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: HP HP0-787


: NonStop Advanced Application Development

Version : R6.1    

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1. What do you use to list procedure names in a TNS object file? A. NLD B. NOFT C. AR D. BIND Answer: D 2. A JVM must be started with _______

to enable jdb debugging support.

A. -Xdebug B. -jdb C. -Inspect D. -Debug Answer: A 3. Where can breakpoints be set in jdb? Select TWO. A. at the first instruction of a method B. at a verb C. at a data object D. at a line number E. at a statement Answer: AD 4. The compiler option SYNTAX or WSYNTAX _______. A. creates an executable object file B. suppresses errors C. inserts the source in the object D. checks the source for errors Answer: D 5. What is a valid INSPECT command for debugging SCREEN COBOL? A. BREAK B. STEP IN C. STOP D. SAVE Answer: A 6. To RESTORE a partitioned SQL table to a different destination, which option is required? A. PHYSVOL B. REBUILD C. MAP NAMES    

D. VOL Answer: C 7. What are two advantages specific to a DLL (Dynamic Link Library)?

Select TWO.

A. It contains Position Independent Code (PIC). B. It is loaded during cold load. C. It is composed of shared code. D. It can have private data. E. It can be unloaded from a process. Answer: AE 8. What can user libraries be used for? Select TWO. A. to provide source code for compilation B. to share common compiled procedures C. to override an operating system procedure D. to provide an alternate main procedure/program E. to switch from native to non-native mode Answer: BC 9. The file EXTDECS, CEXTDECS, or COBOLEXT contains the procedure declarations for which routines? A. user library routines B. system library routines C. third-party library routines D. SQL routines Answer: B 10. The purpose of the CTOEDIT utility is to ______ . A. convert unstructured files to structured files B. convert C application code written on the PC to a Guardian edit file C. convert OSS text files to Guardian text files D. generate OSS code to be used in Guardian Answer: C 11. What provides the execution control services needed to debug SCREEN COBOL programs? A. DMON B. CMON C. TCP D. IMON Answer: C 12. Repeated failures and reloads of the processors in a system allow a developer to set up a failure cycle    

to test an application for fault tolerance. Which program can be used in conjunction with DIVER to cause repeated failures? A. CYCLE B. TESTFAIL C. WAIT D. DELAY Answer: D 13. Where are EMS messages written? A. DISKFILE B. EMSCOLL C. EMSDIST D. $RECEIVE Answer: B 14. During process startup, how is DEFINE information passed to the process? A. The child process programmatically receives the DEFINE information using the function getenv(). B. The child process receives DEFINE system messages from the parent process as part of the startup sequence. C. DEFINE information can be retrieved by the child process by using the DEFINEINFO procedure call. D. By default the parent process propagates the DEFINE information in its current context to the child process using the Process File Segment. Answer: D 15. A specification proposes implementing a new server class as an OSS process. Which statements are true regarding OSS server classes? Select THREE. A. The program must use named-pipes instead of $RECEIVE. B. The processes are limited to a configuration of MAXLINKS = 1. C. The program can use DEFINEs for configuring file names. D. Runtime values in the processes cannot be initialized using PARAM attributes. E. The program can access Enscribe and SQL/MP data in addition to SQL/MX data. Answer: CDE 16. To RDF-replicate a programmatically created Enscribe file, which option must be enabled by the program at file creation time? A. AUDITCOMPRESS B. AUDIT C. ALLOCATE D. ALTCREATE    

Answer: B 17. Why is an application log file most likely to be used outside of the current transaction? A. to avoid impact on the transaction response time B. to retain records after a transaction backout C. because file system locks are meaningless on a sequentially written file D. because integrity with transaction data is not required Answer: B 18. Threads in a NonStop multithreaded process are _______. A. preemptive B. self-defined C. system-defined D. never preemptive Answer: D 19. What happens when a persistent process unexpectedly stops? A. The operator manually restarts it. B. A continuously checkpointed backup process takes over. C. A monitor process immediately restarts it. D. A backup process pre-initialized by a single post-initialization checkpoint takes over. Answer: C 20. Trap handling is used in a(n) _______ environment. Select TWO. A. TNS B. OSS C. accelerated D. native RISC Answer: AC 21. Performance analysis and tuning is a(n) _______. A. iterative process B. one-time exercise C. obsolete process D. configuration issue Answer: A 22. Which statement is true regarding messages received on $RECEIVE? A. They can be read in priority order. B. They must have a call to REPLY before the next message can be received. C. They must all be received before any system messages can be received.    

D. They can only be received in the order they arrive. Answer: A 23. A specification includes the use of EMS text messages. Which justification would you make for a change to use DSM Template Services? A. The program size will be reduced by storing the messages externally. B. It is the approach recommended by HP consultants. C. It is the only way to integrate with Enterprise Management Systems such as HP OpenView. D. It will allow messages to be displayed in multiple formats. Answer: D 24. Multithreaded programs are distinguished by the ability to do what? A. process several I/Os concurrently B. process messages using sequential I/O commands C. access multiple messages using shared memory D. process messages from multiple sources Answer: A 25. Which tools are available for developing an OSS application?

Select TWO.

A. touch B. vi C. grep D. TFDS E. ETK Answer: BE 26. Nowaited I/O causes a program to _______. A. execute I/O commands immediately before other commands B. suspend I/O commands during execution and resume at a later point in the execution C. continue execution while waiting for the I/O command to complete D. halt execution until the I/O command completes Answer: C 27. A specification suggests using TACL as simple test servers for Pathway requesters. What might prevent you from doing this?

Select TWO.

A. TS/MP server classes cannot be configured to use TACL as the object file. B. TACL cannot respond correctly to requester process pairs. C. Messages used by TACL must be < 5000 bytes. D. TACL cannot be used with TMF transactions. Answer: BC    

28. Name the procedures available for generating event messages that allow full use of the capabilities of the Event Management Service. A. SPI and OSS procedures B. EMS and OSS procedures C. SPI and EMS procedures D. OSS and GNU procedures Answer: C 29. There are NO native OSS I/O functions for _______. A. terminals B. files C. tape drives D. processes Answer: C 30. What is tested after execution of an embedded SQL/MP statement for error and warning conditions? A. SQLDA B. SQLCODE C. SQLSA D. SQLEA Answer: B 31. What is the difference between the maximum record size available for a Format 1 file versus a Format 2 file? A. Format 1 files have smaller maximum record sizes. B. Format 2 files have smaller maximum record sizes. C. Format 1 files are limited to 2048 bytes per record. D. Format 2 files are limited to 2048 bytes per record. Answer: B 32. How do you access structured Guardian files from an OSS application? A. OSS touch command B. Guardian procedure calls C. OSS function calls D. Guardian touch command Answer: B 33. A heterogeneous TMF transaction is any transaction _______. Select TWO. A. started on the NonStop server and completed on other platforms B. started and completed only on the NonStop server    

C. started and completed on platforms other than the NonStop server D. started on a platform other than the NonStop server and completed on the NonStop server E. in which TMF controls completion of the work Answer: AD 34. What are possible impacts of SQL/MP automatic recompilation? Select TWO. A. query execution plans may be altered B. recompilation timestamp is updated C. performance may be degraded D. program file is marked as valid Answer: AC 35. Which call examines or sets Enscribe file access types? A. SCF SETCACHE B. DISK_REFRESH_ C. CONTROL D. SETMODE Answer: D 36. To interface with the TACL INLINE facility, a process must _______. A. use the home terminal for its I/O B. not accept IN and OUT options C. use terminal block mode D. accept IN and OUT options Answer: D 37. Which operation does NOT invalidate an SQL/MP program? A. copying B. binding C. securing D. restoring Answer: C 38. What is the OSS command to determine the OSS equivalent file name for a Guardian ZYQ file? A. gname B. file C. pname D. touch Answer: C 39. The FILE_GETRECEIVEINFO_ procedure _______.    

A. receives checkpointing information from the primary process of a process pair B. returns status information of the receiver to the sender C. returns information about the last message read on the $RECEIVE file D. receives the output from FILEINFO Answer: C 40. A well-behaved TS/MP server _______. A. is a NonStop process pair B. does not use the SERVERCLASS_SEND_ procedure C. stops when it receives an equal number of OPEN and CLOSE messages D. calls BEGINTRANSACTION Answer: C 41. What is the default Enscribe ACCESSTYPE? A. random B. sequential C. system-managed D. direct I/O Answer: C 42. Assume your application is using PATHSEND to access a server class on another system. The user ID of the remote PATHMON process must have corresponding user IDs and passwords on the systems where the _______ are executing. A. requesting process and server class B. server class and PATHMON C. requesting process and PATHMON D. server class, requesting process, and PATHMON Answer: D 43. Dynamic SQL/MP statements are _______. A. stored in the object file B. compiled at run time C. precompiled D. ad-hoc queries Answer: B 44. Which CONTROL statement is used for execution-time name resolution? A. EXECUTOR DEFINES ON B. QUERY LATE BIND C. QUERY BIND NAMES    

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