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TEST BANK FOR ESSENTIALS OF BUSINESS COMMUNICATION, 10TH EDITION BY MARY ELLEN GUFFEY IF You Want To Purchase A+ Work Then Click The Link Below , Instant Download http://www.acehomework.net/?download=test-bank-foressentials-of-business-communication-10th-edition-by-maryellen-guffey

If You Face Any Problem E- Mail Us At whisperhills@gmail.com 1. Communication skills a.

are not as important as technical skills for career success.

b.

are not necessary in today's competitive job market.

c.

are ranked by recruiters at the top of qualities they most desire in job seekers.

d.

cannot be learned; they are innate.

2. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a.

The need for well-written messages has declined in today's workforce.

b.

Employers rank soft skills as less valuable than hard skills.

c.

Social media are playing an increasingly prominent role in business.


d.

Today's use of digital media requires less written communication.

3. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a.

Workers today communicate less than in previous years.

b.

Technology has not affected how and why we communicate.

c.

Businesses today generate a wide range of messages using a variety of media.

d.

Writing is a skill set used only by managers and corporate executives.

4. Which of the following is not an example of a soft skill? a.

Communicating effectively

b.

Tabulating statistical information

c.

Solving problems

d.

Making ethical decisions

5. On the job you are more likely to be taken seriously and to be promoted if you a.

look and sound professional.

b.

frame your degree or certificate and hang it on your office or cubicle wall.

c.

appear to be busy even when you're not really doing anything.

d.

attend office parties.

6. Major trends in today's dynamic world of work include increased emphasis on self-directed work groups and virtual teams, heightened global competition, innovative communication technologies, new work environments, and focus on a.

creating an entirely online presence.


b.

promoting from within.

c.

increasing levels of management.

d.

business ethics.

7. Which of the following statements about today's business environments is most accurate? a.

The number of telecommuting employees is expected to decline in the future.

b.

All companies assign offices for employees.

c.

Many employees today no longer need an office; they can work anytime and anywhere.

d.

Workers today spend more time in offices than workers in the past.

8. Which statement about today's workplace is most accurate? a.

Employees can expect to have more managers.

b.

Very few businesses involve employees in decision making.

c.

Today's employees can expect to interact with people from many cultures.

d.

Businesses use social media only to interact with customers.

9. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a.

Ethics is a priority for many businesses.

b.

Because of economic concerns, American companies are relying on local markets.

c. productivity.

Most companies discourage workers from working in teams because they fear a loss of

d. Today's businesses are expanding their hierarchies to meet the demands of their workers and their competition.

10. Which communication technology is used by companies today?


a.

Presence technology

b.

Cloud computing

c.

Videoconferencing

d.

All answer choices are communication technologies being used by companies today.

11. According to researchers, most people listen at what level of proficiency? a.

100 percent

b.

5 percent

c.

25-50 percent

d.

75 percent

12. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a.

Very few management problems are related to listening.

b. The average person remembers nearly three quarters of what he or she hears following a 10-minute presentation. c.

We misinterpret, misunderstand, or change very little of what we hear.

d.

Most people are not very good listeners.

13. Many of us are poor listeners because a.

the brain can process information at least three times as fast as people talk.

b.

we tend to "tune out" speakers whose ideas run counter to our own.

c.

we would rather talk than listen.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

14. According to research, what percentage of our work time is spent listening? a.

50 percent


b.

90 percent

c.

10 percent

d.

25 percent

15. Which of the following is not a physical barrier for listening? a.

Hearing disabilities

b.

Poor acoustics

c.

Noisy surroundings

d.

Personal values

16. Your boss is giving instructions for a new method of keeping expense accounts. However, you find it difficult to concentrate because you think the change is unnecessary. What type of barrier to effective listening are you experiencing? a.

Language problem barrier

b.

Psychological barrier

c.

Physical barrier

d.

Nonverbal distraction barrier

17. Peter must inform his employees that his company will need to let go of employees. Which word would be best for Peter to use when conveying this idea to his employees? a.

Layoff

b.

Streamlining

c.

Paradigm shift

d.

Rightsizing

18. You can improve your listening skills if you follow tips for active listening, including a. lines.

keeping an open mind, establishing a receptive mind-set, and listening between the


b. establishing a receptive mind-set, concentrating on appearance and delivery, and sifting information through biases. c. as possible.

capitalizing on lag time, concentrating on your next comment, and taking as many notes

d. asking questions immediately, focusing on the speaker's face, and concentrating on the details presented in the message.

19. A listener who nods her head and maintains eye contact with a speaker is probably a.

listening actively to what the speaker is saying.

b.

not understanding what the speaker is saying.

c.

faking attention while she listens to music on her MP3 player.

d.

formulating her response to a point with which she disagrees.

20. Amelia has made a conscious effort to become an active listener. Therefore, she shuts down her computer, turns off her cell phone, and asks her assistant to hold all incoming calls when she conducts interviews. What technique is she using to improve listening? a.

Keeping an open mind

b.

Establishing a receptive mind-set

c.

Capitalizing on lag time

d.

Controlling her surroundings

21. Nonverbal communication includes a.

all unwritten and unspoken messages, intended or not.

b.

only body language and gestures that accompany a spoken message.

c.

only eye contact and facial expressions that support the meaning of the words.

d.

only cues that reveal agreement with or contradiction of the verbal message.


22. Which of the following is a form of nonverbal communication? a.

Facial expressions, such as frowning or raising the eyebrows

b.

Eye contact, such as staring or avoiding looking someone in the eye

c.

Time, such as showing up too late or too early

d.

All answer choices are forms of nonverbal communication.

23. Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is most accurate? a.

Nonverbal communication comprises very little of a message that is sent or received.

b. When verbal and nonverbal messages contradict, receivers believe that the verbal message is more accurate. c. Meanings of nonverbal behaviors are often influenced by the communication context and by one's culture. d.

Nonverbal communication applies to only intended messages.

24. Most people think that the best predictor of a speaker's true feelings is his or her a.

facial expressions.

b.

posture.

c.

gestures.

d.

eyes.

25. Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is most accurate? a.

The meaning of some gestures can vary among cultures.

b. The way an e-mail, letter, memo, or report looks can have either a positive or a negative effect on a receiver. c. attitudes. d.

The manner in which we structure and use time can reveal our personalities and All statements are accurate.


26. According to Edward T. Hall, in which spatial zone do most people converse with friends and family members? a.

Intimate

b.

Personal

c.

Social

d.

Public

27. According to Edward T. Hall, which spatial zone is the largest? a.

Intimate

b.

Personal

c.

Social

d.

Public

28. Which of the following tips should you follow to improve your nonverbal communication skills? a.

Focus only on the sender's words when you are engaged in conversation.

b.

Proofread all correspondence you send.

c. Avoid individuals from other cultures so that you don't start using nonverbal behaviors displayed in other cultures. d. contradict.

Avoid asking the speaker questions when his or her nonverbal and verbal messages

29. Suzanne wants to make a good impression during a job interview. What should she do? a.

Avoid eye contact with her interviewer to show respect.

b.

Slump down in her chair to show that she's relaxed.

c.

Wear professional business attire.

d.

Ask the interviewer to lunch.


30. The manager noticed that Stephen slammed his desk drawer right after he said that he was happy to work late. The manager should a.

tell Stephen that he should behave more professionally.

b.

respond to the verbal message only and thank him for working late.

c. politely seek additional information by saying, I'm not sure that you really want to stay late. Do you have somewhere you need to be? d.

fire Stephen for insubordination.

31. Every country has a unique culture or common heritage that a.

teaches its members how to behave and conditions their reactions.

b.

results from a common gene pool.

c.

is created by a structured educational system.

d.

comes from an orderly system of government and laws.

32. Which of the following is not a dimension of culture? a.

Power distance

b.

Individualism

c.

Tolerance

d.

Time orientation

33. The most important cultural dimension is a.

power distance.

b.

communication style.

c.

time orientation.

d.

context.

34. Which of the following is a common trait of a business communicator from a low-context culture?


a.

Valuing group membership

b.

Preferring indirect verbal interaction

c.

Placing emphasis on written information

d.

Relying on context and feeling

35. Communicators from North America, Scandinavia, and Germany tend to be logical, analytical, and action oriented. They also depend little on the context of a situation to convey their meaning. These communicators represent what kind of culture? a.

High-context

b.

Primitive

c.

Ancient

d.

Low-context

36. Which of the following countries represents a high-context culture? a.

United States

b.

Germany

c.

Norway

d.

Japan

37. North Americans value straightforwardness and are suspicious of evasiveness. These traits identify the cultural dimension of a.

individualism.

b.

power distance.

c.

communication style.

d.

time orientation.

38. Which of the following countries would likely view a business contract as a binding document?


a.

Mexico

b.

Greece

c.

Japan

d.

Germany

39. Which statement about the effect of social media and communication technology on culture is most accurate? a. Because of social media, communicators can now reach out to larger and more varied audiences than in the past. b.

Social media always makes individuals of various cultures feel connected.

c.

Social media offers very little potential for intercultural engagement.

d.

Developers of social media should use the same design principles for all audiences.

40. Which statement about ethnocentrism is most accurate? a.

Ethnocentrism occurs in only Western cultures.

b.

Ethnocentrism does not exist in today's culturally diverse workplace.

c.

Ethnocentrism causes us to judge others by our own values.

d. Ethnocentrism is the oversimplified perception of a behavioral pattern or characteristic applied to all groups.

41. An American businessperson who thinks that all Swiss are hardworking, efficient, and neat is demonstrating an example of a.

ethnocentrism.

b.

tolerance.

c.

stereotyping.

d.

a cultural norm.

42. Learning about beliefs and practices different from our own and appreciating them means displaying


a.

tolerance.

b.

individualism.

c.

stereotyping.

d.

gender norming.

43. Working with people from other cultures will require tolerance. One of the best ways to become more tolerant is by a.

practicing empathy.

b.

increasing your individualism.

c.

encouraging ethnocentrism.

d.

knowing your communication style.

44. While conducting business with a customer from Italy, Zoe was careful to speak slowly and clearly, using short sentences and familiar words. However, she noticed that the customer had a glazed expression and did not understand her. Zoe should a.

repeat what she has said in a louder voice.

b.

graciously accept the blame for not making her meaning clear.

c.

end the conversation until an interpreter can be found.

d.

require the Italian businessperson to restate the message in simple words.

45. When speaking with someone for whom English is a second language, you should talk slowly, enunciate clearly, check frequently for comprehension, observe eye messages, listen without interrupting, and a.

follow up important messages in writing.

b.

avoid smiling, which might make you appear to lack seriousness.

c.

use words that will impress the listener.

d.

assume that the listener understands if he or she nods and smiles in agreement.


46. When writing for a multicultural audience, you are more likely to be understood if you use short sentences and short paragraphs and if you include a.

slang, such as This product really rocks!

b.

idioms, such as You can improve your bottom line by using this product.

c.

acronyms, such as ASAP.

d. action-specific verbs, such as E-mail me if you have any questions rather than Contact me if you have any questions. 47. Max is preparing a contract between his company and one in Mexico. What should he do when citing numbers in the contract? a.

Use the metric system.

b.

Use American currency figures.

c.

Write all months as figures rather than as words.

d.

Avoid using any figures in the contract.

48. Which of the following is a benefit of a diverse work environment? a.

Being better ability to create the products desired by consumers

b. Experiencing fewer discrimination lawsuits, fewer union clashes, and less government regulatory action c.

Improving employee relationships and increasing productivity

d.

All are benefits of a diverse work environment.

49. Megahertz Technology Solutions, Inc., recently suffered a discrimination lawsuit. Advice to improve its workforce diversity is likely to include understanding the value of differences, providing diversity training for employees, building on similarities, and a.

hiring a more homogenous work group.

b.

making fewer assumptions.

c.

requiring all employees to use jargon that conveys stereotypes.

d.

making sure all employees conform to a standard company culture.


50. Workers who communicate successfully with diverse audiences must make few assumptions, learn about their own and other cultures, and a.

seek common ground.

b.

help others conform.

c.

avoid noticing differences.

d.

encourage group thinking.

51. Because of today's communication technology, employees in today's workforce can expect to write fewer messages. a.

True

b.

False

52. Recruiters often rank communication skills as the highest skill set sought by employers. a.

True

b.

False

53. Only managers and business executives need strong communication skills. a.

True

b.

False

54. Employees in today's workforce must learn to write only e-mails effectively. a.

True

b.

False

55. Operating a computer is an example of a "soft" skill. a.

True


b.

False

56. Despite their popularity among teens, social networking sites such as Facebook and Twitter are rarely used in today's business world. a.

True

b.

False

57. As a frontline employee, you can expect to have more managers in the workforce. a.

True

b.

False

58. As an employee in today's digital workplace, you can expect to work more independently rather than collaboratively in groups. a.

True

b.

False

59. Most people are good listeners. a.

True

b.

False

60. Psychological barriers to listening include hearing disabilities, poor acoustics, and noisy surroundings. a.

True

b.

False

61. Physical barriers to listening include only environmentally produced noises. a.

True

b.

False

62. Listening is a passive process.


a.

True

b.

False

63. If you want to become a better listener, your first step is to stop talking. a.

True

b.

False

64. To improve your listening ability, focus both on what is spoken and what is unspoken. a.

True

b.

False

65. Brooke is listening to a difficult presentation on nanotechnology development. As a good listener, she should take complete notes of everything said. a.

True

b.

False

66. One of the best strategies to become a better listener is to question a speaker while he or she is still talking to ensure your comprehension. a.

True

b.

False

67. When verbal and nonverbal messages conflict, listeners tend to believe the verbal message. a.

True

b.

False

68. Most communication is nonverbal. a.

True

b.

False


69. Understanding a message involves listening to only the spoken words. a.

True

b.

False

70. Most Americans communicate with business associates at approximately 1½ feet. a.

True

b.

False

71. Both your personal appearance and the physical appearance of your business documents transmit immediate and important nonverbal messages. a.

True

b.

False

72. Zach's company does business globally. By associating with people from diverse cultures, Zach can widen his knowledge of intercultural messages and can increase his tolerance of differences. a.

True

b.

False

73. Greg will be the student speaker for graduation. To ensure that his nonverbal cues support his verbal message, he should ask friends and family to monitor his conscious and unconscious body movements and gestures. a.

True

b.

False

74. Our culture molds the way we think, behave, and communicate. a.

True

b.

False

75. Communication style is the most important dimension of culture. a.

True

b.

False


76. Individuals in high-context cultures prefer direct verbal interaction, value individualism, rely on logic, say "No" directly, and give authority to written information. a.

True

b.

False

77. The United States is an example of a low-context culture. a.

True

b.

False

78. Laura values individualism and personal responsibility in herself and coworkers. These values are typical of North American culture. a.

True

b.

False

79. North Americans consider time a precious commodity and correlate it with productivity, efficiency, and money. a.

True

b.

False

80. Individuals in Western cultures are more relaxed about social status and the appearance of power. a.

True

b.

False

81. For Americans words are very important, especially in contracts and negotiations. a.

True

b.

False


82. The first step in learning intercultural skills is being aware of your own culture and how it contrasts with others. a.

True

b.

False

83. Ethnocentrism can be found in all cultures. a.

True

b.

False

84. Cross-cultural communication can be improved by practicing tolerance and ethnocentrism. a.

True

b.

False

85. When communicating face-to-face with a person from another culture, you can always assume that the other person is understanding your ideas if he or she smiles. a.

True

b.

False

86. For international trade it is a good idea to learn and use the metric system. a.

True

b.

False

87. The U.S. workplace is expected to remain dominated by males and be Anglo-oriented. a.

True

b.

False

88. Developing a diverse staff that can work together cooperatively is one of the biggest challenges facing business organizations today. a.

True

b.

False


89. Businesses that want to capitalize on cultural diversity need to train workers to think and act alike to reduce conflicts. a.

True

b.

False

90. Ryan has an upcoming business meeting with a person from Germany. Because Ryan has never met this person, he is worried about traveling there to do business for his company. Ryan could reduce his worry by assuming that his German associate is similar to him. a.

True

b.

False

91. ____________________ such as the ability to communicate, work well with others, solve problems, make ethical decisions, and appreciate diversity are essential career attributes in today's workplace.

92. ____________________ involves storing applications and data in remote locations. 93. The term ____________________ means that websites and Web applications have moved from "read only" to "read-write," thus enabling users to participate, collaborate, and network in unprecedented ways. It is one of many new communication technologies that is reshaping the world of work. 94. ____________________ cues include eye contact, facial expressions, body movements, space, time, territory, and appearance. 95. ____________________ may be defined as "the complex system of values, traits, morals, and customs shared by a society, region, or country."

96. According to a model developed by cultural anthropologist Edward T. Hall, ____________________ refers to the stimuli, environment, or ambience surrounding an event and is arranged on a continuum from low to high.

97. The belief in the superiority of one's own culture is known as ____________________. This natural attitude is found in all cultures. 98. An oversimplified perception of a behavior pattern or characteristic applied to entire groups is a(n) ____________________.


99. ____________________ means learning about beliefs and practices different from our own and appreciating them. One of the best ways to develop this trait is to practice empathy. 100. ____________________ is defined as "trying to see the world through another's eyes."

Chapter 02 Planning Business Messages 1. Communication is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from one individual or group to another." The crucial element of this definition is a.

transmission.

b.

information.

c.

meaning.

d.

individual.

2. The communication process begins when the sender a.

determines the appropriate communication channel.

b.

has an idea.

c.

encodes an idea into a message.

d.

plans for feedback.

3. Converting ideas into words or gestures to convey meaning is called a.

feedback.

b.

decoding.

c.

encoding.

d.

nonverbal communication.

4. A communication channel a.

is anything that interrupts the transmission of a message.


b.

should be selected before idea formation.

c.

includes only digital means for transmitting messages.

d.

is the medium over which the message travels.

5. Which of the following is not an element of the communication process? a.

Forming an idea

b.

Selecting a communication channel

c.

Displaying empathy

d.

Providing feedback

6. The process of translating a message from its symbol form into meaning is called a.

feedback.

b.

decoding.

c.

encoding.

d.

noise.

7. Communication noise a.

occurs only with the sender in the communication process.

b. includes only environmentally produced sounds that prevent the message from being transmitted. c.

is anything that interrupts the transmission of a message.

d.

describes the medium over which the message travels.

8. Feedback a.

includes only those verbal responses from the receiver.

b.

is not an important part of the communication process.

c.

is the process of converting an idea that will convey meaning.

d.

includes both the verbal and nonverbal responses from the receiver.


9. Communication is successful only when a.

verbal feedback has been sent to the receiver.

b.

no noise occurs during the communication process.

c.

verbal and nonverbal feedback have been sent to the receiver.

d.

the receiver understands an idea as the sender intended it.

10. Which statement about the communication process is most accurate? a. The use of digital networks as a means to transmit messages is declining in today's workplace. b. Because the meanings of words are the same among people, participants in the communication process need not worry about their word selection or usage. c. culture. d.

Only senders are affected by their mood, frame of reference, background, or Feedback helps the sender know that the message was received and understood.

11. Business writing should be all of the following except a.

purposeful.

b.

audience oriented.

c.

economical.

d.

sender oriented.

12. When preparing a business message, you should make your writing audience oriented. Audience oriented means you should a.

write to solve a problem or convey information.

b.

attempt to get your audience to believe and accept your message.

c.

present ideas clearly but concisely.


d.

concentrate on looking at the problem from the receiver's perspective.

13. Business writing should be purposeful. In this context purposeful can best be defined as a.

presenting ideas clearly and concisely.

b.

concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own.

c.

solving problems and conveying information.

d.

getting your audience to believe and accept your message.

14. Business writing should be economical. In this context economical can best be defined as a.

presenting ideas clearly and concisely.

b.

concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own.

c.

solving problems and conveying information.

d.

getting your audience to believe and accept your message.

15. The first phase of the writing process involves analyzing the audience and your purpose for writing, anticipating your audience's reaction to your message, and a.

investigating background information.

b.

composing your message.

c.

adapting your message to the audience.

d.

looking for previous company documents on the topic.

16. Adapting your message to the audience involves a.

thinking of the right words and tone to use in your message.

b.

rewriting your message several times to ensure it is clear.

c.

selecting the best research to incorporate within the message.

d.

conducting a thorough audience analysis.


17. During the second phase of the writing process, you conduct research, a.

clarify the audience demographics, and edit word choices.

b.

anticipate audience reaction, and adapt the message.

c.

organize ideas, and compose the message.

d.

evaluate message effectiveness, and revise as needed.

18. In the final phase of the writing process, check the message for clarity and readability, proofread for errors, and a.

evaluate for effectiveness.

b.

assess the cost of the selected delivery channel.

c.

solve the problem.

d.

forward the document to the publishing department.

19. According to writing experts, approximately what percentage of time should you spend on the prewriting phase of a business message? a.

90 percent

b.

50 percent

c.

25 percent

d.

5 percent

20. Experts say that writers should spend the most time in the ____ stage of the writing process. a.

prewriting

b.

drafting


c.

revising

d.

thinking

21. Before Melissa organizes and composes her message, she should ask two questions: (1) Why am I sending this message? and (2) a.

Why did my boss give this task to me?

b.

What do I hope to achieve with this message?

c.

How can I get this message written as quickly as possible?

d.

Do I have enough time and financial resources to complete the work?

22. The primary purpose of business writing is typically to inform or persuade; a common secondary purpose is to a.

promote goodwill.

b.

comply with governmental regulations.

c.

create written documentation.

d.

avoid lawsuits.

23. Lindsay is writing a property description for a new real estate brochure. To make her brochure more effective, Lindsay should anticipate her audience. This means she a.

identifies the property's outstanding traits and describes them clearly.

b.

concentrates on the price and value of the property.

c.

writes using familiar words and a friendly, informal tone.

d.

considers what the readers are like and how they will react to the message.

24. Profiling the audience for a business message helps the writer


a.

identify the appropriate tone, language, and channel.

b.

guarantee that the audience will respond positively to the message.

c.

select slang the audience will recognize and appreciate.

d.

create a perfect first draft.

25. Travis must determine the appropriate channel for an important business message. In this context channel refers to the a.

individuals who will receive the message.

b.

degree of formality required.

c.

medium through which the message is sent.

d.

tone and approach needed to accomplish his purpose.

26. Which of the following communication channels is considered the richest medium? a.

Written proposal

b.

E-mail message

c.

Face-to-face conversation

d.

Blog posting

27. Human Resources Manager Claire Siu must inform Anthony that company job changes will require him to seek retraining or lose his position. The best channel for Ms. Siu to deliver this message is a.

an e-mail message.

b.

a face-to-face conversation.

c.

a voice mail message.

d.

an instant message.


28. Michael usually holds team meetings on Tuesday mornings, but he needs to reschedule next week's meeting to Wednesday morning. To tell team members of the date change for the next meeting, Michael should a.

send an e-mail.

b.

meet in person with each team member.

c.

call a team meeting.

d.

write a short team report.

29. When selecting a communication channel, you should follow two tips: use richer media for persuasive or personal communications, and a.

use the richest media available.

b.

select the cheapest channel to reduce costs.

c.

never use digital media such as instant or text messaging on the job.

d.

consider what media is the easiest for you to use.

30. You are selecting a channel for sending your message. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when making this decision? a.

Amount and speed of feedback and interactivity required

b.

Cost of the channel

c.

Confidentiality and sensitivity of the message

d.

Your competitors' channel use

31. Adaptation is the process of a.

creating a message that suits the audience.

b.

impressing your audience with high-level diction and long sentences.

c.

sending feedback to the sender of a message.

d.

proofreading and editing a written message.


32. One technique that improves business writing is the use of empathy. Empathy refers to a.

using inclusive language to eliminate bias.

b.

putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to adapt the message to the receiver's

c.

appealing to the audience by using a sender focus.

d.

formatting documents to meet business standards.

needs.

33. Empathic writers a.

use more first-person pronouns than second-person pronouns in their messages.

b.

try to give something to the receiver.

c.

think about their needs before the receiver's needs.

d.

All answer choices reflect techniques used by empathic writers.

34. Which of the following sentences best focuses on the audience? a.

We are very pleased to have you as our newest customer.

b.

You can help us by sending us your payment immediately.

c.

Register now to lock in your preferred travel dates.

d.

All sentences are focused on the audience rather than the sender.

35. One of the best ways to develop audience benefits is to use the "you" view, which a.

means that all messages are written in the active voice.

b.

dictates that all sentences be written as commands.

c.

emphasizes second-person pronouns instead of first-person pronouns.

d.

uses slang and abbreviations to personalize the message.


36. Jorge must inform Samantha that she is not eligible to have an August vacation for which she recently applied. Which of the following sentences best demonstrates the "you" view Jorge should use in denying Samantha's application? a.

I have not approved your August vacation because you applied too late.

b. schedule.

We didn't receive your application early enough for the August vacation

c. Although the August vacation schedule is full, you may qualify for a vacation in September if you apply now. d.

The August vacation schedule was posted in May. You should have consulted it

earlier.

37. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing? a.

Hey, Bob. Ur proposal is rad!

b. Your proposal demonstrates how our call center can better meet the needs of our customers. c.

FYI, i liked your proposal :).

d.

Congrats on the proposal. You rock!

38. Which of the following sentences demonstrates conversational business writing? a.

Your return policy really ticks me off.

b.

I am upset about your return policy.

c.

Your return policy has provoked me to write this letter.

d.

All answer choices reflect conversational business writing.

39. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing? a.

As per your request, enclosed is our latest catalog.


b.

Enclosed is our latest catalog.

c.

The latest catalog is contained under separate cover.

d.

Pertaining to your request, our latest catalog is enclosed.

40. Marketing Director Schultz must inform the board of directors that customers are not responding positively to the company's new advertising campaign. Which of the following sentences would be the most appropriate wording for the marketing director to use in her message to the board of directors? a.

Our customers are ripping on our new ads, even though we know these ads rock!

b. Our customers are badmouthing this awesome new marketing campaign; they are obviously just out of it. c.

We have received reports from customers about our new ads.

d. It has come to my attention that our customers have denigrated the strategic implementation of our new ad campaign.

41. Business messages should use positive language rather than negative language. Positive language a.

has no effect on the tone of a message.

b.

conveys less information than negative language.

c.

grants the reader all requests or demands.

d.

tells what is and what can be done.

42. Which of the following represents the best business writing? a.

We regret that we are unable to accept you as a credit customer at this time.

b.

You will never be sorry that you opened a checking account with our bank.

c.

We cannot accept the returned merchandise because it is not resalable.


d.

You can return all resalable merchandise for a store credit.

43. Courteous business messages a.

avoid using words that sound demanding or preachy.

b.

often turn demands into rhetorical questions.

c.

avoid hostility or anger.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

44. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing? a.

I'm ticked! Credit my account now!

b.

Will you please credit my account for $125 due to the computer error on May 1.

c.

You should credit my account.

d.

Please get it right and credit my account for $125.

45. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing? a.

All executives and their wives will attend the Reno conference.

b.

A salesman must meet monthly sales quotas.

c.

The female attorney graduated from Yale.

d.

The office personnel will assist you with your forms.

46. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing? a.

Every physician must carry his own malpractice insurance.

b.

Every physician must carry their own malpractice insurance.

c.

All physicians must carry their own malpractice insurance.

d.

Every physician must carry his or her own malpractice insurance.


47. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing? a.

An Asian CEO was the keynote speaker.

b.

An African-American man was the next customer.

c.

A record number of Japanese investors are purchasing real estate in the United

d.

Mr. Hernandez, a Mexican, is my boss.

States.

48. Business writers who use words such as interrogate, remuneration, and terminate are using language many readers would consider a.

slang.

b.

conversational.

c.

jargon.

d.

unfamiliar.

49. Which of the following sentences about jargon is most accurate? a.

Jargon should never be used in business writing.

b.

Jargon is generally understood by both insiders and outsiders within a field.

c. Effective business communicators know to include some jargon within any message to demonstrate their intelligence and command of the English language. d.

Jargon should be used only when the audience will understand it.

50. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing? a.

Please think about the new insurance option.

b.

Caltrek experienced a change in profits during the last fiscal year.

c.

Retailers can expect to pay higher amounts for their goods and services.

d.

Sheila will examine the job proposal carefully.


51. The communication process begins when the receiver provides feedback to the sender. a.

True

b.

False

52. Words have universal meaning among all cultures. a.

True

b.

False

53. The medium over which the message travels is called the channel. a.

True

b.

False

54. A weak Internet signal is an example of channel noise. a.

True

b.

False

55. Translating a message from its symbol form into meaning involves encoding. a.

True

b.

False

56. Senders should avoid asking their receivers questions such as, "Am I making myself clear?" or "Is there anything you don't understand?" a.

True

b.

False

57. Paraphrasing a sender's message is an effective tool to promote understanding. a.

True


b.

False

58. Many of your business messages will be sent digitally. a.

True

b.

False

59. A business message should be long because quantity enhances quality. a.

True

b.

False

60. When writing a business message, you should always write it from your perspective. a.

True

b.

False

61. The ability to prepare concise, audience-centered, persuasive, and purposeful messages comes naturally. a.

True

b.

False

62. Following a systematic plan when preparing any document or presentation will make your job easier. a.

True

b.

False


63. An important aspect of the first phase of writing a business message is anticipating the audience's reaction to the message. a.

True

b.

False

64. Shannon is writing a proposal to the board of directors to upgrade the company's computer equipment. After completing the prewriting phase, Shannon should immediately start composing the proposal. a.

True

b.

False

65. The final task in the third phase of the writing process is evaluating your message to decide whether it accomplishes your goal. a.

True

b.

False

66. In order to be an effective writer, you must follow the three phases of the writing process in sequence, moving from Phase 1 to Phase 2 to Phase 3 in order. a.

True

b.

False

67. You should plan to spend equal amounts of time on each phase of the writing process. a.

True

b.

False

68. One of the most important questions you can ask yourself as you begin to compose a message is What do I hope to achieve?


a.

True

b.

False

69. The primary purposes of most business documents are to inform and to persuade. A common secondary purpose is sales growth. a.

True

b.

False

70. You are more likely to achieve your communication goals if you profile your audience and shape the message to that profile. a.

True

b.

False

71. Profiling your audience helps you tailor your words to your readers or listeners. a.

True

b.

False

72. Although messages may have a primary and a secondary audience, the writer needs to profile only the primary audience to determine the best presentation of the message. a.

True

b.

False

73. Face-to-face conversation is a richer medium than a written report. a.

True

b.

False


74. One factor affecting channel choice is the importance of the message. a.

True

b.

False

75. Ben Franklin stated this opinion about business messages: To be good, it ought to have a tendency to benefit the reader. His opinion reflects the importance of analyzing the purpose of the message. a.

True

b.

False

76. Empathy, which increases the likelihood of a successful message, occurs when writers put themselves in the audience's shoes when creating the message. a.

True

b.

False

77. The following sentence represents an audience focus: Our product guarantee becomes effective after we receive full payment. a.

True

b.

False

78. Whether your goal is to inform, persuade, or promote goodwill, the catchiest words you can use in your business writing are "you" and "your." a.

True

b.

False


79. To emphasize the "you" view in e-mail messages, you must avoid any phrases that include the "I/we" view such as I'm happy or We're delighted. a.

True

b.

False

80. The active voice is generally preferred in business writing. a.

True

b.

False

81. Monica is writing her first safety-inspection report. To sound businesslike and professional, Monica should include expressions such as the affected party, the undersigned, and the writer. a.

True

b.

False

82. Business messages are most effective if they convey an informal, conversational tone. a.

True

b.

False

83. Positive language generally conveys more information than negative language does. a.

True

b.

False

84. The sentence You must submit your application by Friday is a more effective business message than Please submit your application by Friday.


a.

True

b.

False

85. Every mechanic has ten minutes for his morning break is an effectively written sentence. a.

True

b.

False

86. Never specify the age of a person in business messages. a.

True

b.

False

87. Whenever possible in business writing, substitute longer, less familiar words for shorter, simpler words. a.

True

b.

False

88. Jargon should never be used in business writing. a.

True

b.

False

89. As a business communicator, you should use strong verbs and concrete nouns in your writing. a.

True

b.

False

90. The sentence Our company experienced an increase in profits during the last fiscal year uses precise, vigorous wording.


a.

True

b.

False

91. _______________ is the transmission of information and meaning from a sender to a receiver.

92. The verbal and nonverbal responses from a receiver are called __________.

93. During the ____________________ phase of the writing process, the writer analyzes the audience and the purpose for writing.

94. Sam is collecting and organizing information for a marketing report he is writing. Sam is involved in the second phase of the writing process, which is the ____________________ phase. 95. ____________________ an audience can help a writer determine appropriate language use and tone, along with the need for background information.

96. The ____________________ of a communication channel describes the extent to which a channel or medium recreates or represents all the information available in the original message.

97. ____________________ is the process of creating a message that suits your audience.

98. Putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to better adapt your message to that person's needs is called ____________________.

99. One of the best ways to improve the tone of a message is through the use of ____________________ language.


100. ____________________ describes technical or specialized terms within a field.

Chapter 03 Organizing and Drafting Business Messages 1. The second phase of the 3-x-3 writing process begins with a.

analyzing the audience.

b.

composing the message.

c.

researching the topic.

d.

organizing the message.

2. Before composing a business document, you should gather information that will answer which of these questions? a.

Will I have enough time to complete thorough research?

b.

What is the receiver to do?

c.

What information will be the easiest to locate?

d.

How will I use this information?

3. All of the following would probably require informal research methods except a.

routine e-mail messages.

b.

business letters.

c.

long reports and complex business problems.

d.

oral presentations.


4. All of the following are informal research methods except a.

interviewing the target audience.

b.

conducting a scientific experiment.

c.

looking in company files.

d.

brainstorming for ideas.

5. When brainstorming to generate ideas, you should a.

critique each idea as it is suggested.

b.

record ideas without judging them.

c.

always work alone for greater efficiency.

d.

allow no more than five ideas to be discussed.

6. Which of the following is a formal research method? a.

Talking with your boss

b.

Investigating primary sources

c.

Brainstorming

d.

Looking in company files

7. Which formal research source is best to obtain firsthand information? a.

Internet websites and articles

b.

Reference books

c.

Electronic databases

d.

Interviews


8. As interns in human resource management, Brad and his team are administering a professionally developed employee questionnaire to collect information on workplace violence. This type of research produces data that is considered a.

firsthand information.

b.

informal documentation.

c.

supplementary, secondary information.

d.

scientific experimentation.

9. Quality Building Materials Inc. has developed a new whole-house weather blanket and needs to determine the price point at which builders would switch to this new product. The best research method for this is a(n) a.

manual search of other companies' price lists.

b.

interview with a local builder.

c.

Internet search of insulation values for weather blankets.

d.

scientific experiment that presents price choices with controlled variables.

10. Ahna is sending a persuasive memo to her staff asking them to participate in the new wellness program. Which of the following sources of information would be most appropriate to help Ahna shape an effective persuasive message for her staff? a.

Tightly controlled scientific experimentation

b.

Library research

c.

Questionnaires and surveys of employees

d.

Research in company files

11. According to communication experts, what is the greatest failing of business writers? a.

Poor spelling

b.

Unclear sentence structure


c.

Ambiguous wording

d.

Poor organization

12. The direct strategy would be most appropriate when a.

delivering bad news.

b.

presenting ideas requiring persuasion.

c.

expecting the audience to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral.

d.

revealing sensitive news.

13. All of the following are effective tips for creating an outline except a.

use a single item under a major component.

b.

divide the topic into three to five major components or classifications.

c.

break the components into subpoints.

d.

use details, illustrations, and evidence to support subpoints.

14. Which of the following is an advantage of the direct strategy? a.

Minimizes a negative reaction

b.

Respects the feelings of the reader

c.

Saves the reader's time

d.

Encourages a fair hearing

15. Which of the following business messages would not use the direct strategy? a.

An e-mail message to a staff introducing a new employee

b.

An oral presentation detailing the specifics of a new company wellness initiative


c.

A letter to a coworker congratulating him or her on a recent promotion

d.

A letter to a customer denying his or her request for credit

16. Which of the following message openings is the most direct opening for an e-mail message announcing a new telecommuting plan? a.

A number of employees have asked about telecommuting options.

b. Many businesses have been implementing telecommuting programs, and we have studied their programs extensively. c. Rising gas prices have led many companies to allow telecommuting, and we think this might be a good idea for our company. d.

Our new telecommuting program will begin on August 1.

17. Which of the following is an advantage of the indirect strategy? a.

Saves the reader's time

b.

Respects the feelings of the audience

c.

Reduces frustration

d.

Sets a proper frame of mind

18. When you expect a reader of your message to be uninterested, unwilling, displeased, or hostile, you should a.

put the bad news first.

b.

begin with the main idea.

c.

explain all background information first.

d.

send the message via e-mail, text message, or IM.

19. The indirect strategy is most appropriate for what kind of messages? a.

Bad-news messages


b.

Sensitive messages

c.

Persuasive messages

d.

The indirect strategy is appropriate for all answer choices.

20. Which of the following kinds of business messages typically use the indirect strategy? a.

Nonsensitive memos

b.

Routine requests

c.

Informational reports

d.

Sensitive messages

21. What kind of sentence contains only one independent clause? a.

Simple sentence

b.

Compound sentence

c.

Complex sentence

d.

Compound-complex sentence

22. What kind of sentence contains two independent clauses? a.

Simple sentence

b.

Compound sentence

c.

Complex sentence

d.

Compound-complex sentence

23. What kind of sentence contains an independent clause and a dependent clause? a.

Simple sentence


b.

Compound sentence

c.

Complex sentence

d.

Compound-complex sentence

24. Which of the following is a complex sentence? a.

Visit our website to learn more about our newest product line.

b.

The conference will be held on Monday, but few managers will be able to attend.

c. Employers are now using social media sites to screen applicants; therefore, job seekers are advised to clean up their digital presence. d. Because of rising insurance premiums, many companies are offering employeewellness incentives. 25. Which of the following is a simple sentence? a.

If health insurance costs continue to rise, employee copays may increase.

b. Having healthy employees decreases the cost of monthly premiums; therefore, we will be implementing a wellness program. c.

HMO and PPO insurance plans offer additional cost savings.

d. Because we will be reducing employee health insurance benefits, some employees may be unhappy; however, we must make sure that they understand the reason for the change.

26. What is a sentence fragment? a.

Two independent clauses connected without punctuation or a conjunction

b.

Two independent clauses connected by a comma without a conjunction

c.

A broken-off part of a sentence

d.

The part of a sentence containing the verb

27. What is a comma splice?


a.

Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction

b.

Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction

c.

A broken-off part of a sentence

d.

Two dependent clauses

28. What is a run-on sentence? a.

Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction

b.

Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction

c.

A broken-off part of a sentence

d.

An independent clause containing two dependent clauses

29. Technology has changed the working environments of employees, that is why employees are telecommuting more than ever is an example of a a.

complete sentence.

b.

fragment.

c.

fused or run-on sentence.

d.

comma splice.

30. What is the recommended maximum number of words for a sentence? a.

10

b.

20

c.

25

d.

30

31. To emphasize an idea through mechanics, place it in


a.

boldface.

b.

a different font style.

c.

italics.

d.

Any of these techniques would emphasize the idea.

32. Which of the following sentences emphasizes an idea through style? a. Consider adding a statement of qualifications section on your résumé; but, most important, include specific and relevant previous employment information. b. Add a statement of qualifications section on your résumé, but also include specific and relevant previous employment information. c. A résumé should include a statement of qualifications section and specific and relevant previous employment information. d. You should include a statement of qualifications section and specific and relevant previous employment information on your résumé.

33. Which of the following sentences is most effective in de-emphasizing the bad news? a. b. available.

Although cash refunds are not offered, you can exchange resalable merchandise. Although you can exchange returned merchandise, cash refunds are not

c.

Because we only exchange merchandise, it is impossible for you to receive a cash

d.

Because of our exchange policy, you may not receive a cash refund.

refund.

34. Active-voice sentences a.

direct the action of the verb toward the subject.

b.

place the subject of the sentence as the doer of the action.

c.

generally use a to be helping verb.


d.

should always be avoided.

35. Which of the following uses only active voice in a complete sentence? a.

The company's rigid return policy was criticized by a few unhappy customers.

b.

Because a few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.

c. Managers were told about the unhappy customers who criticized the company's rigid return policy. d.

A few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.

36. When should passive voice be used in business writing? a.

When you want to de-emphasize the action or the recipient of the action

b.

When you want to emphasize the bad news

c.

When you want to conceal the doer of the action

d.

Never

37. Parallel writing a.

uses similar structures to express similar words.

b.

places modifiers close to the words being described.

c.

uses mechanical techniques such as underlining and bolding to emphasize ideas.

d.

de-emphasizes ideas by placing the ideas in dependent clauses.

38. Which of the following uses parallel structure? a.

Our new paralegal must be smart, efficient, and have flexibility.

b. The accident shattered her pelvis, dislocated her foot, and her spinal column was broken in three places.


c. d. standards.

Big business demands superior forecasting, reporting, and analyzing. A good financial planner must be certified, competent, and must possess ethical

39. Modifiers a.

must be placed close to the words they describe or limit.

b.

are always used in active-voice sentences.

c.

should be avoided in business writing.

d.

are always used in passive-voice sentences.

40. Which of the following sentences uses modifiers correctly? a.

Competent in computer graphics, our website was designed by Gloria.

b.

To take advantage of the discounted pricing, place your order immediately.

c.

To meet customers' orders, production must be increased.

d.

Placing the proposal on the desk, the office was left by John.

41. Effective paragraphs a.

usually present the main idea in the first sentence.

b.

are coherent.

c.

include supporting sentences that expand and explain the main idea.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

42. How many ideas should be developed in a paragraph? a.

Two

b.

Three to five


c.

One

d.

As many as needed to convey effective meaning

43. What do most business writers use as the first sentence in a paragraph? a.

Supporting sentence

b.

Transitional sentence

c.

Topic sentence

d.

Pivoting sentence

44. A topic sentence a. provides specific details, explanations, and evidence that support the main idea of a paragraph. b.

links sentences within a paragraph.

c.

is unnecessary in a paragraph.

d.

states the main idea of the paragraph.

45. A supporting sentence a.

must relate to the topic sentence.

b.

reveals the main idea of a paragraph.

c.

is usually the first sentence of a paragraph.

d.

is usually the last sentence of a paragraph.

46. Paragraphs are coherent when a.

all sentences are written in the active voice.

b.

each sentence includes dependent and independent clauses.


c.

ideas are linked; that is, one idea leads logically to the next.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

47. To build paragraph coherence, a writer should a.

repeat a key idea by using the same expression or a similar one.

b.

use pronouns to refer to previous nouns.

c.

show connections with transitional expressions.

d.

All answer choices can build paragraph coherence.

48. Transitions a. message.

should be avoided in business writing because they add unnecessary length to a

b.

support a paragraph's main idea.

c.

connect ideas.

d.

determine the organizational strategy used by the writer.

49. Transitional expressions such as next, first, and finally are useful to show a.

cause and effect.

b.

illustration.

c.

comparison and contrast.

d.

time association.

50. Paragraphs should a.

focus on at least three ideas.

b.

avoid the repetition of key or similar words.


c.

contain long, solid chunks of print.

d.

contain eight or fewer printed lines.

51. You can expect to write more messages on the job than ever. a.

True

b.

False

52. When you fail to collect all needed research before beginning to organize and write your business document, you may end up starting over and reorganizing. a.

True

b.

False

53. One question you should ask yourself when you collect research is What does the receiver need to know about this topic? a.

True

b.

False

54. Jonathan is researching the financial impact of a job-sharing benefit for employees. Talking with his boss about the possible effects of offering this benefit to employees is an effective method of formal research. a.

True

b.

False

55. Conducting scientific experiments is a method to gather formal research. a.

True

b.

False


56. Most routine business messages require formal research. a.

True

b.

False

57. Looking in company files for information is a waste of time. a.

True

b.

False

58. Brainstorming is an ineffective research technique. a.

True

b.

False

59. Many communication experts regard poor organization as the greatest failing of business writers. a.

True

b.

False

60. Using a hierarchy such as an outline can help you to organize ideas and information. a.

True

b.

False

61. When you expect the reader to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral, use the indirect pattern of organization. a.

True

b.

False


62. When you develop a major component on an outline into subpoints, you must have at least two subpoints. a.

True

b.

False

63. Another name for the direct strategy is frontloading. a.

True

b.

False

64. One advantage of the direct strategy is that it saves the reader time. a.

True

b.

False

65. The indirect strategy works well with three kinds of messages: (a) bad news, (b) ideas that require persuasion, and (c) sensitive news. a.

True

b.

False

66. One advantage of the indirect strategy is that it respects the feelings of the audience. a.

True

b.

False

67. The most compelling and effective messages contain one repeated sentence pattern rather than a variety of sentences.


a.

True

b.

False

68. The new software system will be installed on Monday; therefore, our intranet will be unavailable to employees is an example of a complex sentence. a.

True

b.

False

69. Words such as although, if, because, and since often introduce dependent clauses. a.

True

b.

False

70. When introductory dependent clauses precede independent clauses, they are always followed by a comma. a.

True

b.

False

71. A compound-complex sentence contains two complete but related thoughts. a.

True

b.

False

72. Employers want employees who can write messages appropriately they also want employees who can speak effectively with others is an example of a well-written sentence. a.

True

b.

False

73. A run-on-sentence results when a writer joins two independent clauses with a comma.


a.

True

b.

False

74. Because sentences of 20 or fewer words have the most impact, business writers must restrict all sentences to fewer than 20 words. a.

True

b.

False

75. Although mechanical means are occasionally appropriate to create emphasis, more often a writer achieves emphasis stylistically. a.

True

b.

False

76. Careful writers avoid labeling main ideas because they know that readers prefer to identify main ideas for themselves. a.

True

b.

False

77. The following sentence effectively uses a stylistic device to de-emphasize the bad news: Although we don't have any available positions at this time, we were pleased to receive your application and will keep it on file for six months. a.

True

b.

False

78. In the active voice, the subject is acted upon. In the passive voice, the subject is the doer of the action.


a.

True

b.

False

79. Passive voice should never be used in business writing. a.

True

b.

False

80. The following sentence demonstrates parallel structure: Maggie was organized, punctual, and she was always positive. a.

True

b.

False

81. Modifiers must be close to the words they describe or limit. a.

True

b.

False

82. The following sentence contains a dangling or misplaced modifier: Working all night, the brief was filed with the court on time. a.

True

b.

False

83. A paragraph is unified when it develops at least three ideas. a.

True

b.

False


84. The topic sentence should relate the main idea of a paragraph. a.

True

b.

False

85. Business writers generally place the topic sentence first in a paragraph. a.

True

b.

False

86. All support sentences in a paragraph must relate to the topic sentence. a.

True

b.

False

87. Pronouns should be avoided in business writing. a.

True

b.

False

88. Good writers should avoid repetition of words or key ideas because it shows lack of creativity. a.

True

b.

False

89. Writers can use words and phrases such as on the other hand, as opposed to, and conversely to show contrast in business messages. a.

True

b.

False


90. Business writers should strive for paragraphs with eight or fewer printed lines. a.

True

b.

False

91. Nicola is collecting information for a business document she is writing. This collection process is called ____________________.

92. Long reports and complex business problems generally require some use of ____________________ research methods.

93. ____________________ is an organizational writing technique that involves placing the main idea first and following the main idea with details, an explanation, or evidence.

94. Persuasive and bad-news messages should usually use the ____________________ strategy.

95. A ____________________ sentence contains two independent clauses and one dependent clause.

96. A ____________________ results when a writer joins two independent clauses with a comma.

97. The new organizational chart was presented by our recently hired CEO is an example of a sentence using the ___________________ voice.

98. A ____________________ modifier results when the word or phrase the modifier describes is missing from its sentence.


99. A(n) ____________________ is a group of sentences about one idea. 100. Before and meanwhile are examples of transitional expressions that show ____________________ association.

==============================================================================

Chapter 04 Revising Business Messages 1. Which statement is most accurate? a.

Proofreading involves using only a spell checker.

b.

Revision should always occur after you have completed writing.

c.

Business messages must be clear, concise, and readable.

d.

Revising and proofreading involve the same steps.

2. Which of the following about writing and revising business documents is most accurate? a.

Rarely is the first version satisfactory, but usually the second version is excellent.

b.

Experts say only amateurs expect writing perfection on the first try.

c. Revision is not necessary for informal documents such as internal memos or email messages. d. The real work of revision should happen in the writing stage as you select words and form sentences.

3. Monica lost a promotion due to poor writing skills. Which phase of the writing process should she most focus on to demonstrate better writing skills? a.

Improving content and research


b.

Revising and proofreading

c.

Formatting and documenting

d.

Identifying her purpose and her audience

4. Which of the following statements about revision is most accurate? a.

You must compose first drafts quickly (sprint writing) and return later for editing.

b.

Careful writers always revise as they write.

c.

Revision is required for only long and complex business documents.

d. Some business writers prefer to compose first drafts quickly and revise later; others prefer to revise as they go. 5. Concise writing a.

should be used only in informal business documents such as e-mail messages.

b.

is easier to read and comprehend.

c. customer. d.

is necessary for only formal business documents such as a proposal to a should be avoided because it can come across as being abrupt and rude.

6. Which of the following best avoids flabby expressions? a.

In very few cases do job applicants perform adequate research about a company.

b.

The CEO is of the opinion that stock prices will increase next quarter.

c. expense. d.

Although many employees have requested training, we can't afford the extra We do not expect any pay raises at this point in time.

7. Effective communicators avoid the flabby expression in addition to the above by using the word(s) a.

in addition.


b.

also.

c.

as well as the previously mentioned.

d.

along with the aforementioned.

8. Long sentence lead-ins a.

are unnecessary introductory words.

b.

introduce the "meat" of the message.

c.

avoid reader confusion.

d.

demonstrate effective language usage.

9. Which of the following best avoids a long lead-in? a.

Yes, we will send the information you requested.

b.

This is to advise you that we will send the information you requested.

c.

You may be interested to learn that we will send the information you requested.

d. requested.

I am writing this letter to inform you that we will send the information you

10. It is important to avoid long lead-ins because they a.

are grammatically incorrect.

b.

contain misplaced modifiers.

c.

prevent the reader from reaching the meaning of the sentence.

d.

result in faulty parallelism.

11. Which of the following sentences is most effective? a.

This is to inform you that your account is now up-to-date.

b.

At this point in time, your account is up-to-date.


c.

Due to the fact that we have just received your check, your account is up-to-date.

d.

Your account is now up-to-date.

12. There is a new software company that will be hiring employees is an example of a sentence with a.

concise wording.

b.

a wordy prepositional phrase.

c.

a filler.

d.

faulty parallelism.

13. All of the following sentences contain unnecessary fillers except a.

There are three important issues to discuss at today's meeting.

b.

There is only one job opening available.

c.

It was our office manager who won the raffle.

d.

Three candidates are running for the board.

14. Which sentence avoids redundant expressions? a.

It is absolutely essential that our accounting records are accurate.

b.

Let's not repeat our competitor's mistakes.

c.

Please refer back to the June financial statements.

d.

I want to thank each and every stockholder.

15. Microblogging a.

is illegal in businesses today.

b.

involves adding website links to a blog to encourage feedback from others.


c. d. companies.

consists of short messages exchanged on social media networks. is performed by only corporate officials who write comments about their

16. All of the following are tips you should follow when microblogging except a.

ignore spelling, grammar, and punctuation errors.

b.

include only the main ideas.

c.

personalize your message if possible.

d.

choose descriptive but short words.

17. One way to improve the clarity of your writing is to apply the KISS formula. KISS stands for a.

Key Ideas Succinctly and Swiftly.

b.

Keep It Short and Simple.

c.

Knowledge Is Supported and Summarized.

d.

Know Intentions, Strategies, and Solutions.

18. Katelyn is writing a letter to thank a potential employer for her job interview. Which of these sentences contains modern expressions Katelyn should use? a.

Thank you in advance for considering me for your available position.

b. You will note that my coursework has thoroughly prepared me for your medical technician position. c. interview. d.

Enclosed herein please find the salary history you requested during the Pursuant to your request, I will return for a second interview on May 28.

19. Which of the following expressions is most modern?


a.

Separately

b.

Every effort will be made

c.

In receipt of

d.

In accordance with your wishes

20. ClichĂŠs are a.

words originating from the French language.

b.

overused expressions.

c.

descriptive expressions used in business writing.

d.

informal words with arbitrary and extravagantly changed meanings.

21. Which of the following sentences avoids clichĂŠs? a.

We can prove the benefits of exercise for stress reduction beyond a shadow of a

doubt. b. Employees who engage in a regular fitness program are likely to pass the physical exam with flying colors. c.

Please encourage your department members to join the health club.

d.

Last but not least, you, too, should join the fitness program.

22. Slang a. meanings. b.

is composed of informal words with arbitrary and extravagantly changed is acceptable to use in business messages.

c. involves the use of technical expressions that have become fashionable and are often meant to impress rather than express. d.

All answer choices are correct.


23. The dangers of using slang in business writing include a.

obscuring meaning.

b.

using language that is too informal.

c.

using words that quickly go out of fashion.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

24. Which of the following sentences avoids buzzwords and slang? a.

Our stock prices tanked last quarter.

b.

All companies must follow the guidelines outlined in the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

c.

The architects blew the budget for the design of the new energy center.

d.

The company decided a new paradigm shift was needed to increase sales.

25. Converting verbs into noun expressions a.

decreases sentence length.

b.

reduces verb strength.

c.

increases the reader's ability to process the information.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

26. Which of the following sentences avoids noun conversion? a.

Your supervisor will give consideration to all capital budget requests.

b.

The committee worked on the establishment of a fund for scholarships.

c.

The benefits committee will be responsible for the acquisition of an endowment.

d.

The scholarship committee approved the plan.


27. Words such as definitely, quite, actually, extremely, and totally are a.

adjectives that add a welcome degree of emotion to your writing.

b.

adjectives that may be omitted because they are imprecise.

c.

adverbs that should be used only sparingly in business writing.

d. adverbs that should be used as often as possible in business writing to show excitement and enthusiasm.

28. Which of the following sentences contains the best use of vivid adjectives without overkill? a.

The resort offered luxurious suites with Jacuzzi tubs and saunas.

b. The all-inclusive, top-notch resort offered luxurious, totally marvelous suites with incredible extras. c.

The resort had nice rooms.

d.

All sentences use vivid adjectives effectively.

29. Which of the following sentences uses the most precise language? a.

The board approved a substantial budget increase.

b.

The board approved a 34 percent budget increase.

c.

The board approved a large budget increase.

d.

The board approved a sizeable budget increase.

30. Which of the following sentences demonstrates clear writing? a.

A supervisor asked everyone to work an extra day.

b.

A supervisor asked production employees to work an extra day.

c.

A supervisor asked everyone to work on Saturday.

d.

Lindsey Goulet asked production employees to work on Saturday.


31. Well-designed documents enhance readability and comprehension and a.

make readers think the writer is a well-organized and intelligent person.

b.

guarantee reader acceptance.

c.

increase the intelligence level of the reader.

d.

avoid the use of white space.

32. Empty space on a page a.

should be avoided on any business document.

b.

can be achieved by creating paragraphs of ten or more printed lines.

c.

makes it appear as if the writer has nothing to say.

d.

is called white space.

33. To improve readability and comprehension through white space, a.

use approximately 20 or fewer words per sentence.

b.

construct paragraphs consisting of 12-15 printed lines.

c.

develop long paragraphs.

d.

avoid the use of topic sentences on shorter paragraphs.

34. Dylan is designing his document to enhance readability and comprehension. What is the best advice you can give Dylan? a.

Justify the left and right margins so they are both even.

b. Create white space by using headings, bulleted or numbered lists, short paragraphs, and effective margins. c.

Use multiple typefaces within the document.


d.

Use ALL CAPS anywhere in a document to emphasize key points.

35. Which statement about margins and text alignment is true? a.

Margins define the reading area and provide important visual relief.

b.

Nearly all text in Western cultures is aligned at the right.

c.

Business letters and memos usually have side margins of 2 inches.

d.

Ragged right margins decrease white space and readability.

36. What is the most common serif typeface? a.

Arial

b.

Times New Roman

c.

Univers

d.

Calibri

37. How many typefaces should you use in a business document? a.

No more than two

b.

At least three

c.

Up to five

d.

At least ten

38. Which statement regarding type sizes and fonts is most accurate? a.

Font styles are a stylistic means of adding emphasis to your words.

b.

Readers are generally most comfortable with 8- to 10-point type for body text.

c.

Fonts include caps, boldfacing, italics, underlining, outlining, and shadowing.


d.

Writers should always use all caps to emphasize their ideas.

39. Which of the following statements regarding bulleted or numbered lists is most accurate? a.

Lists decrease a reader's comprehension of the main ideas.

b.

Lists allow readers to review main ideas quickly.

c.

Lists confuse readers because they are visually distracting.

d.

Lists decrease the readability level of a document.

40. When creating a bulleted or numbered list, a.

use a bulleted list to represent a sequence.

b.

never use end punctuation.

c.

do not capitalize the initial word of each line.

d.

express all ideas similarly.

41. Tyler used a bulleted list on his rĂŠsumĂŠ to describe his previous job duties. Which of the following items from his list does not demonstrate parallel structure? a.

Performed inspections of plant equipment, including boilers, condensers, and

b.

Troubleshooting of plant's chemical equipment

c.

Performed load calculations for plant equipment

d.

Wrote analytical reports detailing system performance

chillers

42. Which statement regarding headings is most accurate? a.

Headings provide visual distraction for readers; thus they should be avoided.

b.

Headings appear most often in business letters.

c.

Headings highlight information and improve readability.


d.

Headings should be avoided in all business documents.

43. Which statement about proofreading is most accurate? a.

Good business writers wait at least 24 hours or longer to proofread a document.

b.

Only important messages or documents need to be proofread.

c. Documents with errors do not affect a person's credibility because readers understand that everyone makes mistakes. d.

Proofreading should occur while the document is being written.

44. Proofreading includes which of the following tasks? a.

Improving content and tone

b.

Fine tuning sentence and paragraph structure

c.

Correcting spelling, grammar, punctuation, names and numbers, and format

d. Determining whether the message should be written using the direct or indirect organizational pattern 45. Branch managers of First Federated Savings and Loan received this e-mail message: Please inform all personal that management retains the right to check personal belongings of employees before employees leave the bank. What error did the writer make? a.

A grammatical mistake

b.

A proofreading error

c.

A failure to use spell check

d.

No error was made. The sentence is correct as written.

46. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when you proofread a routine document? a.

If proofreading on screen, display the entire document at once.

b.

Proofread the document using a printed copy.


c.

Proofread your document as you compose your ideas.

d.

Rely solely on a spell-checker to catch any errors.

47. What is the best advice for proofreading a complex document? a.

Be prepared to find errors.

b.

Increase your reading speed.

c.

Read the message only once.

d.

Proofread the message immediately after it has been fully written.

48. Trina has just completed researching, writing, and proofreading a long, complex business proposal for a customer. What should she do next? a.

Sit back and relax.

b.

Evaluate its effectiveness by soliciting feedback from her receiver.

c.

Tell her boss that she has successfully completed the proposal.

d.

Reward herself by purchasing a new business suit.

49. What is the best way to judge the success of your writing? a.

Receiving a raise or promotion

b.

Using a spell-checker

c.

Receiving feedback from your receiver

d.

Organizing your message using the direct organizational strategy

50. Taylor is enrolled in a business communications course at her local community college. She just received a paper back from her professor who noted that Taylor should review the principles for comma usage. How should Taylor handle this criticism?


a.

Report her teacher to the president of the college for abuse.

b.

Argue with her teacher about comma rules.

c.

Withdraw from the class.

d. Accept the feedback and use it constructively to improve her future writing assignments.

51. The terms editing, proofreading, and evaluating are synonymous in meaning. a.

True

b.

False

52. Professional writers develop a system of writing and revising that works for them; they may revise at any point in the process. a.

True

b.

False

53. Concise messages are easy to read and comprehend. a.

True

b.

False

54. You can often reduce flabby expressions to single words. a.

True

b.

False

55. Soon is more concise than in the near future. a.

True

b.

False


56. You will be interested to learn that is a recommended and professional way to begin a business document. a.

True

b.

False

57. There are many account representatives who can help you with your order. This sentence is clear and concise. a.

True

b.

False

58. Redundant words or phrases convey a meaning more than once. a.

True

b.

False

59. Each and every student will be required to participate in one group writing project contains a redundant expression. a.

True

b.

False

60. Microblogging consists of short messages exchanged on social media sites. a.

True

b.

False

61. Conciseness is critical when microblogging. a.

True


b.

False

62. Only main ideas should be included in a microblog. a.

True

b.

False

63. Your goal as a business writer is to impress your reader. a.

True

b.

False

64. Using expressions such as pursuant to your request and thank you in advance adds a level of professionalism to business writing. a.

True

b.

False

65. The following sentence demonstrates effective writing: Please do not hesitate to call me if you have any questions. a.

True

b.

False

66. Smart business communicators use clichĂŠs such as think outside the box to show that they are familiar with current business terminology. a.

True

b.

False

67. To sound current, fresh, and trendy, effective business communicators make ample use of slang when writing and speaking. a.

True


b.

False

68. In describing sexual harassment in the workplace, Julia explains that Supervisors are getting burned in harassment lawsuits. Julia is using slang in this statement. a.

True

b.

False

69. Converting a verb into a noun creates stronger, more professional business writing (e.g., made a decision instead of decided). a.

True

b.

False

70. The following sentence demonstrates effective business writing: Our purchasing department will give consideration to the RFP submitted by Powertex. a.

True

b.

False

71. You can streamline your writing and make it more emphatic by using vivid adverbs such as very, extremely, and actually as often as possible. a.

True

b.

False

72. As you revise, make your writing clear by using specific verbs, concrete nouns, and vivid adjectives. a.

True

b.

False


73. The following sentence contains clear and precise wording: In some businesses they won't let you accumulate sick leave. a.

True

b.

False

74. Business writers should consider document design during the revision process because welldesigned documents improve readability and comprehension. a.

True

b.

False

75. When designing documents, you should place as much text as possible on a page to save paper and printer toner. a.

True

b.

False

76. Nearly all text in Western cultures is aligned at the left and reads from left to right. a.

True

b.

False

77. When right margins are not aligned or justified, they provide more white space and improve readability. a.

True

b.

False

78. In any business document, use at least three typefaces to add emphasis and contrast.


a.

True

b.

False

79. To emphasize an important sentence within a business document, type the entire sentence in capital letters. a.

True

b.

False

80. Use bulleted lists to represent a sequence of ideas or a numbered order. a.

True

b.

False

81. When using either a bulleted or numbered list, capitalize the initial word of each line and always follow each idea with end punctuation. a.

True

b.

False

82. Headings are an effective tool for highlighting information. a.

True

b.

False

83. Use headings only when writing a report. a.

True

b.

False


84. You should proofread every sentence of a document as soon as you write it. a.

True

b.

False

85. Proofreading includes the use of only a grammar or spell-checker. a.

True

b.

False

86. You are more likely to find errors when proofreading on a computer screen than on a printed copy. a.

True

b.

False

87. One careful proofreading of any document is sufficient. a.

True

b.

False

88. You should follow the same proofreading process for a routine document and a complex document. a.

True

b.

False

89. Proofreading is the last step in Phase 3 of the 3-x-3 writing process. a.

True

b.

False


90. The best way to judge the success of your communication is through feedback. a.

True

b.

False

91. ____________________, which occurs during the third phase of the writing process, means improving the content and sentence structure of your message. It may include adding, cutting, recasting, reformatting, and redesigning what you have written.

92. There are three building sites we are considering. This use of There are is an example of a(n) ____________________.

93. Expressions that repeat meaning or include unnecessary words are ____________________.

94. ____________________ consists of short messages exchanged on social media networks such as Twitter, Facebook, and Tumblr.

95. ____________________ is composed of informal words with arbitrary and extravagantly changed meanings. These words quickly go out of fashion because they are no longer appealing when everyone begins to understand them.

96. Shoot from the hip is an example of a(n) ____________________, which is an expression that has been exhausted by overuse.

97. Empty space on a page is called ____________.


98. ____________________, which appear most often in reports, are an effective tool for highlighting information and improving readability because they encourage the writer to group similar material together and help readers separate major ideas from details.

99. ____________________ involves checking for problems with spelling, grammar, punctuation, names and numbers, and format.

100. ____________ is the process of determining whether your message attracts the reader's attention and achieves its purpose.

Chapter 05 Short Workplace Messages and Digital Media 1. Which of the following statements about communication in today's workplace is most accurate? a. Despite the increased use of social media networks, companies are reluctant to use social media sites such as Facebook and Twitter to conduct business. b.

Individuals are using more mobile electronic devices to communicate with

c.

Because individuals are more dispersed, messages are longer and less frequent.

others.

d. Because of social media networks, today's communication includes more one-onone conversations.

2. Which statement about the use of e-mail in today's workplace is most accurate? a.

Most messages in today's workplace are sent by e-mail.


b. Businesses use memos more frequently than e-mail messages to communicate internally with employees. c. with others. d.

Only managers and top-level business executives use e-mail to communicate Today's workers spend very little time writing e-mail messages.

3. Business e-mail users must learn that e-mail can be dangerous because messages travel long distances, are difficult to erase, and a.

can't be used to transmit official documents.

b.

are informal, allowing a few spelling and punctuation mistakes.

c.

may become evidence in court.

d.

are challenging to type using only two fingers.

4. Which of the following situations is most appropriate for sending an e-mail message? a. Matthew is angry with one of his colleagues and wants to let her know exactly how he feels. b.

Jane found a great political joke she wants to share with her colleagues.

c.

Chris must send the monthly sales data to his department.

d. supervisor.

Maggie needs to vent her frustrations about working conditions to her shift

5. Jackson is sending an e-mail message about an important upcoming meeting. Which of the following represents the most effective subject line? a.

Urgent!

b.

Our next staff meeting will be held on the 15th of August.

c.

Please Attend Staff Meeting August 15


d.

Please Read NOW

6. What is the current advice on the use of a greeting on business e-mail? a.

Omit greetings because they make an e-mail appear too casual.

b.

Add a greeting only when forwarding an e-mail with a lengthy header.

c. salutation. d.

Don't waste precious digital space on the nonessential keystrokes of a greeting or Begin with a greeting to provide a visual cue and to show friendliness.

7. Bennett is sending an e-mail message about a change in procedure for submitting work hours. Which of the following represents the most direct opening? a.

Recently, the management staff discussed our process for submitting work hours.

b.

A new procedure for submitting work hours will go into effect on April 1.

c.

Are you in the mood to try something a little different?

d.

We all hate when procedures change, but this change is needed.

8. Which of the following is the best advice for writing the body of an e-mail message? a.

To help the receiver act on the subject, avoid frontloading.

b.

Use numbered or bulleted lists when appropriate.

c. Develop your ideas into at least three screens to demonstrate your writing ability and the seriousness of your message. d.

Do not waste space on headings and subheadings.

9. Which of the following is the most appropriate closing for an e-mail message or memo? a. Please submit your report by August 1 so that the information can be presented at the seminar. b.

Please let me know if I may be of further assistance.


c.

Thank you in advance for answering my questions.

d.

It's been great talking with you.

10. The final element of an e-mail message should be a.

your name and full contact information.

b.

a witty phrase and your name.

c.

the name of the business or organization only.

d.

an attachment.

11. What advice should you follow when using down-editing to reply to an e-mail message? a.

Do not include a courteous opening with your reply message.

b.

Avoid the use of different colors when inserting your comments.

c.

Delete the sender's message header, signature, and all unnecessary parts.

d.

Add a comment after every sentence in the original message.

12. Which of the following is the best tip for replying to e-mail messages? a. Reply to an e-mail message immediately because reading additional e-mail messages before replying might confuse you. b. If you can't reply immediately, acknowledge receipt of the message and tell the sender when you'll be able to reply. c. Include the sender's entire original message in the body of your reply to clarify the meaning of your response. d.

Retain the original subject line to identify a conversation thread even if the topic

shifts.

13. Which of these is the best recommendation for business communicators using e-mail?


a. Consider using e-mail to deliver bad news or to resolve arguments so that you can avoid a face-to-face conversation. b.

Add humor or tongue-in-cheek comments to lighten the tone of serious e-mail

c.

Type your message in all capital letters to increase your speed and efficiency.

topics.

d. corrections.

Edit your text for readability and proofread for typos or unwanted auto-

14. All of the following are reasons memos are used to send internal messages except a.

formality.

b.

permanency.

c.

speed.

d.

length.

15. Seng must inform his staff about the new process for accessing the company's intranet from remote locations. What communication channel should Seng use to convey this information? a.

Text message

b.

Memo

c.

Instant message

d.

Tweet

16. What is the best advice when preparing a memo as an e-mail attachment? a.

Never send a memo as an e-mail attachment.

b.

Leave the body of the e-mail message blank.

c.

Include the date, sender's name, receiver's name, and subject line on the memo.

d.

Type the entire body of the memo in the e-mail message.


17. Most e-mail messages and memos a.

have nonsensitive topics and begin directly.

b.

require persuasion.

c.

are indirect and begin with an explanation.

d.

need not be carefully organized because they are informal.

18. Which of the following is not a guide word used in e-mail messages and memos? a.

TO:

b.

FROM:

c.

RESPONSE:

d.

DATE:

19. To correctly format a hard-copy interoffice memorandum, which of the following is not a guideline you should follow? a.

Set 1-inch top and bottom margins and left and right margins of 1 to 1.25 inches.

b.

Insert in bold the guide words: Date:, To:, From:, and Subject: at the left margin.

c. Provide a heading that includes the name of the company plus "Memo" or "Memorandum." d.

Justify the right margin.

20. An e-mail message or memo usually ends with action information, dates, or deadlines; a summary of the message; or a a.

witty quotation.

b.

copyright notice or confidentiality statement.

c.

closing thought.


d.

reference line that includes the typist's initials.

21. Which of the following statements about texting in the workplace is most accurate? a. All companies allow employees to use texting to communicate with coworkers and customers. b. Texting enables two or more individuals to use the Internet or an intranet to "chat" in real time by exchanging brief messages. c.

Texting is a relatively high-cost substitute for voice calls.

d.

Text messaging is replacing e-mail for short internal communication.

22. Which of the following statements about instant messaging in the workplace is most accurate? a. Although companies have found instant messaging to be a valuable tool for employees to communicate with one another, they have been hesitant to use instant messaging for customer service. b.

Unlike text messaging, instant messaging is not subject to discovery in lawsuits.

c. Instant messaging allows people to share information immediately and make decisions quickly. d.

Instant messaging decreases presence functionality.

23. Instant messaging and text messaging are advantageous for all of the following reasons except a.

guaranteed privacy.

b.

low cost.

c.

immediacy.

d.

speed.


24. Instant messaging and texting a. provide "presence functionality," allowing coworkers to locate each other online, which saves time tracking someone down who is out of the office. b. are delayed; a user has time to recall sent messages if he or she decides the message should not have been delivered. c.

prevent multitasking and encourage employees to focus on one job at a time.

d. allow in-depth analysis of data, including charts and graphs, and lengthy conversation of the chosen topics.

25. Why do some employers forbid employees to use instant messaging (IM) and texting? a.

Instant messaging and texting are more expensive to use than faxes or phone

b.

Some employers consider IM and texting distractions.

c.

Delivery of instant and text messages takes longer than e-mail message delivery.

calls.

d. According to federal regulations, businesses cannot conduct business using instant or text messaging.

26. Yer's company has decided to let employees use instant messaging (IM) as an internal communication tool, and she wants to make sure that she's using it professionally. What should she do? a. reach her.

Make sure she's available via IM at all times so that her colleagues can always

b. efficiency.

Include both professional and personal contacts on the same IM contact list for

c. Respect her receivers by using proper grammar, spelling, and proofreading in her instant messages. d.

Create an imaginative IM name for herself such as "PrettySmart1."


27. Tara is starting a new job that will allow her to use text messaging. What advice should she follow? a. When she doesn't receive an immediate response from a coworker, continue to text message the coworker until he or she responds. b.

Feel free to send any kind of message to her coworkers using this medium.

c.

Identify herself when texting a new contact.

d. popularity.

Send texts while she is having a face-to-face conversation to demonstrate her

28. Podcasts and wikis are part of the new user-centered virtual environment called a.

the Total Network.

b.

Web 2.0.

c.

cloud computing.

d.

VPN.

29. News professionals, educators, and corporate trainers create digital audio or video files; and receivers can download the files to a computer or a smartphone to view or hear the file contents. What are these digital audio or video files called? a.

Blogs

b.

Podcasts

c.

Wikis

d.

Web forums

30. Businesses have embraced podcasts for audio and video messages because podcasts a.

do not require a live presence, yet offer a friendly human face.

b.

can't replace costlier live teleconferences but can replace most business travel.


c. provide up to 1,000 views per podcast, saving money over individual presentations. d.

broadcast interactive, non-repetitive information.

31. Podcasts are used by a.

news organizations and media outlets.

b.

educational institutions.

c.

businesses.

d. News organizations and media outlets, educational institutions, and businesses all use podcasts to deliver information.

32. A wiki a. consists of short audio and video files that deliver repetitive information and that can be downloaded and played on numerous devices. b.

is a website with journal entries on a variety of topics.

c. is a Web-based tool that uses collaborative software to allow multiple users to create, access, and modify documents. d. is a brief message exchanged in real time using a short message service supplied by a cell phone provider or a voice over Internet protocol service. 33. One advantage of a wiki is that it a.

allows documents to be error free.

b.

guarantees public and employee acceptance.

c. the public. d.

enables companies and news organizations to broadcast information quickly to eliminates the problem of document version confusion.


34. Crowdsourcing is a.

the ability to send short messages consisting of 140 characters or fewer.

b. the practice of tapping into the combined knowledge of an online community to solve problems and complete assignments. c.

the use of fraudulent schemes on the Internet.

d. an e-mail response technique that includes only those parts of an e-mail message to which the receiver is responding.

35. How do companies use wikis? a. Companies share special deals and incentives in short messages of 140 characters or fewer. b. Corporate teams respond to internal and external customers in rapid-fire posts to emergencies and other high-pressure situations. c.

Global companies share information between headquarters and satellite offices.

d.

Companies post photos and biographies of their top-tier managers.

36. All of the following are reasons businesses use wikis except a.

to improve the brand image of a company.

b.

to generate feedback from employees before and after meetings.

c. to collect and share information to large audiences creating a database for important company information. d.

to facilitate project management.

37. Blogs are most similar to a.

tweets.

b.

text messages.


c.

journal entries.

d.

instant messages.

38. The biggest advantage of business blogs is that they a.

have the potential to reach a vast, far-flung audience.

b.

are the primary method of internal business communications.

c. provide anytime access to digital audio and video files containing corporate training, marketing, and informational messages. d.

can safeguard against hackers and rival companies.

39. Companies use blogs for all of the following reasons except a.

communicating internally with employees.

b.

conducting job interviews.

c.

recruiting.

d.

researching target markets and products.

40. You are using the corporate blog to respond to a business emergency. Which of the following is the best recommendation? a. messages.

Use the blog as the sole provider of emergency information to avoid muddled

b. Make the blog part of your overall effort to communicate information regarding the business's emergency. c. Soothe emotional reactions by posting information on your corporate blog, replacing all other communication channels. d. only.

Do not address rumors or misinformation on the blog; address factual content


41. Which of the following is the best title for a blog? a.

Read Now

b.

Attention

c.

Five Ways to Get Your Résumé Read

d.

Résumé Information

42. The opening of a blog should a.

identify a need and propose to solve the problem.

b.

include a call to action.

c.

provide examples, quotations and testimonials, or statistics.

d.

include your name and title.

43. Eyasu must create a corporate blog. Which of the following should he use in his blog? a.

Expressive action verbs

b.

Numbers, bullets, and subheadings

c.

Conversational language

d.

Eyasu should use all these techniques in his blog.

44. When writing or responding to a blog, you should a.

correct any errors in your grammar, spelling, and mechanics.

b. vehemently and honestly disagree with a post using strong language such as Your ideas are completely unfounded. Do your research before you post your ideas! c.

include long, wordy sentences to demonstrate your writing abilities.

d.

repeat ideas and sentences to add length to your response.


45. Which of the following is not a social networking site? a.

LinkedIn

b.

Facebook

c.

Twitter

d.

Firefox

46. All of the following are reasons businesses use social networking except a.

to avoid legal challenges and issues.

b.

to exchange ideas.

c.

to share company news.

d.

to connect with customers and employees.

47. All of the following statements about social networking are accurate except a.

the majority of Fortune 500 companies now use social networking.

b.

only teenagers use social networking sites to communicate with others.

c. employees.

social networking sites are used by some companies to recruit potential

d. many businesses have found that the Facebook model can be adapted to their own internal networks.

48. Businesses use social networking to a.

connect dispersed employees.

b.

provide a forum for collaboration.


c.

to solicit customer feedback when researching and developing products.

d.

All answer choices demonstrate how businesses use social networks.

49. Which of the following statements best describes use of social networks by businesses today? a. All companies are comfortable with using social networking for brainstorming and teamwork. b. Companies struggle with finding the right balance between permitting access to the Web and protecting security as well as ensuring productivity. c. Companies must run their own social networks to capitalize effectively on the benefits this medium offers. d. Large companies create buzz and promote their brands via social networking, but social networking offers no benefit to small businesses.

50. Travis has asked you for some advice regarding the use of social networking in the workplace. What advice will you share? a.

Feel free to share any information on social networking sites.

b. Refuse friend requests or "unfriend" people to avoid jeopardizing professional relationships. c. Establish boundaries, and don't share information online that you wouldn't share openly in the office. d.

Assume the content posted on a social networking site is protected.

51. Social media messages have replaced e-mail messages within organizations and to external audiences. a.

True

b.

False


52. E-mail is appropriate for short, informal messages that request information and respond to inquiries. a.

True

b.

False

53. Most e-mails should be organized using the indirect organizational strategy. a.

True

b.

False

54. Including a subject line in your e-mail message is optional because the message is usually short. a.

True

b.

False

55. Like e-mail messages, memos can be used to communicate within an organization and with external customers, companies, and organizations. a.

True

b.

False

56. Memos are used to convey procedures, official instructions, and reports. a.

True

b.

False

57. Memos should be organized directly by conveying the main idea first.


a.

True

b.

False

58. Deadlines and action information should be included in the body of an e-mail message or memo. a.

True

b.

False

59. Although teenagers use instant messaging (IM) frequently, corporations do not use this communication tool. a.

True

b.

False

60. Text and instant messaging are replacing e-mail for short internal communication. a.

True

b.

False

61. The major attraction of instant messaging (IM) in business is real-time communication with colleagues anywhere in the world as long as a cell phone signal or a Wi-Fi connection is available. a.

True

b.

False

62. Some advantages of texting and instant messaging include immediacy and cost. a.

True

b.

False


63. All companies in today's workplace allow employees to text or instant message on the job. a.

True

b.

False

64. One benefit of using text or instant messaging on the job is that these messages cannot be used as evidence in lawsuits. a.

True

b.

False

65. Before using IM or text messaging on the job, be sure you have permission. a.

True

b.

False

66. When texting or instant messaging on the job, don't worry about your grammar and spelling because your goal is to send quick, short messages. a.

True

b.

False

67. The top digital media device being used to disseminate information today is podcasts. a.

True

b.

False

68. Podcasting has experienced large growth and has spread among various user groups online. a.

True


b.

False

69. Businesses use podcasting for sending audio and video messages that do not require a live presence yet offer a friendly human face. a.

True

b.

False

70. One advantage of podcasts is that they can replace costlier forms of communication technologies such as teleconferences. a.

True

b.

False

71. A wiki is a Web-based tool that employs easy-to-use software to allow multiple users collectively to create, access, and modify documents. a.

True

b.

False

72. Wikis promote crowdsourcing and reduce document version confusion. a.

True

b.

False

73. Although wikis have become popular among some users, major companies have yet to embrace them in the business world. a.

True

b.

False


74. Businesses that have used wikis have found that work flow has diminished. a.

True

b.

False

75. A blog is a website with journal entries that are usually written by one person. a.

True

b.

False

76. Although blogs have proven to be an effective tool for some individuals, businesses are reluctant to use them because they are limited in the audiences that they reach. a.

True

b.

False

77. Millie needs to research customer reactions. She should consider a blog because blogs can produce unbiased consumer feedback more quickly and cheaply than familiar techniques like focus groups and surveys. a.

True

b.

False

78. One purpose of blogs is to create engagement. a.

True

b.

False

79. Companies use blogs only for public and customer relations. a.

True


b.

False

80. One of the prominent business uses of blogs is to provide up-to-date company information to the press and the public. a.

True

b.

False

81. Things You Need to Know is an effective title for a blog. a.

True

b.

False

82. In the body of a blog, avoid contractions and the use of numbers, bullets, or subheadings. a.

True

b.

False

83. Social networking sites enable businesses to connect with customers and employees, share company news, and exchange ideas. a.

True

b.

False

84. Twitter is very popular for personal use with employees under age thirty-five, but businesses have not yet found positive business applications for this digital communication tool. a.

True

b.

False


85. Many companies have modeled their internal social networks after Facebook. a.

True

b.

False

86. Social networks can help connect employees who are geographically dispersed. a.

True

b.

False

87. All companies have embraced social networking. a.

True

b.

False

88. You must be wary of the many risks in the cyber world, which include not only appearing in inappropriate photographs but also making "friends" online. a.

True

b.

False

89. As an employee or potential employee, you should think twice before posting anything online. a.

True

b.

False

90. As long as you use privacy settings on social networking sites, you do not need to worry about personal sensitive information being shared. a.

True


b.

False

91. To reply efficiently to e-mail messages, you should practice ____________________, which involves inserting your responses to parts of the incoming message.

92. To, From, Date, and Subject in an e-mail message or a memo are called ____________________ words.

93. ____________________ messaging enables you to use the Internet or an internal corporate communication platform to communicate in real time with others by exchanging brief textbased messages.

94. ____________________ messaging is a popular means for exchanging brief messages in real time using a short message service (SMS) supplied by a cell phone service provider or a voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) service.

95. A(n) ____________________ is a digital audio or video file that can be downloaded to a computer or watched on a smartphone.

96. Teams or departments use ____________________ to collect and disseminate information to large audiences creating a database for knowledge management.

97. One advantage of a wiki is that it promotes ____________, which is the practice of tapping into the combined knowledge of an online community to solve problems and complete assignments.

98. A ____________ is a website with journal entries on any imaginable topic usually written by one person.


99. ____________ marketing is a term that depicts the rapid spread of online messages, much like infectious diseases that pass from person to person.

100. Facebook and Twitter are examples of ____________ sites.

Chapter 06 Positive Messages 1. Most workplace messages are a.

sent via text message.

b.

placed on Post-It notes in the employees' lounge.

c.

positive or neutral.

d.

long and ambiguous.

2. Most workplace messages should be organized a.

indirectly.

b.

chronologically.

c.

directly.

d.

topically.

3. Which of the following is not a routine business message?


a. meeting b. c. shipped

An e-mail message to a coworker that confirms the time for an upcoming A letter to a customer denying his or her request for credit An e-mail reply to a customer acknowledging that his or her order has been

d. An all-staff memo that outlines the new procedures for processing returned merchandise

4. Which of the following is not one of the most frequently used communication channels in businesses today? a.

Letters

b.

Memos

c.

E-mails

d.

Tweets

5. Which of the following statements best describes the use of letters, e-mails, and memos in businesses today? a. Businesses use memos to deliver positive messages internally and externally, but they use formal business letters to deliver negative messages. b. E-mail delivers most internal communication, hard-copy memos deliver most external communication, and letters communicate only legal issues. c. Despite the popularity of e-mail, in certain situations letters remain the preferred channel of communication for delivering messages outside an organization. d. Businesses today use e-mail, memos, and letters interchangeably for all audiences, purposes, and messages.

6. Although e-mail is successful for both internal and external communication, you should still use letters when


a.

you need immediate feedback.

b.

the message must reach your reader very quickly.

c.

formality and sensitivity are essential.

d.

you have too little time to proofread.

7. In which of the following situations should you send a letter instead of an e-mail message? a.

You are planning a sales team meeting.

b. You are asking leading members of the community to contribute to a fundraising event to improve local parks. c.

You are inviting employees to the annual sales seminar.

d.

You are reminding employees of Friday's divisional meetings.

8. Which statement about the format of a business letter is most accurate? a.

Legal agreements are invalid if they do not demonstrate the correct letter format.

b.

All business letters will use the block formatting style.

c. The appearance of a business letter can send nonverbal messages about a sender to a receiver. d.

All answer choices are accurate.

9. In the popular block letter format, which of the following guidelines apply? a.

Use ragged, unjustified right margins.

b.

Use fully justified margins on all sides and center the body of the letter on the

page. c. Start the sender's address, the dateline, and the complimentary close at the midpoint; align all other letter parts at the left margin. d.

Double-space all content to improve readability.


10. When business writers request information or action that will likely be received positively, they should frontload their messages, which requires a.

including an attachment.

b.

proofreading only the beginning of a letter.

c.

including a salutation or greeting.

d.

putting the most significant statement first.

11. Which of the following is an effective opening for a routine request message? a.

Please answer the following questions about your Web services.

b.

My name is Jill Aubrey, and I am the office manager for Cape Consulting Inc.

c.

I recently read an article about your firm in the local newspaper.

d. Cape Consulting Inc. is the premier communication-consulting firm in the Cape and islands area.

12. Which part(s) of your messages are readers likely to find most interesting and read first? a.

Footnote

b.

Opening and closing

c.

Middle paragraphs of justification and explanation

d.

Salutation

13. Courtney is getting married and is trying to gather information about the banquet facilities of a potential venue in Las Vegas. She has lots of questions and decides to write a routine informational message. How should she present these questions in her message? a.

As a separate enclosure

b.

In a bulleted or numbered list in the body of her message


c.

In paragraph form in the body of her message

d.

In a follow-up e-mail

14. The body of a routine request message presents a.

details explaining the request.

b.

action responses from the receiver.

c.

deadlines and approvals from governmental agencies.

d.

cost-to-benefit ratio analyses.

15. End dates and specific actions in a routine request message should be placed in the a.

introduction.

b.

body.

c.

closing.

d.

enclosure notation.

16. Which of the following would be the most effective closing statement in a routine action request message? a. Please send a contract for heating and ventilation work by April 1 to allow installation to begin by April 15. b.

We hope you can get our work completed in a timely manner.

c. Thank you in advance for sending a copy of the contract for installation of a new HVAC system by April 1. d. I would appreciate receiving a copy of the contract for your proposed installation at your earliest possible convenience.

17. In responding positively, you will want to


a. products.

focus your message first on resale or on the promotion of other business

b.

apply the same direct pattern used in making requests.

c.

start with an explanation of the reasons the request is granted.

d.

apply an indirect pattern to demonstrate respect for the recipient.

18. A subject line in a direct reply letter a.

is mandatory.

b. generally refers in abbreviated form to previous correspondence and/or summarizes a message. c.

must be written as a complete sentence.

d.

identifies the sender and his or her company.

19. Which of the following is the most effective opening sentence for a response message? a. Your letter of June 23, in which you sought information about our corporate travel packages, has been referred to me for reply. b. This is to inform you that we received your letter of June 23 seeking information about our corporate travel packages. c. Yes, we can put together a corporate travel package that will meet your needs and fit your budget. d.

Thank you so much for your interest in our corporate travel packages.

20. The conclusion of a response message should a.

avoid repeating the information provided or referring to its use.

b. include familiar expressions such as "If I may be of further assistance, please don't hesitate to call me."


c.

provide specifics if further action is required.

d.

omit the sender's name to avoid legal liability.

21. Which of the following sentences most effectively presents promotional materials in a message responding to a customer inquiry? a. customers.

We offer an outstanding variety of thank-you gifts for our most valuable

b. You will find that our top-selling host gift baskets not only welcome your guests but also save you money and time compared to individually purchasing and assembling your host baskets on site. c.

Can I interest you in anything else?

d. If I can be of further assistance with any of our other fine products, do not hesitate to contact me.

22. One important guideline when preparing instructions is to a.

follow an indirect approach to soften the impact of the demand for compliance.

b. begin with an admonition or warning of the punishment for failure to comply fully with directions as written. c.

put all steps of the instructions in one paragraph.

d.

divide the process into logical steps and present them in the correct order.

23. Which of the following sentences is not a parallel step in this set of instructions? a.

List the required education, work experience, and technical skills in Section 2.

b. number.

Contact the director of human resources to obtain a job-posting identification

c. Placing age or gender preference in the candidate qualifications section creates legal jeopardy.


d. Section 3.

Identify the division, department, and supervising agent for this position in

24. In writing messages that deliver instructions, what advice should you follow? a.

Use an autocratic tone to establish the importance of the instructions.

b.

Assume that employees want to contribute to the success of the organization.

c.

Focus on the steps in the procedure and let the tone take care of itself.

d. Criticize the person(s) responsible for trouble with previous procedures and then praise the person(s) responsible for the new procedure.

25. Which of the following statements about claims is most accurate? a. necessary.

If you expect that your claim will be granted, a letter or e-mail message is not

b. Businesses will probably take a claim letter more seriously than an e-mail message or a telephone call. c.

All claim messages should be written using the indirect strategy.

d. Smart businesses dislike receiving claim messages because it means they did something wrong.

26. Arika is following the three-part plan to write a claim message about a problem with her digital communication service bundle. What should she put in her opening? a.

A clear description of the desired action

b. An explanation of the nature of her problem with the digital communication service bundle c.

A goodwill statement and end date

d.

Her phone number


27. Which of the following openings is most appropriate for a claim message? a. b. restaurant.

For the past four years, we have held our annual banquet at your fine restaurant. On January 31 a number of our employees attended a banquet at your

c. Please process a refund for $68 to reimburse us the amount we were overcharged for our banquet. d. banquet.

We were extremely upset to learn that we were charged too much for our

28. You can improve the effectiveness of a claim message by a.

using a few threatening words to get your point across.

b. providing a detailed timeline of what happened and the specific person who is to blame for the problem. c.

explaining the problem with necessary details.

d.

including a subtle reference to your attorney or to the Better Business Bureau.

29. Joaquin will use the three-step writing plan for his claim message. In the body of the message, Joaquin will a.

assume the company understands his request without explanation.

b.

use emotional language to show how upset he is about the situation.

c.

assume the company purposely tries to cheat its customers.

d.

identify enclosed copies of all pertinent documents.

30. When service is involved in a claim, you should a.

demand a full refund of the service fee and a repeat service call.


b. avoid naming the service representatives involved or otherwise identifying responsible company employees. c.

cite names of individuals spoken to and dates of calls.

d. enclose a photograph of yourself crying or suffering other severe emotional distress because of the poor service.

31. In the closing of a claim message, you should a.

justify and explain your request.

b.

promote goodwill and summarize your request.

c.

reference all copies of pertinent documents enclosed.

d.

warn the company that failure to comply could cause legal action.

32. Which of the following sentences represents an appropriate end date in a claim message? a. Because we have enjoyed your prompt service in the past, we hope to receive the correct projectors by January 12. b. service.

We wish to end our contract with your company if you cannot improve your

c. Service calls were made to our Washington Street office on May 20, May 22, and May 27 without resolving the problem. d. Please replace the five Panasonic projectors we received on December 22 because the model numbers do not match the models ordered.

33. Which of the following statements about online complaints or reviews is most accurate? a. Individuals should give companies an opportunity to resolve the issue before writing an online complaint. b. comments.

Businesses and professionals cannot sue individuals for negative online


c. Consumers who are offered payment to change an opinion or account should willingly accept a company's generous monetary gift. d.

Anonymous complaints or reviews cannot be traced.

34. Most companies receiving a claim message tend to a.

ignore the first phone call, e-mail, or letter.

b. respond only to letters containing complaints that could result in lawsuits or financial harm. c.

respond promptly because they want to maintain customer goodwill and loyalty.

d.

wait two to six weeks to establish a "cooling-off period" prior to responding.

35. When granting a customer's claim, a business communicator should include an opening in an adjustment message that a.

summarizes the reader's claim and request.

b.

presents the good news immediately.

c.

explains and clarifies the company's position.

d.

builds goodwill.

36. Which of the following is not a goal when writing adjustment messages? a.

To gain the confidence of the customer

b.

To verify the honesty of the customer's claim

c.

To rectify the wrong

d.

To promote future business and goodwill

37. Which of the following is the most appropriate opening for an adjustment message granting a claim?


a.

We are very sorry to hear that your meal with us did not meet your expectations.

b. Thank you for your letter of November 16 describing your bad dining experience with us last weekend. c. Although we believe that the food we served last weekend was of the highest quality, we are willing to refund the cost of your dinner this time only. d. The enclosed check for $78, which covers the cost of your dinner, demonstrates our desire to satisfy our customers and earn their confidence.

38. Which of the following represents the most appropriate apology in an adjustment message? a. We understand your reliance on a high-performance router and apologize for the incomplete installation of your DataServe router. b.

We are sorry for any inconvenience this may have caused.

c.

We regret the error that caused the system failure you claim on your DataServe

router. d. It is unfortunate that your DataServe router has failed, and we promise that this failure will never occur again.

39. You should use sensitive language in an adjustment message in case the customer is already upset. Therefore, which of the following provides the best advice? a.

Do not suggest your business typically pleases its customers; do apologize for

failure. b. Don't use negative words (regret, error, failure); do use positive words (hope, achieve, strive). c.

Do not be vague about improvements; do guarantee the situation will not recur.

d. Do not blame customers; do blame individuals or departments inside your organization.

40. The closing of an adjustment message should


a. guarantee that the problem will not recur if the customer continues doing business with you. b.

express confidence in future business relations.

c. assign blame to the responsible department and assure the reader that the department has been improved. d.

remind readers of their responsibility in the product failure.

41. Show confidence in the closing of an adjustment message by writing with a positive, confident tone; mentioning the product in a favorable light; and a. b. business.

suggesting a new product or service. expressing your appreciation for the customer's business or anticipating future

c.

referring to the desire to be of service and to satisfy customers.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

42. What is the best advice for writing goodwill messages? a. b. message.

Focus the message solely on the sender. Make a good impression by giving a ready-made card instead of writing your own

c.

Send a goodwill message promptly.

d.

Send a goodwill message to show appreciation for only a gift or monetary award.

43. Goodwill messages should be short, selfless, specific, spontaneous, and a.

sassy.

b.

sincere.

c.

spiritual.


d.

suave.

44. Businesses often write appreciation messages to which of these receivers? a.

A competing business that "steals" a large customer order

b.

Customers who write letters of inquiry

c.

Employees who have suffered a recent loss such as the death of a family pet

d.

Customers who complain

45. Which of the following is the best opening for a note expressing thanks for a gift? a. Thank you, Elena, for the e-reader commemorating my twenty years with Brown Sales; it will make a perfect travel companion. b.

Thanks for the gift!

c.

I cannot believe I have been with the company for twenty years.

d.

A lot has changed over the past twenty years.

46. Isabel is responding to a congratulatory note she received from a colleague. Which of the following is the best sentence to include in her response? a.

Thanks, but I really did not deserve this promotion.

b.

So many people were so much more deserving of this promotion than I was.

c.

Your words about my promotion are much too kind!

d.

Thanks for your kind words regarding my promotion.

47. Which statement about a sympathy message is most accurate? a. message. b.

Sympathy messages are probably more difficult to write than any other kind of Sympathy messages should reference the death or misfortune sensitively.


c.

Sympathy messages should praise the deceased in a personal way.

d.

All statements are accurate.

48. Which of the following would be least effective in a sympathy note? a.

We are deeply saddened, Corbin, to learn of the death of your wife.

b.

Bethany's volunteer work in the job center endeared her to many.

c. If we may help you during this difficult time or lighten your load in any way, you need only call. d. I am sorry to hear your sad news; but if I may be of any help, please do not hesitate to contact me.

49. When writing a message to express condolences, you should mention the loss tactfully, recognize the good qualities of the deceased, assure the receiver of your concern, offer assistance, and a.

conclude on a reassuring note.

b.

tell the receiver to call you.

c.

focus on the future.

d.

request information on funeral arrangements.

50. Which of these statements regarding the use of e-mail for goodwill messages is most accurate? a. Because a handwritten note is most impressive, any goodwill message sent by email must always be followed by a more formal handwritten goodwill message. b. If you frequently communicate via e-mail with the intended receiver and are certain this e-mail will be received, you may send a goodwill message via e-mail. c.

E-mail should never be used for sending any type of goodwill message.


d. E-mail can be used for all types of goodwill messages except death condolences, for which a ready-made card is required.

51. Most of the workplace messages that you write will likely deal with routine matters that require straightforward answers using the indirect method. a.

True

b.

False

52. Letters are the preferred channel of communication for delivering messages inside an organization. a.

True

b.

False

53. The only factor to consider when deciding if a business letter is the appropriate communication channel is if you are writing to a secondary audience. a.

True

b.

False

54. Business letters are more confidential than electronic media such as e-mail. a.

True

b.

False

55. Business letters make the best impression if you use a good format such as the popular block style. a.

True

b.

False


56. In block letter style, headings are flush left, but paragraphs and some other elements are indented. a.

True

b.

False

57. When formatting business letters, you should use ragged-right margins. a.

True

b.

False

58. When writing a request message, use the indirect strategy by placing your request in the body of the message because stating the request in the opening is bad manners. a.

True

b.

False

59. Place any details explaining your request for information in the body of your request message. a.

True

b.

False

60. You will sound more professional and sincere if you include a sentence such as Thank you for your cooperation in the closing paragraph of an information-request message. a.

True

b.

False

61. I have before me your e-mail inquiry dated October 9 is an effective opening for a reply message. a.

True


b.

False

62. If you must provide large amounts of data or answer many questions in your response message, make your message more readable with graphic devices such as lists, tables, headings, boldface, or italics. a.

True

b.

False

63. Trina must respond to a customer inquiry. Her response should not only answer the customer's questions but also promote her business and its products and services. a.

True

b.

False

64. Do not hesitate to contact me is an effective example of closing pleasantly in a response message. a.

True

b.

False

65. When you respond to customers online, you should do so in less than 24 hours. a.

True

b.

False

66. Like requests and responses, instruction messages follow a straightforward, direct approach. a.

True

b.

False


67. Instructions should be divided into a series of steps, and then each step should be written in the imperative mood, which means it is written as a command. a.

True

b.

False

68. You should open the valve slowly in order to gradually vent excess pressure is an example of an effectively worded imperative mood step in a set of instructions. a.

True

b.

False

69. When you expect the receiver of your claim message to agree with your claim, you should use the direct strategy. a.

True

b.

False

70. Claims made by telephone or e-mail are just as effective as claims made in writing. a.

True

b.

False

71. When a customer has a legitimate claim or complaint, he or she can expect a positive response from a company. a.

True

b.

False

72. When sending a claim letter by mail, include all original documents such as invoices, sales slips, catalog descriptions, and repair records.


a.

True

b.

False

73. To get the best results, write your claim promptly because delaying a claim makes it seem less important. a.

True

b.

False

74. Social media experts advise that consumers exhaust all other options for complaints with a company before venting online. a.

True

b.

False

75. Individuals can be sued for negative comments made online. a.

True

b.

False

76. When a company receives a claim and decides to respond favorably, the response message is called an acceptance. a.

True

b.

False

77. Businesses grant legitimate adjustments for two reasons: to protect themselves against future damages and to satisfy their customers and retain their business. a.

True

b.

False


78. Use a direct organizational pattern in an adjustment message granting a claim. a.

True

b.

False

79. One goal of an adjustment message is to promote future business. a.

True

b.

False

80. If you are responding favorably to your customer's claim, the best opening is an apology. a.

True

b.

False

81. I'm sorry for any inconvenience we may have caused is an effective apology statement to include in an adjustment message. a.

True

b.

False

82. Avoid emphasizing negative words such as error, trouble, and inconvenience in the body of an adjustment message. a.

True

b.

False

83. In the closing paragraph of an adjustment message, it is inappropriate to mention another one of your company's products or services. a.

True


b.

False

84. Many business communicators are intimidated when they must write a message expressing thanks, recognition, or sympathy. a.

True

b.

False

85. A personally written message will have more impact on your reader than a ready-made card. a.

True

b.

False

86. In writing goodwill messages, you need not worry about promptness as you do in writing claims and other business messages. a.

True

b.

False

87. When writing goodwill messages, you should always use the "you" perspective. a.

True

b.

False

88. Goodwill messages should be personalized and include specific incidents or characteristics of the receiver. a.

True

b.

False


89. Sympathy notes are probably more difficult to write than any other type of message. a.

True

b.

False

90. You should never send a goodwill message via e-mail. a.

True

b.

False

91. Most workplace communications will involve routine messages that are positive or neutral. Therefore, they should be organized using the ____________________ strategy.

92. Business ____________________ are necessary when a permanent record is required; confidentiality is paramount; formality and sensitivity are essential; or a persuasive, wellconsidered presentation is important.

93. The first sentence of a direct request is usually a question or a polite ____________________ such as Please answer the following questions about your accommodations for a seminar.

94. Instructions should be written in ____________________ using the imperative (command) mood.

95. When a message is written to identify or to correct a wrong, the message is called a(n) ____________________.

96. In the ____________________ of a claim message, you should explain the problem and justify your request.


97. When a company receives a claim and decides to respond favorably, the message is called a(n) ____________________.

98. In an adjustment message, the use of a(n) ____________________ line to identify the previous correspondence is optional.

99. Messages that offer thanks, recognition, or sympathy are called ____________________ messages.

100. In expressing thanks or responding to goodwill messages, ____________________ notes are most impressive. ANSWER:

personal

Chapter 07 Negative Messages 1. Every business person will need to write a negative business message that may disappoint, irritate, or anger a receiver; these messages must be written a.

carefully.

b.

by top-level management only.

c.

using only the direct organizational strategy.

d.

deceitfully.


2. The bad feelings associated with disappointing news can be reduced if the receiver feels that the news was revealed sensitively, believes that the matter was treated seriously and fairly, and a.

knows the reasons for the rejection clearly.

b.

learns of the bad news directly.

c.

understands the legal implications of the bad news.

d.

receives the bad news via certified mail.

3. Business communicators have many goals in conveying negative news. Which of the following is not a goal in communicating negative news? a.

Explaining clearly and completely

b.

Maintaining friendly relations

c.

Being fair

d.

Demonstrating the company's superiority in the global marketplace

4. One of your goals in sending messages is to project a professional and positive image. One technique to project the proper image is by a.

responding briefly without providing clear details.

b.

employing an irate tone.

c.

using forceful or aggressive language.

d.

controlling your emotions.

5. To convey empathy and sensitivity when delivering bad news, you should a.

show that you are human by using strong, forceful language.

b.

accept blame and apologize when appropriate.

c.

avoid explaining the reasons for the bad news.


d.

always cite company policy.

6. Receivers are far more likely to accept negative news when you show that the decision was a.

fair.

b.

impartial.

c.

rational.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

7. When writers must convey bad news, they must carefully consider all of the following except the a.

purpose.

b.

context.

c.

audience.

d.

total number of words they use.

8. Taylor must send a bad-news message to a client and indicate to her that he will be unable to meet a delivery deadline. What should Taylor do first? a.

Select a soothing color of stationery for the message.

b.

Gather information about his reasons for not meeting the deadline.

c.

Write the opening of his message.

d.

Analyze the bad news to see how it will affect his reader.

9. You will use the direct strategy for your message when the bad news is not damaging, when the receiver might overlook the bad news, when directness is preferred, and when a.

the bad news threatens the customer relationship.


b.

the bad news is unexpected.

c.

firmness is necessary.

d.

the bad news will provoke a hostile reaction.

10. Which of the following bad-news messages should be organized using the direct strategy? a.

An announcement of changes in business services

b.

A layoff notice for a long-time employee

c.

A denial of benefits on an insurance claim to an angry customer

d.

A notice of an unexpected plant closure to the city council and mayor

11. Using the indirect strategy to prepare the reader in a bad-news message a.

shows insensitivity to your reader.

b.

allows you to confuse or distract the reader.

c. bad news. d.

helps you keep the reader's attention until you can explain the reasons for the demonstrates your ability to vary your strategies.

12. The indirect strategy works best when the bad news is personally upsetting, when the news will prompt a hostile reaction, and when a.

the message arrives unexpectedly.

b.

firmness is necessary.

c.

the receiver may overlook the bad news.

d.

the bad news is not damaging.

13. Which of these patterns is typical for bad-news messages presented in the indirect strategy? a.

Buffer, reasons, bad news, and closing


b.

Buffer, bad news, and closing

c.

Explanation, bad news, buffer, and closing

d.

Bad news, explanation, and closing

14. Corbin must inform employees that overtime pay will be reduced from the current 2.0 factor to a 1.5 factor. Because he anticipates a hostile reaction, which of the following sequences should Corbin use for the parts of his message? a.

Bad news, explanation, reasons, and closing

b.

Bad news, reasons, buffer, and closing

c.

Buffer, reasons, bad news, and closing

d.

Buffer, explanation, reasons, and closing

15. Although you may worry about using the indirect strategy to communicate bad news, one benefit it has is a.

demonstrating your writing abilities.

b.

ensuring that your reasoning will be read while the receiver is still receptive.

c.

disguising the bad news.

d.

placing the bad news before the explanation.

16. The primary difference between ethical and unethical communicators is that unethical communicators a.

intend to deceive.

b.

use only the indirect strategy regardless of the audience, purpose, or topic.

c.

use only the direct strategy regardless of the audience, purpose, or topic.

d.

omit the buffer from their bad-news messages.

17. Which of the following statements about the ethics of delivering bad news is most accurate?


a.

Delaying the bad news in a message is manipulative.

b.

The indirect strategy is unethical only if the writer intends to deceive the reader.

c.

Using the indirect strategy is a way to hide the bad news from the reader.

d.

Delivering bad news is a fact of life; consequently, you need not worry about

ethics.

18. The buffer in a bad-news message is a a.

hint that good news will follow.

b. statement completely unrelated to the bad news so that receivers will not know that bad news is coming. c. reading. d.

statement that reduces shock or pain and encourages the receiver to continue denial of the requested action.

19. Which of the following would be an effective way to begin a bad-news message using the indirect strategy? a.

Complimenting the reader

b.

Providing a statement of mutual agreement

c.

Revealing the best news

d. All answer choices would be effective techniques to open a bad-news message using the indirect strategy.

20. Porter Grace, RN, is declining an invitation to speak about the health benefits of juice bars at the fall conference of the Health and Fitness Trainers Association (HAFTA). Which of the following is the most effective buffer? a.

I must decline HAFTA's invitation to speak at its fall conference.


b. HAFTA members must be looking forward to the annual fall conference in Phoenix this year. c. Because you requested only the benefits of juice bars and because I am only a registered nurse, I am not the speaker you need; perhaps you should contact a juice-bar salesperson. d.

I cannot speak at your annual conference.

21. Which of the following is not a helpful tip for apologizing in a negative-news message? a.

Be sincere and explain what you will do to prevent recurrence.

b.

Accept responsibility.

c.

Focus on your regret.

d.

Use good judgment, and do not admit blame without consulting your supervisor.

22. Maya has decided to apologize briefly in the buffer of her bad-news message to a client. Which of the following is the best apology? a.

We know that you rely on your espresso machine to function properly.

b.

We apologize for any inconvenience this may have caused.

c. We sincerely apologize for the problems you experienced with your espresso machine. To prevent recurrence of this problem, we will recalibrate the heating element at no charge to you. d.

It is unfortunate that you are unhappy with your espresso machine.

23. The ability to understand and enter into the feelings of another is called a.

audience demographics.

b.

sympathy.

c.

empathy.


d.

buffering.

24. Which of these messages most effectively conveys empathy in a bad-news message? a. You have every right to be disappointed. I am truly sorry that our product failed to perform as expected. b. I am deeply saddened that your service failure disrupted our sale, and we will do everything in our power to improve our future performance. c. We did not intentionally delay the shipment, and we will not accept the disappointment and frustration you have expressed. d.

It is with great regret that we must take this step, but you have left us no choice.

25. Which of the following is the most important part of a negative message? a.

A positive, forward-looking closing

b.

A neutral buffer

c.

An explanation of the reasons for the bad news

d.

The bad news itself

26. When presenting the reasons for bad news, you should a.

use positive wording.

b. explain the reasons clearly and specifically without revealing confidential information or creating potential legal liability. c.

cite benefits to the reader or others.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

27. You must decline an employee's request to telecommute three days per week. Which of the following statements best explains why this bad news is necessary? a.

Our current company policy does not allow telecommuting.


b. Unfortunately, we regret that we are unable to afford the expenses associated with telecommuting. c.

Your daily presence in the office is important to ensure regular customer contact.

d. Your work standards cannot be relied on unless we are able to observe you at your workstation.

28. Which statement best demonstrates the use of positive wording? a. Your request for an extended warranty has been rejected because we cannot find replacement parts for your specific product. b.

Unfortunately, we are unable to extend the warranty.

c. Although the warranty will not be extended, we are happy to replace your item with a similar product at no charge. d. denied.

We regret to inform you that your request for an extended warranty has been

29. All of the following are effective techniques for softening bad news except a.

suggesting a compromise or an alternative.

b.

positioning the bad news at the beginning or end of a paragraph.

c.

placing the bad news in a subordinate clause.

d.

using passive-voice verbs.

30. You must announce to customers that your restaurant will no longer be open on Sundays. Which of the following uses passive-voice verbs to deliver the bad news? a.

We closed our restaurant on Sundays beginning last month.

b. Because few customers dine with us on Sundays, we decided to close our restaurant on this weekday. c.

Beginning last month, our restaurant was closed on Sundays.


d.

Management decided that it must close our restaurant on Sundays.

31. Allison is declining a request for a monetary contribution from a charitable organization to which her employer, BMI Industries, usually donates. Which of the following most effectively implies the refusal? a. BMI Industries regrets that it cannot contribute this year, but the company hopes to be able to next year. b. Although our profits are being reinvested in BMI Industries this year, we hope to be able to contribute next year. c.

Although we cannot contribute this year, we may be able to next year.

d. Unfortunately, we are prevented from contributing this year, but we may be able to in the future.

32. The closing of a bad-news message may include all of the following except a.

anticipate future relations or business.

b.

reference resale or promotional information.

c.

include coupons, samples, or gifts.

d.

a restatement of the bad news.

33. Matt must send a refusal letter to Ryan, who recently interviewed for a job. Which of the following will be the best closing? a.

If you have any questions, Ryan, please do not hesitate to call me.

b. If you had the required five years' experience in social work, we could have included you in the final slate of candidates. c.

Again, Ryan, we truly regret being unable to offer you this position.

d.

We wish you all the best in your job search.


34. When you must refuse typical requests, you will first think about how the receiver will react to your refusal and decide a.

whom or what to blame.

b.

where and how to apologize.

c.

how to invite further correspondence.

d.

whether to use the direct or the indirect strategy.

35. Which of the following sentences presents the reason for denying a customer's request for credit most effectively? a.

Your request for credit has been denied.

b. Because you have not been employed for the past 15 months and have credit debts of over $4,000, we will not be able to grant you credit at this time. c. Although your credit rating does not meet our minimum standards, we would be happy to reconsider your application if you add a cosigner. d.

Your failure to meet our standards will not allow us to issue you a credit account.

36. You can soften the blow of the bad news in refusing a typical request or claim by a.

emphasizing the bad news.

b.

using the active voice.

c.

implying the refusal.

d.

accentuating the negative.

37. Which of the following best presents the bad news in a message refusing a customer's claim? a.

We are sorry that we cannot give you a full refund for your DVD player.

b. Because you damaged the DVD player by trying to repair it yourself, we are unable to give you a full refund.


c. The damage to your DVD player is not covered by the warranty, as explained in the enclosed copy of the warranty that came with your DVD player. d. Although a full refund cannot be issued, we would be happy to repair your DVD player for a nominal fee.

38. All businesses deal with unhappy customers at some point, and they typically follow this pattern in these situations: call the customer, describe the problem and apologize, offer an explanation and resolution, and a.

follow up with a message that documents the phone call and promotes goodwill.

b.

suggest a face-to-face meeting to resolve any remaining issues.

c.

come to an agreement on a refund or compensation.

d.

provide resale information or promote products and services.

39. Personally delivering bad news is sometimes recommended, but written messages are important to establish a record of the incident, to formally confirm follow-up procedures, and a.

to promote good relations.

b.

to denote your leadership rank.

c.

to persuade the receiver to follow your recommendations.

d.

to allow you to identify your organization and position.

40. Kenesha must respond to a negative comment written by a customer on Twitter. What advice should she follow? a.

Investigate the situation thoroughly before responding.

b. Admit that her company errored if the complaint is legitimate and try to remedy the problem. c.

Suggest a refund or a discount on future services.

d.

Kenesha should follow all these tips.


41. Constructing messages saying no to emotionally involved receivers is a challenging communication task. Which of the following is the best advice for this task? a. b. responsible.

Use the refusal-before-reason pattern to present the information artfully. Place blame where blame is due, including on the customer if he or she is

c.

Avoid offering resale information because it may weaken customer confidence.

d.

Use neutral, objective language to explain the reason the claim is refused.

42. A bad-news message, whether delivered in person or in writing, is usually better received when you a.

give the reasons before the bad news.

b.

immediately share the bad news.

c.

provide the reasons and explanations but conceal the bad news.

d.

combine the buffer and bad news.

43. In deciding to share negative information about another employee to your supervisor, what question should you consider first? a.

Will I profit personally (promotion, bonus pay, or honors)?

b.

Was the act criminal or hostile behavior or just a one-time mistake?

c.

How should I time the information delivery (before or after a meeting)?

d.

How can I avoid being identified as the tattle tale by other employees?

44. When you must deliver bad news to one person or a small group, you should usually a.

send an anonymous letter.

b.

address the issue in a department meeting.


c.

deliver the message in person.

d.

wait at least one week so that you can formulate your thoughts.

45. All of the following are helpful tips to deliver a bad-news message personally in the workplace except a.

consider taking a partner if you fear a "shoot the messenger" reaction.

b.

focus on the future and avoid discussing the past or the present.

c.

think about timing and do not deliver bad news on a Friday afternoon.

d.

prepare and rehearse; outline what you plan to say.

46. Human Resource Specialist Julie Woodard must inform employees of a major reduction in health care benefits. When delivering this announcement, she should apply all the following techniques except a.

let the employees find out through the office grapevine.

b.

inform the employees promptly.

c.

deliver the news personally, if possible.

d.

be honest.

47. The buffer in a bad-news message to employees should

news.

a.

explain the organization's side of the story.

b.

mention reader benefits related to the reasons for the denial.

c.

provide information about an alternative if one exists.

d.

be a neutral or positive statement that transitions to the reasons for the bad


48. Which of the following sentences to employees best explains the reasons for a reduction in a company workforce? a. Although we would like to retain our current workforce, we have no choice but to reduce the number of employees. b.

We did everything possible to prevent this from happening.

c.

The decision cannot be changed.

d. Because of a decrease in sales, the number of employees will need to be reduced, which we know will affect all of you. 49. What is the best advice for presenting the bad-news portion of your negative message to employees? a.

Strive to sugarcoat the message to ease the employees' pain.

b.

Place the bad news in the first sentence of a paragraph.

c.

Position the bad news so that it does not stand out.

d.

Use subjective language.

50. Although businesses prefer to deliver bad news to employees personally, when bad news must be given to large groups of employees, businesses are most likely to use which of the following? a.

Newspaper advertisements

b.

Hard-copy memos

c.

Tweets

d.

Wikis

51. Your employer may ask you to respond to customer complaints appearing on Twitter, Facebook, or complaint websites. a.

True

b.

False


52. Only business executives and managers must deliver bad news. a.

True

b.

False

53. The bad feelings associated with disappointing news can generally be reduced if the receiver knows the reasons for the rejection, feels that the news was revealed sensitively, and believes that the matter was treated seriously and fairly. a.

True

b.

False

54. When delivering bad news, you should explain the bad news clearly to make your readers understand and, in the best case, accept the bad news. a.

True

b.

False

55. When irate customers sound threatening and overstate their claims, as a business representative, you should respond by indicating that the customer and his or her claim are irrational. a.

True

b.

False

56. In order to convey empathy and sensitivity for your receiver, you should always accept blame and apologize for the bad news. a.

True

b.

False


57. When you show that the decision for negative news was made fairly, impartially, and rationally, receivers are far more likely to accept the negative news. a.

True

b.

False

58. All bad-news messages should be presented using the indirect strategy. a.

True

b.

False

59. The direct strategy saves time and is preferred by some who consider it to be more professional and even more ethical than the indirect strategy. a.

True

b.

False

60. If your receiver might overlook the bad news, it is appropriate to use the direct strategy. a.

True

b.

False

61. If your message may create a hostile reaction, you should use the indirect strategy. a.

True

b.

False

62. If you are worried that the indirect strategy seems manipulative, you should use the direct strategy to break the bad news bluntly even though the direct strategy may cause hard feelings and pain. a.

True

b.

False


63. The key to ethical communication lies in the motives of the sender. a.

True

b.

False

64. In using the indirect strategy to communicate bad news, you should avoid mentioning the bad news. a.

True

b.

False

65. To write an effective, calming bad-news message to an unhappy customer, you may need to include a misleading statement or slightly deceptive claim. a.

True

b.

False

66. A buffer is a device to reduce shock or pain. a.

True

b.

False

67. All buffers should begin by complimenting the receiver. a.

True

b.

False

68. The most important part of a bad-news message is the section that explains why a negative decision is necessary. a.

True

b.

False


69. Using the following statement in an explanation of the reasons for the bad news could help the receiver to accept the message: Although we would like to consider installing the heating system you have offered, we are seeking a more energy-efficient, environmentally friendly unit. a.

True

b.

False

70. Company policy prevents us from exchanging your defective wireless router more than 30 days after you purchased it is an example of an effective explanation. a.

True

b.

False

71. To take the spotlight off the bad news, place it at the end of a paragraph. a.

True

b.

False

72. When you must refuse a request, you may sometimes offer an alternative, substitute, or compromise. a.

True

b.

False

73. You should never include resale or sales promotion material in a negative-news message. a.

True

b.

False

74. If you have any further questions, please do not hesitate to call me is a professional way to close a refusal message.


a.

True

b.

False

75. If you are uncertain how the receiver will respond, use the indirect strategy to refuse requests and claims. a.

True

b.

False

76. Every business will have unhappy customers at some point. If possible, the business should respond immediately and personally to these customers' problems. a.

True

b.

False

77. Smart business representatives always avoid calling an unhappy customer to resolve problems. a.

True

b.

False

78. Written messages to customers are important because such messages establish a record of the problem. a.

True

b.

False

79. Although businesses may find complaints about their products and services on sites such as Twitter and Facebook, wise businesses should never respond to such complaints in the cyber world.


a.

True

b.

False

80. The reasons-before-refusal plan works well when denying claims. a.

True

b.

False

81. In denial messages you must establish the proper tone and use you statements such as You would have known that cash refunds are not available if you had read the receipt. a.

True

b.

False

82. Messages denying customer claims should clearly blame the customer to avoid company liability. a.

True

b.

False

83. Whether to use a direct or an indirect strategy in delivering bad news to employees depends primarily on the anticipated reaction of the receiver. a.

True

b.

False

84. Although a reasons-first approach and tactful tone preserve friendly relations with customers, these techniques are not useful for bad-news messages inside an organization. a.

True

b.

False


85. When delivering bad news, you should first determine if the negative information is newsworthy. a.

True

b.

False

86. When workplace bad news involves one person or a small group nearby, you should generally deliver that news in person. a.

True

b.

False

87. If you are required to deliver bad news to your employees in person, the best technique is to gather your information and deliver it off the cuff to appear sincere. a.

True

b.

False

88. Smart managers deliver bad news to employees promptly and honestly because receiving bad news via the grapevine can seriously damage workplace morale. a.

True

b.

False

89. Your buffer in a bad-news message to employees could be a compliment, appreciation, or solid facts. a.

True

b.

False


90. The closing in a bad-news communication to employees must never look forward or discuss what will happen next because doing so can create a legal obligation. a.

True

b.

False

91. When the bad news is insignificant and does not personally affect the receiver, you should use the ____________________ strategy to organize your negative news.

92. To soften bad news, many business writers choose to use the ____________________ organizational strategy.

93. A communicator who intends to deceive when writing a bad-news message is displaying ____________________ behavior.

94. A bad-news message using the indirect strategy begins with a ____________________, which is a neutral but meaningful statement that encourages the reader to continue reading.

95. A(n) __________________ is an admission of blameworthiness and regret for an undesirable event.

96. ____________________ is the ability to understand and enter into the feelings of another.

97. The most important part of any bad-news message is the ____________________ that explain or justify the bad news.

98. Using a(n) ____________________-voice verb enables you to depersonalize an action and cushion the bad news.


99. Business communicators should consider including a forward look, good wishes, a mention of freebies, or references to resale information or promotion in the ____________________ of a bad-news message.

100. ____________________ messages are important to communicate when personal contact is impossible, to establish a record of the incident, to formally confirm follow-up procedures, and to promote good relations.

Chapter 08 Persuasive Messages 1. Persuasion in today's businesses focuses on a.

distorting the facts to bolster sales.

b.

generating and sending messages using only electronic media.

c.

influencing others.

d.

writing direct messages.

2. Persuasion is necessary when a.

you anticipate that your audience will agree with your position.

b.

your audience is skeptical about your idea.

c.

audience attitudes match the objectives of your plan.

d.

your message is especially attractive to the audience.


3. Which statement about persuasion in today's society is most accurate? a.

The number of persuasive messages Americans receive per day has declined.

b. Individuals need not be concerned about persuasive practices and their influence on human behavior. c. Persuasive messages sent via social media have not impacted individuals or American culture. d.

Today's persuasion is different from persuasion used in previous times.

4. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a.

Only large corporations use persuasion when selling their products.

b.

Today's persuasion is obvious and blatant.

c.

Persuasive messages are sent faster and reach greater audiences today.

d. Today's successful marketers have learned to standardize their persuasive efforts to reach their audiences.

5. As a persuasive writer, you should practice all of the following except a.

showing that you are truthful, experienced, and knowledgeable.

b.

offering a bribe or kickback to ensure that you win over your audience.

c. anticipating opposition from conflicting beliefs, values, and attitudes and being prepared to counter with well-reasoned arguments and facts. d. incorporating statistics, reasons, and analogies and then converting these facts into specific audience benefits. 6. Most persuasive requests should be organized a.

directly.

b.

chronologically.

c.

quickly.


d.

indirectly.

7. Which of the following messages would most likely require the indirect strategy to persuade an audience? a.

Informing employees of an upcoming all-staff meeting

b.

Announcing the hiring of a new sales director

c.

Asking an employer for agreed-upon benefits such as vacation time

d.

Requesting favors and action from coworkers

8. When using the indirect strategy in a persuasive message, you should place the reasons and explanations a.

in the closing of the message.

b.

after the main idea.

c.

before the main idea.

d.

in an attachment to the message.

9. Sammie is planning a persuasive request. What advice should she follow for the opening of her request? a.

Provide her telephone number.

b.

Capture the reader's attention and interest.

c. request. d.

Cite facts, statistics, expert opinions, examples, and specific details to support her Identify herself and her company.

10. Select the most effective opening for a persuasive request that invites a state representative to speak at your organization's Flag Day celebration. a. ceremony?

If you have June 14 open, would you be interested in speaking at our Flag Day


b.

Please consider this letter an invitation to address our organization on June 14.

c. Your patriotism and leadership in the House of Representatives have improved the quality of life across our state. d. The Patriotic Council promotes respect for the flag and our country, just as you do, which is why we are asking you to be our guest speaker for our Flag Day ceremony on June 14.

11. In the body of a persuasive request, you can reduce resistance by a.

focusing exclusively on benefits to the writer of the request.

b.

shifting reader attention through praise and compliments.

c.

avoiding any potential reasons for resistance.

d.

anticipating objections and offering counterarguments.

12. On behalf of your civic organization, you are inviting a motivational speaker to your semiannual meeting. In your request you guarantee the speaker an enthusiastic audience and a positive impact on the community, both of which emphasize a.

praise for the reader.

b.

indirect benefits to the reader.

c.

the indirect strategy.

d.

the direct strategy.

13. The closing of a persuasive request should a.

establish your credibility and demonstrate your competence.

b.

meet governmental regulations.

c.

describe the problem.

d.

motivate action.


14. Choose the best closing for a message requesting the receiver's support for a proposed change in a benefits plan. a.

Please e-mail me at your earliest convenience with your decision.

b. Contacting me by December 1 about your support of this new benefits plan will allow me to present this proposal at the next strategic planning session. c. If you have any further questions about this new benefits plan, please do not hesitate to contact me. d.

We really need to implement this new benefits plan soon.

15. Persuasive claim messages are also called a.

inquiries.

b.

adjustment messages.

c.

sales messages

d.

complaint messages.

16. Persuasive claim or complaint messages are often written when a.

products are damaged.

b.

wrong shipments are delivered.

c.

mistakes in billing occur.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

17. Effective persuasive claim messages a.

vent the writer's anger and frustration.


b.

present a logical case with clear facts.

c.

help the reader by showing who is to blame for the problem.

d.

display strong emotion.

18. When developing a claim message, you should a.

close the message by clearly specifying what you want done.

b.

describe the problem without providing a long, detailed account of the issue.

c.

include copies of relevant materials.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

19. When writing persuasive claim or complaint messages, you should a. problem. b.

suggest that the receiver intentionally deceived you or intentionally created the use a moderate tone.

c. inform the reader that you will contact the Better Business Bureau if your claim is not granted. d.

use a strong tone with accusatory language to demonstrate your dissatisfaction.

20. Mikhail's claim has been denied once. Now, he is writing a second persuasive claim message to his digital media services company asking for a promised rebate package. Because he expects resistance, what should he do? a.

Appeal to the receiver's sense of responsibility and pride in the company's good

b.

Begin by presenting his resolution to the problem.

c.

Address the message to a department or "To Whom It May Concern."

name.


d. problem.

Show specifically how the receiver or the receiver's company caused the

21. Graciella is making a persuasive complaint at work. Which of these sentences will be most effective in achieving her goal? a. If you can't be bothered with maintaining our equipment in good working order, how can I be confident that you care about your employees? I can't be bothered filing repeated repair requests either. b. I have put up with a broken fax in Workroom 223 for three weeks, and I am just fed up with this waste of my time. Repair the fax or else! c. Did you realize that Bill has still not fixed the fax in Workroom 223 despite the work request I completed two weeks ago? Make Bill fix it soon. d. For the past two weeks, fax machine No. 223- 51 has been unavailable to complete essential business for 25 of our employees due to incomplete service. Please ensure our equipment is repaired by Friday.

22. Which statement about today's organizations and their employees is most accurate? a. Organizations are establishing more levels of management to conduct operations and to oversee employees. b.

Executives today rely on persuasion to achieve buy-in from subordinates.

c.

There have been few changes in today's organizations for employees.

d. providers.

Today's information-age workers rely on managers to be their information

23. Which of the following situations would most likely require persuasion within an organization? a.

Outlining company policy on personal use of e-mail

b.

Explaining a new procedure that will go into effect next month

c.

Asking employees to accept a pay cut to avoid layoffs or plant closings


d.

Informing employees about the new process for reporting overtime hours

24. All of the following messages to subordinates would use the indirect strategy except a.

instructions to operate the new phone system installed in all offices.

b. suggestions to begin an exercise program in conjunction with the new health insurance plan. c.

requests to contribute to the organization's United Way campaign goal.

d.

discussion of their opportunities to participate in a company-sponsored charity

event.

25. Which of the following is most accurate about the use of persuasion in business? a.

Honesty is not just the best policy; it's the only policy.

b.

The goal is to manipulate employees into accepting a message.

c. effective. d.

Some puffery and skillful misrepresentation make persuasive messages more The key to persuasion is proving the weakness of the receiver's position.

26. As a manager, Corbin must inform his staff that all employees must now contribute more to their health insurance premiums. What advice should Corbin follow when delivering his message? a.

Avoid telling the employees the reason for the decision.

b.

Use a threatening tone so that employees know that this is a serious matter.

c. Be honest and provide the important reasons for the increase in individual contributions. d.

Tell the employees to "Suck it up" and deal with the increased individual costs.


27. You want to propose a workplace change to your employer. Which of these is the best advice for you? a. Because your supervisor should already be aware of the pros of changing the procedure, avoid providing any evidence. b. Stress your own needs and how you will benefit from the change because this is your proposal. c.

Avoid words like suggest and recommend because these words make you look

d.

Focus on how much money the proposed change will save the company.

weak.

28. Which statement about direct-mail messages is most accurate? a. Direct mail is an effective channel for personalized, tangible, three-dimensional messages that are less invasive than telephone solicitations. b. Today's companies no longer send direct-mail messages to market their products or services; they rely exclusively on electronic media instead. c.

Direct-mail marketing is less effective than online marketing.

d.

All answer choices are accurate statements about direct-mail messages.

29. Choose the best advice to craft an effective direct-mail sales letter. a.

Use slightly illegal sales tactics to get the desired sale.

b. Develop and present a strong rational selling point early in the body of the letter. Later, add emotional appeals, using each appeal only once. c.

Present information completely, using a personalized tone.

d.

Design your message for a general audience.

30. Learning to compose effective sales and marketing messages benefits you because a.

most employees are expected to write sales and marketing messages.


b.

techniques for sales writing can be applied in any persuasive communication.

c.

sales campaigns are typically conducted by entry-level employees.

d. companies in today's economy cannot afford to hire specialists to write sales and marketing messages.

31. Your primary goal in writing a sales or marketing message is to a.

demonstrate creativity and marketing skills.

b.

create a strong personal and professional image for yourself.

c.

get your audience to devote a few moments of attention to your message.

d.

become a perceptive consumer of ideas, products, and services.

32. Professional marketers and salespeople follow the AIDA strategy in their sales messages because it is effective. What does AIDA represent? a.

Attention, interest, desire, and action

b.

Attraction, innovation, determination, and activity

c.

Appeal, input, develop, and attune

d.

Access, incite, determine, and activate

33. When you use the AIDA persuasive approach, your first task is to gain the reader's attention (A). Which of the following represents your second step, or "I" tasks, of AIDA? a. appeals.

Describe the benefits a product or service offers and make rational or emotional

b.

Include details of your company's reliability and reputation.

c.

Grow more excited about your product and yourself as a salesperson.

d.

Identify a proverb or famous quotation.


34. The opener for a sales message should be a.

provocative, humorous or entertaining, and medium length (5-10 lines).

b.

stimulating, relevant, honest, and short (1-5 lines).

c.

appealing, informative, persuasive, conversational, and medium length (5-10

d.

entertaining or serious, focused, persuasive, and short (1-5 lines).

lines).

35. You must write a sales message to prospective customers. What should you do in the opening of your sales message? a. Offer something valuable, promise a benefit to the reader, or use some other technique to gain your reader's attention. b.

Convince your reader of the superiority of the product or service being sold.

c.

Motivate your reader to take action.

d.

Promise an incentive for responding by a specific date.

36. You can effectively build interest in a sales message by a.

including your credentials.

b.

motivating action in the closing.

c.

emphasizing central selling points identified in the prewriting analysis.

d.

suggesting the reader lacks good judgment if he or she doesn't buy today.

37. Rational appeals focus on making or saving money, increasing efficiency, and a.

soothing the egos of managers.

b.

making good use of resources.

c.

identifying status in the workplace or community.


d.

enjoying sensory input.

38. Emotional appeals a.

focus on making or saving money.

b.

explain how to increase efficiency or protect resources.

c.

solve workplace problems.

d.

focus on status, ego, and sensual feelings.

39. Use an emotional appeal when the a. success.

product is expensive; long-lasting; or important to health, security, and financial

b.

product is inexpensive, short-lived, or nonessential.

c.

reader is comparing similar products from other companies.

d.

reader has a college education.

40. Which of the following is the most effective emotional appeal? a. For a limited time you will receive our employee discount on any new General Motors vehicle. b. Surround yourself in the uncompromising safety and luxury of a Lincoln because you've earned it. c. tomorrow.

Purchase a Jeep today, and you will receive a $1,500 college savings bond for

d. Save now and save later. With its low sticker price and great gas mileage, this Focus hybrid is a best buy.

41. Techniques to elicit audience desire and overcome reader resistance in a marketing message include all of the following except a.

testimonials.


b.

money-back guarantees.

c.

application forms.

d.

free samples or trials.

42. Which of the following illustrates a testimonial? a.

After completing your training, I received job offers from three employers in one

week! b. We are confident that your skills in applying for jobs and interviewing with employers will improve with this training. c. Scientifically proven self-actualization techniques will increase your selfconfidence and boost your interviewing skills. d. Employers respond positively to well-written application letters and rĂŠsumĂŠs, and they offer jobs to candidates who are confident and well prepared.

43. Which of the following most effectively reduces resistance and builds desire? a. If you are worried about booking a tour with us, please know that our European walking tours were rated the safest and best planned in the industry. b. experience.

Join one of our European walking tours this summer for an unbelievable cultural

c.

Going on a walking tour of Europe is fun.

d.

Our travel company knows Europe and is eager to show it to you.

44. Techniques to motivate action in the closing of a sales message include offering a gift, promising an incentive, guaranteeing satisfaction, and a.

setting an application opening date.

b.

limiting the offer.

c.

setting no boundaries or limits.


d.

quoting a well-known proverb.

45. Which of the following is the most effective closing for a sales message? a. Making this training choice for your employees today may be the smartest business decision you'll ever make. Consider the benefits, and I am sure that you will agree. b. Because we are confident that you will choose us for your training needs, we will visit you on Friday to finalize your contract. c. Complete the enclosed interest card and mail it to us at your earliest convenience. d. If your sales don't increase at least 10 percent after your salespeople complete our "Closing the Deal" training, you get a full refund. Use our toll-free number to call me by August 1 and begin training on September 1.

46. The primary channel that consumers use to interact with brands today is a.

e-mail.

b.

focus groups.

c.

mall and shopping center surveys and sample booths.

d.

direct mail.

47. Purposes of e-mail marketing include attracting new customers, keeping existing customers, encouraging future sales, cross-selling, and a.

seeking new employees.

b.

lobbying local legislators.

c.

cutting costs.

d.

importing products from international businesses.


48. The main information in an e-mail sales message should be placed above the fold, which means that a.

all main points follow standard business etiquette and online netiquette.

b.

you are certain that your e-mail adheres to all legal standards.

c.

your primary points appear early in the message.

d.

your e-mail message does not exceed one screen in length.

49. Which of the following is the best way to increase the effectiveness of an online sales message? a. Send online sales messages only to customers or prospects who have given you permission to send them e-mail marketing messages. b.

Use a subject line such as "Hey You" to get the reader's attention.

c.

Avoid the use of testimonials.

d.

Make the message formal, focused, and extensive.

50. Which of the following statements about short persuasive online messages is most accurate? a. More writers are using social network posts to promote their businesses, further their causes, and increase their online personas. b.

Social media are not primarily suited for overt selling.

c. Many individuals have been successful in using tweets consisting of 140 characters or fewer to pitch offers, prompt responses, and draw the attention of their audiences to interesting events and media links. d.

All answer choices are correct.

51. Persuasion used in today's business environment focuses on manipulating others. a.

True


b.

False

52. You will need to use persuasion if you anticipate resistance. a.

True

b.

False

53. The number of persuasive messages has increased drastically within the last decade. a.

True

b.

False

54. Only large companies actively try to persuade consumers. a.

True

b.

False

55. Persuasive techniques today are subtler and more misleading than of the past. a.

True

b.

False

56. An effective persuasive technique is to tie the facts to writer benefits. a.

True

b.

False

57. You do not need to establish your credibility when attempting to persuade others. a.

True


b.

False

58. When creating a persuasive message, you should expect and overcome resistance. a.

True

b.

False

59. Both direct claim messages and persuasive requests should begin with the main idea. a.

True

b.

False

60. Persuasive requests are generally more effective when they are organized directly. a.

True

b.

False

61. The opening of a persuasive request should gain your reader's attention and interest. a.

True

b.

False

62. To capture the reader's attention and interest in a persuasive request, you can make an unexpected statement, suggest reader benefits, offer praise or compliments, or ask a stimulating question. a.

True

b.

False

63. The body of a persuasive request should motivate action.


a.

True

b.

False

64. To reduce resistance in a persuasive request, you should avoid offering counterarguments so that you do not offend your reader. a.

True

b.

False

65. When requesting a favor or action, you should discuss only the direct benefits to the reader because indirect benefits are not persuasive. a.

True

b.

False

66. In the closing of a persuasive request, your goal is to prove the merit of your request. a.

True

b.

False

67. Another name for a complaint message is a claim message. a.

True

b.

False

68. Persuasive claim or complaint messages may involve damaged products, mistaken billing, inaccurate shipments, warranty problems, limited return policies, insurance snafus, or faulty merchandise. a.

True

b.

False


69. Your claim message will be most effective if you make a reasonable and valid request, present a logical case with clear facts, and display some anger and emotion. a.

True

b.

False

70. Claim messages should include a blow-by-blow chronology of the details of the problem to adequately inform the reader of the problem. a.

True

b.

False

71. Lynette received unsatisfactory service at a recent business dinner. In her persuasive claim message to the restaurant manager, she should enclose a copy of her restaurant receipt. a.

True

b.

False

72. An effective technique when writing a persuasive claim message is to suggest that the reader intentionally created the problem. a.

True

b.

False

73. Claim messages should appeal to the receiver's sense of responsibility and pride in the company's good name. a.

True

b.

False

74. Directives moving downward from superiors to subordinates usually follow the indirect strategy.


a.

True

b.

False

75. When a manager writes a persuasive memo to employees using the indirect strategy, his or her goals are to present a strong but honest argument and to avoid manipulation or trickery. a.

True

b.

False

76. As a manager, Mary must inform her production employees that they will need to work extra hours to meet a customer's order. Mary's message will be most effective if she uses warm words and a conversational tone. a.

True

b.

False

77. Michelle needs to sell her idea to remodel their business waiting room to her boss. Michelle is more likely to succeed if she can base her argument on saving or earning money. a.

True

b.

False

78. Messages to management are more persuasive when they include words such as "you must" or "we should." a.

True

b.

False

79. A successful persuasive message is typically longer than a direct message. a.

True


b.

False

80. Traditional direct-mail marketing is more effective than online marketing. a.

True

b.

False

81. Your primary goal in writing a sales message is to get someone to devote a few moments of attention to it. a.

True

b.

False

82. The most effective sales messages follow the AIDA strategy. a.

True

b.

False

83. The opening of a sales message is one of its most critical elements. a.

True

b.

False

84. You will receive a free one-year subscription to Netflix when you purchase any Sony flatpanel television is an example of a rational appeal. a.

True

b.

False

85. A sales message is wasted if your reader fails to act.


a.

True

b.

False

86. Because postscripts make letters appear poorly organized and unprofessional, you should avoid adding them to sales messages. a.

True

b.

False

87. One tip for successful online sales messages it to provide a means to opt out. a.

True

b.

False

88. Online sales messages are generally much longer than direct-mail messages. a.

True

b.

False

89. The most important points in an e-mail sales message should be placed at the end of the message where they will be remembered the most. a.

True

b.

False

90. Tweets and other online posts are now being used to persuade others. a.

True

b.

False


91. ____________________ is needed when we are making more than routine demands and facing skeptical audiences.

92. Persuasive requests are generally more effective when they are written using the ____________________ organizational strategy.

93. In the ____________________ of a persuasive request, you should build interest, explain the purpose of the request logically and concisely, prove its merit, and reduce resistance.

94. You should motivate action in the ____________________ of a persuasive request.

95. Persuasive ____________________ messages, also called complaint messages, are used to complain about damaged products, mistaken billing, inaccurate shipments, warranty problems, limited return policies, insurance snafus, faulty merchandise, and other problems.

96. ____________________ or directives moving downward from superiors to subordinates usually require little persuasion.

97. Messages such as information about procedures, equipment, or customer service should be organized using the ____________ strategy.

98. Professional marketers and salespeople follow the _______________ strategy (attention, interest, desire, and action) when persuading consumers.

99. A(n) ____________________ appeal focuses on making or saving money, increasing efficiency, or making good use of resources.


100. A(n) ________________ appeal focuses on status, ego, and sensual feelings.

Chapter 09 Informal Reports 1. Which of the following statements about reports in today's business environment is most accurate? a.

Business writers now deliver reports orally, electronically, or digitally.

b. Efficient reporting plays an important role in helping organizations sift through data and make decisions. c.

Business reports range widely in length, purpose, and delivery mode.

d. All answer choices reflect accurate statements about reports in today's business environment.

2. Reports that present data without analysis or recommendations are a.

informational reports.

b.

analytical reports.

c.

cost-benefit analysis reports.

d.

justification reports.

3. Which of the following is most likely to be written as an informational report? a. A recommendation from the Information Technology Department that your company install a wireless network


b.

A feasibility study addressing possible tuition reimbursement for employees

c. purchase

A comparison of five handheld communication devices that your company might

d.

A summary of information presented at a recent conference for technical writers

4. Reports that provide data or findings, analyses, and conclusions are a.

informational reports.

b.

analytical reports.

c.

summaries.

d.

progress reports.

5. Which of the following reports is an example of an analytical report? a.

A report summarizing the details of a recent seminar you attended

b.

A report recommending an antiterrorism security system for mass transit

c.

A report outlining the new company procedure for reporting workplace injuries

d.

A report showing state budget allocations for education

6. The direct strategy of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers a.

need to be educated.

b.

must be persuaded.

c.

are informed.

d.

may be disappointed or hostile.

7. When you organize an informational report directly, in what order should the ideas be presented?


a.

Introduction/background, facts/findings, and summary

b.

Introduction/background, summary, and facts/findings

c.

Summary, introduction/background, and facts/findings

d. flexibility.

The direct strategy presents ideas in any order for maximum effectiveness and

8. The indirect strategy of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers a.

are supportive of the topic.

b.

must be persuaded.

c.

are familiar with the topic.

d.

want to know the results immediately.

9. When you organize an analytical report indirectly, in what order should the ideas be presented? a. Introduction/problem, conclusions/recommendations, facts/findings, and discussion/analysis b.

Introduction/background, facts/findings, and summary

c. Introduction/problem, facts/findings, discussion/analysis, and conclusions/recommendations d.

The indirect strategy does not follow a set order of ideas.

10. An informal writing style includes a.

contractions (for example, wouldn't, don't, they're).

b.

second-person pronouns (for example, you and your).

c.

mainly passive-voice verbs.

d.

longer sentences.


11. Which of the following constructions uses the best writing style for an informal report? a. James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc., after extensive review of references and credentials of contractors, has elected to contract with Peck Builders for the new office complex. b. We're pleased to announce the selection of Peck Builders as general contractor for our new office complex. c. After conducting an exhaustive search of building design elements and costefficiency data, the company has verified the qualifications of Peck Builders. d. The findings demonstrate the imperative of selecting a fully qualified and bonded contractor for the new building project of James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc.; that contractor is Peck Builders.

12. Which of the following sentences demonstrates active-voice verbs? a.

Superior writing skills are required by many employers.

b.

Employee use of e-mail was monitored by management.

c.

Research indicates a correlation between strong writing skills and promotions.

d.

The proposals were carefully reviewed by the screening committee.

13. The format of a report depends primarily on a.

its topic, recommendations, and organizational pattern.

b.

the writer's command of the English language.

c.

its length, topic, audience, and purpose.

d.

the amount of time the writer devotes to the writing process.

14. You are writing a short informal report that you will send to one of your customers. Which format would be most appropriate?


a.

Letter format

b.

Memo or e-mail format

c.

Manuscript format

d.

Preprinted form

15. You are writing a short informal report that will stay inside your organization. Which format would be most appropriate? a.

Letter format

b.

Memo or e-mail format

c.

Manuscript format

d.

Preprinted form

16. You work for a development firm and must explain to a customer the results of a year-long study of potential sites for new stores. In what format should you develop this report? a.

Memo or e-mail format

b.

Preprinted form

c.

Letter format

d.

Manuscript format

17. You are an inventory specialist for a retail store. Your boss has asked you to compile a yearend report listing the merchandise sold each month through the company's website. In what format should you present this data? a.

Memo or e-mail format

b.

Preprinted form

c.

Letter format

d.

Manuscript format


18. Which statement about digital slide decks is most accurate? a. Many business writers deliver their informal reports as digital slideshows, which are also called slide decks. b.

Slide decks are more inviting to read than hard copies of informal reports.

c. Slide decks are often used by individuals in marketing, technology, media, entertainment, and consulting. d.

All answer choices are accurate statements about digital slide decks.

19. Headings that show the sections of a report are called a.

talking headings.

b.

signposts.

c.

functional headings.

d.

cross-sectional divisions.

20. Headings that provide specific information about the content of a report section are called a.

talking headings.

b.

signposts.

c.

functional headings.

d.

cross-sectional divisions.

21. Which of the following is a talking heading? a.

IT Outsourcing

b.

Savings

c.

Cost Savings


d.

Projected Cost Savings for IT Outsourcing

22. Katherine must use headings in a report. What should she do to make sure that her headings are effective? a.

Place first- and second-level headings in all capital letters.

b.

Use a period after each stand-alone bolded heading.

c.

End a page with a heading to entice her audience to read the report further.

d.

Include at least one heading per report page.

23. The purpose of most business reports is to a.

present data.

b.

answer questions.

c.

solve problems.

d.

All answer choices provide purposes for business reports.

24. When you receive an assignment to write a report, you should begin the report-writing process by a.

determining the appropriate format.

b.

analyzing or determining the purpose.

c.

beginning your research.

d.

looking for someone else to write the report.

25. To help you clarify a report problem, you should write a a.

thesis statement.

b.

transitional sentence.

c.

problem statement.


d.

topic sentence.

26. Which of the following is the best statement of purpose for a report? a.

A wellness program will improve the health of all employees.

b.

Most companies offer voluntary wellness programs.

c. individuals. d.

Wellness programs have proven to be effective in improving the health of Establish a wellness incentive program for all employees.

27. One of the most important steps in writing an informal report is that of a.

gathering information.

b.

using the direct organizational strategy.

c.

using the indirect organizational strategy.

d.

incorporating figurative language.

28. Primary data a.

result from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded.

b.

come from firsthand experience and observation.

c. reports.

are the only type of factual information that should be included in informal

d.

include printed materials found in libraries or through electronic resources.

29. Many business writers begin their report research by a.

conducting interviews.

b.

observing others.


c.

constructing questionnaires and inventories.

d.

visiting company records and files.

30. What type of research source provides the best firsthand information? a.

Web pages or articles

b.

Interviews

c.

Company records

d.

Databases

31. Reports that describe periodic, recurring activities or situational, nonrecurring events are a.

justification/recommendation reports.

b.

informational reports.

c.

analytical reports.

d.

yardstick reports.

32. Most informational reports are written a.

using the indirect organizational strategy.

b.

by only top business executives.

c.

using a formal writing style.

d.

for a neutral or receptive audience.

33. Kendra just attended a sales conference in Baltimore. She must now write a report summarizing her conference. What advice should she follow? a.

Mention every topic that was discussed at the conference.

b.

Begin her report by identifying the event.

c.

Use a chronological organizational pattern.


d. distracted.

Avoid the use of headings or bullets so that the reader does not become

34. A report that gives status updates on a current project is called a.

the minutes of a meeting.

b.

an analytical report.

c.

a progress report.

d.

a summary.

35. Which of the following situations might require a progress report? a. The work of a committee preparing for an open house when a new wing of a hospital is completed b.

The reporting of monthly sales figures for all divisions

c.

A study of whether a company should provide on-site childcare

d.

A one-page summary of a long article in The Wall Street Journal

36. Progress reports should include a.

any background information if it gives the reader a better perspective.

b.

the purpose and nature of the project in the opening of the report.

c. an explanation of the work currently in progress, including names, activities, methods used, and locations. d.

A progress report should include all these elements.

37. As chairperson of a customer service task force, you must update management on your team's progress. What kind of report will you write? a.

Justification/recommendation report


b.

Trip report

c.

Progress report

d.

Feasibility report

38. A record of the proceedings of a meeting is called a.

a progress report.

b.

an analytical report.

c.

a summary.

d.

the minutes.

39. Thomas is in charge of taking formal minutes during an Institute of Internal Auditors chapter meeting. Which of the following is the best advice for him to follow as he prepares these minutes? a. b. consuming. c.

Record only new business because old business will appear in previous minutes. Avoid using the exact wording of motions because that would be too time Record voting results and actions taken.

d. Omit his name and signature as the person recording the minutes because he is acting on behalf of the organization.

40. What kind of report condenses the primary ideas from a book, report, article, website, meeting, or convention? a.

Progress report

b.

Justification/recommendation report

c.

Summary

d.

Analytical report


41. A summary should condense a report or article by what percentage? a.

5 percent

b.

25 percent

c.

85 to 90 percent

d.

50 percent

42. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when writing a summary? a.

Include specific examples from the report, article, or book you are summarizing.

b.

Copy passages word for word to ensure that you cover the main ideas.

c.

Avoid headings or lists to prevent reader distraction.

d. State the main idea or purpose as well as the source of the document being summarized.

43. Your current assignment is to condense a 200-page government policy report on oil drilling in Alaska into a shorter report for Sierra Club members to read. What kind of informational report would you most likely write? a.

Trip report

b.

Summary

c.

Meeting minutes

d.

Progress report

44. How do informational reports and analytical reports differ? a. Informational reports emphasize facts; analytical reports emphasize reasoning and conclusions.


b. Informational reports are intended for internal audiences; analytical reports are intended for external audiences. c. Informational reports are written using a formal writing style; analytical reports are written using an informal writing style. d. Informational reports emphasize reasoning and conclusions; analytical reports emphasize facts.

45. The purpose of a justification/recommendation report is to a.

justify or recommend actions.

b.

summarize the progress of an ongoing project.

c.

examine the practicality and advisability of following a specific course of action.

d.

examine problems with two or more solutions.

46. In what order should you organize your ideas when you believe your audience will be agreeable to the suggestions in your justification/recommendation report? a. Announce the recommendation, explain the recommendation, identify the problem or need, and provide necessary action. b. Provide necessary action, identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation, and explain the recommendation. c. Identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation, explain the recommendation, and provide necessary action. d. Identify the problem or need, provide necessary action, announce the recommendation, and explain the recommendation.

47. Your department needs a new copier, and your job is to research the options. Based on your research, you have selected an all-in-one machine that you believe will be cost effective and will perform well. What kind of report would you write to present your findings? a.

Feasibility report


b.

Justification/recommendation report

c.

Yardstick report

d.

Progress report

48. Your company currently processes its payroll internally but is considering the use of an external accounting firm. You are in charge of determining whether your company should proceed with this plan. What kind of report would you most likely write? a.

Feasibility report

b.

Progress report

c.

Informational report

d.

Summary

49. Which of the following should be included in a feasibility report? a.

The background and problem necessitating the proposal

b.

Problems that may result from implementation

c.

Costs of implementing the proposal

d.

All answer choices should be included in a feasibility report.

50. Yardstick reports a.

are long formal reports used only in the manufacturing industry.

b.

do not include researched data.

c.

are rarely written or used in businesses today.

d.

examine problems with two or more solutions against set criteria.


51. Business reports are always presented in writing or orally, but they are not presented digitally. a.

True

b.

False

52. Based on their function, business reports typically fall into one of two categories: instructional or persuasive. a.

True

b.

False

53. An informational report presents data without analysis and recommendations. a.

True

b.

False

54. The direct organizational strategy presents the purpose for writing near the beginning of a report. a.

True

b.

False

55. Reports should be organized using the direct strategy when the readers are informed or supportive of the topic. a.

True

b.

False

56. You should use the indirect organizational strategy for all analytical reports. a.

True


b.

False

57. All reports should be written using a formal writing style. a.

True

b.

False

58. A formal writing style includes first-person pronouns, contractions, active-voice verbs, shorter sentences, and familiar words. a.

True

b.

False

59. The format for a report relies solely on the intended audience. a.

True

b.

False

60. The memo or e-mail format is appropriate for short informal reports that stay within organizations. a.

True

b.

False

61. The manuscript format is appropriate for longer, more formal reports. a.

True

b.

False

62. Preprinted forms are useful for reporting repetitive data.


a.

True

b.

False

63. Headings assist the report reader in understanding the organization of a report. a.

True

b.

False

64. Discussion of Findings is an example of a functional heading. a.

True

b.

False

65. The first letter of each word in a heading should always be capitalized. a.

True

b.

False

66. You should include at least one heading per report page. a.

True

b.

False

67. The first step in preparing a report is to sit down and begin writing immediately; this technique allows you to capture your best ideas quickly. a.

True

b.

False

68. When you write a purpose statement for a report, you should use action verbs.


a.

True

b.

False

69. One of the most important steps in the writing of a report is researching the report topic. a.

True

b.

False

70. Primary data result from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded. a.

True

b.

False

71. Many report writers begin their research with an analysis of company records and files. a.

True

b.

False

72. A library is an ineffective source to gather report research. a.

True

b.

False

73. Business writers often use electronic resources such as government sites, news media, periodicals, nonprofit organizations, social networking sites, and blogs to conduct research for business reports. a.

True

b.

False


74. Surveys provide the richest, most accurate firsthand information. a.

True

b.

False

75. Informational reports often describe periodic, recurring activities as well as situational, nonrecurring events. a.

True

b.

False

76. Most informational reports have one thing in common: a neutral or receptive audience. a.

True

b.

False

77. Informational reports should be written using the direct organizational strategy. a.

True

b.

False

78. Progress reports are written for only internal readers. a.

True

b.

False

79. Minutes summarize the proceedings of meetings. a.

True

b.

False

80. The minutes of a meeting should identify the names of individuals present and absent.


a.

True

b.

False

81. Summary reports are typical in academic settings but rarely used in business settings. a.

True

b.

False

82. A summary should be as long as necessary to ensure that all illustrations, examples, and references used in the report or document are included within the summary. a.

True

b.

False

83. Informational reports emphasize reasoning and conclusions; analytical reports emphasize facts. a.

True

b.

False

84. All analytical reports should be organized using the indirect strategy. a.

True

b.

False

85. Most analytical reports answer questions about specific problems and aid in decision making. a.

True

b.

False


86. Feasibility reports analyze a problem, discuss options, and present a recommendation, solution, or action to be taken. a.

True

b.

False

87. When your reader may oppose your recommendation, you should begin the report by announcing the recommendation directly. a.

True

b.

False

88. Feasibility reports answer such questions as Will this plan or proposal work? a.

True

b.

False

89. Feasibility reports are typically written for internal audiences. a.

True

b.

False

90. Yardstick reports examine problems with two or more solutions. a.

True

b.

False

91. ____________________ reports present data without analysis or recommendations.


92. ____________________ reports provide data or findings, analyses, and conclusions. They may also provide recommendations if requested.

93. Use ____________________ format for short (usually eight or fewer pages) informal reports addressed outside an organization.

94. Many business writers deliver their reports using digital slideshows, which are also called ____________________.

95. Use Empowered Team Decision-Making Without Losing Control is an example of a(n) ____________________ heading.

96. ___________________ data result from firsthand experience and observation. 97. _______________ data come from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded.

98. The purpose of a(n) ____________________ report is to provide a status update on a project.

99. A(n) ____________________ condenses the primary ideas of a book, report, article, website, meeting, or convention.

100. ____________________ or recommendation reports attempt to solve problems by evaluating options and offering recommendations.


Chapter 10 Proposals and Formal Reports 1. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Proposals are persuasive documents used to solve problems, provide services, or sell products. b.

Proposals are always solicited.

c. Proposals are informative documents used to share problems, identify emerging issues, and categorize available resources for resolution. d.

Proposals are developed for external audiences only.

2. All proposals should show the value and benefits of the product or services being recommended and a.

include free prizes or other gimmicks.

b.

use easy-to-understand language.

c.

be organized indirectly.

d.

be organized directly.

3. A business would most likely write a request for proposal to a.

advertise openings for two sales positions.

b.

attract new clients.

c.

renovate offices.

d.

interview job candidates.

4. An effective proposal should do all of the following except a.

showcase the writer's expertise and build credibility.

b.

emphasize how the writer's methods and products will benefit the reader.

c.

get the reader's attention.


d. analyze findings, draw conclusions, and make recommendations intended to solve a problem.

5. You can make the introduction of a proposal more persuasive if you a. b. proposal. c.

explain in great detail how much better you are than your competitors. hint at the problem you will solve but avoid explaining the reasons for the remain as vague as possible to keep the reader intrigued.

d. provide a "hook" such as mentioning a remarkable resource available exclusively to the writer.

6. In which part of a solicited proposal would you most likely convince your reader that you understand the problem completely? a.

Introduction

b.

Background

c.

Authorization

d.

Budget

7. In which section of an informal proposal would you most likely include a timetable for a project to be completed? a.

Staffing

b.

Authorization

c.

Budget

d.

Proposal

8. What should be included in the staffing section of an informal proposal?


a.

Credentials and expertise of project leaders

b.

List of projected costs

c.

Copy of the RFP

d.

Schedule or timetable of activities

9. The budget in a proposal should a. b. increase.

reflect careful research because a proposal is a legal contract. provide only rough estimates so that you can raise the price later if costs

c.

never itemize hours and costs, but offer only a total sum.

d.

include a disclaimer to ensure that the budget is not legally binding.

10. Jeremy has decided to include a deadline for acceptance in his proposal to install energyefficient workstations for a local manufacturer. In which section should Jeremy place the deadline? a.

Introduction

b.

Background

c.

Conclusion and authorization

d.

Proposal

11. Although formal reports are similar to formal proposals, a primary difference is that a.

formal reports represent the end product of thorough research and data analysis.

b.

formal reports use a more conversational tone.

c.

formal reports are longer than formal proposals.

d.

formal reports are organized indirectly.


12. What is the first step in writing a formal report? a.

Selecting an appropriate layout and format

b.

Researching primary and secondary data

c.

Writing a purpose statement

d.

Determining the length of the report

13. What is the best advice when writing a statement of purpose for a formal report? a.

Write a statement of purpose only for external formal reports.

b.

Omit limitations to avoid a negative tone.

c.

Use action verbs that tell what you intend to do.

d.

Use vague language to allow for flexibility.

14. A work plan for a formal report should a.

be written after conducting primary or secondary research.

b.

define terminology to be used in the report.

c. include a clear problem statement, a purpose statement, and a description of the research methods to be used. d.

identify the credentials of the report writer.

15. Chronological organization arranges ideas by a.

time.

b.

order of importance.

c.

physical location.

d.

simple to complex.


16. Tanika must prepare a formal report detailing the findings of a year-long study of her company's new wellness program. In this report she must discuss employee absenteeism before and after the program's implementation. What type of organizational pattern will she likely use? a.

Chronological

b.

Spatial

c.

Compare/Contrast

d.

Importance

17. Tyler is writing a report that analyzes the GlobalCom, Inc., market share of cell phone subscriptions worldwide by region. He will probably organize his report a. maximums.

chronologically by the date the cell phone subscriptions reached their

b. around extensive secondary data to assure the reader that he conducted adequate research before he wrote the report. c.

using a functional arrangement to show types of subscriptions globally.

d.

geographically with sections representing each region's market share.

18. Logan has just completed the writing of a report on e-waste generated by his company. What should he do next? a.

Submit the report to his supervisor.

b.

Analyze his audience.

c.

Edit and proofread the report.

d.

Celebrate for completing the report.

19. Primary research data can be defined as a. observed.

information that comes from reading what others have experienced and


b.

information gained from firsthand experience and observation.

c.

statistics collected during the first stage of research.

d.

data received from the World Wide Web.

20. Your boss asks you to write a formal report on the impact of smoking on employee healthcare costs. Like nearly every writer of a research project, you should begin your research by a.

reviewing secondary data in the library or on the Internet.

b.

interviewing your colleagues to solicit their input and feelings.

c.

preparing a questionnaire to distribute to your colleagues.

d.

conducting a field experiment.

21. Although researchers are increasingly using electronic data, you should learn to also use print resources because a.

electronic sources are never considered as reliable as books and magazines.

b.

print sources provide primary data and electronic sources provide secondary

c.

some data is available only in print.

d.

audiences respect only writers who include data from print sources.

data.

22. What type of print resource provides excellent in-depth, historical data? a.

Periodicals

b.

Bibliographic indexes

c.

Databases

d.

Books

23. Many researchers today begin by looking in electronic databases because


a.

they know that all data found in electronic databases are valid and reliable.

b.

electronic databases are always a free resource.

c.

it is easy to cite sources found in an electronic database.

d.

electronic databases are fast and convenient to use.

24. What is the best advice for assessing the credibility of a Web page? a. Review the Web page for accuracy in facts, spelling, grammar, usage, references, and external links. b.

Determine the publishers or sponsors of the Web page to verify their credentials.

c. Evaluate the overall content of a Web page and see how it compares with other resources on the same topic. d.

Perform all these tasks when assessing the credibility of a Web page.

25. Which of the following is a primary data source? a.

Periodicals

b.

Electronic databases

c.

Blogs

d.

Experimentation

26. Surveys, which are used to collect firsthand data, have many advantages. One advantage is that a. population.

those who respond to mailed or online surveys exactly represent the overall

b. surveys.

respondents can be relied on to respond openly and truthfully to anonymous

c.

data can be gathered economically and efficiently.


d.

return rates for online and mailed surveys are typically over 90 percent.

27. Brittany is writing a business report about protecting workplace data and will be conducting an interview with a data security expert. What is the best advice you can give her? a.

Call before the interview to confirm the arrangements, and then arrive on time.

b. Learn about the individual she is interviewing, and research the background and terminology of the topic. c. Use open-ended questions rather than yes-or-no questions to draw out the responses from the expert. d.

Brittany should complete all these steps.

28. Which of the following statements about documenting data is not accurate? a.

Documenting data can strengthen your argument.

b.

Documenting data protects you from charges of plagiarism.

c.

Documenting data is not necessary if you put the information in your own words.

d. Documenting data helps the reader pursue the topic further and make use of the information.

29. Plagiarism a. involves using good data from reputable sources to increase your credibility and to enhance the logic of your reasoning. b.

happens in only academic settings.

c. is the act of using others' ideas without proper documentation or by paraphrasing poorly. d.

occurs when writers acknowledge the sources of their researched information.


30. Which of the following statements would need to be documented in a report? a.

Tornadoes caused extensive loss of property and lives in Missouri.

b.

You can get an idea of how dangerous a tornado is by its rating.

c. Damaging winds, common in strong tornadoes, caused problems for the residents of Missouri. d. The Fujita-Pearson tornado scale rates tornadoes with wind speeds of 261 to 318 miles per hour as F5 storms.

31. Paraphrasing is a.

restating an original passage in your own words.

b.

repeating the grammatical structure of the original passage.

c.

replacing original words with appropriate synonyms.

d.

indicating the source of the original work.

32. Which of the following is not a purpose for a direct quotation? a.

To duplicate exact wording before criticizing an idea

b.

To repeat identical phrasing because of its precise wording

c.

To add length to a researched document

d.

To provide objective background information

33. Which of the following is the best advice about the use of direct quotations in a report? a. Beware of overusing quotations because you may appear as if you have no ideas of your own. b. If you use a direct quotation, don't dilute its impact by summarizing it or introducing it in your own words.


c. Place the direct quotation in quotation marks, but change a few words to show you have your own ideas. d.

Avoid using any direct quotations in a report.

34. All of the following are tests to determine fair use except a.

nature of the copyrighted work.

b.

notoriety of author.

c.

amount of material copied.

d.

effect of the use on the potential market.

35. To avoid charges of copyright infringement, you should a.

include a footnote to all information.

b.

use information only from Internet sites.

c.

ask permission only when using information from a legal publication.

d.

assume that all intellectual property is copyrighted.

36. Smart writers incorporate visuals and graphics in a report because they know that visuals and graphics can a.

clarify data.

b.

make complex data easy to understand.

c.

add visual interest.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

37. Which of the following is the most important element to consider when selecting an appropriate graphic for a report?


a.

Your communication channel

b.

Your word processing abilities

c.

Your report's organizational pattern

d.

Your objective

38. Yolanda must include a long table in a report she is preparing on employee Internet use. What advice should she follow when creating the table? a.

Avoid distracting her readers with shading.

b.

Place the table as close as possible to its text discussion.

c.

Leave missing data blank.

d.

Because the emphasis is on the data, avoid the use of headings for each row.

39. What type of graphic illustrates changes in data over time? a.

Line chart

b.

Flowchart

c.

Pie chart

d.

Table

40. The major advantage of line charts is that they a.

compare related items.

b.

present large amounts of data.

c.

show the proportion of parts to a whole.

d.

demonstrate trends.

41. Which statement about pie charts is most accurate?


a.

Pie charts are most useful for technical audiences.

b.

Pie charts are most appropriate for showing percentages.

c.

Pie charts are more flexible than bar or line charts.

d.

Pie charts can be confusing to readers because of the use of multiple colors.

42. In her letter to policyholders, Min Yi needs a graphic depicting the procedure a policyholder follows when filing a claim. Which of these would be most appropriate? a.

Organizational chart

b.

Flowchart

c.

Illustration

d.

Table

43. Which of the following is the best advice when using graphics in reports? a.

Use colored graphics to add visual interest.

b.

Don't introduce a graphic; a good graphic should communicate clearly itself.

c.

Avoid summarizing the main point of the graphic.

d.

Avoid the use of headings on a graphic.

44. All of the following are front matter components of a formal report except the a.

letter or memo of transmittal.

b.

list of figures or tables.

c.

appendix.

d.

executive summary.

45. What is the purpose of a letter or memo of transmittal?


a.

To announce the topic of the report

b.

To provide a list of sources used within the report

c.

To introduce the writer of the report

d.

To designate the parts of the report

46. What advice should you follow when preparing a table of contents? a.

Avoid leaders (spaced dots) on a table of contents to avoid confusing the reader.

b. Include only the front matter components and the main body headings and subheadings. c.

Center all major headings.

d.

Title the page Contents or Table of Contents.

47. The purpose of an executive summary is to a.

announce the topic of the report and tell how it was authorized.

b.

secure funding.

c. present an overview of a longer report for people who may not have time to read the entire document. d.

show the main sections of a report.

48. What information should be included in the introduction of a formal report? a.

Copies of surveys

b.

A discussion of the report findings

c.

Conclusions and recommendations

d.

Explanation of the problem


49. The body of a formal report should a.

define important and unfamiliar terms.

b.

identify the individuals responsible for commissioning the report.

c. problem.

discuss, analyze, interpret, and evaluate the research findings or solution to the

d. include a description of all secondary and primary data collected during the research phase of writing the report.

50. What is the best advice to follow when developing a bibliographic list of sources for a formal report? a.

Include only published sources within your bibliographic list.

b.

Label the page "Works Cited" when using either the APA or MLA format.

c.

List the sources in alphabetical order.

d. Avoid developing a bibliographic list of sources because the in-text citations will identify each source used within the report.

51. Proposals are informative documents used to educate readers. a.

True

b.

False

52. All proposals should use easy-to-understand language and show the value and benefits of the product or services being recommended. a.

True

b.

False

53. Proposals are always written for only external audiences.


a.

True

b.

False

54. To make the introduction of your proposal persuasive, include a "hook" that focuses on the audience's specific needs and benefits. a.

True

b.

False

55. In a solicited proposal, your goal is to convince the reader that a problem exists. a.

True

b.

False

56. In the proposal, plan, and schedule section of a business proposal, your goal is to explain your plan for solving the problem. a.

True

b.

False

57. Proposal writers should avoid mentioning staff qualifications and credentials in a formal proposal. a.

True

b.

False

58. A proposal represents a legal contract. a.

True

b.

False


59. The conclusion of a proposal should remind the reader of the proposal's key benefits and make it easy for the reader to respond. a.

True

b.

False

60. Unlike a business proposal, a formal business report presents findings and recommendations based on research and data analysis. a.

True

b.

False

61. The first step in preparing a report is to conduct research. a.

True

b.

False

62. Writers should avoid constructing a work plan for a business report because it may become too restrictive to them and to their audience. a.

True

b.

False

63. Formal report writers conduct most of their research using primary sources. a.

True

b.

False

64. A report discussing the correct procedure to process customer complaints should be organized using a chronological order. a.

True

b.

False


65. Unlike a business proposal, a formal business report does not need to be edited or proofread. a.

True

b.

False

66. Secondary data come from reading what others have published, experienced, or observed. a.

True

b.

False

67. An advantage of secondary data over primary data is that secondary data are easier and cheaper to develop. a.

True

b.

False

68. Books can provide historical, in-depth data. a.

True

b.

False

69. A database is a collection of information stored digitally so that it is accessible by computers and mobile electronic devices. a.

True

b.

False

70. If you find information on the Web, you can be assured that it is reliable.


a.

True

b.

False

71. Surveys can generate primary data economically and efficiently from large groups of people. a.

True

b.

False

72. When you conduct an interview, prepare closed-ended questions to make the interviewee feel relaxed and at ease. a.

True

b.

False

73. The only reason to document sources in a report is to avoid charges of plagiarism. a.

True

b.

False

74. The only item that you must document in a report is a quotation of another person's actual spoken or written words. a.

True

b.

False

75. Information that is common knowledge requires no documentation. a.

True

b.

False


76. If you are worried about plagiarizing, you can avoid the problem if you use the grammatical structure of the original and just replace words with synonyms. a.

True

b.

False

77. Direct quotations are often useful to provide objective data and to establish the severity of a problem as seen by experts. a.

True

b.

False

78. You should assume that all intellectual property is copyrighted. a.

True

b.

False

79. Avoid the use of graphics in a report because graphics usually confuse readers. a.

True

b.

False

80. Probably the most frequently used visual aid in reports is the table. a.

True

b.

False

81. The major advantage of line charts is that they show changes over time, thus indicating trends. a.

True


b.

False

82. Pie charts are an effective visual to demonstrate a procedure. a.

True

b.

False

83. Avoid referencing graphics in the text of your report; the visual should speak for itself. a.

True

b.

False

84. Report graphics should include a caption or title. a.

True

b.

False

85. The front matter of a formal report refers to the preliminary sections before the body section. a.

True

b.

False

86. If included with a report, a letter or memo of transmittal should be written using the indirect strategy. a.

True

b.

False


87. The purpose of a table of contents is to present an overview of the report for people who may not have time to read the entire report. a.

True

b.

False

88. The introduction should be the principal section of a formal report. a.

True

b.

False

89. The most important section of a report to a reader is the conclusions and recommendations. a.

True

b.

False

90. Regardless of the documentation format used, sources should be alphabetized in the bibliographic section of a report. a.

True

b.

False

91. A(n) ____________________ is a written offer to solve problems, provide services, or sell products.

92. When government organizations or businesses have a specific need, they prepare a(n) ____________________, a document that specifies their requirements and solicits competitive bids from vendors.


93. A formal ____________________ is a document that analyzes findings, draws conclusions, and makes recommendations intended to solve a problem.

94. The planning of every report begins with a statement of ____________________ that describes the goal, significance, and limitations of a formal report.

95. The gathering of information is called ____________________. 96. A(n) ____________________ is a collection of information stored digitally so that it is accessible by computers and mobile electronic devices.

97. Using the ideas of someone else without giving credit is called ____________________ and is unethical.

98. ____________________ involves restating an original passage in your own words and in your own style.

99. Commonly shared in online environments, a(n) ___________________ is a type of visual aid that combines images and graphic elements to present complex information in a format that is easy to understand.

100. A(n) ____________________ presents an overview of a longer report for people who may not have time read the entire report.


Chapter 11 Professionalism at Work Business Etiquette Ethics Teamwork and Meetings 1. How do recruiters and employers view the importance of professional behavior in the workplace? a. Although recruiters are impressed with applicants who speak and write well, a candidate's technical expertise is all that matters. b. Good manners and a businesslike, professional demeanor are among the top skills recruiters seek in applicants. c. d. employers.

Professionalism and soft skills are important only in service-oriented fields. Team, communication, and people skills are low priorities for most recruiters and

2. Which statement about professionalism is most accurate? a.

Professionalism refers to those behaviors exhibited only to customers.

b.

Professionalism describes desirable workplace behavior.

c.

Professionalism emphasizes hard skills or technical knowledge desired by employers.

d.

Professionalism is important only in large companies.

3. A synonym for professionalism is a.

hard skills.

b.

social acceptance.

c.

business etiquette.

d.

diversity.

4. Which of the following statements about professionalism in the workplace is most accurate? a.

Unprofessional behavior affects only the individual who displays it.

b.

More organizations are establishing procedures or policies to encourage professionalism.

c.

Employees need to exhibit professional behavior only when working at their desks.


d. You exhibit professional behavior only through nonverbal actions such as dressing appropriately or maintaining eye contact with others.

5. Jue understands that soft skills and professional polish will ensure her long-term success on the job. Which of the following is not a soft skill? a.

A grasp of workplace etiquette

b.

An eagerness to learn

c.

The ability to work effectively as part of a team

d.

Proficiency in using a variety of computer software packages

6. Professional behavior is comprised of six dimensions, including courtesy and respect, appearance and appeal, tolerance and tact, honesty and ethics, reliability and diligence, and a.

soft and hard skills.

b.

self-actualization and self-control.

c.

sharing and collegiality.

7. Richard wants to prove that he is diligent and reliable. What is the best advice you can give him? a. Put all focus on his job and avoid volunteering his services to a worthy community or charity group. b.

Avoid apologizing for any errors.

c.

Honor his commitments and keep promises.

d.

Avoid any interaction with coworkers so that he stays focused on his job.

8. Stephen is starting a new job and wants to demonstrate that he is a professional employee. What advice should he follow? a. them.

Never apologize for errors or misunderstandings because doing so calls attention to


b. employee.

Show up a few minutes late every so often to show that he isn't an overzealous

c.

Avoid compromising with others.

d.

Exercise self-control and keep personal opinions of people private.

9. An awareness of courtesy and etiquette a.

will ensure one's popularity in an office setting.

b.

is not important to hiring managers.

c.

is needed for only high-level business executives.

d.

can improve an individual's chances of being hired and promoted.

10. Which of the following statements about professionalism is most accurate? a.

Demonstrating etiquette is important in the office and online.

b.

No correlation exists between professional behavior and workplace success.

c. Employees must demonstrate professional behavior only when communicating face-toface with others. d.

Professionalism is important for employees in only Fortune 500 companies.

11. Which of the following statements about face-to-face communication is most accurate? a.

Face-to-face communication is the least rich communication channel.

b.

Face-to-face communication increases the likelihood of misunderstandings.

c.

Face-to-face conversations reduce cooperation and limit problem solving during conflict.

d.

Face-to-face interaction is the most effective of all communication channels.


12. Which of the following statements about the power of the human voice is most accurate? a.

The voice sends only verbal messages to receivers.

b.

Individuals can learn to change their voice to make it more effective and powerful.

c.

No correlation exists between the voice and perceived authority and trust.

d.

All answer choices are accurate statements about the human voice.

13. Saying words correctly and clearly with the accepted sounds and accented syllables reflects a.

rate.

b.

pitch.

c.

vocal quality.

d.

proper pronunciation.

14. To use your voice effectively, a.

speak in a relaxed, controlled, well-pitched voice at about 125 words per minute.

b.

overemphasize all words to guarantee audience understanding.

c.

avoid listening to educated individuals to retain your speaking uniqueness.

d.

keep the same volume and rate while speaking.

15. The best definition of uptalk is a.

a flat or monotonous delivery.

b.

a rising inflection at the end of a sentence that makes statements sound like questions.

c.

self-gratifying comments to make you appear better than others.

d.

an unnaturally quick speaking pattern.


16. Which of the following is the best advice regarding workplace conversation? a. To personalize your conversations, always use first names when addressing supervisors, customers, and coworkers. b. Be courteous and attentive when conversing with managers, colleagues, subordinates, and customers. c. intelligence.

Bring up controversial topics such as politics or religion as often as possible to show your

d. To demonstrate that you are human, feel free to complain about your colleagues, friends, and job when you need to vent.

17. Which of the following statements about workplace criticism is most accurate? a. When receiving criticism, individuals should focus on their feelings rather than on the content of the criticism. b.

Most individuals like to give and receive criticism.

c.

Giving and receiving criticism is a normal occurrence in the business world.

d.

In today's workplace, only managers must give criticism.

18. You are in a meeting receiving your performance review and are surprised that your supervisor has offered you many suggestions for improvement. How should you react to the criticism? a. Interrupt your supervisor frequently to comment on his or her suggestions so that you don't miss giving feedback on anything. b.

To avoid any type of confrontation with your supervisor, agree with all comments made.

c.

Try to deflect blame for anything negative said to others in your department.

d.

Ask for clarification of comments when necessary.

19. You recently chaired a team implementing new federal confidentiality requirements. After implementation, you must evaluate each team member's performance. Which of the following suggestions about giving constructive criticism is not accurate? a.

Use language that focuses on improvement instead of problems.

b.

To show more compassion, be as vague as possible.


c.

Ask the team members for feedback.

d.

Discuss the behavior, not the person.

20. Which of the following statement best provides constructive criticism? a.

You seem to think that you can submit any kind of work and that it doesn't matter.

b.

Your work is often shoddy.

c.

Producing inferior work often causes this company to lose time and money.

d.

You need to produce work that meets this company's standards.

21. Which of the following statements about phones and phone usage in today's businesses is most accurate? a.

Phones are not an important communication tool in today's business offices.

b.

The telephone has been replaced by e-mail as the No. 1 communication channel.

c. Effective business communicators know how to use phones productively, efficiently, and professionally. d.

Today's offices do not come equipped with phones.

22. What is the first thing you should do before making a business telephone call? a.

Prepare an appropriate opening.

b.

Ask yourself if the phone call is necessary.

c.

Decide what you're going to say after the receiver answers.

d.

Write down the ideas you want to discuss so that you don't forget them.

23. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when placing a business phone call? a.

Use professional vocabulary and courteous language.

b.

Realize that the responsibility for ending a call lies with the caller.

c. In the introduction of the phone call, name the person you are calling, identify yourself and your affiliation, and give a brief explanation of your reason for calling.


d.

All answer choices are good tips to follow when placing business phone calls.

24. Which of the following demonstrates the best example when answering a telephone call? a.

This is Beth. May I help you?

b.

Precision Integrations. What's on your mind?

c.

Hello. What can I do for you?

d.

Thanks for calling Precision Integrations. This is Beth Dittmer. How may I help you today?

25. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when receiving telephone calls for others? a.

Identify your colleague's whereabouts if you are answering his or her phone.

b.

Guarantee the caller that your colleague will return the call within a few hours.

c.

Verify telephone numbers and spelling of names when taking messages.

d.

Find your coworker immediately and report that he or she has an incoming call.

26. Which of the following is the best example of a response when answering calls for others? a. directors.

Annette is currently participating in an important budget meeting with our board of

b. We're not really sure where Annette is right now, but she'll return your call immediately whenever she gets back. c.

Annette has run down to the ladies' room for a few minutes, but she should be back

d.

Annette is away from her desk, but I will give her your message when she returns.

soon.

27. Elisha has just started a new job and must use a cell phone to communicate with coworkers and customers. What advice should she follow to demonstrate professional cell phone use? a.

Talk openly and freely on her cell phone in any location and at any time.


b. Select a unique ringtone such as the music and lyrics to her favorite song so that she can recognize when her phone is ringing. c.

Speak louder so that her receiver can hear her and her ideas.

d.

Screen incoming calls if she is busy.

28. The benefits of voice mail include eliminating unnecessary chit chat, telephone tag, inaccurate messages, and a.

time zone barriers.

b.

the need for written messages.

c.

the necessity of a cordial, friendly greeting.

d.

prompt responses.

29. Shawn needs to record his outgoing message on his voice mail system. Which of the following outgoing messages is most professional? a.

Hi! I'm sorry I missed your call. Please leave a brief message after the tone.

b. This is Shawn. I'm not available right now. But if you leave a message, I promise to call you back. Be sure to include your name, phone number, and the best time to return your call. c. Your call is important to me. Please leave your name and number so that I can return your call promptly. d. Hi! You have reached the voice mail of Shawn Berg of Juarez Accounting. I am currently away from my phone but will return by 2 p.m. Please call back then. Thank you for calling.

30. Leticia has called a client and received his voice mail. What is the best advice you can give Leticia for leaving a message? a. a message.

Hang up and call back later; her client won't want to be bothered with having to listen to

b.

Speak as quickly as possible to make her message more concise.

c.

Smile when leaving her message to add warmth to her voice.


d. Leave a complete message, including confidential details about the project Leticia is working on, to make her message as useful as possible.

31. Which of the following statements about teams in today's business is most accurate? a.

Teams can be effective in solving problems and in developing new products.

b.

Today's teams collaborate only face-to-face.

c.

Effective soft skills are not necessary when collaborating in teams.

d.

Teams are rarely used in today's business environment.

32. Which of the following statements about workplace teams is most accurate? a.

Teams tend to respond more slowly to competition or problem solving.

b.

Because conflict often results, teams tend to have decreased productivity.

c.

Team members who are involved in the decision-making process show less resistance to

d.

Individuals tend to make better decisions than teams.

change.

33. In what phase of team development do teams select members, become acquainted, build trust, and form a collaborative culture? a.

Storming

b.

Forming

c.

Norming

d.

Performing


34. In what phase of team development do members select alternatives, analyze effects, implement their plan, and manage their project? a.

Forming

b.

Norming

c.

Storming

d.

Performing

35. What term describes groups of people who collaborate with one another to accomplish a shared task across space, time, and organizational boundaries using technology? a.

Blogs

b.

Virtual teams

c.

Team players

d.

Social networking

36. Which of the following would have a negative impact on a group? a.

Encouraging members to partcipate

b.

Setting rules and abiding by them

c.

Analyzing tasks and defining problems

d.

Failing to stay on task

37. The most successful workplace teams a.

agree on a purpose and procedures.

b.

are homogeneous.


c.

avoid conflict.

d.

work independently.

38. What is the ideal number of participants for most groups? a.

Two

b.

Four to five

c.

Ten

d.

There is no "ideal" number; more is always better.

39. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when dealing with conflict in a team? a.

Look for areas of mutual agreement.

b.

To promote individuality, focus on the person rather than the task.

c. Do not allow team members to speak their minds because too many ideas could prevent the group from reaching its goal. d.

Avoid conflict completely and let the chips fall where they may.

40. Which of the following would probably best help a group achieve its goal? a.

Competition

b.

Individual leadership

c.

Emphasis on individualism

d.

Active listening skills

41. Which of the following statements about meetings is most accurate?


a.

Because of e-mail and wireless devices, meetings are no longer needed in the business

b.

To increase employee productivity, meetings should never be held.

c.

As businesses become more team-oriented, people are attending more meetings than

d.

Only top-level business executives must attend meetings.

world.

ever.

42. What is your first task before holding a meeting? a.

Deciding how and where to meet

b.

Preparing an agenda

c.

Inviting participants

d.

Determining your purpose

43. When the purpose of your meeting is to solve an intense problem, what is the recommended number of meeting participants? a.

Five or fewer

b.

Ten or fewer

c.

Thirty or fewer

d.

An unlimited number of participants

44. A meeting agenda should include the date and place of the meeting, start and end times, a brief description of each topic with its time allotment, and a.

a refreshment list.

b.

an explanation of the leader's position on each of the agenda topics.

c.

any premeeting preparation expected of participants.

d.

All answer choices should be included on a meeting agenda.


45. Which of the following is the best practice for a group when it begins a meeting? a.

Wait until all participants arrive.

b.

Give a quick recap to anyone who arrives late.

c.

Establish ground rules.

d.

Start voting on items prior to holding any discussion.

46. How should a group leader keep a meeting progressing effectively? a. b. explore.

Engage in most of the talking to ensure that the meeting ends on time. Allow group members to digress on a topic because other topics may be beneficial to

c.

Discourage members who monopolize the discussion.

d.

Summarize only at the end of the meeting.

47. Which of the following statements about the end of a meeting is most accurate? a.

A meeting should end only when participants have discussed all agenda items.

b.

The leader should provide a summary of accomplishments and a review of action items.

c. minutes. d.

The leader should remind participants that they are responsible for taking their own Participants should pass their assigned tasks on to someone who did not attend.

48. Which of the following should be included in the minutes of a meeting? a.

Action items

b.

Date and time of meeting

c.

Participants' names

d.

All answer choices are items that should be included in the minutes of a meeting.


49. Companies use virtual meetings to a.

save travel costs.

b.

reduce employee fatigue.

c.

connect dispersed participants.

d.

All answer choices provide reasons companies use virtual meetings.

50. Jeff will be leading a virtual team meeting. What should he do to make certain that the meeting runs smoothly and professionally? a.

Send text messages and check his e-mail during the meeting.

b.

Ensure that the technology is working for all participants before the meeting starts.

c.

Discourage any chitchat among team members before or after the meeting.

d.

Set the meeting time using Eastern Standard Time (EST).

51. Good manners and a businesslike, professional demeanor are among the top skills recruiters seek in applicants. a.

True

b.

False

52. The term "professionalism" refers to desirable workplace behavior. a.

True

b.

False

53. Many businesses have established protocol procedures or policies to enforce civility. a.

True

b.

False


54. Although you will be judged on your technical and communication skills in and out of the office, you do not have to worry about demonstrating proper business attire and dining etiquette. a.

True

b.

False

55. Hard skills refer to a whole cluster of personal qualities, habits, attitudes, communication skills, and social graces. a.

True

b.

False

56. In today's fast-paced, competitive business world, employers are not interested in the ethical behavior of their employees. a.

True

b.

False

57. An awareness of courtesy and etiquette can give you a competitive edge in the job market. a.

True

b.

False

58. You must demonstrate professionalism only in face-to-face interactions. a.

True

b.

False

59. Because today's technologies provide many alternate communication channels, face-to-face communication is no longer important in business and professional transactions. a.

True

b.

False


60. Your vocal quality sends only verbal messages. a.

True

b.

False

61. Speakers should avoid "uptalk" in the workplace because it makes them appear weak and tentative. a.

True

b.

False

62. When conversing with others, always address them by their first names. a.

True

b.

False

63. If you receive constructive criticism on the job, you should focus on your feelings as much as possible. a.

True

b.

False

64. If another person has criticized you unfairly, you should disagree respectfully and constructively. a.

True

b.

False

65. When you deliver constructive criticism, you should use the word "we" instead of "you" to avoid sounding accusatory. a.

True

b.

False


66. You should generally deliver most constructive criticism in writing rather than in person. a.

True

b.

False

67. E-mail has made telephone use obsolete in the corporate world. a.

True

b.

False

68. When placing a business telephone call, immediately name the person you are calling, identify yourself and your affiliation, and give a brief explanation of your reason for calling. a.

True

b.

False

69. The responsibility for ending a call lies with the receiver. a.

True

b.

False

70. When answering a phone call for a coworker, be honest and tell the receiver the exact whereabouts of your coworker. a.

True

b.

False

71. You should identify the extension when transferring a call. a.

True

b.

False


72. To make your outgoing voice mail message more professional, use the computer-generated voice that comes with most systems. a.

True

b.

False

73. When speaking on a cell phone, speak more loudly so that the receiver can hear you and your ideas. a.

True

b.

False

74. You should try to respond to voice messages within one week. a.

True

b.

False

75. Decisions made by teams promote greater "buy-in" from group members. a.

True

b.

False

76. In the norming phase of team development, teams discuss alternatives, evaluate outcomes, apply criteria, and prioritize alternatives. a.

True

b.

False

77. Many organizations are using virtual teams to exchange ideas and make decisions. a.

True

b.

False


78. Withdrawing from a group is viewed as an effective technique to deal with group differences. a.

True

b.

False

79. Groups with diverse members often produce the best decisions. a.

True

b.

False

80. Groups should avoid conflict. a.

True

b.

False

81. Effective team members view participation in a team as an opportunity to compete with others. a.

True

b.

False

82. Effective teams often have no formal leader. a.

True

b.

False

83. Today's workers attend more meetings than ever. a.

True

b.

False


84. No meeting should be called unless the topic is important, can't wait, and requires an exchange of ideas. a.

True

b.

False

85. The purpose of a meeting determines the number of participants. a.

True

b.

False

86. Ground rules for a business meeting should be discussed only when a participant's behavior is harming the progress of the agenda. a.

True

b.

False

87. When a conflict develops between two members, allow each to make a complete case before the group. a.

True

b.

False

88. No one should leave a meeting without a full understanding of what was accomplished. a.

True

b.

False

89. Meeting minutes should be distributed within two weeks after the meeting or at least two days before the next meeting, whichever comes first. a.

True

b.

False


90. Virtual meetings save travel costs and reduce employee fatigue. a.

True

b.

False

91. ____________________, also known as business etiquette or protocol, soft skills, social intelligence, polish, or civility, refers to a whole range of desirable workplace behaviors.

92. Interpersonal skills such as working in teams, possessing a positive attitude, prioritizing work tasks, listening, and demonstrating workplace manners are all examples of ____________________ skills.

93. ____________________ involves saying words correctly and clearly using accepted sounds and accented syllables.

94. ____________________ is the habit of using a rising inflection at the end of a sentence resulting in a singsong pattern that makes statements sound like questions.

95. The ____________________ of a phone call should name the person being called, identify the caller and his or her affiliation, and provide a brief explanation of the reason for the phone call.

96. Effective businesspeople use ____________________ mail to intercept and screen incoming calls.

97. According to B.A. Tuckman, when teams are in the ____________________ phase of team development, they identify problems, collect and share information, establish decision criteria, and prioritize goals. 98. To connect with distant team members across borders and time zones, many organizations are creating ____________________ teams. These teams work interdependently with a shared purpose across space, time, and organizational boundaries using technology.


99. The list of topics to be discussed at a meeting is called a(n) ____________________.

100. The ____________________ are a record of points of discussion, decisions made, and tasks assigned at a meeting.

Chapter 12 Business Presentations 1. Which of the following statements about public speaking is most accurate? a.

Only high-level executives must give business presentations.

b.

Good speakers are born, not made.

c.

Most people are apprehensive about speaking in public.

d.

Presentations are rarely given in the business world.

2. Which of the following statements about speaking skills is most accurate? a.

Speaking skills are not necessary for entry-level workers.

b.

Recruiters rank speaking skills as an important "soft skill" desired in employees.

c.

Effective speaking skills are not important for a successful career.

d.

Speaking skills are important only when communicating face-to-face with others.

3. Business presentations a.

are always informative in nature.

b.

may vary in complexity.


c.

are always delivered face-to-face.

d.

are always persuasive in nature.

4. What kind of business presentation uses technology to allow remote colleagues to collaborate in real time? a.

Podcast

b.

Briefing

c.

Report

d.

Virtual presentation

5. The most important part of preparing for an oral presentation is a.

creating visual aids.

b.

determining the purpose.

c.

gathering research.

d.

creating a professional appearance.

6. After determining your purpose for the presentation, what is your next important step? a.

Conducting research

b.

Examining the room where the presentation will be made

c.

Preparing a multimedia presentation

d.

Analyzing the audience

7. When analyzing your audience, you should consider the a.

educational level of the audience members.


b.

size of the audience.

c.

approximate age of the audience members.

d.

All answer choices are important factors to consider when analyzing an audience.

8. Presentations are given to many types of audiences. According to your text, what are the four categories of audiences? a.

Informed, uninformed, misinformed, and overinformed

b.

Hostile, friendly, neutral, and uninterested

c.

Workplace, school-related, community, and political

d.

Manuscript, extemporaneous, impromptu, and memorized

9. Your audience analysis reveals that audience members will be friendly and interested in your topic. You should be a.

warm, pleasant, and open; and you should use a lot of eye contact and smiles.

b.

be calm and controlled, and you should speak evenly and slowly.

c.

controlled and do nothing showy; you should use confident, small gestures.

d.

dynamic and entertaining; you should also use large gestures and move around.

10. Irina will make her presentation to a large audience of members whose negative attitudes range from displeased to outraged. What advice should Irina follow in preparing her presentation for this audience? a.

Include plenty of personal stories, several anecdotes, and lots of jokes or humor.

b. Use facts, statistics, and expert opinions along with an energizing, upbeat delivery style. c. Be humorous, add colorful visuals and startling statistics, and keep the presentation brief.


d.

Present objective data and expert opinion in a calm, controlled delivery style.

11. After you determine your purpose and analyze your audience, your next step is to a.

practice your delivery.

b.

collect information.

c.

organize the ideas.

d.

choose your topic.

12. Two of the most effective techniques to improve your audience's ability to understand and remember your speech are a.

good organization and intentional repetition.

b.

eliminating repetition and removing obvious signposting.

c.

appropriate business attire and a multimedia presentation.

d.

striking quotations and well-placed gestures.

13. You should do all of the following in the introduction of a presentation except a.

preview the main points of your presentation.

b.

capture your listeners' attention and get them involved.

c.

develop the main points with adequate explanation and details.

d.

introduce yourself and establish your credibility.

14. The best technique to establish your credibility in a business presentation is a.

describing your knowledge, position, or experience.

b.

telling the audience your salary, age, and hometown.

c.

revealing your ethnicity, cultural heritage, and religious background.


d.

discussing your love for public speaking.

15. Jessica tells her audience about her five years' experience as a social networking professional helping over 100 local businesses learn to use social networking as an effective marketing tool. Jessica is attempting to a.

capture her listeners' attention and get them involved.

b.

preview the main points of her presentation.

c.

present the main goals of her presentation.

d.

identify herself and establish credibility.

16. Connor opened his presentation to an audience of business owners with this statement: If you want to reduce employee benefit costs by at least 15 percent without hurting employee morale or impacting your work environment, please stand up right now. By asking them to stand, Connor is a.

identifying himself and establishing credibility.

b.

previewing the main points of his presentation.

c.

capturing listeners' attention and getting them involved.

d.

misleading his audience.

17. The body of a short, 20-minute presentation should focus on a.

at least five to eight main points.

b.

up to ten main points.

c.

approximately two to four main points.

d.

as many points as necessary to convey your message.


18. Paul is explaining to upper-level management how converting to a four-day workweek can solve their budget woes by decreasing expenses. How will he most likely organize his presentation? a.

Geography/space

b.

Chronological

c.

Problem/solution

d.

Value/size

19. As the human resources director for your company, you must give a presentation to the company owners about the staff demographics in each of your company's two locations. What organizational pattern would be best for you to present your data? a.

Chronological

b.

Simple/complex

c.

Value/size

d.

Geography/space

20. In an effective presentation conclusion, you will strive to accomplish three goals: a.

state your recommendation, prove your persuasion, and reinforce the purpose.

b. remind the audience of your credibility, review the attention getter, and restate the purpose. c. summarize the main themes, give the audience a memorable take-away, and include a statement that allows for a graceful exit. d. promote your primary claim, advance your supporting claims, and elevate the most viable evidence.

21. In the conclusion of your speech, you say, I recommend developing and posting high-quality video podcasts on our website to recruit new employees. You are using the conclusion to


a.

preview your main points.

b. review the main theme of the presentation and to provide a final recommendation. c.

seek personal recognition by company management.

d.

prove your intelligence.

22. Your speech will be more effective if you have audience rapport. Rapport can be defined as a.

a bond connecting the speaker with the audience.

b.

the awareness of topic importance.

c.

an understanding of key points.

d.

the ability to hear clearly.

23. Speakers build audience rapport by a.

researching thoroughly and organizing the speech effectively.

b.

establishing credibility and demonstrating authority.

c. incorporating imagery, supplying verbal signposts, and using body language strategically. d.

speaking loudly, clearly, and rapidly.

24. To help his listeners keep track of where he is in the presentation, Dominic has just said, Next I will discuss three plans for reducing waste. What verbal signpost is Dominic using? a.

Summarizing

b.

Previewing

c.

Switching directions

d.

Enumeration


25. In her presentation on improving employee morale, Jillian makes this statement: So far, you've heard only about the problems we have with morale; let's move to some solutions. Jillian has employed the verbal signpost called a.

summarizing.

b.

previewing.

c.

switching directions.

d.

revealing.

26. Effective speakers must be aware of their nonverbal messages. Nonverbal means a.

content delivered by visual aids.

b.

information included on the outline, but not in the speech.

c.

appearance, movements, and vocal qualities.

d.

body language only.

27. Tyrone has just told his audience that engineering a hostile business takeover is similar to conducting guerilla warfare. He is using what technique? a.

Personal anecdote

b.

Quotation

c.

Personalized statistic

d.

Analogy

28. Like it or not, speakers are judged on their appearance. Which of these is the best advice on choosing your attire for a business presentation? a. Dress only as well as the best-dressed person in your audience, even if that means shorts and a t-shirt. b.

Dress professionally.


c.

Conduct a survey among your colleagues to determine their opinion about your

d.

Wear your most casual, comfortable clothing so that you feel more relaxed.

attire.

29. All of these are good advice for nonverbal messages during a presentation except a.

avoid being planted behind the podium.

b.

use a variety of gestures planned and rehearsed in advance.

c.

punctuate your words by varying your tone, volume, pitch, and pace.

d.

maintain appropriate eye contact to show your confidence and preparation.

30. When selecting and preparing your visual aids, keep in mind your goals as a speaker: a.

to make listeners understand, remember, and act on your ideas.

b.

to observe your audience, adjust your delivery, and continue your presentation.

c.

to inform, entertain, and persuade.

d. to plan and collect information, organize and rehearse, and deliver your presentation.

31. An effective visual aid a.

emphasizes and clarifies main points.

b.

increases audience interest.

c.

helps to jog the memory of a speaker.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

32. Which of the following statements is most accurate?


a. Today's speakers rely exclusively on the use of multimedia slides in their presentations because they know that multimedia slides have no disadvantages. b.

Low-tech visual aids are not appropriate for the business world.

c. Effective speakers analyze their audience and the speaking occasion to help them determine what type of visual aid to use. d.

Multimedia presentations are no longer used in the business world.

33. Because the presenter can create dynamic, colorful presentations that incorporate audio, videos, images, animation, and hyperlinks, one of the most popular visual aids is a.

overhead transparencies.

b.

flipcharts.

c.

multimedia slides.

d.

handouts.

34. Which of these tips regarding the use of handouts as a visual aid is most accurate? a. Handouts should be discussed during the presentation, but they should not be distributed until the presentation is finished. b. Savvy speakers no longer distribute handouts because audiences view the lowly handout as outdated and environmentally unfriendly. c. Handouts should be included in the registration packet, along with name tags, lunch tickets, and other event materials distributed prior to the presentation. d.

All answer choices are correct statements about handouts.

35. Zoom presentations a. use 3D to help audiences better understand and remember content, details, and relationships.


b. deliver content and materials in fewer than five minutes for busy business professionals who need just a snapshot of the main ideas. c. present information in a linear manner, much like traditional PowerPoint presentations.

d.

are appropriate for only informative presentations.

36. What statement about the use and meaning of color is most accurate? a. Secondary ideas are generally best conveyed with bold colors such as blue, green, and purple. b.

Colors can be used to arouse different responses or to symbolize concepts.

c.

Effective multimedia presentations use light text on a light background.

d.

The messages that colors convey are universal among all cultures.

37. For effective presentation slides, you should apply the 6-x-6 rule to most slides. The 6-x-6 rule means that a.

the entire presentation has no more than six slides.

b.

each slide has no more than six words per line and no more than six lines.

c.

each main idea has no more than six bullet points.

d.

each slide is discussed for six minutes.

38. Which of the following tips for using special effects in a slideshow is most accurate? a. audience.

Incorporate as many special effects as possible to keep the attention of your


b. Add animation features only if doing so helps convey your message or adds interest to the content. c. Never use any special effects in a slideshow because all special effects distract from the content of a slideshow. d.

Include special effects only if you are giving a sales presentation.

39. You should create a multimedia slide for all of the following reasons except to a.

illustrate and simplify complex ideas.

b.

provide a transition from one major point to the next.

c.

demonstrate your use of technology.

d.

introduce or review your key points.

40. Which is the best advice to follow when using presentation templates? a.

Adjust the color scheme or font style of existing templates to suit your needs.

b.

Never use preinstalled templates when you create a presentation.

c.

Always use the same template each time you create a presentation.

d.

All answer choices provide good advice about the use of presentation templates.

41. What is the best advice to follow when revising and proofreading your multimedia presentation? a.

Rely solely on spell-check to locate and correct any errors.


b. Don't worry about a few spelling and grammatical errors on slides because the attention will be on you rather than on the slides. c.

Proofread your slideshow using a printed copy.

d.

Don't worry about being consistent with spacing, capitalization, or punctuation.

42. Which of the following is the best recommendation for delivering an effective oral presentation? a.

Memorize the entire oral presentation so that you don't have to use notes.

b. Read the entire oral presentation to the audience so that nothing important will be overlooked. c.

Use an extemporaneous delivery.

d.

Wing it!

43. When you give a speech without multimedia technology, you may need to prepare notes. You should prepare these notes by writing major ideas a.

as single words.

b.

in paragraph form.

c.

in a complete sentence or two.

d.

on a Kleenex so that your audience won't know you have any notes.

44. Nearly every speaker must overcome stage fright; one of the most effective techniques to decrease stage fright is a.

wearing comfortable, relaxed clothing to enhance self-confidence.


b.

knowing the subject thoroughly.

c.

displaying a fully animated PowerPoint presentation.

d.

picturing the audience naked.

45. Niccolo is nervous about his upcoming presentation. Which of these techniques will overcome his case of nerves and allow Niccolo to deliver a good presentation? a.

Hold his breath as long as he can to clear his head.

b.

Tell the audience that he's nervous to get them to empathize with him.

c.

Ignore any stumbles and keep going.

d.

Avoid using visual aids.

46. Before giving a presentation, you should a.

practice repeatedly.

b.

arrive early to prepare the room and test any equipment.

c.

practice stress-reduction techniques.

d. All answer choices are steps that a speaker should complete prior to giving a presentation.

47. Follow all of these guidelines to deliver your presentation effectively except a.

present your first sentence from memory.

b.

begin speaking immediately; that is, speak as soon as you are behind the lectern.

c.

control your voice and your vocabulary.

d.

show enthusiasm.


48. Which of these is the most accurate description regarding the use of pauses or silence in a presentation? a. Speakers should never pause before starting a presentation because they will appear unsure. b. pausing.

Short fillers such as you know, like, um, or ah are better than any silence or

c. Speakers should avoid the use of pauses to ensure that they complete their speeches within the expected time frame. d. to another.

Silence can be effective for speakers when they are transitioning from one point

49. Anna plans to use a PowerPoint presentation in her speech. What advice should she follow? a. Avoid discussing and interpreting each visual aid for her audience; instead, she should let her audience members draw their own conclusions about what the visual is conveying. b. Use a laser pointer to draw her audience's attention to important points on her PowerPoint slides.

c. Leave each PowerPoint slide on the screen after she is done talking about it to ensure that her audience understands the slide. d.

Anna should practice all these tips as she uses PowerPoint in her presentation.

50. If you will take questions at the end of your presentation, which of these is the best advice? a. Announce the question-and-answer period in the conclusion of your presentation. b. If you don't know the answer to a question, you should offer your best guess or make up an answer.


c.

Begin each answer with a repetition of the question.

d.

Direct your answers just to the person who asked the question.

51. Only top-level executives must make business presentations. a.

True

b.

False

52. Most people have some apprehension about public speaking. a.

True

b.

False

53. Good speakers are born with an innate ability to give informative and persuasive presentations to audiences of all sizes. a.

True

b.

False

54. Effective speaking skills are important to recruiters. a.

True

b.

False

55. The only type of presentation that business professionals must deliver is an oral report. a.

True

b.

False

56. The most important part of preparation for an oral presentation is deciding the purpose.


a.

True

b.

False

57. Analyzing your audience can help you decide how to organize your presentation. a.

True

b.

False

58. No matter what kind of audience you will have, you must plan your presentation to focus on audience benefits. a.

True

b.

False

59. Good organization and conscious repetition are the two most powerful keys to audience comprehension and retention. a.

True

b.

False

60. Smart presenters never announce what they are going to talk about prior to the body of the speech to increase suspense and to avoid redundancy. a.

True

b.

False

61. One of the best ways to begin a speech is with a statement such as "Today I am going to talk about..." a.

True

b.

False


62. You can avoid one of the biggest problems with most oral presentations if you focus your speech on a few key ideas. a.

True

b.

False

63. Natalia is presenting statistics about the diversity of college students in different parts of the country. She will most likely organize by chronology. a.

True

b.

False

64. Listeners will remember the conclusion of a speech more than any other part of a speech. a.

True

b.

False

65. Good speakers try to form a bond with the audience. a.

True

b.

False

66. You can create a stronger organization in your presentation through the use of verbal signposts that will help your audience recognize your previews, summaries, or changes of direction. a.

True

b.

False

67. Your goals as a speaker are to make listeners understand, remember, and act on your ideas.


a.

True

b.

False

68. An oral presentation that incorporates visual aids is far more likely to be retained than one lacking visual enhancement. a.

True

b.

False

69. The only advantage of visual aids is that they improve the comprehension and retention of ideas. a.

True

b.

False

70. The use of visual aids can increase the self-confidence of a speaker. a.

True

b.

False

71. The only type of visual a business speaker should use is a multimedia presentation. a.

True

b.

False

72. Lindsay plans to give her audience a handout with images of her PowerPoint slides. Lindsay should distribute this handout after her presentation to maintain audience control. a.

True

b.

False


73. Zoom presentations are becoming a popular alternative to multimedia presentations because of their interactivity and cinematic capabilities. a.

True

b.

False

74. The most effective multimedia presentations rely heavily on text, use frequent bulleted lists, and employ few graphics or images. a.

True

b.

False

75. By preparing a visually appealing multimedia presentation and ensuring that each slide is great looking, you can compensate for thin content. a.

True

b.

False

76. Before you create a multimedia presentation, you must first analyze the speaking situation and determine the purpose of your slideshow. a.

True

b.

False

77. Roberto is preparing a PowerPoint multimedia presentation for a multicultural audience. He must choose his background colors carefully. a.

True

b.

False


78. It is acceptable for a speaker to break the 6 x 6 rule for multimedia slides when the users will be reviewing the presentation on their own with no speaker assistance. a.

True

b.

False

79. To maintain audience interest in a multimedia presentation, add as many animation and sound effects as possible. a.

True

b.

False

80. Create a slide in your multimedia presentation only if that slide will create interest, help the audience follow your ideas, highlight points you want your audience to remember, introduce or review key points, provide a transition from one idea to the next, or illustrate and simplify complex ideas. a.

True

b.

False

81. You should never use a standard template that comes preinstalled in a multimedia presentation software package. a.

True

b.

False

82. Rely on the spell-check feature in PowerPoint to catch all spelling and grammar errors appearing on your slides. a.

True

b.

False


83. Your best plan to create a convincing presentation is to read your entire presentation from a manuscript so that your audience is confident that you have not omitted anything. a.

True

b.

False

84. One of the best ways to reduce stage fright is to know your subject thoroughly. a.

True

b.

False

85. It is normal to experience some degree of stage fright when speaking before a group. a.

True

b.

False

86. You should present your first sentence from memory to establish rapport with the audience through eye contact. a.

True

b.

False

87. If you make an error during your presentation, you will recover more rapidly and reconnect most effectively with your audience if you immediately issue a sincere apology. a.

True

b.

False

88. To hide your nervousness, stand behind a speaking lectern while delivering your entire presentation. a.

True


b.

False

89. You should discuss and interpret each visual aid for an audience. a.

True

b.

False

90. When answering audience questions following a presentation, feel free to make up an answer if you don't know the answer. a.

True

b.

False

91. A(n) ____________________ is a Web-based presentation, lecture, workshop, or seminar that is transmitted digitally with or without video to train employees, interact with customers, and promote products.

92. An important preliminary step in public speaking is performing ____________________ analysis, which helps a speaker determine his or her organizational pattern, delivery style, and supporting material.

93. The introduction of a speech should capture the listeners' attention and get them involved, preview the main points of the speech, and establish the speaker's ____________________.

94. The ____________________ organizational pattern answers these questions: who, what, when, where, why, and how.

95. Good speakers try to build audience ____________________ by forming a bond with their audience.


96. Verbal ____________________, such as previews, summaries, and transitions, help an audience recognize the organization and main points of an oral message.

97. A comparison of two things or ideas using the words "like" or "as," such as Turning the course of this economic downturn has been like stopping an avalanche; it's possible, but very, very difficult, is a(n) ____________________.

98. ____________________ presentations use 3D to allow a speaker to focus on images to help the audience better understand and remember content, details, and relationships.

99. ____________________ points in a PowerPoint presentation consist of concise and parallel key phrases.

100. A(n) ____________________ delivery involves speaking freely, generally without notes, after preparing and rehearsing.

Chapter 13 The Job Search and Resumes in the Digital Age 1. Which of the following statements about today's job market is most accurate? a. years ago. b.

Today's job market remains stable and remarkably similar to the job market ten Personal networking and referrals continue to be the primary route to hiring.

c. Despite its popularity, the Internet has not affected the way in which individuals search for jobs.


d. Job candidates should avoid using job boards, search engines, and social networks to hunt for jobs.

2. Which of the following statements about today's job search is most accurate? a.

The emphasis of today's job search is on the needs of the employer.

b. Today's job searchers should create a universal résumé that can be used for every job for which they apply. c. Career paths for employees are now linear; that is, employees can expect to remain in the same position throughout their employment years. d. retraining.

Jobs are long lasting; therefore, today's employees will need little relearning and

3. All of the following are important preliminary steps for securing an interview except a.

developing a job-search strategy.

b.

preparing a résumé.

c.

knowing the hiring process.

d.

writing a thank-you message to an interviewer.

4. The first step in the job-search process is to a.

prepare a résumé.

b.

contact professional and personal references.

c.

analyze individual interests and goals and evaluate personal qualifications.

d.

purchase appropriate interview clothing.

5. Which of the following would help an individual assess his or her employment qualifications? a.

Do I speak, write, or understand another language?


b.

How would you describe the perfect job, boss, and coworkers?

c.

Would you like to work for someone else or be your own boss?

d.

Do you enjoy working with people, data, or things?

6. How can an individual find career data? a.

Using a library

b.

Searching the Web

c.

Conducting an interview with someone in a particular field

d.

All answer choices are sources for finding career data.

7. Which statement about open and hidden job markets is most accurate? a. market.

More jobs are secured through the open job market than through the hidden job

b.

The open job market consists of jobs that are advertised or listed.

c.

Most job seekers start searching for jobs using the hidden job market.

d. The hidden job market refers to those jobs that are filled through illegal or unethical tactics.

8. Kendra is searching for a job and wants to use electronic sources. Which of the following will probably be her best source of online job listings? a.

Big job boards such as Monster and CareerBuilder

b.

Specific company websites

c.

Her college website job board


d.

Niche websites

9. Which online source is used most for job searching and recruiting? a.

Twitter

b.

Monster

c.

CollegeGrad

d.

LinkedIn

10. Which of the following tips will best help you protect yourself when posting at online job boards? a.

Respond only to "blind" job postings.

b.

Post your résumé on any online site to increase your employment opportunities.

c.

Post your résumé only on sites that charge a fee.

d.

Consider omitting your home address and home phone number.

11. Most jobs today are found through a.

referrals and person-to-person contacts.

b.

newspaper advertisements.

c.

college career fairs.

d.

employment agencies.

12. To help you develop your personal network, you should do all of the following except a. develop a contact list of anyone who would be willing to talk with you about finding a job. b.

make contacts with people in person and online.

c.

follow up on referrals.


d.

use only online resources to help you connect with others.

13. Many job candidates use LinkedIn to a.

research companies.

b.

receive job alerts.

c.

expand their personal and professional networks.

d.

All answer choices are ways that LinkedIn can help candidates locate jobs.

14. A large part of your job-search strategy should be deciding what makes you special and desirable in the job market. This introspective process is called a.

networking.

b.

personal branding.

c.

desired workplace behavior.

d.

cognitive reflection.

15. All of the following are ways you can develop a personal brand except a. preparing a brief speech that describes who you are and what problems your skills can solve. b.

creating an individual tagline that separates you from other candidates.


c.

distributing business cards whenever you have an opportunity.

d.

creating an attractive résumé.

16. Because job competition is stiff, you must have a customized résumé. Having a customized résumé means that you a.

prepare a special résumé for every position you want.

b.

add pictures, color, and other graphics on the résumé.

c. hire a professional résumé preparation company to review and refine your basic résumé and then "dress it up." d.

include your personal information such as height, weight, and ethnicity.

17. The most popular résumé format is the a.

chronological format.

b.

direct format

c.

functional format.

d.

indirect format.

18. Most recruiters favor a a.

video résumé.

b.

functional résumé.


c.

chronological résumé.

d.

plain-text résumé.

19. You are just graduating from college and have little employment experience, yet you want to put together a persuasive résumé. What would be the best résumé style to use? a.

Chronological résumé

b.

Video résumé

c.

Functional résumé

d.

Infographic résumé

20. Which of the following is the best advice about résumé length? a.

Because recruiters are busy, keep it to one page.

b. Because recruiters and hiring managers want to know your skills, make it as long as needed to sell yourself. c.

Because recruiters interview applicants with two-page résumés, make it two

pages. d. Because experts are divided between one- or two-page résumé length, make your résumé a page and a half.

21. Which of these is the best tip for organizing the parts of a résumé? a.

Place your most important qualifications last so that they will be remembered.

b.

Use as many headings as needed to present your experiences and skills.

c.

Emphasize your skills and achievements aimed at a particular job or company.

d.

Always place the education section before the work experience section.

22. When creating the main heading of your résumé,


a. b. frequently.

place your name on the first line. include your current work e-mail address so that you can check your messages

c. include your home and cell phone numbers, along with the phone numbers of any family members who might take messages for you. d.

incorporate a catchy e-mail address such as hotmama@gmail.com.

23. Opinions on the use of a career objective are mixed. Which of the following is the best reason for candidates to add a career objective to their résumés? a. An objective shows flexibility and indicates that a candidate is adaptable and willing to change to suit the employer's needs. b. The primary goal of an objective is to make the recruiter's life easier by quickly classifying the résumé, which means the applicant is more likely to be hired. c. An objective can rapidly disqualify a candidate if the stated objective does not match a company's job description. d. An objective can tell the prospective employer that this candidate is sure about what he or she wants to do.

24. Which of the following is the best career objective for a résumé? a.

An entry-level position in the marketing area with a possibility of promotion

b.

A challenging job at an organization that raises the bar in data security

c.

Serving as a team player in a company where independent thinking is a top

priority d. An accounting position in which 10 years' experience and a license as a CPA will allow me to assist your company with payroll, employee benefits, and governmental tax and records reporting


25. What statement best describes the summary of qualifications portion of a résumé? a. Recruiters and hiring managers dislike the summary of qualifications section because it adds reading time. b. The summary of qualifications usually appears at the end of a résumé to provide a strong closing. c. Smart job seekers add a summary of their most impressive qualifications to their résumés to save the time of recruiters and hiring managers. d.

The summary of qualifications section is typically one or two concise paragraphs.

26. In the education section of your résumé, you should a. picture.

list all college courses that you have taken to give the employer a complete

b.

include relevant seminars attended and workshops completed.

c.

list only colleges where you have completed a degree or certificate program.

d.

specify your high school and college GPAs.

27. Which of these résumé tips is most accurate? a. bragging.

Don't list awards and honors on a résumé; if you list them, you will appear to be

b. Omit school and community activities from your résumé because they are unrelated to your work experience. c. Include your personal information (height, weight, and marital status) to give a potential employer a complete picture. d. Improve the visual impact of your résumé by placing your employment achievements and relevant job duties in an easy-to-read bulleted list.

28. Which of the following statements describing employment achievements would be most effective on a résumé?


a.

Directed work flow and scheduling for emergency room personnel

b.

Performed preventative maintenance on production equipment

c.

Achieved 125 percent of production goal for three consecutive quarters

d.

Knowledgeable in a variety of production processes and Just-in-Time theories

29. Which of the following statements uses an action verb to highlight an aptitude? a. b. instruction

Competent in creation of multimedia presentations Mastered QuickBooks Pro accounting software in 20 hours with minimal

c.

Ability to develop innovative and interactive Web pages

d.

Adaptable to changing work environments

30. Which of the following statements about personal data on a résumé is most accurate? a. Résumés should include an individual's birth date, marital status, height, weight, national origin, health, disabilities, and religious affiliation. b. Smart job seekers do not include hobbies or interests on their résumés because they know that recruiters cannot legally inquire about such information. c.

Résumés in the United States should omit personal data.

d. All answer choices reflect accurate statements about the inclusion of personal data on a résumé.

31. Which statement represents the best advice on the use of references? a.

Include a list of references directly on the résumé.

b.

Do not include personal or character references.

c. Remember that companies generally check references before a job interview to learn about a candidate in advance.


d. Be sure to add the statement References furnished upon request at the bottom of your résumé.

32. Which of the following statements about résumés is inaccurate? a.

A résumé is expected to showcase your strengths and minimize your weaknesses.

b.

An ethical résumé may include half-truths but not outright lies.

c. for firing.

Even after you have been hired, a misrepresentation on the résumé can be cause

d. Although they can't verify everything, most recruiters will verify your previous employment and education before hiring. 33. Which of the following is considered unethical on a résumé? a.

Misrepresenting a job title to make it sound more important

b.

Extending employment dates to avoid showing periods of unemployment

c.

Making your job duties sound more impressive and responsible than they really

d.

All answer choices are unethical.

were

34. Because your résumé is probably the most important document you will ever write, you should a.

enhance your job titles to make your résumé more impressive.

b.

include ample use of the personal pronoun I to make it more personal.

c.

consider having a knowledgeable friend or relative proofread it.

d.

use a professional résumé service to prepare your résumé.

35. Some of today's employers often use applicant tracking software to sort and evaluate résumés. Which of these steps will maximize the "hits" your résumé receives from this kind of software?


a.

Describe your experience, education, and qualifications in general terms.

b.

Avoid abbreviations and acronyms, especially those related to the job title.

c.

Include a keyword summary that highlights your qualifications and experiences.

d.

Focus on nouns that describe your skills and qualifications.

36. An e-portfolio is a.

an electronic copy of a résumé recorded on a CD or flash drive.

b. the addition of work samples and personal information as an attachment to an embedded résumé. c. hyperlinks. d.

a collection of digital files that can be accessed with the use of menus and the name given to résumés posted on job-search websites such as Monster.com.

37. Video résumés a.

present a job candidate's experiences, qualifications, and interests in video form.

b.

are appropriate for all professional fields.

c. and skills.

should be at least 15 minutes in length to showcase a candidate's background

d. positions.

are appropriate only for individuals who are applying for management-related

38. What kind of résumé uses colorful charts, graphics, and time lines to illustrate a candidate's work history and experience? a.

Chronological résumé


b.

Video résumé

c.

Infographic résumé

d.

Plain-text résumé

39. What is the most accurate statement about plain-text résumés? a. Plain-text résumés are in high demand for electronic applications because recruiters and employers no longer ask candidates to send application materials by postal mail. b. A plain-text format is widely used for posting to online job boards and for applying by e-mail. c. Plain-text résumés will look exactly like the original and cannot be altered without Adobe Acrobat and other conversion software. d. A plain-text résumé enables a job candidate to present his or her experiences, qualifications, and interests in video form.

40. When creating a plain-text résumé, a.

use white space or a line of hyphens or equal signs to separate sections.

b. add page breaks, sections breaks, tabs, and tables to emphasize important information. c.

use bullets to enhance the readability of your résumé.

d.

add lots of images, designs, and colors for visual impact.

41. Employers today will probably ask you to submit your résumé in any of following formats except as a a.

PDF document.

b.

professionally typeset document.

c.

Word document.


d.

plain-text document.

42. The purpose of a cover message is to a.

showcase an applicant's command of the English language.

b.

secure a job interview.

c.

introduce the résumé.

d.

repeat the information presented on the résumé.

43. The biggest error most applicants make when writing a cover message is a.

misspelling the receiver's name or the company's name.

b.

forgetting to enclose their résumé.

c.

making the letter too generic.

d.

not asking for the interview.

44. A job opening has been announced. Which of these answer choices will be the best opening sentence for the cover message? a.

You seek a master Web engineer, and I need a job; we are perfect for each other!

b. Dr. Matthew Skalski, IT director at Northwestern University, told me that you have an opening for a Web engineer with experience in networking, data management, and innovations. c.

Please consider this letter my application for your opening in the IT Department.

d.

Do you need a Web engineer with over three years of experience?


45. Which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the opening in a cover message for an unsolicited job? a.

If you are unsure whether a position exists, use a more persuasive opening.

b. Demonstrate knowledge of the reader's business to convince the person to continue reading. c. Show how your special talents will benefit the company and convince the reader that your skill is exactly what this position demands. d. Be vague about the type of position you're seeking so that you might be considered for a variety of jobs.

46. In the body of a cover message, you should a.

repeat the information presented on your rĂŠsumĂŠ.

b.

explain why you need a job.

c. emphasize writer benefits because hiring officers want to know what appeals to you about this particular company. d.

demonstrate your qualifications and show how they fit the targeted job.

47. Which of these is the best statement to present a job candidate's information in the body of a cover message? a.

I am a qualified and fully licensed pediatric nurse.

b. Your posting description closely matches my experiences assisting dysfunctional families in crisis, and recently I've taken seminars in family dynamics to develop the additional skills that your ad indicates are essential. c.

You need a licensed, registered nurse, and I meet those qualifications.

d. Having graduated summa cum laude from Southwest College, I am well-prepared and eager to apply my knowledge in nursing.


48. Choose the best closing sentence for a cover message. a.

You should schedule my interview on Tuesday, September 7, at 10 a.m.

b.

Please feel free to call me at your earliest convenience.

c. position.

I hope you contact me soon to set up an interview for the systems analyst

d. To add to your team an experienced systems analyst with proven analytical and troubleshooting skills, call me at (555) 555-4321 to arrange an interview. 49. Which of the following is the best advice to follow for a cover message accompanying a résumé sent by e-mail or fax? a. Take the time to prepare a customized cover message to accompany your résumé sent electronically. b.

Send your cover message separately from a faxed or e-mailed résumé.

c. Shorten your e-mail or fax cover message to a brief statement such as Please consider the attached résumé for your opening. d.

Skip the cover message entirely because the fax or e-mail includes your name.

50. Which of the following is the best tip for creating a successful cover message? a. Use different paper colors and paper types for your résumé and cover message to create a strong visual impact. b. Make activities and outcomes, not yourself, the subject of sentences to reduce overuse of "I." c.

Use a creative letter style to surprise the reader and make a big impact.

d.

Keep the focus on your skills and traits through frequent use of "I" statements.

51. The Internet has changed the way individuals search for jobs. a.

True


b.

False

52. In today's competitive job market, the emphasis of the job search is on what the applicant wants and needs. a.

True

b.

False

53. The job-search process begins long before you are ready to prepare your résumé because you must invest time and effort in self-evaluation. a.

True

b.

False

54. The first step in a job search is selecting an appropriate résumé format. a.

True

b.

False

55. You can decide what qualifications you possess and how you can prove them by asking yourself What evidence can I offer that I am a self-starter or a leader? a.

True

b.

False

56. Students who are serious about the job search should include an internship in their education. a.

True

b.

False


57. Today, most jobs are filled through the open job market. a.

True

b.

False

58. Using the big job boards such as Monster or CareerBuilder to locate an open position is a waste of time. a.

True

b.

False

59. The best way to find a job online is at a company's own website. a.

True

b.

False

60. Many job seekers today use social networking sites like Facebook and LinkedIn to network and to find positions. a.

True

b.

False

61. To conduct a safe job search online, you should post your information privately and limit your personal information. a.

True

b.

False

62. More jobs are found through referrals and person-to-person contacts than through any other method. a.

True


b.

False

63. LinkedIn is the No. 1 social media site to use when looking for a job. a.

True

b.

False

64. An important step in the job-search process is building a brand for yourself. a.

True

b.

False

65. The résumé format most popular with recruiters and hiring managers is the functional résumé because it focuses on the job applicant's skills and abilities related to the position sought. a.

True

b.

False

66. A résumé should never exceed one page. a.

True

b.

False

67. Begin your résumé by placing the word Résumé at the top to identify the purpose of your document. a.

True

b.

False

68. Every résumé should include a career objective.


a.

True

b.

False

69. The purpose of a summary of qualifications is to present your most impressive qualifications. a.

True

b.

False

70. In the education section of your résumé, list all courses you have taken. a.

True

b.

False

71. In the work experience section of your résumé, you should include only those jobs that you think will help you win the targeted position. a.

True

b.

False

72. A résumé should include personal data (birth date, health, height, weight, and sometimes a photograph) to help the recruiter finalize his or her decision. a.

True

b.

False

73. References should be listed on a résumé. a.

True


b.

False

74. Because they expect you to showcase your strengths and hide your weaknesses, employers say it is acceptable to self-promote and distort facts on your résumé. a.

True

b.

False

75. Proofreading a résumé is important because a résumé must be perfect. a.

True

b.

False

76. Once your résumé is submitted to a company, the first reader of it may be a computer. a.

True

b.

False

77. You can maximize recognition of your résumé by a tracking system if you use targeted keywords and incorporate words from the advertisement or job description. a.

True

b.

False

78. The most important reason to prepare an e-portfolio is that it shows off your talents and qualifications more thoroughly than a print résumé. a.

True

b.

False


79. A video résumé allows candidates to demonstrate their public speaking, interpersonal, and technical skills more impressively than they can in a traditional print résumé. a.

True

b.

False

80. Another name for a video résumé is an infographic résumé. a.

True

b.

False

81. Many applicants prepare a plain-text résumé because it can be pasted directly into the body of an e-mail message. a.

True

b.

False

82. All résumés should be submitted as Microsoft Word documents. a.

True

b.

False

83. The purpose of a cover message is to secure a job interview. a.

True

b.

False

84. A cover message should always be limited to one page. a.

True

b.

False


85. The biggest mistake job seekers make when writing cover messages is making them sound too generic. a.

True

b.

False

86. You can make your cover message more appealing by addressing it specifically to the Human Resources Department or Hiring Manager. a.

True

b.

False

87. If an employment position has been announced and applicants are being solicited, you can write your cover message using a direct approach. a.

True

b.

False

88. I hope to hear from you soon is an effective closing for a cover message. a.

True

b.

False

89. A cover message doesn't always need to accompany your résumé; for instance, if you send your résumé by fax or e-mail, a cover message is not necessary. a.

True

b.

False


90. Although a résumé must be perfect, a few errors or typos in a cover message are acceptable. a.

True

b.

False

91. The ________________ job market consists of jobs that are advertised or listed.

92. The ____________________ job market consists of jobs that are not announced or advertised.

93. Personal ____________________ involves deciding what makes you special and desirable in the job market.

94. A résumé that lists work history job by job, starting with the most recent position, has been prepared using the ____________________ style.

95. A résumé that focuses on a candidate's skills rather than on past employment has been prepared using the ____________________ style.

96. A(n) ____________________ of qualifications, which presents three to eight bulleted statements identifying your most impressive accomplishments to prove that you are the ideal candidate for the position, appears near the top of your résumé.

97. A(n) ____________________ résumé uses colorful charts, graphics, and time lines to illustrate a candidate's work history and experience.


98. A(n) ____________________ résumé is used for e-mailing or pasting into online résumé submission forms.

99. Another name for a letter of application is a(n) ____________________ message or letter.

100. In the ____________________ of your cover message, you should promote your qualifications for the position.

Chapter 14 Interviewing and Following Up 1. Which of the following statements about job interviews is most accurate? a. The more an individual learns about the interview process, the better prepared he or she will be. b. another.

Job interviews allow employers and candidates opportunities to evaluate one

c.

Most people find job interviews stressful.

d.

All answer choices are accurate statements about job interviews.

2. A job interview provides an opportunity for you to do all of the following except a.

expand on the information in your résumé.

b.

convince the employer of your potential.

c.

meet with all the company's employees.

d.

learn more about the job and the company.


3. Which of the following statements about screening interviews is most accurate? a.

Screening interviews are conducted after hiring/placement interviews.

b.

Screening interviews are always conducted face-to-face.

c.

Most screening interviews are conducted during job fairs.

d.

Companies use screening interviews to save time and money.

4. Which type of hiring/placement interview is the most common? a.

Sequential interview

b.

Online interview

c.

Panel interview

d.

One-on-one interview

5. Panel interviews are typically conducted by people who will be your supervisors and colleagues. An important advantage of the panel interview is a.

allowing the company to measure the candidate's leadership and communication

b.

saving company money on repeated interviews and related costs.

c.

determining the best candidate through multiple interviews.

d.

testing the reactions of a candidate during nerve-racking situations.

skills.

6. Cody will be participating in a panel interview. What advice should he follow? a.

Try to gather basic biographical information about each panel member.


b.

Maintain eye contact with the questioner as well as with the others

c.

Show how he is motivated, qualified, and a good fit for position.

d.

All answer choices are good tips for Cody as he participates in a panel interview.

7. Global Connections Inc. is interviewing several candidates for a leadership position requiring strong communication skills. What form of interview will most likely be used for this interview? a.

A one-on-one interview conducted by the human resources director

b.

A stress interview conducted by the head of the programming division

c.

A computer screening interview to test applicants' programming skills

d.

A group interview of several candidates at one time

8. Which of the following statements most accurately describes a sequential interview? a. You must be totally committed to the job and the company to participate in a sequential interview, which often takes weeks or even months to complete. b. You can assume that later interviewers know what was said in a previous interview because sequential interviews are designed to save time. c. As sequential interviews progress, interviews become more in-depth, which means that you need to know even more about the company. d. As an applicant, you should never repeat yourself because each interviewer will brief the other interviewers, making it unnecessary for you to answer the same questions.

9. When interviewing for high-pressure positions, companies may use stress interview techniques, which include being a.

greeted immediately by the interviewer.


b.

asked rapid-fire questions by members of a team.

c.

given a test with no time limit.

d.

offered challenging food, beverages, or tobacco products.

10. Which of the following statements about online interviews is most accurate? a.

Very few of today's companies conduct online interviews.

b.

Online interviews save job applicants and companies time and money.

c. Individuals who participate in online interviews need not be concerned about their appearance, eye contact, and nonverbal behaviors. d. Companies conduct online interviews only when they must interview candidates who reside in other countries.

11. What is the most professional telephone tip to follow during your job search? a.

Create a unique voice mail message to demonstrate your individuality.

b.

Don't let children answer the phone during your job search.

c. Answer your cell phone any time it rings so that you don't miss the opportunity to speak with a potential employer. d. Hire a professional to record your voice mail message to ensure that proper articulation, enunciation, and vocal intonations are used. 12. Which of the following is the best advice to make a positive first impression in a phone conversation with an employer?


a. Don't refer to your résumé or references during the first phone call because these references are appropriate only in the placement interview. b. Take notes about the conversation immediately after hanging up to avoid forgetting details. c. In the first phone call, be polite and enthusiastic; but don't be pushy by discussing your qualifications. d.

If caught off guard by the call, ask whether you can call back in a few minutes.

13. How you can you locate information about a company? a.

Talking with current employees

b.

Searching the Web

c.

Reviewing company advertisements and promotions

d.

All answer choices would help you locate information about a company.

14. Rebecca has an interview with a large company in a nearby city. What information should she learn about the company before her interview? a.

The company's mission and goals

b.

The company's customers and competitors

c.

The management structure and names of leaders

d.

Rebecca should find out all this information about the prospective employer.

15. Effective interview-preparation techniques include practicing answers to possible questions, preparing to explain problem areas on your résumé, deciding on professional attire, and


a.

informing your current employer of your plans.

b.

preparing success stories.

c.

writing a resignation letter.

d.

purchasing a gift for the interviewer.

16. Braden is preparing several success stories prior to his job interview for a sales representative position. Which of the following scenarios would result in the best success story for this position? a.

A story about a lemonade stand that Braden ran when he was a child

b. A story about working as part of a team in college to prepare a classroom presentation about a company's history c.

A story about volunteering for a local food bank over the holidays

d. A story about developing a new sales technique that increased his customer sales by 30 percent over a six-month period

17. Because many companies now use social networking sites to screen job candidates, what is the best advice you should follow to project a positive image? a.

Join as many groups or fan pages as possible to demonstrate your popularity.

b.

Make your personal social networking pages available to all individuals.

c.

Remove any photos, content, and links that could make you look unprofessional.

d. Update your status about your current job search frequently so that your friends and family know how things are going.

18. Which of the following is the best advice when traveling to and arriving at your interview? a. get.

Limit grooming time because the more time you have, the more nervous you will


b. If something unexpected happens causing you to be late, immediately call the interviewer to explain what is happening. c. If you smoke on the way to the interview, brush your teeth or chew some gum when you arrive and liberally apply perfume or cologne. d. Arrive at the interview 15 to 20 minutes early, and greet the receptionist promptly on arrival.

19. When you enter the office for an interview, a.

greet the interviewer confidently, and wait for him or her to initiate a handshake.

b.

avoid direct eye contact so that you do not make others feel uncomfortable.

c.

introduce yourself to the receptionist, and wait to be invited to sit.

d. immediately open your briefcase to sort through your contents to locate copies of your rĂŠsumĂŠ.

20. Which of the following will not help you reduce your fears about interviews? a.

Let the interviewer have complete charge of the entire interview.

b.

Practice interviewing as much as you can, especially with real companies.

c.

Rehearse answers to the most frequently asked interview questions.

d.

Take deep breaths while waiting for the interview to begin.

21. You can send positive nonverbal messages during your interview by dressing professionally, controlling your body movements, making eye contact, and a.

arriving on time.

b.

using gender-neutral language.

c.

presenting success stories to respond to behavioral questions.

d.

preparing thoroughly.


22. Which of the following is the best nonverbal behavior to display during an interview? a.

Sit erect, leaning forward slightly to show interest and confidence.

b.

Change positions often and gesture as frequently as possible to convey high

c. control.

Lean forward, resting your arms on the desk or table before you, to indicate

d.

Relax back into your chair, slouching slightly, to demonstrate self-assurance.

energy.

23. Which of the following is the best advice when answering interview questions? a. Focus your answers on your strengths, but reveal a weakness or two to show that you are not perfect. b. respect. c.

Use the interviewer's name and title each time you answer a question to show To be concise, answer questions with a simple yes or no whenever possible.

d. Aim answers at the key characteristics needed, such as expertise, motivation, and a pleasant personality.

24. Although you can't expect to be perfect in an employment interview, you can do your best by a.

showing some passion by bringing up a controversial topic and taking a clear

stand. b. speaking forcefully but using some slang such as like and ya know to sound relaxed and friendly. c. elaborating on your answers and criticizing the person or object causing the problems at a previous job. d.

occasionally refocusing and clarifying vague questions by asking Do you mean...?


25. If an interviewer says Tell me about yourself, what is the best way to respond? a. Present your brief biography as a chronology, beginning with when and where you were born. b.

Briefly discuss educational, professional, or business-related strengths.

c.

To start the interview positively, provide a few humorous personal anecdotes.

d.

Tell several success stories, making sure to fill at least ten minutes of interview

time.

26. If an interviewer says Why do you want to work for us?, you should a. employers.

briefly summarize problems at your current job that require you to change

b. show what you know about the interviewer's company and how your goals match the company and its culture. c. explain that as a recent graduate you want to work for any company needing a person with your skills and background. d. tell the truth about your reasons for seeking this job; for example, you are unemployed, you need more pay or better benefits, or you just graduated.

27. How should you respond if an interviewer asks, Why should we hire you when other applicants have better credentials? a. Admit that you are less qualified, but stress you can be paid less than more experienced applicants. b. Describe how you are correcting one of your most significant weaknesses to display your strong work ethic and determination. c. Confidently explain your strengths such as your openness to new ideas and knowledge of the latest methods and equipment. d.

Since it is clear that you will not get this job offer, do not answer this question.


28. When the interviewer asks you questions about the future, you should provide answers that a.

show ambition and interest in succeeding with the company.

b.

are vague because no one can predict the future.

c.

indicate that you want the interviewer's job.

d.

focus on your needs.

29. Which of these is the most effective response to the question, What do you think is your greatest weakness? a. this field.

Some people complain that I'm a workaholic with nearly too much passion for

b. own weight.

To tell the truth, I become frustrated with lazy coworkers who don't pull their

c. My typing speed isn't as fast as I would like, but this position doesn't require me to use the computer. d. I've worked hard to eliminate every weakness, and I am confident you will find me the perfect employee for this position.

30. When an interviewer asks you a challenging question about a weakness, what is the best way to respond? a.

To prove you have only strengths, reply that you have no weaknesses at all.

b. To be completely honest with the interviewer, talk about the employment weakness that concerns you most. c.

Mention a previous weakness and the way you have corrected it.

d.

Demonstrate your honesty by bringing up every weakness you can identify.

31. Which of the following is an example of a situational question? a.

If you were aware that a coworker submitted false data, what would you do?


b.

What is your ideal work environment?

c.

What do you predict for the future of our industry?

d.

Tell me about a time when you dealt with confidential information.

32. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral interview question? a. b. situation?

Who in your life has most inspired you and why? An irate customer is demanding her money back. How would you handle the

c.

Tell me about a time when you solved a difficult problem.

d.

What is your greatest strength?

33. When the interviewer says Describe a time when you worked successfully as a member of a team, your best response will be to a. reply that you have been a member of so many successful teams that no particular instance stands out. b. say that you not only enjoy teamwork, especially problem-solving groups, but also work well independently. c.

tell a success story about a specific group project, your contributions, and the

results. d. list the names of all work teams on which you participated and stress that all were successful.

34. If the interviewer begins a question with Tell me about a time when..., you should a.

recognize that this is a trick question and tactfully refuse to answer.

b.

politely explain that you have never experienced such a situation.

c.

make up any answer and wish that you had been better prepared.


d.

describe a situation or task, tell what action you took, and emphasize a positive

result.

35. What is the most effective way to handle an illegal or inappropriate question during an interview? a.

If you find the question harmless and you want the job, go ahead and answer it.

b.

Confront the interviewer about the illegal nature of the question.

c. Storm out of the room in anger; after all, you wouldn't work for a company with such low ethics. d.

Refuse to answer the question because it is your legal right to do so.

36. Which of following is a legal interview question? a.

Are you married?

b.

Are you a U.S. citizen?

c.

Do you have any disabilities?

d.

Are you authorized to work in the United States?

37. If an interviewer asks if you have any questions at the end of an interview, which of the following is an inappropriate response? a.

May I have a tour of the facilities?

b.

When do you expect to make a decision?

c.

No, I have no questions right now; you have shared all the information I need.

d.

What are the major challenges for a person in this position?

38. How should you close an interview?


a.

Briefly review your strengths, thank the interviewer, and ask what action will

b.

Be confident and say, This job sounds great! When do I start work?

c.

Ask about salary and benefits.

d.

Invite the interviewer to lunch.

follow.

39. What should you do immediately after leaving an interview? a.

Take notes about the interview.

b.

Celebrate.

c.

Call the interviewer to thank him or her.

d.

Send the interviewer(s) flowers.

40. Which of the following statements about interview thank-you messages is most accurate? a.

Thank-you messages are not important to employers.

b. To avoid appearing as overzealous, an applicant should wait at least two to three days before sending a thank-you note. c.

Separate thank-you messages should be sent to each interviewer.

d. To personalize a thank-you message, an interviewee should begin each sentence in the thank-you message with the personal pronoun I.

41. After writing a follow-up letter to thank your interviewer, your next step should be a.

alerting your references that they may be contacted by the employer.

b.

sending a small gift to the receptionist to show your sincere appreciation.

c. calling the organization's human resources department to learn more about your competitors for the open position.


d.

waiting at least one month for a call of acceptance or rejection.

42. What information should you provide your references so that they can write a recommendation? a.

Name of the company

b.

Position title and expected job requirements

c.

A copy of your rĂŠsumĂŠ

d.

You should provide all this information to your references.

43. How should you contact an employer if you have interviewed for a job and haven't heard from the interviewer in a few days? a.

Phone

b.

E-mail

c.

Certified mail

d.

Twitter message

44. Recommended guidelines for completing application forms include which of the following?

paid.

a.

Disregard questions that do not apply to you by leaving them blank.

b.

Read the entire form before beginning to complete it.

c.

Ignore misspellings because you are not expected to carry a dictionary.

d.

Leave any questions about salary blank because they might limit what you will be


45. What is the most appropriate response on a job application form to a question that asks your reason for leaving your last position? a.

Fired

b.

Quit

c.

None of your business

d.

Accepted a position with more responsibility

46. The purposes of sending an application or rĂŠsumĂŠ follow-up message to an employer include jogging the memory of the hiring manager, showing your serious interest in the position, and a. b. decision.

emphasizing your qualifications or adding new information. sending a personal note to the receptionist, who often helps make the final

c.

sharing your photograph to match your qualifications to your face.

d.

setting a deadline for the employer to offer you the position.

47. When you apply for a position but are rejected, employment experts recommend that you a. send a rejection letter saying you believe the employer has made a hiring decision error in not choosing you. b. phone the employer's personnel office to determine the reason why you were not selected. c. send a rejection follow-up message indicating you are disappointed but will contact the company again in a month in case a job opens up. d.

do not apply at that company again for at least 12 months.

48. In a job acceptance letter, your tasks are


a. accepting the position, asking for clarification as needed, and expressing appreciation. b. position.

thanking the interviewer for the interview and job offer and accepting the

c. start date.

confirming your acceptance, reviewing salary and benefits, and affirming the

d. noting the job offer date, specifying the job acceptance date, and agreeing to the job start date.

49. If you must turn down a job offer, employment experts suggest you should send the employer a letter a. declining the offer, providing a thorough explanation of the reasons for declining, and expanding on your qualifications for a new position. b.

thanking the employer for the offer and briefly declining the position.

c.

specifying personal reasons for your decision.

d.

declining the position and offering assistance finding your replacement.

50. When writing a resignation letter to your employer, you should a. allow more than the standard two-week notice if you have a high or responsible position within the company. b.

offer thanks and end with a forward-looking statement.

c.

remind the employer of your contributions.

d.

All answer choices are correct.

51. A job interview is a two-street. The employer will be judging you, and you will be evaluating the employer. a.

True


b.

False

52. As a job candidate, the purposes of an interview are to convince the employer of your potential, learn more about the job and the company, and expand on the information on your rĂŠsumĂŠ. a.

True

b.

False

53. Hiring/placement interviews are typically conducted before screening interviews. a.

True

b.

False

54. Many screening interviews occur on the telephone. a.

True

b.

False

55. The most common format for hiring/placement interviews is the sequential interview. a.

True

b.

False

56. If a company is conducting a panel interview, a job candidate should establish eye contact with only the person who asked the question. a.

True

b.

False


57. A sequential interview is usually shorter than a one-on-one interview. a.

True

b.

False

58. Because online interviews are typically conducted using webcams and videoconferencing software, applicants do not need to worry about their appearance, nonverbal behaviors, or eye contact. a.

True

b.

False

59. Most employers contact job applicants by e-mail to set up interviews. a.

True

b.

False

60. During your job search, you should treat any call from an employer just like an interview. a.

True

b.

False

61. One of the most important steps in effective interviewing is researching the target company. a.

True

b.

False

62. Before your interview you should study the job opening, identify key needs, and then develop matching success stories that emphasize your most strategic skills, areas of knowledge, strongest personality traits, and key accomplishments.


a.

True

b.

False

63. Don't worry about what information is available about you online because this information is irrelevant to the job search. a.

True

b.

False

64. On the day of your interview, you should arrive at least 30 minutes prior to the scheduled appointment. a.

True

b.

False

65. When greeting the interviewer, you should smile, maintain direct eye contact, and wait for the interviewer to initiate a handshake. a.

True

b.

False

66. One of the best ways to overcome fear is to know what happens in a typical interview. a.

True

b.

False

67. When answering interview questions, interject many verbal pauses to give yourself time to formulate appropriate answers. a.

True

b.

False


68. To avoid coming across as tentative in an interview, always answer a question even if you don't understand it. a.

True

b.

False

69. When answering interview questions, always aim your responses at the key characteristics interviewers seek. a.

True

b.

False

70. To demonstrate your humility, openly share at least one personal weakness with the interviewer. a.

True

b.

False

71. When responding to the question Tell me about yourself, focus on personal information such as your hometown, family, and hobbies. a.

True

b.

False

72. To respond effectively to behavioral questions, use the storytelling technique to relate a success story about a recent educational or work situation or task. a.

True

b.

False


73. A job applicant should never answer an illegal or inappropriate interview question. a.

True

b.

False

74. At the end of an interview, you will usually be asked if you have any questions. The most effective response is No to avoid sounding too eager. a.

True

b.

False

75. The first thing you should do after an interview is to contact your references. a.

True

b.

False

76. Sending a thank-you note after an interview is a social nicety that distinguishes you from other candidates, but thank-you messages carry little weight in the hiring process. a.

True

b.

False

77. An appropriate statement to include in a thank-you message is Thank you for taking the time to interview me. a.

True

b.

False

78. If you've been interviewed by more than one person, send one thank-you note to the person who appeared to be in charge. a.

True

b.

False


79. Always ask permission before submitting someone's name as a reference. a.

True

b.

False

80. When asking a previous supervisor to write a letter of recommendation, you would be smart to provide the supervisor with a detailed description of your target job, the recommendation deadline, and copies of your résumé and college transcript. a.

True

b.

False

81. If you don't hear from the interviewer within five days, the best follow up is a phone call to the interviewer to inquire about the decision and to indicate your extreme desire for the job. a.

True

b.

False

82. If you have submitted a résumé and cover letter, you will not be required to fill out a job application form. a.

True

b.

False

83. When completing a job application form, always leave any items blank that do not apply. a.

True

b.

False

84. Fill out a job application form using a pencil to allow for easy erasure of mistakes, clear handwriting, and dark lettering.


a.

True

b.

False

85. If asked for the position desired on a job application form, answer with Anything or Open to increase your odds of securing a position. a.

True

b.

False

86. If your rĂŠsumĂŠ or application generates no response within a reasonable time, you should consider sending a short follow-up e-mail or letter to emphasize your qualifications or to add new information. a.

True

b.

False

87. When you are rejected for a job that you considered perfect, you should give up on this company and move rapidly to identify similar positions in other organizations. a.

True

b.

False

88. Even though you will likely receive and accept your job offer via telephone, you should send the employer a letter or e-mail to document your acceptance of the job. a.

True

b.

False

89. Once you have resigned in a meeting with your supervisor, you do not need to document your resignation in a letter or e-mail. a.

True


b.

False

90. A resignation letter typically includes a two-week notice. However, if you hold a management position, you should provide your employer a longer notice. a.

True

b.

False

91. Many companies now use ____________________ interviews to save time and money by eliminating less-qualified candidates before scheduling face-to-face interviews.

92. ____________________ interviews occur when a company interviews several candidates for the same position at the same time.

93. A(n) ____________________ interview is meant to test a candidate's reactions during nerve-racking situations.

94. To feel confident and to sell your qualifications, you should prepare and practice ____________________ stories that provide specific examples of your educational and workrelated experience to showcase your qualifications and achievements.

95. Examples of positive ____________________ messages for the interview process include arriving on time, dressing professionally, controlling your body movements, exhibiting good posture, using effective eye contact, smiling appropriately, and listening attentively.

96. Your interviewer says to you Describe a time when... or Tell me about a time when... These phrases are openings for a(n) ____________________ question.

97. Following an interview you should send a(n) ____________________ note, e-mail, or letter to the individual(s) who interviewed you.


98. To provide the best possible recommendation of you to a potential employer, your ____________________ need information about the company and position.

99. Some job candidates who are declining a job offer choose to write a(n) ____________________ message to thank the employer for the job offer and to formally refuse the position.

100. You should write a formal ____________________ letter to confirm the exact date you will terminate your employment when it is a position you have held for an extended period.

Unit Test 1 Chapters 1.4 True / False

1. Highly developed technical or "hard" skills are the most sought-after employment skills demanded by employers. a.

True

b.

False

2. Most people are good listeners. a.

True

b.

False


3. Nonverbal communication includes only those behaviors that are intended. a.

True

b.

False

4. Communicators in high-context cultures (such as those in China, Japan, and Arab countries) tend to be intuitive, contemplative, and group oriented. a.

True

b.

False

5. Ethnocentrism is inherent in all cultures. a.

True

b.

False

6. The central objective of communication is the transmission of meaning. a.

True

b.

False

7. Good writers spend most of their time on the revising phase of the 3-x-3 writing process. a.

True

b.

False

8. The richest communication channel is e-mail. a.

True


b.

False

9. Skilled business communicators use an abundance of first-person pronouns such as I, we, and our to connect with an audience. a.

True

b.

False

10. Every mechanic must submit his timesheet by Friday is a well-written sentence. a.

True

b.

False

11. Many routine tasks, such as drafting e-mails, memos, letters, informational reports, and oral presentations, require the writer to collect formal research. a.

True

b.

False

12. Use the indirect strategy when your audience may be uninterested, unwilling, hostile, or displeased. a.

True

b.

False

13. Although writing a rĂŠsumĂŠ is part of the job-search process, you should begin the process by analyzing your interests and goals and evaluating your qualifications is an example of a compound sentence. a.

True

b.

False


14. Active-voice verbs are preferred in business writing. a.

True

b.

False

15. You should strive to write paragraphs with eight or fewer printed lines. a.

True

b.

False

16. I am sending this message to let you know that Tuesday's meeting has been cancelled is a concise and direct message. a.

True

b.

False

17. Please give consideration to our latest offer is an effectively written sentence for a business message. a.

True

b.

False

18. Well-designed documents increase readability and audience comprehension. a.

True

b.

False

19. To save time, you should thoroughly proofread a document as you write it. a.

True


b.

False

20. The best way to judge the success of your communication is through feedback. a.

True

b.

False

Multiple Choice

21. Which of the following statements about writing skills in today's business world is most accurate? a. important.

Because of today's emphasis on technology, the need for good writing skills is not

b.

Employees today can expect to write fewer messages than in previous years.

c.

Today's employees must use a variety of media to communicate with others.

d. Only employees in fields such as communications and public relations must be able to write effective business messages.

22. Several barriers may cause poor listening. Which of the following is a psychological barrier to effective listening? a.

Focusing on a speaker's unusual voice

b.

Concentrating on a speaker's unfamiliar words

c.

Having noisy surroundings

d.

Tuning out speakers whose ideas do not match our own


23. To improve your nonverbal communication, which of the following tips should you practice? a.

Establish and maintain eye contact with others.

b.

Minimize any distracting or competing background sounds.

c.

Associate with people from diverse cultures.

d.

All answer choices are effective ways to improve your nonverbal communication.

24. The most important dimension of culture is a.

time orientation.

b.

context.

c.

individualism.

d.

power distance.

25. When you have a conversation with someone from another culture, you can reduce misunderstandings if you a.

speak in short sentences.

b.

accept a yes or a nod to affirm comprehension.

c.

wait until you finish a long explanation to request feedback.


d.

use lots of slang to demonstrate your knowledge of your culture's language.

26. Communication begins when a.

an idea is put into words or conveyed through gestures.

b.

the idea is sent through a communication channel.

c.

the sender has an idea.

d.

the receiver decodes the message.

27. Business messages should be a.

writer oriented.

b.

purposeful.

c.

complex.

d.

lengthy.

28. Before you write a message, your first step should be to a.

conduct research.

b.

prepare an outline of your ideas.

c.

analyze the audience and anticipate its reaction to the message.

d.

select an appropriate organizational pattern.

29. Shipping Clerk Christina included this sentence in her message to a customer: Pertaining to your returns, we must verify the shipping numbers and lot codes of all outstanding merchandise prior to issuance of a refund. This sentence is an example of a.

an unprofessional tone.

b.

overly formal language.


c.

a conversational style.

d.

plain English.

30. Which of the following sentences uses positive language? a.

Your order cannot be shipped before June 1.

b.

Your August 15 letter claims that your new computer is malfunctioning.

c.

We can't provide a free printer with your purchase of a computer.

d. We look forward to completing your order when we receive your credit card information.

31. Which of the following is a formal research method? a.

Performing a scientific experiment

b.

Searching the Web

c.

Conducting an interview

d.

All answer choices are examples of formal research methods.

32. All of the following are advantages of the direct strategy except a.

saving the reader's time.

b.

respecting the feelings of the audience.

c.

setting a proper frame of mind.

d.

reducing frustration.

33. Ethan wrote the proposal for MPEX Associates and submitted it on May 1 is an example of a a.

simple sentence.

b.

compound sentence.


c.

complex sentence.

d.

compound-complex sentence.

34. Melissa completed her undergraduate studies in May, she is now pursuing a master's degree in business administration is an example of a a.

complete sentence.

b.

fused or run-on sentence.

c.

fragment.

d.

comma splice.

35. Which of the following sentences demonstrates parallel structure? a. Marian will interview all candidates, Dale will train new employees, and annual reviews will be conducted by Paul. b.

The proposal affected all students, educators, and administrators.

c. The committee plans to review all proposals, interview contractors, and then it must select a certified vendor. d. Successful job candidates must demonstrate leadership, teamwork, and they must possess strong communication skills.

36. What kind of sentence reveals the main idea of a paragraph? a.

Pivoting

b.

Supporting

c.

Topic

d.

Transitional


37. Which of the following statements best demonstrates concise writing? a. hazards. b.

There are several things that every employee must know about workplace The directors believe that HAZMAT training is absolutely essential.

c. Although this training is a company requirement, it must be completed at the employee's expense. d.

This is to inform you that HAZMAT training will be scheduled in the near future.

38. Which of the following sentences demonstrates the best writing? a.

Enclosed please find my rĂŠsumĂŠ.

b.

Our committee will analyze the proposals on Monday.

c.

Finding an acceptable solution will be easier said than done.

d.

This new paradigm shift will impact all employees.

39. Which statement regarding headings is most accurate? a.

Headings provide visual distraction for readers; thus they should be avoided.

b.

Headings appear most often in business letters.

c.

Headings highlight information and improve readability.

d.

Headings should be written in complete sentences.

40. Which of the following is the best advice for proofreading long, complex documents? a. still fresh. b.

Proofread complex documents immediately after writing while your thoughts are Thoroughly proofread your document only once.


c.

Expect to find mistakes.

d.

Rely completely on a spell-checking program to find any errors.

Subjective Short Answer

41. List two techniques that could help you become an active and effective listener.

42. List and describe two techniques to improve your chance of being understood when writing to someone from a different culture.

43. Revise the following sentence to express the idea using the "you" view: All applicants must complete the attached form by December 1.

44. Revise the following sentence to use positive language: Because you neglected to include a copy of your cash register receipt, we can’t process your rebate.

45. Revise the following sentence to use bias-free language: Every manager must review his employees annually.

46. Revise the following sentence to avoid misplaced modifiers: Waiting for the interview, sweat formed on Rich.

47. Revise the following sentence to demonstrate direct, concise language:


This is to inform you that due to the fact that health care costs are rising, there is a new employee wellness program that will be offered starting on May 1.

48. Revise the following sentence to avoid trite business phrases: Pursuant to your request, enclosed please find a copy of our current catalog.

Unit Test 2 Chapters 5.8 1. Most e-mail messages should be organized using the direct strategy. a.

True

b.

False

2. Although instant messaging and text messaging are popular among today's youth, they have not yet emerged as practical communication tools in the workplace. a.

True

b.

False

3. One advantage of podcasts is that they can broadcast repetitive information that does not require interaction. a.

True

b.

False

4. A wiki is a website with journal entries on any imaginable topic usually written by one person.


a.

True

b.

False

5. Businesses now use social media sites to recruit employees. a.

True

b.

False

6. Business letters are the preferred channel of communication for delivering messages outside of an organization. a.

True

b.

False

7. You will sound professional and courteous if you include a sentence such as Thank you for your cooperation in the closing paragraph of a request message. a.

True

b.

False

8. If you expect your reader to readily agree with your straightforward claim, use the direct organizational strategy. a.

True

b.

False

9. Most businesses make adjustments promptly. a.

True

b.

False


10. When expressing thanks or offering congratulations, a purchased card is more impressive than a handwritten note. a.

True

b.

False

11. The bad feelings associated with disappointing news can generally be reduced if the receiver knows the reasons for the rejection, feels that the news was revealed sensitively, and believes that the matter was treated seriously and fairly. a.

True

b.

False

12. When delivering bad news, you should always use the indirect strategy to soften the impact. a.

True

b.

False

13. A negative-news message that is organized indirectly should begin with a buffer. a.

True

b.

False

14. Customer Relations Specialist Kendra must deny a customer's refund. In her message to the customer, Kendra should include a statement such as If you had read the return policy printed on your receipt, you should know that cash refunds will not be granted. a.

True

b.

False


15. When a company is dealing with an internal crisis, the best way for the company to handle this crisis is to let employees and stakeholders find out about the problem through the office grapevine. a.

True

b.

False

16. The need for persuasive skills has diminished in today's corporate world. a.

True

b.

False

17. Use the opening of a persuasive request to gain your reader's attention and interest. a.

True

b.

False

18. When you write a claim or complaint letter, an effective persuasive technique is using words and phrases that clearly display how angry you are about the situation. a.

True

b.

False

19. Jenna is trying to convince her boss that an on-site employee exercise room would benefit the company and employees. When presenting her persuasive message, Jenna should provide monetary evidence proving that an on-site employee exercise room would improve employee absenteeism, reduce employer-paid insurance premiums, and increase employee health. a.

True

b.

False


20. Rational appeals are associated with reason and intellect; whereas, emotional appeals relate to status, ego, and sensual feelings. a.

True

b.

False

21. Which of the following subject lines for an e-mail or memo would be most effective? a.

Hello!

b.

task force meeting

c.

Task Force Meeting March 18

d.

Meeting

22. What is the best advice to follow when using texting or instant messaging (IM) in the workplace? a.

Keep a single contact list of personal and professional contacts for efficiency.

b. Even if you are completing a project or trying to meet a deadline, answer all texts or instant messages immediately. c.

Feel free to send sensitive or confidential messages to people you know.

d.

Check with your supervisor to learn about your organization's messaging policies.

23. Businesses use wikis to


a.

facilitate feedback from employees before and after meetings.

b.

share information between corporate headquarters and satellite offices.

c.

collect and disseminate information to large audiences.

d.

Businesses use wikis for all these reasons.

24. Ellen wants to create a blog for her business. What is the best advice for her to follow? a.

Craft a catchy but concise title such as Five Ways to Ace an Interview.

b.

Provide details in the opening where they will not be missed by her readers.

c.

Avoid including visuals because they will distract her reader.

d. mechanics.

Don't worry about her wording, especially her grammar, punctuation, and

25. Which of the following statements about social networking in the workplace is most accurate? a.

Businesses use social networking sites only to connect with customers.

b.

Social networking presents no risks for businesses.


c. Business professionals should always think twice before posting anything on social networking sites.

d. the job.

All answer choices are accurate statements about the use social networking on

26. A business letter is a.

the best communication channel when sending urgent messages.

b.

an outdated form of communication in the business world.

c.

necessary when the situation is formal and sensitive.

d.

less confidential than other forms of communication.

27. Thomas Schatz has five questions to ask his reader in a routine information-request message. What is the best way to present these questions? a.

As a separate enclosure

b.

In a bulleted or numbered list in the body of his message

c.

In paragraph form in the body of his message

d.

In a follow-up e-mail

28. Which of the following openings is most appropriate for a straightforward claim letter? a. You have sold me jewelry for three years, and you have never failed to deliver nice merchandise in the past.


b. On April 2 I opened your delivery containing the chain (Item No. 544558-15454) I ordered on March 1. c. Please replace this damaged 18-inch sterling silver herringbone chain received as part of Order No. 248-21. d. I am very upset with the broken 18-inch sterling silver herringbone chain in your recent shipment because I had no necklace to wear to my son's wedding! 29. All of the following are goals of an adjustment message except to a.

rectify the wrong, if one exists.

b.

regain the confidence of the customer.

c.

demonstrate why your company is superior.

d.

promote future business.

30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a goodwill message? a.

Sincerity

b.

Spontaneity

c.

Showmanship

d.

Selflessness

31. All of the following are goals for a business writer who must communicate bad news except to a.

project a professional image.


b.

convey empathy and sensitivity.

c.

be fair.

d.

prove that the customer is wrong.

32. When you use the indirect strategy to deliver bad news, the recommended order of ideas is a.

buffer, reasons, bad news, and closing.

b.

buffer, bad news, reasons, and closing.

c.

reasons, buffer, bad news, and closing.

d.

bad news, reasons, buffer, and closing.

33. Which of the following is the most important part of a bad-news message? a.

A positive, forward-looking closing

b.

A neutral buffer

c.

An explanation of the reasons for the bad news

d.

The bad news itself


34. Although many companies try to deal with disappointed customers by calling them immediately, written messages are also used to a.

promote good relations.

b.

formally confirm follow-up procedures.

c.

establish a record of the incident.

d.

All answer choices are reasons for written messages.

35. As a manager, Kelly must communicate to her employees some bad news that will likely upset them. What is the best advice for her to follow when communicating this bad news? a.

Let her employees learn of the bad news through the media.

b. Ask her employees their feelings about the bad news immediately after she has presented it. c.

Practice what she is going to say.

d. Wait to deliver the bad news until a Friday afternoon so that employees have an opportunity to process the bad news. 36. Which of the following situations would most likely require persuasion within an organization?


a. timesheets

Asking employees to attend training sessions on a new software for entering

b. Telling employees about the new health insurance prescription drug compensation plan

c. Asking employees to participate in an exercise program to improve wellness and to reduce health insurance costs d.

Informing employees about a change in shuttle services

37. Persuasive requests should be organized a.

quickly.

b.

indirectly.

c.

directly.

d.

chronologically.

38. What is the best advice for you to follow when writing a persuasive claim message? a.

Suggest that you have been intentionally deceived by the company.

b.

Provide a comprehensive chronology of all details of the claim.

c.

Close the message with a clear statement of what you want done.


d. payments.

Include original documentation of invoices, shipping orders, warranties, or

39. Which of the following statements about persuasive messages within an organization is most accurate? a. It is acceptable for managers to be dishonest when trying to persuade others because of their authoritative position in the company. b.

Persuasive messages flowing both downward or upward require attention to

tone.

c. When employees send persuasive messages to their managers, they should include words such as you must or we should to make their messages sound more convincing. d. indirectly.

Instructions or directives from managers to employees should be organized

40. Sales messages are most effective if they follow the AIDA strategy. What are the four parts of the AIDA strategy? a.

Audience, investigate, develop, analysis

b.

Aggressive, indirect, direct, assertive

c.

Analyze, interpret, define, adapt

d.

Attention, interest, desire, action

41. Identify one difference and one similarity between e-mails and memos.


42. Identify two ways to use electronic media professionally in the workplace.

43. Revise the following poorly written opening of a claim letter requesting an exchange of a smartphone still under warranty. Write the opening sentence only. My TravelerXtra smartphone was purchased from your online store on September 15, 2014, for your attractive price of $228.88 plus $24.48 shipping and handling with no service contract required. I have used my TravelerXtra for business texting, e-mailing, and phoning ever since, which was exactly what I needed it to do. Yesterday my TravelerXtra shut itself down out of the blue, and I can't use it for anything. Now I'm without a business tool and over $250, which makes me feel ripped off because I received only one month of service from this phone. When I tried to exchange it at one of your land-based stores, the clerk told me, "No way, dude. You buy online, you fly online." Now what?

44. Rewrite the following poorly written opening to an adjustment letter responding to a claim. Write the opening sentence only. We are extremely saddened to learn of the unfortunate failure of your TravelerXtra smartphone, and we apologize for any inconvenience it has caused you. Although company policy typically prevents us from offering a total replacement at no cost to you for defective products, we'll make an exception in your case. Therefore, we have enclosed a voucher for a new TravelerXtra smartphone that you can take to our store nearest you.

45. Bad-news messages can be organized using the direct or indirect strategy. Identify one situation when each strategy would be appropriate and identify the organizational pattern for each strategy.

Unit Test 3 Chapters 9.14


1. Business reports vary in length, purpose, and delivery format. a.

True

b.

False

2. The first step in preparing a report is locating information to support your ideas. a.

True

b.

False

3. Analytical reports present data without analysis or recommendations. a.

True

b.

False

4. Formal proposals are written for only external audiences. a.

True

b.

False

5. Information that is common knowledge does not need to be documented in a business report. a.

True

b.

False

6. The most frequently used graphic in reports is the table. a.

True

b.

False


7. Hiring managers and recruiters view technical skills as more important than the soft skills of professionalism, etiquette, and communication. a.

True

b.

False

8. The richest communication channel is e-mail. a.

True

b.

False

9. Individuals rather than teams generally produce quicker, more accurate decisions. a.

True

b.

False

10. No meeting should be called unless it is important, can't wait, and requires an exchange of ideas. a.

True

b.

False

11. The most important part of preparing for a business presentation is creating a dynamic, engaging multimedia presentation. a.

True

b.

False

12. Effective presentations should contain deliberate repetition of ideas. a.

True

b.

False


13. Rather than memorizing or reading a presentation, you should deliver it extemporaneously. a.

True

b.

False

14. The first step in finding a job is writing a well-organized résumé. a.

True

b.

False

15. One of the best online sources for jobs is a company's own website. a.

True

b.

False

16. Most jobs today are found through referrals and person-to-person contacts. a.

True

b.

False

17. Because jobs are scarce and you must apply to many employers, you should prepare a generic résumé to send to every position you want. a.

True

b.

False

18. The most common type of hiring or placement interview is the panel interview. a.

True

b.

False


19. When answering interview questions, feel free to openly admit some weaknesses to show that you are human. a.

True

b.

False

20. After a job interview, you should always send a thank-you note, e-mail, or letter. a.

True

b.

False

21. Which of the following represents an informal writing style? a. James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc., after extensive review of references and credentials of contractors, has elected to contract with Peck Builders for the new office complex. b.

We selected Peck Builders as general contractor for our new office complex.

c. After conducting an exhaustive search of building design elements and costefficiency data, the company has verified the qualifications of Peck Builders. d. The findings validate the imperative of selecting a fully qualified and bonded contractor for the new building venture of James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc.; that contractor is Peck Builders.

22. You must prepare your monthly business report for company stockholders and present your department's expected sales for the next three months. Which report format would be most appropriate? a.

Letter format


b.

Memo or e-mail format

c.

Manuscript format

d.

Preprinted form

23. Which of the following is the best purpose statement for an informal report? a.

Employees and companies benefit from online-training opportunities.

b.

Online training

c.

Online training has proven to be an effective tool for employees and companies.

d.

To evaluate the effectiveness of an employee online-training program

24. Which of the following situations might require a feasibility report? a.

The status of a large construction project

b.

The reporting of monthly sales figures for all divisions

c.

The investigation results of implementing an on-site employee exercise facility

d.

A one-page summary of a long article in The New York Times


25. A timetable for project completion is included in which section of an informal report? a.

Staffing

b.

Authorization Request

c.

Budget

d.

Proposal

26. Bethany must write a formal business report and reveal the results of a year-long study on employee wellness at each of her company's five locations. What type of organizational pattern should she use? a.

Chronological

b.

Topic/Function

c.

Geographical

d.

Simple/Complex

27. When paraphrasing researched information, a. use the same grammatical structure of the original information so that you do not change the meaning of the ideas. b.

replace just a few original words with synonyms to avoid charges of plagiarism.


c.

restate the researched information in your own words and in your own style.

d.

place double quotation marks before and after the paraphrased information.

28. What is the best advice to follow when integrating graphics in a report? a.

Always place graphics in the appendix of a report.

b.

Mention the graphic in the text of the report.

c.

Create graphics in only black and white so that the graphics do not distract the

reader. d. explanatory.

Do not include a title above any graphic because the graphic should be self-

29. What is the best advice to follow when participating in workplace conversations? a.

Act professionally in all social situations.

b.

Address all supervisors and customers by their first name.

c.

Avoid praising others so that you do not come across as a "brownnoser."

d.

Feel free to openly discuss your workplace frustrations with all colleagues.

30. Which of the following statements about work teams is most accurate?


a.

Teams should avoid conflict to prevent tension among group members.

b. To be most effective, teams should be comprised of individuals with similar backgrounds, ethnicity, age, skills, and experience. c. Teams produce better decisions when they agree on their purpose and develop procedures to guide them. d.

Team members should focus on their individual needs and goals.

31. Which of the following is the best advice for leading or participating in a business meeting? a. Leave your cell phone on to demonstrate to others your dedication to customers and fellow colleagues. b.

Let the leader do most of the talking.

c.

Don't start the meeting until all attendees arrive.

d. Let members who disagree with one another make a complete case for their position while group members give their full attention.

32. Before what kind of audience should speakers use a dynamic and entertaining delivery style and incorporate movement and large gestures? a.

Hostile

b.

Friendly

c.

Neutral

d.

Uninterested


33. The introduction of a presentation should include all of the following except a.

an attention-getting device that gets the audience involved.

b.

a preview of the main points to be discussed in the body of the speech.

c.

explanations and details of each of the main points.

d.

a personal credibility statement.

34. What is the best advice to follow when creating a multimedia presentation? a.

Use the same color for all audiences and occasions.

b. Avoid using any images or graphics on your multimedia slides so that your audience focuses on your words. c.

d. attention.

Limit the number of bullet points to six per slide.

Use as many animation and sound effects as possible to keep your audience's

35. What rĂŠsumĂŠ style would be most appropriate for individuals who have experience in their field of employment? a.

Chronological

b.

Functional

c.

Video


d.

Infographic

36. What statement about an e-portfolio is most accurate? a. An e-portfolio is a collection of digital files that can be navigated with the help of menus and hyperlinks. b.

E-portfolios can be accessed only at websites.

c. A print résumé is more effective than an e-portfolio at showing off an applicant's talents and qualifications. d. process.

E-portfolios have replaced traditional résumés in the screening and hiring

37. Which of these statements would best explain your qualifications in the body of a cover message? a.

I am a qualified and fully certified criminologist.

b. Training in crisis prevention and emergency response has prepared me to serve and protect your community at the River Valley Campus. c.

You need a licensed criminologist, and I meet those qualifications.

d. With my bachelor's degree from Luther College, I am well-prepared and eager to apply my knowledge in criminology.


38. What type of hiring or placement interview is usually conducted by people who will be the supervisors and colleagues of a candidate and who take turns asking questions? a.

Group

b.

Stress

c.

Panel

d.

Sequential

39. Mai has an upcoming panel interview and wants to project positive nonverbal behaviors during it. What is the best advice for her to follow? a.

Sit erect, leaning forward slightly to show interest and confidence.

b. Avoid a direct gaze with her interviewers, and look at only the person who asked the question. c.

Keep her hands in her pockets so that her interviewers will not notice her shaky

d.

Use words such as like or basically to fill any dead air.

hands.

40. Which of the following techniques is most effective when an interviewer asks, Why do you want to work for us? a. employers.

Briefly summarize current employment problems requiring you to change


b. Show what you know about the interviewer’s company and demonstrate how your goals match its point of view. c. Explain that as a recent graduate you want to work for any company needing an employee with your skills and background. d. Simply tell the truth about your reasons for seeking this job; for example, you are unemployed, you need more pay or better benefits, or you just graduated.

41. What is the difference between primary and secondary data? Give one example of each.

42. List two advantages of properly documenting research data.

43. List and briefly describe two advantages of teams.

44. Describe one effective technique to gain audience rapport in a presentation.

45. Describe the functional résumé and explain its advantages for recent college graduates.

46. Define success story as it is used in an interview and provide an example of a success story.

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Test bank for essentials of business communication, 10th edition by mary ellen guffey  

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