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Set No. 1

Code No: V3103/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Hydrology is a highly inter-disciplinary science, Justify. List out various practical applications of Hydrology.

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(b) A basin has the area in the form of a pentagon with each side of length 20 Km. The five raingauges located at the corners A, B, C, D and E have recorded 60, 81, 73, 59 and 45 mm of rainfall respectively. Compute average depth of rainfall over the basin using arithmetic mean and Theissen polygon methods. [8+8]

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2. (a) List out the various climatic factors affecting runoff. Specifically discuss the effect of the direction of storm movement and the antecedent precipitation on the peak discharge.

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(b) Explain how runoff is estimated using Khosla’s method.

[8+8]

3. (a) Sketch a typical hydrograph resulting from an isolated storm and explain different features of it.

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(b) Given below are the ordinates of a 4 h unit hydrograph of a basin in m3 /s at one hour intervals. Convert it into 3 hr UH. [8+8] 4 25 44 60 72 61 52 45 38 32 27 22 18 14 11 8 6 4 2 1

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4. (a) Describe in steps, the Muskingum method of flood routing if the values of K and X are known for a given channel reach. What should be limiting value of routing step ∆t.

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(b) Between two reaches A and B of a river, the values of Muskingum coefficients determined are K = 24 h and X = 0.20. Take outflow at the beginning of routing step equal to inflow. Find the outflow hydrograph at B. [8+8] Time (h) Inflow (m3 /sec)

12 24 36 48 14 22 36 93

60 72 84 96 108 120 141 102 86 73 61 50

132 38

144 26

156 168 20 16

5. (a) Define the following terms: i. Aquifer, aquiclude, perched aquifer ii. specific yield, piezometric surface, water table, (b) Find out the velocities of the ground water flow with the following data, using Slichter and Hazen?s constants as 400 and 800 respectively. Viscosity coefficient of water at groundwater temperature of 100 C = 1, Effective size of the particles in the aquifer = 0.1mm, Hydraulic gradient = 1 in 80. [8+8] 1 of 2


Set No. 1

Code No: V3103/R07

6. (a) Explain various advantages and disadvantages of drip irrigation over sprinkler irrigation. (b) Write a note on sub-surface irrigation, stating clearly the conditions under which this method is suitable. [10+6] 7. (a) Define the following terms: i. ii. iii. iv.

Culturable command area, Kor period, Capacity factor, Rabi and Kharif crops.

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(b) An irrigation canal has gross command area of 80,000ha out of which 85% is culturable irrigable. The intensity of irrigation for Kharif season is 30%. and for Rabi season is 60%. Find the discharge required at the head of the canal if the duty at its head is 800ha/cumecs for Kharif season and 1700ha/cumecs for Rabi season. [8+8]

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8. (a) Explain the procedure of designing a channel with Kennedy’s theory. (b) Using Lacey’s theory, design an irrigation channel for the following data. Discharge Q=50cumecs, Silt factor ‘f’=1.0, Side slopes:1/2:1 [8+8]

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3103/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Hydrology is a highly inter-disciplinary science, Justify. List out various practical applications of Hydrology.

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(b) A basin has the area in the form of a pentagon with each side of length 20 Km. The five raingauges located at the corners A, B, C, D and E have recorded 60, 81, 73, 59 and 45 mm of rainfall respectively. Compute average depth of rainfall over the basin using arithmetic mean and Theissen polygon methods. [8+8]

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2. (a) Discuss various methods of reducing evaporation from a water body. (b) Determine the runoff from a catchment of area 1.8 km2 over which 8 cm of rainfall occurred during 1-day storm. An infiltration capacity curve prepared indicated an initial infiltration capacity of 10 mm/hr after 16 hours of rainfall, with the Horton?s constant k=5 hr−1 . A floating pan installed in the catchment indicated a decrease of 6 mm in water level on that day. [8+8]

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3. (a) Define unit hydrograph. What are the assumptions underlying the unit hydrograph theory. How do they limit the applicability of unit hydrograph.

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(b) A drainage basin has the following characteristics. Basin area = 2500 sq. km. Length of the main stream L = 110 km Distance from the centroid of the basin to outlet = 70 km. Construct the 4 hour synthetic unit hydrograph for the basin if Ct = 1.50 and Cp = 0.6. [8+8]

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4. (a) What are the various methods of reservoir routing. Write down the steps involved in ISD method. (b) Observed values of inflows and outflows at two sections of a river reach are given below. Determine K and X between the reach using Muskingum method of routing. [8+8] Time (h) 0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 60 66 72 78 Inflow(m3 /sec) 15 70 200 250 220 180 140 90 70 50 35 25 16 13 Outflow 15 17 45 140 190 205 180 150 125 100 60 40 25 16 3 (m /sec) 5. (a) What is Dupuit’s equation? State the assumptions that enter in its development. What is well function? (b) Explain the following terms: i. Aquifer, aquiclude, capillary fringe 1 of 2


Set No. 2

Code No: V3103/R07

ii. Equilibrium drawdown, specific yield, perched water table

[8+8]

6. Explain permanent, semi permanent and portable system of sprinkler irrigation methods along with neat sketches. [16] 7. (a) Define irrigation efficiency. List out different types of irrigation efficiencies. Explain any two of them. (b) Define Consumptive use of water? List out various methods used for the assessment of consumptive use of water? Explain any one method in detail for the estimation of consumptive use [8+8] 8. (a) What is sediment? How is sediment transported in streams? What are dunes and antinodes? Write an equation giving the relation between total sediment transport and stream flow.

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(b) Write down step by step procedure for the design of Lacey’s theory. ?????

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[8+8]


Set No. 3

Code No: V3103/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Explain the following in brief. (a) Isohyet

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(b) Average Annual Rainfall

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(c) Probable maximum precipitation (d) Raingauge density. 2. (a) Distinguish between: i. ii. iii. iv.

[4 Ă— 4 = 16]

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Overland flow and interflow Influent and effluent streams Detention storage and depression storage Drainage density and drainage divide.

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(b) Explain the mid-section method of computing the discharge in a stream. Show in a neat sketch, the positions of velocity measurements over the cross sectional area of the stream. [8+8]

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3. (a) Describe the step by step procedure of the derivation of a unit hydrograph from an isolated storm. (b) Calculate the Snyder’s synthetic unit hydrograph parameters for the following data : Catchment area = 950 km 2 ; L = 48 km; Lc = 21 km, Ct = 1.65, Cp = 0.57. Adopt standard duration. [8+8]

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4. (a) What do you mean by design flood. Why its computation is so important for water resource projects. Enumerate various methods for estimating design flood. (b) Analysis of annual flood peaks for 50 years at a river site in Orissa shows the following relations 10 year flood - 20200 m3 /sec: 100 year flood - 38500 m3 /sec. Calculate i. the magnitude of 200 year flood and ii. probability of having a 50 year flood in the next 10 years.

[8+8]

5. A tube well penetrates fully a 8m thick water bearing stratum (confined) of medium sand having coefficient of permeability of 0.004m/sec. The well radius is 15cm and is to be worked under a drawdown of 3m at the well face. Calculate the discharge from the well. What will be the percentage increase in the discharge if the radius of the well is doubled? Take radius of zero drawdown equal to 400 m in each. [16] 1 of 2


Set No. 3

Code No: V3103/R07

6. (a) Compare surface irrigation with sub-surface irrigation (b) Explain various advantages and disadvantages of sprinkler method of irrigation over flood irrigation methods [6+10] 7. (a) Explain crop rotation. Write down the advantages. (b) Wheat is to be grown in a field having a filed capacity equal to 27% and the permanent wilting point is 13%. Find the storage capacity in 80 cm depth of the soil, if the dry unit weight of the soil is 14.72 kN/m3 . If irrigation water is to be supplied when the average soil moisture falls to 18%., find the water depth required to be supplied to the field if the field application efficiency is 80%. What is the amount of water needed at the canal outlet if the water lost in the water courses and the field channels is 15% of the outlet discharge? [6+10]

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8. Design a channel section by Kennedy’s theory given the following data: Discharge Q=2828cumecs Kutter’s N=0.0225 Critical velocity ratio ‘m’ =1 Side slope = 12 : 1 B/D = 7.6 Find also the bed slope of the channel.

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[16]


Set No. 4

Code No: V3103/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING-I (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Explain three methods of determining the mean areal depth of precipitation over a basin covered by several raingauge stations. Indicate the most accurate method of determination giving reasons.

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(b) The annual rainfalls at 7 raingauge stations in a basin are 58, 94, 60, 45, 20, 88 and 68cm respectively. What is the percentage accuracy of the existing network in the estimation of average depth of rainfall over the basin. How many additional gauges are required, if it is desired to limit the error to only 10%. [8+8]

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2. (a) Explain how the evapotranspiration can be estimated using the Blaney-Criddle and Thornthwaite equations.

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(b) What are the factors which affect infiltration. Explain any one method of determining the infiltration capacity of soil surface. [8+8]

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3. (a) Describe the method of deriving unit hydrograph from complex storms. (b) A 4 h hydrograph for a project site in Mahanadi Basin is given below. Calculate 2-h UH by S-hydrograph approach. [8+8] Time (h) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 UH ordinates 0 30 110 170 210 180 120 80 40 35 20 15 5 0 (m3 /sec)

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4. (a) Describe in steps, the Muskingum method of flood routing if the values of K and X are known for a given channel reach. What should be limiting value of routing step ∆t. (b) Between two reaches A and B of a river, the values of Muskingum coefficients determined are K = 24 h and X = 0.20. Take outflow at the beginning of routing step equal to inflow. Find the outflow hydrograph at B. [8+8] Time (h) Inflow (m3 /sec)

12 24 36 48 14 22 36 93

60 72 84 96 108 120 141 102 86 73 61 50

132 38

144 26

156 168 20 16

5. Two tube wells each of 20 cm diameter are spaced at 100 m distance. Both the wells penetrate fully a confined aquifer of 12 m thickness. Calculate the discharge if only one well is discharging under a depression head of 3m. What will be the percentage decrease in the discharge of the well if both the wells are discharging under the depression head of 3 m. Take radius of influence for each well equal to 250 meters, and coefficient of permeability of aquifer as 50 metres/day. [16] 1 of 2


Set No. 4

Code No: V3103/R07

6. (a) List out the advantages and ill-effects of assured irrigation. (b) What is meant by surface and sub-surface irrigation?. What are their types? Discuss briefly the various techniques used for distributing water in the farms. [8+8] 7. (a) What is meant by duty and delta of canal water. Derive a relation between duty and delta for a given base period. (b) Find the delta for sugarcane when its duty is 730 hecatares/cumecs on the field and the base period of the crop is being 110 days. [8+8] 8. (a) Discuss critically the statement �The banks of an unlined channel are more susceptible to erosion than its bed, and hence the stability of the banks and not of its bed is the governing factor in unlined canal designs�.

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(b) Explain the following terms in detail. i. Ridge canal ii. Side slope canal ?????

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[8+8]


Set No. 1

Code No: V3112/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 POWER ELECTRONICS (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. The latching current of a thyristor with d.c. voltage source of 100V is 50mA. Calculate the value of minimum width of the gate pulse current when connected to a pure inductive load of 1H. Compute the effect, if a resistance of 10 ohms is connected in series with the load. [8+8]

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2. A single phase fully controlled bridge converter is connected to RLE load. The input voltage source is 230V, 50Hz. The average load current of 10 Amps is continuously maintained over the working range for 0.4 ohms and L = 2mH. Compute

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(a) firing angle for E = 120V (b) firing angle for E = -120V.

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[8+8]

3. Explain the operation of 3-phase dual converter fed to RL loads for non-circulating current mode. With neat circuit diagram and waveforms. [12+4]

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4. The ac voltage controller uses on-off control for heating a resistive load of R = 4 ohms and the input voltage is Vs = 208V, 60Hz. If the desired output power is P0 = 3KW, determine the

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(a) duty cycle δ

(b) input power factor

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(c) sketch waveforms for the duty cycle obtained in (a)

[5+6+5]

5. Explain the operation of single phase midpoint cyclo converter with R-L load s for continuous conduction with relevant circuit diagram nd necessary output waveforms for f0 = 1/3 fs. [4+6+6] 6. Explain the time ratio control and current limit control strategies used for choppers, with necessary waveforms and circuit. [8+8] 7. Explain the auxiliary impulse commutation techniques used in the bridge type single phase inverter with neat circuit diagram. [4+7+5] 8. What are the methods for voltage control within the inverters. Explain in detail with waveforms. [16] ?????

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3112/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 POWER ELECTRONICS (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. The specifications of a Thyristor operating from a peak supply of 400V is as follows :

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Repetitive Peak current Ipk = 200A (di/dt)max = 15A/us , (dv/dt)max = 108V/us.

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Choosing a factor of safety of 2 for Ipk, (di/dt)max and (dv/dt)max , design a suitable snubber circuit, if the minimum loads (RLmin ) be 10 ohms resistive. [8+8] 2. Explain the operation of a single phase full wave mid-point converter with R-load with the help of circuit and output waveforms with respect to supply voltages. Derive the output voltage for α= 450 . [6+6+4]

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3. A three phase semi conductor is operated from a three phase star connected 220V, 60Hz supply. The load current is continuous and has negligible ripple. The average load current is Idc = 150A and commutating inductance per phase is Lc = 0.5mH. Determine the overlap angle if

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(a) α=π/6

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(b) α=π/3

[8+8]

4. A single phase load of resistance of 12 ohms is fed from 240V (rms), 50 Hz supply by a pair of inverse parallel thyristors. Find the mean power in the load at firing angle of

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(a) 00

(b) 900 and (c) 1200 . Ignore source inductance and device voltage drops.

[6+5+5]

5. Discuss the working of a single phase mid point cyclo converter with R-L loads and for discontinuous operation with neat circuit diagram and output rms voltage and current waveforms for f0 =1/3 fs. [4+7+5] 6. Explain the time ratio control and current limit control strategies used for choppers, with necessary waveforms and circuit. [8+8] 7. Single phase half bridge inverter has a resistive load of R = 3 ohms and dc input voltage Edc = 50V. Calculate (a) rms output voltage at fundamental frequency E1 1 of 2


Set No. 2

Code No: V3112/R07 (b) the output power (c) average and peak current of each thyristor

[6+4+6]

8. Explain the voltage control in case of single phase bridge inverter circuit, in order to get variable voltage and variable frequency output. [16] ?????

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3112/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 POWER ELECTRONICS (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Explain the SCR firing circuits in detail with the help of circuits and waveforms (a) Resistance firing circuits

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(b) RC firing circuit.

[8+8]

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2. Explain the operation of a singe phase half wave converter for R-load with neat circuit diagram and necessary waveforms. Also derive the output average voltage [12+4] and current for α = 300 .

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3. Explain the operation of three phase half-wave controlled converter with resistive load, and inductive load. Sketch the associated waveforms. [8+8]

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4. A single phase full wave ac voltage controller has a resistance load of (a) 10 ohms and

(b) 5 ohms. The input ac voltage is 230V, 50Hz. For a delay angle of 900 , determine the rms load voltage, rms load current, rms thyristor current and input power factor for above two loads. [8+8]

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5. Discuss the working of a single phase mid point cyclo converter with R-L loads and for discontinuous operation with neat circuit diagram and output rms voltage and [4+7+5] current waveforms for f0 =1/3 fs.

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6. The voltage commutated chopper (auxiliary commutated) circuit controls the batterypowered electric cars. The battery voltage is 80V, starting current is 80A and thyristor turn-off time is 20 µs, chopping period 2000 µs. Compute the values of commutating capacitor C and commutating inductor L and Derive the expressions that are used. [10+6] 7. Draw and explain the simple SCR series inverter circuit employing class A type commutation. With the help of important waveforms. State the limitations of this inverter. [8+4+4] 8. A single phase full bridge inverter uses a uniform PWM with seven pulses per half cycle for voltage control. Plot distortion factor, fundamental component and lower order harmonics against the Modulation index. [5+5+6] ?????

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3112/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 POWER ELECTRONICS (Electrical & Electronic Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) The SCR is rated to give an average power dissipation of 0.5W. Its gate voltage varies from 2.5V to 10V. Keeping average gate power dissipation constant, plot allowable gate characteristics of SCR. For a triggering gate pulses of duty cycle 0.6. Calculate the value of average gate dissipation.

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(b) Explain the gate characteristics of a Thyristor.

[8+8]

2. Derive the expressions for the following performance factors of single phase fully controlled bridge converter

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(a) input displacement factor (b) input power factor

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(c) voltage ripple factor (d) active power input

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(e) Reactive power input

[5+3+2+3+3]

3. A three phase full converter is supplied from a three phase 230V, 60Hz supply. The load current is continuous and has negligible ripple. If the average load current Idc = 150A and commutating inductance Lc = 0.1mH, determine the overlap angle when

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(a) α = 10

(b) α = 300 and (c) α = 600

[6+5+5]

4. (a) Explain the principle of ON-OFF control used in a.c. voltage controller. (b) Derive the expression for the input power factor in an a.c. voltage controller using ON-OFF control. (c) Explain its application with the help of a circuit and waveforms.

[6+5+5]

5. Discuss the working of a single phase bridge type cyclo converter with RL loads and for discontinuous operations with relevant output waveforms and circuit diagram [4+6+6] for f0 = 1/2 fs. 6. Explain the operation of a basic dc chopper and obtain the following as a function of Edc , R and duty cycle δ. (a) average output voltage and current 1 of 2


Set No. 4

Code No: V3112/R07 (b) rms value of the output voltage (c) RMS and average load currents

[6+4+6]

7. Draw and explain the simple SCR series inverter circuit employing class A type commutation. With the help of important waveforms. State the limitations of this inverter. [8+4+4] 8. A single PWM inverter feeds an RL load with R = 10 ohms, and L = 20mH. If the Vs = 120 V, find out the total harmonic distortion in the load current. The width [16] of each pulse is 1200 and the output frequency is 50Hz.

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3117/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MACHINE TOOLS (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) What are throw away carbide tips? What are their advantages? What are their basic requirements?

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(b) Discuss important properties of cutting tool. 2. (a) Why are engine lathes called by that name?

[8+8]

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(b) Discuss the specifications of lathe.

(c) What are the basic parts of an engine lathe? Discuss the function of head stock. [5+5+6]

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3. (a) Differentiate between shaper, planer and slotter as regards relative tool and work motions

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(b) Classify and list shapers and planers.

[8+8]

4. (a) Explain briefly micro drilling, deep hole drilling and deep hole boring.

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(b) Draw the block diagram of jig borer machine and discuss the functions of various elements of it. [8+8]

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5. What do you understand from the term ‘Kinematic Scheme of milling cutter’. Explain in detail? [16] 6. (a) What are roll grinders and where are they used?

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(b) What are the merits and demerits of grinding as compared to other machining operations? [8+8]

7. (a) With the help of neat sketch discuss the working of a surface broaching machine. (b) Write the advantages and limitations of broaching process.

[10+6]

8. (a) What is a ‘bridge clamp’ ? Explain its working with the help of a neat sketch. (b) Explain the construction and working of a ‘template jig’ ? ?????

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[8+8]


Set No. 2

Code No: V3117/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MACHINE TOOLS (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) What do you understand by economics of machining? How do you evaluate machining cost?

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(b) What is machinability? And machinability index?

(c) Discuss the role of tungsten, chromium and vanadium in HSS tool material. [5+5+6]

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2. (a) Define: speed, Feed, Depth of cut and machining time for plain turning operation

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(b) Explain with neat sketch how thread cutting operation is done on by lathe. [8+8]

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3. Explain with neat sketch various feed mechanisms in shaper.

[16]

4. (a) What are different tool holding devices used in drilling machine? Brief them.

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(b) What is spade drill? When is it used? Sketch one.

[8+8]

5. (a) What are the differences in the geometry and application of the following milling cutters?

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i. peripheral ii. face iii. side.

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(b) What is the difference among plain, compound and differential indexing?[8+8]

6. (a) How are the grains of abrasives classified? (b) Explain the factors involved in selecting the appropriate type of abrasive for a particular grinding operation. [8+8] 7. (a) Why straight round bores are produced by honing. (b) Draw a honing tool and describe its construction.

[8+8]

8. (a) Explain the location methods for the design of fixtures for machining components with flat and cylindrical surfaces. (b) What are the functions of jigs and fixtures. ?????

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[8+8]


Set No. 3

Code No: V3117/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MACHINE TOOLS (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) What are general requirements of machine tools? (b) What are types of drives employed for operation of machine tool?Discuss their relative merits and demerits. [8+8] 2. (a) Why are engine lathes called by that name?

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(b) Discuss the specifications of lathe.

(c) What are the basic parts of an engine lathe? Discuss the function of head stock. [5+5+6]

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3. (a) Discuss which way a shaper tool differs from a lathe tool

(b) In a shaper work the length of stroke is 300mm. Number of double strokes per mint is 40 and the ratio of return time to cutting time is 1:2. Find the cutting speed. [8+8]

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4. (a) Discuss twist drill nomenclatures using sketch. (b) List out drill bit materials. Which is mostly used? Why?

[8+8]

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5. (a) Sketch and describe a planer-type milling machine. (b) What is a tracer controlled milling machine? How does it work and what are its applications? [8+8]

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6. (a) With the help of sketches, describe: i. External centreless grinding ii. Internal centreless grinding.

(b) Describe about wheel wear and grinding ratio.

[8+8]

7. (a) Why robust fixtures are required to support jobs to be broached. (b) How much stock is removed by a tooth on a broach? Discuss. (c) How is the length of a broach determined?

[6+5+5]

8. (a) Why should jig have four feet and not three ? Explain the reason. (b) Name the essential elements which make up a jig or a fixture. ?????

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[8+8]


Set No. 4

Code No: V3117/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MACHINE TOOLS (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Why not relief or clearance angles be zero or negative? (b) Why relief angles on carbide tools are kept small?

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(c) What are the advantages of providing side cutting edge angle on the cutting tool? [5+5+6]

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2. (a) What is a mandrel? Why these are used in lathe? (b) List different types of mandrels with sketches.

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[8+8]

3. What types of operations can be performed in a shaper efficiently? list and explain with sketch. [16]

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4. (a) Explain briefly different types of drilling machines and their features. (b) How is the size of drilling machine specified? Discuss.

[8+8]

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5. (a) Sketch and describe the working of a ‘Turret-type milling machine’. (b) What are the common milling methods? Compare their relative merits and demerits. [8+8]

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6. (a) Sketch and explain the mounting of a grinding wheel. Mention a few precautions to be observed during mounting.

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(b) Discuss about various abrasives used in the manufacture of grinding wheels. [8+8]

7. (a) What is the purpose of honing? Explain honing process. (b) Explain the difference between the type of abrasive cutting tool used for honing and that used for lapping. (c) Compare the relative surface finish obtained in honing and lapping. [6+5+5] 8. (a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of hydraulic clamping devices over other types of clamping devices. (b) Write a note on the economic analysis of jigs and fixtures. ?????

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[8+8]


Set No. 1

Code No: V3118/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ANTENNAS & WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Find the effective length of a λ/2 dipole and λ/4 monopole. Hence calculate their directivities, using the appropriate radiation resistances. [16]

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2. (a) Explain the terms Isotropic, Directional and Omni directional patterns. (b) Show that the radiation resistance of a λ/4 monopole is 36.5ohms.

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(c) Plot the radiation pattern of dipole antenna for 4 different dimensions interms of wavelengths. [6+6+4] 3. (a) What is Array Factor? Find the array factor of 2 element array.

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(b) For an array of 2 identical infinitesimal dipoles oriented with a separation of ‘D’ and phase excitation difference ‘β’ between the elements. Find the angles of observation where the nulls of the array occur. The magnitude of excitation of the elements is same. [8+8]

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4. (a) If a Helical antenna has spacing between turns 0.05m, diameter 0.1m, no.of turns equal to 20 and operates at 1000MHz. Find the null to null beam width of the main beam and also half power beam width and directivity.

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(b) Discuss the basic properties of Helical Antennas.

[10+6]

5. (a) What is a parabolic element. How does a parasitic element act when length is greater than and smaller than λ/2.

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(b) Distinguish between Spherical and Cylindrical paraboloids. Comment on their aperture efficiency and applications. [8+8]

6. (a) Describe the method of measuring the gain and radiation pattern of an antenna. (b) A standard gain horn antenna with a power gain of 12.5, is used to measure the gain of a large directional antenna by comparison method. The test antenna is connected to the receiver and an attenuator adjusted to 23dB in order to have the same receiver output. Find out the gain of the large antenna. [8+8] 7. (a) Discuss the features that lead to fading and attenuation in ionospheric propagation. (b) What is Wave Tilt? How does it effect the field strength received at a distance from the transmitter? [8+8] 8. (a) Discuss the effects of hills, building and other obstacles an space wave propagation. 1 of 2


Set No. 1

Code No: V3118/R07 (b) Explain the fading of EM waves in troposphere.

[8+8]

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3118/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ANTENNAS & WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Establish the relations between directivity and effective area, directivity and effective length.

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(b) An antenna has a radiation resistance of 63 ohms and a lossy resistance of 6 ohms. If the power gain is 30, Calculate the directivity and the efficiency of the antenna. [8+8]

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2. (a) What is radiation resistance of an antenna.

(b) Show that the radiation resistance of half wave dipole is 73ohm

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(c) Distinguish between Dipole and Monopole.

[4+8+4]

3. (a) A linear broadside array consist of 4 identical equal in phase point source with λ/3 spacing. Calculate and plot the field pattern. Also find the directivity and beam width.

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(b) What is optimum spacing used in parasitic array? Why.

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[12+4]

4. (a) State the advantages and disadvantages of Rhombic Antenna. (b) Draw the radiation pattern for traveling wave antenna for L=λ/2,λ,2 λ,4λ and 8 λ. [8+8]

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5. (a) Explain all the structural requirements of a 5 element yagi antenna at 475MHz accounting for typical spacing, length to diameter ratios and input impedance Zn.

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(b) Explain the geometry, requirements and properties of parabolic reflectors. [8+8]

6. (a) Explain why the beam widths in the two perpendicular planes of radiation of a square pyramidal horn will be different. Derive gain formula. (b) What is an antenna test range? What is minimum distance at which test should be taken for an antenna 5m in diameter and working at 6GHz? Derive the necessary expression. [8+8] √ 7. (a) Show that MUF of ionized layer is given by fc 1+(D/2h)2 for flat earth. (b) Discuss the following: i. Ionospheric Storms. ii. Sudden Ionospheric Disturbances. 8. (a) Derive the field strength of tropospheric wave. 1 of 2

[8+8]


Set No. 2

Code No: V3118/R07

(b) Give an account of effect of earths imperfections and roughness.

[8+8]

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3118/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ANTENNAS & WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Find the effective length of a λ/2 dipole and λ/4 monopole. Hence calculate their directivities, using the appropriate radiation resistances. [16]

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2. (a) Explain the complimentary behavior between Slot and Dipole Antennas. (b) State Reciprocity Theorem. How is it useful to obtain radiation characteristics of Antennas? [8+8]

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3. (a) Compare the performance of Broadside and End fire array. (b) Show that the width of principle lobe of an end fine array is greater than that of broadside array of the same length. [8+8]

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4. (a) Describe the construction and properties of Rhombic Antenna. (b) Describe the characteristics of long wire traveling wave antenna. Sketch their pattern for lengths of i. λ/2 ii. 5 λ iii. 20 λ. [10+6]

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5. (a) A paraboloid operating at 5GHz, has a radiation pattern with null to null beam width of 100 . Find the mouth diameter of the paraboloid, HPBW and power gain. (b) Draw the Yadi-Uda antenna and sketch its radiation, Write down the design equations of yagi-uda antenna. [8+8]

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6. (a) Given that radiation pattern of an antenna are measured, explain how the directivity and power gain can be evaluated. (b) Distinguish between different types of lens antennas, explaining their curvature profiles. [8+8] 7. (a) Discus the salient features of Sky wave propagation. (b) Bring out the various problems associated with this mode of propagation. How are these problems overcome? [8+8] 8. (a) Space wave propagates between transmitting and receiving stations of heights ‘h1’ and ‘h2’ respectively. Derive the expression for field strength. (b) What are the different paths used for propagating radio waves from 300KHz and 300MHz. [8+8] ????? 1 of 1


Set No. 4

Code No: V3118/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ANTENNAS & WAVE PROPAGATION (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Define the terms: i. ii. iii. iv.

Antenna Aperture Beam Width Aperture Efficiency Bandwidth.

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(b) What is the maximum effective aperture(approximately) for a beam antenna having half power widths of 300 and 350 in perpendicular planes intersecting in the beam axis, minor lobes are small and may be neglected. [8+8]

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2. (a) Explain the concept of retarded potential

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(b) Write down the expressions for the Electric and Magnetic fields caused to an alternating current element. Identify the - Electrostatic - Induction - and Radiation terms Justify the nomenclature. [8+8]

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3. (a) Compare the radiation characteristics of uniform linear arrays, fed with i. uniform amplitudes. ii. Triangular taper amplitudes. iii. Binomially tapered amplitudes.

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(b) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of Binomial array.

[8+8]

4. (a) Design a Rhombic Antenna to operate at 20MHz when the angle of elevation ∆= 100 . (b) Describe the Non Resonant V-antenna.

[8+8]

5. (a) Describe the following reflectors : i. Truncated Paraboloid ii. Offset Paraboloid. (b) Find the gain, BWFN, HPBW of a paraboloid of 2m diameter operating at 5 GHz when half wave dipole is used. [8+8] 6. (a) Derive an expression for directivity of pyramidal horn in terms of aperture dimensions. 1 of 2


Set No. 4

Code No: V3118/R07

(b) Explain the 3 antenna method of measurement of the gain of a horn antenna with necessary relations. [8+8] 7. (a) What is Virtual Height? Derive the expression for the same. (b) What is Skip Distance? Explain briefly.

[8+8]

8. (a) Describe the troposphere and explain how tropospheric ducts can be used for microwave propagation. (b) Derive the expression for space wave electric field produced by an antenna at a distance point, assuming a flat earth. [8+8]

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3125/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 COMPUTER GRAPHICS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Explain the construction of the following devices with suitable sketches and their operating characterstics

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(a) Raster- refresh devices

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(b) Vector- refresh devices.

[8+8]

2. (a) Write an algorithm for generating the intermediate points using Bresenham?s algorithm when two-end points are given as input.

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(b) Write an algorithm for polyline function which calls the above algorithm, given any number (n) of input points. A single point to be plotted when n=1. [8+8]

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3. (a) Describe the transformation that rotates an object point Q(x,y), θ0 about a fixed center of rotation p(h,k). (b) Magnify the triangle with vertices A(0,0), B(1,1) and C(5,2) to twice its size, while keeping C(5,2) fixed. [8+8]

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4. (a) Illustrate with suitable examples how the three Categories of lines are processed using Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm.

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(b) What is the significance of dot products in decision making is Cyrun-Beck algorithm? [8+8]

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5. If the equation for a plane surface is expressed in the form Ax+By+Cz+D=0. Explain the procedure to calculate the parameters A, B, C and D using Cramer’s rule if the three successive polygon vertices are given as input. [16] 6. Explain how the shearing of an object with respect to the three coordinate axes are implemented. What are the corresponding input values for the shearing parameters. [16] 7. (a) Illustrate the procedure for implementing area-sub division method. (b) Explain how the BSP-tree method is implemented for visible surface detection. [8+8] 8. List the general-purpose animation languages. Explain the characteristics any are language. [16] ?????

1 of 1


Set No. 2

Code No: V3125/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 COMPUTER GRAPHICS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) List and explain the applications of Computer Graphics.

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(b) With a neat cross- sectional view explain the functioning of CRT devices. [8+8]

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2. (a) Write an algorithm for generating the intermediate points using Bresenham?s algorithm when two-end points are given as input. (b) Write an algorithm for polyline function which calls the above algorithm, given any number (n) of input points. A single point to be plotted when n=1. [8+8]

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3. (a) Describe the transformation which reflects an object about an arbitrary line L.

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(b) What is the relationship among rotation (Rθ ) , inverse rotation (R−θ ) and [8+8] coordinate rotation (Rθ1 ).

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4. (a) What are the basic transformation techniques used in Window-to-Viewport transformation? Derive the viewing transformation matrix.

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(b) What is the significance of 4-bit region code is Cohen-Sutherland algorithm? [8+8] 5. (a) Define the B-spline geometry vector GBS and B-spline basis matrix MBS .

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(b) Compute the B-spline blending functions.

[8+8]

6. Find the matrix for mirror reflection with respect to the plane passing through the origin and having a normal vector whose direction is N = I + J + K. [16] 7. (a) Illustrate the procedure for implementing area-sub division method. (b) Explain how the BSP-tree method is implemented for visible surface detection. [8+8] 8. Explain the procedure to simulate the linear, two-dimensional motion of a filled circle inside a given rectangular area. The circle is to be given an initial velocity and the circle is to rebound from the walls with the angle of reflection equal to the angle of incidence. [16] ?????

1 of 1


Set No. 3

Code No: V3125/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 COMPUTER GRAPHICS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Distinguish the operating charactersitcs of raster refresh systems and vector refresh systems.

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(b) Explain the functioning of LCDs. What are its advantages?

[8+8]

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2. (a) Write on algorithm for scan-converting a line using mid-point algorithm.

(b) Modify the mid-point algorithm for scan-converting lines to write pixels with varying intensities as a function of line slope. [8+8]

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3. (a) What is the general form of the matrix for rotation about a point P(h,k). (b) Perform a 450 rotation of a triangle A(0,0), B(1,1) and C(5,2) about the origin. [8+8]

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4. (a) Illustrate with suitable examples how the three Categories of lines are processed using Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm.

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(b) What is the significance of dot products in decision making is Cyrun-Beck algorithm? [8+8]

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5. Explain the procedure to design two-dimensional cubic-Bezier curve shapes that have second order piece-wise continuity. [16] 6. Consider a line from the origin of a right-handed coordinate system to the point P(x, y, z). Find the transformation matrix needed to rotate the line in to the positive z-axis. Follow the below mentioned sequence to achieve the desired transformation matrix:

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(a) Rotate about the x-axis into the (x, y) plane, (b) Then rotate about the y-axis into the z-axis.

[16]

7. (a) Explain the possible relationships between polygon surfaces while implementing area-subdivision method. How to handle these cases. (b) Illustrate with an example a scence consisting of three or more planes and explain how the BSP tree is constructed to represent the scene. [8+8] 8. (a) List and explain about the steps of animation. (b) What are the various types of interpolation used in animation. ????? 1 of 1

[8+8]


Set No. 4

Code No: V3125/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 COMPUTER GRAPHICS ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. List the operating characterstics of

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(a) Raster refresh systems (b) Vector refresh systems

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(c) Plasma panel (d) LCDs.

[4×4=16]

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2. (a) Show graphically that an ellipse has four-way symmetry by plotting four points on the ellipse: x = a cos θ + h, y = b sin θ + k where a =2, b=1, h=0 and k=0.

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(b) When 8-way symmetry of circle is used to obtain a full circle from pixel coordinates generated from first octant, does overstrike occur? Where? [8+8]

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3. (a) Prove that a uniform scaling (sx = sy ) and a rotation form a commutative pair of operations, but that, in general, scaling and rotation are not commutative. (b) Derive the transformation matrix for rotation about origin.

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[8+8]

4. (a) Explain how to determine whether a polygon vertex is inside or outside the window edge. What is the significance of this routine in determining whether a polygon edge intersects the window edge.

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(b) Justify that the Sutherland - Hodgeman algorithm is not suitable for clipping when the clipping polygon is a concave window. [8+8]

5. (a) Classify the reflections. What are the characteristics of each? Illustrate with suitable figures. (b) Describe the Phong illumination model. phong’s model.

Explain the parameters used in [8+8]

6. Explain how the shearing of an object with respect to the three coordinate axes are implemented. What are the corresponding input values for the shearing parameters. [16] 7. (a) If the camera viewing direction is V and the surface normal of plane is N, how to determine whether the surface visible with respect to viewing direction or not. (b) Explain the depth-buffer method for elimination of hidden surfaces. 1 of 2

[16]


Set No. 4

Code No: V3125/R07

8. What are the steps in design of animation sequence? Describe about each step briefly. [16] ?????

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Code No: V3133/R07

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III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 MASS TRANSFER OPERATIONS-I (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****



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1. (a) Explain briefly separation processes where contact of Gas-Solid is involved with suitable examples. [8 M] (b) Explain briefly the Importance of process capacity and damage to product for selection of separation Process. [8 M]

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2. The solute a diffuse through the liquid B from point 1 to 2, distance l apart. The concentrations of the solute at the two points are CA1and CA2 respectively. Determine the diffusional flux if the diffusivity of A in B depends upon its concentration in the form DAB=K1+K2CA. Consider both the cases of diffusion of (a) A through non-diffusing B and (b) equimolar counter diffusion of A and B. [16 M]

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3. Prove or show the following relationships starting with the flux equations. (i) Convert k'c to ky and kG [6 M] (ii) Convert kL to kx and k'x [6 M] (iii) Convert kG and ky [4 M]

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Discuss cross flow and countercurrent flow cascades with neat sketch? Give the material balance equations, equilibrium diagram and operating lines. [16 M] 5. Write the advantages and disadvantages of packed towers over tray towers [16 M] 6. An acetone-air mixture containing 0.025 mole fraction acetone has to its acetone reduced to 1% of this value by counter current absorption in a packed tower. Gas flow rate of pure air is 1kg/m2 sec and water is1.6 kg/m2. For this system the equilibrium diagram is given by Y=1.75X/(1-0.75X) where Y is kg moles of acetone /kg mole of air in gas phase and X is kg ϰ͘


Code No:

^ĞƚEŽͲϭ

V3133/R07

moles of acetone per kg mole of water in liquid phase. What is the tower required if height of overall transfer unit is HtoG =50 cm. 7. (a) Explain the terms humidification, dehumidification, dew point and dry bulb temperature. [8 M] (b) Hydrogen gas is saturated with CCl4 vapor at 1 atm and 1200F. This is cooled in a cooler to 400F. Finally it is heated to 800F. Calculate: (i) Weight CCl4 condensed in the cooler/kg H2 (ii) Percentage humidity at the final condition. (iii) Absolute humidity at the final condition. (iv)Dew point of the gas at the final condition 0 TF 40 80 120 Vapor pressure of CCl4 (mmHg) 42 123 295 [8 M]

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8. (a) Describe spray drier with neat sketch. [8 M] (b) Explain the mechanism for constant rate period during cross circulation drying. [8 M]

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Code No: V3133/R07

^ĞƚEŽͲϮ

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 MASS TRANSFER OPERATIONS-I (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

1. (a) Explain briefly Absorption and Stripping. [4 M] (b) Explain briefly Thermal diffusion, Sweep diffusion, atmolysis and centrifugation with suitable examples. [12 M]

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2. (a) Write short notes on analogies between momentum, heat, and mass transfer [8 M] (b) Explain briefly the Lennard- Jones parameters [4 M] (c) Differentiate between N and J [4 M]

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3. (a) Obtain the relation between ky and ky’. Write down the units of mass transfer coefficients. Discuss when and how the mass transfer coefficients depend upon concentration. [8 M] (b) Write short notes on film theory with the help of neat sketch. [8 M]

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4. (a) Write short note on “ Two- resistance theory”. (b) Write the basic concept of equilibrium between two phases.

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5. Explain in detail about the packed tower with neat sketch.

[8 M] [8 M] [16 M]

6. A coal gas is freed of its light oil content (benzene) by absorption into an a absorbent oil. The inlet gas contains 2% benzene by volume and 95% removal is required. Inlet gas flow rate=0.25cu.m/s; Pressure =1.07x105N/sq.m; Temperature = 260C; Oil inlet flow rate (Ls) =1.787x10-3 k mol/s; Solute content of inlet oil=0.005 mole fraction benzene; Average molecular weight of oil = 260. Equilibrium data Y=0.125x (mole fraction units). Determine the number of trays required graphically. [16 M]


Code No:

^ĞƚEŽͲϮ

V3133/R07

7. (a) Explain with the simple sketch of a conditioner the process of humidification and dehumidification involved in it. Show the changes in air temperature (T) and humidity (y) and y-t plot for the above air conditioning processes. [8 M] (b) Explain the difference between wet bulb temperature and adiabatic saturation temperature with necessary equations. [8 M] 8. a) 1400 kg (bone dry) of granular solid is to be dried under constant drying conditions from a moisture content of 0.2 kg/kg of dry solid to a final moisture content of 0.02 kg/kg dry solid .The material has an effective area of 0.0615 m2 /kg of solid. Under the same condition the following rates were previously known (data given below). Calculate the time required for drying

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X: 0.300

0.200 0.140 0.096 0.056 0.046 0.026

N: 1.710

1.710 1.710 1.460 1.290 0.880 0.540 0.376

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Where X is kg/kg of dry solid and N is in kg/ m2 b) Explain the term hysteresis.

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0.016

[12 M] [4 M]


Code No: V3133/R07

^ĞƚEŽͲϯ

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 MASS TRANSFER OPERATIONS-I (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

1. (a) Explain briefly foam separation and centrifugation [8 M] (b) Explain briefly humidification and dehumidification with suitable examples. [8 M] 2. Estimate the diffusivity of n- Butanol vapor (A) (C2H5CH2CH2OH) through air at 1 atm. Pressure and 590C. Data: Molecular weight n- butanol=74 Molecular weight of air=29. For air İB/Ԕ=97, rB = 0.3617nm. Group contribution of atomic volume (m3/K.atom) C=0.0148 O=0.0074 H=0.0037 and rA= 1.18ȣ1/3 Normal boiling point of n-butanol=1170C. Collision function data: KT/İ f(KT/İ) 1 0.72 1.5 0.6 2 0.54

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3. (a) Explain the significance of ‘Schmidt Number’ and jD – factor. [6 M] (b) Explain briefly for mass transfer from a gas into a falling liquid film. [10 M] 4. Describe the diffusion between phases and show how the equilibrium distribution curve varies as a function of temperature and pressure taking a system of liquid water and gaseous mixture ammonia and air? [16 M]

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5. Explain in detail about the tray tower with neat sketch.

[16 M]


Code No:

^ĞƚEŽͲϯ

V3133/R07

6. A packed tower of 300 cm diameter with 0.025 m berl saddles is used to reduce the ammonia content of air stream from 6% to 0.04%.The column is to be operated at 270C and1 atm. The total gas flow rate is 3.33 m3/min. Calculate the NtoG if the 1.5 times the minimum solvent used. Assume Henry’s law is applicable with the H=1.414. [16 M] 7. (a) Explain briefly design of cooling tower. [6 M] o o (b) b) Air at 38 C, 70% saturated with water vapour is heated to 82.4 C and passed through a dryer where it gets adiabatically cooled to 54.4oC and humidified to 40% saturation. The air leaving the dryer is cooled in a cooler to 26.6oC and reheated to 38oC. Determine: i) Molar humidity of air entering the first heater, ii)molar humidity and % saturation of air leaving the first heater, iii)molar humidity of air leaving the dryer, iv) water evaporated in the dryer per kg mole of air entering. The vapour pressure of water is as follows: temperature oC 26.6 38 54.4 82.4 vapor pressure, mmHg 26.2 49 115 388.4 [10 M]

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8. (a) Explain the different regions of drying in a rotary drier and sketch the temperature profiles in these zones of drying. [8 M] (b) To determine the drying characteristics of a fiber board sheet, a sample piece of 0.3x0.3m With edges sealed (drying takes place from two large faces only) was suspended in a cabinet drier and exposed to hot dry air. The following data was recorded: Initial moisture content =75%. Critical moisture content= 60%. Equilibrium moisture content=10%. Dry mass of the sample=0.9 kg . Nc=1x10-4 kg/s Determine the time of drying from 75% to 20% moisture. [8 M]

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Code No: V3133/R07

^ĞƚEŽͲϰ

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 MASS TRANSFER OPERATIONS-I (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

1. (a) Differentiate between process for homogeneous mixtures and process for the heterogeneous mixtures with suitable examples [8 M] (b) Write short notes on the selection of separating process taking a particular example. [8 M] 2. Ammonia gas and Nitrogen gas are diffusing in counter through diffusion a straight glass tube 0.61 m long with an inside diameter of 24.4 mm at 298 K and 101.32 K Pa. Both ends of the tube are connected to large mixed chambers at 101.32 K Pa. The partial pressure of NH3 in one chamber is constant at 20 K Pa and 6.666 K Pa in the other chamber. The diffusivity at 298K and 101.32 K Pa is 2.30×10-5 m2 /sec. (a) Calculate the rate of diffusion of NH3 in kg mol/s (b) Calculate the rate of diffusion of N2 (c) Calculate the partial pressure at a point 0.305 m in the tube and plot pA, pB and pt verses distance z.

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3. Discuss the following Mass Transfer Theories. (a) Film Theory (b) Boundary Layer Theory

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[8 M] [8 M]

4. (a) Assume Henry’s Law to be valid for absorption operation, show that 1/KG = 1/KG + m/KL Discuss with examples the cases where (i) m is small (ii) m is large. [8 M] (b) Explain briefly about equilibrium, driving force lines and operating lines for counter operation [8 M] 5. (a) Differentiate between channeling and flooding (b) Explain briefly sieve tray

[6 M] [5 M]


^ĞƚEŽͲϰ

Code No: V3133/R07

(c) Explain the terms Flooding, loading, Channeling, weeping and dumping. [5 M] 6. It is desired to eliminate traces of H2S from effluent gases of a toppling still, so that they can be conveniently used as a fuel. The original concentration of 2.5% by volume of H2S is to be reduced to 0.2% by volume, by scrubbing the gas mixture with hot nonvolatile hydrocarbon oil in multistage continuous counter current equipment. Determine the number of ideal stages required if the plant is operated using 1.5 times the minimum liquid rate. Henry’s law is applicable for this system and the constant is 0.25 atmospheres per mole fraction. [16 M]

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7. (a)Briefly explain wet bulb depression, wet bulb approach and dehumidification [8 M] (b) Show how the following equation is obtained in humidification and [8 M] drying involving air-water system. Yw’-Yg’ = hg (tg-tw)/kyλw

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8. (a) A wet cake with a weight of 5 kg originally contains 50% moisture on wet basis. The slab is 0.6 m x 1 m x 7.5 cm thick. When in contact with air of 40oC and 20% humidity, the drying rate is given in the table below for contact with the air of the above quality at a definite velocity. Drying is from one face. How long will it take to dry the slab to 15% content on wet basis? Wet slab weight, kg: 5 4 3.6 3.5 3.4 3.06 2.85 2 Drying rate kg/m hr: 5 5 4.5 4.0 3.5 2.0 1.00 [10 M] (b) Write short notes on through circulation drying. [6 M]

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3136/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Name and describe the various levels of management with their functions.

[16]

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2. Write short notes on the following:

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(a) Formal organisation (b) Informal organisation.

3. From the following data you are required to plot a p-chart and sions. S.No Year/Date Number of pieces Inspected Number of 1 1st Jan’2007 400 nd 2 2 Jan’2007 400 3 3rd Jan’2007 400 th 4 4 Jan’2007 400 5 5th Jan’2007 400 th 6 6 Jan’2007 400 7 7th Jan’2007 400 th 8 8 Jan’2007 400 9 9th Jan’2007 400 th 10 10 Jan’2007 400 Total 10 days 4000

r o

w tu

j. n

w w

w

[8+8]

draw the conclu[16] defectives found 30 25 30 35 40 45 35 45 35 40 360

4. “Marketing should aim at meeting a given consumer need rather than selling a given product.” Comment. [16] 5. Explain different methods of training the employees? Suggest a suitable training method for salesmen of a Heavy Machine Manufacturing Organization. [16] 6. The normal cost and duration, crash cost and duration of activities of a project are given in table. If the overhead cost is.Rs.45 per day, determine the optimal cost schedule for the project by drawing the project schedule Vs total cost. [16] Activity Normal Crash Time(days) Cost(Rs) Time(days) Cost(Rs) 1-2 3 360 1 440 2-3 4 240 2 320 2-4 7 100 3 160 3-4 5 80 2 180 1 of 2


Set No. 1

Code No: V3136/R07

7. Define the term strategic planning. State its advantages. Discuss the sequential steps followed in strategic planning. [16] 8. Explain the seven principles of Michael Hammer relating to re-engineering.

[16]

?????

m o

r o

c . ld

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j. n

w w

w

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3136/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Name and describe the various levels of management with their functions.

[16]

m o

2. Define organisation. Explain the importance of organisation in an industry. [16]

c . ld

3. Describe the factors influencing the plant layout.

[16]

4. A Company requires 2000 units per month of raw material for its production. The cost of placing an order is Rs. 100 per order. The inventory carrying cost is 10% per year per unit of average inventory. The company maintains safety stock equal to 20 days requirement and the normal lead time is 10 days. The company works for 300 days in a year. If purchase price of raw material is Rs. 25 per unit, determine EOQ, Number of orders to be placed in a year, maximum inventory and re-order point. [16]

r o

w tu

5. Explain some of the problems in interview as a method of selection?

j. n

[16]

6. From the following data draw the network and identity the critical path also calculate total float and free float of each activity. [16] Activity To Tm Tp 1-2 2 6 9 1-6 5 9 14 2-3 4 9 12 2-4 3 6 9 3-5 5 12 15 4-5 4 9 14 6-7 1 6 9 5-8 2 4 6 7-8 10 15 24

w w

w

7. How does policy relate to strategy? Explain.

[16]

8. Write short notes on following: (a) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) (b) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO). ?????

1 of 1

[8+8]


Set No. 3

Code No: V3136/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. “In Indian organisations, the social responsibilities are more in theory than in practice”. Do you agree with this statement? Explain. [16]

m o

2. Name the various methods of departmentation. State the advantages of departmentation by function. [16]

c . ld

3. What is sampling? Explain the various kinds of sampling plans.

r o

[16]

4. “Marketing should aim at meeting a given consumer need rather than selling a given product.” Comment. [16] 5. Explain some of the problems in interview as a method of selection?

w tu

[16]

6. Briefly write a note on PERT & its time estimates. How do you calculate the expected time PERT? [16]

j. n

7. How would a company achieve synergy among different functions and business units? [16]

w w

8. Write short notes on:

(a) Capability Maturity Model (CMM)

w

(b) Just-in-Time (JIT) (c) Balanced Scored Card.

[5+5+6] ?????

1 of 1


Set No. 4

Code No: V3136/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 MANAGEMENT SCIENCE ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Aeronautical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Critically examine Herzberg’s two-factor theory. Make a comparison between theories of Herzberg and Maslow. Which of these theories do you prefer in Indian context? Give reasons. [16]

m o

c . ld

2. What are the basic characteristics of formal and informal organisations? How does informal organisation differ from formal organisation? [16] 3. Define Inspection. What are the kinds of Inspection?

r o

[16]

4. What do you understand by Economic order quantity? Derive the formula for determining the Economic order quantity. [16]

w tu

5. Explain some of the problems in interview as a method of selection?

[16]

6. The following table gives the information relating to a project . By using the given data calculate the optimum duration of the project. Where indirect cost is estimated Rs.2000 per day. [16]

j. n

w w

Activity 1-2 1-3 2-4 2-5 3-4 4-5

w

Normal Crash Time(days) Cost(Rs) Time(days) Cost(Rs) 4 1000 3 2000 2 1500 1 3500 2 500 1 900 5 1000 3 4000 3 1000 1 2000 2 800 1 1000

7. What do you understand by the concept of strategy? Discuss the concept of ‘vision and mission’. [16] 8. Explain the seven principles of Michael Hammer relating to re-engineering. ?????

1 of 1

[16]


Set No. 1

Code No: V3143/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 BASIC CLINICAL SCIENCES-II (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Explain in detail the functions and requirements of a blood bank.

[16]

2. (a) What are the different types of anesthesia administered to the patients?

m o

(b) Describe the properties of anesthesia gases.

[8]

c . d

3. (a) Describe with a sketch the operation theatre environment? (b) Write short notes on intravascular pressure?

[8]

l r o

[8]

[8]

4. (a) classify the Tumors based on radiosensitivity with atleast two examples for each type ? [8] (b) Explain the effect of oxygen on radiosensitivity of the tumor cell ?

w tu

5. (a) What are the embryo late effects of radiation ?

[8] [8]

(b) How are the physical chemical and biomedical parameters modify the radiation response ? [8]

j. n

6. As a biomedical engineer what thye of protective measures you take to enter into a radiology department and what type of suggestions you give to other people on radiation Hazards. [16]

w w

7. Explain in details the imaging procedure of Central Nervous system?

w

8. (a) What are the therapeutic of radio isotopes? Explain. (b) Write a note on Metastatic bone diseases? ?????

1 of 1

[16] [8] [8]


Set No. 2

Code No: V3143/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 BASIC CLINICAL SCIENCES-II (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. . Give an account of different blood groups and explain the procedure used for blood grouping. Write about the composition of blood. [16]

m o

2. (a) Discuss the monitoring of patient parameters non-invasively during surgery. [8]

c . ld

(b) What is the role of artificial respiration in an anesthetized patient?

[8]

3. (a) How do you monitor pulse, B.P, respiration and ECG of a patient during surgery? [8]

r o

(b) Write a note on organization of theatres?

[8]

4. (a) classify the Tumors based on radiosensitivity with atleast two examples for each type ? [8]

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(b) Explain the effect of oxygen on radiosensitivity of the tumor cell ?

j. n

5. Effect of radiation on Bone Marrow.

6. (a) Describe the protective measure taken agaist radiation ?

w w

[8] [16] [10]

(b) What are the units of measuring radiaton what are the permissible limits ?[6] 7. Explain in details about instmentation used in the imaging of the liver,pancreas and sleen? [16]

w

8. (a) Write short notes on :

[6]

i. Thyroid cancer. ii. Thyroid diseases.

(b) Explain the terms :

[10]

i. Radio immunoassay. ii. polyethmia. ?????

1 of 1


Set No. 3

Code No: V3143/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 BASIC CLINICAL SCIENCES-II (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. . Give an account of different blood groups and explain the procedure used for blood grouping. Write about the composition of blood. [16]

m o

2. (a) What are the different types of anesthesia administered to the patients? (b) Describe the properties of anesthesia gases.

c . ld

[8]

[8]

3. Explain any one direct method to measure blood pressure and write short notes on central venous pressure? [16]

r o

4. (a) What are the various factors of irradiation which affect cellular response. [8] (b) Explain about Oxygen effect and Relative Biological Effectiveness.

w tu

[8]

5. (a) what is radiation carcinogenesis what are the common cancers due to radiation? [8] (b) What is the difference between ED-50 and LD-50 studies?

j. n

6. (a) Describe the protective measure taken agaist radiation ?

[8] [10]

(b) What are the units of measuring radiaton what are the permissible limits ?[6]

w w

7. (a) Explain about Linear Accelerator? (b) Explain about Laproscopy?

[8] [8]

w

8. (a) Explain in detail about metastatic bone diseases? (b) Write a note on Gastrointestinal function? ?????

1 of 1

[8] [8]


Set No. 4

Code No: V3143/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 BASIC CLINICAL SCIENCES-II (Bio-Medical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. (a) Discuss broad principles suitable for treatment of common fractures.

[8]

(b) What are the complications of fracture healing discuss the prevention and treatment of bone infections. [8]

m o

2. (a) Explain the techniques used to monitor the respiration and temperature of a Patient undergoing surgery. [8]

c . ld

(b) What are the precautions to be observed while handling anesthetic gases? [8]

r o

3. (a) Describe the techniques of measurement of intravascular pressures?

[8]

(b) Discuss the significance of humidity and temperature measurement in artificial respiration? [8]

w tu

4. (a) classify the Tumors based on radiosensitivity with atleast two examples for each type ? [8]

j. n

(b) Explain the effect of oxygen on radiosensitivity of the tumor cell ?

[8]

5. (a) Discuss common genetic effects of radiation and explain how radiation affects the embryo. [8]

w w

(b) Explain about radiation carcinogenesis.

[8]

6. (a) Suggest instructions to create awareness among people on radiation hazards on the rise globally. [8]

w

(b) What are the units ot measuring radiation what are the permissibl.

7. Explain the imaging procedure to test the renal function? 8. (a) What are the therapeutic of radio isotopes? Explain. (b) Write a note on Metastatic bone diseases? ?????

1 of 1

[8] [16] [8] [8]


Set No. 1

Code No: V3158/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 GENETIC ENGINEERING (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Explain Jacob and Monod’s model for regulation of gene expression. 2. Explain the following terms:

[16]

m o

(a) Regulatory sequences

c . ld

(b) Enhancers (c) reporter genes (d) gene silencing.

r o

3. What are transposons? Explain the basic features with suitable examples.

[4 Ă— 4] [16]

4. List out the different enzymes used in DNA manipulation along with the reactions they catalyze. [16]

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5. What types of techniques should be used to detect to clones expressing Nucleic acid binding proteins? Explain. [16]

j. n

6. How does one identify a PCR product? In a particular PCR amplification experiment, the product obtained was shorter than the expected length. Give your comments on the possible reasons. [16]

w w

7. How are RFLPs and VNTRs used in genetic fingerprinting? Explain.

w

[16]

8. What are muteins? How are these produced by employing the principles of protein engineering and recombinant DNA technology? [16] ?????

1 of 1


Set No. 2

Code No: V3158/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 GENETIC ENGINEERING (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Explain the following with examples: (a) Activators

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(b) Repressors

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(c) Promoter (d) Operator (e) Cis acting

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(f) Trans acting (g) polycistronic

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(h) monocistronic. 2. Explain the following:

j. n

[2 Ă— 8]

(a) Essential features of Leucine zipper proteins (b) Structural features of homeodomain proteins.

w w

[8 Ă— 2]

3. What are the desirable properties that plasmids should possess so that they can be used in r-DNA Technology? [16] 4. Explain the concept of restriction mapping with a suitable example.

[16]

5. Explain the recent developments in DNA sequencing.

[16]

w

6. Write a detailed account of the different markers used in disease diagnosis and fingerprinting. [16] 7. Discuss the concept of gene-chip and micro-arrays in detail.

[16]

8. What are the limitations and advantages of gene therapy? Discuss in detail. [16] ?????

1 of 1


Set No. 3

Code No: V3158/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 GENETIC ENGINEERING (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. Explain transcriptional control in Trp operon.

[16]

2. Explain the following terms:

m o

(a) Regulatory sequences

c . ld

(b) Enhancers (c) reporter genes (d) gene silencing.

r o

[4 × 4]

3. How can you differentiate between super coiled, relaxed and linear forms of plasmid DNA? Briefly write the procedure for isolation and visualization of these forms.[16]

w tu

4. How do you construct a cDNA library? When does one decide on and prefer a cDNA library to a genomic library? [16]

j. n

5. Write notes on:

(a) Southern blotting

w w

(b) Northern Blotting (c) Western Blotting

(d) Dot and slot blots.

[4 × 4]

w

6. Write notes on:

(a) RT-PCR and its applications

(b) Multiplex PCR and its uses.

[8 × 2]

7. How are micro-arrays useful in studying gene expression or in disease profiling.[16] 8. What should be the strategy that one should adopt for obtaining a high level of expression of cloned gene products In different host systems. [16] ?????

1 of 1


Set No. 4

Code No: V3158/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 GENETIC ENGINEERING (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ????? 1. In which operon do find the binding of the same repressor molecule acting as an activator as well as a repressor? Explain in detail how the different binding sites on the DNA either activate or repress the operon. [16] 2. Explain the following:

(b) Structural features of homeodomain proteins.

r o

3. Write briefly on: (a) the basic mechanism of transposition

w tu

(b) Retroelements.

m o

c . ld

(a) Essential features of Leucine zipper proteins

[8 Ă— 2]

[8 Ă— 2]

4. List out the different enzymes used in DNA manipulation along with the reactions they catalyze. [16]

j. n

5. Can PCR be used as an alternative to hybridization for screening of probes? Explain. [16]

w w

6. How does one identify a PCR product? In a particular PCR amplification experiment, the product obtained was shorter than the expected length. Give your comments on the possible reasons. [16]

w

7. How are RFLPs and VNTRs used in genetic fingerprinting? Explain.

[16]

8. What are second generation recombinant insulins? Explain how they are different from the native molecule. [16] ?????

1 of 1


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