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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology 1. Which two disciplines provided foundations for the field of psychology? a. physiology and theology b. physiology and sociology c. philosophy and physiology d. sociology and philosophy ANSWER: c 2. While the term “psychology” has existed since at least the early 1700s, when did psychology come to be considered a science? a. the 1750s b. the early 1800s c. the late 1800s d. the 1940s ANSWER: c 3. Which event marked the “birth” of psychology as a science? a. Wilhelm Wundt established the first laboratory for psychological research. b. Sigmund Freud first described the unconscious. c. Charles Darwin published the theory of natural selection. d. William James published the textbook Principles of Psychology. ANSWER: a 4. How did Wilhelm Wundt define psychology? a. the scientific study of the unconscious b. the scientific study of conscious experience c. the scientific study of behaviour d. the scientific study of the brain ANSWER: b 5. What are the two Greek words that make up “psychology”? a. psyche, meaning the brain and logos, referring to the study of a subject b. psyche, meaning the brain and logos, referring to research c. psyche, meaning the soul and logos, referring to the study of a subject d. psyche, meaning the soul and logos, referring to the history of a subject ANSWER: c 6. Who established the first experimental psychology lab in the British Empire at the University of Toronto in 1891? a. James Mark Baldwin b. Donald Hebb c. William Wundt d. Brenda Milner ANSWER: a 7. Which school of psychology stated that the task of psychology is to analyze conscious experience into its basic elements? a. functionalism b. psychoanalysis c. behaviourism d. structuralism ANSWER: d 8. What did both Wilhelm Wundt and Edward Titchener believe should be the focus of psychology? a. observable behaviour b. the function or purpose of consciousness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology c. unconscious determinants of behaviour ANSWER: d
d. basic elements of conscious experience
9. Which technique would you be using if you take a sip of a soft drink and concentrate on what you are experiencing (cold, bubbly, sweet, etc.)? a. empiricism b. behaviourism c. introspection d. functionalism ANSWER: c 10. What technique would you be using if, while watching a sunset, you stop and analyze your sensations, thoughts, and feelings? a. dehaviourism b. introspection c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism ANSWER: b 11. What did William James believe should be the focus of psychology? a. the function or purpose of consciousness b. basic elements of conscious experience c. observable behaviour d. unconscious determinants of behaviour ANSWER: a 12. Which individual is known as the founder of functionalism? a. Sigmund Freud b. John Watson c. Wilhelm Wundt d. William James ANSWER: d 13. Which statement best illustrates the difference in psychology in Canada when compared to psychology in the United States? a. There are more psychologists per capita in Canada. b. The nature of the impact of Canadian cultural diversity on the area of cultural psychology differs to that in the United States. c. Psychologists in the United States receive better training. d. Canadian psychologists tend to place less emphasis on neuroscience than American psychologists. ANSWER: b 14. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the Canadian Psychological Association? a. It was formed in 1939. b. It has mostly male members. c. It has over 7000 members and affiliates. d. It is Canada’s largest organization for psychology. ANSWER: b 15. Which school of psychology stated that consciousness developed in humans because it serves a useful purpose? a. humanism b. functionalism c. behaviourism d. structuralism ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology 16. Which school of psychology had a practical focus and was interested in how people adapted their behaviour to the demands of the world? a. functionalism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. structuralism ANSWER: a 17. Who is associated with the concept of “stream of consciousness”? a. William James b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Sigmund Freud d. John Watson ANSWER: a 18. Two scientists from another planet, Poz and Zog, visit earth and are attempting to study our computers. Poz focuses on how the computer is used for work and for play, while Zog concentrates on the construction of each component of the computer. If you were to compare their approaches to the original schools of psychology, which of the following analogies is most accurate? a. Poz’s approach is similar to functionalism. b. Zog’s approach is similar to behaviourism. c. Zog’s approach is similar to psychoanalysis. d. Poz’s approach is similar to structuralism. ANSWER: a 19. Which statement best describes the enduring influence of structuralism and functionalism on psychology today? a. Neither structuralism nor functionalism exerted a long-lasting influence on psychology. b. Both structuralism and functionalism exerted equivalent influences on psychology. c. Structuralism has exerted the greatest influence on psychology. d. Functionalism has exerted the greatest influence on psychology. ANSWER: d 20. Who is known as the founder of behaviourism? a. John Watson b. Carl Rogers c. Wilhelm Wundt d. Sigmund Freud ANSWER: a 21. How did John Watson define psychology? a. the scientific study of the brain b. the scientific study of the unconscious c. the scientific study of behaviour d. the scientific study of conscious experience ANSWER: c 22. Which school of psychology made a clear distinction between observable behaviours and unobservable thoughts and feelings? a. functionalism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. structuralism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology ANSWER: b 23. What did John Watson believe should be the focus of psychology? a. unconscious determinants of behaviour b. observable behaviour c. basic elements of conscious experience d. the function or purpose of consciousness ANSWER: b 24. Who is NOT one of the women pioneers in Canadian psychology? a. Mary Salter Ainsworth b. Karen Horney c. Doreen Kimura d. Mary Wright ANSWER: b 25. If Dr. Meharry is a behaviourist, what would he most likely say is the cause of a child’s disruptive behaviour in school? a. a combination of his genetic inheritance and his prior experiences b. his prior experiences c. his genetic inheritance d. a learning disability ANSWER: b 26. Which school of psychology was most influential in increasing the use of animals in psychological research? a. structuralism b. humanism c. behaviourism d. animalism ANSWER: c 27. Who would be most likely to focus on your thoughts, memories, and desires that are outside of conscious rational processes? a. B F Skinner b. Sigmund Freud c. John Watson d. Abraham Maslow ANSWER: b 28. What did Sigmund Freud believe should be the focus of studies of personality, motivation, and mental disorders? a. observable behaviour b. basic elements of conscious experience c. unconscious determinants of behaviour d. the function or purpose of consciousness ANSWER: c 29. Even though you know it isn’t good for you, you just ate an entire large bag of chips. What would Sigmund Freud say is the cause of your behaviour? a. your unconscious mind b. your genetic influences c. your history of reinforcement and punishment d. your inability to think quickly ANSWER: a 30. Which of the following did NOT have a significant influence on the development of Sigmund Freud’s theory? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology a. the results of his experimental research b. his observation of the slips of the tongue people tend to make c. knowledge gained from his examination of his own anxieties, conflicts, and desires d. knowledge gained as a result of working with patients ANSWER: a 31. What did Sigmund Freud believe prevented us from being totally in control of our own minds? a. the physiological functioning of our bodies b. environmental influences acting on us c. the unconscious d. introspection ANSWER: c 32. Which of the following was NOT one of the reasons that psychoanalysis was controversial when it was first developed? a. its focus on the unconscious b. its lack of experimental research c. its emphasis on sexual issues d. its focus on abnormal behaviour ANSWER: d 33. Who was forced to resign from Johns Hopkins University because of a scandal related to his personal life and then went on to become successful in the business world and, ironically, the first ‘pop’ psychologist? a. Carl Rogers b. John Watson c. Sigmund Freud d. B F Skinner ANSWER: b 34. Which school of psychology is associated with B F Skinner? a. humanism b. behaviourism c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism ANSWER: b 35. Who was known for his concept of radical behaviourism? a. B F Skinner b. Ivan Pavlov c. Edward Thorndike d. John B. Watson ANSWER: a 36. Who believed that organisms tend to repeat responses that lead to positive outcomes? a. Sigmund Freud b. B F Skinner c. William James d. Carl Rogers ANSWER: b 37. According to B. F. Skinner, if you study “extra hard” for your first psychology midterm and earn an “A,” what would you do for your next psychology midterm? a. reduce your study time by approximately 50 percent b. continue to study “extra hard” c. devote all of your study time to your other courses d. reduce your study time by approximately 25 percent ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology 38. If you wish to teach a child to pick up his toys, whose principles and techniques would be most useful? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. William James c. B F Skinner d. Abraham Maslow ANSWER: c 39. Lisa taught her son to buckle his seatbelt quickly after getting into the car by allowing him to play one of his CDs on the car stereo only after he was buckled up. Which school of psychology would most endorse this method? a. cognitive psychology b. humanism c. biological psychology d. behaviourism ANSWER: d 40. Which statement would Skinner most likely disagree with? a. Organisms tend to repeat responses that lead to positive outcomes. b. Organisms tend not to repeat responses that lead to neutral or negative outcomes. c. All behaviour is governed by external consequences. d. Individuals have free will. ANSWER: d 41. Upon reflecting upon your own behaviour, you conclude that you behave in a very predictable fashion. You feel that you don’t really choose your behaviours freely or consciously. Rather, you believe that your behaviour is controlled by what has happened to you in the past. Which theorist would be most likely to agree with you? a. B F Skinner b. Edward Titchener c. Carl Rogers d. Sigmund Freud ANSWER: a 42. Who was NOT one of the founders of the positive psychology movement? a. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi b. Carl Rogers c. Martin Seligman d. Barbara Fredrickson ANSWER: b 43. Which school of psychology believes people have a basic need to fulfill their potential for personal growth and that we have free will? a. psychoanalysis b. cognitive psychology c. humanism d. behaviourism ANSWER: c 44. Which school of psychology would be least likely to compare humans to other animals? a. behaviourism b. functionalism c. humanism d. evolutionary psychology ANSWER: c 45. Who is considered a humanistic psychologist? a. Carl Rogers b. Wilhelm Wundt c. B F Skinner d. Sigmund Freud Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology ANSWER: a 46. Which of the following would both Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow agree with? a. People have a basic need to fulfill their potential for personal growth. b. Human behaviour is entirely shaped by environmental events. c. People are controlled by genetic forces and do not tend to change across the life span. d. Human behaviour is largely determined by primitive sexual urges. ANSWER: a 47. Imagine that you are a psychologist, and your major goal is to help people reach their potential. Which school of psychology do you endorse with that statement? a. structuralism b. humanism c. psychoanalysis d. behaviourism ANSWER: b 48. Where was the first experimental psychology laboratory in Canada established in 1891? a. University of Toronto b. Dalhousie University c. University of Alberta d. McGill University ANSWER: a 49. Where was the first psychology course offered at a Canadian university in 1838? a. Saint Mary’s University b. Dalhousie University c. Western University d. McGill University ANSWER: b 50. What is the focus of applied psychology? a. pure science research b. unique qualities of people c. practical problems d. mental processes involved in acquiring knowledge ANSWER: c 51. Tracey is conducting research on children’s learning styles, and her research is used to help create new teaching activities in daycare centres. Which category would Tracey’s research fit into best? a. clinical psychology b. applied psychology c. behaviourism d. functionalism ANSWER: b 52. Which area of psychology is concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of psychological problems and disorders? a. applied psychology b. clinical psychology c. medical psychology d. research psychology ANSWER: b 53. Which major historical event influenced the development of psychology as a profession? a. World War II b. the Cold War of the 1950s Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology c. World War I ANSWER: a
d. the Great Depression of the 1930s
54. What did many psychologists begin to specialize in after World War II? a. clinical psychology b. experimental psychology c. industrial psychology d. research psychology ANSWER: a 55. What is NOT one of the three areas of interest in positive psychology? a. the study of positive subjective experiences b. psychological treatment for depression and anxiety c. the study of positive individual traits d. positive institutions and communities ANSWER: b 56. Dr. LeBlanc became a psychologist in 1925. Which type of psychologists is Dr. LeBlanc most likely to be? a. a counselling psychologist b. an experimental psychologist c. an applied psychologist d. a clinical psychologist ANSWER: b 57. Which pair of terms reflects the observation that “psychology returned to its roots” in the latter part of the 20th century? a. cognitive perspective and humanism b. cognitive perspective and biological perspective c. biological perspective and humanism d. cultural perspective and biological perspective ANSWER: b 58. Which psychological perspective emerged in the 1950s and 1960s, and reflected a renewed interest in the study of the mind or consciousness? a. the mental perspective b. the philosophical perspective c. the biological perspective d. the cognitive perspective ANSWER: d 59. If you were to ask a cognitive psychologist about her current research, which of the following is most likely to be the topic? a. unconscious emotional conflicts b. problem solving c. the influence of hormones on behaviour d. common attitudes across cultures ANSWER: b 60. Which type of psychologist is most likely to study decision making, reasoning, problem solving, and language? a. an evolutionary psychologist b. a cognitive psychologist c. a behavioural psychologist d. a biological psychologist ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology 61. Which psychological perspective emerged in the 1950s and 1960s and reflected a renewed interest in the study of the physiological bases of behaviour? a. the philosophical perspective b. the biological perspective c. the mental perspective d. the cognitive perspective ANSWER: b 62. Which psychological perspective is most likely to focus on the interrelations among the mind, body, and behaviour? a. the biological perspective b. the cognitive perspective c. the behavioural perspective d. the evolutionary perspective ANSWER: a 63. According to the biological perspective, what must psychologists focus on to fully understand behaviour? a. the interrelations among the mind, body, and behaviour b. internal mental events c. the adaptive value of a behaviour d. the role of the unconscious ANSWER: a 64. Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive subjective experience or emotion? a. gratitude b. pride c. hope d. happiness ANSWER: b 65. Imagine that you are a graduate student in Montreal in the 1940s. You work under the supervision of a very influential researcher who published The Organization of Behavior, which provided an integrative approach to psychology. Which of the following are you likely to be researching? a. history and systems of psychology b. child development c. brain mechanisms of behaviour d. memory and problem solving ANSWER: c 66. Which of the following represents a major focus of psychology in both the 19th century and now? a. the role of unconscious conflicts b. a focus on biological bases for behaviour c. identifying the smallest units of conscious experience d. striving for self-actualization ANSWER: b 67. Which term refers to the study of ethics in neuroscience? a. psychoneuroimmunology b. neurotheology c. neuroethics d. social justice ANSWER: c 68. What has become the most recent focus of attention for psychologists? a. unconscious mechanisms b. intelligence c. emotions d. culture Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology ANSWER: d 69. What is a psychologist who focuses attention on cultural diversity least likely to do? a. document differences among varying cultures b. test the generality of earlier findings to other cultures c. document similarities among varying cultures d. identify deficiencies in other cultures ANSWER: d 70. According to a 2011 study by Statistics Canada, what percentage of Canadians were born outside of Canada? a. 6 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. 20 percent ANSWER: d 71. What do evolutionary psychologists focus on when they study behavioural processes? a. adaptive value of the behaviour b. influence on intelligence c. hormonal substrate d. cognitive correlates ANSWER: a 72. Which area of psychology is consistent with the following hypothesis: “We learn quickly about dangerous situations because we have inherited traits that keep us safe and increase the likelihood that we will survive to reproduce.” a. humanism b. cultural psychology c. biological psychology d. evolutionary psychology ANSWER: d 73. Dr Tanaka hypothesizes that men and women have subtle differences in cognition because historically men and women have had different roles and challenges. This led to different traits and abilities being adaptive for men and women. What type of psychologist is Dr. Tanaka? a. a behaviourist b. a cognitive psychologist c. a humanist d. an evolutionary psychologist ANSWER: d 74. Terry is interested in doing research on creativity. She really wants to be able to help people develop their creativity, so that they can improve their own lives. Which type of psychology is Terry interested in? a. educational psychology b. positive psychology c. functional psychology d. clinical psychology ANSWER: b 75. In promoting positive psychology, what did Seligman suggest had been the historical focus of the field of psychology? a. pathology, weakness, and damage b. genetic and physiological influences c. animal, child, and disordered behaviour d. behaviourism and psychoanalysis ANSWER: a 76. In addition to being a science, what is the other aspect of the field of psychology, according to your textbook’s definition? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology a. career c. philosophy ANSWER: b
b. profession d. art
77. Which of the following is NOT included in your textbook’s definition of psychology? a. Psychology is a profession that solves practical problems. b. Psychology is a science. c. Psychology studies behaviour including physiological and cognitive processes. d. Psychology primarily studies the unconscious mind. ANSWER: d 78. Approximately what percentage of psychologists work in colleges and universities? a. 10 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 70 percent ANSWER: b 79. What is NOT a major area of specialization in research psychology? a. industrial/organizational psychology b. social psychology c. personality psychology d. psychometrics ANSWER: a 80. What are currently the two largest areas of specialization in research-oriented psychology? a. clinical and counselling psychology b. developmental and clinical psychology c. social and counselling psychology d. developmental and social psychology ANSWER: d 81. Which type of psychologist is concerned with changes in behaviour throughout the life span? a. a social psychologist b. a developmental psychologist c. a personality psychologist d. a cognitive psychologist ANSWER: b 82. A newspaper article reported a study by a psychologist in which the attitudes of men and women toward traditional sex roles were studied. Which type of psychologist most likely conducted the study? a. a developmental psychologist b. a cognitive psychologist c. a social psychologist d. a counselling psychologist ANSWER: c 83. Which area of research specialization in psychology studies many of the traditional topics in psychology (such as sensation, learning, and motivation)? a. psychometrics b. experimental psychology c. cognitive psychology d. educational psychology ANSWER: b 84. What is NOT an example of a positive individual trait, such as a personal strength or virtue? a. kindness b. spatial skills and abilities Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology c. moral integrity ANSWER: b
d. courage
85. What would be most interesting to a psychologist who specializes in psychometrics? a. the development of techniques to monitor the functioning of the nervous system b. explaining development across the life span c. the development of psychological tests to measure intelligence or personality traits d. conducting psychotherapy in a clinical setting ANSWER: c 86. What is NOT a major area of specialization of professional psychology? a. industrial and organizational psychology b. counselling psychology c. school psychology d. personality psychology ANSWER: d 87. What is the largest specialization in professional psychology? a. counselling psychology b. industrial/organizational psychology c. clinical psychology d. developmental psychology ANSWER: c 88. Which specialization in applied psychology is primarily involved in the treatment of less severe problems of everyday life? a. social psychology b. counselling psychology c. cognitive psychology d. clinical psychology ANSWER: b 89. Which area of specialization in psychology is involved with the development of curricula and the training of teachers? a. school psychology b. experimental psychology c. industrial/organizational psychology d. educational psychology ANSWER: d 90. Which psychologists work in schools and primarily help individual children having difficulties in school, or aid parents and teachers in solving school-related problems? a. educational psychologists b. counselling psychologists c. school psychologists d. social psychologists ANSWER: c 91. As the result of a breakdown in communication, morale is low among employees in a local factory. Which type of psychologist would be most likely to be helpful in restoring communication and improving morale? a. a clinical psychologist b. a social psychologist c. an educational psychologist d. an industrial/organizational psychologist ANSWER: d 92. Which of the following professionals is a medical doctor? a. a physiological psychologist b. a clinical psychologist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology c. a psychiatrist ANSWER: c
d. a counselling psychologist
93. Which of the following professionals could provide a prescription for antidepressant medication? a. a physiological psychologist b. a clinical psychologist c. a psychiatrist d. a counselling psychologist ANSWER: c 94. Your textbook describes seven unifying themes that provide continuity throughout psychology. What are the two primary divisions of those themes? a. psychology as a way of studying behaviour; the things that influence behaviour b. psychology as a science; psychology uses theories c. psychology as a science; psychology as a profession d. psychology studies behaviour; people are subjective ANSWER: a 95. Consider your textbook’s unifying theme that “psychology is empirical.” What does this theme imply that psychologists base their conclusions on? a. logical reasoning b. direct observations c. speculation d. common sense ANSWER: b 96. Which of the following premises means that knowledge should be acquired through observation? a. philosophy b. empiricism c. subjectivity d. introspection ANSWER: b 97. Which of your text’s unifying themes is emphasized by John Watson’s proposal that psychology should study only observable behaviours and not consciousness? a. Behaviour is influenced by multiple causes. b. Psychology should use theories. c. Psychology should be empirical. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: c 98. What is a theory? a. the premise that knowledge should be acquired through logical reasoning b. a statement of fact that describes a set of observations c. the premise that knowledge should be acquired through observation d. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations ANSWER: d 99. What does a scientist use to explain a set of observations? a. introspection b. a theory c. common sense d. empiricism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology ANSWER: b 100. What is implied by your textbook’s unifying theme that “psychology is theoretically diverse”? a. Psychology has not, as yet, focused on empirical observations. b. Psychology values all opinions and treats different views as equally valid. c. Psychology can only be described as a social science, rather than a pure science. d. There are often several ways to interpret a set of observations. ANSWER: d 101. While Sigmund Freud might explain an individual’s depression by focusing on the person’s unconscious thoughts, a physiological psychologist might focus instead on a chemical imbalance in the brain. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes is illustrated by this example? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: d 102. What is one of your text’s unifying themes related to psychology as a field of study? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: b 103. What is NOT one of the text’s unifying themes related to psychology as a field of study? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. ANSWER: b 104. What is implied by your text’s unifying theme that “psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context”? a. Knowledge should be acquired through observation. b. Dense interconnections exist between what happens in psychology and in society at large. c. Shared customs, beliefs, and values are transmitted socially across generations. d. There are often several ways to interpret a set of observations. ANSWER: b 105. Which statement best describes the unifying theme that “psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context”? a. Social trends and values have an impact on personal behaviour. b. Social trends and values have an impact on psychology. c. Psychology and society both influence each other. d. Psychological research and theories have an impact on society. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology ANSWER: c 106. During the last few decades, people have become more aware of the sexual abuse of children by adults, and psychologists have devoted more research attention to the long-term effects of childhood sexual abuse. These observations best reflect which unifying theme in psychology? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. ANSWER: d 107. Taken as a whole, your text’s review of the early schools of psychology best reflects which one unifying theme in psychology? a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: c 108. Which statement is one of your text’s unifying themes related to the subject matter of psychology? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: c 109. Which statement is NOT one of your text’s unifying themes related to the subject matter of psychology? a. Psychology is theoretically consistent. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: a 110. Which statement reflects psychology’s view of behaviour? a. It has an objective cause. b. It has a single cause. c. It has subjective causes. d. It has multiple causes. ANSWER: d 111. Your text’s two unifying themes of “our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage” and “heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour” both describe more specialized statements of which other theme? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology ANSWER: d 112. Which of the following includes the widely shared customs, beliefs, values, norms, institutions, and other products of a community that are transmitted socially across generations? a. cultural heritage b. legal heritage c. religious heritage d. sociohistorical heritage ANSWER: a 113. If you normally use a knife, fork, and spoon to eat dinner, what does that reflect? a. adaptation b. subjective thoughts concerning proper behaviour c. objective thoughts concerning proper behaviour d. cultural heritage ANSWER: d 114. Which phrase reflects your textbook’s unifying theme of “heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour”? a. man versus nature b. nature versus nurture c. parent versus child d. biology versus psychology ANSWER: b 115. When John Watson said, “Give me a dozen healthy infants ...,” what was he arguing that behaviour is strongly influenced by? a. environmental factors b. heredity factors c. cultural factors d. subjective factors ANSWER: a 116. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes is reflected in the fact that people sometimes see what they either “want to see” or “expect to see”? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. People’s experience of the world is empirical. ANSWER: b 117. The unifying theme “people’s experience of the world is highly subjective” most directly impacts which other unifying theme? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. ANSWER: a 118. What is NOT good advice for developing sound study habits? a. Find a place to study where you can concentrate. b. Set up a schedule for studying. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology c. Reward yourself for studying. d. Avoid taking study breaks while studying. ANSWER: d 119. How would you describe cramming for an exam as a study strategy for most students? a. ineffective b. effective c. beneficial d. time efficient ANSWER: a 120. What is the best advice when faced with a major assignment such as a term paper? a. Set aside a large block of time (e.g., an entire weekend) to devote to the assignment. b. Break the assignment down into smaller components. c. Start the assignment with a clear idea of your conclusion in mind. d. Postpone beginning the assignment until shortly before the due date to incorporate information from the instructor’s lectures into the project. ANSWER: b 121. Which pioneering female psychologist did important work on children’s intelligence and was influential in debunking some of the theories which explained why women were “inferior” to men? a. Mary Ainsworth b. Leta Hollingworth c. Brenda Milner d. Karen Horney ANSWER: b 122. Who wrote the book Beyond Freedom and Dignity? a. Ivan Pavlov b. B F Skinner c. John Watson d. Sigmund Freud ANSWER: b 123. Which term describes the humanistic view of human nature? a. pessimistic b. optimistic c. deterministic d. predictable ANSWER: b 124. Based on empirical studies, which of the following students would you expect to have the poorest attendance during the semester? a. Tom, who earned an A? b. Sue, who earned a B c. Ashley, who earned a C+ d. Steve, who earned a D? ANSWER: d 125. What is good advice for getting more out of class lectures? a. Concentrate on writing down the definitions of terms. b. Read along in the text as the instructor is lecturing. c. Read the relevant pages in the text before the lecture. d. Avoid interrupting the instructor by asking questions. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology 126. What is NOT good advice for improving your test-taking ability? a. Don’t waste too much time pondering difficult-to-answer questions. b. Review the test if you have time left after completing the test. c. Check for hidden complexities in simple-looking questions. d. Make sure you use your time efficiently and have enough time to complete the test. ANSWER: c 127. What is good advice for taking multiple-choice exams? a. Remember that options that use broad generalizations such as “always, never, and must” tend to be correct. b. Remember to continue to read all options even after you find your anticipated answer. c. Remember that if “all of the above” is an option, it must be correct. d. Remember that options that use qualified statements such as “often, sometimes, and may” tend to be incorrect. ANSWER: b 128. Which questions should you answer first on an essay test? a. the ones that are worth the most points b. the ones that are listed first on the exam c. the ones that cover material that was most recently discussed in class d. the ones that you know best ANSWER: d 129. Which of the following is NOT part of critical thinking? a. working systematically toward a desired goal b. originally believing that the stated position on a topic is incorrect c. generating multiple solutions to problems d. using principles of likelihood when dealing with probabilistic events ANSWER: b 130. Which statement best describes the skills and attitudes involved in critical thinking? a. They naturally develop during early adulthood. b. They develop only in individuals trained in scientific disciplines. c. They need to be specifically taught to individuals. d. They naturally develop during adolescence. ANSWER: c 131. What is consistent with your textbook’s suggestions for improving academic performance by improving your reading, getting more out of lectures, and improving test-taking strategies? a. subjective thinking skills b. accepted thinking skills c. critical thinking skills d. objective thinking skills ANSWER: c 132. Which observation weakens the evolutionary explanation of gender differences in spatial abilities? a. There frequently was a sex-based division of labour in ancient hunting and gathering societies. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 1 - The Evolution of Psychology b. Males are encouraged to engage in activities that provide more practice with spatial tasks. c. Males frequently perform slightly better than females on tasks involving mental rotation of images and navigation in space. d. Females perform slightly better than males on tasks involving memory for locations. ANSWER: b 133. What would you find if you were to compare and contrast the six contemporary theoretical perspectives in psychology described in your text? a. Psychoanalytic theory is the only approach that examines the role of thoughts and feelings. b. The earlier approaches (pre-1950s) are very similar to one another, whereas the later approaches are dramatically different from one another. c. The structuralist approach permeates all contemporary theoretical perspectives. d. The psychoanalytic, humanistic, and cognitive perspectives are very different from the others with regard to focus on the human species. ANSWER: d 134. When Alex trains raccoons to respond to symbols, with whom are his methods most consistent? a. Brenda Milner b. Donald Hebb c. B F Skinner d. William James ANSWER: c 135. Which type of psychologist would be least interested in Alex’s research? a. a cognitive psychologist b. a humanist c. a functionalist d. a behaviourist ANSWER: b 136. Which type of psychologist would be most interested in Alex’s research? a. a clinical psychologist b. a structuralist c. an evolutionary psychologist d. a humanist ANSWER: c 137. Which of your textbook’s themes is illustrated when Alex collects data to evaluate his ideas? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. ANSWER: b 138. When Alex trains his students, which skill is he emphasizing? a. critical thinking b. structuralism c. positive psychology d. statistical training ANSWER: a
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology 1. What is the problem with an extraneous variable? a. It cannot be controlled for. b. It can cloud the situation and make it difficult to draw conclusions about how the independent variable affects the dependent variable. c. It cannot be measured. d. It depends on random sampling. ANSWER: b 2. Who worked at McGill University and made important contributions to our knowledge about the brain and memory processes by way of her work with the famous patient, Henry Molaison (HM)? a. Jane Goodall b. Brenda Milner c. Mary Ainsworth d. Mahzarin Banaji ANSWER: b 3. Which science goal is a researcher pursuing by studying child development in order to help teachers develop better teaching methods? a. measurement and description b. application and control c. understanding and prediction d. construction and revision ANSWER: b 4. Which science goal is a researcher pursuing by studying stress reactions in elderly people to determine risk factors for subsequent heart attacks and depression? a. construction and revision b. measurement and description c. understanding and prediction d. application and control ANSWER: c 5. Which science goal is a researcher pursuing by creating an operational definition of creativity? a. construction and revision b. application and control c. understanding and prediction d. measurement and description ANSWER: d 6. With which goal of science is scientists’ work most closely associated when they attempt to explain why something happened? a. application and control b. measurement and description c. construction and revision d. understanding and prediction ANSWER: d 7. Which science goal is reflected in psychologists’ hopes that their research will help to solve some practical problem? a. understanding and prediction b. measurement and description c. construction and revision d. application and control ANSWER: d 8. Which term refers to a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables? a. hypothesis b. research method c. cause d. theory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology ANSWER: a 9. Mrs. Sanjay, an elementary school teacher, believes that girls are smarter than boys. She predicts that the girls in her class will learn more than the boys during the school year. At the end of the year, her prediction could be supported or rejected. What would we call her prediction? a. a fact b. a hypothesis c. an opinion d. a theory ANSWER: b 10. In terms of the scientific method, what are variables? a. factors that change unpredictably within a study b. measures of variability within a study c. measurable items that are controlled or observed in a study d. factors that are affected by experimental manipulation ANSWER: c 11. If Patrick hypothesizes that minor sleep deprivation will enhance his video-game playing skills, then what are the variables in his hypothesis? a. any factors, other than sleep deprivation, that affect his measurements b. sleep deprivation and video-game skills c. his scores on his favourite video games d. varying amounts of sleep deprivation ANSWER: b 12. What is a theory? a. a system of interrelated ideas used to explain a set of observations b. an objective description of behaviour c. the application of research to practical problems d. a statement about the relationship between two or more variables ANSWER: a 13. With which goal of science are scientific theories most directly associated? a. application and control b. understanding and prediction c. construction and revision d. measurement and description ANSWER: b 14. Dr. Tremblay is a clinical psychologist who notes that an unusually large number of depressed or anxious people tend to gain weight. She offers an explanation that the hormones associated with stress lead to changes in metabolism that cause weight gain. What is the term for her explanation? a. a variable b. an educated opinion c. a verifiable fact d. a theory ANSWER: d 15. Theresa is going to conduct a study as part of her honours thesis for her psychology degree. What will her first step be if she follows the steps associated with the scientific method? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology a. develop a theory b. formulate a testable hypothesis c. select the research method and design the study d. collect the data ANSWER: b 16. In scientific investigations, a researcher must clearly outline the variables under study by precisely describing how they will be measured or controlled. What are these descriptions called? a. independent variables b. objective definitions c. operational definitions d. dependent variables ANSWER: c 17. Dr. McDougall is a researcher who measures blood alcohol level to determine intoxication. In this example, how is “blood alcohol level” being used? a. as a hypothetical variable b. as an independent variable c. as an operational definition d. as a covariant ANSWER: c 18. Theresa has decided to test whether listening to music while studying improves retention of the studied information. Now that she knows what she wants to test, what is the next step in the scientific method? a. selecting a research method and designing the study b. collecting the data c. formulating a testable hypothesis d. analyzing the data and drawing conclusions ANSWER: a 19. Psychologists use a variety of data collection techniques. Which of the following is well suited for studying attitudes? a. direct observations b. psychological tests c. physiological recordings d. Questionnaires ANSWER: d 20. Monica is conducting a study to determine whether there are IQ differences between people who go to private school and people who go to public school. Which data collection technique should she use? a. physiological recordings b. Questionnaires c. psychological tests d. direct observations ANSWER: c 21. Which statement does NOT accurately describe anecdotal evidence? a. It consists of personal stories about specific incidents and experiences. b. Researchers have found that anecdotal evidence accounts for less persuasive impact than sound factual and statistical evidence. c. People are easily tempted or swayed by this type of information. d. This type of evidence tends to be concrete, vivid and memorable. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology 22. What defines psychology as a science? a. the use of statistics b. the commitment to answer questions by way of use of empirical methods c. the use of case studies d. the collection of data ANSWER: b 23. While researching the effects music listening has on study retention, Theresa has documented her own study habits and music listening and has tested herself weekly for retention. As she continues using the scientific method, what is her next step? a. analyzing the data and drawing conclusions b. selecting a research method and designing the study c. reporting the findings d. collecting the data ANSWER: a 24. Most typically, how do researchers report their findings? a. in a journal b. in a book c. by holding a press conference d. in a scientific magazine ANSWER: a 25. What are the two main advantages of the scientific approach? a. the use of common sense, and easy acceptance of the research findings of others b. the use of common sense, and intolerance of error c. clarity, and easy acceptance of the research findings of others d. precision, and intolerance of error ANSWER: d 26. With which major advantage of the scientific approach are operational definitions most closely associated? a. the common sense approach b. intolerance of error c. clarity and precision d. tolerance of error ANSWER: c 27. What are the two main types of research methods used in psychology? a. experimental and case study research methods b. descriptive/correlational and case study research methods c. descriptive and correlational research methods d. experimental and descriptive/correlational research methods ANSWER: d 28. What research method is being used if a researcher manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether any changes occur in a second variable? a. correlational method b. descriptive method c. experimental method d. observational method Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology ANSWER: c 29. In the experimental method, the investigator manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions. What does the researcher do next? a. correlate the resulting behaviour b. survey participants to learn their assessment of the variable c. observe whether any changes occur in a second variable d. observe behaviour in its natural environment ANSWER: c 30. In experimental research, which variable is manipulated by the researcher so that its impact on another variable may be assessed? a. controlled variable b. independent variable c. extraneous variable d. dependent variable ANSWER: b 31. Theresa has conducted research on the effects listening to music has on study retention. In this case, what is “listening to music”? a. extraneous variable b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. controlled variable ANSWER: c 32. In experimental research, which variable is measured because it is thought to be affected by the manipulation of another variable? a. independent variable b. extraneous variable c. controlled variable d. dependent variable ANSWER: d 33. In experimental research, which variable is measured during data collection? a. dependent variable b. primary variable c. independent variable d. secondary variable ANSWER: a 34. If a researcher varies the loudness of music in a factory to observe its effect on the rate of productivity of the employees, what is the independent variable? a. loudness of music b. factory setting c. employees d. rate of productivity ANSWER: a 35. If a researcher varies the loudness of music in a factory to observe its effect on the rate of productivity of the employees, what is the dependent variable? a. loudness of music b. rate of productivity c. factory setting d. the employees ANSWER: b
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology 36. Dr. Ostrofsky is investigating the effect of high room temperatures on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C degrees (normal). Dr. Ostrofsky measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, what is the term for the temperature of the room? a. control group b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. experimental group ANSWER: c 37. Dr. Santiago is investigating the effect of warm room temperature on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C (normal). Dr. Santiago measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, what is the term for the number of hitting incidents? a. control group b. experimental group c. independent variable d. dependent variable ANSWER: d 38. In experimental research, what happens to subjects in the experimental group? a. They do not receive the dependent variable. b. They receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable. c. They do not receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable. d. They receive the dependent variable. ANSWER: b 39. In experimental research, which subjects receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable? a. those in the observational group b. those in the control group c. those in the experimental group d. those in the correlational group ANSWER: c 40. In experimental research, which subjects do NOT receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable? a. those in the correlational group b. those in the observational group c. those in the control group d. those in the experimental group ANSWER: c 41. In a study that examines the effects of stress on memory, which group would NOT be put under stress? a. the experimental group b. the control group c. the independent group d. the dependent group ANSWER: b 42. In a study that examines the effects of stress on memory, which group would be put under stress? a. the experimental group b. the independent group c. the control group d. the dependent group ANSWER: a 43. In a study that examines the effects of a low-fat diet on mood, which group would receive a low-fat diet? a. the experimental group b. the independent group Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology c. the dependent group ANSWER: a
d. the control group
44. In a study that examines the effects of a low-fat diet on mood, which group would receive a normal diet? a. the experimental group b. the independent group c. the control group d. the dependent group ANSWER: c 45. What conditions differ between the experimental and control groups? a. nothing; conditions are perfectly controlled between the two groups b. only the dependent variable c. only the independent variable d. both the dependent and independent variables ANSWER: c 46. Dr. Engelhart is investigating the effect of high room temperature on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C (normal). Dr. Engelhart measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, which group is in the hot classroom? a. the control group b. the experimental group c. the independent group d. the dependent group ANSWER: b 47. Dr. Wawanosh is investigating the effect of high room temperature on aggressive behaviour in preschoolers. Half of the children are in a classroom where the temperature is 31°C (hot) and half are in a classroom where the temperature is 21°C (normal). Dr. Wawanosh measures the number of hitting incidents that occur in each classroom. In this study, which group is in the classroom with the normal temperature? a. the control group b. the independent group c. the dependent group d. the experimental group ANSWER: a 48. Dr. Ishtar is investigating the effect of music on the productivity of employees in a factory. Half of the employees listen to music while working and half do not listen to music. Dr. Ishtar measures the productivity of each employee. In this study, which group listens to music? a. the experimental group b. the independent group c. the dependent group d. the control group ANSWER: a 49. Dr. O’Hara is investigating the effect of music on the productivity of employees in a factory. Half of the employees listen to music while working and half do not listen to music. Dr. O’Hara measures the productivity of each employee. In this study, which group does NOT listen to music? a. the experimental group b. the dependent group c. the control group d. the independent group ANSWER: c 50. Which term refers to variables, other than the independent variable, that seem likely to influence the behaviour of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology subjects in a study? a. dependent variables c. extraneous variables ANSWER: c
b. control variables d. random variables
51. A researcher tries to make sure that subjects in the experimental and control groups are very similar to each other. This is done in order to reduce the effects of which type of variables? a. independent variables b. random variables c. dependent variables d. extraneous variables ANSWER: d 52. As part of a study examining the role of different teaching methods on children’s math abilities, Dr. Garneau tested the children using a standardized math test. In Year 1, the standard teaching method was used. In Year 2, a new teaching method was used. In Year 1, the test was administered in October, near the beginning of the school year. In Year 2, the test was administered in May, near the end of the school year. Although Dr. Garneau’s results suggest that children in Year 2 demonstrated more math skills than children in Year 1, why are Dr. Garneau’s results not very useful? a. There was no control group. b. Results due to teaching method are confounded by the time of year the children were tested. c. Children in Year 2 had the benefit of a different teaching method, so you can’t compare them to children in Year 1. d. Different children were used in each group, and this is a confound. ANSWER: b 53. What procedure would you use to ensure that experimental and control groups will be similar in most ways? a. Allow the control group to be larger than the experimental group. b. Extensive interviewing and checklists allow you to document all potential differences. c. Operational definitions of similarity must be created. d. Random assignment allows groups to be fairly similar. ANSWER: d 54. What is NOT a typical variation of the experimental method? a. using an experimental group only and no control group b. manipulating more than one independent variable c. using one group of subjects who serve as both the experimental group and as their own control d. measuring more than one dependent variable ANSWER: a 55. Tamara is conducting a study using two independent variables (music and lighting) and one dependent variable (blood pressure). Which effect can she look for when she analyzes her data? a. effects of blood pressure on perception of music and lighting b. effects of lighting on perception of music c. interactive effects of music and lighting on blood pressure d. interactive effects of blood pressure on perception of music and lighting ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology 56. Pamela is conducting a study examining test scores before and after memory training, and she will compare the results for men to results for women. What do we call the comparison of men’s and women’s results? a. correlation effects b. between-subjects design c. interaction effects d. within-subjects design ANSWER: b 57. Pamela is conducting a study examining test scores before and after memory training, and she will compare the results for men to results for women. What do we call the comparison of results before training to results after training? a. within-subjects design b. correlation effects c. between-subjects design d. interaction effects ANSWER: a 58. Which research method allows you to draw conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships? a. experimental method b. correlational method c. survey method d. descriptive method ANSWER: a 59. Compared to the other scientific research methods, what is the principal advantage of the experimental method? a. It allows for a description of behaviour. b. It permits conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships. c. It observes behaviour in its natural setting. d. It can easily be used to study all research questions. ANSWER: b 60. What is one disadvantage or limitation of the experimental research method? a. It frequently takes place under artificial circumstances. b. The researcher has little control over the situation. c. It does not allow for conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships. d. It does not allow for a description of behaviour. ANSWER: a 61. What is one disadvantage or limitation of the experimental research method? a. The researcher has little control over the situation. b. It does not allow for a description of behaviour. c. It does not allow for conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships. d. For practical or ethical reasons it cannot be used to study some research questions. ANSWER: d 62. Which research method would likely be chosen when it is impractical to manipulate the variables of interest? a. an experimental method b. a common-sense method c. the logical method d. a descriptive/correlational method ANSWER: d 63. What do descriptive and correlational research methods allow researchers to do? a. exert precise control over the variables being studied Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology b. draw conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships c. manipulate several variables at the same time d. examine whether there is an association between variables being studied ANSWER: d 64. What do naturalistic observations, case studies, and surveys all have in common? a. They involve manipulating the variables of interest in the study. b. They show cause-and-effect relationships. c. They take place in an artificial setting. d. They involve describing behaviour. ANSWER: d 65. In which research method does a researcher engage in careful recording of behaviour without intervening directly with the subjects? a. case study method b. survey method c. naturalistic observation method d. correlation method ANSWER: c 66. What does the researcher do when using the naturalistic observation method? a. conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject b. engage in careful surveillance of behaviour without intervening directly with subjects c. manipulate a variable under carefully controlled conditions d. use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about specific aspects of participants’ behaviour ANSWER: b 67. A researcher sits on a park bench and records the number of joggers who are wearing headphones. Which research method is being employed by the researcher? a. naturalistic observation b. experimental method c. survey method d. case study method ANSWER: a 68. In which research method does a researcher conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject? a. case study method b. survey method c. naturalistic observation method d. correlational method ANSWER: a 69. What does the researcher do when using the case study method? a. manipulate a variable under carefully controlled conditions b. use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about specific aspects of participants’ behaviour c. conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject d. engage in careful observation of behaviour without intervening directly with subjects ANSWER: c 70. If Dr. Conrad is interested in an in-depth study concerning the long-term consequences of serious injury on the psychological adjustment of a patient and his family, then which of the following research methods would Dr. Conrad be Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology most likely to use? a. case study method c. naturalistic observation method ANSWER: a
b. experimental method d. survey method
71. For which method might a researcher employ a number of techniques such as interviews, direct observations, and psychological testing? a. a survey b. naturalistic observation c. a correlation d. a case study ANSWER: d 72. In which research method does a researcher use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about specific aspects of behaviour in a sample of participants? a. naturalistic observation method b. survey method c. case study method d. correlation method ANSWER: b 73. What does a researcher do when using the survey method? a. conduct an in-depth investigation of an individual subject b. manipulate a variable under carefully controlled conditions c. use questionnaires or interviews to gather information about participants’ behaviour d. engage in careful observation of behaviour without intervening directly with subjects ANSWER: c 74. If researchers were interested in studying common attitudes toward “animal rights issues,” which of the following would they be most likely to use? a. a case study b. a correlation c. a survey d. a naturalistic observation ANSWER: c 75. What is the principal advantage of descriptive/correlational research methods? a. They allow the researcher a high level of control over the variables of interest. b. They can examine research questions that because of practical and ethical reasons cannot be studied with other methods. c. They permit conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships. d. They often observe behaviour in artificial situations. ANSWER: b 76. Dr. Rosenfeld plans to study the relationship between people’s smoking behaviour and their tendency to have minor physical illnesses (such as colds or the flu). Why might she be most likely to choose correlational research for this study? a. Correlational studies allow the researcher to draw strong cause-and-effect conclusions. b. The university does not allow smoking in the psychology building. c. It is not practical or ethical to manipulate people’s smoking behaviour. d. Correlational studies are always the “first choice” of researchers. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology 77. What is the principal disadvantage of the descriptive and correlational research methods? a. Because of practical or ethical reasons, they cannot be used to study some research questions. b. They do not allow the researcher to describe behaviour. c. They frequently observe behaviour in artificial situations. d. Because researchers cannot control variables of interest, conclusions concerning cause-and-effect relationships are not appropriate. ANSWER: d 78. What is the primary reason that descriptive and correlational research cannot determine conclusively that variables have a cause-and-effect relationship? a. The researcher observes behaviour under artificial situations. b. The data collected frequently comes from direct observations or statements made by subjects. c. Only an experimental group is used. d. The researcher cannot control events or manipulate variables. ANSWER: d 79. Henri wants to determine whether infant birth weight predicts the age at which children begin to walk and run. Which design would be most appropriate for this research? a. case study b. naturalistic observation c. experimental method d. correlational method ANSWER: d 80. Eline wants to determine whether scented candles can help people relax. She plans to take two groups of students who have just finished difficult exams, and have one group sit in a room with scented candles while the other group sits in a room without scented candles. Both groups will be monitored for heart rate. Which type of design is Eline planning for her research? a. case study b. correlational method c. naturalistic observation d. experimental method ANSWER: d 81. What are descriptive statistics? a. numerical indexes of the degree of relationship between two variables b. indicators of the probability that the observed findings are due to chance c. calculations used to organize and summarize data d. summaries used to interpret data and draw conclusions ANSWER: c 82. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency? a. mode b. median c. mean d. medium ANSWER: d 83. What is the term for the most frequent score in a distribution? a. mean b. medium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology c. median ANSWER: d
d. mode
84. What is the median of the following distribution of scores: 1, 2, 3, 7, 7? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 ANSWER: a 85. What is the mode of the following distribution of scores: 1, 2, 3, 7, 7? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 ANSWER: d 86. What is the mean of the following distribution of scores: 1, 2, 3, 7, 7? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 ANSWER: b 87. Which term describes the following distribution of scores: 1, 2, 3, 7, 7? a. symmetrical tendency b. negatively skewed c. non-central tendency d. positively skewed ANSWER: b 88. Which measure of central tendency is most sensitive to (or most influenced by) extreme scores in a distribution? a. median b. medium c. mode d. mean ANSWER: d 89. Which term is used to describe how much the scores in a data set differ from each other and from the mean? a. correlation b. mode c. variability d. central tendency ANSWER: c 90. Which of the following is an index of the amount of variability in a set of data? a. correlation coefficient b. central tendency c. statistical significance d. standard deviation ANSWER: d 91. If test scores for your midterm are normally distributed, what percentage of people scored higher than the mean? a. 25 percent b. 33 percent c. 50 percent d. 66 percent ANSWER: c 92. If your test score is at the 70th percentile, what proportion of the class got a higher score than you did? a. 3 percent b. 7 percent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology c. 30 percent ANSWER: c
d. 70 percent
93. Which statement best illustrates a correlation between two variables? a. Scores on one variable are related to scores on the second variable. b. Scores on either variable cause scores on the other variable. c. Scores on one variable are different from the scores on the second variable. d. Scores on one variable are independent from the scores on the second variable. ANSWER: a 94. What do we call a numerical index of the degree of relationship between two variables? a. variable coefficient b. experimental coefficient c. correlation coefficient d. causation coefficient ANSWER: c 95. If two variables have a positive correlation, then you should expect that low scores on one variable would predict which type of score on the other variable? a. a low score b. a high score c. a positive score d. a negative score ANSWER: a 96. As adults age, their physical strength declines. What type of correlation exists between age and physical strength? a. a strong correlation b. a negative correlation c. a weak correlation d. a positive correlation ANSWER: b 97. If there is a relationship between amount of coffee consumed daily and number of hours slept, such that people who drink a lot of coffee tend to sleep very little (and people who drink little coffee tend to sleep a lot), what correlation exists between coffee consumption and sleep? a. a negative correlation b. a positive correlation c. a decreasing correlation d. an increasing correlation ANSWER: a 98. What is the range of possible values for a correlation coefficient? a. between -10.00 and +10.00 b. between -1.00 and +1.00 c. between 0 and +1.00 d. between 0 percent and 100 percent ANSWER: b 99. What does a large correlation coefficient (either positive or negative) indicate? a. A third factor or variable is responsible for the relationship between the two variables. b. A change in one variable causes a change in the second variable. c. The scores on the two variables are nearly identical. d. One variable can be used to predict the other variable. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology 100. Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship between two variables? a. -1.51 b. -.80 c. 0 d. +.50 ANSWER: b 101. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the correlation coefficient? a. The strength of the relationship between the two variables is described by the mathematical value. b. A value near zero indicates no relationship between the two variables. c. High values indicate that the two variables have a cause-and-effect relationship. d. The type of relationship between the two variables is described by whether the value is positive or negative. ANSWER: c 102. If one variable can be reliably predicted from another variable, what can be said about the correlation between those two variables? a. It is strong. b. It is weak. c. It is negative. d. It is positive. ANSWER: a 103. If A and B are highly correlated, which statement most accurately describes the relationship between A and B? a. The score on A causes the score on B. b. The score on B causes the score on A. c. Both A and B are caused by a third variable. d. The score on A can be used to predict the score on B. ANSWER: d 104. Which pair of terms related to the goals of science is most clearly associated with the concept of correlation? a. description and understanding b. understanding and prediction c. description and prediction d. prediction and application ANSWER: c 105. What are inferential statistics? a. data used to organize and summarize data b. numerical indexes of the degree of relationship between two variables c. calculations used to interpret data and draw conclusions d. indicators of the variability of a population under study ANSWER: c 106. What do researchers use to determine whether the observed difference between the two groups in the study was large enough to support the hypothesis? a. descriptive statistics b. correlational statistics c. mathematical statistics d. inferential statistics ANSWER: d 107. What does it mean when research results are said to be statistically significant? a. The observed findings are interesting. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology b. The observed findings are important. c. The probability that the observed findings are due to chance is very low. d. The probability that the observed findings are scientific is very high. ANSWER: c 108. Which of the following is NOT a common methodological flaw to consider when evaluating scientific research? a. subject effect b. placebo effect c. social desirability bias d. sampling bias ANSWER: a 109. What type of studies involves the repetition of a study to see whether the earlier results can be duplicated? a. duplication studies b. replication studies c. clarification studies d. verification studies ANSWER: b 110. If there are a lot of conflicting results on a particular topic, which of the following methods would allow all those results to be compared and analyzed as a whole? a. inferential statistics b. meta-analysis c. experiment d. measures of central tendency ANSWER: b 111. What is the term for the group of individuals actually observed in a research study? a. target group b. population c. demographic d. sample ANSWER: d 112. When a research project uses a sample that is not representative of the population from which it was drawn, what effect occurs? a. sampling bias b. experimenter bias c. response set d. placebo effect ANSWER: a 113. Dr. Arrabella surveyed students in his finance class about their attitudes concerning the Canada Pension Plan and concluded that young adults across Canada doubt that they will ever receive Canada Pension benefits. Why might his conclusion be flawed? a. He knew his subjects before he surveyed them. b. His students were not a representative sample of young adults. c. He did not survey the entire population of young adults. d. His students were a random sample. ANSWER: b 114. In scientific research, what is the result called when participants’ expectations lead them to experience some change even though they received an empty, fake, or ineffectual treatment? a. experimenter bias b. subject bias c. the placebo effect d. demand characteristics Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology ANSWER: c 115. Dr. Coulombe is conducting an experiment on the effect of alcohol consumption on reaction time. Half of the subjects drink alcoholic drinks and half drink non-alcoholic versions of the same drinks. Which type of research flaw should be minimized by this research design? a. experimenter expectancy b. self-report bias c. the placebo effect d. sampling bias ANSWER: c 116. In which of the following studies would social desirability bias be most likely to affect results? a. a survey about water use and recycling habits b. an experimental analysis of looking-times for a variety of faces c. a naturalistic observation of shoppers in a mall d. a correlational study examining the relationship between age and metabolism ANSWER: a 117. In which scientific research method are distortions in self-report most likely to be of concern to the researcher? a. survey method b. correlational method c. experimental method d. naturalistic observation method ANSWER: a 118. Todd is filling out a psychological test, and he doesn’t understand a lot of the questions. He decides to just choose “all of the above” for every answer. What does this example illustrate? a. experimenter bias b. halo effect c. response set d. social desirability bias ANSWER: c 119. Which term describes a situation where a researcher’s expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study influence the results of the study? a. subject bias b. the placebo effect c. experimenter bias d. the sampling effect ANSWER: c 120. What is a research strategy that minimizes the potential methodological problems associated with the placebo effect and experimenter bias? a. blind sample procedure b. single blind procedure c. neutral sample procedure d. double blind procedure ANSWER: d 121. If you were designing a study that would be run online, so that you would collect all your data over the Internet with participants that you never meet, which of the following research flaws would be minimized? a. sampling bias b. response set c. halo effect d. experimenter bias ANSWER: d
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology 122. What is the primary ethical dilemma that psychologists encounter regarding the use of deception in research? a. whether the deception affects all participants equally b. whether subjects believe the deception c. whether there is a possibility of inflicting harm on subjects d. whether deception is induced by the researcher or by participants ANSWER: c 123. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the use of deception in psychological research? a. Participants in research involving the use of deception generally report that they enjoyed the experience. b. Critics of deception believe that the deception may result in subjects becoming less trusting of others. c. Critics of deception believe that the conclusions from studies involving deception are not valid. d. Defenders of deception believe that some research questions can be studied only by using deception. ANSWER: c 124. What is one of the Canadian Psychological Association (CPA) ethical principles? a. prohibition of payments for research participation, in order to avoid exploitation b. prohibition of the use of deception in research c. protection for the dignity, privacy, and personal liberty of research participants d. detailed regulations regarding the appropriate housing and care of animals in research ANSWER: c 125. According to the ethical guidelines for psychological research with humans, if you agree to be a participant in a research study then which of the following must be promised? a. You will not be exposed to harmful or dangerous treatments without your knowledge. b. You waive the right to privacy. c. You have to commit to participating in the entire research study. d. You will not be exposed to deception. ANSWER: a 126. According to the ethical guidelines for conducting psychological research with animals, what is the current position on exposing animals to harmful or painful procedures? a. It is justified if the research design requires the harmful or painful procedures. b. It is justified for lower animals but not for primates. c. It cannot be justified unless the potential benefits of the research are substantial. d. It is never justified. ANSWER: c 127. Which statement best describes the use of animals in psychological research? a. While ethical principles govern the treatment of humans in research, there are no ethical principles for conducting animal research. b. Animals are to be used in research if there is evidence that the results will benefit both humans and other animals. c. Animals are used as subjects only for procedures that are too harmful for human participants. d. Psychologists, if given a choice, always prefer to conduct animal research instead of human research. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology ANSWER: b 128. With which unifying theme in psychology are the various methods and procedures used in conducting psychological research and evaluating the research of other psychologists consistent? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Our behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. ANSWER: b 129. The double blind procedure was developed by researchers because of which unifying theme in psychology? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: d 130. What do we call a periodical that publishes technical and scholarly material in a specific field? a. magazine b. blog c. publication d. journal ANSWER: d 131. Which statement best describes most journal articles in psychology? a. They are descriptions of newly developed theories. b. They are reviews that summarize and reconcile the findings from a large number of studies. c. They are criticisms of previously published research. d. They are reports that describe original empirical studies. ANSWER: d 132. Which section of a journal article involving psychological research provides a brief summary to the research project? a. abstract b. introduction c. results d. discussion ANSWER: a 133. Which section of a journal article describing psychological research contains the author’s interpretation and evaluation of the data? a. conclusion b. references c. results d. discussion ANSWER: d 134. What is reflected by the organization or standard format of journal articles describing psychological research? a. the steps involved in conducting scientific research b. the unifying themes of psychology c. the preferences of the specific researcher Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 2 - The Research Enterprise in Psychology d. the goals of science ANSWER: a 135. Jarrod explains his opinion against buying a certain model of car by noting that even though the model is popular and highly rated by numerous organizations, his cousin has that model and has had a lot of problems. How is Jarrod making his decision? a. He is basing his opinion on anecdotal evidence. b. He is basing his opinion on first-hand information. c. He is using the evidence-based decision-making procedure. d. He is using critical thinking skills to reach an opinion. ANSWER: a 136. Which statement does NOT accurately describe field experiments? a. They use settings that are much like real life. b. Findings from field experiments are less generalizable as compared to lab studies. c. They increase our confidence in the applicability of the research findings to ‘real life’. d. They involve sacrificing some level of control in the experiment. ANSWER: b 137. Which of the following is NOT one of the subtests of the Graduate Record Exam (GRE), a standardized test used in some schools in Canada to screen graduate school applicants? a. verbal b. qualitative c. analytical d. quantitative ANSWER: b 138. Which of the following is NOT an example of a placebo effect? a. A child’s headaches goes away after receiving a sugar pill which she believes is a pain relieving medicine. b. A depressed woman starts to feel better after four weeks of taking antidepressant medications. c. A young man feels intoxicated after drinking non-alcoholic beer that he thought had alcohol in it. d. A runner feels faster after consuming a substance he believed was a protein gel but was actually plain Jell-O. ANSWER: b 139. Who is famous for her use of naturalistic observation as used to study the social and family life and behaviour of chimpanzees? a. Jane Goodall b. Brenda Milner c. Mary Ainsworth d. Mahzarin Banaji ANSWER: a
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour 1. Which cells in the nervous system receive, integrate, and transmit information? a. glia b. synapses c. terminal buttons d. neurons ANSWER: d 2. What do neurons do? a. receive, integrate, and transmit information b. provide support for the other cells in the nervous system c. insulate the other cells in the nervous system d. connect the other cells in the nervous system ANSWER: a 3. If you needed to send a message from the brain to your big toe, which cell would be used? a. receptor b. neuron c. glial cell d. epithelial cell ANSWER: b 4. What is the role of the soma or cell body of a neuron? a. It releases neurotransmitters. b. It transmits signals toward other neurons. c. It contains the cell nucleus. d. It receives information from other neurons. ANSWER: c 5. Which part of the neuron has branched extensions that are specialized to receive information? a. Axons b. terminal buttons c. Somas d. Dendrites ANSWER: d 6. What is the main function of dendrites? a. to receive information c. to support and insulate the neuron ANSWER: a
b. to transmit information d. to release neurotransmitters
7. Which part of the neuron typically receives information, and which part of the neuron typically sends information? a. Dendrites receive, and the soma sends. b. The axon receives, and the soma sends. c. The axon receives, and dendrites send. d. Dendrites receive, and the axon sends. ANSWER: d 8. What is the correct order for information to pass through a neuron? a. axon, soma, dendrite b. dendrite, axon, soma c. dendrite, soma, axon d. axon, dendrite, soma ANSWER: c 9. Which part of a neuron transmits information away from the neuron and toward another neuron? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour a. synapse c. axon ANSWER: c
b. soma d. dendrite
10. What is the main function of the axon? a. to break down neurotransmitters c. to support and insulate the neuron ANSWER: b
b. to transmit information d. to receive information
11. What is the name for the insulation that covers some axons and increases the speed of transmission of the neural impulse? a. neurotransmitter sheath b. terminal cover c. myelin sheath d. glia wrap ANSWER: c 12. If you know that someone has a disorder that results from a loss of myelin in the nervous system, which of the following would be a key problem in that disorder? a. blockage of important receptors b. neurons that depolarize too easily c. lack of neurotransmitters d. poor transmission of signals along the axon ANSWER: d 13. When a synapse is created, which of the following becomes possible? a. destruction of dendrites b. blockage of neurotransmission c. increase in myelinization d. communication between two neurons ANSWER: d 14. Where are terminal buttons located? a. at the end of dendrites b. at the end of axons c. on the soma d. in the synaptic cleft ANSWER: b 15. What are the chemicals that are secreted from the terminal buttons into the synapse? a. action potentials b. hormones c. myelin d. neurotransmitters ANSWER: d 16. Which cells in the nervous system provide support and insulation for other cells? a. glial cells b. terminal cells c. neurons d. synapse cells ANSWER: a 17. What is the main role of glial cells? a. to receive information from other cells Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour b. to transmit information to other cells c. to provide support for other cells in the nervous system d. to transfer information within the nervous system ANSWER: c 18. By what type of process are neural impulses transmitted through the nervous system? a. a chemical process b. an electrical process c. a biological process d. an electrochemical process ANSWER: d 19. A neuron is currently not receiving any input. What kind of charge does that neuron have? a. It has a stable positive charge. b. It has an unstable negative charge. c. It has an unstable positive charge. d. It has a stable negative charge. ANSWER: d 20. What happens to a neuron’s electrical charge as it is stimulated by an excitatory neurotransmitter and starts to receive information? a. It immediately becomes positive. b. It becomes more negative. c. It becomes less negative and may become positive. d. It immediately affects the next neuron. ANSWER: c 21. What occurs when the electrical charge inside a neuron becomes positive and travels along the axon? a. a resting potential b. an action potential c. a chemical potential d. an electrical potential ANSWER: b 22. What happens to a neuron’s electrical charge when a neuron is firing its action potential? a. It becomes positive and travels along the dendrite. b. It becomes negative and travels along the axon. c. It becomes negative and travels along the dendrite. d. It becomes positive and travels along the axon. ANSWER: d 23. Which statement best describes a neuron after it fires an action potential? a. It cannot fire another action potential until at least five minutes have elapsed. b. It can continue firing the original action potential for an extended period of time. c. It can immediately fire additional action potentials. d. It cannot immediately fire another action potential. ANSWER: d 24. Comparing a neuron to a gun that holds only a single bullet, which statement is similar to the time it takes to reload the gun? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour a. It has a relative refractory period. c. It has an absolute refractory period. ANSWER: c
b. It has a relative firing rate. d. It has an absolute firing rate.
25. What does the “all-or-none law” refer to? a. A neuron transmits a consistent impulse each time it fires an action potential. b. The neuron is selective regarding the type of other neuron it responds to. c. A neuron is either working properly, or it has become necrotic. d. All neurons in a chain are active or none are active. ANSWER: a 26. What is the law that states that a neuron fires an action potential at only one level of intensity? a. the refractory law b. the all-or-none law c. the threshold law d. the action law ANSWER: b 27. What do we call the microscopic gap between the terminal buttons of one neuron and the cell membrane of another neuron? a. presynaptic space b. synaptic cleft c. neurotransmitter cleft d. postsynaptic space ANSWER: b 28. An action potential has just arrived at the terminal buttons of a neuron. Which event will occur immediately? a. Neurotransmitters will be taken up by the postsynaptic neuron. b. Neurotransmitters will be pulled back into the presynaptic neuron. c. Neurotransmitters will be manufactured in the synaptic vesicles. d. Neurotransmitters will be released into the synaptic cleft. ANSWER: d 29. Which situation is most likely to lead to the depolarization of a postsynaptic neuron? a. Reuptake has occurred in the synapse. b. Neurotransmitters have been released into the synapse. c. The number of excitatory PSPs is greater than the number of inhibitory PSPs. d. The number of inhibitory PSPs is greater than the number of excitatory PSPs. ANSWER: c 30. As a result of receiving neurotransmitters, the voltage of a postsynaptic receptor has become more negative. What will be the result of this change? a. The presynaptic neuron is less likely to fire again. b. The presynaptic neuron is more likely to fire again. c. The postsynaptic neuron is less likely to fire. d. The postsynaptic neuron is more likely to fire. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour 31. As a result of receiving neurotransmitters, the voltage of a postsynaptic receptor has become less negative. What will be the result of this change? a. The presynaptic neuron is more likely to fire again. b. The postsynaptic neuron is less likely to fire. c. The presynaptic neuron is less likely to fire again. d. The postsynaptic neuron is more likely to fire. ANSWER: d 32. What is the process through which neurotransmitters are “recycled” to be used again? a. absorption b. reabsorption c. uptake d. reuptake ANSWER: d 33. What would happen if inhibitory postsynaptic potentials did not exist? a. Antagonism would not occur. b. Neurons would be more likely to depolarize. c. Neurons would be more resistant to depolarization. d. Reuptake would not occur. ANSWER: b 34. As a result of brain maturation, a neuron in a network now receives fewer excitatory postsynaptic potentials. Which process has most likely occurred? a. pruning b. agonism c. degeneration d. antagonism ANSWER: a 35. Which statement reflects Hebbian learning? a. The synapse between Neuron A and Neuron B has been pruned. b. Neuron A becomes more efficient at depolarizing Neuron B over time. c. Neuron A produces more neurotransmitters over time. d. Neuron A has just created a new synapse with Neuron B. ANSWER: b 36. What do we call a chemical that mimics a neurotransmitter and can bind to receptor sites and cause postsynaptic potentials? a. an agonist b. an artificial neurotransmitter c. an endogenous neurotransmitter d. an antagonist ANSWER: a 37. In the “lock and key” analogy of synaptic communication, which of the following is the “lock”? a. the soma b. the receptor c. the axon d. the neurotransmitter ANSWER: b 38. In the “lock and key” analogy of synaptic communication, which of the following is the “key”? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour a. the axon c. the soma ANSWER: d
b. the receptor d. the neurotransmitter
39. In the “lock and key” analogy of synaptic communication, which of the following would function like a piece of gum that is stuck in the lock? a. the neurotransmitter b. the receptor c. a synapse d. an antagonist ANSWER: d 40. Which neurotransmitter is released by motor neurons and results in movement of the voluntary muscles? a. monoamines b. acetylcholine c. endorphins d. dopamine ANSWER: b 41. Eric believes that smoking tobacco is beneficial when he is studying because of its relationship to acetylcholine (ACh). Which outcome should nicotine cause? a. Nicotine is an excitor for ACh, so it should keep him awake. b. Nicotine is an agonist for ACh, so it should facilitate memory and attention. c. Nicotine is an inhibitor for ACh, so it should prevent distraction. d. Nicotine is an antagonist for ACh, so it should block nervousness. ANSWER: b 42. Which neurotransmitter is NOT a monoamine? a. dopamine b. norepinephrine c. acetylcholine d. serotonin ANSWER: c 43. What is most likely to occur if you were to administer a serotonin antagonist? a. pain reduction b. increased focus and attention c. schizophrenia d. aggressive behaviour ANSWER: d 44. What is most likely to occur if you were to administer a serotonin agonist? a. stable mood and arousal b. sensitivity to pain c. depression d. schizophrenia ANSWER: a 45. What is most likely to occur if you were to administer a dopamine antagonist? a. addiction b. schizophrenia c. difficulty with movement d. pain reduction ANSWER: c 46. Which neurotransmitter is believed to be associated with schizophrenia? a. serotonin b. dopamine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour c. endorphin ANSWER: b
d. acetylcholine
47. Which neurotransmitters produce only inhibitory postsynaptic potentials? a. GABA b. serotonin and endorphins c. serotonin and glycine d. GABA and endorphins ANSWER: a 48. What is characteristic of endorphins? a. They have been related to the development of certain psychological disorders. b. They are associated with the movement of voluntary muscles. c. They are associated with sleep and wakefulness. d. They resemble opiates in structure and effect. ANSWER: d 49. Which of the following could be considered an endorphin agonist? a. histamine b. cocaine c. morphine d. curare ANSWER: c 50. What are the two major divisions of the nervous system? a. central and peripheral b. autonomic and sympathetic c. central and autonomic d. peripheral and somatic ANSWER: a 51. Which nervous system is subdivided into the somatic and autonomic nervous systems? a. skeletal nervous system b. central nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. peripheral nervous system ANSWER: d 52. Handyman Holmes just hit his thumb with a hammer. Which nerve fibres will transmit the sensation to his central nervous system? a. sympathetic nerve fibres b. efferent nerve fibres c. autonomic nerve fibres d. afferent nerve fibres ANSWER: d 53. Handyman Holmes just hit his thumb with a hammer. Which nerve fibres will transmit the command from his central nervous system to jerk his hand away? a. efferent nerve fibres b. sympathetic nerve fibres c. afferent nerve fibres d. autonomic nerve fibres ANSWER: a 54. How do efferent nerve fibres communicate with the central nervous system (CNS)? a. They take messages toward the CNS. b. They relay messages within the CNS. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour c. They take messages away from the CNS. d. They carry messages both away from and toward the CNS. ANSWER: c 55. Which nervous system carries information from the voluntary skeletal muscles and sensory receptors to the central nervous system and also carries commands from the central nervous system to the muscles? a. peripheral nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. somatic nervous system ANSWER: d 56. Which nervous system controls the heart, glands, and smooth muscles? a. visceral nervous system b. efferent nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system ANSWER: d 57. Which nervous system is responsible for the activation of the “fight or flight” response? a. parasympathetic nervous system b. efferent nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. afferent nervous system ANSWER: c 58. If the parasympathetic nervous system is currently active, which bodily function is likely to be occurring? a. digestion b. cortisol secretion c. crying d. orgasm ANSWER: a 59. In which nervous system would you find cerebrospinal fluid? a. peripheral nervous system b. central nervous system c. primary nervous system d. autonomic nervous system ANSWER: b 60. If you removed the top of the skull, what would you be able to see on top of the brain? a. meninges b. brain stem c. ventricles d. CSF ANSWER: a 61. If you wanted to monitor the electrical activity of the brain over time, what recording device should you use? a. EEG b. MRI c. CT d. PET ANSWER: a 62. Which technique would be most useful for research in sleep laboratories? a. transcranial magnetic stimulation b. electrical stimulation of the brain c. electroencephalography d. lesioning ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour 63. How do lesioning studies relate to studies of patients with brain injuries? a. Lesioning was originally used for research purposes but is beginning to be accepted as a therapeutic technique. b. Lesioning is an imaging method that is appropriate for use with patients who may have foreign materials lodged in their wounds. c. Lesioning is used in animal research to test hypotheses generated from case studies of patients with brain damage. d. Lesioning is a therapeutic technique designed to reduce symptoms associated with brain damage. ANSWER: c 64. What does electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB) involve? a. monitoring the electrical activity of the brain over time b. destroying a piece of the brain via small electrodes that are carefully implanted c. visualizing the three-dimensional structure of the brain d. sending a weak current into a brain structure to activate that structure ANSWER: d 65. If you hypothesized that damage to a particular region of the brain led to symptoms of anxiety, which of the following techniques would be both useful and ethical to test this hypothesis in human participants? a. electroencephalography b. electric stimulation of the brain c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: c 66. Which pair of procedures allows researchers to visualize changes in brain activity over time? a. positron emission tomography and functional magnetic resonance imaging b. computerized tomography and magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography and computerized tomography d. magnetic resonance imaging and functional magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: a 67. Which procedure results in a high-quality three-dimensional picture of the brain? a. transcranial magnetic stimulation b. magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography d. electrical stimulation of the brain ANSWER: b 68. Which method would you use if you needed to know which areas of the brain experienced the greatest blood flow during a particular task? a. magnetic resonance imaging b. computerized tomography c. positron emission tomography d. electroencephalography ANSWER: c 69. In 1949 at McGill University, whose work focused on how neurons are linked in complex networks and how brain processes are fundamental to understanding human behaviour? a. Solomon Snyder b. Wilder Penfield c. Donald Hebb d. Brenda Milner ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour 70. Which process is the medulla involved in? a. relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex b. sleep and arousal c. coordinating body movements and balance d. controlling essential functions such as breathing ANSWER: d 71. If a patient has a stroke that leads to respiratory failure, in which brain area did the stroke likely occur? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. pons d. reticular formation ANSWER: b 72. A gunshot wound in the back of the head caused the victim to be permanently unable to maintain balance and bodily coordination. Which portion of the brain was damaged? a. medulla b. cerebrum c. thalamus d. cerebellum ANSWER: d 73. Which brain structure contains dopamine-releasing neurons and, if it deteriorates, is involved in Parkinson’s disease? a. midbrain b. forebrain c. limbic system d. hindbrain ANSWER: a 74. As a result of a stroke, Helen has sustained damage to her reticular formation. Which of the following will be difficult for Helen? a. relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex b. coordinating bodily movements and balance c. regulation of sleep, wakefulness, and arousal d. relaying information between the brainstem and cerebellum ANSWER: c 75. Where are the thalamus, hypothalamus, and limbic system all located? a. cerebrum b. forebrain c. hindbrain d. midbrain ANSWER: b 76. Through which of the following areas will all visual and auditory signals travel? a. sensory cortex b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus ANSWER: b 77. Electrical stimulation of which brain structure will result in an animal eating constantly and gaining weight rapidly? a. thalamus b. frontal lobe c. limbic system d. hypothalamus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour ANSWER: d 78. Which of the following is NOT directly regulated or influenced by the hypothalamus? a. the autonomic nervous system b. feeding c. the endocrine system d. memory ANSWER: d 79. Which term refers to a loosely connected network of brain structures involved in memory and emotional experiences such as fear and pleasure? a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. limbic system d. reticular formation ANSWER: c 80. If a person’s hippocampus is damaged, what would become difficult for that person? a. controlling her response to pleasurable stimuli b. vision and hearing c. controlling her food intake d. remembering ANSWER: d 81. Which area allows information to travel between the left and right hemispheres? a. thalamus b. corpus callosum c. pons d. limbic system ANSWER: b 82. If the human cortex did not have so many folds, what would be likely? a. We would not need the cerebellum. b. We would have faster transmission of action potentials. c. We would lose the ability to inhibit most neural impulses. d. We would need larger skulls to hold the same brain volume. ANSWER: d 83. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for a visual task? a. occipital lobe b. frontal lobe c. temporal lobe d. parietal lobe ANSWER: a 84. If the occipital lobe of the brain is stimulated, what would a person be most likely to report? a. moving a part of his body b. seeing a flash of light c. smelling an odour d. hearing a sound ANSWER: b 85. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for an auditory task? a. temporal lobe b. frontal lobe c. occipital lobe d. parietal lobe Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour ANSWER: a 86. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for a task that required you to identify objects by touch? a. temporal lobe b. occipital lobe c. frontal lobe d. parietal lobe ANSWER: d 87. Which lobe of the brain would be most active for a task that required a great deal of manual dexterity? a. parietal lobe b. temporal lobe c. frontal lobe d. occipital lobe ANSWER: c 88. The next time you have an itch on your foot, where will the perception of the itch be processed? a. occipital lobe b. parietal lobe c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe ANSWER: b 89. If a patient has severe damage to the prefrontal cortex, what would become difficult for that patient? a. identifying objects by touch b. planning, paying attention, and getting organized c. hearing sounds d. identifying visually complex materials ANSWER: b 90. Theodore was born blind. What is likely to happen to the visual cortex of Theodore’s brain as he develops? a. It will receive proportionately less blood and oxygen. b. It will be recruited for processing verbal and other auditory information. c. It will begin to function like a subcortical area rather than a cortical area. d. It will shrink in size and be replaced by a ventricle. ANSWER: b 91. Where, in most people, is the area of the brain that is primarily responsible for speech production? a. right frontal lobe b. left temporal lobe c. left frontal lobe d. right temporal lobe ANSWER: c 92. John has recovered very well from a recent stroke, except that he can no longer understand the words people are saying to him even though he can hear perfectly well. Which brain area is likely damaged? a. Wernicke’s area b. the prefrontal cortex c. the parietal cortex d. Broca’s area ANSWER: a 93. An elderly person has a stroke that leaves her unable to talk and part of her body paralyzed. Which part of the body is most likely paralyzed? a. right side b. lower body Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour c. upper body ANSWER: a
d. left side
94. How could you determine whether a person has had split-brain surgery? a. by their speech patterns b. by their performance on visual identification tasks in a laboratory c. by the characteristic patterns of disturbed motor behaviour d. by the increased likelihood of having small seizures ANSWER: b 95. Following split-brain surgery, if an individual has difficulty naming an object that he briefly saw, which visual field would you expect that the object was presented to? a. right b. dominant c. nondominant d. left ANSWER: d 96. Ellie has had split-brain surgery. If she briefly views “boatXhouse” while focusing on the X, what would Ellie say that she saw? a. She saw the word “boat.” b. She did not see a word. c. She saw the word “boathouse.” d. She saw the word “house.” ANSWER: d 97. When an object is placed unseen in the left hand of a person who has had split-brain surgery, what will happen? a. He will be able to describe it. b. He will be able to identify the object with his right hand. c. He will not be able to describe it. d. He will drop it. ANSWER: c 98. Which task would NOT be primarily controlled by the right hemisphere? a. spatial tasks b. visual recognition c. reading d. musical tasks ANSWER: c 99. Which task is NOT predominantly controlled by the left hemisphere, for most people? a. writing b. language c. spatial tasks d. controlling the right side of the body ANSWER: c 100. What is likely to be released if the pituitary gland is activated? a. digestive enzymes b. neurotransmitters c. hormones d. tears ANSWER: c 101. Why is the pituitary gland known as the “master gland”? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour a. It regulates brain function. b. It secretes hormones that control other endocrine glands. c. It regulates levels of both hormones and neurotransmitters. d. It secretes testosterone. ANSWER: b 102. Which brain structure controls much of the endocrine system? a. hypothalamus b. cerebellum c. thalamus d. pituitary ANSWER: a 103. Jason and Kyle are friends who are working together on a project. Which hormone is likely to be secreted if they are bonding? a. estrogen b. testosterone c. cortisol d. oxytocin ANSWER: d 104. Which hormone would be released in high volumes around the time of puberty? a. thyroxin b. gonadotropin c. oxytocin d. Cortisol ANSWER: b 105. Tom is studying twins to determine the relative contribution of heredity and environment to the development of eating disorders. What is Tom’s field of study? a. evolutionary psychology b. ontology c. behaviour genetics d. embryology ANSWER: c 106. With the exception of eggs and sperm, how many chromosomes are contained in each cell in the human body? a. 18 b. 21 c. 23 d. 46 ANSWER: d 107. What is the smallest piece of genetic information that is the key functional unit in hereditary transmission? a. chromosome b. DNA c. gene d. zygote ANSWER: c 108. Which of the following lists the three major regions of the brain, from the lower to upper end of the brain? a. hindbrain, brainstem, forebrain b. brainstem, midbrain, cerebrum c. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain d. forebrain, midbrain, brainstem ANSWER: c 109. Which statement best describes Ellen, if Ellen carries a recessive gene for blue eyes? a. One of her parents had blue eyes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour b. Both of her parents had blue eyes. c. One of her parents carried the recessive gene. d. Neither of her parents carried the recessive gene. ANSWER: c 110. What are you describing if you describe Henry as tall, dark, and handsome? a. his homozygous condition b. his heterozygous condition c. his genotype d. his phenotype ANSWER: d 111. Isabel has a large family. Which pair would have equal degrees of relatedness to Isabel? a. her father, and her brother b. Her son, and her aunt c. Her brother, and her first cousin d. her grandfather, and her daughter ANSWER: a 112. Which variable is more difficult to isolate in a family study compared to an adoption study? a. sex differences b. socioeconomic status c. genetic predisposition d. shared environment ANSWER: d 113. In family studies, how do researchers assess hereditary influence? a. by comparing the resemblance of adopted children to both their biological and adoptive parents on specific traits b. by comparing members of one family to unrelated individuals to see how much they resemble one another on specific traits c. by comparing blood relatives to see how much they resemble one another on specific traits d. by comparing the resemblance of identical and fraternal twins on specific traits ANSWER: c 114. If a trait is influenced to some degree by genetic factors, then pair should be most similar to one another? a. monozygotic twins b. parent and child c. dizygotic twins d. brother and sister ANSWER: a 115. Which research method allows researchers to most easily isolate the effect of both genetics and experience on specific traits? a. twin studies b. family studies c. survey studies d. adoption studies ANSWER: d 116. What is suggested by results from family, twin, and adoption studies? a. Neither genetics nor experience exert a predictable influence on human behaviour. b. Genetics exerts the strongest influence on human behaviour. c. Experience exerts the strongest influence on human behaviour. d. Genetics and experience jointly influence human behaviour. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour ANSWER: d 117. Why would the Human Genome Project NOT be considered part of the field of behaviour genetics? a. The procedures associated with genetic mapping do not consider the role of the environment on behaviour. b. It appears to be impossible to predict behaviours based on genetic substrates. c. It focuses on the genome, not the chromosome. d. It ignores polygenic traits. ANSWER: a 118. Jessica is working on a large research project that follows people who have inherited a gene for a particular disorder. She wants to determine whether diet and exercise will alter the likelihood that those people will experience the symptoms of the disorder. What is Jessica’s field of study? a. epigenetics b. genetic mapping c. evolutionary psychology d. behaviour genetics ANSWER: a 119. In a village, some people have very few children and some people have a lot of children. According to Darwin, what varies among people in this village? a. fertility b. heritability c. fitness d. genotype ANSWER: c 120. A species that lives in the arctic have warm, fluffy coats of fur because those individuals in the species with warm fur lived longer and had more offspring. According to Darwin, what is the mechanism that led to the whole species having warm fur? a. evolution b. survival of the fittest c. natural selection d. adaptation ANSWER: c 121. The long necks of giraffes and sharp beaks of woodpeckers allow access to food. Which term is used for these physical characteristics? a. adaptations b. fitness c. natural selection d. genotype ANSWER: a 122. Which term refers to the hippocampus’ conversion of information into durable memories? a. action potential b. tomography c. consolidation d. neural translation ANSWER: c 123. Which statement does NOT accurately describe oxytocin? a. It fosters adult pair-bonding in many mammals. b. It fosters feelings of warmth between people. c. It decreases the risk of fidelity in men. d. It triggers contractions when a woman gives birth and stimulates the mammary glands to release milk for Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour breastfeeding. ANSWER: c 124. Schizophrenia may be related to abnormalities in neurotransmitter activity, structural defects in the brain, and genetic vulnerabilities. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes are these observations most directly related to? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology is empirical. ANSWER: c 125. Which of your textbook’s unifying themes in psychology is Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection most directly related to? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: c 126. What has been demonstrated by research involving tasks such as recognizing words or musical melodies? a. Most tasks are controlled by only one hemisphere. b. Right-handed individuals outperform left-handed individuals on verbal tasks. c. On a specific task, the superiority of one hemisphere is usually quite modest. d. The dominant hemisphere is superior to the other hemisphere on most tasks. ANSWER: c 127. You have just read a magazine article that claims that schools should be reformed so that teachers can teach more to the right side of the brain. What is a reasonable response, given evidence about cerebral specialization? a. It would be detrimental to left-brained students. b. It is impractical because it is impossible to teach just one hemisphere at a time. c. It is revolutionary, because it considers individual differences in hemispheric specialization. d. It is an excellent suggestion that reflects current understanding of brain functioning. ANSWER: b 128. Which intervention is likely to cause permanent visual damage? a. visual deprivation during infancy b. visual deprivation during childhood c. visual deprivation during adolescence d. visual deprivation during adulthood ANSWER: a 129. Terry read a study suggesting that listening to music can lower cortisol levels and reduce the experience of everyday stress. Terry then tells her friend that people with anxiety disorders should just listen to music to get rid of their symptoms. What error has Terry made? a. confirmation bias b. illusory correlation c. inappropriate extrapolation d. fundamental attribution error ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 3 - The Biological Bases of Behaviour 130. What did Darwin suggest evolution was applicable to? a. physical and financial characteristics b. behavioural traits and financial habits c. physical characteristics and behavioural traits d. emotional and behavioural traits ANSWER: c 131. Which term refers to a limited time span in an organism’s development when it is optimal for certain capacities to emerge? a. overextrapolation b. critical window c. critical period d. sensitive period ANSWER: c 132. What did Adrian Owen of Western University discover about the brain of head injury victim, Scott Routley, who was thought by doctors to be in a chronic vegetative state? a. That he was unable to answer yes-no questions. b. That he was indeed in a chronic vegetative state. c. That he was cognitively intact as evidenced through fMRI imaging procedures. d. The he was incapable of communicating. ANSWER: c 133. When an individual neuron is at rest, two ions are critical in creating and maintaining the neuron at rest. What are these ions? a. potassium and sodium b. sodium and chloride c. chloride and potassium d. sodium and oxygen ANSWER: a 134. Neurotransmitters share four common properties. Which of the following is NOT one of those properties? a. They are synthesized in the neuron. b. They are stored in the synaptic terminals. c. They are released when the neuron is at resting potential. d. They are deactivated or removed from the synapse when they have completed their task. ANSWER: c
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception 1. What do we call the stimulation of sense organs? a. sensation b. detection c. activation d. perception ANSWER: a 2. What is perception? a. subjectivity of emotional experience b. selection, organization, and interpretation of sensory input c. the study of how physical stimuli are translated into psychological experience d. stimulation of the sense organs ANSWER: b 3. Nicole is a vision scientist who conducts studies where people are presented with lines of different orientations. She documents how different those orientations need to be for people to perceive a difference. What do we call this type of research? a. sensation b. signal-detection c. psychophysics d. physiological psychology ANSWER: c 4. What is the minimum stimulus intensity that an organism can detect? a. the detection threshold b. the just noticeable threshold c. the signal-detection threshold d. the absolute threshold ANSWER: d 5. In order to determine thresholds for detection of a spice, researchers diluted various amounts of the spice in 10 litres of water and determined whether those concentrations could be detected by people with normal taste perception. Participants were always able to detect 5 grams of the spice, and never able to detect 1 gram of the spice. About half of the time, participants could detect 2 grams of the spice, and nearly always detected 3 grams. In this example, what is the absolute threshold for detection of this spice? a. 1 gram b. 2 grams c. 3 grams d. 5 grams ANSWER: b 6. At the absolute threshold, what proportion of the time is a target stimulus detected? a. 1 percent of the time b. 25 percent of the time c. 50 percent of the time d. 100 percent of the time ANSWER: c 7. When Jessica’s furnace stopped working, she didn’t notice that the temperature had dropped until it was two degrees colder than the usual programmed temperature. What is the psychophysics term for the two-degree difference between the usual temperature and the temperature at which Jessica noticed that it was colder? a. a just noticeable difference b. a sensation threshold c. an absolute difference d. a Weber fraction ANSWER: a 8. If your roommate slowly and carefully turns up the volume on the stereo until you can determine “now it’s louder than Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception it was before,” which of the following represents how much the volume increased? a. a just noticeable difference b. a proportional difference c. a perceivable difference d. a fractional difference ANSWER: a 9. If the just noticeable difference (JND) for detecting a change in the weight of your shopping bag is 50 grams, what would the JND be if your shopping bag were twice as heavy? a. 25 grams b. 50 grams c. 75 grams d. 100 grams ANSWER: d 10. If Bill has grapheme-colour synesthesia, what would Bill experience? a. colour blindness b. letters or digits in different colours c. blurring of colours d. hearing sounds as colours ANSWER: b 11. The detection of stimuli involves decision processes as well as sensory processes, which are both influenced by a variety of factors besides stimulus intensity. Which of the following reflects this fact? a. subliminal perception b. signal-detection theory c. sensory adaptation d. Weber’s law ANSWER: b 12. According to signal-detection theory, what is the term for thinking that you heard your phone ring when it did not? a. false alarm b. correct rejection c. hit d. miss ANSWER: a 13. According to signal-detection theory, what is the term for waking up to your alarm in the morning? a. hit b. false alarm c. miss d. correct rejection ANSWER: a 14. According to signal-detection theory, what is the term for sleeping through your alarm in the morning? a. correct rejection b. false alarm c. miss d. hit ANSWER: c 15. “Can we be influenced by things that we are not consciously aware of?” Which topic addresses this question? a. subliminal perception b. sensory adaptation c. psychophysics d. signal-detection theory ANSWER: a 16. Which statement best summarizes researchers’ views concerning subliminal perception? a. Subliminal perception does not influence behaviour, but it appears likely to have practical importance. b. While subliminal perception may influence behaviour, it appears unlikely to have much practical importance. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception c. Subliminal perception has no demonstrated effect on behaviour. d. Subliminal perception may influence behaviour and it appears likely to have practical importance. ANSWER: b 17. What is the term for the gradual decline in sensitivity to stimuli that follows prolonged stimulation? a. sensory overload b. perceptual adaptation c. perceptual overload d. sensory adaptation ANSWER: d 18. When you first put on a pair of tight-fitting pants in the morning you may be aware of pressure on your waist; however, after a few minutes the pants will not feel as tight. What does this example illustrate? a. sensory adaptation b. synaesthesia c. subliminal perception d. just-noticeable-difference ANSWER: a 19. If you have undergone sensory adaptation for the sounds that are all around you as you study in the library, what will you be most likely to do? a. be unable to concentrate b. block out all sounds and ignore any changes c. become increasingly irritated by the sounds if they do not change d. notice when the quality of those sounds changes ANSWER: d 20. Which of the following describes light as the stimulus for vision? a. a form of electromagnetic energy b. a form of mechanical energy c. the result of vibrations of molecules d. a form of chemical energy ANSWER: a 21. What determines our perception of colour? a. amplitude of light waves b. frequency of light waves c. wavelength of light waves d. purity of light waves ANSWER: c 22. What differs between a red light and a green light? a. purity b. complexity c. wavelength d. amplitude ANSWER: c 23. If a person views three lights that differ only in amplitude, what would the person perceive about the lights? a. They are different shades of the same colour. b. They differ in colour. c. They differ in brightness. d. They differ in saturation. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception 24. If a person views two red lights, but one is more obviously red than the other, what differs between the two lights? a. purity of the light b. wavelength c. brightness of the light d. wave amplitude ANSWER: a 25. What is the transparent structure on the surface of the eye where light first enters the eye? a. lens b. cornea c. retina d. pupil ANSWER: a 26. Which structure of the eye focuses light rays onto the retina? a. pupil b. optic disk c. cornea d. lens ANSWER: d 27. Jacqueline has gone to get her eyes checked because she has been having trouble focusing. Her optometrist tells her that it is due to the normal aging of her lens. Which process is likely impaired? a. refraction b. constriction c. accommodation d. dilation ANSWER: c 28. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the retina? a. It is located in the middle of the eye. b. It is part of the central nervous system. c. It is neural tissue lining inside the back surface of the eye. d. It is located at the back of the eye. ANSWER: a 29. Which structure of the eye changes size to help regulate the amount of light entering the inner areas of the eye? a. retina b. pupil c. lens d. cornea ANSWER: b 30. Which structure of the eye absorbs light, processes images, and sends visual information to the brain? a. retina b. rods c. lens d. fovea ANSWER: a 31. If you did not have saccades, what would you lose the ability to see? a. poorly illuminated scenes b. objects that don’t change c. moving things d. colours ANSWER: b 32. What is the optic disc? a. It is the layer of muscle that operates the lens and degenerates with age. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception b. It is the hole in the retina where the optic nerves exit the eye, causing a blind spot. c. It is the area on the retina where cones are most densely represented, causing a focal point. d. It is the low-acuity outer area of the retina that contains a high density of rods. ANSWER: b 33. If someone has a problem with colour vision due to defective receptors, which receptor could be the problem? a. rods b. hair cells c. cilia d. cones ANSWER: d 34. Which aspect of vision is associated with rods? a. daytime vision b. peripheral vision c. high visual acuity d. colour vision ANSWER: b 35. If your entire retina was like the fovea, which aspect of vision would you be best able to accomplish? a. motion detection b. peripheral vision c. visual acuity d. night vision ANSWER: c 36. Which aspect of vision is associated with cones? a. dark adaptation b. night vision c. peripheral vision d. colour vision ANSWER: d 37. If an animal species is normally active at night, which receptors should be most common in its visual system? a. ganglion cells b. bipolar cells c. rods d. cones ANSWER: c 38. If you walk from a bright room to a dark room, which of the following would occur after five minutes in the dark? a. Your peripheral vision would be enhanced. b. Your absolute thresholds for object detection would be increasing. c. Your dark adaptation would be essentially complete. d. Your cones would have adapted to a greater degree than did your rods. ANSWER: d 39. Multiple rods and cones within an area of the retina will send information to a single visual cell. What do we call that area? a. fovea b. optic disc c. light adaptation region d. receptive field ANSWER: d 40. What is the retinal area that, when stimulated, affects the firing of a visual cell? a. fovea b. focal point Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception c. receptive field ANSWER: c
d. visual field
41. Which species would you expect to have the largest number of cones on the retina? a. a nocturnal species b. an Antarctic species c. a species that hunts small prey in the daytime d. a species that must detect predators from all directions ANSWER: c 42. What is the correct order that neural signals travel from the eye to the brain? a. receptor, ganglion cell, optic nerve b. optic nerve, ganglion cell, receptor c. receptor, optic nerve, ganglion cell d. ganglion cell, receptor, optic nerve ANSWER: a 43. Which statements best describes how visual information is transmitted to the brain? a. Signals from the fovea of each eye go to the left hemisphere and signals from the remaining areas of the retina go to the right hemisphere. b. Signals from both eyes go to both hemispheres of the brain. c. Signals from each eye go to only the corresponding (same) hemisphere of the brain. d. Signals from each eye go to only the opposite hemisphere of the brain. ANSWER: b 44. Which list represents the main pathway that visual signals travel from the eye to the visual cortex? a. optic nerve, thalamus, optic chiasm, occipital lobe b. optic nerve, thalamus, optic chiasm, temporal lobe c. optic nerve, optic chiasm, thalamus, occipital lobe d. optic nerve, optic chiasm, thalamus, temporal lobe ANSWER: c 45. Because of the pathway that visual information travels from the eye to the visual cortex, where are images seen in the left visual field received? a. half of the right visual cortex and half of the left visual cortex b. only the left visual cortex c. both the left and right visual cortex d. only the right visual cortex ANSWER: d 46. When Max sees sees the colour “red” when he hears the word “train”. What condition does Max have? a. dysgraphia b. auditory mixing c. automania d. synesthesia ANSWER: d 47. You are in class one day and someone turns out the lights. You can see nothing right away, but after a few moments you are able to perceive some shapes and forms due to small amount of light which is entering the room through a crack Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception under the door. What sensory process are you experiencing? a. stimulus detection b. perceptual adjustment c. synesthesia d. sensory adaption ANSWER: d 48. One cell in the visual cortex responds only to vertical lines presented in a specific portion of the visual field. Another cell responds only to vertical lines that are moving across the visual field. Which term applies to both cells? a. complex cell b. simple cell c. threshold detector d. feature detector ANSWER: d 49. After visual information is processed in the primary visual cortex, it is often routed to other cortical areas for additional processing. Where does information travel if it is used for facial recognition? a. to the occipital lobe b. to the parietal lobe c. to the temporal lobe d. to the frontal lobe ANSWER: c 50. A perceptual set involves a person’s readiness to perceive a stimulus in a particular way. Which of the following is NOT a factor that might influence how a person interprets sensory input? a. information given to the person about the stimulus b. previous experiences c. the fact that people’s experience of the world is objective d. the person’s expectations ANSWER: c 51. If a thirsty person is sitting across the table from a bottle of water, how would his estimate of the distance of the bottle of water differ from a person who is not thirsty? a. It would not likely differ. b. It would likely be more accurate. c. He would likely estimate it to be farther away. d. He would likely estimate it to be closer. ANSWER: d 52. Jamie can identify objects, but she doesn’t seem to be able to reach out and grab them appropriately. If Jamie has brain damage associated with vision for action, where would you expect that damage to be located? a. primary visual cortex b. temporal lobe c. dorsal stream d. ventral stream ANSWER: c 53. What method is a child using if he mixes yellow and blue finger-paints together to produce green? a. primary colour mixing b. complementary colour mixing c. subtractive colour mixing d. additive colour mixing ANSWER: c 54. What is being combined when you are using additive colour mixing? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception a. lights of different colours c. two or more colours ANSWER: a
b. pigments of different colours d. the three primary colours
55. If lights representing all wavelengths of the visible spectrum are combined, what colour would a person perceive? a. red, blue, or yellow b. red, blue, or green c. white d. black ANSWER: c 56. Which of the following is consistent with the trichromatic theory of colour vision? a. complementary colour afterimages b. additive colour mixing c. the visual receptors consist of rods and cones d. subtractive colour mixing ANSWER: b 57. If you stare at a colourful image and then stare at a white surface, you will experience an afterimage. Which theory of colour vision is supported by this phenomenon? a. subtractive colour theory b. additive colour theory c. trichromatic theory d. opponent process theory ANSWER: d 58. While visiting the art museum, Laura stared at a black-and-white photograph in a red frame for over a minute. When she looked away from the photograph she saw an afterimage of a rectangle. Consistent with the opponent process theory, what colour was the rectangle? a. blue b. red c. green d. yellow ANSWER: c 59. While visiting the art museum, Laura stared at a black-and-white photograph in a blue frame for over a minute. When she looked away from the photograph she saw an afterimage of a rectangle. Consistent with the opponent process theory, what colour was the rectangle? a. yellow b. green c. blue d. red ANSWER: a 60. Given our present knowledge concerning colour vision, what theory provides the most accurate explanation of how we perceive colour? a. Both the trichromatic and opponent process theories are required to explain it. b. The opponent process theory is more accurate. c. The trichromatic theory is more accurate. d. Neither trichromatic nor opponent process theory is sufficient, so a new theory is required. ANSWER: a 61. At the level of the retina and brain, which colour vision theory is supported? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception a. opponent process theory at the retina, but trichromatic theory in the brain b. trichromatic theory c. trichromatic theory at the retina, but opponent process theory in the brain d. opponent process theory ANSWER: d 62. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the sense of touch? a. feeling pressure b. feeling pain c. somatosensory cortex d. motor cortex ANSWER: d 63. What is illustrated by our perception of reversible figures? a. The same visual input can result in different perceptions. b. There is a one-to-one correspondence between sensory input and perception. c. Individuals may fail to see fully visible objects. d. Expectations do not influence perceptions. ANSWER: a 64. If a radio play-by-play announcer describing each pitch during a baseball game fails to notice a naked fan running across the infield, what would the announcer be demonstrating? a. inattentional blindness b. feature analysis c. perceptual set d. attentional disturbance ANSWER: a 65. Which process is consistent with top-down processing? a. reading messy handwriting b. distinguishing between colours c. detecting edges in a visual stimulus d. dark adaptation ANSWER: a 66. Which process is consistent with bottom-up processing? a. recognizing subjective contours b. dark adaptation c. detecting edges in a visual stimulus d. reading messy handwriting ANSWER: c 67. What is the basic assumption of Gestalt psychology? a. Our perception of form has a preference for stationary objects over moving objects. b. Our perception has a preference for complex forms over simple forms. c. Our perception of a “whole” may have qualities that do not exist in any of the parts. d. There is a one-to-one correspondence between sensory input and perception. ANSWER: c 68. The house across the street is decorated with a lot of lights for a party. The lights along the roof turn on and off, one at a time, so that it looks as if a light is moving across the edge of the roof. What is the Gestalt term for this illusion? a. continuity b. the phi phenomenon Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception c. Pragnanz ANSWER: b
d. figure-ground reversal
69. Which Gestalt principle best explains our perception of reversible figures such as the two silhouetted faces/vase figure? a. visual illusion b. figure-ground c. phi phenomenon d. perceptual constancies ANSWER: b 70. What do we call the perceptual tendency to group objects together that are near each other? a. similarity b. common fate c. continuity d. proximity ANSWER: d 71. When you look at a pile of loose change, you’re very likely to see it as comprising nickels, dimes, quarters, loonies, and toonies. Which perceptual tendency is consistent with this example? a. similarity b. continuity c. closure d. proximity ANSWER: a 72. What is the most general of the Gestalt principles describing how individual elements are grouped into higher-order figures? a. continuity b. simplicity c. similarity d. proximity ANSWER: b 73. Imagine you are sitting at the dinner table and looking at the round plate in front of the person sitting across from you. What shape would the proximal stimulus of the plate be? a. oval b. the same as the distal stimulus c. the proximal stimulus has no form d. round ANSWER: a 74. If you saw the stimulus “0” in the context of “B0SS” you are likely to see it as a letter, but in the context of “5038” you are likely to see it as a number. What differs between the two contexts that leads to your different understanding of the same stimulus? a. features of the stimulus b. bottom-up processing c. perceptual hypotheses d. figure and ground ANSWER: c 75. There is a difference in the visual image of an object projected to each eye. Which depth cue uses this information? a. accommodation b. interposition c. retinal disparity d. linear disparity ANSWER: c 76. Which type of cue is used by artists to create a perception of depth on a two-dimensional surface? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception a. accommodation cue c. disparity cue ANSWER: d
b. binocular cue d. monocular cue
77. Which of the following depth cues could be used by an artist to depict depth in a painting? a. convergence b. retinal disparity c. motion parallax d. interposition ANSWER: d 78. Which depth perception cue is based on the observation that parallel lines converge in the distance? a. linear perspective b. height in plane c. interposition d. retinal disparity ANSWER: a 79. When your psychology professor is lecturing to your class, your professor can tell which students are sitting in the first, second, third, etc., row, in part because students in the closer rows appear to have more distinct or clearer facial features than students in more distant rows. Which depth cue is your professor using? a. linear perspective b. texture gradient c. interposition d. relative size ANSWER: b 80. When your psychology professor is lecturing to your class, your professor can tell which students are sitting in the first, second, third, etc., row, in part because students in the closer rows obstruct his or her view of students in more distant rows. Which depth cue does this illustrate? a. texture gradient b. relative size c. interposition d. linear perspective ANSWER: c 81. If, in a painting, a figure of a person is drawn larger than a house, the house will seem to be far away. Which depth cue does this illustrate? a. texture gradient b. interposition c. linear perspective d. relative size ANSWER: d 82. Which of the following allows us to experience perceptual constancies? a. bottom-up processing b. perceptual hypotheses c. binocular depth cues d. linear perspective ANSWER: b 83. When we view cars parked in a distant parking lot, we know that the cars are not actually the size of toy cars. What is illustrated by this example? a. visual disparity b. perceptual constancy c. perceptual illusion d. visual theory ANSWER: b
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception 84. If you incorrectly perceive that two identical lines are of different lengths, what are you experiencing? a. Ponzo illusion b. Necker effect c. Müller-Lyer illusion d. McCullough effect ANSWER: c 85. Which of the following explains the moon illusion? a. motion parallax b. size constancy c. interposition d. texture gradient ANSWER: b 86. Which individual would be most susceptible to the Müller-Lyer illusion, based on evidence about the role of experience on perception? a. a person raised in a collectivist culture b. a person raised in an urban environment c. a person raised in an individualist culture d. a person raised in a rural environment ANSWER: b 87. What has been demonstrated by studies that examine the ability of individuals from various cultures to take advantage of pictorial depth cues present in two-dimensional drawings? a. It is a skill shown only by adults. b. It is a skill that develops in all cultures. c. It is an acquired skill that depends on experience. d. It is a skill that emerges automatically in early infancy. ANSWER: c 88. Tia has sustained brain damage, and as a result she is no longer able to recognize objects. She is, however, still able to see and react to those objects. For example, although she can’t name a coffee cup, when she wants coffee she will pick up the cup and fill it. Based on your knowledge of the brain regions involved in vision for perception, compared to vision for action, what area do you expect to be damaged in Tia’s brain? a. optic chiasm b. ventral stream c. primary visual cortex d. dorsal stream ANSWER: b 89. You are able to see and recognize objects, but unable to react to them appropriately (e.g., you can’t understand how to orient your hand appropriately to grasp a pencil). Which statement best describes your situation? a. You have appropriate vision for action but have damage to your “what” pathway. b. You have appropriate vision for action but have compromised vision for perception. c. You have appropriate vision for perception, but your visual cortex is damaged. d. You have appropriate vision for perception, but compromised vision for action. ANSWER: d 90. If two sounds vary in frequency, what will be the nature of the perceptual difference? a. loudness b. timbre c. decibels d. pitch ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception 91. If you play two different notes on the same instrument, what will be the primary difference between the two sounds? a. pitch b. timbre c. purity d. amplitude ANSWER: a 92. What is the range of humans’ frequency detection? a. 10–120 dB b. 120–2000 dB c. 1–20 Hz d. 20–20,000 Hz ANSWER: d 93. If a piano player softly taps a key and then hits the same key with a lot of force, the second note will sound louder. What will differ between the sound waves of the two sounds? a. timbre b. frequency c. amplitude d. wavelength ANSWER: c 94. You can detect the difference between a musical note played on a trumpet and the same note played on a trombone. What differs between notes played on the two instruments? a. amplitude b. key c. timbre d. pitch ANSWER: c 95. Which pair of terms related to the perceived qualities of light and sound result from similar physical properties of light and sound? a. colour and timbre b. saturation and pitch c. frequency and wavelength d. brightness and loudness ANSWER: d 96. What is the main function of the middle ear? a. to collect sounds b. to minimize sounds c. to convert sounds into neural impulses d. to amplify vibrations ANSWER: d 97. Which structure contains the basilar membrane? a. pinna b. cochlea c. ossicle d. eardrum ANSWER: b 98. Which cells in the ear are analogous to the rods and cones of the eye? a. hair cells b. auditory nerves c. ossicles d. hammers ANSWER: a 99. Which list represents the correct order that auditory information travels as sounds enter the ear from the auditory canal? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception a. cochlea, oval window, ossicles, eardrum c. eardrum, oval window, ossicles, cochlea ANSWER: d
b. cochlea, ossicles, oval window, eardrum d. eardrum, ossicles, oval window, cochlea
100. According to place theory, which statement best describes receptor cells? a. Cells at different locations on the basilar membrane respond to sounds of different loudness. b. Cells at different locations on the basilar membrane respond to sounds of different frequencies. c. Cells along the entire basilar membrane vary their rate of responding to correspond to the loudness of a sound. d. Cells along the entire basilar membrane vary their rate of responding to correspond to the frequency of a sound. ANSWER: b 101. Which theory of hearing states that the perception of pitch depends on the rate at which the entire basilar membrane vibrates? a. place theory b. frequency theory c. gate theory d. opponent process theory ANSWER: b 102. What is the current perspective on the utility of the two theories of pitch perception? a. Frequency theory is more accurate. b. Place theory is more accurate. c. Both frequency and place theory are sufficient. d. Both frequency and place theory are necessary. ANSWER: d 103. Which category of sound frequencies is best accounted for by the place theory of pitch perception? a. high b. loud c. low d. quiet ANSWER: a 104. John and Linda went to a play and failed to notice that the central actor in the scene was replaced midway through the play. What did they probably experience? a. change blindness b. delusions c. inattentional blindness d. amnesia ANSWER: a 105. You go to the local science centre and, after losing track of your twin sons, you eventually find them in a bizarre room. It looks normal except your son standing in the right corner appears much larger than his brother who is standing in the left corner. What kind of room are they likely in? a. Ames Room b. Ponzo Room c. Lyer Room d. Puzzle Room ANSWER: a 106. Evolutionary theory suggests that some differences observed between men and women have significance for survival of the species. For instance, there are differences in taste sensitivity. Which statement best describes this gender gap? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception a. Women are somewhat more likely to be supertasters than men b. Women are somewhat more likely to prefer the taste of tobacco and alcohol than men c. Men are somewhat more likely to be supertasters than women d. Women are somewhat more likely to fond of sweets than men ANSWER: a 107. What are the physical stimuli for the sense of taste? a. the vibrations of molecules b. organic substances that are insoluble in water c. tactile stimulation of taste buds d. chemical substances that are soluble in water ANSWER: d 108. Where would you find the receptors for the sense of taste? a. chemosensory cells b. taste buds c. hair cells d. taste cilia ANSWER: b 109. Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary tastes? a. sour b. spicy c. salty d. sweet ANSWER: b 110. Which perceptual preference is strongly influenced by social processes? a. smell b. touch c. taste d. vision ANSWER: c 111. When compared to average individuals, which statement best describes supertasters? a. They tend to eat more vegetables. b. They tend to have a high risk of cardiovascular disease, due to overeating. c. They are less likely to enjoy sweets. d. They are more likely to smoke. ANSWER: c 112. Where are the olfactory cilia? a. in the nose b. in the stomach c. in the mouth d. in the brain ANSWER: a 113. What is the only sensory system that does NOT send information to the thalamus before it is sent to the cortex? a. hearing b. vision c. taste d. smell ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception 114. Which of the following have a short life and are constantly being replaced? a. auditory hair cells and cilia b. rods and cones c. olfactory cilia and taste cells d. pheromones and taste buds ANSWER: c 115. Which sense uses a variety of physical stimuli including mechanical, thermal, and chemical energy? a. touch b. smell c. hearing d. taste ANSWER: a 116. Cells in the nervous system that respond to touch sensation convey touch information from a specific area of skin. What is that area called? a. a target area b. a focal point c. a receptive field d. a tactile trigger ANSWER: c 117. If a pain message is being transmitted to the brain through the fast pathway, what kind of pain will be experienced? a. external pain b. a long-lasting aching pain c. a sharp pain d. internal pain ANSWER: c 118. Which sense is associated with the gate-control theory? a. smell b. taste c. vision d. pain ANSWER: d 119. According to gate-control theory, where may incoming pain sensations be blocked? a. location of the injury b. spinal cord c. thalamus d. cortex ANSWER: b 120. Where is the point of origin for the descending neural pathway that mediates the suppression of pain? a. midbrain b. hypothalamus c. hindbrain d. thalamus ANSWER: a 121. What does the kinesthetic system do? a. It responds to gravity and keeps you informed of your body’s location in space. b. It monitors the internal temperature of the body. c. It monitors the positions of the various parts of the body. d. It responds to painful stimuli. ANSWER: c 122. Which sensory system relies on the functioning of the semi-circular canals in the inner ear? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception a. kinesthetic system c. vestibular system ANSWER: c
b. olfactory system d. auditory system
123. Which unifying theme in psychology is best illustrated by a summary of the development of psychologists’ understanding of colour vision and pitch perception? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. ANSWER: c 124. Which unifying theme in psychology is most consistent with the existence of ambiguous figures and visual illusions? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: a 125. The observation that people with different learning histories differ regarding taste preferences and visual illusions best reflects which of the following unifying themes of your textbook? a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. ANSWER: a 126. Prior to the Renaissance, artists were generally unsuccessful in painting realistic scenes. What did they NOT seem to understand? a. how to use depth cues b. subjective colour mixing c. how to use binocular depth perception cues d. geometric forms ANSWER: a 127. Which modern artist frequently used impossible figures as the basis of his work? a. Pablo Picasso b. René Magritte c. Salvador Dali d. M. C. Escher ANSWER: d 128. What would you be most likely to do if you were using the door-in-the-face technique to persuade your parents to give you a two-week tour of Europe next summer? a. Promise to work hard in your courses next semester. b. Start by hinting about the trip several weeks before asking. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 4 - Sensation and Perception c. First ask for an all-expense-paid six-week tour. d. Threaten to drop out of school if they won’t pay for the trip. ANSWER: c 129. Immediately after you get this exam back from your psychology professor, you want to know what the highest, lowest, and average grades were on the exam so that you can determine whether your grade was “OK.” Which term best describes the information you’re asking for? a. comparitors b. relativity c. contrast effects d. correlations ANSWER: a 130. What is one positive aspect of the sensation of pain? a. It is a warning sign. b. It is frustrating. c. It is chronic. d. It can surgically be corrected. ANSWER: a 131. Which of the following is NOT an intervention for pain control? a. psychological intervention b. pain relieving narcotics c. medical marijuana d. antidepressants ANSWER: d 132. If Mark uses the door-in-the-face technique to try to convince his frugal wife Maria to buy a $25,000 sports car, what will he first propose? a. That they purchase a $44,000 sports car. b. That they purchase a $25,000 sedan. c. That they pay off all their debt first. d. That they take it for a test drive. ANSWER: a
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness 1. You have a personal awareness of both internal and external stimuli, and your thoughts concerning those stimuli. What is this called? a. unconsciousness b. alertness c. consciousness d. attention ANSWER: c 2. Which of the following is a concept proposed by William James to describe the continually changing aspect of consciousness? a. flow of consciousness b. mind wandering c. circadian rhythm d. stream of consciousness ANSWER: d 3. Why might doctors and nurses try to “watch what they say” when performing surgery? a. People under anesthesia occasionally awaken completely during surgery. b. The concentration of other members of the surgical team is disrupted by unnecessary comments. c. The patient’s family members occasionally overhear comments. d. People under anesthesia maintain some awareness. ANSWER: d 4. Danielle is walking to work, along a route that she knows very well. When she arrives at work she realizes that she didn’t notice anything going on around her during most of her walk because she was thinking about various other things. What is the term for Danielle’s experience during her walk? a. mind wandering b. stream of consciousness c. subliminal perception d. unconscious processing ANSWER: a 5. What is your dominant brain wave pattern at this moment, as you are concentrating on answering this exam question correctly? a. delta waves b. alpha waves c. theta waves d. beta waves ANSWER: d 6. What would be your dominant brain wave pattern if you were to lie down under a tree and relax, but not fall asleep? a. delta waves b. beta waves c. theta waves d. alpha waves ANSWER: d 7. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the adverse effects of sleep deprivation? a. Loss of sleep affects one’s ability to regulate one’s emotions. b. Many traffic accidents occur because drivers get drowsy and fall asleep at the wheel. c. Sleep deprivation may undermine efficiency at work. d. Sleep deprivation decreases serotonin. ANSWER: d 8. If a species has a circadian cycle of fluctuations in cortisol, how long is the cycle? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness a. 90 minutes c. one month ANSWER: b
b. 24 hours d. one season
9. Which of the following is NOT particularly influenced by circadian rhythms? a. physical functions such as body temperature and urine production b. emotional experiences such as feelings of happiness and sadness c. Sleep d. cognitive performance on tasks requiring alertness and short-term memory ANSWER: b 10. Which statement best describes the pattern of sleeping and waking in relation to body temperature? a. We fall asleep as temperature becomes stable and wake as it starts to fluctuate. b. We fall asleep as temperature begins to rise and wake as it drops. c. We fall asleep as temperature begins to drop and wake as it goes up. d. We fall asleep as temperature starts to fluctuate and wake as it becomes stable. ANSWER: c 11. For the day–night cycle to reset the human biological clock, where do receptors in the retina direct light information? a. suprachiasmatic nucleus b. medulla c. pineal gland d. thalamus ANSWER: a 12. If a person has damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which process would likely be altered? a. muscle strength b. vision c. digestion d. sleep cycles ANSWER: d 13. Celia just flew home from a trip and she crossed three time zones. How long should it take her to readjust her biological clock? a. one day b. three days c. six days d. one week ANSWER: b 14. Compared to employees who have set work schedules, which of the following represents the sleep of employees who work rotating shifts? a. less, and poorer quality b. more, but poorer quality c. less, but higher quality d. more, and higher quality ANSWER: a 15. What would be most likely to help someone adjust their biological clock, if it were taken as a supplement? a. androgen b. adrenalin c. melatonin d. glutamate ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness 16. Which pattern of shift work would allow for the easiest adjustment of sleep-wake cycles? a. shifting from starting at 7 p.m. to starting at 7 a.m. b. shifting from starting at 7 a.m. to starting at 7 p.m. c. shifting from starting at 3 p.m. to starting at 7 a.m. d. shifting from starting at 7 a.m. to starting at 3 p.m. ANSWER: d 17. What is a device that records eye movements? a. electroencephalograph b. electrocardiograph c. electrooculograph d. electromyograph ANSWER: c 18. Malik is a participant in a research study and will be hooked up to physiological devices while sleeping in a sleep lab for several nights. How many nights is it likely to take Malik to adapt to sleeping in the sleep lab? a. one b. two c. three d. five ANSWER: a 19. Tyler is sleeping, and his brain waves are mainly theta waves. He doesn’t stay in this stage for long. What stage is he in? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM ANSWER: a 20. Tracy’s brain waves are low frequency and have high amplitude. What stage of sleep is Tracy in? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM ANSWER: c 21. Peter is in a deep sleep and his brain wave pattern consists of low-frequency delta waves. Which stage of sleep is Peter experiencing? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 or 4 d. REM ANSWER: c 22. What are sleep stages 3 and 4 known as? a. slow-wave sleep b. high-amplitude sleep c. fast-wave sleep d. low-amplitude sleep ANSWER: a 23. Which of the following does NOT characterize REM sleep? a. minimal bodily movement b. beta waves c. regular breathing and pulse rate d. dreaming ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness 24. During which stage of sleep does the brain wave pattern resemble that observed when the individual is awake and alert? a. stage 1 b. stage 4 c. REM d. NREM ANSWER: c 25. What is the paradox concerning REM sleep? a. It is a deep sleep, but the person is easy to awaken. b. It is a deep sleep, but the brain waves resemble alert and awake patterns. c. The person is dreaming, but all muscles are very tense. d. The person is dreaming, but the brain wave pattern resembles that of relaxation. ANSWER: b 26. If you were awakened while you were experiencing rapid eye movements, what would you probably report? a. that you were afraid b. that you had a headache c. that you had not really been asleep d. that you had been dreaming ANSWER: d 27. Which stages of sleep does NREM consist of? a. stages 1 and 2 b. stages 1, 2, and 3 c. stages 3 and 4 d. stages 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANSWER: d 28. How many sleep cycles typically occur during a night’s sleep? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 ANSWER: c 29. What tends to occur to REM periods of sleep as the night goes on? a. lengthen b. shorten c. lighten d. deepen ANSWER: a 30. Which statement best describes the typical last dream period of the night? a. It is the longest. b. It is the scariest. c. It is the shortest. d. It is the best. ANSWER: a 31. When, during a night’s sleep, does the majority of slow-wave sleep occur? a. in the middle b. early c. it is evenly distributed throughout the night d. late ANSWER: b 32. If you normally sleep eight hours each night, and last night you slept for only six hours, which stage of sleep would be most affected by the loss of total sleep time? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness a. stage 2 c. NREM ANSWER: d
b. slow-wave d. REM
33. Compared to young adults, how do infants sleep? a. for a shorter time, but with a greater proportion of REM sleep b. for a shorter time and with minimal REM sleep c. for a longer time, but less time in REM sleep d. for a longer time, and with a greater proportion of REM sleep ANSWER: d 34. As adults age, what happens to the proportion of time spent in slow-wave sleep? a. It remains stable. b. It increases. c. It ceases after puberty. d. It decreases. ANSWER: d 35. What do the midday napping practices of “siesta cultures” allow individuals to do? a. avoid working during the hottest part of the day b. have time to digest their large midday meal c. sleep at the same time as their young infants d. take a necessary break from their extremely physical labour ANSWER: a 36. Which statement best describes siesta cultures? a. They also practise co-sleeping. b. They are industrialized. c. They are nomadic. d. They are located in tropical regions. ANSWER: d 37. Which brain structure results in continuous sleep when severely damaged and produces arousal and alertness when electrically stimulated? a. ascending reticular activating system b. thalamus c. pons d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 38. Which statement best supports the hypothesis that sleep has an adaptive function? a. People who sleep longer also tend to live longer. b. Sleep deprivation reduces fertility. c. Our brains use 30 percent less energy when we sleep. d. Species that sleep more are more competitive. ANSWER: c 39. If you were a researcher doing research on selective deprivation of REM sleep, what pattern would you see after a subject had been in the study for a few nights? a. The subject would hallucinate or become delusional. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness b. The subject would have to be wakened more frequently to prevent REM sleep. c. The subject would stop having REM sleep, to avoid being wakened. d. The subject would have a corresponding improvement in mood. ANSWER: b 40. While serving as a subject in a laboratory sleep study for several nights, Luka was awakened whenever he entered REM sleep. What effect would this have on Luka’s waking performance the next day? a. It would have little effect. b. He would hallucinate. c. He would be exhausted all day. d. He would be emotionally unstable. ANSWER: a 41. While serving as a subject in a laboratory sleep study for several nights, Corvel was awakened whenever he entered REM sleep. As the number of nights in the study increased, what would happen to Corvel? a. He would enter REM sleep less frequently. b. He would enter REM sleep more and more frequently. c. He would increase the total number of hours he slept each night. d. He would reduce the total number of hours he slept each night. ANSWER: b 42. While serving as a subject in a laboratory sleep study for several nights, Steve was awakened whenever he entered slow-wave sleep. When first allowed an uninterrupted night’s sleep, what would Steve do? a. sleep for a longer amount of time than normal b. spend less time in slow-wave sleep than normal c. sleep for a shorter amount of time than normal d. spend more time in slow-wave sleep than normal ANSWER: d 43. After being deprived of REM sleep for several days, people tend to spend additional time in REM sleep when allowed to sleep uninterrupted. What is this increase called? a. rebound effect b. dream-rebound effect c. dream effect d. catch-up effect ANSWER: a 44. Which sleep stages seem to be important for consolidation of memory? a. stages 1 and 2 b. all NREM sleep c. REM and slow-wave sleep d. stages with alpha waves ANSWER: c 45. Which stage of sleep appears to promote creative insights related to previous learning? a. stage 1 b. slow-wave sleep c. REM sleep d. NREM sleep ANSWER: c 46. Which of the following best reflects the term “insomnia”? a. chronic problems in getting adequate sleep Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness b. chronic difficulties in remaining asleep c. chronic difficulties in falling asleep d. occasional problems in getting adequate sleep ANSWER: a 47. Which of the following is associated with lower mortality rates? a. sleeping less than seven hours per night b. sleeping seven to eight hours per night c. sleeping at least eight hours per night d. sleeping more than ten hours per night ANSWER: b 48. Which sleep disorder is reported by approximately 35 percent of adults, tends to increase with age, and is more common in women than in men? a. narcolepsy b. sleep apnea c. insomnia d. night terrors ANSWER: c 49. Tammy uses a benzodiazepine sedative to help her get to sleep, on a regular basis. What is likely to occur with Tammy’s use of this “downer”? a. She will spend more and more time in REM sleep. b. She will develop an aversion to the drug. c. The placebo effect will begin to interfere with the drug effect. d. She will consume more of the drug than is prescribed for medical purposes. ANSWER: d 50. Which therapeutic intervention has been demonstrated to be just as effective as medication for treating insomnia? a. cognitive-behavioural therapy b. psychoanalytic therapy c. light therapy d. aromatherapy ANSWER: a 51. Rachel has bouts of sudden uncontrollable sleepiness during the day. She has fallen asleep while driving, and in the middle of conversations. Which sleep problem does Rachel experience? a. narcolepsy b. insomnia rebound c. somnambulism d. sleep apnea ANSWER: a 52. Martin wakes up hundreds of times each night gasping for air. What does he likely suffer from? a. sleep paralysis b. somnambulism c. narcolepsy d. sleep apnea ANSWER: d 53. During which stage of sleep do nightmares usually occur? a. REM b. stage 1 c. stage 4 d. NREM ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness 54. Last night, five-year-old Ross let out a piercing cry and abruptly awakened in a state of panic. What did Ross most likely experience? a. sleep apnea b. a nightmare c. a night terror d. narcolepsy ANSWER: c 55. Which of the following is typical of nightmares, but not of night terrors? a. It is relatively easy to fall asleep afterward. b. They are very frightening but not vivid. c. They occur during REM sleep. d. They occur early in the night. ANSWER: c 56. When is sleepwalking most likely to occur? a. when a person has emotional or psychological problems b. during REM sleep c. during slow-wave sleep d. after a person has been asleep for several hours ANSWER: c 57. Charlie experiences vivid dreams during REM sleep and he often acts them out in his sleep. For example, he once woke up to find that he had ripped apart his pillow after dreaming about digging for buried treasure with his bare hands. Which of the following disorders fits this example? a. somnambulism b. sleep apnea c. REM sleep behaviour disorder d. night terrors ANSWER: c 58. According to research concerning the content of dreams, what are most dreams about? a. frightening events b. relatively normal activities c. strangers d. surreal perceptions or activities ANSWER: b 59. Fatima is in the middle of a dream, and she realizes that she is dreaming. As a result, she is able to control some aspects of the dream. What is this phenomenon called? a. somnambulism b. focal dreaming c. N-REM dreaming d. lucid dreaming ANSWER: d 60. Which statement best describes the relationship between culture and dreaming? a. People across cultures vary in the proportion of sleep time they spend dreaming. b. Cultures are very similar in the significance they place on dreaming. c. People across cultures vary in the total amount of sleep time they spend dreaming. d. Cultures vary in the significance they place on dreaming. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness 61. What did Sigmund Freud theorize about dreams? a. They reflect reality. b. They provide a practical approach to problem solving. c. They provide a window to the conscious mind. d. They reflect wish fulfillment. ANSWER: d 62. If a college student who is struggling to keep from flunking out of school dreams of winning the “student of the year award,” with which theory of dreaming would this dream be most consistent? a. fantasy b. problem solving c. activation-synthesis d. wish fulfillment ANSWER: d 63. Both the discovery of insulin and refinements in the design of the sewing machine were inspired, in part, by dreams. Which theory of dreaming is supported by examples like this? a. cognitive, problem-solving view b. activation-synthesis c. conservation of energy d. wish fulfillment ANSWER: a 64. Which theory of dreaming suggests that the cortex constructs dreams in order to make sense out of neural impulses from subcortical areas of the brain? a. activation-synthesis b. construction c. problem solving d. conservation of energy ANSWER: a 65. Which of the following is an accurate definition of hypnosis? a. a systematic procedure that typically produces a heightened state of suggestibility b. a series of techniques for concentration that produce a state similar to meditation c. a state of relaxation that produces a sleep-like trance d. a process of focused attention that allows an individual to recover memories ANSWER: a 66. What percentage of the population are considered to be exceptionally good hypnotic subjects? a. 1 percent b. 15 percent c. 25 percent d. 50 percent ANSWER: b 67. At the end of a session of hypnosis, a hypnotherapist may tell the client that he will awaken and not remember any of the hypnotic session. What is this procedure called? a. posthypnotic suggestion b. disinhibition c. anterograde amnesia d. hallucination ANSWER: a 68. Some people have done bizarre or embarrassing things in public while hypnotized. What term is used to describe the increase in willingness to do such behaviours? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness a. disinhibition c. deindividuation ANSWER: a
b. delusion d. dissociation
69. Which of the altered states discussed in your text has been well established as an effective mild anesthetic treatment for both acute and chronic pain? a. circadian rhythms b. antipsychotics c. sleep d. hypnosis ANSWER: d 70. Which theory of hypnosis suggests that hypnosis is NOT an altered state of consciousness? a. wish fulfillment b. dissociation c. role-playing d. activation-synthesis ANSWER: c 71. Which theory of hypnosis is supported by the observation that age-regressed hypnotized individuals recall long-ago events in a vivid but incorrect manner? a. role-playing b. wish fulfillment c. dissociation d. activation-synthesis ANSWER: a 72. What does Hilgard’s dissociation theory suggest about hypnosis? a. It is found only in isolated individuals. b. It is a form of role-playing. c. It is identical to meditation. d. It is an altered state of consciousness. ANSWER: d 73. The dissociation theory of hypnosis states that, while hypnotized, a person’s consciousness is divided between two streams of consciousness. One stream is in communication with the external world. What is the other stream called? a. the overt observer b. the visible monitor c. the hidden observer d. the role-playing partner ANSWER: c 74. Danielle is walking to work, along a route that she knows very well. When she arrives at work she realizes that she didn’t notice anything going on around her during most of her walk because she was thinking about various other things. Which theory of hypnosis suggests that hypnosis is like an extreme version of this experience? a. Spanos’s role-playing theory b. Barber’s social cognitive theory c. Hilgard’s dissociation theory d. Kirsh’s imaginative suggestibility theory ANSWER: c 75. Meditation refers to a group of practices. What are those practices designed to do? a. increase relaxation and subjective experiences of well-being b. produce a heightened state of suggestibility c. stimulate two separate yet simultaneous streams of consciousness d. heighten awareness and bring mental processes under voluntary control ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness 76. Nancy is in a state that includes reduced heart rate, reduced consumption of oxygen, and an EEG pattern that includes alpha and theta waves. Which state is Nancy likely to be in? a. hypnosis b. meditation c. slow-wave sleep d. alcohol intoxication ANSWER: b 77. What has been determined to be an effective treatment for insomnia? a. electroconvulsive shock therapy b. cognitive-behavioural therapy c. hypnosis d. salt therapy ANSWER: b 78. What do we call chemical substances that modify mental, emotional, or behavioural functioning? a. stimulants b. psychoactive drugs c. narcotics or opiates d. hallucinogens ANSWER: b 79. What are narcotics? a. drugs derived from the hemp plant b. drugs that tend to increase central nervous system activation and behavioural activity c. drugs that cause distortions in sensory and perceptual experience d. drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain ANSWER: d 80. Which of the following drugs is NOT a narcotic? a. morphine b. heroin c. codeine d. cocaine ANSWER: d 81. What has been shown to be effective methods of controlling pain? a. meditation and cannabis b. narcotics and hypnosis c. hypnosis and stimulants d. narcotics and stimulants ANSWER: b 82. Which term refers to sleep-inducing drugs that tend to decrease central nervous system activation and behavioural activity? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. stimulants d. opiates ANSWER: a 83. What are stimulants? a. drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain b. drugs that contain ethyl alcohol c. drugs that tend to increase central nervous system activation and behavioural activity d. drugs that cause distortions in sensory and perceptual experience Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness ANSWER: c 84. Your roommate recently took a recreational drug and is very energetic and alert and has an “I can conquer the world” euphoria. What did he most likely take? a. a cannabis-containing drug such as marijuana or hashish b. a stimulant such as caffeine or nicotine c. a stimulant such as cocaine or an amphetamine d. a sedative such as one of the barbiturates ANSWER: c 85. What are hallucinogens? a. drugs derived from opium that are capable of relieving pain b. drugs that tend to increase central nervous system activation and behavioural activity c. drugs derived from the hemp plant d. drugs that cause distortions in sensory and perceptual experience ANSWER: d 86. Which drug is NOT from the same category as the others? a. LSD b. mescaline c. psilocybin d. marijuana ANSWER: d 87. What is the hemp plant from which marijuana, hashish, and THC are derived? a. tobacco b. opium c. cannabis d. poppy ANSWER: c 88. What is the most widely used recreational drug in our society? a. marijuana b. ecstasy c. alcohol d. amphetamines ANSWER: c 89. Common side effects of which drug include mood swings, quarrelsomeness, and impaired mental and motor functioning? a. sedatives b. cannabis c. alcohol d. narcotics ANSWER: c 90. Which compound drug is related to both amphetamines and hallucinogens? a. LSD b. ecstasy c. speed d. cocaine ANSWER: b 91. Which factor has the least influence on the effect that a psychoactive drug has on an individual? a. the individual’s expectations b. the intelligence of the individual Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness c. the setting in which the drug is taken ANSWER: b
d. the mood and personality of the individual
92. A morphine addict experiences a state of euphoria after a dose of morphine, and a postsurgical patient experiences a reduction in pain after the same dosage. What does this difference illustrate? a. the effect of age b. the effect of expectations c. the effect of potency d. the effect of personality ANSWER: b 93. When Hillary first started drinking alcohol she would get drunk on a fairly small amount. Now, after several years of drinking experience it takes a larger dose of alcohol to make her intoxicated. What is the term used to describe this change? a. resistance b. tolerance c. physical dependence d. psychological dependence ANSWER: b 94. Which category of psychoactive drugs leads to a slow or gradual development of tolerance? a. narcotics b. stimulants c. sedatives d. alcohol ANSWER: d 95. Which category of psychoactive drugs results in a rapid of fast development of a tolerance for the drug? a. alcohol b. heroin c. narcotics d. stimulants ANSWER: b 96. Which term refers to the chemicals in the brain through which psychoactive drugs work and have their effect on behaviour, cognition, and emotion? a. neurotransmitters b. hormones c. glial cells d. proteins ANSWER: a 97. Which neurotransmitter is affected by most psychoactive drugs, by affecting release and reuptake? a. endorphins b. GABA c. monoamines d. acetylcholine ANSWER: c 98. Which category of psychoactive drugs has the greatest risk for developing physical and psychological dependence? a. alcohol b. narcotics c. hallucinogens d. cannabis ANSWER: b 99. Which category of psychoactive drugs has the least risk for developing physical and psychological dependence? a. stimulants b. hallucinogens c. alcohol d. sedatives Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness ANSWER: b 100. Which category of psychoactive drug is best characterized as having a moderate risk for physical dependence associated with a high risk for psychological dependence? a. cannabis b. hallucinogens c. stimulants d. narcotics ANSWER: c 101. Which drug have researchers recently found specific receptors in the brain for? a. amphetamines b. sedatives c. THC (marijuana) d. MDMA (ecstasy) ANSWER: c 102. Which neural pathway has been characterized as a “reward pathway,” believed to be responsible for the reinforcing effects of most abused drugs? a. hypothalamus dopamine b. mesolimbic dopamine c. cortical d. medulla-pons ANSWER: b 103. What term is used when a person must continue to take a drug to avoid withdrawal illness? a. tolerance b. codependence c. psychological dependence d. physical dependence ANSWER: d 104. Alex is a drug addict who is currently experiencing nausea, cramps, tremors, and pain. Which term best describes this experience? a. tolerance b. intoxication c. withdrawal d. psychological dependence ANSWER: c 105. When a person must continue to take a drug to satisfy an intense mental and emotional craving, what is that state called? a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c. codependence d. tolerance ANSWER: a 106. Which category of psychoactive drugs is NOT associated with a high risk of a lethal overdose? a. hallucinogens b. alcohol c. sedatives d. narcotics ANSWER: a 107. Of the following, which category of psychoactive drugs has the highest risk of lethal overdose? a. hallucinogens b. cannabis c. marijuana d. sedatives ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness 108. Which statement best describes an indirect health-related risk associated with recreational drugs? a. Sedatives and alcohol can increase the risk of automobile accidents. b. Alcohol can increase the risk of liver damage. c. Cocaine can increase the risk of heart attacks. d. Marijuana can increase the risk of respiratory disease. ANSWER: a 109. Regarding controversial or stereotypical statements about the risks of marijuana use, what is the most appropriate conclusion, based on available research evidence? a. Marijuana does not appear to have major cognitive or health consequences, but it does tend to lead to impotence or sterility in men who use it for a prolonged length of time. b. Most of the health effects of marijuana have been exaggerated, but there is some evidence that chronic heavy users may have modest deficits in attention and memory. c. Marijuana has no long-term effects on cognitive functioning but may permanently suppress immune functioning. d. Marijuana is completely safe for use, both in the short term and in the long term. ANSWER: b 110. Which risk of marijuana use has been supported by empirical evidence? a. impairments in attention and memory b. long-term sterility or impotence c. increase in the rate of infections d. substantial loss of volume in the frontal lobes ANSWER: a 111. What does NOT appear to be a risk of ecstasy use? a. It can cause heart attacks and strokes. b. It leads to rapid physiological dependence. c. It is associated with depression and anxiety. d. It may cause memory deficits. ANSWER: b 112. Psychology began with an interest in the study of consciousness, then consciousness was ignored by behaviourists, then consciousness became an interesting topic again in the 1960s. Which unifying theme in psychology reflects this pattern of study? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: a 113. Which unifying theme in psychology is best reflected by the observations that both the setting in which a psychoactive drug is taken, and an individual’s expectations influence the drug’s effect? a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. ANSWER: b 114. There are multiple theories about the mechanisms and function of hypnosis, and each of these theories provides important perspectives on the topic. Which of the unifying themes of psychology is reflected in this example? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. ANSWER: c 115. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the observations that many approaches to meditation are rooted in Eastern religions, and that some societies use hallucinogens in religious practices? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. ANSWER: d 116. Your friend has been sleeping six hours each night and is wondering if he is sleep-deprived. Which statement best describes your friend’s sleep patterns? a. Six hours per night is below average, but if your friend feels rested and productive then it might be normal for him. b. Sleep deprivation is defined as fewer than six hours sleep per night, so your friend is close to a risky level. c. Six hours per night is typical and sufficient for most young adults. d. Each person is different and there is no such thing as a typical amount of sleep. ANSWER: a 117. Which of the following is most likely about people who rarely remember their dreams? a. They experience narcolepsy. b. They experience lucid dreams. c. They have their last REM sleep period immediately before they awaken. d. They have their last REM sleep period a relatively long time before they awaken. ANSWER: d 118. Teresa was reading a book about dream interpretation that suggested that her dreams about eating ladybugs reflected a desire to start her own business. What term would Freud use to describe this “revealed” meaning in Teresa’s dream? a. factual content b. symbolic content c. latent content d. manifest content ANSWER: c 119. Connie was having a dream in which she met a celebrity. At one point she thought “I must be dreaming!” and from that point on she engaged in her dream and controlled it. What is this type of experience called? a. latent dreaming b. lucid dreaming Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness c. night terrors ANSWER: b
d. somnambulism
120. Imagine that you are a researcher conducting a study on the effectiveness of a new treatment that is hoped will be beneficial in helping alcoholics reduce their drinking. Which of the following is most important for you to do? a. provide an operational definition of alcoholism b. know if alcoholism is a disease or not c. determine whether alcoholism is a moral weakness or not d. know how the medical and psychological community currently define alcoholism ANSWER: a 121. What is the term for the logical fallacy of mistaking a label or definition for an explanation that is involved in circular reasoning? a. inductive fallacy b. deductive fallacy c. ordinal fallacy d. nominal fallacy ANSWER: d 122. Which of the following are present during both meditation and stage 1 sleep? a. theta waves b. sleep spindles c. beta waves d. delta waves ANSWER: a 123. Theodore Barber and Nicholas Spanos have been leading advocates of a view of hypnosis which called the roleplaying view. What does the role-playing view suggest about hypnosis? a. The person being hypnotized will be in a trance. b. It is a normal, everyday process which includes the persons’ expectations and attitudes. c. It is an abnormal state of consciousness whereby the subject is controlled by the hypnotist. d. It is a state of consciousness under which people can perform feats they could never perform otherwise. ANSWER: b 124. If Pauline’s doctor gave her a psychoactive drug that is typically used as a sleeping aid, which type of drug would it be? a. a counterintuitive stimulant b. a benzodiazepine sedative c. a narcotic d. melatonin ANSWER: b 125. Which of the following is NOT a potent or dangerous form of stimulant? a. crack b. smack c. crank d. ice ANSWER: b 126. Which of the following may help you fall asleep without the issues and risk associated with sleeping pills? a. oxytocin b. melatonin c. Vitamin D d. iron ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 5 - Variations in Consciousness
Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning 1. Which psychological concept refers to a relatively durable change in behaviour or knowledge that is due to experience? a. development b. learning c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning ANSWER: b 2. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of learning? a. Learning involves a change in behaviour or knowledge. b. Learning is an automatic process. c. Learning is relatively durable. d. Learning is due to experience. ANSWER: b 3. Which type of learning occurs when a stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus? a. observational learning b. reinforcement c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning ANSWER: c 4. What occurs in classical conditioning? a. Voluntary responses come to be controlled by their consequences. b. An organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others, who are called models. c. An event following a response increases an organism’s tendency to make that response. d. A stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus. ANSWER: d 5. In classical conditioning, what is the UCS? a. a previously neutral stimulus that has acquired the capacity to elicit a learned response b. a stimulus that elicits a response without previous conditioning c. a learned reaction to a stimulus that occurs as a result of previous conditioning d. an unlearned reaction to a stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning ANSWER: b 6. In Pavlov’s principle experiment, what was the unconditioned stimulus? a. salivation b. a light c. meat powder d. a tone ANSWER: c 7. Which term refers to an unlearned reaction to a stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning? a. unconditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus c. conditioned response d. conditioned stimulus ANSWER: a 8. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, what term is used to describe the dog’s salivation after receiving meat powder? a. unconditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning c. conditioned stimulus ANSWER: a
d. conditioned response
9. What is the term for a previously neutral stimulus that, through conditioning, acquires the capacity to elicit a response? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. conditioned response ANSWER: b 10. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, what was the conditioned stimulus? a. meat powder b. tone c. light d. salivation ANSWER: b 11. A child covers her ears when she sees fireworks, before actually hearing the sound of the fireworks (that have scared her in the past). In this example, what classical conditioning term is used to label the sight of the fireworks? a. unconditioned response b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus d. conditioned response ANSWER: b 12. In classical conditioning, what is a conditioned response? a. unlearned reaction to a stimulus that occurs without previous conditioning b. stimulus that evokes a response without previous conditioning c. previously neutral stimulus that has acquired the capacity to evoke a learned response d. learned reaction to a stimulus that occurs as a result of previous conditioning ANSWER: d 13. In Pavlov’s principal experiment, what is the term for a dog salivating after hearing a tone? a. conditioned response b. unconditioned stimulus c. unconditioned response d. conditioned stimulus ANSWER: a 14. Imagine eating your favourite dessert. If just thinking about the dessert causes your mouth to water, then what is the classical conditioning term for your salivation, in this case? a. unconditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response ANSWER: b 15. Bella has an intense fear of dogs. Her fear dates back to when, as a young child, she was attacked and bitten by a stray dog. Which process likely brought about Bella’s dog phobia? a. classical conditioning b. negative reinforcement c. operant conditioning d. observational learning ANSWER: a 16. Which childhood behaviours could be easily explained by classical conditioning? a. a toddler becoming potty-trained b. a child learning to fear the dentist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning c. a child learning to pick up her toys ANSWER: b
d. a child learning to feed himself
17. Every Sunday morning when Marco was a young child, his family would have a special breakfast complete with freshly baked cinnamon rolls. To this day he finds himself smiling whenever he smells cinnamon rolls baking. In this example, what is the smell of cinnamon rolls? a. cue b. conditioned stimulus c. unconditioned stimulus d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: b 18. Which example of behaviours is NOT learned through classical conditioning? a. the physiological functioning of the immune system b. voluntary behaviours such as setting the table for dinner c. both pleasant and unpleasant emotional responses d. simple reflexive behaviours such as blinking ANSWER: b 19. What is the conditioned response that advertisers are attempting to create if they try to sell clothing by pairing the clothing with images of attractive models and celebrities? a. increased sales elicited by the celebrities b. decreased fear elicited by the clothes c. positive emotions elicited by the clothing d. positive emotions elicited by the celebrities ANSWER: c 20. What is the subset of classical conditioning that is closely associated with advertising techniques? a. social learning b. evaluative conditioning c. aversive conditioning d. operant conditioning ANSWER: b 21. According to conditioning models of drug tolerance, why do drug users start using larger and larger doses over time? a. The drug effect is a UCR that is very rewarding, so more is used over time. b. The CR compensates for the effect of the drug, resulting in a smaller high than usual with the same dose. c. The CS becomes ineffective in eliciting the typical high, so a more salient CS must be used. d. The CS becomes larger and larger over time, so the drug dose must become larger as well. ANSWER: b 22. In classical conditioning, what is the term for the initial stage of learning a new association? a. acquisition b. habituation c. adaptation d. contingency ANSWER: a 23. What do we call the gradual weakening and disappearance of a tendency to make a conditioned response? a. stimulus discrimination b. extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. higher-order conditioning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning ANSWER: b 24. When Veronica first quit smoking she felt cravings for cigarettes whenever she had a cup of coffee, because in the past she always had a cigarette when she took a coffee break. Eventually, several months after quitting, Veronica gradually stopped experiencing the cravings. What is the term for the gradual decline in Veronica’s cravings? a. spontaneous recovery b. higher-order conditioning c. stimulus discrimination d. extinction ANSWER: d 25. When does extinction of a conditioned response in classical conditioning occur? a. when the CS is occasionally presented without the UCS b. when the CS is repeatedly presented without the UCS c. when the UCS is repeatedly presented without the UCR d. when the UCS is occasionally presented without the UCR ANSWER: b 26. Which statement is an example of spontaneous recovery? a. Justin salivates when he hears the lunch bell ring. b. Erik no longer thinks about his ex-girlfriend even when he smells her perfume. c. Julie thought she was over her drug cravings, but they came back when she watched a documentary about addicts. d. Ella is slowly learning to avoid swearing at work. ANSWER: c 27. When Veronica first quit smoking, she experienced cravings for cigarettes whenever she took a coffee break. Gradually, those cravings went away, and she doesn’t typically think of smoking when she has a coffee now. Sometimes, however, she still experiences a craving for cigarettes during a coffee break. What do we call the occasional craving that Veronica experiences now? a. spontaneous recovery b. extinction c. stimulus discrimination d. higher-order conditioning ANSWER: a 28. Last year Stacia went to a psychologist and was cured of her dog phobia. Today, however, while jogging in the park she was overcome with anxiety when she saw a young man jogging toward her with his golden retriever on a leash. What happened to Stacia’s dog phobia? a. It had not been extinguished after all. b. It showed spontaneous recovery. c. It showed stimulus generalization. d. It showed higher-order conditioning. ANSWER: b 29. When an organism that has learned a conditioned response also responds with the same response to a new stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus, what is that called? a. spontaneous recovery b. stimulus discrimination c. extinction d. stimulus generalization ANSWER: d 30. If a dog that has been classically conditioned to salivate when shown a square also salivates when shown a rectangle, Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning what does the dog’s behaviour illustrate? a. stimulus generalization b. stimulus discrimination c. indiscriminate learning d. generalized learning ANSWER: a 31. A dog has been conditioned to salivate in the presence of a 1000 hertz tone. Which of the following tones will elicit the MOST salivation from the dog? a. 900 hertz b. 1200 hertz c. 1400 hertz d. 1500 hertz ANSWER: a 32. What is it called when an organism responds to a specific stimulus or conditioned stimulus and doesn’t respond to another stimulus that is similar to the conditioned stimulus? a. first-order conditioning b. stimulus generalization c. stimulus discrimination d. extinction ANSWER: c 33. If a dog that has been classically conditioned to salivate when shown a square does NOT salivate when shown a triangle, what does the dog’s behaviour illustrate? a. extinction b. stimulus discrimination c. stimulus generalization d. first-order conditioning ANSWER: b 34. A dog has been conditioned to salivate in the presence of a 1000 hertz tone, but whenever an 800 hertz tone was presented there would be no food presented. Which of the following tones will elicit the LEAST salivation from the dog? a. 700 hertz b. 900 hertz c. 1100 hertz d. 1200 hertz ANSWER: a 35. Pavlov conditioned a dog to salivate to the sound of a tone. He then paired a light with the tone until the dog salivated to the light alone. What is this an example of? a. stimulus generalization b. stimulus discrimination c. higher-order conditioning d. spontaneous recovery ANSWER: c 36. What must be done to create higher-order conditioning? a. present a UCS that elicits a novel UCR b. pair a new CS with an established CS c. pair the CS with a new UCS d. repeatedly present the CS without presenting the UCS ANSWER: b 37. Which type of conditioning could cause a dog to salivate to a light that was never previously paired with food? a. stimulus discrimination and higher-order conditioning b. stimulus generalization and higher-order conditioning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning c. higher-order conditioning and spontaneous recovery d. stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination ANSWER: b 38. Who is most closely associated with operant conditioning? a. B. F. Skinner b. Albert Bandura c. Shepard Siegel d. Ivan Pavlov ANSWER: a 39. If you give your dog a treat every time he jumps through a hoop, what method are you using? a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. observational learning d. latent learning ANSWER: a 40. Which behaviour would be most appropriate to change using operant conditioning? a. allergic responses to the sight of cats b. frequency of studying c. heart rate d. a phobic response to airplanes ANSWER: b 41. What happens in operant conditioning? a. An organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others, who are called models. b. Voluntary responses come to be controlled by their consequences. c. An organism’s tendency to give a response reappears after a period of time. d. A stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus. ANSWER: b 42. What is another name for operant conditioning? a. observational learning b. instrumental learning c. latent conditioning d. classical conditioning ANSWER: b 43. With which research topic is Edward Thorndike associated? a. training pigeons to have superstitious responses b. training dogs to salivate in response to sounds c. documenting cats’ abilities to escape from puzzle boxes d. documenting children’s responses to role models ANSWER: c 44. Which term is defined by the statement “If a response in the presence of a stimulus leads to satisfying effects, the association between the stimulus and the response is strengthened”? a. acquisition b. reinforcement c. latent learning d. the law of effect ANSWER: d 45. The cats that escaped from Thorndike’s puzzle boxes got faster at escaping over time, but the change was quite Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning gradual. What did Thorndike interpret about this pattern of behaviour change? a. Learning occurs as a result of gradual strengthening of rewarded behaviours. b. Learning is enhanced when there is time for reflection in between trials. c. Cats require exposure to experienced models to learn appropriately. d. Cats are capable of thinking and understand the problems they solve. ANSWER: a 46. B. F. Skinner demonstrated that organisms tend to repeat responses that are followed by favourable consequences. What did Skinner call these favourable consequences? a. bribes b. reinforcement c. rewards d. unconditioned stimuli ANSWER: b 47. While out trick-or-treating for Halloween, at first Billy’s neighbours had to remind him to say “trick or treat” before they dropped their treats into his bag. As he continued to visit houses in the neighbourhood, soon Billy would say “trick or treat” as soon as the neighbours answered the door. In this situation, which operant conditioning term describes the treats he received for the behaviour of saying “trick or treat”? a. reward b. discriminative stimulus c. conditioned stimulus d. reinforcement ANSWER: d 48. While out trick-or-treating for Halloween, at first Billy’s neighbours had to remind him to say “trick or treat” before they dropped their treats into his bag. As he continued to visit houses in the neighbourhood, soon Billy would say “trick or treat” as soon as the neighbours answered the door. In this situation, which operant conditioning term describes the change in Billy’s behaviour because of the reminders and treats? a. contingency b. classical conditioning c. shaping d. observational learning ANSWER: c 49. As a rat in a Skinner Box presses a lever, a machine documents each lever press over time. What is the term for the pattern of data that is produced by that machine? a. acquisition b. reinforcement contingency c. conditional response d. cumulative record ANSWER: d 50. In an operant conditioning study, a Skinner Box can be programmed to provide food with a rule that is based on the responses made by the animal in the box. What is the term for this rule? a. cumulative record b. conditional response c. reinforcement contingency d. shaping ANSWER: c 51. If the cumulative record for Rat A has a steep slope, while Rat B’s has a shallow slope, what would you conclude? a. Rat A has a higher rate of responding than Rat B. b. Rat B has a higher rate of responding than Rat A. c. Both Rat A and Rat B have high rates of responding. d. Both Rat A and Rat B have low rates of responding. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning ANSWER: a 52. After responding at a steady rate for several minutes, a rat pauses and does not respond at all for a period of time. How would this pause be reflected in the cumulative record? a. a gradually increasing slope b. a vertical line c. a gradually decreasing slope d. a horizontal line ANSWER: d 53. What is the major difference between responses that are relevant to classical conditioning and responses that are relevant to operant conditioning? a. Classical responses are elicited while operant responses are emitted. b. Classical responses are emitted while operant responses are elicited. c. Classical responses are innate while operant responses are learned. d. Classical responses are learned while operant responses are innate. ANSWER: a 54. Operant responses are typically established through a gradual process in which closer and closer approximations of the desired response are reinforced. What is this process called? a. shaping b. modelling c. discrimination d. reinforcement contingency ANSWER: a 55. If you are using “shaping” to increase the likelihood that a child will put away all his toys, what would you need to do each time the child does a better job of putting away his toys than he did previously? a. give the child a closer approximation to the reinforcement b. model the correct behaviour by picking up the remaining toys c. provide reinforcement to the child d. give the child a UCS ANSWER: c 56. If you wanted to teach your pet parakeet to give you a kiss on the cheek, which technique would be most effective? a. higher-order conditioning b. modelling c. shaping d. classical conditioning ANSWER: c 57. What happens to an operant response, in order to extinguish that response? a. It is followed by intermittent reinforcement. b. It is no longer associated with the CS. c. It is no longer followed by reinforcement. d. It is followed by continuous punishment ANSWER: c 58. If you decide to stop feeding your dog any food from the table, in order to reduce the dog’s behaviour of begging at the table, which procedure are you using? a. shaping b. reinforcement Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning c. extinction ANSWER: c
d. punishment
59. Tyler still sends a lot of text messages to his ex-girlfriend even though she no longer responds to them. Which term characterizes Tyler’s behaviour of sending texts to his ex? a. higher-order conditioning b. resistance to extinction c. generalization d. reinforcement contingency ANSWER: b 60. While out trick-or-treating for Halloween, at first Billy’s neighbours had to remind him to say “trick or treat” before they dropped their treats into his bag. As he continued to visit houses in the neighbourhood, soon Billy would say “trick or treat” as soon as the neighbours answered the door. Which operant conditioning term is used to describe the cue provided by the neighbours answering the door? a. discriminative stimulus b. conditioned stimulus c. reward d. reinforcer ANSWER: a 61. At preschool, Jaspreet has learned that she must wash her hands before snack-time to get a snack. At home, she has started to wash her hands before asking for snacks. Which process does Jaspreet’s behaviour illustrate? a. stimulus generalization b. shaping c. higher-order conditioning d. stimulus discrimination ANSWER: a 62. At preschool, Courtney has learned that she must wash her hands before snack-time in order to get a snack. At home, however, her parents do not check to make sure she washes her hands. When she is home, Courtney does not wash her hands before eating. Which process does Courtney’s behaviour illustrate? a. stimulus generalization b. shaping c. stimulus discrimination d. higher-order conditioning ANSWER: c 63. A rat gets food for pushing a lever when a green light is on but no food for pushing a lever when a red light is on. As a result of stimulus discrimination, what will the rat do? a. push a lever only when the red light is on b. stop responding to both the green and red lights c. push a lever only when the green light is on d. respond equally to the green and red lights ANSWER: c 64. Six-year-old Sam asks only his father if he can stay up past his bedtime and never asks his mother. Which term could be used to describe Sam’s father? a. generalized stimulus b. reinforcement c. discriminative stimulus d. schedule of reinforcement ANSWER: c 65. Which term would be used to describe reinforcers like tasty food or hugs from your favourite people? a. reinforcement contingencies b. secondary reinforcers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning c. primary reinforcers ANSWER: c
d. discriminative stimuli
66. Why are primary reinforcers effective? a. They satisfy biological needs. b. The organism has learned to desire them. c. We want approval for our actions. d. They have been associated with secondary reinforcers. ANSWER: a 67. What is true of secondary reinforcers? a. They satisfy biological needs. b. We have to learn to find them reinforcing. c. They are less effective and salient compared to primary reinforcers. d. They are often used as punishment. ANSWER: b 68. When you were a child and you first realized that you could use money to buy candy and other treats, what did money become? a. a secondary reinforcer b. an operant reinforcer c. a classical reinforcer d. a primary reinforcer ANSWER: a 69. What is most likely to lead to the development of a superstitious behaviour? a. incomplete extinction trials b. partial reinforcement schedules c. non-contingent reinforcement d. classical conditioning ANSWER: c 70. What is a schedule of reinforcement? a. a description of whether positive or negative reinforcement is in use b. a specific pattern of presentation of reinforcers over time c. a pattern of resistance to extinction d. the reinforcement of closer and closer approximation of a desired response ANSWER: b 71. Zane is allowed to play video games after every time he helps with doing dishes. What is this pattern of reinforcement called? a. continuous reinforcement b. secondary reinforcement c. intermittent reinforcement d. primary reinforcement ANSWER: a 72. When Jeff compliments Marnie, she sometimes gives him a big kiss. What is this pattern of reinforcement called? a. primary reinforcement b. continuous reinforcement c. secondary reinforcement d. intermittent reinforcement Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning ANSWER: d 73. Which type of reinforcement schedule leads to the greatest resistance to extinction? a. continuous reinforcement schedule b. intermittent reinforcement schedule c. secondary reinforcement schedule d. primary reinforcement schedule ANSWER: b 74. In an FR schedule, when is the reinforcement given? a. for the first response that occurs after a fixed time interval has elapsed b. after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses c. for the first response after a variable time interval has elapsed d. after a variable number of nonreinforced responses ANSWER: b 75. If an employee of a company that conducts telephone surveys receives $1.00 for every three completed surveys he conducts, which schedule is he being paid on? a. fixed ratio schedule b. variable ratio schedule c. variable interval schedule d. fixed interval schedule ANSWER: a 76. Which schedule of reinforcement involves reinforcement that is given after a variable number of nonreinforced responses? a. variable ratio schedule b. fixed interval schedule c. fixed ratio schedule d. variable interval schedule ANSWER: a 77. Which schedule of reinforcement should you use if you want a rat in a Skinner Box to respond with both a high and steady rate of response? a. fixed ratio schedule b. fixed interval schedule c. variable interval schedule d. variable ratio schedule ANSWER: d 78. Many people find it hard to “walk away from” or stop playing a slot machine. What schedule of reinforcement is responsible for this tendency? a. fixed ratio schedule b. variable ratio schedule c. fixed interval schedule d. variable interval schedule ANSWER: b 79. If your job pays you on an interval schedule, what is the rule that determines when you get paid? a. how much time has gone by b. how many hours you have worked c. how many products you have completed d. how much effort you have made ANSWER: a 80. In a fixed interval schedule, when is the reinforcement given? a. at the first response after a variable time interval has elapsed Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning b. at the first response after a fixed time interval has elapsed c. after a variable number of nonreinforced responses d. after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses ANSWER: b 81. In which reinforcement schedule is a reinforcement given for the first response after an unpredictable amount of time has elapsed? a. fixed interval schedule b. variable ratio schedule c. fixed ratio schedule d. variable interval schedule ANSWER: d 82. When Beth goes with her dad to the grocery store, she always asks him to buy chocolate ice cream. Approximately once a month he will purchase the ice cream. On what type of schedule is Beth’s asking for chocolate ice cream being reinforced? a. variable ratio schedule b. variable interval schedule c. fixed interval schedule d. fixed ratio schedule ANSWER: b 83. In a Skinner Box, rats often pause after getting food. Which schedule of reinforcement leads to the longest pauses? a. fixed interval schedule b. fixed ratio schedule c. variable interval schedule d. variable ratio schedule ANSWER: a 84. What is a procedure called when a response is strengthened by following it with a rewarding stimulus? a. negative reinforcement b. punishment c. primary reinforcement d. positive reinforcement ANSWER: d 85. Kristine’s dog barks more every time Kristine yells at the dog for barking. In this situation, when Kristine yells at the dog, what is she doing? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. secondary reinforcement d. punishment ANSWER: a 86. Pat takes a prescription medication in order to reduce pain, and Kelly takes the same medication in order to experience a “drug high.” What is the difference between Pat’s and Kelly’s behaviour? a. Pat is positively reinforced, but Kelly is negatively reinforced. b. Pat gets negative reinforcement, but Kelly gets positive reinforcement. c. Pat is avoiding negative punishment, but Kelly is avoiding positive punishment. d. Pat experiences punishment, but Kelly experiences reinforcement. ANSWER: b 87. Pat studies in order to get good grades and to receive praise. Kelly studies so that her mother will stop nagging her. What is the difference between Pat’s and Kelly’s behaviour? a. Pat gets negative reinforcement, but Kelly gets positive reinforcement. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning b. Pat gets positive reinforcement, but Kelly gets negative reinforcement. c. Pat is avoiding negative punishment, but Kelly is avoiding positive punishment. d. Pat experiences punishment, but Kelly experiences reinforcement. ANSWER: b 88. Which of the following pairs will increase the probability that a response will be repeated? a. reinforcement and punishment b. positive reinforcement and punishment c. negative reinforcement and punishment d. positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement ANSWER: d 89. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? a. ending a time-out when the child apologizes for her behaviour b. allowing a student to take a make-up exam c. grounding a teenager for missing curfew d. giving a student extra credit for class participation ANSWER: a 90. When Henrik’s Uncle Oleg visits, Oleg always gives Henrik an intense tickling and will stop this “tickle-torture” only when Henrik says “Uncle.” Henrik’s response of saying “Uncle” is strengthened through which process? a. avoidance learning b. punishment c. negative reinforcement d. positive reinforcement ANSWER: c 91. Which type of learning is being employed if a rat bar-presses in order to turn off an electrical shock? a. punishment b. positive reinforcement c. avoidance learning d. escape learning ANSWER: d 92. What occurs when a rat learns to press a lever in order to prevent a shock from happening? a. escape learning b. punishment c. secondary learning d. avoidance learning ANSWER: d 93. A rat in a Skinner Box learns that a red light comes on just before a shock is presented. The rat learns to press the button at that time in order to prevent the shock. What is illustrated by this example? a. escape learning b. avoidance learning c. positive punishment d. positive reinforcement ANSWER: b 94. If you start driving your car without fastening your seatbelt, you will hear a somewhat annoying sound. What type of learning have you demonstrated if you fasten the seatbelt after the sound has begun? a. escape learning b. avoidance learning c. positive reinforcement d. positive punishment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning ANSWER: a 95. When Amir was a teenager, his mother nagged him repeatedly to clean his room. He learned that if he cleaned his room on Saturday mornings, she would not start nagging at all. What does this example illustrate? a. positive reinforcement b. avoidance learning c. escape learning d. negative punishment ANSWER: b 96. Which pair of processes are involved in the acquisition of phobias and also the tendency of phobias to show a high resistance to extinction? a. classical and operant conditioning b. positive and negative reinforcement c. operant conditioning and observation learning d. reinforcement and punishment ANSWER: a 97. What leads to a decrease in the tendency to emit a particular response? a. negative reinforcement b. resistance to extinction c. punishment d. positive reinforcement ANSWER: c 98. Which of the following is NOT an example of punishment? a. nagging a child until she picks up her toys b. taking away a child’s TV privileges for one week for a bad report card c. making a child sit in the corner for 10 minutes for rudeness d. laughing at a classmate when he asks a “dumb question” in class ANSWER: a 99. When Alek does not complete his homework in time, his mother takes away the power cord for his video game system. What does this example illustrate? a. corporal punishment b. punishment c. aversion therapy d. negative reinforcement ANSWER: b 100. Emily always talks out in class, often interrupting the teacher and causing disruptions. In order to deal with these interruptions, Emily’s teacher has started to criticize Emily for her lack of control each time she speaks without raising her hand. If Emily’s disruptive behaviour increases, then the teacher’s methods constitute which type of contingency? a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. positive punishment ANSWER: b 101. Which of the following is an example of punishment? a. Elsa studies harder after being warned that a test is coming. b. Craig stops crying after his brother apologizes for hitting him. c. Terry flirts each time Ellen wears a skirt, so Ellen stops wearing skirts. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning d. Students get louder when the teacher yells at them for being loud. ANSWER: a 102. Which of the following is one of your textbook’s guidelines for making punishment more effective? a. Do not apply punishment swiftly; instead, allow the child time to think about the coming punishment. b. Because it is not necessary, do not explain the punishment to the child. c. Use a punishment that is somewhat more severe than necessary. d. Make punishment consistent. ANSWER: d 103. Which of the following is associated with children who are regularly spanked? a. better self-control b. slowed cognitive development as evidenced in lower IQ scores c. better performance in school d. lower levels of later aggression ANSWER: b 104. Which statement is supported by research on instinctive drift and conditioned taste aversions? a. There are universal laws of learning. b. Given enough learning trials, any association can be learned. c. Some species learn faster than others. d. There are biological constraints on learning. ANSWER: d 105. A dog normally gets a treat each time he fetches the TV remote for his owner. Recently, the dog has started to run away with the remote, chew on it, and has even tried to bury it in the backyard. Which of the following could help explain this behaviour? a. instinctive drift b. negative reinforcement c. extinction d. stimulus generalization ANSWER: a 106. The raccoons used by the Brelands learned to deposit single coins into a slot for food, but they could not learn to deposit two coins into the slot. Which statement is supported by this result? a. It is nearly impossible to operantly condition raccoons. b. Some behaviours are easily learned by animals, but only through classical conditioning. c. Instinctive patterns of behaviour can interfere with conditioning. d. It is nearly impossible to classically condition raccoons. ANSWER: c 107. Which process is responsible for conditioned taste aversions? a. observational learning b. classical conditioning c. shaping d. operant conditioning ANSWER: b 108. A wolf eats a new food that has a novel taste and smell that it finds at a place where it had never found food before. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning Hours after eating the food, the wolf develops nausea. In the future, which foods are most likely to be avoided by that wolf? a. those found at the same place b. those of the same taste or smell c. those of the same colour d. those found at the same time of day ANSWER: b 109. According to Seligman, which of the following helps to explain why we learn things like taste aversions very quickly? a. instinctive drift b. preparedness c. shaping d. resistance to extinction ANSWER: b 110. Which statement best describes the predominant view among learning theorists today? a. There is no such thing as “the” learning process. b. All species are capable of learning all the same responses. c. Associations can be conditioned between any stimulus an organism can sense and any response the organism can make. d. The basic mechanisms of learning are similar across species although they have evolved along somewhat different paths in different species. ANSWER: d 111. Which statement is an example of Tolman’s concept of latent learning? a. A rat presses a new lever in the same way that it pressed a familiar lever. b. A man is unaware that his dislike of broccoli is a result of a food allergy. c. A seeing-eye dog learns quickly to turn on the lights in a new place because the switches are in the same location as at home. d. A woman knows where to find the hat store in her favourite mall, even though she’s never shopped at the hat store. ANSWER: d 112. According to the cognitive explanation of classical conditioning, what is true of a “good” CS? a. It accurately predicts the presentation of the UCS. b. It is presented immediately after the UCS. c. It has been paired with the UCS many times. d. It is novel or intense. ANSWER: a 113. Which situation requires a cognitive explanation, rather than the traditional mechanical view of conditioning put forth by Pavlov and Skinner? a. A dog learns to bark whenever the doorbell rings. b. A girl learns to avoid a bully at school. c. A toddler pretends to “cook dinner” with toys after observing his parents cooking. d. A man avoids fish after getting sick at a seafood buffet. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning 114. Ivan Pavlov and B. F. Skinner viewed conditioning as a purely mechanical process, but how do modern learning psychologists view conditioning? a. It is still viewed as a clearly mechanical process. b. It is seen as a predominantly passive process. c. It is seen as also involving cognitive components. d. It is seen as a predominantly active process. ANSWER: c 115. Which type of learning occurs when an organism’s response is influenced by the observation of others who are called models? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. shaping d. classical conditioning ANSWER: a 116. What is ruled out by evidence of observational learning? a. behaviour is weakened by extinction b. reinforcement is necessary to strengthen behaviour c. punishment can have negative outcomes d. behaviour is influenced by classical conditioning ANSWER: b 117. It is very likely that you learned how to turn on the TV and change channels as a young child without your parents ever specifically teaching you to do so. In fact, your parents likely maintained control over the TV. In this case, how did your learning occur? a. through operant conditioning b. through negative modelling c. through observational learning d. through classical conditioning ANSWER: c 118. Imagine parents asking Albert Bandura for advice on how they should teach their young child to say “please” and “thank you.” What would Bandura most likely suggest? a. Use negative reinforcement and withhold the requested item until the child says “please.” b. Consistently say “please” and “thank you,” and reinforce any similar behaviour by the child. c. Give the child positive reinforcement for saying “please” and “thank you” correctly each time. d. Modelling the behaviour of saying “please” and “thank you” will be sufficient. ANSWER: b 119. What did Albert Bandura distinguish between in his research? a. reinforcement of a response and punishment of a response b. the acquisition and the performance of the response c. instinctive drift and conditioned taste aversions d. classical conditioning and operant conditioning ANSWER: b 120. You have observed your friend Kyle have great success in his relationship because he is very thoughtful. For example, he brings flowers for no reason and he offers foot-rubs when he knows that his partner is stressed. You know Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning that these behaviours would be beneficial in your own relationship, because you’ve seen how rewarding it is for Kyle, and yet you do not actually employ these strategies. As a result, your relationship is in trouble. What would Albert Bandura suggest about this situation? a. There is a difference between acquisition of learning and performance. b. You have been classically conditioned to ignore your relationship. c. You haven’t learned anything from Kyle. d. Observational learning is weaker than other forms of learning. ANSWER: a 121. What has been demonstrated by research examining the long-term effects of media violence? a. The more violence children watch on TV the less aggressive they tend to act at home and school. b. Watching violence on TV causes relatively nonaggressive children to become more aggressive but does not increase the level of aggression of relatively aggressive children. c. No consistent relationship exists between how much violence children watch on TV and aggressive behaviour. d. The more violence children watch on TV the more aggressive they tend to be at home and school. ANSWER: d 122. What becomes more active both when you do an action and when you observe someone else doing that action? a. mirror neurons b. bimodal neurons c. dopaminergic neurons d. serotonergic neurons ANSWER: a 123. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the existence of biological constraints on learning, such as instinctive drift and conditioned taste aversions? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. ANSWER: b 124. Many parenting books, dog training manuals, and business management approaches all advocate the use of operant conditioning techniques to encourage desirable behaviour in children, pets, and employees. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the widespread knowledge of and application of conditioning techniques? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Our behaviour is shaped by our cultural heritage. ANSWER: c 125. Which modification goal responds best to behaviour modification? a. a specific overt behaviour; for example, “I will walk the dog every day” b. a specific goal; for example, “I will get a 4.00 GPA this semester” c. a broadly defined behaviour; for example, “I will be friendlier” d. a personality trait; for example, “I will stop being irritable” ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning 126. What is the first step in a behaviour modification program? a. Pick an appropriate reinforcement. b. Design the program. c. Gather baseline data. d. Specify a target behaviour. ANSWER: d 127. Jason has noticed that he is more likely to play video games, instead of study, whenever his roommate is home. Which of the following is an antecedent in this example? a. the behaviour of studying b. video games c. Jason d. the presence of the roommate ANSWER: d 128. Tammy tends to eat a lot of junk food when she studies in the kitchen. She has decided to study only in her bedroom and to keep healthy snacks handy. Which term refers to this technique? a. control of antecedents b. negative reinforcement c. latent learning d. stimulus generalization ANSWER: a 129. What is the most common form of “cheating” in self-induced behaviour modification programs? a. avoiding punishment b. providing frequent reinforcers c. enjoying the reinforcer without earning it d. punishing inappropriately ANSWER: c 130. The advertising industry often attempts to manipulate consumers so that they will have positive associations with a company’s product. Which learning principles are typically applied for this purpose? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. behaviour modification d. classical conditioning ANSWER: d 131. A political candidate uses a negative campaign commercial in which the candidate’s opponent is shown alongside a negative image of an angry mob. What is the intent of this commercial? a. to create an accurate contrast between the candidate and the opponent b. to indicate to the public that the opponent was the individual who angered the mob in the first place c. to associate the opponent with a negative emotional response d. to associate positive emotional responses with the candidate who sponsored the commercial ANSWER: c 132. What do we call the positive emotions that Francine feels when she first smells bread baking? a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response ANSWER: b 133. Why do people usually cringe when they hear a dentist drill? a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. behaviour modification d. classical conditioning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 6 - Learning ANSWER: d 134. What does it mean when learning theorists use the term “salient” to describe stimuli? a. It means the stimulus is pertaining to the sense of taste. b. It means they are more susceptible to spontaneous recovery. c. It means they are less likely to be noticed. d. It means they are more likely to stand out among other stimuli. ANSWER: d 135. Garcia and his colleagues conducted a series of studies on conditioned taste aversion. Which finding is NOT relevant to the results of their research? a. Taste-nausea associations were almost impossible to prevent. b. Odour-nausea associations were almost impossible to prevent. c. Both taste-nausea and odour-nausea associations were impossible to prevent. d. Researchers were able to prevent taste-nausea associations but not odour-nausea associations. ANSWER: d
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory 1. Which of the following does NOT describe one of the three main processes involved in memory? a. evaluating information in memory b. putting information into memory c. maintaining information in memory d. pulling information out of memory ANSWER: a 2. Which memory process generally requires attention? a. retrieval b. decay c. encoding d. storage ANSWER: c 3. Which of the following is an example of the memory process of storage? a. feeling happy when you think about a party you recently attended b. remembering to feed the dog c. rehearsing lines from a play d. maintaining the knowledge of your best friend’s phone number for years ANSWER: d 4. What is the specific term for the memory process that allows you to recite a poem that you have previously memorized? a. retrieval b. recognition c. storage d. encoding ANSWER: a 5. Mary is studying in the library and she is very focused on reading over her class notes. She doesn’t even notice the various conversations going on around her. As a result, she is becoming better prepared for the exam that is scheduled for tomorrow. Which of the following processes is best illustrated by this example? a. attention b. retrieval c. storage d. conditioning ANSWER: a 6. Which phenomenon provides evidence in support of late-selection models of selective attention? a. habituation to ambient noise in the environment b. retrograde amnesia c. slower reaction time among people who drive while using cell phones d. the cocktail party effect ANSWER: d 7. Which of the following is most likely to be encoded as a result of effortful processing? a. the best time to ask your parents for money b. taste aversion learning c. your impressions of your friends’ moods d. information needed to pass your midterm exam ANSWER: d 8. According to George Miller, the magic number for the capacity of short term memory is seven, plus or minus two bits of information. What does more recent research by Cowan (2010) suggest about the capacity of short-term memory? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory a. The capacity of short-term memory is higher – up to eleven bits of information. b. The capacity is unlimited. c. The capacity is seven plus or minus two, but only in Caucasian subjects. d. The capacity of short-term memory is only four plus or minus one. ANSWER: d 9. What is the shallowest level of verbal information processing? a. verbal encoding b. semantic encoding c. structural encoding d. phonemic encoding ANSWER: c 10. If you focus your attention on the sounds of the words that you are trying to remember, what type of encoding are you using? a. semantic encoding b. structural encoding c. verbal encoding d. phonemic encoding ANSWER: d 11. What does the semantic level of processing focus attention on? a. the spelling of words b. the meaning of words c. the sounds of spoken words d. the visual structure of written words ANSWER: b 12. According to levels of processing theory, what type of processing leads to longer-lasting memory codes? a. shallower processing b. broader processing c. deeper processing d. narrower processing ANSWER: c 13. You have just been given a list of vocabulary words to study briefly before being tested on your memory of the words. As you read through the list, what should you do to have the deepest processing and the best test score? a. Use each word in a sentence. b. Think of a word that rhymes with each word. c. Count how many letters are in each word. d. Concentrate on the first letter of each word. ANSWER: a 14. When studying for her psychology exam, Aimee would read each word from the list of key terms at the end of the chapter, read the definition of the term, and then think of an example that illustrated each term. Which process was Aimee using to try to enhance her memory of the terms? a. retrieval b. generalization c. imagery d. elaboration ANSWER: d 15. Their mom asked Emil and Niklas to help her remember to buy apples. While Emil focused his attention on how apples were his favourite fruit, Niklas thought of seeing a bag of big red apples in the shopping cart. Which methods were the two boys using? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory a. phonemic encoding and visual imagery b. elaboration and structural encoding c. elaboration and visual imagery d. phonemic encoding and structural encoding ANSWER: c 16. If you attempt to improve your memory by focusing on attention, levels of processing, elaboration, and visual imagery, you are focusing on which memory process? a. storage b. retrieval c. encoding d. memorization ANSWER: c 17. Which theory suggests that memory is enhanced by forming both semantic and visual codes? a. enhanced imagery theory b. encoding-storage theory c. information-processing theory d. dual-coding theory ANSWER: d 18. Which approach to encoding involves deciding how or whether information is personally relevant? a. semantic encoding b. dual-code encoding c. deep processing encoding d. self-referent encoding ANSWER: d 19. Which of the following is an example of self-referent encoding? a. rehearsing a list of words out loud, over and over again b. thinking of examples of the items you are trying to remember c. linking new information to things that relate to your own life d. generating a visual image of a concept to provide another cue for recall ANSWER: c 20. What are sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory the three components of? a. elaboration b. storage c. encoding d. retrieval ANSWER: b 21. What is sensory memory? a. a limited-capacity store that can maintain unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds b. the same thing as working memory c. a brief type of storage that preserves information in its original form for a fraction of a second d. an unlimited capacity store that can hold information over lengthy periods of time ANSWER: c 22. Which type of memory allows you to briefly retain information about something that ended a quarter of a second ago? a. working memory b. sensory memory c. instantaneous memory d. short-term memory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory ANSWER: b 23. When a flashlight is waved quickly through the air in a circular pattern, you perceive a circle of light and not just a “single point” of light. Which type of memory functioning is this observation consistent with? a. short-term memory b. sensory memory c. visual memory d. long-term memory ANSWER: b 24. Which memory system holds information in storage just long enough to give you time to recognize the stimulus? a. working memory b. long-term memory c. short-term memory d. sensory memory ANSWER: d 25. What is short-term memory good for? a. maintaining rehearsed information for approximately five minutes b. preserving information in its original sensory form for a brief time, usually only a fraction of a second c. preserving episodic information long enough for cortical encoding d. maintaining unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds ANSWER: d 26. Shelly just looked up a phone number for the local pizza place. How long will the number be available in her shortterm memory if she doesn’t rehearse the phone number? a. less than 1 second b. approximately 4 seconds c. approximately 20 seconds d. at least 1 minute ANSWER: c 27. In which memory store is rehearsal most beneficial for maintaining information? a. intermediate-term memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. sensory memory ANSWER: b 28. While driving with her two young children, Veronique’s car broke down. She called her husband on her cell phone and he told her the phone number of a towing company to call. If the children’s behaviour prevents her from repeating the phone number to herself, how long will she have to dial the number before she forgets it? a. 2 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 1 minute ANSWER: b 29. If you don’t write down a list of all the things you need at the store, how many individual items are you likely to be able to remember? a. no more than 2 b. 4 c. 7 d. up to 15 ANSWER: b 30. Before going to the grocery store, you think about all the things you need to buy in terms of the meals you will be Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory creating for the next couple of days. For example, instead of trying to remember “milk, bread, eggs, vanilla” you just think of “French toast.” What do we call this method of maintaining information in short-term memory? a. phonological loop b. chunking c. categorization d. grouping ANSWER: b 31. Which component of working memory are you using when you recite a list of words over and over again? a. phonological loop b. executive control system c. episodic buffer d. visuospatial sketchpad ANSWER: a 32. While at a yard sale, you and your roommate find a great old couch. Which component of working memory are you using as you try to determine whether the couch will fit in your dorm room if you rearrange the beds, dressers, and desks? a. semantic buffer b. executive control system c. phonological rehearsal loop d. visuospatial sketchpad ANSWER: d 33. While Penny was riding the bus, she was reading her text messages, and also eavesdropping on the conversation behind her. She also paid attention to where she was on the route so that she didn’t miss her stop. Which component of working memory allows Penny to monitor all these events? a. visuospatial sketchpad b. executive control system c. phonological loop d. episodic buffer ANSWER: b 34. While Penny was riding the bus, she was reading her text messages, and also eavesdropping on the conversation behind her. She also paid attention to where she was on the route so that she didn’t miss her stop. If Penny is really good at this sort of juggling of information compared to other people, which statement best describes Penny? a. Penny has a high working memory capacity. b. Penny’s episodic memory is enhanced. c. Penny is good at chunking. d. Penny can utilize flashbulb memory. ANSWER: a 35. Which component of working memory serves as the interface between working and long-term memory? a. semantic buffer b. visuospatial sketchpad c. executive control system d. episodic buffer ANSWER: d 36. What is long-term memory? a. permanent changes in behaviour as a consequence of experience b. a limited-capacity store that can maintain unrehearsed information for up to about 20 seconds c. an unlimited capacity store that can hold information over lengthy periods of time d. unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory 37. In Wilder Penfield’s brain-mapping studies, stimulation to which area of the brain caused patients to provide vivid descriptions of events? a. amygdala b. occipital lobes c. temporal lobes d. hypothalamus ANSWER: c 38. What do we call the unusually vivid and detailed recollections of momentous events? a. flashbulb memories b. tip-of-the-tongue memories c. episodic memories d. long-term memories ANSWER: a 39. If you know that someone has a flashbulb memory of an event, which of the following will be true of that memory? a. It will be vivid. b. It will be delusional. c. It will lack detail. d. It will be very accurate. ANSWER: a 40. Ray was given a long list of food words to memorize, and when he was asked to recall those words he started listing them in a different order than they had originally been listed. He first listed all the words that were names of fruits, then the names of all the dairy products, and so on. What do we call this tendency to group items into logical patterns? a. clustering b. flashbulb memory c. source monitoring d. spreading activation ANSWER: a 41. When Allen was trying to remember all of the relatives that he wanted to invite to his wedding, he organized all the names as if they were in a family tree. Which concept is illustrated by this example? a. semantic network b. conceptual hierarchy c. clustering d. schemas ANSWER: b 42. Molly was trying to describe someone that she had just met, who happened to be a librarian. She described this person as quiet and wearing glasses, even though she was chatty and did not wear glasses. What has interfered with Molly’s memory of her new acquaintance? a. a semantic network b. a schema c. a retrieval cue d. an episodic buffer ANSWER: b 43. Paige says the birthday party she just attended was a lot of fun: “We played games, had cake and ice cream, and got goodie bags.” In reality, the ice cream was served with a brownie and not birthday cake. What is likely responsible for Paige’s inaccurate memory? a. her birthday party schema b. repression c. the misinformation effect d. the source-monitoring error ANSWER: a 44. What is a semantic network? a. patterns of activation in highly interconnected computational networks b. a group of familiar stimuli stored as a single unit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory c. an organized cluster of knowledge about a particular object or event d. nodes representing concepts, joined together by pathways that link related concepts ANSWER: d 45. Which process explains why, when we think of one word, such as “fruit,” it triggers our thinking of other words, such as “apples and oranges”? a. source monitoring b. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon c. parallel distributed processing d. spreading activation within a semantic network ANSWER: d 46. According to the concept of semantic networks, which political science class topics would facilitate your remembering John A. Macdonald’s name? a. conservatives b. prime ministers c. parliament d. world leaders ANSWER: b 47. What are connectionist models of memory based on? a. connections between encoding, storage, and retrieval b. connections between sensory, short-term, and long-term memory c. how computer systems process information d. how neural networks process information ANSWER: d 48. In which memory model is the memory for an item of knowledge represented by a specific pattern of activation? a. semantic network model of memory b. connectionist model of memory c. information-processing model of memory d. conditioning model of memory ANSWER: b 49. Which pair of terms does NOT belong together? a. retrieval; short-term memory b. encoding; attention c. schema; long-term memory d. rehearsal; short-term memory ANSWER: a 50. Mandy did very well on her midterm but there was one question that really frustrated her. She could not remember the correct answer during the exam and she left it blank. Once she got home, the answer popped into her mind as soon as she saw her notebook and textbook sitting on the kitchen table. According to Tulving’s view of memory retrieval, what is the state of Mandy’s memory for the answer to that one question? a. The information was in working memory, but not in long-term memory. b. The information was available but not accessible during the exam. c. The information was accessible but not available during the exam. d. The information was in long-term memory, but not in working memory. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory 51. Which of the following best describes the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon? a. partial retrieval b. partial storage c. complete storage failure d. complete retrieval failure ANSWER: a 52. Often, individuals are not able to answer a straightforward question (such as “Who was prime minister after Brian Mulroney?”) but they can remember the answer (Kim Campbell) when given a hint (such as “Her last name is the same as a brand of soup”). What is the hint in this example? a. a tip-of-the-tongue cue b. a semantic cue c. a rehearsal cue d. a retrieval cue ANSWER: d 53. Brianne is trying to remember the name of the regular babysitter she had when she was younger. When her dad reminds her that he called the sitter Sarge because she strictly enforced the rules, Brianne correctly remembers her name as Marge. In this example, what did “Sarge” serve as? a. a hint b. a phonemic cue c. a retrieval cue d. a semantic cue ANSWER: c 54. People often find that they can remember events more easily when in the same physical place as they were when they first experienced the event. What does this illustrate? a. the influence of imagery on retrieval b. the influence of context on encoding c. the influence of context on retrieval d. the influence of imagery on encoding ANSWER: c 55. When Kaatja visited her old elementary school for her niece’s band concert, she was overwhelmed with long-forgotten memories of her friends, teachers, and events from her childhood. What type of cues did returning to her former school provide Kaatja? a. delayed cues b. tip-of-the-tongue cues c. context cues d. structural cues ANSWER: c 56. Which stage of memory is best characterized as a reconstruction? a. working memory b. short-term memory c. sensory memory d. long-term memory ANSWER: d 57. According to research by Loftus on eyewitness testimony, which of the following is true of the recall of an accident or crime scene? a. It is so vivid that it is subject to very little memory error. b. It can be influenced by the questions eyewitnesses are asked. c. It can be significantly improved using hypnosis. d. It is distorted by emotion and is completely inaccurate. ANSWER: b 58. Nick was a witness to a robbery in a convenience store where the thief jumped over the counter, grabbed a handful of Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory money and left very quickly. When a police officer interviewed Nick and the cashier, Nick told the police officer that he did not see a weapon of any kind. The cashier said that she saw a gun. Later, when Nick was telling his friends about the robbery, he recalled seeing a gun. According to Loftus, what changed Nick’s memory for the event? a. misinformation effect b. post-context effect c. reconstruction effect d. source-monitoring effect ANSWER: a 59. What are you engaging in if you are trying to remember whether you told your roommate that you would not be home for dinner tomorrow, or you just thought about telling her? a. source monitoring b. imagination inflation c. reconstruction d. memory monitoring ANSWER: d 60. If you incorrectly recall your psychology professor saying, “Psychology is a poor choice for a university major,” when in reality it was your philosophy professor who made the statement, what type of error did you make? a. source-monitoring error b. misinformation error c. reality-monitoring error d. retention error ANSWER: a 61. Which statements best represents the ideas of Elizabeth Loftus on memory? a. Repressed memories need to be recovered to aid in psychological healing. b. People rarely reconstruct memories, although it can happen. c. Memory is like a tape-recorder. d. Memory is malleable. ANSWER: d 62. According to Ebbinghaus’s research, what is the pattern in which memory for meaningless information is forgotten? a. very gradually over several days b. each item is forgotten immediately c. very gradually for several hours and then at a very rapid rate d. very rapidly in the first few hours after learning ANSWER: d 63. If, on a midterm exam, you were asked to list all the lobes of the brain, what kind of measure of retention is that question? a. relearning b. recall c. recitation d. recognition ANSWER: b 64. Which method of retention assessment is a history teacher using when he asks his students to state from memory the categories defined in the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms? a. recitation b. recall c. recognition d. relearning ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory 65. On your midterm exam, if you are given a list of brain regions and asked to write those regions into the correct places on a diagram of the brain, what sort of measure of retention is being used? a. recognition b. relearning c. rote d. recall ANSWER: a 66. Why do most students find recognition tests easier than recall tests? a. Recall tests provide retrieval cues. b. Recall tests provide relearning cues. c. Recognition tests provide retrieval cues. d. Recognition tests provide relearning cues. ANSWER: c 67. Multiple-choice exams such as this one primarily measure retention by using which method? a. recall b. recitation c. relearning d. recognition ANSWER: d 68. What method measures retention by requiring an individual to memorize information a second time to determine how much time or effort is saved? a. recitation b. relearning c. recall d. recognition ANSWER: b 69. With which method of measuring forgetting are savings scores associated? a. relearning b. retention c. recall d. recognition ANSWER: a 70. As you are reading an exam question, you cannot think of the correct term and you say to yourself, “I can’t believe I forgot this.” In reality, you never knew the answer in the first place. What does this example illustrate? a. pseudoforgetting b. decay c. retrieval failure d. interference ANSWER: a 71. Poor memory for information often occurs when the information receives only a shallow level of processing. In this case, what leads to memory failure? a. storage failure b. retrieval failure c. interference d. ineffective encoding ANSWER: d 72. According to decay theory, why does forgetting occur? a. because of the passage of time b. because of the deterioration of the nervous system with increasing age c. because of competition from other memories d. because of ineffective encoding of information ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory 73. As Camilla tries to play a piece of music from memory, she forgets a lot of notes and in some cases lapses into playing another song that she knows better. She finds this frustrating because she has remembered this piece perfectly in the past. In this example, what seems to be the cause of forgetting? a. storage failure b. interference c. ineffective encoding d. decay ANSWER: b 74. We may forget information because of experiences we have either before or after learning the information. Which of the following is consistent with this statement? a. interference theory b. retrieval failure c. ineffective encoding d. decay theory ANSWER: a 75. Intervening material is most likely to cause an increase in forgetting when the intervening material is very similar to the information that is to be remembered. What is this called? a. motivated forgetting b. retrieval failure c. ineffective encoding d. interference ANSWER: d 76. Joseph can’t recall his old phone number now that he has learned his new phone number. What leads to this type of forgetting? a. proactive interference b. negative interference c. retroactive interference d. positive interference ANSWER: c 77. Aras took three years of French in high school before switching to studying German in college. He has noticed that he has forgotten a lot of his French vocabulary. What is most likely responsible for his loss of French? a. retroactive interference b. proactive interference c. motivated forgetting d. decay ANSWER: a 78. At the beginning of January every year, people typically write or say the previous year when they are asked to indicate the current date. What explains this type of error? a. negative interference b. proactive interference c. positive interference d. retroactive interference ANSWER: b 79. Which theory of forgetting would best explain why Emma was unable to remember her Grade 2 teacher’s name yesterday, but can remember it today? a. interference b. decay c. motivated forgetting d. retrieval failure ANSWER: d 80. Joshua has been trying unsuccessfully for days to remember the name of a song that was popular when he was in Grade 10. The “oldies” radio station just played the song, and after hearing only the first few seconds, the name of the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory song “popped into his head.” What was provided by the opening seconds of the song? a. retroactive cues b. proactive cues c. context cues d. retrieval cues ANSWER: d 81. Recent research suggests that the process of neurogenesis may contribute to neural pathways that underlie memory. For example, new brain cells have been found to be forming constantly in which part of the hippocampus? a. the dorsal gyrus b. the amygdala c. the ventral sulcus d. the dentate gyrus ANSWER: d 82. Which of the following is reflected in Sigmund Freud’s concept of repression? a. interference b. decay c. ineffective encoding d. retrieval failure ANSWER: d 83. At Debbie’s 20th high school reunion, her old friends talk about the time in Grade 11 when Debbie tripped in the cafeteria and spilled her lunch tray full of spaghetti all over the captain of the football team. Debbie enjoys hearing the story but claims to have no memory of the event. According to Sigmund Freud, what causes her lack of memory for the event? a. interference b. ineffective encoding c. repression d. decay ANSWER: c 84. A 45-year-old woman suddenly becomes aware of long-forgotten memories of being abused by her father when she was six years old. Her father denies the allegations. This case can be described as a typical example associated with which controversy? a. false allegation controversy b. memory retrieval controversy c. memory reconstruction controversy d. recovered memory controversy ANSWER: d 85. Psychologists who accept the accuracy of recovered memories of abuse are most likely to attribute the recent upsurge in recovered memories to which factor? a. increased sensitivity to an issue that people used to be reluctant to discuss b. use of more effective techniques that allow for the recovery of childhood memories c. an increase in the level of childhood abuse occurring in society d. inadvertently created memories after a therapist makes suggestions of childhood abuse ANSWER: a 86. There have been numerous case studies of recovered memories for which there is clear evidence that the recovered memory is false. Which perspective is weakened by such evidence? a. psychodynamic repression b. retroactive interference c. encoding specificity principle d. memory as reconstruction ANSWER: a 87. Which memory phenomenon provides evidence to suggest that recovered memories may be false? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory a. proactive interference c. misinformation effect ANSWER: c
b. state-dependent learning d. pseudoforgetting
88. According to Daniel Schacter, what is the significance of the “memory sins” that he has described? a. They are common among individuals who have poor memories, and rare among individuals with good memories. b. They provide evidence that memory is predominantly flawed and should not be trusted. c. They are indicators of disease or disorder and should be treated as medical symptoms. d. They are inconvenient by-products of a memory system that normally functions very efficiently. ANSWER: d 89. Which of the following is suggested about a memory trace, based on evidence about long-term potentiation (LTP)? a. It depends on biochemical changes at specific synapses. b. It develops from altering hormonal levels in the brain. c. It consists of specific neural circuits. d. It involves anatomical changes in the structure of the brain. ANSWER: c 90. Which model of memory is most consistent with the finding that there is a localized neural circuit in a rabbit’s brain that corresponds with the rabbit’s memory of a conditioned eye blink response? a. connectionist b. information processing c. semantic network d. consolidation ANSWER: a 91. Following a serious car accident in which both Hank and Ron suffer head injuries, they both have amnesia. Hank cannot remember events that occurred before the accident, while Ron cannot remember events that occurred after the accident. Which types of amnesia are they experiencing? a. Hank’s amnesia is retroactive while Ron’s is proactive. b. Hank has retrograde amnesia while Ron has anterograde amnesia. c. Hank’s amnesia is proactive while Ron’s is retroactive. d. Hank has anterograde amnesia while Ron has retrograde amnesia. ANSWER: b 92. Steven experienced a serious head injury during a hockey game. When he regained consciousness, he found that he couldn’t remember going to the rink that day. Upon further questioning, it was revealed that he could not recall anything in the two years leading up to the injury. What sort of amnesia did Steven experience? a. complete amnesia b. retrograde amnesia c. partial amnesia d. anterograde amnesia ANSWER: b 93. Your text described the case of H.M., who, following brain surgery, developed a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Which memory task could he NOT do after the surgery? a. use short-term memory to carry on a complex conversation b. consolidate new long-term memories Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory c. look up a phone number and rehearse it until he dialled the number d. recite a poem that he had learned in childhood ANSWER: b 94. Which area of the brain is associated with the consolidation of long-term memories? a. cerebral cortex b. medulla c. hypothalamus d. hippocampal region ANSWER: d 95. What do we call the hypothetical process during which information is converted into durable long-term memory codes? a. storage b. retention c. consolidation d. expansion ANSWER: c 96. According to the consolidation view, where are long-term memories stored after they are consolidated in the hippocampal region? a. cerebellum b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: d 97. What type of memory are you using when you try to remember the events of this past year? a. retrospective b. retrograde c. anterograde d. prospective ANSWER: a 98. Endel Tulving had a well-known patient, K.C., who could not remember anything that happened in his life? Which statement does NOT accurately describe K.C.? a. K.C. attended University of Toronto after his 1981 motorcycle accident injury. b. K.C.’s episodic memory was impaired. c. K.C. frequently outperformed “normal” undergraduates while completing a university degree subsequent to his brain injury. d. K.C. had no problem remembering when to eat. ANSWER: d 99. On your way to your psychology class, you pass a newsstand where a tabloid headline reads: “Brazen Celebrity Seduces Pop Star.” When you get to class, your professor is doing a demonstration about memory and asks you to complete a series of word stems. Although most of your class completes the stem “br____” with “bread” or “broke,” you complete it as “brazen.” You don’t actually recall reading that word, and you’re not sure why it popped into your mind. What does this example illustrate? a. implicit memory b. declarative memory c. explicit memory d. procedural memory ANSWER: a 100. If you are in a city that you haven’t visited in years, and you easily find your way to the mall “on a hunch,” what are you most likely relying on? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory a. implicit memory c. working memory ANSWER: a
b. explicit memory d. declarative memory
101. Which memory system contains memories for factual information such as names, faces, events, definitions, and concepts? a. declarative memory b. procedural memory c. prospective memory d. retrospective memory ANSWER: a 102. Which memory system contains your memory of how to do something, such as how to shoot a free throw in basketball? a. declarative memory b. episodic memory c. semantic memory d. procedural memory ANSWER: d 103. Which memory system requires little effort or attention to recall a memory and, in it, memories do not decline much over long retention intervals? a. procedural memory b. episodic memory c. semantic memory d. declarative memory ANSWER: a 104. Which two types of memories are both considered to be divisions of declarative memory? a. prospective and procedural b. semantic and procedural c. prospective and episodic d. semantic and episodic ANSWER: d 105. Which memory system contains your memory of your favourite birthday party? a. episodic memory b. nondeclarative memory c. procedural memory d. semantic memory ANSWER: a 106. Which of the following would be contained in an individual’s episodic memory? a. the year that the first psychology laboratory was founded b. how to parallel park a car c. her first day of school was rainy and cold d. her next-door neighbour’s last name is Jackson ANSWER: c 107. Which memory system contains your memories of general knowledge and facts not tied to or associated with memories of when you first learned them? a. semantic memory b. procedural memory c. nondeclarative memory d. episodic memory ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory 108. Which of the following memories is most likely to be contained in an individual’s semantic memory? a. his next-door neighbour’s last name is Jackson b. how to parallel park a car c. his sixth birthday party was at a circus d. when he was 10 years old, he broke his neighbour’s bedroom window with a baseball ANSWER: a 109. When someone asks you about your mother’s middle name, you realize that you know it but you don’t know how or why you know it. Which type of memory is your mother’s middle name? a. implicit memory b. episodic memory c. short-term memory d. semantic memory ANSWER: d 110. Paul often forgets to show up for appointments, and to pay bills on time. His friends call him absentminded, but he has an excellent memory for names, facts, and procedures. Which type of memory does Paul have problems with? a. procedural memory b. implicit memory c. declarative memory d. prospective memory ANSWER: d 111. What is remembered using prospective memory? a. previously learned information b. actions that were performed in the past c. to perform actions in the future d. chronological, or temporally dated, recollections of personal experiences ANSWER: c 112. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by schemas, the misinformation effect, source monitoring, and the repressed memory controversy? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: a 113. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by the observation that an individual’s memory of a specific event is influenced by a variety of factors such as how the event was encoded, how the information was organized in storage, and intervening events between the original event and the retrieval of the memory? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. ANSWER: c 114. What do we call the strategies designed to enhance memory through the use of either verbal cues or visual imagery to enrich encoding? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory a. acronyms c. mnemonic devices ANSWER: c
b. serial-position identifiers d. methods of loci
115. Melanie gives her students a lot of quizzes, and often retests the same material over again, in order to improve her students’ performance. Which of the following does Melanie use? a. massed practice b. enriched encoding c. mnemonics d. testing effect ANSWER: d 116. Children often have difficulty remembering the letters in the middle of the alphabet. What does this reflect? a. overlearning of the first letters in the alphabet b. the serial-position effect c. distributed practice d. the use of mnemonic devices ANSWER: b 117. If you are planning to spend six hours studying for your final exam in psychology, which of the following would be the best strategy? a. Have one uninterrupted six-hour study session the day before the exam. b. Have two three-hour study sessions with one session the day before the exam and the other right before the exam. c. Have three two-hour study sessions with one session per day starting three days before the exam. d. Have three two-hour study sessions all on the day before the exam. ANSWER: c 118. Your textbook suggests that it is beneficial for students to outline reading assignments. What does this method encourage students to do? a. overlearn the material b. develop a mnemonic device c. organize material hierarchically d. make the material personally meaningful ANSWER: c 119. What is NOT one of the benefits of developing and using a mnemonic device? a. organizing the information b. increasing the capacity of your sensory memory c. making the information more meaningful d. engaging in a deeper level of processing ANSWER: b 120. The phrase “My very educated mother just served us nine pizzas” can be used to recall the order of the planets in the solar system (Mercury, Venus, Earth…). What is the name of this method? a. method of loci b. narrative method c. acrostic method d. acronym method ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory 121. If you remember the names of the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, Superior) by recalling the word “HOMES” as a cue, what are you using? a. link method b. acronym method c. method of loci d. acrostic method ANSWER: b 122. What phrase refers to short-term memory? a. episodic memory b. temporary memory c. sensory memory d. working memory ANSWER: d 123. Which mnemonic device involves forming a mental image of the items to be remembered in a way that strings them together? a. an acrostic b. an acronym c. the method of loci d. the link method ANSWER: d 124. Suzi remembers items on a shopping list by imagining the items placed at certain locations along the route she normally drives through her neighbourhood. What method is she using? a. the method of loci b. narrative story method c. the link method d. acronym method ANSWER: a 125. What do we call the tendency to mould our interpretation of the past to fit how events actually turned out? a. reconstruction bias b. overconfidence bias c. confirmation bias d. hindsight bias ANSWER: d 126. Regarding estimates of memory accuracy, which statement best describes most people? a. People underestimate the accuracy of their memory. b. People overestimate the accuracy of their memory. c. People estimate the accuracy of their memory very inaccurately by either overestimating or underestimating their accuracy. d. People estimate the accuracy of their memory fairly accurately. ANSWER: b 127. When do people tend to more accurately estimate their confidence in the accuracy of their memory of an event? a. when they were an eyewitness to the event b. when they ignore the hindsight bias c. when they consider reasons that their memory may not be accurate d. when they consider reasons that their memory may be accurate ANSWER: c 128. The value of a retrieval cue depends on how well it corresponds to the memory code. What principle does this statement refer to? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 7 - Human Memory a. the principle of forgetting c. the reconstructive memory principle ANSWER: d
b. retrieval cue process d. the encoding specificity principle
129. Which term refers to extensive memory loss due to head injury? a. functional amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. decay d. organic amnesia ANSWER: d 130. What is most likely to enhance recall after studying for exams? a. massed practice b. interference c. group practice d. distributed practice ANSWER: d
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 1. Why was cognition somewhat ignored as a topic of study in psychology for many years? a. It can’t be studied in animals, so few researchers were interested. b. The equipment that is necessary to image the brain was not developed yet. c. Interest in psychodynamic theory dominated the field. d. It is incredibly difficult to study thoughts in a controlled manner due to the unobservable nature of introspection. ANSWER: d 2. When did the cognitive revolution in psychology occur? a. the 1880s b. the 1920s c. the 1950s d. the 1980s ANSWER: c 3. Which type of psychologists focus on the topics of memory, problem solving, decision making, and language? a. social psychologists b. physiological psychologists c. cognitive psychologists d. clinical psychologists ANSWER: c 4. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is structured”? a. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.” b. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. c. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. d. The word “dog” can be used in a variety of novel sentences. ANSWER: a 5. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is symbolic”? a. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. b. The word “dog” can be used in a variety of novel sentences. c. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. d. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.” ANSWER: c 6. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is generative”? a. The word “dog” can be used in a variety of novel sentences. b. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. c. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.” d. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. ANSWER: a 7. Which of the following is an example of the statement that “language is semantic”? a. The word “dog” means the same thing as the word “chien.” b. You can use the word “dog” to refer to an animal that isn’t currently present. c. You can use the word “dog” to refer to a variety of different individual animals. d. The phrase “the dog bit the man” means something different from “the man bit the dog.” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought ANSWER: c 8. When your psychology professor used the word “experiment” to refer to the scientific method described in Chapter 2, which property of language was reflected by the term “experiment”? a. Language is symbolic. b. Language is generative. c. Language is structured. d. Language is orderly. ANSWER: a 9. A limited number of words may be combined into an infinite number of sentences. What does this tell you about language? a. Language is structured. b. Language is generative. c. Language is semantic. d. Language is symbolic. ANSWER: b 10. When your classmate says, “I never thought I’d say this, but I really enjoyed taking that psychology exam,” which property of language does his statement best illustrate? a. Language is structured. b. Language is practical. c. Language is generative. d. Language is symbolic. ANSWER: c 11. Rules exist that govern how words may be combined into phrases and sentences. What property of language is reflected by such rules? a. Language is generative. b. Language is semantic. c. Language is structured. d. Language is symbolic. ANSWER: c 12. What are the smallest speech units in a language that can be distinguished perceptually? a. sounds b. morphemes c. words d. phonemes ANSWER: d 13. How many phonemes are in the English language? a. 26 b. 40 c. 100 d. 155 ANSWER: b 14. What are the smallest units of meaning in a language? a. phonemes b. sounds c. words d. morphemes ANSWER: d 15. In the statement “First the oven was preheated to 350 degrees,” how many morphemes are in the word “preheated”? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 9 ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 16. Which area of language is concerned with understanding the meaning of words and word combinations? a. semantics b. grammar c. syntax d. vocabulary ANSWER: a 17. What is the same between the two sentences “The boy hit the ball” and “The ball was hit by the boy”? a. syntax b. morphemes c. semantics d. grammar ANSWER: c 18. What is the system of rules that specifies how words can be arranged into sentences in a language? a. semantics b. symbolic structure c. morpheme structure d. syntax ANSWER: d 19. What is the same between the two sentences “Ari hit Boris” and “Boris hit Ari”? a. semantics b. syntax c. morpheme structure d. symbolic structure ANSWER: b 20. Your professor gives two separate grades for essay questions on exams; the first is for content or meaning, and the second is for grammar. What aspects of language are represented by the two grades? a. The first is for semantics, and the second is for syntax. b. The first is for syntax, and the second is for semantics. c. The first is for morphemes, and the second is for phonemes. d. The first is for phonemes, and the second is for morphemes. ANSWER: a 21. Which of the following best describes the discrimination ability of three-month-old infants? a. They distinguish all the phonemes in their native language. b. They distinguish all the morphemes in their native language. c. They distinguish all the morphemes in all the world’s languages. d. They distinguish all the phonemes in all the world’s languages. ANSWER: d 22. Which statement best describes the work of Janet Werker of the University of British Columbia who studies infant language development? a. She has done pioneering work to show that infants language development is based on the tools given to them by their parents. b. She has done pioneering work to show that infants language development is related to their emotional development. c. She has done pioneering work to show that infants are like blank slates. d. She has done pioneering work to show that infants come prepared to learn language as evidenced by the notion that babies have perceptual biases that facilitate sound production. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 23. In what age range do infants typically say their first word? a. 6 to 9 months b. 10 to 13 months c. 14 to 17 months d. 18 to 21 months ANSWER: b 24. When an infant produces repetitive consonant-vowel combinations such as “babababa,” what is the infant doing? a. cooing b. “baby talk” c. speaking d. babbling ANSWER: d 25. Which statement provides evidence that receptive and productive vocabularies are different in young children? a. An infant will discriminate among speech sounds from a variety of languages. b. An infant will preferentially attend to the speech of caregivers rather than strangers. c. A toddler will follow an instruction that uses words that she does not say yet. d. A toddler will apply a grammar rule inappropriately. ANSWER: c 26. Which statement does NOT accurately describe bilingualism? a. It is the acquisition of two languages that use different speech sounds, vocabulary, and grammatical rules. b. It is the norm in most of North America. c. It is the norm in Europe. d. Nearly half of the world’s population are bilingual. ANSWER: b 27. Who suggested that language determines the nature of one’s thought? a. Carl Jung b. Ivan Pavlov c. Noam Chomsky d. Benjamin Lee Whorf ANSWER: d 28. What is least likely to be one of the first words a child would learn? a. ball b. red c. eat d. juice ANSWER: b 29. Max started saying words fairly reliably a few months ago, but recently there has been a dramatic increase in the number of words that he produces. It seems like every day there are a few new ones in his vocabulary! Everywhere he goes, he points at things and wants to know the names for everything. What age range is Max likely in? a. 6–10 months b. 10–15 months c. 18–24 months d. 24–30 months ANSWER: c 30. What is the term for the process by which a child learns a new word after only one exposure to the word? a. overextension b. fast mapping c. underextension d. logical reasoning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought ANSWER: b 31. At dinner, three-year-old Matias overhears his father tell the waitress that his tasty hamburger was “superb.” Matias has never heard this word before. The next day Matias tells his mother that the grilled-cheese sandwich she made him for lunch was superb. What do we call the process by which Matias likely learned the word “superb”? a. underextension b. overextension c. fast mapping d. telegraphic speech ANSWER: c 32. Erica points to the bus and calls it a car. What sort of error is this? a. fast mapping b. overregularization c. underextension d. overextension ANSWER: d 33. Which child is exhibiting underextension? a. Britney, who uses the word “car” only when referring to her mother’s car b. Abby, who uses the word “swing” when referring to all the pieces of playground equipment on the playground c. Danielle, who uses the word “puppy” when referring to all dogs, young or old. d. Caitlin, who uses the word “doggie” when referring to both her dog Fido and her grandmother’s cat Fluffy ANSWER: a 34. Which statement is the best example of telegraphic speech? a. “Give cookie.” b. “I wanted a cookie.” c. “I eated a cookie.” d. “Cookie.” ANSWER: a 35. What is typically included in telegraphic speech? a. nouns and verbs b. nouns, verbs, and articles c. only nouns d. only verbs ANSWER: a 36. Which statement represents an occurrence of overregularization? a. Alek uses the word “cat” to only refer to his own cat. b. Ben tells his mother that he “wented” to the store with Daddy. c. Callum says “doggie sad” when he sees a howling dog on TV. d. Dylan starts using a swear word after hearing his mother say it once. ANSWER: b 37. Which of the following is the best example of overregularization? a. “Cookie.” b. “I eated a cookie.” c. “I want a cookie.” d. “Give cookie.” ANSWER: b 38. Seven-year-old Thalia told her mother that the boys playing tag outside were “chasing each other around like puppies.” What is reflected in Thalia’s use of the metaphor? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought a. metalinguistic awareness c. overregularization ANSWER: a
b. overextension d. changes in her mean length of utterance
39. Around what age do children typically start to understand and use ironic or sarcastic statements? a. 4–5 years b. 6–8 years c. 9–10 years d. 11–13 years ANSWER: b 40. When children are raised speaking both French and English, what is the impact on their vocabulary? a. They learn the same amount of words but at a slower rate. b. The number of language milestones they reach in English is limited. c. Their spatial abilities are limited and impair vocabulary. d. The size of their vocabulary is similar or slightly superior to that of children learning a single language. ANSWER: d 41. Research suggests that bilingual individuals tend to score higher than monolingual individuals on some psychological measures. Which pair tends to be higher for bilingual individuals? a. intelligence and analytical reasoning b. cognitive flexibility and analytical reasoning c. language-processing speed and cognitive flexibility d. language-processing speed and intelligence ANSWER: b 42. According to interactionist theories of language development, what is necessary for adult language production? a. shaping and reinforcement during childhood b. intentional instruction by caregivers c. innate predisposition for language development d. evolved predisposition for language and social interaction to shape development of language ANSWER: d 43. Which statement provides support for the linguistic relativity hypothesis? a. Some cultures have words for important items that don’t exist in other cultures. b. Cultural words for colours affect perceptual abilities to distinguish among colours. c. Children across cultures develop babbling at roughly the same age. d. Learning multiple languages is associated with cognitive benefits. ANSWER: b 44. Which statement provides support for nativist theories of language development? a. Speech pathologists can help a child develop better language skills. b. During certain developmental stages, children learn language at a rate that is exceptionally fast. c. Some cultures don’t have words for snow. d. Actors can learn how to fake an accent from a different country. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 45. Chimpanzees are intelligent primates and can develop some rudimentary language skills, albeit mostly evidenced through sign language and not speech. What is the primary barrier that prevents chimpanzees from learning to speak? a. They do not have the appropriate vocal apparatus. b. Their main form of communication is gestural, rather than vocal. c. They cannot focus their attention on a complex cognitive task like word-learning. d. They cannot grasp the symbolic aspects of human language. ANSWER: a 46. The vocabulary and style of communication used by Washoe, the chimp who was raised by researchers to use sign language, was sufficient for some basic communication with humans. Which of the following children would have a communication level that is similar to that of Washoe? a. a one-year-old child who has spoken a few words b. a two-year old child who produces telegraphic speech c. a four-year-old child who shows evidence of overregularization d. a six-year-old child who is learning to read ANSWER: b 47. Which statements does NOT accurately describe the ability of animals to acquire language? a. The ability to use language—in a very basic, primitive way—may not be entirely unique to humans. b. Animals have never shown behaviour that suggests an understanding of grammatical rules. c. Questions remain concerning whether the language-like behaviour of animals demonstrates all the critical properties of language. d. Some language-like skills have been taught to a number of species. ANSWER: b 48. Which aspect of human language suggests that language is an innate human characteristic? a. Among all species, only humans use communication. b. Language is symbolic. c. Language is structured. d. Language is universal in human societies. ANSWER: d 49. According to Steven Pinker, what is human language ability? a. a species-specific trait that results from specific learning experiences b. a behavioural trait that differs dramatically among cultures c. a species-specific trait that resulted from natural selection d. a behavioural trait that reflects societal values ANSWER: c 50. Who suggested that children learn language through imitation, reinforcement, and shaping? a. B. F. Skinner b. Ivan Pavlov c. Noam Chomsky d. Benjamin Lee Whorf ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 51. According to B. F. Skinner, what allows children to learn how to construct grammatical sentences? a. receiving specific instruction from adults on grammatical rules b. nonreinforced trial and error c. imitation and shaping d. the functioning of the language acquisition device (LAD) ANSWER: c 52. How would Chomsky most likely explain a young child saying, “I runned around the house”? a. The child imitated an ungrammatical sentence spoken by another child. b. The child learned the rule for making the past tense of verbs as a result of hearing the speech of others. c. The child had previously been reinforced for saying, “I run around the house.” d. The child imitated the ungrammatical speech of an adult. ANSWER: b 53. Which perspective on language acquisition can best explain a young child (whose parents speak grammatical English) saying, “Yesterday I goed to the zoo”? a. learning theory b. nativist theory c. linguistic relativity theory d. behaviourist theory ANSWER: b 54. Who suggested that children are equipped with a language acquisition device (LAD) that allows them to acquire language? a. Benjamin Lee Whorf b. Ivan Pavlov c. Noam Chomsky d. B F Skinner ANSWER: c 55. Toddlers are immersed in a language-learning environment at all times, whereas adults who are learning a second language often do so on a part-time basis. Which theory of language acquisition is weakened by this confounding variable? a. emergentist theory b. interactionist theory c. nativist theory d. behaviourist theory ANSWER: c 56. Children produce various errors like overregularizations that they would not have heard from the adults or other models around them. Which theory of language acquisition is weakened by this evidence? a. emergentist theory b. interactionist theory c. behaviourist theory d. nativist theory ANSWER: c 57. Which hypothesis is supported if a culture that has no word for the colour pink cannot quickly perceive the difference between pink and another colour? a. metalinguistic awareness hypothesis b. interactionist hypothesis c. nativist hypothesis d. linguistic relativity hypothesis ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 58. Which hypothesis is the most likely explanation for why some ideas or concepts are very easily “lost in translation” between two languages? a. interactionist hypothesis b. nativist hypothesis c. metalinguistic awareness hypothesis d. linguistic relativity hypothesis ANSWER: d 59. According to cognitive psychologists, what is problem solving? a. It is the sudden discovery of the correct solution following incorrect solutions. b. It refers to active efforts to discover what must be done to achieve a goal that is not readily attainable. c. It involves making choices under conditions of uncertainty. d. It involves evaluating alternatives and making choices among them. ANSWER: b 60. If you are asked to come up with one word that is typically paired with taxi, screw, and cattle (the answer is “driver”), what sort of problem are you solving? a. problems of probability b. problems of inducing structure c. problems of transformation d. problems of arrangement ANSWER: b 61. Which class of problems (as described by Greeno) involves discovering the relations among the parts of the problem? a. transformation b. arrangement c. probability d. inducing structure ANSWER: d 62. Which task is involved in analogy problems such as “Dog is to puppy as cat is to ____”? a. inducing structure b. arrangement c. mental set d. transformation ANSWER: a 63. Which class of problems is often solved with a burst of insight? a. transformation b. induced structure c. probability d. arrangement ANSWER: d 64. If you were asked to rearrange the letters EDTIMRM in order to produce an English word (MIDTERM), what sort of problem are you trying to solve? a. induced structure b. arrangement c. transformation d. probability ANSWER: b 65. In which class of problems is it necessary to carry out a sequence of intermediate actions to solve the problem? a. arrangement b. transformation c. inducing structure d. probability ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 66. Because one of the main goals of playing the game Scrabble is to use a series of randomly selected letters to form words, Scrabble can best be described as a game that involves which type of problem? a. functional fixedness b. transformation c. arrangement d. inducing structure ANSWER: c 67. People often assume that it is necessary to use all the numerical information provided in a problem to solve the problem. In reality, numerical information sometimes makes it more difficult to solve a problem. Why? a. The information results in a mental set. b. The information may be irrelevant. c. The information puts unnecessary constraints on the problem solver. d. The information encourages functional fixedness. ANSWER: b 68. People often find it difficult to solve a problem by using a familiar object in a novel way. What is this called? a. a mental set b. unnecessary constraints c. irrelevant information d. functional fixedness ANSWER: d 69. What do we call the tendency to think of a hammer as only a tool to hammer nails and not as a weapon, a lever, or a weight to prop open a door? a. functional fixedness b. unnecessary constraints c. irrelevant information d. a mental set ANSWER: a 70. Stella ran a small business for years. Her business has gotten much larger now, and she finds that she is having problems using all the business strategies that worked very well for her in the past. Which of the following problems with problem solving is Stella facing? a. functional fixedness b. unnecessary constraints c. irrelevant information d. mental set ANSWER: d 71. Which barrier to effective problem solving is illustrated by the series of water-jug problems described in your text? a. irrelevant information b. functional fixedness c. unnecessary constraints d. mental set ANSWER: d 72. Johanna was placed in charge of planning her class’s spring formal. If she thought she should hire the same band that played at last year’s formal because of how much everyone enjoyed the band, which barrier to effective problem solving might Johanna be encountering? a. unnecessary constraints b. mental set c. functional fixedness d. irrelevant information ANSWER: b 73. Which of the following is defined as a methodical, step-by-step procedure for trying all possible alternatives in searching for a solution to a problem? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought a. an algorithm c. an analogy ANSWER: a
b. a style d. a heuristic
74. When is the trial-and-error approach to problem solving most effective? a. when there are no time constraints on solving the problem b. when there is a relatively large number of possible solutions c. when a solution to the problem must be found quickly d. when there is a relatively small number of possible solutions ANSWER: d 75. Which of the following is a shortcut, or guiding principle, used in solving problems or making decisions? a. a trial b. an analogy c. a heuristic d. an algorithm ANSWER: c 76. When Matthew is taking a multiple-choice exam, he uses the rule “When in doubt, pick C.” Which of the following is illustrated by this example? a. trial and error b. forming subgoals c. an analogy d. a heuristic ANSWER: d 77. Which type of strategy is especially useful when a problem has a well-specified end point? a. forming subgoals b. changing the representation of the problem c. working backward d. algorithm ANSWER: c 78. Ashley has just had her first-ever flat tire. She realizes that she needs to find where the spare tire and the jack and other tools are stored in the car, remove the flat tire, and install the spare tire. Which heuristic is Ashley using to approach the problem? a. forming subgoals b. changing the representation of the problem c. working backward d. searching for analogies ANSWER: a 79. Your father has a problem; what to get your mother for her birthday. He mentally reviews her reaction to presents he has given her in the past (a necklace, concert tickets, an ice cream maker). If he decides to get her tickets to the theatre because she seemed to like a fun night out more than the other items, which approach to problem solving would your father be using? a. trial and error b. forming subgoals c. changing the representation of the problem Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought d. searching for analogies ANSWER: d 80. Ross needs to move a couch up a set of stairs that turns a corner near the top. As he is thinking about the best way to go about this, he thinks about the position that the couch needs to be in when it turns the corner. That piece of information then anchors his decision about how to orient the couch at the bottom of the stairs. What does this example illustrate? a. working backward b. representing the problem in a novel way c. removing unnecessary constraints d. the trial-and-error approach ANSWER: a 81. Imagine you have a problem to solve that has some similarities to problems you have previously solved. If focusing on the similarities leads you relatively quickly to a solution, then which heuristic do you benefit from? a. changing the representation of the problem b. working backward c. searching for analogies d. functional fixedness ANSWER: c 82. Ella and her team are struggling to come up with a way to promote a new product in an advertising campaign. They seem to have hit a barrier in their discussions and they are not able to make decisions or solve immediate problems. Ella suggests that they all go home and “sleep on it,” and start fresh the next day. What is a likely benefit of Ella’s suggestion? a. functional fixedness b. transformation effect c. incubation effect d. induced structure ANSWER: c 83. Most people estimate the negative impact of losing $1000 will be greater than the positive impact of winning $1000. In reality, people overestimate the negative emotions they expect to experience after such as loss? What is the name for this phenomenon? a. loss aversion b. representative heuristic c. unnecessary constraints d. trial-and-error ANSWER: a 84. Which term refers to the mental processes which are involved in acquiring knowledge? a. cognition b. operant conditioning c. memory d. heuristics ANSWER: a 85. What does it mean that there are optimal periods for the development of language and even times during which learning is critical? a. If language is not developed during that time frame, it cannot be developed later. b. Language development is very important at that time. c. Language development is necessary but can be established at a later date if necessary. d. Trial-and-error cannot produce adequate results within this time frame. ANSWER: a 86. What is a benefit of bilinguialism? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought a. It is associated with higher controlled processing in tasks that require control and attention. b. It provides an advantage in language-processing speed. c. It leads to better decision making. d. It provides an advantage in spatial-processing speed. ANSWER: a 87. Some languages have a single colour name that includes both blue and green. What impact does this have the speakers? a. It affects their colour perception. b. It has no impact on them. c. It makes them happy. d. It makes them sad. ANSWER: a 88. When subjects are asked to solve the nine-dot problem, they need to avoid applying which of the following to the problem? a. unnecessary constraints b. mental set c. problem space d. expert strategy ANSWER: a 89. What is decision making? a. making choices under conditions of uncertainty b. evaluation of alternatives and making choices among them c. the sudden discovery of the correct solution following incorrect solutions d. active efforts to discover what must be done to achieve a goal that is not readily attainable ANSWER: b 90. Why do cognitive psychologists focus on the mistakes that people tend to make in decision making? a. Understanding errors allows us to understand the normal process of decision making. b. It allows for a greater understanding of mental disorders. c. Errors are rare, so they establish the boundaries between what is possible and what is not. d. It provides evidence that we have not evolved to solve problems efficiently. ANSWER: a 91. Which field of study examines the effect of actual decision-making processes on economic decisions? a. behavioural economics b. behavioural psychology c. psychological economics d. psychological marketing ANSWER: a 92. Cross-cultural variations have been found in problem solving. How do people from Eastern Asian cultures tend to solve problems? a. They use a holistic cognitive style. b. Avoiding the distraction of context in solving problems. c. By downplaying the relationship among elements of a problem. d. They use an analytic cognitive style. ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought 93. Cross-cultural variations have been found in problem solving. How do people from North America and Europe tend to solve problems? a. They use a holistic cognitive style. b. They focus on the context in solving problems. c. They focus on the relationship among elements of a problem. d. They use an analytic cognitive style. ANSWER: d 94. Many problems can be represented in a variety of ways, such as verbally, mathematically, or spatially. Keeping this in mind, which problem-solving approach hinges on this fact? a. heuristics b. searching for analogies c. taking a break or incubation d. changing the representation of the problem ANSWER: d 95. According to definitions in your textbook, when people decide to place bets on horse races, games of chance, and athletic events, what are they doing? a. playing the odds b. making foolish decisions c. making preference decisions d. making risky decisions ANSWER: d 96. Kahneman and Tversky found in their study of decision making that people often deviate from rational thought when making decisions. What is one of the factors which dramatically affects our decisions? a. gender bias b. making foolish decisions c. time of day d. how decision alternatives are framed ANSWER: d 97. Darcy enjoys a day at the racetrack and doesn’t really care if she ends up with a little more or little less money at the end of the day. What most likely influences Darcy’s decision to go to the racetrack? a. expected value b. subjective utility c. unexpected value d. objective utility ANSWER: b 98. If you are using the availability heuristic, what are you using to estimate the probability of an event? a. the ease with which relevant instances of the event come to mind b. how long it has been since the event last occurred c. whether the event occurs in combination with another event d. how similar it is to the prototype of that event ANSWER: a 99. Based on a past experience that involved temper tantrums, Sue decides not to take her two five-year-old grandsons to the movies at the same time. Which decision-making strategy is Sue using? a. representativeness heuristic b. conjunction heuristic c. gambler’s heuristic d. availability heuristic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought ANSWER: d 100. If you estimate the probability of an event based on how similar it is to the prototype of that event, which heuristic are you using? a. gambler’s heuristic b. representativeness heuristic c. availability heuristic d. conjunction heuristic ANSWER: b 101. If you know that a family has four children, and you are using the representativeness heuristic, which of the following configurations would you expect in that family? a. three boys and one girl b. three girls and one boy c. four children of the same sex d. two boys and two girls ANSWER: d 102. Even though he knows only a small percentage of high school athletes go on to professional careers, Charlie believes that he will be drafted by a good Junior team, play for Team Canada in the World Juniors Championship, and then have a career in the NHL. What is Charlie doing? a. not applying the conjunction fallacy b. applying base rates to himself c. not applying base rates to himself d. applying the conjunction fallacy ANSWER: c 103. What is the term for incorrectly estimating that the odds of two uncertain events happening together are greater than the odds of either event happening alone? a. base rate fallacy b. alternative outcome effect c. conjunction fallacy d. gambler’s fallacy ANSWER: c 104. Todd is outgoing, charming, creative, and has a beautiful singing voice. If you were asked to guess what Todd does for a living, and you used the availability heuristic and the conjunction fallacy as you generated your answer, which of the following would you suggest? a. Todd is a musician who also works in public relations. b. Todd is a musician. c. Todd is an accountant. d. Todd is an accountant who also builds model trains. ANSWER: a 105. According to Simon’s theory of bounded rationality, why do humans tend to make irrational decisions? a. because we make decisions more difficult than they need to be b. because we use simple strategies and focus on limited information c. because we have logic systems that are only useful in natural environments d. because we are too guided by our emotions ANSWER: b 106. Tina and Steph are both trying to decide whether to try a new diet. Tina reads that 30 percent of people lose significant amounts of weight on the diet, whereas Steph reads that 70 percent of people fail to lose significant amounts of weight. What differs between these two pieces of information? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought a. framing c. base rates ANSWER: a
b. conjunction d. algorithms
107. According to evolutionary psychologists, what is the human mind designed to handle? a. base rates and probabilities rather than raw frequencies b. constrained problems rather than problems with a variety of possible outcomes c. specific adaptive problems rather than artificial “laboratory” problems d. representative heuristics rather than availability heuristics ANSWER: c 108. Arguing from an evolutionary perspective, what do Leda Cosmides and John Tooby suggest that human reasoning depends on? a. complex heuristics based on lifelong learning b. inferential heuristics c. “dumb and dumber” heuristics d. specialized cognitive mechanisms for natural problems ANSWER: d 109. Which of the textbook’s unifying themes do interactionist theories of language development best reflect? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: c 110. Which unifying theme in psychology is the linguistic relativity hypothesis most consistent with? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. ANSWER: d 111. Barriers to effective problem solving, such as functional fixedness and mental sets, best reflect which unifying theme in psychology? a. Psychology is empirical. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. ANSWER: b 112. What is reflected in the “gambler’s fallacy”? a. law of small numbers b. conjunction heuristic c. availability heuristic d. representativeness heuristic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought ANSWER: d 113. Anders is betting Mischa on whether a tossed coin will land on heads or tails. Anders has bet heads the last four times and has lost each time. If on the next toss he bets heads again and says, “It’s got to be heads, heads is overdue,” what does his reasoning illustrate? a. the conjunction fallacy b. the gambler’s fallacy c. the base rate fallacy d. the overestimation fallacy ANSWER: b 114. Tasha is deciding whether to buy Car A or Car B. She knows three people who have the same model as Car A. Two of them don’t like the car and the third friend loves it. Tasha decides to not buy Car A because 2/3 of her friends don’t like the car. According to your text, what is Tasha relying on? a. the gambler’s fallacy b. overestimating the improbable c. her belief in the law of small numbers d. confirmation bias ANSWER: c 115. What is “she eated my cracker” an example of? a. overregularization b. heuristics c. underextension d. overextension ANSWER: a 116. Which heuristic is reflected in our tendency to overestimate the probability of improbable events? a. availability heuristic b. representativeness heuristic c. gambler’s heuristic d. conjunction heuristic ANSWER: a 117. What is the confirmation bias? a. the tendency to agree with arguments that are presented with a positive emotional valence b. the belief that present evidence supports previous evidence even if they are completely unrelated c. the tendency to seek only information that is likely to support one’s decisions and beliefs d. the belief that the odds of a chance event increase if the event hasn’t occurred recently ANSWER: c 118. Alexis has been diagnosed with a learning disability. She doesn’t believe that the psychologist was accurate in this diagnosis, so she decided to seek out additional information about the disability, and its rate of misdiagnosis. She finds several websites and a couple of books that suggest that the diagnosis for the particular disability is wrong 20 percent of the time. Alexis is confident that hers is a case of misdiagnosis, and even after getting three additional evaluations from other diagnosticians (who all agree with the original diagnosis), Alexis refuses to believe otherwise. What does this example illustrate? a. availability heuristics b. gambler’s fallacy c. overestimating the improbable d. confirmation bias leading to belief perseverance ANSWER: d 119. In solving problems, Newell and Simon (1972) have suggested that individuals solve problems by exploring the Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought various pathways to a solution which may or may not lead to a solution, but which seem to be worthy of investigation by the problem solver. What is their term for the set of possible pathways problem solvers use? a. problem pathways b. algorithms c. solution networks d. the problem space ANSWER: d 120. Which statement is most consistent with the effects of framing on decision making? a. People tend to take greater risks when the outcome is described as certain. b. When seeking to obtain gains, people are more likely to take risks. c. People tend to take greater risks when the outcome is described as uncertain. d. When seeking to avoid losses, people are more likely to take risks. ANSWER: d 121. A political party has released a new TV ad that is intended to point out the differences in finance policies between its campaign, and the campaign of the competing party. Which tactic is most likely to be used, if the ad contains semantic slanting? a. clear statements that the two parties have very different views b. overly complicated language that is intended to cause confusion c. words that are chosen for their emotional impact d. statements that are deceptive or contain only partial truth ANSWER: c 122. What is the mayor of your town using if he suggests that only irresponsible citizens will be against a proposed tax increase to upgrade city parks? a. anticipatory name calling b. semantic slanting c. name calling d. anticipatory semantic slanting ANSWER: a 123. Which of the following is an example of how cognitive psychology attempts to study thought processes as they relate to real-world challenges? a. the study of decision making processes b. exposure of the solution to the matchstick problem c. the study of mental set d. through interactionist theories of language acquisition ANSWER: a 124. The probability of being in a subcategory (e.g., university professors who are politicians) cannot be higher than the probability of being in the broader category (e.g., university professors). What kind of fallacy do people routinely fall victim to as a result? a. conjunction b. representativeness c. heuristic d. availability ANSWER: a 125. If given a choice between a “sure” thing and a “risky” gamble, what percentage of people did Kahneman and Tversky (1984) find would select the “sure” thing when the problem was framed in terms of lives saved? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 8 - Language and Thought a. 22% c. 52% ANSWER: d
b. 42% d. 72%
126. If given a choice between a “sure” thing and a “risky” gamble, what percentage of people did Kahneman and Tversky (1984) find would select the “sure” thing when the problem was framed in terms of lives lost? a. 22% b. 42% c. 52% d. 72% ANSWER: a 127. In Montreal, Laura-Ann Petitto has done some important research on babbling with normal and deaf babies. What has she found? a. Deaf babies exhibited “manual babbling” with their hands in a manner similar to the verbal babbling of normal babies. b. Deaf babies do not exhibit babbling with their hands. c. Deaf babies exhibited “manual babbling” with their hands but their first signed words were not continuous with their babbling. d. Deaf babies babble orally the same as normal babies. ANSWER: a
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing 1. What are the two broad categories of psychological tests? a. mental ability and aptitude tests b. personality and achievement tests c. mental ability and personality tests d. aptitude and achievement tests ANSWER: c 2. Tim completed a test that is designed to determine whether he has the potential to be an airline pilot. What type of test did Tim complete? a. achievement test b. aptitude test c. projective test d. personality test ANSWER: b 3. Tim completed a test that is designed to determine whether his capacity for general learning and intellect is normal, or different from normal. What type of test did Tim complete? a. intelligence test b. aptitude test c. personality test d. achievement test ANSWER: a 4. Tim just completed a test designed to determine whether he has mastered his introductory chemistry class course material. What type of test did Tim complete? a. projective test b. aptitude test c. intelligence test d. achievement test ANSWER: d 5. Tim just completed a test designed to determine whether he is outgoing and sociable in a variety of different contexts. What type of test did Tim complete? a. personality tests b. achievement tests c. aptitude tests d. mental ability tests ANSWER: a 6. What do we call a psychological test that is always presented, completed, and scored in the same way, no matter when or where it is being used? a. a standardized test b. a normed test c. a valid test d. a reliable test ANSWER: a 7. What are test norms? a. information about where a score on a test ranks in relation to other scores b. the measurement consistency of a test c. the percentage of people who score at or below the score one has obtained d. uniform procedures used in the administration and scoring of a test ANSWER: a 8. A group of Grade 6 students took a 100-word spelling test in order to qualify for the city-wide spelling bee. If a child needed to score in the top 20 percent of applicants to qualify, which one of the following students definitely qualified for the spelling bee? a. Connor, who placed at the 90th percentile Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing b. Barbara, who spelled 80 percent of the words correctly c. Aaron, who placed at the 15th percentile d. Della, who spelled 85 words correctly ANSWER: a 9. What does the reliability of a test refer to? a. the ability of a test to measure what it was designed to measure b. the numerical index that describes the degree of relationship between two variables c. the degree of consistency of a test d. the extent to which there is evidence that a test measures a particular hypothetical construct ANSWER: c 10. A group of people took a test, and then retook the test a month later. Most people got very similar scores each time. What term should you use to describe that test? a. accurate b. valid c. generalized d. reliable ANSWER: d 11. Which of the following would be a correlation coefficient that represents a test with high test-retest reliability? a. -0.92 b. -0.05 c. +0.05 d. +0.92 ANSWER: d 12. If a psychological test claims to test intelligence but is actually testing accumulated knowledge, which of the following is the problem with that test? a. reliability b. validity c. norms d. standardization ANSWER: b 13. If you want to know whether a test is useful for making accurate predictions about a person’s abilities or behaviours, what attribute of the test are you concerned with? a. validity b. accuracy c. reliability d. generalizability ANSWER: a 14. Which type of validity is evaluated with logic more than with statistics? a. criterion-related validity b. construct validity c. categorical validity d. content validity ANSWER: d 15. A test has been developed to measure aptitude for careers in the military. When it is implemented, it is found that the scores of people with long and successful careers in the military do not differ from those who perform poorly in the military. Which type of validity is flawed in this test? a. criterion-related validity b. content validity c. categorical validity d. construct validity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing ANSWER: a 16. If you were to develop a psychological test to measure an abstract personal quality such as intelligence or extraversion, which type of validity should you be most concerned with? a. category validity b. construct validity c. criterion-related validity d. content validity ANSWER: b 17. If you believe that “genius is the result of nature rather than nurture,” which theorist do you most agree with? a. Binet b. Gardner c. Galton d. Sternberg ANSWER: c 18. Who developed the first useful intelligence test? a. James Stanford and Alfred Binet b. Francis Galton and Charles Darwin c. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon d. Lewis Terman and Francis Galton ANSWER: c 19. What was the stated purpose of the first useful intelligence test? a. to identify gifted children b. to identify children who had the potential to be successful in college c. to evaluate the success of educational programs d. to identify children in need of special training ANSWER: d 20. Based on Galton’s perspective on intelligence, and the stated purpose of the Binet-Simon intelligence test, how would Galton have felt about that test? a. He may have felt the test was valid but would have rejected the rationale for its use. b. He may have felt that the test was invalid but would have admired its stated purpose. c. He would have felt that the test was valid and useful. d. He would have felt that the test was invalid, and therefore useless. ANSWER: a 21. If you are told that Philip displays the mental ability typical of an 11-year-old child, then which of the following will definitely be equal to 11? a. his mental age b. his chronological age c. his age d. his estimated age ANSWER: a 22. Who revised the original French intelligence test and renamed it the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale? a. Lewis Terman b. David Wechsler c. James Stanford d. Francis Galton ANSWER: a 23. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale originally calculated a child’s IQ by using which of the following formulas? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing a. mental age/chronological age × 10 c. chronological age/mental age × 100 ANSWER: b
b. mental age/chronological age × 100 d. chronological age/mental age × 10
24. If a child who is 10 years old has a mental age of 12, then what is the child’s IQ according to Terman’s formula? a. 80 b. 100 c. 120 d. 140 ANSWER: c 25. Kim is 10 years old and has a mental age of 8. What is Kim’s IQ according to Terman’s formula? a. 80 b. 90 c. 100 d. 120 ANSWER: a 26. Which scores are calculated separately in the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale? a. verbal IQ and performance IQ b. analytical IQ and practical IQ c. performance IQ and mathematical IQ d. verbal IQ and mathematical IQ ANSWER: a 27. According to the concept of g, what is the goal of research on intelligence? a. finding correlates of intelligence in terms of social or environmental influences b. determining the core ability that underlies all intelligence c. generating a model that contains the various causal mechanisms for intellect d. documenting the various styles of intelligence in the population ANSWER: b 28. Alister thinks very quickly, remembers things easily, and displays very fast reaction times to changing stimuli. What type of intelligence does this example illustrate? a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. divergent intelligence d. verbal intelligence ANSWER: a 29. If Maria is being tested for her memory capacity and speed of processing, what type of intelligence is being tested? a. practical intelligence b. fluid intelligence c. verbal intelligence d. crystallized intelligence ANSWER: b 30. If Marc is being tested for his ability to apply his knowledge to a new situation, what type of intelligence is being tested? a. practical intelligence b. verbal intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. fluid intelligence ANSWER: c 31. One section of questions on the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale requires test takers to arrange a series of pictures in a sequence that “tells a story.” Which component of IQ is calculated from these sorts of questions? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing a. analytical IQ c. practical IQ ANSWER: b
b. performance IQ d. verbal IQ
32. Many human traits, including intelligence, show a normal distribution. What does this mean? a. Most cases are near the edges of the distribution. b. Cases are equally frequent across the entire distribution. c. Most cases are near the middle of the distribution. d. Few cases are near the middle of the distribution. ANSWER: c 33. What do we call a symmetrical bell-shaped curve that represents the pattern in which many characteristics, including intelligence, are distributed? a. standard distribution b. typical distribution c. abnormal distribution d. normal distribution ANSWER: d 34. What is the mean and standard deviation of modern IQ tests? a. mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10 b. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 10 c. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15 d. mean of 500 and standard deviation of 100 ANSWER: c 35. Approximately what percentage of IQ scores fall between 85 and 115? a. 33 b. 50 c. 68 d. 95 ANSWER: c 36. Jen has an IQ of 107. How would you describe Jen’s intelligence? a. below average b. average c. high average d. superior ANSWER: b 37. You recently took the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale and just learned that your IQ is 100. What does this score mean? a. Your score is average. b. You are twice as intelligent as someone who has an IQ of 50. c. You answered 100 percent of the test questions correctly. d. You answered 100 of the test questions correctly. ANSWER: a 38. IQ tests produce consistent results when people take a retest. What, then, can be said about IQ tests? a. They are accurate. b. They are standardized. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing c. They are valid. ANSWER: d
d. They are reliable.
39. What do correlations between students’ IQ scores and their school grades suggest about IQ tests? a. They are a reasonably reliable method to predict school performance. b. They are not a valid method to predict school performance. c. They are a reasonably valid method to predict school performance. d. They are not a reliable method to predict school performance. ANSWER: c 40. Sternberg and his colleagues asked people to list examples of intelligent behaviour and came up with three basic categories of intelligence. What are the three categories? a. academic, social, and practical b. verbal, social, and interpersonal c. academic, practical, and interpersonal d. verbal, practical, and social ANSWER: d 41. Which of the following is more likely for people who score high on IQ tests compared to people who score low on IQ tests? a. low grades in school and low-status jobs b. low grades in school and high-status jobs c. high grades in school and low-status jobs d. high grades in school and high-status jobs ANSWER: d 42. Which statement best describes one criticism of the validity of IQ tests? a. IQ tests are not particularly valid for testing academic intellect but are valid for testing practical intelligence. b. IQ tests are valid for measuring practical intelligence, but not social intelligence. c. IQ tests are reasonably valid indexes of academic ability, but do not tap into other skills or traits that may be important for other forms of success. d. IQ tests reflect a focus on academic success but do not adequately test for predictors of academic success. ANSWER: c 43. How accurate are IQ scores for predicting the job performance of individuals within a particular profession? a. completely accurate b. moderately accurate c. accurate only for specific occupations d. highly inaccurate ANSWER: b 44. Which individual would you predict would be most likely to have a high-status occupation such as being a doctor or lawyer? a. Nicolas, who has an IQ of 90 b. Maureen, who has an IQ of 105 c. Pierre, who has an IQ of 115 d. Beryl, who has an IQ of 135 ANSWER: d 45. Which country is least likely to use IQ tests? a. Britain b. France c. United States d. China ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing 46. According to cross-cultural psychologist John Berry, why are IQ tests less popular in non-Western countries? a. Existing IQ tests do not translate well into the language and cognitive frameworks of other cultures. b. Although many Western corporations use IQ tests for personnel screening, this practice has not caught on in other countries. c. The tests have not been extensively marketed outside North America and Britain. d. The tests are not available in other languages. ANSWER: a 47. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of intellectual disability? a. caused by an organic condition b. deficiencies in adaptive skills c. beginning before the age of 18 d. sub-average general mental ability ANSWER: a 48. What must a child have in order to be diagnosed as intellectually disabled? a. deficiencies in adaptive skills such as self-care and social interactions b. evidence that there is no organic cause for any mental deficiencies c. an IQ score below 100 d. a verifiable brain injury ANSWER: a 49. Klara is mildly intellectually disabled. What would you expect of Klara? a. She will require assistance with speech development. b. She may generally be perceived as normal outside a school environment. c. She may require lifelong supervision in order to care for herself. d. She will do well in school until just before the end of high school, which is when difficulties will emerge. ANSWER: b 50. What is the largest category of intellectual disability? a. mild b. moderate c. profound d. severe ANSWER: a 51. Which statement best describes a child diagnosed as intellectually disabled as a result of Down syndrome? a. He or she has a metabolic disorder. b. He or she is from the lower socioeconomic classes. c. He or she has an extra chromosome. d. He or she has an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the skull. ANSWER: c 52. In what percentage of cases can diagnosticians currently determine an organic cause for intellectual disability? a. fewer than 15 percent b. fewer than 25 percent c. approximately 50 percent d. approximately 75 percent ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing 53. Which statement illustrates evidence that intellectual disability probably has environmental causes? a. Most individuals with mild intellectual disability are from lower socioeconomic classes which exposes them to unfavourable environments. b. Most individuals with profound intellectual disability are from higher socioeconomic classes. c. Most individuals in lower socioeconomic classes have IQs lower than 100. d. Most individuals with Down syndrome are from higher socioeconomic classes. ANSWER: a 54. What is the term for the syndrome in which individuals with below-average overall intellect have exceptional abilities in one or a few limited domains? a. profound giftedness b. savant syndrome c. fragile X syndrome d. selective intelligence ANSWER: b 55. What is the typical minimum IQ score required to qualify for a gifted program in schools? a. 100 b. 115 c. 130 d. 145 ANSWER: c 56. Which child is likely to be admitted to a school gifted program? a. Abby, who has very high scores on aptitude tests for creativity and field-independence b. Louis, who has an IQ score of 135 c. James, who has an IQ score that is one standard deviation above the mean d. Dina, who demonstrates exceptional grades in school ANSWER: b 57. Terman studied a large sample of children identified as gifted, beginning in 1921, and followed them for decades. Which stereotype was ruled out by Terman’s results? a. Gifted children exhibit better-than-average emotional stability. b. Gifted children exhibit better-than-average physical health. c. Gifted children are judged successful by conventional standards. d. Gifted children become adults who make genius-level contributions in their fields. ANSWER: d 58. According to research conducted by Winner and others, which factor predicts the likelihood that a gifted child will develop problems with personal adjustment, including social problems or mental instability? a. level of creativity b. gender c. stress levels d. degree of giftedness ANSWER: a 59. Which term is used to describe individuals who are highly intelligent, but may underperform in school for reasons other than intellect? a. masked eminence b. underachiever c. hidden gifted d. subgenius ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing 60. According to Joseph Renzulli, what are the three overlapping factors required for achieving “eminence” in one’s field? a. exceptional motivation, exceptional training, high levels of intelligence b. exceptional intelligence, exceptional support from family, exceptional creativity c. exceptional ability, exceptional commitment, exceptional creativity d. exceptional creativity, high levels of extraversion, high levels of practice ANSWER: c 61. What does it mean to say that a psychological test has been standardized? a. It refers to the policies of testing according to the Canadian Psychological Association. b. It is based on a sample and can be applied in most provinces. c. It refers to the quality of psychological tests. d. It refers to the uniform procedures used in the administration and scoring of a test. ANSWER: d 62. Which group should you study to get the best evidence about the role of genetic factors in intelligence? a. adopted children and their biological parents b. children raised in poverty, and middle-class children c. people born in different generations since the 1930s d. identical and fraternal twins ANSWER: d 63. Which type of twins show the strongest correlations between their IQ scores? a. identical twins reared together b. fraternal twins reared apart c. identical twins reared apart d. fraternal twins reared together ANSWER: a 64. Which type of pairs should have the lowest correlation between their IQ scores? a. adoptive siblings reared together b. identical twins reared apart c. a biological parent and child who lived together d. non-twin siblings reared apart ANSWER: d 65. What has been demonstrated by adoption studies comparing the intelligence of adopted children to their biological parents? a. There is a greater-than-chance similarity between them. b. Adopted children tend to be most similar to their adoptive parents. c. Adopted children tend to be very similar to their biological mothers. d. There are no consistent similarities between them. ANSWER: a 66. What is the term for an estimate of the proportion of trait variability in a population that is determined by variations in genetic inheritance? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing a. genetic range c. reaction range ANSWER: d
b. inheritability d. heritability ratio
67. A majority of experts agree that the heritability of intelligence is approximately 50 percent. What does this mean? a. Fifty percent of the difference in average intelligence between different ethnic groups is due to genetic inheritance. b. Fifty percent of a person’s intelligence is due to genetic inheritance. c. Fifty percent of the variability in intelligence in a population of individuals is due to variations in genetic inheritance. d. Fifty percent of a person’s intelligence is due to environmental factors. ANSWER: c 68. If a large research study measured the IQs of white middle-class American females and middle-class Japanese males, which of the following is most likely to be found regarding measures of heritability between the two groups? a. They would be different because heritability is calculated differently for males and females. b. They would be similar because heritability is similar for individuals of the same species. c. They would be different because heritability may vary from one group to another. d. They would be similar because heritability is similar for all individuals of the same social class. ANSWER: c 69. Convincing evidence for the role of environmental influences on intelligence is provided by studies that compare which groups? a. children and the biological parents who raised them b. adopted children to their biological parents c. adopted children to their adoptive parents d. identical twins reared together, and fraternal twins reared together ANSWER: c 70. Which piece of evidence, if it existed, would rule out environmental influences on intelligence? a. Fraternal twins have different IQs from one another. b. Adopted children have very different IQs from their adoptive parents. c. Identical twins always have identical IQs. d. Children with different diets also have different IQs. ANSWER: c 71. What tends to happen to the IQ scores of children raised in substandard environments? a. They change very little as the child gets older. b. They decrease as the child gets older. c. They increase as the child gets older. d. They decrease only after the child reaches adulthood. ANSWER: b 72. Which six-year-old child would be most likely to experience an increase in IQ over the next few years? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing a. Darius, who continues living with his loving middle-class biological parents b. Aron, who continues living in an understaffed orphanage c. Ceili, who was recently adopted from an understaffed orphanage by loving middle-class parents d. Bettina, who recently started living in an understaffed orphanage following the death of her parents ANSWER: c 73. What observation does the Flynn effect refer to? a. The IQ scores of children raised in substandard environments gradually decrease as the children get older. b. Heritability estimates of intelligence vary widely. c. The reaction range of intelligence is identical for the vast majority of the population. d. IQ test performance has been rising steadily in the industrialized world since the 1930s. ANSWER: d 74. Based on evidence about the Flynn effect, which of the following groups of IQ scores would you expect to have the highest average score? a. a sample from 1920 b. a sample from 1950 c. a sample from 1980 d. a sample from 2010 ANSWER: d 75. Trevor’s parents and siblings are all very intelligent. Unlike the rest of his family, Trevor was born during a war and his entire childhood he was deprived of safety, education, and often food. Trevor is much less intelligent than the rest of his family. Which of the following helps explain the difference in intelligence in this family? a. reaction range b. Flynn effect c. the concept of g d. drudge theory ANSWER: a 76. In regard to intelligence, what does reaction range refer to? a. the proportion of variability in IQ in a population that is due to genetic factors b. the genetically determined limits on IQ score for an individual c. the proportion of variability in IQ in a population that is due to environmental factors d. the environmentally determined limits on IQ score for an individual ANSWER: b 77. What determines where a person’s actual IQ score falls within the reaction range? a. environmental factors b. genetic factors c. both environmental and genetic factors d. neither environmental nor genetic factors ANSWER: a 78. Following the death of their parents ten years ago, identical twins Glenda and Brenda were placed in an understaffed orphanage. Brenda remained in the orphanage while Glenda was adopted by a loving middle-class couple. Which of the following would be least likely to occur? a. Glenda will have a higher IQ than Brenda. b. Brenda will have an IQ near the upper limit of her reaction range. c. Glenda and Brenda will have the same reaction range for intelligence. d. Glenda and Brenda will have IQs that differ by ten or more IQ points. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing ANSWER: b 79. Compared to the average IQ of white Americans, what is the average IQ for many of the larger minority groups in the United States (such as black, Native American, and Hispanic populations)? a. 1 to 3 points higher b. 3 to 15 points lower c. 15 to 25 points higher d. 25 to 30 points lower ANSWER: b 80. Which of the following was suggested by Arthur Jensen? a. Social class differences in IQ are largely due to genetic factors. b. Ethnic differences in IQ are largely due to genetic factors. c. Ethnic differences in IQ are largely due to environmental factors. d. Social class differences in IQ are largely due to environmental factors. ANSWER: b 81. Why do most researchers reject genetic explanations for ethnic differences in IQ scores? a. The topic of that research is insulting to individuals from visible minorities. b. The research is unethical and dangerous. c. Genetic explanations are based on flawed or weak logic. d. The participants in those studies were biased and skewed the results intentionally. ANSWER: c 82. What is wrong with using the concept of heritability of IQ to conclude that cultural differences in an average IQ reflect genetic differences between cultural groups? a. Heritability estimates have been demonstrated to be invalid. b. Heritability estimates are based comparisons of groups with equivalent environmental factors, so they cannot be used to compare groups that differ on environmental factors. c. Heritability estimates are valid only within a race, not between races. d. Even if heritability of intelligence is high, group differences could still be caused by environmental factors. ANSWER: d 83. Many researchers have noted that many of the larger minority groups in the United States (such as black, Native American, and Hispanic populations) are overrepresented in the lower class. As a consequence, how do those researchers recommend that we think about ethnic differences in IQ? a. as an interaction of governmental policies and regulations b. as an interaction of social class and genetic differences c. as the result of social class differences in experience d. as the result of genetic differences between ethnic groups ANSWER: c 84. Which of the following children would be most likely to have the highest upper limit of his or her reaction range for intelligence? a. an upper-class white child with an IQ of 100 b. a middle-class white child with an IQ of 100 c. a middle-class minority child with an IQ of 100 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing d. a lower-class minority child with an IQ of 100 ANSWER: a 85. Based on the concept of stereotype vulnerability, what would you expect of members of a stigmatized group (compared to members of a nonstigmatized group) when taking a standardized intelligence test? a. They would experience more anxiety. b. They would experience less anxiety. c. They would be less motivated. d. They would be more motivated. ANSWER: a 86. Which statement best describes deviation IQ scores? a. Raw IQ scores are translated into deviation IQ scores by way of percentiles within a normal distribution. b. Raw IQ scores are translated into deviation IQ scores by way of a sliding scale. c. Raw IQ scores are never translated into deviation IQ scores; the deviation IQ is calculated independently. d. Raw IQ scores are translated into deviation IQ scores by way of use of the standard deviation unit within a normal distribution. ANSWER: d 87. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), what does a person have to display to qualify for a classification of intellectual disability? a. an IQ of 75 or below and poor functioning in everyday living skills b. an IQ of 75 or below and adaptive functioning in everyday living skills c. an IQ of 70 or below and adaptive functioning in everyday living skills d. an IQ of 70 or below and poor functioning in everyday living skills ANSWER: d 88. What does it mean to say that someone has a lot of grey matter? a. The person has an inefficient brain. b. The person has a lot of axons. c. The person has a big brain. d. The person has a lot of dendrites. ANSWER: d 89. What does it mean to say that someone has a lot of white matter? a. The person has a big brain. b. The person has an inefficient brain. c. The person has a lot of dendrites. d. The person has a lot of axons. ANSWER: d 90. Based on evidence from longitudinal studies of gifted children, what can be stated about the relationship between intelligence and health? a. High IQ and good health are caused by common genetic mechanisms. b. High IQ and good health are independent factors that predict longevity. c. High IQ predicts greater overall health and longevity. d. High IQ predicts healthy behaviours. ANSWER: c 91. What did Terman find when he studied a group of gifted kids for several decades into adulthood? a. They tended to be above average in emotional adjustment, mental health, and social maturity. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing b. They tended to be below average in height, weight, strength, and social maturity. c. They tended to fit the stereotype of an intellectually gifted individual. d. They tended to be above average in height, weight, strength, physical health, emotional adjustment, mental health, and social maturity. ANSWER: d 92. What is factor analysis? a. a statistical procedure in which an experiment is conducted to determine the factors which contributed to the effects of the independent variable b. a statistical procedure in which correlations between two variables are analyzed to identify closely related clusters of variables c. a statistical procedure in which factors are analyzed for their potential impact on the independent variable before being selected for the study d. a statistical procedure in which correlations among many variables are analyzed to identify closely related clusters of variables ANSWER: d 93. What type of mental illness is observed in various studies on accomplished writers? a. dissociative disorders b. schizophrenia c. generalized anxiety disorder d. mood disorders ANSWER: d 94. According to Robert Sternberg, which aspect of intelligence would be highest in someone who does really well in school, but not necessarily high in someone who is a successful entrepreneur? a. experiential aspect b. analytical aspect c. practical aspect d. creative aspect ANSWER: b 95. Alex is one of those people who start a new job and figures out what is expected and how to succeed very quickly. He often doesn’t even have to be told how to get things done. What type of intelligence would Robert Sternberg say that Alex is using? a. analytical intelligence b. emotional intelligence c. creative intelligence d. practical intelligence ANSWER: d 96. Abed is a person who has big ideas, and other people are often amazed at his novel way of looking at the world. He seems to be able to see a problem from a variety of different perspectives. What type of intelligence would Robert Sternberg say that Abed is using? a. practical intelligence b. creative intelligence c. analytical intelligence d. emotional intelligence ANSWER: b 97. Aron has always found that school work came very easily to him. He is good at systematic problem-solving and has an excellent memory for facts as well as concepts. What type of intelligence would Robert Sternberg say that Aron is using? a. analytical intelligence b. creative intelligence c. emotional intelligence d. practical intelligence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing ANSWER: a 98. Which of Sternberg’s types of intelligence is most similar to Gardner’s description of logical and linguistic intelligences? a. analytical intelligence b. practical intelligence c. procedural intelligence d. creative intelligence ANSWER: a 99. Which of Gardner’s categories of intelligence would be most pronounced in someone who is a very successful taxi driver or delivery person? a. linguistic intelligence b. musical intelligence c. logical-mathematical intelligence d. spatial intelligence ANSWER: d 100. Who promoted a theory of multiple intelligences including a much broader definition of intelligence than logicalmathematical and linguistic abilities tested for in traditional IQ tests? a. Robert Sternberg b. David Wechsler c. Alfred Binet d. Howard Gardner ANSWER: d 101. According to Gardner’s view of intelligence, which type of intelligence would be pronounced in a highly successful salesperson? a. linguistic intelligence b. interpersonal intelligence c. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence d. intrapersonal intelligence ANSWER: b 102. According to Gardner’s view of intelligence, which type of intelligence would be pronounced in someone who was a particularly skilled bird-watcher or farmer? a. intrapersonal intelligence b. naturalist intelligence c. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence d. spatial intelligence ANSWER: b 103. Colin is able to remain calm under stressful situations, tends to understand how others are feeling, and is also able to communicate his feelings well to others. Which type of intelligence is reflected in Colin’s behaviour? a. analytical intelligence b. practical intelligence c. kinesthetic intelligence d. emotional intelligence ANSWER: d 104. Tara thinks of herself as easy-going and calm, but she often gets very irritable around exam time. She claims that other people become more annoying at those times, rather than recognizing that she might not handle small problems very well when she is under stress. Which type of intelligence does Tara seem to be lacking? a. emotional intelligence b. analytical intelligence c. interpersonal intelligence d. practical intelligence ANSWER: a 105. Which unifying theme in psychology does your text’s discussion of ethnic differences in average IQ reflect? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing a. Behaviour is shaped by cultural factors. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: a 106. Which unifying theme in psychology do the results of twin studies and adoption studies illustrate? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. ANSWER: c 107. Research by psychologists examining cultural differences in IQ and the suggested causes of these differences has, at times, been controversial largely because of the political and educational implications of the research. Which unifying theme in psychology does this statement reflect? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: c 108. What do we call the ability to generate ideas that are original, novel, and useful? a. insight b. intelligence c. reasoning d. creativity ANSWER: d 109. Marcus and his marketing team are brainstorming new ideas for an advertising campaign. They are writing down every single idea without stopping to think about whether those ideas are any good. Which type of thinking is illustrated by this example? a. convergent thinking b. engineered thinking c. volumetric thinking d. divergent thinking ANSWER: d 110. What are you doing if you are solving a problem using divergent thinking? a. making an explicit comparison between two alternatives b. trying to generate many possible answers or solutions c. systematically eliminating incorrect answers or solutions d. trying to narrow down a list of alternatives to a single correct answer or solution ANSWER: b 111. On what type of test would the question “How many uses can you think of for a paper clip?” most likely be found? a. an intelligence test b. a reasoning test c. a problem-solving test d. a creativity test Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing ANSWER: d 112. Which of the following best explains why creativity tests have limited value? a. Creativity may be specific to a particular domain, rather than being a general trait. b. Most tests treat creativity as a special trait, but it is a subset of intelligence. c. Most “tests” for creativity miss the point because creativity is intangible. d. Creativity tests measure only convergent thinking and ignore divergent thinking. ANSWER: a 113. What is the nature of the correlation between intelligence and creativity? a. strong positive correlation b. strong negative correlation c. modest positive correlation d. modest negative correlation ANSWER: c 114. Which of the following seems to be associated with profound creativity, based on Ludwig’s studies of the biographies of more than 1000 people who achieved creative success? a. mood disorders b. absent-mindedness c. obsessive-compulsive disorders d. psychotic disorders ANSWER: a 115. A lobby group argues that the government should not provide funding for companies that develop environmentally friendly technology, because there is no conclusive evidence that those technologies will help the environment. Which fallacy does this example illustrate? a. the appeal to knowledge fallacy b. the reification fallacy c. the information fallacy d. the appeal to ignorance fallacy ANSWER: d 116. If your roommate tries to convince you that the college cafeteria uses leftovers from students’ dinner trays to make stew for the next day’s lunch by arguing that he has never seen the leftovers actually thrown out, what argument is your roommate using? a. reification b. an appeal to ignorance c. logic d. an appeal to knowledge ANSWER: b 117. What do you call it when a hypothetical, abstract concept is given a name and then treated as though it were a concrete, tangible object? a. unification b. definition c. deification d. reification ANSWER: d 118. Which term refers to the degree to which the content of a test is representative of the domain it is supposed to cover? a. construct validity b. face validity c. criterion validity d. content validity ANSWER: d
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Chapter 9 - Intelligence and Psychological Testing 119. How do adoption studies provide evidence for the nature and/or nurture origin of intelligence? a. If the adoptive children are more like their biological parents, this lends support for the notion that intelligence is inherited. b. If the adoptive children are more like their adoptive parents, this lends support for the notion that intelligence is inherited. c. If the biological children are more like the adoptive parents, this lends support for the notion that intelligence is inherited. d. Adoption studies have no value in this type of research. ANSWER: a 120. Which group should you study to get the best evidence about the role of genetic factors in intelligence? a. adopted children and their biological parents b. children raised in poverty, and middle-class children c. people born in different generations since the 1930s d. identical and fraternal twins ANSWER: d 121. What is a fallacy? a. cognition that has not been tested through time and place b. an appeal to ignorance c. when someone does something out of character d. a mistake or error in the process of reasoning ANSWER: d 122. What is NOT one of the four components of emotional intelligence? a. ability to accurately perceive emotions in themselves and others b. ability to creatively think with their heart c. ability to understand and analyze their emotions d. ability to regulate emotions ANSWER: b
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion 1. What are motives? a. biological factors that influence ability b. needs, wants, interests, and desires that propel behaviour in certain directions c. social factors that promote success d. drives and incentives that make certain goals more interesting than others ANSWER: b 2. When you are engaging in goal-directed behaviour, what are you experiencing? a. an incentive b. drive reduction c. emotion d. motivation ANSWER: d 3. Which of the following is defined as an internal state of tension that motivates an organism to engage in activities that should reduce this tension? a. emotion b. motive c. drive d. incentive ANSWER: c 4. Damien went outside without his jacket on, and he is feeling very cold. His body temperature has started to drop as a result of the ambient temperature. As a result of this disruption to homeostasis, what should increase in strength? a. emotion b. incentive c. drive d. motive ANSWER: c 5. Damien went outside without his jacket on, and he is feeling very cold. His body temperature has started to drop as a result of the ambient temperature. What has been disrupted by the cold temperature? a. incentives b. motives c. homeostasis d. emotional regulation ANSWER: c 6. According to drive theory of motivation, if you drink water when you are thirsty, then what is the result of drinking? a. need reduction and physiological equilibrium b. drive reduction and physiological equilibrium c. drive production and an incentive d. need production and an incentive ANSWER: b 7. Which of the following is defined as an external goal that has the capacity to motivate behaviour? a. motive b. drive c. need d. incentive ANSWER: d 8. What could you call a promise of a bonus of $100 for completing a work assignment before a deadline? a. a reward b. an incentive c. a motive d. drive reduction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion ANSWER: b 9. According to the expectancy-value model of motivation, which individual is likely to be most motivated to study for an upcoming exam? a. Ashley, who usually gets good grades, for an exam worth 40 percent of her grade b. Ben, who usually gets good grades, for an exam worth 10 percent of his grade c. Cam, who usually gets poor grades, for an exam worth 40 percent of his grade d. Dee, who usually gets poor grades, for an exam worth 10 percent of her grade ANSWER: a 10. According to the expectancy-value model of motivation, which individual is likely to be most motivated to apply for a scholarship? a. Evan, who has good grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $4000. b. Fred, who has good grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $500. c. Gina, who has poor grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $4000. d. Hal, who has poor grades, can apply for a scholarship worth $500. ANSWER: a 11. According to evolutionary theories of motivation, what is the result of motivated behaviour? a. restored homeostasis b. maximized reproductive success c. reduced biological needs d. reduced incentives ANSWER: b 12. Where in the brain would a lesion result in dramatic increases in weight? a. hippocampus b. ventromedial hypothalamus c. central gyrus d. dorsal amygdala ANSWER: b 13. Ray tends to be involved in everything! He belongs to a variety of clubs and he spends a lot of time with friends and colleagues. He really wants to get along with people and he seeks out the opinions and approval of those around him. Which motive does Ray’s behaviour represent? a. nurturance motive b. affiliation motive c. order motive d. autonomy motive ANSWER: b 14. What differs between the perspective of evolutionary theorists and many other motivation theorists regarding the nature of social motives? a. Most motivation theorists lump all motives together and don’t distinguish between biological and social motives. b. Most motivation theorists consider social motives to be innate, rather than learned. c. Evolutionary theorists explain social and biological motives in terms of their adaptive value. d. Evolutionary theorists argue that biological motives are more important than social motives. ANSWER: c 15. Which of the following is secreted by an empty stomach to cause stomach contractions and promote hunger? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion a. insulin c. CCK ANSWER: d
b. leptin d. ghrelin
16. Which hormone allows the cells in your body to extract glucose from your blood? a. insulin b. leptin c. CCK d. ghrelin ANSWER: a 17. Of the brain structures listed below, which one do scientists currently believe plays a larger role than the other structures in the modulation of hunger? a. arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus b. ventromedial hypothalamus c. paraventricular hypothalamus d. lateral hypothalamus ANSWER: a 18. According to contemporary theories of hunger, what is the main focus of research on the hypothalamus? a. anatomical centres b. destruction c. neural circuits d. stimulation ANSWER: c 19. William’s fat cells throughout his body have produced high levels of leptin which are now in his bloodstream. What is William most likely to report? a. He feels happy. b. He does not feel hungry. c. He feels angry. d. He feels hungry. ANSWER: b 20. After food is consumed, what information is transmitted to the brain by the vagus nerve? a. relative water content b. stretching of the stomach wall c. the nutrient content of the food d. glucose levels ANSWER: b 21. Which of the following is a hormone produced by the upper intestines that tends to diminish feelings of hunger? a. CCK b. glucose c. insulin d. leptin ANSWER: a 22. Which of the following is a hormone produced by fat cells that tends to diminish feelings of hunger when at high levels? a. insulin b. glucose c. leptin d. ghrelin ANSWER: c 23. According to incentive models of hunger, are people likely to eat less or more when they eat at a buffet with an abundance of diverse foods to select from? a. more, independent of gender b. less, independent of gender Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion c. more but only if they are male ANSWER: a
d. more but only if they are female
24. Greta is concerned that she’ll run out of snacks at her party. Which strategy should Greta use to cause people to eat a bit less of the snacks? a. Put many different varieties of snacks out at once. b. Only put snacks down in front of groups, rather than individuals. c. Combine several types of snacks in a single bowl. d. Put the snacks in small bowls rather than large bowls. ANSWER: d 25. If you were to test the preferences of a newborn infant, which flavour would be most preferred? a. bland b. high fat c. sweet d. salty ANSWER: c 26. Which measure do many experts today prefer to use to assess obesity? a. weight b. percent body fat c. body mass index d. waist-to-hip ratio ANSWER: c 27. Dave has a body mass index of 24. Which category describes Dave? a. underweight b. normal weight c. overweight d. obese ANSWER: b 28. Dan has a body mass index of 31. Which category describes Dan? a. underweight b. normal weight c. overweight d. obese ANSWER: d 29. Denise has a body mass index of 25. Which category describes Denise? a. underweight b. normal weight c. overweight d. obese ANSWER: c 30. What approximate percentage of the Canadian population is categorized as obese? a. less than 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. over 20 percent ANSWER: d 31. Dr. Mak suggests that when food is readily available, people tend to overeat rather than show restraint. He also states that humans don’t have a good mechanism for determining how much food is “enough” and instead we tend to eat until we are uncomfortable rather than until we eat enough to sustain our immediate needs. Which approach is Dr. Mak’s view most consistent with? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion a. evolutionary approach c. environmental cues approach ANSWER: a
b. drive-reduction approach d. biological approach
32. Which pair of individuals is expected to be most similar in body mass index? a. identical twins reared apart b. an adopted child and the adoptive parent c. a husband and wife d. fraternal twins reared together ANSWER: a 33. Kathy has lost 12 kilograms recently through dieting. Which theory suggests that she will have the greatest difficulty keeping the weight off because her metabolism has decreased to maintain the fat stores in her body? a. set-point theory b. dietary restraint theory c. evolutionary theory d. settling-point theory ANSWER: a 34. According to Statistics Canada (2015), which statements best reflects the activity level of children in Canada? a. Most school-aged children are involved in organized sports. b. Most school-aged children are meeting Canadian physical activity guidelines. c. Males are more vulnerable to inactivity than females. d. Canadian kids are spending two-thirds of their waking hours being sedentary. ANSWER: d 35. Bob is overweight and a chronic dieter. According to the dietary restraint proposal, how is Bob likely to be characterized? a. a restrained eater b. a variable set-point individual c. a fixed set-point individual d. physically inactive ANSWER: a 36. Which tendency seems to characterize the key problem with restrained eaters? a. Their perceptions of their own bodies are very distorted and exaggerated. b. They are likely to be hospitalized as a result of avoiding food. c. They tend to think of food related behaviour as either good or bad, with nothing in between. d. They don’t perceive the incentive cues associated with food. ANSWER: c 37. What is a refractory period? a. a time before orgasm during which the individual is unresponsive to stimulation b. a time following orgasm during which the individual is unresponsive to further stimulation c. a time when sexual arousal reaches its peak intensity and is discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsate through the pelvic area d. a time following orgasm when blood vessels become engorged ANSWER: b 38. Which statement best reflects the gender disparities observed in regard to a willingness to engage in casual sex? a. Females are more likely to agree to casual sex than males. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion b. Males are more likely to agree to casual sex than females. c. Females are no more or less likely to agree to casual sex than males. d. There is insufficient data on this subject to draw conclusions. ANSWER: b 39. What was the topic of ground-breaking research conducted by Masters and Johnson? a. the physiology of the human sexual response b. the psychology of the human sexual response c. sexual preferences d. sexual orientation ANSWER: a 40. During which phase of the human sexual response cycle would you expect to find both increases and decreases in vaginal lubrication? a. orgasm b. excitement c. resolution d. plateau ANSWER: d 41. Ted is experiencing an erection as a result of sexual arousal. Which mechanism causes Ted’s erection? a. vasocongestion b. muscular tension c. decreased blood pressure d. refraction ANSWER: a 42. Pat’s sexual arousal just reached its peak intensity and was discharged in a series of muscular contractions that pulsated through the pelvic area. What phase of the human sexual response did Pat just experience? a. plateau b. pinnacle c. resolution d. orgasm ANSWER: d 43. During which phase of the human sexual response are male and female differences in response most pronounced? a. orgasm phase b. resolution -phase c. excitement phase d. plateau phase ANSWER: a 44. Which individual would experience a relatively slow or gradual reduction in sexual tension during the resolution phase of the human sexual response? a. a relatively inexperienced individual b. an individual who did not experience an orgasm c. a woman d. a man ANSWER: b 45. What is the period of time following orgasm during which males are highly unresponsive to further stimulation? a. passive phase b. recovery period c. refractory period d. plateau phase Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion ANSWER: c 46. PsychDate is a new online dating website that allows psychology majors to find and date other psychology majors. On this website, you have the opportunity to view a variety of different profiles and pictures of people you may wish to date. You may also send and receive messages with other users. Based on parental investment theory, what should you predict about the behaviour of female users of the website? a. They will be choosier than males about who they are willing to respond to. b. They will send more flirtatious messages than males do. c. They will prefer choosing multiple dates rather than trying to find one ideal date. d. They will be more focused on the appearance of potential dates than on other characteristics. ANSWER: a 47. PsychDate is a new online dating website that allows psychology majors to find and date other psychology majors. On this website, you have the opportunity to view a variety of different profiles and pictures of people you may wish to date. You may also send and receive messages with other users. Based on parental investment theory, what should you predict about the behaviour of male users of the website? a. They will be choosier than females about who they are willing to respond to. b. They will be more focused on the appearance of potential dates, before other characteristics. c. They will prefer choosing one ideal date rather than trying to find one multiple dates. d. They will be less likely to respond to messages, compared to females. ANSWER: b 48. According to parental investment theory, how can human males maximize their reproductive potential? a. actively contributing to the care of their offspring b. being highly selective in mating c. mating with as many females as possible d. seeking partners who have strength and agility ANSWER: c 49. Which of the following is NOT suggested by parental investment theory? a. Males and females may develop different mating strategies. b. Human females can optimize their reproductive potential by mating with as many males as possible. c. Human males compete with other males for the “commodity” of reproductive opportunities. d. Human males are required to invest little in the production of offspring. ANSWER: b 50. According to evolutionary theory, what is more valued in a potential mate by men, rather than women? a. ambition b. youthfulness c. intelligence d. social status ANSWER: b 51. According to parental investment theory, what should women place more emphasis on when choosing a potential mate, compared to men? a. height b. attractiveness c. youthfulness d. social status Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion ANSWER: d 52. In Buss’s study on cross-cultural sex differences in human mate selection, which sex difference was consistently reported? a. Males place a higher value on partners’ social status. b. Males place a higher value on partners’ ambition. c. Males place a higher value on partners’ physical appearance. d. Males place a higher value on partners’ kindness. ANSWER: c 53. In Buss’s study on sex differences in human mate selection, what was consistent across cultures? a. the value women place on a man’s physical attractiveness b. the value placed on female chastity (or lack of previous sexual intercourse) c. the value women place on a man’s social status and financial prospects d. the value placed on kindness, dependability, and emotional stability ANSWER: c 54. According to Baumeister and Leary (1995), “human beings have a pervasive need to form and maintain at least a minimum quantity of lasting, positive, and significant interpersonal relationships.” What do they call this hypothesis? a. belongingness hypothesis b. bonding hypothesis c. attachment hypothesis d. affiliation hypothesis ANSWER: a 55. Penny was given a psychological test when she attended her appointment at the health clinic. The administrator asked Penny to look at an ambiguous picture of a man working at a desk and a woman seated in a chair staring off into space. She was then asked to write a story about what was happening in the scene and how the characters were feeling. What kind of test was administered? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory b. Thematic Apperception Test c. Rorschach Projective Test d. Personal Orientation Inventory ANSWER: b 56. According to research, which statement best reflects the accuracy of the polygraph in detecting lies? a. not at all accurate b. accuracy has been exaggerated c. relatively accurate d. accurate 90% of the time ANSWER: b 57. According to facial feedback hypothesis, what physical process leads to one’s conscious experience of emotions? a. restored homeostasis b. muscular feedback from one’s own facial expressions c. vascular feedback from one’s own facial expressions d. muscular feedback from one’s perception of the facial expressions of the people we are interacting with ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion 58. What would you expect of someone with a strong affiliation motive? a. joining a lot of clubs b. gossiping about others online c. needing “alone time” after a busy day d. high sex drive ANSWER: a 59. Which areas of the brain are activated when someone has been rejected or ostracized? a. areas associated with planning b. areas associated with language and audition c. areas that are dense with mirror neurons d. areas associated with pain perception ANSWER: d 60. If you ask most people what leads to happiness, they will likely tell you money, children, good health, or attractiveness. Does the research support this common-sense approach to happiness? a. Empirical research supports these assertions. b. Empirical research does not support these assertions. c. There is not enough research on this subject matter to make conclusions. d. The only one of these elements which has been supported by research data is that having children will make people happier. ANSWER: b 61. Which term is defined as a person’s preference for emotional and sexual relationships with individuals of the same, the other, or either sex? a. gender orientation b. gender preference c. sexual orientation d. sexuality ANSWER: c 62. Which pattern characterizes the distinction between heterosexual and homosexual orientations? a. They are each midpoints on their own scales, and cannot be directly compared. b. They have no clear distinguishing characteristics other than self-report. c. They are endpoints on a continuum, with intermediate orientations in between. d. They are mutually exclusive categories, with clear boundaries. ANSWER: c 63. What is the orientation of an individual who prefers and seeks emotional and sexual relationships with members of the opposite sex? a. homosexual b. unisexual c. heterosexual d. bisexual ANSWER: c 64. Approximately what percentage of the Canadian population self-report as homosexual? a. 1–5 percent b. 5–10 percent c. 10–15 percent d. 20–25 percent ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion 65. Which theory has been supported by research concerning the origins of sexual orientation? a. behavioural theory b. cognitive theory c. psychoanalytic theory d. biological theory ANSWER: d 66. If you know a man who has a homosexual orientation, what could you reasonably predict about him? a. He has been attracted only to members of the same sex. b. He has had awareness of the orientation since childhood. c. His pathway to becoming a homosexual is very similar to that of a female who is homosexual. d. His circulating hormone levels differ from someone else of the same sex. ANSWER: b 67. If Ted is a gay man, then of the following individuals, who is most likely to also be gay? a. Ted’s uncle Alan b. Ted’s adoptive brother Bob c. Ted’s fraternal twin brother Chuck d. Ted’s identical twin brother Don ANSWER: d 68. Which statement does NOT accurately describe female homosexuality? a. Lesbian women are more likely to have a stable orientation across their life span, compared to gay men. b. Lesbian women are less likely than gay men to trace their homosexuality back to their childhood. c. The pathways to homosexuality appear to be somewhat different for females compared to males. d. There is an increased rate of homosexuality among women exposed to high levels of androgen prenatally. ANSWER: b 69. Which motive is defined as the need to master difficult challenges, outperform others, and meet high standards of excellence? a. mastery motive b. affiliation motive c. achievement motive d. autonomy motive ANSWER: c 70. Craig has a desire to excel. Which of the following would also be said of Craig? a. He is high in mastery motivation. b. He is more likely to be talented than the average person. c. He is more likely to be depressed than the average person. d. He is high in achievement motivation. ANSWER: d 71. Because Pietro is high in his need for achievement, which characteristic is Pietro least likely to exhibit? a. a desire to help others reach their goals b. a desire to excel c. a desire to master difficult challenges d. a desire to outperform others ANSWER: c 72. After viewing a picture of a boy batting in a baseball game, which story would an individual high in achievement motivation be most likely to describe in a projective test? a. The boy hits a home run to win the game. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion b. They boy strikes out and is yelled at by his coach. c. The boy is hit in the head by a pitch and suffers a concussion. d. The boy argues with the umpire over a called strike. ANSWER: a 73. After viewing a picture of a boy batting in a baseball game, what would an individual high in affiliation motivation be most likely to describe in a projective test? a. The boy hits a home run to win the game. b. The boy is playing on a summer league team with his best friends from his school. c. The boy is hit in the head by a pitch and suffers a concussion. d. The boy is nervous because he struck out at the last game. ANSWER: b 74. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of people high in achievement motivation? a. a tendency to work hard on tasks b. a tendency to delay gratification in order to pursue long-term goals c. a tendency to respond poorly to negative feedback d. a tendency to be persistent on tasks ANSWER: c 75. When selecting courses for the next year of school, Andrea scheduled all of her required courses and was left with one spot open for an elective course. If Andrea scores high in achievement motivation, which course would Andrea be most likely to select? a. a course with very high expectations b. a course with moderate expectations c. a course that is rumoured to have very low average grades d. a course that is graded on a pass/fail basis ANSWER: b 76. What are the two primary situational factors that influence achievement behaviour? a. the incentive value of success and the individual’s achievement motivation b. the probability of success and probability of failure c. the probability of success and the individual’s achievement motivation d. the probability of success and incentive value of success ANSWER: d 77. Which pattern reflects the relationship between task difficulty and satisfaction, for people with high achievement motivation? a. It is a negative correlation. b. They are independent features of the task. c. It is a positive correlation. d. It is a causal relationship. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion 78. Which pattern reflects the overall relationship between emotions and levels of motivation? a. It is a bidirectional relationship, in that motivation influences emotions and emotions also affect motivation. b. Motivation leads to changes in emotion, but not the other way around. c. They are independent experiences of the same event having no influence on each other. d. Emotions lead to changes in motivation, but not the other way around. ANSWER: a 79. Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of emotion? a. behavioural component b. perceptual component c. cognitive component d. physiological component ANSWER: b 80. Which component of emotion includes the subjective conscious experience of an emotion? a. cognitive component b. behavioural component c. perceptual component d. physiological component ANSWER: a 81. One individual may experience an airplane flight as an anxiety-arousing situation while another individual may experience an airplane flight as a routine event. What does this reflect about emotion? a. Emotion involves bodily arousal or a physiological component. b. Emotion includes an overt response or a behavioural component. c. Emotion includes an objective conscious experience or cognitive component. d. Emotion involves a subjective conscious experience or cognitive component. ANSWER: d 82. As Estella is watching the climax of a horror movie, all at once she is frightened, nervous, and excited. Which component of emotion does her response illustrate? a. cognitive component b. physiological component c. behavioural component d. perceptual component ANSWER: a 83. Which component of emotion includes autonomic arousal? a. cognitive component b. behavioural component c. physiological component d. perceptual component ANSWER: c 84. What is directly related to the physiological component of emotional experience? a. the cortex b. autonomic nervous system c. the cerebellum d. somatic nervous system ANSWER: b 85. As Rowena is watching the climax of a horror movie, she gets goose bumps, her heart starts pounding, and her breathing becomes more rapid. Which component of emotion is reflected in her response? a. physiological component b. behavioural component c. perceptual component d. cognitive component Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion ANSWER: a 86. Which of the following is NOT associated with autonomic arousal? a. dilation of pupils b. increased digestion c. increased perspiration d. increased heart rate ANSWER: b 87. Which of the following is a device that monitors key indicators of autonomic arousal such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration rate, and galvanic skin response? a. a sonograph b. a polygraph c. an electrocardiograph (EKG) d. an electroencephalograph (EEG) ANSWER: b 88. Which of the following would NOT be monitored by a polygraph? a. dilation of the pupils b. blood pressure c. galvanic skin response (GSR) d. respiration rate ANSWER: a 89. The thalamus simultaneously transmits information capable of eliciting emotion to two areas of the brain. Which two are they? a. hypothalamus and cerebellum b. amygdala and cerebellum c. amygdala and cerebral cortex d. hypothalamus and cerebral cortex ANSWER: c 90. A rapid-response pathway that quickly results in physiological responses associated with emotion begins with the thalamus. Where does it go from there? a. medulla b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: b 91. Which statement best describes the relationship between money and happiness? a. People tend to be happier spending money on themselves than on others. b. People tend to be happier spending money on others than on themselves. c. There is a negative correlation between income and subjective feelings of happiness. d. Living in poverty can lead to unhappiness. ANSWER: b 92. Which component of emotion is associated with body language? a. perceptual component b. physiological component c. cognitive component d. behavioural component ANSWER: d 93. As Calli is watching the climax of a horror movie, she grasps the arms of her chair, gasps, and closes her eyes. Which component of emotion is reflected in her response? a. physiological component b. perceptual component Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion c. cognitive component ANSWER: d
d. behavioural component
94. If you and a person in another country were both looking at the same series of photographs, which emotion would you both be most likely to correctly identify? a. embarrassment b. shame c. disgust d. contempt ANSWER: c 95. Which group includes emotions that people are generally successful in identifying in photographs? a. sadness, anger, remorse b. happiness, love, surprise c. anger, fear, disgust d. disappointment, sadness, fear ANSWER: c 96. Which emotion would people from different countries be least likely to agree on, when trying to identify emotions in photographs? a. disgust b. sadness c. surprise d. disappointment ANSWER: d 97. What is suggested by the facial-feedback hypothesis? a. Facial muscles send signals to the brain that help the brain recognize the emotion that one is experiencing. b. After experiencing an emotion, the brain transmits signals that result in the facial muscles “matching” the emotion. c. Feedback from another person’s facial expression allows individuals to correctly label emotions. d. All cultures have identical facial expressions that indicate specific emotional states. ANSWER: a 98. What is the likely consequence if you go to a party and force yourself to smile even though you are feeling a little depressed? a. You will actually feel a little happier. b. You will continue to feel depressed. c. You will fool everyone at the party except yourself. d. You will feel more depressed later. ANSWER: a 99. Jamie is playing the role of a depressed elderly woman in the school play. She frowns, slumps her shoulders, and sighs and moans, “Woe is me” continually at play practice. According to the facial-feedback hypothesis, what will Jamie feel after practice? a. happier than she typically feels b. satisfied c. sadder than she typically feels d. excited ANSWER: c 100. What provides the strongest support that facial expressions are innate expressions of emotional experience? a. Facial expressions are similar across cultures. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion b. Facial expressions are identical between blind and sighted individuals. c. Facial expressions remain fairly constant throughout the lifespan. d. Facial expressions are identical between the sexes. ANSWER: b 101. Which of the following differs most across cultures? a. how individuals categorize or label specific emotions b. how individuals experience autonomic arousal c. how individuals use cognitive appraisal of a situation to determine which emotion is being experienced d. how individuals use facial cues to identify basic emotions ANSWER: a 102. Which component of emotion is reflected in the cultural norms known as display rules? a. perceptual component b. physiological component c. behavioural component d. cognitive component ANSWER: c 103. Japanese society encourages masking emotions such as anger and sadness by exhibiting polite smiling or a neutral expression. What are these sorts of cultural norms called? a. rules of engagement b. rules of conduct c. display rules d. rules of polite society ANSWER: c 104. According to the James-Lange theory, when does the conscious experience of emotion occur? a. independently of autonomic arousal b. simultaneously with autonomic arousal c. before autonomic arousal d. after autonomic arousal ANSWER: d 105. Which theory of emotion proposes that the conscious experience of emotion results from one’s perception of autonomic arousal? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. facial-feedback theory d. common sense theory ANSWER: a 106. Which theory of emotion proposes that different patterns of autonomic activation lead to the experience of different emotions? a. Schachter two-factor theory b. common sense theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. James-Lange theory ANSWER: d 107. Which theory of emotion is supported by evidence about the rapid-response pathway from the thalamus to the amygdala that triggers autonomic arousal before cortical areas receive input? a. facial-feedback theory b. James-Lange theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. common sense theory ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion 108. Walking in the forest, you see a bear. Your heart starts pounding, you run, and then you feel fear. Which theory of emotion is illustrated by this example? a. common sense theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. Schachter two-factor theory d. James-Lange theory ANSWER: d 109. While walking down the street, you are approached by a man with a gun who demands your money. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, what are you most likely to conclude? a. Because your heart is pounding and this is a dangerous situation, you are afraid. b. You are afraid because your heart is pounding. c. It is all right to be afraid in this situation. d. Your heart is pounding because you are afraid. ANSWER: b 110. According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, when does one’s conscious experience of emotion occur? a. independently of autonomic arousal b. after autonomic arousal c. before autonomic arousal d. simultaneously with autonomic arousal ANSWER: d 111. Walking through the forest you see a bear. All at once, your heart starts pounding, you feel fear, and you run. Which theory of emotion is illustrated by this example? a. Schachter two-factor theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. common-sense theory d. James-Lange theory ANSWER: b 112. Which theory of emotion proposes that physiological arousal and the cognitive experience of emotion occur simultaneously? a. Cannon-Bard theory b. common sense theory c. James-Lange theory d. Schachter two-factor theory ANSWER: a 113. Which theory of emotion proposes the conscious experience of emotion results from one’s cognitive interpretation of an event that caused autonomic arousal? a. facial-feedback theory b. James-Lange theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. Schachter two-factor theory ANSWER: d 114. Which theory of emotion suggest that one’s conscious experience of emotion occurs after autonomic arousal? a. James-Lange theory b. Cannon-Bard theory c. both Cannon-Bard and Schachter two-factor theories d. both James-Lange and Schachter two-factor theories ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion 115. According to Schachter, what do people rely on to label their emotional states? a. physiological cues b. external cues c. interpersonal cues d. internal cues ANSWER: b 116. Walking through the forest, you see a bear. Your heart starts pounding and you start to run away from this dangerous situation that caused you to be afraid. Which theory of emotion is illustrated by this example? a. Cannon-Bard theory b. James-Lange theory c. Schachter two-factor theory d. common sense theory ANSWER: c 117. While walking down the street you are approached by a man with a gun who demands your money. According to the Schachter two-factor theory of emotion, what are you most likely to conclude? a. Because your heart is pounding in this dangerous situation, you must be afraid. b. It is all right to be afraid in this situation. c. Your heart is pounding because you are afraid. d. You are afraid because your heart is pounding. ANSWER: a 118. Which emotional theory considers emotions to be largely innate reactions to certain stimuli? a. behavioural theory b. evolutionary theory c. psychoanalytic theory d. cognitive theory ANSWER: b 119. According to evolutionary theories of emotion, what accounts for the diversity of non-primary emotions that people experience? a. physiological differences among individuals b. the absence of specific primary emotions c. individual differences in the perception of events d. blends of and variations in intensity of primary emotions ANSWER: d 120. What would Plutchik’s theory of emotion suggest about the three emotions of apprehension, fear, and terror? a. They are three of the primary emotions. b. They are variations in intensity of one primary emotion. c. They are all secondary emotions. d. They are blends of primary emotions. ANSWER: b 121. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by learned preferences for foods and display rules concerning the expression of emotion? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion ANSWER: c 122. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected in the various approaches used in your text to explain motivation and emotion? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. ANSWER: b 123. Which factor shows the weakest relationship with happiness? a. money b. health c. social activity d. love and marriage ANSWER: a 124. Which factor shows the strongest relationship with happiness? a. money b. health c. parenthood d. job satisfaction ANSWER: d 125. What is the best predictor of an individual’s future happiness? a. physical health b. marital status c. past happiness d. financial status ANSWER: c 126. What is the approximate heritability estimate for the tendency toward happiness? a. .10 b. .20 c. .50 d. .70 ANSWER: c 127. When Patricia was a young student with very little money, whenever she had a chance to go out for a fancy dinner it would improve her mood for days. Now that she has a job where she must take clients out for fancy dinners on a regular basis, the dinners no longer provide her with any real joy. What is this change called? a. hedonic shift b. happiness shift c. hedonic adaptation d. happiness adaptation ANSWER: c 128. Tanya states that it is necessary to leave a light on at night because the thieves who are watching your house will only break in to houses that are not lit. Which term is used for Tanya’s statement that thieves are watching the house? a. conclusion b. assumption c. truth d. belief ANSWER: b 129. Which common fallacy occurs when a premise and conclusion are simply restatements of each other? a. circular reasoning b. slippery slope Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 10 - Motivation and Emotion c. false dichotomy ANSWER: a
d. non sequitur
130. “If we don’t ban Internet porn, the next thing you know, grade school children will be watching smut all day long in their school libraries.” Which fallacy is illustrated by this statement? a. slippery slope b. circular reasoning c. weak analogy d. false dichotomy ANSWER: a 131. Which theory accounts for Rachel’s desire for a caramel apple? a. drive theory b. set-point theory c. glucostatic theory d. incentive value ANSWER: d 132. What is subjective well-being? a. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their overall happiness and life satisfaction, as also supported by objective data b. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their overall happiness and life satisfaction, independent of objective data c. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their health and wellness, as also supported by objective data d. an individuals’ personal perceptions of their health and wellness as determined by an assessment by a health practitioner ANSWER: b 133. According to Deiner & Deiner (1996), how happy are people globally across the world? a. extremely unhappy b. fairly unhappy c. fairly happy d. extremely happy ANSWER: c 134. Which of the following is NOT predicted by higher levels of happiness? a. better social relationships b. higher IQ c. greater career satisfaction d. better physical health ANSWER: b 135. What kind of impact do positive (e.g., winning the lottery) and negative (e.g., becoming disabled after an accident) experiences in life have on one’s subjective well-being or level of happiness? a. very little, as personality seems to be a stronger factor in predicting levels of adjustment and well-being b. a lot, as these things determine if you will be happy or not c. no impact d. not enough research on this subject to draw conclusions ANSWER: a
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 1. During which stage of prenatal development would you call the developing organism a zygote? a. embryonic stage b. conceptive stage c. fetal stage d. germinal stage ANSWER: d 2. What is the name for the one-celled organism formed by the union of a sperm and an egg? a. embryo b. conception c. fetus d. zygote ANSWER: d 3. What is the sequence of phases during the approximately nine months of prenatal development? a. germinal, fetal, embryonic b. germinal, embryonic, fetal c. embryonic, germinal, fetal d. fertilization, germinal, fetal ANSWER: b 4. Which structure passes oxygen and nutrients from the mother to a developing embryo? a. pupa b. zygote c. amniotic sac d. placenta ANSWER: d 5. Both Emma and Molly are pregnant. Currently Emma’s pregnancy is in the shortest stage of prenatal development and Molly’s is in the longest stage. Which stages are their pregnancies in? a. Emma’s is germinal; Molly’s is fetal. b. Emma’s is germinal; Molly’s is embryonic. c. Emma’s is embryonic; Molly’s is fetal. d. Emma’s is fetal; Molly’s is germinal. ANSWER: a 6. When is the germinal stage of prenatal development? a. the first three months after conception b. the first two weeks after conception c. from two weeks until the end of the second month after conception d. from two months after conception through birth ANSWER: b 7. During which stage of development does the cell mass that develops from the fertilized egg implant itself in the uterine wall? a. embryonic stage b. fetal stage c. germinal stage d. fertilization stage ANSWER: c 8. When during prenatal development does the placenta begin to form? a. at conception b. germinal stage c. embryonic stage d. fetal stage ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 9. When is the embryonic stage of prenatal development? a. the first two weeks after conception b. the first three months after conception c. from two weeks until the end of the second month after conception d. from two months after conception through birth ANSWER: c 10. If the developing organism is about 2.5 cm long and has already developed most of the vital organs and bodily structures, which stage of prenatal development is just ending? a. embryonic stage b. germinal stage c. zygote stage d. fetal stage ANSWER: a 11. During which stage of prenatal development would the developing organism be most vulnerable to the effects of a toxin or other environmental influence? a. fetal stage b. embryonic stage c. germinal stage d. last two months ANSWER: b 12. Which stage of prenatal development lasts from two months after conception through birth? a. zygote stage b. fetal stage c. embryonic stage d. germinal stage ANSWER: b 13. Which of the following does NOT occur during the final three months of prenatal development? a. maturation of respiratory and digestive systems b. rapid multiplication of brain cells c. formation of a layer of fat under the skin d. beginning of sex organ development ANSWER: d 14. Carrie is pregnant, and her fetus has just reached the age of viability. What does this mean? a. Her fetus is fully developed. b. Her fetus is very likely to survive if born at this stage of development. c. She is at least 8 months pregnant. d. She is at least 22 weeks pregnant. ANSWER: d 15. What is the likelihood that a fetus will survive if born at 26 weeks of gestation? a. 0 percent b. 10–20 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent ANSWER: d 16. Joyce was severely malnourished during her pregnancy. Which risk is most likely for her child? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span a. complications at birth and neurological deficits b. heart defects and irritability c. malformations of the arms and legs d. attention deficit disorder and death from sudden infant death syndrome ANSWER: a 17. What is the term used to categorize alcohol, prescription drugs, environmental toxins, and other substances that can harm a developing embryo or fetus? a. tetrodotoxin b. teratogen c. semiochemical d. maladaptation ANSWER: b 18. If a child is born with a small head, heart defects, irritability, hyperactivity, and retarded mental and motor development, which of the following is most likely true? a. The child’s mother was severely malnourished during pregnancy. b. The child’s mother had a disease such as rubella, syphilis, or mumps during pregnancy. c. The child’s mother smoked excessively during pregnancy. d. The child’s mother consumed excessive amounts of alcohol during pregnancy. ANSWER: d 19. Which of the following, during gestation, has been linked to vulnerability to schizophrenia? a. exposure to folic acid b. maternal stress c. smoking d. malnutrition ANSWER: d 20. Which of the following is true of most prenatal dangers to the developing fetus? a. They are related to maternal nutrition. b. They are a problem only in developing countries. c. They are preventable. d. They are related to exposure to toxins. ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following early developmental factors has been associated with risk of heart disease in adulthood? a. low birth weight b. gestational diabetes c. maternal stress d. heroin exposure ANSWER: a 22. Which of the following is a teratogen? a. herbal tea b. white sugar c. endorphins d. stress ANSWER: d 23. Which of the following is NOT one of the main aspects of temperament outlined in your text? a. mood b. activity level Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span c. emotional reactivity ANSWER: d
d. intellect
24. Which type of study is most sensitive to developmental changes? a. cross-sectional b. naturalistic observation c. case study d. longitudinal ANSWER: d 25. What did Bowlby assert that adults are programmed by evolutionary forces to do in response to infants and small children? a. Think about them constantly. b. Protect them even if it means dying for them. c. Keep a distance from them so as to not become too attached. d. Be captivated by their behaviour and respond with warmth, love, and protection. ANSWER: d 26. What is considered to be a weakness of Erikson’s psychosocial theory? a. It does not depend enough on illustrative case studies. b. It provides an “idealized” description of “typical developmental patterns. c. It accounts for both continuity and transition in personality development. d. It generates a fair amount of research. ANSWER: b 27. Sophia is very worried about the development of her daughter, especially regarding major changes like rolling over, sitting up, and walking. Sophia has been given a list by her pediatrician indicating the median age at which children typically exhibit such abilities. Sophia’s daughter typically exhibits the various abilities approximately one month after the ages noted on the list. What should Sophia’s pediatrician tell her about her concerns? a. Her daughter is still developing at a rate that is within the range of normal. b. Her daughter may have some developmental disabilities. c. Her daughter may be slightly delayed, but so long as she develops each of the skills, it doesn’t matter if she matures a bit late. d. Her daughter is perfectly normal, because the milestones are estimated for males. ANSWER: a 28. In a culture where infants are carried everywhere, what would you predict in terms of the age at which children begin to walk in that culture? a. They will walk earlier than children in cultures where children are kept in the home. b. They will walk at the same average age that children in all cultures begin to walk. c. They will walk earlier than children in most cultures. d. They will walk later than children in cultures with greater motor freedom. ANSWER: d 29. Which term is defined as the characteristic mood, activity level, and emotional reactivity of an infant? a. temperament b. personality c. behavioural qualities d. attachment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span ANSWER: a 30. To determine whether early weaning has an influence on later personality, you design a study where you monitor 100 infants from the time they are born until they complete elementary school. What type of study is this? a. cross-sectional study b. experimental study c. naturalistic observation d. longitudinal study ANSWER: d 31. To determine whether a new teaching method is effective for children who struggle with math, you design a study where you implement the method with a group of six-year olds, a group of eight-year olds, and a group of ten-year olds. What type of study is this? a. naturalistic observation b. longitudinal study c. experimental study d. cross-sectional study ANSWER: d 32. You’re conducting a study to determine whether children can learn to use a new type of educational software on a touch-screen tablet computer. You try the software in a group of ten-year-olds and a group of eight-year-olds and are surprised to find that the younger children perform better with the new software. You then find out that the younger group had been exposed to touch-screen tablets in the first grade, but the technology wasn’t available when the older group had been in first grade. Which of the following effects has had an impact on your research results? a. cohort effect b. placebo effect c. inhibition d. bias ANSWER: a 33. According to Thomas and Chess’s research on infant temperament, which type of temperament is most common? a. anxious temperament b. difficult temperament c. easy temperament d. slow-to-warm-up temperament ANSWER: c 34. What type of temperament would you say that one-year-old Jasmina has if the only information you have concerning her is that she is wary or hesitant when having a new experience? a. a slow-to-warm-up temperament b. an easy temperament c. a difficult temperament d. an anxious temperament ANSWER: a 35. Ahlam is 10 years old and has serious emotional and behaviour problems that require counselling. Based on research conducted by Thomas and Chess, what type of temperament would Alham have been most likely to display in infancy? a. an easy temperament b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament c. an ambivalent temperament d. a difficult temperament ANSWER: d 36. Jerome Kagan’s research on temperament focused on children who displayed traits at opposite ends of a spectrum. What were these temperaments called? a. easy or difficult b. inhibited or uninhibited c. secure or anxious d. active or passive ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 37. Which term is defined as close, emotional bonds of affection that develop between infants and their caregivers? a. temperament b. disinhibition c. bonding d. attachment ANSWER: d 38. Alice is a generally happy baby and until recently she interacted very well with anyone who would come to visit. She didn’t mind being picked up or held by anyone, and she did not get upset if her mother left the room. Recently, however, she has been quite clingy with her mother and doesn’t want to be held by people who are not really familiar to her. Which of the following age ranges fits Alice’s behaviour? a. 2–4 months b. 6–8 months c. 9–11 months d. 12–15 months ANSWER: b 39. What has been consistently demonstrated in research on infant attachment? a. It is ambivalent in most mother-infant pairs. b. It is nearly instantaneous, and infants show a profound preference for their mothers within days of birth. c. It is not prominent during the early months of life, and during this time infants show little preference for their mothers. d. It is truly seen only between infants and mothers, not other caregivers. ANSWER: c 40. In Harlow’s studies of attachment in infant monkeys, which “mother” did the monkeys seek out when frightened or otherwise distressed? a. the foster-mother b. the cloth-covered mother c. the natural mother d. the feeding mother ANSWER: b 41. Based on the results of Harlow’s studies of attachment in infant monkeys, which of the following aspects of a caregiver seems to be more important for the development of attachment in primates? a. likelihood of punishment b. mere presence c. nutritional reward d. comfort ANSWER: d 42. How do evolutionary theorists view attachment styles? a. Only secure attachment is adaptive. b. Attachment style enhances survival and reproductive success. c. Attachment is a genetically determined trait that guides development. d. Avoidant attachment is maladaptive. ANSWER: b 43. One-year-old Beth will explore a room when her mother is present. She becomes upset when her mother leaves the room and is quickly calmed when her mother returns. Which type of attachment does Beth display? a. an anxious-ambivalent attachment b. an avoidant attachment c. a disorganized-disoriented attachment d. a secure attachment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span ANSWER: d 44. One-year-old Beth will explore a room when her mother is present. She becomes upset when her mother leaves the room and is quickly calmed when her mother returns. What is the term used for this type of methodology if Beth is in a study where this pattern is repeated several times, while a researcher records Beth’s response? a. avoidance procedure b. inhibition evaluation c. temperament test d. strange situation ANSWER: d 45. What type of attachment is associated with toddlers who exhibit little, if any, distress when their mothers leave the room? a. anxious-ambivalent attachment b. avoidant attachment c. especially strong attachment d. secure attachment ANSWER: b 46. Which type of attachment are infants more likely to exhibit when their mothers are inconsistent or insensitive in responding to their infants? a. separation attachment b. especially strong attachment c. anxious-ambivalent attachment d. secure attachment ANSWER: c 47. Which of the following tends to be exhibited by children who were securely attached as infants? a. gifted cognitive development b. difficulty learning how to share c. resistance to change d. high self-esteem ANSWER: d 48. According to the concept of “internal working models,” how does infant attachment influence later social behaviour? a. Secure attachment facilitates social bonds. b. Infants learn how relationships work and apply that pattern to future interactions. c. Attachment is genetically determined and pushes development in a particular direction. d. Early negative treatment of infants makes them shy and withdrawn. ANSWER: b 49. Which pattern of infant attachment is far more common in Japan than in the United States? a. secure attachment b. insecure attachment c. anxious-ambivalent attachment d. avoidant attachment ANSWER: c 50. Which of the following is consistent with a stage theory approach to child development? a. A child who is at one stage will be distinctly different from a child in a different stage. b. Children will reach all stages but may attain particular stages in any order. c. Children change very gradually and there are no clear transition points between stages. d. The age of a child is independent of the developmental stage that child is in. ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 51. What were Erik Erikson’s stages of development associated with? a. psychosocial crises b. cognitive development c. physical development d. moral development ANSWER: a 52. According to Erik Erikson, which crisis or developmental stage will an infant successfully resolve if the infant’s basic biological needs are met by others and sound attachments are formed during the first year of life? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. industry versus inferiority d. initiative versus guilt ANSWER: a 53. During Erik Erikson’s crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt, a child should gain a sense of self-sufficiency. At what age does this stage occur? a. 1–3 years of age b. 3–5 years of age c. 5–6 years of age d. 6–7 years of age ANSWER: a 54. Five-year-old Stefan gets along well with his parents and siblings, has self-confidence, and believes that he is a good person. Which crisis has Stefan recently resolved? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. industry versus inferiority c. initiative versus guilt d. trust versus mistrust ANSWER: c 55. During Erik Erikson’s crisis of industry versus inferiority, a child should learn to function well in the broader social structure of the neighbourhood and school. When does this stage occur? a. birth–1 year of age b. 1–3 years of age c. 3–6 years of age d. 6 years of age through puberty ANSWER: d 56. According to Erik Erikson’s theory, if an elementary school-age child does poorly in school, and does not get along well with classmates, what is she likely to develop a sense of? a. mistrust b. inferiority c. shame and doubt d. industry ANSWER: b 57. Typically, during which stage of cognitive development are individuals concerned with the crisis of trust versus mistrust? a. concrete operational stage b. preoperational stage c. sensorimotor stage d. formal operational stage ANSWER: c 58. Typically, during which stage of cognitive development are individuals concerned with the crisis of initiative versus guilt? a. preoperational stage b. concrete operational stage c. sensorimotor stage d. formal operational stage ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 59. Which of the following psychologists contributed significantly to our understanding of the cognitive development of children? a. Erik Erikson b. Sigmund Freud c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg ANSWER: c 60. According to Jean Piaget, what does assimilation involve? a. interpreting new experiences in terms of existing mental structures without changing them b. the gap between what a learner can accomplish alone and what the learner can achieve with guidance from more skilled partners c. the tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem, neglecting other important aspects d. changing existing mental structures to explain new experiences ANSWER: a 61. According to Jean Piaget, what does accommodation involve? a. interpreting new experiences in terms of existing mental structures without changing them b. the tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem, neglecting other important aspects c. the gap between what a learner can accomplish alone and what the learner can achieve with guidance from more skilled partners d. changing existing mental structures to explain new experiences ANSWER: d 62. What is the correct order or sequence of Jean Piaget’s stages? a. sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational b. preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor c. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational d. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational ANSWER: d 63. Which of Jean Piaget’s stages is associated with the period of cognitive development that lasts from approximately birth to age two? a. sensorimotor stage b. concrete operational stage c. preoperational stage d. formal operational stage ANSWER: a 64. According to Jean Piaget’s theory, when do children first show or develop object permanence? a. formal operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. preoperational stage d. concrete operational stage ANSWER: b 65. If a ball that a five-month-old infant is playing with rolls under a chair (and out of sight), the infant will not look for it. According to Piaget, why does this occur? a. The infant does not understand the concept of roll. b. The infant has not developed conservation. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span c. The infant has not developed object permanence. d. The infant has a short attention span. ANSWER: c 66. What is the duration of the preoperational stage of cognitive development? a. birth–age 2 b. ages 2–7 c. ages 7–11 d. age 11 onward ANSWER: b 67. Which of the following principles suggests that physical properties of substances, such as volume, number, and mass, remain constant despite changes in their shape or appearance? a. centration b. conservation c. egocentrism d. object permanence ANSWER: b 68. When Gavin’s mother made him a grilled-cheese sandwich for lunch, Gavin complained that he wanted two sandwiches because he was super-hungry. After his mother cut his sandwich in half, Gavin was satisfied that he would have enough to eat. Which stage of cognitive development is Gavin in? a. concrete operational stage b. preoperational stage c. formal operational stage d. sensorimotor stage ANSWER: b 69. Two short, fat glasses with the same amount of water are placed in front of a group of children. The children watch as water is poured from one short, fat glass into a tall, skinny glass. The children are then asked, “Does the tall, skinny glass have the same, more, or less water than the short, fat glass?” Which of the following types of problem does this illustrate? a. sensorimotor problem b. object permanence problem c. animism problem d. conservation problem ANSWER: d 70. Benny has a sister and a brother. When someone asks Benny how many brothers his sister has, Benny says that she has one brother (rather than correctly saying that she has two brothers, including Benny). What does this example illustrate? a. animism b. egocentrism c. abstract thought d. centration ANSWER: b 71. If a child says that the sun shines to keep him warm, what is the child exhibiting? a. conservation b. animism c. centration d. egocentrism ANSWER: d 72. What is the approximate duration of the concrete operational stage of cognitive development? a. birth–age 2 b. age 2–7 c. age 7–11 d. age 11 onward ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 73. During which stage of development do children first demonstrate a decline in egocentrism and a mastery of conservation? a. concrete operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. preoperational stage d. formal operational stage ANSWER: a 74. Two short, fat glasses with the same amount of water are placed in front of a group of children. The children watch as water is poured from one short, fat glass into a tall, skinny glass. The children are then asked, “Does the tall, skinny glass have the same, more, or less water than the short, fat glass?” At what stage of development would a child first be able to correctly answer that the glasses have equal amounts? a. sensorimotor stage b. preoperational stage c. concrete operational stage d. formal operational stage ANSWER: c 75. Gianni watches as a researcher placed five toy dogs and three toy cats on a table. When the researcher asks Gianni if there are more dogs or more animals, Gianni correctly answers more animals. Which of the following operations does Gianni seem to understand, based on this answer? a. centration b. conservation c. hierarchical classification d. object permanence ANSWER: c 76. Which stage of cognitive development lasts from approximately age 11 onward? a. concrete operational stage b. sensorimotor stage c. preoperational stage d. formal operational stage ANSWER: d 77. In what stage did Jean Piaget believe that children first become capable of hypothetical thinking? a. concrete operational stage b. formal operational stage c. preoperational stage d. sensorimotor stage ANSWER: b 78. Jamie is trying to build a dog house, and she is very systematic and careful about planning how each piece will fit together and in what order she should assemble everything. She’s never done this before but she has a logical plan to complete it. What stage of cognitive development has Jamie reached? a. formal operational stage b. preoperational stage c. concrete operational stage d. sensorimotor stage ANSWER: a 79. What has been demonstrated in more modern research examining Piaget’s cognitive stages? a. Children outside of Western cultures do not show evidence of progress through Piaget’s stages. b. Most children do not pass through the stages in the order that Piaget suggested. c. Children likely develop some cognitive skills much earlier than Piaget estimated. d. There is no evidence that children can be in more than one stage at a time. ANSWER: c 80. What is considered to be one weakness of Piaget’s stage theory? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span a. Piaget seems to have overestimated young children’s cognitive development. b. Children often simultaneously display patterns of thinking that are characteristic of several of Piaget’s stages. c. It accounts for continuity in personality development. d. It generates an enormous amount of research. ANSWER: b 81. Which of the following represents a key difference in Vygotsky’s theory of child development compared to Piagetian theory? a. emphasis on cognition b. emphasis on sex differences c. emphasis on social experiences d. emphasis on stages of development ANSWER: c 82. Abby is learning how to print her name. When she tries to do it herself, she can manage the first letter, and then she can’t complete any more. Her older sister comes along and helps her out by writing out the letters for Abby to copy. Abby finishes printing her name and runs off to show her Daddy. What term did Vygotsky use for the difference between what Abby could print on her own and what she could print when her sister helped her? a. scaffolding b. the zone of proximal development c. concrete operations d. formal operations ANSWER: b 83. Abby is learning how to print her name. When she tries to do it herself, she can manage the first letter, and then she can’t complete any more. Her older sister comes along and helps her out by writing out the letters for Abby to copy. Abby finishes printing her name and runs off to show her Daddy. What term did Vygotsky use for the help provided by Abby’s sister? a. the zone of proximal development b. formal operations c. concrete operations d. scaffolding ANSWER: d 84. Zack is an infant in a research study. The researchers have shown Zack a picture of the same toy over and over again, on a computer screen. What can you expect if Zack’s response to this procedure is typical? a. He will habituate to the presentation of the picture and will become distressed. b. He will dishabituate to the presentation of the picture and will become distressed. c. His heart and respiration rates will increase, and he will stop looking at the picture. d. His heart rate and respiration rates will decrease, and he will stop looking at the picture. ANSWER: d 85. In habituation-dishabituation studies examining infant cognitive abilities, how did researchers present the addition or subtraction “problems” to the infants? a. handing the infant objects one at a time b. by showing the infants groups of objects that are covered and uncovered by a screen c. by showing the infants objects on a table-top d. using mathematical statements of the problem (for example “5 + 5 = 10”) ANSWER: b 86. In habituation-dishabituation studies, what do infants do if they are presented with an addition problem that results in an incorrect outcome? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span a. They look for a shorter time. c. They frown or even cry. ANSWER: b
b. They look for a longer time. d. They smile.
87. Which pair of theoretical perspectives asserts that certain basic cognitive abilities are biologically built into, or prewired into, the neural makeup of humans? a. humanistic and evolutionary perspectives b. nativist and evolutionary perspectives c. humanistic and behavioural perspectives d. nativist and behavioural perspectives ANSWER: b 88. Kylie is three years old, and she just saw her mom put some money into a coffee can. If you were to ask Kylie what other people would think is in the coffee can, what would she say? a. “Money.” b. “Coffee.” c. “Coffee and money.” d. “I don’t know.” ANSWER: a 89. Xavier is five years old, and he just saw his mom put some money in a coffee can. If you were to ask Xavier what other people would think is in the coffee can, what would he say? a. “Money.” b. “Coffee.” c. “I don’t know.” d. “Coffee and money.” ANSWER: b 90. What is one piece of evidence that children’s understanding of the mind seems to change dramatically between the ages of three and four (on average)? a. They understand that others have desires and emotions. b. They develop object permanence. c. They develop conservation. d. They begin to understand that people can hold false beliefs. ANSWER: d 91. What did Lawrence Kohlberg place the most emphasis on when he presented moral dilemmas to individuals in order to evaluate their level of moral development? a. the level of confidence the individual had in his or her response b. whether the individual gave a “yes” or “no” response c. overt behaviours the individual shows when presented with similar dilemmas in real life d. the explanation the individual gave concerning the reason for his or her response ANSWER: d 92. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, a person who believes that Heinz should steal the drug so his sick wife can live and cook him dinner is reasoning at which level of moral development? a. the concrete level b. the preconventional level c. the postconventional level d. the conventional level ANSWER: b 93. Both Jason and Bradley believe that their dad should not drive over the speed limit. Jason does not want his dad to get Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span a speeding ticket, but Bradley believes that rules are rules and laws are laws and need to be obeyed. Which levels of moral development are the boys at? a. Jason is preconventional and Bradley is conventional. b. Both boys are conventional. c. Jason is preconventional and Bradley is postconventional. d. Jason is conventional and Bradley is postconventional. ANSWER: a 94. Ariana finds a wallet on the floor at the store. She decides to turn in the wallet at the lost-and-found because she believes her parents will be proud of her for being honest. Which level of moral development does Ariana’s reasoning reflect? a. the postconventional level b. the conventional level c. the concrete level d. the preconventional level ANSWER: b 95. At which level of moral development do individuals tend to use a personal code of ethics to guide their moral reasoning and behaviour? a. the concrete level b. the conventional level c. the postconventional level d. the preconventional level ANSWER: c 96. Which of the following reflects a criticism of Lawrence Kohlberg’s model based on issues of bias? a. The stages are based on values that develop throughout childhood. b. The stages are based on values associated with Eastern cultures. c. The final stage is too idealized for anyone to actually attain. d. The stages are based on masculine, not feminine, moral values. ANSWER: d 97. What is the typical difference in the age of onset for the adolescent growth spurt between males and females? a. two years earlier in females b. one year earlier in females c. one year later in females d. two years later in females ANSWER: a 98. Which of the following is a primary sex characteristic? a. breast growth in females b. facial hair in males c. growth of the penis d. wider hips in females ANSWER: c 99. What do we call the stage during which sexual functions reach maturity? a. the growth spurt b. pubescence c. puberty d. maturation ANSWER: c 100. The timing of puberty has changed over the past few generations. What does this trend likely reflect? a. an increase in pollution Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span b. improvements in nutrition and medical care c. increases in sexual activity at an earlier age, triggering earlier pubescence d. changes in genetically predisposed timing of puberty ANSWER: b 101. Which adolescents are most likely to feel subjective distress and emotional difficulties with the transition to adolescence? a. boys who mature early and girls who mature late b. boys and girls who mature late c. boys who mature late and girls who mature early d. boys and girls who mature early ANSWER: c 102. In which area of the brain does the greatest amount of myelinization and synaptic pruning occur during adolescence? a. motor cortex b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. prefrontal cortex ANSWER: d 103. Which of the following individuals is most likely to increase their level of risk-taking in the presence of their friends? a. a 5-year-old girl b. a 17-year-old boy c. a 24-year-old woman d. a 32-year-old man ANSWER: b 104. What is the estimated rate of depression for adolescents? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 20 percent d. 50 percent ANSWER: c 105. Which of the following groups has the highest rate of attempted suicides? a. adolescent males b. adult males c. adolescent females d. adult females ANSWER: c 106. What is considered to be one weakness of Kohlberg’s stage theory? a. Research has shown that people move through the stages of moral reasoning in the order Kohlberg proposed. b. It is usual for people to display more than one level of moral reasoning at a particular point in development and this mixing of stages is conceptually problematic. c. The theory is not reflective enough of individualistic ideology. d. The theory is applicable across cultures and genders. ANSWER: b 107. According to Erik Erikson’s theory, at what developmental stage are individuals faced with the psychosocial crisis of identity versus confusion? a. early adulthood b. elementary-school age c. middle adulthood d. adolescence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span ANSWER: d 108. Mark is trying to decide whether he should go to university or get a job right after he graduates from high school next year. He knows that he’s good at school work, but he doesn’t know what he wants to be or how to figure it out. What stage is Mark at according to Erik Erikson’s theory? a. postconventional reasoning b. formal operations c. identity versus confusion d. integrity versus despair ANSWER: c 109. What are the two dimensions James Marcia described that combine to yield four identity statuses? a. completion and crisis b. completion and confusion c. commitment and crisis d. commitment and confusion ANSWER: c 110. Robert does not have any idea about what he wants to do when he finishes school and “grows up.” Additionally, he does not feel in any hurry to decide since there is plenty of time for that later. Which of the following identity statuses is illustrated by this example? a. identity moratorium b. identity foreclosure c. identity diffusion d. identity achievement ANSWER: c 111. Jeremy’s father and two uncles are all dentists. Jeremy first decided he wanted to be a dentist when he spent afternoons at his father’s office as a young child. Jeremy has not considered any other potential careers. Which identity status is illustrated by this example? a. identity achievement b. identity moratorium c. identity foreclosure d. identity diffusion ANSWER: c 112. Which identity status would be experienced by a university student who is exploring different subjects and potential majors to help decide on a suitable career? a. identity achievement b. identity diffusion c. identity moratorium d. identity foreclosure ANSWER: c 113. After considering a number of possible majors and careers, Christi has decided to major in business management and work in advertising. Which identity status is illustrated by this example? a. identity moratorium b. identity achievement c. identity foreclosure d. identity diffusion ANSWER: b 114. What are the two most “mature” identity statuses? a. moratorium and foreclosure b. diffusion and foreclosure c. moratorium and achievement d. diffusion and achievement ANSWER: c 115. According to Arnett, at which of the following age ranges do a majority of people first indicate that they feel “grown Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span up”? a. 12–17 c. 26–36 ANSWER: c
b. 18–25 d. 36–55
116. What is a primary focus of research concerning personality development in adulthood? a. the search for a sense of identity during adulthood b. gender differences in personality during adulthood c. the stability of personality over the life span d. the midlife crisis ANSWER: c 117. André is 27 years old and he has noticed that all his friends are in serious relationships and many are getting married and having children. He can’t imagine settling down yet, and he would rather date lots of people than commit to one person. Which of Erikson’s stages is André in? a. intimacy versus isolation b. generativity versus self-absorption c. industry versus inferiority d. identity versus confusion ANSWER: a 118. Forty-seven-year-old Jennifer has recently started tutoring students at the elementary school her own children attended many years ago. She enjoys being around the children and feels a great deal of satisfaction from her tutoring. Which crisis does Jennifer appear to be successfully resolving? a. intimacy versus isolation b. industry versus inferiority c. generativity versus self-absorption d. integrity versus despair ANSWER: c 119. Which developmental stage is Erikson’s crisis of integrity versus despair associated with? a. adolescence b. middle adulthood c. late adulthood d. early adulthood ANSWER: c 120. As 79-year-old Amir mentally reviews his life, he cannot help smiling to himself. He believes he married and spent over 40 years with the most wonderful woman in the world, helped to raise three fine children, and was successful in his career as an accountant. According to Erik Erikson, what is Amir experiencing? a. generativity b. integrity c. identity d. intimacy ANSWER: b 121. In recent decades, what has happened to the age at which individuals marry for the first time? a. It has decreased for both men and women. b. It has increased for men and remained stable for women. c. It has increased for women and remained stable for men. d. It has increased for both men and women. ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 122. What is a common source of conflict between adolescents and their parents? a. sexuality b. drug and alcohol use c. chores d. politics ANSWER: c 123. Which term refers to the collection of congenital problems associated with excessive alcohol use during pregnancy? a. Early Substance Abuse Effects Disorder (SAED). b. Neonatal Alcohol Syndrome (NAS). c. Fetal Alcohol Effects (FAE). d. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome Disorder (FASD). ANSWER: d 124. Which of the following is NOT a physical change characteristic of adult aging? a. a decrease in hearing sensitivity b. a decrease in brain weight after age 60 c. an increase in visual problems such as farsightedness d. an increase in body weight after age 60 ANSWER: d 125. At what age does menopause typically occur? a. 12 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 ANSWER: d 126. How long do people typically struggle with the progression of Alzheimer’s disease? a. 1–2 years b. 3–6 years c. 8–10 years d. 10–15 years ANSWER: c 127. Helen is in her late 70s and has had some changes in her cognitive abilities recently. She has a hard time remembering new things, and she has great difficulty with selective attention. She will often start doing something, get distracted, and then forget what she had been doing. Which of the following is consistent with Helen’s recent difficulties? a. Huntington’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Williams’ disease ANSWER: c 128. Erik is retired, but he has maintained a very active schedule. He volunteers for a local nonprofit organization, plays cards with his friends twice each week, and he does a daily crossword puzzle. He also takes his neighbour’s dog for a brisk walk at lunchtime. Which of the following is less likely to develop as Erik ages, because of his lifestyle and activities? a. crystallized intelligence b. Alzheimer’s disease c. empty nest syndrome d. Parkinson’s disease ANSWER: b 129. Which of the following would an elderly individual likely have the most difficulty with? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span a. procedural memory and working memory b. episodic memory and working memory c. episodic memory and sensory memory d. procedural memory and semantic memory ANSWER: b 130. Jean Piaget asserted that the child’s experiences in the world, in combination with maturation, together influence the child’s cognitive development. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by this example? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: c 131. Environmental factors are most likely to cause damage to specific structures of a developing embryo or fetus when those structures are undergoing rapid development. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected in this example? a. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. c. Psychology is theoretically diverse. d. Psychology is empirical. ANSWER: a 132. Which statement best describes the relationship between gender stereotypes and gender differences? a. Actual gender differences are more extreme than common stereotypes suggest. b. Gender stereotypes are based on learning, whereas actual gender differences are based on biological causes. c. Gender stereotypes arise from actual differences, but those differences are smaller than the stereotypes suggest. d. Gender stereotypes are completely unrelated to actual gender differences. ANSWER: c 133. Which statement does NOT accurately describe one of the differences between males and females? a. Males tend to score higher on measures of visual-spatial ability than females. b. Males tend to exhibit slightly better mathematical abilities than females. c. Males tend to exhibit slightly better verbal skills than females. d. Males tend to be more aggressive than females. ANSWER: c 134. Which statement does NOT accurately describe one of the differences between females and males? a. Females tend to be more sensitive to nonverbal communication than males. b. Females tend to score higher on measures of visual-spatial abilities than males. c. Males tend to exhibit slightly better mathematical abilities than females. d. Females tend to exhibit slightly better verbal skills than males. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span 135. Assume research shows there is a gender difference on Trait X and males tend to exhibit more of the trait than females. Which conclusion would best describe performance on Trait X if the gender difference on Trait X is similar to other traits with gender differences? a. A few females exhibit very low levels of the trait. b. A few males exhibit very high levels of the trait. c. The average male exhibits slightly higher levels of the trait than the average female. d. Most males exhibit higher levels of the trait than most females. ANSWER: c 136. Which of the following tends to be exhibited by females who were exposed prenatally to abnormally high levels of androgens? a. both more male- and female-typical behaviours than other females b. more female-typical behaviours than other females c. fewer male-typical behaviours than other females d. more male-typical behaviours than other females ANSWER: d 137. Which of the following terms is defined as expectations about what is appropriate behaviour for each sex? a. gender roles b. gender stereotypes c. gender differences d. gender behaviours ANSWER: a 138. What is emphasized by cognitive theories of gender role development? a. self-socialization b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. the development of long-term memory ANSWER: a 139. Which statemens best describes the effect fathers have on the development of their children? a. The presence of the father is essential to the normal development of a child. b. The absence of the father has no effect on the normal development of a child. c. The absence of the father contributes to the normal development of a child. d. The presence of the father contributes to the normal development of a child. ANSWER: d 140. A pregnant woman experiences domestic violence through verbal and emotional abuse. Which of the following is NOT one of the risks to the developing fetus? a. risk of stillbirth b. impaired immune system response c. heightened vulnerability to infectious disease d. above-average motor development ANSWER: d 141. What is separation anxiety? a. emotional distress observed in adults suffering from agoraphobia b. emotional distress observed in infants when they are separated from any adult caregiver Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 11 - Human Development across the Life Span c. emotional distress rarely seen in infants when they are separated from an attachment figure d. emotional distress seen in infants when they are separated from an attachment figure ANSWER: d 142. Which statement best reflects the impact of day-care on attachment? a. Attachment, once established, cannot be changed and for this reason no research is required on the topic. b. Very little research supports the notion that day-care does not have a harmful effect on children’s attachment relationships. c. Research mostly suggests that day-care has a harmful effect on children’s attachment relationships. d. Research mostly suggests that day-care does not have a harmful effect on children’s attachment relationships. ANSWER: d 143. Which term refers to the gap between what a learner can accomplish alone and what he or she can achieve with guidance from more skilled partners? a. the help zone b. the optimal period c. the zone of accomplishment d. the zone of proximal development ANSWER: d 144. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the theory of mind? a. It examines how children conceive of another person’s feeling and beliefs. b. It examines the development of children’s understanding about the mind and mental states. c. It examines how children conceive of another person’s thought processes. d. It is an outdated approach and is not generating research currently. ANSWER: d
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment 1. What are the two aspects of an individual’s behaviour that are central to the concept of personality? a. consistency and distinctiveness b. appropriateness and distinctiveness c. consistency and typicality d. appropriateness and typicality ANSWER: a 2. Michael is well known throughout his middle school for being a bright student who frequently disrupts class by answering a teacher’s question with a joke. He behaves much the same when at baseball practice and Boy Scout meetings. Which aspect of personality is illustrated by his tendency to be a “class clown” in many situations? a. distinctiveness b. appropriateness c. variableness d. consistency ANSWER: d 3. While many of the personality traits a person has may be relatively common, the overall combination of traits exhibited by that person is unique. Which aspect of personality does this illustrate? a. appropriateness b. distinctiveness c. consistency d. variableness ANSWER: b 4. Which of the following is NOT consistent with your textbook’s definition of personality? a. a focus on an individual’s uniqueness b. a focus on an individual’s behavioural traits c. a focus on an individual’s primary motivations d. a focus on an individual’s consistent tendencies ANSWER: c 5. Assume all of the following adjectives describe Omar. Which term does NOT describe one of Omar’s personality traits? a. athletic b. assertive c. sloppy d. honest ANSWER: a 6. Which of the following traits is NOT one of the “Big Five” personality traits? a. emotionality b. openness to experience c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness ANSWER: a 7. According to the dominant view of personality today, how many basic traits make up personality? a. 5 b. 16 c. approximately 50 d. over 4500 ANSWER: a 8. Dr. Leitenen is a personality researcher who focuses on the traits of extraversion, openness, and agreeableness. What could you say about Dr. Leitenen’s approach? a. It uses traits that are not empirically validated. b. It uses a portion of the Big Five model. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment c. It is dramatically different from the Big Five model. d. It is most similar to a psychoanalytic approach. ANSWER: b 9. Imagine that you are choosing a roommate using the Big Five model of personality. Which person would you choose if you wanted a roommate who would be fairly easy to get along with, is likely to pay bills on time, and would be willing to try new things? a. Sam, who is high in extraversion, low in agreeableness, and high in neuroticism b. Kerry, who is high in conscientiousness, high in extraversion, and low in openness c. Taylor, who is high in agreeableness, high in conscientiousness, and high in openness d. Kim, who is high in openness, low in extraversion, and low in conscientiousness ANSWER: c 10. Which personality trait is predictive of better grades in school? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness ANSWER: d 11. Which personality trait is associated with a higher risk of divorce? a. neuroticism b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following is associated with a personality that consists of high levels of extraversion, and conscientiousness, but lower levels of agreeableness and neuroticism? a. elevated happiness b. reduced life expectancy c. lower intelligence d. higher social class ANSWER: d 13. What do psychodynamic personality theories focus on? a. learning b. genetic factors c. an individual’s freedom and potential for growth d. unconscious mental forces ANSWER: d 14. Which of the following is NOT a focus of Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory of personality? a. unconscious motives and conflicts b. methods used to cope with sexual and aggressive urges c. the potential for personal growth d. the influence of childhood experiences ANSWER: c 15. According to psychoanalytic theory, what is the id? a. the primitive, instinctive component of personality Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment b. the decision-making component of personality c. the moral component of personality d. a developmental period that leaves its mark on adult personality ANSWER: a 16. Which of the following could be considered the motto for the id? a. “If it feels good, do it.” b. “We can work it out.” c. “Mom always liked you best.” d. “Do the right thing.” ANSWER: a 17. Cerise has very poor impulse control and she rarely denies herself any treat or opportunity to have fun. She has a hard time getting her work done and is seen as irresponsible. Which of the following dominates Cerise’s personality, according to psychoanalytic theory? a. id b. superego c. sublimation d. reaction formation ANSWER: a 18. Which component of personality operates according to the “reality principle”? a. id b. ego c. superego d. conscious ANSWER: b 19. Jamaal just sat down to work on his term paper when his friends called and invited him to a party. If Jamaal decides he will go to the party only after he finishes outlining the term paper, which personality component does his decision reflect? a. his id b. his preconscious c. his superego d. his ego ANSWER: d 20. Jason tends to be selfish and demanding and disregards the rights of other people. According to Sigmund Freud, what would be true of Jason? a. He has a stronger ego than superego. b. He has a stronger superego than id. c. He has a stronger id than superego. d. He has a stronger unconscious than conscious. ANSWER: c 21. According to Sigmund Freud, what is the superego? a. the moral component of personality b. the mediating agent between the other two components of personality c. the unconscious aspect of personality d. the biological impulses that drive our behaviour ANSWER: a 22. According to psychoanalytic theory, what influences a person who is conservative, strict, and moralistic? a. id b. superego Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment c. ego d. preconscious ANSWER: b 23. According to Freud, in what level of awareness are the words in this exam question? a. conscious b. subconscious c. unconscious d. preconscious ANSWER: a 24. According to Freud, which level of awareness contains material just beneath the surface of awareness that can easily be retrieved? a. subconscious b. unconscious c. preconscious d. conscious ANSWER: c 25. If you are avoiding one of your friends but you don’t know why, what level of awareness would Freud say is influencing your behaviour? a. conscious b. unconscious c. superego d. preconscious ANSWER: b 26. According to Sigmund Freud, which of the following is entirely unconscious? a. ego b. id c. self d. superego ANSWER: b 27. According to Sigmund Freud, which two impulses are especially important and often have far-reaching consequences? a. aggression and security b. sex and self-actualization c. self-actualization and security d. sex and aggression ANSWER: d 28. Becky is experiencing an unconscious conflict between her desire to impress the people around her and her urge to punch and yell at someone who is causing her frustration. According to Freud, what will result from this conflict? a. archetypes b. id frailty c. anxiety d. fixation ANSWER: c 29. Becky is experiencing an unconscious conflict between her desire to impress the people around her and her urge to punch and yell at someone who is causing her frustration. In order to deal with the resulting anxiety, what unconscious reactions would Freud suggest will be evoked? a. coping mechanisms b. offence mechanisms c. defence mechanisms d. id mechanisms ANSWER: c 30. When Mike was turned down by the prestigious school that he applied to, he told his family that he didn’t mind because that school doesn’t offer the program that he really wants. Which defence mechanism does this illustrate? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment a. rationalization c. displacement ANSWER: a
b. projection d. reaction formation
31. While cleaning up after her party last night, Anka forgot to put the leftover crab dip in the refrigerator. When she discovered the spoiled dip in the morning, Anka said she didn’t mind having to throw it out because it wasn’t very tasty anyway. Which defence mechanism does this illustrate? a. reaction formation b. rationalization c. repression d. regression ANSWER: b 32. According to Sigmund Freud, what is the basic defence mechanism that protects a person from anxiety by keeping distressing thoughts and feelings out of the conscious mind? a. repression b. projection c. regression d. displacement ANSWER: a 33. Melissa hates her teacher but she won’t admit this to herself, consciously. Instead, she consciously feels that her teacher hates her. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. displacement b. repression c. reaction formation d. projection ANSWER: d 34. If she is using the defence mechanism of projection, what would be true of a mother who actually hates her son? a. She acts in an extremely critical way toward her son. b. She believes that her son hates her. c. She acts in an extremely loving way toward her son. d. She hates her daughter. ANSWER: b 35. What statement best describes a mother who actually hates her son, and is using the defence mechanism of reaction formation? a. She believes that her son hates her. b. She directs her hatred toward her daughter. c. She acts in an extremely critical way toward her son. d. She acts in an extremely loving way toward her son. ANSWER: d 36. Under stress, a university student cries and throws things. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. reaction formation b. immaturity c. regression d. displacement ANSWER: c 37. Which defence mechanism is used when people attempt to bolster their self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment a. identification c. regression ANSWER: a
b. rationalization d. displacement
38. Elliott is very insecure about his appearance and his athletic ability. In order to deal with these feelings of inferiority, he joins a softball team and wears his team jacket everywhere he goes so that people will know that he plays sports. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. displacement b. rationalization c. identification d. regression ANSWER: c 39. Jennifer has a lot of anger that she doesn’t express. Instead, she focuses her energy on keeping her house very clean and organized. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. reaction formation b. sublimation c. displacement d. repression ANSWER: b 40. Kris has been having a hard time at work, and his boss has been very critical of everything that he does. When Kris hangs out with his friends after work, he is very abrupt with them and contradicts nearly everything they say. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. sublimation b. reaction formation c. displacement d. repression ANSWER: c 41. According to Sigmund Freud’s theory, what is the term used for the developmental periods that leave their mark on adult personality? a. fixation stages b. psychosexual stages c. defence stages d. temperamental stages ANSWER: b 42. According to Freud’s theory, what results from either excessive gratification or excessive frustration of needs? a. defence mechanisms b. overcompensation c. fixation d. regression ANSWER: c 43. Which of the following represents the correct developmental order of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual stages of development? a. anal, oral, phallic, latency, genital b. anal, oral, phallic, genital, latency c. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital d. oral, anal, genital, latency, phallic ANSWER: c 44. According to Sigmund Freud, fixation at which stage results in smoking, overeating, and habitual gum chewing? a. genital stage b. phallic stage c. oral stage d. anal stage ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment 45. What is the crucial developmental task associated with Sigmund Freud’s anal stage? a. weaning from the breast or bottle b. gaining superiority c. the Oedipal complex d. regulating biological urges ANSWER: d 46. Who becomes the target of erotic desires for children in Sigmund Freud’s phallic stage of development? a. the parent of the same sex b. playmates c. the parent of the opposite sex d. siblings ANSWER: c 47. Danielle is five years old and is being very confrontational with her mother. She also has become very attached to her father and will do anything to get his attention. Which of the following psychosexual stages is Danielle in? a. oral stage b. latency stage c. anal stage d. phallic stage ANSWER: d 48. Four-year-old Sai says that when he grows up he is going to marry his mother. He competes with his father for his mother’s attention. According to Sigmund Freud, what is Sai experiencing? a. identification complex b. phallic complex c. genital complex d. Oedipal complex ANSWER: d 49. Sally is nine years old and spends a lot of time playing with her friends and learning about social rules and expectations. According to Freud, which of the following stages is Sally in? a. genital stage b. latency stage c. anal stage d. phallic stage ANSWER: b 50. What happens to sexual energy during Sigmund Freud’s genital stage of development? a. It is exhibited through self-stimulation. b. It is focused toward peers of the opposite sex. c. It is largely suppressed. d. It is focused toward the parent of the opposite sex. ANSWER: b 51. What was the focus of the major theoretical disagreement that Carl Jung and Alfred Adler had with Freud? a. conflict b. sexuality c. childhood experiences d. the unconscious ANSWER: b 52. Who is associated with the concepts of the personal unconscious and collective unconscious? a. Abraham Maslow b. Alfred Adler c. Carl Jung d. Sigmund Freud ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment 53. According to Carl Jung, which of the following is a storehouse of latent memory traces inherited from people’s ancestral past? a. universal unconscious b. collective unconscious c. personal unconscious d. unconscious ANSWER: b 54. Many cultures have a symbol, story, or image that is tied to the concept of a nurturing and protective mother figure. According to Jung, what does this symbol represent in the unconscious? a. dream representations b. conflict c. archetypes d. defence mechanisms ANSWER: c 55. Which of the following factors are essential in defining personality? a. consistency and distinctiveness b. consistency and testing c. testing and distinctiveness d. testing and disposition ANSWER: a 56. Although Freud was brilliant, and his theory gained prominence, many contemporaries were uncomfortable with Freud’s ideas. Which statement is NOT one of the alleged reasons for their discomfort? a. Freud held individuals accountable for their sexual and aggressive tendencies and viewed these behaviours as something fully within their control. b. Freud was a determinist and suggested people are not the masters of their own minds. c. Freud was a determinist and suggested people are not the masters of their own destinies. d. Freud’s emphasis on sexuality offended conservative Victorians. ANSWER: a 57. Who believed that the primary motivation for humans is striving for superiority? a. Alfred Adler b. Abraham Maslow c. Albert Bandura d. Carl Jung ANSWER: a 58. How would Adler describe an average or typical child? a. The child has feelings of inferiority. b. The child has strong sexual desires. c. The child has feelings of superiority. d. The child has an accurate self-concept. ANSWER: a 59. According to Alfred Adler, what is compensation? a. bolstering self-esteem by forming an imaginary or real alliance with some person or group b. our ability to perform behaviours that should lead to expected outcomes c. largely unconscious reactions that protect a person from unpleasant emotions d. efforts to overcome imagined or real inferiorities by developing one’s abilities ANSWER: d 60. Matthew has been unsuccessful in using compensation to master life’s challenges. According to Alfred Adler’s theory, what might Matthew exhibit? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment a. an Oedipal complex c. a superiority complex ANSWER: d
b. an archetype d. an inferiority complex
61. Which personality theorist suggested that the birth order of a child in a family influenced the child’s personality? a. Carl Rogers b. Walter Mischel c. Alfred Adler d. Carl Jung ANSWER: c 62. What is one criticism of psychodynamic personality theories? a. They are often too vague to permit scientific evaluation. b. They suggest that people are motivated to reduce unpleasant emotions. c. They focus too much on neurological explanations for behaviour. d. They treat all people as if they are identical. ANSWER: a 63. What do behavioural personality theories focus on? a. genetic factors b. unconscious mental forces c. an individual’s freedom and potential for growth d. learning as a result of experience ANSWER: d 64. Who defines personality as a collection of response tendencies that are tied to various stimulus situations? a. Walter Mischel b. b. F. Skinner c. Alfred Adler d. Albert Bandura ANSWER: b 65. How would B. F. Skinner explain why one student responds positively to receiving a B on a test while another student responds negatively to a B? a. The students have different inherited temperaments and personality traits. b. The students have different histories of reinforcement and punishment. c. One student has more self-efficacy than the other. d. One student has a stronger superego than the other. ANSWER: b 66. Benjamin is friendly and outgoing and tells a lot of jokes. He feels very comfortable at parties or whenever he meets new people. According to B.F. Skinner, what mechanism is responsible for Benjamin’s personality? a. He is sublimating his unconscious fears of rejection. b. He has experienced reinforcement for friendly behaviour. c. He has a strong superego. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment d. He is overcompensating for his feelings of inferiority. ANSWER: b 67. Which term refers to Albert Bandura’s idea that internal mental events, external environmental events, and overt behaviours all influence one another? a. self-efficacy b. reciprocal determinism c. introversion-extraversion d. archetypes ANSWER: b 68. Gurvinder is working on a research project that is trying to determine whether celebrity scandals increase the likelihood that average people will engage in the same scandalous behaviours. Which theoretical approach would Gurvinder base his hypothesis on? a. Albert Bandura’s social cognitive theory b. Carl Jung’s analytical theory c. Carl Rogers’s person-centred theory d. Walter Mischel’s person-situation approach ANSWER: a 69. According to Bandura’s description of observational learning, which characteristic of a model would be least likely to result in a child imitating the model’s behaviour? a. The model is someone the child fears. b. The model’s behaviour leads to positive outcomes. c. The model is attractive or powerful. d. The model is liked and respected by the child. ANSWER: a 70. Jarod has fairly high self-efficacy regarding his academic performance. As a result of his self-efficacy, what is likely to also be true of Jarod? a. He is able to cope with exam stress well. b. He is likely to help others with studying. c. He is very neurotic. d. He is very intelligent. ANSWER: a 71. Mary observes another’s performance and says, “Gee, I think I can do that.” What would Albert Bandura call this personal evaluation? a. self-esteem b. self-efficacy c. self-concept d. self-appraisal ANSWER: b 72. Who would be most likely to suggest that a person’s behaviour will be highly variable from one situation to another? a. Sigmund Freud b. Alfred Adler c. Albert Bandura d. Walter Mischel ANSWER: d 73. Eric is a careful driver. He usually obeys the speed limit and abides by all traffic regulations. Today, however, as he is driving to Florida with some friends for spring break, he is driving 40 km/h over the speed limit. Who would be best able to explain this inconsistency in Eric’s behaviour? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment a. Abraham Maslow c. Carl Jung ANSWER: b
b. Walter Mischel d. Albert Bandura
74. Which statement best describes one strength of the behavioural perspective theories of personality? a. They generalize from animal to human behaviour. b. They focus on the importance of childhood experiences. c. They emphasize an individual’s subjective view. d. They are based on extensive empirical research. ANSWER: d 75. Which personality theory is most likely to be criticized for viewing human behaviour as overly simple or mechanistic? a. humanism b. psychoanalytic theory c. radical behaviourism d. social cognitive theory ANSWER: c 76. What do humanistic personality theories focus on? a. learning b. unconscious mental forces c. an individual’s freedom and potential for growth d. genetic factors ANSWER: c 77. What is the major criticism that humanistic personality theorists have concerning both psychodynamic and behavioural theories of personality? a. They are unrealistically optimistic about human behaviour. b. They are not supported by scientific or empirical evidence. c. They focus on the unconscious. d. They are dehumanizing and deterministic. ANSWER: d 78. Which perspective would be most likely to agree with the statement that “in order to understand another person, you must walk a mile in his shoes”? a. psychodynamic perspective b. biological perspective c. behavioural perspective d. humanistic perspective ANSWER: d 79. Which statement is consistent with the phenomenological approach? a. Viewing human behaviour as mechanistic and predictable. b. Trying to see a situation from another person’s perspective. c. Interpreting the symbols that are inherent in dreams. d. Challenging a person’s maladaptive cognitions. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment 80. Trina feels that her brother would be less shy if only he would see himself differently. She tries to point out how smart and funny he is, and that people really like him when they get to know him. She really hopes that if she can change the way that he defines himself, that he will be more outgoing and get the chance to meet more people. Which approach is most similar to Trina’s? a. Alfred Adler’s individual psychology b. Albert Bandura’s social cognitive theory c. Carl Roger’s person-centred theory d. Abraham Maslow’s theory of self-actualization ANSWER: c 81. Elena describes herself as awkward and scatter-brained, but her co-workers and clients see her as competent and skilled. What would Carl Rogers say about Elena’s self-concept? a. It is incongruent. b. It is delusional. c. It is negative. d. It is a defence mechanism. ANSWER: a 82. Amanda describes herself as intelligent, friendly, and responsible. Amanda’s family, friends, and teachers all agree that she shows those qualities. What would Carl Rogers say about Amanda’s self-concept? a. It is efficacious. b. It is congruent. c. It is positive. d. It is accurate. ANSWER: b 83. According to Carl Rogers, what childhood experience tends to cause people to develop an incongruent self-concept as a result of their parents’ behaviours? a. conditional affection b. inconsistent affection c. consistent affection d. unconditional affection ANSWER: a 84. What is a component of both Freud’s psychoanalytic theory and Rogers’s person-centred theory? a. self-efficacy b. defence mechanisms c. the superego d. phenomenology ANSWER: b 85. Mitchell sees himself as a great writer, with very clever ideas. He receives feedback on a paper he wrote for a course and his professor wrote on it that the paper was sloppy, hard to read, and not very original. According to Rogers, what reaction will Mitchell be likely to experience because of this feedback? a. self-actualization b. depression c. a re-evaluation of his self-concept d. anxiety ANSWER: d 86. At what age did Freud believe that personality was formed? a. 5 b. 10 c. 18 d. 25 ANSWER: a 87. Stella gets average grades in school. She knows that her parents really value high grades, so even though she doesn’t Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment really care about grades herself, she feels quite guilty about not working harder and not getting higher marks. According to Higgins’s self-discrepancy theory, which discrepancy is Stella experiencing? a. between her true self and her ideal self b. between her actual self and her ought self c. between her ought self and her ideal self d. between her true self and her actual self ANSWER: b 88. Who stated, “It’s as if Freud supplied us the sick half of psychology and we must now fill it out with the healthy half”? a. Alfred Adler b. Carl Rogers c. Abraham Maslow d. Albert Bandura ANSWER: c 89. Min has enough food to eat and has a safe place to live. Her life is relatively stable and predictable. Now that she has those needs taken care of, which needs would become a priority for Min, according to Maslow? a. love and friendship b. artistic endeavours c. a fulfilling career d. self-actualization ANSWER: a 90. Chelsey is a student who is very focused on developing her skills and seeking out new experiences. Her favourite classes are the ones that involve a lot of discussion, where she can hear others’ viewpoints and really challenge her own beliefs. According to Maslow, what level of needs is Chelsey addressing? a. aesthetic b. self-actualization c. esteem d. cognitive ANSWER: d 91. According to Abraham Maslow, after people satisfy their needs for knowledge and achievement, what will they next become concerned with? a. self-actualization needs b. aesthetic needs c. esteem needs d. belongingness and love needs ANSWER: b 92. Etienne, a university student, is very interested in his courses and is planning on attending graduate school in psychology. Which type of need has Etienne probably NOT yet satisfied? a. esteem b. belongingness c. self-actualization d. safety and security ANSWER: c 93. What term did Abraham Maslow use for the need to fulfill one’s potential? a. achievement b. self-determinism c. affiliation d. self-actualization ANSWER: d 94. Ari is successful in his career, has a rewarding family life, and feels like he has achieved his goals in life. He is very satisfied with his accomplishments and finds his life very fulfilling. According to Maslow, what has Ari attained? a. self-actualization b. self-efficacy c. self-acceptance d. self-sufficiency Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment ANSWER: a 95. According to Maslow, if someone’s needs are not satisfied at a particular level of the hierarchy, what happens? a. They block that need from their conscious awareness. b. They skip the need and move up to the next attainable need. c. They regress to a lower-level need. d. They become fixated and must employ multiple defence mechanisms. ANSWER: c 96. Sandra is an easygoing person who is very mature and responsible in many aspects of her life, but also very lighthearted and silly at times. She thinks very rationally when making some decisions, and makes other decisions based on her “gut feelings.” According to Maslow, which of the following terms applies to Sandra’s personality? a. healthy b. discrepant c. incongruous d. ego-driven ANSWER: a 97. What is a strength of humanistic theories of personality? a. They emphasize a person’s subjective view rather than objective reality. b. They suggest internal conflict often plays a key role in generating psychological distress. c. They are supported by extensive empirical research. d. They emphasize the unique aspects of human genetic inheritance. ANSWER: a 98. What is a common criticism of humanistic theories of personality? a. They are unrealistically optimistic about human nature. b. They overgeneralize from animal behaviour to human behaviour. c. They have a sexist bias. d. They lack a strong theoretical framework. ANSWER: a 99. What personality trait was a focus of both Eysenck’s and Jung’s personality theories? a. neuroticism b. narcissism c. conscientiousness d. extraversion ANSWER: d 100. Which psychologist’s theory of personality uses both conditioning principles and inherited differences in physiological functioning to explain how heredity is linked to personality? a. Walter Mischel b. David Buss c. B F Skinner d. Hans Eysenck ANSWER: d 101. If you were to administer a Big Five test in a behaviour genetics study of personality, which pair of individuals would you expect to have the most similar scores? a. two unrelated people adopted into the same family b. mother and child Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment c. identical twins d. fraternal twins reared apart ANSWER: c 102. According to evidence from behavioural genetics, what impact does the family environment shared by children growing up together have on personality? a. none b. little c. moderately large d. large ANSWER: b 103. Marcy is outgoing and impulsive and has a wide circle of friends and acquaintances. According to recent evidence, which areas of Marcy’s brain are likely to be large compared to the brain of someone who is shyer and inhibited? a. areas associated with planning b. areas associated with fear c. areas associated with language d. areas associated with reward ANSWER: d 104. According to Daniel Nettle, which personality trait would have, in particular, conferred a survival advantage through avoidance of danger and therefore would have been selected for in our ancestral environment? a. openness b. introversion c. neuroticism d. extraversion ANSWER: c 105. Which approach to personality suggests that the Big Five personality traits have significant adaptive implications? a. humanistic approach b. evolutionary approach c. social cognitive approach d. behavioural approach ANSWER: b 106. What is a primary criticism of the biological perspective of personality? a. It doesn’t fully integrate the “nurture” perspective. b. It overgeneralizes from animal behaviour to human behaviour. c. It is unrealistically optimistic about human nature. d. It is unrealistically pessimistic about human nature. ANSWER: a 107. Allison is really full of herself. She expects other people to pay attention to her most of the time, and she also expects them to do things for her and give in to her whims. If someone criticizes her she gets very angry, and tries to “get even.” Which term describes Allison’s personality? a. extraverted b. narcissistic c. neurotic d. antisocial ANSWER: b 108. Whenever Peter updates his status on Facebook, he is usually seeking attention. Sometimes he brags about how great he is at sports, or the number of phone numbers he solicited at the bar. Other times he will write about how tough it is to be taken seriously because he’s too good looking. Many of his friends started out finding Peter charming and fun, but now most of them are tired of his selfishness. Which personality type matches this description of Peter? a. narcissistic b. extraverted Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment c. neurotic ANSWER: a
d. introverted
109. Which of the following does NOT pair the theorist with his personality perspective? a. Albert Bandura—behavioural b. Sigmund Freud—psychodynamic c. Hans Eysenck—biological d. Alfred Adler—humanistic ANSWER: d 110. Who did NOT emphasize the influence of childhood experiences on adult personality? a. Carl Rogers b. Sigmund Freud c. Alfred Adler d. Abraham Maslow ANSWER: d 111. The humanistic perspective’s emphasis on humans’ potential for personal growth is most similar to which other personality theorist’s belief concerning humans’ primary motivation? a. Hans Eysenck b. Carl Jung c. Alfred Adler d. B F Skinner ANSWER: c 112. Behaviourists traditionally were not so interested in the study of personality. Who was responsible for a surge of interest in personality by behaviourists? a. Dollard and Miller b. Maslow and Bandura c. Bandura and May d. Dollard and May ANSWER: a 113. What did Skinner argue is responsible for the behaviours that people engage in that form a significant portion of their personality? a. reinforcement b. insight c. expectation d. outcomes ANSWER: a 114. What does cross-cultural research suggest about the Big Five personality traits? a. They are fairly consistent across cultures. b. They exist only in Western cultures. c. They are fairly inconsistent across cultures. d. They are unique to each culture. ANSWER: a 115. Which trait is valued in cultures that put personal goals ahead of group goals and define identity in terms of personal attributes rather than group memberships? a. self-efficacy b. collectivism c. self-worth d. individualism ANSWER: d 116. What develops in children as a result of a typical North American cultural concept of self? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment a. an interdependent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of the groups they belong to b. an interdependent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of personal attributes c. an independent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of personal attributes d. an independent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of the groups they belong to ANSWER: c 117. What develops in children as a result of exposure to a typical Asian cultural concept of self? a. an interdependent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of the groups they belong to b. an interdependent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of personal attributes c. an independent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of the groups they belong to d. an independent view of the self and defining themselves in terms of personal attributes ANSWER: a 118. The psychoanalytic, behavioural, humanistic and biological perspectives on personality each provide a different way of looking at traits and are supported by different types of evidence. Which unifying theme in psychology is illustrated by this fact? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. c. Psychology evolves in a socio-historical context. d. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. ANSWER: a 119. Adler’s own feelings of inferiority in childhood had a large impact on the development of his personality theory. Which unifying theme in psychology does this illustrate? a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology is theoretically diverse. ANSWER: a 120. Which term refers to personality tests that ask individuals to answer a series of questions about their characteristic behaviour? a. objective tests b. behavioural personality profiles c. self-report inventories d. projective tests ANSWER: c 121. Which personality test was originally designed to aid in the diagnosis of psychological disorders? a. NEO Personality Inventory b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. The Sixteen Personality (16PF) Questionnaire d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) ANSWER: b 122. Sylvia is diagnosed with schizophrenia. If she takes the MMPI, what would be most likely? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment a. She would have high scores on several subscales. b. Her answers would contain stories of unusual content. c. She would be less prone to demand characteristics in the test. d. Her total score would be at least in the 90th percentile. ANSWER: a 123. If you are interested in measuring and describing the personality traits of a typical or normal individual, which test would you be most likely to administer? a. Rorschach b. NEO Personality Inventory c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) ANSWER: b 124. One source of error associated with self-report inventories involves the tendency of individuals to answer questions in a way that reflects the traits they think are valuable or appropriate. What is another term for this tendency? a. deliberate deception b. the social desirability bias c. response sets d. the hindsight bias ANSWER: b 125. Which type of personality tests ask individuals to respond to vague, ambiguous stimuli in ways that may reveal the subject’s needs, feelings, and personality traits? a. objective tests b. behavioural tests c. projective tests d. self-report inventories ANSWER: c 126. What is a commonly used projective test in which the subject is asked to examine ambiguous shapes and describe what they look like? a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) b. The Sixteen Personality (16PF) Questionnaire c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. Rorschach Test ANSWER: d 127. Janice was shown a series of cards with vague, ambiguous scenes and asked to describe what she thought was happening in each scene. Which test was Janice given? a. Rorschach Test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. 16 Personality Factor (16PF) ANSWER: c 128. Which of the following is NOT a weakness associated with projective tests? a. cultural bias b. inconsistent scoring c. deliberate deception d. low reliability Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 12 - Personality: Theory, Research, and Assessment ANSWER: c 129. It is relatively easy for a person to develop plausible explanations for the personality traits of people he or she has known for years. Which term explains this ability? a. hindsight bias b. overconfidence effect c. social desirability bias d. foreshadowing bias ANSWER: a 130. Which statement best describes self-efficacy? a. It refers to one’s abilities. b. It refers to one’s beliefs about one’s abilities. c. When self-efficacy is low, individuals feel confident that they can execute the response necessary to earn reinforcers. d. Perceptions of self-efficacy are global and not specific to the task. ANSWER: b 131. According to Maslow’s theory of personality, what is an example of a growth need? a. need for self-actualization b. need for achievement c. need for transcendence d. need for food and shelter ANSWER: a 132. What is NOT a key characteristic of a self-actualizing person? a. daily need to be with others b. peak experiences c. democracy d. clear and efficient perception of reality ANSWER: a 133. What is one major obstacle to determining which genes influence personality? a. Personality traits may be influenced by hundreds, if not thousands, of genes. b. Personality traits are inherited monogenetically. c. Personality traits may be influenced by anywhere between 10 and 100 genes. d. Twin studies are inconclusive. ANSWER: a 134. According to your text, in which country is a child most likely to be told that “the squeaky wheel gets the grease”? a. Canada b. China c. Cambodia d. Hong Kong ANSWER: a
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour 1. Which branch of psychology is concerned with the way individuals’ thoughts, feelings, and behaviours are influenced by others? a. social psychology b. individual psychology c. abnormal psychology d. cultural psychology ANSWER: a 2. What is person perception? a. inferences that people draw about the causes of their own behaviour and the behaviour of others b. positive feelings toward another person c. the process of forming impressions of others d. widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group ANSWER: c 3. Which of the following is NOT a factor that directly influences person perception? a. social schemas b. physical appearance c. conformity d. stereotypes ANSWER: c 4. What is believed of people who are physically attractive, compared to less attractive people? a. They are friendlier, well adjusted, and competent. b. They are more conceited, insecure, and less competent. c. They are more sociable, poised, and less competent. d. They are more arrogant, insecure, and competent. ANSWER: a 5. One of your friends brings her cousin Eric to a party. Eric is very attractive. Which traits are you likely to attribute to Eric? a. arrogant and competent or smart b. conceited and incompetent or dumb c. sexy and incompetent or dumb d. friendly and competent or smart ANSWER: d 6. Which term would you use for the clusters of ideas you associate with categories like “students,” “professors,” “waiters,” or “politicians”? a. stereotypes b. prejudice c. person perception d. social schemas ANSWER: d 7. Jill assumes her new biology professor is probably studious and somewhat introverted just like her other professors. What is Jill’s assumption based on? a. a logical assumption b. a social schema c. an attribution d. a prejudicial assumption ANSWER: b 8. Which term is defined as widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour a. person perception c. stereotypes ANSWER: c
b. social schemas d. prejudice
9. Which statement does NOT accurately describe stereotypes? a. Stereotypes are frequently broad overgeneralizations. b. All social schemas are stereotypes. c. Stereotyping is a normal cognitive process. d. Common stereotypes are based on gender, ethnicity, and occupation. ANSWER: b 10. If many Americans were to believe that all Canadians play hockey, what would that belief be called? a. person perception b. an attribution c. a stereotype d. a logical assumption ANSWER: c 11. Tom believes that college football players are “dumb jocks,” so when he meets a football player Tom interacts with him in a way that doesn’t allow the football player to display his intelligence. What does this example illustrate? a. discrimination b. defensive attribution c. self-fulfilling prophesy d. self-serving bias ANSWER: c 12. After travelling across Canada for several months and interacting with a wide variety of people, Sven tells his friends back home in Sweden that all Canadians are incredibly polite. He also says that he’s positive that any of the rude people he met were not Canadians. What does this example illustrate? a. a logical assumption b. an illusory correlation c. a defensive attribution d. self-serving bias ANSWER: b 13. Why do evolutionary psychologists propose to explain the biases associated with person perception? a. Physical attractiveness was associated primarily with friends and not foes. b. There was an ancestral need to make rapid judgments about outgroup members. c. Physical attractiveness was associated with the youthfulness of males. d. There was an ancestral need to carefully evaluate the behaviour of others. ANSWER: b 14. In evolutionary theory, what is the term for a group that we do not belong to or identify with? a. subculture b. affiliative c. outgroup d. maladapted group ANSWER: c 15. According to social psychologists, what is attribution? a. widely held beliefs that people have certain characteristics because of their membership in a particular group b. inferences that people draw about the causes of their own behaviour and the behaviour of others c. the process of forming impressions of others Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour d. positive feelings toward another person ANSWER: b 16. Shane believes that Tammy failed the midterm because she couldn’t grasp the course material. What is most clearly illustrated by Shane’s belief? a. an internal attribution b. an external attribution c. an unstable attribution d. a stable attribution ANSWER: a 17. Which statement reflects a clear internal attribution? a. He went along with the crowd. b. He did what he felt was right. c. He did what he had to do. d. Something got the best of him. ANSWER: b 18. Tammy believes that Shane did well on the midterm because the professor really liked Shane’s ideas. Which of the following is most clearly illustrated by Tammy’s belief? a. an external attribution b. an unstable attribution c. an internal attribution d. a stable attribution ANSWER: a 19. Jane’s eight-year-old son brought a note home from school stating that he was involved in a fight at recess. Which statement is an example of an external attribution that Jane might make to explain her son’s behaviour? a. “The other child probably started the fight and my son was protecting himself.” b. “He always gets in fights.” c. “He probably couldn’t help himself since he doesn’t have much self-control.” d. “He’s just like his father.” ANSWER: a 20. If you believe that you will get a good grade on this test because you studied hard this time, what sort of attribution have you made? a. internal-stable b. internal-unstable c. external-stable d. external-unstable ANSWER: b 21. You see on the news that a local high school athlete just received a university scholarship to play basketball, while none of his teammates received scholarships. If you believe he received a scholarship due to his outstanding natural ability, what kind of attribution are you making? a. external-unstable b. internal-stable c. internal-unstable d. external-stable ANSWER: b 22. Nicole tends to attribute her friends’ behaviour to their personalities, rather than to the situations that they are in. What type of error does Nicole tend to make? a. the fundamental attribution error b. the self-effacing error c. the signal detection error d. the self-serving error Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour ANSWER: a 23. Because of the fundamental attribution error, if you observe a construction worker relaxing under a tree, what would you be most likely to conclude about that worker? a. He is taking a break because it is hot and humid today. b. He was fired. c. He is lazy. d. He is taking his scheduled work break. ANSWER: c 24. Mike was in a car accident. According to the actor-observer bias, who is most likely to attribute the accident to external causes? a. Mike b. a police officer who came to the scene c. someone else who was in the car with Mike d. someone who has known Mike a long time ANSWER: a 25. If Mike and Fred both had car accidents, which of the following represents how Mike would explain both accidents based on the fundamental attribution error and actor-observer bias? a. Mike’s accident had an external cause and Fred’s had an internal cause. b. Mike’s accident had an internal cause and Fred’s had an external cause. c. Both accidents had external causes. d. Both accidents had internal causes. ANSWER: a 26. According to the fundamental attribution error, what explanation would you likely use when an acquaintance fails an exam? a. bias of the professor b. lack of intelligence c. difficulty of the exam d. complexity of the subject matter ANSWER: b 27. As Serena enters a homeless shelter seeking help, she looks around at the other people who are staying there and thinks, “I don’t want to be here. These people are lazy and dangerous.” Even though Serena requires the assistance of the shelter, she doesn’t see herself as being similar to the other people who are in the same situation. Which of the following is this consistent with? a. internal, stable attributions for behaviour b. actor-observer bias c. ingroup versus outgroup distinctions d. external, unstable attributions for behaviour ANSWER: b 28. What is demonstrated by an individual who has a tendency to blame victims for their misfortune, so that the individual feels less likely to be victimized in a similar way? a. a rationalization attribution b. the self-serving bias Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour c. the self-effacing bias ANSWER: d
d. a defensive attribution
29. Kerry says that anyone who loses money on an Internet scam must be an idiot. He knows that he would never be taken advantage of like that. Which of the following is best illustrated by Kerry’s belief? a. the self-serving bias b. the fundamental attribution error c. defensive attribution d. offensive attribution ANSWER: c 30. What does a person demonstrate when she has a tendency to attribute her success to her skills and her failure to bad luck? a. defensive attribution b. the fundamental attribution bias c. the self-effacing bias d. the self-serving bias ANSWER: d 31. According to the self-serving bias, when do people tend to make external attributions? a. when they are confident b. when they are learning a new task c. when they fail d. when they succeed ANSWER: c 32. Which statement does NOT accurately describe cultural variations in attribution? a. The self-serving bias may be more prevalent in Western societies. b. People from collectivist societies appear to be more likely to make the fundamental attribution error. c. People from collectivist societies are more likely to assume behaviour reflects conformity to group norms. d. Japanese individuals tend to exhibit a self-effacing bias. ANSWER: b 33. Which of the following couples is likely to be most happy? a. Tim and Tina, who have very different interests and skills b. Dawn and Dan, who are the same age c. Lesley and Lee, who are both not very attractive d. Sam, who is average looking, and Sally, who is very attractive ANSWER: c 34. Although physical attractiveness strongly influences interpersonal attraction, many individuals of average and belowaverage attractiveness are involved in long-term relationships. What hypothesis explains this apparent paradox? a. companionate love hypothesis b. matching hypothesis c. similarity hypothesis d. least-common-denominator hypothesis ANSWER: b 35. Which of the following proposes that males and females of approximately equal physical attractiveness will select each other as partners? a. similarity hypothesis b. matching hypothesis c. reciprocity effect d. least-common-denominator effect ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour 36. Which of the following best exemplifies interpersonal attraction? a. Birds of a feather flock together. b. Opposites attract. c. He who hesitates is lost. d. To know me is to love me. ANSWER: a 37. Which type of love is characterized by a couple’s complete absorption in one another and includes strong emotions and tender sexual feelings? a. committed love b. intimate love c. companionate love d. passionate love ANSWER: d 38. Stella and André have been a couple for several years. Their love is characterized by warm feelings and affection. They enjoy spending time together and describe themselves as lovers and friends. Which term best describes Stella and André’s love? a. attached love b. companionate love c. mature love d. passionate love ANSWER: b 39. Which type of love involves a romantic relationship characterized by high levels of commitment and intimacy? a. mature love b. companionate love c. passionate love d. erotic love ANSWER: b 40. According to Sternberg, which component of love peaks early in a relationship and then decreases? a. passion b. commitment c. playfulness d. intimacy ANSWER: a 41. According to the perspective that views romantic love as attachment, which type of attachment predicts the pattern or form of your intimate relationships in adulthood? a. attachment to caregivers in infancy b. attachment to the first romantic partner in adolescence c. attachment to peers in childhood d. attachment to role models in childhood ANSWER: a 42. Which type of attachment is exhibited by adults who experience love relationships that are volatile and marked by jealousy, and reflect expectations of rejection? a. immature attachment b. secure attachment c. avoidant attachment d. anxious-ambivalent attachment ANSWER: d 43. Leslie tends to feel very insecure in her relationships, and as a result is very clingy and demanding. Which type of attachment style does this reflect? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour a. manipulative attachment c. avoidant attachment ANSWER: d
b. secure attachment d. anxious-ambivalent attachment
44. Which statement does NOT accurately describe cultural variations regarding marriage relationships? a. People from collectivist societies say that romantic love is very important in marriage. b. Arranged marriages are common in collectivist societies. c. Cultures vary in the emphasis placed on passionate love. d. Cultures are often similar in what traits people look for in a potential mate. ANSWER: a 45. Under what conditions do women value their partner’s physical attractiveness as much as men do? a. in homosexual relationships b. when they are not ovulating c. when they are in collectivist cultures d. when they are choosing a partner for casual sex ANSWER: d 46. Across cultures, what key element is associated with physical attractiveness? a. facial symmetry b. personality c. height d. body weight ANSWER: a 47. According to evolutionary psychologists, what is the basis for sex differences in attitudes toward relationships? a. Men and women can’t ever truly understand each other, and make inaccurate assumptions. b. Social status and resource availability will dictate which sex has “power” in relationships. c. Social roles differ for males and females, and this leads to different expectations. d. Males and females differ in terms of how much each sex must invest in offspring. ANSWER: d 48. Larry thinks poorly of a particular political party. According to a social psychologist, what is the term for Larry’s thoughts? a. opinion b. preference c. schema d. attitude ANSWER: d 49. Which of the following is NOT one of the major components of an attitude? a. cognitive component b. affective component c. behavioural component d. perceptual component ANSWER: d 50. Angela has a strong negative attitude about a sports team. Which statement illustrates the cognitive component of her attitude? a. She believes that the team encourages cheating. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour b. She says horrible things about the team to her friends. c. She changes the channel when she sees the team on TV. d. She gets very angry when she sees the team logo. ANSWER: a 51. Ted has a strong positive attitude about his university. Which statement illustrates the behavioural component of his attitude? a. He volunteers his time to the university as a student ambassador. b. He believes that his university has higher standards than other schools. c. He feels a sense of pride associated with being a student at his university. d. He dislikes the sports teams associated with other universities. ANSWER: a 52. René is very involved in his community and has a strong attitude concerning the mayor of his city. Which of the following statements illustrates the affective component of René’s attitude concerning the mayor? a. He believes the mayor has many important issues to deal with in the upcoming year. b. He volunteers to make phone calls on election day for the mayor’s campaign. c. He feels proud when the mayor represents his city at the provincial capital. d. He believes the mayor has initiated some excellent programs. ANSWER: c 53. What was demonstrated in Richard LaPiere’s study from the 1930s concerning whether restaurants would serve a Chinese couple? a. Attitudes predicted behaviour very well. b. Attitudes did not predict behaviour very well. c. Attitudes predicted behaviour and behaviour predicted attitudes. d. While attitudes did predict behaviour, behaviour did not predict attitudes. ANSWER: b 54. Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to inconsistencies between attitudes and behaviour? a. Often, attitudes are measured in general ways while the predicted behaviours are usually specific. b. People tend to be deceptive in describing their attitudes and honest in describing their behaviour. c. Situational constraints influence behaviour. d. Many behaviours occur spontaneously and are not products of thoughtful deliberation. ANSWER: b 55. Denise genuinely believes that she is very egalitarian and that she treats people equally. When she interacts with people who dress shabbily, however, she doesn’t smile very much and she avoids eye contact with them. What is illustrated by Denise’s behaviour around shabbily dressed people? a. an expectancy b. an implicit attitude c. a self-fulfilling prophesy d. a stereotype ANSWER: b 56. Denise genuinely believes that she is very egalitarian and that she treats people equally. When she interacts with people who dress shabbily, however, she doesn’t smile very much, and she avoids eye contact with them. What is Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour illustrated by Denise’s belief that she is egalitarian? a. a self-serving bias b. a self-fulfilling prophesy c. an explicit attitude d. an implicit attitude ANSWER: c 57. What are the four basic elements involved in persuasion? a. credibility, expertise, trustworthiness, likeability b. force, suggestion, coercion, demonstration c. conformity, obedience, suggestibility, reception d. message, channel, source, receiver ANSWER: d 58. In persuasion, what is the term for the person who sends or conveys the communication? a. medium b. transmitter c. source d. spokesperson ANSWER: c 59. What is influenced by the expertise and trustworthiness of the source of a persuasive communication? a. credibility b. likability c. honesty d. message ANSWER: a 60. Which component of persuasion would be enhanced if an advertiser chose to use doctors and dentists to promote their vitamin supplements? a. likability b. trustworthiness c. attractiveness d. expertise ANSWER: d 61. A used-car salesman is trying to persuade a customer to buy a specific car because “It is a fine car at a great price.” Which characteristic related to the effectiveness of persuasion will be most helpful? a. The salesman has many years of experience. b. The salesman is very friendly. c. The salesman knows comparative information concerning other cars. d. The salesman is perceived as trustworthy. ANSWER: d 62. In persuasion, what is the term for the information that is transmitted? a. medium b. message c. sales pitch d. argument ANSWER: b 63. Imagine a popular star baseball player with many endorsement contracts for sports drinks, athletic apparel, and personal care products is arrested for hitting his pregnant wife. Which of the following consequences might cause companies to cancel his endorsement contracts? a. His likability would decrease. b. His baseball performance would decline. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour c. His stress levels would increase. ANSWER: a
d. His expertise would be questioned.
64. Which type of argument is perceived as most credible? a. one-sided argument b. emotion-calming argument c. two-sided argument d. fear-arousing argument ANSWER: c 65. Mr. West is writing a persuasive speech to convince people that he is the best candidate for an upcoming election. If he were to use the mere exposure effect, which of the following would he include in his speech? a. He would say “West is best” repeatedly. b. He would create a one-sided argument. c. He would create a two-sided argument. d. He would attack his opponent. ANSWER: a 66. If you are going to attempt to use fear to persuade someone, which characteristic of the feared consequence should you emphasize? a. It is associated with either physical or mental illness. b. It is essentially unavoidable. c. It is unpredictable. d. It is avoidable if the target audience follows your advice. ANSWER: d 67. When soft-drink companies provide money to charity events in exchange for having the company logo displayed all over the event, which persuasive tactic is being used? a. validity effect b. mere exposure effect c. forewarning d. enhancing credibility ANSWER: b 68. The weekend before the local election, you volunteer to visit every house in a three-block area of town and talk to the residents about voting for your candidate. Which of the following individuals would you be least likely to persuade? a. someone who was undecided and did not expect you to visit b. someone who was undecided and expected you to visit c. someone who was planning to vote for another candidate and expected you to visit d. someone who was planning to vote for another candidate and did not expect you to visit ANSWER: c 69. Which component of attitudes is most directly associated with the application of classical conditioning principles? a. perceptual component b. affective component c. negative component d. cognitive component ANSWER: b 70. While at the dentist, six-year-old Alex listens as his mom tells the dentist she flosses her teeth daily. Alex notices that the dentist complimented his mom on her behaviour. Because of this brief encounter, which of the following would predict that Alex will develop a favourable attitude toward flossing? a. operant conditioning b. observational learning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour c. classical conditioning ANSWER: b
d. appetitive conditioning
71. A person experiences an unpleasant state of tension when related attitudes or beliefs are inconsistent or contradict each other. Which of the following explains this discomfort? a. dissonance theory b. the elaboration likelihood model c. the persuasion model d. observational learning ANSWER: a 72. According to dissonance theory, how do people usually reduce dissonance? a. by changing their perceptions b. by changing their emotions c. by changing their cognitions d. by changing their behaviours ANSWER: c 73. In Festinger and Carlsmith’s classic study of cognitive dissonance, which group of subjects experienced both a high level of cognitive dissonance and exhibited more attitude change? a. subjects who were offered $20 to “lie” b. subjects who were offered $1 to “lie” c. subjects who were not paid d. subjects who were not monitored ANSWER: b 74. Four students are all opposed to the death penalty. Which student will be most likely to change his attitude about the death penalty? a. Dane, who writes a brief pro-death penalty piece for a client for grades b. Bryce, who writes a brief anti-death penalty piece for a client for grades c. Ammon, who writes a brief anti-death penalty piece as an ungraded class exercise d. Collin, who writes a brief pro-death penalty piece as an ungraded class exercise ANSWER: d 75. Emily spent several hours completing a long application to join an honour society at her university. If she is accepted for membership, the initiation fee will be $100. Emily wonders how she could manage to pay the $100 out of her already overextended budget. Emily is accepted into the honour society and pays the initiation fee. What will Emily likely to do afterward? a. be relatively neutral about the honour society b. quit the honour society almost immediately c. feel very positive about being a member of the society d. regret that she joined the honour society ANSWER: c 76. According to Daryl Bem’s self-perception theory, what is the relationship between attitudes and behaviour? a. People develop cognitive dissonance when exhibiting counter-attitudinal behaviour. b. People infer their attitudes from their behaviour. c. People reduce cognitive dissonance when exhibiting counter-attitudinal behaviour. d. People change their behaviour to reflect their attitudes. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour 77. According to the elaboration likelihood model of attitude change, what is it called when people ponder the content and logic of persuasive messages? a. peripheral route b. objective route c. central route d. subjective route ANSWER: c 78. According to the elaboration likelihood model of attitude change, what is it called when persuasion depends on factors such as the attractiveness and credibility of the source or emotional responses by the receiver? a. objective route b. peripheral route c. central route d. subjective route ANSWER: b 79. According to research on the elaboration likelihood model of attitude change, which route leads to more enduring attitude change and better predicts future behaviour? a. peripheral route b. central route c. objective route d. subjective route ANSWER: b 80. In the Stanford Prison Experiment, what did Phillip Zimbardo suggest led some people to become abusive guards? a. obedience to authority b. a self-fulfilling prophesy c. a stereotype d. adopting a social role ANSWER: d 81. When does conformity occur? a. when people change their behaviour as a result of receiving a persuasive argument b. when people change their behaviour as a result of observational learning c. when people follow direct commands, usually from someone in a position of authority d. when people yield to real or imagined social pressure ANSWER: d 82. Solomon Asch studied social behaviour using a series of experiments that asked participants to indicate the length of lines. What topic was being studied in these experiments? a. obedience b. conformity c. group productivity d. the bystander effect ANSWER: b 83. In which studies were subjects instructed to indicate which of three lines matched a “standard line” in length? a. Solomon Asch’s conformity studies b. Daryl Bem’s dissonance studies c. Philip Zimbardo’s prison studies d. Stanley Milgram’s obedience studies ANSWER: a 84. In Solomon Asch’s “line study,” what were participants likely to do when confronted with a group opinion that differed from their own? a. conform b. intellectualize c. obey d. resist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour ANSWER: a 85. Which of the following were two key factors that Solomon Asch found influenced conformity? a. the sex of group members and task difficulty b. group size and task difficulty c. group size and group unanimity d. the sex of group members and group unanimity ANSWER: c 86. When would a typical subject in Solomon Asch’s conformity study be least likely to exhibit conformity? a. when other group members selected the same correct choice b. when all but one of the other group members selected the incorrect choice c. when other group members selected the same incorrect choice d. when the group size was larger than five ANSWER: b 87. When the behaviour of all subjects was combined, in what percentage of trials did subjects in Solomon Asch’s study exhibit conformity? a. 5–10 percent b. 15–20 percent c. 20–30 percent d. 35–40 percent ANSWER: d 88. Because of informational influence, Sandy placed her napkin on her lap before she began to eat dinner. Which event likely preceded Sandy’s action? a. She noticed someone spill food. b. She was told to place her napkin on her lap. c. She observed others place napkins on their laps. d. She remembered a previous occasion when she spilled food. ANSWER: c 89. What was the topic of Stanley Milgram’s famous “shock” studies? a. the bystander effect b. obedience c. conformity d. group polarization ANSWER: b 90. When does obedience occur? a. when people change their behaviour because of receiving a persuasive argument b. when people yield to real or imagined social pressure c. when people follow direct commands, usually from someone in a position of authority d. when people change their behaviour as a result of observational learning ANSWER: c 91. In which studies were subjects instructed to administer increasingly strong electric shocks to another subject when the other subject made a mistake? a. Philip Zimbardo’s prison studies b. Stanley Milgram’s obedience studies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour c. Solomon Asch’s conformity studies ANSWER: b
d. Daryl Bem’s dissonance studies
92. Which of the following was experienced by the “typical” subject in Milgram’s shock study? a. considerable psychological distress b. confusion about the nature of the instructions c. intense physical pain d. cognitive dissonance ANSWER: a 93. Imagine your psychology professor described the procedure of Milgram’s study without discussing the term “obedience” or Milgram’s interpretation of his results. What would most students predict that they would have done if they were subjects in the study? a. refuse to participate in the study b. get more correct answers than the typical subject c. be less likely to conform d. administer fewer shocks than the typical subject ANSWER: d 94. Which variation of Milgram’s experimental procedure resulted in a dramatic decrease in obedience? a. when the participant was teamed with two “accomplice” teachers b. when the study was conducted by “Yale University” c. when the study was conducted by “Research Associates of Bridgeport” d. when one of two “accomplice” teachers defied the experimenter ANSWER: d 95. Milgram’s research was criticized as being flawed because subjects in a psychology experiment generally expect to obey the requests of the researcher. Thus, critics said the results could not be generalized to the real world. How did Milgram respond to this criticism? a. He admitted his procedure was flawed and his results were not relevant to the real world. b. He argued that his research could be generalized to the real world because, in the real world, people also generally expect to obey the requests of others in positions of authority. c. He admitted his procedure was flawed, but he still believed his results were relevant to the real world. d. He argued that his research could be generalized to the real world since he employed a dependent variable. ANSWER: b 96. Kristyn is a graduate student in psychology and proposes to replicate Milgram’s exact procedure to study whether men or women are more likely to exhibit obedience. What will her faculty advisor most likely tell her about her proposal? a. Modern ethical guidelines would not likely permit an exact replication. b. People today are more likely to simply refuse to participate in the study at all. c. It is an excellent choice for a research project. d. People today are too sophisticated to believe the deception Milgram used. ANSWER: a 97. Which of the following helps explain differences between American society and many other societies with regard to Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour conformity and obedience? a. the degree of current “tension” in the society related to political instability b. the degree of experience that societies have with democracy c. the degree of religiosity found in the society d. the degree of individualism and collectivism seen in various societies ANSWER: d 98. You are conducting studies on conformity in two countries that have very different levels of collectivism. What pattern do you expect in your results? a. Greater conformity will be demonstrated in the individualistic sample. b. There will be essentially no conformity demonstrated in the individualistic sample. c. There will be essentially no conformity demonstrated in the collectivist sample. d. Greater conformity will be demonstrated in the collectivist sample. ANSWER: d 99. Why might Milgram’s estimates of obedience in American samples actually underestimate the occurrence of obedience? a. Conformity is not an admired trait or behaviour in American culture. b. Resistance to conformity is typically punished in American culture. c. Conformity is found only in individualistic cultures. d. Resistance to conformity is more valued in non-Western cultures. ANSWER: a 100. Which of the following could be defined as a “group”? a. twenty-five individuals who are travelling on the same bus b. all members of a university soccer team c. all Canadian females d. registered members of the Liberal party ANSWER: b 101. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component for defining a group? a. interdependence b. two or more individuals c. interaction d. cohesiveness ANSWER: d 102. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary features of a group? a. eligibility requirements b. a communication structure c. a power structure d. shared norms ANSWER: a 103. What does the bystander effect refer to? a. the tendency for people to be more likely to provide needed help when they are in groups b. an increase in effort by individuals when they work in groups c. the tendency for people to be less likely to provide needed help when they are in groups Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour d. a reduction in effort by individuals when they work in groups ANSWER: c 104. What is predicted by research on the bystander effect about the probability of receiving needed help? a. It is not related to group size. b. It increases as group size increases. c. It decreases as group size decreases. d. It decreases as group size increases. ANSWER: d 105. A group of six university students observe a fellow student stumble and fall down a flight of stairs. No one goes to check if the student needs help. Which statement best illustrates this diffusion of responsibility? a. “I didn’t want to embarrass the student who fell by making a big deal about it.” b. “I was pretty far away when it happened.” c. “I don’t know first aid.” d. “I thought someone else would help.” ANSWER: d 106. What often results in individuals in large groups being less productive than individuals in small groups? a. cognitive dissonance b. bystander effects c. reduced efficiency and effort d. group polarization ANSWER: c 107. Which term is defined as a reduction in effort by individuals when they work in groups as compared to when they work by themselves? a. group conformity b. group polarization c. social loafing d. the bystander effect ANSWER: c 108. Philippe is a subject in an experiment designed to imitate cheering at an athletic event and is asked to make as much noise as he can by cheering and clapping. In which situation would Philippe likely make the least noise? a. if he actually is the only person making noise b. if he is from a collectivist culture c. if he is in a group of people all making noise at the same time d. if he believes he is the only person making noise ANSWER: c 109. Which of the following is a factor that enhances social loafing? a. if the group is cohesive b. if individuals believe that excellent group performance will lead to a valued outcome c. if the group is large d. if individuals believe that individual performance is crucial to group performance ANSWER: c 110. Group discussion strengthens a group’s dominant point of view and produces a shift toward a more extreme decision in that direction. What is this trend called? a. group cohesiveness b. group conformity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour c. groupthink ANSWER: d
d. group polarization
111. Which of the following trends is the risky shift phenomenon most closely associated with? a. group polarization b. groupthink c. group conformity d. group cohesiveness ANSWER: a 112. In which situation is it most likely that a decision will be made to spend more money than budget guidelines suggest to hire “great entertainment” for an end-of-the-year banquet for an organization? a. when it is a group decision and group members are leaning toward hiring great entertainment b. when it is a group decision and group members are leaning toward staying within the budget c. when it is an individual decision by someone who is leaning toward staying within the budget d. when it is an individual decision by someone who is leaning toward hiring great entertainment ANSWER: a 113. What is most likely to be a factor that contributes to group polarization? a. conformity b. social loafing c. the bystander effect d. obedience ANSWER: a 114. What occurs when members of a cohesive group emphasize concurrence or agreement at the expense of critical thinking in arriving at a decision? a. group polarization b. social loafing c. the bystander effect d. groupthink ANSWER: d 115. Simone just joined a political organization and she has noticed that the members don’t seem to question any of the organization’s policies. It seems as if they are more concerned with being in agreement than with thinking carefully about what the best decision is. Which trend does this example illustrate? a. group cohesiveness b. group polarization c. social loafing d. groupthink ANSWER: d 116. Which of the following is NOT a factor associated with an increased tendency of a group to develop groupthink? a. The group has a relatively weak leader who can be easily influenced by others. b. The group is highly cohesive. c. The group is under pressure to make a major decision quickly. d. The group works in isolation. ANSWER: a 117. Trevor is working in a social neuroscience lab and is studying stereotypes and prejudice. Which study is he likely to be engaged in? a. using fMRI to determine whether the amygdala is involved in implicit attitudes b. comparing social behaviours in humans to social behaviours in other species Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour c. determining reaction times to neutral stimuli, using EEG and galvanic skin response d. surveying various researchers in psychology to determine their attitudes about neuroscience ANSWER: a 118. The results of research concerning conformity, obedience, and the bystander effect illustrate a unifying theme in psychology. According to this theme which of the following should psychology do, in attempting to understand behaviour? a. reflect a sociohistorical context b. be empirical c. be subjective d. be theoretically diverse ANSWER: b 119. If Maurice has a prejudice involving a group of people, which statement would be most accurate? a. Maurice discriminates against that group. b. Maurice has not had direct contact with individuals from that group. c. Maurice has had direct contact with individuals from that group. d. Maurice has a stereotype involving that group. ANSWER: d 120. Which statement does NOT accurately describe prejudice and stereotypes? a. Stereotypes and prejudice are highly resistant to change. b. Stereotypes and prejudice often persist because person perception is objective. c. Behaviour that supports stereotypes and prejudice tends to be better recalled because memory is imperfect. d. Stereotypes and prejudice are often deeply rooted and activated automatically. ANSWER: b 121. Yvonne believes that people from a particular ethnic group are not trustworthy. In her job as manager of a large store, however, Yvonne has hired many people from that ethnic group and does not treat them any differently from any other employees. What does Yvonne demonstrate? a. ingroup bias and discrimination b. prejudice but not discrimination c. ethnocentrism but not prejudice d. discrimination but not prejudice ANSWER: b 122. Which of the following is even more likely to occur than usual when people observe the behaviour of an individual who is a member of a group that is a target of prejudice? a. external attributions b. fundamental attribution error c. self-serving bias d. cognitive dissonance ANSWER: b 123. Which concept best explains the development of prejudicial attitudes in young children? a. ethnocentrism b. operant conditioning c. classical conditioning d. observational learning ANSWER: d 124. Members of a group that is a target of prejudice are usually perceived as members of which type of group? a. a cohesive group b. a polarized group Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour c. an outgroup ANSWER: c
d. an ingroup
125. Imagine you just watched a television infomercial in which a spokesperson described a new product that gets rid of unsightly warts. You think your warts are unsightly and send away for the free informational brochure. When you receive the brochure, what should you do to analyze the credibility of the source of the product? a. Decide whether you can afford the product. b. Read the brochure to determine whether the product seems the same as it did on TV. c. Evaluate the methods that were used to indicate the product is effective. d. Determine whether the company has any physicians who have endorsed the product. ANSWER: c 126. A car salesman persuades you to come back into his office to look at a fact sheet that describes a car you expressed interest in. Which technique is he using? a. foot-in-the-door technique b. reciprocity norm c. lowball technique d. door-in-the-face technique ANSWER: a 127. Which of the following involves getting someone to commit to a seemingly attractive proposition before its hidden costs are revealed? a. highball technique b. door-in-the-face technique c. lowball technique d. foot-in-the-door technique ANSWER: c 128. A friend asks you if you will be his or her date for the wedding of a mutual friend. Only after you agree does your friend mention that you will have to buy new formal wear for the wedding. Which technique did your friend use? a. reciprocity norm b. highball technique c. lowball technique d. foot-in-the-door technique ANSWER: c 129. Observers can make rapid assessments and draw quick inferences about people based on how they move, talk, and gesture. Which of the following examples is NOT supported by research? a. Based on a 10-second video clip, participants can guess a strangers’ sexual orientation with decent accuracy. b. With minimal information, observers can make accurate judgments of racial prejudice. c. Based on a 10-second video clip, participants are unable to accurately assess sexual orientation. d. With minimal information, observers can make accurate judgments of social status and intelligence. ANSWER: c 130. Which statement does NOT accurately describe adults who are high in attachment anxiety? a. Their dating success is often undermined by their awkward behaviours. b. They tend to fear rejection. c. They are no less successful in dating than adults low in attachment anxiety. d. They are more likely to experience rejection. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 13 - Social Behaviour 131. What is the name of a common test frequently used to measure implicit attitudes that reflect prejudice? a. Implicit Language Test (ILT) b. Implicit Attitudes Test (IAT) c. Implicit Association Test (IAT) d. Greenwald Association Test (GAT) ANSWER: c 132. Which type of influence operates when people conform to social norms for fear of negative social consequences? a. negative influence b. defensive influence c. normative influence d. informational influence ANSWER: c 133. Which of the following is NOT an example of a microaggression against an out-group? a. A white person provides friendlier service to white customers than to black customers. b. A white person will not sit on the bus next to a black individual. c. A man assumes a woman cannot do math. d. A man is courteous to a woman on the bus who is carrying multiple packages and attempting to hold on to her child’s hand. ANSWER: d
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 1. Which of the following would be most likely to be studied by a psychologist who applies the biopsychosocial model? a. neural correlates of schizophrenia b. counselling techniques for families c. heritability estimates for personality traits d. how stress affects health and well-being ANSWER: d 2. Which research topic would be most likely to be studied by a health psychologist? a. depression caused by neurochemical imbalance b. heritability of neurosis c. effects of antipsychotic medication on patients d. factors that affect the likelihood of seeking treatment ANSWER: d 3. Which term is defined as circumstances that threaten, or are perceived to threaten, one’s well-being and tax one’s coping abilities? a. pressure b. conflict c. stress d. frustration ANSWER: c 4. Which situation illustrates typical effects of cumulative hassles? a. A soldier develops PTSD after being involved in combat. b. A teenager won’t go to school because of constant bullying. c. A man takes a leave of absence from work to undergo treatment for a chronic illness. d. A woman becomes irritable and unproductive because of constant interruptions at work. ANSWER: d 5. Imagine you studied for this psychology exam with two of your classmates. If one classmate, Becky, was very nervous and “stressed out” about the exam, and the other classmate, Craig, thought the exam “wasn’t a big deal,” what explains their differing attitudes? a. Males experience many events as less stressful than females. b. People’s appraisals of stressful events are highly objective. c. People’s appraisals of stressful events are not very objective. d. Some people use constructive coping techniques to reduce stress. ANSWER: c 6. What differs between acute and chronic stressors? a. physical reactions b. duration c. conscious awareness d. intensity ANSWER: b 7. Which list includes principal types of stress? a. frustration, conflict, anxiety b. anxiety, conflict, change c. change, frustration, pressure d. conflict, fear, pressure ANSWER: c 8. What is frustration? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health a. any noticeable alterations in one’s living circumstances that require readjustment b. expectations or demands that one behave in a certain way c. when two or more incompatible motivations or impulses compete for expression d. the experience whenever the pursuit of some goal is thwarted ANSWER: d 9. When a person’s pursuit of a goal is blocked or thwarted, what does the person experience? a. frustration b. pressure c. conflict d. change ANSWER: a 10. Today is the day your younger sister’s first choice for university said she would get her acceptance (or rejection) letter in the mail. It’s 3:00 p.m. and the mail, which usually comes by noon, still hasn’t been delivered. What type of stress is your sister likely experiencing? a. frustration b. change c. conflict d. pressure ANSWER: a 11. Which statement exemplifies a stressful situation that involves frustration? a. Your parents expect you to get at least a 3.00 GPA this semester. b. You want to go to the big game tomorrow, but the game is sold out. c. You can’t decide which movie to rent for tonight. d. You just moved into a different apartment. ANSWER: b 12. What is conflict? a. the experience whenever the pursuit of some goal is thwarted b. any noticeable alterations in one’s living circumstances that require readjustment c. expectations or demands that one behave in a certain way d. when two or more incompatible motivations or impulses compete for expression ANSWER: d 13. When a person has two or more incompatible motivations or behavioural impulses competing for expression, what does that person experience? a. pressure b. change c. conflict d. frustration ANSWER: c 14. Which of the following is an example of a situation that involves conflict? a. You can’t decide whether to go to Florida or Mexico for spring break. b. You’re stuck behind a slow-moving car on a one-lane road. c. You just took out a large car loan. d. You have a term paper due the day after tomorrow and you haven’t started it yet. ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 15. Jennie is shopping for wedding dresses, and she has found two that she loves. She is having a hard time deciding between them. What sort of conflict is Jennie experiencing? a. attractive-attractive conflict b. avoidance-avoidance conflict c. approach-approach conflict d. approach-avoidance conflict ANSWER: c 16. Which type of conflict tends to be least stressful? a. approach-approach conflict b. attractive-attractive conflict c. avoidance-avoidance conflict d. approach-avoidance conflict ANSWER: a 17. Next semester, John needs to take one required course to complete his history major. The two sections of the course are offered at 8:00 a.m. (not ideal for John who likes to sleep until 10:00 a.m.) and at noon with a boring professor usually referred to as Dr. Dull. As John decides on his schedule, what type of conflict does he experience? a. approach-approach conflict b. avoidance-avoidance conflict c. attack-avoidance conflict d. approach-avoidance conflict ANSWER: b 18. Which type of conflict tends to be most unpleasant and highly stressful? a. approach-approach conflict b. attack-avoidance conflict c. approach-avoidance conflict d. avoidance-avoidance conflict ANSWER: d 19. Zaina is shopping for a new car. She was planning on purchasing a car she could afford if she takes out a small loan. She just looked at a car that she “fell in love with” but she would need to double the size of her car loan to buy it. As Zaina decides whether to purchase the more expensive car, what will she experience? a. approach-avoidance conflict b. approach-approach conflict c. attractive-unattractive conflict d. avoidance-avoidance conflict ANSWER: a 20. Deanna injured her knee and caused permanent damage that prevented her from enjoying her favourite sports. She had to decide whether she would have a painful knee surgery that would require a long recovery before she could have full use of her leg again. First, she decided to have the surgery, then she changed her mind and decided to just live without skiing and running. Next, she again decided to have the surgery. What is the term for Deanna’s reaction? a. incongruence b. vacillation c. approach-approach conflict d. avoidance-avoidance conflict ANSWER: b 21. When noticeable alterations in a person’s living circumstances that require readjustment occur, what does the person experience? a. change b. conflict c. pressure d. frustration ANSWER: a 22. What types of events are included on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. positive and negative events of varying magnitudes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health b. a wide range of events that are generally perceived by most people as aversive c. events related to the disruption of personal and social relationships d. friend- and family-related events ANSWER: a 23. Which statement best describes people with higher scores on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS)? a. They are less likely to exhibit vacillation when making decisions. b. They are more likely to exhibit vacillation when making decisions. c. They are less vulnerable to developing physical illness. d. They are more vulnerable to developing physical illness. ANSWER: d 24. According to results of current research, what does the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) assess? a. changes that will be perceived as aversive b. changes that relate to pressure and conflict c. changes that relate to a wide variety of stressful experiences d. changes that relate to major life events ANSWER: c 25. On the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS), which life event has the highest change score associated with it? a. birth of a child b. divorce c. retirement d. change in responsibilities at work ANSWER: b 26. Janice is working on a group project for class, and the other members of her group really need her to finish her section of the work so that they can complete their work. Her deadline is today, and she’s not quite finished yet. Which type of stress is Janice experiencing? a. change b. frustration c. conflict d. pressure ANSWER: d 27. Which of the following is an example of a stressful situation that involves pressure? a. Eli meets his girlfriend’s parents and she really wants him to make a good impression. b. Tiana is stuck in a traffic jam on the way to work. c. Shay can’t decide whether to study for his psychology exam or work on his history paper. d. Kyla just transferred to a different university. ANSWER: a 28. James has an important job interview tomorrow morning and he obviously wants to do a good job of selling himself to the interviewer. What is James most likely experiencing? a. conflict b. pressure c. change d. frustration ANSWER: b 29. What has a major influence on the type of emotion someone will feel because of stress? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health a. the specific pattern of physiological arousal b. whether the stressor is pressure, change or conflict c. the intensity of the stressor d. the subjective appraisal of the event ANSWER: d 30. Many emotions are experienced by people who are under stress. According to recent research, which type of emotions appear to play a key role in helping people bounce back from the difficulties associated with stress? a. unexpected emotions b. very intense emotions c. positive emotions d. negative emotions ANSWER: c 31. In a study of professional baseball players from the 1950s, which of the following was associated with their longevity? a. batting average b. peak income c. attractiveness d. intensity of smiling ANSWER: d 32. Which of the following describes the relationship between level of arousal and performance? a. inverted-U hypothesis b. matrix hypothesis c. resistance-exhaustion hypothesis d. normal curve hypothesis ANSWER: a 33. Chad is an excellent golfer, very good at basketball, competent at tennis, and has just started to play rugby. For which sport would Chad perform best with a low level of arousal? a. tennis b. basketball c. golf d. rugby ANSWER: d 34. What is the fight-or-flight response? a. a coping reaction to threat involving the parasympathetic nervous system b. a physiological reaction to threat involving the autonomic nervous system c. an emotional reaction to threat involving the central nervous system d. a behavioural reaction to threat involving the somatic nervous system ANSWER: b 35. As Jim was walking, someone suddenly punched him. Jim was very startled, and immediately experienced a series of physiological reactions including increased heart rate, dilated pupils, and a clenching in his gut (as his digestive process stopped). What is illustrated by this example? a. fight-or-flight response b. tend-and-befriend response c. general adaptation response d. amygdala rage response ANSWER: a 36. Which of the following is NOT a common emotional response to stress? a. sadness, anxiety, and pride b. apprehension, anxiety, and fear c. dejection, sadness, and grief d. annoyance, anger, and rage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health ANSWER: a 37. Which statement does NOT reflect Hans Seyle’s description of physiological responses to stress? a. Continuing exposure to a stress may result in the individual exhibiting increased susceptibility to diseases of adaptation. b. Physiological responses to stress differ depending on the specific types of stressors. c. If a stress is prolonged, the individual becomes accustomed to the threat. d. Initially stress causes an activation of the fight-or-flight response. ANSWER: b 38. What is described by the general adaptation syndrome? a. physiological responses to stress b. instinctive coping processes c. constructive coping processes d. behavioural responses to stress ANSWER: a 39. What is NOT one of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. recovery b. resistance c. exhaustion d. alarm reaction ANSWER: a 40. What is the correct order of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. alarm, exhaustion, resistance b. resistance, alarm, exhaustion c. resistance, exhaustion, alarm d. alarm, resistance, exhaustion ANSWER: d 41. Selena looked down at her feet and was startled to see a large poisonous snake. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome would Selena be experiencing at that moment? a. alarm reaction b. appraisal c. resistance d. exhaustion ANSWER: a 42. The headline in The National Busybody reads “97-pound Mom lifts SUV off toddler.” Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome was Mom most likely in at the time? a. alarm reaction b. exhaustion c. recruitment d. resistance ANSWER: a 43. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome allows people to function at a very high level, despite the experience of stress? a. resistance b. exhaustion c. alarm reaction d. recovery ANSWER: a 44. Kim has three papers due and two exams to study for. She feels rather panicked about everything that she needs to accomplish. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Kim experiencing? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health a. exhaustion c. alarm reaction ANSWER: c
b. recovery d. resistance
45. Kim has three papers due and two exams to study for. She was feeling panicked, but now she has gotten to work and is gradually getting through her work. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Kim experiencing? a. resistance b. recovery c. alarm reaction d. exhaustion ANSWER: a 46. Kim had three papers due and two exams to study for. Now that it is all over, she has become quite ill with a severe cold. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Kim experiencing? a. recovery b. exhaustion c. alarm reaction d. resistance ANSWER: b 47. During which stage of the general adaptation syndrome are you most likely to be vulnerable to illness or infection? a. exhaustion b. resistance c. recovery d. alarm reaction ANSWER: a 48. In times of stress, activation of the sympathetic nervous system results in the adrenal medulla secreting hormones. What effect do these hormones tend to have? a. They mobilize the body for action. b. They conserve energy. c. They increase energy and inhibit tissue inflammation. d. They decrease emotional arousal. ANSWER: a 49. What is released by the adrenal medulla under times of stress? a. corticosteroids b. catecholamines c. nerve growth factor d. neurogenesis ANSWER: b 50. In times of stress, stimulation of the pituitary gland results in the adrenal cortex secreting hormones. What do those hormones tend to do? a. increase energy and inhibit tissue inflammation b. conserve energy c. mobilize the body for action d. decrease emotional arousal ANSWER: a 51. Walter Cannon (1932) was one of the first theorists to describe which physiological reaction to threat? a. the fight-flight response b. the tend-befriend response c. the task-performance response d. the optimal-arousal response Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health ANSWER: a 52. What is the main difference between the definition of “coping” in the textbook, and the usual way that people use the term “coping”? a. The typical use of the term is far more general and refers to a wider variety of responses. b. The textbook definition includes maladaptive methods of responding to stress. c. The typical use of the term does not distinguish between different stressors. d. The textbook definition includes physiological responding. ANSWER: b 53. Which statement best describes coping responses? a. They may consist of physiological or emotional responses. b. They are always conscious. c. They may be maladaptive. d. They are always adaptive. ANSWER: c 54. The person who used to sit next to you in psychology class dropped the course because he was failing. Which coping mechanism does this illustrate? a. blaming himself b. abandonment c. giving up d. denial ANSWER: c 55. When Nalla was overwhelmed with studying for exams and writing papers at the end of last semester, she was very critical of herself for procrastinating during the semester, for not being as bright as her classmates, and for spending too much time with her boyfriend. Which coping strategy does Nalla use? a. self-blame b. self-doubt c. self-efficacy d. self-indulgence ANSWER: a 56. Which type of stress most often elicits the coping strategy of aggression? a. pressure b. change c. conflict d. frustration ANSWER: d 57. After a long week balancing her work at the office, visiting her husband who was in the hospital with a broken leg, and making sure she took her turn driving the carpool for her children, Beverly decided she needed some time for herself. She finished work a bit early, stopped by the mall, enjoyed a latte and purchased the leather jacket she had been admiring. Which coping strategy does this reflect? a. constructive coping b. retail therapy c. regression d. indulging oneself ANSWER: d 58. Which term is defined as a largely unconscious reaction that protects a person from unpleasant emotions such as anxiety and guilt? a. general adaptation mechanisms b. defence mechanisms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health c. constructive coping mechanisms ANSWER: b
d. learned helplessness
59. Aline has just found out that her mother’s illness is terminal, and she only has a month to live. Aline doesn’t get too upset about it because she is certain that the doctors will find a cure very quickly and her mother will recover. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. intellectualization b. undoing c. overcompensation d. denial ANSWER: d 60. Jeremy is struggling to make enough money to pay his rent for this month. As he’s walking to work, he daydreams about finding a suitcase full of money and all the ways that he could spend it. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. intellectualization b. overcompensation c. fantasy d. denial ANSWER: c 61. As Patricia’s marriage was ending, she read a lot of psychology texts that dealt with interpersonal attraction and mate choice. She would tell her friends about all the very interesting ways that her relationship’s failure matched up with the patterns and trends described in the research literature, and she even wrote a paper about it for one of her classes. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. denial b. undoing c. overcompensation d. intellectualization ANSWER: d 62. Tyler usually avoids alcohol, but he goes on a serious drinking binge every couple of months. He often gets into trouble with family, friends, or his employer because of his behaviour. After each of these binges, he gets rid of all the alcohol in his house, puts everything in order, gets a new haircut, and promises everyone that he will never drink again. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. undoing b. overcompensation c. fantasy d. denial ANSWER: a 63. Maggie is having a really hard time at work, and she may be at risk of losing her job when the new budget is announced. Instead of improving her skills at work, Maggie goes to the gym every day after work, and completes a gruelling workout. Her personal trainer is incredibly impressed with Maggie’s progress and she gets a lot of compliments on her very toned body. Which defence mechanism does this example illustrate? a. overcompensation b. intellectualization c. denial d. fantasy ANSWER: a 64. Which term refers to relatively healthful efforts that people make to deal with stressful events? a. offensive coping b. adaptive coping c. constructive coping d. defensive coping ANSWER: c
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 65. Which of the following is NOT involved in constructive coping? a. reasonably realistic appraisals of the stress and coping resources b. confronting problems directly c. pursuing substitute sources of satisfaction d. learning to recognize disruptive emotional reactions to stress ANSWER: c 66. Why does stress contribute to impaired task performance? a. Stress disrupts arousal. b. Stress increases desire. c. Stress disrupts attention. d. Stress increases motivation. ANSWER: c 67. Which term is defined as physical and emotional exhaustion, cynicism, and a lowered sense of self-efficacy that can be brought on gradually by chronic work-related stress? a. stress overload b. a mental breakdown c. job-induced stress d. burnout ANSWER: d 68. Sean is having a hard time at work. Even though he works long hours and gets a lot accomplished, it seems as if his supervisor doesn’t give him any credit for his productivity. He is often asked to stay late without much notice, and he isn’t given any choice about it. Sean is exhausted, angry, and feels like he can’t do anything right. Which term best describes what Sean is experiencing? a. overcompensation b. incongruence c. burnout d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: c 69. Which disorder can only be caused by direct exposure to a stressor? a. anxiety disorders b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. depression d. schizophrenia ANSWER: b 70. Which of the following is NOT one of the key themes in the psychological literature which represents constructive coping? a. confronting problems directly b. self-deception as a means of coping through reframing the problem c. realistic appraisals d. learning to recognize potentially disruptive emotional reactions to stress ANSWER: b 71. Which of the following effects of stress is exemplified by resilience, courage, perseverance, and tolerance in the face of adversity? a. Side b. positive c. negative d. constructive ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 72. What is the personality “type” of a person who is very competitive, impatient, quick to anger, and exhibits hostility? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type X d. Type Y ANSWER: a 73. Which characteristic is NOT part of the Type A personality? a. self-control b. impatience c. competitive orientation d. anger and hostility ANSWER: a 74. When compared to Type A people, which statement best describes Type B people? a. They are more achievement oriented, impatient, and hostile. b. They are more hard driving, ambitious, and competitive. c. They are more relaxed, easy-going, and friendly. d. They are more inhibited, compliant, and depressed. ANSWER: c 75. Paul is an executive in a large corporation. He puts in long hours at work, usually has a cell phone to his ear while driving and eats lunch at his desk. He is a tough boss and frequently loses his temper with underperforming employees. When relaxing on the golf course, he has been observed throwing golf clubs into a lake. Paul’s behaviour is typical of which personality type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type X d. Type Y ANSWER: a 76. Among people with Type A personalities, what is associated with their tendency toward anger and hostility? a. burnout b. PTSD c. heart disease d. migraine headaches ANSWER: c 77. Which component of the Type A personality is most directly related to developing heart disease? a. perfectionism b. anger and hostility c. competitive orientation d. impatience and time urgency ANSWER: b 78. Research has demonstrated that brief periods of mental stress can trigger sudden symptoms of heart disease in approximately what percentage of patients with stable heart disease? a. 5–10percent b. 10–30 percent c. 30–70 percent d. 85–95 percent ANSWER: c 79. What emotional state appears to be particularly risky for triggering acute symptoms of heart disease? a. surprise b. sexual arousal c. relative calm d. anger ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 80. What risk factor roughly triples a person’s chance of dying of heart disease? a. depression b. being male c. a professional occupation d. anxiety ANSWER: a 81. Which term is defined as the body’s defensive reaction to invasion by bacteria, viral agents, or other foreign substances? a. the recovery response b. the immune response c. offensive coping d. the general adaptation response ANSWER: b 82. How does stress affect the immune system? a. Stress alters the immune system’s activity to defend against specific illnesses. b. Stress reduces the immune system’s activity initially, but then increases its activity after an adjustment period. c. Stress increases the immune system’s activity, thus providing more protection from illness. d. Stress reduces the immune system’s activity, thus causing the body to become more vulnerable to illness. ANSWER: d 83. Which individual should have the weakest immune system based on the type of stressor experienced? a. someone who must write a report that is due tomorrow b. someone who just narrowly missed a car accident c. someone who has been trying for months to find a job d. someone who just lost a lot of money while gambling ANSWER: c 84. When would university health clinics most likely expect to experience an increase in students seeking treatment for colds and other minor illnesses? a. during the weekend b. during the middle of the week c. during finals week d. during the middle of the semester ANSWER: c 85. What appears to mediate the relationship between stress and illness? a. suppression of cortisol release triggered by the hypothalamus b. chronic inflammation caused by cytokine production c. severity of the stressor d. whether the stressor is real rather than merely perceived ANSWER: b 86. What is associated with increased levels of immune activity? a. increases in stress b. pessimism c. Type A personality d. high levels of social support ANSWER: d 87. Tia spends a lot of time with her family and friends, but she never really discusses her problems or worries with them. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health Still, she finds it very comforting to know that there are people around her who care about her. What does this example illustrate? a. denial b. explicit social support c. implicit social support d. avoidance ANSWER: c 88. What would be predictive of whether an individual prefers implicit or explicit support? a. the severity of the stressor b. the sex of the individuals c. the cultural background of the individual d. the number of friends the individual has ANSWER: c 89. Quinn has experienced several stressors lately, including some worries about money, final exams, and the health of her brother. She has a very positive outlook on the future, however, and feels that things will get better. She keeps on working, and studying, and spending time helping her brother out. Which trait does this example illustrate? a. optimism b. fantasy c. overcompensation d. extraversion ANSWER: a 90. Which one of the Big Five personality traits has been associated with greater longevity? a. agreeableness b. openness to experience c. conscientiousness d. extraversion ANSWER: c 91. How much shorter is the estimated life expectancy of the average smoker compared to the average non-smoker? a. 4–5 years b. 8–9 years c. 13–14 years d. 19–20 years ANSWER: c 92. Blaire has a high-stress job, but she seems to handle it well. She feels that she can handle challenges, to make changes that make a difference in the world, and she is quite committed to her role. What term is used to describe people like Blaire? a. conscientious b. invulnerable c. Type A d. hardy ANSWER: d 93. What is neurogenesis? a. the repair of neurons c. the core component of brain health ANSWER: b
b. the formation of new neurons d. action potential in the dendrites
94. Marie is in an abusive relationship which she has attempted to end on several occasions. Every time she tried to get away, her partner finds a way to stop her, threaten her, or talk her into staying. Nothing seems to be working and she feels she has exhausted all avenues for help. Marie has resigned herself to the situation and now no longer bothers to attempt to avoid his controlling behaviour. She has given up. What syndrome is Marie experiencing? a. battered woman syndrome b. learned helplessness c. histrionic personality disorder d. post-traumatic stress disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health ANSWER: b 95. Matt likes to play really violent video games when he is stressed, because he heard that it could help him to vent his anger and release emotional tension. Which theory is consistent with Matt’s idea? a. rational emotive therapy b. catharsis c. learned helplessness d. general adaptation syndrome ANSWER: b 96. Which individual is least likely to use a condom to prevent transmission of disease? a. someone with high anxiety levels b. someone who is sober c. someone who believes in a “just world” d. someone with high self-esteem ANSWER: c 97. Roommates Ava and Maryse both woke up yesterday with a headache, upset stomach, and muscle stiffness. While Ava was showering for her 9:00 a.m. class, Maryse rushed off to the health clinic to see a doctor. Which of the following is more likely of Maryse, compared to Ava? a. a lower level of anxiety and lower lever of neuroticism b. a lower level of anxiety and higher level of neuroticism c. a higher level of anxiety and lower level of neuroticism d. a higher level of anxiety and higher level of neuroticism ANSWER: d 98. People sometimes delay seeking medical attention, even for medical emergencies like heart attacks. What is NOT one of the primary reasons that people delay seeking medical attention under such circumstances? a. People tend to be immobilized by anxiety about their symptoms. b. People worry about looking silly if the problem is not serious. c. People misinterpret or downplay the significance of their symptoms. d. People are reluctant to disrupt their plans. ANSWER: a 99. What has been demonstrated to be a barrier to effective communication between health-care providers and their patients? a. Medical visits are generally brief and allow little time for discussion. b. Many providers underestimate their patients’ understanding of technical terms. c. Patients tend to report every possible symptom they experience. d. Many providers resent patients who ask questions. ANSWER: a 100. Patients sometimes don’t follow a doctor’s instructions, or don’t follow the instructions exactly as the doctor recommended. What is listed in the textbook as a common reason for such noncompliance? a. Patients can’t afford to follow the treatment recommendations. b. Patients don’t believe they need treatment. c. Patients misunderstand the instructions. d. Patients believe the instructions are inappropriate. ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 101. Arne and Ben each got a small raise last week. Arne feels insulted, because his boss clearly doesn’t value him. Ben feels contented, because the economy is tight, and he feels that any raise is a good thing. According to Albert Ellis, what differs most dramatically between Arne and Ben? a. their activating events b. their belief systems c. their hardiness d. their personality types ANSWER: b 102. One’s risk of developing heart disease is related to a wide variety of lifestyle factors. Which unifying theme in psychology is illustrated by these risk factors? a. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. b. Psychology is empirical. c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. d. Our experience of the world is highly subjective. ANSWER: a 103. Which component of the definition of stress best illustrates the unifying theme in psychology that states that our experience of the world is highly subjective? a. Circumstances that are traumatic are stressful. b. Circumstances that are threatening are stressful. c. Circumstances that are perceived as threatening are stressful. d. Circumstances that are stressful tax one’s coping abilities. ANSWER: c 104. According to Albert Ellis, what should people alter to change their response to stress? a. diet b. supportive aspects of their environments c. baseline levels of arousal d. cognitive appraisal of stress ANSWER: d 105. Anne was turned down for a scholarship that she applied for, and because of that news she decided that she wouldn’t bother finishing her degree. If she wasn’t a good enough student to get a scholarship, then she was likely to do poorly in the rest of her classes and would be wasting her time and money on more years of school. What would Albert Ellis call this type of thinking? a. catastrophic thinking b. optimistic thinking c. pessimistic thinking d. emotional thinking ANSWER: a 106. In which type of therapy would the therapist and client need to detect catastrophic thinking and dispute the irrational assumptions that cause it? a. rational emotive therapy b. relaxation therapy c. general adaptation therapy d. psychoanalytic therapy ANSWER: a 107. When Xiu was rejected for a summer internship he really wanted, he thought that all his plans were ruined and he would no longer be able to get into a good graduate school. Xiu is angry and upset. According to Albert Ellis, what will Xiu think is the cause of his anger? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health a. his irrational appraisal of the situation c. his rational appraisal of the situation ANSWER: d
b. his lack of skill d. the rejection
108. Which of the following does NOT moderate or reduce the effects of stress? a. suppressing pent-up emotions b. regular exercise c. humour d. high levels of social support ANSWER: a 109. What is associated with moderating or reducing the effects of stress? a. pessimism b. relaxation c. stoicism d. suppressing pent-up emotions ANSWER: b 110. Some people make jokes when they are under stress. What does research say about the effects of using humour to deal with stress? a. It increases negative emotional responses to stress. b. It allows people to delay coping with stress. c. It boosts immune functioning. d. It moderates the impact of stress. ANSWER: d 111. While Barb frequently talks to others about her emotions when in a stressful situation, her husband Mike actively tries to suppress his emotions and does not like to discuss the stress in his life. Compared to Barb, what will Mike most likely exhibit? a. increased immune functioning and decreased autonomic arousal b. increased immune functioning and increased autonomic arousal c. decreased immune functioning and decreased autonomic arousal d. deceased immune functioning and increased autonomic arousal ANSWER: d 112. Hardy people tend to withstand the demands of stress a bit better than others due in part to their attitudes and beliefs. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of hardiness? a. control b. change c. commitment d. challenge ANSWER: b 113. Imagine that you are helping a client deal with stress. The client has told you that if she doesn’t get a promotion soon, then her career will be over. Which response would be consistent with rational emotive therapy? a. “That must be really stressful for you.” b. “All you need is a good night’s sleep.” c. “You need to think positively and things will go your way.” d. “That seems unlikely. What good things might happen if you don’t get the promotion?” ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 114. According to Herbert Benson, what is the key to the beneficial effects of meditation? a. relaxation b. mental alertness c. religious inspiration d. sleep ANSWER: a 115. Which life change leads to the biggest improvement in life expectancy? a. decreasing exercise levels, for someone who gets moderate amounts of exercise currently b. decreasing exercise levels, for someone who gets a high level of exercise currently c. increasing exercise levels, for someone who gets a moderate amount of exercise currently d. increasing exercise levels, for someone who gets no exercise currently ANSWER: d 116. Imagine you read a brief newspaper article that states research has shown that eating grilled-cheese sandwiches is correlated with asthma. In evaluating whether you should give up the sandwiches, what is the one piece of additional information that would be most useful to you? a. What is the base rate of asthma? b. Is the difference large enough to have practical implications? c. Do scientists think there is a causal relationship between grilled-cheese sandwiches and asthma? d. Was the research conducted by a psychologist or medical doctor? ANSWER: c 117. Imagine you read a brief newspaper article that states research has shown that eating grilled-cheese sandwiches increases the risk of being struck by lightning by 25 percent. In evaluating whether you should give up the sandwiches, what is the one piece of additional information that would be most useful to you? a. Was the research conducted by a psychologist or medical doctor? b. Would you survive the lightning strike? c. What do scientists think is the causal factor that relates grilled-cheese sandwiches and lightning strikes? d. What is the base rate of lightning strikes, and is this increase meaningful? ANSWER: d 118. Under which condition would knowledge of base rates assist your decision-making? a. You need to decide between two forms of treatment for a disorder. b. You need to determine whether there is a causal relationship between a risk factor and a disease. c. You need to determine whether a statistically significant risk is meaningful. d. You need to determine whether your diagnosis is accurate. ANSWER: c 119. Jane hasn’t been feeling well lately and she went to the doctor. Jane just told you the doctor diagnosed her with Illness X and said she needed to have surgery. If Jane wanted to make a risk-benefit decision, what should Jane ask her doctor? a. Will I make a full recovery after the surgery? b. Are there other options besides surgery? c. What is the etiology of this illness? d. How soon can the surgery be scheduled? ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health 120. Of the following individuals, who would be least likely to develop heart disease? a. Dennis, who is depressed b. Charles, who has high blood pressure and smokes c. Bill, who is a Type B personality d. Andrew, who is a Type A personality ANSWER: c 121. Simon smokes and Chester is a “couch potato” who does not exercise. Which of the following do both men have a higher risk of developing, compared to men who exercise and don’t smoke? a. heart disease b. acquired immune deficiency syndrome c. lung cancer d. ulcers ANSWER: a 122. Which statement best describes the optimal level of arousal? a. It is the level of arousal at which performance peaks and is independent on the complexity of the task at hand. b. It is the level of arousal at which performance peaks and is dependent on the complexity of the task at hand. c. It is the level of arousal at which the least amount of effort is expended to produce the most acceptable results. d. It is the level of arousal required for complex tasks. ANSWER: b 123. Terry is stressed. She’s been getting negative feedback from her boss regarding her performance at work. Her boyfriend is constantly asking her for money that she knows she will never get back. She’s feeling like her life is out of control and lately she has taken up the habit of stress-induced shopping, which has gotten out of hand and is costing her more money than she can afford. Terry is engaging in which of the following behavioural responses to stress? a. overcontrolling b. self-indulgence c. overcompensating d. blaming oneself ANSWER: b 124. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors which moderate the impact of stress? a. social support b. optimism, hardiness, and conscientiousness c. smoking d. stress mindset ANSWER: c 125. What is the name for the area of psychological research which includes professionals who advocate for increased research on well-being, courage, perseverance, tolerance, and other human strengths and virtues? a. learned optimism b. positive psychology c. humanistic psychology d. logotherapy ANSWER: b 126. Which of the following can make relaxation efforts more effective? a. automatic response b. mindfulness meditation c. progressive meditation d. learned optimism Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 14 - Stress, Coping, and Health ANSWER: b
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders 1. What is proposed by the medical model of abnormal behaviour? a. Abnormal behaviours are very similar to physical diseases. b. It is useful to think of abnormal behaviour as a disease. c. Abnormal behaviours are best treated by medical doctors. d. It is useful to think of abnormal behaviours as being caused by infectious agents. ANSWER: b 2. Many psychologists use the concepts of diagnosis, etiology, and prognosis when describing psychological disorders. Which model of abnormal behaviour does this reflect? a. statistical model b. illness model c. medical model d. scientific model ANSWER: c 3. When a psychologist compares the symptoms an individual is experiencing to the symptoms of various disorders to determine the specific disorder the individual has, what is the psychologist concerned with? a. diagnosis b. prognosis c. treatment d. etiology ANSWER: a 4. Dr. Turner is interested in determining whether early childhood viral infections increase the likelihood of experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia in adulthood. Which term refers to Dr. Turner’s interest? a. diagnosis b. prognosis c. covariance d. etiology ANSWER: d 5. According to the medical model of psychological disorders, what is prognosis? a. a statement concerning the probable course of the disorder b. deciding which disorder an individual is experiencing c. describing the apparent cause of the disorder d. taking a medical history of an individual ANSWER: a 6. When Gaelen was tested using a personality inventory, his scores for narcissism were in the 95th percentile. Which criteria for diagnosis of psychological disorders would Gaelen meet? a. cognitive confusion b. deviance c. personal distress d. maladaptive behaviour ANSWER: b 7. Thomas Szasz would be most critical of which commonly used criterion to diagnose psychological disorders? a. maladaptive behaviour b. cognitive confusion c. deviance d. personal distress ANSWER: c 8. Tom displays very odd behaviour. He wears a heavy parka and mittens during the summer and lectures from the steps of City Hall about upcoming invasions by men from outer space. Which criterion of abnormality does Tom’s behaviour Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders meet? a. personal distress c. cognitive confusion ANSWER: b
b. deviance d. the medical model
9. Jack is very depressed, and as a result he is not eating properly, bathing, or going to work. Which criterion for abnormality has been met? a. incompetence b. maladaptiveness c. personal distress d. deviance ANSWER: b 10. For several weeks Alia has been experiencing feelings of overwhelming sadness and despair. Alia is very upset by her depression and frequently tells her family and friends how unhappy she is. Which criterion of abnormality does Alia’s behaviour meet? a. maladaptive behaviour b. emotional imbalance c. deviance d. personal distress ANSWER: d 11. Frequently people call a psychologist for assistance after “deciding for themselves” that they need help. Which two of the commonly used criteria for psychological disorders would people most likely use when deciding to seek treatment? a. deviance and cognitive confusion b. maladaptive behaviour and personal distress c. personal distress and deviance d. cognitive confusion and maladaptive behaviour ANSWER: b 12. Which statement best describes psychological disorders? a. People with psychological disorders usually do not exhibit personal distress or maladaptive behaviour. b. People with psychological disorders behave in bizarre ways and are very different from normal people. c. People with even the most severe psychological disorders can be treated successfully. d. People with psychological disorders are often violent and dangerous. ANSWER: c 13. In Rosenhan’s study using pseudopatients who attempted to be admitted to a mental hospital, which cognitive error was most likely responsible for their incorrect diagnoses? a. availability heuristic b. confirmation bias c. gambler’s fallacy d. my-side bias ANSWER: b 14. Consistent with the medical model, what is the primary use of the DSM-5? a. treatment b. diagnosis c. etiology d. prognosis ANSWER: b 15. What is the name of the classification system used by psychologists to identify psychological disorders? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders a. APA Clinical Handbook b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) c. Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR) d. Encyclopedia of Psychological Disorders ANSWER: b 16. Jason has been diagnosed with depression, as well as a specific phobia. What term is used for this double diagnosis? a. comorbitidy b. etiology c. overdiagnosis d. categorical approach ANSWER: a 17. Dr. Kelley feels that mental disorders each have their own distinct features, and that those features are important for determining which label to apply to a disorder. Which approach does Dr. Kelley endorse? a. a dimensional approach b. a categorical approach c. a maladaptiveness approach d. a deviance approach ANSWER: b 18. While the previous DSM had different labels for different forms of autism, the DSM-5 has autistic spectrum disorder, which includes all the various forms. Which approach does this change represent? a. the deviance approach b. the developmental approach c. the categorical approach d. the dimensional approach ANSWER: d 19. Heather is constantly cleaning her house and is often worried about dirt and germs. Karen can’t throw things away, and as a result her house is dangerously full of junk. Which category of disorders includes both types of symptoms? a. psychotic disorders b. mood disorders c. anxiety disorders d. obsessive-compulsive and related disorders ANSWER: d 20. Which disorder is associated with flashbacks, anger, and guilt? a. post-traumatic stress disorder b. hoarding disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: a 21. Consistent with the concept of preparedness, what is the most common type of phobic stimuli? a. cars and other vehicles b. guns and other weapons c. symbols, such as the number 13 d. animals, such as snakes ANSWER: d 22. Normand has experienced a manic episode but has never had a depressive episode. Which diagnosis is most appropriate for Normand? a. bipolar I b. bipolar II c. cyclothymia d. mood disorder with atypical features Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders ANSWER: a 23. John has been diagnosed with both major depressive disorder and alcohol dependence. Which term describes John’s overall diagnosis? a. codependence b. dual diagnosis c. comorbidity d. additive diagnosis ANSWER: c 24. Cameron’s therapist has not diagnosed him with a particular disorder. Rather, his therapist has created a document that describes all of Cameron’s symptoms and indicates that he has elevated levels of depression and anxiety, but no evidence of psychosis or somatic symptoms of mental illness. Which diagnostic approach is illustrated by this example? a. categorical approach b. dimensional approach c. holistic approach d. psychiatric approach ANSWER: b 25. Erica is a researcher who examines trends in diagnosis. In particular, her research team focuses on whether there are increases in the rate of diagnosis of anxiety disorders during particular seasons. Which term reflects Erica’s research interests? a. diagnosis b. epidemiology c. etiology d. prognosis ANSWER: b 26. According to recent research on the prevalence of psychological disorders, what can be said about the lifetime prevalence of psychological disorders? a. They are lower in modern times than in the 19th or early 20th centuries. b. They are more common than most people realize. c. They are dramatically higher for men than for women. d. They are less common than most people realize. ANSWER: b 27. According to recent data from Statistics Canada, what approximate percentage of people have symptoms consistent with a psychological disorder? a. 10 percent b. 30 percent c. 60 percent d. 90 percent ANSWER: a 28. Which anxiety disorder is characterized by a chronic high level of anxiety that is exhibited by constant worrying and is often associated with physical symptoms such as heart palpitations and muscle tension? a. panic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. major depressive disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder ANSWER: b 29. Sean has difficulty making decisions, and when he finally makes a decision he worries about whether it was the right decision. He constantly worries about his courses, future, girlfriend, and getting a summer job. Recently, Sean has had heart palpitations and muscular tension. Which of the following disorders are Sean’s symptoms most consistent with? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders c. panic disorder ANSWER: b
d. hypochondriasis
30. Which disorder is characterized by anxiety only in certain specific situations? a. specific phobic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. specified anxiety disorder d. panic disorder ANSWER: a 31. Your friend’s mother is afraid of squirrels. While she knows squirrels are basically harmless, she cannot control her anxiety when she sees either a real squirrel or a picture of a squirrel. Which of the following is most consistent with these symptoms? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. delusional disorder c. specific phobia d. panic disorder ANSWER: c 32. What symptoms characterize panic disorder? a. recurrent, sudden, and unexpected attacks of overwhelming anxiety b. enduring psychological disturbances due to a traumatic event c. persistent and irrational fear of an object or situation d. a chronic high level of anxiety ANSWER: a 33. Estelle doesn’t like to leave her house very often because she is very worried that she will “freak out.” On several occasions, usually when she is out shopping, Estelle has experienced debilitating fear that seems to come out of nowhere. The only thing that she can do in those situations is try to hide and wait until it passes, but the experience is terrifying and humiliating. Which disorder is consistent with Estelle’s experience? a. panic disorder b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. schizophrenic disorder d. phobic disorder ANSWER: a 34. Maria is afraid to leave her home to go shopping or even to go to work. She avoids all public places. What is the term for Maria’s symptoms? a. bipolar disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. agoraphobia d. obsessive-compulsive disorder ANSWER: c 35. Which anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent, uncontrollable intrusions of unwanted thoughts and urges to engage in senseless rituals or behaviours? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. post-traumatic stress disorder c. panic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: a 36. Kimberly constantly thinks her immaculate house is dirty and spends most of her day cleaning, scrubbing, and straightening up. Which disorder is most consistent with these symptoms? a. somatization disorder b. phobic disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders ANSWER: d 37. Nick can’t sleep very well because he is often awakened by nightmares. These nightmares contain images and situations that he experienced when he was in prison, where he was repeatedly beaten and humiliated by his cellmate. Even now, several years after he was released, Nick is haunted by his experiences. Which disorder is consistent with Nick’s symptoms? a. night terror disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. panic disorder d. post-traumatic stress disorder ANSWER: d 38. Which biological factor appears to contribute to anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders? a. the neurotransmitters GABA and serotonin b. exposure to stressful events c. classical and operant conditioning d. structural abnormalities of the brain ANSWER: a 39. What is the approximate concordance rate for anxiety disorders among identical twins? a. 10 percent b. 35 percent c. 75 percent d. 90 percent ANSWER: b 40. The development and maintenance of which disorder is best accounted for by the conditioning and learning explanation for the etiology of anxiety disorders? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. panic disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. phobic disorder ANSWER: d 41. Which disorder could be best explained by Martin Seligman’s concept of preparedness? a. a spider phobia b. an elevator phobia c. panic disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder ANSWER: a 42. Which of the following individuals would be most likely to read an ambiguous or neutral word as threatening? a. someone with depression b. someone with a substance use disorder c. someone who is narcissistic d. someone with an anxiety disorder ANSWER: d 43. Which individual would be likely to worry most about driving home from work while it is snowing because he recalls, “The last time I drove home in the snow I skidded and almost had an accident”? a. Alan, who has an anxiety disorder b. David, who has a dissociative disorder c. Sean, who has a schizophrenic disorder d. Scott, who has a mood disorder ANSWER: a 44. Which class of psychological disorders is characterized by people losing contact with portions of their consciousness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders or memory, which results in disruption in their sense of identity? a. mood disorders b. schizophrenic disorders c. dissociative disorders d. anxiety disorders ANSWER: c 45. Which dissociative disorder is characterized by sudden loss of memory concerning a limited period of time, usually after a particularly stressful or traumatic event? a. dissociative amnesia b. dissociative identity disorder c. dissociative fugue d. dissociative depressive disorder ANSWER: a 46. If your carelessness caused your family’s home to burn down, which dissociative disorder are you most likely to develop? a. dissociative fugue b. dissociative amnesia c. dissociative identity disorder d. dissociative depressive disorder ANSWER: b 47. How many Canadians were admitted to hospital for suicide and self-injury attempts in 2011? a. 1,700 b. 17,000 c. 170,000 d. 1,700,000 ANSWER: b 48. Which psychological disorder involves the coexistence in one person of two or more largely complete, and usually very different, personalities? a. schizophrenic disorder b. dissociative fugue c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: c 49. Which statement does NOT accurately describe separate personalities that coexist in an individual with dissociative identity disorder? a. They may have their own names, personality traits, and physical mannerisms. b. They may switch from one personality to another suddenly. c. They may differ in age, sex, or race. d. They are usually all aware of the existence of the other personalities. ANSWER: d 50. What is typically considered a primary factor in the etiology of dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue? a. the activity of specific neurotransmitters b. biological factors associated with genetic predispositions c. responses to excessive stress or trauma d. personality traits such as being self-conscious, insecure, or guilt-prone ANSWER: c 51. Which dissociative disorder is most controversial in terms of its proposed etiology? a. dissociative amnesia b. dissociative fugue Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders c. dissociative depressive disorder ANSWER: d
d. dissociative identity disorder
52. Which statement best describes being not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder? a. It is a diagnosis. b. Persons not criminally responsible intended to commit a crime but will not be held responsible for the crime because of mental disorder. c. It is not a legal concept. d. It is a type of defense used in criminal trials by dependants who admit that they committed the crime but claim they have lacked intent. ANSWER: d 53. Pierre has experienced symptoms of depression for years. Sometimes the depression is rather mild, but other times it is debilitating, and he has required hospitalization. Which term is most appropriate for categorizing Pierre’s disorder? a. major depressive disorder b. subclinical mood disorder c. disorganized mood disorder d. bipolar mood disorder ANSWER: a 54. Which of the following is a mood disorder? a. bipolar disorder b. Fugue c. conversion disorder d. panic disorder ANSWER: a 55. What are the two classes of mood disorders? a. depression and dissociation b. depressive and bipolar c. manic and dysphoric d. anxious and agitated ANSWER: b 56. At what point is depression distinguished from ordinary sadness? a. when the individual starts to have trouble sleeping or concentrating b. when the individual considers suicide c. when there is no observable cause for the depressed mood d. when the individual’s life has been impaired for at least a few weeks ANSWER: d 57. Carly has had intense feelings of sadness for the past several weeks. She has very little energy and has stopped going out with her friends. She has lost her appetite and rarely cooks. Carly feels her situation is hopeless and that she has only herself to blame. Which disorder is most consistent with Carly’s symptoms? a. bipolar disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. minor depressive disorder d. major depressive disorder ANSWER: d 58. Edgar used to enjoy playing sports and hanging out to play cards with his friends. For the last few months, however, Edgar doesn’t seem interested in those activities anymore and doesn’t really seem to get much joy out of anything in his life. Which symptom is illustrated by this example? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders a. mania c. alogia ANSWER: d
b. fugue d. anhedonia
59. Which individual is most likely to experience chronic depression? a. Bella, who started to experience symptoms at age 35, and has a drinking problem b. Alice, who started to experience symptoms at age 35 c. Carla, who started to experience symptoms at age 18 d. Diane, who started to experience symptoms at age 18, and also experiences anxiety ANSWER: d 60. According to Nolen-Hoeksema, which factors lead to the greater likelihood of depression among women compared to men? a. genetic predisposition b. hormone fluctuations c. higher stress and tendency to ruminate d. systematic differences in cognitive errors ANSWER: c 61. Which psychological disorder is characterized by separate episodes of depression and mania? a. bipolar disorder b. major depressive disorder c. post-traumatic stress disorder d. schizophrenic disorder ANSWER: a 62. Elaine has recently become far more talkative and excitable. She isn’t sleeping very much but doesn’t seem to be fatigued. She’s actually become much more productive lately, and people are wondering how long this phase is going to last. Which of the following is consistent with Elaine’s behaviour? a. dysthymia b. fugue c. mania d. anhedonia ANSWER: c 63. Cliff has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Currently, he is very optimistic about his life. Even though he is sleeping only three hours a night, he is very energetic. He has turned his basement into a workshop where he plans to mass produce his new “banana computer,” which will revolutionize the computer market. What is Cliff experiencing? a. a unipolar episode b. a manic episode c. a bipolar episode d. a depressive episode ANSWER: b 64. In Canada what proportion of diagnoses for depression are “seasonal” types? a. 11 percent b. 21 percent c. 31 percent d. 41 percent ANSWER: a 65. If a woman and a man each have depressive symptoms, and have each contemplated suicide, which prediction is most accurate? a. The woman is more likely to attempt suicide. b. The woman is more likely to have bipolar disorder. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders c. The man is more likely to have bipolar disorder. d. The man is more likely to attempt suicide. ANSWER: a 66. Abnormal levels of which neurotransmitters have been associated with mood disorders? a. serotonin and norepinephrine b. GABA and serotonin c. dopamine and GABA d. norepinephrine and dopamine ANSWER: a 67. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a factor associated with the development of depressive disorders? a. a pessimistic explanatory style b. the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine c. the personality trait of neuroticism d. inadequate social skills ANSWER: c 68. Which brain area is about 8–10 percent smaller in depressed individuals compared to nondepressed individuals? a. hippocampus b. corpus callosum c. prefrontal cortex d. hypothalamus ANSWER: a 69. Which statement best describes the emergence of schizophrenia and the use of psychoactive substances? a. They are completed unrelated. b. Research suggests a causal link between marijuana use and the onset of schizophrenia, although the reasons why are not fully understood. c. There is no evidence that methamphetamines contribute to the emergence of schizophrenia. d. Neither marijuana nor methamphetamines have been associated with an increased risk of onset of schizophrenia. ANSWER: b 70. The cognitive approach to explaining the etiology of depressive disorders maintains that there are certain cognitive tendencies among people who are more likely to develop depressive disorders. Which of the following is NOT one of those tendencies? a. attributing setbacks to personal flaws instead of to situational factors b. misinterpreting harmless situations as threatening c. having a pessimistic explanatory style d. ruminating about, or dwelling on, their depression ANSWER: b 71. Which factor is emphasized in Martin Seligman’s learned helplessness theory concerning the etiology of depression? a. cognitive factors involving unreasonably optimistic expectations b. cognitive factors involving a pessimistic explanatory style c. interpersonal factors involving inadequate social skills d. biological factors associated with genetic predispositions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders ANSWER: b 72. Prior to the 18th century, which of the following was NOT one of the popular explanations for abnormal behaviour? a. demon possession b. physical illness c. witchcraft d. divine punishment through affliction ANSWER: b 73. Who argued that abnormal behaviour usually involves a deviation from social norms rather than from illness? a. John Nash b. Thomas Szasz c. Marty Seligman d. Aaron Beck ANSWER: b 74. Megan never quite knows how to talk to people, and she often misses social cues that signal irritation or boredom. Because of her poor social skills, Megan has only a few friends and they aren’t particularly close. Based on this evidence, which category of disorders is Megan more likely to develop? a. dissociative disorders b. schizophrenic disorders c. depressive disorders d. anxiety disorders ANSWER: c 75. Which brain areas tend to be damaged in patients who have experienced both concussion and depression? a. limbic system and hypothalamus b. portions of the frontal and temporal lobes c. brain stem and cerebellum d. somatosensory and sensory cortex ANSWER: b 76. What symptoms characterize schizophrenic disorders? a. physical ailments that cannot be fully explained by organic conditions b. emotional disturbances that may disrupt physical, perceptual, social, and thought processes c. delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and deterioration of adaptive behaviour d. feelings of excessive apprehension and worry ANSWER: c 77. Which psychological disorder is characterized by a fragmentation of thought processes or a “split mind”? a. schizophrenic disorder b. multiple personality disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: a 78. Which of the following disorders has the lowest prevalence rate? a. personality disorder b. anxiety disorder c. mood disorder d. schizophrenic disorder ANSWER: d 79. One symptom of schizophrenic disorder involves an individual having false beliefs that are maintained even though the beliefs clearly are out of touch with reality. What do we call these beliefs? a. illusions b. delusions c. faulty perceptions d. hallucinations Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders ANSWER: b 80. Rick believes that his dog is really his sister who was given up for adoption by his mother 30 years ago. What is the term for Rick’s belief? a. hallucination b. faulty perception c. delusion d. illusion ANSWER: c 81. Sumandeep has withdrawn from social contact with others. She spends most of her time alone in her bedroom. She has stopped going to her job and no longer talks to her family on the phone. Additionally, Sumandeep neglects her personal hygiene and rarely bathes, brushes her teeth, or changes clothes. Which symptom of schizophrenia does Sumandeep’s behaviour illustrate? a. deterioration of adaptive behaviour b. irrational thought c. disturbed emotions d. hallucinations ANSWER: a 82. Kristine frequently hears her food talking to her. In particular, she hears pickles whispering about her whenever she opens the door of the fridge. What is the term for this symptom? a. delusion b. disturbed emotion c. hallucination d. irrational thought ANSWER: c 83. Which emotional symptom is fairly typical for an individual with a schizophrenic disorder to exhibit? a. a “flattening” of emotions b. mild anxiety c. a general sense of calm or well-being d. profound anger ANSWER: a 84. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of schizophrenic disorders? a. hallucinations b. manipulative behaviour without remorse c. disturbed emotions d. deterioration of adaptive behaviour ANSWER: b 85. Which statement best describes people who show Antisocial Personality Disorder? a. They are usually male. b. They are usually female. c. They are not very intelligence. d. They tend to avoid incarceration due the their intellect and are rarely seen in jails. ANSWER: a 86. Why have some parents believed, incorrectly, that vaccinations led to the development of their child’s autism? a. The timing of vaccinations was close to the time that they noticed autistic symptoms. b. Vaccines have been associated with other disorders, and they incorrectly extrapolated. c. The temporary side effects of vaccines are similar to the chronic symptoms of autism. d. A link has been demonstrated in animal models. ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders 87. What do disorders like koro or anorexia nervosa reveal about the universality of mental disorders? a. Disorders will have different names for the same features in different cultures. b. Culture plays a role in the existence and features of some disorders. c. Mental disorders are pancultural. d. Biological influences determine the features of mental disorders. ANSWER: b 88. Which of the following disorders would be least likely to meet the criteria for “insanity”? a. schizophrenia b. bipolar disorder I c. severe deterioration of adaptive behaviour d. antisocial personality disorder ANSWER: d 89. What was the focus of a recent approach to describing variations in schizophrenic disorders? a. the presence of positive or negative symptoms b. the presence or absence of disturbed emotions c. the presence or absence of maladaptive behaviour d. the presence or absence of irrational thought ANSWER: a 90. Timothy has very strange reactions to everyday situations. He often laughs when most people would be sad or frightened, and he gets very angry or agitated for no apparent reason. He often seems as if he is having a conversation or argument with someone who is not present. If Timothy is diagnosed with schizophrenia, which category fits his symptoms best? a. behavioural symptoms b. perceptual symptoms c. positive symptoms d. negative symptoms ANSWER: c 91. Veronica seems very withdrawn from the world. She rarely speaks, and when she does it is somewhat empty of meaning and quiet. She doesn’t seem to react with emotion to things going on around her, and she just seems generally dazed. If Veronica is diagnosed with schizophrenia, which category fits her symptoms best? a. negative symptoms b. behavioural symptoms c. positive symptoms d. perceptual symptoms ANSWER: a 92. Alexis and Alexander are fraternal twins. Boris and Bjorn are identical twins. Alexis and Boris have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the likelihood that Alexander or Bjorn will be diagnosed with schizophrenia as well? a. Alexander and Bjorn are both likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia, and their risks are roughly equivalent. b. Alexander is more likely than Bjorn to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. c. Bjorn is more likely than Alexander to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. d. Neither Alexander nor Bjorn is likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. ANSWER: c 93. What has NOT been proposed as a biological factor associated with the development of schizophrenic disorders? a. cocaine use during adolescence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders b. structural abnormalities in the brain c. neurological damage during prenatal development d. excessive levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine ANSWER: a 94. Which neurotransmitter system has been implicated in the etiology of schizophrenic disorders? a. GABA b. dopamine c. epinephrine d. norepinephrine ANSWER: b 95. Dr. Reid is examining the MRI of a patient who has enlarged ventricles, and an apparent loss of both white matter and grey matter in various areas of the brain. Which disorder is most consistent with this pattern of neural damage? a. major depressive disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. dissociative identity disorder d. schizophrenia ANSWER: d 96. The neurodevelopmental hypothesis of schizophrenia asserts that certain factors in early life are associated with an increased vulnerability to schizophrenia. Which of the following is one of those factors? a. prenatal alcohol exposure b. exposure to pets in early childhood c. prenatal viral infection d. repeated concussions in childhood ANSWER: c 97. Shawna has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and lives at home with her parents. Her mother is always hovering around her and corrects her a lot. Her father is often very critical of her appearance and yells at her to go to her room whenever someone comes to the door. Which term is used to describe the behaviour of Shawna’s parents? a. They have high expressed emotion. b. They are codependent. c. They are comorbid. d. They are smothering. ANSWER: a 98. Shawna has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and lives at home with her parents. Her mother is always hovering around her and corrects her a lot. Her father is often very critical of her appearance and yells at her to go to her room whenever someone comes to the door. Which outcome is likely for Shawna? a. high probability of relapse b. decreased rate of delusions c. comorbid panic disorder d. shift from positive to negative symptoms ANSWER: a 99. Ellen has a hard time keeping down a job because of her behaviour. She is very perfectionistic and doesn’t trust anyone else to do a good job. As a result, she tries to do everything herself, and never feels like anything is good enough. This means that she never finishes projects on time. Which category of mental disorder fits this description best? a. schizophrenic disorders b. personality disorders c. mood disorders d. dissociative disorders ANSWER: b 100. Tony is very rigid and inflexible and has serious difficulties in his interactions with his family and co-workers. If Tony has a psychological disorder, which type is he most likely to be diagnosed with? a. a personality disorder b. an anxiety disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders c. a dissociative disorder ANSWER: a
d. a mood disorder
101. Which personality disorder is most likely to be diagnosed in women? a. antisocial personality disorder b. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder c. borderline personality disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder ANSWER: c 102. Which personality disorder is most likely to be diagnosed in males? a. narcissistic personality disorder b. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder c. histrionic personality disorder d. dependent personality disorder ANSWER: a 103. Natalie doesn’t seem interested in interacting with other people. Even around her family, she seems disinterested in them, and she doesn’t show any warmth or affection for them? Which personality disorder is illustrated by this example? a. narcissistic personality disorder b. histrionic personality disorder c. schizoid personality disorder d. antisocial personality disorder ANSWER: c 104. Which class of psychological disorders is currently under heated debate because of the current methods used to diagnose or categorize those disorders? a. dissociative disorders b. personality disorders c. mood disorders d. anxiety disorders ANSWER: b 105. Which psychological disorder is characterized by impulsive, callous, manipulative, aggressive, and irresponsible behaviour that reflects a failure to accept social norms? a. schizophrenia b. narcissistic personality disorder c. bipolar disorder d. antisocial personality disorder ANSWER: d 106. What is NOT typical of individuals with antisocial personality disorder? a. They chronically violate the rights of others and rarely feel guilty. b. They rarely experience genuine affection for others. c. They are irresponsible and impulsive and can tolerate little frustration. d. They typically avoid social interactions. ANSWER: d 107. What disorder seems to be more common among individuals who come from homes where discipline is erratic or ineffective and where they experienced physical abuse and neglect? a. bipolar disorder b. schizophrenia c. borderline personality disorder d. antisocial personality disorder ANSWER: d 108. Cory is eight years old and spends a lot of his time alone. He is easily upset by noise or crowds, and to calm himself Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders he rocks back and forth while tapping his forehead. He tends to become fixated on one item or topic (like dinosaurs, or vacuum cleaners) and focuses on that thing to the point of obsession. Which disorder is illustrated by this example? a. schizotypal personality disorder b. catatonic schizophrenia c. autistic spectrum disorder d. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder ANSWER: c 109. What is insanity? a. a legal status indicating that a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness b. a diagnosis indicating that a person is dangerous to him- or herself or others c. a legal status indicating that a person is dangerous to him- or herself or others d. a diagnosis indicating that a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions because of mental illness ANSWER: a 110. Which disorder would be most likely to be used in an “insanity defence”? a. phobic disorder b. schizophrenia c. major depressive disorder d. antisocial personality disorder ANSWER: b 111. Which of the following is a widely used heuristic, called the M’Naghten rule, for determining whether an individual accused of a crime qualifies as insane? a. Is he dangerous to himself or others? b. Has he been diagnosed with a psychological disorder? c. Has he been hospitalized for a psychological disorder? d. Is he unable to distinguish right from wrong? ANSWER: d 112. With regard to the legal defence “not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder,” which statement best describes the use and success of this defence, according to Lumburner and Roesch? a. It is rarely used, but often successful when it is employed. b. It is rarely successful and used only in cases of severely disordered defendants. c. It is often used but rarely successful. d. It is typically misused in most cases and is unsuccessful. ANSWER: b 113. John killed his neighbour in view of several witnesses, during a fight. He admitted that he killed the neighbour, because the neighbour had slept with John’s wife. Just before the trial, John was in an accident and suffered a serious head injury. He developed anterograde amnesia and could not remember anything new. Which decision is a judge likely to hand down in John’s case? a. John is not criminally responsible. b. John is guilty by reason of insanity. c. John is acquitted of the crime. d. John is not fit to stand trial. ANSWER: d 114. Which view of psychological disorders suggests that basic standards of normality and abnormality are much the same around the world? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders a. absolutist view c. culture-bound view ANSWER: b
b. pancultural view d. relativistic view
115. Which pair of disorders are ones for which there is considerable cross-cultural agreement that they are clearly abnormal? a. somatization disorder and phobic disorder b. dissociative identity disorder and conversion disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder and hypochondriasis d. schizophrenia and bipolar disorder ANSWER: d 116. What is the term for psychological disorders that are recognized abnormal syndromes but are found in only a few cultural groups? a. pancultural disorders b. unique disorders c. culture-bound disorders d. universal disorders ANSWER: c 117. Which unifying theme in psychology is emphasized by the stress-vulnerability model of schizophrenic and mood disorders? a. Psychology is theoretically diverse. b. Heredity and environment jointly influence behaviour. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. ANSWER: b 118. Which unifying theme in psychology is best reflected by the observation that the development of psychological disorders involves an interplay among a variety of psychological, biological, and social factors? a. People’s experience of the world is highly subjective. b. Behaviour is determined by multiple causes. c. Psychology is empirical. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. ANSWER: b 119. For her height, Zara should weigh approximately 40 kg, but she only weighs about 32 kg. She eats when her family is around, but she carefully documents her calorie intake and makes sure to spend enough time on the treadmill to burn all of it off. Which eating disorder is illustrated by this example? a. anorexia nervosa b. binge eating disorder c. dieting disorder d. bulimia nervosa ANSWER: a 120. Every time Valerie eats a large meal, she tries to induce vomiting as soon as possible after eating. She also uses laxatives on a regular basis to remove as much food as possible from her system. She wishes she had better willpower, because she just can’t help herself from really indulging in large quantities of her favourite foods. Which eating disorder is illustrated by this example? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders a. binge eating disorder c. bulimia nervosa ANSWER: c
b. anorexia nervosa d. dieting disorder
121. When Sonya is stressed out, she just can’t stop eating. One night, she spent hours preparing all her favourite foods, including lasagna, pecan pie, and Caesar salad, and she ate everything while watching old movies. Which eating disorder is illustrated by this example? a. binge eating disorder b. dieting disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa ANSWER: a 122. In which eating disorder do individuals typically maintain a reasonably normal weight? a. body dysmorphic disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. bulimia nervosa d. binge eating disorder ANSWER: c 123. Based on the limited amount of information provided, of the following individuals, who is most likely to develop an eating disorder? a. Doug, a Canadian male who is 19 b. Aimée, a Canadian female who is 16 c. Cadli, an African female who is 15 d. Brittany, an American female who is 23 ANSWER: b 124. Which trait is NOT associated with the development of anorexia nervosa? a. perfectionism b. rigidity c. obsessiveness d. high self-esteem ANSWER: d 125. What has been suggested about mothers of children who develop eating disorders? a. They have extremely rigid sex roles. b. They are emotionally distant from their children. c. They usually are divorced. d. They endorse society’s message that “you can never be too thin” and model unhealthy dieting behaviours. ANSWER: d 126. Due to the representativeness heuristic, many people underestimate the prevalence of psychological disorders. What statement best describes prototypical disorders that anchor the representativeness heuristic? a. They are serious and relatively common. b. They are serious and rare. c. They are relatively minor and relatively common. d. They are relatively minor and rare. ANSWER: b 127. Violent behaviour by an individual with a psychological disorder generally receives more attention than nonviolent behaviour. What does this lead to? a. the availability heuristic, which leads people to overestimate the likelihood of violence by those with Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders psychological disorders b. the conjunction fallacy, which leads people to overestimate rates of comorbidity c. hindsight bias, which leads people to predict future episodes of violent behaviour d. the representativeness heuristic, which leads people to underestimate the number of individuals with mental disorders. ANSWER: a 128. What would you be studying if you were an epidemiologist interested in the rates of alcohol abuse among individuals who are also diagnosed with depression? a. recidivism b. comorbidity c. covariance d. conjunction heuristics ANSWER: b 129. Studies suggest that the prevalence of depression is about twice as high in women as it is in men. Which explanation for the gender gap in the diagnosis of depression is NOT supported by research? a. contention that women are more likely to endure poverty b. notion that women are far more likely to be victims of sexual abuse and harassment c. assertion that it is due to genetics d. suggestion that some of the disparity may be the result of women’s elevated vulnerability to depression at certain points in their reproductive life cycle ANSWER: c 130. What disorder does Canadian comedian and TV personality Howie Mandel suffer from? a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. conversion disorder d. schizophrenia ANSWER: b 131. What disorder has the famous mystery writer Agatha Christie been reported to have suffered from? a. panic disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. dissociative amnesia disorder d. schizophrenia ANSWER: c 132. What did the forensic pathologist who examined NFL defensive back Andre Water’s brain post-mortem say about the condition of the brain tissues? a. The brain tissue was not consistent with cognitive deficits. b. The brain tissue was not consistent with a concussion. c. The brain tissue was similar to that of an 85-year old man. d. The brain tissue was not consistent with depression. ANSWER: c 133. It is sometimes hard to get the attention of a person who is autistic. It seems as though there is a mental barrier between their inner consciousness and the outside world. Which term does Leo Kanner use to refer to this characteristic? a. spinning b. Asperger’s disorder c. autistic aloneness d. schizophrenia ANSWER: c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 15 - Psychological Disorders
Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders 1. Different approaches to psychotherapy are designed to accomplish different outcomes. Which list outlines the correct order of three types of therapy that are designed to change the behaviour, change the thinking, and change the self-concept of a client? a. systematic desensitization, client-centred therapy, cognitive therapy b. electroconvulsive therapy, cognitive therapy, psychoanalysis c. aversion therapy, cognitive therapy, client-centred therapy d. drug therapy, psychoanalysis, group therapy ANSWER: c 2. Which therapy is NOT one of the three major categories of psychotherapy? a. behaviour therapies b. emotion therapies c. biomedical therapies d. insight therapies ANSWER: b 3. Which psychotherapy is being employed by therapists who emphasize “talk therapy” in treatment? a. insight therapy b. biomedical therapy c. emotion therapy d. behaviour therapy ANSWER: a 4. Darryl suffers from chronic anxiety and he decides to seek therapy. Darryl believes that if he learns why he is so anxious he will be better able to cope. Based on Darryl’s beliefs, which type of therapy is he likely to choose? a. insight therapy b. emotion therapy c. behaviour therapy d. biomedical therapy ANSWER: a 5. Dr. Tenzing used treatments based on Skinner’s principles of operant conditioning. Which type of therapist is Dr. Tenzing? a. biomedical therapist b. behavioural therapist c. insight therapist d. emotion therapist ANSWER: b 6. Tarek suffers from chronic anxiety and he decides to seek therapy. Tarek believes that if he can learn to calm himself when he finds himself in anxiety-producing situations, then he will be better able to cope. Based on Tarek’s beliefs, which type of therapy is he most likely to select? a. behaviour therapy b. emotion therapy c. biomedical therapy d. insight therapy ANSWER: a 7. Mohamed suffers from chronic anxiety and he decides to seek therapy. Mohamed’s primary goal is to simply reduce the level of anxiety and tension he is experiencing, and to do so with minimal effort. Which type of therapy is Mohamed most likely to select? a. emotion therapy b. behaviour therapy c. biomedical therapy d. insight therapy ANSWER: c 8. Ashton has decided to seek treatment from a psychologist. Which statement most likely describes Ashton accurately? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders a. Ashton experiences symptoms of anxiety or depression. b. Ashton does not require any actual treatment. c. Ashton has already thought about the type of treatment that is required. d. Ashton will likely be treated with medication. ANSWER: a 9. What are the two principle types of professionals involved in providing psychotherapy? a. psychologists and psychoanalysts b. psychiatrists and counsellors c. psychologists and psychiatrists d. psychoanalysts and counsellors ANSWER: c 10. Which statement does NOT accurately describe the therapeutic use of LSD? a. LSD was used as a treatment for psychological disorders in the late 1950s and early 1060s in CIA-funded research at the Allan Memorial Institute in Montreal. b. LSD was used in a series of Canadian government supported studies in Saskatchewan in the 1950s and 1960s. c. Aldous Huxley coined the term psychedelic. d. Dr. Humphrey Osmond, who worked as a psychiatrist in Montreal in the 1960s, is responsible for giving the famous writer Aldous Huxley his first experiences with hallucinogens. ANSWER: c 11. Which statement does NOT accurately describe psychiatrists? a. Psychiatrists specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders. b. Psychiatrists are physicians and have a medical degree. c. Psychiatrists typically devote very little of their time to relatively serious disorders. d. Psychiatrists frequently emphasize biomedical therapy. ANSWER: c 12. Steve is becoming very aggravated with his therapist, and he has been missing appointments and reacting with sarcasm and hostility to his therapist’s comments. What would Freud call this reaction? a. repression b. incongruence c. resistance d. transference ANSWER: c 13. Which type of therapist is most likely to have a master’s degree, rather than a Ph.D.? a. psychiatrists b. school psychologists c. clinical social workers and counsellors d. clinical psychologists ANSWER: c 14. Sherry’s therapist focuses on verbal interactions to help Sherry gain a deeper understanding of herself. Her therapist’s ultimate goal is to alter Sherry’s personality. Which type of therapist does she have? a. insight therapist b. cognitive-behavioural therapist c. biomedical therapist d. behaviour therapist ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following is NOT an insight therapy? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders a. client-centred therapy c. psychoanalytic therapy ANSWER: d
b. group therapy d. social skills therapy
16. What is emphasized in psychoanalytic therapy? a. providing a supportive climate for clients b. improving interpersonal skills c. recovery of unconscious conflicts, motives, and defences d. correcting habitual thinking errors ANSWER: c 17. What is the term for Sigmund Freud’s approach to the treatment of psychological disorders? a. unconscious therapy b. client-centred therapy c. psychoanalysis d. psychotherapy ANSWER: c 18. What did Sigmund Freud believe caused psychological disorders? a. current stressful situations in one’s life b. maladaptive patterns of thinking established in childhood c. inconsistency between one’s self-concept and reality d. unconscious conflicts left over from early childhood ANSWER: d 19. Which of the following are techniques used in psychoanalysis to uncover unconscious conflicts? a. free association and resistance b. dream analysis and transference c. free association and dream analysis d. resistance and transference ANSWER: c 20. Troy is seeing a therapist who often asks him about his dreams and encourages him to talk about anything that happens to pop into his mind. Which type of therapy is Troy experiencing? a. humanistic therapy b. psychoanalysis c. rational emotive therapy d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: b 21. Laura is encouraged by her therapist to talk about absolutely anything that comes to her mind. Over the course of each session as her train of thought wanders, she usually talks about a variety of topics. From time to time, her therapist comments on her statements. Which technique does this reflect? a. free association b. resistance c. dream analysis d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: a 22. What did Sigmund Freud consider to be the most direct way to access the patient’s unconscious, or the “royal road to the unconscious”? a. dreams b. truth serum c. free association d. hypnosis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders ANSWER: a 23. Which technique do psychoanalysts use to help clients gain insight regarding the unconscious meaning of their free associations and dreams? a. interpretation b. transference c. modelling d. empathy ANSWER: a 24. Sometimes, individuals decide to terminate therapy at a time the therapist feels is premature and at a point when therapy is about to make significant progress. What would Sigmund Freud call this behaviour? a. repression b. interpretation c. transference d. resistance ANSWER: d 25. What term is used to describe largely unconscious defensive manoeuvres by a client intended to hinder the progress of therapy? a. transference b. therapeutic obstacles c. resistance d. maladaptive behaviours ANSWER: c 26. Doris thinks she is in love with her therapist and has begun to respond to him in that way. What do psychoanalysts call these feelings and behaviours? a. transference b. modelling c. interpretation d. free association ANSWER: a 27. Renata is acting very clingy and needy toward her therapist. This is similar to the way that she behaved with her father, who was very distant and never seemed to have time for her. What would Freud call Renata’s current behaviour toward her therapist? a. interpretation b. resistance c. regression d. transference ANSWER: d 28. Reggie’s therapist encourages him to set the pace of their meetings, and to decide what issues need to be addressed. What type of therapy is Reggie experiencing? a. rational-emotive therapy b. client-centred therapy c. psychoanalysis d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: b 29. What is emphasized in client-centred therapy? a. the recovery of unconscious conflicts, motives, and defences b. providing a supportive climate for clients c. correcting habitual thinking errors d. improving interpersonal skills ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders 30. Tim’s therapist is a humanist and has a view of mental illness that is very similar to that of Carl Rogers. What would Tim’s therapist suggest is the cause of Tim’s problems? a. maladaptive patterns of thinking established in his childhood b. unconscious conflicts left over from his early childhood c. current stressful situations in Tim’s life d. inconsistency between Tim’s self-concept and reality ANSWER: d 31. In which therapy do patients themselves play a major role in determining the pace and direction of their therapy and work together with their therapist as equals? a. cognitive therapy b. systematic desensitization therapy c. psychoanalysis therapy d. client-centred therapy ANSWER: d 32. Which of the following is NOT a goal of clients in client-centred therapy? a. developing an accurate self-concept b. gaining self-acceptance c. realizing they do not have to worry about winning acceptance from others d. resolving unconscious conflicts ANSWER: d 33. What is one of the three conditions Carl Rogers believed was important to help create a supportive emotional climate for therapy? a. transference b. unconditional positive regard c. sympathy d. friendship ANSWER: b 34. No matter what Sam tells his therapist concerning his failures or successes, weaknesses or strengths, and positive or negative emotions and behaviours, his therapist is very accepting of him as a person. What is Sam’s therapist showing him? a. transference b. genuineness c. empathy d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: d 35. In therapy, Amanda’s therapist often rephrases and clarifies her comments. If Amanda says, “Last night I was so angry at my daughter I wanted to slap her across the face,” her therapist might respond, “Your daughter really got to you.” What type of therapy uses this technique? a. client-centred therapy b. psychoanalysis c. social skills training d. cognitive therapy ANSWER: a 36. According to Greenberg, what can emotion-focused couples therapy provide that cognitive-behavioural therapy cannot? a. long-lasting results b. dealing with people’s underlying emotions c. reduction in distressing symptoms d. increase in coping ability Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders ANSWER: b 37. Ellen is undergoing treatment for symptoms of depression. During each session, Ellen’s therapist asks her to list all the good things that have happened to her, and to write letters of forgiveness to people who have wronged her. Which type of therapy is Ellen likely experiencing? a. social-skills training b. rational emotive therapy c. psychoanalysis d. positive psychotherapy ANSWER: d 38. According to your textbook, what is the most important behaviour of group members in group therapy? a. They discuss their problems with each other. b. They discuss coping strategies with each other. c. They provide emotional support for each other. d. They share experiences with each other. ANSWER: c 39. Mandy is taking part in group therapy for treatment of her eating disorder. Which benefit can Mandy expect to experience? a. constant monitoring of her progress b. faster treatment of her symptoms c. recognition that her struggles are shared by others d. greater access to biomedical interventions ANSWER: c 40. Jarett is 15 years old and he has been diagnosed with depression. His parents and siblings are all going to family therapy with Jarett. What will be the role of Jarett’s family members in therapy? a. to act as a “control group” so that Jarett’s therapist can determine how severe his symptoms are b. to learn how the whole family interacts and to be aware of their influence on each other c. to learn how to provide Jarett with his medication and enforce his treatment program d. to provide positive role models so that Jarett can pattern his behaviour after them ANSWER: b 41. Many times, an individual with a psychological disorder will recover from the disorder without receiving any treatment. What is this phenomenon called? a. spontaneous recovery b. spontaneous remission c. placebo remission d. placebo recovery ANSWER: b 42. Tom has just started therapy to treat his anxiety and his therapist is very focused on reducing his symptoms. Tom’s therapist is training him in relaxation methods that he can use whenever his anxiety is triggered. Which type of therapy is Tom experiencing? a. psychoanalysis b. insight therapy c. positive psychotherapy d. behaviour therapy ANSWER: d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders 43. According to behaviour therapists, what is the cause of psychological disorders? a. unconscious conflicts left over from childhood b. current stressful situations in one’s life c. past conditioning d. inconsistency between one’s self-concept and reality ANSWER: c 44. Which type of therapy has the central assumption that “What has been learned can be unlearned”? a. group therapy b. behaviour therapy c. insight therapy d. biomedical therapy ANSWER: b 45. Which type of therapist employs the principles of classical and operant conditioning and observational learning? a. biomedical therapists b. behaviour therapists c. client-centred therapists d. psychoanalytic therapists ANSWER: b 46. What is systematic desensitization designed to do? a. correct habitual thinking errors and maladaptive beliefs b. reduce phobic responses c. improve interpersonal skills d. create a negative response to a stimulus that has elicited problematic behaviour ANSWER: b 47. Rick is terrified of spiders and he is currently working with a therapist who uses systematic desensitization. What basic pattern of treatment will Rick experience? a. uncovering repressed feelings about spiders b. changing his attitude about spiders through a series of thought exercises c. training to relax when confronted with spiders d. gradually reducing the amount of medication that he uses to cope with his spider anxiety ANSWER: c 48. Karen is being treated for her phobia of snakes, and her therapist has asked her to construct a list (from lowest to highest) of all the snake-related ideas, images, and experiences that elicit fear. What treatment is Karen experiencing? a. cognitive therapy b. aversion therapy c. psychoanalysis d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: d 49. Alice has a dog phobia. She is being taught to completely relax and then mentally imagine a dog nearby. Which type of therapy is Alice receiving? a. avoidance therapy b. systematic desensitization c. aversion therapy d. psychotherapy ANSWER: b 50. When a client can remain relaxed while imagining one item on his anxiety hierarchy, what does the client do next? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders a. imagine an item at the top of the hierarchy b. imagine the next item lower on the hierarchy c. imagine the next item higher on the hierarchy d. imagine an item at the bottom of the hierarchy ANSWER: c 51. Which pair of treatments contain treatments that are most similar to one another? a. psychoanalysis and systematic desensitization b. cingulotomy and psychoanalysis c. systematic desensitization and exposure therapy d. cingulotomy and exposure therapy ANSWER: c 52. Which of the following is NOT a behaviour therapy? a. systematic desensitization b. social skills training c. rational emotive therapy d. aversion therapy ANSWER: c 53. Which of the following could include a classical conditioning-based behaviour therapy designed to treat alcohol abuse? a. negative punishment b. exposure therapy c. aversion therapy d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: c 54. What is aversion therapy designed to do? a. correct habitual thinking errors and maladaptive beliefs b. create a negative response to a stimulus that has elicited problematic behaviour c. improve interpersonal skills d. reduce phobic responses ANSWER: b 55. What type of treatment may involve giving a problem drinker a drug that induces nausea when combined with alcohol? a. aversion therapy b. drug therapy c. systematic desensitization d. chemotherapy ANSWER: a 56. Aversion therapy would be most appropriate for a client wanting to do which of the following? a. quit smoking b. decrease negative thoughts c. overcome social anxiety d. overcome an elevator phobia ANSWER: a 57. Which of the following is a behaviour therapy? a. rational emotive therapy b. drug therapy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders c. electroconvulsive therapy ANSWER: d
d. social skills training
58. Which therapy uses learning principles associated with operant conditioning and observational learning? a. aversion therapy b. systematic desensitization c. client-centred therapy d. social skills training ANSWER: d 59. Which techniques are primarily employed in social skills training? a. cognitive therapy and modelling b. modelling, behavioural rehearsal, and shaping c. relaxation training and shaping d. classical and operant conditioning ANSWER: b 60. Nora is very timid and is often exploited by others. Nora decides to seek treatment to learn to be more assertive and asks you for advice. Which type of therapy could you recommend that would be appropriate to help with her problem and is likely to result in positive changes relatively quickly? a. psychoanalysis b. rational-emotive therapy c. social skills training d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: c 61. Which pair of therapies both employ the techniques of modelling and behavioural rehearsal? a. aversion therapy and cognitive therapy b. social skills training and systematic desensitization c. aversion therapy and systematic desensitization d. social skills training and cognitive therapy ANSWER: d 62. What is cognitive therapy designed to do? a. create a negative response to a stimulus that has elicited problematic behaviour b. correct habitual thinking errors and maladaptive beliefs c. improve interpersonal skills d. reduce phobic responses ANSWER: b 63. For what type of problem was cognitive therapy originally developed as a treatment? a. low self-esteem b. poor interpersonal skills c. depression d. anxiety ANSWER: c 64. In which type of therapy are clients taught to detect and evaluate their negative, self-defeating thoughts and statements? a. psychoanalysis b. aversion therapy c. social skills training d. cognitive therapy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders ANSWER: d 65. Opal told her therapist that she thinks she’s too stupid to finish university. Opal’s therapist pointed out that Opal got very high grades in many of her courses so far and asked her to explain how that could happen if she were stupid. What type of therapy is Opal experiencing? a. psychoanalytic therapy b. client-centred therapy c. systematic desensitization d. cognitive therapy ANSWER: d 66. Quinn was treated for depression in the past, but she is not currently experiencing any symptoms. What therapy might be recommended for Quinn to prevent a relapse? a. exposure therapy b. psychoanalytic therapy c. mindfulness-based therapy d. systematic desensitization ANSWER: c 67. For which problems would behaviour therapies be least effective? a. obsessive-compulsive disorders b. drug-related problems c. vague feelings of discontent d. phobias ANSWER: c 68. What is the general term for physiological interventions intended to reduce symptoms associated with psychological disorders? a. physical therapy b. biomedical therapy c. drug therapy d. electroconvulsive therapy ANSWER: b 69. What is the class of therapeutic drugs that reduce tension, apprehension, and nervousness? a. antianxiety drugs b. antipsychotic drugs c. mood stabilizers d. antidepressant drugs ANSWER: a 70. Which therapeutic drugs used to treat psychological disorders are commonly referred to as “tranquilizers”? a. antianxiety drugs b. mood stabilizers c. antidepressant drugs d. antipsychotic drugs ANSWER: a 71. What class of psychiatric drugs includes Valium and Xanax? a. mood stabilizers b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. antidepressant drugs ANSWER: b 72. Which group of therapeutic drugs tends to exert their effect almost immediately, but also tends to have an effect that lasts only a short time? a. mood stabilizers b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. antidepressant drugs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders ANSWER: b 73. Carl has an important presentation to make at work next week. He is experiencing a high level of anxiety and is very tense. Carl asks his doctor if there is any medication he could take that would decrease his anxiety and tension. If Carl’s doctor prescribed a drug, what would it most likely be? a. Prozac b. lithium c. chlorpromazine d. Xanax ANSWER: d 74. What side effect is commonly associated with antianxiety drugs? a. agitation b. drowsiness c. dehydration d. muscle tremors ANSWER: b 75. Erik is taking a drug that reduces his feelings of anxiety, but also makes him feel rather drowsy and nauseated. Which drug is he likely taking? a. Valium b. Zoloft c. Lithium d. Thorazine ANSWER: a 76. What class of therapeutic drugs gradually reduces symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, hyperactivity, and mental confusion? a. antipsychotic drugs b. antidepressant drugs c. mood stabilizers d. antianxiety drugs ANSWER: a 77. What class of drugs is involved in the primary therapeutic drug treatment for schizophrenia? a. mood stabilizers b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotic drugs d. antidepressant drugs ANSWER: c 78. Which statement does NOT accurately describe antipsychotic drugs? a. They have an effect on dopamine synapses. b. They usually show effects within two days to a week. c. They reduce symptoms in approximately 95 percent of patients. d. They have many side effects such as drowsiness, tremors, and muscular rigidity. ANSWER: c 79. What is the severe side effect involving involuntary movements that is associated with antipsychotic drugs? a. tardive dyskinesia b. transference c. serotonin syndrome d. eclecticism ANSWER: a 80. Compared to traditional antipsychotic drugs, which statement best describes atypical antipsychotics? a. They have less risk of cardiovascular problems. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders b. They have more unpleasant side effects. c. They have less risk of tardive dyskinesia. d. They are less effective. ANSWER: c 81. What class of therapeutic drugs gradually elevate mood? a. antidepressant drugs b. mood stabilizers c. antipsychotic drugs d. antianxiety drugs ANSWER: a 82. Which class of therapeutic drugs includes tricyclics, MAO inhibitors, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? a. antipsychotic drugs b. antianxiety drugs c. antidepressant drugs d. mood stabilizers ANSWER: c 83. Sandra has been diagnosed with depression. If Sandra is given a drug treatment, which of the following is her doctor most likely to prescribe? a. Thorazine or chlorpromazine b. Prozac, Paxil, or Zoloft c. Valium or Xanax d. lithium ANSWER: b 84. Regan is a teenager who has recently begun taking a drug for the treatment of a mental disorder. Regan’s doctor is monitoring her behaviour closely to watch for signs that she is at risk for suicide, because the drug she is taking has been demonstrated to increase the risk of suicide among adolescents who have just started taking it. Which type of drug is Regan likely taking? a. antipsychotic b. MAO inhibitor c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) d. tricyclic ANSWER: c 85. What therapeutic drugs are used to control bipolar disorder? a. mood stabilizers b. antianxiety drugs c. antipsychotics d. antidepressants ANSWER: a 86. Which therapeutic drug is frequently used to treat bipolar disorder? a. lithium b. fluoxetine c. Valium d. Thorazine ANSWER: a 87. What are the pharmacological effects of lithium? a. gradual reduction of psychotic symptoms b. elevation of mood in patients with bipolar disorder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders c. reduction of tension, apprehension, and nervousness d. control of mood swings in patients with bipolar disorder ANSWER: d 88. Which of the following is a criticism of drug therapy for psychological disorders? a. They are underprescribed. b. The side effects may be worse than the illnesses the drugs are treating. c. The side effects are masked by the reduction of psychological symptoms. d. There is an insufficient variety of drugs to choose from. ANSWER: b 89. Critics suggest that the public is not fully aware of the negative effects of psychiatric drugs due to influence by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following areas is most problematic in terms of the industry’s influence on our awareness of negative drug effects? a. training of physicians who prescribe psychiatric drugs b. marketing of psychiatric drugs c. publicity concerning psychiatric drugs d. publication of research concerning psychiatric drugs ANSWER: d 90. What is the biomedical treatment in which electric shock is used to produce a cortical seizure? a. electrocution therapy b. electroconvulsive therapy c. shock treatment d. aversion therapy ANSWER: b 91. Which disorder is most likely to be treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) by modern doctors? a. schizophrenia b. major depression that has not responded to antidepressant drugs c. major depression d. schizophrenia that has not responded to antipsychotic drugs ANSWER: b 92. Which statement does NOT accurately describe electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? a. ECT is used to treat major depression. b. Evidence has shown that ECT causes structural damage to the brain. c. Memory loss is a common short-term side effect of ECT. d. Use of ECT peaked in the 1940s and 1950s. ANSWER: b 93. Michael has Parkinson’s disease and he is about to be treated using deep brain stimulation. What is about to happen to Michael? a. A drug will be injected directly into his brain stem. b. He will have an electrode implanted in his brain. c. A magnetic coil will be applied to specific regions of his skull. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders d. He will experience bilateral electric shock. ANSWER: b 94. Which statement does NOT accurately describe SSRIs? a. There is evidence from a number of studies in recent years that SSRIs may increase the risk for suicide, especially in adolescents and young children. b. There is evidence from a number of studies in recent years that SSRIs may increase the risk for suicide, but only in adults and not in children. c. SSRIs impact the neural transmission mechanism of serotonin. d. SSRIs produce fewer unpleasant or dangerous side effects than previous generations of antidepressants. ANSWER: b 95. Which term refers to the approach used by a psychologist who draws ideas from two or more systems of therapy instead of just one system? a. cognitive-behavioural approach b. biomedical approach c. eclectic approach d. insightful approach ANSWER: c 96. What is one major reason North American minority groups tend to underutilize mental health services? a. belief that psychological disorders are caused by supernatural forces b. lack of awareness of maladaptiveness of mental disorders c. lack of services in rural areas d. distrust of large institutions like hospitals and community mental health centres ANSWER: d 97. Dr. Boissoneau has just been appointed chief-of-staff at a large hospital located near an area of town where many minorities live. Dr. Boissoneau is very interested in increasing the level of mental health services provided to the minority community. If you could give him one piece of advice, which recommendation would be most beneficial? a. Advertise in the local minority-language newspaper. b. Open several community mental health centres in the neighbourhood. c. Hire trained therapists who are from the same minority groups. d. Have evening and weekend hours for mental health services. ANSWER: c 98. To increase the likelihood that First Nations will benefit from mental health services, which recommendation has been made? a. Therapists should employ treatments that reflect Aboriginal experience, such as with pan-Amerindian healing approaches. b. Create therapies that are designed to be appropriate for a wide range of cultures. c. Therapists must recognize that First Nations are not susceptible to the same disorders as other Canadians. d. More urban treatment facilities must be developed. ANSWER: a 99. During which decade did the treatment of individuals with psychological disorders make a major shift from the public mental hospital system to community mental health centres? Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders a. 1950s c. 1970s ANSWER: b
b. 1960s d. 1980s
100. What resulted from public dissatisfaction with the system of public mental hospitals? a. “rebirth” of mental institutions in the 1960s b. community mental health movement of the 1960s c. managed care movement of the 1990s d. development of psychotherapy techniques in the 1900s ANSWER: b 101. What is the term for the policy of transferring the treatment of mental illness from inpatient institutions to community-based facilities? a. cost-benefit policy b. minimalization c. deinstitutionalization d. dehospitalization ANSWER: c 102. How does the average inpatient population in public mental hospitals today compare to the 1950s? a. Today it is much higher. b. Today it is slightly higher. c. Today it is slightly lower. d. Today it is much lower. ANSWER: d 103. What were two major and unanticipated problems that occurred as a result of deinstitutionalization? a. homelessness among people with mental illness and an increase in domestic violence b. a revolving-door population of patients and an increased crime rate c. an increased crime rate and an increase in domestic violence d. a revolving-door population of patients and homelessness among people with mental illness ANSWER: d 104. Which statement best describes homelessness? a. Approximately one-third of people who are homeless suffer from a severe mental illness. b. Approximately three-quarters of people who are homeless have a severe drug or alcohol problem. c. Approximately half of people who are homeless are minorities. d. Approximately one-third of people who are homeless have a violent criminal past. ANSWER: a 105. The various approaches to psychotherapy differ in their treatment approach, in part because they have different opinions concerning the factors that contribute to the development of psychological disorders. Which unifying theme in psychology is reflected by this example? a. Psychology is empirical. b. Psychology is theoretically diverse. c. Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage. d. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context. ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders 106. What has been demonstrated by research comparing the effectiveness of psychotherapists who received training in several different areas (psychology, psychiatry, counselling, and social work)? a. Clinical psychologists tend to be more effective than psychiatrists. b. No reliable association exists concerning therapists’ professional training and effectiveness. c. Psychiatrists tend to be more effective than clinical and counselling psychologists. d. Psychologists and psychiatrists tend to be more effective than counsellors and social workers. ANSWER: b 107. Your friend has decided to seek out counselling for some personal problems and he asks you whether he should look for a male therapist or a female therapist. What recommendation would you give? a. He should choose a female therapist because female therapists tend to have more empathy. b. He should choose a therapist based on sex only if he thinks it will make a difference to him personally. c. He should choose a male therapist because it is important to have a same-sex therapist. d. There are pros and cons associated with having either sex, so it really depends on his treatment goals. ANSWER: b 108. Which type of psychotherapist tends to be the most expensive? a. those employed by private hospitals b. those employed by social service agencies c. those employed by community mental health centres d. those in private practice ANSWER: d 109. Jeffery has been diagnosed with schizophrenia, and it has been recommended that he see a psychiatrist regularly to monitor his medication and to provide psychotherapy. His family is very worried about the cost of this treatment. Which piece of information would you provide? a. Ask for a referral to a psychologist, because their fees are lower. b. Clinical social workers can provide all the necessary services and are paid through government funding. c. Walk-in clinics provide psychiatric services for discounted rates. d. Treatment by a psychiatrist is often covered by provincial health care. ANSWER: d 110. Which statement is one conclusion of Martin Seligman’s research comparing the effectiveness of different approaches to psychotherapy? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder responds best to behaviour therapy. b. Specific phobias respond best to antianxiety medications. c. Panic disorder responds best to insight therapy. d. Depression responds best to psychoanalysis. ANSWER: a 111. Which factor tends to have the largest effect on the effectiveness of therapy? a. The therapist is in private practice. b. The client is in individual therapy. c. The therapist practises client-centred therapy or psychoanalysis. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders d. The client likes the therapist. ANSWER: d 112. Which statement best characterizes psychotherapy? a. It is a fast or rapid process that requires minimal work or effort. b. It is a slow or gradual process that requires hard work or effort. c. It is a slow or gradual process that requires minimal work or effort. d. It is a fast or rapid process that requires hard work or effort. ANSWER: b 113. If you were to design a study examining the effectiveness of a new psychotherapy, what would you employ to avoid confounding your results with placebo effects? a. a drug-only condition b. a cross-sectional sample c. a control group d. a no-treatment group ANSWER: c 114. What accounts for the tendency for people who score extremely high or low on some trait to score closer to average when they are measured a second time? a. the law of averages b. reaction formation c. regression toward the mean d. the placebo effect ANSWER: c 115. Zachary has been very depressed for several weeks. He just started therapy and went to his therapist for the first time yesterday. Today he says that while he is still “a little down,” he feels much less depressed than he was. Which pair of factors are most likely to have contributed to his improved mood? a. placebo effect and regression toward the mean b. regression toward the mean and therapy c. regression toward the mean and spontaneous recovery d. placebo effect and therapy ANSWER: a 116. Consistent with the phenomenon of regression toward the mean, what would you expect of the person who receives the highest grade in the class on the first psychology exam? a. He or she will get a high grade, but probably not the highest, on the second psychology exam. b. He or she will get a below-average grade on the second psychology exam. c. He or she will get the highest grade in the class on the second psychology exam. d. He or she will get the highest grade in the class on the first economics exam. ANSWER: a 117. You’ve just read about a treatment that has been demonstrated in multiple controlled studies to have absolutely no effect on the disorder in question. Your neighbour swears, however, that the treatment worked for him. If your neighbour is being honest, what best explains his improvement? a. His expectancies are masking the symptoms. b. He never had a disorder in the first place. c. His improvement happened to coincide with his use of the treatment. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.
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Chapter 16 - Treatment of Psychological Disorders d. He is delusional ANSWER: c 118. Which term refers to a biomedical treatment in which electric shock is used to produce a cortical seizure accompanied by convulsions? a. TMS, or transcranial magnetic stimulation b. EIT, or epileptic induction technique c. ECT, or electroconvulsive shock therapy d. fMRI, or magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: c 119. Which statement best describes therapeutic alliance? a. Carl Rogers suggested therapeutic alliance is not a critical component of therapy. b. It is associated with a better therapeutic outcome. c. It is less important in ethnic minority groups. d. It cannot be established unless both the therapist and client are of the same ethnic, religion, and gender. ANSWER: b 120. Who is well known for their role in the development of cognitive-behavioural therapy techniques? a. Aaron Beck. b. Laurence Kirmayer. c. Donald Meichenbaum. d. Keith Dobson ANSWER: c 121. Which practice can be drawn upon in psychological interventions with Canada’s Aboriginal peoples? a. inner wheels b. medicine circles c. sweat lodges d. healing wheels ANSWER: c 122. How does a Psy.D. program differ from a Ph.D. program? a. There is a greater emphasis on the scientist-practitioner model in the Psy.D. program. b. Pursuing research as a career path is not essential to the Psy.D. professional development. c. Ph.D. programs have a relatively heavier emphasis on research whereas the Psy.D. program encourages research but does not require it past the dissertation. d. Psy.D programs are old and arguably outdated compared the Ph.D. programs. ANSWER: c
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