Scientific American Psychology 2nd Edition Licht Test Bank Visit to download the full and correct content document: https://testbankdeal.com/dow nload/scientific-american-psychology-2nd-edition-licht-test-bank/
1. Psychologists use the word _____ to refer to the processes whereby the brain collects, stores, and retrieves information for later use. A) memory B) learning C) intelligence D) sensation
2. Dr. Handy is a psychologist who studies how the brain collects, stores, and retrieves information for later use. Which term BEST describes Dr. Handy's area of interest? A) intelligence B) memory C) cognition D) learning
3. Which factor is NOT one of the three general memory processes identified at the beginning of the chapter? A) encoding B) perception C) storage D) retrieval
4. Which Sequence BEST reflects the order in which memory processes information, from first to last? A) storage, encoding, retrieval B) storage, retrieval, encoding C) encoding, retrieval, storage D) encoding, storage, retrieval
5. While saving data on a computer's hard drive may be likened to the memory process of storage, typing on the keyboard of the computer is analogous to the process of: A) retrieval. B) chunking. C) encoding. D) decay.
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6. How does the brain's memory system differ from that of a computer? A) The brain can only process one type of information at a time. B) The brain's neurons communicate in a more complex manner than what occurs within electrical circuits. C) The brain's storage capacity is more limited than that of a computer. D) The brain preserves information exactly as it was encoded.
7. Clarice presses the Ctrl and S keys on her keyboard to save a document. A file is then created on her computer's hard drive. Clarice's action is MOST analogous to the memory activity of: A) storage. B) encoding. C) retrieval. D) interference.
8. Amelia remarks that she needs to learn the text's section on the structures of the brain for an upcoming test. Brian responds that he couldn't remember the function of the hippocampus on a test the preceding day. Amelia is making reference to the memory process called _____. Brian is referring to the memory process called _____. A) encoding; storage B) retrieval; encoding C) retrieval; storage D) encoding; retrieval
9. Preserving information is to accessing information as _____ is to _____. A) storage; encoding B) storage; retrieval C) encoding; retrieval D) retrieval; storage
10. When one uses the term "remembering" in day-to-day life, one is making reference to the memory process of: A) rehearsal. B) retrieval. C) encoding. D) storage.
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11. When answering such questions as "Who was your date to the junior prom?" or "What costume did you wear last Halloween?" a person is relying MOST explicitly on the memory process of: A) rehearsal. B) encoding. C) retrieval. D) storage.
12. The textbook describes the case of Clive Wearing, who suffered a brain infection called encephalitis. After the infection, Clive could not retain new information for more than a few seconds. His memory process of _____ was impaired. A) encoding B) storage C) transfer D) retrieval
13. Almost everybody has had the feeling of knowing the answer to a question but not being quite able to say it. This is called the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon, and is a failure of: A) encoding. B) retrieval. C) storage. D) rehearsal.
14. A "one-hit-wonder" song popular 5 years ago comes on the radio. "I used to love this song!" Clyde exclaims. "Who sang it?" "Oh! I know! It's . . . it's . . . Darn! It's on the tip of my tongue but it isn't sliding off!" Ralph responds. Ralph is experiencing a failure of the memory process called: A) encoding. B) transfer. C) storage. D) retrieval.
15. "I know it! It's um . . . um . . . It starts with 'G,'" begins a trivia game contestant excitedly. The contestant is falling prey to the _____ phenomenon. A) tip-of-the-tongue B) maintenance rehearsal C) flashbulb memory D) recency
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16. Based on the textbook's discussion, memory competitors appear to differ from other people mainly in their: A) overall intelligence. B) brain structure. C) size of the thymus gland. D) memory strategies.
17. Which Sequence BEST reflects the order of stages in the information processing model of memory? A) short-term memory > sensory memory > long-term memory B) short-term memory > long-term memory > sensory memory C) sensory memory > short-term memory > long-term memory D) sensory memory > long-term memory > short-term memory
18. Which Sequence CORRECTLY arranges the information-processing stages of memory in the correct order? A) sensory memory > short-term memory > long-term memory B) short-term memory > long-term memory > sensory memory C) sensory memory > long-term memory > short-term memory D) short-term memory > sensory memory > long-term memory
19. Which stage in the information-processing model of memory comes FIRST? A) sensory memory B) echoic memory C) short-term memory D) long-term memory
20. Which statement about the information-processing model of memory is TRUE? A) Sensory memory is the last of the three stages in the model. B) Short-term memory is the middle stage of the three stages. C) The capacity of sensory memory is small. D) Long-term memory has a limited capacity.
21. In the information-processing model of memory, _____ memory can be described as "high capacity, long duration." A) sensory B) iconic C) short-term D) long-term
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22. Which statement describes a potential flaw of the information-processing model of memory? A) Sensory memory may be an aspect of perception rather than one of memory. B) There is a clear boundary between short-term memory and long-term memory. C) The model is too complicated. D) Long-term memory is not limitless.
23. The levels of processing framework: A) assumes that the longer material is in short-term memory, the deeper its memory traces will be. B) is primarily concerned with a type of memory called "procedural." C) suggests that thinking about material leads to better memory than does simply repeating the material to oneself. D) holds that meaningless material produces greater depth of processing than does material that can be fitted into meaningful contexts.
24. The levels of processing framework proposes that the ease with which information is remembered may be traced to differences in the processing that occur during: A) encoding. B) storage. C) retrieval. D) any stage of the memory process.
25. Dr. Fernald is conducting a memory experiment. One group of participants has to decide whether each word of a list begins with the same letter as their target word; a second group has to determine whether each word of a list rhymes with their target word; finally, a third group has to determine whether each word of a list is a synonym or an antonym of their target word. Later, all participants of the first group are asked to recall the words that begin with the same letter as their target word, all participants of the second group are asked to recall the words that rhyme with their target word, and all participants of the second group are asked to recall the words that are synonyms or an antonyms of their target word. According to the levels of processing framework, which group will perform the best and which group will perform the worst? A) best – synonym/antonym group; worst – same letter group B) best – same letter group; worst – synonym/antonym group C) best – rhyme group; worst – same letter group D) The theory suggests that the groups should perform equivalently.
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26. According to the levels of processing framework, which study technique would BEST enhance memory? A) highlighting important passages in the text B) reading aloud important passages in the text C) focusing on the meaning of important passages in the text D) visualizing Pages from the text, then "reading" the material contained in them
27. According to the levels of processing framework, which student should retrieve information more successfully on classroom tests? A) Grant, who attempts to memorize his notes B) Irene, who attempts to relate her notes to information she has learned in other classes C) Ben, who skims through the textbook while he's in class D) Jasmine, who writes down definitions of key concepts to remember for later
28. The research reviewed in the textbook—Dunlosky and colleagues, 2013—suggests that practice tests that have low stakes: A) decrease memory for material by increasing anxiety. B) increase memory for material. C) have little effect on memory for material. D) have unpredictable effects on memory for material.
29. _____ memory temporarily maintains and processes limited information for about 30 seconds. A) Echoic B) Iconic C) Short-term D) Long-term
30. Psychologists use the term _____ memory to refer to photographic visual impressions that last less than a second. A) echoic B) iconic C) eidetic D) episodic
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31. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between iconic and echoic memory on the one hand and sensory memory on the other? A) Iconic and echoic memory are components of sensory memory. B) Iconic and echoic memory are types of memory, of which sensory memory is a part. C) Iconic and echoic memory are different types of memory than sensory memory. D) Iconic and echoic memory are different types of sensory memory.
32. Information may last for a few _____ in sensory memory, and the capacity of sensory memory is _____. A) seconds; small B) seconds; large C) minutes; small D) minutes; large
33. The study of sensory memory is closely associated with: A) George Miller. B) Elizabeth Loftus. C) George Sperling. D) Hermann Ebbinghaus.
34. In the late 1950s and early 1960s, psychologist George Sperling conducted important studies of _____ memory. A) sensory B) short-term C) working D) long-term
35. Which statement is TRUE of iconic memory? A) It is a short-term memory. B) It is a long-term memory. C) It dissolves in less than a second. D) It dissolves in about five seconds.
36. Using the partial report technique, George Sperling estimated that sensory memory stored approximately _____% of the letters in a briefly flashed array. A) 26 B) 52 C) 62 D) 76
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37. Iconic memory is to echoic memory as _____ is to _____. A) 10 seconds; less than 1 second B) less than 1 second; 10 seconds C) accurate; inaccurate D) inaccurate; accurate
38. The phenomenon of _____ imagery is fairly similar to what people commonly call "photographic memory." A) eidetic B) elaborative C) echoic D) engrammatic
39. Compared with iconic memory, echoic memory: A) does not last as long. B) is less accurate. C) lasts longer. D) is more accurate.
40. _____ memory is a type of sensory memory that stores sounds and lasts for about 1 to 10 seconds. A) Iconic B) Echoic C) Working D) Explicit
41. The duration of short-term memory is about: A) 10 seconds. B) 30 seconds. C) 2 minutes. D) 3 minutes.
42. Cissy looks up a number in the phone book, pushes the book away, and then dials the number. Why does she discourage any interruptions during this process? A) Information lasts only about 30 seconds in short-term memory. B) Information lasts only about 5 seconds in short-term memory. C) Short-term memory can only store visual information. D) Short-term memory cannot hold more than one item.
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43. How does short-term memory differ from sensory memory? A) Its capacity is larger than that of sensory memory, and it's duration is shorter. B) It cannot store information longer than that of sensory memory. C) Its capacity is smaller than that of sensory memory, and its duration is shorter. D) It can store information longer than that of sensory memory.
44. _____ is a technique used for stretching short-term memory by repeating what you want to remember over and over in your mind. A) Maintenance rehearsal B) Chunking C) Visuospatial stretch D) Trimming
45. Junco and Cotten (2012) found a _____ correlation between college students' GPA and the amount of time they spend texting and using Facebook. A) negative B) minimal C) positive D) perfect
46. According to National Safety Council, 2015, texting while driving increases the likelihood of crashing by _____ times. A) four B) six C) eight D) two
47. According to Strayer and Watson (March, 2012), compared with drunkenness, talking on a cell phone: A) improves alertness while driving. B) impairs driving to a lesser extent. C) impairs driving to about the same extent. D) impairs driving to a greater extent.
48. In the context of the Digit Span Test, which expression BEST reflects the number of digits that can be retained in short-term memory at one time? A) one to two digits B) five to nine digits C) about 15 digits D) about 20 digits
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49. In the words of George Miller, the capacity of short-term memory is the "magical number _____." A) 5, plus or minus 2 B) 6, plus or minus 1 C) 7, plus or minus 2 D) 9, plus or minus 2
50. Tommy is repeating a series of digits in the order in which he heard an experimenter read them. The experimenter is testing the capacity of Tommy's _____ memory. Tommy should be able to repeat about _____ digits correctly. A) short-term; three B) short-term; seven C) sensory; three D) sensory; seven
51. _____ is Miller's name for grouping pieces of information together into meaningful subsets to expand the capacity of short-term memory. A) Chunking B) Clumping C) Consolidating D) Compiling
52. "What's your social security number?" the insurance provider on the phone asks Renee. "One, six, four . . ." Renee begins. After a brief pause, she continues, "Seventy-two . . . sixteen thirty-eight." To ease the burden on the insurance associate's short-term memory, Renee is giving the number in _____, rather than as individual digits. A) nuggets B) clumps C) clusters D) chunks
53. When Roy tells an acquaintance his telephone number, he does not recite the digits one by one at a constant rate, as in "3, 3, 7, 2, 3, 4, 8, 3, 9, 2." Instead, Roy says, "3, 3, 7 . . . 2, 3, 4 . . . 83, 92." This exemplifies _____, a strategy to enhance _____ memory. A) consolidation; sensory B) consolidation; short-term C) chunking; sensory D) chunking; short-term
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54. The concept of working memory represents a contemporary conceptualization of _____ memory. A) sensory B) short-term C) long-term D) echoic
55. Process is to structure as _____ memory is to _____ memory. A) short-term; working B) short-term; sensory C) working; short-term D) long-term; working
56. "She did WHAT?!" Sebastian's roommate exclaims as he relates an anecdote about a mutual friend. Sebastian's roommate processes the story using _____ memory. A) working B) sensory C) semantic D) long-term
57. Working memory is MOST nearly analogous to a: A) Sticky Note on a person's computer screen where he or she constantly jots, updates, and erases temporary notes. B) Post-It note reminding someone of a future obligation. C) file on a computer hard drive that is under process. D) portrait hanging in a museum.
58. On his computer desktop, Rodney can see several different files, each immediately accessible. Since he is actively editing them and can open them whenever he wants, these files are in fact very similar to the kind of information held in _____ memory. A) long-term B) sensory C) working D) procedural
59. Which pairing matches the psychologist(s) with the CORRECT concept or theory? A) Sperling – levels of processing framework B) Tulving and Craik – information processing model C) Baddeley and Hitch – working memory D) Atkinson and Shiffrin – sensory memory
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60. Which component of working memory is CORRECTLY matched with its description? A) phonological loop – directs attention B) visuospatial sketchpad – works with visual information C) episodic buffer – does not work with verbal information D) central executive – integrates information
61. Angel is considering how best to run several errands between his last class in the afternoon and the beginning of his shift at work 2 hours later. In his mind's eye, he sees a mental map of the town. This map helps Angel factor distances, traffic, and so on into his plans. This map is in his working-memory component, which is called the: A) visuospatial sketchpad. B) episodic buffer. C) phonological loop. D) central executive.
62. The central executive is a component of _____ memory. A) sensory B) implicit C) long-term D) working
63. In working memory, visual and verbal information is integrated in the: A) phonological loop. B) sketchpad. C) central executive. D) episodic buffer.
64. As Rodolfo works on a complex multiplication problem in his head, the numbers he is manipulating are in his _____ memory, and the multiplication tables he is drawing upon are in his _____ memory. A) working; long-term B) working; sensory C) long-term; working D) sensory; working
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65. Explicit memory is also called _____ memory. A) declarative B) procedural C) semantic D) episodic
66. Janna is puzzling over a fill-in-the-blank question on a sociology test. Answering the question correctly requires Janna to use her _____ memory. A) explicit B) implicit C) procedural D) flashbulb
67. Because she drank too much alcohol, Deanna barely remembers her 21st birthday celebrations. That is, her _____ memory is sketchy. A) procedural B) semantic C) working D) episodic
68. Which statement accurately captures the relationship among the types of long-term memory? A) Episodic and semantic memory are both components of procedural memory. B) Episodic and semantic memory are both components of explicit memory. C) Explicit and semantic memory are both types of episodic memory. D) Explicit and semantic memory are both types of procedural memory.
69. Cory knows that the capital of Vermont is Montpelier, which is an example of a(n) _____ memory. A) semantic B) episodic C) implicit D) flashbulb
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70. The 9/11 attacks on the World Trade Center. Princess Diana's death. The Sandy Hook school massacre. People's vivid memories surrounding these events are called _____ memories. A) snapshot B) flashbulb C) photocopy D) thumbnail
71. Research has shown that flashbulb memories are often: A) incomplete. B) inaccurate. C) fleeting. D) dreams.
72. Flashbulb memories: A) typically concern major, unexpected public or personal events. B) are remarkably accurate, even years after the initial event. C) must be due to special encoding mechanisms for emotionally charged events. D) are implicit memories.
73. Declarative memory is to nondeclarative memory as _____ memory is to _____ memory. A) implicit; explicit B) semantic; episodic C) explicit; implicit D) episodic; semantic
74. Knowing how to serve a badminton birdie is an example of a(n) _____ memory. A) episodic B) semantic C) procedural D) explicit
75. Memories of which a person is not consciously aware are called _____ memories. A) internal B) subliminal C) episodic D) implicit
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76. Which statement is the BEST reason for viewing classical conditioning as a type of implicit memory? A) Classical conditioning occurs outside one's awareness. B) Classical conditioning requires conscious awareness. C) Classical conditioning is one mechanism whereby a person learns actions and skills. D) Classical conditioning allows a person to learn from experience.
77. _____ devices are methods for improving memory. A) Eidetic B) Mnemonic C) Rehearsal D) Elaborative
78. Bower and colleagues (1969) asked some participants to learn hierarchically organized words. Other participants were asked to learn the same words arranged randomly. All participants were later required to recall the words. Word recall was the _____ variable in this study. A) control B) independent C) experimental D) dependent
79. Bower and colleagues (1969) asked some participants to learn hierarchically organized words. Other participants were asked to learn the same words arranged randomly. All participants were later required to recall the words. In this study, the group learning the organized words was the _____ group. A) control B) independent C) experimental D) dependent
80. The method of loci connects new information to older memories—namely, locations
along a familiar route. The method therefore encourages _____ rehearsal. A) B) C) D)
massed elaborative distributive effortful
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81. Mnemonic strategies facilitate retention by encouraging: A) implicit memory formation. B) elaborative rehearsal. C) short-term memory activation. D) maintenance rehearsal.
82. An acronym helps recall because it is easier to remember an acronym than a long string of information. Thus, acronyms help circumvent the capacity limitations of _____ memory. A) short-term B) sensory C) implicit D) long-term
83. According to the textbook, organizing information hierarchically improves memory by aiding the process of: A) retrieval. B) storage. C) rehearsal. D) encoding.
84. The conscious repetition of information to ensure its survival in short-term memory is termed _____ rehearsal. A) primary B) elaborative C) maintenance D) massed
85. Arturo studies by rewriting and rereading his class notes over and over again; this process is somewhat analogous to _____ rehearsal. A) distributed B) maintenance C) elaborative D) massed
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86. Priti is using the method of loci to learn a list of compliance techniques in her social psychology textbook. Priti is using: A) elaborative rehearsal. B) maintenance rehearsal. C) massed practice. D) distributed practice.
87. Which option illustrates an elaborative rehearsal strategy? A) creating visual images based on the information to be remembered B) verbally repeating information over and over to oneself C) transcribing recorded notes verbatim D) replaying a lecture in one's mind
88. Spacing effect is a result of _____ practice. A) massed B) maintenance C) distributed D) elaborative
89. _____ practice leads to better learning than does _____ practice. A) distributed; massed B) massed; distributed C) distributive; massed D) massed; distributive
90. Massed practice refers to: A) learning a particular skill with a group people. B) encoding and storing information using spacing effect. C) studying for long periods of time without breaks. D) connecting new information to information already in long-term memory.
91. Spacing study sessions over long periods of time with breaks in between is called: A) elaborative rehearsal. B) massed practice. C) maintenance rehearsal. D) distributed practice.
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92. Julaine and Trystan are taking a political science midterm. The test covers five chapters. Yesterday, Julaine studied all five chapters in an 8-hour marathon session. Trystan studied the material over a 5-day period, for just over 90 minutes each day. All else being equal, why will Trystan outperform Julaine? A) because massed practice is superior to distributed practice B) because distributed practice is superior to massed practice C) because of retroactive interference D) because of proactive interference
93. Mei is born and raised in Shanghai. Sandy is born and raised in Salt Lake City. Based on the text's discussion, which statement regarding the life memories of the two women is MOST likely to be true? A) Sandy's memories are more likely to be focused on other people than are Mei's. B) Sandy's memories are less likely than are Mei's to center on personal emotions. C) Mei's memories are more likely to be focused on other people than are Sandy's. D) Mei's memories are less likely to be focused on historical events than are Sandy's.
94. How do Chinese participants' life memories differ from those of Americans, and why? A) Chinese participants' memories more often relate to their own actions and emotions because China is a more individualistic culture. B) Chinese participants' memories more often relate to their own actions and emotions because China is a more collectivist culture. C) Chinese participants' memories more often relate to social and historical events because China is a more individualistic culture. D) Chinese participants' memories more often relate to social and historical events because China is a more collectivist culture.
95. In a study by Dewar and colleagues (2012), people who sat in a dark, quiet room for 15 minutes after learning new material: A) scored lower on a test of retention compared with those who played video games for 15 minutes. B) displayed better retention of the material than did those who played video games for 15 minutes. C) immediately entered REM sleep, where memory was consolidated. D) described feeling more alert.
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96. In one study described in the textbook, Dewar and colleagues (2012) examined participants' retention of newly learned material. Some participants experienced a 15-minute period of wakeful resting after learning the material. Other participants played a game after learning. What did Dewar and colleagues find, and why? A) The wakeful-resting participants outperformed the game participants because the rest aided encoding. B) The wakeful-resting participants outperformed the game participants because the rest prevented interference from newer material. C) The game participants outperformed the wakeful-resting participants because the game prevented interference from newer material. D) The game participants outperformed the wakeful-resting participants because the game encouraged elaborative encoding.
97. A stimulus that facilitates the recall of information from long-term memory is called a: A) retrieval cue. B) reminder. C) recall cue. D) memory probe.
98. An "oldie" playing on the radio reminds Donald of events that occurred when the song was current. For Donald, the song is acting as a(n): A) mnemonic. B) eidetic memory. C) flashbulb memory. D) retrieval cue.
99. Chad was finding it difficult to remember the name of the scientist who
developed the general theory of relativity. Chad's professor told him that the scientist's name begins with the letter "A." Chad soon remembered and said that the name of the scientist is Albert Einstein. In this scenario, the letter "A" serves as: A) B) C) D)
an acronym. episodic memory. a retrieval cue. procedural memory.
100. Which statement BEST captures the relationship between priming and a retrieval cue? A) Priming is the unconscious awakening of memories based on retrieval cues. B) Priming is conscious, whereas retrieval cues are unconscious. C) Priming opposes the action of retrieval cues. D) Priming is explicit, whereas retrieval cues are implicit.
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101. The question on the midterm in an economics course is "Discuss several factors that contributed to the economic collapse of late 2008." This question is a _____ test of _____ memory. A) recall; explicit B) recall; implicit C) recognition; explicit D) recognition; implicit
102. Morton moved from Alabama to Georgia 10 years ago. "My fifth-grade teacher made us memorize the names of all the counties in Alabama," he tells his friend Rory. Rory tests Morton by giving him a list of 30 counties—15 Alabama counties mixed in with 15
counties from other states. "Okay, pick out the Alabama counties," Rory challenges Morton. Which method does Rory's test use? A) B) C) D)
rehearsal recognition reminiscence recall
103. An essay question is a _____ test of memory. A multiple-choice question is a _____ test. A) recall; recall B) recall; recognition C) recognition; recall D) recognition; recognition
104. In a memory experiment, Dr. Aziz gives one group of participants a recognition test of a list of words they had seen earlier; another group is asked to recall the words. What would be a reasonable prediction regarding the relative performance of the two groups on the memory test? A) The recognition group will take longer and recognize fewer words. B) The recall group should outperform the recognition group. C) The recognition group should outperform the recall group. D) The recall group will take longer but will come up with more correct words.
105. People's ability to recall an item from a list depends on where in the list the item occurs. This is known as the _____ effect. A) serial position B) list memory C) regency D) short-term memory
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106. How might one describe the shape of the function relating the probability of an item's recall to the item's position on a list? A) U-shaped B) hyperbola-shaped C) a linear, negatively sloped line D) an inverted-U shape
107. A research participant is required to report as much of a poem as he can remember immediately after having read the poem once. The GREATEST number of recall errors should occur for lines _____ of the poem. A) at the beginning B) in the middle C) at the end D) at the beginning and end
108. The primacy effect refers to the fact that: A) the most important items in a list are more likely to be remembered than are less important items. B) the first-presented items in a list are more likely to be remembered than are items in the middle of the list. C) those items in a list that have the greatest emotional impact are those with the greatest likelihood of recall. D) the items presented most recently in a list are more likely to be remembered than are items presented earlier.
109. "Cat food, cola, toothpaste." Ned's roommate recites items over the phone as he throws his books in the backseat and gets into his car. Ned is supposed to stop at the store on the way home. The roommate continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps up, "Coffee creamer, spaghetti sauce, dish soap, and iced tea mix." Ned forgets a couple of things, but he does get the cat food, cola, and toothpaste. His memory for these items reflects the _____ effect. A) item order B) recency C) serial memory D) primacy
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110. One evening, Zoe examines the schedule for her favorite football team. The team plays 16 games each season. Later she tries recalling that schedule for a friend who likes the same team. It is highly likely that Zoe will recall opponents at the beginning of the schedule particularly well because of the _____ effect. A) primacy B) depth-of-processing C) recency D) eidetic memory
111. Zoe glanced through the entire lyrics of a new song. After a few minutes, she was asked to recall and recite the song lyrics but she could only remember the first verse. Zoe could only remember the first verse, MOST likely because of: A) the recency effect. B) dementia. C) anterograde amnesia. D) the primacy effect.
112. The recency effect refers to the fact that: A) the first several items on a list are more likely to be remembered than are the middle items. B) the last items on a list are more likely to be remembered than are the middle items. C) rehearsed items are more likely to be remembered than are unrehearsed items. D) the most personally relevant items on a list are most likely to be remembered.
113. "Dog food, coffee, paper towels." Michelle's roommate begins reciting items into the phone as she gets into her car; Michelle is supposed to stop by the store on the way home. The roommate continues to list a few more items. Finally, he wraps with, "Coffee creamer, spaghetti sauce, dish soap, and iced tea mix." Michelle forgets a few things, but the spaghetti sauce, dish soap, and iced tea mix are in the bag. Her memory for these items reflects the _____ effect. A) elaboration B) primacy C) chunking D) recency
114. If Lola begins to list all the classes she's ever taken in college, she will most likely recall her last few classes particularly well. What is this phenomenon called? A) chunking B) the primacy effect C) the recency effect D) context-dependent memory
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115. Martha memorizes the test scores of 10 students. After a few minutes, when she is asked to recite the scores of the students, she can only remember the last three students' scores. Martha can only remember the last three students' scores, MOST likely because of: A) the recency effect. B) dementia. C) anterograde amnesia. D) the primacy effect.
116. Before going home, Dr. Rosen tries to flesh out his patient notes. He can remember the first and last sessions of the day, but his memory of the middle ones is a bit fuzzy. Dr. Rosen is a victim of the _____ effect. A) short-term memory B) long-term memory C) serial position D) working memory
117. The _____ states that memories are more easily recalled when the context and cues at the time of encoding are similar to those at the time of retrieval. A) encoding specificity principle B) retrieving specificity principle C) primacy effect D) recency effect
118. Godden and Baddeley (1975) conducted the classic "scuba diver" study of the encoding specificity principle. Baddeley is also known for his groundbreaking work on _____ memory. A) working B) reconstructive C) long-term D) sensory
119. In a classic study by Godden and Baddeley (1975), participants learned lists of words under two conditions: while underwater (using scuba gear) and on dry land. Subjects performed better when they: A) used mnemonic techniques to prepare for the location where they were being tested. B) learned the list on dry ground and were tested underwater. C) learned the list underwater and were tested on dry ground. D) learned the list underwater and were tested underwater.
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120. In the retrieval phase of Godden and Baddeley's (1975) study of the encoding specificity principle, participants were asked to supply all the words they could remember from the encoding condition. This was a _____ measure of memory. A) reconstructive B) savings C) recall D) recognition
121. Glenn has heard students and teachers say that students' test performance is better when students are tested in the same room in which they learned the material. This idea is supported by the results of a pioneering study conducted by: A) Godden and Baddeley (1975). B) Loftus and Palmer (1974). C) Craik and Lockhart (1972). D) Atkinson and Shriffrin (1968).
122. At university A, students from all introductory psychology sections take their final examination all at once in a gymnasium. At university B, students from each introductory psychology section take the final exam in the same classroom they attended for lectures during the semester. All else being equal, students at university _____ should perform better, based on the _____. A) A; encoding specificity principle B) A; spacing effect C) B; encoding specificity principle D) B; spacing effect
123. According to the encoding specificity principle: A) material that is processed more deeply is better remembered. B) the ability to remember an item in a list depends on where the item occurred in the series. C) spreading out study sessions enhances memory for material. D) the similarity between learning and retrieval contexts influences memory.
124. The similarity between the learning and retrieval contexts influences how well information will be remembered. This is known as the: A) levels of processing theory. B) encoding specificity principle. C) serial position effect. D) spacing effect.
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125. Mood-congruent memory is BEST seen as a specific instance of the: A) depth of processing effect. B) spacing effect. C) encoding specificity principle. D) serial position effect.
126. "Have you ever noticed that when people reminisce, they generally remember the good times, not the bad ones?" Sharon remarks. "That's because people are generally in a good mood when they start reminiscing," Portia explains. Portia's mood congruence theory is MOST directly consistent with the: A) encoding specificity principle. B) levels of processing framework. C) false memory effect. D) spacing effect.
127. The FIRST person to quantify the effect of relearning was the psychologist named: A) Weber. B) Ebbinghaus. C) von Helmholtz. D) Wundt.
128. One of Ebbinghaus' key findings was that. A) we never truly forget anything. B) there is a steep forgetting curve. C) the positioning of a word in a list is important for recall. D) we remember things better in the context where they were learned.
129. The FIRST attempts to scientifically study forgetting were made by the psychologist named: A) Ebbinghaus. B) Wundt. C) Weber. D) Muller.
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130. Which statement BEST describes the forgetting function that Ebbinghaus discovered? A) Material is forgotten at a relatively constant rate once it has been learned. B) Nothing is ever really forgotten. C) Material is forgotten at a relatively slow rate at first, and then the rate of forgetting speeds up. D) Material is forgotten relatively rapidly at first, and then the rate of forgetting slows down.
131. What does Ebbinghaus's Curve of Forgetting demonstrate about the way people forget material over time? A) People forget information at a constant rate. B) At first, people forget very little of what they have learned, but as time passes, the rate of forgetting accelerates. C) Most forgetting happens immediately after people learn material; the rate of forgetting slows down as time goes by. D) People forget information at a variable and unpredictable rate as time passes.
132. Which statement BEST describes the results of Ebbinghaus' work on forgetting? A) Beginning immediately, a person will slowly forget what he has learned at a relatively constant rate. B) The person will remember what he learned pretty well for a day or two, but then he'll begin rapidly forgetting the material. C) The person will forget most of it right away, and he'll keep on forgetting more of it, although at a slower rate. D) Forgetting starts out slowly and then speeds up as time passes.
133. Mickey is about to take his psychology final, for which he has studied very hard. Just before the exam, the person sitting next to Mickey asks him the name of the physiologist who worked on classical conditioning. Mickey suddenly realizes that he cannot quite remember the name, but he knows that it starts with a “P” and is two syllables long. Mickey is experiencing: A) proactive interference. B) memory decay. C) retrograde amnesia. D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
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134. Andrew is unable to recall whether Alexander Hamilton's head faces left or right on the $10 bill because he never really paid attention to it. In this scenario, Andrew's failure to recall the information is MOST likely due to _____ failure. A) retrieval B) storage C) encoding D) long-term memory
135. Jeremy's professor asks him the definition of a specific term. Jeremy is not able to answer the professor's question, as he was distracted while the professor was teaching that portion of the chapter in class. In this scenario, Jeremy's failure to answer the question is MOST likely due to _____ failure. A) encoding B) retrieval C) storage D) long-term memory
136. Sarah witnessed a hit and run and immediately called 911 from her cell phone. She provided almost all the details regarding the vehicle that caused the accident, except the license plate number, because she did not pay enough attention to it. Sarah's failure to provide the license plate number is MOST likely due to _____ failure. A) storage B) retrieval C) short-term memory D) encoding
137. Alex tries to recall the name of the founder of Ferrari. He is certain that he knows the name, and he also correctly recalls the first letter of the founder's first name. However, he is unable to recall the rest. In this scenario, Alex experiences: A) an encoding failure. B) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. C) a storage failure. D) the recency-recall failure.
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138. Jerome cannot open his term paper on his computer because the file has become corrupt. Kaci cannot find her term paper on her computer because of all the other documents she has stored on the hard drive. Jerome's failure to retrieve his paper is analogous to memory _____, whereas Kaci's failure better resembles _____. A) retroactive interference; decay B) encoding failure; retroactive interference C) decay; retroactive interference D) decay; encoding failure
139. In _____ interference, information learned earlier disrupts the recall of information learned more recently; in _____ interference, recently learned information disrupts the recall of information learned earlier. A) retroactive; proactive B) proactive; retroactive C) regressive; progressive D) progressive; regressive
140. Bruce watches a new television program with enthusiasm. He then watches a second, similar program. Bruce later finds it difficult to remember the details of the first program; he finds that details about the second program keep intruding. What has probably occurred? A) retroactive interference B) decay C) encoding failure D) proactive interference
141. Nana is taking a Spanish final at the end of the spring semester. The problem is that the French vocabulary she learned the semester before keeps getting in the way, causing her to forget Spanish words. Nana is experiencing _____ interference. A) retroactive B) anterograde C) proactive D) retrograde
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142. Owen has trouble remembering a friend's new phone number; he keeps recalling the old number instead. Completing a rental application, Pippa finds that she can't recall one of her previous addresses, as she's had several addresses since. Owen is experiencing _____ interference, while Pippa is experiencing _____ interference. A) retrograde; anterograde B) proactive; retroactive C) anterograde; retrograde D) retroactive; proactive
143. Which explanation of forgetting is CORRECTLY described? A) decay – Information is lost over time as a result of nonuse. B) interference – Information never entered memory to begin with. C) encoding failure – Forgetting occurs because other information in memory disrupts the retrieval of the information one is trying to remember. D) storage failure – Forgetting occurs because we never really learned the information when it was originally presented.
144. The theories of forgetting described in the text may be likened to the difficulties people might face in trying to find an old file on the computer. Which theory is CORRECTLY likened to a corresponding file-finding difficulty? A) decay – The desired file was never saved in the first place. B) interference – There are so many files crowding the hard drive that one can't find the desired file. C) encoding failure – The desired file is so old that it has become corrupted and irretrievable. D) priming – The file was saved in an inaccessible location.
145. One psychologist associated with the view that memory is reconstructive is: A) George Miller. B) George Sperling. C) Henry Molaison. D) Elizabeth Loftus.
146. The idea that memory reflects a blend of fact and fiction is called the: A) encoding specificity principle. B) information-processing model. C) levels of processing framework. D) reconstructionist model.
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147. Loftus and Palmer (1974) conducted an experiment in which participants estimated the speed of a car described as either hitting or smashing into another vehicle. Results indicated that, when the accident was described using the word: A) “smashed,” participants correctly recalled more broken glass. B) “hit,” participants correctly recalled more broken glass. C) “smashed,” participants recalled the vehicles driving more slowly. D) “hit,” participants recalled the vehicles driving more slowly.
148. The misinformation effect highlights the: A) changeability of memory. B) importance of encoding. C) speed of forgetting. D) limitations of short-term memory.
149. In rich false memory experiments, about _____% of participants remember events that never happened. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75
150. When disturbing memories are unconsciously prevented from entering awareness, it is said that the memories have been: A) decayed. B) repressed. C) denied. D) falsely encoded.
151. Given its emphasis on the unconscious, the notion that disturbing memories may be repressed is particularly relevant for: A) Ebbinghaus' theory of savings in relearning. B) Loftus' reconstructive model of memory. C) Craik and Tulving's levels of processing framework. D) Baddeley's working memory model.
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152. Approximately _____% of girls and _____% of boys worldwide experience childhood sexual abuse. A) 6; 10 B) 12; 15 C) 18; 8 D) 20; 5
153. With respect to the repressed memory debate, the American Psychological Association released a 1998 statement affirming that: A) memories of abuse are often repressed. B) childhood sexual abuse is fairly uncommon. C) recovered memories of abuse are generally accurate. D) there is a lack of understanding of how accurate and flawed memories of childhood abuse are formed.
154. After a severe bout of encephalitis, Clive Wearing could no longer develop new memories. Clive suffered from _____ amnesia. A) proactive B) anterograde C) retroactive D) retrograde
155. _____ amnesia involves an inability to form new memories. A) Anterograde B) Retrograde C) Proactive D) Retroactive
156. Rhonda is unable to form or hold new memories following a brain surgery. Given this information, it can be stated that Rhonda is suffering from _____ amnesia. A) psychogenic B) retrograde C) anterograde D) retroactive
157. _____ amnesia involves an inability to retrieve old memories. A) Anterograde B) Retrograde C) Proactive D) Retroactive
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158. Omar experienced a dissociative fugue state. He suddenly snapped out of it in front of a pet-supplies display in a Boise, Idaho, discount store; he had no memory whatsoever of his previous life in Greensboro, North Carolina. Omar's amnesia is BEST described as: A) proactive. B) retrograde. C) anterograde. D) retroactive.
159. The inability to retrieve past memories is called _____ amnesia. The inability to develop new memories is called _____ amnesia. A) retroactive; anterograde B) anterograde; retrograde C) proactive; retrograde D) retrograde; anterograde
160. In _____ amnesia, memory is lost for events preceding an injury or accident; in _____ amnesia, memory is lost for events following an injury or accident. A) anterograde; retrograde B) retrograde; anterograde C) retroactive; proactive D) proactive; retroactive
161. With respect to amnesia, "antero-" is to "retro-" as _____ is to _____. A) after; before B) before; after C) mild; severe D) severe; mild
162. The term "engram" is generally discouraged by psychologists studying memory. Why might this be? A) The term engram is associated with connectionism, a view of the brain's organization that is now discredited. B) The hippocampus plays a smaller role in memory than psychologists once believed. C) Psychologists believe it is possible to identify the physical brain bases for a particular memory. D) There is probably no single site or process in the brain corresponding to a particular memory.
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163. Which statement is TRUE of the brain? A) The hippocampus plays a vital role in the creation of new memories. B) Memories are localized in a particular region called the amygdala. C) Temporal lobes consolidate all the memories in the brain. D) Explicit memories are formed in the cerebellum.
164. Psychologists first learned about the hippocampus's involvement in memory through the detailed study of a single individual with brain damage, namely Henry Molaison (H.M.). H.M. suffered from: A) anterograde amnesia. B) retrograde amnesia. C) a lack of long-term memory. D) a memory trace.
165. The amygdala is to _____ memory formation as the hippocampus as is to _____ memory formation. A) explicit; implicit B) working; emotional C) implicit; explicit D) long-term; sensory
166. The hippocampus is located in the _____ lobe. A) frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) occipital
167. The hippocampus plays a role in memory consolidation. It is probably MOST accurate to say that the hippocampus is more involved in _____ than in _____. A) encoding; retrieval B) retrieval; encoding C) retrieval; storage D) storage; encoding
168. Which brain structure is CORRECTLY matched with its memory function? A) prefrontal cortex – memory consolidation B) hippocampus – emotional memory C) amygdala – working memory D) cerebellum – procedural memory
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169. The textbook describes the case of Henry Molaison, also known as H.M. After brain surgery, H.M. could no longer create long-term memories. H.M. suffered from _____ amnesia. A) retrograde B) proactive C) anterograde D) retroactive
170. The textbook describes the case of Henry Molaison, also known as H.M. After brain surgery, H.M. suffered severe memory loss. However, H.M. experienced greater difficulty encoding new memories than in retrieving old ones. H.M.'s _____ amnesia was more profound than was his _____ amnesia. A) anterograde; retrograde B) proactive; retroactive C) retrograde; anterograde D) retroactive; proactive
171. The textbook describes the case of Henry Molaison, also known as H.M. After brain surgery, H.M. suffered severe anterograde amnesia. This means that H.M. had difficulty: A) retrieving existing long-term memories. B) recalling past life events. C) remembering facts. D) creating new long-term memories.
172. The textbook reviews the case of Henry Molaison, also known as H.M. After brain surgery, H.M. suffered hippocampal damage. Which type of memory was BEST preserved in H.M.'s case? A) semantic B) procedural C) episodic D) explicit
173. The textbook reviews the case of Henry Molaison, also known as H.M. After brain surgery, H.M. suffered hippocampal damage. Which type of memory was MOST damaged in H.M.'s case? A) explicit B) procedural C) implicit D) sensory
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174. According to the text, H.M.'s explicit memory was severely damaged, but his implicit memory was relatively normal. This means that H.M.'s _____ memory was probably impaired, but his _____ memory was largely intact. A) semantic; explicit B) procedural; episodic C) explicit; procedural D) episodic; semantic
175. The text describes the case of H.M., whose memory was severely impaired after surgery for epilepsy. Which statement is TRUE? A) H.M. could create new memories. B) H.M.'s implicit memory was less damaged than was his explicit memory. C) H.M. could not retrieve old memories. D) H.M.'s explicit memory was less damaged than was his implicit memory.
176. The frontal lobe is to _____ memory as the temporal lobe is to _____ memory. A) spatial; sensory B) spatial; working C) sensory; spatial D) working; spatial
177. Estelle remembers a night when she was mugged and brutally beaten. This memory probably involves not only her hippocampus, but also her: A) cerebellum. B) hypothalamus. C) thalamus. D) amygdala.
178. Some psychologists relate infantile amnesia to the immaturity of the _____ among very young children. A) hypothalamus and amygdala B) cerebellum and the hypothalamus C) amygdala and cerebellum D) hippocampus and prefrontal cortex
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179. Long-term potentiation refers to the process whereby: A) the number of synaptic and dendritic connections between neurons increases with experience. B) memories become fixed and stable for the long term. C) neural pathways become activated more efficiently as learning occurs. D) disturbing memories seem to gain in intensity over time.
180. Aplysia is: A) a memory deficiency syndrome. B) a sea slug. C) a heart condition. D) the inability to recognize objects.
181. According to the National Institute on Aging (2013), Alzheimer's disease affects as many as _____ million Americans. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10
182. Which Feature of Alzheimer's disease is CORRECTLY described? A) neurofibrillary tangles – protein clumps accumulating between neurons B) amyloid plaques – result from twisted protein fibers between brain cells C) amyloid plaques – protein clumps accumulating inside neurons D) neurofibrillary tangles – result from twisted protein fibers inside brain cells
183. Preliminary evidence suggests that levels of physical and mental activity are both _____ correlated with the severity of the cognitive decline seen in Alzheimer's disease. A) perfectly B) positively C) weakly D) negatively
184. Which sign is MOST likely indicative of Alzheimer's disease? A) the presence of amyloid plaques B) an increase in brain size C) the birth of new brain cells D) an increase in the ability to perform high-end manual calculations
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185. Suppose someone asks you, "On a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 being 'all nature' and 10 being 'all nurture,' where would you put Alzheimer's disease?" Based on information provided in the text, the BEST answer probably is: A) "definitely 1." B) "probably a 2 or a 3." C) "a 5, I guess." D) "most certainly a 9 or 10."
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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. B 42. A 43. D 44. A
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45. A 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. B 51. A 52. D 53. D 54. B 55. C 56. A 57. C 58. C 59. C 60. B 61. A 62. D 63. D 64. A 65. A 66. A 67. D 68. B 69. A 70. B 71. D 72. A 73. C 74. C 75. D 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. C 80. B 81. B 82. A 83. D 84. C 85. B 86. A 87. A 88. C 89. A 90. C
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91. D 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. D 99. C 100. A 101. A 102. B 103. B 104. C 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. D 110. A 111. D 112. B 113. D 114. C 115. A 116. C 117. A 118. A 119. D 120. C 121. A 122. C 123. D 124. B 125. C 126. A 127. B 128. B 129. A 130. D 131. C 132. C 133. D 134. C 135. A 136. D
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137. B 138. C 139. B 140. A 141. C 142. B 143. A 144. B 145. D 146. D 147. D 148. A 149. B 150. B 151. B 152. C 153. D 154. B 155. A 156. C 157. B 158. B 159. D 160. B 161. A 162. D 163. A 164. A 165. C 166. C 167. A 168. D 169. C 170. A 171. D 172. B 173. A 174. C 175. B 176. D 177. D 178. D 179. C 180. B 181. C 182. D
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183. D 184. A 185. C
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