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ENV 100T Assignment Week 3 Wileyplus Exam (June, 2019)

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com Question 1 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

When do earthquakes occur? Entry field with correct answer During rockfalls. When rocks shift or break and allow magma to push up words, releasing energy and heat. As rocks shift or break releasing energy vibrations that travel to the earth’s surface. Rocks shift displacing water that results in tsunamis. Question 2 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

Which of the following statements about the nature of global mineral use is FALSE? Entry field with correct answer


Highly developed nations like the United States and Canada have less than 6% of the world population but consume more than 25% of the world’s metals. Many of the world’s top mineral producers are highly developed countries such as the United States, Canada, Australia, and Russia. Both mineral production and mineral consumption in China is on the rise as the country industrializes – for example, China both produces and consumes about 34% of the world’s primary aluminum (aluminum obtained from ores). No false statement, all statements are true about the nature of global mineral use.

Question 3 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

Contour plowing, strip cropping, and terracing are soil conservation methods that are BEST suited to which of the following situations? Entry field with correct answer Arid soils prone to salinization Nitrogen depleted soils Reclaimed mine areas Soils located on slopes Question 4 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

Why might an environmentalist argue that gold is an expensive metal?


Entry field with correct answer Because gold is more valuable than titanium or platinum. Because the demand for gold is skyrocketing due to increasing wealth in developing countries. Because gold supplies are mostly depleted so prices are higher. Because huge quantities of water are used. Question 5 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

The Earth’s outermost rigid rock layer the ___ is composed of plates that float on the ___, the region of the mantle where rocks become hot and soft. Entry field with correct answer upper mantle…inner core asthenosphere…lower mantle plate boundary…lithosphere lithosphere…asthenosphere Question 6 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

What is the most likely source of sediment accumulation in a stream adjacent to a farm field? Entry field with correct answer Eutrophication


Soil erosion Acid mine drainage Salinization Question 7 The layer of soil that contains mostly weathered parent material is ___ or the ___. Entry field with incorrect answer topsoil…A-horizon. subsoil…B-horizon. weathered parent material…C-horizon. litter…O-horizon. Question 8 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

On the map below the red, blue and yellow lines show ___ and the arrows indicate the ___.

Entry field with correct answer the seven major plates…plate boundaries historical location of the continents…the directions in which the continents are moving three types of plate boundaries…the directions of plate movements the locations of upper, lower, and inner mantle…plate tectonics


Question 9 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

The Conservation Reserve Program (CRP) is a voluntary subsidy program that pays farmers to stop producing crops on highly erodible farmland. Instead farmers are required to: Entry field with correct answer strip crop native plants with grain crops on the erodible land plant native grasses or trees on the highly erodible land and then “retire� it from further use for 10 to 15 years develop and adopt a 5-year conservation plan for their farms that includes erosion-control measures, and if they do not comply, they lose federal agricultural subsidies such as price supports plant shelterbelts to reduce the impact of wind erosion Question 10 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

In one tree harvesting model called ___, in the first year of harvest, undesirable tree species and dead or diseased trees are removed and then subsequent harvests occur at intervals of several years, allowing time for remaining trees to grow. Entry field with correct answer clear-cutting even-age harvesting selective cutting shelterwood cutting


Question 11 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

Which of the following can be found in U.S. National Parks? Entry field with correct answer Significant modern architecture. Economically significant areas or buildings. Historic battlefields. Farm land. Question 12 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

Which of the following statements regarding rangelands in the United States is TRUE? Entry field with correct answer Approximately 50% of the total land area in the United States is rangeland, and most of it is located east of the Mississippi. The condition of U.S. rangelands which declined starting in the 1930s, at the time of the Dust Bowl, have continued to be on the decline largely due to the lack of federal legislation. Public rangelands in the U.S. are managed by the National Park Service with a preservation mandate and thus cannot be used for grazing private livestock. Restoration of degraded rangeland in the U.S. is a slow and costly process but effective as a result of techniques that include seeding


in places where plant cover is sparse or absent, conducting controlled burns to suppress shrubby plants, constructing fences to allow rotational grazing, and controlling invasive weeds. Question 13 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

What is the relationship of overgrazing to desertification? Entry field with correct answer Overgrazing is the destruction of a grassland ecosystem; desertification is the destruction of a desert ecosystem. Overgrazing results in barren exposed soil; if erosion continues, it contributes to desertification. Overgrazing is brought about by livestock operations; desertification is brought about by crop cultivation. Overgrazing and desertification are both a result of the introduction of non-native species coupled with extended droughts. Question 14 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

Which of the following statements about the Forest Stewardship Council is TRUE? Entry field with correct answer The FSC is a German organization that acts as a legitimate third party in certifying wood that is harvested using environmentally sound and socially responsible practices.


FSC certification is based on the sustainability of the timber resource, socioeconomic benefits provided to local people, and maintenance of forest ecosystem health. FSC is criticized by some who are skeptical about the reliability of FSC investigations and the economic viability of this type of forestry. All of the statements are true. Question 15 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

What is an important ecosystem service provided by forests? Entry field with correct answer They fix large amounts of oxygen, removing it from the atmosphere They promote soil erosion They maintain watersheds They provide habitat for a few animal species Question 16 Your answer is correct. The photo below BEST illustrates:

a wildlife corridor a clear-cut


rangeland tundra

Question 17 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

A legal agreement that protects privately owned rangelands, forests or other property from development for a specified number of years is termed: Entry field with correct answer a public rangeland. a national park. a conservation easement. a wildlife corridor. Question 18 Your answer is correct. In terms of sustainable agriculture, what is being done at point A in the diagram below to minimize commercial inorganic fertilizer inputs?

1. using monoculture to minimize different forms of fertilizers needed


2. using legume-based crops for nitrogen fixation 3. using flat land to control fertilizer runoff 4. using animal manure

1 only 2 only 3 only 4 only 2 and 4 Question 19 Your answer is correct. Which of the following is not a serious concern with the type of pesticide application illustrated below?

harming species other than the ones for which the pesticide is intended


inability of the pesticide to readily break down into safe materials such as water, carbon dioxide, and oxygen mobility of the pesticide through water runoff pest species evolving genetic resistance to pesticides ease of application to ensure that all plants are equally treated with pesticide

Question 20 The main cause of undernutrition is Entry field with incorrect answer a shift from eating grains to eating processed foods. lack of access to adequate nutritional guides. poverty. the proliferation of monoculture practices. unsanitary cooking of food. Question 21 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

A potential benefit of genetic engineering is the development of crop plants


Entry field with correct answer resistant to viral diseases, drought, heat, or herbicides. with genes that can spread to wild relatives of crop plants. that contain no allergens. that grow in a crop circle. that require sunlight and water to grow. Question 22 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

The condition in which people live with chronic hunger and malnutrition is ___. Entry field with correct answer food crisis subsistence agriculture famine bioaccumulation food insecurity Question 23 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

If pesticide from a farm runs off into Lake Michigan, which organism in the lake’s food chain would test highest for the pesticide? Entry field with correct answer macroinvertebrates (shrimp)


zooplankton (microscopic animals) phytoplankton (algae) forage fish (perch) fish eaters (birds) Question 24 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

What is the green revolution? Entry field with correct answer the storage of germplasm in seed banks development of high-yield crops that require intensive industrial cultivation methods agricultural production that does not use pesticides, irrigation or artificial fertilizers a shift from industrialized agriculture to subsistence-oriented croplands a renovation of agricultural practices to decrease the amount of calories produced per acre Question 25 Correct answer.

Your answer is correct.

Integrated pest management incorporates all of the following methods except Entry field with correct answer crop rotation. antibiotic application.


disease-resistant crop varieties. pheromone traps. limited use of pesticides. ================================

ENV 100T Week 1 Discussion

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com What are at least two major environmental challenges faced by society? How did your results from the “Build Your Proficiency� Diagnostic reflect an understanding, or lack of understanding, about these challenges? What new information have you learned this week that might describe the effect of these challenges on society? ================================

ENV 100T Week 1 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com ENV 100T Week 1 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam


In this graded assignment, you are assessed on the content covered in this weeks’ readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it is recommended that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and Self-Test Learning Activities prior to completing this exam. Click on the Assignments link in WileyPLUS to access the Week 1 Exam. Complete the Week 1 Exam covering this week’s assigned readings:   

Ch. 1: The Environmental Challenges We Face Ch. 2: Sustainability and Human Values Ch. 3: Environmental History, Politics, and Policy

Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to post at least two times each week in the online classroom to avoid being auto-dropped from the course. Question 1 What is the environmental significance of the process of “consumption”?

Consumption can outstrip the natural resources available and lead to overexploitation of the environment. Extravagant consumption can create an environment of raising one’s status among peers. The process of consumption is an economic act, providing the “demand” necessary for the “supply” of the environment.


Consumption can generate economic growth that relies significantly on the importation of natural resources, which benefits the environments of less-developed countries.

Question 2 Which of the following describes the relationship among population growth, consumption of natural resources, and environmental degradation?

When individual demands on natural resources are far greater than the requirements for survival, people in affluent nations deplete resources and degrade the global environment through increased consumption of nonessential items to satisfy their desires. Rapid population growth does not overwhelm and deplete a country’s soils, forests, and other natural resources when the amount of resources essential to an individual’s survival is small. Rate of resource consumption affects the environment far less that the explosion in population. There is no relationship between population growth, consumption of natural resources, and environmental degradation.


Question 3 Non-renewable resource is to renewable resource as

living is to non-living. limited supply is to sustainable supply. tree is to coal. wind energy is to fossil fuel energy.

Question 4 Examples of non-sustainable human activities or behaviors include: recycling attempts to limit human population growth using technology to improve car mileage


use of non-renewable fossil fuels

Question 5 In the scientific method, a hypothesis

is a statement of fact makes a prediction that can be tested is usually proven to be correct can only be tested once

Question 6 A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the preserve because it hasn’t yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment:


Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m Ă— 1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant. Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m Ă— 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant. Which of the following represents the hypothesis that you are testing with this experiment?

Kudzu will eventually grow on the west side of the park. Kudzu will kill off the trees in the preserve by strangling them. Kudzu should be removed from the preserve because it is killing the rare plant. Kudzu is negatively affecting populations of the rare plant in the preserve.

Question 7 All of the following statements describe environmental science EXCEPT:


The goal of environmental science is to try to establish general principles about how the natural world functions. Environmental scientists seek to develop viable solutions to environmental problems that are based as much as possible on scientific knowledge. Since environmental problems are generally complex and scientific understanding of them is often less complete, environmental scientists are often called on to reach scientific consensus before the data are complete. No exceptions, all of the above statements describe environmental science.

Question 8 Community members bring information, preferences, and goals that must be incorporated into a policy decisions during which of the five stages of solving an environmental problem?

Scientific assessment Risk analysis Public engagement


Political consideration Long term environmental management

Question 9 What is deep ecology worldview?

A radical anthropocentric worldview. A worldview based on the idea that all species have equal worth. An idea that resource consumption is unethical. An expansionist worldview.

Question 10 Sustainable human activities or behaviors include all of the following EXCEPT:

identifying strategies for recycling natural resources.


working to limit human population growth. developing technologies to improve car mileage. promoting consumption to improve quality of life.

Question 11 The issue that racial and ethnic minorities face unusually high exposure to environmental hazards is a central argument to:

racial prejudice environmental justice voluntary simplicity phytoremediation

Question 12 What worldview does this photograph BEST represent?


A deep ecology worldview. A sustainable consumption worldview. A western worldview. Any environmental worldview.

Question 13 Which of the following interact to promote sustainable development? 1 Economically viable decisions 2 Socially equitable decisions 3 Environmentally sound decisions 4 High rate of resources use 5 Rapid population growth

1 and 3 2 and 4 1, 2, and 3


3, 4, and 5 1, 4, and 5

Question 14 What does the image below represent and how does it relate to designing sustainable cities? Residents of squatter community, like this one, must be evicted in order to achieve the goal of making cities more sustainable. Comparing the squatter community in the foreground to the skyscrapers in the back shows how a city can be transformed when sustainable city design is embraced as a goal for re-development. Squatter communities, due to their lower resource consumption, should be left unchanged as living in such conditions is compatible with the goals of sustainable living. Squatter settlements should be improved to provide basic service such as clean water to drink, sewage treatment, and garbage pickup so as to provide a better quality of life for the poorest of the poor.


Question 15 Environmental sustainability implies: the actions of humans directly impact the wellbeing of the natural environment future generations will have the resources necessary for quality of life the environment can function indefinitely without going into a decline from the stresses imposed by human society on natural systems all of these choices

Question 16 A deep ecology worldview would support all of the following EXCEPT:

Nonhuman life forms have value that is independent of the usefulness they may have for narrow human purposes. The richness and diversity of life contribute to the flourishing of life on Earth and humans have no right to reduce this richness and diversity except to satisfy vital needs.


The inherent responsibility of individuals to implement changes in society so that humans can flourish. A spiritual respect for life reflected in appreciating quality of life rather than adhering to a high standard of living.

Question 17 What does the diagram below illustrate?

EIS NEPA NIMBY Kyoto Protocol

Question 18


Pollution is considered an external cost because;

it has a harmful effect borne only by people who purchased the product that caused it. its cost to the environment is not reflected in the price of the product that produces it. it has a significant impact on the consumer’s decision to buy the product that causes it. it is a hidden cost that would increase demand if the consumer were aware of it.

Question 19 Which of the following definitions best describes an environmentalist?

A lawyer who works on environmental law. Writers who write about the environmental impact of corporate America. Someone who is concerned about the environment.


A scientist who studies the interactions of plants and animals.

Question 20 All of the following are examples of conservation EXCEPT:

Phoenicians terraced hilly farmland to prevent soil erosion Americans set aside areas as national parks to maintain them in a pristine state Greeks practiced crop rotation to maintain yields on farmland English regulated the number of sheep that can graze in a particular field

Question 21 Which of the following is NOT considered in determining net domestic product?

GDP


population size natural capital profit from use of natural resources

Question 22 Whose name is associated with the concept of the land ethic and in which book did he make this argument?

George Perkins Marsh in Man and Nature Henry David Thoreau in Walden John Muir in The Yosemite Aldo Leopold in Sand County Almanac

Question 23


Laws that impose rules and regulations and set limits of pollution are called:

command and control. environmental impact statements. legislative documents. legislative directives.

Question 24 According to the graph below:

As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution decreases. As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of removing each additional unit of pollution increases. Cost of pollution removal is constant regardless of how polluted an area is.


Cost of pollution is relative to the type of pollution.

Question 25 What is the BEST definition of conservation?

Setting aside land and natural resources. Careful management of land and resources. Using land and natural resources based on current needs. Protecting land and natural resources from human activity. ================================

ENV 100T Week 1-5 All Wileyplus Exams

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com ENV 100T Week 1 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam


ENV 100T Week 2 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam ENV 100T Week 3 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam ENV 100T Week 4 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam ENV 100T Week 5 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam ================================

ENV 100T Week 2 Discussion

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com After you have completed your Learning Path for the week, think about the Human Population Growth animation. Knowing the world population projection for 2050, how do you think we will be able to sustain those projections? What changes will need to occur? Could the birth and death rates equal each other sooner? How did your results from the “Build Your Proficiency” Diagnostic reflect an understanding, or lack of understanding, about this content? How has your understanding changed this week? ================================

ENV 100T Week 2 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com


ENV 100T Week 2 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam In this graded assignment, you are assessed on the content covered in this week’s readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it is recommended that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and Self-Test Learning Activities prior to completing this exam. Complete the Week 2 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam covering this week’s assigned readings:   

Ch. 5: How Ecosystems Work Ch. 6: Ecosystems and Evolution Ch. 7: Human Population Change and the Environment

Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to post at least two times each week in the online classroom to avoid being auto-dropped from the course. Question 1 Which of the following processes plays an important role in the phosphorus cycle?

erosion nitrogen fixation combustion cellular respiration


Question 2 Your answer is correct. The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important and complex of the biogeochemical cycles. Why is nitrogen important?

It’s an Ozone depleting gas It’s an essential part of biological molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids (DNA) It’s the most toxic element to living organisms Nitrogen dilutes the oxygen in the atmosphere causing respiratory problems

Question 3 What is landscape ecology?


the study of human-designed communities. the study of the influences of pollution on natural ecosystems. a science exclusively concerned with terrestrial ecosystems. the study of the connections among various ecosystems.

Question 4 Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Predation only favors the predator with the evolution of more efficient ways to catch prey. Predation only favors the prey with the evolution of more efficient ways to escape predators. Predation exerts a selective force on the prey, favoring characteristics that reduce the probability of capture. Predation exerts a selective force on the predator, favoring characteristics that reduce the probability of prey capture.


Question 5 What do we call an area of land that runoff drains into?

watershed estuary groundwater niche

Question 6 How would an ecologist classify both the animals shown below?

decomposers


primary consumers producers carnivores

Question 7 Nitrogen gas accounts for what percentage of the atmosphere?

0.03% 1% approximately 50% 78%

Question 8 What is an organism’s role, or lifestyle, within the structure of an ecosystem called?


habitat. trophic level. symbiotic relationship. ecological niche.

Question 9 What biome is most likely to have the following temperature and rainfall profile? savanna boreal forest tropical rainforest temperate deciduous forests


Question 10 Which of the following statements about wildfires is TRUE?

They are always damaging for natural environments. They release nutrient minerals that were locked in dry organic material. They encourage the growth of shade-resistant plants. They result in the destruction of the underground stems and buds of grasses.

Question 11 Individuals within a population each have a unique combination of traits, which is known as:

Genetic variation. Reproductive capacity. Evolution.


Differential reproductive success.

Question 12 Where would you expect to find the littoral zone of a lake?

Shallow water area along the shore Open water area farther from shore with enough sunlight for photosynthesis Deepest known, where light typically does not penetrate effectively Bottom region where organisms tend to attach themselves to one spot

Question 13 Which of the following biomes has the HIGHEST biodiversity?

boreal forest


temperate grassland temperate rain forest tropical rain forest

Question 14 Which of the following organizational hierarchies is correct?

ecosystem landscape community biome biome community landscape ecosystem community ecosystem landscape biome landscape community ecosystem biome

Question 15


Which of the following organisms would be members of a pioneer community on bare rock?

grass lichens shrubs ferns

Question 16 Which of the following does NOT apply to freshwater wetlands?

Anaerobic conditions Accumulation of organic material Water-tolerant vegetation Drought resistant plants


Question 17 What are the three main ecological categories of organisms found in aquatic ecosystems?

plankton, nekton, fish plankton, benthos, littoral plankton, nekton, benthos benthos, mangal, littoral

Question 18 Compact development in urban areas benefits the environment in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

by reversing the trend towards urbanization.


by reducing air pollution. by preserving rural areas. by increasing open space.

Question 19 Which factors eventually cause birth rates to decline during a demographic transition?

Birth rates decline due to improved health care and modern medicines. Birth rates decline due to increased education of women. Birth rates decline due to increased contraceptive use. All of these choices ultimately contribute to declining birth rates.

Question 20 How do demographers typically measure mortality (death) rate?


deaths per 1000 persons per year. deaths per person per year. the number of children who die per year. the total number of deaths per generation.

Question 21 Which of the following statements about the graph shown is TRUE? Only Nigeria’s population growth rate is increasing. China’s and Brasil’s fertility rate is below replacement level fertility. Only Egypt’s fertility rate is above replacement level fertility. Mexico and Brazil are both below replacement level fertility.


Question 22 Why are high fertility rates generally prevalent in developing countries?

Children contribute to the family’s livelihood. Children must care for aging parents. Male children are culturally more desirable, so families continue to have children until male children are born. All of the choices.

Question 23 Which of the following statements about population ecology is TRUE?

Population ecology only deals with declining populations that are in need of intervention in order to survive. Population ecology focuses on individuals and their interactions, but not the abiotic environment.


Population ecology attempts to explain how and why the number of individuals in a given area changes over time. Population ecology is not important to scientists in applied disciplines, such as wildlife management.

Question 24 What is the cause of global human population growth over the last 200 years?

Higher birth rate Higher fecundity rate Increase in immigration Lower death rate

Question 25 What can be interpreted for the following two graphs regarding literacy and fertility rates?


In general, there are more illiterate men than women. The total number of children a woman has during her life is affected by her education – the more educated a woman is, the greater the number of children she has. Almost 70% of Bangladeshi women and 50% of Bangladeshi men are able to read and write. Based on the connection between education and fertility rates, one would predict that the fertility rate in Mexico would be lower than the fertility rate in Ethiopia as literacy rates are higher in Mexico. ================================

ENV 100T Week 3 Discussion

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com

What are the current practices for wasteland and habitat reclamation? Discuss how these practices are related to new technology, ecological principles, and political and economic factors. How did your results from the “Build Your Proficiency” Diagnostic reflect an understanding,


or lack of understanding, about this content? How has your understanding changed this week? ================================

ENV 100T Week 3 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com

ENV 100T Week 3 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam In this graded assignment, you are assessed on the content covered in this week’s readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it is recommended that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and Self-Test learning activities prior to completing this exam. Complete the Week 3 Exam covering this week’s assigned readings:   

Ch. 12: Mineral and Soil Resources Ch. 13: Land Resources Ch. 14: Agriculture and Food Resources

Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to post at least two times each week in the online classroom to avoid being auto-dropped from the course. Question 1 Which of the following statements about nutrient cycling is TRUE?


Bacteria and fungi are involved in nutrient cycling as they decompose detritus transforming large organic molecules into small inorganic molecules, including carbon dioxide, water, and nutrient minerals like nitrates. Nutrient cycling is the pathway of various nutrient minerals or elements from the environment through organisms and back to the environment. Nonliving processes are also involved in nutrient cycling, such as the weathering of the parent material replaces some nutrient minerals lost through erosion. All of the above statements are true about nutrient cycling.

Question 2 What is the MAIN requirement of reclaiming land degraded by any type of mining operation?

To restore them to the same type of ecosystem that existed before mining began on that site. To stabilize the soil so that further degradation does not occur. To create areas for housing subdivisions.


To comply with federal law.

Question 3 Which minerals would be used to make the following products?

A = zinc; B = gypsum A = molybdenum; B = sulfur A = mercury; B = potassium A = nickel; B = magnesium

Question 4 Subduction occurs:

when one tectonic plate slides underneath another.


due to mining activities. because of the Coriolis effect. on the leeward side of a mountain.

Question 5 Planting the same crop year after year:

increases damage by insects and disease. decreases soil erosion. does not deplete essential nutrients from the soil. will slowly increase crop yields.

Question 6 The TWO main reasons that certain areas are not suitable for agriculture are:


soil is too dry and soil has chemical problems (e.g. salinization) soil is too shallow and soil is too wet soil is too wet and soil is too dry soil is frozen and soil has chemical problems (e.g. salinization)

Question 7 Why does this soil have no O-horizon?

The O- horizon has been plowed under for agriculture. Considerable leaching has eliminated the O- horizon. Soil erosion has eliminated the O- horizon.


Forest soils like this one have no O-horizon.

Question 8 Which of the following statements about soil is NOT TRUE?

Soil consists of mineral and organic matter modified by the natural actions of agents such as weather, wind, water, and organisms. Soil formation is a continuous process that takes a long time, sometimes thousands of years, both because the process of rock disintegrating into fine mineral particles is slow, and time is also required for organic material to accumulate in the soil. An area’s terrain influences soil formation — steep slopes encourage soil formation and accumulation while valleys discourage the formation of deep soils. Minerals, the main component of soil, provide anchorage and essential nutrient minerals for plants, as well as pore space for water and air.

Question 9


Increased soil erosion may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

construction of buildings. construction of roads. construction of shelterbelts. clearcutting large forested areas.

Question 10 Sustainable forestry:

seeks to conserve forests for the long-term commercial harvest of timber and non-timber forest products by maintaining a mix of forest trees, by age and species, rather than imposing a monoculture. due to the complexity of goals, is most effective when it involves cooperation among environmentalists, loggers, farmers, indigenous peoples, and local, state, and federal governments.


approaches vary from one forest ecosystem to another, in response to different environmental, cultural, and economic conditions. is all of the above.

Question 11 The area shown in the photograph below is an example of:

clear cutting contour farming monoculture selective cutting

Question 12 How are wilderness areas different from national parks?


Only wilderness areas contain large populations of predators like wolves or grizzly bears. No human development is allowed in wilderness areas. Except for research purposes, people are not allowed to visit wilderness areas. Wilderness areas allow grazing and some timber removal.

Question 13 In the US land is managed by four government agencies, of which the ___ is the only one NOT in the Department of the Interior.

National Park Service U.S. Forest Service U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Bureau of Land Management


Question 14 A legal agreement that protects privately owned rangelands, forests or other property from development for a specified number of years is termed:

a public rangeland. a national park. a conservation easement. a wildlife corridor.

Question 15 Which of the following is NOT a way to slow deforestation?

By replanting trees. By managing commercial logging operations.


By promoting additional slash-and-burn agricultural practices. By discouraging plantation style agriculture of crops like bananas and palm oil.

Question 16 Federally owned land encompasses all of the following EXCEPT:

land that that contains important resources such as minerals and fossil fuels land that possesses historical or cultural significance land that provides critical biological habitat no exceptions, all of the above are examples of federally owned land

Question 17 Habitat corridors are intended to provide:


additional habitat fragmentation. increase in species richness within forest monocultures. a means for controlling insect pests and invasive species. a means of migration so animals can interbreed.

Question 18 Subsistence agricultural practices are characterized by all of the following attributes except

use of manure as fertilizer. use of draft animals for labor source. water and fossil fuel energy conservation. high crop yield per acre.


limited use of agrochemicals.

Question 19 One of the problems associated with the “green revolution� is that

not enough food is produced for developing countries. it is confined to highly developed countries. it makes developing countries dependent on high-energy consuming imported technologies. it has been rejected by developing countries due to conflicts with customary practices. technology is not advanced enough to make it cost effective.

Question 20 Pesticides are effective in


decreasing the cost of subsistence farming. increasing the crop damage due to competition with weeds. small concentrations but not in large concentrations. controlling some organisms that cause diseases in humans. attracting particular insects to an area.

Question 21 The move away from using techniques that produce high yield and toward methods that focus on long-term sustainability of the soil is known as

habitat fragmentation. subsistence agriculture. industrialized agriculture.


the green revolution. the second green revolution.

Question 22 Which of the following is not a problem associated with industrial agriculture?

soil erosion depletion of fossil fuels disposal of livestock wastes habitat fragmentation none, these are all problems associated with industrial agriculture

Question 23


Which of the following uses of pesticide can lead to ecological imbalance?

pesticides alter the genetic resistance in populations causing the pests to persist. pesticides kill prey thereby causing predators to starve or migrate. Then the prey population rebounds larger than before since predators are gone. bioaccumulation of pesticides in animal tissue can lead to extinction of species. pesticides show mobility, moving other than where they were applied inadvertently killing non-pest organisms. all of the above.

Question 24 The decline of Peregrine falcons in the United States due to the use of DDT is an example of?


biological magnification bioaccumulation genetic resistance green revolution biological resistance

Question 25 Which type of pesticide has fewer deleterious environmental effects? Why?

narrow-spectrum pesticide because it focuses on killing specific organisms narrow-spectrum pesticide because it stays exactly where it is sprayed broad-spectrum pesticide because it moves around the environment to reach all potential pests broad-spectrum pesticide because insects cannot develop resistance to it neither broad and narrow-spectrum pesticides have deleterious environmental effects ================================


ENV 100T Week 4 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com ENV 100T Week 4 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam In this graded assignment, you are assessed on the content covered in this weeks’ readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it is recommended that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and Self-Test Learning Activities prior to completing this exam. Click on the Assignments link in WileyPLUS to access the Week 4 Exam. Complete the Week 4 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam covering this week’s assigned readings:    

Ch. 8: Air and Air Pollution Ch. 9: Global and Atmospheric Changes Ch. 10: The Ocean and Fisheries Ch. 16: Solid and Hazardous Wastes

Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to post at least two times each week in the online classroom to avoid being auto-dropped from the course. Question 1 Smaller cars, removal of sulfur from coal, and cooler combustion temperatures are examples of ways to:


reduce the total amount of pollutants produced. reduce total amounts of pollutants after they are produced. conserve energy. reduce CFC production.

Question 2 Why did lead pollution decrease significantly after the creation of the Clean Air Act?

Lead is now removed from coal before it is used as fuel. Electrostatic precipitators mandated by the Clean Air Act have greatly decreased the amount of lead being emitted from smokestacks. Catalytic converters in cars greatly reduce the amount of lead emitted. Leaded gasoline was outlawed.


Question 3 Electrostatic precipitators use electrical charges to attract and track what pollutants?

Ozone. Particulates. Sulfur oxides. Nitrogen oxides.

Question 4 Which other indoor air pollutant increases the risk of radon-related cancers?

Formaldehyde from carpets and furniture. Tobacco smoke from cigarettes.


Para-dichlorobenzene from moth balls and air fresheners. Nitrogen oxides from unvented gas stoves.

Question 5 The National Academy of Sciences estimate 12% of all lung cancers are related to radioactivity caused by which of the following?

The burning of coal. Nuclear power plants. Residual atmospheric radiation related to nuclear weapons testing. Natural emissions that occur as uranium breaks down.

Question 6 Why are illnesses from indoor air pollution often overlooked?

They resemble common ailments like colds or flu.


They usually result long after exposure. They only occur in developing countries. They are easily controlled using modern healthcare.

Question 7 What helps maintain global oxygen concentrations in the troposphere?

Oxygen levels remain balanced by photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Photosynthesis replaces oxygen loss to air pollutants like NOx, SOx, and ozone. The burning of fossil fuels since the Industrial Revolution has helped maintain oxygen concentrations in the atmosphere. Excess oxygen is broken down by ozone in the upper atmosphere.


Question 8 Which of the following activities is responsible for the largest percentage of human-made carbon dioxide emissions?

burning fossil fuels deforestation ozone depletion acid deposition agriculture

Question 9 Although widespread thermometer records have only been kept since the mid-19th century, scientists can reconstruct historical temperature data in the following ways except:

tree ring analysis


air bubbles in ancient ice ocean sediment fossilized dinosaur bones

Question 10 Which of the following activities will not mitigate global climate?

developing energy alternatives like wind and solar switching to hybrid cars planting and maintaining forests eating more beef

Question 11 The figure reflects the differences in how sunlight strikes the Earth at different places. Which of the statements below can be inferred from this diagram?


1. Desk lamp A represents the vertical angle of the sun at the equator showing that sunlight is more concentrated here. 2. Desk lamp B represents the oblique angle of the sun at the equator showing that there is a larger area over which the sun shines. 3. Desk lamps A and B represent the possible different angles of the sun striking the northern hemisphere in the summer depending on how the Earth’s axis tilts – A means a hotter summer, B means a cooler one.

1 only 2 only 3 only 1 & 2 only

Question 12 What can be interpreted from the following graph?


1. The graph shows that the Earth’s surface temperatures do naturally fluctuate. 2. The graph shows that there has been a warming trend in the last several decades.

1 only 2 only 1&2 None of these choices

Question 13 What is the fate of solar radiation that reaches the Earth?

Most solar radiation is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere. Most solar radiation is reflected by snow, ice, and light colored land. Most solar radiation is absorbed by the land and ocean.


An equal amount of solar radiation is absorbed by land, air, and water as is reflected back into space.

Question 14 The area of land drained by a single river or stream is called: cisterns. aquifer. watershed. reservoirs.

Question 15 What is probably the BEST way for industry to reduce water waste?

Decrease industrial production


Increased irrigation use Switching to dry production of industrial goods Reuse and recycle wastewater on site

Question 16 Which of the following is NOT an example of nonpoint source pollution?

Agricultural runoff Erosion from logging operations Acid mine drainage Sewage treatment plant effluent

Question 17


What is the major difference in the fate of precipitation after urbanization?

Evaporation and transpiration decreases. Surface runoff increases. Ground water infiltration decreases. All of these choices.

Question 18 Three-fourths of the world’s 200 major watersheds are shared between at least ___ nations.

two three four


five

Question 19 The area bordering a river channel that has the potential to flood is called:

wetland drainage basin floodplain recharge zone

Question 20 Plastics pose a special problem for sanitary landfills because 1. plastics are the most rapidly accumulated component of municipal solid waste. 2. plastics attract harmful microorganisms and bacteria to the landfill. 3. plastics move upward to the surface creating a fire hazard. 4. most plastics are chemically stable and do not readily decompose.


1 only 2 only 3 only 4 only 1 and 4

Question 21 Integrated Waste Management is a set of waste disposal alternatives that include all of the following except

incineration. composting. sanitary landfill.


relocation of waste to developing nations. reuse.

Question 22 What is an economic benefit of recycling?

use of energy and generation of pollution for curbside collection increase use of sanitary landfill generates jobs and revenues from selling of recycled products use of natural resources in reprocessing materials recycling has no economic benefit

Question 23 What is the Superfund National Priorities List?


the federal inventory of green chemistry locations the existing hazardous waste sites that pose the greatest threat to public health federally approved locations for the long-term storage of toxic chemicals current policy on how to handle chemical accidents a list of bodies of water in the U.S. that have not been polluted

Question 24 The term for crushed glass containers destined to be melted and reused to manufacture new products is ___.

scrap dioxin leachate


slag cullet Question 25 Integrated waste management refers to

dilution and dispersal of chemicals. use of federal lands for hazardous waste disposal. a combination of source reduction, reuse, recycling, composting. Landfills and incineration. uniting municipal and nonmunicipal waste management programs. using incineration as a single technique for waste disposal. ================================

ENV 100T Week 5 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam

For more course tutorials visit


www.newtonhelp.com ENV 100T Week 5 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam In this graded assignment you are assessed on the content covered in this weeks’ readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it is recommended that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and Self-Test Learning Activities prior to completing this exam. Click on the Assignments link in WileyPLUS to access the Week 5 Exam. Complete the Week 5 Exam covering this week’s assigned readings:  

Ch. 17: Nonrenewable Energy Resources Ch. 18: Renewable Energy Resources

Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to post at least two times each week in the online classroom to avoid being auto-dropped from the course. Question 1 Nuclear energy is released

by splitting two electrons. by joining a proton with a neutron. by breaking a chemical bond between two atoms.


by splitting an atomic nucleus into two smaller fragments. by combustion of uranium ore.

Question 2 What is the function of the device diagramed below?

to maintain a constant temperature for U-235. to control the fission chain reaction to produce energy for electricity. to store spent fuel rods from nuclear reactors for at least 40 years. to filter CO2 generated by the fission of U-235 nuclei. a reservoir for enriching U-235.

Question 3 All of the following statements are true about surface mining except


Strip mining is an example of surface mining. It accounts for 60% of the coal mined in the U.S. Surface mining is the most hazardous type of mining for workers. Surface mining is a less expensive mining process than subsurface mining. Mountaintop removal is an example of surface mining.

Question 4 What is a major issue with the type of mining illustrated below?

fluidized-bed combustion acid precipitation risk of earthquakes


safety risk to mine employees land degradation

Question 5 What is a critical difference between surface and subsurface mining?

Surface mining is more expensive than subsurface mining Surface mining is above ground; subsurface mining is below ground Surface mining causes less environmental damage than subsurface mining Subsurface mining creates acid mine drainage; surface mining does not Subsurface mining has the potential for dangerous landslides; surface mining has the potential for cave-ins


Question 6 What legislation provides incentives for utility companies to convert to clean coal technologies?

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 Superfund National Priorities Act of 2007

Question 7 What is acid mine drainage?

pollution caused when rainwater seeps through iron sulfide minerals exposed in mine wastes


photochemical reactions between particulates and water vapor residue from sulfur and nitrogen compounds found in coal dust acid precipitation caused by emissions from burning coal a low pH fuel that is synthesized from natural gas

Question 8 Which of the following activities is mismatched with its environmental consequence?

surface mining: acid mine drainage polluting rivers coal-burning electric plants: acid deposition destroying forests mountaintop removal mining: mine tailings and debris filling valleys strip mining: oil spills killing wildlife burning fossil fuels: release of CO2, a potent greenhouse gas


Question 9 Which of the following is an example of high-level radioactive waste?

glassware giving off small amounts of ionizing radiation paper contaminated by radioactivity reactor coolant fluid lab coat used in an area where radioactive material is present filters from sampling devices that test for radioactive contamination

Question 10 Mountaintop removal is an example of ___ mining.

subsurface


surface shaft combustion integrated

Question 11 Negative environmental impacts from oil and natural gas production may occur due to

release of oxides in combustion emissions. accidental spills at extraction sites and during transport. erosion and landslides during withdrawal of resources. improper storage and disposal of spent fuel.


unintentional release of methane into atmosphere.

Question 12 What does the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 legislate for environmental disasters such as the one pictured below?

hazardous pay for clean-up workers tidal barriers to help prevent the spread of oil slicks a remediation protocol for impacted wildlife populations requires that, by 2015, oil be transported by land and not sea a trust fund that pays to clean up oil spills when the responsible party cannot

Question 13


Tidal energy cannot become a significant resource worldwide because

the accompanying tidal waves cause too much environmental destruction. the equipment required to harness this energy is not yet. few areas have large enough differences in water level between high and low tides to make power generation feasible. sand damages the equipment. tidal energy can become a significant resource worldwide.

Question 14 The best example of an energy storage element in a solar energy system is the

natural gas in a propane tank that can be used for cooking. structural overhang that blocks sunlight in a passively cooled home.


insulated windows in a passively heated solar home. hot water tank of a solar hot water system. sun-tracking mirrors in a power tower system.

Question 15 Photovoltaic systems are characterized by all of the following except

directly converting sunlight into electricity. minimal maintenance. producing no pollution. functioning on cloudy or rainy days. minimal space requirement for large-scale use.


Question 16 Which of the following is a good energy efficiency practice for those with existing homes?

replace the existing insulation with a higher quality product. board up windows on the north, east and west sides of the house. install a gas-burning fireplace in the family room. pour a concrete foundation between the ground and subfloor of the home. dial down the water heater’s thermostat to knock 3-5 percent off your energy bill.

Question 17 Which of the following is more efficient (90%) than any other energy source for producing electricity?


hydropower wind energy photovoltaic passive solar geothermal

Question 18 Which of the following biomass energy sources is incorrectly matched with its biofuel product?

sugar cane: alcohol oil used to make French fries: biodiesel clay: biogas


manure: methane wood: charcoal

Question 19 Problems associated with large hydropower dams and reservoirs include all of the following except

relocation of peoples’ homes. ecosystem destruction. loss of biodiversity. air pollution. disruption of fish migration.

Question 20


All of the following are disadvantages of photovoltaic solar cell technology except

the manufacturing process requires toxic industrial chemicals. the amount of land needed to hold the number of solar panels required for large-scale use. each panel’s low efficiency at converting solar energy to electricity. the steadily increasing manufacturing cost per watt over the last 35 years. the carbon dioxide emissions that contribute to greenhouse gases.

Question 21 Electric meters can run backward for homeowners participating in net metering. What does this mean?

homeowners receive meter credit for excess energy they generate and supply to the utility’s power grid


the up front costs for installing renewable energy is recovered by rewinding the home’s electric meter if a homeowner uses less energy in one month than the previous month, then the difference is subtracted from the electric meter homeowners who voluntarily cut back on air conditioning use are granted an electric credit a radio controlled electric meter for remote monitoring allows the utility company to stop the meter during peak demand periods

Question 22 The disadvantages of using wind energy to generate electricity include all of the following except

windmills kill birds. generation of sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen oxides. degradation of an area’s scenic beauty.


tying up large parcels of land. distance to urban centers where electricity is most needed.

Question 23 What type of solar energy system is illustrated below?

passive solar heating system photovoltaic solar cell system solar thermal electric generation solar-generated hydrogen fuel cell radiant energy convection solar heating system

Question 24


In rural areas of developing countries, photovoltaic cells are used for all of the following purposes except

charging batteries. heating hot water heaters. providing refrigeration for vaccines. grinding grain. pumping water.

Question 25 Which of the following best describes how this geothermal heat pump works?

the pressure of hot water from a deep well turns a turbine and generates electricity.


steam separated from hot water pumped from underground turns a turbine and generates electricity. water is transferred from a deep well to a coil exposed to solar radiation to heat the water sufficiently to generate steam, which turns a turbine and generates electricity. a pipe with heated oil is sent deep into Earth to initiate a volcanic eruption then is tapped so that the energy can be used to generate electricity. water is transferred from a deep well into a hot water tank, which is kept at a constant temperature by combustion of natural gas. ================================

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ENV 100T Career Begins/newtonhelp.com  

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com Question 1 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. When do earth...

ENV 100T Career Begins/newtonhelp.com  

For more course tutorials visit www.newtonhelp.com Question 1 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. When do earth...

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