A SPEAKERS GUIDE BOOK, TEXT AND REFERENCE 8TH EDITION BY DAN O HAIR, ROB STEWART, HANNAH RUBENSTEIN

TEST BANK

A SPEAKERS GUIDE BOOK, TEXT AND REFERENCE 8TH EDITION BY DAN O HAIR, ROB STEWART, HANNAH RUBENSTEIN TEST BANK Chapter 1 1. Learning to speak effectively can enhance one's personal and professional goals. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Oral communication skills are ranked as the number one job skill employers seek MOST in college graduates. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Preparing speeches can help students develop skills needed in other college courses. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. The practice of giving speeches was originally known as persuasion. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. The practice of rhetoric, or oratory, emerged full force in Greece in the fifth-century B.C.E. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. In the Roman republic, citizens met in public spaces called marketplaces to engage in oral discourse. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. What the Greeks called the agora exists today in the form of town halls. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. The Internet is today's global public forum or agora.

a. True b. False ANSWER: a 9. The Greeks referred to advocating or legal speech as epideictic oratory.

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Chapter 1 a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Most modern-day public figures engage primarily in epideictic oratory. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. According to Roman scholars of rhetoric, including Cicero and Quintilian, memory is one of the five canons of rhetoric. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. Delivery refers to adapting speech information to the audience in order to make a case. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. The five canons of rhetoric are invention, adaptation, arrangement, timing, and delivery. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. Public speaking is similar in many ways to engaging in an important conversation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Effective speaking and effective writing both require a sense of who the audience is. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. In general, speakers use more unfamiliar words and complex sentences than do writers. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 17. Cultural intelligence involves becoming more sympathetic to another culture. a. True

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Chapter 1 b. False ANSWER: a 18. Public speaking involves less opportunity for feedback than dyadic communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Unlike dyadic communication, public speaking usually occurs in formal settings. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. The process of converting thoughts into words is termed decoding. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. The receiver decodes, or interprets, the message. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. The audience's response to a message is called feedback. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. A message can be expressed both verbally and nonverbally. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. E-mail is one example of a communication channel. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 25. Another term for noise is interference. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 26. In the context of the communication process, noise refers only to sounds that interrupt our ability to hear the sender's message. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. Shared meaning is the mutual understanding of a message between speaker and audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. A political rally is one example of a context. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 29. The circumstance that calls for a public response is known as the rhetorical situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 30. Benefits of public speaking include: a. gaining real-life skills. b. advancing written communication skills. c. improving dyadic communication skills. d. enhancing relationships with others.

ANSWER: a 31. The Athenians demonstrated their oratorical talent in a public space called a(n): a. public forum. b. deliberative forum. c. city-state. d. agora.

ANSWER: d 32. The Greeks referred to legislative or political speech as: a. epideictic oratory. b. deliberative oratory. c. forensic oratory. d. stylistic oratory.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 1 33. Which style of oratory is used during special ceremonies, such as celebrations and funerals? a. deliberative b. forensic c. improvisational d. epideictic ANSWER: d 34. Which canon of rhetoric involves speakers developing their arguments and evidence to make their case to an audience? a. invention b. arrangement c. style d. delivery ANSWER: a 35. Which canon of rhetoric refers to the speaker's vocal and nonverbal behaviors? a. invention b. style c. delivery d. memory ANSWER: c 36. To learn public speaking, one should draw on skills that they already possess from: a. interviewing and arguing. b. small group communication and conversation. c. mass communication and composition. d. conversation and composition.

ANSWER: d 37. How does spoken language differ from written communication? a. Speakers use unfamiliar words and complex sentences. b. Oral language is less interactive than written language. c. Speakers make more references to themselves and to the audience. d. Written communication is far more formal than spoken language.

ANSWER: c 38. What term refers to the language, beliefs, values, norms, behaviors, and material objects that are passed on from one generation to the next? a. shared meaning b. culture

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Chapter 1 c. rhetorical situation d. public forum ANSWER: b 39. Being skilled and flexible about understanding a culture is known as having: a. cultural intelligence. b. public discernment. c. shared meaning. d. rhetorical sensitivity.

ANSWER: a 40. A form of communication between two people, such as a conversation, is called: a. dyadic communication. b. public communication. c. mass communication. d. small group communication.

ANSWER: a 41. Dyadic communication occurs in: a. television news broadcasts. b. speeches. c. conversations. d. small groups.

ANSWER: c 42. In which form of communication is the audience usually NOT present with the speaker, causing feedback to be delayed? a. mass communication b. small group communication c. public speaking d. dyadic communication ANSWER: a 43. What factor distinguishes public speaking from other forms of communication? a. opportunities for feedback b. focus on relevant issues c. sensitivity to listeners d. ability to be understood ANSWER: a 44. Which type of communication is the MOST formal?

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Chapter 1 a. small group b. dyadic c. public d. conversation ANSWER: c 45. Converting thoughts into words is called: a. encoding. b. decoding. c. receiving. d. channeling.

ANSWER: a 46. What term refers to the process of interpreting a message? a. feedback b. decoding c. encoding d. channeling ANSWER: b 47. What term refers to the audience's verbal or nonverbal response to a message? a. feedback b. interpretation c. meaning d. rhetorical situation ANSWER: a 48. When a speaker tells a joke and an audience member raises their eyebrows, the audience member is engaging in: a. civic engagement. b. feedback. c. conversation. d. critical thinking.

ANSWER: b 49. Any physical, psychological, or environmental interference with the message is called: a. feedback. b. context. c. noise. d. rhetorical situation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 1 50. The mutual understanding of a message between the speaker and the audience is called: a. decoding. b. context. c. rhetorical situation. d. shared meaning.

ANSWER: d 51. Anything that influences the speaker, such as the situation or environment in which a speech is given, is known as: a. noise. b. context. c. feedback. d. shared meaning.

ANSWER: b 52. The cultures of the speaker and audience members are part of the: a. speaking context. b. degree of formality. c. canons of rhetoric. d. public forum.

ANSWER: a 53. The circumstance that calls for a public response is known as the: a. source. b. rhetorical situation. c. public forum. d. agora.

ANSWER: b 54. List and explain three benefits of public speaking.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that public speaking can help individuals gain real-life skills that lead to greater confidence and satisfaction. It can also help people advance their professional goals. Oral and written communication are the most important skills employers look for in a college graduate.

55. How does public speaking training enhance an individual's career as a student?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that public speaking can help hone students' researching, writing and outlining, reasoning, critical thinking, and listening skills. It can also help students deliver better oral presentations in other courses (sciences and mathematics, technical, social science, arts and humanities, education, nursing and allied health, and business courses).

56. Explain how developing public speaking skills can help an individual become a more engaged citizen.

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Chapter 1 ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that people can use public speaking to become more involved in addressing issues they care about. It can also help them become a more active participant in democracy and learn the rules of engagement for effective and ethical public discourse.

57. List and describe three of the five canons of rhetoric.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the five canons of rhetoric are invention (discovering the types of evidence and arguments one will use to make their case to an audience), arrangement (organizing the evidence and arguments in ways that are best suited to the topic and the audience), style (the way one uses language to express ideas), memory (the practice of the speech until it can be artfully delivered), and delivery (the vocal and nonverbal behavior one uses when speaking).

58. Explain how public speaking is similar to conversation.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that in both public speaking and conversation, speakers must attempt to make themselves understood, involve and respond to their conversational partners, and take responsibility for what they say.

59. What does it mean to develop an effective oral style?

ANSWER: The style used in public speaking should be more similar to spoken language than written language.

Language used in public speaking is simpler, more rhythmic, more repetitious, and more interactive than either conversation or writing.

60. What is culture, and why should a speaker consider it when preparing a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that culture is the language, beliefs, values, norms, behaviors, and material objects that are passed on from one generation to the next. Speakers must be skilled and flexible about understanding a culture, gradually reshape their thinking to be more sympathetic to the culture, and become skilled and appropriate when interacting with others from the culture.

61. List and describe one similarity and one difference between public speaking and small group communication.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers may note that like small group communication, public speaking requires that speakers address a group of people who are focused on the speaker and expect them to clearly discuss issues that are relevant to the topic and to the occasion. Unlike group communication, the opportunity for feedback is limited in public speaking.

62. Discuss how mass communication and public speaking are similar.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that public speaking and mass communication both require that speakers understand and appeal to the audience members' interests, attitudes, and values.

63. Explain why public speaking is usually more formal than other types of communication.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that when speaking in public, the speaker is the focal point of attention in what is usually a more formal setting. Listeners expect a more systematic presentation, so public speaking requires more preparation and practice than other forms

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Chapter 1 of communication.

64. List and describe the elements of the communication process.

ANSWER: The source, or sender, creates, organizes, and produces (encodes) the message. The receiver (audience) interprets (decodes) the message and responds with feedback, which can be conveyed verbally and nonverbally. The message is the content of the communication process. The medium through which the speaker sends a message is the channel. Any interference with the message is called noise. The speaker and the audience co-create meaning.

65. Give two examples of noise in a public speaking situation.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that examples of noise in a public speaking situation can be physical sounds, such as cell phones ringing or people talking, psychological distractions, such as heightened emotions, or environmental interferences, such as the room being too hot or cold.

66. What is a specific speech purpose, and why is it important in the speech making process?

ANSWER: A specific speech purpose is what the speaker wants the audience to learn or do as a result of listening to the speech. The specific speech purpose helps the speaker stay focused and gives them direction throughout the preparation and delivery of the speech.

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Chapter 2 1. The first step in creating a speech involves determining the purpose of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. Audience analysis is the process of getting to know the listeners relative to the speaker's topic and the speech occasion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Topic selection is the second step in the speechmaking process, right after audience analysis. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. The general purpose of any speech is to inform an audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. The general speech purpose for a funeral eulogy would be to inform. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. "To inform my audience how glaciers are formed" is a specific purpose statement. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. "The death penalty should be abolished because it does not deter crime, is extremely costly, and is cruel and unusual punishment" is a specific purpose for a persuasive speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. A thesis statement is a short statement that clearly expresses the central idea of a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 2 9. Forming a specific purpose for a speech occurs after the thesis statement is written. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. In the planning stage, a speaker can use the thesis statement as a guidepost to make sure that they are on track. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. An effective speech should be organized around at least four or five main points. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. Every speech has three major parts: an introduction, a body, and a conclusion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. An introduction serves to catch the audience's attention, introduce the speaker and topic, and preview the main ideas of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. During the body of a speech, the speaker should alert the audience to the specific purpose of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. The speech body contains the main points and subpoints of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. Supporting material is used mostly during the body of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 2 17. All main points should support the speech's thesis statement. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. In the conclusion, the speaker should restate the thesis statement and reiterate how the main points confirm it. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Subordinate points in an outline are indicated by their placement below and to the right of the points they support. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. Subpoints cannot be coordinate points. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. Every main point or subpoint should have at least two other points coordinate to it. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. In speechmaking, evidence and support are synonymous terms. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Speakers need a working outline or a speaking outline but not both. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. Speaking outlines generally contain points stated in complete sentences. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 2 25. Presentation aids are also referred to as visual aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 26. Speakers may use visual aids or audio aids but should not include both in their speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. To deliver an effective speech, speakers should practice at least two times. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 28. Practicing the number of times recommended for a four- to six-minute speech will take twenty to thirty minutes of actual practice time, figuring in restarts and pauses. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 29. Which step in the speechmaking process can help a speaker determine how receptive listeners will be toward a given topic? a. determining a specific purpose statement b. composing a thesis statement c. conducting an audience analysis d. gathering supporting material ANSWER: c 30. Formal audience analysis involves the study of an audience through techniques such as: a. interviews and questionnaires. b. observation and tape-recording. c. surveys and assumptions. d. interviews and online research.

ANSWER: a 31. Which step in the speechmaking process comes earliest in the process? a. selecting a topic b. determining the speech purpose c. developing main points d. composing a thesis statement ANSWER: a

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Chapter 2 32. Unless the topic has been assigned, at what stage of the speechmaking process should a speaker select their topic? a. during the development of main ideas b. after determining the speech purpose c. after composing a thesis statement d. after conducting an audience analysis ANSWER: d 33. Once a speaker has selected a topic, what is the next step in the speechmaking process? a. consider which presentation aids to use b. determine the general and specific speech purpose c. compose a thesis statement d. gather supporting materials ANSWER: b 34. "To mark a special occasion" is a: a. thesis statement. b. general speech purpose. c. specific speech purpose. d. speech topic.

ANSWER: b 35. To inform, to persuade, and to mark a special occasion are the three types of: a. general speech purpose. b. specific speech purpose. c. thesis statement. d. speech occasion.

ANSWER: a 36. Anne chose to give a speech to her classmates about the categories of computer games. The general purpose of Anne's speech was: a. to inform. b. to persuade. c. to sell. d. to mark a special occasion.

ANSWER: a 37. Which part of a speech describes what the speaker intends for the audience to learn or do as a result of the speech? a. general purpose b. specific purpose

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Chapter 2 c. thesis statement d. speech introduction ANSWER: b 38. Tyler gives a speech to convince his audience that they shouldn't fear getting the COVID-19 vaccine. Which specific purpose statement fits the goal of Tyler's speech? a. to inform the audience about the benefits of getting vaccinated b. to persuade the audience that the vaccine is safe and effective c. to inform the audience about how they can easily register for the vaccination d. to persuade the audience that vaccinations should be mandatory ANSWER: b 39. After a speaker has identified the general and specific purposes of the speech, what should they do next? a. develop the main ideas b. determine the presentation aids c. gather supporting materials d. create an outline ANSWER: c 40. Which step in the speechmaking process can help speakers clarify, elaborate, and verify the information in their speech? a. composing a thesis statement b. deciding on presentation aids c. creating a speaking outline d. gathering supporting material ANSWER: d 41. What is the role of supporting material in a speech? a. to enhance the speech introduction b. to reveal controversial information c. to clarify and elaborate main ideas d. to question the validity of the speaker ANSWER: c 42. An effective speech should be organized around how many main point(s)? a. one b. two or three c. four or five d. seven or eight ANSWER: b

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Chapter 2 43. Which parts of a speech alert audience members to the thesis statement? a. introduction and body b. body and conclusion c. introduction and conclusion d. introduction, body, and conclusion ANSWER: c 44. The major part of a speech that contains the main ideas and supporting material is the: a. introduction. b. body. c. conclusion. d. thesis statement.

ANSWER: a 45. In which part of a speech should the speaker restate the thesis and reiterate how the main points confirm the thesis? a. introduction b. body c. conclusion d. outline ANSWER: c 46. Which is a function of the conclusion? a. capture the audience's attention b. review the thesis c. use transitions to move to the next section of the speech d. introduce the speaker and the topic ANSWER: b 47. In an outline, which points are of equal importance and are indicated by their parallel alignment? a. coordinate b. general c. subordinate d. specific ANSWER: a 48. In an outline, what kinds of points support main points? a. coordinate b. subordinate c. equivalent d. superior

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Chapter 2 ANSWER: b 49. In an outline, which points are identified by their placement below and to the right of the points they support? a. coordinate b. equivalent c. superior d. subordinate ANSWER: d 50. Outlines are based on the principle of: a. coordination and subordination. b. general and specific purpose. c. primacy and recency. d. topic selection.

ANSWER: a 51. Brief outlines that use either short phrases or key words are called: a. full-sentence outlines. b. manuscripts. c. speaking outlines. d. working outlines.

ANSWER: c 52. Which kind of outline uses complete or close-to-complete sentences? a. working b. speaking c. specific d. operational ANSWER: a 53. A chart that summarizes important information and an audio recording are both examples of: a. organizational patterns. b. speaking outlines. c. working outlines. d. presentation aids.

ANSWER: d 54. Presentation aids can include: a. visual, audio, or a combination of different aids. b. visual and audio but never multimedia.

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Chapter 2 c. visual aids only. d. visual or audio but never both.

ANSWER: a 55. A speech should be practiced at least: a. two times. b. four times. c. six times. d. eight times.

ANSWER: c 56. What is one of the MOST effective ways a speaker can evaluate their speech and bolster their confidence? a. Practice the speech at least three times in front of a mirror. b. Record the speech using audio or video recording tools during rehearsals. c. Give the speech to a live audience before the actual speech day. d. Ask a friend or family member to listen and evaluate the speech.

ANSWER: b 57. The goal of practicing the delivery of a speech should be to: a. memorize the speech. b. make the speech sound natural. c. perfect the speech. d. be able to read the working outline smoothly.

ANSWER: b 58. List the ten steps in the speechmaking process.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the ten steps are (1) analyze the audience, (2) select a topic, (3) determine the general and specific speech purpose, (4) gather supporting material, (5) compose a thesis statement, (6) develop the main points, (7) arrange the speech into its major parts, (8) outline the speech, (9) consider presentation aids, and (10) practice delivering the speech.

59. List the two factors a speaker should take into account when selecting a topic.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should (1) consider the speech purpose and occasion and (2) their own interests and expertise.

60. How can a speaker analyze the audience?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that formal audience analysis involves interviewing or surveying audience members. Observation of demographic characteristics and asking someone familiar with the audience about their interests and concerns are other methods.

61. What makes a good thesis statement?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that a thesis statement should be clear and, in

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Chapter 2 a single sentence, should tell what the speech is about.

62. How does supporting material help to illustrate the main points of a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that supporting material clarifies, elaborates on, and verifies the main points.

63. Identify the functions of the introduction, body, and conclusion.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the introduction captures the audience's attention, introduces the speaker and the topic, and previews the thesis and main points. The body develops the main points and illustrates each one with relevant supporting material and organizes ideas and evidence in a structure that suits the speech topic, audience, and occasion. The conclusion reviews the thesis and reiterates how the main points confirm it. It also leaves the audience with something to think about.

64. What is the principle of coordination and subordination?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the principle of coordination and subordination refers to the logical placement of ideas relative to their importance to one another.

Coordinate points are of equal importance and are indicated by parallel alignment. Subordinate points, or subpoints, offer evidence (support) for the main points and are identified in outlines by their placement below and to the right of the points they support.

65. Explain the difference between a working outline and a speaking outline.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that a working outline generally has complete or close-to-complete sentences, while speaking outlines are briefer and usually use either short phrases or key words. Working outlines are used for planning, while speaking outlines are used to prompt the speaker during the speech.

66. Discuss the importance of rehearsing a speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that rehearsing the speech both verbally and nonverbally at least six times will help speakers feel and appear natural to their listeners.

67. Explain how using audio and video recorders during speech rehearsals can bolster speaker confidence.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that recording the speech rehearsal can help speakers identify the strengths and weaknesses of their delivery and reduce nervousness.

Smartphones are good way to record speech practice sessions.

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Chapter 3 1. Public speaking anxiety, or PSA, is defined as a speaker's fear or anxiety associated with actual communication to an audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. Lack of experience and lack of positive experience with speaking both generally increase a speaker's public speaking anxiety. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. The onset of public speaking anxiety can occur as early as when a speaker first learns that they will have to give a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. People with trait anxiety typically experience nervousness only in unusual situations, such as public speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Speakers who pinpoint specific factors that make them nervous in the speechmaking process are better able to manage their anxiety. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Pre-preparation anxiety occurs when a speaker rehearses the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. The anxiety stop-time technique is a good way to prevent performance anxiety. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. For most people, anxiety tends to be highest during the introduction of the actual speech. a. True b. False

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Chapter 3 ANSWER: a 9. Preparation and practice can help speakers develop a quality speech, but it cannot help to reduce public speaking anxiety. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Speakers can practice positive self-talk as a strategy for reducing speech anxiety. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Having a positive attitude toward speechmaking results in excitement, which results in a raised heart rate during delivery of a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. Visualization involves imagining what could go wrong with a speech so that speakers can address and eliminate possible errors in advance. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. The body's automatic response to threatening or fear-inducing situations is called anxiety bypass. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. Research shows that individuals can eliminate the physiological reactions that result from the fight-or-flight response by activating a relaxation response using techniques such as meditation and controlled breathing. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. Stage one of stress-control breathing involves using a soothing word such as calm or relax. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. It is recommended that speakers stand still behind a podium and not walk around. a. True

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Chapter 3 b. False ANSWER: b 17. A speaker's movement serves to relieve tension and helps hold the audience's attention. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. Speakers should avoid exercising the day of their speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. Speakers can compensate for a lack of objectivity about their own speaking by practicing in front of a mirror. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. Speech evaluations by others are usually more objective than self-evaluations. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. A situation-specific social anxiety that arises from real or anticipated enactment of an oral presentation is known as: a. psychological apprehension. b. communication agitation. c. public speaking anxiety. d. stage fright.

ANSWER: c 22. Lack of positive public speaking experience can lead to: a. psychological apprehension. b. communication agitation. c. public speaking anxiety. d. stage fright.

ANSWER: a 23. Which element is MOST likely to cause someone to avoid public speaking altogether? a. lack of positive speaking experiences b. having trait anxiety

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Chapter 3 c. being the center of attention d. feeling different from others ANSWER: a 24. Many people have anxiety about public speaking because they feel: a. unattractive to the audience. b. indifferent to the audience. c. different from others. d. as if they do not stand out.

ANSWER: c 25. The tendency of speakers to think the anxiety they feel is more noticeable than it appears is called: a. the fight-or-flight response. b. trait anxiety. c. performance anxiety. d. the illusion of transparency.

ANSWER: d 26. Which type of anxiety refers to the tendency to be anxious much of the time versus only in speaking situations? a. trait b. communication c. performance d. preparation ANSWER: a 27. Tyson began to panic as soon as his instructor gave the speech assignment to the class. Tyson experienced: a. pre-preparation anxiety. b. preparation anxiety. c. pre-performance anxiety. d. performance anxiety.

ANSWER: a 28. Katarina experienced anxiety as soon as she began gathering support materials for her speech. Katarina experienced: a. pre-preparation anxiety. b. preparation anxiety. c. pre-performance anxiety. d. performance anxiety.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 3 29. The onset of nervousness that occurs during the rehearsal of a speech is called: a. pre-preparation anxiety. b. preparation anxiety. c. pre-performance anxiety. d. performance anxiety.

ANSWER: c 30. What technique is used for combating pre-performance anxiety? a. nervousness alleviation b. communication release c. anxiety stop-time d. stress-control breathing ANSWER: c 31. For most people, which type of speech anxiety is most common? a. pre-preparation anxiety b. preparation anxiety c. pre-performance anxiety d. performance anxiety ANSWER: d 32. Experienced speakers agree that a speech will go smoothly if the speaker can control their level of nervousness: a. during the introduction portion. b. when using presentation aids. c. when creating the outline for a speech. d. during the body of the speech.

ANSWER: a 33. Which strategy can speakers use to gain public speaking confidence? a. use feelings of anxiety to boost energy b. engage in positive self-talk c. avoid movement during the speech d. memorize the speech ANSWER: b 34. The act of summoning feelings and actions consistent with a positive speech performance is called: a. relaxation. b. visualization. c. meditation. d. positive self-talk.

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Chapter 3 ANSWER: b 35. Visualization is a form of: a. positive self-talk. b. fight-or-flight response. c. behavioral alignment. d. cognitive restructuring.

ANSWER: d 36. As Bizhi prepares to give her speech, she mentally pictures herself giving a successful speech—a confidence-building technique called: a. cognitive restructuring. b. positive self-talk. c. visualization. d. anxiety bypass.

ANSWER: c 37. A form of breathing in which more movement occurs in the stomach than in the chest is called: a. stress-control breathing. b. meditative breathing. c. positive breathing. d. anxiety bypass breathing.

ANSWER: a 38. Activating the relaxation response through techniques such as meditation or stress-control breathing can help speakers: a. confront a speech threat head-on. b. make a hasty escape from a threat. c. increase the sensations from the fight-or-flight response. d. improve how they respond to stress.

ANSWER: d 39. What can speakers do prior to speaking to prepare for more fluid but controlled movement during the delivery of their speech? a. read a book b. exercise c. drink water d. listen to music ANSWER: b 40. Speakers can identify the strengths of their speech and improve their presentations by: a. modifying their thoughts and attitudes.

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Chapter 3 b. practicing meditation and visualization. c. using self and audience feedback. d. performing an anxiety bypass.

ANSWER: c 41. Explain why public speaking is such a source of anxiety for most people.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that there are three major reasons someone might feel public speaking anxiety: (1) The person lacks positive public speaking experience. This may be negative experiences or no experience at all. (2) The person feels different. Being in front of others can make a person extra-sensitive to their idiosyncrasies and can lead to feelings of inferiority because of those differences. (3) The person is anxious about being the center of attention because of the misconception that any anxiety present is more noticeable than it is.

42. Explain how being the center of attention can contribute to an uncomfortable speech situation.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that speakers tend to have the illusion of transparency, which means they tend to think their anxiety is more noticeable than it is. This can increase self-consciousness, which can distract the speaker from the speech itself and make them feel even more conspicuous and anxious.

43. Explain the four points in the speechmaking process that can create anxiety for people. Next, give an example of a confidence-building strategy a speaker could use to effectively manage their stress at each of these points.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that anxiety is most severe at one of these four points in the speechmaking process: (1) pre-preparation (when the person learns about the speaking assignment), (2) preparation (when the person is preparing for the speech, (3) preperformance (when the person is rehearsing the speech), or (4) performance (when the person is delivering the speech). One of these confidence-building strategies should be mentioned as a way to address this anxiety: (1) preparing and practicing, (2) modifying thoughts and attitudes (engaging in positive thinking and self-talk), (3) visualizing success (summoning feelings and actions consistent with effective performance), (4) activating the relaxation response (meditation or controlled breathing), or (5) using movement to minimize anxiety.

44. Explain the techniques a speaker can use to reduce their performance anxiety.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that anxiety is highest for most people just as the speech begins, also known as performance anxiety. Speakers can use a variety of techniques to reduce performance anxiety, such as controlling nervousness during the introduction so that the rest of the speech goes smoothly. Speakers can also rely on other proven techniques such as (1) preparing and practicing, (2) modifying thoughts and attitudes by engaging in positive thinking and self-talk, (3) visualizing success by summoning feelings and actions consistent with effective performance, (4) activating the relaxation response through meditation or controlled breathing, and/or (5) using movement to minimize anxiety.

45. Write a brief account of how speakers can use visualization to build public speaking confidence.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the visualization process begins with closing the eyes and getting comfortable in a chair. Speakers should then engage in deep,

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Chapter 3 diaphragmatic breathing. Next they can begin to visualize the beginning of the day of the speech— getting up in the morning, full of energy and confidence. Then, they can think their way through getting dressed, traveling to the speech setting, standing or sitting in the room, and feeling sure of their material and their ability to present the speech. Finally, speakers should see themselves approaching the area from which they will present, with all of their audiovisual materials in order and ready to present.

46. Discuss two relaxation techniques that public speakers can use to help reduce public speaking anxiety.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that meditation and controlled breathing are the two most common and effective relaxation techniques for speakers.

47. Explain how enjoying the speech occasion can be an effective stress reducer.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that most people actually enjoy giving speeches. When speakers can focus on the work they put into a speech and the ways they are able to influence people, they can truly enjoy the occasion. Giving good speeches can help speakers feel empowered and satisfied with the entire speechmaking processes.

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Chapter 4 1. College students spend more time listening than they do on any other communication activity, except for speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. Active listening is focused and purposeful. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. "Listenable language" is prepared for the listener rather than the reader. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. Listening is another word for hearing. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. One must be able to hear to listen. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. Selective perception is a process in which people pay attention to certain messages while ignoring others. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Because selective perception is a natural part of listener behavior, the listener is solely responsible for countering it. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. To counter selective perception, listeners should screen out parts of the speech that do not align closely with their views. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 9. A listening distraction can be anything that competes for a person's attention when they are trying to focus on something else. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Daydreaming or recovering from a poor night's sleep can be considered internal listening distractions. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Scriptwriting occurs when we focus on what we, rather than the speaker, will say next. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. When engaging in defensive listening, audience members decide either that they won't like what the speaker is going to say or that they know better. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. Differences in dialects or accents, nonverbal cues, word choice, and physical appearance can sometimes serve as cultural barriers to listening. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Active listeners listen for the speaker's main ideas and watch for their nonverbal cues. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Critical thinking is the ability to evaluate claims on the basis of a speaker's credibility and confidence. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. We cannot know a speaker's biases, so we should not try to identify them. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 17. Monologues feature an open sharing of ideas in an atmosphere of respect. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. Critical evaluation of others' speeches can help listeners assess their own strengths and weaknesses as speakers. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Listeners who do not like a speaker's topic cannot be honest and fair in evaluating the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. Accents, awkward grammatical phrases, and word choice are acceptable reasons for listeners to "tune out" a speaker. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. When evaluating a speech, it is recommended to start out with criticism so that the evaluation can end on a positive note. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. More than any other single communication act, college students: a. write. b. listen. c. speak. d. read.

ANSWER: b 23. Managers overwhelmingly associate leadership potential with having strong: a. speaking skills. b. reading skills. c. organizing skills. d. listening skills.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 24. People tend to be more successful and efficient in both their personal and professional lives when they are competent in which area? a. leading b. planning c. listening d. empathizing ANSWER: c 25. Listening that is focused and purposeful is: a. active listening. b. passive listening. c. comprehensive listening. d. appreciative listening.

ANSWER: a 26. The conscious act of recognizing, understanding, and accurately interpreting the messages communicated by others is called: a. hearing. b. listening. c. perceiving. d. retaining.

ANSWER: b 27. The reflexive or automatic process of perceiving sound is called: a. hearing. b. listening. c. circular response. d. the message-perception gap.

ANSWER: a 28. Paying attention to certain messages and ignoring other messages is called: a. selective perception. b. listening. c. hearing. d. critical thinking.

ANSWER: a 29. Sorting and filtering new information based on what a person already knows is a key element of: a. subjective perception. b. selective perception. c. comprehensive listening.

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Chapter 4 d. critical listening.

ANSWER: b 30. Listeners tend to pay attention to: a. people to whom they are attracted. b. information associated with their beliefs. c. things they disagree with. d. what they find controversial.

ANSWER: b 31. To support active listening, speakers are responsible for: a. screening out parts of the speech the audience won't like. b. keeping their speech within the required time limits. c. aligning their speech to current hot-button topics. d. making the speech relevant to their audience.

ANSWER: d 32. Anything that competes for the attention a person is trying to give to something else is called a listening: a. disturbance. b. hinderance. c. distraction. d. obstruction.

ANSWER: c 33. Construction noise, automobile traffic, slamming doors, and poor ventilation are examples of: a. external listening distractions. b. internal listening distractions. c. physical listening distractions. d. environmental listening distractions.

ANSWER: a 34. Daydreaming, fatigue, illness, and strong emotions are examples of: a. psychological listening distractions. b. internal listening distractions. c. external listening distractions. d. physiological listening distractions.

ANSWER: b 35. Listeners can consciously focus on listening, avoid daydreaming, and monitor themselves for lapses in attention as a way to reduce: a. psychological listening distractions.

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Chapter 4 b. internal listening distractions. c. external listening distractions. d. physiological listening distractions.

ANSWER: b 36. When listeners engage in scriptwriting, they: a. try to predict what the speaker will say next. b. concentrate on the speaker's motives. c. focus on what they will say next. d. imagine the exchange as a story.

ANSWER: c 37. The primary danger of laziness and overconfidence in listening is that a person may: a. offend the speaker. b. embarrass themselves. c. miss important information. d. have to ask questions.

ANSWER: c 38. Listeners can avoid judging a speaker on the basis of their accent, appearance, or demeanor by: a. paying attention to how the speaker pronounces words. b. being familiar with different accents and dialects. c. using selective perception to screen out unfamiliar terms. d. focusing on the message rather than the speaker.

ANSWER: d 39. Active listening can be cultivated by: a. combining hearing with listening. b. setting listening goals. c. using selective perception. d. predicting what the speaker will say.

ANSWER: b 40. When establishing their listening goals, what strategy is a student using when they say, "I will stay focused on the speaker and take notes during the speech"? a. make an action statement (goal) b. identify their listening needs c. identify why listening will help them d. assess how well they listened ANSWER: a

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Chapter 4 41. When trying to identify a speaker's main points, a listener can: a. find clues anywhere but in the conclusion. b. look to the speaker's visual aids for clues. c. listen for transitions that signal upcoming points. d. screen out parts of a speech not related to the main ideas.

ANSWER: c 42. What can listeners do to ensure they hear and retain the speaker's most important points? a. suspend their own biases b. pay attention to introductions, transitions, and conclusions c. watch the speaker's delivery for clues d. listen critically for ideas that match their own beliefs ANSWER: b 43. How can listeners recheck their memory of the main points of a speech? a. listen carefully to the introduction b. write down all transitions in the speech c. take notes on the speaker's main points d. ask for the speaker's outline ANSWER: c 44. Evaluating evidence and analyzing assumptions and biases is part of: a. critical thinking. b. comprehensive listening. c. active listening. d. eliminating cultural barriers.

ANSWER: a 45. The ability to evaluate a speaker's claims based on well-supported reasons is a component of: a. critical thinking. b. comprehensive listening. c. active listening. d. eliminating cultural barriers.

ANSWER: a 46. What type of communication encourages the speaker and the listener to reach conclusions together? a. public b. monologic c. group d. dialogic ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 47. Speakers who engage in dialogic communication should treat a speech as a(n): a. opportunity to impose their beliefs on the audience. b. argument that must be won. c. opportunity to achieve understanding with audience members. d. dyadic exchange of competing ideas.

ANSWER: c 48. Speech evaluations should always begin with what element? a. positive statement b. minor critique c. major critique d. overall assessment ANSWER: a 49. How can students develop listening skills in the public speaking classroom to help them become effective speakers?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that practicing active listening as students listen to their classmates' speeches can help them observe what will and won't work for their own speeches. Students can watch for "listenable language" in others' speeches and experiment with it in their own, preparing speeches for the ear rather than the eye.

50. What is the difference between an internal listening distraction and an external listening distraction?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that internal listening distractions occur within a person's own thoughts and feelings and can include things such as daydreaming or feeling tired, while external distractions can originate outside of a person or in the environment and include loud noises or visual interferences.

51. Describe two types of internal listening distractions, and explain how they detract from a communication situation.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that internal listening distractions occur within a person's own thoughts and feelings. Some examples of internal listening distractions are daydreaming, lack of rest, or emotional thoughts. Internal listening distractions compete for the attention a person is trying to give to something else, so listeners need to avoid daydreaming, monitor themselves for lapses in attention, and plan on being well rested for important speaking events they plan to attend.

52. Explain how multitasking can become an obstacle to listening.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that multitasking diverts attention away from a speaker's message and reduces the ability to interpret messages accurately. Students may engage in activities such as checking their cell phones or calendars, talking to a neighbor, or finishing a class assignment during a speech presentation. These activities reduce students' ability to listen.

53. Define defensive listening, and explain two ways to eliminate it.

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Chapter 4 ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that defensive listening occurs when listeners decide either they won't like what the speaker is going to say or they know better. To eliminate defensive listening, listeners should remind themselves that effective listening precedes effective rebuttal; listeners should wait for the speaker to finish before devising their own arguments.

54. Using a personal experience or a hypothetical situation, identify a perceived cultural barrier to listening.

Explain how this barrier could be overcome.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that some cultural barriers to listening are differences in dialects or accents, nonverbal cues, word choices, and physical appearance. Listeners can overcome cultural barriers by focusing on the message rather than the messenger's accent, appearance, or demeanor and revealing their own needs to the speaker by asking questions.

55. Write a brief list of ways to become a more active listener.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note several of the following ways to become an active listener: Recognize that people listen selectively, anticipate obstacles to listening, minimize external and internal distractions, refrain from multitasking, guard against scriptwriting and defensive listening, and beware of laziness and overconfidence. Listeners can also set listening goals, identify why listening is important to them, make action statements or goals, and assess their listening skills.

56. Define critical thinking, and explain why it is important in the process of communicating with others.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that active listening and critical thinking go hand in hand. Critical thinking is the ability to evaluate claims on the basis of well-supported reasons, to look for flaws in arguments, and to resist claims that have no supporting evidence.

57. Identify three guidelines for evaluating a speaker's evidence and reasoning.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note listeners should evaluate the speaker's evidence by asking if it is accurate, if the sources are credible, and if the evidence can be tracked.

Listeners should analyze the speaker's assumptions and biases by questioning what lies behind the speaker's assertions and asking if the evidence supports these assertions. They should assess the speaker's reasoning by asking if it makes sense, uses proper logic, and avoids fallacies in reasoning.

Listeners should also consider multiple perspectives by questioning whether there is another way to view the argument and comparing that with the speaker's argument.

58. How does monologue differ from dialogic communication?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that when we engage in monologue, we merely try to impose what we think on another person or a group of people. Dialogic communication is the open sharing of ideas in an atmosphere of respect. True dialogue encourages both speaker and listener to reach conclusions together.

59. When evaluating a speech, how can listeners be compassionate and constructive in their criticism?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that listeners can be compassionate and constructive in their criticism by being honest and fair in their evaluation, adjusting to the speaker's style, and showing compassion by starting with something positive, being selective in their criticism, and focusing on the speech rather than the speaker.

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Chapter 5 1. Ethics is the study of moral conduct—how people should act toward one another. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. The Greek word ethos means "character." a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Positive ethos includes competence, good moral character, and goodwill. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. A person's sense of ethics, of right and wrong actions, is reflected in their attitudes and beliefs. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Considering the audience's values is an important part of preparing an ethical speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Rules-based ethics emphasizes the role of individual moral character in guiding ethical choices. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Invective is not appropriate in positive public discourse. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. A speech that inflames a situation and/or the audience breaches the acceptable "rules of engagement" for public conversations. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 9. The First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution guarantees unconditional freedom of speech.

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Chapter 5 a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Hate speech is offensive communication directed against a group's racial, ethnic, religious, gender, or other characteristics. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Slander, or speech that is potentially harmful to an individual's reputation at work or in the community, is illegal. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. Speakers who act as though everyone shares their points of view and points of reference exhibit reckless disregard for the truth. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. It is easier to claim defamation regarding comments directed at a private person than a public figure. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. A stereotype is a generalization about an apparent characteristic of a group that is applied to all members of that group. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Audience members tend to distrust speakers who display a lack of dignity. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. Modern pillars of character resemble the ancient civic virtues, characteristics thought to exemplify the excellence of character so important in the early democracy of Greece. a. True b. False

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Chapter 5 ANSWER: a 17. Trustworthiness is a combination of honesty and dependability. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. When speaking persuasively, it is ethical to omit relevant facts that support alternative viewpoints in an effort to bolster one's argument. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. Emotional appeals are a legitimate way for a speaker to bolster an argument. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. The quality of fairness in a speaker refers to their effort to see all sides of an issue and to be open-minded. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. Simply cutting and pasting material from sources into a speech and representing it as one's own is a form of plagiarism. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. Conceptions of what constitutes plagiarism differ by culture. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Any sources that require credit in written form should be acknowledged in oral form. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. Plagiarism does not apply to summarized or paraphrased information. a. True b. False

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Chapter 5 ANSWER: b 25. It is not necessary to acknowledge information that is paraphrased or summarized from a source in a speech—only direct quotations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 26. Paraphrasing alters the form but not the substance of another person's ideas. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 27. Summaries help a speaker condense or distill the essence of a source's information. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. Works that have been copyrighted but have been in circulation for more than 50 years fall into the public domain. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 29. When preparing speeches for the classroom, students must adhere to the same rules of use for copyrighted works as they would for a professional speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 30. If students are using copyrighted words without permission because it falls under the doctrine of fair use, they do not need to acknowledge the source in their speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 31. The study of moral conduct, or how people should act toward one another, is: a. ethics. b. ethnology. c. ethnography. d. ethnicity.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 5 32. The moral obligation to behave correctly and respectfully toward other people is part of each speaker's: a. civic duty. b. ethos. c. responsibility. d. source credibility.

ANSWER: c 33. Which of these is a Greek word meaning "character"? a. logos b. ethos c. pathos d. mythos ANSWER: b 34. Ethos consists of: a. competence, charisma, and candor. b. competence, dramatic ability, and charisma. c. competence, good moral character, and goodwill. d. competence, candor, and good moral character.

ANSWER: c 35. A contemporary term for ethos is: a. source credibility. b. ethics. c. integrity. d. competence.

ANSWER: a 36. Research on source credibility reveals that people place their greatest trust in speakers who: a. have a solid grasp of the subject. b. engage in rules-based ethics. c. paraphrase their sources. d. avoid invective.

ANSWER: a 37. People's most enduring judgments or standards about what is good or bad, important or unimportant are part of their: a. ethics. b. values. c. civic duty. d. source credibility.

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Chapter 5 ANSWER: b 38. The values divide in the United States exists between: a. northern and southern states. b. "red states" and "blue states." c. men and women. d. the college-educated and non-college-educated.

ANSWER: b 39. Which theoretical approach to ethics suggests that speakers should speak on topics that are the most beneficial to the greatest number of people? a. virtue ethics b. rules-based ethics c. situational ethics d. consequentialist ethics ANSWER: d 40. Which theoretical approach to ethics suggests that speakers should be honest and do what is inherently right? a. virtue ethics b. rules-based ethics c. situational ethics d. consequentialist ethics ANSWER: b 41. Which theoretical approach to ethics emphasizes the role of individual moral character? a. virtue ethics b. rules-based ethics c. situational ethics d. consequentialist ethics ANSWER: a 42. The right to be free from unreasonable constraints on expression is called: a. ethics. b. ethnocentrism. c. free speech. d. civic duty.

ANSWER: c 43. Offensive communication directed against people's racial, ethnic, religious, gender, or other characteristics is known as: a. invective.

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Chapter 5 b. ethnocentrism. c. "fighting words." d. hate speech.

ANSWER: d 44. Which type of speech is not protected by the First Amendment? a. "fighting words" b. hate speech c. invective d. plagiarism ANSWER: a 45. Knowing that something is false but saying it anyway is considered: a. slander. b. hate speech. c. freedom of expression. d. reckless disregard for the truth.

ANSWER: d 46. Which speaker quality combines honesty and dependability? a. fairness b. trustworthiness c. respect d. dignity ANSWER: b 47. If a person uses someone else's ideas or words without acknowledging the source, they are: a. committing plagiarism. b. exercising fair use. c. violating copyright. d. violating intellectual property.

ANSWER: a 48. Conceptions about what constitutes plagiarism can sometimes differ by: a. state. b. university. c. speaker. d. culture.

ANSWER: d 49. The basic rule for avoiding plagiarism as a public speaker is:

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Chapter 5 a. cite only sources in which direct quotations are used. b. cite only sources in which information is paraphrased or summarized. c. cite all sources regardless of using direct quotes, paraphrasing, or summarizing. d. cite all sources, including common knowledge information.

ANSWER: c 50. Speakers who repeat someone else's ideas verbatim are: a. quoting directly. b. paraphrasing. c. memorizing. d. summarizing.

ANSWER: a 51. When a speaker restates someone else’s ideas, opinions, or theories in their own words, they are: a. quoting directly. b. paraphrasing. c. memorizing. d. summarizing.

ANSWER: b 52. Which type of oral citation condenses material down to its essence? a. a direct quote b. a paraphrase c. a summary d. memorization ANSWER: c 53. Legal protection afforded original creators of literary and artistic works is called: a. public domain. b. copyright. c. fair use. d. First Amendment rights.

ANSWER: b 54. The doctrine of fair use does which of these? a. protects free speech b. permits limited use of copyrighted works for specific purposes c. grants the speaker a performance license d. allows students to use copyrighted work without attribution ANSWER: b

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Chapter 5 55. Why is ethics important to the speechmaking process?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note (with or without mention of Michael Josephson, the source) there are both practical and moral reasons for being an ethical speaker.

Practically speaking, speakers must establish credibility with listeners before they will accept, or even listen to, a message. Speakers also have a moral obligation to treat their listeners with respect and goodwill.

56. Explain why consideration of an audience's values is central to ethical speaking.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that values shape how individuals see the world and form the basis for how they act and judge others for their actions. Because a person's values are central to who they are, speakers must consider the audience’s values when preparing their speech. No member of an audience wants their values attacked, treated without respect, or simply unacknowledged. Speakers may find it difficult to talk about certain topics if they are controversial or challenge an audience's beliefs. Public speakers who wish to address such controversial topics must acknowledge that audience members will hold a range of values that may differ from their own and plan for these differences. One way to do this is to acknowledge that there are other sides to an issue.

57. Explain which types of speeches are both unethical and illegal and provide examples.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that while the First Amendment offers protection for many forms of offensive speech (e.g., racist, sexist, or ageist slurs, gay bashing, and other forms of negative or hate speech), there are other types of speeches that are not protected by the First Amendment and are therefore considered illegal. These include speeches that incite people to engage in violence; speeches that express blackmail, perjury, child pornography, or obscenity; and speeches that are slanderous and can be proven defamatory.

58. Give an example of a stereotype and explain how stereotyping falls outside of ethical speaking.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that stereotypes occur when we generalize an apparent characteristic of a group and apply that generalization to all its members. Examples of stereotypes may be that Asians are good at math but bad drivers, women are emotional, and men are incompetent caregivers with children. Speakers who make generalizations about others can create indignation and pain for those groups targeted. Making in-group and out-group distinctions can also make listeners feel excluded or victimized. Ethical speakers, by contrast, assume differences in an audience and address them respectfully.

59. How can a speaker display the qualities of dignity and integrity during a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that ethical speech rests on a foundation of dignity and integrity. Dignity refers to bearing and conduct that are respectful to oneself and others.

Integrity signals a speaker's incorruptibility—speakers will avoid compromising the truth for the sake of personal expediency.

60. How can a speaker demonstrate their trustworthiness to the audience?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that trustworthiness is a combination of honesty and dependability. Speakers can demonstrate trustworthiness by supporting their points truthfully and not presenting misleading or false information, manipulating data, or attempting to deceive the audience by misrepresentation, omission, or making up information.

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Chapter 5 61. Define plagiarism and provide an example.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that plagiarism is the use of other people's ideas or words without acknowledging the sources. One example of plagiarism is copying and pasting information from a website directly into the speech outline without giving credit to the source.

62. Provide two real-world examples of when fair use would be appropriate.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the doctrine of fair use permits the limited use of copyrighted works without permission for the purposes of scholarship, criticism, comment, news reporting, teaching, and research. Examples would be using a copyrighted graph found online in a speech or playing a movie clip to illustrate a point in the speech.

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Chapter 6 1. Audience analysis is the process of gathering and analyzing information about listeners with the aim of preparing a speech in ways that will be meaningful to them. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Audience members tend to evaluate information from the speaker's point of view. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. Being audience-centered means compromising one's own convictions and catering to the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Demographics are the psychological characteristics of a given population. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Beliefs consist of an individual's general evaluations of people, ideas, objects, or events. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. People's most enduring judgments about what is good and bad in life are called attitudes. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Attitudes and beliefs are shaped by values. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Speakers should be more careful to stay within their speaking time limit with a captive audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 9. Listeners have a natural desire to identify with the speaker and feel he or she shares their perceptions.

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Chapter 6 a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Audience segmentation is used to identify target audiences with similar characteristics. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. The youngest generation today is called Generation Y, or millennials. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. Age rarely plays a factor in how individuals react to a topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Attempting to determine listeners' ethnic and cultural composition is unethical because it involves stereotyping. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. The term co-culture refers to a social community whose values and style of communicating may or may not mesh with one's own. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Socioeconomic status includes income, occupation, and education. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. Generally, people with higher levels of education tend to be less willing to change their minds. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 17. Gender is a demographic characteristic.

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Chapter 6 a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. Making assumptions about an audience based on their gender can help speakers maintain an audiencecentered approach. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. Thinking of females as nurturers and caregivers is an example of a gender stereotype. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. Keeping persons with disabilities in mind involves consideration of the psychographic factors of an audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. Surveys of several Asian societies showed people value democracy and equal opportunity above all other values. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. The cultural patterns of behavior identified by Hofstede are called value dimensions. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. According to Hofstede, value dimensions reflect a country's dominant culture, not the entire culture. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. Collectivist cultures view personal identity, needs, and desires as secondary to those of the larger group. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 6 25. Cultures with high levels of power distance place greater value on social equality. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 26. In Hofstede's analysis, traditional masculine traits include ambition and assertiveness. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 27. In Hofstede's analysis, the dominant values in the United States rank higher in masculinity than in femininity. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. Uncertainty avoidance refers to the extent to which people in a particular culture feel threatened by ambiguity. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 29. According to Hofstede, China ranks high in long-term time orientation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 30. Cultures that value respect for tradition, preservation of face, and fulfillment of social obligations tend to view time orientation through a short-term point of view. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 31. Speakers can assume that certain values are universally aspired to. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 32. To be most accurate and valuable, audience analysis interviews should be conducted one-on-one and in person. a. True b. False

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Chapter 6 ANSWER: b 33. Surveys may offer a more efficient means of gathering information from a pool of people than do interviews. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 34. Often it takes just a few fixed-alternative and open-ended questions to draw a fairly clear picture of audience members' backgrounds, attitudes, and demographics. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 35. Scale questions are also called sliding scales. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 36. Fixed-alternative questions measure the respondent's level of agreement or disagreement with specific issues. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 37. Published sources can help speakers conduct audience analysis on their particular audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 38. The physical setting in which a speech occurs can have a significant impact on the outcome of a speech, but the size of the audience does not make much of a difference. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 39. The larger the audience, the more likely a speaker is to interact with them. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 40. It is the speaker's prerogative to speak as long or short as he or she likes. a. True

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Chapter 6 b. False ANSWER: b 41. Which perspective can help speakers prepare a presentation that their audience will want to hear? a. speaker-centered b. culture-oriented c. audience-centered d. topic-focused ANSWER: c 42. Which process can help speakers get to know their audience and establish common ground with them? a. audience analysis b. cultural analysis c. self-analysis d. topic analysis ANSWER: a 43. Abandoning one's own convictions to appeal to the audience is known as: a. being audience-centered. b. pandering. c. captivating the audience. d. analyzing the audience.

ANSWER: b 44. Attitudes, beliefs, and values are components of: a. psychographics. b. demographics. c. personality. d. identity.

ANSWER: a 45. General evaluations of people, ideas, objects, or events are part of a person's: a. values. b. goals. c. beliefs. d. attitudes.

ANSWER: d 46. Which of these do people use as guiding principles or standards for their lives? a. beliefs b. attitudes

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Chapter 6 c. goals d. values ANSWER: d 47. Which technique can a speaker use when listeners are negatively disposed toward his or her topic? a. Directly challenge listeners' attitudes about a speech topic. b. Deemphasize efforts to build rapport and speaker credibility. c. Give good reasons for developing a positive attitude toward the topic. d. Tell stories with vivid language that reinforces listeners' attitudes.

ANSWER: c 48. Which technique can help create a sense of audience identification with the speaker? a. mentioning speaker qualifications b. complimenting the audience c. dressing like the audience d. admitting differences ANSWER: c 49. The statistical characteristics of a given population are called: a. psychographics. b. demographics. c. audience analysis. d. target audience.

ANSWER: b 50. What type of audience consists of a social community whose values and style of communicating may differ from the speaker's? a. target b. voluntary c. co-cultural d. captive ANSWER: c 51. Socioeconomic status includes: a. gender, occupation, and religion. b. ethnicity, education, and occupation. c. income, occupation, and education. d. education, gender, and ethnicity.

ANSWER: c 52. Oversimplified and often severely distorted ideas about the innate nature of what it means to be male or

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Chapter 6 female are considered: a. cultural prejudices. b. sexist language. c. gender stereotypes. d. ethnocentrism.

ANSWER: c 53. Collectivist cultures would generally consider which element(s) to be most important? a. personal choices b. group wishes c. individual achievement d. career advancement ANSWER: b 54. According to Geert Hofstede, which type of culture structures life more rigidly and formally for their members? a. low-uncertainty avoidance b. high-uncertainty avoidance c. low-power distance d. high-masculinity ANSWER: b 55. One type of tool a speaker can use to analyze an audience's interests and needs is: a. an interview. b. an outline. c. psychographic analysis. d. a show of hands.

ANSWER: a 56. Which tool used in conducting an audience analysis generally involves live interactions with audience members? a. focus groups b. surveys c. published sources d. interviews ANSWER: d 57. Which audience analysis tool uses a series of open- and closed-ended questions? a. questionnaires b. focus groups c. interviews

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Chapter 6 d. published sources ANSWER: a 58. If a speaker asks survey respondents to respond to questions with a limited choice of answers, such as "Yes" or "No," they are asking what type of question? a. unstructured b. fixed-alternative c. scale d. open-ended ANSWER: b 59. Questions that measure the respondent's level of agreement or disagreement with specific issues are known as: a. fixed-alternative questions. b. open-ended questions. c. unstructured questions. d. scale questions.

ANSWER: d 60. Which types of question on a survey may be either fixed-alternative or scale questions? a. open-ended b. closed-ended c. analytical d. potential ANSWER: b 61. Questions that allow respondents to elaborate as much as they wish are known as: a. closed-ended questions. b. fixed-alternative questions. c. open-ended questions. d. scale questions.

ANSWER: c 62. In an interview, what types of questions are particularly useful for probing beliefs and opinions? a. closed-ended b. fixed-alternative c. scale d. open-ended ANSWER: d 63. Characteristics of the speech setting include the:

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Chapter 6 a. size of the audience. b. clothing the speaker is wearing. c. amount paid to the speaker. d. gender composition of the audience.

ANSWER: a 64. The time and length of the speech as well as the rhetorical situation are all components of the: a. audience psychographics. b. speech setting and context. c. cultural orientation. d. audience demographics.

ANSWER: b 65. The particular circumstance for any speech or presentation being delivered is called the: a. length of the speech. b. rhetorical situation. c. audience analysis. d. audience demographics.

ANSWER: b 66. What is audience analysis?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that audience analysis is the single most critical aspect of preparing for any speech. It includes knowing the listeners' attitudes regarding a topic, what they need and want to know, how their values will influence their response to the presentation, and how much audience members have in common with one another and the speaker.

67. Explain how attitudes, beliefs, and values are interrelated.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that attitudes are general evaluations of people, ideas, objects, or events—what people think is good or bad, useful or useless, or desirable or undesirable. Attitudes are based on beliefs—the way people perceive reality. Both attitudes and beliefs are shaped by values—people's most enduring judgments about what's good in life, as shaped by their culture and unique experiences within it. People have fewer values than attitudes or beliefs, but they are more deeply felt and resistant to change. They tend to have positive attitudes toward their values.

68. Why are audience demographics an important source of information for a speaker?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that knowing the demographic characteristics of an audience will help speakers identify their target audience—those individuals within the broader audience whom they are most likely to influence in the direction they seek. Understanding their demographic characteristics also helps speakers segment the audience by dividing them into smaller groups to identify those with similar characteristics, wants, and needs.

69. Define socioeconomic status, and explain its importance in the process of audience analysis.

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Chapter 6 ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that socioeconomic status includes income, occupation, and education. Knowing where an audience falls in these key variables can be critical in effectively targeting a message. In particular, speakers should be careful not to take for granted what people can afford, such as home ownership. Occupational interests correlate to areas of social concern, such as politics, the economy, education, and social reform. Higher levels of education appear to be associated with greater fluctuation in personal values, beliefs, and goals.

70. Identify two of Hofstede's value dimensions and explain them.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note two of the following dimensions/explanations.

71. What is the difference between collectivist and individualistic cultures?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that in individualistic cultures, people tend to emphasize the needs of the individual rather than those of the group, upholding such values as individual achievement and decision making. In collectivist cultures, personal identity, needs, and desires are viewed as secondary to those of the larger group, and interdependence among people is much greater.

72. Provide two examples of an open-ended interview question.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that open-ended questions allow respondents to elaborate as much as they want and begin with the words "how," "what," "when," "where," or "why," such as "Why do you find genealogy so fascinating?"

73. Why should a speaker spend time becoming familiar with the speech setting before giving a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that understanding and preparing for the speech setting is as important as audience analysis. The speech setting consists of the size of the audience and physical setting, the time and length of the speech, and the rhetorical situation. An online audience, for example, requires unique considerations for speaking that do not exist for faceto-face presentations. Other settings such as a banquet room or auditorium will require accommodations such as a microphone that wouldn't be necessary in a smaller room with a smaller audience.

74. Discuss how the time and length of the speech can affect a speaker's audience.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the time of day when a speech is scheduled will affect listeners' receptivity to it. If the speech is taking place at a meeting where a meal is being served, people will want time to eat and converse with other people in addition to listening to the speaker. Speaking etiquette requires that speakers adhere to the time limit allotted; it is especially important to stay within the time limit if speaking to a captive audience.

75. What is the rhetorical situation, and how does it affect the audience's reception of a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the rhetorical situation is the particular circumstance, or reason, for the speech. It includes other contextual variables, such as where a speaker falls in a speaking order, whether listeners are captive or there by choice, and anything happening outside the speaking setting that may be preoccupying the audience.

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Chapter 7 1. Knowing what constraints exist before beginning a speech can help speakers choose appropriate topics. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Speakers are usually given time constraints for a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. As long as the topic interests an audience, it is not important that it interests the speaker. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Current events are generally considered boring choices for speech topics. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Speaking about grassroots issues provides opportunities to engage with the community. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. A common topic, such as the health risks of smoking, is a good choice for a speech because it touches upon a subject the audience is likely familiar with. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Brainstorming is a process involving the spontaneous generation of ideas. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Brainstorming by word association involves placing a potential topic in the middle of a piece of paper, drawing a circle around it, and writing related ideas branching from the central topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 9. Topic (mind) mapping is a form of brainstorming that lays out words in diagram form. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Internet tools, such as popular search engines, should not be used when brainstorming a topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. General search engines (Yahoo, Google) can reveal the same level of results that a scholastic database, such as Academic OneFile, can. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. Using a school's library portal to generate topic ideas can help guarantee that speakers are finding credible sources. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. The three general speech purposes are to inform, to persuade, and to mark a special occasion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. The general purpose of a speech is often suggested by the occasion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. A speech that defines, describes, explains, or demonstrates is persuasive in nature. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. The speaker should present his or her informative speech with the goal of giving the audience something new to expand their understanding and awareness of the topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 17. The general purpose of a persuasive speech is to effect some degree of change in the audience's attitudes, beliefs, or specific behaviors. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. Issues on which there are competing perspectives are generally most appropriate for persuasive speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Special occasion speeches sometimes have secondary specific purposes to inform or to persuade. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. A eulogy is a type of special occasion speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. To narrow a speech topic, speakers need to consider delivery time constraints, audience adaptation, and the nature of the occasion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. When narrowing a topic for an informative speech, the speaker should try to gauge how much the audience already knows about it. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. The specific speech purpose lays out precisely what outcome a speaker wants to achieve with the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. The thesis statement is the theme or central idea of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 25. A well-written thesis statement aids the speaker in developing a coherent, understandable arrangement of information. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 26. The specific speech purpose is the same thing as the thesis statement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. When crafting a speech, it is a good idea to create the main points and supporting material first and then work on the thesis statement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 28. What is the first task in preparing any speech? a. choose the audience b. write a specific purpose c. select a topic d. compose a thesis statement ANSWER: c 29. Speech topic choices should always be guided by: a. current events that are considered "hot-button" issues. b. what will most likely persuade an audience. c. common issues that are familiar to the audience. d. what a speaker can competently speak about.

ANSWER: d 30. Which speech topic would be a good choice to give to a young college audience? a. legalizing marijuana b. drunk driving c. racial issues d. changing a tire ANSWER: c 31. Speakers should avoid talking about which types of topics? a. current events b. controversial issues c. trivial or common issues

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Chapter 7 d. spiritual or political matters ANSWER: c 32. Which action is likely to help speakers generate topic ideas? a. brainstorming b. free-association c. problem-solving d. deliberating ANSWER: a 33. What brainstorming technique can quickly help speakers to generate and then narrow down topic ideas? a. talking to friends b. browsing the Internet c. reading books d. consulting librarians ANSWER: b 34. Topic mapping is part of: a. speech organization. b. speech delivery. c. critical-thinking. d. brainstorming.

ANSWER: d 35. Which brainstorming technique involves writing down a topic and then jotting down the first thing that comes to mind when thinking about that topic? a. mind association b. topic mapping c. word association d. mind dumping ANSWER: c 36. "To inform" is an example of a: a. general purpose statement. b. specific purpose statement. c. thesis statement. d. topic idea.

ANSWER: a 37. Which type of speech's purpose is to increase the audience's understanding and awareness of a topic? a. commemorative

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Chapter 7 b. persuasive c. informative d. motivational ANSWER: c 38. Which type of speech defines, describes, explains, or demonstrates something? a. commemorative b. persuasive c. motivational d. informative ANSWER: d 39. Which type of speech has as its purpose to effect some degree of change in the audience's attitudes, beliefs, or specific behaviors? a. commemorative b. persuasive c. motivational d. informative ANSWER: b 40. A persuasive speech topic is most suitable when: a. there are competing perspectives. b. the issue discussed has little controversy. c. the audience is highly informed on the topic. d. the audience already agrees with the speaker.

ANSWER: a 41. What would the general purpose be for a speaker who wishes to convince their audience to eat only organic foods? a. to inform b. to inspire c. to educate d. to persuade ANSWER: d 42. One example of a special occasion speech is: a. a lecture in an art museum. b. a roast. c. a speech on the floor of the U.S. Senate. d. a sales training session.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 43. A speech of acceptance is a type of: a. informative speech. b. special occasion speech. c. persuasive speech. d. demonstrative speech.

ANSWER: b 44. When narrowing a topic, the speaker should consider the: a. time constraints. b. physical setting of the speech. c. size of the audience. d. psychographics of the audience.

ANSWER: a 45. Which of these lays out precisely what the speaker wants the audience to get from the speech? a. general speech purpose b. rhetorical situation c. specific speech purpose d. thesis statement ANSWER: c 46. "To persuade my audience to eat more eggs" is an example of a: a. general purpose statement. b. specific purpose statement. c. thesis statement. d. topic idea.

ANSWER: b 47. Which speech purpose describes in action form what outcome the speaker wants to achieve with the speech? a. general b. initial c. specific d. ethical ANSWER: c 48. A complete, concise, declarative sentence that succinctly identifies what the speech is about is called the: a. general purpose statement. b. specific purpose statement. c. thesis statement. d. rhetorical situation.

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Chapter 7 ANSWER: c 49. "Scientists have discovered a new kind of stem cell that could lead to advances in regenerative medicine and the study of birth defects and reproductive problems" is an example of a: a. topic statement. b. thesis statement. c. general purpose statement. d. specific purpose statement.

ANSWER: b 50. Which type of statement is considered the theme or central idea of the speech? a. topic b. specific purpose c. general purpose d. thesis ANSWER: d 51. A quality thesis statement should be restricted to: a. two to three main points. b. a single idea. c. a paragraph. d. a summary of the main ideas.

ANSWER: b 52. Give an example of at least two speech topics that would be appropriate to a college audience. Explain why these topics would be appropriate.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note two topics of interest to college students.

Examples might include student-loan debt repayment or healthy eating. Appropriate topics are those that are relevant and of interest to the target audience. Topics may include current events, controversial topics, and grassroots issues but should steer clear of overused and trivial topics.

53. Identify two current events or controversial issues appropriate for a classroom speech and explain why these topics would be appropriate.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note two current events or controversial issues in the news at that juncture in the class's progress. Examples might include immigration laws, racial tensions in the United States, and getting vaccinated against COVID-19. Appropriate topics are those that are relevant and of interest to the target audience and that steer clear of overused and trivial issues.

54. How can speaking about grassroots issues provide a speaker with opportunities to engage with the community?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that speakers would have to engage with the community to research a speech on grassroots issues. Ideally, speakers would be engaging with their

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Chapter 7 community when they spoke about this issue, which presumably affects all of the audience members personally.

55. Compare and contrast the brainstorming techniques of word association and topic mapping.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that word association involves writing down lists of words that come to mind related to an initial topic. Topic (mind) mapping lays out words in diagram form to show categorical relationships among them. Speakers put a potential topic in the middle of a piece of paper and draw a circle around it. As related words come to them, they write them down. In both techniques, speakers free-associate words and write them down until an idea appeals to them that would also appeal to their audience.

56. How can students use Internet tools to brainstorm and narrow potential speech topics?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the databases available on a school library's portal can be very helpful when brainstorming topics. Internet search engines are also helpful. To narrow a speech topic to something fresh, students might consider consulting Google Trends or Facebook or Twitter Trends to see what people are talking and reading about online.

57. Explain the major differences between informative and persuasive speech purposes.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that an informative speech aims to increase the audience's understanding and awareness of a topic by defining, describing, explaining, or demonstrating the speaker's knowledge of the subject. A persuasive speech goes beyond informing and educating the audience to attempt to effect some degree of change in the audience's attitudes, beliefs, or even specific behaviors.

58. List three topics suitable for a persuasive speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that persuasive speeches go beyond informing and educating the audience to attempting to effect some degree of change in the audience's attitudes, beliefs, or even specific behaviors. Good topics are those in which there are competing perspectives, such as immigration record, gun control, and affirmative action.

59. List three types of special occasion speeches.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the special occasion speech serves the general purpose of entertaining, celebrating, commemorating, inspiring, or setting a social agenda.

Answers should list three of the following types of special occasion speeches: speeches of introduction, acceptance, and presentation; roasts and toasts; eulogies; and after-dinner speeches.

60. Discuss at least two things to consider when narrowing and refining a speech topic.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that when narrowing a speech topic, speakers should tailor their speech topic to their audience and the speech occasion. Given the same broad topic, speakers can narrow differently based on different audiences and occasions. For example, students should consider time constraints, what their audience knows about the topic, and what aspects of a topic are most relevant to their audience.

61. How does the general speech purpose differ from the specific speech purpose?

ANSWER: The general purpose of a speech is usually driven by the occasion. If a speaker is giving a speech of tribute, its general purpose will be a special occasion purpose: To pay tribute. If a speaker is there to

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Chapter 7 teach people something, the general purpose will be "To Inform." If a speaker is there to convince people to change their attitudes, beliefs, or behaviors, the general purpose would be "To persuade."

A special purpose statement builds on the general purpose and completes the thought. For example, a specific purpose statement for a tribute speech might be "To pay tribute to my Aunt Essie on the occasion of her 80th birthday."

62. Choose a speech topic. Then write (A) a general speech purpose, (B) a specific speech purpose, and (C) a thesis statement.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note something similar to this: (A) To inform, (B) To inform my audience how service dogs are trained, and (C) Service dogs go through long and rigorous training to become the valued companions people rely on.

63. How can a speaker make a thesis statement relevant to, and motivating for, the audience?

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that adding a few key words or phrases can help to create a relevant thesis. An informative thesis might be prefaced with "Few of us know" or "Contrary to popular belief." A persuasive thesis might begin with "As informed members of the community" or "As concerned adults."

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Chapter 8 1. Supporting material is defined as facts and statistics presented by the speaker. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. In any given speech, speakers should choose one appropriate type of supporting material and stick with it for consistency. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. If a source is reputable, it will be appropriate for any audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. A quotation can be an example. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. Examples in a speech can be brief, extended, factual, or hypothetical. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. In a speech that explores the possible negative consequences of a piece of proposed legislation, a speaker might use a hypothetical example. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Narratives tell tales that are either real or imaginary. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Brief stories of interesting, often humorous, incidents based on real life are called biographies. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 8 9. Testimony comprises firsthand findings, eyewitness accounts, and opinions. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. A description of the experience of 9/11 by a person who was present in New York City that day would be considered lay testimony. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Most people require some type of evidence before they will accept a speaker's position or claims. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. Statistics are quantified evidence that summarize, compare, and predict things. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. A frequency is the quantified portion of a whole. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. The mean, median, and mode are all types of averages. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. The median is the most frequently occurring score in a distribution. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. A source is likely to be more credible if it includes information about the methods used to generate the data, such as how and why the data were collected. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 8 17. When a speaker selectively presents only those statistics that buttress his or her point of view while ignoring competing data, he or she is cherry-picking. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. Which is true of supporting material? a. It must come from experts to be credible. b. It should be varied and alternate among different types. c. It is credible only if it contains facts and statistics. d. It should avoid use of personal anecdotes.

ANSWER: b 19. Listeners are more likely to respond favorably to a message when a speaker: a. interjects humor into their speech. b. relies on expert testimony. c. sticks with one type of supporting material. d. uses a variety of supporting materials.

ANSWER: d 20. Which type of supporting material aids understanding by making ideas, items, or events more concrete? a. testimony b. statistics c. examples d. narratives ANSWER: c 21. When speaking about the case for vegetarianism, Callie gives several examples of protein-rich foods vegetarians can eat, including nut butters, quinoa, and beans. Callie's examples are: a. brief and factual. b. brief and hypothetical. c. extended and factual. d. extended and hypothetical.

ANSWER: a 22. Which type of example offers a multifaceted illustration of an idea, item, or event? a. brief b. extended c. factual d. hypothetical ANSWER: b

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Chapter 8 23. Which type of example essentially asks, "What if?" a. hypothetical b. extended c. factual d. brief ANSWER: a 24. Which type of example is effective for making a point about something that could happen in the future? a. brief b. extended c. factual d. hypothetical ANSWER: d 25. What is another word for a story? a. testimony b. narrative c. example d. myth ANSWER: b 26. Which type of supporting material is used in the telling of a real or imaginary chain of events? a. extended examples b. narrative c. facts and statistics d. testimony ANSWER: b 27. Legends, fairy tales, myths, and other stories are considered to be: a. perspectives. b. narratives. c. testimonies. d. statistics.

ANSWER: b 28. Characters (or protagonists), challenges, and resolutions are all essential to: a. contextual examples. b. extended examples. c. storytelling. d. expert testimony.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 8 29. Brief stories of interesting, often humorous, incidents based on real life are called: a. facts. b. testimony. c. statistics. d. anecdotes.

ANSWER: d 30. Which type of supporting evidence is often used to deliver some type of moral lesson? a. anecdotes b. lay testimony c. expert testimony d. hypothetical examples ANSWER: a 31. Firsthand findings, eyewitness accounts, and opinions are called: a. anecdotes. b. narratives. c. extended examples. d. testimony.

ANSWER: d 32. Which type of testimony includes findings, eyewitness accounts, or opinions by professionals who are trained to evaluate a particular topic? a. factual b. lay c. expert d. evidence-based ANSWER: c 33. Which type of testimony is given by nonexperts? a. hypothetical b. lay c. expert d. anecdotal ANSWER: b 34. If a medical doctor provides cutting-edge information on the threat of cholesterol, they are providing which type of supporting material? a. anecdotal evidence b. lay testimony

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Chapter 8 c. expert testimony d. statistics ANSWER: c 35. Marco is looking for supporting material that will communicate the tragedy of the 2016 Orlando Pulse nightclub shooting. What type of supporting material would do this best? a. frequency statistics b. an anecdote c. lay testimony d. a hypothetical example ANSWER: c 36. Which type of supporting material consists of actual events, dates, times, people, and places? a. examples b. facts c. statistics d. testimony ANSWER: b 37. What type of supporting material consists of quantified evidence that summarizes, compares, and predicts things? a. examples b. statistics c. narratives d. testimony ANSWER: b 38. A count of the number of times something occurs is called the: a. frequency. b. mean. c. mode. d. percentage.

ANSWER: a 39. The quantified portion of a whole is called the: a. frequency. b. mean. c. mode. d. percentage.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 40. Which type of average provides the center-most number in a distribution? a. mean b. mode c. median d. arithmetic ANSWER: c 41. The arithmetic (or computed) average is called the: a. mean. b. median. c. mode. d. percentage.

ANSWER: a 42. The most frequently occurring score in a distribution is called the: a. mean. b. median. c. center. d. mode.

ANSWER: d 43. Serena is looking for supporting material that would prove the extent of the sex trafficking problem in the United States. What type of supporting material would do this best? a. brief examples b. statistics c. a story d. lay testimony ANSWER: b 44. Bennett is researching his informative speech on the health benefits of honey. What type of supporting material would work best for him? a. facts b. statistics c. hypothetical stories d. lay testimony ANSWER: a 45. Describe the functions of supporting material.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that supporting material engages the audience in the speaker's topic, illustrates and elaborates upon their ideas, and provides evidence for their arguments.

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Chapter 8 46. Describe the four types of examples speakers can use in a speech.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that examples may be brief (a single illustration) or extended (a detailed illustration of an idea, item, or event), factual (they cover events that actually happened) or hypothetical (they provide an account of events that did not happen, but could happen).

47. Why is a narrative such a powerful and compelling type of supporting material?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that people are drawn to stories, as they help them make sense of their experiences by telling tales, both real and imaginary, about practically anything.

Some experts believe there is a close relationship between stories and the way people organize their thinking.

48. What is the difference between expert testimony and lay testimony?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that expert and lay testimony both have their place in supporting material. Expert testimony includes findings, eyewitness accounts, or opinions by professionals trained to evaluate a given topic. Lay testimony is given by nonexperts such as eyewitnesses and can reveal compelling firsthand information that may be unavailable to others.

49. Describe the three types of averages.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the mean is the arithmetic average most are familiar with. It adds the numbers and divides by the number of numbers. The median is the number above and below which 50 percent of the other numbers fall. The mode is the exact center point of the range of numbers.

50. Explain the three ways speakers can ethically present statistics.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note three of the following ways to ethically present statistics: (1) Use only reliable statistics—use statistics from the most authoritative sources available, and evaluate the methods used to generate the data. (2) Present statistics in context. Do not cherry-pick. (3) Avoid confusing statistics with "absolute truth." Data change, and statistics are no more accurate than the human who collected them. (4) Orally refer to the source. Give enough information to accurately interpret the context. (5) Use visual aids to help audience members process the information.

51. What is cherry-picking, and why should speakers avoid it?

ANSWER: Cherry-picking is the unethical practice of presenting only statistics that prove the speaker's point while failing to provide context or contradictory statistics. Speakers should always go to the most authoritative source and present all of the statistics that are relevant to their claim, whether the sources support their claim or not.

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Chapter 9 1. Classical rhetoricians termed the process of selecting material that best conveys and supports a speech's message invention. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Relying exclusively on general search engines such as Google for research can present a host of potential problems. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. The databases and other resources found on a college's library website are part of the deep web. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. When students select material from their college library's online resources, they can be assured that an information specialist has vetted that source for reliability and credibility. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. Almanacs and fact books can be found on library portals. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Data makes sense of information. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Data can be used as propaganda. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Propaganda is based on false information. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 9. The term misinformation refers to the deliberate falsification of information. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Primary sources provide firsthand accounts or direct evidence of events. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Secondary sources provide analysis or commentary about phenomena produced by others. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. A speaker's own knowledge and experience is not valid as a source of support. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Government resources, such as usa.gov, almost always draw from highly credible primary sources. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Digital collections are primary sources that include oral histories, photographs, and audio recordings. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Interviews and surveys are primary sources. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. A speaker can gain considerably more insight into a topic by conducting an interview with an expert. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. In an interview, students should avoid posing questions that encourage a particular response. a. True

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Chapter 9 b. False ANSWER: a 18. After the interview, students should offer to send the interviewee the results of the interview. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Video and audio files of speeches found online can be useful as models of speeches, but not as primary source material. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. Like interviews, surveys are useful tools for investigating audience attitudes. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. Informal surveys are unlikely to be statistically sound enough to be taken as proof of a speaker's claims. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. One way to avoid inaccurately representing the interviewee's responses is to record the interview. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Reference materials, such as encyclopedias and Wikipedia, are secondary sources. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. Encyclopedias, almanacs, and atlases are examples of reference works. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 25. The Encyclopedia Britannica is an example of a specialized encyclopedia. a. True b. False

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Chapter 9 ANSWER: b 26. There is nothing credible to be gained from Wikipedia, as it is written collaboratively and anonymously by anyone who wishes to contribute to it. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. Books are a type of secondary source that usually explore topics in depth. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. A regularly published magazine or journal is a secondary source called a periodical. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 29. Biographical resources are secondary sources that contain information about famous or noteworthy people. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 30. Books of quotations and poetry collections are not examples of reference works. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 31. Peer-reviewed journals are appropriate sources for academic research, but popular journals and generalinterest magazines such as Time and Newsweek are not. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 32. To assess the credibility of a website, the speaker should check out who has published it and determine whether that person or organization is reputable. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 33. An electronic entry point into the holdings of a school's or town's e-resources is called a library: a. collection.

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Chapter 9 b. engine. c. portal. d. database.

ANSWER: c 34. Library portals give students access to: a. the school's librarians. b. popular search engines. c. digital collections. d. corporate websites.

ANSWER: c 35. The portion of the web that general search engines often fail to find is referred to as the: a. dark web. b. underground web. c. deep web. d. closed web.

ANSWER: c 36. An example of data is: a. the number of homicides in a particular city. b. a medical diagnosis of cancer. c. the odds that a certain horse will win a race. d. a weather forecaster's predictions.

ANSWER: a 37. Information presented in such a way as to provoke a specific response is called: a. disinformation. b. fabrication. c. propaganda. d. misinformation.

ANSWER: c 38. Information that simply isn't true is called: a. disinformation. b. fabrication. c. propaganda. d. misinformation.

ANSWER: d 39. What term refers to the deliberate falsification of information?

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Chapter 9 a. information b. misinformation c. propaganda d. disinformation ANSWER: d 40. An urban legend is an example of: a. information. b. misinformation. c. propaganda. d. disinformation.

ANSWER: b 41. Which type of sources provides firsthand accounts or direct evidence of events? a. expert b. secondary c. tertiary d. primary ANSWER: d 42. Which type of sources provides analysis or commentary about phenomena produced by others? a. expert b. secondary c. tertiary d. primary ANSWER: b 43. Eyewitness testimony, diary entries, interviews, and surveys are examples of which type of source? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. expert ANSWER: a 44. A website maintained by individuals or groups containing journal-type entries is called a(n): a. social news site. b. almanac. c. biographical resource. d. blog.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 9 45. Blogs can be a good resource for finding information about: a. biographical details. b. historical data. c. new trends or unfolding events. d. governmental statistics.

ANSWER: c 46. When conducting interviews, students should aim to create which types of questions? a. abstract b. leading c. loaded d. neutral ANSWER: d 47. Effective interview questions are those that: a. reinforce the interviewer's agenda. b. are spontaneous and unplanned. c. avoid forcing a desired response. d. are closed-ended and to the point.

ANSWER: c 48. Which types of questions encourage or force a particular response from the interviewee? a. abstract b. leading c. loaded d. neutral ANSWER: b 49. Questions that avoid leading the interviewee to a desired response are known as: a. neutral. b. vague. c. loaded. d. closed.

ANSWER: a 50. Interview questions that are phrased to reinforce the interviewer's agenda are known as: a. neutral. b. vague. c. loaded. d. closed.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 9 51. What should the interviewer do at the end of the interview? a. offer a brief, positive summary of the interview b. provide a rebuttal for information that was incorrect c. inform the interviewee of their own point of view d. ask the interviewee how the interview went ANSWER: a 52. Surveys are an especially effective source of support for topics related to the attitudes, values, and beliefs of the people: a. who know the speaker personally. b. who share a speaker's beliefs. c. in a speaker's own culture. d. in a speaker's immediate environment.

ANSWER: d 53. Which is considered a type of secondary source? a. interview b. encyclopedia c. survey d. blog ANSWER: b 54. A regularly published magazine or journal is called a(n): a. annual. b. yearbook. c. periodical. d. guide.

ANSWER: c 55. Which type of reference work summarizes knowledge that is found in original form elsewhere? a. encyclopedias b. almanacs c. biographical resources d. poetry collections ANSWER: a 56. Which type of encyclopedias delves deeply into one subject area? a. general b. specialized c. condensed

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Chapter 9 d. academic ANSWER: b 57. Which type of encyclopedias attempts to cover all important subject areas of knowledge? a. general b. specialized c. condensed d. academic ANSWER: a 58. A secondary source that contains information about famous or noteworthy people is considered which type of resource? a. periodical b. almanac c. government publication d. biographical resource ANSWER: d 59. How can students use Wikipedia effectively? a. Students should use it only as a starting-off point for further research. b. Students should treat it as a reliable source of information. c. Students should use it only when other sources are not available. d. Wikipedia is not an effective source for creating speeches.

ANSWER: a 60. A collection of links to subject-specific article databases, reference works, websites, and other resources for a particular subject available to library users is called a: a. specialized almanac. b. subject guide. c. help guide. d. library portal.

ANSWER: b 61. Subject guides are compiled by: a. in-house librarians. b. subject matter experts. c. contributors to encyclopedias. d. the U.S. government.

ANSWER: a 62. What yields the MOST satisfactory results when searching in a library catalog or database?

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Chapter 9 a. key word searches b. subject heading searches c. subject guide search d. advanced searches ANSWER: b 63. Why is it important for students to assess their research needs before beginning their search?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that once students have determined their thesis statement and specific speech purpose, they will need to consider which supporting material will support their arguments. Students should consider what they need to elaborate upon, explain, demonstrate, or prove and what mix of evidence—personal knowledge, examples, stories, statistics, and testimony—will help them accomplish it.

64. What is the difference between propaganda and disinformation, and why are both considered unethical?

ANSWER: Disinformation is intentionally misleading and deceptive information. Propaganda may or may not be incorrect; it is designed to elicit a certain response from the audience—primarily according to an ideological, political, or commercial perspective of the source. Ethical speeches are based on sound information, unlike propaganda, misinformation, and disinformation.

65. Explain the difference between primary and secondary sources.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that primary sources are firsthand accounts. They may be someone's own personal experience, letters, diaries, old newspapers, photographs, government documents and data, blogs, or interviews or surveys a person conducts themselves.

Secondary sources provide an analysis or commentary about things not directly observed or created and may include books, periodicals, and other reference works.

66. Describe a speech in which a citation from a government publication would be useful.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that any speech that needs a statistic about anything having to do with the United States or information on legislation, health, and the environment can find them through government sources, such as www.usa.gov. Speech topics that would benefit from accessing governmental publications may include speeches on poverty or homelessness in the United States, climate change, and health care access for rural populations.

67. What is a blog, and how might students use blogs as a speech source?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that blogs are sites containing journal-type entries maintained by individuals or groups. They can offer compelling sources of information of unfolding events and new trends and ideas if the source is reputable.

68. Describe a situation in which surveys and interviews would make effective research tools for public speakers.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that surveys and interviews are the only way to find out the attitudes, values, and beliefs of a particular audience. They are useful any time a general survey or poll with a broad-based sample does not give specific enough information. For example, interviews and surveys could give speakers valuable information on their audience's view of a local problem or legislative initiative.

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Chapter 9 69. Give an example of a leading interview question.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note an example of a question that encourages, if not forces, a certain response and reflects the interviewer's bias: "Wouldn't you agree that candidate X would be a disastrous choice for our state?"

70. Give an example of a loaded interview question.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note an example of a question that is phrased to reinforce the interviewer's agenda or has a hostile intent: "Haven't you been accused of falsehoods in your previous interviews on this subject?"

71. Provide three tips for how an interviewer can get off to a good start at the beginning of an interview.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note three of the following: When beginning an interview, interviewers should (1) acknowledge the interviewee and express respect for his or her expertise, (2) briefly summarize the topic and informational needs, (3) state a (reasonable) goal of what they (the interviewer) would like to accomplish and reach agreement on, and (4) establish a time limit for the interview and stick to it.

72. When preparing a speech, why might encyclopedias be valuable as supporting material?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that encyclopedias are useful for providing an overview of subjects and highlighting important terms, people, and concepts on which to build a search. There are two types of encyclopedias that can be used: general encyclopedias—which attempt to cover all important subject areas of knowledge—and specialized encyclopedias—which provide a more in-depth exploration of one subject area, such as religion, science, art, and sports.

73. Explain how students can effectively use Wikipedia when conducting online research.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that while Wikipedia, the world's largest experimental free encyclopedia, offers instant access to a vast array of information, it may or may not be accurate at any given moment. Students can effectively use Wikipedia as a starting-off point for further research. In the process, students should be careful to follow the links provided and carefully evaluate the information for trustworthiness. They should also make sure to compare the information in the article to credible sources. Finally, students should avoid citing Wikipedia—or any encyclopedia entry—as a source to their audience members.

74. What are three things students should consider when critically evaluating their web sources?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note three of the following: When critically evaluating web sources, students should (1) check the most authoritative websites first, (2) evaluate authorship and sponsorship, (3) check for currency, and (4) check that the site credits trustworthy sources.

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Chapter 10 1. Audiences are most persuaded by speakers who support their positions with trustworthy sources. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. One reason a speaker should credit sources is so that listeners are able to locate the sources and pursue their own research on the topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Crediting sources can help a speaker gain the trust of their audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. Oral citations should include the same information a speaker would include in a written document, such as a research paper. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Speakers should wait until the end of the speech to disclose any sources used. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. Speakers should alert the audience to the date for each source. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. When orally citing sources, speakers don't need to include a complete bibliographic reference. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Speakers need not credit sources for ideas that are common knowledge. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10 9. Presenting source citations in a rhetorically effective manner means that speakers should present them in a way that will encourage audience members to agree with them. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Source reliability refers to a listener's level of trust in a source's credentials and its track record for providing accurate information. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. Even the most credible sources are sometimes inaccurate or wrong. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. It is especially advisable to offer a variety of sources, rather than a single source, to support a major point if a claim is controversial. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. Brief descriptions of the source's qualifications to address a topic are called credential qualifiers. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. A source qualifier can help demonstrate a source's trustworthiness. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. A source qualifier is not required when a speaker offers their own insights or experience, since they would not be listed as a source in their own bibliography. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Speakers should find a preferred introductory phrase for oral citations and stick with it. a. True b. False

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: b 17. Source citations can be stated before or after a direct quotation, summary, or paraphrased information. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. A source would not need to be cited for a hypothetical example found in a book. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. When orally citing from a print article, speakers should use the same guidelines as they do for a book. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. Presentation aids require no citations unless they contain copyrighted material. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. Speakers must include a copyright symbol (©) and source information if they reproduce copyrighted material, such as a table or photograph, on their presentation aid. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. Statistics are powerful tools for claims which speak for themselves and do not need source citations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 23. When a speaker doesn't have enough time allotted to directly quote information from a source, they can save time by paraphrasing it. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. A brief overview of someone else's ideas, opinions, or theories is a paraphrase. a. True b. False

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: b 25. Which is a benefit of citing sources? a. It proves that a speaker is serious about the topic. b. It increases the odds that an audience will listen. c. It enhances a speaker's own authority and credibility. d. It proves a speaker's points are true and accurate.

ANSWER: c 26. Which term refers to crediting the source of speech material that is derived from other people's ideas? a. source qualifier b. oral citation c. common knowledge d. source credibility ANSWER: b 27. Which statement should be included in a spoken citation? a. exact titles of the source b. the page numbers of the source c. the date of the source d. full names of all authors ANSWER: c 28. Information that is well known and widely disseminated is called: a. fair use. b. factual data. c. public domain. d. common knowledge.

ANSWER: d 29. Speakers need not credit sources for ideas that are: a. published in periodicals. b. common knowledge. c. shown on presentation aids. d. posted on a blog.

ANSWER: b 30. Which term refers to a listener's level of trust in a source's credentials and track record for providing accurate information? a. source credibility b. source qualifier

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Chapter 10 c. source accuracy d. source consistency ANSWER: a 31. Which statement is true regarding source credibility? a. Credible sources can sometimes be inaccurate. b. Speakers should cite only single sources when they are credible. c. Controversial topics are best supported by single, reputable sources. d. Speakers do not need to use oral citations for reputable sources.

ANSWER: a 32. When a topic is controversial, a speaker should: a. cite a single, reputable source. b. draw on their own personal testimony. c. offer a variety of credible sources. d. rely on expert testimony.

ANSWER: c 33. A brief description of a source's qualifications is called a source: a. qualifier. b. credibility. c. accuracy. d. consistency.

ANSWER: a 34. Which is true of a source qualifier? a. It is not required when the speaker is the source. b. It cannot demonstrate a source's trustworthiness. c. It is useful in establishing a source's ethos. d. It often interrupts the flow of a presentation.

ANSWER: c 35. The phrase "Pulitzer Prize–winning author" is: a. a bibliographic reference. b. common knowledge. c. an oral citation. d. a source qualifier.

ANSWER: d 36. To avoid mechanical delivery of speech sources, speakers should: a. use consistent wording for all citations.

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Chapter 10 b. avoid previewing their sources. c. alternate introductory phrases. d. identify the source first.

ANSWER: c 37. Read the following oral citation and identify what type of source it refers to: "On June 6, 2013 . . . before the U.S. Senate Foreign Relations Committee, Robert O. Blake Jr., Assistant Secretary, Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs, revealed that labor conditions in Bangladesh . . ." a. a book b. a periodical c. a personal interview d. a testimony ANSWER: d 38. Which type of information can add credibility to speech claims and make a speaker's arguments more persuasive? a. personal opinions b. statistics c. summaries d. direct quotes ANSWER: b 39. Information that is not the speaker's own may be cited in the form of a summary, direct quotation, or: a. qualifier. b. paraphrase. c. abstract. d. review.

ANSWER: b 40. A brief overview of someone else's ideas, opinions, or theories is called a(n): a. direct quotation. b. paraphrase. c. opinion. d. summary.

ANSWER: d 41. A restatement of someone else's ideas, opinions, or theories in the speaker's own words is called a(n): a. direct quotation. b. paraphrase. c. opinion. d. summary.

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: b 42. What are three things speakers accomplish when they credit speech sources?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note three of the following: Crediting speech sources (1) increases the odds that audience members will believe in a speaker's message, (2) demonstrates the quality and range of the speaker's research, (3) demonstrates that reliable sources support the speaker's position, (4) avoids plagiarism and helps speakers gain credibility as ethical speakers who acknowledge the work of others while enhancing their own authority, and (5) enables listeners to locate the sources and pursue their own research on the topic.

43. Discuss the ethical implications of neglecting to cite speech sources.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that plagiarism is unethical, and neglecting to cite speech sources constitutes plagiarism. Plagiarism is a serious infraction that can result in a variety of negative consequences for students and for others who engage in it outside the academic arena.

44. What is an oral citation, and when should speakers cite their sources?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that oral citations alert the audience to the sources of material that comes from those other than the speaker. Sources should be cited along with the material to which they correspond—not merely at the end of the speech.

45. Which four bibliographic components should a speaker present for each source?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that even though the components required for different types of sources vary slightly, the following four components should be included if they are available: (1) the author or origin of the source, (2) the type of source, (3) the title or description of the source, and (4) the date of the source.

46. How can a speaker establish the source's trustworthiness?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that a simple and straightforward way to demonstrate a source's trustworthiness is to include a source qualifier—a brief description of the source's qualifications to address the topic. This usually constitutes a brief mention of the source's relevant affiliations and credentials.

47. Why should speakers use a variety of sources, rather than a single source?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that even the most credible sources can be wrong.

Supporting claims with more than one source is wise, especially with controversial major claims.

48. What is a source qualifier?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that source qualifiers mention the source's relevant affiliations and credential to demonstrate the source's trustworthiness and credibility. An example of a source qualifier is "Nobel Peace Prize Winner" or "Researcher of Harvard's Berkman Center for Internet & Society."

49. How can speakers deliver speech sources without disrupting the flow of the speech?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that speakers can avoid disrupting the flow of the speech by (1) varying the wording of their introductions to source citations by finding alternatives to "According to. . ." and (2) varying the order of the source citation, sometimes putting it before the

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Chapter 10 findings and other times putting it after.

50. Give an example of how a speaker might cite a book source.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that if a book has two or fewer authors, speakers should state the first and last name(s) of the author(s), the title, and the date of publication. If a book has three or more authors, speakers should state the first and last name of the first author and coauthors, along with the title and date of publication. For example, "In the book Man's Search for Meaning, published in 1946, Viktor Frankl, a Holocaust survivor, notes that…"

51. Give an example of how a speaker might cite an interview.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should cite the name of the person and the date of the interview. For example, "In an interview I conducted on February 1, 2021, with Todd Smith, a researcher at St. Jude's Hospital, I discovered that…"

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Chapter 11 1. A speech is composed of three general parts: an introduction, a body, and a conclusion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. The introduction of a speech tells listeners where the speaker is taking them. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. The introduction of a speech establishes the speech purpose and shows its relevance to the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. The body of a speech presents main points that are intended to fulfill the speech purpose. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. A well-organized speech is more understandable, more believable, and more trustworthy. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Even a little bit of disorganization can ruin a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Main points express the key ideas and major themes of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. The thesis statement expresses the goal of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 9. Research has shown that audiences can comfortably take in up to nine main points. a. True

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Chapter 11 b. False ANSWER: b 10. The fewer main points in a speech, the greater the odds that a speaker will keep their listeners' attention. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Listeners have better recall of the main points made at the beginning and at the end of a speech than of those made in between. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. A main point should not introduce more than one idea. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. If a main point contains more than one idea, speakers should eliminate one. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. Each main point should be expressed as an interrogative sentence. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. Presenting each main point as a declarative sentence can alert audience members to the main thrusts of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. Whenever possible, main points should be stated in parallel grammatical form. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. Main points in a speech help explain or justify supporting points. a. True

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Chapter 11 b. False ANSWER: b 18. In an outline, subordination is indicated by indentation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. The most common outline format is the Roman numeral outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. In a Roman numeral outline, the most important points are closest to the left margin. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. In a Roman numeral outline, third-level points are typically enumerated with capital letters. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. Outlines are based on the principles of coordination and subordination. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Ideas that are coordinate are given unequal weight. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. In an outline, subordinate points are indicated by their indentation below the more important points. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 25. A well-organized speech is characterized by unity, coherence, and balance. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11 26. Unity refers to clear and logical organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. Coherence refers to a speech containing only those points that are implied by the purpose and thesis statements. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 28. The principle of balance suggests that appropriate emphasis or weight be given to each part of the speech relative to the other parts and to the theme. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 29. The principle of balance within a speech can be assessed by simply looking at an outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 30. Every speech will have more supporting points than main points. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 31. Assigning each main point at least two supporting points is one aspect of balance. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 32. Words, phrases, or sentences that tie the speech ideas together and enable the speaker to move smoothly from one point to the next are called transitions. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 33. The words similarly, however, and finally are examples of transitional words. a. True b. False

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Chapter 11 ANSWER: a 34. In any speech, there should always be more transitions than connectives within the body of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 35. Transitions are also called connectives. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 36. A rhetorical question can be used as a full-sentence transition. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 37. Rhetorical questions invite actual responses from the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 38. In moving between supporting points, single words or phrases such as Next, . . . and Finally, let's consider . . . are effective. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 39. Transitions between main points can be handled using single words, phrases, or full sentences. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 40. When using transitions, the speech body should follow logically from the introduction, and the conclusion should follow logically from the body. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 41. Transitions must be used when moving between main ideas in the body of a speech, but they are optional between the introduction, body, and conclusion of the speech. a. True

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Chapter 11 b. False ANSWER: b 42. Within the body itself, internal previews can be used to alert audience members to a shift from one main point or idea to another. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 43. A speech structure is composed of which three general parts? a. main, coordinate, and subordinate points b. specific purpose, general purpose, and thesis statement c. unified, coherent, and balanced main points d. introduction, body, and conclusion ANSWER: d 44. The body of a speech consists of: a. thesis statements and introductions. b. main points, supporting points, and transitions. c. specific purpose statements and internal summaries. d. bibliographical statements.

ANSWER: b 45. One function of a speech conclusion is to: a. thank the audience. b. introduce the thesis to the audience. c. ask the audience to take action. d. summarize the main points of a speech.

ANSWER: d 46. What term refers to the physical process of plotting speech points on a page in a hierarchical order of importance? a. indenting b. coordinating c. outlining d. subordinating ANSWER: c 47. What do speakers use to express the key ideas and major themes of the speech? a. main points b. subordinate points

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Chapter 11 c. transitions d. coordinate points ANSWER: a 48. Which statement expresses the central idea or theme of the speech? a. specific purpose statement b. thesis statement c. main points d. supporting points ANSWER: b 49. Research indicates that audiences prefer speeches that contain how many main points? a. one to two b. two to seven c. five to ten d. at least six ANSWER: b 50. Listeners have a better recall of the main points made at the beginning of a speech than of those made in the middle of a speech, a phenomenon termed the: a. internal preview. b. internal summary. c. recency effect. d. primacy effect.

ANSWER: d 51. If speakers find they have too many main points, they should: a. cut the weaker ones. b. revise the speech purpose. c. cut out excessive transitions. d. consider narrowing their topic.

ANSWER: d 52. Which statement is used to explain or justify the main ideas of a speech? a. main points b. rhetorical questions c. supporting points d. transitions ANSWER: c 53. The MOST common outlining format uses:

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Chapter 11 a. bullet points. b. Roman numerals. c. numerical ordering. d. alphabetical ordering.

ANSWER: b 54. Which statement is indicated by its parallel alignment? a. connectives b. subordinate points c. transitions d. coordinate points ANSWER: d 55. Ideas that are coordinate are given equal: a. evidence. b. supporting points. c. weight. d. spacing.

ANSWER: c 56. Points in an outline that are indicated by their indentation below the more important points are known as: a. connectives. b. subordinate points. c. transitions. d. coordinate points.

ANSWER: b 57. A well-organized speech is characterized by: a. unity, coherence, and balance. b. unity, coordination, and balance. c. unity, subordination, and coherence. d. unity, coordination, and subordination.

ANSWER: a 58. A well-organized speech should be coherent, which means it should: a. include only those points that support the thesis. b. be organized clearly and logically. c. give equal weight to each part of a speech. d. use transitions and connectives to build arguments.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 59. Words, phrases, or sentences that tie the speech ideas together and enable the speaker to move smoothly from one point to the next are called: a. internal summaries. b. internal previews. c. transitions. d. supporting points.

ANSWER: c 60. Which statement can serve the dual function of signaling shifts between speech points and indicating relationships between ideas? a. transitions b. internal previews c. internal summaries d. rhetorical questions ANSWER: a 61. Identify what type of transition is demonstrated by the following sentence: Could there really be a way for internal-combustion engines to surpass 50 miles per gallon in city driving? a. rhetorical question b. open-ended question c. internal preview d. internal summary ANSWER: a 62. Which statement draws together ideas before a speaker proceeds to another speech point? a. connective b. rhetorical preview c. internal preview d. internal summary ANSWER: d 63. Which transitional word/phrase could be used to illustrate cause and effect? a. similarly b. not only c. thus d. most importantly ANSWER: c 64. What are the three general parts of a speech, and what are the basic functions of each?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the introduction establishes the purpose of the speech and shows its relevance to the audience. The body of the speech presents main points that are

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Chapter 11 intended to fulfill the speech purpose. The conclusion brings closure to the speech by restating the purpose, summarizing the main points, and reiterating the speech thesis and its relevance to the audience.

65. Explain how the thesis statement serves as a guidepost in creating main points.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that main points should flow directly from the speech purpose and thesis. To be sure a speaker's main points flow from the thesis statement, speakers can ask what the most important ideas are that they wish to convey, what key ideas have emerged from their research, and what ideas they can demonstrate with supporting material.

66. Why should a speaker adhere to the rule of restricting the number of main points?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that many audiences can comfortably remember only five to seven main points during a given speech. It is important to arrange and restrict one's main points to fit within this number to accommodate the audience's ability to comprehend a speech's message.

67. What are the primacy and recency effects, and how might they impact a speaker's decisions about speech organization?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that the primacy effect states that listeners are more likely to retain points that are placed early in the speech. The recency effect states that listeners are also more likely to retain points that are placed later in or at the end of the speech. When deciding how to order the main points, speakers should keep the primary and recency effects in mind. In general, a speaker's strongest points should be placed either in the beginning or near the end of the speech.

68. Explain the principles of coordination and subordination.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that ideas that are coordinate are given equal weight and indicated by their parallel alignment. Subordinate points are given relatively less weight than the points above them and are indicated by their indentation below the more important points.

Speakers should support each point with at least two points or none at all.

69. Define unity, coherence, and balance in terms of speech organization.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that unity refers to when a speech contains only those points that are implied by the purpose and thesis statements. A speech exhibits coherence when it is organized clearly and logically, using the principles of coordination and subordination to align speech points in order of importance. Balance suggests that appropriate emphasis or weight be given to each part of the speech relative to the other parts and to the thesis.

70. Explain why transitions (or connectives) are a critical component of speeches.

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Correct answers should note that transitions (also called connectives) are important when giving speeches because listeners cannot go back and reread what they might have missed. Creating and using transitions within a speech can help listeners follow a speaker from one point to the next more easily.

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Chapter 12 1. Speech organization should be driven by what is most effective for the particular speech topic and purpose. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. A good time for speakers to determine the organizational arrangement for their speech is immediately after they have selected the speech topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. When speakers have determined their specific speech purpose, thesis, and main points, they are ready to settle on a pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Some common organizational arrangements for speeches are topical, spatial, causal, and problem-solution. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. A chronological pattern of arrangement follows the natural sequential order of the main points. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. A speech describing a series of events in the development of a new idea would be best served by a spatial pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Chronological arrangements give speakers the greatest freedom to structure main points according to how they wish to present the topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. The chronological format would work best for a speech about the development of the COVID-19 vaccine. a. True b. False

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Chapter 12 ANSWER: a 9. A spatial pattern of arrangement helps listeners follow main points according to subtopics or broad categories. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. An informative speech about the major bones of the body using a skeleton as a visual aid and moving from head to feet would use the chronological pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. The spatial pattern of arrangement describes or explains the physical arrangement of a place, a scene, or an object. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. The causal pattern of arrangement can address an effect with multiple causes but not a cause with multiple effects. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. It is not appropriate to present the effects first and the causes subsequently in the causal pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. The problem-solution pattern of arrangement is most often used in persuasive speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. The problem-solution pattern of arrangement cannot have more than two main points. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. A topical pattern of arrangement is appropriate when each main point is a subtopic or category of the speech

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Chapter 12 topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. In a topical pattern of arrangement, points can be arranged in any order without negatively affecting one another. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. An informative speech on three surprising benefits of exercise would use the topical pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. The topical pattern of arrangement is also known as the temporal pattern. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. If a particular organizational pattern does not seem obviously suited for a speech, speakers should experiment with the topical pattern. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. A speech consisting of a story or a series of short stories should use a topical pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. Speakers do not need a thesis statement when they are using a narrative pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 23. A speaker's subpoints should always follow the organizational pattern selected for their main points. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12 24. Which organizational arrangement follows the natural sequential order of the main points? a. topical b. spatial c. chronological d. narrative ANSWER: c 25. To describe a series of developments in time or a set of actions that occur sequentially, a speaker should use which pattern of arrangement? a. topical b. chronological c. spatial d. causal ANSWER: b 26. A speech describing a series of events leading to the adoption of a peace treaty calls for which pattern of arrangement? a. cause-effect b. topical c. problem-solution d. chronological ANSWER: d 27. Which organizational arrangement would be MOST appropriate if a speaker wanted to inform their audience about the process that turns coffee beans into coffee? a. chronological b. spatial c. narrative d. problem-solution ANSWER: a 28. To describe or explain the physical arrangement of a place, a scene, or an object, a speaker should use which pattern of arrangement? a. topical b. chronological c. spatial d. causal ANSWER: c 29. Which organizational arrangement would be MOST appropriate if a speaker wanted to inform their audience about the various layers of a volcano from the inside out? a. spatial

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Chapter 12 b. chronological c. topical d. causal ANSWER: a 30. An informative speech that explores the evidence that global warming results from human behavior would logically use which pattern of arrangement? a. topical b. chronological c. causal d. circular ANSWER: c 31. A speaker seeking to express the events leading to higher interest rates should choose which pattern of organization? a. topical b. chronological c. causal d. narrative ANSWER: c 32. To demonstrate the nature and significance of a problem and to provide justification for a proposed solution, a speaker should use which pattern of arrangement? a. topical b. chronological c. causal d. problem-solution ANSWER: d 33. When seeking the greatest freedom to structure main points, a speaker should use which pattern of arrangement? a. topical b. chronological c. spatial d. causal ANSWER: a 34. In which pattern of arrangement can points be arranged in any order without negatively affecting one another? a. narrative b. chronological c. spatial

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Chapter 12 d. topical ANSWER: d 35. Which organizational arrangement would be MOST appropriate if a speaker wanted to inform their audience about the benefits of starting a meditation practice? a. narrative b. topical c. spatial d. causal ANSWER: b 36. Which pattern of arrangement conveys ideas through a story? a. spatial b. chronological c. narrative d. causal ANSWER: c 37. A speech about the speaker's personal experience building houses with a volunteer organization would probably use which pattern of arrangement? a. topical b. problem-solution c. causal d. narrative ANSWER: d 38. How can a speaker best decide how to arrange main points in a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that after the main points and supporting material have been chosen, determining the order in which they are addressed is the next step. If the organization does not seem obvious—if, for example, it does not feel as if there is a logical chronology—speakers may want to consider experimenting with a topical pattern.

39. When is the chronological pattern of arrangement appropriate for a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that topics that describe a series of events in time or develop in line with a set pattern of actions or tasks call out to be organized according to a chronological pattern of arrangement.

40. Provide main points for a speech on the topic of "American Wars" using a chronological pattern of arrangement.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note major wars in which America has been involved and address the order in which they happened—for example, Revolutionary War, Civil War, World War I, World War II, Vietnam War, Gulf War, and the war in Afghanistan.

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Chapter 12 41. What is a spatial pattern of arrangement? Give an example of a topic that would call for the spatial pattern of arrangement.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the spatial pattern of arrangement is suitable for any topic in which there is a physical subject, which may be a place, a scene, an object, or even a geographical element. An example would be the five macroregions of Italy, which would be addressed from Northwest to Northeast to Center to South, and then to the islands, which are outside "the boot."

42. Provide main points for a speech entitled "The Place Where I Grew Up" using a spatial pattern of arrangement.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note some sort of logical approach to the physical nature of this place, whether it is a house, a town, or a city. The idea of a "tour" is spatial in nature.

43. When is the causal pattern of arrangement appropriate for a speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that topics that describe some cause-effect relationship use the causal pattern of arrangement. In speeches such as these, speakers relate something known to be a "cause" to its "effects." Topics can also be discussed in terms of multiple causes for a single effect, or a single cause with multiple effects.

44. What is the topical pattern of arrangement? Give an example of a topic that would lend itself well to this arrangement.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the topical pattern of arrangement divides main points into subtopics or categories. This pattern gives speakers the most freedom to structure main points according to how they wish to present their topic. A topic that would lend itself to a topical pattern would be a speech about test-taking strategies; the speaker might arrange the main ideas into the following subtopics: read all directions, answer easy questions first, ask the instructor when questions aren't clear.

45. What is the narrative pattern of arrangement, and what is a topic that would lend itself well to this arrangement?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the narrative pattern of arrangement is essentially a story, complete with a protagonist (many times the speaker), conflict or challenges, and a resolution. A trip abroad and an experience with an accident or a life-changing event are topics that would lend themselves to a narrative pattern.

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Chapter 13 1. Outlines assist in examining the underlying logic of a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. When developing a speech, a speaker should create two outlines: a working outline and a speaking outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. The purpose of a speaking outline is to firm up and organize main points and develop supporting points to substantiate them. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. The working outline is also known as a preparation outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. Working outlines typically contain full or partial sentences, while speaking outlines use key words or short phrases. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Speaking outlines are also called delivery outlines. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Speeches can be outlined in complete sentences, phrases, or key words. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. A phrase outline uses partial construction of the sentence form of each point. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 9. Key-word outlines provide speakers with exactly what they will say when they deliver their speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. A key-word outline uses the smallest possible units of understanding to outline the main and supporting points. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Key-word or phrase outlines are recommended over sentence outlines for the delivery of most speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. Sentence outlines are the preferred format for speaking outlines. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Key-word outlines permit the greatest degree of eye contact. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Nothing in a key-word outline should be written out in complete sentences, including direct quotations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. An occasional complete sentence is recommended in speaking outlines when the issue is highly controversial or emotion-laden for listeners. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. A phrase outline is effective when the material is highly technical and exact sentence structure is critical. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13 17. Extemporaneous speeches are carefully planned and practiced in advance and then delivered from a keyword or phrase outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. The working outline should be written before the speaking outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. The speech introduction should be written before the body of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. Both the working and speaking outlines should include all of a speaker's sources. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. As speakers complete the working outline, they should make notes about their sources so they can incorporate them into their speech as oral citations and include them in a works cited list, if assigned to do so. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. Before crafting a working outline, a speaker should assign their speech a title. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 23. Once the speaking outline is complete, the speaker should transfer his or her ideas to the working outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. Delivery cues should be included in the working outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13 25. The brief parenthetical notes indicating transitions, sources to cite, and presentation aids in the speaking outline are called speaking prompts. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 26. The speaking outline should be prepared on notecards or 8.5 × 11 sheets of paper. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 27. Speakers should memorize any direct quotations because they cannot be included in complete-sentence form in the speaking outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 28. It is acceptable for speakers to gesture with notes in their hand. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 29. When developing a speech, the speaker should create which two outlines? a. manuscript and speaking b. full-sentence and impromptu c. working and speaking d. topic and sentence ANSWER: c 30. Speeches may be outlined in complete sentences, key words, or: a. symbols. b. bullets. c. quotations. d. phrases.

ANSWER: d 31. Which type of outline is an in-process document a speaker uses to organize and firm up main points. a. working b. speaking c. phrase d. key-word ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 32. Which type of outline helps the speaker develop their supporting points using the evidence they've gathered to substantiate them? a. phrase b. speaking c. working d. key-word ANSWER: c 33. A sentence format is best suited for which type of outline? a. working b. speaking c. phrase d. topic ANSWER: a 34. A type of outline that represents much of the text of the speech is known as a: a. key-word outline. b. speaking outline. c. phrase outline. d. working outline.

ANSWER: d 35. Which type of outline uses partial construction of the sentence form of each point? a. working b. speaking c. sentence d. phrase ANSWER: d 36. The claim "Meditation can heal" uses partial construction of the sentence form and is typically included in which type of outline? a. working b. phrase c. sentence d. topic ANSWER: b 37. Which type of outline uses a few words associated with each speech point? a. working b. speaking

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Chapter 13 c. key-word d. phrase ANSWER: c 38. Which outline is the briefest form of outline? a. topic b. sentence c. key-word d. phrase ANSWER: c 39. Which outline permits more eye contact and greater freedom of movement than any other outline format? a. topic b. key-word c. phrase d. sentence ANSWER: b 40. Which outline format permits the least amount of eye contact? a. speaking b. sentence c. key-word d. phrase ANSWER: b 41. Which type of outline is not recommended in the delivery of MOST speeches? a. topic b. phrase c. key-word d. sentence ANSWER: d 42. Notes on a speaking outline, often capped and in parentheses, that tell the speaker when to transition, pause, or show a presentation aid are called: a. delivery cues. b. speaking prompts. c. presentation aids. d. action markers.

ANSWER: a 43. Which is considered a delivery cue?

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Chapter 13 a. movement cue b. formatting cue c. pronunciation cue d. feedback cue ANSWER: c 44. Once the working outline is complete, the speaker should transfer his or her ideas to which outline? a. topic b. speaking c. key-word d. sentence ANSWER: b 45. The speaking outline should: a. be written in complete sentences. b. include delivery cues. c. include a full bibliography. d. be on 3 × 5 cards.

ANSWER: b 46. Explain the difference between a phrase outline and a key-word outline.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a phrase outline uses partial construction of the sentence form of each point. Phrase outlines encourage speakers to become so familiar with the speech that a glance at a few words is enough to remind them of what to say. The key-word outline uses the smallest possible units of understanding to outline the main and supporting points.

Key-word outlines permit the greatest degree of eye contact and allow for more freedom of movement. The key-word outline also gives speakers better control over their thoughts and actions than do phrase (or sentence) outlines.

47. List the three situations in which it is advisable to include full sentences in a phrase or key-word outline.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that even in a phrase or key-word outline, speakers may want to include full sentences when (1) the issue is highly charged and the audience is very emotional about it, (2) the material is highly technical and exact sentence structure is critical, and (3) a good deal of material relies on quotations and facts from another source that must be conveyed precisely as worded.

48. How can a speaker prepare a speech by using a working outline?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the topic, general purpose, specific purpose, and thesis statement should be established first. Then speakers will establish their main points (usually two to five). After that, speakers should flesh out their supporting points and check for correct subordination and coordination. Then they should label each speech part (introduction, body, and conclusion) and transitions. Speakers should always prepare the body of the speech before the introduction and conclusion, making sure to keep these separate from their main points. When writing the introduction, speakers should make sure to grab the audience's attention, introduce the

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Chapter 13 topic and thesis, and establish their credibility. To ensure that a speaker includes these elements, they may wish to label them clearly in the working outline. When writing the conclusion, speakers should make sure they have summarized the main points, reiterated the thesis, and leave the audience with something to think about (or offer a call to action). The last steps are to note sources for the bibliography and assign the speech a title.

49. Explain why it is important to condense the working outline into a speaking outline.

ANSWER: The purpose of the working outline is to organize and firm up main points and help speakers use the research they've gathered to create and develop supporting points. Speakers will not speak from this outline because they cannot make eye contact while reading; instead, speakers should condense the working outline into a speaking outline, the one they will use when they are practicing and actually presenting the speech. Speaking outlines contain a speaker's ideas in condensed form and are much briefer than working outlines.

50. In a speaking outline, how should a speaker indicate transitions, sources to cite, and presentation aids to be used in the speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that delivery cues can help a speaker make smooth transitions, cite sources, and use presentation aids in the speech. These delivery cues are notes that can be written within the speaking outline. They can be capitalized, placed in parentheses, and/or highlighted.

51. Identify the steps involved in creating a speaking outline.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the speaking outline should be created on sheets of paper or large notecards. Speakers should write large and legibly, using at least a 14-point font or easy-to-read ink and large letters. For each main point and subpoint, speakers should choose a key word or phrase that will jog their memory accurately. After that, they should include delivery cues and full quotations or other critical information. Finally, speakers should practice using their speaking outline several times before giving their presentation.

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Chapter 14 1. The introduction and the conclusion of the speech are more important than the body. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. The choices a speaker makes about the introduction of a speech can affect the outcome of the entire speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Audience members decide in the first several minutes of a speech whether they will give their full attention to the speaker and believe what he or she has to say. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. A speaker should wait until the introduction is over to reveal the topic and purpose. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. The introduction should be prepared after the speech body is completed. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. The first challenge any speaker faces in developing an introduction is to win the audience's attention. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. In an introduction, using a quotation from someone who is not famous will likely discredit the speaker. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Using a story in an introduction can stimulate an audience's imagination and make a speech personally relevant. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 9. An anecdote is a brief story of a meaningful or entertaining incident based on real life. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Audiences can be won over when speakers express interest in them and show that they share similar concerns and goals. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Introductions that include references to the speech occasion and to relevant facts about the audience make listeners feel recognized as individuals. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. Rhetorical questions posed by the speaker seek a direct response from the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Polling audience members during a speech's introduction is an effective way to gain their attention. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Humor rarely sets a positive tone for a speech, even when handled well. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. Since there is no way to anticipate whether humor will be appreciated in a diverse audience, speakers must depend on nonverbal feedback to guide them. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Sarcasm that belittles others in a speech introduction is always inappropriate. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 17. There is no universally appreciated joke, so speakers should make sure that speech humor matches the rhetorical situation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. Previewing a speech in the introduction can enhance an audience's understanding of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. When speakers use the technique of previewing in an introduction, they state the main points of the speech as well as the order in which they will be addressed. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. When previewing the main ideas, speakers should include some information of substance on each one to give the audience an idea of what they will be learning. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. Previewing helps the audience mentally organize a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. Speakers should use the introduction to establish their ethos, or good character, so that the audience trusts them. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. A speaker communicating respect for their audience's best interests demonstrates positive logos. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. Establishing speaker credibility is particularly important when the audience doesn't know the speaker well. a. True b. False

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Chapter 14 ANSWER: a 25. To build credibility in the introduction, a speaker should make a simple statement of his or her qualifications for speaking on the topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 26. It is best to let the audience figure out for themselves that a speech topic is relevant to them. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. One function of a speech introduction is to: a. motivate the audience to accept the speech goals. b. provide an in-depth discussion of the topic. c. review and discuss all the main points of a speech. d. describe a speaker's qualifications in detail.

ANSWER: a 28. The speaker's first step in the speech introduction is to: a. introduce the thesis and purpose. b. establish speaker credibility. c. arouse the audience's attention. d. motivate the audience to accept the speech goals.

ANSWER: c 29. An effective introduction should: a. summarize the main points of the speech. b. comprise 10 to 15 percent of the total speech. c. be prepared before the body of the speech. d. provide a detailed biography of the speaker.

ANSWER: b 30. Generally, the introduction should be brief and occupy what percent of the overall speech? a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 15 c. 15 to 20 d. 20 to 25 ANSWER: b 31. Which type of attention-getter can be culled from literature, poetry, film, or individuals to help grab an

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Chapter 14 audience's attention? a. rhetorical questions b. statistics c. anecdotes d. quotations ANSWER: d 32. In her speech about friendship, Becky opened her speech by stating, "As Vanessa Smith has written, 'Many people will walk in and out of your life, but only true friends will leave footprints in your heart.'" Becky began her introduction by using: a. an anecdote. b. unusual information. c. a quotation. d. a story.

ANSWER: c 33. Brief stories of interesting, entertaining, or real-life incidents are called: a. stories of transformation. b. unusual information. c. anecdotes. d. quotations.

ANSWER: c 34. Speakers can establish common ground with the audience by: a. stating their qualifications on a topic. b. telling a compelling story. c. posing rhetorical questions. d. expressing shared experiences.

ANSWER: d 35. Questions that do not invite actual responses are called: a. rhetorical questions. b. probing questions. c. anecdotes. d. quotations.

ANSWER: a 36. When planning to poll the audience during the introduction, what should speakers do? a. Prepare a vague question to inspire varied responses. b. Rehearse asking the question in different ways. c. Plan to base the speech's main points on the responses.

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Chapter 14 d. Plan time for the audience to respond to the questions.

ANSWER: d 37. "How many of you know how to speak Klingon?" is a(n): a. rhetorical question. b. polling question. c. open-ended question. d. loaded question.

ANSWER: b 38. For speech introductions, some of the MOST effective startling statements are based in: a. statistics. b. humor. c. attitudes. d. personality.

ANSWER: a 39. Statistics are most often used in speech introductions to: a. create humor. b. ask a polling question. c. offer unusual information. d. establish speaker credibility.

ANSWER: c 40. Which type of attention-getter can be challenging and require that the speaker match their attention-getter to the rhetorical situation? a. anecdotes b. rhetorical questions c. statistics d. humor ANSWER: d 41. What kind of humor should always be strictly avoided in speeches? a. dry humor b. sarcasm c. puns d. limericks ANSWER: b 42. What technique helps the audience mentally organize the main ideas of a speech? a. summarizing

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Chapter 14 b. previewing c. using anecdotes d. stating the purpose ANSWER: b 43. Speakers should use the introduction to alert listeners to: a. compelling stories about the topic. b. the speech structure. c. the speech topic and purpose. d. opposing information about the topic.

ANSWER: c 44. By stating their qualifications in a speech introduction, speakers help build their: a. credibility. b. confidence. c. knowledge. d. claims.

ANSWER: a 45. To build credibility in the speech's introduction, a speaker should establish his or her: a. logos. b. pathos. c. ethos. d. mythos.

ANSWER: c 46. A final function of the introduction is to: a. introduce the thesis and purpose. b. motivate the audience to accept the speech's goals. c. establish speaker credibility. d. arouse the audience's attention.

ANSWER: b 47. Why is it important for speakers to prepare the introduction just as thoroughly as they prepare the speech body?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the introduction and conclusion, although not more important than the body of the speech, are essential to its overall success. Introductions set the tone and prepare the audience to hear the speech. A good introduction previews what's to come in a way that engages audiences in the topic and establishes a tone of goodwill. The choices a speaker makes about the introduction can affect the outcome of the entire speech.

48. List three functions of an effective introduction.

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Chapter 14 ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a good introduction serves the following functions: (1) arouses the audience's attention and willingness to listen, (2) introduces the topic and purpose, (3) establishes the speaker's credibility to speak on the topic, (4) previews the main points, and (5) motivates the audience to accept the speech's goals.

49. Explain why the introduction should be written after the speech body.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note that while the introduction comes first in a speech, the speaker should prepare it after they have completed the body of the speech. This way, they will know exactly what material they will need to preview in the introduction.

50. List at least three ways to gain audience attention.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note three of the following: (1) sharing a compelling quotation or story, (2) establishing common ground, (3) posing a provocative question, (4) providing unusual information, and (5) using humor.

51. Discuss the advantages of using quotations during an introduction.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that a quotation that elegantly and succinctly expresses a theme of the speech will draw the audience's attention. Quotations can be culled from books of quotations, literature, poetry, film, news stories or other people's speeches, or directly from people the speaker knows.

52. Give an example of a rhetorical question used to introduce a speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers may vary. Correct answers should note an example of a rhetorical question—a question that does not require a response. An example might be: "Have you ever wondered why human handwriting varies so much?"

53. Identify some potential drawbacks to polling audience members.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that polling audience members is an effective way to gain their attention if the questions are thought-provoking and novel, but it has drawbacks.

Speakers should bear in mind when using this attention-gaining technique that it is possible that no one will respond, or that the responses will be unexpected.

54. List three tips that a speaker should keep in mind when using humor in a speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should list three of the following: (1) the humor needs to be appropriate for the audience and the occasion, (2) it needs to help the speaker make a point about their topic or the occasion, (3) it should avoid any potentially offensive issues, (4) it should not insult or demean anyone, (5) speakers should give it a trial run, and (6) it should translate well to the cultural composition of the audience.

55. How can a speaker express a genuine interest in the audience during the introduction?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note referring to the audience and the occasion are two things a speaker can do to express genuine interest in the audience. People appreciate a direct reference to the event, and they are interested in the meaning the speaker assigns to it. Speakers should use their knowledge of the audience to touch briefly on areas of shared experience. They might mention a shared alma mater or hometown, or acknowledge a recent event that touched the audience and themselves, such as a sports team victory and or a bout of severe weather.

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Chapter 14 56. Give an example of how a speaker might establish common ground in the introduction by referring to the occasion.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should give an example similar to the following: This is the fifth year we've held this award ceremony, and in that time our attendance has tripled and the number of honorees has doubled.

57. How can a speaker establish his or her credibility in an introduction?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that to establish credibility in the speech introduction, speakers should offer a simple statement of their qualifications for speaking on the topic. They can briefly emphasize some experience, knowledge, or perspective they have that is different from or more extensive than that of their audience.

58. Why is it so important for a speaker to use the introduction to establish the relevance of the topic to the audience?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the speaker must motivate the audience to care about their topic and make it relevant to them, or the audience will have no reason to listen.

Speakers may choose to convey what the audience stands to gain by the information they will share or convince audience members that their speech purpose is consistent with the audience's motives and values.

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Chapter 15 1. Unlike introductions, which have a number of elements, conclusions have only one. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. If a speaker rehearses enough, they will not need to include the conclusion in their speaking outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. The conclusion of a speech should be prepared before the speech body. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. As a general rule, the conclusion should comprise about one-third of the entire speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. The conclusion, more than other parts of the speech, can contain words that inspire and motivate. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. A transition statement or phrase, such as finally or in summary, is one way to alert the audience that a speech is coming to an end. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. A speaker can effectively signal closure by adjusting the manner of delivery. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Once a speaker has signaled that they are concluding their speech, the audience expects them to finish up in short order. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 15 9. The main points of a speech should be emphasized only twice in the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. A strong conclusion challenges audience members to put to use what the speaker has taught them. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. In informative speeches, the concluding challenge comes in the form of a call to action. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. A challenge is included in the conclusion of a persuasive speech but never in an informative speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Quotations, stories, and questions are appropriate ways to conclude a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Telling a story or anecdote in the conclusion is one way to make a speech memorable. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. A short concluding story, or anecdote, can help the audience visualize the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. Bookending is a conclusion technique in which the speaker comes back to a story or idea mentioned in the introduction. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. Rhetorical questions are great choices for introductions, but they should not be used in conclusions.

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Chapter 15 a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. A good conclusion leaves the audience with a sense of: a. pride and accomplishment. b. confidence and understanding. c. logical and emotional closure. d. passion and credibility.

ANSWER: c 19. The conclusion should comprise what percentage of the speech? a. one-half b. 5 to 10 percent c. 10 to15 percent d. one-third ANSWER: c 20. A speaker can signal the end of their speech by using a transitional word or phrase such as: a. not only. b. furthermore. c. additionally. d. last but not least.

ANSWER: d 21. A speaker should reiterate the thesis and speech purpose in the conclusion to: a. introduce the main ideas of the speech. b. speed up the ending of the speech. c. provide a sense of closure for the speech. d. help imprint them in the audience's memory.

ANSWER: d 22. What part of the conclusion brings the speech full circle and gives the audience a sense of completion? a. the challenge b. restatement of main points c. the call to action d. reiteration of the thesis ANSWER: b 23. Speakers can bring a speech full circle by: a. talking in circular logic.

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Chapter 15 b. summarizing the speech's main points. c. asking audience members to share personal stories. d. issuing a challenge to the audience.

ANSWER: b 24. Consider the saying, "Tell them what you are going to tell them, tell them, and tell them what you told them." What part of the conclusion serves the "tell them what you told them" portion? a. the call to action b. the signal that the speech is ending c. review of the main points d. reiteration of the thesis or central idea ANSWER: c 25. A strong conclusion challenges the audience to: a. share their knowledge with others. b. become stronger speakers themselves. c. remember the main points of the speech. d. put to use the information they've learned.

ANSWER: d 26. A concluding challenge by a speaker that asks an audience to act in response to the speech or change their beliefs or actions is called a: a. persuasive attempt. b. call to action. c. reiteration. d. signpost.

ANSWER: b 27. A speaker might conclude their informative speech with a challenge by asking the audience to: a. use what they've learned in a personally beneficial way. b. take some type of physical action related to the speech. c. see a problem in a new way. d. change their beliefs and actions toward a problem.

ANSWER: a 28. To make the speech memorable, speakers might rely on which device to conclude their speech? a. introducing a new idea b. restating the purpose c. using a memorable quotation d. outlining the goal of the speech ANSWER: c

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Chapter 15 29. Starting a story in the introduction and finishing it in the conclusion is called: a. bifurcating. b. splitting. c. bookending. d. forking.

ANSWER: c 30. List three functions of a conclusion.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that like introductions, conclusions consist of several elements that work together to make the end of a speech as memorable as the beginning.

Conclusions serve to do the following: (1) signal to the audience that the speech is coming to an end and provide closure, (2) summarize the key points, (3) reiterate the thesis or central idea of the speech, (4) challenge the audience to remember and possibly act upon the ideas, and (5) end the speech memorably.

31. Name at least three guidelines for preparing a conclusion.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should prepare the conclusion after they've completed the body of the speech. Other guidelines to keep in mind include the following: (1) During the research phase, be on the lookout for material that can be used in the conclusion. (2) Do not leave the conclusion to chance. Include it with the speaking outline. (3) Keep the conclusion brief—no more than 10 to 15 percent of the overall speech. (4) Carefully consider use of language. (5) Practice delivering the conclusion until it feels right. (6) Once a speaker has signaled the end of their speech, they should conclude in short order.

32. How can a speaker signal the close of a speech and provide closure?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that one way to signal that a speech is about to end is to use a transitional word or phrase: finally, looking back, in conclusion, or let me close by saying. Speakers can also signal closure by adjusting their manner of delivery; for example, they can vary their tone, pitch, rhythm, rate of speech, and even a well-timed pause to indicate that the speech is winding down.

33. Explain how a challenge issued during a conclusion varies for an informative and a persuasive speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that in an informative speech, the speaker challenges audience members to use what they've learned in a way that benefits them. In a persuasive speech, the challenge usually comes in the form of a call to action. Here the speaker challenges listeners to act in response to the speech, see the problem in a new way, or change both their beliefs and actions about the problem.

34. Discuss how a speaker can make a conclusion memorable.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that speakers should make use of the same devices for capturing attention described for use in introductions—quotations, stories, startling statements, humor, and references to the audience and occasion.

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Chapter 16 1. Style consists of the word choices and rhetorical devices a speaker uses in their speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Spoken communication is more interactive than written language. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Speeches make less frequent use of repetition than do most forms of written communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Speakers should strive for simplicity by using jargon in their speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. The specialized "insider" language of a given profession is called concrete language. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. Speakers should take care not to use simple language because it can seem condescending to listeners. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Speakers should avoid repeating themselves. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Phrases and sentence fragments should be avoided in both written and spoken language. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 9. Effective speakers often repeat key words or phrases. a. True

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Chapter 16 b. False ANSWER: a 10. A speaker's use of personal pronouns fosters a sense of recognition and inclusion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Abstract language has no physical reference. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. "Bravery," "jealousy," and "wisdom" are all examples of abstract language. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. Speakers can create imagery by modifying nouns with descriptive adjectives. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. A metaphor compares one thing to another, using like or as to do so. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. "Love is a rose" is an example of a simile. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. An analogy compares an unfamiliar concept or process to a more familiar one to help audience members understand the unfamiliar one. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. A mixed metaphor is a predictable or stale comparison. a. True b. False

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Chapter 16 ANSWER: b 18. Irony refers to endowing abstract ideas or inanimate objects with human qualities. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. Speakers should use malapropisms in their speeches to inspire audience confidence. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. The connotative meaning is the literal, or dictionary, definition of a word. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. Speaking in the passive rather than the active voice will make a speaker's statements clear and assertive instead of indirect and weak. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. Colloquial expressions are sayings that are specific to a certain region or group of people. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Speakers should word their speeches with gender-neutral language. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. Anaphora and epiphora are forms of repetition. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 25. A speaker using anaphora is repeating a word or phrase at the end of successive sentences. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 16 26. Alliteration is the arrangement of words, phrases, or sentences in a similar form. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. Parallelism is the repetition of the same sounds, usually initial consonants, in two or more neighboring words or syllables. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 28. Which statement represents a difference between oral and written style? a. Spoken language uses fewer contractions. b. Spoken language uses more personal pronouns. c. Written language uses more sentence fragments. d. Written language uses more repetition and transitions.

ANSWER: b 29. Speeches, more than written communication, make much more frequent use of: a. feedback. b. symbols. c. repetition. d. evidence.

ANSWER: c 30. The specialized "insider" language of a given profession is called: a. hyperbole. b. onomatopoeia. c. malapropism. d. jargon.

ANSWER: d 31. Which technique can help a speaker prepare his or her speech to be heard rather than read? a. choosing more complex words: "extrapolate" for "guess" b. experimenting with sentence fragments c. using more abstract words to express his or her thoughts d. avoiding contractions ANSWER: b 32. Which type of language is specific, tangible, and definite? a. concrete

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Chapter 16 b. abstract c. jargon d. cliché ANSWER: a 33. Which type of language is general or nonspecific, leaving meaning open to interpretation? a. concrete b. abstract c. jargon d. cliché ANSWER: b 34. A speaker who uses vivid imagery: a. tends to use passive forms of the verb "to be." b. distracts listeners from the main point of the speech. c. helps audiences recall the speech. d. relies on abstract language to paint a picture.

ANSWER: c 35. Forms of expression that make striking comparisons that help listeners visualize, identify with, and understand the speaker's ideas are called: a. alliteration. b. libelous language. c. figures of speech. d. conjunctions.

ANSWER: c 36. Which figure of speech explicitly compares one thing to another, using like or as? a. analogy b. metaphor c. cliché d. simile ANSWER: d 37. "She is as busy as a bee" best illustrates which figure of speech? a. simile b. metaphor c. personification d. alliteration ANSWER: a

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Chapter 16 38. Which figure of speech compares two things but does so by describing one thing as actually being the other? a. allusion b. cliché c. metaphor d. simile ANSWER: c 39. Which figure of speech compares an unfamiliar concept or process to a more familiar one to help audience members understand the unfamiliar one? a. allusion b. cliché c. metaphor d. analogy ANSWER: d 40. Comparing the budget of the U.S. government to a household budget is an example of: a. hyperbole. b. irony. c. faulty analogy. d. mixed metaphor.

ANSWER: c 41. A speaker should avoid using expressions that are: a. clichés. b. analogies. c. gender-neutral. d. figures of speech.

ANSWER: a 42. Which figure of speech refers to endowing abstract ideas or inanimate objects with human qualities? a. allusion b. personification c. hyperbole d. onomatopoeia ANSWER: b 43. "The White House issued a statement today in response to the incident." This statement illustrates which technique? a. anaphora b. metaphor c. personification

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Chapter 16 d. alliteration ANSWER: c 44. Which figure of speech uses obvious exaggeration to drive home a point? a. allusion b. personification c. hyperbole d. onomatopoeia ANSWER: c 45. The mixing in of casual language, dialects, a second language, or slang in a speech is called: a. hyperbole. b. mixed metaphor. c. allusion. d. code-switching.

ANSWER: d 46. The inadvertent use of a word or a phrase in place of one that sounds like it is called: a. anaphora. b. alliteration. c. epiphora. d. malapropism.

ANSWER: d 47. Which term refers to the literal or dictionary definition of a word? a. connotative meaning b. denotative meaning c. epiphora d. parallelism ANSWER: b 48. According to Merriam-Webster's online dictionary, the word plump means "having a pleasingly full rounded shape." This is the word's: a. hyperbolic meaning. b. analogous meaning. c. denotative meaning. d. connotative meaning.

ANSWER: c 49. The special association that different people bring to bear on the meaning of a word is called its: a. hyperbolic meaning.

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Chapter 16 b. analogous meaning. c. denotative meaning. d. connotative meaning.

ANSWER: d 50. What term refers to sayings that are specific to a certain region or group of people and may be confusing to outside listeners? a. colloquial expressions b. malapropisms c. personification d. antithesis ANSWER: a 51. People in Wisconsin call drinking fountains "bubblers." This is an example of: a. a simile. b. a colloquial expression. c. a cliché. d. connotative meaning.

ANSWER: b 52. One device that helps a speaker incorporate rhythm into a speech is: a. repetition. b. personification. c. analogy. d. metaphor.

ANSWER: a 53. Which term refers to the repetition of the same sounds, usually initial consonants, in two or more neighboring words or syllables? a. anaphora b. alliteration c. parallelism d. repetition ANSWER: b 54. Which style of speech lends a poetic, musical rhythm to speech? a. metaphor b. parallelism c. alliteration d. epiphora ANSWER: c

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Chapter 16 55. Speakers often make use of three parallel elements, called a: a. trilogy. b. triumvirate. c. triplet. d. triad.

ANSWER: d 56. In Shakespeare's Julius Caesar, Mark Antony says, "The evil that men do lives after them; The good is oft interred with their bones." This is an example of: a. alliteration. b. antithesis. c. epiphora. d. metaphor.

ANSWER: b 57. List three ways in which spoken and written language differ.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note three of the following: More so than written texts, effective speeches use familiar words, easy-to-follow sentences, and even sentence fragments.

Speeches make much more frequent use of repetition and transitions than do most forms of written communication. Speeches make more use of personal pronouns, such as I, we, you, and our, than written language. Speeches require an even clearer structure than written language, with obvious signals indicating beginning, middle, and end.

58. When is it appropriate for a speaker to use jargon, and why?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that unless the audience consists solely of the professionals who use it, translate jargon—the specialized, "insider" language of a given profession—into commonly understood terms.

59. How can a speaker create vivid imagery for the audience?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers can create vivid imagery by using colorful adjectives and substituting passive verbs with more active ones. For example, saying, "Tara gazed at the sky," instead of "Tara looked at the sky," or saying, "Jim treasures his books," rather than "Jim likes to read."

60. Explain the difference between a metaphor and a simile, and give an example of both.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a simile explicitly compares one thing to another, using like or as: "He works like a dog" and "The old woman's hands were as soft as a baby's." A metaphor also compares two things, but does so by describing one thing as actually being the other. Metaphors do not use like or as: "Time is a thief" and "All the world's a stage."

61. What are clichés, and why should speakers avoid them in their speeches?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that clichés are predictable, stale, and often overused statements. An example of a cliché is saying "time heals all wounds" or that something

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Chapter 16 "lasted an eternity." Speakers should avoid these clichés since they can make a speech seem predictable, unoriginal, and boring.

62. Define personification and give an example.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that personification endows abstract ideas or inanimate objects with human qualities. An example would be "Time creeps up on us."

63. Define hyperbole and give an example.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that hyperbole uses obvious exaggeration to drive home a point. An example would be "We had an argument that made the Civil War seem tame."

64. Why is it important for a speaker to understand the connotative meanings of words?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that connotative meanings carry special (often emotional) associations for many people. A speaker's word choices might affect the audience's response to their message, including those of non-native speakers of English. Speakers should choose words that are most appropriate to their speaking audience.

65. What is the active voice? Give an example of the same sentence in first the passive voice and then the active voice.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that a verb is in the active voice when the subject performs the action, and in the passive voice when the subject is acted upon or is the receiver of the action. An example would be "The wind blew my hat off" (active) versus "My hat was blown off by the wind" (passive).

66. Explain and give an example of a rhetorical device that a speaker can use to create effective rhythm and a lasting impression in his or her speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note one of the three rhetorical devices listed in the chapter: repetition, alliteration, and parallelism. An example of anaphora, a type of repetition, is Winston Churchill's "We shall defend our island, whatever the cost may be, we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills; we shall never surrender." An example of alliteration would be "big, bad bogey man." An example of parallelism would be, "We came, we saw, we conquered."

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Chapter 17 1. During the elocutionary movement, speechmaking was regarded as a type of performance, much like acting. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Today the content or message of a speech, rather than the delivery, is seen as being most important. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Being direct is the key to natural delivery. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. Speakers can choose from two basic methods of delivery. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Speaking from manuscript is advisable or necessary when the speaker must convey a very precise message. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Speaking from manuscript is considered best for brief speeches, such as toasts and introductions. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. If a speaker wants to avoid being misquoted or misconstrued, he or she should consider speaking from memory. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Speaking from memory is the delivery method that is most conducive to achieving a natural, conversational delivery. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17 9. When preparing for a speech, a speaker should memorize either all or none of the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Speaking impromptu is the most widely used form of delivery in public speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. It is not possible to anticipate when a speaker might be asked to speak impromptu. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. The organizational patterns used in prepared speeches are not relevant when speaking impromptu. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Delivering a speech on relatively short notice with little time to prepare is called speaking extemporaneously. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. One potential drawback of speaking extemporaneously is that speakers may become too repetitive or wordy. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Extemporaneous speaking makes sounding natural and conversational more challenging. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. In an extemporaneous speech, the speech should be read word for word from a manuscript. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 17. Public speaking scholar James Albert Winans saw a speech as an enlarged:

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Chapter 17 a. conversation. b. monologue. c. introduction. d. outline.

ANSWER: a 18. Today, rather than delivery, what is seen as being most important in a speech? a. elocution b. acting c. content d. familiarity ANSWER: c 19. Effective speech delivery should include which elements? a. naturalness, knowledge, confidence, and comfortability b. naturalness, humor, directness, and abstraction c. naturalness, enthusiasm, confidence, and directness d. naturalness, confidence, formality, and animation ANSWER: c 20. A speaker can demonstrate interest and concern for audience members by: a. giving a speech for free or little cost. b. exuding confidence. c. using a friendly tone of voice. d. using animation and humor.

ANSWER: c 21. Speaking from a manuscript is ideal when a speaker needs to: a. convey very precise messages. b. establish eye contact. c. create a sense of naturalness. d. improvise on short notice.

ANSWER: a 22. Manuscript speeches often require speakers to read from: a. PowerPoint slides. b. scientific manuscripts. c. improvised notes. d. a teleprompter.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 17 23. What device is often used to project a speech script in rolling fashion onto a clear panel? a. Prezi software b. a rhetorical device c. teleprompter d. PowerPoint slides ANSWER: c 24. Speaking from memory is: a. a natural way to present a message. b. useful in delivering toasts or introductions. c. the most popular delivery method. d. often spontaneous and unplanned.

ANSWER: b 25. Which method of delivery requires the speaker to recall exact words? a. impromptu b. extemporaneous c. manuscript d. memorized ANSWER: d 26. The formal name for speaking from memory is: a. oratory. b. manuscript. c. impromptu. d. dialogic.

ANSWER: a 27. Which method of delivery is commonly used for brief speeches, such as toasts and introductions? a. impromptu b. extemporaneous c. memorized d. manuscript ANSWER: c 28. Which type of delivery is often unpracticed, spontaneous, or improvised? a. memorized b. manuscript c. impromptu d. extemporaneous ANSWER: c

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Chapter 17 29. When a speaker delivers a speech on relatively short notice with little time to prepare, he or she is using which method of delivery? a. manuscript b. impromptu c. extemporaneous d. memorized ANSWER: b 30. When delivering an impromptu speech, what can speakers do to organize their speech and help listeners follow along? a. stay on topic b. show confidence c. start with a strong statement d. use transitions ANSWER: d 31. Which method of delivery is used most often in public speaking? a. extemporaneous b. manuscript c. impromptu d. memorized ANSWER: a 32. Which method of delivery is the most natural way to deliver a speech? a. impromptu b. extemporaneous c. manuscript d. memorized ANSWER: b 33. Which method of delivery refers to a well-prepared and practiced speech without memorizing it or writing it out word for word? a. impromptu b. manuscript c. memorized d. extemporaneous ANSWER: d 34. Which method of delivery allows speakers to have the most eye contact and better control of their thoughts and actions? a. memorized

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Chapter 17 b. extemporaneous c. manuscript d. impromptu ANSWER: b 35. The method of speech delivery that gives a speaker greater flexibility in adapting to a specific speaking situation is: a. speaking extemporaneously. b. speaking from memory. c. speaking impromptu. d. speaking from manuscript.

ANSWER: a 36. Briefly explain the four qualities of effective delivery.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that the four qualifies of effective delivery: (1) naturalness—treating the speech like an enlarged conversation; (2) enthusiasm—showing excitement and passion for a topic; (3) confidence—being well-prepared and speaking with composure; (4) directness—building rapport with the audience through eye contact, a friendly tone of voice, animated facial expressions, and proximity.

37. Explain why a speaker should strive for natural rather than theatrical delivery.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that, in the early 1900s, the elocutionists stressed delivery over content and saw it as a type of performance, much like acting. Today, the content of the message itself, rather than the delivery, is seen as being most important. Audience members expect speakers to be without artifice, to be genuine. This calls for a natural manner of delivery.

38. Identify three ways in which speakers can make a delivery seem more natural when they are reading from a prepared text.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note three of the following ways speakers can read naturally from a prepared text: (1) vary the rhythm of their words; (2) become familiar enough with the speech to allow for establishing some eye contact; (3) use a large font and double- or triplespace the manuscript to read without straining; (4) boldface words or phrases; (5) paginate notes or sheets in case the speech is dropped or shuffled; (6) if using a teleprompter, practice enough to feel comfortable using the device; (7) consider using compelling presentation aids; (8) check that technology is fully charged before the presentation; (9) rehearse with technology if possible.

39. List at least two tips for speaking impromptu.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note two of the following tips for speaking impromptu: (1) Think first about the listeners; speakers should consider their interests and needs and try to shape their remarks accordingly. For example, who are the people present, and what are their views on the topic? (2) Listen to what others around them are saying. Speakers can take notes in a key-word or phrase format and arrange them into ideas or main points from which they can speak.

(3) If the speech follows someone else's, the speaker can acknowledge that person's statements, then make their own points. (4) Stay on the topic and don't wander off track. (5) Use transitions such as

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Chapter 17 "first," "second," and "third," both to organize main points and to help listeners follow along with the speech.

40. Compare and contrast these two methods of speech delivery: speaking impromptu and speaking extemporaneously.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speaking impromptu—a type of delivery that is unpracticed, spontaneous, or improvised—involves speaking on relatively short notice with little time to prepare. Speaking extemporaneously falls somewhere between impromptu and written or memorized deliveries. In an extemporaneous speech, speakers should prepare well and practice in advance, giving full attention to all facets of the speech—content, arrangement, and delivery alike.

Instead of memorizing or writing the speech word for word, speakers should use an outline of key words and phrases, having concentrated throughout their preparation and practice on the ideas they want to communicate. Both methods result in natural-sounding delivery; however, extemporaneous speaking is prepared and rehearsed, and speakers should have a carefully prepared speaking outline to prompt them. With impromptu delivery, speakers may have no notes at all or brief notes that they jot down in the short time they have to prepare.

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Chapter 18 1. Pitch is the relative loudness of a speaker's voice while giving a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. The proper volume for delivering a speech is somewhat louder than that of normal conversation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. When adjusting speaking volume, factors a speaker should consider include the size of the room and the number of people in the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. The key to projecting one's voice is to breathe deeply from the vocal cords. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Pitch is the range of sounds from high to low (or vice versa). a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. When there is no variety in pitch, speaking becomes monotonous. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Speaking rate is sometimes referred to as tempo, the pace at which a person conveys speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. The normal rate of speech for adults is between 250 and 300 words per minute. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 9. Research shows that a faster speaking style is perceived as less credible than moderate or slow speaking rates.

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Chapter 18 a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Pauses in speeches can lead to awkwardness and should be avoided as much as possible. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. Unnecessary and undesirable words used to cover pauses are called vocal fillers. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. Enthusiasm is key to achieving effective vocal variety in a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. Pronunciation is the clarity or forcefulness with which word sounds are made so that they are audible and discernible. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. People in the United States speak one primary dialect. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. Articulation problems are a matter of habit. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. A speaker's dialect may be distracting to the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. Pronouncing the "w" in "sword" is an error of articulation. a. True

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Chapter 18 b. False ANSWER: b 18. The relative loudness of a speaker's voice while delivering a speech is called: a. intonation. b. pitch. c. rate. d. volume.

ANSWER: d 19. A speaker can naturally project their voice by: a. tightening their abdominal muscles. b. filling their lungs with air. c. breathing deeply from the diaphragm. d. strengthening their vocal cords.

ANSWER: c 20. Which vocal element refers to the range of sounds from high to low in a speaker's voice? a. articulation b. intonation c. volume d. pitch ANSWER: d 21. Natural speaking pitch is determined by: a. anatomy. b. gender. c. intonation. d. tempo.

ANSWER: a 22. Which vocal element refers to the rising and falling of vocal pitch across phrases and sentences, which can result in the same word or phrase conveying very distinct meanings? a. rate b. intonation c. volume d. articulation ANSWER: b 23. Which vocal element distinguishes a question from a statement? a. articulation

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Chapter 18 b. intonation c. volume d. rate ANSWER: b 24. Which vocal element conveys a speaker's mood, level of enthusiasm, concern for the audience, and overall commitment to the occasion? a. volume b. pitch c. rate d. intonation ANSWER: d 25. Speakers can avoid speaking in a monotone voice by: a. varying their intonation. b. speaking faster and louder. c. clearly articulating their words. d. using vocal fillers during pauses.

ANSWER: a 26. The pace at which a speaker conveys speech is called their: a. pitch. b. intonation. c. tempo. d. vocal variety.

ANSWER: c 27. When might a speaker wish to strategically vary their speech rate? a. when the audience looks bored b. when they are pressed for time c. when they want to build their credibility d. when they need to drive home a point ANSWER: d 28. Which vocal element can enhance meaning by providing a type of punctuation, emphasizing a point, or drawing attention to a key thought? a. vocal fillers b. pauses c. dialects d. pitches ANSWER: b

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Chapter 18 29. Unnecessary and undesirable words used to cover pauses are called: a. vocal fillers. b. pauses. c. dialects. d. pitches.

ANSWER: a 30. Rather than using vocal fillers in a speech, speakers should: a. ask rhetorical questions. b. use transition words. c. use silent pauses. d. pronounce words clearly.

ANSWER: c 31. Enthusiasm is key to achieving effective: a. intonation. b. vocal variety. c. volume. d. tempo.

ANSWER: b 32. Which term refers to the correct formation of word sounds? a. articulation b. dialect c. intonation d. pronunciation ANSWER: d 33. Which term refers to the clarity or forcefulness with which word sounds are made? a. articulation b. speech rate c. intonation d. pronunciation ANSWER: a 34. Explain how a speaker can learn to adjust his or her speaking volume.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should be alert to signals that their volume is slipping or is too loud and make the necessary adjustments. If their tendency is to speak softly—and many speakers do this, usually from a lack of confidence—they initially may need to project more than seems necessary. To project their voice so that it is loud enough to be heard by everyone in the audience, they can breathe deeply from the diaphragm rather than more

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Chapter 18 shallowly from their vocal cords.

35. List the factors that determine how loudly a speaker will have to speak.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the proper volume for delivering a speech is somewhat louder than that of normal conversation. Just how much louder depends on three factors: (1) the size of the room and of the audience, (2) whether or not a speaker is using a microphone, and (3) the level of background noise.

36. Explain how speakers can avoid speaking in a monotone voice.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the best way for speakers to avoid speaking in a monotone voice is to record themselves while practicing. They can do this by using a smartphone, a computer, or another recording device. Then, speakers can listen to themselves deliver their speech and make adjustments when they identify instances that require better intonation.

37. Why is it important for speakers to pay attention to their speaking rate?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speaking rate can impact the audience's overall reaction to a speech. Speech rates that are too slow may lead to the audience fidgeting, becoming bored, or even falling asleep. Speech rates that are too fast may irritate or confuse the audience because they can't catch what the speaker is saying. The best way for a speaker to know if their speech rate is too fast or too slow is to pay attention to their audience's reactions.

38. Give an example of a commonly used vocal filler, and then explain how it would affect a speech's message.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note one of these or other common vocal fillers: 'uh," "hmmm," "ummmm," "you know," and "like." These unnecessarily filled pauses can make a speaker appear unprepared and cause audience members to be distracted. Rather than vocal fillers, speakers should use silent pauses for strategic effect.

39. Explain the difference between pronunciation and articulation. Why are these elements of a speaker's vocal delivery so important?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that pronunciation is the correct formation of word sounds. Articulation is the clarity or forcefulness with which the sounds are made, regardless of whether they are pronounced correctly. The better a speaker's pronunciation is all around, the more enhanced the audience's perceptions of their competence will be, and the greater the potential impact of the speech. Poor articulation (mumbling) can affect the audience's ability to understand the speaker and the speech.

40. What can a speaker do to correct articulation problems?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that if a speaker is prone to mumbling, they can practice speaking more loudly and with emphatic pronunciation. Speakers can also practice clear and precise enunciation of proper word sounds; they can do this by repeating a word several times until it rolls off their tongue naturally.

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Chapter 19 1. Beyond the spoken words, audiences receive information from a speech through aural and visual channels. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. The aural channel includes general body movement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. The visual channel refers to physical appearance and body language. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. Paralanguage refers to what is said, not to how something is said. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Body language refers to a speaker's gestures and body movement rather than their facial expressions and eye movement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. Nonverbal communication plays a key part in the audience's perception of the speaker's credibility. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Listeners are more likely to be persuaded by a speaker who uses vocal variety and establishes strong eye contact. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Smiling is an effective way for a speaker to build rapport with an audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 19 9. Making eye contact with the audience is one of the most important physical actions in public speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Scanning is a technique whereby speakers move their gaze from one listener to another and from one section of the audience to another, pausing along the way. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Speakers should avoid broad gestures. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. It is sometimes necessary to exaggerate gestures to ensure each audience member will see them. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. As space and time allow, a speaker should try to get out from behind the podium and establish closeness with the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Moving out from behind a podium and walking or standing among audience members establishes a formal speech atmosphere. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. Speakers should always dress professionally and formally, even if the occasion permits casual dress. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. The first thing an audience is likely to notice about a speaker is his or her clothing. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 19 17. Practicing a speech too many times can increase speaking anxiety. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. Audio and video recording of the speech are valuable tools for practicing the delivery of a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. During practice, a speaker should be prepared to revise his or her speaking notes. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. When practicing a speech, the speaker should try to simulate the actual speech setting. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. Practicing a speech in front of someone and welcoming constructive criticism are helpful for speakers. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. A speaker who focuses on the message is likely to make his or her delivery more natural and confident. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Speakers should rehearse their speech using a working outline. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. Many expert speakers recommend practicing a speech at least three times in its final form. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 25. The aural channel includes: a. volume and pitch.

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Chapter 19 b. facial expressions. c. gestures and body movement. d. eye behavior.

ANSWER: a 26. The vocalizations that form and accompany a speaker's spoken words are called: a. paralanguage. b. phonation. c. elocution. d. intonation.

ANSWER: a 27. What nonverbal cue refers to how something is said rather than what is said? a. intonation b. phonation c. elocution d. paralanguage ANSWER: d 28. Nonverbal communication consists of which two elements? a. language and paralanguage b. verbal and symbolic language c. aural and visual channels d. environmental and contextual channels ANSWER: c 29. By and large, few behaviors are more effective at building a solid rapport with an audience than: a. smiling. b. shaking hands. c. serious facial expressions. d. self-deprecation.

ANSWER: a 30. Which nonverbal behavior is an effective tool for helping speakers relax and gain heightened composure? a. shaking hands b. smiling c. eye contact d. humor ANSWER: b 31. Which nonverbal behavior is MOST important in maintaining the quality of directness in speech delivery?

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Chapter 19 a. eye contact b. facial expressions c. gestures d. body posture ANSWER: a 32. Which nonverbal behavior is considered the MOST important physical action in public speaking? a. smiling b. paralanguage c. eye contact d. gestures ANSWER: c 33. The "rule of three" is a technique for: a. increasing nonverbal immediacy. b. professional dressing. c. scanning the audience. d. rehearsing the speech.

ANSWER: c 34. What technique is used by speakers whereby they briefly gaze at individual members of the audience? a. scanning b. talking head c. nonverbal immediacy d. paralanguage ANSWER: a 35. Which nonverbal behavior can fill in the gap of spoken words such as when a speaker wants to illustrate the size of an object? a. facial expressions b. eye contact c. paralanguage d. gestures ANSWER: d 36. Gestures should be: a. repetitive. b. narrow. c. exaggerated. d. genuine.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 19 37. A speaker who remains steadily positioned in one place behind a microphone or a podium: a. is especially effective. b. can lose audience attention. c. energizes the audience. d. exudes seriousness.

ANSWER: b 38. Listeners perceive speakers who slouch as being: a. relaxed. b. unfocused. c. carefree. d. friendly.

ANSWER: b 39. Speakers can practice effective posture by doing what? a. developing strong eye contact b. using nonverbal immediacy behaviors c. smiling and being friendly d. practicing in front of a mirror ANSWER: d 40. The various objects on or around a speaker while giving a speech—pencil and pen, briefcase, a glass of water, or papers with notes on them—are an extension of their: a. paralanguage. b. nonverbal immediacy. c. dress or appearance. d. gestures.

ANSWER: c 41. What is essential to effective delivery and can reduce the uncertainty that leads to speech anxiety? a. practice b. nonverbal immediacy c. paralanguage d. scanning ANSWER: a 42. Speakers should plan to video record their practice sessions how many times? a. two b. three c. four

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Chapter 19 d. five ANSWER: a 43. If a speaker discovers that their speech is too short after practicing aloud, what should they do? a. Talk at a slower rate to meet the required time. b. Cut out information that doesn't seem necessary. c. Make sure they are adequately supporting their main points. d. Add in other information to make up for time.

ANSWER: c 44. The most ideal time to begin practicing the speech is: a. two hours before the speech. b. the day before the speech. c. several days before the speech. d. the day a speaker begins writing the speech.

ANSWER: c 45. What should speakers try to do when practicing their speech? a. Avoid rehearsing too much. b. Simulate the actual speech setting. c. Give the speech to a full audience. d. Record the speech at least six times.

ANSWER: b 46. How many times do expert speakers recommend practicing a speech in its final form? a. three b. four c. five d. six ANSWER: d 47. The primary purpose of any speech is to do what? a. persuade an audience b. get a message across c. display strong delivery skills d. inform or entertain an audience ANSWER: b 48. Identify and explain the two nonverbal channels of communication from which audiences receive information during a speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the two nonverbal channels of

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Chapter 19 communication are the aural and the visual. The aural channel consists of the vocalizations that form and accompany the speaker's spoken words. These vocalizations, or paralanguage, include the qualities of volume, pitch, rate, variety, and pronunciation and articulation. Paralanguage refers to how something is said, not to what is said. Audience members simultaneously use their eyes (the visual channel) to evaluate messages sent by a speaker's physical appearance and body language— facial expressions, eye behavior, gestures, and general body movement.

49. How does effective use of nonverbal behavior establish a speaker's credibility?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that nonverbal communication plays a key role in the audience's perceptions of a speaker's competence, trustworthiness, and character.

Research shows that listeners are more readily persuaded by speakers who emphasize vocal variety, establish strong eye contact, nod and smile at the audience, and use open body positions. Students also judge instructors by how well they use nonverbal cues. For instance, students find instructors more credible when they use direct eye contact, open gestures, smiling, and who are properly dressed for the occasion.

50. List two tips for using effective facial expressions.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following tips for using effective facial expressions: (1) Use animated expressions that feel natural and express meaning; (2) Never use expressions that are out of character or are inappropriate to the speech occasion; (3) In practice sessions, loosen facial features with exercises such as widening the eyes and moving the mouth; (4) Establish rapport with the audience by smiling naturally when appropriate.

51. List and explain two ways that a speaker can maintain eye contact with the audience.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following techniques for eye contact while speaking: (1) Speakers can make the audience feel recognized by using a technique called scanning; when they scan an audience, they move their gaze from one listener to another and from one section to another, pausing to gaze at one person long enough to complete one thought before removing their gaze and shifting it to another listener. (2) Speakers might also use the "rule of three": Pick three audience members to focus on—one in the middle, one on the right, and one on the left of the room; these audience members will be the anchors as the speaker scans the room. (3) Speakers might also focus on the back row, giving the audience the impression they are taking them all in.

52. Explain how a speaker's gestures can clarify the speech message.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that words alone seldom suffice to convey what people want to express. Physical gestures fill in the gaps, as in illustrating the size or shape of an object (e.g., by showing the size of an object by extending two hands, palms facing each other), expressing the depth of an emotion (e.g., by pounding a fist on a podium), or signaling certain qualities of the speaker (e.g., positioning the hands in such a way as to signal dominance).

53. List two tips for effective gesturing.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should include two of the following tips for effective gesturing: (1) Use natural, spontaneous gestures; (2) Avoid exaggerated gestures, but use gestures that are broad enough to be seen by each audience member; (3) Eliminate distracting gestures, such as fidgeting with pens or pencils or brushing back hair from the eyes; (4) Analyze gestures for

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Chapter 19 effectiveness in practice sessions; (5) Practice movements that feel natural, especially punctuating movements that drive home important points.

54. List two broad guidelines for a speaker's dress code.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should dress appropriate to the audience's expectations and for the nature of the speaking occasion. While some occasions permit casual dress, speakers should take care not to dress sloppy or unkempt. Answers might also note any of the following guidelines: (1) for a "power" look, wear a dark-colored suit; (2) medium-blue or navy paired with white can enhance credibility; (3) yellow and orange color tones convey friendliness; (4) the color red focuses attention on the speaker; and (5) avoid accessories that may distract listeners.

55. Why should a speaker time the speech during practice?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that speakers should time each part of the speech (introduction, body, and conclusion) so that if they exceed or fall short of their time limit, they can adjust these sections accordingly. If the speech is too long, speakers can look for extraneous material that can be cut. If the speech is too short, speakers can review their evidence and make certain they are adequately supporting their main points.

56. Why might a speaker revise his or her speaking outline after practicing the speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that as a speaker practices, they should revise their speech as needed. If the introduction or conclusion isn't as effective as they would like, they can rework it. Speakers can make other adjustments as necessary to improve their speech and make their notes easier to follow.

57. Give three guidelines for practicing a speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note three of the following guidelines for practicing a speech: (1) Practice with speaking notes, revising those parts of the speech that aren't satisfactory, and altering the notes where needed; (2) Focus on the speech ideas rather than on one's self; (3) Time each part of the speech—introduction, body, and conclusion; (4) Practice with presentation aids; (5) Practice the speech several times, and then record it; (6) If possible, videotape the speech twice—once after several practice sessions, and again after changes have been incorporated into the speech; (7) Practice in front of at least one volunteer, and seek constructive criticism; (8) Schedule practice sessions early in the process to allow time to prepare.

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Chapter 20 1. A primary purpose of presentation aids is to help listeners understand difficult concepts. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. A presentation aid should not simply duplicate what the speaker says. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Powerful presentation aids such as photographs can be used to evoke emotions in the audience, even when they do not enhance a speech's message. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Presentation aid is synonymous with visual aid. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Objects, models, pictures, graphs, charts, video, audio, and multimedia can all be used as presentation aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. A prop can be any live or inanimate object—such as a snake or a stone—that helps demonstrate the speaker's points. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. A prop is a three-dimensional, scale-size representation of something. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Models are two-dimensional representations of people, places, ideas, or objects. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20 9. When using a prop or model, speakers should display it only when they are ready to use it. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Matt is giving a speech on the secrets behind some popular magic tricks. He brings in a live rabbit and a top hat as presentation aids to demonstrate one trick. The hat and the rabbit are models. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. A diagram can also be called a schematic drawing. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. To illustrate how interest rates have fluctuated over the past 20 years, a speaker would use a bar graph. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Line graphs are useful when a speaker needs to demonstrate how something changes or fluctuates in value. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Line graphs and pictograms can both be used to demonstrate trends. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. A pie graph uses bars of varying lengths to compare quantities or magnitudes. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. A speaker would use a pie graph to represent how much time users spend daily on social media sites such as Facebook, Instagram, Twitter, YouTube, and TikTok. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 20 17. To show a sequence of activities or the directional flow in a process, speakers should use a pictogram. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. Video clips can motivate listeners' attention and help speakers clarify points in a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Audio clips are distracting and shouldn't be used as presentation aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. Multimedia combines several media—such as audio, video, and text—into a single production. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. The variety of information cues in multimedia presentations can boost audience attention, comprehension, and retention. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. The use of multimedia requires less planning than other forms of presentation aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 23. More traditional options for displaying presentation aids include computer-generated aids shown with digital projectors or on large, flat-screen monitors. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. Chalkboards and whiteboards use multimedia to tell a story about oneself or others. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20 25. Chalkboards and whiteboards are equally good options to computer-generated aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 26. A whiteboard is a useful aid for presenting simple or impromptu explanations. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 27. If speakers have time to prepare more advanced presentation aids, they should avoid writing on chalkboards and whiteboards. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. Speakers should use flip charts only when they want to write or draw as they speak. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 29. Handouts used for presentation aids should always be passed out before a speech begins. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 30. Presentation aids can be used to: a. duplicate what the speaker says. b. add interesting but irrelevant information. c. get the audience excited about a message. d. help listeners visualize a message.

ANSWER: d 31. Presentation aids are known for their ability to: a. bore audiences. b. create a more dynamic speech. c. make the speaker seem amateurish. d. be a tool of last resort.

ANSWER: b 32. When selecting presentation aids, speakers should use aids that: a. excite the audience the most.

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Chapter 20 b. are progressive and high-tech. c. help listeners grasp information. d. look and feel more traditional.

ANSWER: c 33. Which type of presentation aid consists of a three-dimensional, scale-size representation of something? a. model b. prop c. pictogram d. diagram ANSWER: a 34. Josh is presenting an informative speech on the anatomy of the human heart. He uses a three-dimensional representation of the heart as a presentation aid. Which type of aid is Josh using? a. a model b. a Prezi c. a pictogram d. a multimedia presentation ANSWER: a 35. Pictures as presentation aids include: a. diagrams. b. graphs. c. charts. d. models.

ANSWER: a 36. Which type of presentation aid represents relationships among two or more things? a. diagrams b. graphs c. charts d. models ANSWER: b 37. Which type of graph uses columns of various lengths to compare quantities or magnitudes? a. pie graph b. pictogram c. line graph d. bar graph ANSWER: d

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Chapter 20 38. Which type of graph is useful for demonstrating how something changes or fluctuates in value? a. bar graph b. line graph c. pie graph d. pictogram ANSWER: b 39. Which presentation aid uses picture symbols to illustrate relationships and trends? a. flowchart b. pictogram c. map d. table ANSWER: b 40. In her speech about opioid addiction, Selena wants to show how deaths from opioid overdoses have increased over the past 10 years. To best illustrate these comparisons, Selena could use a: a. bar graph. b. flowchart. c. pie graph. d. pictogram.

ANSWER: d 41. A diagram that shows step-by-step progression through a procedure, a relationship, or a process is called a: a. map. b. pictogram. c. flowchart. d. table.

ANSWER: c 42. Which type of chart best illustrates a sequence of activities or the directional flow in a process? a. flowchart b. organizational chart c. pictogram d. table ANSWER: a 43. Manuel is asked by his manager to present the new procedures for processing orders at the coffee house where he is employed. What type of presentation aid would best communicate this information? a. a flowchart b. an organizational chart c. a pictogram

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Chapter 20 d. a table ANSWER: a 44. Which presentation aid offers a succinct display of comparative information or numerical data in rows and columns? a. a flowchart b. a graph c. a pictogram d. a table ANSWER: d 45. Which type of presentation aid consists of short recordings of sound, music, or speech? a. multimedia b. audio clips c. digital storytelling d. video clips ANSWER: b 46. When incorporating audio or video into a presentation, the speaker should: a. use it in a manner consistent with its copyright. b. use either audio or video but never both. c. explain in detail what the audience has just seen or heard. d. cue the audio or video clip while he or she is speaking.

ANSWER: a 47. Which type of presentation aid combines several media (such as stills, video, text, and data) into a single production? a. multimedia b. audio clips c. digital storytelling d. video clips ANSWER: a 48. As a presentation aid, multimedia: a. are not as popular as other options. b. can be created using limited software programs. c. reinforce visual but not auditory information. d. require more planning than other presentation aids.

ANSWER: d 49. Using multimedia to tell a story that will resonate with the audience is called:

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Chapter 20 a. 3D imaging. b. schematic presentation. c. digital storytelling. d. computer-generated media.

ANSWER: c 50. When generating and displaying presentation aids such as tables and charts, most speakers today use presentation software such as PowerPoint, Keynote, and: a. Google slides. b. Slidebean. c. Prezi. d. Ludus.

ANSWER: c 51. A chalkboard or whiteboard is an effective presentation aid when a speaker: a. has a lot of time to prepare for a speech. b. explains an elaborate process or procedure. c. gives an impromptu explanation. d. explains complex relationships between variables.

ANSWER: c 52. A simple pad of paper on which a speaker can write or draw, typically prepared in advance, is called a: a. flip chart. b. map. c. pictogram. d. handout.

ANSWER: a 53. To minimize listener distractions, a speaker should distribute handouts: a. at the beginning of the speech. b. in the middle of the speech. c. when he or she is finished talking. d. only in exceptional circumstances.

ANSWER: c 54. Page-size items conveying information that is intended for audience members to keep after the presentation are called: a. flip charts. b. handouts. c. speaker notes. d. flowcharts.

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Chapter 20 ANSWER: b 55. Why should presentation aids complement or enhance the speech rather than serve as the main source of the speaker's ideas?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that presentation aids should not simply duplicate what the speaker says. They should help listeners understand and retain information that is otherwise difficult to convey in words; they should also help listeners visualize what the speaker is describing. When used effectively, presentation aids can create a more dynamic and engaging presentation and boost speaker credibility.

56. How can the audience be affected by the use or misuse of presentation aids?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that no matter how powerful a photograph, chart, or other aid may be, if it is unrelated to a speech point, is poorly designed, or simply duplicates what the speaker says, the audience will become distracted and actually retain less information than they would without it.

57. Identify two types of pictures that can be used as presentation aids. Next, give an example of a speech topic for which these presentation aids would be appropriate.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note examples similar to two of the following: (1) A photograph might be helpful in a speech about a person, place, or thing; for example, a speaker might include photos in a biographical speech about Elvis Presley. (2) A line drawing might be helpful in a speech about how an invention is copyrighted. Speakers might include a line drawing of an invention that was submitted for copyright protection. (3) A diagram or schematic drawing might be used in a speech about how to go cable-free and still have access to the programming a viewer likes, for example, depicting how to access programs using other devices or subscriptions. (4) A map might be used in a speech about the Arab Spring in the Middle East. Speakers could show maps of the countries involved and where they are situated in relationship to one another. (5) A speaker might display a poster, large paperboard incorporating text, figures, and images, alone or in combination with other presentation aids, to display information in the speech. For example, a poster of the subject of the speech or a map might remain visible on an easel so that the speaker can refer to it as needed while they speak.

58. Explain the difference between a line graph and a bar graph.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a line graph uses points connected by lines to demonstrate how something changes or fluctuates over time. A bar or column graph uses bars of varying lengths to compare quantities or magnitudes. Line graphs are generally horizontal.

Bar and column graphs may be horizontal or vertical.

59. What is a pie graph, and when would it be appropriate for use as a presentation aid?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that pie graphs depict the division of a whole into slices, with each slice constituting a percentage of the whole. Pie graphs are valuable whenever a speaker wants to communicate proportionate parts of a whole; for example, a speaker might use a pie graph to represent the percentages of various ethnic groups in the United States.

60. Explain and give an example of an appropriate use for a flowchart and a table.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a flowchart diagrams the progression of a

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Chapter 20 process as a sequence or directional flow. It might be used to communicate how a process, such as the process of becoming a U.S. citizen, works. A table (tabular chart) systematically groups data in column form, allowing viewers to examine and make comparisons about information quickly.

Tables are easily recognized by their rows and columns. A speaker might use a table to give the results of a survey.

61. How can an audio or video clip enhance a speaker's main points?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that audio and video clips—including short recordings of sound, music, or speech; and clips from movies, television, and other recordings—can motivate an audience to pay closer attention to a speech. Audio and video clips can also help a speaker move among and clarify their points.

62. Explain the difference between a flip chart and a chalkboard or whiteboard. When is it more suitable to use a chalkboard or whiteboard for showing presentation aids?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a flip chart is a large pad of paper on which a speaker can write or draw. Flip charts can be prepared in advance or written on during the speech. Writing on chalkboards and whiteboards should be reserved for impromptu explanations.

When speakers have the time to prepare more advanced presentation aids, they should avoid writing on boards or flipcharts. These more traditional forms of displaying presentation aids force the speaker to turn their back to the audience and require listeners to wait while the speaker writes. They also require legible handwriting, since they are not prepared in advance.

63. Explain when and how a speaker should use handouts in their speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that speakers should use handouts in their speech when it is impractical to give the audience information in another format, or when they want the audience to keep material after the presentation. A disadvantage of handouts is that they can distract listeners from the speech if not used effectively. As a general rule, speakers should wait until they have concluded their speech to distribute handouts. If a speaker wants the audience to view a handout during the speech, they should pass it out only when they are ready to talk about it and encourage audience members to follow along with each point or section that they cover.

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Chapter 21 1. Well-planned presentation aids communicate to an audience that a speaker is prepared and professional. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Presentation aids that contain too much information will detract from a speaker's message. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Speakers should present at least three major ideas per slide. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. A presentation aid with words should follow the eight-by-eight rule. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Using the active verb form and parallel grammatical structure is one way to keep the design of a presentation aid simple. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. When designing a presentation aid, speakers should avoid clutter and allow plenty of white space. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Speakers should replace words with graphics whenever possible to better engage the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Speakers should avoid putting titles on presentation aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 9. A speaker's choice of key design elements (such as fonts, colors, and italics) should be consistent across

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Chapter 21 presentation aids to help maintain continuity. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. A typeface refers to a specific style of lettering, such as Arial or Times Roman. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Sans serif typefaces include small flourishes, or strokes, at the tops and bottoms of each letter. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. If a speaker includes only a few lines of text on a presentation aid, he or she must use serif type throughout. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Script and novelty fonts should be used infrequently, with novelty fonts used the least. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. For on-screen projection, major headings should be displayed in 36-point type. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. For on-screen projection, body text should be displayed in no larger than 12-point type. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Presentation aids are most effective and easier to read when the words are written in all uppercase letters. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 17. Boldface, underlining, and italics should be used sparingly in presentation slides. a. True

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Chapter 21 b. False ANSWER: a 18. The color yellow is warm on white and black backgrounds. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. Red, blue, and yellow colors can be used effectively on a black background. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. The background color of a presentation should remain constant. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. Bold, bright colors should be used to emphasize important points. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. Presentation aids that contain four or more colors are more effective than those that contain only one or two. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 23. Colors can evoke distinct associations for people. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. When designing a presentation aid, the speaker should strive for: a. simplicity. b. formality. c. variety. d. novelty.

ANSWER: a 25. How many major ideas should be present on each slide? a. one

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Chapter 21 b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: a 26. To help audience members quickly process a message on a slide, a speaker should: a. pause for 30 seconds on each slide. b. use no more than three slides per presentation. c. present only one idea per slide. d. follow an eight-by-eight rule.

ANSWER: c 27. When attempting to minimize the number of words used in each presentation aid, speakers should follow what rule? a. three-by-three b. four-by-four c. six-by-six d. eight-by-eight ANSWER: c 28. A presentation aid with words should have no more than how many words per line? a. one b. three c. five d. six ANSWER: d 29. Speakers should word their slide text in which form? a. descriptive b. active verb form c. passive verb form d. persuasive ANSWER: b 30. When designing presentation aids, speakers should: a. vary the design elements throughout the aid. b. use the same design elements throughout the aid. c. use similar design elements only on introductory slides. d. use script and novelty fonts consistently throughout the aid.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21 31. What term refers to a specific style of lettering, such as Arial? a. typeface b. font c. script d. type design ANSWER: a 32. Typefaces come in a variety of point sizes, upper- and lowercases, and: a. scripts. b. sans scripts. c. fonts. d. serifs.

ANSWER: c 33. The two categories of typefaces are sans serif and: a. script. b. sans script. c. font. d. serif.

ANSWER: d 34. Which typeface includes small flourishes at the tops and bottoms of each letter? a. script b. sans script c. serif d. sans serif ANSWER: c 35. Which typefaces are blocklike and linear? a. script b. sans script c. serif d. sans serif ANSWER: d 36. Which category of font consists of unique, flashy, and even cartoonish lettering? a. novelty b. sans serif c. serif d. script ANSWER: a

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Chapter 21 37. When selecting type styles for a presentation, a speaker should: a. use multiple typefaces for a single visual aid. b. use boldface and italics regularly to highlight points. c. use all capital letters for dramatic effect. d. check his or her lettering for legibility.

ANSWER: d 38. On slides, subheadings should be in what size type? a. 12-point b. 18-point c. 24-point d. 36-point ANSWER: c 39. For on-screen projection, major headings should be displayed in which size type? a. 12-point b. 18-point c. 24-point d. 36-point ANSWER: d 40. For on-screen projection, regular text should be displayed in which size type? a. 12-point b. 18-point c. 24-point d. 36-point ANSWER: b 41. Boldface, underlining, and italics should be used: a. as often as possible. b. to emphasize minor points. c. sparingly on slides. d. only on slide titles.

ANSWER: c 42. Skillful use of color in presentation aids can: a. draw attention to key points. b. show off the speaker's creativity. c. compensate for lack of preparation. d. distract listeners from the main message.

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Chapter 21 ANSWER: a 43. Which color is warm on a white background and soothing on a light blue background? a. blue b. black c. red d. yellow ANSWER: d 44. Which color is warm on a white background but hard to see on a black background? a. blue b. white c. yellow d. black ANSWER: a 45. A speaker should limit the number of colors used in a simple presentation aid to: a. two. b. three. c. four. d. five.

ANSWER: c 46. Explain the principle of simplicity, and give an example.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that each slide should include no more than one major idea. Speakers should follow the six-by-six rule by including no more than six words in a line and six lines per slide. They should also avoid clutter, allow plenty of white space on each slide, and create concise titles.

47. What is a typeface? Explain the difference between serif and sans serif typefaces.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a typeface is a specific style of lettering, with the two major categories of typefaces being serif and sans serif. Serif typefaces include small flourishes, or strokes, at the tops and bottoms of each letter. Sans serif typefaces are more blocklike and linear; they are designed without the tiny strokes of a serif font.

48. Give three tips for using typefaces and fonts effectively in a presentation aid.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that for reading a block of text, serif typefaces are easier on the eye. Small amounts of text, however, such as headings, are best viewed in sans serif type. Thus, consider a sans serif typeface for the heading and a serif typeface for the body of the text. If speakers include only a few lines of text, they should use sans serif type throughout.

Script and novelty fonts are two other categories of font and should be avoided or limited. Novelty fonts may be used in some presentation aids to grab the audience's attention and convey fun or excitement, yet should be used the least. Script can convey friendliness, approachability, or

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Chapter 21 creativity but can be difficulty to read from a distance; as a result, this type of font should be used infrequently.

49. Discuss how color can enhance or detract from a presentation aid's effectiveness.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that skillful use of color can draw attention to key points, influence the mood of a presentation, and make things easier to see. Conversely, poor color combinations will set the wrong mood, render an image unattractive, or make it unreadable.

Color affects both the legibility of text and the mood conveyed. Speakers should also keep the background color consistent across all slides; carefully use bold, bright colors to emphasize important points; check that colors are visible when projecting slides; and limit colors to three for most slides, with a maximum of four colors for complex and detailed aids.

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Chapter 22 1. Various presentation software programs offer public speakers powerful tools for creating and displaying high-quality visual aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Speakers must make sure that their visuals do not become their speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. When a speaker uses presentation aids, the presentation media should take center stage. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Once a speaker decides to use presentation software, they can use the presentation media to help cover up any nervousness they may feel. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Speakers can forge a stronger connection with their audience by casually looking at the audience and their slides as they present. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. The speaking outline is the best place to start when a speaker is trying to find points to support with visual aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Speakers should determine the best platform for displaying slides based on the size of the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. An audience of twenty or more will require a projector displaying slides on a large wall screen. a. True b. False

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Chapter 22 ANSWER: a 9. Speakers who rely on presentation software risk performance difficulties due to technical glitches. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Speakers can back up their presentation files on a flash drive, cloud storage, or even through email. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Since most computer systems are similar, speakers should not worry too much about familiarizing themselves with the layout and functioning of the presentation computer before delivering their speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. Distortion in graphics, sound, and video can be caused by software incompatibility. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. A speaker's worst-case scenario is a projector malfunction, as there is no way to proceed with a speech that depends heavily on presentation software without a projector. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. It is a good idea for speakers to prepare a printed and a digital backup of an electronic presentation in case of technical errors. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. As long as the speaker has checked the venue to be sure the equipment and room layout are in order, it is not necessary to practice using the visual aids. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Speakers should always face forward unless they are changing slides or gesturing toward presentation aids. a. True

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Chapter 22 b. False ANSWER: b 17. Eye contact is not possible while a speaker is using presentation software during a speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. During a speech with presentation software, speakers should keep their eyes on the screen to avoid losing their place. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. A speaker who stands sideways rather than facing the audience may appear as if they are reading off their slides. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. A speaker should plan to use a pointer (laser or otherwise) to highlight key details on their slides. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. Flickr is a good source for finding photographs for use in presentation slides. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. YouTube is not a reliable source of video clips for use in presentations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 23. Network and cable news networks are a good source for video content. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. If digital material included in a speech is covered under fair-use provisions, the speaker does not need to share the source of the material with the audience.

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Chapter 22 a. True b. False ANSWER: b 25. Speakers should consult their school's information technology (IT) office about their policies pertaining to copyrighted and fair-use materials. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 26. A bibliographic footnote on a slide fulfills the requirement to cite the source of copyrighted material in the presentation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 27. Unless speakers plan to pay for media, they should opt for sites offering "royalty-free" media objects. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 28. To ensure their media looks professional, speakers should avoid using their own pictures, video, or audio for their presentations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 29. What Apple presentation software can speakers use to create quality visual aids? a. PowerPoint b. Keynote c. Prezi d. PreZentit ANSWER: b 30. What Microsoft presentation software can speakers use to create quality visual aids? a. PowerPoint b. Keynote c. Prezi d. PreZentit ANSWER: a 31. Presentation aids can and do help listeners process information and enhance a speech, but only as long as

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Chapter 22 speakers: a. focus on the aids more than the content. b. create their own charts and graphs. c. forge a connection with their audience first. d. include both audio and visual media.

ANSWER: c 32. Some speakers hide behind presentation media because they are: a. nervous. b. unprepared. c. highly prepared. d. confident.

ANSWER: a 33. When is the best time for a speaker to begin planning their slides? a. after crafting the thesis statement b. when writing the working outline c. when writing the general speech purpose d. after developing the speaking outline ANSWER: d 34. Once a speaker has decided the content of their slides and how many they will need, what should they do next? a. document their sources b. provide examples in each slide c. decide how to arrange each slide d. choose a presentation software ANSWER: c 35. Letitia is required to use presentation software for a speech in her public speaking class. She should begin the process of developing her slide show by: a. deciding how many slides she needs to make the presentation interesting. b. searching the Internet for photos and video clips related to her topic. c. reviewing her speaking outline for points that could use visual support. d. considering whether she wants to use video, audio, or both.

ANSWER: c 36. Referring to the speaking outline is the best way for a speaker to find: a. photos to insert. b. charts with pertinent data. c. points that need visual support.

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Chapter 22 d. something glitzy.

ANSWER: c 37. Which view allows PowerPoint users to rearrange slides? a. Slide b. Slide Sorter c. Light Table d. Path Tool ANSWER: b 38. Speakers who rely on electronic presentations risk performance difficulties due to: a. projector malfunction. b. speaking anxiety. c. information overload on slides. d. errors on slides.

ANSWER: a 39. Technical errors that can arise from using presentation software include: a. inappropriate arrangement of slides. b. a computer drive freezing. c. a lack of eye contact from the speaker. d. use of too many slides.

ANSWER: b 40. When using presentation software, what should a speaker do before giving their presentation? a. create presentation slides that are interesting and entertaining b. test their slides on any projection equipment they plan to use c. make sure that their presentation slides take center stage d. rehearse reading from their slides so that they cover all material ANSWER: b 41. It is a good idea for speakers to prepare both a digital backup of their electronic presentation and: a. supplemental video and audio clips. b. a secondary presentation on CD or DVD. c. a full-sentence outline of their speech. d. a set of printed handouts of their visual aids.

ANSWER: d 42. When using presentation software, speakers should face which direction? a. at an angle facing both the audience and slides b. backward toward their slides

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Chapter 22 c. forward toward the audience d. forward but behind the presentation media ANSWER: c 43. Speakers should stand so that they and their slide shows are both in the: a. audience's side view. b. back of the room. c. front of the room. d. audience's sightlines.

ANSWER: d 44. If a speaker needs to call the audience's attention to a particular part of a slide, they should use: a. a laser pointer. b. a highlighter pen. c. their hand. d. wide gestures.

ANSWER: a 45. If a speaker wishes to insert music files into their presentation, which site should they use? a. Flickr Creative Commons b. SoundCloud c. NBC News Learn d. Google ANSWER: b 46. Monica is looking for music files for her informative speech on the punk rock movement of the 1970s.

Which Internet source would be appropriate? a. Getty Images b. Internet Archive c. Bing Videos d. Flickr Creative Commons ANSWER: b 47. Andre wants to use a video during his presentation. What Internet source would be appropriate for Andre to find quality video clips? a. YouTube b. Jamendo c. SoundClick d. American Memory ANSWER: a

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Chapter 22 48. Identify the three presentation platform options for displaying slides. Next, explain how speakers can properly display their slides using these platforms.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the three platforms for displaying presentation slides are a projector displaying slides on a large wall screen, a large monitor, or a laptop computer or tablet. A general rule of thumb is that a large audience (twenty or more people) calls for using a projector to display the slides on a large wall screen. A group of eight to twenty people could be served by displaying slides on a large monitor, and for fewer than eight people, a laptop or tablet set on a table might be large enough to display presentation slides.

49. Explain the common risks associated with using presentation software during a speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the common risks include a projector malfunction, incompatibility of a presentation file with an operating system, an Internet connection failing while using files from the Internet, or a computer drive freezing when attempting to play a media file. Answers might also address a speaker's temptation to hide behind a media presentation to hide nervousness, or making presentation aids center stage rather than their message.

50. How can speakers avoid presentation software technical glitches?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers can do the following to avoid presentation software technical glitches: (1) Verify that they have saved the presentation files to a reliable source—flash drive, CD, DVD, cloud storage, or e-mail—that will be accessible or recognized by the presentation computer. (2) Save all the files associated with the presentation (i.e., images, sound, and videos) into the same folder in the source location. (3) Become familiar with the presentation computer before giving the speech to facilitate smooth operation during the presentation. (4) Check that visual and audio files are compatible with the presentation computer used during the speech (e.g., Windows 10, Mac OS Catalina). (5) Confirm that the version of the presentation software used to create the aids corresponds to the software on the computer used in the presentation; this will prevent distortions in graphics, sound, and video. (6) If using a personal laptop or tablet, make sure it is fully charged, and bring all necessary connection wires needed for the presentation. (7) Prepare a digital backup and a set of printed handouts of visual aids in case of technical challenges.

51. Explain how speakers should position themselves during the speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should stand so that the audience has clear sight lines to both the speaker and the slide show. Speakers should face forward, even when changing slides or gesturing toward their aids. Speakers should also plan to use a pointer, laser pointer, or mouse cursor to highlight key details on their slides. Correct positioning helps speakers connect with their audience, project their voice clearly, and avoid reading off their slides.

52. List three forms of audio or visual enhancements that can be imported into presentation software. Next, identify at least three appropriate websites for downloading those audio and/or visual files.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers can import photos, illustrations, clip art, video, and sound into their presentation software. Quality digital images can be downloaded from websites such as Getty Images, Google, Flickr Creative Commons, and American Memory.

Music files can be downloaded from sites such as MP3.com, SoundClick, Internet Archive, The Daily.WAV, SoundCloud, and Jamendo. Video clips can be downloaded from sites such as NBC News Learn, CNN Video, YouTube, New York Times, Google Video, and Bing Videos.

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Chapter 22 53. Explain how speakers can avoid copyright infringement in their presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should abide by copyright restrictions when using visual and audio material from the Internet or other sources. A good way to do this is to consult their school's information technology (IT) office for statements of policy pertaining to copyrighted and fair-use materials, especially from undocumented sources, such as peer-to-peer (P2) sharing. Speakers should also cite the source of all copyrighted materials in their presentation (this can be a bibliographic footnote on the slide). When time, resources, and ability allow, speakers might also create their own pictures, video, or audio for their presentation slides.

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Chapter 23 1. With information available today in so many forms, electronic and otherwise, people have little need for informative speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. The goal of informative speaking is to convince an audience to change attitudes, beliefs, or values. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. The informative speech seeks to advocate, whereas the persuasive speech seeks to enlighten. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Audience analysis is insignificant in delivering an effective informative speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. A speaker should reveal the topic's relevance to the audience early on in the speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Speakers should seek to uncover information that is fresh and compelling. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. An appropriate organizational pattern can help listeners mentally organize ideas. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Speeches about events focus on ordinary, everyday occurrences, both past and present. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 9. Speeches about processes rely on reportage.

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Chapter 23 a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. Informative speeches should focus on concrete, not abstract, information. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. When discussing a process, a speaker must teach audience members to perform the process. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. Speeches about people have the greatest potential of "crossing the line" into the persuasive realm. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Speakers should be careful to define all key terms in an informative speech, no matter how familiar they seem. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Operational definitions define the topic by explaining what it does. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Definition by word origin defines the topic by explaining what it is not. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Definition by analogy defines the topic by providing several concrete examples. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 17. Definition by example is used to compare a word with its opposite. a. True

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Chapter 23 b. False ANSWER: b 18. When describing information, the speaker should always use visual aids, as words alone cannot provide an accurate mental picture. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 19. Speeches that rely on demonstration often work with the actual object, models of it, or visual aids that diagram it. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. A classroom lecture is an example of an explanation in an informative context. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. The challenge speakers face when they use analogies is finding one that perfectly represents the topic concept. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. In order to appeal to different audience members, a speaker should consider four learning styles: visual learners, aural learners, read/write learners, and kinesthetic learners. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Speakers do not always have enough information to determine the learning styles of their audience members, so they should plan to accommodate all four learning styles. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. According to one learning theory model, simulation would be more valuable to kinesthetic learners than aural learners. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 23 25. Informative speeches can be organized using the topical, chronological, spatial, causal, comparative advantage, or narrative patterns. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 26. To inform is to communicate: a. solutions. b. patterns. c. knowledge. d. inspiration.

ANSWER: c 27. An informative speech might introduce listeners to: a. traditional topics. b. novel ways of thinking. c. controversial ideas. d. various ways to take action.

ANSWER: b 28. The goal of informative speaking is to: a. decrease audience frustration and boredom. b. influence attitudes, values, beliefs, and behaviors. c. increase audience awareness or deepen understanding. d. entertain audience members.

ANSWER: c 29. One way speakers can motivate audience members to listen closely is by: a. focusing solely on hands-on topics. b. attempting to change key attitudes. c. speaking about passionate topics. d. using internal previews and summaries.

ANSWER: d 30. Which type of informative speech focuses on noteworthy occurrences, both past and present? a. speeches about things b. speeches about events c. speeches about objects or phenomena d. speeches about processes ANSWER: b

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Chapter 23 31. A speech on September 11, 2001, is which type of informative speech? a. a speech about a process b. a speech about an issue c. a speech about a concept d. a speech about an event ANSWER: d 32. An account of the who, what, where, when, and why of the facts is called: a. an explanation. b. a description. c. journalism. d. reportage.

ANSWER: d 33. Which type of informative speech relies on reportage and backstory? a. speeches about processes b. speeches about concepts c. speeches about events d. speeches about demonstration ANSWER: c 34. Which type of informative speech focuses on abstract or complex ideas and attempts to make them concrete and understandable? a. speeches about concepts b. speeches about issues c. speeches about objects or phenomena d. speeches about processes ANSWER: a 35. Which type of informative speech provides a report of a problem in order to raise awareness and deepen understanding? a. speeches about concepts b. speeches about issues c. speeches about objects or phenomena d. speeches about processes ANSWER: b 36. A speaker interested in reporting on the problem of rising college tuition rates is giving an informative speech about a(n): a. issue. b. event.

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Chapter 23 c. concept. d. phenomenon.

ANSWER: a 37. Which type of informative speech has the greatest potential to cross over into the persuasive realm? a. speeches about events b. speeches about concepts c. speeches about issues d. speeches about processes ANSWER: c 38. Which type of informative speech refers to a series of steps that lead to a finished product or end result? a. speeches about people b. speeches about events c. speeches about objects or phenomena d. speeches about processes ANSWER: d 39. A speaker explaining how audience members can find scholarships to offset tuition costs is giving an informative speech about a(n): a. issue. b. event. c. process. d. concept.

ANSWER: c 40. Which type of informative speech can be autobiographical? a. speeches about people b. speeches about events c. speeches about objects or phenomena d. speeches about issues ANSWER: a 41. Which type of informative speech explores anything that is not human? a. speeches about things b. speeches about events c. speeches about objects or phenomena d. speeches about processes ANSWER: c 42. Which type of definition defines a topic by explaining what it does?

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Chapter 23 a. definition by example b. operational definition c. definition by analogy d. definition by word origin ANSWER: b 43. Which type of definition defines a topic by describing what it is not? a. definition by example b. definition by negation c. definition by analogy d. definition by word origin ANSWER: b 44. Defining one term by comparing it to something with which it shares a common aspect is called: a. definition by example. b. operational definition. c. definition by word origin. d. definition by analogy.

ANSWER: d 45. "Life is like a box of chocolates" is an example of a definition by: a. example. b. negation. c. word origin. d. analogy.

ANSWER: d 46. Defining something by illustrating its root meaning is a definition by: a. example. b. negation. c. word origin. d. analogy.

ANSWER: c 47. A speaker explains that the word yoga is derived from the Sanskrit word yuj. The speaker is using definition by: a. analogy. b. example. c. negation. d. word origin.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 23 48. Audience members will understand a new concept more easily if the speaker links the unfamiliar with the familiar. In this case, the speaker is using a(n): a. demonstration. b. analogy. c. internal preview. d. backstory.

ANSWER: b 49. Listeners' preferred ways of processing information are known as their: a. learning style. b. listening style. c. information preference. d. knowledge level.

ANSWER: a 50. A speaker who uses pictures and diagrams will appeal to which type of learners? a. visual b. kinesthetic c. aural d. read/write ANSWER: a 51. Which type of learners is most comfortable processing information that is text-based? a. kinesthetic b. read/write c. visual d. aural ANSWER: b 52. Which type of learners understands most easily through the spoken word, by hearing and speaking? a. kinesthetic b. read/write c. visual d. aural ANSWER: d 53. Which type of learners learns best by experiencing information directly, through real-life demonstrations, simulations, and hands-on experience? a. kinesthetic b. read/write

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Chapter 23 c. visual d. aural ANSWER: a 54. List three ways a speaker can focus on sharing knowledge with an audience.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note three of the following ways a speaker can focus on sharing knowledge with an audience. (1) Enlighten rather than advocate. (2) Use audience analysis to discover how to give listeners a reason to care about their topic. (3) Present new and interesting information. (4) Look for ways to increase understanding.

55. List and briefly explain the six categories of informative speeches.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the six categories of informative speeches are speeches about events, concepts, issues, processes, people, and objects/phenomena. (1) Speeches about events offer information and analysis about noteworthy occurrences—past, present, and even future. (2) Speeches about concepts focus on ideas, theories, or beliefs, and attempt to make them concrete and understandable to an audience. (3) Speeches about issues provide an overview or a report of problems in order to raise awareness and deepen understanding. (4) Speeches about processes refer to a progression or series of steps that lead to an end result. (5) Speeches about people inform audiences about individuals and groups who have made contributions to society, or who people simply find compelling. (6) Speeches about objects or phenomena explore anything that isn't human; these can be animate or inanimate.

56. List and define three types of definition.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note three of the following types of definition: operational definition—defining something by what it does; definition by negation—defining something by what it is not; definition by example—defining something by providing several concrete examples; definition by analogy—defining something by comparing it to something with which it shares a common aspect; definition by word origin—defining something by its root meaning.

57. How is explaining information different from describing information?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that the point of description is to provide a mental picture for the audience. Speakers typically use concrete words and vivid imagery to help listeners visualize their main ideas. Explaining, on the other hand, provides reasons or causes, demonstrates relationships, and offers interpretation and analysis.

58. What is an analogy, and how can it be used to help a speaker inform his or her audience about a new concept?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers may note that an analogy is an expanded metaphor or simile. Audience members will understand a new concept more easily if the speaker uses an analogy to relate it to something that they already know. By linking the unfamiliar with the familiar through an analogy, speakers help their listeners to construct new knowledge from their prior knowledge.

59. List the four types of learning styles, and provide an example of what a speaker can do to appeal to each style.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the four types of learning style are visual,

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Chapter 23 aural, read/write, and kinesthetic. Visual learners will most quickly grasp ideas by viewing visual representations of them, either through pictures, diagrams, slides, or videos. Understanding for aural learners comes most easily through the spoken word, by hearing and speaking. Read/write learners are most comfortable processing information that is text-based. Kinesthetic learners learn best by experiencing information directly, through real-life demonstrations, simulations, and hands-on experience.

60. Why is it important for a speaker to appeal to different learning styles?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that audience members are more likely to follow a speaker's points if they reinforce them with other media. The reason for this is that people have different learning styles, or preferred ways of processing information. One learning theory model suggests four such preferences: visual, aural, read/write, and kinesthetic.

61. Which types of organizational patterns work best for arranging ideas in the informative speech? Give an example of a speech topic and an appropriate organizational pattern.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that informative speeches can be arranged using the chronological, spatial, causal, topical, narrative, and comparative advantage patterns. A speech about the Civil Rights Movement, for example, could be organized chronologically by arranging ideas in a sequence from the movement's early period to its later actions. This same speech topic could be organized causally (cause-effect) by demonstrating how the Civil Rights Movement came about as a reaction to events that preceded it. It could also be arranged topically by focusing on the major figures associated with the movement, or through a narrative pattern, in which the speaker tells stories about key actions that occurred during the Civil Rights Movement.

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Chapter 24 1. The ability to speak persuasively ensures a healthy democracy. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. The general goal of persuasive speaking is to influence, advocate, or ask listeners to accept the speaker's point of view. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. The persuasive speaker attempts to predispose an audience to change their attitudes, beliefs, or behaviors, rather than impose their will upon listeners. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. Audiences rarely respond immediately to a persuasive appeal. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. The persuader who seeks only minor changes is usually more successful than the speaker who seeks major changes. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. The more strongly an audience feels about an issue, the more likely they are to be persuaded by an alternative viewpoint. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. A speaker is less likely to persuade audience members whose position differs only moderately from the speaker's. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Narratives (storytelling) are not recommended in persuasive speeches because they usually lack seriousness. a. True b. False

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Chapter 24 ANSWER: b 9. In ancient Greece and Rome, persuasion was known as rhetoric. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. According to Aristotle, persuasive appeals consist of logos, ethos, and mythos. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. A proof is a stated position, with support, for or against an idea or issue. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. Persuasive appeals based on reasoning are termed logos. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. Pathos involves the appeal to audience emotion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Demagogues and propagandists use pathos in an unethical manner. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. An appeal that deliberately arouses fear or anxiety in the audience has no legitimate place in public speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Speakers who employ propaganda aim to manipulate an audience's emotions for the purpose of promoting a belief system or dogma. a. True b. False

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Chapter 24 ANSWER: a 17. One element of an ethos-based appeal is the speaker's moral character. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. To be persuaded to change, listeners must be convinced that they will somehow be rewarded. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a set of seven basic human needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 20. The highest level in Maslow's hierarchy is self-esteem needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. The elaboration likelihood model of persuasion (ELM) maintains that people consciously evaluate the potential costs and benefits associated with taking a particular action. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. Central processing occurs when listeners are motivated and able to think critically about the content of a speaker's message. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Listeners engaged in peripheral processing pay extra-special attention to messages, and consider them relevant to their own lives. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. One way speakers can encourage listeners to engage in central rather than peripheral processing is to demonstrate common bonds. a. True

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Chapter 24 b. False ANSWER: a 25. Speaker credibility includes expertise and trustworthiness. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 26. When audience members themselves are well informed about the message, they likely will be persuaded when they perceive the speaker as someone who has expertise. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 27. Reputation factors into a speaker's initial credibility. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. Derived credibility describes the totality of the audience's impressions of the speaker. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 29. Ending abruptly, without a good summation, and hurrying away from the venue will negatively impact terminal credibility. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 30. The deliberate process of influence is called: a. informing. b. manipulating. c. persuasion. d. coercion.

ANSWER: c 31. A persuasive speech aims to: a. manipulate an audience's emotions. b. capitalize on the fears of the audience. c. weaken beliefs about a certain controversy. d. influence listeners' attitudes, beliefs, values, and/or behavior.

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Chapter 24 ANSWER: d 32. Persuasive speeches attempt to influence the audience's: a. knowledge. b. abilities. c. desires. d. choices.

ANSWER: d 33. Under what condition is a speaker most likely to persuade audience members? a. when the audience's position completely differs from the speaker's b. when the audience's position differs only slightly from the speaker's c. when the topic is controversial and the audience is well-informed d. when the speaker relies heavily on fear appeals and inducing anxiety ANSWER: b 34. According to Aristotle, persuasion can be brought about by the speaker's use of how many persuasive appeals or proofs? a. one b. three c. five d. seven ANSWER: b 35. According to Aristotle, persuasive appeals consist of: a. logos, pathos, and ethos. b. logos, mythos, and ethos. c. logos, pathos, and mythos. d. logos, ethos, and credos.

ANSWER: a 36. A persuasive appeal by emotion is termed: a. logos. b. ethos. c. pathos. d. credos.

ANSWER: c 37. A speaker who identifies and appeals to the audience's feelings of love, compassion, pride, anger, and/or fear is using which type of persuasive appeal? a. logos

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Chapter 24 b. ethos c. pathos d. mythos ANSWER: c 38. A person who relies heavily on irrelevant emotional appeals to short-circuit the listeners' rational decisionmaking process is called a(n): a. ethical speaker. b. demagogue. c. persuader. d. propagandist.

ANSWER: b 39. In classical terms, a speaker's moral character is called: a. logos. b. mythos. c. pathos. d. ethos.

ANSWER: d 40. In her persuasive speech about how dental hygiene can affect other aspects of health, Marisa provided the audience with convincing information because of her knowledge and experience as a dental hygienist. Marisa employed which type of appeal? a. logos b. ethos c. pathos d. credos ANSWER: b 41. A contemporary persuasive model used by speakers and formulated by Abraham Maslow is Maslow's: a. hierarchy of needs. b. elaboration likelihood model. c. expectancy value theory. d. central processing model.

ANSWER: a 42. Jerry gave a persuasive speech that attempted to convince his classmates to take a self-defense course.

According to Maslow, this speech appealed to which basic need? a. physiological b. safety c. social

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Chapter 24 d. self-esteem ANSWER: b 43. In his persuasive talk for teenagers at an inner-city community center, Tomas encouraged his audience to attend his upcoming workshop on applying and paying for college. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which need did Tomas appeal to? a. physiological b. safety c. social d. self-actualization ANSWER: d 44. According to the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion (ELM), more long-lasting changes in audience perspectives occur if listeners process the speech message: a. centrally. b. peripherally. c. favorably. d. diffusively.

ANSWER: a 45. Although the audience did not pay close attention to Marletta's speech message, they were influenced by her stylish attire and her reputation as a local television reporter. According to the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion (ELM), which processing swayed the audience to think positively about Marletta? a. central processing b. marginal processing c. peripheral processing d. diffusive processing ANSWER: c 46. Which theory suggests that an individual will consider what a close friend or family member will think when making important decisions? a. elaboration likelihood theory b. consequence theory c. hierarchy theory d. expectancy value theory ANSWER: d 47. Which theory of persuasion maintains that people consciously evaluate the potential costs and benefits associated with taking a particular action? a. elaboration likelihood theory b. expectancy value theory c. consequence theory

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Chapter 24 d. hierarchy theory ANSWER: b 48. Which theory can help speakers plan a persuasive speech in which the specific purpose is to target behavior? a. elaboration likelihood b. consequence c. hierarchy of needs d. expectancy value ANSWER: d 49. The audience's perceptions of expertise and trustworthiness comprise speaker: a. expertise. b. credibility. c. ethos. d. persuasiveness.

ANSWER: b 50. If a speaker possesses expertise, he or she possesses: a. world authority on the speech topic. b. enough knowledge to help the audience understand the speech topic. c. the same attitudes and moral character as the audience. d. the ability to manipulate, coerce, or overwhelm an audience.

ANSWER: b 51. Which type of speaker credibility is based on factors such as information provided about the speaker ahead of the event? a. initial b. derived c. expert d. terminal ANSWER: a 52. Audience members will assign speakers more or less credibility based on their actual performance, including the quality of evidence and the skill with which the speech is delivered. This is called: a. initial credibility. b. derived credibility. c. terminal credibility. d. expert credibility.

ANSWER: b 53. How does persuasive speaking ability contribute to a healthy democracy?

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Chapter 24 ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the ability to speak persuasively ensures a healthy democracy in a variety of ways. First, persuasive speakers often achieve positions of leadership for their motivational abilities and earn the respect of their communities for making a difference. They are able to make their voices count during public conversations about issues that are important to them. Being able to critically evaluate messages also leads to a healthy democracy through the ability to judge information as trustworthy or untrustworthy, or accept or reject information based on half-truths, "fake facts," or solid evidence. "In a Republican nation," Thomas Jefferson once remarked, "whose citizens are to be led by reason and persuasion and not by force, the art of reasoning becomes of first importance."

54. Explain the difference between informative and persuasive speeches.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that similar to informative speeches, persuasive speeches also serve to increase understanding and awareness. They present an audience with new information, new insights, and new ways of thinking about an issue. In fact, persuasive speeches do all the things informative speeches do. But unlike the informative speech, which seeks foremost to increase understanding, the explicit goal of the persuasive speech is to influence audience choices.

These choices may range from slight shifts in opinion to actual changes in behavior.

55. What role does audience analysis play in persuasive speaking?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that audience analysis is extremely important in making persuasive appeals. Speakers should conduct audience analysis to identify what their target audience cares about and to build common ground with listeners. Rarely do audiences respond immediately or completely to persuasive appeals. Audiences can, however, be immediately "stirred." Persuasive speakers are more likely to be successful in influencing the audience's choices if they make their speech relevant to the audience and address an audience whose position only slightly differs from their own. Conducting an audience analysis can help speakers achieve these goals.

56. Describe three ways in which a speaker can increase the odds of influencing their audience in their direction.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note three of the following: (1) Set modest goals.

Expect minor rather than major changes in the listeners' attitudes and behaviors. (2) Establish credibility and build common bonds to encourage the audience's trust in and identification with the speaker. (3) Make the message personally relevant to the audience. (4) Expect to be more successful when addressing an audience whose position differs only slightly from the speaker's own. The more strongly audience members feel about a given issue, the less likely they are to be persuaded by an alternative viewpoint. (5) Demonstrate plenty of positive consequences of the position when asking the audience to make a change or support a cause. (6) Consider using narrative (storytelling) in persuasive speeches. Audiences react positively to it, both cognitively and behaviorally.

57. Define and briefly explain the terms logos, pathos, and ethos.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the term logos refers to persuasive appeals directed at the audience's rational thinking, or systematic reasoning, on a topic. Pathos refers to an appeal to listeners' emotions, such as pride, love, compassion, anger, shame, and fear.

Ethos refers to appeals to the speaker's character, specifically, competence, moral character, and goodwill toward the audience.

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Chapter 24 58. How do the audience's perceptions of the speaker's moral character affect the outcome of a persuasive speech?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the speaker's moral character is part of overall credibility, and audiences do not respect or respond well to speakers without credibility.

Current research suggests that a brief disclosure of personal moral standards relevant to the speech or the occasion made in the introduction of a speech will boost audience regard for the speaker.

59. How do the listeners' feelings toward the speaker influence how receptive an audience will be toward the speaker's message?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that appeals to ethos target audience members' feelings about the speaker's character through demonstrations of competence, moral character, and goodwill. Listeners who do not believe the speaker to be competent, trustworthy, and concerned for their welfare are unlikely to listen, much less to be moved by the speaker's message.

60. Explain how Maslow's hierarchy of needs relates to persuasive speaking.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that Maslow's hierarchy of needs has to do with contemporary notions of listener needs. Recent studies confirm that persuasive attempts demonstrating benefits to audience members' social needs, including an enhanced sense of belonging, self-esteem, control, and meaningful existence, are more likely to succeed than those that ignore these needs.

61. Explain the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion (ELM), and then discuss central and peripheral processing.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that according to the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion (ELM), when listeners are motivated and able to think critically about a message, they engage in central processing. That is, listeners who seriously consider what the speaker's message means to them are the ones most likely to act on it. When audience members lack the motivation or ability to judge the argument based on its merits, they engage in peripheral processing of information—they pay little attention and respond to the message as being irrelevant, too complex to follow, or just plain unimportant. When such listeners do buy into a message, it's on the basis of superficial factors like reputation, entertainment value, or the speaker's personal style.

62. Discuss how a persuasive speaker can effectively use the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion to make a speech more persuasive.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that encouraging listeners to engage in central rather than peripheral processing can increase the odds that a speaker's persuasive appeal will produce lasting changes. To encourage central processing, speakers can (1) link the argument to the audience's practical concerns and emphasize direct consequences to them, (2) present the message at an appropriate level of understanding, and (3) demonstrate common bonds and stress the speaker's credibility to offer the claims.

63. Explain how a speaker can use expectancy value theory to persuade an audience.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that according to expectancy value theory, people consciously evaluate the potential costs and benefits (or "value") associated with taking a particular action. As they weigh these costs and benefits, they consider their attitudes about the behavior in question, how much importance they attach to changing it, and their belief in their

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Chapter 24 ability to change it. On the basis of these self-assessments, people develop expectations about what will happen if they do or do not take a certain action. These expected outcomes become their rationale for acting in a certain way. Thus, when speakers want to persuade listeners to change their behavior, they should try to identify these expectations and use them to appeal to their audience. To identify the expectations, a thorough audience analysis is critical. Once a speaker has identified the expectations, they have a basis for appealing to the audience's concerns.

64. Why are the audience's perceptions of the speaker's trustworthiness often more important than their perceptions of the speaker's expertise?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that if there is one speaker attribute that is more important than others, it is probably trustworthiness. It's a matter of the "goodwill" that Aristotle taught—audiences want more than information and arguments; they want what's relevant to them from someone who cares.

65. Explain how credibility builds in phases as a speaker moves through their speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that credibility begins with the impressions audience members form even before the speaker begins to speak, called initial credibility. Initial credibility is based on factors such as information provided about the speaker ahead of the event and, as the speech begins, on the speaker's physical appearance and nonverbal behavior. Once into the speech, audience members will assign speakers more or less credibility based on their actual message, including the quality of evidence and the skill with which the speech is delivered. This is called derived credibility. Listeners continue to make judgments about credibility up until and even after the conclusion of the speech. Terminal credibility encompasses the totality of the audience's impressions, including those regarding the strength of the speaker's conclusion as well as the overall speech performance.

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Chapter 25 1. An argument is a stated position, with support for or against an idea or issue. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Arguments are composed of three elements: claims, evidence, and warrants. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Supporting material that provides grounds for belief in a claim is called evidence. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. A warrant declares a speaker's conclusion about some state of affairs. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Speculative claims focus on conditions that actually exist or have existed in the past. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. Claims of value address issues of judgment and attempt to show that something is right or wrong, good or bad, worthy or unworthy. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. A claim of value consists of a need or a problem, a solution, and evidence of the solution's feasibility. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Claims of policy recommend that a specific course of action be taken. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 9. Claims of policy generally contain the word should and speak to an "ought" condition.

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Chapter 25 a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. External evidence can be thought of as supporting material. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. Stories, examples, testimony, facts, and statistics drawn from an outside source are examples of external evidence. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. The speaker's own knowledge, opinions, and expertise should never be used as evidence. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. More often than not, motivational warrants are stated outright rather than implied. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. The success or failure of authoritative warrants rests on how highly the audience regards the authority figure. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Substantive warrants operate on the basis of an audience's beliefs about the reliability of factual evidence. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. The two types of substantive warrants that occur most commonly in speeches are causation and analogy. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. Warrants by cause compare two similar cases and imply that what is true in one case is true in the other.

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Chapter 25 a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. Stating "Universal health care works in Canada, so it would work in the United States" is an example of a warrant by analogy. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. In a two-sided message, a speaker will mention opposing points of view and sometimes attempt to refute them. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. If the audience is aware of counterarguments and the speaker raises and refutes them, the speaker risks losing credibility with the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. A logical fallacy is either a false or erroneous statement or an invalid or deceptive line of reasoning. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. Using a circular thought pattern, begging the question is a fallacy in which an argument is stated in such a way that it cannot help but be true, even though no evidence has been presented. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. "All my friends have tattoos, so I should have one, too" is an example of begging the question. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. Ad hominem arguments attack the person's argument rather than the person making the argument. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 25 25. A speaker who relies on the bandwagoning fallacy poses arguments that use general opinions as their bases. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 26. The either-or fallacy poses an argument stated in terms of only two alternatives. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 27. Slippery slope arguments make faulty assumptions that one case will lead to a series of events or actions. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. A stated position, with support for or against an idea or issue, is called a(n): a. fact. b. appeal. c. argument. d. evidence.

ANSWER: c 29. An argument consists of a: a. claim, opinion, and conclusion. b. claim, evidence, and warrants. c. claim, fallacies, and opinions. d. claim, warrants, and conclusion.

ANSWER: b 30. A claim is also called a: a. proposition. b. policy. c. value. d. testimony.

ANSWER: a 31. A statement that provides a logical connection between a claim and its evidence is called a: a. fact. b. policy. c. warrant. d. fallacy.

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Chapter 25 ANSWER: c 32. Which type of claim focuses on whether something is or is not true or whether something will or will not happen? a. analogy b. fact c. policy d. value ANSWER: b 33. "Decaffeinated coffee has many of the same health benefits as regular coffee." This statement is a claim of: a. value. b. fact. c. policy. d. proposition.

ANSWER: b 34. Which type of claim addresses issues of judgment—whether something is right or wrong, good or bad, worthy or unworthy? a. analogy b. fact c. policy d. value ANSWER: d 35. "Five Guys is the best hamburger chain in the United States." This statement is a claim of: a. value. b. fact. c. policy. d. generalization.

ANSWER: a 36. "It should be socially acceptable for mothers to nurse their babies in public." This statement is a claim of: a. value. b. fact. c. policy. d. proposition.

ANSWER: c 37. Which type of claim recommends that a specific course of action be taken or approved? a. value

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Chapter 25 b. fact c. policy d. third order ANSWER: c 38. Legislators regularly construct arguments based on claims of: a. value. b. fact. c. ethics. d. policy.

ANSWER: d 39. Secondary sources are also called: a. secondhand sources. b. outside sources. c. secondary research. d. external evidence.

ANSWER: d 40. Any information in support of a claim that originates with sources other than the audience's knowledge and opinions or the speaker's expertise is called: a. secondhand sources. b. outside sources. c. secondary research. d. external evidence.

ANSWER: d 41. Warrants that appeal to the audience's emotions are called: a. speculative. b. motivational. c. authoritative. d. substantive.

ANSWER: b 42. Warrants that rely on an audience's beliefs about the credibility or acceptability of a source of evidence are called: a. speculative. b. motivational. c. authoritative. d. substantive.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 25 43. Which type of warrant appeals to the audience's reasoning? a. speculative b. motivational c. authoritative d. substantive ANSWER: d 44. A warrant that compares two similar cases and implies that what is true in one case is true in the other is using: a. reasoning by sign. b. reasoning by analogy. c. reasoning by cause. d. reasoning by evidence.

ANSWER: b 45. When a speaker argues that one event is the reason for another event, they are using: a. reasoning by sign. b. reasoning by analogy. c. reasoning by cause. d. reasoning by evidence.

ANSWER: c 46. A speaker who anticipates counterarguments and then addresses or rebuts them is delivering a(n): a. authoritative warrant. b. one-sided message. c. speculative claim. d. two-sided message.

ANSWER: d 47. A false or erroneous statement, or an invalid or deceptive line of reasoning, is called a(n): a. logical fallacy. b. causal reasoning. c. one-sided message. d. substantive warrant.

ANSWER: a 48. "Adopted children should have the right to learn the identities of their birth parents because they are adopted." This statement is an example of: a. begging the question. b. bandwagoning.

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Chapter 25 c. an overgeneralization. d. an ad hominem.

ANSWER: a 49. Which type of logical fallacy attacks an opponent instead of the opponent's argument? a. post hoc, ergo proper hoc b. ad hominem c. hasty generalization d. red herring ANSWER: b 50. "I don't believe anything Juanita says because no one with any brains has a pierced nose." This statement is an example of: a. begging the question. b. bandwagoning. c. a hasty generalization. d. an ad hominem argument.

ANSWER: d 51. Which logical fallacy introduces an irrelevant or unrelated topic to divert attention from the issue at hand? a. post hoc, ergo propter hoc b. slippery slope c. red herring d. faulty analogy ANSWER: c 52. Speakers who suggest that the audience should agree with the claim because it has always been done that way are using which logical fallacy? a. begging the question b. bandwagoning c. appeal to tradition d. red herring ANSWER: c 53. "Hazing on campus should be permitted because fraternities and sororities have been doing it since this college was established." This statement is an example of: a. begging the question. b. bandwagoning. c. a red herring fallacy. d. an appeal to tradition.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 25 54. What is an argument, and why is it important for a speaker to understand how to construct one?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that an argument is a stated position, with support for or against an idea or issue. In an argument, speakers ask listeners to accept a conclusion about some state of affairs, support it with evidence, and provide reasons (warrants) demonstrating that the evidence supports the claim. It is important for a speaker to understand how to construct an argument because the persuasive power of any speech depends on the strength of the arguments within it.

55. Explain the differences between a claim, evidence, and warrants.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the claim states the speaker's conclusion about some state of affairs. The evidence substantiates the claim. The warrants provide reasons or justifications for why the claim follows from the evidence; it may be stated or implied.

56. Briefly explain and give an example of a claim of value.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers arguing claims of value try to show that something is right or wrong, good or bad, worthy or unworthy. An example of a claim of value that includes a judgment is "Common Core has been a failure."

57. Briefly explain and give an example of a claim of policy.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that claims of policy recommend that a specific course of action be taken or approved. This type of claim includes the word "should" or the concept of "ought to"; for example, "Women's college athletic programs should receive the same funding as men's."

58. Discuss one aspect of culture speakers should consider in a persuasive speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note one of the following considerations: (1) Audience members of the same culture share core values. Appeals that clash with core values are usually unsuccessful. (2) Cultural norms are a group's rules for behavior. Attempts to persuade listeners to think or do things contrary to important norms will usually fail. (3) Listeners sharing a common culture usually hold culturally specific values about identity and relationships, called cultural premises. (4) Culture also influences listeners' responses to emotional appeals. It is usually best to appeal to emotions that lie within the audience's comfort zone.

59. What is external evidence? Provide three examples of external evidence.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that external evidence (or a secondary source) is supporting material that comes from outside the speaker's own experience. Common forms of external evidence include examples, stories, testimony, facts, and statistics.

60. Explain when a speaker might rely on their own experience as evidence.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers might consider their own expertise as evidence when they believe the audience will find their opinions credible and convincing. Few persuasive speeches can be convincingly built on speaker experience and knowledge alone, however. Instead, speakers should offer their own expertise in conjunction with other forms of evidence. A speaker's expertise can help audience members identify with them and add some credibility to their claims.

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Chapter 25 61. What are authoritative warrants, and how do they work?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that authoritative warrants rely on an audience's beliefs about the credibility of a source of evidence. This appeal is based on ethos. The success or failure of authoritative warrants rests on how highly the audience regards the authority figure. If listeners hold the person in high esteem, they are more likely to find the evidence and the claim acceptable. Thus, authoritative warrants make the credibility of sources of evidence all the more important.

62. Describe how a speaker can (or should) use two-sided messages in a persuasive speech ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that if listeners are aware of opposing claims and the speaker ignores them, they risk losing credibility. This is especially the case when the audience disagrees with the speaker's position. Two-sided messages generally are more persuasive than one-sided messages, as long as the speaker adequately refutes opposing claims. Speakers need not painstakingly acknowledge and refute all opposing claims. Instead, they can raise and refute the most important counterclaims and evidence that the audience would know about. Ethically, speakers can ignore counterclaims that don't significantly weaken their argument.

63. List two reasons why it is important to be able to identify fallacious reasoning.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a logical fallacy is either a false or erroneous statement or an invalid or deceptive line of reasoning. In either case, speakers need to be aware of fallacies in order to (1) avoid making them in their own speeches and to (2) be able to identify them in the speeches of others 64. Briefly explain and give an example of an either-or fallacy.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that an either-or fallacy presents only two alternatives when there may actually be more than two; for example: "Either we get married in the next year, or we have to break up."

65. Briefly explain and give an example of an ad hominem argument.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that an ad hominem argument focuses on (or attacks) the person rather than the person's argument; for example, "Russ's arguments can't be valid; he wears bow ties.

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Chapter 26 1. Speakers should develop their arguments before deciding which organizational pattern to use. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. There is no one "right" way to organize a persuasive speech topic. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. The topical (categorical) pattern of arrangement is generally used with informative rather than persuasive speeches, but it is often appropriate for persuasive speeches with policy claims. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Speech points that demonstrate the advantages and disadvantages associated with an issue or idea are best organized using a cause-effect pattern of organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. When speaking to a hostile audience, the refutation pattern of organization should be avoided. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. With a sympathetic audience, the narrative (storytelling) pattern is an effective choice for organizing the persuasive speech. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. When arguing a claim of policy, the most commonly used organizational pattern is the problem-solution pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. When arguing a claim of policy, it may be important to demonstrate the proposal's feasibility. a. True b. False

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Chapter 26 ANSWER: a 9. Speakers who want to demonstrate how their own position is superior to one or more alternative viewpoints should use the problem-solution pattern of arrangement. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 10. The comparative advantage pattern is most effective when the audience is already aware of the issue or problem and agrees there is a need for a solution. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. The comparative advantage pattern is a favorite tool of political candidates, who use it to strengthen their position on an issue and debunk the position taken by the opposing candidate. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. The refutation pattern is well suited for critical and conflicted audiences. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. When using the refutation organizational pattern for a persuasive speech, the speaker should focus on refuting the weakest objections to the claim, as they are the easiest targets. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. Speakers who use the refutation pattern often begin by stating the opposing position, describing the implications of that position, and then offering arguments for their own position. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Monroe's motivated sequence is a four-step process that begins with arousing listeners' attention and then calling for action. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 26 16. The visualization step of Monroe's motivated sequence is designed to convince audience members of the feasibility of the proposal. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 17. Which organizational pattern is used exclusively in persuasive speaking? a. causal (cause-effect) b. problem-solution c. refutation d. topical ANSWER: c 18. When selecting an organizational pattern, a speaker should consider: a. how much time each pattern takes to develop. b. what they know about the pattern of arrangement. c. how much time they have to speak on the topic. d. what response they want from the audience.

ANSWER: d 19. A persuasive speech based on a claim of policy will usually use which pattern of arrangement? a. problem-solution b. refutation c. narrative d. topical ANSWER: a 20. "Infant mortality rates in the United States are rising as poverty continues to grow." This claim would be best addressed using which pattern of organization? a. Monroe's motivated sequence b. comparative advantage c. causal (cause-effect) d. problem-solution ANSWER: c 21. Which organizational pattern of arrangement is particularly effective for getting listeners to act on a speaker's suggestions? a. comparative advantage b. Monroe's motivated sequence c. causal (cause-effect) d. refutation

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Chapter 26 ANSWER: b 22. Which organizational pattern of arrangement is effective when a speaker's goal is to convince the audience of a certain relationship between two things? a. comparative advantage b. Monroe's motivated sequence c. causal (cause-effect) d. refutation ANSWER: c 23. When audience members strongly disagree with the speaker's claims or are hostile to their position, which pattern of arrangement should a speaker use? a. comparative advantage b. problem-solution c. narrative d. refutation ANSWER: d 24. Which organizational pattern organizes speech points to demonstrate the nature and significance of a problem and then provides justification for a proposed solution? a. problem-solution b. refutation c. causal (cause-effect) d. comparative advantage ANSWER: a 25. Which organizational pattern demonstrates how the speaker's viewpoint is superior to alternative viewpoints? a. problem-solution b. refutation c. causal (cause-effect) d. comparative advantage ANSWER: d 26. Which organizational pattern addresses each main point and then disproves an opposing claim? a. problem-solution b. refutation c. causal (cause-effect) d. comparative advantage ANSWER: b 27. Which pattern of arrangement should a speaker use if they are confident that the opposing argument is

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Chapter 26 vulnerable to attack? a. refutation b. problem-solution c. causal (cause-effect) d. comparative advantage ANSWER: a 28. Which pattern of arrangement consists of a five-step process for arousing attention and inspiring action? a. refutation b. problem-solution c. Monroe's motivated sequence d. comparative advantage ANSWER: c 29. Monroe's motivated sequence is the preferred pattern of arrangement when a speaker wants the audience to: a. reconsider their present way of thinking. b. believe a relationship exists between two things. c. agree to a solution to a particular problem. d. be sympathetic to an emotional topic.

ANSWER: a 30. The first step of Monroe's motivated sequence pattern of arrangement is: a. action. b. attention. c. need. d. satisfaction.

ANSWER: b 31. In the motivated sequence pattern of arrangement, which step isolates and describes the issue to be addressed? a. attention b. visualization c. need d. satisfaction ANSWER: c 32. Which step in Monroe's motivated sequence pattern of arrangement identifies the proposed solution? a. action b. attention c. need d. satisfaction

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Chapter 26 ANSWER: d 33. Which step in Monroe's motivated sequence pattern of arrangement asks audience members to act according to their acceptance of the message? a. action b. visualization c. need d. satisfaction ANSWER: a 34. List the three factors that are critical to consider when choosing the best organizational pattern.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that certain patterns can be more effective than others. Speakers should consider (1) the nature of their claims (whether of fact, value, or policy), (2) the audience members' attitudes toward the topic, and (3) the response the speaker wants to elicit from their audience.

35. Explain why the audience's disposition is important when choosing an organizational pattern.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speakers should be aware of how receptive or critical an audience is to their claims. Speakers should also be aware of where their target audience stands relative to their topic. Knowing this information can mean the difference between an effective and an ineffective persuasive speech. For example, when audience members are hostile to a speaker's position, a refutation pattern of arrangement can be effective in persuading audience members to a speaker's position or viewpoint. If the audience is already aware of an issue or problem and agrees that a need for a solution (or an alternative view) exists, then a comparative advantage pattern of arrangement may be most effective. If an audience is sympathetic to a particular topic, then a narrative arrangement might be most effective.

36. When might a speaker choose to use the problem-cause-solution-feasibility pattern? Next, list the steps in the problem-cause-solution-feasibility pattern of arrangement.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that this pattern of arrangement is most effective when arguing a claim of policy. The steps in a problem-cause-solution-feasibility pattern are (1) establish the need or problem, (2) discuss the reasons for the need or problem, (3) propose a solution to the problem, and (4) provide evidence of the solution's feasibility.

37. Describe each step in Monroe's motivated sequence pattern of arrangement.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the five steps in Monroe's motivated sequence pattern are as follows. Step 1: Attention. The attention step addresses listeners' core concerns, making the speech highly relevant to them. Step 2: Need. The need step isolates the issue to be addressed. If speakers can show the members of an audience that there is an important need that must be satisfied or a problem that must be solved, they will have a reason to listen to the speaker's propositions. Step 3: Satisfaction. The satisfaction step identifies the solution. This step begins the crux of the speech, offering audience members a proposal to reinforce or change their attitudes, beliefs, and values regarding the need at hand. Step 4: Visualization. The visualization step provides the audience with a vision of anticipated outcomes associated with the solution. The purpose of the step is to carry audience members beyond accepting the feasibility of the speaker's

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Chapter 26 proposal to seeing how it will actually benefit them. Step 5: Action. Finally, in the action step the speaker asks audience members to act according to their acceptance of the message. This may involve reconsidering their present way of thinking about something, continuing to believe as they do but with greater commitment, or implementing a new set of behaviors. Here, the speaker makes an explicit call to action.

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Chapter 27 1. Special occasion speeches can be informative, persuasive, or a mix of both. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Special occasion speeches are prepared for a purpose dictated by the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. Some special occasion speeches function to celebrate a person or an event. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 4. A commemorative special occasion speech is one that might occur at a wedding, a retirement party, or an awards banquet. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. The goal of a speech of introduction is to inspire the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. A good speech of introduction focuses heavily on the speaker's background. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Speakers who have been introduced should respond to the introduction in some way, such as by acknowledging and thanking the introducer. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Speakers who have been introduced should avoid using humor in response to the introduction. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 27 9. The purpose of a speech of acceptance is to express gratitude for the honor bestowed on the speaker. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. The goals of a speech of presentation are to communicate the meaning of an award and to explain why a recipient is receiving it. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. A roast is a brief tribute to a person or event being celebrated. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. A speech celebrating and commemorating the life of a deceased person while consoling those who have been left behind is called a eulogy. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. When delivering a eulogy, the speaker should focus on the life of the person rather than on the circumstances of that person's death. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. After-dinner speeches always take place after an evening meal. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. The purpose of an after-dinner speech is to provide profound insight into the topic at hand and inspire the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. If an after-dinner speech is unrelated to the occasion, the audience will get the impression that it is a canned speech. a. True b. False

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Chapter 27 ANSWER: a 17. The purpose of an after-dinner speech may be to entertain or to set a social agenda. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 18. A speech of inspiration seeks to uplift the audience and help them see things in a positive light. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. In a speech of inspiration, the speaker often uses pathos to appeal to the audience. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. Speakers can evoke pathos during an inspirational speech by touching upon shared values, using vivid imagery, and telling stories. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. Speakers should avoid using real-life stories in inspirational speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. Speakers delivering inspirational messages should not explicitly state what they are trying to motivate their listeners to do. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 23. Inspirational speeches should be concluded with a dramatic ending. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 24. The function of a special occasion speech is to entertain, celebrate, commemorate, inspire, or: a. advocate. b. delegate.

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Chapter 27 c. set a social agenda. d. establish a mood.

ANSWER: c 25. Banquets, awards dinners, and roasts are occasions that call for special occasion speeches that: a. commemorate. b. entertain. c. inspire. d. set a social agenda.

ANSWER: b 26. Anniversaries of important events, memorial dedications, and speeches of tribute are occasions that call for: a. commemoration. b. entertainment. c. inspiration. d. social agenda setting.

ANSWER: a 27. Fundraisers, campaign banquets, conferences, and conventions are occasions that call for: a. commemoration. b. entertainment. c. inspiration. d. social agenda setting.

ANSWER: d 28. Which type of special occasion speech is a short speech that prepares or "warms up" the audience for another speaker? a. speech of acceptance b. speech of presentation c. a toast d. speech of introduction ANSWER: d 29. A speaker who delivers a speech of introduction should avoid: a. previewing the speaker's topic. b. talking too briefly. c. evaluating the person being introduced. d. talking about the speaker's background.

ANSWER: c 30. Before introducing a speaker, it is important to:

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Chapter 27 a. dig up some funny stories about him or her. b. prepare a comprehensive biography. c. verify the accuracy of the information that will be shared. d. offer critical commentary on the topic or speaker.

ANSWER: c 31. A speaker who has been introduced should respond to the introduction by: a. providing a counterargument to the introducer. b. making jokes about the occasion and/or organization. c. using a combination of humility and humor. d. being mildly boastful about receiving the honor.

ANSWER: c 32. In which type of special occasion speech does a recipient express gratitude for an honor or award bestowed upon them? a. speech of acceptance b. speech of presentation c. a toast d. speech of introduction ANSWER: a 33. The function of a speech of acceptance is to: a. express gratitude for the honor bestowed. b. communicate the meaning of the award. c. explain why the recipient was given the award. d. describe the speaker's background and accomplishments.

ANSWER: a 34. Which response would be inappropriate in a speech of acceptance? a. a thank you to the group presenting the honor b. a thank you to those who helped the speaker achieve the honor c. a prepared and rehearsed speech d. a review of the reasons a speaker is being honored ANSWER: d 35. Which type of special occasion speech involves a speaker communicating the meaning of an award and explaining why a recipient is receiving it? a. speech of acceptance b. speech of presentation c. a toast d. speech of introduction

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Chapter 27 ANSWER: b 36. For a speech of presentation, the speaker should: a. assume the audience knows the meaning of the award. b. assume the audience knows why the recipient is receiving the award. c. communicate the meaning of the award. d. determine if the audience cares about the award.

ANSWER: c 37. A type of special occasion speech that is a humorous tribute to a person, in which a series of speakers jokingly poke fun at him or her, is called a(n): a. roast. b. eulogy. c. toast. d. introduction.

ANSWER: a 38. A speaker participating in a roast should: a. try hard to embarrass the honoree. b. aim for humor and social satire. c. attempt to humble the honoree. d. offer only legitimate shortcomings of the honoree.

ANSWER: b 39. A type of special occasion speech that is a brief tribute to a person or an event being celebrated is referred to as a(n): a. roast. b. eulogy. c. toast. d. introduction.

ANSWER: c 40. At Martin's 60th birthday party, his friend Brenda offered a brief tribute to him. Brenda delivered: a. a toast. b. a roast. c. a presentation speech. d. a eulogy.

ANSWER: a 41. Which type of special occasion speech pays tribute to a deceased person? a. a speech of presentation

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Chapter 27 b. a roast c. a eulogy d. an after-dinner speech ANSWER: c 42. People who have little or no public speaking experience will most likely deliver which type of special occasion speech at some point in their lives? a. a speech of presentation b. a roast c. a eulogy d. an after-dinner speech ANSWER: c 43. When delivering a eulogy, the speaker should be sure to: a. avoid mentioning the deceased's family. b. focus on the circumstances of the death. c. show intense grief. d. focus on the deceased's life and their positive character traits.

ANSWER: d 44. A lighthearted and entertaining speech delivered before, during, or after a meal is called a(n): a. toast. b. after-dinner speech. c. roast. d. speech of inspiration.

ANSWER: b 45. A speaker delivering an after-dinner speech should: a. feel free to use a canned speech that has worked for other occasions. b. avoid seeing the speech as a stand-up comedy routine. c. see the speech as an acting challenge. d. keep the tone light and avoid trying to make a serious point.

ANSWER: b 46. A speech that is unrelated to a speech occasion but one that a speaker uses again and again in different settings is called a(n): a. canned speech. b. toast. c. inspirational speech. d. eulogy.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 27 47. Which type of special occasion speech seeks to uplift audience members and help them see things in a positive light? a. toast b. speech of presentation c. speech of inspiration d. speech of introduction ANSWER: c 48. A sermon is an example of a: a. toast. b. speech of presentation. c. speech of inspiration. d. speech of introduction.

ANSWER: c 49. Examples of ordinary people who triumph over adversity and achieve extraordinary dreams are often used in a: a. speech of introduction. b. speech of inspiration. c. eulogy. d. speech of acceptance.

ANSWER: b 50. Effective inspirational speeches require that the speaker appeal to the audience's: a. traditions. b. logic (logos). c. attitudes and beliefs. d. emotions (pathos).

ANSWER: d 51. Inspirational speakers should be careful to avoid: a. using emotional appeals. b. telling real-life stories. c. closing with a dramatic ending. d. being vague about the speech's message.

ANSWER: d 52. What is a special occasion speech, and what are its functions?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a special occasion speech is one that is prepared for a specific occasion and for a purpose dictated by that occasion. The underlying function of a special occasion speech is to entertain, celebrate, commemorate, inspire, or set a social agenda.

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Chapter 27 53. Name the two goals of a speech of introduction.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a speech of introduction is a short speech with two goals: to prepare or "warm up" the audience for the speaker and to motivate audience members to listen to what the main speaker has to say.

54. Why is it important for a speech of introduction to be brief?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the rule for speeches of introduction is as follows: Get in and out quickly with a few well-chosen remarks. Introducers who linger on their own thoughts run the risk of stealing the speaker's thunder.

55. Provide two tips for making a speech of acceptance.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following tips: (1) Speakers should prepare in advance if they know they are receiving an award, or even if they think they may be. (2) Speakers should react genuinely and with humility; they can tell why the award is important to them and acknowledge their good fortune in having received it. (3) Speakers should thank those giving the award and those who contributed to their success.

56. What are the goals of a speech of presentation?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the goal of a speech of presentation is twofold: to communicate the meaning of an award and to explain why the recipient is receiving it. It is also a speaker's job to identify the sponsors or organizations that made the award possible and to describe the link between the sponsor's goals and values and the award.

57. Explain the difference between a roast and a toast.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a roast is a humorous tribute to a person, one in which a series of speakers jokingly poke fun at the recipient. A toast is a brief tribute to a person or an event being celebrated. Both roasts and toasts call for short speeches in which the goal is to celebrate an individual and his or her achievements.

58. Name two things that a speaker should concentrate on when delivering a eulogy.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following: (1) Balance delivery and emotions. Speakers should stay in control of their emotions because the audience is looking to them for guidance in dealing with the loss. (2) Refer to the family of the deceased. Speakers should make it clear that the deceased was an important part of a family. (3) Commemorate life—not death.

Speakers should focus on a person's life rather than on the circumstances of their death; speakers might consider talking about the person's contributions and achievements or their positive character.

(4) Be positive but realistic. Speakers should emphasize the deceased's positive qualities, but avoid excessive praise that may ring false to those who knew and loved them.

59. Provide two tips for delivering an effective after-dinner speech.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that an after-dinner speech should be lighthearted and entertaining, but at the same time it should provide insight into the topic at hand and/or outline priorities and goals for the group. Speakers should also connect the speech with the occasion. Delivering a speech that is unrelated to the event that has given rise to it may leave the impression that it is a canned speech—that is, one that the speaker uses again and again in different

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Chapter 27 settings.

60. Explain three ways a speaker can deliver a successful speech of inspiration.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note three of the following: (1) Speakers can use emotional appeals (pathos) to evoke an emotional response in the audience. (2) Speakers should concentrate on creating positive speaker ethos. (3) Speakers can appeal to the audience's emotions through vivid descriptions and emotionally charged words, and they may consider the use of repetition, alliteration, and parallelism. (4) Speakers can use real-life stories and examples. (5) Speakers should strive for a dynamic style of delivery and clearly establish their speech goal. (6) Speakers should close with a dramatic ending.

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Chapter 28 1. The demand for people skilled in connecting with others in virtual spaces has declined in recent years. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 2. Online presentations require very different planning and delivery than do face-to-face presentations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. Online presentations do not address the same general speech purposes as face-to-face presentations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Audience analysis is not a requirement for online presentations. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 5. Online presentations rely on techniques that are unique to the virtual environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Speakers should aim to develop E-Charisma when speaking online. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. To increase their online stage presence, speakers should position their face in the middle of the screen, taking up at least a third of it. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Vocal variety is a crucial element of delivery for the online presenter. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 9. Camtasia is an example of video capture software.

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Chapter 28 a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Online speeches can be streamed live in real time or recorded for later distribution. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. A disadvantage of synchronous online presentations is its interactivity. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 12. One limitation of real-time online presentations is that the speaker and audience are separated by space. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Online presentation and reception occur at different times in asynchronous communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. One advantage of recorded presentations is that start times and time zones are not a factor. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. Recorded presentations can provide the speaker with immediate feedback. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Video capture software allows speakers to seamlessly incorporate video clips into their online presentations. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 17. Screencasts capture whatever is displayed on a computer screen. a. True b. False

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Chapter 28 ANSWER: a 18. Screencasts can be streamed in real time or recorded for playback. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. A podcast is a digital audio recording of a speech or presentation stored for access on the web or an app. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. Webinars are typically delivered in real time. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. A webinar can be a digital audio recording of a speech or presentation captured and stored in a form that is accessible via the web. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. During a webinar, speakers can create a feeling of connection between themselves and their audience by displaying a headshot of themselves, along with their name and title. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. Online presenters should: a. follow the same organizational guidelines as in-person presenters. b. have reasonable expectations because rehearsal is not possible. c. be prepared to cancel the presentation if the technology fails. d. do something dramatic to make the presentation go viral.

ANSWER: a 24. Why is it important for the speaker to focus on vocal variety during an online presentation? a. to provide humor b. to hold the audience's interest c. to promote vocal fillers d. for ease of recording ANSWER: b

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Chapter 28 25. Which software is an example of podcasting software? a. Audacity b. Skype c. ScreenFlow d. Google Meet ANSWER: a 26. Which tool is an example of an online conferencing tool? a. SlideRocket b. Camtasia c. GarageBand d. GoToMeeting ANSWER: d 27. Which software is an example of web-based presentation software? a. webcam b. Microsoft PowerPoint c. Adobe Premiere Elements d. Audacity ANSWER: b 28. Which type of presentation connects the presenter and the audience live? a. recorded presentations b. off-line presentations c. real-time presentations d. asynchronous presentations ANSWER: c 29. Real-time presentations connect the presenter and the audience in live: a. asynchronous communication. b. recorded communication. c. off-line communication. d. synchronous communication.

ANSWER: d 30. In which type of presentation are speakers and their audience separated by space and time? a. recorded presentations b. online presentations c. real-time presentations d. synchronous presentations

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Chapter 28 ANSWER: a 31. Which of these is an advantage of recorded presentations? a. Start times and time zones are not a factor. b. Audience members have the opportunity to provide feedback. c. Speakers can adapt topic coverage if necessary. d. More visual aids can be used.

ANSWER: a 32. Recorded presentations connect presenter and audience in: a. synchronous communication. b. off-line communication. c. real-time communication. d. asynchronous communication.

ANSWER: d 33. Software that allows for the seamless incorporation of video clips into an online presentation is called: a. podcasting software. b. videoconferencing software. c. video capture software. d. web-based presentation software.

ANSWER: c 34. Which type of software captures whatever is displayed on a computer screen, from text to slides to streaming video? a. podcasting software b. web-based presentation software c. screencasting software d. videoconferencing software ANSWER: c 35. A digital audio recording of a speech or presentation captured and stored in a form that is accessible via the web or an app is known as a: a. screencast. b. podcast. c. live presentation. d. webinar.

ANSWER: b 36. Real-time seminars, meetings, training sessions, or other presentations that connect presenters and audiences from their computers or mobile devices are called: a. webinars.

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Chapter 28 b. podcasts. c. screen captures. d. screencasts.

ANSWER: a 37. Which form of online presentation would typically be real time and include video capture, screencasting, and other interactive functions? a. podcast b. webinar c. Vimeo d. Skype ANSWER: b 38. When planning a webinar, speakers should first consider their: a. availability. b. communication skills. c. digital knowledge. d. audience.

ANSWER: d 39. Explain how online presentations are similar to face-to-face presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that online presentations require the same basic elements of planning and delivery as do in-person presentations. As with in-person public speaking, an online speaker will select among the three general speech purposes of informing, persuading, or marking a special occasion. Online speakers will also conduct careful audience analysis and use credible supporting materials, a clear organizational structure, and a natural delivery style.

40. Why is vocal variety so important for an online speaker/presenter?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that in an online presentation, the audience cannot interact with the speaker's physical presence, making their voice an even more critical conduit of communication. In place of body movement, vocal variety—alterations in volume, pitch, speaking rate, pauses, and pronunciation and articulation—must hold audience interest.

41. What are the advantages and limitations of a real-time presentation?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that interactivity is a chief advantage of realtime presentation: Speaker and audience can communicate with one another in real time either orally or via chat, text, or email. As in traditional speaking situations, audience feedback allows the speaker to adapt their topic coverage according to audience input and questions, or adjust technical issues as they occur. A chief limitation of real-time presentations is scheduling them around people's available times and different time zones. The more geographically dispersed the audience, the greater the logistical challenge.

42. What are the advantages and limitations of a recorded presentation?

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Chapter 28 ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that in asynchronous communication, the audience can access the presentation at their convenience, such as listening to a podcast at night.

Lack of direct interaction with the audience poses challenges, however. Without immediate feedback from the audience to enliven the presentation, speakers must work harder to produce something polished and engaging, especially by providing compelling content, delivery style, and presentation aids.

43. List two platforms that speakers can use to deliver online presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note any two of the following: Online presentation formats include videos and screencasts, podcasts, and webinars, any of which may be streamed in real time or recorded for later delivery.

44. What is a podcast, and how can it be used for an online presentation?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a podcast is a digital audio recording of a speech or presentation captured and stored in a form that is accessible via the Web or an app. A podcast allows an audience to access the presentation at their convenience, such as listening to the podcast at night.

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Chapter 29 1. A small group usually consists of between three and twenty people. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Agendas identify what will be accomplished during a meeting but do not specify time limits for discussion. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 3. Group-member roles that directly relate to the accomplishment of the group's objectives are called social roles. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. In a group setting, "recording secretary," "moderator," "initiator," and "information seeker" are examples of: a. social roles. b. dyadic roles. c. task roles. d. counterproductive roles.

ANSWER: c 5. Antigroup roles include "blocker," "floor hogger," and "recognition seeker." a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. Conflict is inevitable and by nature destructive. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 7. Personal-based conflict is a form of productive conflict. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 8. Issues-based conflict allows members to test and debate ideas and potential solutions. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 29 9. Groupthink is the tendency of group members to avoid conflict by accepting information and ideas without subjecting them to critical analysis. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Groups should strive to achieve groupthink. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. Engaging in devil's advocacy refers to arguing for the sake of raising issues or concerns about the idea under discussion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. Devil's advocacy and dialectical inquiry are two ways to encourage groupthink. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 13. Most effective leaders take full responsibility for achieving the group results. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. Most negative experiences in groups result from a lack of a clear goal. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 15. The six-step process of reflective thinking is based on the work of Abraham Maslow. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Group presentations are regularly assigned in the classroom but rarely delivered in the workplace. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 29 17. Group presentations and individual presentations share very few characteristics. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. Teams should consider placing their strongest speakers at the opening and conclusion of the presentation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. A small group of three to nine people who meet to discuss a topic in the presence of an audience is known as a panel discussion. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. Panel discussions require formally prepared speeches. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 21. A town hall meeting is one type of symposia. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 22. Which group member role directly relates to the accomplishment of the group's objectives? a. antigroup b. gatekeeper c. social d. task ANSWER: d 23. Roles that facilitate group interaction are called: a. antigroup roles. b. gatekeeper roles. c. social roles. d. task roles.

ANSWER: c 24. Which role is an example of a social role in a group setting? a. gatekeeper

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Chapter 29 b. recognition seeker c. moderator d. blocker ANSWER: a 25. Which group role includes individuals who are not oriented toward maintenance of the group as a team a. antigroup b. gatekeeper c. social d. task ANSWER: a 26. In a group setting, the "blocker" and the "recognition seeker" are examples of: a. social roles. b. dyadic roles. c. task roles. d. antigroup roles.

ANSWER: d 27. Productive conflict is: a. issues-based. b. personality-based. c. groupthink-based. d. motivation-based.

ANSWER: a 28. The tendency of group members to accept information and ideas without subjecting them to critical analysis is called: a. reflective thinking. b. groupthink. c. dialectical inquiry. d. devil's advocacy.

ANSWER: b 29. Groups prone to groupthink typically exhibit which behavior? a. Participants reach consensus and avoid conflict, but without genuinely agreeing. b. Members are encouraged but not pressured to agree with the majority of the group. c. Disagreement, tough questions, and counterproposals are encouraged. d. Members put more effort in testing decisions rather than trying to justify them.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 29 30. Arguing for the sake of raising issues or concerns about an idea is called: a. groupthink. b. devil's advocacy. c. an agenda. d. interpersonal responsibility.

ANSWER: b 31. Which approach goes a step further than arguing for the sake of raising issues or concerns about an idea by proposing a countersolution to the idea? a. groupthink b. devil's advocacy c. dialectical inquiry d. leadership ANSWER: c 32. Directly asking members to contribute, setting a positive tone, and making use of devil's advocacy and dialectical inquiry are three techniques that group leaders can use to encourage: a. active participation. b. groupthink. c. friendship. d. status differences.

ANSWER: a 33. Group members can be guided through a six-step process to reach a decision or solution that all participants understand and are committed to. This is part of a process called: a. active participation. b. groupthink. c. dialectical inquiry. d. reflective thinking.

ANSWER: d 34. The first step in John Dewey's reflective-thinking process is to: a. identify the problem. b. conduct research and analysis. c. generate solutions. d. establish guidelines and criteria.

ANSWER: a 35. What can groups do to ensure design consistency when using presentation aids? a. Plan for clear and smooth transitions between each presentation aid. b. Set clear time limits so that each member's use of presentation aids is balanced.

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Chapter 29 c. Make sure each member has practiced using their presentation aids. d. Assign one person to coordinate templates for slides, videos, and/or audio.

ANSWER: d 36. Which one is a guideline for effective team presentations? a. Avoid designating a group leader. b. Rehearse the presentation at least once. c. Coordinate the dress code of group members. d. Rehearse individually and separately.

ANSWER: c 37. Which type of presentation consists of small groups of people (at least three but no more than nine) who meet to discuss a topic in the presence of an audience? a. panel discussion b. forum c. symposium d. town hall meeting ANSWER: a 38. Which type of presentation involves a conference meeting where several speakers deliver prepared remarks on the same topic? a. panel discussion b. forum c. symposium d. town hall meeting ANSWER: c 39. Which type of presentation refers to an assembly of people who meet to discuss issues of public interest? a. panel discussion b. forum c. symposium d. town hall meeting ANSWER: b 40. One type of forum where citizens gather to deliberate on issues of importance is called a: a. panel discussion. b. group presentation. c. symposium. d. town hall meeting.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 29 41. Why are both social roles and task roles important to effective group decision making?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that task roles help accomplish the group's objective, while social roles help to facilitate effective group interaction. Both are important to keep the group functioning effectively.

42. List and describe two antigroup roles.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of these three antigroup roles: The "floor hogger" doesn't allow others to speak, the "blocker" is overly negative about group ideas and raises issues that have been settled, and the "recognition seeker" acts to call attention to himself or herself rather than to group tasks.

43. Explain the difference between personal-based conflict and issues-based conflict.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that productive conflict centers disagreements around issues rather than personalities. Rather than wasting time with one another over personal motives or perceived shortcomings (personal-based conflict), productive (issues-based) conflict encourages members to rigorously test and debate ideas and potential solutions. It requires each member to ask tough questions, press for clarification, and present alternative views.

44. Describe the two methods a group can use to discourage groupthink.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that groups can reach the best decisions and avoid groupthink by adopting two methods of argument: devil's advocacy (arguing for the sake of raising issues or concerns about the idea under discussion) or dialectical inquiry (devil's advocacy that goes a step further by proposing a countersolution to the idea). Both approaches help expose underlying assumptions that may be preventing participants from making the best decision.

45. List the four styles of leadership that are possible within groups.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that the four types of leadership in a group are directive, supportive, achievement-oriented, and participative. A directive leader controls group communication by conveying specific instructions to members. A supportive leader attends to group members' emotional needs, stressing positive relationships. An achievement-oriented leader sets challenging goals and high standards. A participative leader views members as equals, welcoming their opinions, summarizing points, and identifying problems that must be solved rather than dictating solutions.

46. Explain the three strategies that group leaders can use to encourage all group members to actively participate.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that group leaders can take three steps to encourage active participation. (1) Directly ask members to contribute. Sometimes one person, or a few people, dominates the discussion. Encourage the others to contribute by redirecting the discussion in their direction ("Patrice, we haven't heard from you yet," or "Juan, what do you think about this?"). (2) Set a positive tone. Some people are reluctant to express their views because they fear ridicule or attack. Minimize such fears by setting a positive tone, stressing fairness, and encouraging politeness and active listening. (3) Make use of devil's advocacy and dialectical inquiry. Raise pertinent issues or concerns, and entertain solutions other than the one under consideration.

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Chapter 29 47. List the steps in John Dewey's reflective-thinking process.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note the six steps in Dewey's reflective-thinking process: (1) Identify the problem. (2) Conduct research and analysis. (3) Establish guidelines and criteria. (4) Generate solutions. (5) Select the best solution. (6) Evaluate the solution.

48. List four guidelines for giving effective team presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note four of the following tips for effective team presentations. (1) Establish in writing the specific purpose and goals of the presentation. (2) Decide on the scope and types of research needed. (3) Specify each team member's responsibilities regarding content and presentation aids. (4) Determine how introductions will be made—all at once at the beginning or by having each speaker introduce the next one. (5) Practice introductions and transitions to create a seamless presentation. (6) Establish an agreed-upon set of hand signals to indicate when a speaker is speaking too loudly or too softly, too slowly or too quickly. (7) Assign someone to manage the question-and-answer session. (8) Rehearse the presentation with all group members and with presentation aids several times from start to finish.

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Chapter 30 1. Delivering effective business presentations is one of the most important ways that business professionals gain visibility in their organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Business and professional presentations are forms of presentational speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Presentations are unique to the classroom environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. Presentational speaking is less formal than public speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. Public-speaking audiences tend to be self-selected or voluntary participants, and they regard the speech as a onetime event. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 6. The most common business and professional presentations are reports and proposals. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. A report is a systematic and objective description of facts and observations related to business or professional interests. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. The audience for a proposal will always be a large group. a. True b. False ANSWER: b

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Chapter 30 9. A proposal can be quite lengthy or relatively brief. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 10. Recent research reported by the Harvard Business Review suggests that mobilizers are more likely to be able to persuade their colleagues to accept their recommendations. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 11. The motivated sequence pattern, sometimes called the basic sales technique, offers an excellent means of appealing to buyer psychology. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. A progress report is a status report. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. The frequency of progress reports usually depends on the length of the project. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 14. Progress reports are delivered only to members of an organization—never to those outside of it. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. The audience for a progress report may be a group of co-workers. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 16. There is no set pattern of organization for a progress report. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 30 17. The International Communication Association has developed the Code of Ethics for Professional Communicators. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 18. Reports delivered by individuals or teams within the business or professional environment take the form of: a. public speaking. b. informal conversation. c. presentational speaking. d. rhetorical speaking.

ANSWER: c 19. Sales proposals, staff reports, and progress (status) reports are examples of: a. public speaking. b. presentational speaking. c. conversational speaking. d. ethical speaking.

ANSWER: b 20. A proposal that has been solicited by a potential client is called a: a. requisition. b. request for proposal. c. proposal solicitation. d. call for proposal.

ANSWER: b 21. Which type of proposal attempts to lead a potential buyer to purchase a service or product? a. business plan b. policy proposal c. research proposal d. sales proposal ANSWER: d 22. What organizational pattern is valuable for sales proposals in which the buyer must choose between competing products? a. problem-solution b. comparative advantage c. refutational d. motivated sequence

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Chapter 30 ANSWER: b 23. The motivated sequence pattern is sometimes called the: a. comparative advantage technique. b. problem-solution technique. c. basic sales technique. d. advanced presentation technique.

ANSWER: c 24. Dennis gave a presentation that attempted to convince management of a financial firm to purchase the new accounting software he had developed. What type of presentation did Dennis give? a. a technical report b. a staff report c. a sales proposal d. a progress report ANSWER: c 25. Beatrice informed her supervisors about the phone systems she had investigated. She then recommended that the company purchase a particular system. What type of presentation did Beatrice give? a. a sales proposal b. a staff report c. a case study d. a progress report ANSWER: a 26. A progress report is also known as a: a. business report. b. research report. c. status report. d. staff report.

ANSWER: c 27. Which type of report informs supervisors, clients, customers, or investors of new developments in an ongoing project? a. an audit b. a progress (status) report c. a market research report d. a staff report ANSWER: b 28. Marco will be heading up a new call center for his company. His manager has asked him to update his colleagues with the details about this new department—how it will function, when the new center will be open,

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Chapter 30 and when training will begin, among other things. What kind of presentation will Marco give? a. a business proposal b. a progress (status) report c. a staff report d. a sales pitch ANSWER: b 29. Yvette has been asked to attend the staff meeting of a team in her department to talk about the status of her team's work on a related project. What type of presentation will Yvette give? a. a staff report b. a sales pitch c. a business proposal d. a progress report ANSWER: d 30. List and explain the two common types of business and professional presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that the two common types of business and professional presentations are proposals and reports. A proposal recommends a product, procedure, or policy to a client or company. A report is a systematic and objective description of facts and observations related to business or professional interests; it may or may not contain recommendations.

31. Describe the difference between a proposal and a report, and explain when each might be required.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that a proposal recommends a product, procedure, or policy to a client or company. Proposals may be assigned by a superior, solicited by a potential client (by a written request for proposal or RFP), or offered unsolicited to either superiors or clients. A report is a systematic and objective description of facts and observations related to business or professional interests; it may or may not contain recommendations. While reports address countless different topics, audiences, and objectives, they might be needed to summarize weekly changes in personnel or projects.

32. Why is the motivated sequence effective for organizing sales proposals?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that the motivated sequence (sometimes called the basic sales technique), with its focus on audience needs, offers an excellent means of appealing to buyer psychology. It works well for sales presentations because it focuses on convincing people to take action.

33. Explain how a presenter might organize the progress (status) report.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers will note that different audiences may want different kinds of reports, so presenters will need to establish expectations with their intended audience, and then modify their report accordingly. Answers may, however, suggest the following steps: (1) Briefly review progress made up to the time of the previous report, (2) describe new developments since the previous report, (3) describe the personnel involved and their activities, (4) detail the time spent on tasks, (5) explain supplies used and costs incurred, (6) explain any problems and make

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Chapter 30 recommendations for their solutions, and (7) provide an estimate of tasks to be completed for the next reporting period.

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Chapter 31 1. No matter which major a student selects, oral presentations will be part of their academic career. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 2. Oral presentations in the classroom are a form of presentational speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 3. Presentational speaking is more formal than public speaking. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 4. In the review of an academic article, a speaker should explain the author's findings. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 5. A community service learning presentation recommends the adoption of a new health practice or policy. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 6. Service learning presentations can be delivered as a poster presentation. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 7. Poster presentations can be as large as 4" × 6". a. True b. False ANSWER: a 8. Poster presentations should include copies of the written report, with full details of the study. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 9. Poster presentations typically follow the structure of an informative speech. a. True

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Chapter 31 b. False ANSWER: b 10. A poster presentation is a rare exception in which the presenter should read verbatim from the poster. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 11. Speakers take opposing sides in a debate using either the individual debate format or the team debate format. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 12. In a debate, the affirmative ("pro") stands in favor of change or consideration of a controversial issue. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 13. A statement asking for change or consideration of a controversial issue is called a registration. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 14. Debates always address propositions of policy. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 15. Lincoln-Douglas debates are conducted with two individuals who argue a proposition of policy. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 16. Debaters call preparing for their arguments in advance of the debate "flowing the debate." a. True b. False ANSWER: b 17. A lay audience has intimate knowledge of the given field and topic. a. True b. False

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Chapter 31 ANSWER: b 18. Speakers addressing mixed audiences should gear their talk to the appropriate level of knowledge and interests. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 19. Presentations in the science-related disciplines often focus on reporting the results of original or replicated research. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 20. A scientific talk can be delivered as a stand-alone oral presentation or as a poster session. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 21. In the research presentation (also called the scientific talk), presenters should describe the methods used to investigate the research question. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 22. The research for a field study presentation is conducted in natural settings, using methods such as direct observation, surveys, and interviews. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 23. The engineering design review provides evidence that a project, proposal, or design idea is worth funding. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 24. Students in the social sciences conduct qualitative as well as quantitative research. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 25. A social science presentation often answers the what, how, and why questions. a. True

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Chapter 31 b. False ANSWER: a 26. A policy proposal report is used to evaluate a program that students observed in a service learning assignment. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 27. Speaking assignments in the arts and humanities often require the speaker to interpret the meaning of a particular idea, event, person, story, or artifact. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 28. Oral presentations in the arts and humanities include leading discussions, interpreting and analyzing work, making comparisons and contrasts, and participating in debates. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 29. Good presentations in the arts and humanities should help audiences understand and put into context the meaning of original works or scholarship. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 30. Presentations that compare and contrast are designed to be informative rather than persuasive. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 31. Effective education presentations use a monologue format. a. True b. False ANSWER: b 32. Successful presentations in education make use of familiar examples and evidence that the audience can easily grasp. a. True b. False ANSWER: a

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Chapter 31 33. A lecture is an informational speech for an audience of student learners. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 34. Evidence-based practice (EBP) is an approach to treatment in which caregivers make decisions based on current research and best practices. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 35. A shift report is a concise report of a patient's status and needs. a. True b. False ANSWER: a 36. College students may be asked to deliver oral presentations in the form of: a. reviews of academic articles. b. sales presentations. c. proposals. d. staff reports.

ANSWER: a 37. Which type of presentation is used to describe a student's participation in a community agency or nonprofit organization? a. policy recommendation report b. shift report c. case study d. service learning presentation ANSWER: d 38. An abstract is included in which type of presentation? a. lecture b. poster presentation c. classroom discussion d. shift report ANSWER: b 39. Which type of presentation consists of two individuals or groups who consider or argue an issue from opposing viewpoints? a. case study b. poster presentation

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Chapter 31 c. debate d. scientific talk ANSWER: c 40. Which type of presentation documents a real (or realistic) situation related to business, law, medicine, science, or another discipline that poses difficult problems requiring solutions? a. methods/procedure analysis b. field study c. case study d. policy proposal ANSWER: c 41. An expert audience is also called a(n): a. insider audience. b. scientific audience. c. lay audience. d. mixed audience.

ANSWER: a 42. Which audience type is made up of people who have intimate knowledge of the topic being discussed? a. expert or insider audience b. colleagues within the field audience c. lay audience d. mixed audience ANSWER: a 43. Which audience type shares the speaker's knowledge of the general field in question but may not be familiar with the specific topic under discussion? a. expert audience b. colleagues within the field audience c. lay audience d. mixed audience ANSWER: b 44. Which audience type brings to the presentation the least amount of knowledge of the given topic and field? a. expert audience b. colleagues within the field audience c. lay audience d. mixed audience ANSWER: c

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Chapter 31 45. A nutritional expert explains the benefits of a plant-based diet to a group of diabetic patients. What type of audience is the nutritional expert speaking to? a. expert audience b. colleagues within the field audience c. mixed audience d. lay audience ANSWER: d 46. Which audience type consists of people who have expert knowledge and those who have no specialized knowledge? a. expert audience b. colleagues within the field audience c. lay audience d. mixed audience ANSWER: d 47. Which audience type requires that a speaker address different levels of knowledge and different perspectives in turn? a. expert audience b. mixed audience c. colleagues within the field audience d. lay audience ANSWER: b 48. Which type of presentation is used to describe research that was conducted, either alone or as a group? a. scientific talk b. field study presentation c. engineering design review d. review of the literature presentation ANSWER: a 49. Which type of presentation combines two functions: it enables an audience to visualize a design, and it sells it? a. evidence-based practice presentation b. engineering design review c. architecture design review d. program evaluation presentation ANSWER: c 50. Which type of presentation provides evidence that a project, proposal, or design idea is worthy of financial support? a. design review

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Chapter 31 b. technical c. request for funding d. policy recommendation ANSWER: c 51. According to professionals working in technical fields, one major obstacle to designing and delivering a successful technical presentation is: a. failure to provide sufficient data to support claims. b. lack of passion for or interest in the topic. c. vague generalizations about the project. d. insufficient preparation and practice with team members.

ANSWER: d 52. Which types of courses typically require students to explain or predict human behavior or social forces, answering questions such as what, how, and why? a. social science b. education c. technical and STEM d. nursing and allied health ANSWER: a 53. Which type of presentation suggests a course of action to take on a current issue or problem? a. scientific talk b. staff report c. review of the literature presentation d. policy proposal report ANSWER: d 54. Which types of courses typically require speakers to interpret the meaning of a particular idea, event, person, story, or artifact? a. science and math b. arts and humanities c. technical and STEM d. nursing and allied health ANSWER: b 55. In the arts and humanities, a common assignment is to: a. recommend the adoption of a new health practice or policy. b. give an informational speech for an audience of student learners. c. compare and contrast events, stories, people, or artifacts. d. explain the problem-solving steps in devising a product or system.

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Chapter 31 ANSWER: c 56. In the arts and humanities, instructors often assign presentations requiring students to interpret and analyze a work by: a. overviewing the generally accepted knowledge about the topic. b. providing an original interpretation of the topic. c. summarizing what others have said about the topic. d. reviewing their peers' thoughts on the topic.

ANSWER: b 57. Which types of courses often require presentations that include lectures and group activities? a. education b. science and math c. technical and STEM d. nursing and allied health ANSWER: a 58. Sample presentations for education courses include: a. debates. b. case studies. c. lectures. d. staff reports.

ANSWER: c 59. An informational speech for an audience of student learners is called a: a. debate. b. case study. c. group activity. d. lecture.

ANSWER: d 60. Speakers leading a classroom discussion in an education course should: a. prepare several general, guiding questions to launch the discussion. b. clearly introduce a topic and summarize the main ideas. c. provide a clear explanation of the goals of their speech. d. always have chronological organization.

ANSWER: a 61. An approach to treatment in which caregivers make decisions based on current research and best practices is: a. the policy recommendation report.

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Chapter 31 b. evidence-based practice. c. the shift report. d. the case conference.

ANSWER: b 62. Which type of presentation offers a detailed analysis of a person or group with a particular disease or condition? a. treatment plan b. evidence-based practice c. shift report d. clinical case study ANSWER: d 63. Which type of presentation is a concise report of a patient's status and needs and is given to the oncoming caregiver? a. clinical case study b. shift report c. quality improvement proposal d. policy proposal report ANSWER: b 64. Identify three necessary components of an oral review of an academic article.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note three of the following: (1) Identify the author's thesis or hypothesis. (2) Explain the methods by which the author arrived at his or her conclusions. (3) Explain the results of the study. (4) Identify the author's methods and, if applicable, theoretical perspective. (5) Evaluate the study's quality, originality, and validity. (6) Describe the author's sources and evaluate his or her credibility. (7) Show how the findings advance knowledge in the field.

65. Explain the components of a community service learning presentation.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that a service learning presentation should include (1) a description of the service task, (2) a description of what the service task taught the speaker about those they served, (3) an explanation of how the service task and outcome related to the service learning course, and (4) application of what was learned to future understanding and practice.

66. Give the characteristics of two types of typical audiences.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that an expert or insider audience is comprised of people who have intimate knowledge of the topic, issue, product, or idea being discussed (e.g., an investment analyst presents a financial plan to a group of portfolio managers). An audience that is colleagues within the field are people who share the speaker's knowledge of the general field under question (e.g., psychology or computer science) but who may not be familiar with the specific topic under discussion (e.g., short-term memory or voice-recognition systems). A lay audience is a group of people who have no specialized knowledge of the field related to the speaker's topic (e.g., a city

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Chapter 31 engineer describes the failure of the water treatment system to the finance department). A mixed audience is an audience composed of a combination of people—some with expert knowledge of the field and topic and others with no specialized knowledge. This is perhaps the most difficult audience to satisfy.

67. What is the difference between an expert audience and colleagues within the field?

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that expert or insider audiences have expert knowledge of the topic, issue, product, or idea being discussed. Colleagues within the field have expertise in the general field in question but may not be familiar with the specific topic under discussion.

68. List three tips for presenting information to a mixed audience.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note three of the following.(1) Research the audience and gear the talk to the appropriate level of knowledge and interests, (2) avoid technical or specialized terms and explain any that the speaker must use, (3) carefully construct the introduction and clearly identify the central idea and main points of the talk, (4) alert the audience to the order of coverage, (5) devote half to two-thirds of the speaking time to an introduction and overview of the subject and save any highly technical material for the remaining time, and (6) include everyone.

69. List three tips for preparing a successful scientific presentation.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note three of the following. (1) Create an informative title that describes the research. (2) Place the presentation in the context of a major scientific principle. (3) Focus on a single issue that becomes "the story," and adjust it to the interests of the audience. (4) Identify the underlying questions that will be addressed, divide it into subquestions, and answer each question. (5) Follow a logical line of thought. (6) Explain scientific concepts unambiguously, with a minimum of professional jargon. (7) Use analogies to increase understanding. and (8) End with a concise, clearly formulated conclusion in the context of the chosen scientific principle.

70. Name two types of technical presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following. Technical presentations include reports and proposals that (1) provide instructions, (2) advocate a product or service, (3) update progress, (4) make recommendations, or (5) request funding. Assignments in engineering, architecture, and other technical courses also typically include design reviews.

71. Identify two characteristics of an effective technical presentation.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following. (1) Use presentation aids. (2) Coordinate closely with team members. (3) Gear the presentation to the appropriate level for the audience. (4) Appeal to the audience's needs and motivations. (5) Sell ideas persuasively. (6) Present detailed and specific information and use numbers as evidence. Additional answers may suggest that speakers should avoid these presentation pitfalls: (1) overloading slides with information, (2) insufficient preparation and practice with fellow team members, and (3) failure to select an appropriate organization and structure for the presentation.

72. Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that students taking social science courses

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Chapter 31 learn to evaluate and conduct qualitative research, in which the emphasis is on observing, describing, and interpreting behavior, as well as quantitative research, in which the emphasis is on statistical measurement.

73. Name two types of social science presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that oral presentation assignments in social science courses frequently include the review of the literature presentation, program evaluation presentation, and policy proposal report.

74. Name two types of arts and humanities presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following types of presentations used in the arts and humanities: leading a discussion, interpreting and analyzing a work, making comparisons and contrasts, and engaging in debates.

75. Name two types of education presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note two of the following types of presentations used in education courses: lectures, facilitating group activities, and leading classroom discussions.

76. Name two types of nursing and allied health presentations.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that speaking assignments in nursing and allied health courses range from the (1) evidence-based practice presentations, (2) clinical case study presentations, (3) quality improvement proposals, and (4) treatment plan reports, such as case conferences and shift reports.

77. Explain how to give an effective nursing and allied health presentation.

ANSWER: Exact answers will vary. Correct answers should note that any effective nursing and allied health presentation should (1) use evidence-based guidelines; (2) demonstrate a solid grasp of the relevant scientific data; (3) organize the presentation in order of severity of patient problems; (4) present the patient as well as the illness (i.e., remember that the patient is not merely a collection of symptoms); and (5) include only essential facts, but be prepared to answer any questions about all aspects of the patient and their care.