic group. b. label herself with the name of the ethnic group. c. understand that she will always be a member of the ethnic group. d. possess simple knowledge about the ethnic group.

37. Which statement is TRUE about the coming-out process for sexual-minority youth? a. Same-sex attraction is experienced by middle childhood. b. Identity integration is eventually attained. c. Self-identification as a sexual-minority member occurs prior to engagement in same-sex sexual activity. d. Sexual-minority youth usually "come out" to a friend, peer, or sibling prior to parents.

38. In late childhood, children tend to rely particularly on which factor to evaluate themselves? a. peer evaluations b. parental evaluations c. teacher standards d. internalized standards 39. Ava is an adolescent who is particularly likely to rely on her parents to make important life decisions for her, and she feels very strongly that it is important to obey authority. Ava is MOST likely to have which identity status? a. diffusion b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. achievement 40. The group of individuals that is LEAST likely to achieve a coherent identity includes those a. who have parents who emphasize autonomy. b. whose parents exert psychological control. c. who attend high-quality schools. d. whose culture instructs them to set their own goals.

41. Compared with children who were insecurely attached as infants, children who were securely attached as infants are more likely to demonstrate a. intensely close romantic relationships as adults. b. anxiety and depression. c. concern for others. d. social withdrawal.

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Chap 11_6ce 42. Bowlby proposed that an individual's internal working model of attachment contains a. expectations about whether interpersonal relationships will be rewarding. b. thoughts about whether one is physically attractive. c. notions about whether other people are generally intelligent. d. All of these are parts of an individual's internal working model of attachment according to Bowlby.

43. Which statement is NOT true of the SECCYD? a. The study measured characteristics of children's families and their childcare settings. b. The study measured children's attachment to their mothers using the Strange Situation procedure. c. The study measured the parents' social, economic, and health status. d. The study measured the quality of the mother's interactions with the children.

44. It may be that children with ASD have difficulties in interacting with other people because they have a(n) a. fixation on the personal fable. b. impaired sense of self-awareness. c. limited imaginary audience. d. hindered joint attention abilities.

45. Which of these is NOT a social or psychological problem that sexual-minority youth are at increased risk for experiencing? a. negative affect b. depression c. drug use d. high academic achievement 46. Erikson believed that all adolescents experience a. identity confusion. b. identity foreclosure. c. an identity crisis. d. identity moratorium.

47. Which statement is TRUE about sexual identity or orientation? a. Identical twins are more similar in sexual identity than are fraternal twins. b. Sexual identity is thought by current psychological researchers to be a choice. c. Individuals become attracted to the sex that they feel is most similar to them. d. Sexual orientation is considered to be entirely determined by genetic factors.

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Chap 11_6ce 48. Abigail is sexually attracted to other females. She would be classified as a. a sexual-minority youth. b. having a bicultural identity. c. experiencing acculturation. d. a gender-minority youth.

49. Kayla, age 15 years, and her mother need to go to the store. Her mother is ready to go and is waiting on Kayla. Kayla is in the bathroom fixing her makeup and making sure her clothes look good. She knows that everyone at the store will notice her and will be watching her every move. This idea is an example of a. imaginary audience. b. personal fable. c. social comparison. d. self-concept.

50. Self-esteem refers to one's a. sense of identity. b. evaluation of the self. c. overall evaluation of the self and the feelings about that evaluation. d. feelings about oneself.

51. Annalee is 3 years old. If asked to describe herself, which statement is she LEAST likely to say? a. "I am a great dancer. See, I can do a pirouette." b. "I love to go apple picking." c. "I have brown hair." d. "My sister is a faster runner than me."

52. Aspects of childcare were related to attachment security when children experienced a. risks in the childcare context. b. risks in the home context. c. risks at both childcare and home contexts. d. risks neither at childcare nor the home contexts.

53. Among adolescents, _____ is NOT associated with lower self-esteem. a. living in urban poverty b. living in violent neighbourhoods c. making the transition from elementary school to junior high school d. being African American

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Chap 11_6ce 54. As children enter adolescence, they tend to increasingly rely on which influence to evaluate themselves? a. peer evaluations b. parental evaluations c. teacher standards d. internalized standards 55. In regard to culture and self-esteem, scores on measures of self-esteem a. do not differ across cultures. b. differ across cultures because there are genetic differences in the average level of self-esteem in different cultures. c. differ across cultures because there are differences in the meaning of self-esteem in different cultures. d. differ across cultures because there are differences in the meaning of self-esteem and self-criticism in different cultures.

56. Bowlby proposed that attachment a. occurs with the first moving person an infant sees. b. is rooted in evolution. c. is necessary for identity development. d. has at its centre the notion of a needy, dependent infant.

57. Which behaviour during the Strange Situation is characteristic of infants who are classified as insecure/avoidant? a. ignoring the mother when she returns to the room b. displaying severe distress when the mother leaves the room c. clinging to the mother rather than playing with toys d. while playing, looking back to check on the mother 58. In the Strange Situation, baby Jacob plays actively with the toys in the room, occasionally looking back to check on his mother, is mildly distressed when his mother leaves the room, and is easily comforted by her return. Jacob falls into which attachment category? a. disorganized/disoriented b. insecure/resistant c. secure d. insecure/avoidant

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Chap 11_6ce 59. Infants who approach their mothers and also regard them as a source of fear are considered to have which type of attachment? a. disorganized/disoriented b. insecure/resistant c. secure d. insecure/avoidant 60. _____ refers to physical characteristics of an individual. a. Ethnicity b. Race c. Culture d. Identity 61. Which assertion is a TRUE statement about the impact of peer, parental, and self standards on children's self-esteem? a. Over the course of childhood, peer acceptance becomes a progressively weaker effect on children's self-esteem. b. In late childhood, children's feelings of competence are tied more closely to parental evaluations than to peer evaluations. c. In adolescence, self-esteem becomes less and less tied to internalized standards. d. Adolescents who base their self-evaluations on others' standards are at increased risk for psychological problems.

62. The process of identifying one's sexual orientation begins with the _____, which is an initial realization that one is different from one's peers. This is often accompanied by feelings of alienation from oneself and others. a. first recognition b. coming out c. victimization d. sexual identity formation 63. Interventions to prevent insecure attachment are geared toward a. parents. b. children. c. both parents and children. d. social environments.

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Chap 11_6ce 64. A person's preference in regard to males and females as objects of erotic feelings is referred to as a. ethnic identity. b. sexual orientation. c. gender identity. d. sex.

65. Internal working models of attachment a. persist throughout childhood, but not into adulthood. b. involve individuals' feelings about being worthy or unworthy of love. c. are possessed only by securely attached individuals. d. are entirely due to biology.

66. Identity diffusion refers to individuals who a. have achieved a coherent and consolidated identity. b. are not making progress toward making commitments. c. have established an identity based on the choices of their parents. d. are exploring various choices but have not yet made commitments to them.

67. Mary Ainsworth's observations of families in Uganda and in the United States led her to the conclusion that information about infants' attachments to their caregivers can be obtained from observations of infants' a. smiling directed at their caregivers. b. verbal and nonverbal communication with their caregivers. c. reactions to separations from their caregivers. d. crying in the presence of their caregivers.

68. Which of these refers to the relationships and experiences a child has that are linked with their cultural ancestry, religion, or native language? a. ethnicity b. race c. culture d. identity 69. Research suggests that, in comparison to young adults exploring commitments in depth, those exploring commitments in breadth tend to be a. less likely to have unprotected sex. b. more likely to abuse drugs. c. less prone to negative emotionality. d. more conscientious.

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Chap 11_6ce 70. Compared with children who were insecurely attached as infants, children who were securely attached as infants do NOT demonstrate a. more social competence. b. less anxiety and depression. c. better ability to understand other's emotions. d. increased anxiety and depression.

71. Which assertion BEST describes Bowlby's view of the attachment process and the quality of infants' attachments? a. Both the attachment process and the quality of attachments are innate. b. Both the attachment process and the quality of attachments are dependent on the nature of infants' experiences with caregivers. c. The attachment process is dependent on the nature of infants' experiences with caregivers, but the quality of their attachments is innate. d. The attachment process has an innate basis, but the quality of infants' attachments is dependent on the nature of their experiences with caregivers.

72. The belief, stemming from adolescent egocentrism, that everyone else is focused on the adolescent's appearance and behaviour is known as a. the imaginary audience. b. the personal fable. c. social comparison. d. self-concept.

73. Which milestone is NOT an indication that a child has a sense of self? a. experiencing embarrassment b. recognizing self in the mirror c. attempting to set own goals in opposition to parents' goals d. imitating others' facial expressions 74. Research suggests that, in comparison to young adults exploring commitments in breadth, those exploring commitments in depth tend to be more a. likely to have unprotected sex. b. open to experience. c. prone to negative emotionality. d. conscientious.

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Chap 11_6ce 75. About how many children have ASD with no accompanying intellectual disability? a. 1 out of 3 b. 1 out of 2 c. 1 out of 4 d. 2 out of 3 76. At what age is an intervention most effective in preventing insecure attachment? a. between birth and 3 months of age b. between 3 and 6 months of age c. between 3 and 9 months of age d. between 9 and 12 months of age 77. From an evolutionary standpoint, attachment is similar to which mechanism? a. imprinting b. development of the id c. theory of mind d. identification 78. When an experimenter surreptitiously places a dot of rouge on Deeana's face and then puts her in front of a mirror, Deeana touches the spot on her face. Deeana is MOST likely to be what age? a. 14 months b. 17 months c. 20 months d. 11 months 79. Mary Ainsworth concluded that the quality of infant attachments can be determined by looking at a. infant reactions to separations from the caregiver and the infant's use of the caregiver as a secure base. b. infant smiling directed at the caregiver and caregiver nonverbal communication toward the infant. c. mutual verbal and nonverbal communication between the infant and the caregiver. d. the infant's use of the caregiver as a secure base and smiling versus crying in the presence of the caregiver.

80. Mothers who resist their infants' attempts at physical closeness and who are emotionally unavailable are more likely than are other mothers to have infants who are a. insecure/resistant. b. securely attached. c. disorganized/disoriented. d. insecure/avoidant.

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Chap 11_6ce 81. Which emotion is an indicator that a child has a sense of self? a. happiness b. anger c. sadness d. shame 82. In Western cultures, self-esteem tends to be related to _____; in Asian cultures, it tends to be related to _____. a. contributing to the welfare of the group; affirming the norms of social interdependence b. individual accomplishments; contributing to the welfare of the group c. individual accomplishments; individual accomplishments d. contributing to the welfare of the group; contributing to the welfare of the group 83. Erikson theorized that successful resolution of the conflict of identity versus identity confusion involves an identity that is a. positive. b. diffused. c. integrated. d. foreclosed.

84. An individual's identity does NOT involve a. beliefs and values. b. sexuality. c. career goals. d. evaluation of the self.

85. The self-concept refers to one's a. physical appearance. b. thoughts and attitudes about oneself. c. personality and intelligence. d. comparison to others.

86. What prompted the study of parent child attachment? a. interviews with parents of children with Down syndrome b. observations of children growing up in orphanages during World War II c. studies of aggression in pets d. an analysis of children who were physically abused by their parents

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Chap 11_6ce 87. Which assertion about attachment behaviours in different cultures is TRUE? a. Attachment is biologically driven, and thus infants in all cultures display the same types of attachment behaviours and are classified into the same major attachment groups. b. Although infants of many cultures can be classified into the major attachment categories, some cultures show quite different patterns. c. Infants in all other cultures show entirely different patterns of attachment behaviour and cannot be classified into the same groups as infants in North America. d. Attachment behaviours are entirely dependent on culture, and the Strange Situation can be used to classify only infants in North America.

88. An individual's mental representation of the self, of attachment figures, and of relationships in general that is based on early experiences with caregivers is referred to as his or her a. attachment security. b. personal fable. c. internal working model. d. identity.

89. Which statement about sexual-minority youth is NOT true? a. Poor outcomes for sexual-minority youth are likely more attributable to being victimized and harassed than to the same-sex attraction itself. b. Sexual-minority youth have higher reported rates of attempted suicide than do heterosexual youth. c. Sexual-minority youth and heterosexual youth tend to have the same rates of depression. d. Having sexual-minority friends is considered an important source of social support for sexual-minority youth.

90. Research has found that adult use of inflated praise is a. harmful for children who have low self-esteem. b. most effective with children who have low self-esteem. c. harmful for children who have high self-esteem. d. not effective with children who have high self-esteem.

91. Marco recently moved to Canada from Spain and is trying to adjust to Canadian culture. However, he wants to maintain certain aspects of his history and original culture. Marco is experiencing a. a bicultural identity. b. sexual-minority status. c. gender identity development. d. acculturation.

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Chap 11_6ce 92. What has been demonstrated by research on the links between specific genes and attachment behaviours? a. There is no clear evidence linking genes and attachment. b. Insecure attachments, but not secure attachments, have a strong genetic component. c. Certain genes cause individuals to be more sensitive to the quality of the environment. d. Links between adult attachment and infant attachment are a result of shared genetics.

93. Which description would NOT apply to the self-concept of a typical late elementary school child in comparison to the self-concept of a typical preschool child? a. more complex b. based to a greater extent on peer relationships c. more likely to involve positive illusions of abilities d. more likely to include social comparisons 94. When is intervention most effective in preventing insecure attachment? a. When the intervention occurs early b. If the family has a history of maltreatment c. Both when the intervention occurs early and if the family has a history of maltreatment d. Neither when the intervention occurs early nor if the family has a history of maltreatment 95. Which statement about the association between infants' behaviour in the Strange Situation and their behaviour at home is TRUE? a. Infants classified as securely attached in the Strange Situation often appear more insecurely attached at home. b. The behaviours of infants classified as insecure in the Strange Situation often switch, with insecure/resistant infants appearing more avoidant in the home and insecure/avoidant infants appearing more clingy in the home. c. Infants' behaviour in the Strange Situation is related to interactions with their mothers at home. d. There is little association between infants' behaviour in the two settings.

96. Deborah, an adolescent, is preoccupied with how she appears to other people. She feels like everyone notices her and her every behaviour. This feeling is referred to as a. a belief in an imaginary audience. b. a personal fable. c. a belief in the all-important self. d. egocentrism.

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Chap 11_6ce 97. Mark is heterosexual. This is his a. ethnic identity. b. sexual orientation. c. gender identity. d. sex.

98. One's sense of oneself as a sexual being is referred to as a. sexual identity. b. ethnic identity. c. gender identity. d. sex.

99. Which behaviour is an indication that an infant has a sense of self? a. making independent movements b. crying c. exhibiting separation distress d. talking 100. Which factor was found to be a predictor of secure attachment by the SECCYD? a. type of childcare b. number of childcare arrangements c. quality of childcare d. maternal sensitivity 101. In 2017, _____ was the motivation for 10% of all hate crimes in Canada. a. ethnic identity b. sexual orientation c. gender identity d. sex 102. Autumn is sexually attracted to both males and females. This is her a. ethnic identity. b. sexual orientation. c. gender identity. d. sex.

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Chap 11_6ce 103. The concept of the personal fable refers to adolescents' inclination to a. lie to their parents. b. boast about their abilities. c. regard their feelings as unique and special. d. believe they are invincible.

104. Parental sensitivity does NOT involve a. responding quickly to the needs of a crying baby. b. smiling, laughing, and making sounds at a baby. c. being emotionally available. d. inconsistency in responding to an infant.

105. Which statement is NOT part of Bowlby's conception of the primary caregiver as a secure base? a. It enables a child to learn about the world. b. It is a source of entertainment and learning. c. It provides a sense of assurance. d. It serves as a safe place when an infant feels scared.

106. Which statement demonstrates that parental sensitivity and secure attachment in children are causally related? a. Parents who respond to their children's cries quickly are more likely than other parents to have children with secure attachments. b. Children who are temperamentally easy are more likely to have secure attachments to their caregivers. c. Parents who are taught to be responsive to their irritable children are more likely than parents who are not taught this to have children who are securely attached. d. Adults who were securely attached to their parents during their childhood are more likely than other adults to have children with secure attachments.

107. Yana is a 9-year-old biracial girl. Which of the following is she MOST likely to report as being an essential part of her identity? a. her ethnicity b. her race c. her gender d. her sex 108. Which goal is NOT taught to parents as part of the ABC intervention? a. providing nurturance to the child b. following the child's lead c. avoiding frightening behaviours d. changing maladaptive representations of parent–child relationships

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Chap 11_6ce 109. The beliefs and attitudes an individual has about the ethnic or racial groups to which they belong is referred to as a. ethnic and racial identity. b. sexual orientation. c. racial belonging. d. identity foreclosure.

110. Maurice is currently developing his ethnic and racial identity. Which of these is NOT a necessary component of his ethnic and racial identity? a. self-identification b. feelings and preferences c. knowledge d. gender 111. Attachments are a. enduring emotional bonds formed by children to their primary caregivers. b. compulsive needs of children to hold security items, such as pacifiers and blankets. c. connections between siblings that are maintained throughout the life span. d. qualities that are central to one's identity.

112. The SECCYD found that 15-month-olds in childcare were likely to experience which form of attachment to their caregivers? a. disorganized/disoriented b. insecure/resistant c. secure d. insecure/avoidant 113. Parents who will be MOST likely to have children with poor self-esteem are those who regularly discipline their children with comments such as a. "You are so irresponsible." b. "You should not have done that." c. "That was an irresponsible thing to do." d. "You need to be much more careful next time."

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Chap 11_6ce 114. Which piece of evidence is the BEST support for the causal effect of infant attachment security on later social functioning? a. Children who are securely attached as infants are more likely than other children to be socially and emotionally competent. b. When security of attachment changes because of stress in the home, parent child interactions at the time are associated with social and emotional competence at that age. c. Children who had a secure attachment during infancy are more socially and emotionally competent in middle childhood than are other children. d. There is no association between infant attachment security and social functioning.

115. The "terrible twos" are an indication of a. insecure attachment. b. self-awareness. c. negative identity. d. parental insensitivity.

116. Insecure/resistant infants are also referred to as a. avoidant. b. ambivalent. c. disorganized. d. secure.

117. Praise that uses exaggerated language is called a. inflated praise. b. deflated compliment. c. inflated attention. d. exaggerated praise.

118. Which statement regarding a 3-year-old child's sense of self is TRUE? a. It involves comparisons of himself with others. b. It includes global views of himself that are not directly tied to specific behaviours. c. It is focused on observable features. d. It involves others' evaluations of him.

119. One's overall evaluation of oneself is referred to as one's a. sexual orientation. b. identity. c. sense of self. d. self-esteem.

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Chap 11_6ce 120. The majority of infants in Canada and the United States whose mothers do not suffer from a clinical disorder fall into which attachment category? a. insecure/avoidant b. disorganized/disoriented c. secure d. insecure/resistant 121. The personal fable is a form of a. sense of self. b. identity. c. coping mechanism. d. egocentrism.

122. Young adolescents' self-conceptions are NOT a. abstract. b. focused to a considerable degree on their social competence. c. often seemingly contradictory. d. consistent and stable.

123. Which parental characteristic is LEAST likely to be associated with high self-esteem in children? a. rigid b. accepting c. firm d. involved 124. Which action is NOT part of the Strange Situation? a. separations from the caregiver b. reunions with the caregiver c. interactions with a stranger d. contact with novel, scary objects 125. Harlow and colleagues' studies with infant rhesus monkeys reared in isolation demonstrated that, compared to monkeys reared normally with their mothers, those reared in isolation and then placed with other monkeys a. rose into leadership positions. b. died early of unusual infections. c. were unable to communicate effectively with other monkeys. d. had intense attachments to the other monkeys.

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Chap 11_6ce 126. Which group of infants is typified by indifference toward the mother? a. disorganized/disoriented b. insecure/resistant c. secure d. insecure/avoidant 127. Which portion of the Strange Situation MOST indicates the quality of the attachment bond? a. separations from the caregiver b. reunions with the caregiver c. interactions with a stranger d. contact with novel objects 128. This intervention targets parenting behaviour and encourages parents to reflect on their own mental representations of how parents and children should interact. Parents are then guided by a therapist to change any maladaptive representations. a. Circle of Security b. Attachment and Biobehavioural Catch-Up c. Circle of Attachment d. A–Z 129. Attachment theorists believe that the MOST important contributor to the development of a secure attachment is a. parental sensitivity. b. physical contact between parent and child. c. infant temperament. d. continuous, uninterrupted attention by the parent.

130. When an experimenter surreptitiously places a dot of rouge on Marlon's face and then puts him in front of the mirror, he touches the spot on his face. When the experimenter shows Marlon a photo of himself alongside photos of two other boys his age, Marlon does not recognize himself. Marlon is MOST likely to be what age? a. 14 months b. 17 months c. 19 months d. 24 months

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Chap 11_6ce 131. What did Charles Cooley conceive of as the "looking glass self"? a. Individuals perceive their level of physical attractiveness as how they appear in the mirror. b. Individuals are unable to see themselves realistically. c. Individuals' self-esteem is a function of how others perceive them. d. Individuals' peer acceptance is a function of how physically attractive they are.

132. When the presence of a trusted caregiver provides an infant or toddler with the ability to explore the environment, the child is using the caregiver as a a. security object. b. dependent attachment figure. c. secure base. d. working model.

133. After a period of exploration, Mario has made decisions regarding occupation, beliefs and ideals, and sexuality. His sense of identity is coherent and consolidated. Mario would be classified into which identitystatus category? a. foreclosure b. positive c. moratorium d. achievement 134. Which factor MOST impedes researchers' ability to fully understand the association between attachment security during infancy and later functioning? a. difficulty with conducting longitudinal studies b. the stable nature of the quality of parent child interactions c. developmental changes in attachment characteristics d. changes in family dynamics over the course of the child's development 135. Ethnic or racial identity is MORE likely to become a central issue during which stage of the life span? a. early childhood b. middle childhood c. adolescence d. early adulthood 136. _____ is/are used to test whether toddlers have a sense of self. a. The Strange Situation b. Children's reactions when their own arm movements control movement of a mobile c. Placing rouge on a child's face before placing the child in front of a mirror d. Personal fables

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Chap 11_6ce 137. About _____ of sexual and gender-minority youth report feeling like they can be themselves as an LGBTQ person at school. a. 2% b. 9% c. 13% d. 27% 138. Charleen is currently in her teenage years. Her ideas about the self currently revolve around ideas related to egocentrism. These include the notion of a personal fable and a belief in an imaginary audience. Provide an example of each of these.

139. Describe the four identity-status categories into which researchers classify adolescents. For each category, provide the criteria used to classify individuals into the category.

140. Describe the notion of the internal working model of attachment. What does this working model include?

What type of internal working model is associated with having unresponsive, uncaring, and unavailable caregivers? What about caregivers who are accessible and responsive?

141. Compare and contrast the four styles of attachment. Explain both the parent's behaviour toward the child as well as the child's behaviour toward the parent.

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Chap 11_6ce 142. How is the notion of the "looking glass self" related to the notion of the internal working model? What evidence is there for the validity of the looking glass self?

143. Think about the concept of a secure base. First, describe what is meant by this concept. Then describe how having a secure base can be important for cognitive development.

144. Describe the reciprocal associations between parental sensitivity and children's self-esteem, and between peer acceptance and children's self-esteem.

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Chap 11_6ce Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_6ce 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. a 43. c 44. b 45. d 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_6ce 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. d 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. d 81. d 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_6ce 83. c 84. d 85. b 86. b 87. b 88. c 89. c 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. c 94. c 95. c 96. a 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. b 103. c 104. d 105. b 106. d 107. c 108. d 109. a 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_6ce 111. a 112. c 113. a 114. c 115. b 116. b 117. a 118. c 119. d 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. d 127. b 128. a 129. a 130. c 131. c 132. c 133. d 134. b 135. c 136. c 137. d

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Chap 11_6ce 138. The personal fable is a form of adolescent egocentrism that involves beliefs in the uniqueness of one's own feelings and thoughts. An example might be when a teenager is having difficulties with friends at school and not thinking that his or her parents can relate to these feelings or understand what is going on. The imaginary audience is related to the belief, stemming from adolescent egocentrism, that everyone else is focused on the adolescent's appearance and behaviour. An example might be a teen spending a considerable amount of time getting ready to run errands with her parents because she believes that everyone will be watching her.

139. The adolescent identity-status categories are based on two main aspects: (1) level of commitment and (2) crisis.

With identity achievement, the individual has achieved a coherent and consolidated identity based on personal decisions regarding occupation, ideology, and so on. The individual believes that these decisions were made autonomously and is committed to them. With identity foreclosure, the individual has not engaged in any identity experimentation and has established a vocational or ideological identity based on the choices or values of others.

With moratorium, the individual is exploring various occupational and ideological choices and has not yet made a clear commitment to them. With identity diffusion, the individual does not have firm commitments regarding the issues in question and is not making progress toward developing them.

140. The usual outcome of the phases of attachment is an enduring emotional tie uniting the child and caregiver. In addition, the child develops an internal working model of attachment, a mental representation of the self, of attachment figures, and of relationships in general. This internal working model is based on the young child's perception of the extent to which his or her caregiver can be depended on to satisfy the child's needs and provide a sense of security. Bowlby believed that this internal working model guides the individual's expectations about relationships throughout life. If caregivers are accessible and responsive, young children come to expect interpersonal relationships to be gratifying, and they feel worthy of receiving care and love. As adults, they look for, and expect to find, satisfying and security-enhancing relationships similar to the ones they had with their attachment figures in childhood. If children's attachment figures are unavailable or unresponsive, children develop negative perceptions of relationships with other people and of themselves. Thus, children's internal working models of attachment are believed to influence their overall adjustment, their social behaviour, their perceptions of others, and the development of their self-esteem and sense of self.

141. There are four styles of attachment: secure, insecure/avoidant, insecure/resistant, and disorganized/disoriented. The child with a secure attachment style will use the parent as a secure base, will be upset at separation from the parent, will seek the parent at the reunion of parent and child, and will be easily soothed by the parent. The parent will be responsive and sensitive to the child's signals. The parent will also be affectionate and expressive, and will initiate frequent close contact with the child. The child with an insecure/avoidant attachment style will readily separate from the parent to explore, will avoid or ignore the parent, and does not prefer the parent to a stranger.

The parent is insensitive to the child's signals; avoids close contact and rejects the child's bids for contact; and may be angry, irritable, or impatient. The child with an insecure/resistant attachment style does not separate from the parent to explore, is wary of strangers even when the parent is present, is extremely upset at separation from the parent but is not soothed by the parent, and resists the parent's attempts to soothe. The parent is inconsistent or awkward in reacting to the child's distress and seems overwhelmed with tasks of caregiving. The child with a disorganized/disoriented attachment style goes to the parent reluctantly, may express fear when with the parent, or may seem to "freeze" his or her behaviour and expressions for short periods. The parent is intrusive, is emotionally unavailable, may dissociate or be in a trance-like state, confuses or frightens the child, and may be harsh or abusive.

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Chap 11_6ce 142. Early theories viewed self-esteem as the internalization of the views of ourselves held by important people in our lives. In this view, self-esteem is a reflection of what others think of us, or our looking glass self. Similar ideas were proposed by Erikson and Bowlby, who argued that children's self-esteem is grounded in the quality of their relationships with their parents. If children feel loved when young, they come to believe that they are lovable and worthy of others' love; if they feel unloved when young, they come to believe the opposite. Indeed, securely attached children with sensitive and responsive parents tend to have higher self-esteem. The internal working model of attachment is a mental representation of the self, of attachment figures, and of relationships in general.

This internal working model is based on the young child's perception of the extent to which his or her caregiver can be depended on to satisfy the child's needs and provide a sense of security. Bowlby believed that this internal working model guides the individual's expectations about relationships throughout life. If caregivers are accessible and responsive, young children come to expect interpersonal relationships to be gratifying, and they feel worthy of receiving care and love. As adults, they look for, and expect to find, satisfying and security-enhancing relationships similar to the ones they had with their attachment figures in childhood. If children's attachment figures are unavailable or unresponsive, children develop negative perceptions of relationships with other people and of themselves. Thus, children's internal working models of attachment are believed to influence their overall adjustment, their social behaviour, their perceptions of others, and the development of their self-esteem and sense of self.

143. Bowlby's theory of attachment included the idea of a "competence-motivated infant" who uses his or her primary caregiver as a secure base. The general idea of the secure base for infant humans is that the presence of a trusted caregiver provides them with a sense of security that allows them to explore the environment and hence to become generally knowledgeable and competent. In addition, the primary caregiver serves as a haven of safety when the infant feels threatened or insecure, and the child derives comfort and pleasure from being near the caregiver. Infants thus develop an attachment to their caregiver.

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Chap 11_6ce 144. Perhaps the most important influence on children's self-esteem is the approval and support they receive from others, particularly their parents. Early theories viewed self-esteem as the internalization of the views of ourselves held by important people in our lives. In this view, self-esteem is a reflection of what others think of us, or our "looking glass self." Similar ideas were proposed by Erikson and Bowlby, who argued that children's self-esteem is grounded in the quality of their relationships with their parents. If children feel loved when young, they come to believe that they are lovable and worthy of others' love; if they feel unloved when young, they come to believe the opposite. Indeed, securely attached children with sensitive and responsive parents tend to have higher selfesteem. Parents' behaviour with and discipline of their children affect the children's self-esteem. Parents who are accepting of and involved with their children and who use supportive yet firm child-rearing practices tend to have children and adolescents with high self-esteem. In contrast, parents who regularly react to their children's unacceptable behaviour with belittlement or rejection are likely to instill in their children a sense of worthlessness and of being loved only to the extent that they meet parental standards. Parents can also undermine children's self-esteem by constantly relying on social comparison as a means of motivating children. They can also give children unrealistically high self-esteem by praising too often. Over the course of childhood, children's self-esteem is increasingly affected by peer acceptance. Indeed, in late childhood, children's feelings of competence about their appearance, athletic ability, and likability may be affected more by their peers' evaluations than by their parents'. This tendency to evaluate the self on the basis of peers' perceptions has been associated with a preoccupation with approval, fluctuations in self-esteem, lower levels of peer approval, and lower self-esteem. At the same time, children's self-esteem likely affects how peers respond to them.

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Chap 12_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The highest rate of skip-generation families can be found where? a. in Ontario b. in Nunavut c. in the Atlantic provinces d. in Quebec 2. The employment status of which mother is LEAST likely to lead to negative outcomes for her children? a. Hildie, who is a stay-at-home mother but wants to work outside of the home b. Rita, who is employed outside of the home but wants to be a stay-at-home mother c. Francene, who wants to be and is employed outside of the home d. Rita's and Francene's situations are equally unlikely to lead to negative outcomes.

3. When is parental discipline effective? a. when the child stops engaging in an undesirable misbehaviour b. when the child engages in a preferred behaviour c. when the child stops engaging in an undesirable misbehaviour and engages in a preferred behaviour d. when the child neither stops engaging in an undesirable misbehaviour nor engages in a preferred behaviour 4. Which statement about adolescent parents is TRUE? a. The rate of adolescent pregnancies increased from 1959 to 2016. b. The rate of adolescent pregnancies is higher amongst Indigenous women than amongst nonIndigenous women. c. Being involved in school activities increases the risk for childbearing during adolescence. d. Living with both biological parents increases the risk for childbearing during adolescence.

5. A negative stimulus that follows a behaviour to reduce the likelihood that the behaviour will occur again is called a. discipline. b. punishment. c. internalization. d. externalization.

6. The greater frequency of problem behaviours in children of divorced parents is NOT due to a. an inherited predisposition to poor self-regulation. b. conflict surrounding the divorce. c. transitioning to a new home or school. d. economic stability.

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Chap 12_6ce 7. Children of which type of parents tend to be low in social and academic competence, unhappy and unfriendly, and low in self-confidence, but do not tend to be particularly low in self-control or to be particularly high in impulsivity? a. permissive b. authoritative c. uninvolved d. authoritarian 8. For Chinese American and Chinese children, which parenting practice is related to negative outcomes? a. scolding, shame, and guilt b. physical punishment c. both physical punishment and scolding, shame, and guilt d. neither physical punishment nor scolding, shame, and guilt 9. Which statement is NOT true regarding the use of spanking as a form of punishment? a. Spanking does not improve children's behaviour. b. Spanking increases children's risk for a range of negative outcomes. c. Spanking is linked with negative outcomes across cultural groups. d. Spanking is an advised form of discipline in all countries around the world.

10. Which factor is NOT an example of an active influence children have on the parenting process? a. temperament b. perceptions of their parents' behaviour towards them c. negative behaviour that is reinforced by parents d. appearance 11. Eight-year-old Trina does not want to do her homework and would rather watch TV. Her parents think that Trina can make her own decisions about her schoolwork, and thus they do not get involved. They are affectionate with Trina in other situations, but they do little to try to regulate their daughter's behaviour. Trina's parents would likely be classified as a. permissive. b. authoritative. c. uninvolved. d. authoritarian.

12. Among industrialized Western countries, the U.S. rate of child poverty is a. the lowest. b. number 3. c. number 6. d. the second highest.

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Chap 12_6ce 13. Which statement about adolescent parents is TRUE? a. Their children have equal rates of school readiness compared to adult parents' children. b. They spend less time reading to their children. c. They engage in less harsh parenting than adult parents do. d. They have greater exposure to adverse childhood experiences (ACEs).

14. Which of these does NOT increase the likelihood of child maltreatment? a. strong negative reactions to stress by the parent b. low family income c. parents' increased knowledge of their children's needs d. inadequate housing 15. In families living in Western industrialized cultures, mothers spend _____ of their available time playing than do fathers, and/but the type of play tends to be _____ to/from that of fathers. a. more; similar b. less; similar c. more; different d. less; different 16. Action or failure to act on the part of a parent or caretaker that results in physical or emotional harm to a child is called a. child restraint. b. socialization. c. child maltreatment. d. punishment.

17. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe a change in Canadian families that has occurred in the past few decades? a. The average age at which women have their first child has increased. b. The percentage of children living in a lone-parent household has increased. c. The percentage of children living with step- or half-siblings has increased. d. The rate of teen pregnancies has increased.

18. Research has suggested which assertion in regard to the effect of parenting style for Chinese and Chinese American children? a. Parents who demand unquestioning obedience to parents are likely to have rebellious children. b. Authoritative parenting appears to be associated with increased academic success. c. Parental control, including the use of scolding and shame, appears to have few negative effects. d. Research has suggested all of these assertions.

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Chap 12_6ce 19. Which statement about older fathers, in comparison to younger fathers, is NOT true? a. They are more likely to be affectionate with their infants. b. They are more likely to provide a moderate amount of childcare. c. They are more likely to be cognitively stimulating with their infants. d. They are more likely to have traditional beliefs about the paternal role in parenting.

20. The set of strategies and behaviours parents use to teach children how to behave appropriately is called a. discipline. b. punishment. c. internalization. d. externalization.

21. Children whose parents demonstrate _____ following a divorce are MOST likely to adjust well to the divorce. a. low levels of control b. high levels of warmth c. low levels of warmth d. high levels of control 22. The co-occurrence of multiple forms of maltreatment is called a. polyvictimization. b. internalization. c. bidirectionality. d. socialization.

23. Which of these is NOT a type of child maltreatment? a. neglect b. physical abuse c. socialization d. emotional abuse 24. How many marriages can expect to end in divorce in Canada? a. between 15% and 25% b. between 35% and 42% c. between 50% and 55% d. between 60% and 70%

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Chap 12_6ce 25. Which mother is MOST likely to show sensitive behaviour towards her new infant? a. Eileen, who is 17 years old b. Ursula, who is 22 years old and has few financial resources c. Hailee, who is 34 years old and has no other children d. Andrea, who is 34 years old and has two older children 26. Reasoning that is focused on the effects of a behaviour on other people is referred to as a. externalization. b. internalization. c. self-oriented induction. d. other-oriented induction.

27. In defining a parent's parenting style, an important dimension is the degree of a. socioeconomic health. b. control. c. indirect socialization. d. respect.

28. The process through which children acquire the values, standards, skills, knowledge, and behaviours that are necessary for their role in their culture is referred to as: a. evolution. b. socialization. c. bioecology. d. family dynamics.

29. Which statement is NOT true regarding grandparents as primary caregivers? a. Grandparent-headed families tend to be more affluent than households not headed by grandparents. b. Many grandparents are raising children on fixed retirement incomes. c. Grandparents may have a difficult time maintaining a social support network for the child. d. Children raised by grandparents often experience a range of emotional and behavioural problems.

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Chap 12_6ce 30. Both Mateo's parents and Ayden's parents are divorced, and Mateo and Ayden each live with their mother and stepfather, but see their biological father often. Mateo's biological father and stepfather get along quite well, but Ayden's biological father and stepfather frequently argue and have a conflictual relationship. Which of the following statements is the BEST prediction of how the boys will adjust to their new families? a. Mateo and Ayden will likely be similarly well adjusted because contact with noncustodial fathers is beneficial for adjustment. b. Ayden will likely be better adjusted than Mateo because conflict between his stepfather and father will make him closer to his biological father. c. Mateo will likely be better adjusted than Ayden because of the low conflict between his stepfather and father. d. Mateo and Ayden will likely be similarly poorly adjusted because of their parents' divorces.

31. Compared with younger parents, older parents do NOT tend to have: a. less stress. b. more children. c. greater financial resources. d. more positivity in their parenting.

32. Compared with low-SES parents, higher-SES parents a. are more punitive. b. are more likely to be authoritarian. c. can spend more quality time with their children. d. encourage conformity to a greater degree.

33. Which statement about children's characteristics and behaviour and the parenting process is TRUE? a. Parenting behaviours are rarely influenced by children's characteristics or behaviour, as parents tend to have a core style that changes in only minor ways. b. Although children's early temperamental characteristics influence the parenting style that parents adopt, children have little influence on parenting behaviours after infancy. c. Parents may be influenced by children's extreme behaviours, but their parenting practices are rarely influenced by any other characteristics of their children. d. Children's characteristics and behaviour can have a substantial influence on the parenting process.

34. Which form of punishment is NOT considered negative? a. spanking b. love withdrawal c. yelling d. disapproving look

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Chap 12_6ce 35. About _____ of children in Canada live with a grandparent. a. 3% b. 9% c. 15% d. 25% 36. The influence that children have on their parents' parenting behaviours because of their appearance is _____.

The influence that children have on their parents' parenting behaviours because of their own behaviour is _____. a. passive; passive b. passive; active c. active; passive d. active; active 37. Which variable does NOT influence children's adjustment following divorce? a. parental conflict b. stress of custodial mother c. frequency of contact with noncustodial father d. race or ethnicity 38. The large-scale study of the effects of childcare that was funded by the National Institute of Child Health and Development (NICHD) in the United States demonstrated which finding about the effects of amount of childcare on the social behaviour of children from working- and middle-class families? a. The amount of childcare was not associated with children's social behaviour. b. The risk of children exhibiting problem behaviours increased with more hours in childcare. c. Long hours spent in childcare caused aggression and social withdrawal. d. Extensive time in childcare was more detrimental to children from very low-income, high-risk families.

39. Children of which type of parents tend to have disturbed attachment relationships as infants and a wide range of problems in adolescence, including promiscuous sexual behaviour, substance abuse, and depression? a. permissive b. authoritative c. uninvolved d. authoritarian

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Chap 12_6ce 40. Some children may be more reactive to the quality of parenting that they receive than are others. This is in agreement with a. individual differences in children. b. research involving the active child. c. differential susceptibility. d. the need for childhood socialization.

41. In which group do mothers and fathers spend equal amounts of time playing with their children? a. U.S. families b. Brazilian families c. South Korean families d. Estonian families 42. Which statement about parental conflict following divorce is TRUE? a. Fathers tend to be less involved with their children when there is parental conflict. b. If adolescents feel that they can act as intermediaries between their parents, they tend to feel empowered, and thus are at decreased risk of engaging in problem behaviours. c. Conflict tends to decrease soon after the divorce is finalized. d. When children witness violence between their parents, they are less likely to use violence with their own partners when they are older.

43. Which statement about the effect of parents' differential treatment of siblings on the siblings' relationships with each other is TRUE? a. Children rarely detect true differences in parental treatment, and thus it has little effect on their relationships with their siblings. b. Differential treatment is more likely to be a problem in early and middle childhood than in early adolescence, when adolescents can view it as justified. c. Differential treatment is more likely to be a problem in early adolescence than in early and middle childhood, because adolescents' relationships are more emotionally charged than are the relationships of younger children. d. Children can detect differential treatment, and it is equally problematic for children of all ages.

44. The percentage of parents who spank their children has _____ over the past several decades in both the United States and Canada. a. stayed the same b. increased slightly c. decreased significantly d. increased significantly

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Chap 12_6ce 45. Which child is probably LEAST likely to exhibit adjustment problems? a. Charlie, whose parents are married and have high levels of conflict b. Gary, whose parents are divorced and have high levels of conflict c. Christopher, whose parents are divorced and have low levels of conflict d. Charlie and Gary are equally unlikely to exhibit adjustment problems.

46. Which scenario is an example of a parent's indirect socialization of generosity? a. Tanya's mother signs her child up for volunteer work at the local hospital after school. b. Frank's dad explains to his child how important it is to give to people who have less than them. c. Hannah's mom often makes food for a neighbourhood mother whose husband is ill. d. Michael's dad tells his children that they need to share their toys when their friends play at their home.

47. The process through which children acquire the values, standards, skills, knowledge, and behaviours that are regarded as appropriate for their present and future roles in their particular culture is called a. socialization. b. internalization. c. bidirectionality. d. polyvictimization.

48. Differential treatment of siblings by parents is less detrimental to children when all of these are true EXCEPT a. children believe it is justified. b. the culture emphasizes interdependence among family members. c. the children are older. d. the children are younger.

49. On average, do stepmothers or stepfathers appear to have more difficulty with their stepchildren? a. Stepmothers appear to have more difficulty. b. Stepfathers appear to have more difficulty. c. Stepmothers and stepfathers appear to have equal difficulty, with both having a great deal of difficulty. d. Stepmothers and stepfathers appear to have equal difficulty, with neither having a great deal of difficulty.

50. Which factor improves children's adjustment to a parent's remarriage? a. all of the children being around the same age b. the children being older c. the stepparent being a stepfather d. supportive relations between the noncustodial parent and the stepparent

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Chap 12_6ce 51. Which of these is effective at promoting internalization? a. externalization b. internalization c. self-oriented induction d. other-oriented induction 52. A factor that does NOT decrease the negative effect of homelessness on children's adjustment is a. a close relationship with their parents. b. parental involvement in their education. c. temperamental regulation. d. running away as an adolescent.

53. Which statement about the impact of divorce on children's functioning is TRUE? a. The majority of children whose parents divorce suffer long-term problems as a consequence. b. Although divorce has negative consequences for some children, most children do not suffer long-term problems as a consequence. c. Although there are some short-term consequences, there are almost no long-term consequences of divorce. d. There are no short-term or long-term consequences of divorce.

54. Compared with other children, homeless children are: a. more likely to have serious behaviour problems but not more likely to be withdrawn. b. more likely to be withdrawn but not more likely to have serious behaviour problems. c. more likely to have serious behaviour problems and more likely to be withdrawn. d. neither more likely to have serious behaviour problems nor more likely to be withdrawn.

55. Rex and Paul are both young children who attend high-quality centre-based childcare. Rex is from a lowincome family and Paul is from a working-class family. What are the likely effects on their behaviour if they are in childcare for extensive hours? a. Rex and Paul are both at an increased risk of developing behaviour problems. b. Rex and Paul are both at a decreased risk of developing behaviour problems. c. Rex is at an increased risk of developing behaviour problems, and Paul is at a decreased risk. d. Rex is at a decreased risk of developing behaviour problems, and Paul is at an increased risk.

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Chap 12_6ce 56. The large-scale study of the effects of childcare that was funded by the National Institute of Child Health and Development (NICHD) in the United States demonstrated that the attachment of children in nonmaternal care was LEAST strongly related to a. family income. b. maternal sensitivity. c. maternal education. d. the nature of the childcare.

57. Compared with children whose parents do not divorce, children of divorce are a. more likely to experience depression. b. more likely to complete high school. c. less likely to have behavioural problems. d. more socially competent.

58. Psychologists have suggested that ethnic differences in parenting styles in the United States may be a result of differences in a. the motives common in different environments. b. parental skills. c. child behaviour. d. socioeconomic factors.

59. Which action is an example of psychological control? a. threatening to take away privileges b. requiring children to comply with demands without question c. discounting children's feelings d. engaging in reasoning 60. The large-scale study of the effects of childcare that was funded by the National Institute of Child Health and Development (NICHD) in the United States demonstrated which finding about the effects of child care on children's cognitive development? a. Regardless of the quality, childcare tended to have a negative effect on children's cognitive development. b. Regardless of the quality, childcare tended to have a positive effect on children's cognitive development. c. When it was of at least moderate quality, childcare tended to have a positive effect on children's cognitive development. d. When it was of high quality, childcare tended to have a positive effect on children's cognitive development.

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Chap 12_6ce 61. According to Bronfenbrenner's bioecological model, _____ is central to a child's microsystem. a. internalization b. parenting styles c. the family d. socialization 62. In a cross-cultural study of parenting style in Canada, _____ mothers tended to be more authoritative, sensitive, and more responsive to their children during play than _____ mothers. a. European Canadian; East Asian immigrant b. East Asian immigrant; African Canadian c. Hispanic Canadian; European Canadian d. European Canadian; African Canadian 63. Approximately what percentage of divorced families in Canada are covered by legal custody agreements? a. 10% b. 30% c. 65% d. 90% 64. Research has demonstrated that which parental practice is associated with less hostility in sibling relationships? a. being warm and accepting b. treating the siblings differently c. leaning on children in times of marital conflict d. using harsh parenting practices 65. Which factor INCREASES the level of support between siblings? a. marital conflict b. differential treatment by parents c. parental support d. birth order 66. Which factor does NOT increase an adolescent's risk of becoming pregnant? a. living with both biological parents b. having low expectations of attending university c. growing up in a disadvantaged household d. doing poorly in school

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Chap 12_6ce 67. Maternal employment appears to a. have an equally positive effect on boys and girls. b. have an equally negative effect on boys and girls. c. be more likely to be beneficial for girls than for boys. d. be less likely to be beneficial for girls than for boys.

68. Which of these is NOT something that is associated with preventing child maltreatment? a. strengthening the economic situation of families b. changing social norms to promote negative parenting c. enhancing parenting skills d. providing quality early education to children 69. Parental use of psychological control tends to be reported most among which type of parents? a. permissive b. authoritative c. uninvolved d. authoritarian 70. Which of these contributes to the parenting children receive? a. individual differences in children b. research involving the active child c. internalization d. the need for childhood socialization 71. In 2009 in Canada, almost ______ homeless children used the shelter system. a. 1000 b. 5000 c. 10,000 d. 20,000 72. Which result is NOT a consequence of divorce on children? a. increased delinquency b. decreased rate of divorce in adulthood c. decreased income in adulthood d. decreased social competence

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Chap 12_6ce 73. The MOST accurate statement about the effects of divorce on children is that divorce affects a. many child outcomes, both in the short and long term. b. many child outcomes in the short term, but few in the long term. c. a few child outcomes in the short term, and many in the long term. d. a few child outcomes in the short term, but none in the long term.

74. Which statement about the effect of childcare on parent child attachment is TRUE? a. Overall, children in childcare tend to be less securely attached than children who are not in childcare. b. Overall, children in childcare tend to be more securely attached than children who are not in childcare. c. Only when there are other risk factors is extensive childcare associated with less secure attachment. d. In terms of maternal attachment, infants tend to do better in centre-based childcare than they do in other types of nonparental care.

75. Which of these is NOT a conclusion regarding the effects of spanking on children? a. Spanking is not harmful to children. b. Spanking does not improve children's behaviour. c. Spanking increases children's risk for a range of negative outcomes. d. Spanking is linked with negative outcomes equally across cultural groups.

76. Which is a minimum standard for childcare centres required by the province of Alberta? a. child-to-caregiver ratio of 7:1 for infants b. child-to-caregiver ratio of 6:1 for 2-year-olds c. maximum group size of 14 for infants d. maximum group size of 21 for 3-year-olds 77. In her conception of parenting styles, Baumrind does NOT include a. psychological control. b. setting limits. c. responsiveness to children's emotional needs. d. discipline.

78. What would NOT be a way that parents socialize their children? a. direct instruction b. indirect socialization c. heredity d. social management

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Chap 12_6ce 79. What percentage of mothers with children under the age of 6 were employed outside of the home in 2015? a. 25% b. 36% c. 70% d. 89% 80. Effective discipline that leads to permanent change in the child's behaviour because the child has learned and accepted the desired behaviour is referred to as a. externalization. b. internalization. c. self-oriented induction. d. other-oriented induction.

81. Children are MOST likely to live with _____ following divorce. a. their mother b. their father c. each parent via joint physical custody d. another family member 82. The bidirectional nature of hostile parenting behaviours and hostile adolescent behaviours results in a. an escalation of these behaviours. b. a reduction of influence on each other. c. relationship stability. d. reduced parental harshness.

83. Authoritarian parents are those who: a. are abusive. b. are highly demanding and unresponsive. c. have little interest in disciplining their children. d. are attentive and consistent in their discipline.

84. In a study of Mexican American families, older siblings who embraced _____, which emphasizes interdependence, mutual support, and loyalty among family members, were not put at risk of higher levels of depressive symptoms or risky behaviours by their parents' preferential treatment of younger siblings. a. socialization b. familism c. polyvictimization d. internalization

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Chap 12_6ce 85. One current hypothesis about why there are socioeconomic differences in parenting practices is that a. genetic differences between lower-SES families and higher-SES families enable lower-SES families to cope with difficulties more easily. b. the increased stress that lower-SES parents experience causes them to have less time and energy for complex child-rearing issues than do higher-SES parents. c. higher-SES parents are more concerned about protecting their children from harm than are lowerSES parents. d. the jobs common to higher-SES families require a greater degree of conformity than the jobs common to lower-SES families.

86. In Canada in 2017, what percentage of children lived below the poverty line? a. 9% b. 15% c. 20% d. 27% 87. Which benefit is NOT guaranteed by Canada's family leave policy? a. New parents can take up to 21 months off from work. b. New parents who were unemployed prior to the birth of their child get employment insurance from the government. c. New parents are guaranteed that their job will be there for them after parental leave. d. New adoptive parents can take up to 61 weeks off from work.

88. Around _____ of same-sex couples in Canada are raising children. a. 4% b. 9% c. 12% d. 25% 89. Four-year-old Derek is playing with his trucks and does not want to come to the dinner table. In response, his mother storms over to where he is playing, grabs his trucks away from him, and yells, "I told you to come eat dinner! Come to the table right now or I will throw those trucks in the garbage." Derek's mother is rarely affectionate with him, even in situations in which he is complying with her wishes. Derek's mother would likely be classified as a. permissive. b. authoritative. c. uninvolved. d. authoritarian.

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Chap 12_6ce 90. A group that involves at least one adult who is related to the child by birth, marriage, adoption, or foster status and who is responsible for providing basic necessities as well as love, support, safety, stability, and opportunities for learning is called a. internalization. b. parenting styles. c. the family. d. socialization.

91. Which variable is NOT a strong predictor of poor-quality parenting? a. marital conflict b. poverty c. homelessness d. adequate shelter 92. A recent study that examined the associations between adolescents' reports of externalizing and internalizing problems and their parents' parenting style found a. no association between internalizing problems and parenting style. b. that high levels of externalizing problems predicted a decline in authoritative parenting 2 years later. c. that a decrease in authoritative parenting predicted high levels of internalizing problems 2 years later. d. that the associations are bidirectional.

93. Which scenario is an example of a parent serving as social manager in the socialization of generosity? a. Tanya's mother signs her child up for volunteer work at the local hospital after school. b. Frank's dad explains to his child how important it is to give to people who have less than they do. c. Hannah's mom often makes food for a neighbourhood mother whose husband is ill. d. Michael's dad tells his children that they need to share their toys when their friends play at their home.

94. Which statement about sibling relationships is TRUE? a. Siblings with parents who get along well tend to get along better with each other than do siblings with parents who fight with one another. b. Siblings in divorced families tend to get along better than those in nondivorced families, as they tend to count on each other for support. c. Perceived differential treatment by parents is typically not problematic in sibling relationships when it is the younger child who receives the better treatment. d. Although children may be annoyed when parents favour their siblings, differential treatment is unlikely to affect sibling relationships.

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Chap 12_6ce 95. Who is more likely to live with a lone parent, a stepfamily, or without parents? a. Raul, who lives in Ontario b. Christine, who lives in Alberta c. Shawn, who lives in the Northwest Territories d. Maui, who lives in British Columbia 96. Approximately what percentage of children in Canada live in a stepfamily? a. 3% b. 10% c. 18% d. 25% 97. What percentage of U.S. adults support a paid family leave policy in the United States? a. 13% b. 24% c. 45% d. 84% 98. Parents who are low in support and low in control are considered to exhibit which parenting style? a. permissive b. authoritative c. uninvolved d. authoritarian 99. Nature and nurture is central to the study of the role of _____ because a child's heredity and rearing influence each other and jointly affect the child's development. a. internalization b. parenting styles c. the family d. socialization 100. The average number of children born to a woman in Canada a. dropped from around 4 in 1961 to just over 1.5 in 2016. b. rose from around 2 in 1961 to just over 3 in 2016. c. dropped from around 5 in 1961 to just over 2 in 2016. d. stayed the same between 1961 and 2016.

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Chap 12_6ce 101. Family dynamics refers to a. how individual family members relate to the child. b. cultural variability in family structure. c. the changing nature of parent child relationships as children develop. d. how the family operates as a whole.

102. Which statement about cultural differences in the effect of parenting style on child outcome is TRUE? a. Consistent effects of the four parenting styles have been found in all cultures that have been examined. b. The particular effects of permissive and uninvolved parents have been found to differ cross-culturally. c. The meaning of discipline and control can differ cross-culturally, and this difference in meaning can change the effects of the authoritarian style. d. Parenting styles have been examined only in the United States, and thus we have no information about cultural differences in the impact of parenting style.

103. Higher-SES parents are more likely than lower-SES parents to view themselves as a. providers. b. teachers. c. disciplinarians. d. friends.

104. Maternal employment is more likely to have negative effects on children when a. children have adequate supervision. b. mothers begin working when children are 1 year old. c. mothers are stressed. d. mothers want to work.

105. Which variable has been found to be an important factor in the adjustment of children of lesbian and gay parents? a. whether the homosexual parent is male or female b. whether the child is also gay or lesbian c. the closeness of the parent child relationship d. the gender of the child 106. Cross-cultural studies of parenting styles have demonstrated that a factor that does NOT differ across cultures and subcultures is a. prevalence of different parenting styles. b. meaning of particular parenting styles to children. c. outcomes associated with different parenting styles. d. dimensions that define parenting styles.

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Chap 12_6ce 107. Imagine that researchers interested in the possible bidirectional influence of children's aggression and parental use of punitive discipline examined these two variables when a group of children was at each of three ages: 4 years old, 8 years old, and 12 years old. Which finding would be the BEST support for the bidirectional influence of these variables? a. Greater punitive discipline at age 4 was associated with greater punitive discipline at age 8, which was associated with greater aggression at age 12. b. Greater aggression at age 4 was associated with greater punitive discipline at age 8, which was associated with greater aggression at age 12. c. Greater aggression at age 4 was associated with greater aggression at age 8, which was associated with greater punitive discipline at age 12. d. Less punitive discipline at age 4 was associated with greater aggression at age 8, which was associated with greater aggression at age 12.

108. Which factor is associated with a decreased likelihood of children experiencing negative consequences from their parents' divorce? a. authoritarian parenting b. frequent contact with noncustodial father c. being a young child at the time of divorce d. low parental conflict 109. Which statement about children and stepfathers is TRUE? a. Relationships between children and stepfathers tend to be better when there are stepsiblings living with the family as well. b. Children with stepfathers tend to have higher rates of disruptive problem behaviours than do children in intact families. c. Conflict between children and biological fathers is more common than conflict between children and stepfathers. d. Stepfathers rarely contribute to supervision of their stepsons.

110. In which group are youth's adjustment and problem behaviours MOST negatively affected by their parents' divorce? a. younger children b. older children c. adolescents d. university-age youth

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Chap 12_6ce 111. Parents who are high in warmth and high in control are considered to exhibit which parenting style? a. permissive b. authoritative c. uninvolved d. authoritarian 112. Children of which type of parents tend to be the most well adjusted in terms of competence, antisocial behaviour, and self-confidence? a. permissive b. authoritative c. uninvolved d. authoritarian 113. The number of and relationships among the people living in a household is referred to as a. family structure. b. family dynamics. c. internalization. d. parenting style.

114. What percentage of children living with a single parent live below the national poverty line? a. 8% b. 16% c. 27% d. 52% 115. Which factor is NOT associated with better integration of a stepparent into a family? a. lack of hostility of noncustodial biological parent toward stepparent b. support of stepparent's parenting by custodial parent c. warmth of stepparent d. active parenting by stepparent 116. Which child is MOST likely to benefit from remarriage by the mother? a. Linda, a 6-year-old girl b. Cathy, an 11-year-old girl c. Todd, a 14-year-old boy d. Frank, an 11-year-old boy

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Chap 12_6ce 117. Which type of sibling pair is LEAST likely to be characterized by rivalry and conflict? a. biological siblings in remarried families b. half-siblings c. biological siblings in intact, nondivorced families d. stepsiblings 118. The large-scale study of the effects of childcare that was funded by the National Institute of Child Health and Development (NICHD) in the United States demonstrated that the a. quality of childcare was a critical predictor of attachment security. b. amount of childcare was a critical predictor of attachment security. c. number of childcare arrangements was a critical predictor of attachment security. d. number of changes in caregivers in the first 2 years of life predicted lower social competence and more noncompliance with adults at age 2.

119. A trait that is NOT more common among families experiencing long-term economic stress than among other families is a. social support. b. marital conflict. c. inconsistent parenting. d. hostile parenting.

120. Authoritative parents are those who: a. are abusive. b. are highly demanding and unresponsive. c. have little interest in disciplining their children. d. are attentive and consistent in their discipline.

121. In Canada, new parents can take up to _____ off from work, and the federal government pays some of their wages through employment insurance. a. 6 weeks b. 12 weeks c. 12 months d. 21 months 122. Most experts agree that children of divorce are at greater risk for a variety of _____ in comparison to those from continuously intact homes. a. short-term problems b. long-term problems c. both short-term and long-term problems d. neither short-term nor long-term problems Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_6ce 123. Which statement about how parents behave towards children is TRUE? a. Children who are disobedient, angry, or challenging make it more difficult for parents to use authoritative parenting. b. Children who are compliant and positive in their behaviour make it more difficult for parents to use authoritative parenting. c. In resisting the demands of their parents, children may become so whiny that parents increase their assertiveness. d. Parents' use of spanking at age 1 predicts less child aggression at age 3.

124. Compared with children of heterosexual parents, children of gay and lesbian parents are a. more poorly adjusted. b. less popular. c. more likely to be gay or lesbian themselves. d. pretty much the same.

125. The use of other-oriented induction can teach children a. empathy for others. b. social competence. c. both empathy for others and social competence. d. neither empathy for others nor social competence.

126. Explain the bidirectionality of parent–child interactions and provide an example.

127. Describe what is meant by differential susceptibility. Provide an example of how children with a difficult temperament may be differentially susceptible to parenting style.

128. Why do some children seem fine following a divorce, whereas others do poorly? Describe three factors likely to decrease children's risk for poor adjustment and three factors likely to increase children's risk.

Explain the role these factors play.

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Chap 12_6ce 129. Describe the child development outcomes that are associated with the authoritative style of parenting.

130. Describe how the sociocultural context in which you grew up might have affected your parents' behaviour toward you. Be specific and give at least three supportive examples. You can think about the sociocultural context as your race or ethnicity, or as the country or part of the country in which you were raised.

131. Describe the four parenting styles identified by Diana Baumrind. For each style, describe how it is defined, as well as its effects on children.

132. Consider a sibling relationship you know well and briefly describe the level of conflict the pair engaged in during childhood. Thinking about the factors outlined in the text that can impact the quality of the sibling relationship, describe two factors that you believe may have increased or decreased the level of sibling rivalry in this particular pair. Be sure to explain how each of the two factors may have played a role.

133. Describe the current psychological understanding of the effects of childcare on children's levels of aggression.

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Chap 12_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_6ce 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. d 51. d 52. d 53. b 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_6ce 55. d 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. b 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. b 77. a 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. a 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_6ce 83. b 84. b 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. c 91. d 92. b 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. b 97. d 98. c 99. c 100. a 101. d 102. c 103. b 104. c 105. c 106. d 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_6ce 111. b 112. b 113. a 114. c 115. d 116. c 117. c 118. d 119. a 120. d 121. d 122. c 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. The phrase "bidirectionality of parent–child interactions" refers to the fact the parents and children influence each other. Over time, the mutual influence, or bidirectionality, of parent–child interactions reinforces and perpetuates the behaviour of both parent and child. For example, parents' use of spanking at age 1 predicts greater child aggression at age 3, which in turn predicts more parental spanking at age 5. Similarly, parents' hostile and inconsistent behaviours toward their adolescents are often rewarded with similar hostile, insensitive, disruptive, and inflexible behaviours from their adolescents. Bidirectionality is also a key factor in parent–child relationships that exhibit a pattern of cooperation, positive affect, harmonious communication, and coordinated behaviour, with the positive behaviour of each partner eliciting analogous positive behaviour from the other.

127. How children behave with their parents—including the degree to which they express anger, low self-regulation, or disobedience—can be due to a number of factors. The most prominent of these are genetic factors related to temperament. In line with differential susceptibility, some children may be more reactive to the quality of parenting they receive than are others. For instance, children with anxious temperaments tend to become fearful and immobilized in response to harsh and demanding parenting; in contrast, these same children are eager to please and comply with warm and responsive parents.

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Chap 12_6ce 128. Most experts agree that children of divorce are at greater risk for a variety of short-term and long-term problems than are most children who are living with both of their biological parents. Although older children and adolescents are better able to understand a divorce than are younger children, they are nonetheless particularly at risk for problems with adjustment. Adolescents who live in neighbourhoods characterized by a high crime rate, poor schools, and an abundance of antisocial peers are at especially high risk. University students are less reactive to their parents' divorce, probably because of their maturity and relative independence from the family. A key factor that affects children's adjustment after divorce is the quality of the contact with the noncustodial parent.

Children who have contact with competent, supportive, authoritative noncustodial fathers show better adjustment and do better in school than children who have frequent but superficial or disruptive contact with their noncustodial fathers. In contrast, contact with noncustodial fathers who have antisocial traits predicts an increase in children's noncompliance. Less is known about noncustodial mothers, but research has found that the more the noncustodial mothers maintain regular and positive involvement with their children, the better adjusted their children are.

129. Children of authoritative parents tend to be competent, self-assured, and popular with peers. They are also able to behave in accordance with adults' expectations and are low in antisocial behaviour. Children with authoritative parents seem to accept their parents' socialization efforts. As adolescents, children from authoritative families tend to be relatively high in social and academic competence, self-reliance, and coping skills and relatively low in drug use and problem behaviour.

130. Answers will vary but should discuss how various sociocultural contests can impact the family and parenting practices. Based on the text, parents' beliefs about what constitutes optimal child development as well as their decisions about how to behave with and discipline their children have a strong basis in their culture. Culture reflects those beliefs and practices that are linked with a family's country, religion, ethnic group, race, or similar group or affiliation. Regardless of the culture, research has found that parents around the world use similar methods of discipline with their children and have found that mothers and children tend to report high levels of positive discipline and of parental warmth. Also, mothers report very often teaching children about good and bad behaviour. Mothers also use love withdrawal as a form of discipline. Within the United States, African American parents spank their children more often than do European American, Latino American, or Asian American parents.

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Chap 12_6ce 131. Parenting style is the constellation of parenting behaviours and attitudes that set the emotional climate of parent– child interactions. Researchers have identified two dimensions of parenting style that are particularly important: (1) the degree of parental warmth and responsiveness, and (2) the degree of parenting control and demandingness.

Diana Baumrind differentiated among four styles of parenting related to the dimensions of support and control.

These styles are referred to as authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved. Authoritative parenting is a style that tends to be demanding but also warm and responsive. Authoritative parents set clear standards and limits for their children, monitor their children's behaviour, and are firm about enforcing important limits. However, they allow their children considerable autonomy within those limits, are not restrictive or intrusive, and are able to engage in calm conversation and reasoning with their children. They are attentive to their children's concerns and needs, and communicate openly with their children about them. They are also measured and consistent, rather than harsh or arbitrary, in disciplining them. Authoritative parents usually want their children to be socially responsible, assertive, and self-controlled. Authoritarian parenting is a style that tends to be cold and unresponsive to children's needs. Authoritarian parents are high in control and demandingness, and expect their children to comply without question. Authoritarian parents tend to enforce their demands through the exercise of parental power, especially the use of threats, punishment, and psychological control. Permissive parenting is a style that is responsive to children's needs and wishes, but so much so that parents are overly lenient with them.

Permissive parents do not require their children to regulate themselves or act in appropriate ways. Uninvolved parenting is a style that is low in both demandingness and responsiveness to children. These parents are generally disengaged. They do not set limits for children or monitor their behaviour and are not supportive of them.

Sometimes they are rejecting or neglectful of their children altogether. These parents are focused on their own needs rather than their children's.

132. Answers will vary but should discuss at least two factors related to sibling rivalry. Based on the text, siblings, of course, can be rivals and sources of mutual conflict and irritation. They live in close proximity to one another and are often in competition for resources, from toys to parents' time. In some cases, sibling conflict can contribute to the development of undesirable behaviours such as disobedience, delinquency, and drinking, as well as depression, anxiety, and social withdrawal. Rivalry and conflict between siblings tend to be higher in divorced families and in remarried families than in non-divorced families, even between biological siblings. Although some siblings turn to one another for support when their parents divorce or remarry, they may also compete for parental affection and attention, which often are scarce in those situations. Relationships between half-siblings can be especially emotionally charged, perhaps because the older sibling may resent the younger sibling who is born to both parents in the new marital relationship.

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Chap 12_6ce 133. A number of investigators have found that children who are in childcare do not differ in problem behaviour from those reared at home. Two recent large studies in Norway found little consistent relation between amount of time in childcare and children's externalizing problems, such as aggression and noncompliance, or social competence.

These findings are in notable contrast to those from the NICHD study in the United States. The NICHD study indicates that many hours a day in childcare or a number of changes in caregivers in the first 2 years of life predicted lower social competence and more noncompliance with adults at age 2. At 4½ years of age, children in extensive childcare were viewed by care providers as exhibiting more problem behaviours, such as aggression, noncompliance, and anxiety/depression. Significantly, the finding that greater time in childcare is related to increased risk for adjustment problems appears not to apply to children from very low-income, high-risk families.

It appears that most children in childcare never develop significant behaviour problems, but for some, the risk that they will develop such problems increases with an increase in hours spent in childcare.

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Chap 13_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Bryson and Carl are playing with their toy trucks side-by-side but are not engaging with each other. They are engaged in _____ play. a. unoccupied b. parallel c. associative d. cooperative 2. The association between peer rejection and _____ behaviour tends to increase from childhood to adolescence. a. aggressive b. considerate c. withdrawn d. humorous 3. Sociometric status refers to how a. wealthy a child's family is. b. well accepted a child is by the peer group. c. many friends a child has. d. many best friends a child has.

4. Which attribute is NOT a common characteristic of children's friendships? a. same-sex members b. intimacy c. involve conflict d. aggression 5. Parental monitoring becomes especially important during a. early childhood. b. late childhood. c. middle childhood. d. adolescence.

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Chap 13_6ce 6. The children in Gavin's class are asked to name the children they like the most and the children they like the least. Many of Gavin's classmates list him as one of the children they like the least, and few list him as one of the children they like the most. Gavin would be classified as a. neglected. b. rejected. c. controversial. d. popular.

7. Which adolescent is MOST likely to be negatively influenced by his friends' behaviour? a. Gary, who is extremely aggressive and who has aggressive friends b. Frank, who is mild mannered, shows no signs of aggression, and has aggressive friends c. Roger, whose parents are cold and detached, and whose friends use drugs d. Harry, whose parents monitor his activities and are receptive to his viewpoint, and whose friends use drugs 8. Voluntary activities, particularly those of children, with no specific motivation beyond their inherent enjoyment are referred to as a. actions. b. behaviours. c. social skills. d. play.

9. Selman proposed that changes in children's thinking about friendships are a result of changes in a. their ability to take others' perspectives into account. b. how they are able to express their ideas. c. what they need from their friends. d. hormones and neurochemistry.

10. Which of these is NOT a type of social play? a. unoccupied play b. parallel play c. associative play d. cooperative play 11. Which variable is NOT an important factor in whether children are accepted by their peers? a. athleticism b. attractiveness c. sociability d. ethnicity

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Chap 13_6ce 12. CCPT has been shown to improve all of these EXCEPT a. aggression. b. social skills. c. anxiety. d. intelligence.

13. Which groups report experiencing more cyberbullying? a. males under the age of 13 and females b. females and Indigenous youth c. males and females ages 12 to 15 d. LGBTQ youth and African Canadians 14. A factor that does NOT increase the likelihood that an adolescent will be negatively influenced by a friend's behaviour is the a. friend having high status in the peer group. b. adolescent having a high general susceptibility to peer influence. c. adolescent being under the age of 16. d. adolescent's parent being cold and detached.

15. Which friends are MOST likely to extensively discuss problems and their negative thoughts and feelings? a. male pair with a poor-quality friendship b. male pair with a high-quality friendship c. female pair with a poor-quality friendship d. female pair with a high-quality friendship 16. Research indicates that compared to preschool children who were securely attached as infants, those who were insecurely attached as infants tend to be a. more aggressive. b. less withdrawn. c. better liked by their peers. d. All of these traits characterize those children.

17. At what age are children capable of showing preference for some children over others? a. infancy b. toddlerhood c. early childhood d. late childhood

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Chap 13_6ce 18. Which characteristic do cyberbullies NOT exhibit? a. low social anxiety b. depressive symptoms c. poor anger management d. academic difficulties 19. Compared with average children, those categorized as neglected tend to be a. more aggressive. b. more disruptive. c. less sociable. d. more anxious about social interactions.

20. Compared with nonfriends, preschool-age friends have _____ levels of conflict, and their conflict is resolved _____ equitably. a. lower; more b. lower; less c. greater; more d. greater; less 21. Researchers have found that adolescents who are not socially anxious or lonely use the Internet for communication more often than those who are socially anxious and lonely. This finding supports a. increased control over interactions in teen friendships. b. the rich-get-richer hypothesis. c. reduced emphasis on physical appearance via the use of online communication. d. the social-compensation hypothesis.

22. Children who are victimized by their peers tend to be a. isolated. b. lonely. c. depressed. d. isolated, lonely, and depressed.

23. Which factor is NOT a long-term consequence of being bullied? a. decreased aggression b. academic problems c. depression d. engagement in deviant behaviours

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Chap 13_6ce 24. When considering the possibility and direction of causality between quality of parenting and peer acceptance, the text states that the MOST likely possibility is that a. the causal links are bidirectional. b. there is a third variable, such as children's temperament, that causes both parenting behaviours and peer acceptance. c. quality of parenting causes peer acceptance. d. there is no causal relationship between quality of parenting and peer acceptance.

25. Research on the effect of having friendships on victimized children's adjustment indicated that a. victimized children rarely have friends. b. whether or not victimized children's friendships are reciprocal is irrelevant to the importance of the friendship for adjustment. c. friends can serve as buffers against unpleasant experiences. d. victimized children who have friends who are well liked by their peers feel even more socially isolated than victimized children whose friends are less well liked.

26. Relational aggression does NOT involve a. withholding friendship. b. spreading rumours. c. physical harm. d. exclusion of others.

27. Which aspect of development is most impacted by play behaviours? a. physical b. cognitive c. intellectual d. social-emotional 28. Who is more likely to report more friendship-related stress? a. Mark, who is 10 years old b. Stan, who just started kindergarten c. Billy, who is a teenager d. Michelle, who is 11 years old 29. Recent research has found that the higher a child's situational emotion knowledge, the _____ play. a. more likely they are to engage in social b. more likely they are to engage in onlooker c. less likely they are to engage in unoccupied d. more likely they are to engage in solitary

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Chap 13_6ce 30. Friendship is NOT defined as a relationship that is a. characterized by reciprocities. b. between same-sex members. c. conflictual. d. one sided.

31. The study in which teams of 10-year-old children were asked to write a story about rain forests demonstrated that a. boys were better able to cooperate with their peers in this context than were girls. b. boys were less able to cooperate with their peers in this context than were girls. c. stories written by teams of friends were of higher quality than were stories written by teams of nonfriends. d. stories written by teams of friends were of lower quality than were stories written by teams of nonfriends.

32. For May, a Chinese Canadian child in Toronto, which variable is likely to be the LEAST important factor in her selection of her group of friends? a. similarity in age b. being of the same sex c. ethnic identity d. similarity in interests 33. What type of bullying involves the use of technology to harass or upset another person? a. physical bullying b. verbal bullying c. social bullying d. cyberbullying 34. Children with cross-racial or cross-ethnic friendships tend to be a. of low peer-group status. b. prone to disruptive behaviour. c. socially competent. d. no different from children with only same-race and same-ethnicity friends.

35. Compared with sociometrically average children, sociometrically popular children tend NOT to be a. better at regulating emotion. b. more socially skilled. c. more cooperative. d. less likely to exhibit assertive aggression.

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Chap 13_6ce 36. What type of bullying involves purposely excluding someone from conversations or activities, spreading rumours, or withholding friendship? a. physical bullying b. verbal bullying c. social bullying d. cyberbullying 37. Children who are nominated by a number of peers as liked and by other peers as disliked are categorized as a. rejected. b. average. c. controversial. d. neglected.

38. When a child watches things in her environment briefly and nothing seems to catch her attention, she is engaging in _____ play. a. unoccupied b. parallel c. onlooker d. solitary 39. Which adolescent is MOST likely to be negatively influenced by the peer group? a. Gerry, whose parents exhibit an authoritative style b. Todd, whose culture has family sanctions against delinquent behaviour c. Oscar, whose parents are responsive d. Mica, who has a distant relationship with his mother 40. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between parental monitoring and adolescent behaviour? a. Adolescents are affected by parents' monitoring behaviour. b. Adolescents actively elicit parental monitoring through their own behaviour. c. Adolescents are affected by parents' monitoring behaviour and actively elicit monitoring through their own behaviour. d. There is no significant relationship between parental monitoring and adolescent behaviour.

41. The majority of children's play after the age of _____ is social. a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 4 years d. 7 years

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Chap 13_6ce 42. Which statement about the association between peer rejection and later adjustment problems is TRUE? a. Peer rejection itself, not maladaptive behaviour, appears to be a cause of adjustment problems. b. Maladaptive behaviour itself, not peer rejection, appears to be a cause of adjustment problems. c. Both peer rejection and maladaptive behaviour appear to be causes of adjustment problems. d. Neither peer rejection nor maladaptive behaviour appears to be a cause of adjustment problems.

43. Which statement about social withdrawal and peer acceptance in childhood is TRUE? a. Socially withdrawn children are nearly always rejected by their peers. b. Socially withdrawn children are nearly always neglected by their peers. c. Only socially withdrawn children who display negative actions and emotions are likely to be rejected by their peers. d. Only socially withdrawn children who display negative actions and emotions are likely to be neglected by their peers.

44. Juan is 14 years old and gets nervous when he is around kids his own age. He prefers online communication over face-to-face communication. This supports a. increased control over interactions in teen friendships. b. the rich-get-richer hypothesis. c. reduced emphasis on physical appearance via the use of online communication. d. the social-compensation hypothesis.

45. Which statement about children's friendships is NOT true? a. Openness between friends enhances creativity. b. Friendships help children who are being victimized by other peers. c. Higher levels of gossip in friendships are associated with poor developmental outcomes. d. Children need friendships.

46. What is the MOST common method of communication with friends used by those ages 12 to 17 years? a. texting b. phone calls c. social media d. email 47. Children's preference for same-sex friends emerges in a. toddlerhood. b. preschool. c. elementary school. d. middle school.

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Chap 13_6ce 48. Children who are NOT nominated by their peers either as being liked or as being disliked are categorized as a. rejected. b. average. c. controversial. d. neglected.

49. Interventions with rejected children have typically a. encouraged parents to reprimand children when they are aggressive or particularly withdrawn with their peers. b. aimed at improving children's relationships with their peers by enhancing aspects of their emotional development. c. coached children to try to influence the peer group to choose activities in which the rejected children feel competent. d. encouraged the rejected children's peers to understand why the children are aggressive or withdrawn.

50. Attachment theorists propose that insecurely attached children will a. expect that peers can make up for the lack of warmth they receive at home. b. expect to be at the centre of peer groups. c. be more likely to be hostile with peers. d. do all of these things.

51. Ten-year-old Kyle is sociable, athletic, and humorous, but he is also aggressive and disruptive. His peers view him as conceited. He would MOST likely be categorized as a. rejected. b. controversial. c. popular. d. average.

52. Cultural differences in values and expectations about the skills that are necessary for children appear NOT to be associated with a. parents' concern for children's well-being. b. parental gatekeeping of peer interactions. c. parents' beliefs about the importance of peer relations. d. children's behaviour when they are in social interactions with peers.

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Chap 13_6ce 53. At approximately what age do children tend to define their friends, to a greater extent, in terms of taking care of one's needs, reducing loneliness, and sharing feelings? a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 9 years d. 11 years 54. Children's choices of friends exhibit which pattern? a. "Absence makes the heart grow fonder." b. "Opposites attract." c. "Birds of a feather flock together." d. "Easy come, easy go."

55. Which variable does NOT contribute to the social-cognitive and cognitive development that takes place to a greater extent in interactions between friends than in interactions between nonfriends? a. greater cooperation b. greater conflict negotiation c. higher levels of gossip d. higher levels of rough play 56. Children's long-term adjustment appears to be caused in part by a. their sociometric status. b. the quality of their social behaviour. c. both their sociometric status and the quality of their social behaviour. d. neither their sociometric status nor the quality of their social behaviour.

57. The extent to which children play with others is referred to as _____ play according to Mildred Parten. a. social b. parallel c. onlooker d. solitary 58. Which factor is NOT emphasized by familism? a. family closeness b. family obligations c. consideration of family in decision making d. family separation

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Chap 13_6ce 59. Which statement BEST reflects research on the long-term benefits of friendships? a. Children with friends in elementary school are better adjusted on a variety of measures in middle childhood and adulthood. b. The benefits of having many unreciprocated friendships can outweigh the benefits of having a single best friend. c. Having best friendships causes children to exhibit fewer problems in middle childhood. d. Having best friendships causes children to exhibit fewer problems in adulthood.

60. Adolescents who are sociometrically popular do NOT differ from sociometrically average children with regard to a. reduced aggressiveness. b. attractiveness. c. sociability. d. emotional regulation.

61. Simone is playing with her doll by herself. She is rocking the doll, talking to the doll, and pretending to feed the doll. She is engaging in _____ play. a. unoccupied b. parallel c. onlooker d. solitary 62. Which element is a key factor in preschoolers' choices of friends? a. proximity b. popularity c. race of child d. similarity of interests 63. Bree is 3 years old and is at preschool. She watches two of her peers play with toy trucks and asks them what they are trying to do. However, she does not ask to join in the play. She is engaging in _____ play. a. unoccupied b. parallel c. onlooker d. solitary

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Chap 13_6ce 64. When asked who their closest friend is, Dana and Wendy both name each other. Dana and Wendy are considered to be a. exclusive best friends. b. popular. c. well accepted. d. best friends.

65. Which category of children is MOST likely to have difficulties in the academic domain? a. popular b. neglected c. average d. aggressive-rejected 66. In regard to the relation between children's disruptive behaviours and having friends, the association between the two is a. not causal. b. causal. c. bidirectional. d. unclear as to its precise nature.

67. When asked about her best friend, Rasamee says, "My best friend is Annie. We do everything together. We both love to play four square, and we always play it together at recess. Annie lives near me, and she has so many fun toys that I love to play with." This description of Rasamee's friendship is MOST characteristic of children of what age? a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 7 years d. 10 years 68. _____ does NOT occur more frequently with young children's friends than with their nonfriends. a. Ignoring the other's distress b. Conflict c. Positive interactions d. Pretend play 69. Explanations about the acceptability of feelings and how to appropriately deal with them is known as a. parental monitoring. b. emotion coaching. c. peer coaching. d. peer monitoring.

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Chap 13_6ce 70. Which statement about the relationship between children's alcohol and drug use and having friends with these behaviours has NOT been supported by research? a. Adolescents select friends who are similar to themselves in terms of drinking and drug use. b. Peer socialization influences drug and alcohol use. c. Adolescents' use of alcohol and drugs and their friends' use of alcohol and drugs mutually reinforce each other. d. Adolescents who use alcohol and drugs do not have close friends.

71. Which statement about the behaviours associated with peer acceptance in different cultures is TRUE? a. They are almost entirely consistent across cultures. b. They are similar across cultures, but they are influenced by cultural norms. c. They are vastly different across cultures. d. Peer acceptance has not been examined cross-culturally, so this information is not known.

72. Which of these is a therapeutic technique that encourages children to express their thoughts and emotions through free play? a. child-centred play therapy b. promotion of alternative thinking strategies c. control signals poster d. turtle technique 73. Which of these is NOT a non-social type of play? a. unoccupied play b. parallel play c. onlooker play d. solitary play 74. Jane is playing soccer with her friends on her team. She and her teammates are engaged in _____ play. a. unoccupied b. parallel c. associative d. cooperative 75. The idea that youth who already have good social skills benefit from the Internet and related technology in the development of friendships supports a. increased control over interactions in teen friendships. b. the rich-get-richer hypothesis. c. reduced emphasis on physical appearance via the use of online communication. d. the social-compensation hypothesis.

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Chap 13_6ce 76. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between aggression and victimization? a. Being aggressive leads to experiencing victimization. b. Experiencing victimization leads to acting aggressively. c. There is a bidirectional relationship between aggression and victimization. d. There is no significant relationship between aggression and victimization.

77. Children who are perceived as popular increasingly use _____ aggression across adolescence. a. relational b. physical c. both relational and physical d. neither relational nor physical 78. Children who are the target of their peers' aggression and demeaning behaviour can be said to be a. rejected. b. victimized. c. withdrawn. d. wimps.

79. In terms of the association between acceptance by the peer group and important developmental outcomes such as dropping out of school, peer acceptance is a. not associated with important developmental outcomes. b. associated with these outcomes because well-accepted children are more likely to have friends, and friendships influence developmental outcomes. c. associated with these outcomes because well-accepted children are more likely to have romantic partners, and this factor influences developmental outcomes. d. associated with these outcomes, over and above the effect of friendships and other relationships.

80. Friendships CANNOT buffer children against the negative effects of a. being victimized by peers. b. entering a new school. c. being socially isolated. d. having poor-quality relationships.

81. Which factor does NOT help protect victimized children? a. having a number of friendships b. having friends who are liked by peers c. having friendships of high quality d. having no close friendships

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Chap 13_6ce 82. Mother Teresa's orphanage in India introduced structured play to the children's daily routines and found improvement within months in all of these areas EXCEPT a. mental abilities. b. motor skills. c. social skills. d. play skills.

83. The idea that social media may be beneficial for lonely, depressed, and socially anxious adolescents supports a. increased control over interactions in teen friendships. b. the rich-get-richer hypothesis. c. reduced emphasis on physical appearance via the use of online communication. d. the social-compensation hypothesis.

84. Compared with adolescents' conceptions, school-age children's friendship conceptions are a. more concrete. b. focused more on intimacy. c. defined more in terms of loyalty. d. more egalitarian.

85. Rejected children are more likely than better-liked children to a. have a goal to get along with other children. b. attribute hostile intent to others. c. suggest varied strategies for resolving difficult social situations. d. refrain from threatening popular children when asked to solve a conflict with a peer.

86. The friendships of girls are often _____ when compared to those of boys. a. more intimate b. less intimate c. more conflictual d. less conflictual 87. According to a 2015 national survey of Canadian children ages 10 to 17, _____ of children reported some form of cyberbullying in the past month. a. 3% b. 7% c. 14% d. 25%

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Chap 13_6ce 88. To assess sociometric status, children are asked to list a. their best friends. b. the popular and unpopular kids. c. the peers they like the best and the peers they like the least. d. the peers they like the least.

89. Which statement about the friendships of children under the age of 2 is TRUE? a. They appear to be able to select, prefer, and have more positive interactions with some children over others. b. They show some preference for playing with some children but show no other differential behaviour towards these preferred playmates. c. They show more positive affect towards some children but do not appear to be more likely to seek them out as playmates. d. They are incapable of having a preferred playmate.

90. Mark and Sam are both at the playground. Mark is going up and down the slide and Sam is swinging on the swing set. They are engaged in _____ play. a. unoccupied b. parallel c. associative d. cooperative 91. Children and adolescents tend to be more similar to their friends than to their nonfriends in all of these EXCEPT a. acceptance by peers. b. depression. c. self-perceptions of competence. d. eye colour.

92. When having a negative experience, children's stress reactions a. are higher when a best friend observes the event. b. are more stable when a best friend is present for the experience. c. do not differ according to the presence of a best friend but do differ according to the presence of unfamiliar peers. d. display none of these patterns.

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Chap 13_6ce 93. Which label describes a type of rejected child? a. assertive-rejected b. withdrawn-rejected c. unattractive-rejected d. anxious-rejected 94. Which factor is NOT a way in which electronic communication facilitates the creation and maintenance of friendships among children? a. increased anonymity b. more emphasis on physical appearance c. finding similar peers d. 24/7 access 95. Both boys and girls _____ in their experiences with their best friends. a. are less likely to feel important and special b. are less likely to provide help and guidance c. have similar levels of conflict d. have similar qualities of resolutions to conflict 96. The correlational nature of the research on the influence of friendships on children's aggressive and disruptive behaviour makes it difficult to know whether results reflect a. individual selection or socialization. b. active participation or individual selection. c. socialization or peer influence. d. peer influence or self-management.

97. Has research supported the proposal by attachment theorists that attachment style in infancy is associated with later positive peer relationships? a. No, there is no evidence to support this proposal. b. Yes, attachment in infancy is associated with peer relations in preschool, but not in older children. c. Yes, attachment in infancy is associated with peer relations in preschool and early elementary school, but not in older children. d. Yes, attachment in infancy is associated with peer relations in preschool, early elementary school, and late elementary school.

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Chap 13_6ce 98. Children in _____ tend to be more socially skilled and more likely to be accepted by peers if their parents effectively coach them on how to interact with unfamiliar peers. a. preschool b. elementary school c. middle school d. high school 99. Which statement is NOT true of most cultures in which the correlates of peer status have been examined? a. Being well liked by peers is associated with possessing leadership skills. b. Being well liked by peers is associated with being prosocial. c. Being rejected by peers is associated with being aggressive. d. Being rejected by peers is associated with being withdrawn.

100. Which parenting practice has been found to be associated with children being well accepted by their peers? a. strong control b. low monitoring of activities c. reasoning d. negative emotions 101. Which of these is NOT true regarding preschoolers whose parents arrange and oversee opportunities for them? a. They are more positive and social with peers. b. They have a larger and more stable set of play partners. c. They more easily initiate social interactions with peers. d. They are more likely to be teased and bullied by their peers.

102. Which characteristic exhibited by close friends is NOT associated with an increased risk of that problem for adolescents? a. depression b. substance abuse c. disruptive and aggressive behaviour d. supportiveness 103. Which statement about the support provided to school-age children by friends is NOT true? a. Friends' ability to provide children with support in unfamiliar situations begins at approximately age 9. b. Having friendships, regardless of the quality, is a significant buffer against loneliness. c. Chronic friendlessness is associated with depression. d. Children who do not have friends fare just as well as those that do.

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Chap 13_6ce 104. Children who are classified as controversial receive _____ like-most nominations from classmates and _____ like-least nominations from classmates. a. few; few b. few; average c. average; average d. high; high 105. Boys are more likely to use _____, while girls are more likely to use _____ to connect with friends. a. social media; texts b. gaming sites; texts c. phone calls; social media d. gaming sites; social media 106. Social support from parents is lowest and social support from friends is highest a. at age 9. b. at the beginning of puberty. c. between ages 16 and 18. d. at age 13.

107. _____ social skills are enhanced if their _____ engaged in emotion coaching. a. Boys'; fathers b. Boys'; mothers c. Girls'; fathers d. Girls'; mothers 108. How can parents play an active role in their children's competencies in peer relationships? a. monitoring their children's social life b. coaching their children in social skills c. both monitoring their children's social life and coaching their children in social skills d. neither monitoring their children's social life nor coaching their children in social skills 109. The No Trap! Intervention in Italy has been effective in reducing what? a. isolation b. rejection c. cyberbullying d. in-person bullying

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Chap 13_6ce 110. Which factor does NOT increase the likelihood that an adolescent will engage in delinquent behaviour? a. hanging out with peers who have been in trouble b. having an extreme orientation towards peers c. being low in self-regulation d. co-ruminating with peers about negative events 111. Children who are perceived by their peers as popular tend to a. be the same kids who are sociometrically popular. b. be sociometrically rejected. c. use aggression to obtain goals. d. be less aggressive than those who are sociometrically popular.

112. People of approximately the same age and status who are unrelated to one another are called a. friends. b. peers. c. acquaintances. d. associated.

113. It has been hypothesized that children who are _____ have an underdeveloped theory of mind. a. popular b. controversial c. rejected d. neglected 114. Compare and contrast social and non-social forms of play. Provide examples for each type based on the research of Mildred Parten.

115. Define sociometric status. What are the five basic acceptance classifications used by researchers, and how are children classified into each of these categories?

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Chap 13_6ce 116. Describe two ways in which the friendships of school-age boys and those of school-age girls are similar and two ways in which they are different.

117. Describe the association between parent–child attachment (secure versus insecure) and later peer relationships.

118. Explain the different ways in which electronic communication facilitates the creation and maintenance of friendships among children.

119. Describe how children actively choose who they will be friends with.

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Chap 13_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. c 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_6ce 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_6ce 55. d 56. c 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. d 66. d 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. b 79. d 80. d 81. d 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_6ce 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. a 90. b 91. d 92. b 93. b 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. c 101. d 102. d 103. c 104. d 105. b 106. c 107. d 108. c 109. c 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_6ce 111. c 112. b 113. c 114. Parten observed three types of play that do not involve the active participation of peers and thus are considered to be non-social: (1) unoccupied play, in which the child watches things in the environment, but only briefly. Nothing holds his or her interest for very long. (2) Onlooker play, in which the child watches other children's play. The child may ask questions about the play but will not try to join in.

(3) Solitary play, in which the child is engrossed in his or her own activity and does not attend to the behaviour of others. Parten also observed three types of play that involve social interactions between children: (1) parallel play, in which the child plays alongside, but not with, other children. They are typically engaged in similar activities but play independently. (2) Associative play, in which the child plays with other children in a common activity. The child may share toys with a peer or comment on his or her behaviour, but the two do not have a shared goal; each child does what he or she wants, and they do not coordinate their play. (3) Cooperative play, in which the child plays with peers in an organized activity with a goal, which involves playing a game (e.g., soccer), reaching an aim (e.g., building the tallest block tower), or enacting a dramatic situation from daily life (e.g., pretending to be staff and patrons at a restaurant). The activity typically involves a distinction in roles, and children who do not conform to their assigned roles may be criticized by the other participants.

115. Sociometric status, or peer acceptance, is the degree to which a child is liked or disliked by the peers as a group.

The most commonly used sociometric system classifies children into one of five groups: popular, rejected, neglected, average, or controversial. Children are designated as popular if they are rated by their peers as being highly liked, accepted, and impactful. Children are designated as rejected if they are low in acceptance and preference and high in rejection but also high in impact. Children are designated as neglected if they are low in social impact that is, if they receive few positive or negative ratings. These children are not especially liked or disliked by peers; they simply go unnoticed. Children are designated as average if they receive moderate ratings on both impact and preference. Children are designated as controversial if they are rated as very high in impact but average in preference. They are noticed by peers and are liked by quite a few children and disliked by quite a few others.

116. As children grow older, gender differences emerge in what girls and boys feel they want and get from their friendships. Girls are more likely than boys to desire closeness and dependency in friendships and also to worry about abandonment, loneliness, hurting others, peers' evaluations, and loss of relationships if they express anger.

By age 12, girls, compared with boys, feel that their friendships are more intimate and provide more validation, caring, help, and guidance. Girls also report getting more upset than do boys when friends betray them, are unreliable, or do not provide support and help. Girls also report more friendship-related stress. Girls are also more likely than are boys to co-ruminate with their close friends. Compared with their male counterparts, girls who are socially anxious or depressed seem more susceptible to the anxiety or depression of their friends. Girls and boys are less likely to differ in the amount of conflict they experience in their best friendships. Boys' and girls' friendships also do not differ much in terms of the recreational opportunities they provide.

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Chap 13_6ce 117. Attachment theory maintains that whether a child's attachment to the parent is secure or insecure affects the child's future social competence and the quality of the child's relationships with others, including peers. Attachment theorists have suggested that a secure attachment between parent and child promotes competence with peers in three ways. First, securely attached children develop positive social expectations and are thus inclined to interact readily with other children, expecting these interactions to be positive and rewarding. Second, because of their experience with a sensitive and responsive caregiver, they develop a foundation for understanding reciprocity in relationships. Consequently, they learn to give and take in relationships and to be empathic to others. Finally, securely attached children are likely to be confident, enthusiastic, and friendly. These are characteristics that are attractive to other children and that facilitate social interaction. Conversely, attachment theorists argue, an insecure attachment is likely to impair a child's competence with peers. If parents are rejecting and hostile or neglectful, young children are likely to become hostile and to expect negative behaviour from other people. They may be predisposed to perceive peers as hostile and are likely to be aggressive towards them. These children may also expect rejection from other people and may try to avoid experiencing it by withdrawing from peer interaction instead.

118. Researchers have identified several key ways in which electronic communication facilitates the creation and maintenance of friendships among children, including the following. (1) Greater anonymity leads children and youth to reduce their social inhibitions, which, particularly for temperamentally shy children, could help them interact with others online. It goes without saying, however, that children can get carried away with this disinhibition. (2) Less emphasis on physical appearance when conversation is conducted through typing or audio allows children and youth to connect with others based on their shared interests and their personalities rather than on their appearance. This tendency will be less true for video communication, of course.

(3) More control over interactions, because they can control when, how, and with whom they connect, leads children and youth to feel they are in charge of their social lives. (4) Finding similar peers is much easier in the Internet age than in the past, which allows youth to connect with others who share their interests, thereby increasing their sense of belongingness and well-being. (5) 24/7 access means that children and youth can connect with friends and peers throughout their day. The downside is that such ubiquitous access can also interfere with school and sleep. (6) It's fun to connect with friends online and to share thoughts, photos, videos, and game time online.

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Chap 13_6ce 119. Children tend to be friends with peers who are sociable and who act prosocially towards others. Another key determinant of friendship is similarity of interests and behaviour. For young children, proximity is a key factor— they tend to become friends with peers who are physically nearby. Although proximity becomes less important with age, it continues to play a role in individuals' choices of friends into adolescence in part because of involvement in similar activities at school that appear to promote the development of new friendships. For teens, school is the most common setting in which they spend time with their close friends. Similarity in age is also a major factor in friendship, with most children tending to make friends with age-mates. This may be due to the fact that in most industrialized societies, children are segregated by age in school: in societies where children are not segregated by age, they are more likely to develop friendships with children of different ages. Another powerful factor in friend selection is a child's gender: girls tend to be friends with girls, and boys, with boys. Cross-gender friendships, though not uncommon, tend to be more fragile. The preference for same-gender friends emerges in preschool and continues through childhood. The liking of other-gender peers increases over the course of childhood and into early adolescence. To a lesser degree, children tend to be friends with peers of their own racial/ethnic group.

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Chap 14_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to Piaget, advances in children's moral reasoning are a result of a. brain maturation. b. peer interactions. c. parental influence. d. formal education.

2. Which statement about the effect of temperament on the development of conscience is TRUE? a. Harsh discipline is equally effective at promoting children's internalization of parents' standards for children of all temperamental styles. b. Gentle discipline is equally effective at promoting children's internalization of parents' standards for children of all temperamental styles. c. Gentle discipline is effective at promoting children's internalization of parents' standards for temperamentally kind children, but not for temperamentally angry children. d. Gentle discipline is effective at promoting children's internalization of parents' standards for temperamentally fearful children, but not for temperamentally fearless children.

3. Which statement about the moral reasoning of males and females is TRUE? a. Males tend to be more concerned with protecting their image in the social circle when they make moral judgments. b. Females tend to focus their moral judgments more on issues of caring for other people than do males. c. Males tend to be less able to reason at their full cognitive capacity when faced with moral dilemmas. d. Differences in males' and females' moral reasoning are more apparent when reasoning about hypothetical moral dilemmas than when reasoning about dilemmas in their own lives.

4. The feeling of concern for another in response to the other's emotional state or condition is referred to as a. altruism. b. conscience. c. empathy. d. sympathy.

5. Concern with _____ is characteristic of the LEAST advanced level of prosocial reasoning. a. others' approval b. guilt or positive emotions related to the consequences of one's behaviour c. one's own interests d. physical needs of others

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Chap 14_6ce 6. Children in Piaget's stage of autonomous morality believe that rules are a. inflexible. b. the product of social agreement. c. "real" things that exist outside of people. d. always "right."

7. Which of these is NOT an example of understanding the societal domain of morality? a. choices about clothing b. choices regarding spending money c. manners d. forms of greetings 8. Aggression in elementary school children is MOST commonly a. hostile. b. instrumental. c. aggravated. d. biochemical.

9. Which statement about changes in aggression exhibited by children is TRUE? a. Physical aggression typically increases from preschool to elementary school. b. Aggression in elementary school is more likely to be hostile than in preschool. c. Relational aggression is more common in preschool than in elementary school. d. The frequency of overt aggression increases for most teenagers.

10. Which domain of social knowledge pertains to actions in which individual preferences are the main consideration and there are no right or wrong choices? a. moral domain b. societal domain c. personal domain d. environmental domain 11. Research on the serotonin transporter gene SLC6A4 suggests that knowing which allele variant an individual has would enable one to predict a. the age at which the individual will develop a conscience. b. whether the individual's conscience development will be negatively affected by low maternal responsiveness. c. whether the individual attains the highest levels of moral judgment. d. whether the individual is likely to internalize his or her parents' standards of morality.

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Chap 14_6ce 12. When presented with Piaget's stories designed to assess children's moral reasoning, Piaget would expect 6year-old Phoebe to say that a. the child who broke 15 glasses is naughtier than the child who broke 1 glass. b. the child who broke 1 glass is naughtier than the child who broke 15 glasses. c. both children are very naughty. d. neither child is naughty.

13. Piaget would expect which child to progress into the stage of autonomous morality MOST quickly? a. Adena, whose cognitive development is progressing typically b. Barry, who makes up games with his friends in the neighbourhood c. Carla, whose parents are highly authoritarian d. Dean, who has few peer interactions as he is schooled at home with a private tutor 14. Casey hears that her friend has forgotten her homework and is afraid that the teacher is going to yell at her.

In response, Casey is concerned for her friend and worries about how her friend is going to handle the situation. Casey is experiencing a. altruism. b. conscience. c. empathy. d. sympathy.

15. Consider this moral dilemma: "On his way to school, a boy named Jerrie sees another boy fall in the mud and start to cry. The boy says he hurt himself and asks Jerrie to help him up, but Jerrie is worried that if he helps him, he will get himself all muddy. What should Jerrie do?" Which response would be considered the LEAST advanced, according to Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning? a. "Jerrie should help because the boy is hurt." b. "Jerrie should not help because his teacher will think he is bad if he gets to school all dirty." c. "Jerrie should help because he will feel bad if the boy is hurt and he doesn't help him." d. "Jerrie should not help the boy because he will get dirty, and he doesn't want to get dirty."

16. Which statement about parental socialization of sympathy and prosocial behaviour is TRUE? a. Parental warmth and support appear to be sufficient to promote prosocial tendencies. b. The use of rewards and punishment is moderately effective at fostering altruism. c. Children who are often encouraged by their parents to engage in helpful activities often fail to internalize prosocial values as they become bored with or even rebel from these practices. d. The primary environmental influence on children's development of prosocial behaviour is their socialization in the family.

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Chap 14_6ce 17. Which statement about changes in the development of moral reasoning is accurate, according to Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning? a. Children's prosocial moral reasoning becomes increasingly advanced. b. The stages outlined by Piaget are completely distinct from Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning. c. Children are increasingly concerned with their own needs as they develop. d. The level of prosocial moral reasoning at which children are classified has little association with how prosocial their behaviour is.

18. Which statement describes an aspect of Piaget's theory of moral judgment that has been supported by research? a. Interacting with peers stimulates moral development. b. Preschool-aged children do not consider intentionality when reasoning about morality. c. Children increasingly consider motives when judging the morality of actions. d. Young children focus on being obedient to authorities and avoiding punishment.

19. Which variable is NOT a factor in the increased likelihood of antisocial behaviour for children from low socioeconomic status families? a. increased likelihood of being an unplanned child of an adolescent mother b. higher levels of controlling parenting c. increased frequency of stressors, such as illness and legal problems d. higher likelihood of being in a family headed by a single mother 20. Instrumental aggression is aggression motived by the desire a. to obtain something concrete. b. for revenge. c. to damage another's peer relationships. d. to harm another person.

21. Arnold sees that another child has forgotten his lunch and is crying. Arnold feels like crying. Arnold is MOST likely experiencing a. altruism. b. conscience. c. empathy. d. sympathy.

22. Parents' use of abusive punishment is NOT associated with a. anxiety. b. anger. c. motivation to comply with parental demands. d. assuming that others have hostile intentions.

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Chap 14_6ce 23. Which factor does NOT increase the likelihood of antisocial behaviour? a. associating with delinquent peers b. being part of a traditional culture c. lack of jobs for juveniles d. living in a single-parent family 24. The combination of which variables in childhood is especially likely to predict aggression, antisocial behaviour, and run-ins with the police in adolescence? a. being a member of an ethnic minority, impulsivity, and low level of guilt b. problems with attention, callousness, and impulsivity c. callousness, impulsivity, and emotional negativity d. emotional negativity, impulsivity, and low level of guilt 25. Which cultural practice is NOT likely to lead to increased prosocial behaviour and/or decreased antisocial behaviour? a. living with extended families in a traditional culture b. having responsibility for other family members c. having fathers who are relatively less involved with their wives and children d. emphasizing support of others' thoughts and feelings 26. Which statement about the influence of biology and parental socialization on children's antisocial behaviour is TRUE? a. It is simple to statistically separate out the effects of biology and socialization on antisocial behaviour. b. Nearly all effects of parental socialization could be due to biological similarities between parents and children. c. Nearly all effects of parental socialization could be due to children's biologically based characteristics, such as difficult temperaments, eliciting harsh discipline. d. Research demonstrating that parents who are trained to deal with their children effectively have children who show improvements in conduct problems is evidence that parental socialization has a causal influence on children's antisocial behaviour.

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Chap 14_6ce 27. Is aggressive behaviour during elementary school associated with aggression and criminal behaviour at age 30? a. No, aggressive behaviour during elementary school is not associated with aggression and criminal behaviour at age 30. b. Yes, aggressive behaviour during elementary school is associated with aggression and criminal behaviour at age 30, but only for males. c. Yes, aggressive behaviour during elementary school is associated with aggression and criminal behaviour at age 30, but only for females. d. Yes, aggressive behaviour during elementary school is associated with aggression and criminal behaviour at age 30 for both males and females.

28. Which statement about the association between harsh physical punishment and children's externalizing problems is supported by recent research? a. Harsh physical punishment has a stronger effect on children's externalizing problems than vice versa. b. Children's externalizing problems have a stronger effect on harsh physical punishment than vice versa. c. The association is equally strong in both directions. d. The correlation between harsh physical punishment and children's externalizing problems is explained almost entirely by genetics.

29. Research using which type of procedure has demonstrated preschoolers' use of intentionality to evaluate others' behaviour? a. asking for judgments using moral dilemmas b. evaluating differences in the morality of characters described in different scenarios c. observing differences in children's willingness to help others who accidentally or purposely hurt another person d. performing meta-analytic review of previous research on the topic 30. Kohlberg classified children into stages of moral development on the basis of their a. age. b. choices made in response to moral dilemmas. c. cognitive ability, such as perspective-taking skills. d. reasoning behind moral decisions.

31. The study that involved interviewing individuals who had rescued Jews from the Nazis in Europe during World War II demonstrated that, compared to "bystanders," "rescuers" were more likely to recall their parents having taught them the importance of a. caring for all human beings. b. independence. c. ethical obligations to family, church, and community. d. economic competence.

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Chap 14_6ce 32. Which scenario is an example of instrumental aggression? a. Tony pushes Joyce out of the way so that he can get to the swing first. b. Abe does not allow Justin to play ball with the other children. c. Amy tells Diana that she wants the paint brush that Diana is using. d. Natalie pushes Yolanda as she walks by her because Yolanda said something mean about Natalie's sister.

33. Which statement constitutes postconventional moral reasoning? a. "I shouldn't do that because it is my responsibility to fulfil my duties." b. "I shouldn't do that because I will get caught and I don't want to be punished." c. "I shouldn't do that because it is not in the best interest of society." d. "I shouldn't do that because my parents won't think I am a good boy."

34. Differences in which factor are considered to be the source of the different pattern of moral reasoning shown by individuals in non-Western societies? a. biology b. socioeconomic status c. education d. values 35. According to Piaget, how many stages of development are involved in children's moral reasoning? a. five b. three, with transitional periods between the stages c. two, with a transitional period between the stages d. two 36. With respect to the _____ domain of social judgement, even preschoolers believe that they should have control. a. moral b. societal c. personal d. environmental 37. Compared with temperamentally fearful children, those who are temperamentally fearless require _____ in order to promote development of their conscience. a. mutual cooperation b. more patience c. greater rewards for compliance d. more physical punishment

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Chap 14_6ce 38. Which statement about parental influence on children's prosocial behaviour is TRUE? a. Parents have little influence on children's prosocial behaviour. b. Only direct modelling of prosocial behaviour is associated with children's own prosocial behaviour. c. Parents' communication of prosocial values is related to children's adoption of the value of prosocial behaviour. d. Similarities between parents and children in prosocial behaviour are due primarily to genetic similarities.

39. Which of these is NOT a domain of social knowledge, according to the social domain theory of morality? a. moral domain b. societal domain c. personal domain d. environmental domain 40. Unemotional aggression aimed at fulfilling a need or desire is referred to as _____ aggression. a. proactive b. relational c. physical d. reactive 41. Which comparison between Piaget's and Kohlberg's theories of moral judgment is accurate? a. Piaget and Kohlberg agreed that to young children, right and wrong is determined by obedience to rules set by authority figures. b. Piaget and Kohlberg agreed on the number of stages individuals pass through before achieving mature moral reasoning. c. Piaget believed that the development of moral reasoning is continuous, whereas Kohlberg believed it is discontinuous. d. Piaget believed that age-related cognitive development is important for the development of moral reasoning, whereas Kohlberg de-emphasized this factor.

42. A child in which of Piaget's stages of moral development does NOT take intentions into account when determining whether a behaviour is moral or immoral? a. autonomous morality b. heteronomous morality of constraint c. transitional period d. conventional level

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Chap 14_6ce 43. Conduct problems that emerge in adolescence are particularly likely to be associated with a. maternal stress. b. low maternal education. c. child neglect. d. economic disadvantage.

44. By what age do children begin to exhibit concern for and try to comfort others without getting upset themselves? a. 6 to 9 months b. 18 to 25 months c. 2 to 2.5 years d. 3 to 3.5 years 45. Prosocial behaviour a. decreases with age in childhood and then increases into adulthood. b. is less common than self-focused discomfort (in response to others' distress) before the age of 18 months. c. is rarely seen in children under the age of 2, although they often display empathy and sympathy. d. is less common than aggressive behaviour in response to others' distress.

46. Which statement about children's beliefs about the domains of social judgment is TRUE? a. Children generally believe that moral violations are wrong, even if an authority figure does not see them. b. Children generally believe that social conventional violations are more wrong than moral violations. c. Young children generally believe that parents have authority over social conventional and personal judgments. d. Children generally cannot distinguish among personal, moral, and social conventional judgments until late elementary school.

47. Elementary school children's hostile aggression is motived by the desire a. to obtain something concrete. b. for revenge. c. to damage another's peer relationships. d. to harm another person.

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Chap 14_6ce 48. Which statement about Piaget's and Kohlberg's beliefs about morality is TRUE? a. For a behaviour to be deemed moral or immoral, the reasoning behind the behaviour must be taken into account. b. Behaviours can be deemed moral or immoral solely on the basis of the behaviour and not the reasoning behind it. c. Children are generally unable to make moral judgments when they are not faced with an actual moral decision. d. Children's morality can be examined only by observations of their behaviour.

49. Which statement about the development of prosocial behaviours is TRUE? a. Toddlers tend to comfort a distressed adult only when prompted by their parents. b. The distinction between another's emotional distress and one's own develops by the age of 4. c. Toddlers frequently show expressions of sympathy when comforting others. d. Young children regularly act in prosocial ways.

50. Which of these is NOT included in the personal domain of social knowledge? a. how children spend their money b. how children choose to present themselves to others c. who children choose to be friends with d. how children demonstrate manners 51. Which of these is NOT one of the roots of prosocial behaviour? a. generally performed in exchange for social approval b. inspired by empathy c. ability to take the perspective of others d. inspired by sympathy 52. Children who tend to _____ are particularly likely to enact prosocial behaviour. a. get overwhelmed by others' distress b. be unresponsive to others' emotions c. experience emotion without getting overwhelmed d. be inhibited 53. Excluding an individual from a play group is an example of _____ aggression. a. physical b. relational c. instrumental d. direct

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Chap 14_6ce 54. Aggressive children do NOT differ from nonaggressive children with regard to a. their goals in social situations. b. their interpretation of others' motives. c. confidence in their ability to behave in particular ways. d. their intelligence level.

55. Which statement by a parent is MOST likely to teach children the value of being prosocial? a. "If we help that boy, he will be less sad." b. "We should help that boy because it is a good thing to do." c. "We are nice people, so we should help that boy." d. "It will make us feel good to help that boy."

56. Parental conflict is associated with children's antisocial and aggressive behaviour because parents who have high marital conflict tend to a. be less skilled at parenting than are other parents. b. model aggressive behaviours. c. be more hostile toward their children than are other parents. d. exhibit all of these characteristics.

57. When faced with a negative social situation, aggressive children, in comparison with nonaggressive children, are LESS likely to a. attribute hostile intentions when others' motives are clear. b. come up with few alternatives for behaviour. c. feel confident in their ability to perform acts of aggression. d. have hostile goals.

58. According to _____, growth in moral reasoning occurs not through stage-like change but through gradual change based on the child's interactions with peers and adults as well as through direct teachings from their parents. a. social domain theory b. Piaget's theory of moral judgment c. Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning d. theory of mind 59. Research by Kochanska has demonstrated that children develop a conscience in different ways according to a. whether they are girls or boys. b. their socioeconomic status. c. whether they are fearful. d. understanding of others' emotions.

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Chap 14_6ce 60. Which phase is NOT one of Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning? a. conventional b. unconventional c. postconventional d. preconventional 61. What has been demonstrated by research on young children's ability to appreciate the importance of intentionality in morality? a. Consistent with Piaget's theory, young children are unable to consider intentionality in their moral reasoning. b. In contrast to Piaget's theory, young children are able to consider intentionality in their moral reasoning when the consequences of the behaviour are made more salient. c. In contrast to Piaget's theory, young children are able to consider intentionality in their moral reasoning when the motives behind the behaviour are made more salient. d. In contrast to Piaget's theory, young children are nearly as capable of considering intentionality in their moral reasoning as are older children.

62. Early-onset conduct problems are NOT associated with a. maternal stress. b. low maternal education. c. child neglect. d. being a member of an ethnic minority.

63. Relational aggression is aggression motived by the desire a. to obtain something concrete. b. for revenge. c. to damage another's peer relationships. d. to harm another person.

64. Which thought or response would be the LEAST likely to come from an aggressive child when faced with a negative social situation? a. "That kid was trying to hurt me." b. "I could try to cooperate with that kid, take turns with him, tell the teacher, or hit him." c. "Hitting that kid will help me get what I want." d. "I'm just trying to get back at him for getting in my way."

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Chap 14_6ce 65. The internal regulatory system that increases an individual's ability to conform with socially approved standards of behaviour is referred to as a. prosocial behaviour. b. altruism. c. consciousness. d. the conscience.

66. Individual differences in _____ have been shown to be associated with prosocial behaviour. a. oxytocin b. serotonin c. dopamine d. norepinephrine 67. Piaget's stage of the morality of constraint is generally characteristic of children in which stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development? a. formal operational b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. postoperational 68. Which statement constitutes conventional moral reasoning? a. "I shouldn't do that because it is my responsibility to fulfil my duties." b. "I shouldn't do that because I will get caught and I don't want to be punished." c. "I shouldn't do that because it is not in the best interest of society." d. "I shouldn't do that because it won't do me much good."

69. Which behaviour is NOT considered an example of aggression? a. hitting b. verbal insults c. excluding others d. helping others 70. Emotionally driven, antagonistic aggression that is sparked by one's perception that other people's motives are hostile is referred to as _____ aggression. a. proactive b. relational c. instrumental d. reactive

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Chap 14_6ce 71. An approach to youth intervention that focuses on developing and nurturing strengths and assets rather than on correcting weaknesses and deficits is called a. service learning. b. positive youth development. c. youth intervention. d. positive youth intervention.

72. Jim's parents and Horis's parents both use physical punishment, and both sets of parents tend to be quite controlling. In Jim's culture, but not in Horis's culture, physical punishment tends to be viewed as part of responsible parenting. What is the likely outcome for Jim and Horis in terms of antisocial behaviour? a. Jim and Horis have an equally increased risk of antisocial behaviour. b. Neither Jim nor Horis has an increased risk of antisocial behaviour. c. Only Jim has an increased risk of antisocial behaviour. d. Horis has a greater risk of antisocial behaviour than Jim. 73. Which statement about cultural differences in the effect of physical and abusive punishment on children's likelihood of becoming aggressive is TRUE? a. Both physical and abusive punishment lead to aggression equally in all cultures. b. Whereas physical punishment leads to aggression equally in all cultures, the strength of the association for abusive punishment varies somewhat among cultures. c. Whereas abusive punishment leads to aggression in all cultures, the strength of the association for physical punishment varies somewhat among cultures. d. Neither physical nor abusive punishment leads to aggression in any culture.

74. A strategy for promoting positive youth development that integrates school-based instruction with community involvement in order to promote civic responsibility and enhance learning is known as a. service learning. b. service youth development. c. youth intervention. d. positive youth intervention.

75. Twin studies conducted to examine the genetic contribution to prosocial behaviour have found that a. fraternal twins and identical twins are equally similar to each other in levels of prosocial behaviour, and their similarity decreases with age. b. fraternal twins and identical twins are equally similar to each other in levels of prosocial behaviour, and their similarity increases with age. c. identical twins are more similar to each other in levels of prosocial behaviour than are fraternal twins, and their similarity decreases with age. d. identical twins are more similar to each other in levels of prosocial behaviour than are fraternal twins, and their similarity increases with age.

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Chap 14_6ce 76. At what age do children begin to become upset when others are distressed? a. infancy b. preschool age c. elementary school age d. toddlerhood 77. Which statement about school-based interventions designed to promote prosocial behaviour is TRUE? a. They have only been attempted with socioeconomically advantaged children. b. They involve taking children out of their regular environments to make the empathy training more salient and seem more important. c. The enhanced sense of community is associated with greater prosocial behaviour and fewer problem behaviours. d. They have some immediate benefits, but only within the classroom environment in which the intervention took place.

78. The reciprocal role of children's behaviour and parents' discipline in promoting antisocial behaviour is NOT illustrated by which statement? a. Parents and children may share genetic tendencies towards impulsivity and distractibility, thus increasing the likelihood of a vicious cycle of physical punishment and aggression. b. Parents who are depressed may be less likely to monitor their children, and parents who are punitive are more likely to have children who are antisocial. c. Parents whose children throw temper tantrums may be more likely to try to avoid scolding them, reinforcing the children's temper tantrums. d. Children who are antisocial may elicit harsher parenting, and the harsh parenting may influence children to be more antisocial.

79. Which statement is an accurate description of the developmental progression of physical and verbal aggression from 3 years of age through the elementary school years? a. Physical and verbal aggression both increase in frequency. b. Physical and verbal aggression both decrease in frequency. c. Physical aggression increases in frequency, whereas verbal aggression decreases in frequency. d. Physical aggression decreases in frequency, whereas verbal aggression increases in frequency.

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Chap 14_6ce 80. Spencer and Carlos are both quite aggressive in comparison to their peers. Spencer is particularly prone to reactive aggression, and Carlos is particularly prone to proactive aggression. When asked about what they expect to happen when they exhibit aggression a. Spencer and Carlos will both expect that there will be positive social consequences for their aggression. b. Spencer and Carlos will both expect that there will be negative social consequences for their aggression. c. Carlos will be more likely than Spencer to expect positive social consequences for his aggression. d. Carlos will be less likely than Spencer to expect positive social consequences for his aggression.

81. A particular allele variant of the serotonin transporter gene SLC6A4 appears to cause children to be a. especially reactive to their rearing environment. b. low in fearfulness. c. particularly high in moral reasoning. d. aggressive.

82. Eleven-year-old Shane is angry, is defiant, and loses his temper easily. He can be spiteful and vindictive, he actively defies adults, and he blames others for his misbehaviour. Shane's behaviours are indicative of a. ADHD. b. oppositional defiant disorder. c. conduct disorder. d. a typical 11-year-old.

83. When presented with Piaget's stories designed to assess children's moral reasoning, Piaget would expect 11year-old Jabar to say that a. the child who broke 15 glasses is naughtier than the child who broke 1 glass. b. the child who broke 1 glass is naughtier than the child who broke 15 glasses. c. both children are very naughty. d. neither child is naughty.

84. Which trait is NOT predictive of antisocial behaviour in adolescence? a. using aggression to achieve instrumental goals b. difficult temperament in infancy c. difficulty paying attention d. high activity level as preschoolers

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Chap 14_6ce 85. Which statement about the biological influence on aggression is TRUE? a. Heredity plays a similarly strong role in aggression in childhood and adolescence. b. It is a myth that testosterone plays a role in aggression. c. Genetic, neurological, and hormonal characteristics are probably sufficient to produce an aggressive child, regardless of environmental factors. d. Heredity has a larger influence on some types of aggression than on other types.

86. According to Piaget, a child whose moral reasoning involves which thought is in the EARLIEST stage of moral development? a. consideration of individuals' motives and intentions b. understanding that rules can be changed if a majority in the group decides to change them c. believing that behaviours that break rules are bad and behaviours that follow rules are good d. focusing on being obedient to authorities and avoiding punishment 87. Which of these characteristics is NOT associated with prosocial behaviour? a. voluntary b. intended to benefit another person c. convenient d. helpful 88. The emotional response to another's emotional state or condition that reflects the other person's state or condition is referred to as a. altruism. b. conscience. c. empathy. d. sympathy.

89. According to Kohlberg, individuals at the MOST advanced stage of moral reasoning believe that morally right behaviour involves a. upholding laws. b. universal principles of justice. c. obedience to authorities. d. doing what is expected by people close to the individual.

90. Mark wants the new toy that his friend is playing with but understands that it is not appropriate to steal the toy. This falls under the _____ domain of social knowledge according to the social domain theory. a. moral b. societal c. personal d. environmental Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_6ce 91. Which statement about preschool children's prosocial behaviour is TRUE? a. Preschool children almost never engage in prosocial behaviour without explicit instruction from adults. b. The prosocial behaviour of preschoolers is unassociated with their later behaviour. c. Prosocial behaviour in preschoolers is generally associated with decreased altruism in adulthood, as prosocial preschoolers tend to rebel against their parents' expectations in adolescence. d. Children who spontaneously engage in prosocial behaviour tend to be more concerned with others' needs throughout childhood and adolescence than are their peers.

92. Parents play a large role in helping children understand the _____ domain by teaching children how and why to cooperate with, take the perspective of, and help other children and adults. a. moral b. societal c. personal d. environmental 93. Which emotion at age 22 months predicts morality at age 54 months? a. fear b. guilt c. sadness d. joy 94. Which component of social judgment does NOT vary by culture? a. designation of behaviours as social-conventional, moral, or personal b. consideration of whether attending to the needs of strangers is a moral obligation c. distinction between social convention and morality d. importance accorded to social judgements 95. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, concern with _____ is characteristic of the MOST advanced level of moral reasoning. a. living up to one's values b. others' approval c. guilt or positive emotions related to the consequences of one's behaviour d. one's own interests 96. During Piaget's transitional period, children a. become more concrete in their thinking. b. become more susceptible to influences by their peers as to what is right and wrong. c. begin to value fairness. d. demonstrate greater respect for adults' impressions of morality.

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Chap 14_6ce 97. Based on most of the existing research that has examined Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, which assertion is a true statement about the effect of cultural values on moral reasoning? a. The stages of moral reasoning are universal, and individuals in all cultures progress through the stages at similar rates and eventually mature to the same level. b. Individuals in different cultures progress through the stages of moral reasoning at different rates, but individuals in all cultures eventually mature to the same level. c. The pattern of changes in moral reasoning in childhood appear to be similar across a variety of cultures, but individuals in all cultures do not always reach the same level. d. Moral reasoning varies to a great extent across cultures, including the pattern of developmental changes in early childhood.

98. The tendency for individuals of low socioeconomic status in the United States and Brazil to allow children less autonomy than do middle-class individuals may be a factor in which socioeconomic status difference in social judgment? a. Children from lower-income families are more likely to differentiate sharply between issues of morality and issues of social convention. b. Children from middle-income families are more likely to believe issues of personal judgment are also issues of morality. c. Children from lower-income families are less likely to view personal issues as a matter of choice. d. The tendency is a factor in none of these.

99. At age 17, approximately what percentage of female adolescents report having committed at least one violent crime? a. 9% b. 12% c. 29% d. 3% 100. The Fast Track Intervention program described in the text a. targeted moderate-risk schools. b. focused on promoting competency in two domains, academic achievement and peer relations. c. selected children with conduct problems to participate in a more intensive intervention. d. had no effect on rate of serious conduct problems.

101. Parents do NOT influence the development of prosocial behaviour in their children through a. modelling. b. communicating values. c. providing opportunities for prosocial activities. d. authoritarian parenting practices.

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Chap 14_6ce 102. Which trait is NOT a characteristic of peer interactions that influences children to make the transition from Piaget's stage of moral constraint to the stage of autonomous morality? a. egalitarian b. focused on rule-based games c. cooperative d. antagonistic 103. Which statement is NOT a frequent criticism made of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning? a. The stories and scoring system are biased toward the intellectualized Western conception of morality. b. The stages of moral reasoning are not sufficiently distinct. c. The classification into stages is biased against females. d. Kohlberg did not sufficiently differentiate between morality and social convention.

104. Which factor is associated with children's internalization of parents' standards and values? a. harsh discipline b. parental power c. rational explanations d. insecure parent child relationship 105. Which theory posits that children's moral judgements and related behaviours can affect the behaviour of their parents in relation to moral development? a. social domain theory b. Piaget's theory of moral judgment c. Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning d. theory of mind 106. Which aspect is NOT regarded as true of a young child's conscience? a. restrains antisocial impulses b. reflects self-defined standards c. promotes prosocial behaviour d. mirrors parents' beliefs 107. Judgments that pertain to issues of right and wrong are considered to be in the _____ domain, according to the social domain theory. a. social conventional b. moral c. personal d. prosocial

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Chap 14_6ce 108. Disruptive, hostile, or aggressive behaviour that violates social norms or rules and that harms or takes advantage of others is called a. antisocial behaviour. b. juvenile offences. c. prosocial behaviour. d. status behaviour.

109. Judgments that pertain to societal rules and conventions through which cultures maintain order are considered to be in the _____ domain, according to the social domain theory. a. societal b. moral c. personal d. prosocial 110. Which statement describing the influence of antisocial behaviour in the peer group on children and adolescents' levels of antisocial behaviour is MOST accurate? a. Children with no antisocial tendencies are likely to be influenced by the peer group or by gangs to become aggressive. b. Children who are antisocial and aggressive are more likely to be involved with antisocial peer groups and gangs, but these peer groups and gangs do not influence them to engage in more antisocial behaviour. c. Children who are antisocial and aggressive are more likely to be involved with antisocial peer groups and gangs, and these peer groups and gangs increase their likelihood of engaging in more antisocial behaviour. d. Children with no antisocial tendencies can influence their peer group or gang to become less aggressive.

111. Piaget believed that parental control of young children's behaviour was a key factor in the importance placed by young children on a. rules as inflexible laws. b. fairness and equality. c. the necessity of a punishment fitting the crime. d. motives and intentions in determining the morality of behaviour.

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Chap 14_6ce 112. Are there cultural differences in the effect of physical and abusive punishment on children's likelihood of becoming aggressive? a. No, both physical and abusive punishment lead to aggression equally in all cultures. b. Yes, physical punishment leads to aggression equally in all cultures, whereas abusive punishment does not. c. Yes, abusive punishment leads to aggression in all cultures, whereas physical punishment does not. d. No, neither physical nor abusive punishment leads to aggression in any culture.

113. Choices made in which domain of social judgement are directly related to children's sense of autonomy and identity? a. moral domain b. societal domain c. personal domain d. environmental domain 114. Which stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral judgment is LEAST likely to be exhibited? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 5 d. Stage 6 115. Which parenting practice is LEAST likely to influence children to be sympathetic and to behave in a prosocial manner as they get older? a. providing material rewards for prosocial behaviour b. referencing moral responsibilities in discipline c. modelling prosocial behaviour d. having discussions with children that appeal to their ability to sympathize 116. What did Piaget call the FIRST stage of moral development? a. heteronomous morality b. preconventional morality c. autonomous morality d. conventional morality 117. Which statement about individuals' level of moral reasoning is true? a. Individuals with a lower degree of education tend to reason at a higher level than do others. b. Individuals whose moral reasoning is at lower levels are more likely to help others. c. Individuals whose moral reasoning is at higher levels are less likely to engage in delinquent activities. d. Individuals whose moral reasoning is at lower levels are less likely to engage in delinquent activities.

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Chap 14_6ce 118. Which decision would be MOST likely to be considered by people in Western cultures to be within the personal domain, according to the social domain theory? a. choosing whether to wear a tie to a formal restaurant b. deciding whether to play soccer or baseball after school c. deciding whether to put one's napkin on one's lap or leave it on the table d. choosing whether to return a $10 bill dropped by a person standing ahead in line 119. Consider this moral dilemma: "Henry borrows a wood knife from his friend Gerry so that he can carve a miniature boat from a piece of wood. Henry promises that he will return the knife if Gerry wants it back.

Several days later, Gerry asks Henry to return the knife because Gerry wants to use the knife to inflict damage on school property. Henry returns the knife to Gerry, since he did promise to return it if Gerry asked." Based on Kohlberg's theory, what level of moral reasoning did Henry use to make his decision to return the knife? What are the characteristics of this level of moral reasoning?

120. Describe two lasting contributions Kohlberg made to psychologists' current understanding of moral development. In addition, provide a detailed description of two criticisms that have been made about Kohlberg's theory. Looking at both Kohlberg's contributions and the criticisms made of his theory, what are your thoughts on the value of his theory of moral reasoning? Be specific in your discussion.

121. Describe the parenting practices associated with development of prosocial behaviour in children.

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Chap 14_6ce 122. Two children, Gary and Ken, are faced with the same social situation. Each is pushed by another child as the class runs to the playground for recess. Gary is an aggressive child, whereas Ken is not aggressive. For each of these two children, describe how they would be likely to answer each of these questions: (1) Why did that child push you? (2) What did you try to do after that child pushed you? (3) What are different ways you might have reacted to the child pushing you? (4) How successful do you think you will be in dealing with this type of situation in the future?

123. Describe the proposed evolutionary and genetic basis of empathy and prosocial behaviour. Explain the processes involved in these forces on empathy and prosocial behaviour. Be specific and provide supportive examples.

124. Describe how marital conflict is associated with children's level of aggressive and antisocial behaviour. Why do you believe this association exists? Be specific and provide supportive examples.

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Chap 14_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. d 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_6ce 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_6ce 55. a 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. b 72. d 73. c 74. a 75. d 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. d 80. c 81. a 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_6ce 83. b 84. a 85. d 86. c 87. c 88. c 89. b 90. a 91. d 92. a 93. b 94. d 95. a 96. c 97. c 98. c 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. d 103. b 104. c 105. a 106. b 107. b 108. a 109. a 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_6ce 111. a 112. d 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. a 117. c 118. b 119. Based on Kohlberg's theory, Henry demonstrates aspects of the preconventional level of moral reasoning. The preconventional level is self-centred and focuses on getting rewards and avoiding punishment. This level is divided into two stages. At Stage 1, what is seen as right is obedience to authorities. Children's "conscience" is fear of punishment, and their moral action is motivated by avoidance of punishment. The child does not consider the interests of others or recognize that those interests might differ from his or her own. At Stage 2, what is right is what is in one's own best interest or involves equal exchange between people (tit-for-tat exchange of benefits).

120. Answers will vary based on students' personal view of Kohlberg's theory. However, all responses should discuss contributions and criticisms of the theory. Kohlberg's work is important because it demonstrated that children's moral reasoning changes in relatively systematic ways as they develop. In addition, because an individual's levels of moral reasoning have been related to his or her moral behaviour, Kohlberg's work has been useful in understanding how cognitive processes contribute to moral behaviour. One criticism of the theory is that Kohlberg did not sufficiently differentiate between truly moral issues and issues of social convention. Another criticism pertains to cultural differences. Although children in many non-Western, nonindustrialized cultures start out reasoning much the way Western children do in Kohlberg's scoring system, their moral reasoning within this system generally does not advance as far as that of their Western peers.

121. High levels of prosocial behaviour and sympathy in children tend to be associated with constructive and supportive parenting, including authoritative parenting. When parents are involved with and close to their children, the children are higher in sympathy and regulation, which in turn predicts higher levels of prosocial behaviour. Parental support of, and attachment to, the child have also been found to be especially predictive of prosocial behaviour for youths who are low in fearfulness. In contrast, a parenting style that involves physical punishment, threats, and an authoritarian approach tends to be associated with a lack of sympathy and prosocial behaviour in children and adolescents. The way in which parents attempt to directly elicit prosocial behaviour from their children is also important. Discipline that involves reasoning is useful in encouraging prosocial behaviour. The combination of parental warmth and certain parenting practices—not parental warmth by itself—seems to be especially effective for fostering prosocial tendencies in children and adolescents. Therefore, children tend to be more prosocial not only when their parents are warm and supportive but also when they model prosocial behaviour, include reasoning and references to moral values and responsibilities in their discipline, and expose their children to prosocial models and activities.

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Chap 14_6ce 122. How Gary and Ken react to this situation will depend on their aggressive tendencies. Since Gary is aggressive, he will probably answer the questions as follows: (1) Why did that child push you? "The child pushed me because he is mean and did it on purpose."

(2) What did you try to do after that child pushed you? "I tried to push him back."

(3) What are different ways you might have reacted to the child pushing you? "I would have either verbally or physically reacted to the other child."

(4) How successful do you think you will be in dealing with this type of situation in the future? "Dealing with the situation in this manner is not very effective."

Ken will probably answer the questions as follows, considering that he is not aggressive: (1) Why did that child push you? "It was an accident, since everyone was running to the playground at the same time."

(2) What did you try to do after that child pushed you? "I didn't try to do anything to the child, since I was trying to go to the playground also."

(3) What are different ways you might have reacted to the child pushing you? "I might have told the child that he pushed me and it hurt. And he probably would have apologized. Or I might just ignore it and keep going to the playground."

(4) How successful do you think you will be in dealing with this type of situation in the future? "Dealing with the situation in this manner is very successful."

123. Many biologists and psychologists have proposed that humans are biologically predisposed to be prosocial. They believe that humans have evolved the capacity for prosocial behaviour because collaboration in foraging for food and in repelling enemies ensured survival. Genetic factors contribute to individual differences in empathy and prosocial behaviours. It appears that the role of genetic factors in prosocial behaviours increases with age.

Recently, researchers have identified specific genes that might contribute to individual differences in prosocial tendencies. For example, certain genes are associated with individual differences in oxytocin, a hormone that plays a role in pair bonding and parenting and that has been associated with parental attachment, empathy, and prosocial behaviour. Differences in temperament may also play a role in differences in prosocial behaviour.

Differences in children's ability to regulate emotion are related to their empathy and sympathy.

124. Children who are frequently exposed to verbal and physical violence between their parents tend to be more antisocial and aggressive than other children. One reason is that embattled parents model aggressive behaviour for their children. Another is that children whose mothers are physically abused tend to believe that violence is an acceptable, even natural, part of family interactions. Compared with spouses who get along well with each other, embattled spouses also tend to be less skilled and responsive, and more hostile and controlling, in their parenting which, in turn, can increase their children's aggressive tendencies.

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Chap 15_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The active process during development whereby children's cognitions lead them to perceive the world and to act in accord with their expectations and beliefs is referred to as a. gender identification. b. self-socialization. c. gender assertion. d. self-schematization.

2. In comparison with girls, there appears to be _____ variability among boys in the ways they experience closeness in friendships. a. less b. more c. the same level of d. no 3. The concepts of tuition, observational learning, and enactive experience are central to _____ theory. a. Kohlberg's b. gender schema c. social identity d. social cognitive 4. For boys, behaviours stereotypically associated with males are referred to as _____, and behaviours stereotypically associated with females are referred to as _____. a. sex-typed; cross-sex-typed b. cross-sex-typed; sex-typed c. gender-typed; cross-gender-typed d. cross-gender-typed; gender-typed 5. Awareness of oneself as a boy or a girl is called gender a. identity. b. stability. c. constancy. d. schema.

6. According to gender schema theory, which schema is children's first gender-related schema? a. own-sex schema b. other-sex schema c. ingroup/outgroup schema d. good/bad schema Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_6ce 7. Leigh is considered a "tomboy" according to many of her peers. This indicates that she is a. gender nonconforming. b. transgender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

8. The meta-analysis conducted by Else-Quest and colleagues on cultural influences in gender differences in math achievement provided support for which theory? a. social identity theory b. gender schema theory c. the bioecological model d. biosocial theory 9. Which question would be asked by children who have acquired a gender identity? a. "Am I a boy or a girl?" b. "Will I always be a girl?" c. "Am I still a girl if I have short hair and like to play football?" d. All of these questions might be asked by such children.

10. During which period does gender segregation appear? a. toddlerhood b. preschool years c. early childhood d. middle childhood 11. At approximately what age do children start to demonstrate a clear understanding that gender roles are social conventions as opposed to biological outcomes? a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11 12. According to the "social dosage effect" a. spending more time with same-gender peers predicts increases in gender-typed behaviour. b. increases in gender-typed behaviour predict increases in amount of time spent with same-gender peers. c. both of these predictions would hold. d. neither of these predictions would hold.

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Chap 15_6ce 13. Which is the LATEST milestone reached by children? a. actively classifying people by gender b. forming expectations about the kinds of objects typically associated with males and females c. knowing to which gender group they belong d. recognition of gender-action mismatches (e.g., a woman shaving her face) 14. Which finding provides the clearest evidence for the hypothesis that watching TV causes stereotyping? a. Children in a town that had no access to TV showed an increase in stereotypical views following the introduction of TV. b. Boys hold more stereotypical views than do girls. c. Older children, who watch more TV than younger children, hold more stereotypical views than younger children do. d. Children who watch more cartoons hold more stereotypical views than do children who watch fewer cartoons.

15. Which condition is associated with high levels of rough-and-tumble play in girls? a. ADD b. congenital adrenal hyperplasia c. epilepsy d. androgen insensitivity syndrome 16. Which statement about the intellectual skills of girls and boys is TRUE? a. Boys tend to be stronger than girls in early vocabulary development. b. Boys tend to be stronger than girls in all aspects of visual-spatial processing. c. On average, the general intellectual performance of boys is higher than that of girls. d. Boys and girls are equivalent in most aspects of intelligence and cognitive functioning.

17. Learning via direct teaching is called a. tuition. b. enactive experience. c. typicality. d. observation.

18. The initial evaluation of information as being personally relevant is called a. the interest filter. b. gender stability. c. the enactive experience. d. observational learning.

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Chap 15_6ce 19. Organized mental representations about gender, including gender stereotypes, are referred to as a gender a. identity. b. stability. c. constancy. d. schema.

20. Gender differences in direct aggression appear to be influenced by a. higher levels of empathy in boys than in girls. b. better emotional regulation amongst boys than amongst girls. c. gender-typed goals regarding assertion and affiliation. d. greater parental expectations for direct aggression in girls than in boys.

21. Which statement about the general intelligence of girls and boys is NOT true? a. More boys' scores than girls' scores fall at the lower range of intelligence scores. b. More boys' scores than girls' scores fall at the upper range of intelligence scores. c. The general intellectual performance of boys and girls tends to be equivalent. d. Girls have higher intelligence than boys regardless of how intelligence is measured.

22. The active process during development whereby children's cognitions lead them to perceive the world and to act in accord with their expectations and beliefs is referred to as a. self-socialization. b. gender schema filter. c. interest filter. d. gender typing.

23. A recent survey of more than 1500 Canadian adolescents found that approximately _____ of boys and _____ of girls were dissatisfied with their body. a. one-tenth; half b. one-quarter; one-third c. half; half d. half; two-thirds 24. Research conducted by Hyde and colleagues has pointed out that there a. is no binary difference between having a female brain or a male brain. b. is minimal effect size in brain differences between males and females. c. is a binary difference between the brains of males and females. d. is a clear brain difference between males and females.

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Chap 15_6ce 25. Affiliation includes an emphasis on which quality? a. sensitive b. active c. task-oriented d. influential 26. Persons who do not identify exclusively with one gender category are termed a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

27. The tendency for people to evaluate individuals and characteristics of the group to which they belong as superior to those of the other group is referred to as a. ingroup assimilation. b. ingroup bias. c. outgroup assimilation. d. outgroup bias.

28. Which list places Kohlberg's stages in the CORRECT developmental sequence? a. gender stability, gender constancy, gender identity b. gender constancy, gender stability, gender identity c. gender identity, gender stability, gender constancy d. gender identity, gender constancy, gender stability 29. Max was born a biological female but does not exclusively identify with being male or female. This is an example of a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

30. Of these influences, which appears to be the initial source of gender segregation? a. establishment of gender constancy b. peer pressure c. differences in behavioural styles and interests d. parent and teacher efforts

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Chap 15_6ce 31. Which statement about differences between girls' and boys' academic achievement is TRUE? a. Girls and boys tend to differ in academic achievement in high school, but boys tend to be higher in elementary school and in college. b. Girls and boys tend to be similar in academic achievement in high school, but girls tend to be higher in elementary school and in college. c. Boys tend to show higher levels of academic achievement than girls from elementary school through college. d. Girls tend to show higher levels of academic achievement than boys from elementary school through college.

32. Which factor is LEAST likely to be related to differences between girls' and boys' intellectual capabilities? a. different societal messages regarding the gender appropriateness of particular domains b. differences in brain size c. peer socialization d. parent socialization 33. Which statement about the general intelligence of girls and boys is TRUE? a. Boys tend to score slightly higher in general intelligence. b. Boys tend to score much higher in general intelligence. c. The general intelligence of boys and girls tends to be equivalent. d. Boys tend to score slightly lower in general intelligence.

34. Boys' more frequent focus on _____ likely leads to increased aggression. a. affiliative traits b. dominance goals c. the ineffectiveness of their actions d. empathy when someone gets hurt 35. With which assertion is social identity theory consistent? a. Boys are more likely than girls to endorse gender stereotypes. b. Girls are more likely than boys to endorse gender stereotypes. c. Boys and girls will endorse gender stereotypes to the same degree. d. Girls and boys will rarely endorse gender stereotypes.

36. Kohlberg proposed that children learn about how to behave according to their gender because a. they actively seek out same-gender models. b. they are treated differently by parents and teachers based on their gender. c. they spend more time with members of the same sex. d. their brains are structured to attend more to gender-appropriate objects and activities.

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Chap 15_6ce 37. Which statement about gender comparisons in mathematics is NOT true? a. Boys and girls score nearly equally well on standardized tests of mathematics at the high school level. b. Girls and women are maintaining their interest in math beyond high school at rates higher than seen in earlier decades. c. Until recently, boys tended to perform better on standardized tests of mathematics ability than did girls. d. Despite efforts by schools and parents, the gender gap in mathematic ability remains.

38. The blending of the assertion and affiliation styles of behaviour is referred to as a. cooperation. b. collaboration. c. association. d. amalgamation.

39. Spatial skills appear to be affected by a. androgens. b. estrogen. c. the corpus callosum. d. the size of the brain.

40. Which statement about the influence of testosterone on aggression is NOT true? a. There is no direct association between aggression and baseline testosterone. b. Increases in testosterone occur in response to a perceived threat. c. Impulsivity increases the likelihood that another person's behaviour will be perceived as threatening. d. Testosterone has no influence on aggressive behaviour.

41. Awareness that gender remains the same over time is called gender a. identity. b. stability. c. constancy. d. schema.

42. Which factor is NOT typical of preschoolers? a. knowledge of gender stereotypes regarding traits associated with males and females b. attribution of particular play activities to males and females c. knowledge of gender stereotypes regarding roles associated with males and females d. gender constancy

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Chap 15_6ce 43. The onset of sexual attraction appears to coincide with a. adrenarche. b. menarche. c. spermarche. d. both menarche and spermarche.

44. Mental representations incorporating everything children know about gender are referred to as gender a. identities. b. systems. c. socializations. d. schemas.

45. Gender schema theory proposes that gender differences have to do with children's tendency to a. gather information about the appropriate objects and behaviour for their own sex to the detriment of the objects and behaviour of the opposite sex. b. identify with the same-sex parent as a result of a sexual attraction towards the opposite-sex parent. c. be reinforced and rewarded for displaying gender-appropriate behaviours. d. spend more time in gender-appropriate contexts.

46. The process of gender socialization is referred to as a. sex typing. b. gender typing. c. sex education. d. gender education.

47. Social identity theory is particularly interested in the influence of a. the contexts in which development occurs. b. cognitive advancements. c. hormones. d. group membership.

48. Amanda was born a biological female and identifies as female. She is a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

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Chap 15_6ce 49. Five-year-old John is shown two toys. He is told the first toy, a type of machine that he has never before seen, is "for girls." He is told the second toy, a type of kitchen apparatus that he has never before seen, is "for boys." John is MOST likely to play with a. the machine. b. the kitchen apparatus. c. both toys equally. d. neither toy, as he will be confused about which one is appropriate for him.

50. According to Kohlberg's theory of gender-role development, children begin to imitate same-sex models when they a. have established gender identity. b. are rewarded. c. have achieved gender constancy. d. have constructed gender schemas.

51. For some adolescents, advances in cognitive development enable them to experience a. greater gender-role flexibility. b. gender-role intensification. c. a stronger interest filter. d. more clearly delineated gender schemas.

52. _____ is more likely among girls than among boys during adolescence. a. Gender-role intensification b. Ingroup bias c. Gender-role flexibility d. Ingroup assimilation 53. Puberty is defined as the development of a. the ability to reproduce. b. menarche. c. body image. d. sexual attraction.

54. Which theory BEST explains the perpetuation of stereotypes that have little or no basis in reality? a. gender schema theory b. evolutionary theory c. Kohlberg's cognitive developmental theory d. social learning theory

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Chap 15_6ce 55. Research by Leaper and colleagues demonstrated that, among 5- to 7-year-olds, _____ statements were the most common for girls, and _____ statements were the most common for boys. a. collaborative; collaborative b. obliging; controlling c. collaborative; controlling d. controlling; collaborative 56. Which process is NOT included in observational learning? a. attention b. motivation c. assimilation d. production 57. By about _____ of age, infants/children are first able to distinguish between females and males, usually on the basis of _____. a. 15 to 18 months; clothing b. 6 to 9 months; hairstyle c. 12 to 14 months; voice d. 2 to 3 years; behaviour 58. Organizing influences of androgens on the nervous system occur when a. fluctuations in sex-linked hormones influence brain and behavioural responses. b. differences in brain structure result in gender differences in abilities. c. individuals self-socialize as a result of sex-linked hormonal influences. d. sex-linked hormones affect brain differentiation.

59. Which finding is NOT consistent with social identity theory? a. Girls are more likely to engage in masculine-stereotyped behaviour than boys are to engage in feminine-stereotyped behaviour. b. Gender-typing pressures are more rigid for girls than for boys. c. Masculine-stereotyped characteristics are valued more highly than are feminine-stereotyped characteristics. d. Boys are more likely than are girls to maintain group boundaries.

60. Liben and Bigler's addition of the _____ helps to account for findings indicating that children are often more traditional in some areas than they are in others. a. gender schema filter b. gender identity schema c. interest filter d. ability filter Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_6ce 61. Social cognitive theory does NOT focus on the reciprocal causation amongst a. behavioural patterns. b. biological factors. c. personal factors. d. environmental factors.

62. Which scenario is an example of enactive experience? a. Ty's dad helps him with his science homework. b. Tristan notices that his teacher pays more attention to him when he gets angry than when he cries. c. Emily's grandmother teaches her how to sew a button on a shirt. d. Kaya watches her mother take care of her baby brother.

63. Which statement about males' and females' experience of sexual harassment is TRUE? a. Sexual harassment is commonly experienced by both boys and girls. b. Most sexual harassment occurs online. c. Most perpetrators of sexual harassment are teachers or other adults. d. Same-gender harassment is more likely to happen to girls than to boys.

64. Which child has established gender identity but has NOT developed gender stability? a. Darrell asks his father, "Am I a girl?" b. Kimmy tells her grandfather, "Even though I like to wear pants and play with trucks, I am still a girl." c. Carolyn tells her new teacher, "Hi. My name is Carolyn. I'm a girl. When I grow up, I'd like to be a daddy." d. Sam, an infant, is more strongly attached to his father than to his mother.

65. Which statement is NOT true regarding explanations that have been provided for gender differences in interpersonal goals and communication? a. Girls and boys may use different language styles to achieve the goals they have for social relationships. b. Fathers are more likely to use affiliative speech with their children. c. Gender differences in communication are more likely to be found in examinations of same-gender interactions than mixed-gender interactions. d. Cross-cultural comparisons find gender differences in social behaviour.

66. Which statement about gender differences is TRUE? a. There are many more gender differences than people generally assume. b. There are more differences between males and females than among the members of one sex. c. There are more similarities between males and females than there are differences between them. d. When there are gender differences, all males differ from all females.

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Chap 15_6ce 67. A sense of belonging to one's gender ingroup is termed a. felt gender typicality. b. collaboration. c. gender schema. d. gender typing.

68. Friendly cross-gender contacts often occur in which context? a. when a teacher assigns children to work together on a project b. on the playground at recess c. in the cafeteria d. when there are a lot of children around 69. The distinction between genetic females and genetic males is referred to as a. sex. b. gender. c. gender typing. d. gender roles.

70. What type of force does NOT contribute to gender segregation? a. social b. cognitive c. temperamental d. heritability 71. Which assertion provides the BEST support for the perspective of gender schema theory on gender differences? a. Boys have more opportunity to observe the behaviour of men, and girls have more opportunity to observe the behaviour of women. b. Girls and boys have different play styles from a very early age, and gender segregation is initiated by children starting at least by preschool age. c. Children remember gender-consistent information better than they remember gender-inconsistent information. d. Boys are more likely than girls to engage in rough-and-tumble play.

72. In comparison with the brains of males, the brains of females have a. small differences in physical structure. b. less dense nerve connections in the area of the brain associated with linguistic processing. c. greater hemispheric specialization. d. a larger area of the brain associated with processing spatial information.

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Chap 15_6ce 73. Assertion includes an emphasis on which quality? a. sensitive b. cooperative c. affectionate d. independent 74. According to Kohlberg, which child's behaviour on a Piagetian conservation task indicates that she has likely achieved gender constancy? a. Melinda, who believes that a row of pennies that has been spread out has more pennies than it originally did b. Alicia, who intently watches the liquid being poured from one container to another to understand where the extra liquid is going c. Jasmine, who states that a ball of clay that has been rolled out into a hot dog shape has more clay after the change d. Stephanie, who understands that she is a girl and that nothing will change that 75. Social identity theory would predict that the more time one spends with a group, the more one will a. come to like each member of the group. b. be able to differentiate among members of the group. c. become similar to the members of the group. d. become more independent.

76. The gap in the sports-related skills of boys and girls becomes substantial when they are in a. toddlerhood. b. early childhood. c. middle childhood. d. early adolescence.

77. Body image refers to an individual's thoughts and feelings about his or her a. sexuality. b. athletic ability. c. physical appearance. d. intellect 78. Jacob's dad often teaches his son how to make minor car repairs. According to social cognitive theory, this is an example of a. enactive experience. b. modelling. c. tuition. d. collaboration.

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Chap 15_6ce 79. Kohlberg proposed that children's understanding of gender begins at approximately age _____ and is complete at approximately age _____. a. 1; 4 b. 2; 6 c. 3; 6 d. 2; 8 80. By age _____, most children begin to attribute certain toys and play activities to each gender. a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 7 tears 81. Gender differences in aggression a. are virtually identical across cultures. b. exist in some cultures but not in others. c. are flipped in some cultures. d. are consistent across cultures, but the average levels of aggression vary widely.

82. Kendra is 10 years old. When presented with a story of a girl who likes to work on cars, Kendra will likely say that the girl _____ be allowed to work on cars, and/but she _____ be teased for doing that. a. should; probably will not b. should not; probably will c. should; probably will d. should not; probably will not 83. A characteristic that is NOT more likely to be a component of the norms of girls' peer groups than of the norms of boys' peer groups in middle childhood is a. self-reliance. b. collaboration. c. emotional sharing. d. intimacy.

84. Which statement is NOT true of co-rumination? a. It occurs more frequently among girls than among boys. b. It fosters feelings of closeness among friends. c. It decreases depression. d. It involves repeatedly talking about upsetting events.

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Chap 15_6ce 85. A person who identifies with their biological gender is said to be a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

86. An effect size is typically considered large when the overlap between male and female scores on a particular variable is less than a. 53%. b. 42%. c. 29%. d. 16%.

87. Which perspective emphasizes a community's opportunity structure? a. bioecological model. b. social role theory. c. social identity theory. d. biosocial theory.

88. Children who heard a story that featured a character engaging in a gender-inconsistent manner tended to a. accurately remember the information. b. distort the information. c. accurately encode the information. d. process the information at a deep level.

89. Gender schema theory holds that children's intrinsic motivation to acquire gender-consistent interests, values, and behaviour emerges when children a. realize that gender is stable across situations. b. understand that gender is constant across time. c. can identify their own gender. d. are born.

90. Effect size refers to the _____ of similarity and difference. a. relative importance b. cultural value placed on the degree c. reliability and validity d. magnitude

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Chap 15_6ce 91. Affiliation refers to the tendency to a. minimize one's own self-worth. b. take action on behalf of the self. c. establish connections with others. d. blend a variety of behaviours.

92. The gender assigned to a person at birth is consistent with their a. external genitalia. b. gender identity. c. parents preferred gender. d. gender stereotypes.

93. A class of steroid hormones that normally occur at slightly higher levels in males than in females and that affect physical development and functioning from the prenatal period onward are a. androgens. b. estrogens. c. pheromones. d. spermones.

94. Which type of aggression is more common amongst males than amongst females? a. direct b. relational c. indirect d. social 95. Sam was born a biological male and can identify as male or female, depending on the context. This is an example of a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

96. Individuals who do not identify with the gender assigned at birth are considered a. gender dysphoria. b. transgender. c. cisgender. d. androgynous.

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Chap 15_6ce 97. Individuals who identify with their gender assigned at birth are considered a. gender dysphoria. b. transgender. c. cisgender. d. androgynous.

98. According to the _____, children are apt to form generalized beliefs or stereotypes about their gender ingroup based on their own personal-social attributes. a. social identity theory b. stereotype emulation hypothesis c. stereotype construction hypothesis d. identity construction hypothesis 99. The contribution of self-socialization to gender differences is demonstrated by a. the expectancy-value model of achievement. b. dressing female infants in pink and dressing male infants in blue. c. the genetic predisposition for boys, but not girls, to engage in rough-and-tumble play. d. differences in treatment by extended family members.

100. The realization that gender is invariant despite superficial changes in a person's appearance or behaviour is referred to as gender a. identity. b. stability. c. constancy. d. schema.

101. Children's tendency to seek out peers of their own gender and avoid peers of the opposite gender is referred to as gender a. stereotyping. b. segregation. c. role development. d. discrimination.

102. Studies of individuals whose gender identification does not match their observable genitalia have demonstrated the a. dominance of gender identification over socialization. b. importance of gender constancy. c. irrelevance of hormones in gender-typed behaviour. d. dominance of socialization over gender identification.

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Chap 15_6ce 103. According to social cognitive theory, learning does NOT occur through a. age-related brain development. b. direct teaching. c. experiencing the reactions one's behaviour evokes in others. d. modelling.

104. Some researchers who take a neuroscience approach to gender differences argue that those differences stem from different a. treatment by adults. b. levels of androgens. c. levels of knowledge about the two sexes. d. play styles.

105. Cognitive theories of gender development stress a. gender differences in brain structure. b. children's gender self-socialization. c. opportunity structure. d. differences in male and female social roles.

106. Infants appear to know that a. female voices go with female faces and male voices go with male faces. b. females and males tend to have different hairstyles. c. males and females tend to have different vocal pitches. d. females and males tend to have similar vocal inflations.

107. The concepts of ingroup bias and ingroup assimilation are central to _____ theory. a. Kohlberg's b. gender schema c. social identity d. social cognitive 108. Which statement about differences between girls' and boys' intellectual capabilities is TRUE? a. They are completely due to biological differences between boys and girls. b. They are very small in magnitude. c. There are more differences than similarities. d. They are completely due to societal gender norms.

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Chap 15_6ce 109. The cognitive perspective on gender development is concerned with a. children's efforts to socialize themselves. b. parents' and teachers' unintentional socialization of children. c. differences in brain functioning between girls and boys. d. general socialization practices.

110. Kohlberg's cognitive developmental theory of gender-role development is particularly concerned with a. how gender knowledge develops. b. parents' differential reinforcement of gender-appropriate and -inappropriate behaviour. c. biologically based sex differences. d. the contexts in which girls and boys develop differently.

111. Which theory is particularly useful when interpreting variations across societies in women's and men's relative status and power? a. bioecological model b. social identity theory c. cognitive developmental theory of gender-role development d. biosocial theory 112. The economic and social resources offered by the macrosystem in the bioecological model and people's understanding of those resources is called a. organizing influence. b. opportunity structure. c. enactive experience. d. collaboration.

113. At what age to children begin to demonstrate preferences for gender-typed toys? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years 114. James is teaching his son, Charles, how to shave. This is an example of a. tuition. b. enactive experience. c. typicality. d. observation.

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Chap 15_6ce 115. Activating influences of androgens on the nervous system occur when a. fluctuations in sex-linked hormones influence brain and behavioural responses. b. differences in brain structure result in gender differences in abilities. c. individuals self-socialize as a result of sex-linked hormonal influences. d. sex-linked hormones affect brain differentiation.

116. According to the social cognitive theory, learning occurs through all of these EXCEPT a. tuition. b. enactive experience. c. typicality. d. observation.

117. _____ persons identify with a different gender than their biological sex. a. Cisgender b. Transgender c. Genderqueer d. Gender-fluid 118. Heightened concern with adhering to traditional gender roles is referred to as a. gender-role intensification. b. ingroup bias. c. gender-role flexibility. d. ingroup assimilation.

119. Gender differences in which dimension tend to be of medium size during childhood? a. activity level b. verbal ability c. risk taking d. verbal aggression 120. Gender refers to a. one's social assignment or self-categorization as female or male or possibly both, neither, or a different category. b. one's genetically specified category as male or female. c. behaviours associated with being male or female. d. biological processes involving hormones.

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Chap 15_6ce 121. Which factor was NOT found by Brown and Bigler to affect whether children recognize gender discrimination? a. how gender-typed their own behaviour is b. understanding cultural stereotypes c. being able to make social comparisons d. having a moral understanding of fairness and equity 122. Assertion refers to the tendency to a. minimize one's own self-worth. b. take action on behalf of the self. c. establish connections with others. d. blend a variety of behaviours.

123. When a person identifies with both feminine and masculine gender categories, they are a. cisgender. b. bigender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

124. Which statement provides the BEST support for the social cognitive theory of gender differences? a. Boys are more likely to be praised by adults when they engage in masculine-typed activities than when they engage in feminine-typed activities. b. Girls and boys have different play styles from a very early age, and gender segregation is initiated by children starting at least by preschool age. c. Children remember gender-consistent information better than they remember gender-inconsistent information. d. Boys are more likely than girls to engage in rough-and-tumble play.

125. Which difference is the BEST example of children's active role in the development of gender-typed behaviour? a. preschoolers' typical choices of Halloween costumes b. parents' setting up of gender-typed environments c. boys' greater tendency to call out answers in class d. girls' greater linguistic ability 126. In distinguishing between males and females, infants appear NOT to be able to understand a. what it means to be male or female. b. that female voices go with female faces and male voices go with male faces. c. that females and males tend to have different hairstyles. d. that males and females tend to have different vocal pitches.

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Chap 15_6ce 127. The initial evaluation of information as relevant to one's gender is called a. self-socialization. b. gender schema filter. c. interest filter. d. gender typing.

128. According to the _____, children are more likely to identify with their gender ingroup when their own personal-social attributes match their stereotypes beliefs about their gender ingroup. a. social identity theory b. stereotype emulation hypothesis c. stereotype construction hypothesis d. identity construction hypothesis 129. _____ refers to persons who self-identify with different gender categories, depending on the context. a. Cisgender b. Transgender c. Genderqueer d. Gender-fluid 130. What does a meta-analysis do? a. summarizes the average effect size across studies b. examines the size of an effect in a large sample c. uses a long-term longitudinal study to determine the strength of effects d. determines if there are significant differences between groups 131. _____ refers to persons who do not identify with any gender category. a. Agender b. Transgender c. Genderqueer d. Gender-fluid 132. Approximately _____ of the U.S. population identifies as transgender. a. 0.6% b. 2% c. 5% d. 10%

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Chap 15_6ce 133. Menarche is defined as the onset of a. puberty. b. menstruation. c. body image problems. d. sexual attraction.

134. Research by Leaper and colleagues demonstrated that, among 7-year-olds, _____ were more frequent for girls than for boys, and _____ were more common among boys than among girls. a. obliging statements; collaborative statements b. obliging statements; controlling statements c. collaborative statements; controlling statements d. signs of withdrawal; controlling statements 135. Kohlberg's theory of gender-role development proposes that which factor is the basis for the development of gender knowledge? a. children's intrinsic motivation to learn about gender b. general cognitive development c. parents' explicit instruction d. peer socialization 136. The onset of the capacity for ejaculation is referred to as a. adrenarche. b. menarche. c. spermarche. d. puberty.

137. Samantha's mother is teaching her how to properly wash dishes. This is an example of a. tuition. b. enactive experience. c. typicality. d. observation.

138. What role does the increase in body fat that occurs in adolescence play in menarche and spermarche? a. Both menarche and spermarche are triggered by the increase in body fat. b. Menarche, but not spermarche, is triggered by the increase in body fat. c. Spermarche, but not menarche, is triggered by the increase in body fat. d. Neither menarche nor spermarche is triggered by the increase in body fat.

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Chap 15_6ce 139. Gender differences in children's academic achievement appear to be influenced by a. teachers' higher expectations of school achievement for boys than for girls. b. the spatial nature of activities more likely to be favoured by boys than by girls. c. girls' endorsement of traditional femininity being associated with greater school performance. d. parents encouraging academic achievement in boys rather than girls.

140. According to the bioecological approach, child socialization practices serve to a. reinforce genetically based gender differences. b. assist children to be successful in their field of interest. c. prepare children for adult roles. d. teach children a variety of behaviours and attitudes so that they can choose amongst them.

141. It is estimated that physical aggression occurs in approximately _____ of adolescent heterosexual dating relationships in the United States. a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 25% 142. In comparison with girls, boys are MORE likely to be diagnosed with a. intellectual disabilities. b. depression. c. anxiety. d. social anxiety.

143. Adrenarche occurs at approximately what age? a. 8 years b. 10 years c. 12 years d. 16 years 144. Changes in girls' performance on standardized tests of mathematics have been attributed to changes in a. girls' biochemistry. b. nutrition. c. the average intelligence of girls. d. efforts made by schools.

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Chap 15_6ce 145. _____ refers to individuals who are highly cross-gender-typed in relation to their assigned gender. a. Gender nonconforming b. Transgender c. Genderqueer d. Gender-fluid 146. "Nonbinary" is another term for a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. genderqueer. d. gender-fluid.

147. When researchers asked adults to watch a video of two children whose gender they could not identify and then to rate the children's level of aggression, the adults who believed that _____ rated the children as least aggressive. a. the children were both boys b. the children were both girls c. one child was a boy and one was a girl d. they could not determine the sex of the children 148. Which condition is associated with impeding the formation of male external genitalia, which can result in a biological male child being born with female external genitalia? a. ADD b. congenital adrenal hyperplasia c. epilepsy d. androgen insensitivity syndrome 149. Kohlberg's concept of gender constancy involves the understanding that a. one is a member of one gender category or another. b. gender is consistent even when superficial changes occur. c. gender is stable over time. d. gender is determined by sex chromosomes.

150. The differences in interpersonal goals between the sexes tend to be consistent with a. gender stereotypes. b. traditional gender roles. c. general intelligence. d. parental influences on gender development.

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Chap 15_6ce 151. According to gender schema theory, which statement is NOT true? a. Children remember more about the observation of members of their own sex than about the observation of members of the other sex. b. Children are more likely to retain information that is gender consistent than information that is gender inconsistent. c. Children are more likely to distort information that is gender inconsistent than information that is gender consistent. d. Children are more likely to accurately encode information about members of the other sex than about members of their own sex.

152. Greater levels of TV viewing by children are NOT likely to be associated with a. higher levels of gender-nonessentialist statements. b. greater preference for gender-typed activities. c. more highly stereotypical beliefs about males and females. d. greater endorsement of gender stereotypes.

153. Research has indicated that Kohlberg was wrong about the a. sequence of children's understanding of gender. b. existence of the gender constancy stage. c. association between gender understanding and the understanding of conservation. d. None of the answers is correct.

154. Which statement about parents' influences on boys' and girls' cognitive development and achievement is TRUE? a. Parents' beliefs about boys' and girls' potential are similar for male and female children until children begin to display gender-typed differences in interests or achievement. b. Parents of males and parents of females tend to have similar rates of verbal interaction with their children. c. Parents communicate gender-stereotyped expectations through differential encouragement. d. Parents tend to be more lenient with daughters in comparison to sons, helping daughters mature earlier than sons.

155. Through the process of ingroup assimilation, a young girl will a. be expected to demonstrate the characteristics that are associated with being a girl and will come to conform to norms for girls. b. be tempted by males' higher social status to demonstrate gender-neutral characteristics. c. perceive other girls and the characteristics associated with being a girl as superior to boys and the characteristics associated with being a boy. d. evaluate other girls and characteristics associated with girls as superior to boys.

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Chap 15_6ce 156. Which variable is NOT a factor in the differences between girls' and boys' intellectual capabilities? a. social expectations b. biological differences c. peer socialization d. Research has not found differences in intellectual capabilities between girls and boys.

157. Which theory is NOT an example of a cognitive perspective on gender development? a. gender schema theory b. bioecological model c. Kohlberg's theory of gender-role development d. social identity theory 158. Ingroup assimilation refers to the a. process whereby individuals are forced to conform to the group's norms. b. process whereby individuals are socialized to conform to the group's norms. c. tendency to evaluate what is associated with the ingroup as inferior to that which is associated with the outgroup. d. tendency to evaluate what is associated with the ingroup as superior to that which is associated with the outgroup.

159. According to the _____, the more children identify with their gender ingroup, the more motivated they will be to adhere to the stereotypes for their gender ingroup. a. social identity theory b. stereotype emulation hypothesis c. stereotype construction hypothesis d. identity construction hypothesis 160. Levels of which activity would MOST likely be positively associated with the level of androgens in the body? a. parenting play b. cooperation c. physical aggression d. empathy 161. Which statement about males' and females' ability on spatial tasks is TRUE? a. Males outperform females on all visual-spatial processing tasks. b. Females outperform males on all visual-spatial processing tasks. c. Males and females perform virtually identically on all visual-spatial processing tasks. d. Gender differences in performance depend on the particular type of spatial ability that is being considered.

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Chap 15_6ce 162. Of the four cognitive theories of gender development discussed in the text, which one do you think explains the widest variety of gender differences? Describe the processes or components proposed by the theory that you think contribute to its superiority. Illustrate your point using a gender difference that is explained well by this theory, but that is not explained well by the other theories.

163. Describe one gender difference that you have noticed among your friends. Identify three theoretical perspectives that you think could explain this gender difference, and describe what these perspectives would have to say about it.

164. Describe the processes of self-socialization and parent socialization of gender-appropriate behaviour and how it relates to cognitive abilities and achievement.

165. Differentiate between the varying terminology used to distinguish among different gender identities. Pick two of these and provide appropriate examples to demonstrate the term.

166. Describe the development of children's understanding of gender discrimination. What factors are involved in this understanding? Why might children's beliefs about gender discrimination not align with their behaviour?

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Chap 15_6ce 167. Describe the process by which cognitive and motivational influences might influence gender differences in aggression. Provide at least two examples.

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Chap 15_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_6ce 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_6ce 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. d 75. c 76. d 77. c 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. d 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_6ce 83. a 84. c 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. d 91. c 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. d 96. b 97. c 98. c 99. a 100. c 101. b 102. a 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. a 107. c 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_6ce 111. a 112. b 113. b 114. a 115. a 116. c 117. b 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. a 122. b 123. b 124. a 125. a 126. a 127. b 128. d 129. d 130. a 131. a 132. a 133. b 134. c 135. b 136. c 137. a

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Chap 15_6ce 138. b 139. b 140. c 141. d 142. a 143. b 144. d 145. a 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. b 150. b 151. d 152. a 153. d 154. c 155. a 156. d 157. b 158. b 159. b 160. c 161. d 162. Answers will vary. The cognitive theories discussed in text include cognitive developmental theory, gender schema theory, social identity theory, and social cognitive theory.

163. Answers will vary. Theoretical explanations to choose from include biological theories (evolutionary, biosocial), neuroscience (genes, hormones, brain structure), cognitive developmental theory, gender schema theory, social identity theory, social cognitive theory, and the bioecological model.

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Chap 15_6ce 164. The process of self-socialization plays a role in children's academic achievement. According to Eccles's expectancy-value model of achievement, children are most motivated to achieve in areas in which they view themselves as competent (expectations for success) and that they find interesting and important (value). Gender stereotypes can shape the kinds of subjects that girls and boys tend to value. For instance, many children internalize gender stereotypes that science, technology, and math are for boys and that reading, writing, and the arts are for girls. Social and cultural factors also influence the development of girls' and boys' academic selfconcepts and achievement. Parents' gender stereotyping is also related to children's academic achievement. Many parents accept the prevailing stereotypes about boys' and girls' relative interest in and aptitude for various academic subjects, and these gender-typed expectations can affect children's achievement motivation. Parents may communicate their own gender-stereotyped expectations to their children through differential encouragement.

165. Answers will vary. Terms defined should include cisgender, transgender, nonbinary or genderqueer, gender-fluid, bigender, and agender.

166. An awareness of when gender discrimination occurs, as well as the realization that it is unfair, often emerges during middle childhood. Killen and Stangor demonstrated that 8- to 10-year-olds were able to identify gender discrimination when it occurred. Even so, children still engaged in acts of gender discrimination. Brown and Bigler identified various factors that affect whether children recognize gender discrimination. First among them are cognitive prerequisites, such as an understanding of cultural stereotypes, the ability to make social comparisons, and a moral understanding of fairness and equity. These abilities are typically reached by middle childhood.

People's awareness of sexism can also be influenced by individual factors such as their own self-concepts or beliefs. For instance, girls with gender-egalitarian beliefs were more likely to recognize sexism. Finally, the specific situation can affect children's likelihood of noticing discrimination. For instance, children are more likely to notice discrimination directed toward someone else than toward themselves. Also, they are more apt to recognize gender discrimination from someone already known to be prejudiced.

167. Average gender differences in empathy and prosocial behaviour may be related to differences in boys' and girls' rates of aggression. On average, girls are somewhat more likely than boys to report feelings of empathy and sympathy in response to people's distress, and they also tend to display more concern in their behavioural reactions. Direct aggression may be more likely among children who are less empathetic and have fewer prosocial skills. The gender-typed social norms and goals regarding assertion and affiliation may further contribute to the average gender differences in conflict and aggression. More boys than girls tend to favour assertive over affiliative goals, whereas more girls than boys tend to endorse affiliative goals or a combination of affiliative and assertive goals. When some boys focus on dominance goals, they may be more likely to appraise conflicts as competitions that require the use of direct aggression. In addition, some boys may initiate direct aggression as a way to enhance their status. In contrast, by emphasizing intimacy and nurturance goals, many girls may be more likely to view relationship conflicts as threats to interpersonal harmony that need to be resolved through compromise. The normative social pressures among many girls to act "nice" may also lead them to avoid direct confrontation. However, when girls who adhere to these norms are unable to resolve a conflict, they may try to hurt one another through indirect strategies such as criticizing or excluding the offender, or sharing secret information about the offender with other girls.

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Chap 16_6ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to Piaget, through _____, children interpret new experiences in terms of their existing mental structures. a. epigenetics b. assimilation c. accommodation d. mechanisms 2. Mark was generally a shy toddler. Based on the continuity of personality characteristics, it can be expected that Mark will be _____ as an adult. a. shy b. exuberant c. extraverted d. intelligent 3. The development of _____ is NOT influenced by societal values. a. parent child attachment b. motor skills c. cognitive skills d. language 4. Which assertion is TRUE of prenatal development? a. Prenatal development is essentially completely due to nature, except when teratogens are involved. b. Prenatal development is purely the unfolding of innate potential. c. There are innumerable interactions between nature and nurture in the womb. d. The interaction of nature and nurture is limited to the control of the effects of nurture by the nature of the mother.

5. Knowledge of child-development research can inform social policy decisions of both citizens and politicians.

Which social policy area is NOT impacted by research findings? a. maternity leave b. childcare c. eyewitness testimony d. parenting

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Chap 16_6ce 6. _____ is an example of a domain-specific learning mechanism. a. Metacognition about strategy choice b. Recognizing objects as familiar c. Mutual exclusivity assumption in word learning d. Habituation 7. Whether one primarily sees continuities or discontinuities in development is, to a great deal, dependent on which factor? a. domain of development b. whether one is looking at infants, young children, older children, or adolescents c. the breadth of one's focus d. whether one considers nature or nurture to be at the core of development 8. Which statement about who children imitate is TRUE? a. Children are more likely to imitate those with whom they have positive relationships. b. Children rarely imitate people other than their parents. c. Children imitate all adults and peers equally. d. Children rarely imitate adults.

9. Which statement about cognitive mechanisms of change is TRUE? a. Both general and domain-specific cognitive learning mechanisms exist to influence development. b. Only general cognitive learning mechanisms, and not domain-specific cognitive learning mechanisms, exist to help children learn. c. Only domain-specific cognitive learning mechanisms, and not general cognitive learning mechanisms, exist to help children learn. d. It is unclear whether the cognitive learning mechanisms that children use are general or domain-specific.

10. Which aspect of nature does not reveal itself completely at birth? a. attractiveness b. nearsightedness c. brain damage d. intelligence 11. Samantha is now in early adulthood and was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. What does this tell us about nature and nurture? a. The timing of this diagnosis lends support for the cause being nurture. b. The timing of this diagnosis is irrelevant to demonstrate nature as the underlying cause. c. This diagnosis, at this time, reflects a complex interplay between nature and nurture. d. The timing of this diagnosis does not tell us anything about nature and nurture.

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Chap 16_6ce 12. Which statement about the effect of timing on the relation between nature and nurture is TRUE? a. Nature only influences the nurture of human beings once they are born. b. Nurture only influences the nature of human beings once they are born. c. The effects of a particular kind of nurture depend on the nature of the child at the time of the experience. d. A particular kind of nurture will generally exert its effect regardless of the nature of the child at the time of the experience.

13. Aggressive children's hostile attributional bias is an example of the influence of a. early experience. b. nurture on nature. c. individuals' active interpretations of their experiences. d. timing of the interaction between nature and nurture.

14. Which statement describes a key component of the importance of children eliciting reactions from other people? a. The reactions then shape the child's own behaviour. b. Children's elicitation of reactions from other people decreases over time. c. The reactions then shape the other people's development. d. Children are not able to elicit reactions from other people.

15. The association between parental involvement in school and academic achievement is a. consistent across socioeconomic and ethnic groups. b. stronger for low-income families than for affluent families. c. stronger for European Canadian families than for African Canadian families. d. stronger for families of girls than for families of boys.

16. In countries in which the degree of income inequality is large, differences in economic circumstances a. play a relatively small role in differences in development between poor and wealthy children. b. play a relatively large role in differences in development between poor and wealthy children. c. are entirely irrelevant to differences in development between poor and wealthy children. d. are of similar magnitude to that of countries in which the degree of income inequality is small.

17. According to Piaget, through _____, children revise their existing mental structures in accordance with new experiences. a. epigenetics b. assimilation c. accommodation d. mechanisms

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Chap 16_6ce 18. An example of a behavioural change mechanism is a. metacognition. b. imitation. c. synaptic pruning. d. children's informal theories.

19. When do nature and nurture begin interacting? a. prenatally b. at birth c. in infancy d. after infancy 20. Which of these does NOT demonstrate that nature does not all reveal itself at birth? a. pubertal development b. nearsightedness c. depression during adolescence d. the social smile 21. Based on theories and research in child development, which statement is NOT good advice for educators? a. Identify sources of children's misunderstandings to enable instruction to be directed at the source of the misunderstanding. b. Understand children's informal theories in order to be able to interpret their comments and correct their errors. c. Help children learn individually, as trying to get children to learn together is frequently unproductive. d. Keep children mentally and physically active in the learning process.

22. Infants do NOT contribute to their own development through a. eliciting reactions from other people. b. being unable to get around the environment on their own. c. interpreting their experiences. d. physically interacting with their environment.

23. What biological change mechanism involves formation of synapses between the ends of axons and the beginnings of dendrites that allow neurotransmitters to transmit signals from neuron to neuron? a. conditioning b. habituation c. synaptogenesis d. myelination

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Chap 16_6ce 24. Which statement is NOT an example of nature eliciting nurture? a. Parents of negative, unregulated children may become increasingly punitive over time. b. Fetuses' exposure to their mothers' voices in the womb leads to their learning to prefer their mothers' voices over those of other women. c. Children who are attractive are treated differently by adults and peers than children who are unattractive. d. Babies who enjoy being cuddled are more likely to receive cuddling than are squirmy babies.

25. Which statement does NOT present an example of the importance of timing on the relation between nature and nurture? a. Infants who are impulsive are more likely than other infants to exhibit antisocial behaviour in later childhood. b. If infants who are born with a defect that inhibits their ability to focus their eyes on the same point are not given restorative surgery by the age of 3, they will never have normal depth perception. c. Infants have the ability to hear differences in phonemes that are not important in their native language, but they lose this ability after 12 months of age. d. Maternal rubella causes visual and auditory damage to the fetus when the rubella occurs early in pregnancy, but not when it occurs late in pregnancy.

26. An example of a biological change mechanism is a. conditioning. b. habituation. c. synaptic pruning. d. children's informal theories.

27. Gender-segregated play is not generally imposed upon children by adults but rather initiated by the children themselves. This demonstrates that gender segregation is a a. self-initiated activity. b. behavioural change mechanism. c. cognitive change mechanism. d. biological change mechanism.

28. Which field of study demonstrates the interaction of nature and nurture on developmental processes? a. epigenetics b. cognitive psychology c. evolutionary theory d. neuropsychology

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Chap 16_6ce 29. Which statement provides an example of the manner in which children contribute to their own environment by regulating their own behaviour? a. Children who are better able to control their negative emotions have more successful peer relations than do other children. b. Children who are faster runners are more likely to participate in organized sports. c. Children whose parents' discipline involves reasoning are more likely to develop a strong conscience than are other children. d. Children who are twins are more similar in intelligence than children who are non-twin siblings.

30. Which statement provides an example of a cognitive change mechanism? a. Synapses that are not needed are reduced. b. Individuals generalize from one instance to another. c. Children who are athletic seek out athletic activities. d. Parents use social scaffolding to help children learn.

31. Habituation is a mechanism of change in that it a. occurs in every normal child. b. is exhibited as early as before birth. c. motivates babies to learn by seeking new stimulation. d. is developed by 6 months of age.

32. Which statement provides an example of a behavioural change mechanism? a. Synapses that are not needed are reduced. b. Individuals generalize from one instance to another. c. Children who are athletic seek out athletic activities. d. Parents use social scaffolding to help children learn.

33. Sensitive periods occur in which domains of development? a. physical and cognitive b. physical, cognitive, and intellectual c. physical, cognitive, intellectual, and social d. physical, cognitive, intellectual, social, and emotional 34. Which variable is NOT a dimension of psychological functioning that is typically considered crucial for a broad range of outcomes? a. number of children in family b. self-esteem c. intelligence d. attachment

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Chap 16_6ce 35. Which statement about the stability of individual differences in the intellectual domain and in the social domain is TRUE? a. Neither domain shows a great deal of stability. b. The intellectual domain shows a great deal of stability, but the social domain does not. c. The social domain shows a great deal of stability, but the intellectual domain does not. d. Both domains show some stability, but stability is greater in the intellectual domain.

36. Which historical change has NOT influenced children's development to be different now as compared to the past? a. health care b. rates of divorce c. technology d. neurogenesis 37. Which "words of advice" are implied by psychological research for parenting? a. Pay little attention to children's characteristics when disciplining; simply discipline as you see fit. b. Determine which decisions are really important. c. Allow children to develop on their own without much guidance from you. d. Do not worry a great deal about choosing a partner, as most couples end up divorced anyway.

38. Which variable is NOT an example of the sociocultural context of development? a. economic circumstances in which children live b. country in which children live c. time period in which children live d. cognitive processes 39. In regard to genetic influence on individual differences over time, the degree of genetic influence typically a. remains stable from infancy through adulthood. b. increases from infancy through adulthood. c. decreases from infancy through adulthood. d. increases from infancy through childhood, and then decreases from childhood through adulthood.

40. Which factor is NOT a key criterion in establishing which characteristics are considered important individual differences? a. stability over time b. ability to predict future outcomes c. relation to intelligence d. association with other conceptually related characteristics

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Chap 16_6ce 41. Which assertion is an assumption of stage theories? a. Not all children pass through stages in the same order. b. Transitions between stages can take a long time. c. When children are in a given stage, a broad range of their behaviour is consistent with that stage. d. Transitions between stages are sporadic.

42. Which variable would probably be MOST interesting to researchers interested in individual differences? a. variable A, which is stable over time and has few concurrent associations with other variables b. variable B, which has many concurrent associations and changes drastically over short time periods c. variable C, which is stable over time and is related to few individual differences over time d. variable D, which has many concurrent associations and remains stable over time 43. _____ is/are NOT an example(s) of a general cognitive process that contributes to development. a. Content knowledge b. Metacognition c. Strategies d. Scaffolding 44. Which statement provides an example of the contribution of metacognition to development? a. Children change their memory strategies as they realize which strategies will work in which situations. b. Children habituate to stimuli with repeated exposure to them. c. Children who are well liked by their peers tend to do better academically than do other children. d. Children learn more from individuals with whom they have a positive relationship than from others.

45. Which infant is unable to actively influence his environment? a. Andrew, who is blind b. Bobby, who is paralyzed c. Elias, who is severely cognitively impaired d. Andrew, Bobby, and Elias are all able to actively influence their environments.

46. Which statement does NOT provide an example of how children elicit reactions from other people? a. Attractive babies are treated more affectionately than are unattractive babies. b. Children with difficult temperaments are treated less positively by their parents than are children with easy temperaments. c. Children who show an interest in learning are more likely to be given extra assignments from their teachers than are children who do not show an interest in learning. d. Children who have poor emotional regulation tend to have parents with poor emotional regulation.

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Chap 16_6ce 47. Which statement about historical changes in Canada is TRUE? a. Nearly all historical changes have improved the lives of children. b. Nearly all historical changes have worsened the lives of children. c. Most historical changes have not affected the lives of children for better or for worse. d. Some historical changes have been positive and some negative; some have made life different, but neither better nor worse.

48. An example of self-initiated activity in the domain of gendered behaviour is a. gender segregation. b. parents' rewarding of gender-appropriate behaviour. c. teachers' practice of calling on boys more than girls. d. cultural expectations for boys and girls.

49. Which factor contributes to the stability exhibited by many individual differences? a. stability in child's genes b. stability of environment c. both stability in child's genes and stability of environment d. neither stability in child's genes nor stability of environment 50. The adorable nature of babies in their appearance and their coos and smiles is a particularly good example of which process? a. nature eliciting nurture b. the importance of timing c. nature revealing itself over time d. the importance of the active interpretation of experience 51. An example of children's active interpretation of their experiences is a. their informal theories of living things. b. the loss of the stepping reflex. c. the elicitation of harsh discipline by difficult toddlers. d. attachment formation.

52. The continuous or discontinuous nature of development is dependent on a. epigenetics. b. the timescale being considered. c. the cognitive change mechanisms involved. d. the behavioural change mechanisms involved.

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Chap 16_6ce 53. Which statement is supported by child psychological research? a. Help at-risk children early, before children's lives are even more poorly affected. b. Help at-risk children later, when you can better assess their problems. c. It does not matter when you help at-risk children, as long as they are helped at some point in their lives. d. At-risk children can rarely be helped.

54. Which statement BEST summarizes the relationship between nature and nurture and their effect on child development? a. Nature creates nurture. b. Nature and nurture are in constant interaction. c. Sometimes nature; sometimes nurture. d. First nature, then nurture.

55. Describe several aspects of the sociocultural context in which you grew up (think about place, time, and economic and family circumstances), and explain how these characteristics may have influenced your development. If you have children or plan to have them in the future, what changes to the sociocultural context are likely? How might these influence your children's development?

56. Briefly describe how you generally respond to failure. Do you tend to see failure as a challenge, making you want to try harder? Or does failure make you feel terrible and want to give up? How might this tendency have actively influenced your environment? For instance, how might it have influenced your own behaviour, including the types of activities you sought (or did not seek)? How might it have influenced the behaviour of teachers, parents, and peers towards you? Give examples.

57. Stacey and Sam are siblings. While they are similar in some ways, such as eye and hair colour, they are also quite different. Explain how these individual differences may have occurred.

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Chap 16_6ce 58. Describe a specific aspect of development that interests you (e.g., development of speech, development of friendships, development of understanding of gravity) and describe three mechanisms of change that you believe may be involved.

59. Before taking this course, what were your beliefs about whether development is generally gradual and continuous, or disjointed and discontinuous? What have you learned in this course that has either supported your beliefs or failed to support them? Be specific and provide detailed examples.

60. Imagine two of your friends are arguing about whether nature or nurture is more important in human development. One friend argues that nature is more important and that nurture only influences children's development in minor ways. The other friend insists that nurture is more important and that any two children placed in the same environment will develop in nearly the same manner. Your friends then ask for your opinion.

Are you able to answer the question of whether nature or nurture is more important? Why or why not? What have you learned in this course that can convince your friends of your position? Give at least three examples and be specific in your argument.

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Chap 16_6ce Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_6ce 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. d 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_6ce 55. Answers will vary, but aspects of sociocultural context that may be discussed include societies with different practices and values, time and place, and varying circumstances within a society (e.g., economics, family, peers).

56. Answers will vary in terms of how students say they respond to failure. Regardless of the examples given, all answers should express that nature, in this case how one responds to failure, elicits nurture (such as the types of activities one chooses to engage in), and how their nature influenced how others reacted towards them.

57. Individual differences between Stacey and Sam are a result of a combination of both genetics and experience. For a number of important characteristics, about 50% of the differences among individuals in a given population are attributable to differences in genetic inheritance. The degree of genetic influence on individual differences tends to increase over the course of development. Individual differences reflect children's experiences as well as their genes.

58. Answers will vary. However, all answers should describe biological change mechanisms (e.g., genetics, brain), behavioural change mechanisms (e.g., habituation, conditioning, social learning), and cognitive change mechanisms (e.g., information processing, domain-specific learning). Answers should also express that change mechanisms work together.

59. Answers will vary. However, students should express that child development contains aspects that are considered both continuous and discontinuous.

60. Answers will vary in terms of what students say they have learned in this class and the examples they provide.

However, all responses should explain that both nature and nurture are important for development. In fact, it isn't that one or the other is more influential on outcomes. Rather, the two interact to produce developmental outcomes.

This interaction even begins in the womb, before birth. Also, the temperament that an infant is born with can influence the type of "nurture" they receive from their environment. Other factors are also important in how nature and nurture interact with each other, such as the timing of experience.

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