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Cosmetology Exam Practice From FWYN, LLC & www.onlinecosmetologyexam.com
These cosmetology exams are designed to help cosmetology students and graduates prepare for the written state cosmetology licensing exam and are focused on subjects and topics covered on actual state board exams. These exams correlate with the focus exams found at: www.onlinecosmetologyexam.com ÂŠ 2010 FWYN, LLC
Table of Contents
COSMETOLOGY: ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY.......................................................................................................... 3 ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY - ANSWERS .............................................................................................................................14 COSMETOLOGY: CHEMICAL TEXTURING ............................................................................................................. 15 CHEMICAL TEXTURING - ANSWERS ..................................................................................................................................28 COSMETOLOGY: CHEMISTRY ............................................................................................................................... 29 CHEMISTRY - ANSWERS .................................................................................................................................................44 COSMETOLOGY: HAIR COLORING........................................................................................................................ 45 HAIR COLORING - ANSWERS ..........................................................................................................................................59 COSMETOLOGY: HAIR CUTTING, STYLING & DESIGN ........................................................................................... 60 HAIR CUTTING, STYLING & DESIGN - ANSWERS .................................................................................................................83 COSMETOLOGY: NAIL CARE & SERVICES ............................................................................................................. 84 NAIL CARE & SERVICES - ANSWERS .................................................................................................................................98 COSMETOLOGY: PROFESSIONAL IMAGE, ERGONOMICS, INFECTION CONTROL, SALON BUSINESS & ELECTRICITY ...... 99 PROFESSIONAL IMAGE, ERGONOMICS, INFECTION CONTROL, SALON BUSINESS AND ELECTRICITY - ANSWERS...............................116 COSMETOLOGY: SHAMPOOING & CONDITIONING, BRUSHING & COMBING, DRAPING & WIGS ....................... 117 SHAMPOOING & CONDITIONING, BRUSHING & COMBING, DRAPING & WIGS - ANSWERS .......................................................131 COSMETOLOGY: SKIN HISTOLOGY & SERVICES.................................................................................................. 132 SKIN HISTOLOGY & SERVICES - ANSWERS .......................................................................................................................147 COSMETOLOGY: TRICHOLOGY .......................................................................................................................... 148 TRICHOLOGY - ANSWERS .............................................................................................................................................160
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Cosmetology: Anatomy & Physiology
1. The ________ of the heart collects oxygen-poor blood a. Left auricle b. Pulmonary artery c. Right auricle d. Valve 2. Which of the following muscles cover the shoulders? a. Biceps b. Deltoids c. Triceps d. Gluteus maximus 3. Circulatory, reproductive and muscular are all examples of __________ of the body a. Systems b. Organs c. Sections d. Functions 4. Which of the following protects the lungs, heart and other internal organs? a. Collar bone b. Thorax c. Skin d. Clavicle 5. What are the basic units of living matter? a. Cytoplasm b. Nuclei c. Cells d. All of the choices listed 6. The a. b. c. d.
study of the functions of organs and systems is: Anatomy Trichology Physiology Esthetics
7. The a. b. c. d.
humerus is a __________ bone Long Short Cartilage Facial
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8. How many pairs of spinal nerves does the spinal cord hold? a. Thirty b. Three hundred c. Three hundred and one d. Thirty one 9. There are __________ bones that make up the facial skeleton a. 31 b. 13 c. 41 d. 14 10. What is the midsection of a muscle called? a. Its nucleus b. Orifice c. Contractor d. Its belly 11. The epicranium is covered by a large muscle known as the: a. Epicranius b. Cerebellum c. Medulla d. None of the choices listed 12. __________ are dark red because they carry oxygen-poor blood a. Arteries b. Lips c. Veins d. all of the choices listed 13. The part of the brain that is responsible for mental activity and is located in the upper front portion of the cranium is: a. The cerebellum b. The lobe c. The temporalis d. The cerebrum 14. What is the primary function of the respiratory system? a. To protect the body from contagious air-borne disease b. To take in oxygen and exhale oxygen c. To take in oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide d. To take in carbon dioxide and exhale oxygen 15. Which system is the sebaceous gland a part of? a. Endocrine b. Reproductive c. Circulatory d. Digestive
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16. The temporalis and masseter are involved in: a. Circulation b. Mastication c. Respiration d. Matriculation 17. Which of the following contracts when stimulated to produce motion? a. Epithelial tissue b. Muscular tissue c. Nerves d. All of the choices listed 18. The control center of activities in the cell including cell metabolism reproduction is: a. The nucleus b. The belly c. The uterus d. The protoplasm 19. __________ are made up of groups of cells of the same kind a. Systems b. Molecules c. Nerves d. Tissues 20. Which of the following protects, supports and holds the body together? a. Muscles b. Nerve tissue c. Connective tissue d. All of the choices listed 21. Which of the following muscles respond to commands regulated by will? a. Striated b. Involuntary c. Non-striated d. None of the choices listed 22. Which muscle closes the eyelid? a. Levator b. Orbicularis oculi c. Frontalis d. Mullerâ€&#x;s muscle
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23. The non-moving portion of muscle attached to bone or fixed muscle is the: a. Connector b. Origin c. Genesis d. Joint 24. The ________ are vessels with thick walls that carry blood away from the heart a. Veins b. Buccinators c. Palpebrae d. Arteries 25. A combination of the vascular system and the __________ system maintain steady circulation of blood a. Lymph b. Capillary c. Digestive d. Muscular 26. Which of the following nourishes the parts of the body that are not reached by blood? a. Pulmonary b. Lymph c. The liver d. The pituitary gland 27. Which of the following extends from the elbow to the shoulder? a. The tibia b. The femur c. The humerus d. Metacarpals 28. A personâ€&#x;s _________ is around the size of a closed fist a. Heart b. Liver c. Fibroid d. Brain 29. Which of the following does the autonomic nervous system control? a. Pectoral muscles b. Zygomatic muscles c. The digestive system d. None of the choices listed
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30. What percentage of the fluid portion of blood is water? a. 100 b. 90 c. 50 d. 33 31. What is the gel-like substance that cells are composed of? a. Nuclei b. Protoplasm c. Hemoglobin d. Electrolytes 32. Blood travels from the heart to the lungs via the: a. Aorta b. Carotid artery c. Lymphatic stratum d. Pulmonary artery 33. When providing facial massage for a client, how many bones are involved? a. 10 b. 5 c. 9 d. 4 34. Which of the following is the primary motor nerve of the face? a. Facial nerve b. Zygomatic nerve c. Levator d. Orbicularis oculi 35. The respiratory, circulatory and digestive systems are all controlled by: a. The autonomic nervous system b. The voluntary nervous system c. The dendrite nerves d. The muscular system 36. Sensory nerves are also known as: a. Efferent nerves b. Ofference nerves c. Ferrent nerves d. Afferent nerves 37. What are the basic units of living matter? a. Atoms b. Microbes c. Cytoplasm d. Cells
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38. Muscle cells do NOT include: a. Cytoplasm b. Axon c. Nucleus d. All of the choices listed 39. Depressor is a term that means: a. Always located on the underside b. To depress or draw down c. To slow down or halt progress d. Someone who is depressing 40. Superioris means: a. Is located above or is larger b. Is located only at the top c. Is super small d. None of the choices listed 41. Hemoglobin is a protein in blood that attracts: a. Minerals b. Oxygen c. Carbon dioxide d. Cholesterol 42. The endocrine system controls general health, growth & development and: a. All brain functioning b. Reproduction c. The muscular system d. Masticating 43. The heart muscle is ________ in the human body a. One of three muscles like it b. The only muscle of its kind c. Not vital d. Always the strongest muscle 44. ___________ is the study of the structure of the human body and relationship between body parts a. Physiology b. Chemistry c. Anatomy d. Cosmetology 45. Cell division is the process by which a parent cell divides into two identical: a. Daughter cells b. Twin cells c. Sister cells d. Haploid cells
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46. The watery fluid which cells must have for reproduction, growth, and selfrepair is in the: a. Belly b. Nucleus c. Cytoplasm d. Lipoduct 47. The chemical processes occurring within a living cell or organism that are necessary for the maintenance of life is: a. Metabolism b. Anabulticism c. Osmosis d. Substance preservation 48. Cell nourishment due to metabolic reactions can be divided into _________ reactions a. Catastrophic and anabulistic b. Catabolic or anabolic c. Citric and enzymatic d. None of the choices listed 49. __________ tissue forms the covering or lining of all internal and external body surfaces a. Omnithelial b. Epithelial c. Orifithelial d. Endocrine 50. Which of the following are functions of epithelial tissue? a. Diffusion & Excretion b. Secretion & Absorption c. Protection & Sensation d. All of the choices listed 51. Nerve tissue is composed of: a. Halo cells b. Electrons c. Neurons d. All of the choices listed 52. The ___________ is the framework which supports the body and maintains its shape a. Epidermis b. Nervous system c. Skeletal system d. Brain
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53. The conjuncture between two or more bones is known as: a. Connective tissue b. Marrow c. A ligament d. A joint 54. The branch of anatomy that deals with the structure and function of bones is: a. Osteology b. Esthiology c. Orthotics d. All of the choices listed 55. The ankle is a hinge joint which connects the tibia and fibula in the lower limb with the ________ bone in the foot a. Humerus b. Talus c. Metatarsal d. Talon 56. The part of the skull or braincase which protects the brain and eyes is the: a. Mandible b. Orbicularis oculi c. Sternum d. Cranium 57. Which of the following is the bone situated at the back and lower part of the cranium, above the nape? a. Orbicularis oculi b. Occipital bone c. Medulla oblongata d. Supraorbital torus 58. The branch of medical science concerned with the function, structure and diseases of muscles is: a. Mycology b. Myology c. Biology d. Osteology 59. The pair of bones in the human skull which form the upper jaw are known as: a. The cranium and occipital bone b. Mandibles c. Maxillae bones d. Buccal bones
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60. The foot is constructed of ___________ bones a. Thirty-six b. Sixteen c. Twenty-nine d. None of the choices listed 61. The three types of muscle tissue are: a. Cardiac, pulmonary, and smooth b. Cardiac, multiunit, and contractile c. Striated, nonstriated and epithelial d. Cardiac, striated and nonstriated 62. The ______________ is a broad muscle which covers the whole of one side of the vertex of the skull, from the occipital bone to the eyebrow a. Frontalis b. Epicranius c. Adductor d. Sternocleidomastoid 63. The __________ is in the front of the head and lifts up the eyebrows a. Frontalis b. Zygomaticus c. Buccinators d. Masseteric fascia 64. The muscle responsible for lowering and rotating the head is the: a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Frontalis c. Epicranius d. Levator anguli oris 65. The branch of medical science dealing with the nervous system, its structure and its diseases is: a. Nephrology b. Neurypnology c. Neurology d. Nomology 66. Fine bundled fibers held together by connective tissue known as _________ are found in every square inch of the body a. T-1 connectors b. Ligaments c. Tendons d. Nerves
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67. Which nervous system controls the spinal cord and brain? a. Peripheral b. Spinal c. Cranial d. Central 68. The __________ is the most intricate and the largest nerve tissue of the human body a. Brain b. Spinal cord c. Epidermis d. Epicranius 69. The part of the central nervous system that occupies the hollow interior of a series of vertebrae that extends from the brain to the first lumbar vertebra is the: a. Meninges b. Ganglia c. Spinal cord d. Ventral nerve cord 70. The nerves that carry impulses from the brain to the skeletal muscles and somatic tissues creating voluntary movement are: a. Parallel nerves b. Velocity nerves c. Motor nerves d. Carrier nerves 71. The bodily system that circulates blood, delivers nutrients to cells and removes waste products; consists of the heart, blood vessels and blood is known as the: a. Circulatory system b. Endocrine system c. Lymphatic system d. Nervous system 72. A clear, watery, sometimes faintly yellowish fluid derived from body tissues that circulates throughout the lymphatic system and acts to remove bacteria and certain proteins from the tissues is known as: a. Marrow b. Cytoplasm c. Nuclei d. None of the choices listed 73. Which of the following are accurate regarding lymph? a. Acts to remove bacteria and certain proteins from the tissues b. Transports fat from the small intestine c. Supplies mature lymphocytes to the blood d. All of the choices listed
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74. Endocrine glands release: a. White blood cells b. Fat cells c. Hormones d. Pericardium 75. White blood cells are warriors in the bodyâ€&#x;s battle against infection; they destroy: a. Disease-causing microorganisms b. Stored fat cells c. Toxins and poisons d. Non-pathogenic organisms
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Anatomy & Physiology - Answers
(1)c (2)b (3)a (4)b (5)c (6)c (7)a (8)d (9)d (10)d (11)a (12)c (13)d (14)c (15)a (16)b (17)b (18)a (19)d (20)c (21)a (22)b (23)b (24)d (25)a (26)b (27)c (28)a (29)c (30)b (31)b (32)d (33)c (34)a (35)a (36)d (37)d (38)b (39)b (40)a (41)b (42)b (43)b (44)c (45)a (46)c (47)a (48)b (49)b (50)d (51)c (52)c (53)d (54)a (55)b (56)d (57)b (58)b (59)c (60)d (61)d (62)b (63)a (64)a (65)c (66)d (67)d (68)a (69)c (70)c (71)a (72)d (73)d (74)c (75)a
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Cosmetology: Chemical Texturing
1. Who was the inventor of the first permanent wave machine? a. Marcel Grateau b. Luigi Galvani c. Bari Woollss d. Charles Nessler 2. The overlap method of wrapping hair around a perm tool is also known as the: a. Base to ends spiral method b. Overlie technique c. Croquignole method d. Layering method 3. Acid waves have a _______ pH a. 6.9 to 7.2 b. 8.9 to 9.2 c. 3.9 to 4.2 d. None of the choices listed 4. Self-heating acid waves are: a. Endothermic b. Exothermic c. Mercaptans d. Tubular heaters 5. Which of the following create small, firm curls? a. Large diameter rods b. Small diameter rods c. Short rods with a large circumference d. Long rods with a very large circumference 6. Which is considered the most basic perm wrap pattern? a. The spiral bricklay perm wrap b. The bricklay perm wrap c. The rectangle perm wrap d. The piggy-back perm wrap 7. A sodium hydroxide relaxer is classified as: a. A lye product b. A saponification c. An acidic crystallization d. None of the choices listed
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8. A 1-base size is: a. Equal to one meter b. Equal to one inch c. Equal to the diameter of the rod d. One size fits all 9. Which will create the strongest curl? a. A 2-base size b. A 1-base size c. A 1.5 base size d. They all would create an equally strong curl 10. To achieve the most volume, a/an ____________ tool position should be utilized a. Off base b. On base c. Croquignole d. Overlay 11. When using __________, it is necessary to wrap the client‟s hair without tension a. Exothermic acid waves b. Endothermic acid waves c. Acid waves without heat d. Alkaline waves 12. What is the hair‟s ability to absorb and retain liquids? a. Porosity b. Elasticity c. Fluidity d. Saturation 13. What is the purpose of a preliminary test curl? a. To confirm that the client will not be overcome with fumes b. To determine whether the perm will darken the client‟s hair c. To establish how the client‟s hair will react to a perm d. None of the choices listed 14. Thio-free perms need to be rinsed ____________ than alkaline perms a. For a shorter length of time b. For the same amount of time c. Longer d. With hotter water
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15. Weak hair should be ______________ before perming a. Reconditioned b. Bleached c. Pressed d. Fortified 16. Acid a. b. c. d.
perms need to be ___________ longer than alkaline perms Reconditioned Rinsed Shampooed All of the choices listed
17. Which type of hair is a sodium hydroxide relaxer usually applied to? a. Crimped b. Overly-curly c. Wavy d. All of the choices listed 18. What is the main ingredient in a rearranger? a. Ammonium thioglycolate b. Sodium bromate c. Cystemine hydrochloride d. Hydrogen peroxide 19. What is the main ingredient in a booster? a. Sodium bromate b. A mild form of cystemine hydrochloride c. Ammonium thioglycolate d. A mild form of ammonium thioglycolate 20. What are the two basic methods of wrapping hair around a tool? a. Spiral and bricklay b. Twisted and bricklay c. Contour and croquignole d. Spiral and croquignole 21. The area between two partings is known as the: a. Ridge b. Base c. Section d. Foundation 22. The four basic tool positions are on base, _____________, underdirected, and off base a. Overdirected b. Half-off base c. On-stem d. Over-base
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23. Before applying the _________, it is vital to completely rinse the perm solution a. Neutralizer b. Rinse c. Perm rods d. Scalp stimulator 24. What step does a cosmetologist take to avoid skin irritations and damage to clothing? a. Conditioning b. Draping c. Use hypo-allergenic products and clothing d. All of the choices listed 25. Which bond does permanent wave solution target? a. Hydrogen bond b. Disulfide bond c. Peptide bond d. Salt bond 26. Tool position and _________ are established by the size of the base and the angle the hair is held at while wrapping a. Mobility b. Base control c. Texture control d. Processing 27. A client with porous or damaged hair is not a good candidate for a/an _____________ wave a. Acid b. Endothermic c. Alkaline d. All of the choices listed 28. Which of the following are processed without heat? a. Alkaline waves b. Acid waves c. Exothermic waves d. Endothermic waves 29. Acid a. b. c. d.
waves causes _________ and must be wrapped with firm, even tension Shrinkage Elasticity Minimal swelling Puffiness
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30. Hair a. b. c. d.
_________ is usually classified as either fine, medium or coarse Texture Porosity Elasticity Durability
31. The __________ wrapping procedure is applied to medium and longer hair to get an elongated curl pattern a. Curvature b. Piggyback c. Spiral bricklay d. Weave 32. __________ can result when hair is wound on the rods with too much tension a. Baldness b. Breakage c. Beading d. Frizzing 33. Curly hair has a/an ___________ shaped follicle a. Elliptical b. Oval c. Round d. Rectangular 34. Which hair type would sodium hydroxide relaxers normally be used on? a. Overly-curly b. Resistant c. Curly d. All of the choices listed 35. Out of the following examples, which should a sodium hydroxide relaxer service not be performed on? a. Short hair b. Fine hair c. Overly-curly hair d. Hair that has been bleached 36. Waving lotion is also known as: a. Booster b. Neutralizer c. Conditioner d. Thickening lotion
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37. The steps in the chemical phase of perming involve applying the perm solution, then rinsing the perm solution from the hair, then applying the neutralizer, then: a. Massaging the neutralizer into the scalp b. Rinsing the neutralizer from the hair c. Applying conditioner to the hair d. Covering the entire head with a warm towel 38. What are the two major phases in perms currently? a. Applying perm solution and applying neutralizer b. Sectioning the hair and rinsing the chemicals from the hair c. The physical action and the chemical phase d. The client consultation and selling home products 39. When the cosmetologist uses multiple end papers, it is important to: a. Rinse and blot the hair thoroughly b. Double-layer the end papers throughout the entire process c. Inform the client that multiple end papers are being used d. All of the choices listed 40. Never apply chemicals over any: a. Overly-curly hair b. Fine hair c. Abnormal scalp condition d. Hair that has been lightened 41. Sodium hydroxide relaxers have a pH of: a. 1.5 to 4 b. 10.5 to 14 c. 7 d. 7.5 to 10 42. Sodium hydroxide relaxer should not be applied to lightened hair or: a. Virgin hair b. Hair that has been colored with permanent hair color c. Wavy hair d. Medium hair 43. Which service loosens curly hair into looser curls or waves? a. Chemical undercurling b. Permanent waving c. Texture softening d. Curl re-formation 44. Which exterior hair structure layer provides protection from damage? a. The shaft b. The cortex c. The cuticle d. The medulla
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45. The client cannot receive a permanent wave service if: a. The hair has been coated with metallic salts b. The hair has been conditioned within the previous 24 hours c. The hair has been lightened d. The client has had other chemical services within previous months 46. The long and coiled polypeptide chains in hair are: a. Pigment chains b. Disulfide links c. Helix proteins d. Keratin proteins 47. Which of the following hair texture needs a longer processing time to make certain there is complete saturation? a. Coarse b. Fine c. Medium d. Normal to wavy 48. What is the second process of a permanent wave service? a. Rinsing b. The chemical process c. Draping d. Removing the rods 49. The size of the rod is responsible for _______________ in permanent waving a. The comfort of the client b. The size of the curl c. The amount of processing time d. All of the choices listed 50. Which permanent wave rod creates a uniform curl for the total width of the strand? a. Concave b. Cone c. Straight d. Convex 51. ______________ is when the cosmetologist wraps hair at a 90 degree angle a. Irregular base placement b. The perpendicular process c. Half-off base placement d. Angle wrapping
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52. The majority of alkaline permanent waves has a pH of: a. 7 to 7.6 b. 11 to 11.6 c. 9 to 9.6 d. 6 to 6.6 53. The fundamental components of acid waves are: a. Permanent wave solution, neutralizer and shampoo b. Permanent wave solution, activator and conditioner c. Permanent wave solution, water and rinse d. Permanent wave solution, activator and neutralizer 54. The cosmetologist activates an endothermic wave with: a. An outside heat source b. A rinse c. A luminosity source d. A an acid-balanced shampoo 55. What is the minimum amount of time permanent wave solution should be rinsed from the hair? a. Six minutes b. Three minutes c. Five minutes d. One minute 56. Where is the weakest section of the hair strand in overly curly hair? a. At the ends b. In the cuticle c. At the cortex d. At the twists 57. When disulfide bonds are broken by hydroxide relaxers: a. They can sometimes be re-formed b. They can never be re-formed c. They can always be re-formed d. None of the choices listed 58. _____________ helps protect the scalp and the skin during a hair-relaxing procedure a. An acid balance shampoo b. Draping c. Antibacterial gel d. Base cream
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59. Do not _____________ before applying hydroxide relaxer a. Trim the hair b. Comb the hair c. Shampoo the hair d. Brush the hair 60. If the rubber band on a perm rod is not placed correctly it can cause: a. Stretch marks b. Discoloration c. The perm rod to bend d. Breakage 61. Thioglycolate relaxers and Sodium hydroxide relaxers: a. Build keratin in hair b. Add collagen to hair c. Are compatible d. Are not compatible 62. What is the purpose of a waving lotion? a. To create disulfide bonds b. To fortify salt bonds c. To break disulfide bonds d. To destroy salt bonds 63. What is the purpose of a neutralizer? a. To restore disulfide bonds b. To break disulfide bonds c. To destroy salt bonds d. To regenerate salt bonds 64. Which of the following is accurate regarding alkaline waves? a. They are also known as cold waves b. They involve application of heat c. They use Glyceryl Monothioglycolate as the key ingredient d. Most have a pH between 7.0 and 7.6 65. Alkaline waves contain a. Glyceryl Monothioglycolate b. GMTG c. Ammonium Thioglycolate d. Phytoproteins 66. Perms are used to chemically reform hair by: a. Wrapping hair around perm tools that reflect the desired curl pattern b. Applying waving lotion to soften the protein structure of the hair c. Applying a neutralizer to rebond the hair structure d. All of the choices listed
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67. The key ingredient in most neutralizers is either: a. Thioglycolic acid, disulfides or sodium hydroxide b. Alkaline salts or ammonia c. Hydrogen peroxide, sodium perborate or sodium bromate d. None of the choices listed 68. A soft perm loosens the texture of overly curly hair by using: a. A Thioglycolate based product b. On-the-scalp lighteners c. A low volume peroxide to develop color molecules d. An atomizer to reconstitute the hair 69. Perming and chemical relaxing directly affect the _______________ by either breaking the bond or reforming it into a new shape a. Peptide bond b. Keratin bond c. Disulfide bond d. Hydrogen bond 70. The main ingredient found in acid waves is: a. Thyioglycolic acid b. Ammonium hydroxide c. Glycerylmonothioglycolate d. Sodium hydroxide 71. In hair straightening procedures, ____________ are used to soften the disulfide bond a. Developers b. Relaxers c. Neutralizers d. Lighteners 72. _______________ chemically restructures natural hair to a different wave pattern a. Permanent restructuring b. Chemical waving c. A Jheri curl d. Permanent waving 73. _____________ is the rearrangement of the basic structure of overly curly hair into a straighter hair form a. Permanent waving b. Jheri curl c. Reformation curl d. Chemical hair relaxing
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74. What are the two layers of hair most affected by chemical texture procedures? a. The medulla and the shaft b. The cortex and cuticle c. The bulb and the shaft d. The germinal matrix and the medulla 75. The amino acid acquired through the reduction of cystine is: a. Cysteine b. Cystemine c. Keratin d. Oxadine 76. Which of the following should be considered during the hair analysis that precedes a chemical service? a. Porosity and elasticity b. Texture and density c. Hair length and direction of hair growth d. All of the choices listed 77. During a chemical service, the processing time will be influenced most by: a. Hair density b. Hair elasticity c. Hair porosity d. Hair length 78. ____________ hair requires a more alkaline solution than porous hair a. Resistant b. Normal c. Auburn d. Black 79. Test a. b. c. d.
the porosity level: At the front hairline In front of the ears Near the crown All of the choices listed
80. _____________ establishes the hairâ€&#x;s ability to hold a curl a. Density b. Texture c. Elasticity d. Porosity 81. Spongy and limp hair or hair that tangles easily are all signs of: a. Overly porous hair b. Thinning hair c. Poor elasticity d. Advanced lanthionization
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82. Where there is thin hair growth _____________ may cause too much strain and result in breakage during a permanent waving service a. Large blockings b. Smaller rods c. Testing the porosity level d. None of the choices listed 83. In permanent waving, tools are called: a. Wraps b. Papers c. Rods d. All of the choices listed 84. __________ rods have a smaller circumference a. Straight b. Bender c. Loop d. Concave 85. Fold a. b. c. d.
one paper in half over the hair ends when using the: Single flat wrap Double flat wrap Spiral wrap Bookend wrap
86. A base section is: a. Equal to, or almost equal to the length and width of the rod b. Equal to one meter c. Equal to one inch d. Also known as a panel 87. Which of the following is NOT true regarding base direction? a. It is the directional pattern in which you wrap the hair b. It is the vertical, horizontal or diagonal partings and positioning of the rods c. You should never wrap against the natural direction of hair growth d. Wrapping according to the natural direction of the hair causes the least amount of stress 88. During a perm, the wave has reached its peak when it: a. Forms a firm S shape b. Forms a soft S shape c. Becomes frizzy d. Forms a crescent shape
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89. After rinsing the permanent wave solution thoroughly: a. Leave enough water in the hair to help dilution of the neutralizer b. Apply neutralizer, and then blot the excess neutralizer from the hair c. Leave enough water in the hair to encourage saturation of neutralizer d. Blot the hair until there is no excess water absorbed into the towel 90. The ______________ perm wrap is good to use for menâ€&#x;s styles because it gives a more natural appearing wave pattern a. Basic b. Piggyback c. Spiral d. Curvature 91. The ________________ perm wrap has offset base sections row by row to discourage obvious splits in the hair a. Basic b. Bricklay c. Curvature d. Piggyback 92. To avoid slowing down the processing time during a chemical service: a. Seat clients in the coolest area of the barber salon b. Seat clients away from air conditioners and fans c. Seat clients next to air conditioners and fans d. None of the choices listed 93. Do not proceed with a chemical texturing service if: a. The client has ever had an allergic reaction to the product b. Abrasions are present on the clientâ€&#x;s scalp c. The hair is excessively damaged d. All of the choices listed 94. Thio relaxers require a chemical neutralizing solution, and hydroxide relaxers are neutralized by: a. The chemical action of a gentler neutralizing solution b. The physical actions of rinsing and shampooing with a neutralizing shampoo product c. The chemical actions of rinsing and shampooing , then conditioning with a high alkaline conditioner d. The physical actions of shampooing with a solution that raises the pH of the hair and scalp
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Chemical Texturing - Answers (1)d (2)c (3)a (4)b (5)b (6)c (7)a (8)c (9)b (10)b (11)d (12)a (13)c (14)c (15)a (16)b (17)b (18)a (19)d (20)d (21)b (22)b (23)a (24)b (25)b (26)b (27)c (28)a (29)c (30)a (31)c (32)b (33)a (34)d (35)d (36)a (37)b (38)c (39)a (40)c (41)b (42)b (43)d (44)c (45)a (46)d (47)a (48)b (49)b (50)c (51)c (52)c (53)d (54)a (55)c (56)d (57)b (58)d (59)c (60)d (61)d (62)c (63)a (64)a (65)c (66)d (67)c (68)a (69)c (70)c (71)b (72)d (73)d (74)b (75)a (76)d (77)c (78)a (79)d (80)c (81)c (82)a (83)c (84)d (85)d (86)a (87)c (88)a (89)d (90)d (91)b (92)b (93)d (94)b
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1. What a. b. c. d.
is the scientific study of matter and the physical changes in matter? Physics Chemistry Altimetry Nano Science
2. There are ________ forms of matter a. Twelve b. Five c. Three d. Seven 3. Which of the following deals with all matter that is living or was once living? a. Organic chemistry b. Organic physics c. Geology d. Zoeticology 4. All things that are currently alive or were once alive contain: a. Oxygen b. Hydralazine c. Choline d. Carbon 5. Water freezing into an ice cube is an example of: a. Physical change b. Chemical change c. Organic Translation d. Co-mutation 6. What a. b. c. d.
form of matter is hair? Liquid Gas Solid None of the choices listed
7. ______________ is when a change occurs in a substance that results in creating a new substance which has properties or characteristics that differ from the original substance a. Chemical Change b. Diversification c. Molecularity d. Evolutional Cloning
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8. What a. b. c. d.
is all matter made up of? Solids Carbon Elements All of the choices listed
9. What a. b. c. d.
is the smallest complete unit of an element? Atom Molecule Neutron Nucleus
10. Which of the following are three of the five elements important to cosmetologists: a. Bromine, astatine, and Radon b. Sulfur, carbon and oxygen c. Strontium, beryllium, and mercury d. Tellurium, copper, gold 11. Which of the following would the study of minerals involve? a. Astronomy b. Inorganic chemistry c. Organistic physiology d. None of the choices listed 12. Which of the following is a building block of hair and skin? a. Hydrogen b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. All of the choices listed 13. What part of the atom are neutrons and protons found in? a. Celestial Ion b. Periphery c. Proton d. Nucleus 14. Which of the following is missing in the outer shell of an unstable atom? a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Ions
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15. The atomic number is the number of _________ found in the nucleus of an atom a. Electrons b. Neutrons c. Protons d. None of the choices listed 16. An _________ is the outside part of an atom around the atomic nucleus a. Alkaline Shell b. Electron Shell c. Elemental Bond d. Amino Shield 17. If an unstable atom merges with an atom of a dissimilar element, a/an _____________ is produced a. Micro current b. Big bang c. Magnetic cell d. Molecule 18. How a. b. c. d.
many common amino acids are there? Twenty-two Twenty-four Forty-two Eighteen
19. Which of the following are building blocks of amino acids? a. Nitrogen & Oxygen b. Hydrogen & Carbon c. Both A & B d. None of the choices listed 20. Polymers of amino acids covalently linked through peptide bonds into a chain are: a. Proteins b. Unstable c. Balanced d. Liquid 21. Hair a. b. c. d.
is a/an: Biotein Form of protein Element Form of paraben
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22. Hair a. b. c. d.
is mainly made of: Minerals Living cells Mesodermal tissue Keratin
23. The backbone of protein bonds is the: a. Hydrogen bond b. Disulfide bond c. Peptide bond d. Vertide bond 24. By themselves, _________ bonds are very weak a. Hydrogen & Salt b. Disulfide c. Peptide d. Alkaline & Neutral 25. The main side bond to be concerned with in the cosmetology environment is the: a. Hydrogen bond b. Peptide bond c. Disulfide bond d. Salt bond 26. Which is an example of a chemical change? a. Shampooing b. Perming c. Waxing d. Braiding 27. The pH scale measures which of the following? a. Alkalinity b. Neutrality c. Acidity d. All of the choices listed 28. Only matter which contains water and/or that dissolves in water is capable of an acidic or ___________ nature a. Alkaline b. Neutral c. Pre-acidic d. Prosodium
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29. How a. b. c. d.
many more times acidic is a pH of 3 than a pH of 4? Ten Seven Twenty One half
30. The pH of the skin, scalp and hair is within what range? a. From 4.5 to 5.5 b. From 3.5 to 5.5 c. From 4.5 to 7.5 d. From 5.5 to 6.5 31. The pH of pure water is: a. Six b. Zero c. Seven d. Eight 32. According to ___________________, cosmetics are defined as "articles intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled, or otherwise applied to the human body or any part thereof for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness or altering the appearance." a. The International Cosmetic Foundation Regulatory Committee b. The Food and Drug Act of 1938 c. The Federal State Board of Cosmetology & Aesthetics d. The 1955 M.A.Y.K.P. proclamation, Chapter 75 v.2 33. How many general classifications are there assigned to categorize cosmetics which are used in the cosmetology industry? a. Six b. Seven c. Eight d. Nine 34. Two a. b. c. d.
or more types of molecules blended and evenly dispersed would be: An ointment A solution An emulsion A liquid
35. Which of the following is regarded as a universal solvent? a. Shampoo b. Surfactants c. Emulsions d. Water
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36. When two or more non-mixable substances are unified with the assistance of a binder you end up with a/an: a. Emulsion b. Solution c. Conditioner d. Solvent 37. Ointments are mixtures of organic substances and: a. Non organic substances b. A medicinal agent c. Emulsions d. A paste made of cream or gel 38. Surfactant is also known as: a. Surface alignment agent b. Surface spectrum agent c. Surface elasticizing agent d. Surface active agent 39. What is elasticity? a. The capability of hair to stretch and then go back to its natural shape without breaking b. The ability of hair to grow more than 1 inch per month c. The term used to describe curly or wavy hair d. A hair fortifying agent 40. Following a sodium hydroxide procedure, additional chemical procedures that use thioglycolic acid: a. May be used after 2 days b. May be used within 24 hours c. May never be used d. May be used immediately 41. Conditioners, Solutions and _____________ have definite weight and volume but no definite shape a. Atoms b. Bar soap c. Shampoos d. Molecules 42. Oxygen and hydrogen combining to form water is an example of: a. Physical change b. Chemical change c. Organic change d. Diversification
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43. Hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, sulfur, and nitrogen are significant for cosmetologists to understand because: a. They are utterly destructive to hair, skin & nails b. They are all mineral components of hair c. They are all from the basis for hair, skin & nails d. None of the choices listed 44. What is the chemical symbol for carbon? a. Cn b. Cb c. C d. Cr 45. What are the three main parts of an atom? a. Protons, neutrons & electrons b. Neutrons, molecules, electrons c. Protons, shell, elements d. Electrons, bonds, protons 46. An example of a/an ______________ is when atoms chemically combine to form compounds a. Physical bond b. Organic bond c. Proton bond d. Chemical bond 47. Amino acids that create proteins are linked together end to end by which of the following? a. Peptide bonds b. Salt bonds c. Alkaline bonds d. Protein bonds 48. Which of the following is true regarding a hydrogen bond? a. Functions on the principle that opposite charges attract b. Can be broken by water or heat c. Makes up around 35% of hairâ€&#x;s strength d. All of the choices listed 49. Which of the following is true of salt bonds? a. Happen when negative charges of one amino group attract positive charges of another amino acid group b. Are inclined to organize protein chains and provide hair its shape c. Can be set by rollers to provide hair a new temporary shape d. All of the choices listed
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50. When a solute is dissolved in a solvent it is: a. An ointment b. A peptide bond c. A solution d. A Conditioner 51. When a solute mixed in a solvent is inclined to separate if it is left standing: a. It is an emulsion b. It is a suspension c. It is an ointment d. It is a solution 52. When two or more non-mixable substances are united with the assistance of a bind or gum-like substance, a/an __________ is formed a. Solution b. Element c. Emulsion d. Ointment 53. Mixtures of oils and fats that are converted to fatty acids by heat, and then purified are: a. Conditioners b. Facial Creams c. Ointments d. Soaps 54. A ___________ is an active agent used to remove oil from the hair a. Surfactant b. Emulsifier c. Lubricant d. Neutralizer 55. Water can be purified by which of the following? a. Sedimentation and filtration b. Using a surfactant c. Balancing the pH content d. Medicated shampoo 56. A ___________ can test the potency of hydrogen peroxide a. pH scale b. Galvanometer c. pH test strip d. Hydrometer
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57. Difficulties brought on by the utilization of metallic, vegetable and compound dyes could include: a. Damage to the hair b. Not having the option to perform other chemical services to the hair c. The possibility that the hair could fade into undesirable colors d. All of the choices listed 58. The protein that 97% of the hair is made up of is: a. Prota b. Myoglobin c. Collagen d. Keratin 59. Which of the following apply to the pH scale? a. It measures if a substance is acidic, alkaline, or neutral b. It is only practical for substances that contain water or can be dissolved in water c. Ranges from 0 to 14 d. All of the choices listed 60. Why is acid balance important to cosmetologists? a. Hair becomes neutral during shampooing b. Hair becomes alkaline during conditioning c. Professional shampoos and conditioners should maintain a 4.5 to 5.5 range for skin and hair d. None of the choices listed 61. The six general cosmetic classifications used in the cosmetology industry: a. Are based on how well they mix with amino acids b. Are based on how well a substance combines with another substance c. Are constantly changing d. Are: water, oil, amino acids, surfactants, wax and powder 62. ______________ have equal mixtures of organic and inorganic substances that do not dissolve in water; and are sifted and perfumed a. Emulsions b. Solutions c. Powders d. Ointments 63. What is the primary ingredient in shampoo? a. Water b. Keratin c. Sodium Lauryl Sulfate d. Essential oils
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64. Water can be classified as: a. Either hard or soft b. A solid c. A solution d. All of the choices listed 65. Water makes up _____ percent of the human body a. Ninety b. Seventy five c. Seventy d. Fifty 66. The atomic number of an element indicates how many ____________ are in the nucleus of an atom of that element a. Protons b. Electrons c. Nuclei d. All of the choices listed 67. Unstable atoms seek out other atoms that they can share _____________ with in order to complete their outer shell a. Isotopes b. Neutrons c. Protons d. Electrons 68. When two unstable atoms combine and make more complex units, the more complex units are known as: a. Molecules b. Nucleolus c. Atomic strings d. Isotopes 69. Which of the following cannot be dissolved by water? a. Shampoo and conditioner b. Peroxide c. Wax and oil d. All of the choices listed 70. _________ is/are anything that occupies space and has mass a. A molecule b. Particles c. Atoms d. Matter
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71. Which of the following is the positively charged particle in the nucleus of an atom? a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. Nucleus 72. Which of the following has no electrical charge and assists in determining the weight of an atom? a. Proton b. Shell c. Electron d. Neutron 73. Which part of the atom has a negative charge and allows atoms to unite with other atoms? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Shell d. Electron 74. This a. b. c. d.
is formed when two or more unlike atoms chemically combine: Solution Compound Surface agents Molecules
75. Which of the following are constructed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen? a. Amino acids b. Protons c. Ions d. Ointments 76. A water based solution measuring more positive hydrogen ions than negative hydroxide ions is a/an: a. Alkaline b. Acid c. Emulsion d. Rinse 77. A water based solution measuring more negative hydroxide ions than positive hydrogen ions is a/an: a. Acid b. Medication c. Neutral d. Alkaline
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78. A/an ___________ solution has an equal number of hydrogen and hydroxide ions a. Neutral b. Acid c. Alkaline d. None of the choices listed 79. What is the number on the pH scale designating a neutral pH? a. 7 b. 10 c. 14 d. 1 80. When two or more kinds of substances combine physically it forms a: a. Molecule b. Surfactant c. Mixture d. Chemical 81. The shine or luster of the hair is the: a. Proof of health b. Manageability c. Cosmetic appearance d. None of the choices listed 82. ______________ is the amount of moisture a strand of hair can absorb a. Osmosis b. Porosity c. pH scale d. Synthesis 83. The dense center of atoms which contains protons and sometimes neutrons is called the: a. Shell b. Heart c. Hub d. Nucleus 84. What is the atomic number of carbon? a. Seven b. Five c. Three d. Six
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85. Which of the following cannot be broken down into more simple substances without losing identity? a. Solids b. Molecules c. Elements d. Liquids 86. The science that deals with compounds lacking carbon is: a. Inorganic chemistry b. Macrobiotic chemistry c. Molecular chemistry d. Organic chemistry 87. __________ can change without involving a change in chemical composition a. Chemical properties b. Sub characteristics c. Polar traits d. Physical properties 88. When there is a change in a substanceâ€&#x;s chemical composition, there is a: a. Chemical change b. Physical change c. Piezoelectric change d. Magnetic change 89. A pure substance is: a. Purified matter b. Substances that do not go through a chemical change when dissolved with another substance c. Matter not combined with materials of different chemical compositions d. Hygienic material 90. A solid which has been dissolved in a liquid, or a mingled mixture of two or more liquids is: a. A solution b. An ointment c. A suspension d. A rinse 91. If a substance can dissolve another substance without changing the chemical composition: a. It is a solution b. It is a solvent c. It is a suspension d. It is a medication
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92. Miscible liquids are capable of being: a. Mixed together into a non-uniform blend b. Blended together in an unstable suspension c. Mixed together into a stable solution d. Stirred but not shaken 93. If liquids are incapable of being blended or mixed into stable solutions, they are: a. Unmiscible b. Nonmiscible c. Dismiscible d. Immiscible 94. When a product that contains particles donâ€&#x;t separate when standing, it known as a: a. Miscible b. Solution c. Emulsion d. Ointment 95. It is a ___________ if one can see undissolved particles with the naked eye, dispersed in a solution a. Solution b. Solvent c. Homogeneous solution d. Suspension 96. A/An ______________ is created when two or more immiscible substances are unified with the aid of a binder a. Emulsion b. Solvent c. Immiscible bond d. Ointment 97. A/An ______________ is a chemical substance which acts as a bridge that allows immiscible substances such as water and oil to emulsify a. Miscible substance b. Surfactant c. Solvent d. Active ingredient 98. The hydrophilic head of a surfactant molecule is: a. Water-loving b. Oil-loving c. Water-repulsive d. Amphipathic
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99. An ___________ is an atom or group of atoms that bears an electric charge a. Electrolyte b. Electron c. Anode d. Ion 100. ___________ owe their chemical reactivity to the presence of Hydrogen ions a. Alkali b. Liquids c. Acids d. Amperes 101. A process or reaction that releases energy in the form of heat is called: a. Adiabatic b. Exothermic c. Exergonic d. Metabolism 102. When rapid oxidation of a substance takes place accompanied by the production of heat or light, this is called: a. Combustion b. An electric current c. An electronic pulse d. Ionic production 103. The chemical reaction called â€œreductionâ€? occurs when: a. Oxygen is subtracted from a substance b. Oxygen is combined with an element c. Oxygen is added to a compound d. Rapid oxidation is accompanied by freezing 104. Redox is also known as: a. Oxidation b. Oxidation-reduction c. Combustion d. None of the choices listed 105. A simple definition of oxidation is: a. The losing of oxygen b. The gaining of oxygen c. A decrease in the number of bonds to oxygen d. None of the choices listed
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Chemistry - Answers (1)b (2)c (3)a (4)d (5)a (6)c (7)a (8)c (9)a (10)b (11)b (12)d (13)d (14)c (15)c (16)b (17)d (18)a (19)c (20)a (21)b (22)d (23)c (24)a (25)c (26)b (27)d (28)a (29)a (30)a (31)c (32)b (33)a (34)b (35)d (36)a (37)b (38)d (39)a (40)c (41)c (42)b (43)c (44)c (45)a (46)d (47)a (48)d (49)d (50)c (51)b (52)c (53)d (54)a (55)a (56)d (57)d (58)d (59)d (60)c (61)b (62)c (63)a (64)a (65)c (66)a (67)d (68)a (69)c (70)d (71)c (72)d (73)d (74)b (75)a (76)b (77)d (78)a (79)a (80)c (81)c (82)b (83)d (84)d (85)c (86)a (87)d (88)a (89)c (90)a (91)b (92)c (93)d (94)b (95)d (96)a (97)b (98)a (99)d (100)c (101)b (102)a (103)a (104)b (105)b
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Cosmetology: Hair Coloring
1. Non-oxidative colors are: a. Lighteners b. Toners c. Semi-permanent colors & temporary colors d. None of the choices listed 2. Which of the following are temporary colors available in? a. Gels, mousses, pomades & sprays b. Shampoos & rinses c. Mascara d. All of the choices listed 3. What a. b. c. d.
will a high volume of hydrogen peroxide create? More lift A 3% solution A 10 volume Toxic fumes
4. Fillers are capable of: a. Helping the hair hold color b. Depositing color on faded hair c. Preventing off-color results d. All of the choices listed 5. In the cosmetology industry, a hydrometer is used for: a. Measuring pH b. Measuring the strength of hydrogen peroxide c. Determining the gravity of oils in product d. All of the choices listed 6. Choose the consequences of leaving the cap off a bottle of peroxide a. It can become weak b. It can turn it into water and other free radicals c. It can cause it to release all the oxygen d. All of the choices listed 7. Apply a. b. c. d.
the color to __________ when providing a retouch application The new growth first The ends of the hair before the rest of the hair The entire hair shaft The nape area first
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8. Color a. b. c. d.
formulas should be mixed in __________ bowls Plastic Glass Wooden All of the choice listed
9. If you brush the clientâ€&#x;s hair before performing a chemical service: a. The scalp will be irritated b. It will guarantee consistent penetration of the chemical c. It will increase porosity d. It will make the scalp resistant to irritation 10. Apply a color that is ______________ than the desired shade when a client has 25% to 30% gray hair a. 1.5 levels lighter b. 1 level lighter c. 2 levels lighter d. 1 level darker 11. What are the major fields of color? a. Bronze, ash and blue b. Blonde, brunette, and red c. Black and white d. Light, medium and dark 12. When changing existing hair color, The colorist should be mindful that the final color result is: a. Completely artificial pigment b. Always a big surprise c. A combination of natural pigment and artificial color d. Never really going to be the shade the client requested 13. The three primary colors are red, yellow and: a. Blue b. Purple c. Green d. Brown 14. What does equal proportions of yellow and red create? a. Orange b. Brown c. Ash d. Auburn
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15. What are pigment-producing cells? a. Tincture constructing cells b. Melanoproteins c. Melanocytes d. Melanogenisis 16. On the color wheel, the colors that are opposite of each other are: a. Filter colors b. Complementary colors c. Subtractive primaries d. Tertiary colors 17. A level 10 color is: a. The darkest level b. The highest level c. The lowest level d. The lightest level 18. ____________ can be used to lighten the natural pigment in the hair a. Semi-permanent colors b. Permanent tint c. Long-lasting permanent colors d. All of the choices listed 19. Sometimes permanent hair colors are called: a. Oxidative tints with ammonia b. Color pomades c. Color sticks d. Dyes 20. Long-lasting semi-permanent colors will usually last for: a. 4 months b. 6 months c. 5 to 10 weeks d. 4 to 6 weeks 21. Your client should return every ______________ for a touch up service a. 1 to 2 weeks b. 3 to 4 weeks c. 6 weeks to 2 months d. 5 to 6 weeks 22. A color produced by mixing two primary colors in equal proportions is a: a. Strong Primary Hue b. Black pigment c. Tertiary color d. Secondary color
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23. Black hair contains densely packed melanin granules full of: a. Benzothiazine units b. Eumelanin c. Pheomelanin d. Free radicals 24. Pheomelanin colors hair: a. Red b. Black c. Blonde d. White 25. The last area to show signs of graying is normally the: a. Crown b. Near the temples c. Nape d. Beard 26. The two categories of lighteners are: a. On-the-cuticle and off-the-cuticle b. On-the-hair and off-the-scalp c. On-the-scalp and off-the-scalp d. On-the-scalp and in-the-medulla 27. Off-the-scalp lighteners have _________ and therefore are harsher to hair a. A low pH b. A large amount of peroxide c. A high pH d. None of the answers listed 28. Peroxide may____________ if mixed in a metal bowl a. Become weak b. Tarnish the bowl c. Turn into a glue-like substance d. Produce toxic fumes 29. An influential factor in selecting hair color for a client is: a. Hair length b. Hair structure c. Facial shape d. None of the choices listed
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30. The ________________ accounts for most of the hair shaft and is responsible for the great strength of our hair a. Cortex layer b. Cuticle layer c. Follicle layer d. Medulla layer 31. When hair color is applied to fine hair, it may appear: a. Lighter b. Redder c. Darker d. Dehydrated 32. Course hair _____________ hair color procedures a. Is processed much quicker during b. May take longer to process during c. May require hair pressing before d. Must always be trimmed 33. Hair with a cuticle that lies nearly flat, making it resistant to chemicals and topical products: a. Has high elasticity b. Has low eumelanin c. Has low porosity d. Has high pheomelanin 34. The underlying color of natural hair is known as: a. Tertiary color b. Contributing pigment c. Secondary color d. Dominant pigment 35. A numerical system of judging color in numbers with each level being a measure of light or dark in the hair is the: a. Contrast system b. Level system c. Gradient system d. Tonal system 36. Tone, is a term used to describe: a. Coolness of a color b. Neutrality of a color c. Warmth of a color d. All of the choices listed
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37. A color which absorbs light and looks darker than its actual level is a: a. Warm color b. Cool color c. Primary color d. Secondary color 38. _________ tones reflect light a. Warm b. Cool c. Dark d. Gray 39. What needs to be identified prior to a hair color procedure? a. Room lighting b. Artificial tones c. Base colors d. Natural levels 40. Colors which can be viewed with the naked eye are contained in: a. The visible light spectrum b. The color wheel c. The level system d. The gradient system 41. A ____________ color aids in minimizing orange tones in the hair a. Violet base b. Tertiary c. Blue base d. Primary 42. What are the primary colors? a. Cyan, magneta and violet b. White, black and gray c. Orange, purple and green d. Red, yellow and blue 43. Which of the following is the cool primary color? a. Yellow b. Red c. Green d. Blue 44. When a colorist adds red to a blue-based color it will appear: a. Darker b. Orange c. Lighter d. Purple
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45. Mixing a primary color with a secondary color produces a/an: a. Base color b. Darker color c. Tertiary color d. Opposing color 46. Diffusing color from the hair is known as: a. Lifting b. Texturizing c. Hair lightening d. Demelanization 47. Permanent hair coloring products and lighteners all contain an alkalizing ingredient and: a. A booster agent b. A neutralizing agent c. An oxidizing agent d. None of the choices listed 48. How a. b. c. d.
long does semi-permanent hair color last? 4 to 6 days 4 to 6 months 3 months None of the choices listed
49. _____________ penetrates the cuticle layer and deposits color into the hair shaft, but does not lift color a. Semipermanent hair color b. Permanent hair color c. Demipermanent hair color d. An ammonia agent 50. What is the most common developer used in hair coloring procedures? a. Melanin b. Lead acetate c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Henna 51. Which do temporary colors contain? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Certified colors c. Developers d. Henna
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52. The colors that are most often used in permanent hair color: a. Are certified colors b. Are mineral dye colors c. Are analine derivative colors d. Are Aqua & Chrome 53. Which of the following are normally used for lightening procedures like highlighting and weaving? a. Cream lighteners b. Gel lighteners c. Powder bleaches d. Liquid bleaches 54. The oxidizing agent in hair coloring and hair lightening used most commonly is: a. Hydrogen peroxide b. DimethylPhthalate c. Carboxylic oxide d. Meta-aminophenol 55. Which of the following choices are incompatible with andoxidative hair coloring? a. Cream lighteners b. Metallic salts c. Temporary colors d. None of the choices listed 56. Non-reactive, direct dyes which coat the surface of the hair shaft until shampooed out are: a. Semi-permanent colors b. Permanent colors c. Temporary colors d. None of the choices listed 57. Which of the following colors penetrates the cuticle layer of the hair and lasts through several shampoos? a. Permanent b. Semi-permanent c. Temporary d. None of the choices listed 58. __________________ use a low volume peroxide to develop color molecules a. Long lasting semi-permanent hair colors b. Permanent hair colors c. Temporary hair colors d. None of the choices listed
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59. Which of the following is the combination of ammonia and hydrogen peroxide which lightens the hairâ€&#x;s natural color and also deposits artificial color? a. Temporary hair color b. Long lasting semi-permanent hair color c. Permanent hair color d. Semi-permanent hair color 60. Lightening hair entails oxidation of natural melanin in hair by: a. Mixing peroxide and ammonia b. Mixing Thioglycolate and ammonia c. Mixing sodium hydroxide and analine d. Mixing paraphenyline diamine with peroxide 61. What forms are on-the-scalp lighteners available in? a. Oil and cream b. Lye and lard c. Alkaline salts and peroxide d. Emulsions and ointments 62. What do off-the-scalp lighteners use? a. Oil and cream b. Emulsions and ointments c. Lye and alkaline d. Alkaline salts and peroxide 63. Which hair color uses an oxidation system that starts out with colorless molecules? a. Permanent hair color b. Temporary hair color c. Semi-permanent hair color d. Long lasting semi-permanent hair color 64. Which of the following are used to decolorize or bleach the hair? a. Foils b. Perms c. Neutralizers d. Lighteners 65. The oxidizing agents used in hair lightening and hair color procedures are: a. Neutralizers b. Developers c. Lighteners d. Oxycolors
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66. What regulates the mixing of pigments to create other colors? a. The laws of color b. The visible light spectrum c. The State Board of Cosmetology & Barbering d. The color wheel 67. A ______________ is always made of a primary and a secondary color a. Secondary color b. Complementary color c. Primary color d. Predominant color 68. _______________ will always consist of all three primary colors a. Secondary colors b. Complementary pairs c. Predominant colors d. Primary colors 69. The basic name of a color is its: a. Hue b. Shade c. Level d. Tint 70. What is the medium primary color? a. Blue b. Yellow c. Violet d. Red 71. Which is the lightest primary color? a. Red b. Blue c. Yellow d. White 72. The strength of a color which is the amount of pigment or degree of concentration in a color is: a. Its level b. Its hue c. Density d. Saturation 73. Haircoloring products are categorized as either: a. Oxidative or non-oxidative b. Temporary or permanent c. Primary or secondary d. Light, medium or dark
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74. Sometimes traditional semi permanent haircolors are known as: a. Developers b. Haircolor sprays c. Crayons or sticks d. Direct dyes 75. ___________ products are not mixed with a developer a. Permanent haircolor b. Oxidation tint c. Metallic dye d. Traditional semi permanent haircolor 76. Vegetable tints such as henna are _____________ color products a. Non-oxidation b. Oxidation c. Temporary d. Modern 77. Oxidation tints must be mixed with ____________ to activate oxidation a. Metallic salts b. Ozone c. Primary colors d. Hydrogen peroxide 78. A _______________ will develop when new growth occurs requiring a retouch a. Line of demarcation b. Line of root growth c. Base root growth d. Base of demarcation 79. ______________ denotes the varying strengths of hydrogen peroxide a. Hue b. Level c. Volume d. Weight 80. Rarely needed, __________ comes in either tablet or powder form and is dissolved in liquid hydrogen peroxide in order to boost the volume a. Cake peroxide b. Metallic salt c. Mineral salt d. Dry peroxide
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81. ___________ stays moist on the hair for a longer period of time than liquid peroxide a. Dry peroxide b. Cake peroxide c. Cream peroxide d. All of the choices listed 82. To increase the lifting power of hydrogen peroxide use a/an: a. Activator b. Developer c. Melanin lifter d. All of the choices listed 83. Which of the following is NOT true regarding lighteners? a. Can be used to neutralize the pH in hair b. Can be used to pre-lighten hair in preparation for application of a toner or tint c. Can brighten a shade of color that all ready exists d. Can be used to lighten the hair to a final shade 84. ____________ lighteners take away pigment without adding color tone a. Color oil b. Bluing agent c. Neutral oil d. Cream 85. _____________ lighteners contain thickeners and conditioning agents; will not run, drip or dry out and help to drab undesirable red and gold tones a. Neutral oil b. Oil c. Powder d. Cream 86. The products known as ___________ which are applied to pre-lightened hair, create delicate shades of color and traditionally are permanent aniline derivative products a. Lighteners b. Fillers c. Compound dyes d. Toners 87. ____________ dissolve and diffuse artificial pigment within the cortical layer a. Oil-base dye removers b. Fillers c. Stain removers d. Dye solvents
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88. ____________ lift trapped artificial color pigments from cuticle layers without producing structural changes in the hair shaft or pigment of the hair a. Dye solvents b. Oil-base dye removers c. Fillers d. Stain removers 89. ___________ can be protein and non-protein; correct excessive porosity; penetrate the cuticle and fill in small holes in the hair a. Fillers b. Blockers c. Cream lighteners d. Vegetable tints 90. A predisposition test is required to identify clients who have a sensitivity to aniline derivatives and is also known as: a. A strand test b. A tint test c. A predilection test d. A patch test 91. Perform a/an _____________ test to determine the way the hair will react to haircolor product, the time it will take to process and to see what the final outcome will look like a. Strand b. Patch c. Peroxide d. Oxidation 92. The method of returning hair to its natural shade is known as: a. Saturation b. Tint back c. Oxidation d. Contributing pigment 93. Healthy hair that has not suffered a chemical change: a. Is known as the line of demarcation b. Is in a virgin state c. Is the contributing pigment d. Always healthy 94. Streaking, frosting and tipping are types of: a. Lowlighting b. Foiling c. Tint backs d. Highlighting
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95. Which of the following is NOT a part of the highlighting or lowlighting techniques? a. Pulling strands through the holes of a perforated cap with a plastic or metal hook b. Slicing or weaving out sections of hair that are then placed on a piece of foil c. Soap cap technique d. Free-form technique 96. An aniline derivative tint should be used to color mustaches: a. Only if the mustache is very thick and course b. Never c. Only if the mustache is very long d. Only according to the manufactures directions
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Hair Coloring - Answers (1)c (2)d (3)a (4)d (5)b (6)d (7)a (8)d (9)a (10)b (11)d (12)c (13)a (14)a (15)c (16)b (17)d (18)b (19)a (20)d (21)b (22)d (23)b (24)a (25)c (26)c (27)c (28)a (29)b (30)a (31)c (32)b (33)c (34)b (35)b (36)d (37)b (38)a (39)d (40)a (41)c (42)d (43)d (44)c (45)c (46)c (47)c (48)d (49)c (50)c (51)b (52)c (53)c (54)a (55)b (56)c (57)b (58)a (59)c (60)a (61)a (62)d (63)a (64)d (65)b (66)a (67)b (68)b (69)a (70)d (71)c (72)d (73)a (74)d (75)d (76)a (77)d (78)a (79)c (80)d (81)c (82)a (83)a (84)c (85)d (86)d (87)d (88)b (89)a (90)d (91)a (92)b (93)b (94)d (95)c (96)b
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Cosmetology: Hair Cutting, Styling & Design
1. A uniformly layered form is: a. A 40째 angle cut b. A 90째 angle cut c. A 75째 angle cut d. A 190째 angle cut 2. Out of the following forms, which present a rough texture? a. Graduation b. Uniformly layered c. Square combination d. All of the choices listed 3. Out of the following shears, which has the widest space between teeth? a. Taper 8 b. Taper 28 c. Taper 16 d. Taper 32 4. Dividing the head into workable areas is: a. Graphing b. Projecting c. Graduating d. Sectioning 5. The direction hair assumes as it gravitates naturally as it falls is known as: a. Natural distribution b. Planned distribution c. Sectioned distribution d. Cascading distribution 6. Which of the following is an artistic guideline utilized while cutting? a. Sculpture line b. Celestial line c. Design line d. All of the choices listed 7. What a. b. c. d.
would a projection angle of 45 degrees be considered? Medium elevation Average elevation High elevation Short elevation
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8. Hair is held straight out from the curve of the clientâ€&#x;s head when employing a ____________ elevation while cutting a. Low b. Medium c. Very high d. High 9. At times, texturizing is also referred to as: a. Thinning b. Scrunching c. Bonding d. Elevating 10. _______________ is also known as elevation a. Ascending design b. Projection c. Graduation d. Escalation 11. The angle at which hair is held in relation to the curve of the head before cutting is known as projection and is also known as: a. Graduation b. Escalation c. Depression d. Elevation 12. To achieve the desired style your client and you have in mind, start with a good: a. Haircut b. Texture c. Relaxer d. Hair spray 13. A 0 degree cut is known as a ___________ form a. Graduated b. Rigid c. Nix d. Solid 14. The box cut is known as a ____________ form a. Solid b. Sub c. Square d. Foundation
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15. Which of the following cutting positions is frequently used for cutting solid forms? a. Palm up b. Over the fingers c. Palm down d. None of the choices listed 16. Cutting shorter lengths within the form in order to reduce bulk (creates support and mobility) is called: a. Outlining b. Texturizing and thinning c. Thinning and gradating d. Graduating 17. Which of the following adds gloss and sheen to dry hair and also creates texture separation? a. Gel b. Mousse c. Conditioner d. Pomade 18. Which of the following provides a clean, blunt edge or line? a. Shear b. Razor c. Trimmer d. Clippers 19. What is the foundation of every haircut? a. The form b. The cutting position c. The texture d. Sectioning 20. Areas of a clientâ€&#x;s head where the surface of their head changes are known as: a. Reference points b. Spherical points c. Irregularities d. Section points 21. Which of the following is the widest part of the head known as the crest area? a. Apex b. Parietal ridge c. Celestial sphere d. Nape
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22. Which of the following is a thin continuous mark that is incorporated throughout a haircut? a. Section b. Form c. Ridge d. Line 23. The angle at which the stylist‟s fingers are held while performing a hair cut is known as the: a. Guideline b. Bevel line c. Cutting line d. Fulling line 24. The haircutting tool which has large teeth that are set far apart and is designed to remove a considerable amount of hair is : a. Notching shears b. Taper shears c. Straight razor d. Clippers 25. When the ends are cut at an angle with a razor creating a softer shape with evident visible separation, it is a: a. Chunky effect b. Beveled effect c. Feathered effect d. None of the choices listed 26. Coarse hair should usually be texturized at a minimum of ____________ away from the scalp a. 2 inches b. 1 – ½ inches c. 3 inches d. 2 ½ inches 27. What is Texturizing capable of? a. Reducing bulk b. Creating support c. Creating mobility d. All of the choices listed 28. Which is true regarding thinning? a. Thin around the hairline last b. Avoid thinning the ends of the hair c. Very curly hair should be thinned while it is wet d. All of the choices listed
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29. The _______________ controls the stationary or still blade on shears a. Finger grip b. Thumb grip c. Wrist movement d. Squeezing action 30. The ________________ controls the action or moveable blade on shears a. Thumb grip b. Finger grip c. Upper blade d. Lower blade 31. A movable guide that includes a portion of previously cut hair is a/an ____________ design line a. Guiding b. Mobile c. Traveling d. All of the choices listed 32. What are two types of shear and finger positions used while cutting? a. Vertical and horizontal b. Parallel and non parallel c. Eastward and westward d. Radial and perpendicular 33. Menâ€&#x;s services can include which of the following grooming services? a. Trimming ear and nose hairs b. Eyebrow trimming c. Trimming beards and mustaches d. All of the choices listed 34. Which of the following is/are hand-held implements utilized during a haircutting service? a. Shears, taper shears and razors b. Clippers c. Combs d. All of the choices listed 35. A blunt cut, bob, or sold form is: a. Cut at 45 degrees b. Cut at 90 degrees c. Cut at 0 degrees d. None of the choices listed
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36. Which moves when cutting with a shears: a. Only the thumb moves b. The fingers c. Both the thumb and wrist move d. The thumb and fingers all move 37. _____________ lines are used to produce an appearance of maximum weight or stability a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Diagonal d. Thick 38. ______________ lines construct an appearance of equilibrium or weightlessness a. Horizontal b. Diagonal c. Infinite d. Vertical 39. ______________ lines help to create the impression of movement and excitement a. Diagonal b. Vertical c. Horizontal d. Thin 40. What are the two basic curved lines known as? a. Round and oval b. Crescent and circle c. Convex and concave d. Spherical and circular 41. If a client has a diamond facial shape, which of the following should not be done? a. Add width at the forehead b. Add width at the jaw line c. Add width at the cheekbones d. All of the choices listed 42. What are the three major design elements? a. Composition, structure & planning b. Texture, color & form c. Surface, tone & line d. Porosity, elasticity & appearance
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43. What describes the size of the actual texture pattern and also the amount of hair length needed for one curl revolution? a. Foundation b. Form c. Appearance d. Texture speed 44. _________ is an outline or silhouette a. Contour b. Blueprint c. Form d. Structure 45. Which of the following facial shapes needs width at the forehead? a. Pear b. Heart c. Oblong d. Square 46. Evaluating the pigmentation of hair, eyes, lips and skin helps the cosmetologist to determine: a. Which style to provide b. Proper proportions c. Natural hair color d. None of the choices listed 47. A clientâ€&#x;s _____________ profile may be due to a protruding nose or a sloping chin or forehead a. Convex b. Concave c. Oblong d. Straight 48. _________ requires a heavier styling product in order to achieve better control a. Thinning hair b. Black hair c. Thick hair d. Red hair 49. ____________ is the state of equilibrium between contrasting, opposite or interacting elements a. Equality b. Balance c. Poise d. Weight
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50. Line a. b. c. d.
determines: Obscure mass Structure and design Space and form All of the choices listed
51. ___________ is produced using a single line a. A curved line style b. A one length style c. Three dimensional style d. None of the choices listed 52. When curved lines are created to soften and blend vertical lines or horizontal lines in a hairstyle they are: a. Weight lines b. Form lines c. Transitional lines d. Crescent lines 53. The three-dimensional construction of a hairstyle is called its: a. Profile b. Spacial sphere c. Blueprint d. Form 54. What is the region that surrounds the form? a. Space b. Aura c. Degrees of separation d. Outer level 55. Natural wave patterns are categorized as extremely curly, curly, ____________ and straight a. Wavy b. Slightly curly c. Semi-straight d. Coiled 56. Choose a flattering hair color tone for a client with gold skin tones a. Cool b. Gray c. Green d. Warm
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57. Clients with broad shoulders would benefit from a style: a. With added length b. Designed with very little volume c. With volume d. None of the choices listed 58. When creating balance in a hairstyle, the proportions created produce: a. Degrees of separation b. A celestial sphere c. Equality d. Symmetry 59. _________ is the area of a hair design where the eye is drawn to first a. The apex b. The form c. Emphasis d. The shape 60. Which face shape is equal to 1 1/2 times the width while the forehead and jaw are about the same width as one another? a. Oblong b. Round c. Oval d. Heart 61. Which face shape is about as wide as it is long and has strong angles and lines? a. Triangle b. Heart c. Diamond d. Square 62. What is the section which starts at the highest point of the head and ends at the front corners? a. The jaw line b. The apex c. The bang area d. The nape 63. The ____________ shape face has width at the cheek and eye area with a narrow to pointy chin and sometimes a high forehead a. Heart b. Diamond c. Triangular d. Oblong
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64. A useful way of measuring the proportions of the face is known as: a. Dividing-off b. Tracing the outline c. Spherical sectoring d. Three-sectioning 65. The _________ face is narrow at the forehead and wide at the jaw and chin line a. Diamond b. Oblong c. Triangular d. Oval 66. The ________ shaped face has a narrow forehead and narrow chin and is wide at the cheeks a. Diamond b. Oblong c. Oval d. Rectangular 67. If a face is shaped like a trapezoid, it is ___________ shaped a. Square b. Diamond c. Oval d. Pear 68. Which of the following guidelines should you use if the client has a round facial shape? a. Add height to the crown b. Add width to the sides c. Make all proportions equal around the face d. All of the choices listed 69. A profile that has a minor curvature from the front hairline to the tip of the nose and from the tip of the nose to the chin is: a. Concave b. Convex c. Straight d. Square 70. Which profile has an inward curve, usually the consequence of a dominant, protruding forehead and chin or a small nose? a. Convex b. Straight c. Oblong d. Concave
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71. What determines the angle and direction from which the hair grows out of the scalp? a. The environmental growth pattern b. The hair porosity c. The natural growth pattern d. The hair density 72. Which lines are parallel to the horizon and add width? a. Vertical b. Perpendicular c. Crossover d. Horizontal 73. A pattern which involves having a relationship of opposites that produces variety, interest and excitement is: a. Tone b. Multi-level c. A diversified shape d. Contrast 74. Concave, convex and straight are hair design terms which describe: a. Silhouette b. Profile c. Outline d. Form 75. The area between partings is exactly the same as the diameter of the roller when there is a ______ diameter base a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 0 76. The length of a section a cosmetologist should place on a roller is: a. As much as the circumference of the roller b. The same as the length of the roller c. .05 times the length of the roller d. Twice the length of the roller 77. What is a long, slow wave an example of? a. A quick-speed texture pattern b. A high-speed texture pattern c. A long-speed texture pattern d. A slow-speed texture pattern
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78. The term used for combing wet hair into a preferred position is: a. Molding b. Coiling c. Plaiting d. Contouring 79. Which of the following is an example of a straight shape used in sectioning the hair? a. Triangle b. Oval c. Oblong d. Circle 80. The area between partings within a shape is the curl: a. Apex b. Foundation c. Base d. Substructure 81. When a cosmetologist works with rollers or thermal irons, parting will normally be: a. Cris-Cross b. Zig-Zag c. Curved d. Straight 82. The hair that is positioned around the roller is the __________ of the curl a. Base b. Circle c. Foundation d. Crescent 83. ____________ is the size of the base and the position of the curl in relation to the base a. Curl position b. Volume control c. Position relation d. Base control 84. What is another term for air forming? a. Thermal ironing b. Air brushing c. Air sculpting d. Blow drying
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85. Who introduced thermal irons to the world of beauty? a. Luigi Galvani b. Jane Hading c. Marcel Grateau d. Empress Bandeaux 86. Which of the following are used to produce flair and hollow space? a. Indentation pincurls b. Flat pincurls c. Scrunching d. Backcombing 87. On-base tool placement will result in: a. Hair damage and weak base strength b. The smallest and tightest base c. The most bouncy but least powerful base strength d. The most volume and the strongest base strength 88. When a cosmetologist is _______________, the cosmetologist is using a cushion brush to brush all the way to the scalp to integrate the bases a. Relaxing the set b. Brushing out the curl c. Scrunching d. Massaging the scalp 89. Another term for blow drying is: a. Air shaping b. Air structuring c. Air forming d. Air sculpting 90. Which pattern will an undulating thermal iron create? a. An S pattern b. A figure eight c. A circle d. A crescent 91. Connecting two oblong shapes by means of a _________ forms a fingerwave a. Pin curl clip b. Ridge c. Part d. Gel
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92. Which of the following will determine the amount of movement a pin curl will have? a. The base b. The ridge c. The stem d. The circle 93. A skip wave is: a. When waves are applied only at the hair ends b. The first roller over, the next roller under, and repeat the process c. The same as barrel waves d. The combination of flat pincurls and fingerwaves 94. The vertical roll is also known as: a. Marcel waves b. The French twist c. Twisties d. A parallel roll 95. Lines that travel an equal distance from each other from multiple points are: a. Radial lines b. Rigid lines c. Compound lines d. Parallel lines 96. To prepare and protect the hair, and to prevent scorching and breakage during pressing, a stylist should use: a. Pressing oil b. Gel c. Mousse d. Conditioner 97. The technique for adding volume to a hairstyle by using a brush to push the shorter lengths of hair toward the base is known as: a. Scrunching b. Backbrushing c. Backcombing d. Downbrushing 98. Which are components of a curl? a. Base, Stem, Circle b. Foundation, Branch, Crescent c. Bottom, Bough, Oval d. None of the choices listed
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99. How a. b. c. d.
should a cosmetologist begin the hairstyling process? By sectioning the hair Draping the client Combing through the clients hair With a client consultation
100. The stylist should begin on the ____________ side when making finger waves with a side part a. Light b. Small c. Heavy d. Left 101. Which of the following is commonly accepted as the ideal facial shape? a. Pear b. Oval c. Heart d. Square 102. What are lines which subdivide shapes or sections to assist in distributing and controlling the hair? a. Partings b. Stems c. Segments d. Subdivisions 103. Which of the following is/are true when a cosmetologist uses a blow dryer? a. They should always use a heat protective styling lotion b. They should remove about 90 percent of the water before blow drying c. They should keep the dryer from three to five inches away from the hair d. All of the choices listed 104. What is another name for hair pressing? a. Bonding b. Silking c. Fusing d. Crimping 105. What is another name for a sculpture curl? a. Fingerwave b. Skip wave c. Barrel curl d. Pincurl
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106. Which of the following achieves a similar effect to hair that has been wound around a roller but with less volume? a. Flat pin curls b. Finger waves c. Barrel curls d. Skip waves 107. The ___________ determines the direction and amount of mobility a pincurl has a. Arc b. Base c. Circle d. None of the choices listed 108. A three-strand underbraid is known as: a. A horse tail b. A Russian braid c. A hidden braid d. A visible braid 109. On-the-scalp, three strand underbraids are known as: a. Cornrows b. Bonds c. Micro links d. None of the choices listed 110. Which of the following are involved in the creation of hairstyles? a. Direction b. Movement c. Form and texture d. All of the choices listed 111. Hair that is overly curly and coarse can be very resistant to: a. Scrunching b. Hair pressing c. Being trimmed d. All of the choices listed 112. Skip waves, pincurls and fingerwaves are all types of: a. Wet styling b. Thermal styling c. Twisties d. Permanent waves
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113. The placement of _____________ can produce an upward or downward emphasis in long hair styling a. Hair pins b. Pin curl clips c. Mousse d. Volume 114. ______________ is a technique employed to temporarily straighten hair a. Wet styling b. Texturizing c. Hair pressing d. Rolling 115. Lines that extend outward from a single point, similar to spokes of a wheel are known as ____________ lines a. Parallel b. Infinite c. Radial d. Motion 116. What is a half-off base pincurl also called? a. A pass-over wave b. A half-stem pincurl c. A full-stem pincurl d. A semi-base pincurl 117. Which type of hair is the least difficult to press? a. Fine b. Coarse c. Extremely curly d. Medium 118. The technique for producing a cushion effect to add volume to a hairstyle by using a comb to push the shorter lengths of hair toward the base is known as: a. Back combing b. Back brushing c. Scrunching d. Comb out 119. Squeezing the hair to establish a texture pattern the hair responds to naturally is a form of finger styling called: a. Scrunching b. Finger waving c. Compression d. Finger combing
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120. An off-base pincurl is known as a full-stem pincurl, and a on-base pincurl is known as a _________ pincurl a. No-stem b. Half-stem c. Short-stem d. Long-stem 121. The technique of drying and/or styling hair by using a hand-held dryer and at the same time using a variety of brushes, pressing comb, your fingers and/or a thermal curling iron is: a. Wet styling b. Thermal styling c. Air shaping d. Hair pressing 122. A white paper towel will scorch after ________ seconds if a stove-heated thermal iron is too hot a. Two b. Ten c. Fifteen d. Five 123. __________ is a styling aid applied to curly hair to produce a straight look when hair is air formed a. Mousse b. Hair spay c. Straightening gel d. Styling wax stick 124. While creating an updo, a cosmetologist should examine the shape from every angle so that ___________ is/are established a. Proportion and balance b. Texture c. Effective timing d. Mobility and tension 125. Which is the lowest elevation? a. Medium b. High c. Zero d. 90 degree 126. The graduated or stacked effect is achieved with: a. Only traveling guides b. Both stationary and horizontal traveling guides c. Only stationary guides d. No guides
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127. What is the most commonly used projection in menâ€&#x;s haircutting? a. Zero elevation b. Medium elevation c. 90-degree elevation d. 45-degree elevation 128. A line which divides the hair at the scalp and separates one section of hair from another section is: a. A part b. A section c. Base control d. A layer 129. When a cut is made for the purpose of subsequent partings or sections of hair to be measured and cut it is: a. A guide b. A design line c. A parting d. A cutting line 130. What type of guide is used for designs which appear as one-length at the perimeter? a. Stationary b. Mobile c. Traveling d. Moving 131. Cutting interior sections of the hair can produce: a. A guide strand b. Tension c. Layers d. A solid-form blunt cut 132. Most menâ€&#x;s hairstyles require ___________ so that the hair conforms to the shape of the head; is shorter at the nape and longer at the top a. Thinning b. Tapering c. Outlining d. Parting 133. With a 0-elevation or 45-degree cut, the heaviest perimeter area is: a. A weight line b. A deep-end line c. A stationary line d. A design line
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134. The amount of pressure applied when combing and holding a section of hair to be cut is known as: a. Elasticity b. Tension c. Weight d. Pinching 135. Which of the following is NOT a basic method for utilizing fingers-and-shear techniques? a. Cutting below the fingers b. Cutting above the fingers c. Cutting palm-to-palm d. Cutting freehand 136. Using the shears to skim over the surface of the hair with a continual openand-close motion to cut any stray hairs projecting from the hair design is using the ____________ technique a. Freehand shear cutting b. Arching c. Shear-over-surface d. Shear-point tapering 137. For thinning difficult areas of the hair such as whorls, use the ____________ technique to help the difficult area blend in with the surrounding hair or hairline a. Freehand shear cutting b. Shear-point tapering c. Clipper-over-comb cutting d. Arching 138. Which of the following is NOT a clipper cut style? a. Crew cut b. Quo Vadis c. Flat top d. Blunt cut 139. The standard clipper cutting techniques are known as clipper-over-comb and: a. Freehand clipper cutting b. Quo Vadis technique c. Brush cutting d. Terminal clipper blending 140. _____________ hair needs more strokes and heavier tapering, during razor cutting, than other textures a. Thin hair b. Fine hair c. Coarse/thick d. Medium-textured
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141. Which of the following is NOT a term associated with razor cutting? a. Razor-over-comb b. Removing weight c. Razor-over-fingers d. Freehand slicing 142. When razor-cutting, the hair should be ______________ for the best results and for the comfort of the client a. Clean and dry b. Clean and damp c. Long d. Short 143. The art of arranging the hair into a suitable style after a haircut or shampoo is: a. Finish work b. Envisioning c. Revising d. Hairstyling 144. Facial shape is determined by: a. A personâ€&#x;s weight b. The natural hairline c. The position as well as the prominence of facial bones d. The length of a personâ€&#x;s neck 145. The ___________ facial shape should incorporate a hairstyle which visually shortens a. Oblong b. Oval c. Square d. Round 146. To minimize a prominent nose: a. Bring the hair forward at the sides and back at the forehead b. Bring the hair back at the forehead and the sides c. Bring all the hair forward at the sides and the forehead d. Bring the hair back at the sides and forward at the forehead 147. A long neck can be minimized by: a. Allowing longer or fuller hair at the nape b. Exposing as much of the neck as possible c. Shaving the neck to the nape d. None of the choices listed
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148. Drying and styling the hair in one operation is: a. Wet-styling b. Volume-styling c. Blow-dry-styling d. Scrunch-styling 149. Which of the following blow-drying techniques builds fullness while letting the hair fall into the natural lines of the cut? a. Stylized blow-drying b. Freeform blow-drying c. Diffused drying d. Finger styling 150. _____________ uses heat to make physical changes in the hair by taking sections of damp hair and drying each section in a definite direction with the aid of a comb or brush followed by the blow dryer a. Freeform blow-drying b. Diffused drying c. Stylized blow-drying d. Sectioned blow-drying 151. To maintain the natural wave pattern of the clientâ€&#x;s hair during a blow-drying, use: a. Freeform blow-drying b. Diffused drying c. Stylized blow drying d. All of the choices listed 152. The angle of the (shears) blade from the tip to back as well as the alignment of the blades in relation to each other is referred to as: a. The slant of the shears b. The balance of the shears c. The set of the shears d. The grind of the shears 153. _____________ clippers, which are also known as universal motor clippers, require little maintenance, can be used for wet or dry haircutting, have detachable cutting heads to achieve various hair lengths and are designed for heavy-duty continual use and yet are quieter than other types of clippers a. Magnetic clippers b. Pivot motor clippers c. Vibratory motor clippers d. Rotary motor clippers
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154. Which of the following is NOT correct? a. When checking the tension on shears: if the blades do not drop at all once the still blade has been released - the tension is perfect b. It is possible to ruin a set of shears by dropping them on a hard surface c. You should not cut anything besides hair with haircutting shears d. Shears should not have prolonged immersion with corrosive chemicals such as permanent waving lotions and oxidizers 155. Trimmers, also known as outliners, have _____________ for the purpose of outlining, design work and arching a. A very fine cutting head b. A cross-shaped blade c. A cross-shaped blade d. A rotary motor 156. Attachment combs are also known as: a. Wide-toothed combs b. Clipper forks c. Equipment d. Clipper guards 157. How should clippers ALWAYS be held? a. In the right hand b. With the thumb on the left side of the unit at the switch and the fingers on the right side with the blades pointing up c. In a manner that allows freedom of wrist movement d. In an underhand position 158. Which of the following is NOT a part of blow dryer safety? a. Check blow dryer attachments for sharp points b. Prevent burns by keeping the air and the hair moving c. Do not concentrate dryer heat too close to the scalp or skin d. It is permissible to use a blow dryer close to water 159. Which of the following is NOT a part of the safety precautions recommended for thermal iron use? a. Put a hard rubber comb between the clientâ€&#x;s scalp and the iron b. Test the temperature of the iron before using it on a client c. The best place to keep heated stoves is near your station mirror d. Do not use metal combs between the clientâ€&#x;s scalp and the hot iron
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Hair Cutting, Styling & Design - Answers (1)b (2)d (3)a (4)d (5)a (6)c (7)a (8)d (9)a (10)b (11)d (12)a (13)d (14)c (15)c (16)b (17)d (18)a (19)a (20)a (21)b (22)d (23)c (24)a (25)c (26)b (27)d (28)d (29)a (30)a (31)b (32)b (33)d (34)d (35)c (36)a (37)b (38)d (39)a (40)c (41)c (42)b (43)d (44)c (45)a (46)c (47)a (48)c (49)b (50)c (51)b (52)c (53)d (54)a (55)a (56)d (57)c (58)d (59)c (60)c (61)d (62)c (63)a (64)d (65)c (66)a (67)d (68)a (69)c (70)d (71)c (72)d (73)d (74)b (75)a (76)b (77)d (78)a (79)a (80)c (81)d (82)b (83)d (84)d (85)c (86)a (87)d (88)a (89)c (90)a (91)b (92)c (93)d (94)b (95)d (96)a (97)b (98)a (99)d (100)c (101)b (102)a (103)d (104)b (105)d (106)c (107)d (108)d (109)a (110)d (111)b (112)a (113)d (114)c (115)c (116)b (117)d (118)a (119)a (120)a (121)b (122)d (123)c (124)a (125)c (126)b (127)c (128)a (129)a (130)a (131)c (132)b (133)a (134)b (135)d (136)a (137)b (138)d (139)a (140)c (141)c (142)b (143)d (144)c (145)a (146)d (147)a (148)c (149)b (150)c (151)b (152)c (153)d (154)a (155)a (156)d (157)c (158)d (159)c
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Cosmetology: Nail Care & Services
1. What a. b. c. d.
is the technical name for the nail? Onyx Cuticle Matrix Eponychium
2. What a. b. c. d.
is the area where the entire nail plate rests? The nail plate throne The nail fold The nail bed The nail grove
3. Nails that show signs of a/an ____________ require medical assistance a. Condition b. Disorder c. Agnail d. Disease 4. A client whose nail grows into the edge of the nail groves has the disorder: a. Hypergranulation b. Onychocryptosis c. Onychia d. Osteomyelitis 5. Overgrown cuticles are called: a. Onychophagy b. Agnails c. Hangnails d. Pterygium 6. Which of the following can be a sign of serious issues with the nail plate or the nail bed? a. Discoloration b. Agnails c. Leuconychia d. Onychophagy 7. __________ is the painless loosening or separation of the nail from the nail bed a. Onychogryposis b. Tinea pedis c. Onycholysis d. Onychia
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8. What a. b. c. d.
is the portion of the nail that extends beyond the end of the finger? The free edge The Paronychium The cuticle The nail frame
9. If a hangnail becomes infected, a bacterial infection known as _____________ can occur a. Paronychia b. Onychia c. Tinea manus d. Tinea pedis 10. An inflammation of the matrix of the nail with formation of pus and shedding of the nail is called: a. Paronychia b. Onychia c. Onychocryptosis d. Onycholysis 11. An atrophy or wasting away of the nail plate is: a. Onychia b. Onychocryptosis c. Onycholysis d. Onychatrophia 12. Another name for agnail is: a. Thin nail b. Hangnail c. Brittle nail d. Claw nail 13. You can avoid splitting the clientâ€&#x;s nail by shaping it: a. From the tip to the bottom b. From the center to each edge c. From the outer edge toward the center d. None of the choices listed 14. Nail a. b. c. d.
polish should be applied: With light, sweeping strokes On the sides first From the free edge to the base Under an ultra violet light
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15. You may remove stains from the nail with: a. Cuticle cream b. Paraffin c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Hand sanitizer 16. Which of the following is a colorless polish which prevents colored polish from chipping? a. Base coat b. Sealer c. Enamel d. Strengthener 17. The cosmetic care of the feet and toenails is: a. Podiatry b. Onychology c. Pedicuring d. Pedicare 18. A cosmetologist can repair nails with: a. Only silk b. Both fiberglass and silk c. Only fiberglass d. Nail paste 19. Ringworm of the nail is known as: a. Onychatrophia b. Onychomycosis c. Onychia d. Onychocryptosis 20. Nail a. b. c. d.
fungus is caused by: A virus An infection Heredity A contagious vegetable parasite
21. ________________ is a common compulsive oral habit of nail biting a. Onychophagia b. Onychomycosis c. Onychatrophia d. Onychia 22. Another name for cuticle is: a. Perionychium b. Mantle c. Pterygium d. Eponychium
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23. Nail a. b. c. d.
conditions can improve with: Proper manicuring procedures Proper nail products Improved nutrition All of the choices listed
24. To aid in the fast drying of polish, use a spray or polish called: a. Top coat b. Base coat c. Speed dry d. Extra dry 25. A/An __________ is an implement for natural nails that shortens, shapes, and smoothes the rough edges a. Orangewood stick b. Cuticle pusher c. Emery board d. Nail brush 26. Which finger should you begin with when filing the nails? a. The little finger b. The thumb c. The ring finger d. The index finger 27. Push back softened cuticles with a cotton-wrapped: a. Emery board b. Nail trimmer c. Orangewood stick or cuticle pusher d. Cosmetic spatula 28. The liquid mixed with powder to form an acrylic nail is: a. Polymer b. Primer c. UV Gel d. Monomer 29. A dehydrant is for removing moisture and oil, to prevent fungus growth and to: a. Discourage Onychophagia b. Dissolve hangnails c. Prevent Onychocryptosis d. Maximize adhesion
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30. A healthy nail: a. Is flexible b. Is translucent with a pinkish coloration c. Is smooth d. All of the choices listed 31. ______________ can cause split nails a. Improper filing b. Injury c. Harsh chemical contact d. All of the choices listed 32. Infection in the nails may involve: a. Pain and swelling b. Local fever and redness c. Throbbing and pus d. All of the choices listed 33. Which of the following are an appendage of the skin and are protective plates on the ends of toes and fingers? a. Acrylic nails b. Gel nails c. Natural nails d. Methacrylate nails 34. Which system of the body are nails included in? a. The circulatory system b. The nervous system c. The skeletal system d. The integumentary system 35. Where are nail cells formed? a. The cuticle b. The nail bed c. The nail plate d. The matrix 36. The word lunula means moon-like and refers to: a. The crescent-shaped, whitish area of the bed of a nail b. The visible part of the nail matrix c. The portion of the nail matrix which extends from beneath the living skin d. All of the choices listed 37. How a. b. c. d.
many layers of nail cells is the nail plate made of? 1000 100,000 100 10,000
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38. The underneath surface of the nail plate has __________ along the length of the nail that help anchor it to the nail bed a. Grooves b. Ridges c. Ribs d. All of the choices listed 39. The matrix shape establishes: a. The length of the nail b. The width of the nail c. The curvature of the nail d. All of the choices listed 40. It generally takes about ____________ to replace the natural fingernail a. 4 to 6 months b. 7 to 10 months c. One year d. One month 41. Manicuring table lamps should have: a. Incandescent bulbs b. Fluorescent bulbs c. Halogen bulbs d. LED bulbs 42. Manicure implements should be _______________ in disinfection containers a. Partially immersed b. Dampened c. Occasionally dipped d. Completely immersed 43. An orangewood stick that has been used to remove cuticle tissue: a. Is reusable when sanitized b. Should be discarded after every use c. Should be placed in the disinfection container and used at least one more time d. Should be wiped off after every use 44. Fine a. b. c. d.
grit abrasives are designed for: Buffing Polishing Removing very fine scratches All of the choices listed
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45. A/An ____________ shines the nail plate without dry buffing powder a. Curette b. Three-way buffer c. Cotton ball dipped in acetone d. Abrasive buffer 46. A pedicure service includes: a. Trimming, shaping and polishing toenails b. Exfoliating the skin c. Foot massage d. All of the choices listed 47. A professional pedicure service should generally be performed: a. Weekly b. Bi-weekly c. Monthly d. Bi-monthly 48. What is the pedicure tool for exfoliating and for smoothing calluses? a. Emory board b. Paddle c. Spatula d. Pedi-brush 49. When providing a pedicure, the client‟s foot should be held between your thumb and fingers at the: a. Client‟s large toe b. Client‟s heel c. Arch of the client‟s foot d. Mid-tarsal area of the client‟s foot 50. Foot a. b. c. d.
massage performed during a pedicure is relaxing and: Is considered a holistic healing technique Entertaining Is therapeutic and stimulates blood circulation Gradually removes calluses over time
51. Client‟s with ______________ should not receive hot paraffin baths a. Fibromyalgia b. A seasonal cold c. Diabetic conditions d. All of the choices listed
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52. A small instrument shaped similar to an ice-cream scooper which is used to remove debris from the nail folds as well as the cuticle is a: a. Rasp b. Nipper c. Paddle d. None of the choices listed 53. Which nail grows the quickest? a. The thumbnail b. The great toe c. The pointer finger d. None of the choices listed 54. Try to always use nail products that are __________ for the safety of the client a. Hypoallergenic b. Purified c. Anti-flammable d. Flexible 55. What are permanent items utilized in nail technology known as? a. Equipment b. Implements c. Consumables d. Inventory 56. Shorten long nails with a/an ___________ in order to reduce filing time a. Fingernail clipper b. Emory board c. Cuticle nipper d. Metal nail file 57. Antibacterial soap is mixed with warm water during a manicure and used: a. On a cotton ball b. In the fingerbowl c. With a cloth d. With a sponge 58. Vigorous massage of joints during a manicure or pedicure can be very painful for clients who have: a. Allergies b. Acid reflux c. Arthritis d. Muscle tension
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59. How a. b. c. d.
many rinse and soap baths might a properly set up pedicure station use? Four One Two Six
60. What is the reason for soaking the feet prior to the pedicure procedure? a. To relax the client b. To soften the skin c. To reduce swelling of the feet d. Sanitation 61. What does the foot massage begin with? a. Joint relaxer movements b. Effleurage on the top c. Effleurage on the heel d. Aromatherapy 62. Pedicuring is care of the feet, __________ and toenails a. Toes b. Metatarsals c. Skin d. All of the choices listed 63. Buff a. b. c. d.
the nail plate in order to remove: Natural oil Debris Bacteria Dirt
64. When nail tips are correctly sized, they will cover the nail plate from: a. Lunula to free edge b. Sidewall to sidewall c. Mid-nail to free edge d. None of the choices listed 65. How a. b. c. d.
long would you normally hold the artificial nail tip in place until dry? 1 to 5 seconds 5 to 10 seconds 3 to 4 seconds 10 to 20 seconds
66. Why a. b. c. d.
shouldnâ€&#x;t artificial nail tips be trimmed straight across? It will cause the plastic to weaken It may cause the plastic to lift It could cause the plastic to crack It will make the artificial nail split
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67. Nipping off artificial nail tips might cause damage to the: a. Nipper b. Free edge c. Nail bed d. None of the choices listed 68. Use _________ in order to remove glue residue from the natural nail a. Cuticle remover b. Acetone c. A fine buffer block d. An abrasive buffer 69. What part of the nail are overlays bonded to? a. The lunula b. The sidewalls c. The front of the nail plate d. The free edge 70. Fabric nail wraps are maintained after ___________ with a glue fill a. Two weeks b. Three weeks c. Four weeks d. One week 71. During the application of a paper wrap, the mending tissue should: a. Be tucked around the sidewalls b. Be tucked under the free edge c. Not reach the free edge d. None of the choices listed 72. Liquid nail wrap is applied to the nail by: a. Orangewood stick b. Spatula c. Dropper d. Brush 73. Material used for fabric nails may include: a. Paper b. Silk, fiberglass or linen c. Wool or cotton d. Plastic
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74. Natural and synthetic compounds of exceptionally high molecular weight consisting of repeated linked units (long chains) are: a. Monomers b. Laminators c. Polymers d. All of the choices listed 75. Acrylic nail powder is available in: a. Clear b. Pink c. White d. All of the choices listed 76. If the primed area of the nail is touched with a wet brush before the acrylic application: a. It will cause the acrylic to lift b. It may contaminate the nail c. It could make it harden too fast d. It might result in a natural nail disorder 77. During an acrylic nail application, the first acrylic ball is utilized to form the: a. Sidewalls b. Nail plate c. Free edge d. Fill 78. ___________ create rigid surface coatings, are brushed on the nail plate like polish, and are usually cured by exposure to ultra violet light a. Primers b. Methyl Methacrylates c. Monomers d. Gels 79. Brush gel: a. Onto the entire nail b. Only on the free edge c. At the lunula d. Slightly above the new nail growth 80. Which of the following is/are used to cure gels? a. Ultraviolet light or halogen light b. A fluorescent light source c. Incandescent light d. Laser nail hardeners
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81. Nails are cleaned in a fingerbowl with _______________ before applying gel nails a. Sudsy ammonia b. Cuticle lotion c. Acetone d. Antibacterial soap 82. Which of the following contains fats and waxes? a. Cuticle cream b. Cuticle oil c. Nail hardener d. Nail lacquer 83. What would you suggest your clients use at bedtime for soft cuticles? a. Liquid minerals b. Cuticle oil c. A paraffin treatment d. Cuticle solvent 84. Which of the following helps with easier removal of cuticles while using a nipper? a. Cuticle solvent b. Cuticle ointment c. Cuticle oil d. Cuticle cream 85. ____________ is a thicker-viscosity cyanoacrylate monomer than nail tip adhesives a. UV gel b. No-light gel c. Liquid fiberglass d. Nail polish 86. When using brush cleaner: a. You should not let the brush sit in the brush cleaner b. You should not trim the bristles, only clip the stray hair c. Consider cleaning the brush in the monomer liquid instead d. All of the choices listed 87. After an acrylic nail service brushes should be cleaned in: a. Soap and water b. Nail dehydrator c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Brush cleaner or monomer
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88. Which of the following pedicure supplies contain an antifungal agent? a. Antiseptic foot spray b. Liquid soap c. Foot powder d. All of the choices listed 89. Which of the following is NOT a nail cosmetic? a. Cuticle oil b. Nail bleach c. Styptic powder d. Nail strengthener 90. What is powdered alum or styptic powder used for? a. To dry oily nails b. To stop minor bleeding c. A sanitation technique without the use of liquids d. To sterilize a minor cut 91. Skin disorders of the hand and allergies to product ingredients: a. Affect more than 30% of all nail technicians at some point during their career b. Are avoidable c. Are lifelong once a sensitivity occurs d. All of the choices listed 92. At what point should you use monomer to clean up the edges or under the nail? a. Never b. Before filing c. Before using nail polish d. Only if the nail needs smoothing 93. Base coats, top coats and nail polishes form coatings, but they do not: a. Polymerize b. Contain monomers c. Involve chemical reactions d. All of the choices listed 94. Which of the following can make gels harden incorrectly? a. Product that is applied too thick b. Not enough time under the light c. Dirty bulbs in the nail technicians lamp unit d. All of the choices listed
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95. Catalysts use _____________ as energy a. Light or heat b. Gasses or vapors c. Catalyst boosters d. Solvents 96. ___________ are polymers a. Nail plates b. Teflon and nylon c. Hair and proteins d. All of the choices listed
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Nail Care & Services - Answers (1)a (2)c (3)d (4)b (5)d (6)a (7)c (8)a (9)a (10)b (11)d (12)b (13)c (14)a (15)c (16)b (17)c (18)b (19)b (20)d (21)a (22)d (23)d (24)c (25)c (26)a (27)c (28)d (29)d (30)d (31)d (32)d (33)c (34)d (35)d (36)d (37)c (38)a (39)d (40)a (41)a (42)d (43)b (44)d (45)b (46)d (47)c (48)b (49)d (50)c (51)c (52)d (53)d (54)a (55)a (56)a (57)b (58)c (59)c (60)d (61)a (62)a (63)a (64)b (65)b (66)a (67)c (68)c (69)c (70)a (71)b (72)d (73)b (74)c (75)d (76)a (77)c (78)d (79)a (80)a (81)d (82)a (83)b (84)a (85)b (86)d (87)d (88)d (89)c (90)b (91)d (92)a (93)d (94)d (95)a (96)d
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Cosmetology: Professional Image, Ergonomics, Infection Control, Salon Business and Electricity
1. Out of the following, what will a regular exercise program help you accomplish? a. To feel better b. To have a better appearance c. To work more efficiently d. All of the choices listed 2. Which of the following activities helps to stimulate blood circulation? a. Exercise b. Working on a computer c. Watching an hour of TV d. Reading a magazine 3. Which of the following activities can be injurious to oneâ€&#x;s health? a. Worrying b. Exercise c. Swimming d. Being very organized 4. Out of the following energy units â€“ which do almost all foods contain? a. Carbohydrates b. Fats c. Protein d. All of the choices listed 5. A unit of energy in food is called a: a. Carbohydrate b. Molecule c. Calorie d. Current 6. The most attractive hair is: a. Past the shoulders b. Natural c. Healthy and clean d. All of the choices listed 7. _______________ is a good hand-care practice a. Using moisturizing lotion b. Wearing plastic gloves when possible c. Keeping nails manicured d. All of the choices listed
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8. Which of the following shoe types should be worn in order to reduce fatigue caused by standing all day? a. High heeled shoes b. Low, broad-heeled shoes c. Tennis shoes d. Flip flops 9. It is important to ____________, when seated in a chair a. Sit forward b. Place your feet apart, square with hips c. Sit well back d. Cross your legs 10. The art and science of beauty care is: a. Professional development b. Cosmetology c. The study of personal hygiene d. Fashionology 11. The majority of people need ________ hours of sleep to function properly a. Ten to twelve b. Four to six c. Six to eight d. None of the choices listed 12. Food that isn‟t burned as energy is stored in the body as ___________ for later use a. Protein b. Muscle c. Red blood cells d. Fat 13. One‟s individual‟s practice of maintaining their own health and cleanliness is: a. Personal hygiene b. Oral hygiene c. Fashion sense d. Personal grooming 14. Body language is an important form of communication. When communicating with a client, a backward lean is an unspoken message that one may be: a. Interested in the conversation b. Uninterested in the client c. Listening intently d. Respectful
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15. A personâ€&#x;s own unique, personal system of moral values and principals is known as: a. Personal ethics b. Personal hygiene c. Personal grooming d. Religious principles 16. It is wise to _______________ during the course of your cosmetology career in order to protect your hands a. Avoid using plastic gloves b. Use moisturizing lotions c. Use hand sanitizer d. None of the choices listed 17. Applying the lipstick line _______________ can minimize the appearance of large lips a. Inside the natural line of the lips b. Outside the natural line of the lips c. With gloss d. After every meal 18. When a cosmetologistâ€&#x;s own appearance and behavior are complimentary with the beauty business, this displays: a. Personal hygiene b. Fashion ethics c. Hair care savvy d. A professional image 19. A very important part of good grooming is conscientious upkeep of: a. Wardrobe b. Clientele c. Sleep d. Bookkeeping 20. While working as a cosmetologist, your wardrobe should always be: a. Stylish and glamorous b. Bright and cheerful c. Stylish and functional d. Part of the most up-to-date fad 21. The applied science of workplace design to maximize productivity, safety, efficiency and reduce operator fatigue and discomfort is: a. Ergology b. Ergonomics c. Esthiology d. Euthenics
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22. To help prevent repetitive motion injury, a cosmetologist should be conscious of: a. Anatomy and physiology b. Body language c. Uncomfortable clothing d. Body posture and body movements 23. When performing services for your client, keep your back: a. Bent b. Slumped c. Supple d. Straight 24. The consequences of the failure to respond appropriately to emotional or physical threats whether actual or imagined is: a. Stress b. Hyper-sensitivity c. Mental infirmity d. Copping-out 25. Musculoskeletal disorders can arise from: a. Lack of sleep b. Vitamin and mineral overdose c. Work related repetitive motion d. Varicose veins 26. Heat, light, chemical and magnetic changes are produced by: a. Sonic waves b. Electricity c. Combustion Engines d. Bio waste 27. Which of the following is a unit of electrical resistance? a. Watt b. Volt c. Ohm d. Prism 28. What is the power source that is used the most often in salons? a. Battery b. Bio fuel c. Galvanic current d. Generator
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29. Which type of current creates chemical changes by passing the current through special alkaline or acid solutions and/or passing the current through human body fluids or tissues? a. Galvanic b. Faradic c. Sonic d. Chromic 30. The part of the electromagnetic spectrum which humans can view is known as: a. Infrared light b. Micro wave light c. Electron volts d. Visible light 31. A _____________ can be used to break white light down into its individual wavelengths, or spectral colors a. Wavelength converter b. Spectral splitter c. Prism d. Ray polarizer 32. Skin a. b. c. d.
cancer can result from overexposure to: Fluorescent light bulbs Ultraviolet light Prisms Baby oil
33. A __________ is a device which has a wire or strip that melts when too much current flows, which interrupts the circuit in which it is connected a. Fuse b. Circuit breaker c. Wavelength converter d. Battery 34. What is the process of using the positive electrode to force acidic solution to penetrate in to the skin without breaking the skin? a. Glycolic wash b. Gammaphoresis c. Cataphoresis d. Tesla penetration 35. Which of the following applies to cataphoresis? a. Slows the flow of blood b. Soothing to nerves c. Decreases the redness of simple blemishes d. All of the choices listed
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36. Which type of electrical effect do cosmetologists experience from using an electric clipper? a. Mechanical b. Electrochemical c. Photoelectric d. Electromagnetism 37. Tesla current therapy is believed to: a. Improve blood circulation b. Increase metabolism rate c. Increase sebaceous gland activity d. All of the choices listed 38. During use, __________ current has an electrochemical effect a. Faradic b. Galvanic c. Tesla d. All of the choices listed 39. Which of the following is true regarding series wiring? a. The user is forced to have all loads running at the same time with series wiring b. It allows multiple loads to be used either at different times or all at once c. Series wiring should always be used in the salon environment d. Series wiring requires huge fuses 40. A short circuit could occur when: a. A foreign conductor comes into contact with a wire that is carrying currents b. An appliance is dropped in water c. Tool cords are bent and twisted enough to break the copper wires in the cords d. All of the choices listed 41. Which of the following should be done when installing a new fuse? a. Make sure at least one or two appliances are running when you turn off the circuit and then remove the blown fuse and replace it with a new one b. Wait until everyone has cleared the building; only then remove all fuses from the box and then replace each one of them c. Make sure all appliances operating on that circuit are turned off and remove the blown fuse then replace it with a new fuse d. Unplug every appliance in the building; have a flashlight with you when you remove all the fuses and then replace them with new ones
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42. Which of the following best describes a circuit breaker? a. A device that has to be replaced every time an overload occurs b. A device that breaks the flow of current when an overload takes place c. A device that will not break as often as a fuse burns out â€“ but must be replaced about 4 times a year d. None of the choices listed 43. Which of the following will cause muscle contractions and burns when passing through a small part of the body? a. Thermal shock b. Distant shock c. Retrenchment shock heat d. Local shock 44. Which is true regarding incandescent lighting? a. It the least expensive choice for lighting a salon b. It causes cancer c. It is the closest substitute for natural lighting d. It may create the illusion of blue tones, thus causing problems coloring hair 45. What percentage of sunlight is made of visible light? a. 2 percent b. 20 percent c. 22 percent d. None of the choices listed 46. Of the following, which is an example of closing a circuit? a. Flipping on a light switch b. Blowing fuses c. Unplugging an appliance d. Turning off a circuit breaker 47. Appliances designed for other countries have different Hz ratings and cannot be operated in the US without a/an: a. 12 foot cord b. Special appliance permit c. Adapter d. Surge protector 48. How watts? a. b. c. d.
many amps in the circuit does it take to operate an appliance at 100 100 amps 10 amps 1 amp 1000 amps
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49. The electrical current measurement used during scalp and facial treatments is: a. Watts b. Milliamperes c. Volts d. Kilowatts 50. If a fuse becomes ____________, it is possible that there are too many appliances on one circuit a. Stronger b. Weaker c. Overloaded d. Depressed 51. The three types of electrically powered equipment used in a salon are either mechanical, thermal or: a. Electrochemical b. A combination of mechanical & thermal c. Electromagnetic d. This is a trick question, there are five types 52. Electrochemical effects happen when an electric current travels through a ______________ conductor a. Copper b. Liquid c. Gold d. Rusted 53. Which of the following is true regarding galvanic current electrotherapy? a. It is beneficial to use over an area that has many broken capillaries b. It should only be used for ten minutes or less on an area that has many broken capillaries c. It always causes broken capillaries in younger clients d. It should not be used over an area that has many broken capillaries 54. During ______________, both the client and the cosmetologist need to wear protective eyewear during treatment a. Ultraviolet light (UV) therapy b. Permanent waving & chemical relaxing c. Facials with machines d. Eyebrow & eyelash tinting 55. Electricity is a form of: a. Bio fuel b. Fossil fuel c. Sound waves d. Energy
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56. Normally, electric wires are enclosed by a rubber material used for the purpose of insulation or for being a: a. Shock shield b. Conductor c. Current guard d. Nonconductor 57. The flow of electric charge in a conductor such as wire is: a. Electric conductor b. Electric current c. Electric offspring d. Electric wattage 58. The SI unit for measuring the rate of flow of electric charge is the: a. Watt b. Ampere c. Volt d. Ohm 59. When the movement or flow of electric current periodically reverses direction, it is: a. Alternating current b. Direct current c. Opposite current d. Nondirectional current 60. The constant unidirectional and even flow of electrical charge is: a. Alternating current b. Inert current c. Static current d. Direct current 61. When water-soluble products are introduced into the skin by using electric current, the process is known as: a. Anaphoresis b. Fluid diffusion c. Ultra-violet transmission d. Iontophoresis 62. The unit of measurement for how much electric energy is used in a second, is named after James: a. Bond b. Madison c. Watt d. Galvani
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63. A list of economic resources owned by a business or company are known as: a. Assets b. Net profit c. Liabilities d. A balance sheet 64. Total assets minus total liabilities is: a. Gross assets b. Profits c. Loss d. Net worth 65. An individual entity, formed under state law and separate from its owners who are shareholders is a: a. Corporation b. Franchise c. Partnership d. Proprietorship 66. Record keeping: a. Helps identify problems b. Is required by law c. Is verification of income d. All of the choices listed 67. Insurance companies could require a planned educational program in product knowledge for employees before granting: a. Health insurance b. Product liability insurance c. Workerâ€&#x;s compensation d. Accident insurance 68. An industry recommended goal for stylists is to bring ___________ in home care products sales to every dollar that stylists bring into the salon for services a. $10.00 b. $5.00 c. $1.00 d. .50 cents 69. Banks will usually lend money based on: a. Assets b. Profits c. Net worth d. References
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70. An attorney can assist in making sure a salon owner is in compliance with all: a. Security policies b. Health department requirements c. Federal, state and local codes d. Neighborhood crime watch rules 71. A commission is a/an ______________ in which the employer and the stylist share the revenue a. Inventory system b. Scheduling system c. Honor system d. Compensation system 72. A/An ______________ helps salon owners and stylists/employees to better manage inventory and control overhead expenses. It ensures that just enough supplies are kept in stock a. Compensation system b. Scheduling system c. Honor system d. Inventory system 73. Normally, the largest expense while operating a salon: a. Are the monthly utility expenses b. Is the rent c. Is liability insurance d. Are salaries or commissions 74. In most salons or spas the receptionist is: a. The first person to greet clients b. The person who opens up the business in the morning c. The person who does all the bookkeeping d. The person in charge of hiring new stylists 75. A distributor sales consultant may offer valuable advice when designing a: a. Salon layout b. New updo c. Business plan d. Lease agreement 76. Insurance is purchased by salon owners to protect themselves against: a. Competitorâ€&#x;s salons b. Cost of living increases c. Loss of clients d. Malpractice
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77. The stylist should be _____________ in order to be successful in retail sales a. Confident b. Knowledgeable c. In tune with the clientâ€&#x;s needs d. All of the choices listed 78. The percentage of salon salaries out of total salon expenses is approximately: a. Thirty percent b. Forty percent c. Fifty percent d. Sixty percent 79. A list of all the property a cosmetologist owns is called: a. Net profit b. Liabilities c. Total assets d. Bookkeeping account 80. A form of business organization in which a firm enters into a continuing contractual relationship with other businesses or individuals under a trade name in exchange for a fee is known as: a. A corporation b. A monopoly c. A partnership d. A franchise 81. States require employers to purchase ______________ to protect the consumer and the employees a. Health insurance b. Hypo-allergenic products c. Wheelchair ramps d. Workerâ€&#x;s compensation insurance 82. A/An ____________ is a written acknowledgement that a specified article or sum of money has been received as an exchange for goods or services a. Invoice b. Ledger c. Bonus check d. Receipt 83. The salon supplies that are utilized during a daily business operation are: a. Retail sales b. Inventory provisions c. Daily expenses d. Consumption supplies
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84. Goods sold to salon clients, not for resale, but for use and consumption by the client are known as: a. Wholesale supplies b. Retail supplies c. Consumption supplies d. Inventory provisions 85. Of the following, which is the very best form of advertizing? a. A satisfied client b. A website c. Television advertizing d. Discount coupons 86. A key part of a cosmetologistâ€&#x;s success centers around the sale of: a. Shampoo and conditioner b. Salon equipment c. Additional salon services d. Gift certificates 87. Which of the following are important dynamics to consider when opening a new salon? a. Location b. Visibility c. Accessibility d. All of the choices listed 88. A formal statement of a set of business goals, the reasons why they are believed attainable, and the plan for reaching those goals is known as: a. An employee handbook b. A business plan c. A list of personal assets d. A financial statement 89. A/An ______________ is a trained professional who can assist in putting accurate financial information together for a business plan a. Sales representative b. Receptionist c. Accountant d. Salon supplier 90. A __________ is a type of business entity which is owned and run by one individual and where there is no legal distinction between the owner and the business a. Sole proprietor b. Franchise c. Corporation d. LLC
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91. A good way for a salon business owner to protect their personal assets is to: a. Open two bank accounts b. Incorporate c. Hire a security guard d. Keep tight control over salon inventory 92. Who is responsible for the purchase of insurance that is required to operate a salon? a. The salon manager b. The receptionist c. The salon owner d. Each individual cosmetologist employed there 93. The study of small organisms is known as: a. Microbiology b. Pathology c. Melittology d. Acarology 94. Which of the following is true regarding bacteria? a. They are multi-celled organisms b. They are always harmless c. They are one-celled microorganisms d. They are always deadly and infectious 95. Which of the following are harmless to humans and sometimes beneficial? a. Microbes b. Pathogenic bacteria c. Viruses d. Non-pathogenic bacteria 96. ______________ do not produce disease a. Staphylococci b. Streptococci c. Diplococcic d. Saprophytes 97. Which of the following choices is/are true regarding pathogenic bacteria? a. They cause disease b. They cause infection c. Some produce toxins d. All of the choices listed
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98. Out of the following choices, which are the most common form of bacterial cells? a. Spirilla b. Bacilli c. Parasites d. Streptococci 99. ____________ is not caused by a virus a. Measles b. Small pox c. Mumps d. Strep throat 100. Animals or plants that live on or acquire nutrients from another organism are: a. Internal parasites b. Bacteria c. External parasites d. Enterococcus faecalis 101. Another word for bacteria or germ is: a. Microbe b. Parasite c. Mite d. Chromosome 102. Once implements have come in contact with a client they must be: a. Sanitized once per day b. Disinfected on a monthly basis c. Disinfected or discarded d. None of the choices listed 103. When treating a wound that is bleeding, you should: a. Run warm water over the wound b. Always apply a tourniquet c. Use hand sanitizer on your own hands so that gloves are not needed and then apply pressure where the wound is bleeding d. Apply pressure with gauze and gloved hands 104. Cosmetologists should wash their hands with ____________ before every service a. Ivory soap b. Antibacterial liquid soap c. A disinfecting solute d. A sterilizing ointment
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105. If chemicals get into oneâ€&#x;s eyes, it is recommended to rinse them: a. For 15 to 30 minutes with lukewarm water b. For 15 to 30 minutes with ice cold water c. For 5 to 10 minutes with vinegar d. For 5 minutes with lukewarm water 106. Infection: a. Only occurs in the winter months b. Is often caused by the use of sanitizers c. Might occur when pathogenic bacterial cells or viruses enter the body d. Is never painful 107. Infection that is spreading in a salon or spa can be because of: a. Unclean instruments b. Sneezing and/or coughing c. Unclean hands d. All of the choices listed 108. Which of the following diseases can bacilli produce? a. Tetanus b. Bacterial influenza c. Tuberculosis d. All of the choices listed 109. A healthy and safe salon work environment requires an understanding of infection control and: a. First-aid procedures b. Personal ethics c. People skills d. Professional development 110. Material Safety Data Sheets (also known as MSDS) are acquired from: a. The product manufacturer b. The Federal State Board of Cosmetology c. OSHA d. The governing body of MSDSs 111. Nonpathogenic bacteria help protect against infectious microorganisms, metabolize food, and: a. Stimulate the pituitary gland b. Increase brain function c. Stimulate the immune response d. Prevent skin cancer
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112. It is called _____________ when bacteria grow, reproduce, and divide into two new cells a. Mitosis b. Osmosis c. Photosynthesis d. Cellular mutation 113. A disease is _______________ when it spreads from one person to another a. An epidemic b. Poisonous c. Always airborne d. Contagious 114. A submicroscopic structure which can infect animals and plants and even bacteria is: a. An infection b. A virus c. A toxin d. All of the choices listed 115. When the surfaces of tools are not totally free from oils, dirt and microbes they are covered with: a. Contagions b. Toxins c. Contaminants d. Phenols 116. What are the three main types of decontamination? a. Autoclave, antiseptic, disinfection b. Sterilization, sanitation, disinfection c. Sterilization, washing, steam d. Sanitation, centrifuge, bleach 117. _______________ is a higher level of decontamination than sanitation a. Centrifuge b. Washing c. Disinfection d. All of the choices listed
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Professional Image, Ergonomics, Infection Control, Salon Business and Electricity - Answers
(1)d (2)a (3)a (4)d (5)c (6)c (7)d (8)b (9)c (10)b (11)c (12)d (13)a (14)b (15)a (16)b (17)a (18)d (19)a (20)c (21)b (22)d (23)d (24)a (25)c (26)b (27)c (28)d (29)a (30)d (31)c (32)b (33)a (34)c (35)d (36)a (37)d (38)b (39)a (40)d (41)c (42)b (43)d (44)c (45)d (46)a (47)c (48)c (49)b (50)c (51)b (52)b (53)d (54)a (55)d (56)d (57)b (58)b (59)a (60)d (61)d (62)c (63)a (64)d (65)a (66)d (67)b (68)c (69)c (70)c (71)d (72)d (73)d (74)a (75)a (76)d (77)d (78)c (79)c (80)d (81)d (82)d (83)d (84)b (85)a (86)c (87)d (88)b (89)c (90)a (91)b (92)c (93)a (94)c (95)d (96)d (97)d (98)b (99)d (100)c (101)a (102)c (103)d (104)b (105)a (106)c (107)d (108)d (109)a (110)a (111)c (112)a (113)d (114)b (115)c (116)b (117)c
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Cosmetology: Shampooing & Conditioning, Brushing & Combing, Draping & Wigs 1. A good time to analyze the clientâ€&#x;s _____________ is when the stylist provides a shampoo service a. Facial shape and hair pigment b. Style and flair c. Scalp and hair conditions d. Hair type and skin type 2. The main reason for a shampoo service is: a. To analyze the clientâ€&#x;s pigmentation b. To relax the client c. The cleanse the scalp and hair d. To provide a scalp massage 3. Minute amounts of chlorine may be added to water in order to: a. Kill bacteria b. Enhance fragrance c. Increase macrobiotics d. Improve taste 4. Never ____________ the hair before performing chemical services a. Trim b. Brush c. Evaluate d. Spray 5. Brushes with ______________ are the most highly recommended a. Nylon bristles b. Natural bristles c. Acrylic bristles d. Air flow 6. To remove tangles from chemically treated hair after a shampoo service: a. Start at the nape and work up to the frontal area b. Start at the apex and move all the way down to the hair ends c. Start at the least tangled area you can see and work around the head d. Start at the temples and work toward the nape 7. The majority of conditioners and shampoos are acid balanced where on the pH scale? a. From 3.5 to 5.5 b. From 4.5 to 7.5 c. From 5.5 to 6.5 d. From 4.5 to 5.5
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8. Which hair type requires shampooing the most often? a. Oily b. Dry c. Brittle d. Normal 9. Which of the following describes a surfactant? a. Adds oils to hair b. Is a lacquering agent c. Removes oil from hair d. All of the choices listed 10. The oil-loving part of a surfactant is: a. Hydrophilic b. Lipophilic c. Amphipathic d. Micellic 11. Choose the shampoo type that has a low concentration of surfactants, low alkalinity, and in general would not correct any unique conditions a. Color-enhancing b. Medicated c. Frizz-reducing d. Plain 12. Which shampoo type is better able to remove residue and has a higher alkaline content? a. Plain b. Moisturizing c. Relaxing d. Clarifying 13. _____________ shampoo includes orris root powder which absorbs oil and soil a. Color-enhancing b. Powder dry shampoo c. Medicated d. Fine dust shampoo 14. Which of the following applies to moisturizing conditioners used for dry brittle hair which has been chemically or mechanically damaged? a. Contains hydrolyzed animal proteins b. Permanently hydrates c. Reverses baldness d. Contains stem cells
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15. Which conditioner type coats the hair shaft and restores moisture and oils, but doesnâ€&#x;t penetrate the cortex or replace keratin in the shaft? a. Clarifying b. Medicated c. Instant d. Moisturizing 16. Hard water contains ____________ that prevent shampoos from lathering a. Amino acids b. Minerals c. Alkaline d. Chemicals 17. Shampoos should be formulated to conform to: a. The demands of the consumer b. Contain the most pleasing fragrance c. The natural pH of the hair d. None of the answers given 18. Which type of shampoo should be used on dry, damaged hair and bleached hair? a. Acid balanced b. Clarifying c. Plain d. Medicated 19. This a. b. c. d.
shampoo type usually contains a high alkaline or soap base and is strong: Medicated Plain Clarifying Conditioning
20. Which shampoo type is able to lather without harsh alkaline ingredients? a. Clarifying shampoo b. Medicated shampoo c. Plain shampoo d. Soapless shampoo 21. Which of the following is a shampoo containing an ingredient to treat hair and scalp problems? a. Medicated b. Dry powder c. Body building d. Conditioning
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22. A shampoo used to remove residue and dirt build-up and has a high alkaline content is a ______________ shampoo a. Medicated b. Clarifying c. Liquid dry d. Body building 23. This type of shampoo is formulated for bedridden individuals who are not able to wet their hair: a. Chemically dehydrated b. Medicated c. Clarifying d. Powder dry 24. A _______________ shampoo contains additives to improve tensile strength and porosity of the hair a. Conditioning b. Medicated c. Clarifying d. Body building 25. Which of the following shampoos can contain ingredients that promote a healthy environment for hair growth and do not cause damage to the hair? a. Medicated b. Shampoos for thinning hair c. Body building d. Shampoos for oily hair 26. Which of the following describes a vinegar rinse? a. Controls minor dandruff and conditions the scalp b. An alkaline rinse which has a vegetable oil base and adds sheen c. An acid rinse which dissolves soap scum, untangles and separates hair and adds sheen d. Lightens the hair and gives it more body 27. Which of the following products has ingredients that control minor dandruff and scalp conditions? a. Vinegar rinse b. Amino conditioner c. Vinegar conditioner d. Medicated rinse 28. Your clientâ€&#x;s hair has been damaged by chemicals, heat styling and strong alkaline shampoos. Which of the following products should you use? a. Vinegar rinse b. Medicated rinse c. Medicated shampoo d. Conditioner
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29. Which of the following conditioners have an acidic pH, a vegetable oil base, and are not recommended for fine or limp hair? a. Moisturizing b. Volumizing c. Body building d. Instant 30. What is a formulation of several conditioners combined together to meet a special need? a. A neutralizing rinse b. A holistic healing agent c. A customized conditioner d. An ointment 31. Why is acid balance important to cosmetologists? a. Hair becomes neutral during shampooing b. Professional shampoos and conditioners should maintain a 4.5 to 5.5 range for skin and hair c. Hair becomes alkaline during conditioning d. None of the choices listed 32. Which shampoo type is designed to cleanse the hair without correcting any special conditions? a. Medicated b. Dandruff shampoo c. All-purpose d. Moisturizing 33. An all-purpose shampoo: a. Contains potent chemicals, can strip color, has a high alkaline content, and a high concentration of surfactants b. Is designed to correct certain conditions of the hair c. Is mild, does not strip color, has a low alkaline content, and low concentration of surfactants d. None of the choices listed 34. ___________ Shampoos adhere to the outer cuticle of the hair to temporarily transform its brightness and hue a. Color b. Moisturizing c. Medicated d. Powder dry
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35. Conditioners provide a remedy for hair problems temporarily by: a. Giving it more elasticity b. Adding vitamins to the hair c. Fortifying damaged areas of hair and protecting hair against additional damage from heat or chemical services d. Forming a layer of collagen around the hair, thus helping the hair to retain water and become more manageable 36. The ease with which a comb can pass through hair indicates its: a. Elasticity b. Porosity c. Manageability d. Cosmetic appearance 37. A product label has: a. The ingredients listed in alphabetical order b. The ingredients listed in Syrian c. The ingredients listed in the order of their concentration d. Webster‟s definition of each ingredient 38. The cosmetologist needs to _______________ their client‟s clothing, hair and skin a. Take responsibility to protect b. Compliment c. Notice d. Give constructive advice regarding 39. ___________ is done before hair care services so that the client‟s skin and clothing will be safe a. Draping b. Offering additional salon services c. Evaluation of skin and scalp d. Removal of redundant clothing 40. The cosmetologist should ask their client to remove _________ before draping a. Eyeglasses b. Earrings & necklaces c. Hair pins d. All of the choices listed 41. The cosmetologist should always apply a towel or __________ in between the client‟s neck and the cape‟s neckband a. Shoulder cape b. Piece of clothing c. Cushion d. Neck strip
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42. A __________ is normally used for dry styling and cutting services a. Plastic cape b. Chemically resistant cape c. Cloth cape d. None of the choices listed 43. Brushing helps to _____________ the scalp a. Remove product build up from b. Stimulate blood circulation to c. Protect d. All of the choices listed 44. Brushing assists in _____________ the hair a. Eliminating tangles from b. Removing product build-up from c. Getting dust and dirt out of d. All of the choices listed 45. The client should not have a __________ immediately before a chemical service a. Cigarette b. Scalp massage c. Shampoo d. All of the choices listed 46. A ______________ is normally used after a shampoo service to detangle wet hair a. Large-tooth comb b. Tail comb c. Pocket comb d. All of the choices listed 47. Scalp massage: a. Is necessary b. Is detrimental to the health of the scalp c. Is relaxing d. Decreases blood flow to the scalp 48. Which of the following are intended to cover the entire head and are worn for specific purposes? a. Hairpieces b. Wigs c. Cascades d. Extensions
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49. Which of the following are usually from Asian or European origin? a. Human hair wigs b. Synthetic wigs c. Acrylic hair d. Silk wigs 50. Hair a. b. c. d.
additions are a suitable option for clients who want to add: Length Color Texture All of the choices listed
51. Wigs or hairpieces made with ___________ need to be cleaned more often than other types of wigs a. Human hair b. Synthetic hair c. Animal hair d. None of the choices listed 52. A _________ is a type of hair addition which covers the top of the head a. Wig b. Chignon c. Hairpiece d. Weft 53. What is a really quick way to confirm whether a hair strand is synthetic or not? a. Give it a vinegar rinse b. Light a match and burn it c. Use a powder dry shampoo on it d. Do a perm strand test 54. What is the material that the most expensive wigs are made of? a. Human hair b. Synthetic hair c. Yak hair d. Silk hair 55. Human hair wigs usually ______________ as a normal human head of hair a. Have ten times as much hair b. Have half as much hair c. Have three times as much hair d. Have two times as much hair
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56. Which of the following has hair fibers that are six or fewer inches long attached to a round shaped, flat base, and blends with the clientâ€&#x;s own hair? a. A wiglet b. A cascade c. Warlocks d. A Yak toupee 57. Which type of hair piece is mostly worn by men with the purpose of covering a bald head or thinning hair? a. A wiglet b. A chignon c. Remi hair d. A toupee 58. Wigs worn by display mannequins are usually made of: a. Remi hair b. Synthetic hair c. Human hair d. Animal hair 59. When ignited by a match, synthetic hair will burn rapidly and will not produce an odor, or it will: a. Melt like butter b. Fill the whole room with toxic fumes c. Ball up d. Turn into a neon green color 60. When ignited by a match, human hair will produce an odor and will also: a. Disappear immediately b. Burn slowly c. Create a lot of smoke d. Cause allergies 61. Capless wigs are: a. Very light in weight b. Comfortable to wear c. The most popular type of wig d. All of the choices listed 62. The hairpiece that has a base which covers the crown, occipital and nape areas and is normally available in 12 to 24 inch lengths is a: a. Fall b. Toupee c. Chignon d. Block
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63. A somewhat long, bulky segment of looped hair which is usually sewn to a wire base and is normally worn at the crown of the head or nape area is known as a: a. Weft b. Switch c. Chignon d. Fall 64. _____________ involves extending someoneâ€&#x;s natural hair by attaching hair fibers to create length and volume a. Braiding b. Volumizing c. Hair extensions d. Hair integration 65. To attach wefted hair to the natural hair with a latex or surgical type adhesive is known as: a. Fusion b. Bonding c. Latex attachments d. Surgical additions 66. The process of attaching small pieces of hair with a special adhesive activated by a thermal gun, where no tracks are required is known as: a. The bonding method b. Pressed hair c. Micro-linking d. The fusion method 67. A parting or a cornrow that establishes the placement pattern of wefts or strand additions is a: a. Link b. Dart c. Tuck d. Track 68. Which type of cape is made of vinyl and is usually waterproof helping to protect the client from liquids and chemicals? a. Cloth cape b. Haircutting cape c. Shampoo cape d. Towel 69. _____________ capes do not hold in as much body heat as vinyl capes a. Shampoo b. Chemical c. Haircutting d. None of the choices listed
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70. The reason for a towel or neck strip during a draping procedure for a haircutting service is: a. To keep the cape from direct contact with the client‟s skin b. To uphold sanitation standards c. To follow state laws, rules and regulations d. All of the choices listed 71. Which of the following should NOT cause the client to be dissatisfied? a. Extreme water temperatures b. Scraping the client‟s scalp with fingernails c. Sufficient cleansing and rinsing d. Improper hair blotting 72. Which of the following characteristics of the hair and scalp need to be considered before selecting products? a. Hair texture, hair density, hair porosity and hair elasticity b. Whether there are abrasions or disorders present on the scalp and whether the hair has been chemically treated previously c. Whether the scalp and hair is oily, normal or dry d. All of the choices listed 73. During shampooing and conditioning, water that is used should be: a. Cold b. Hot c. Comfortably warm d. Tepid 74. Which of the following water temperatures reduces lathering? a. Warm b. Tepid c. Hot d. Cold 75. During a liquid-dry shampoo the stylist will part the hair into sections, take a piece of cotton saturated with the liquid-dry shampoo and lightly squeeze it out before applying it to the scalp at each part line – these actions will be followed by _______________ and then the product can also be applied down the length of the hair strands and subsequently rubbed off with a towel to remove the soil a. Massaging the scalp very slowly along the part lines b. A good conditioning treatment c. Swiftly rubbing the scalp along the same part lines with a towel d. Swiftly rubbing the hair ends with liquid-dry shampoo and then rubbing the ends and scalp with a towel
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76. Which of the following hair and scalp treatments involves sprinkling the product into the hair and working it in one section at a time? a. Dry or powder shampoo b. Liquid-dry shampoo c. Hair tonic d. Scalp massage 77. Helping a client have a healthy ____________ will help your client have healthy hair a. Attitude b. Shampoo c. Scalp d. Conditioner 78. Which of the following is a hair and scalp cleansing product? a. Hair conditioner b. Scalp conditioner c. Scalp steam d. Shampoo 79. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a human hair wig or human hair replacement solution? a. It has a natural texture and appearance b. It can react to climate changes c. It is durable d. It can tolerate chemical processes like hair coloring or permanents 80. Synthetic hair is difficult to match and blend with the _________ of human hair a. Texture b. Length c. Color d. Density 81. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of synthetic hair wigs? a. They can be cleaned with cleaning solutions b. They are not as costly c. They do not oxidize d. They can tolerate chemical services 82. Mixed hair wigs are popular as fashion or __________ wigs a. Daily b. Toupee c. Theatrical d. All of the choices listed
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83. Which of the following is NOT a type of animal hair commonly used in mixed hair wigs? a. Boar b. Yak c. Horse d. Sheepâ€&#x;s wool 84. Why a. b. c. d.
is it important for combs to have teeth with rounded ends? Rounded ends are necessary for chemical processing Rounded ends are preferable for straight hair Rounded ends are less likely to scratch or irritate a clientâ€&#x;s scalp Rounded ends are required by law
85. Which type of comb is for cutting or trimming hair in areas where gradual blending of the hair is necessary? a. Pick b. Taper comb c. Flat handle comb d. All-purpose comb 86. When sectioning long hair, the best comb choice is: a. A pick b. A tail comb c. An all purpose comb d. A wide-toothed comb 87. Avoid __________ to help combs stay in good condition a. Exposing combs to excessive or prolonged heat b. Exposing combs to temperatures between 60 degrees and 100 degrees Fahrenheit c. Combing through synthetic hair d. Using combs on tightly curled hair 88. Which of the following is a styling brush used for? a. To stimulate the scalp b. To add fullness to the hair c. To smooth or wave the hair d. All of the choices listed 89. ____________ is when the hair strands in a hair solution have been sorted so that the cuticle points toward the hair ends in the natural direction of growth a. V-looping b. V-splicing c. Root-turning d. Root-blending
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90. When the hair in a replacement system has been root-turned: a. It is less likely to fade b. Tangling and matting is minimized c. It cannot be chemically processed d. Tangling and matting is more likely
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Shampooing & Conditioning, Brushing & Combing, Draping & Wigs - Answers (1)c (2)c (3)a (4)b (5)b (6)a (7)d (8)a (9)c (10)b (11)d (12)d (13)b (14)a (15)c (16)b (17)c (18)a (19)b (20)d (21)a (22)b (23)d (24)a (25)b (26)c (27)d (28)d (29)d (30)c (31)b (32)c (33)c (34)a (35)c (36)c (37)c (38)a (39)a (40)d (41)d (42)c (43)b (44)d (45)b (46)a (47)c (48)b (49)a (50)d (51)a (52)c (53)b (54)a (55)d (56)a (57)d (58)d (59)c (60)b (61)d (62)a (63)c (64)c (65)b (66)d (67)d (68)c (69)c (70)d (71)c (72)d (73)c (74)d (75)c (76)a (77)c (78)d (79)b (80)a (81)d (82)c (83)a (84)c (85)b (86)b (87)a (88)d (89)c (90)b
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Cosmetology: Skin Histology & Services
1. What a. b. c. d.
is the largest organ of the human body? The lungs The large intestine The skin The brain
2. Which of the following is the deepest layer of the epidermis? a. Stratum germinativum b. Stratum lucidum c. Stratum corneum d. Stratum spinosum 3. The layer of the epidermis where cells with visible granules die and move to the surface is called: a. Stratum spinosum b. Stratum granulosum c. Stratum granlevisum d. Stratum lucidum 4. The only places on the human body where _____________ is found is on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet a. A lifeline b. Sweat glands c. Stratus opacus uniformis d. Stratum lucidum 5. Which type of tissue is the dermis composed of? a. Connective b. Epithelial c. Nerve d. Elastic 6. _____________ are flexible and strong a. Elastin fibers b. Disulfide bonds c. Collagen protein fibers d. All of the choices listed 7. Which of the following is made up of adipose tissue and loose connective tissue? a. The epidermis b. The subcutaneous layer c. The cuticle d. The dermis
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8. Which of the following insulates the human body? a. Epidermis b. Nerve cells c. Subcutaneous tissue d. Muscle tissue 9. The normal pH of the acid mantle is: a. 7 b. 5.5 to 6.5 c. 2 to 4.5 d. 4.5 to 5.5 10. The acid mantle assists in preventing: a. The entry of microorganisms b. The entry of dirt particles c. Chapping d. All of the choices listed 11. Which of the following is not prone to acne? a. Dry skin b. Oily skin c. Normal skin d. Combination skin 12. Which of the following skin types is the least common? a. Oily b. Normal c. Dry d. Combination 13. Some cosmetologists may be susceptible to an allergic reaction to certain cosmetics or chemicals; this is known as: a. Excoriations b. Anhidrosis c. Dermatitis venenata d. Psoriasis 14. Conditions that are severe but brief are called: a. Acute b. Chronic c. Minicombustions d. Objective
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15. The dead, shedding cells of the uppermost layer of the epidermis are known as: a. Tags b. Scales c. Scars d. Excoriations 16. Oozing sores produce dried remains called: a. Blemishes b. Crusts c. Scales d. Wounds 17. Whenever a lesion expands into the dermis or deeper than the dermis it will result in: a. Scarring b. A nevus c. Scales d. Acne 18. Masses of sebum trapped in the hair follicle are: a. Acne b. Comedones c. Boils d. Herpes 19. The lack of perspiration which can be caused by fever or disease is known as: a. Anhidrosis b. Hyperhidrosis c. Hypohidrosis d. Hydro deficiency 20. Which of the following is an inflammatory disorder of the sudoriferous glands caused by excessive heat? a. Herpes simplex b. Acne c. Eczema d. Miliaria rubra 21. Sudoriferous glands are also known as: a. Peneal glands b. Endocrine glands c. Salivary glands d. Sweat glands
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22. Red scaly patches of inflammation and excessive skin production which rapidly takes on a silvery-white appearance are caused by: a. Eczema b. Under active sudoriferous glands c. Miliaria rubra d. Psoriasis 23. __________ is a form of massage involving a circular, light skimming style of stroking made with the palm of the hand a. Petrissage b. Tapotement c. Effleurage d. Acupressure 24. A benefit of facial massage includes: a. Stimulation of glandular activity b. Increase of blood circulation to the skin c. Improvement to the skinâ€&#x;s texture d. All of the choices listed 25. A Triangular face shape is also known as: a. Heart shaped b. Oval c. Round d. Pear-shaped 26. The lightness or darkness of a color is its: a. Hue b. Contrast c. Value d. Shade 27. To even out skin color and provide the appearance of a smoother skin texture use: a. Foundation b. Blush c. Eyeliner d. Facial powders 28. What is the most common skin type? a. Normal skin b. Combination skin c. Oily skin d. Dry skin
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29. The medical term to describe the likely outcome of an illness is: a. Diagnosis b. Sphere of Petosiris c. Bias forecasting d. Prognosis 30. Treatment for primary and secondary lesions need to be provided by: a. A dermatologist or cosmetologist b. A medical doctor or holistic practitioner c. An aromatherapist or cosmetologist d. A medical doctor or dermatologist 31. How a. b. c. d.
thick is the basal cell layer? One cell Ten cells Two cells Five cells
32. The toughest layer of the epidermis is the: a. Stratum basale b. Malpighian c. Stratum corneum d. Stratum granulosum 33. The layer where ___________ are found is the stratum lucidum a. Basal cells b. Detention cells c. Brain cells d. Squamous cells 34. There are ____________ in the skin replacement cycle a. 30 to 31 days b. One year c. 25 to 28 days d. Approximately 2 months 35. Scarf skin is also known as: a. Squamous cells b. Basal cells c. A layer of the epidermis known as the stratum lucidum d. Epidermis 36. Cuticle skin is also known as: a. The tissue that surrounds internal organs b. Connective tissue c. The epidermis d. None of the choices listed
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37. â€œTrue skinâ€? is also known as the: a. Epidermis b. Malpighian layer c. Dermis d. Skin flora 38. The subcutaneous layer includes: a. Glandular components of some sweat glands b. Large blood vessels which act as a vehicle for nourishment to the nerves and the skin c. Some sense organs for temperature, touch and pressure d. All of the choices listed 39. When symptoms are visible they are called: a. Objective b. Subjective c. Discernible d. Evidence 40. Fever blisters are also known as: a. Herpes simplex b. Pimples c. Eczema d. Psoriasis 41. The massage technique known as vibration involves: a. Light circular movements at the beginning and end of a facial b. Light tapping or slapping with the fingertips c. Feathering d. Heavy kneading of muscles in the upper and lower back 42. Which of the following helps to clean skin and bring normal to dry skin to a normal pH a. Dry skin masks b. Astringents c. Foundation d. Fresheners or toners 43. Hue a. b. c. d.
is a term for: Dye Contrast Tint Color
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44. ____________ is the study and diagnosis of disease a. Bacteriology b. Physiology c. Pathology d. Pathogenetics 45. The makeup product which is the canvas on which other cosmetics are applied is: a. Moisturizer b. Toner c. Powder d. Foundation 46. A basic function of the skin is to: a. Produce hormones b. Generate freckles c. Help regulate the temperature of the body d. Excrete toxins 47. Permanent hair removal necessitates the use of: a. Electricity b. Depilatories c. Wax d. Laser 48. Which is true regarding the epidermis? a. It is the deepest layer of the skin b. It is the third layer of the skin c. It is also known as the dermis d. It is the outer layer of the skin 49. What does the papillary canal secrete onto the surface of the skin? a. Plasma b. Sebum c. Saliva d. Pus 50. Which of the following is false regarding the acid mantle? a. It supplies protective padding for the skin b. It assists in preventing chapping c. It aids in preventing dirt particles from penetrating d. It prevents the admission of microorganisms 51. The technical term for __________ is Lentigines a. Freckles b. Acne c. Cold sores d. Skin tags
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52. Which of the following can perform electrolysis? a. Cosmetologists and estheticians b. Electrologists and medical doctors c. Aestheticians and Electrologists d. Micropigmentation specialists 53. An important benefit to clients during a facial is: a. To go under an anesthetic b. To be offered the choice to watch videos or listen to music c. To relax d. Chatting with the facialist 54. Subcutaneous tissue is mostly: a. Fatty tissue b. Nerve tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Connective tissue 55. A heart-shaped face can be determined by: a. A small forehead b. A wide jaw line c. A narrow jaw line d. A widowâ€&#x;s peak 56. What are the two main divisions of the skin? a. The dermis and the epidermis b. Subcutaneous tissue and fatty tissue c. Connective tissue and nerve tissue d. Stratum granulosum and Malpighian 57. A ____________ is a skin lesion which results in chapped lips a. Fissure b. Cold sore c. Dry scales d. Verruca 58. A chronic, inflammatory disorder of the sebaceous gland that arises most often on the chest, face and back is known as: a. Verruca b. Boils c. Acne d. Dry scales
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59. Steatoma is also known as: a. Basil cell carcinoma b. Pimples c. Sebaceous cyst d. Naevus 60. Being exposed to too much heat could develop into: a. Eczema b. Vitiligo c. Hypertrichosis d. Miliaria rubra 61. Another name for wart is: a. Verruca b. Naevus c. Virus d. Milia 62. When abrasions are present: a. Only effleurage should be used b. Massage should not be given c. It is okay to use vibration d. Tapotement is necessary 63. Which of the following are sac-like glands attached to hair follicles? a. Sudoriferous glands b. Peneal glands c. Sebaceous glands d. Endocrine glands 64. Where does the skin disorder milia commonly occur? a. The gluteus maximus b. The scalp c. The neck d. The hands 65. A chronic dermatitis, especially of the nose and cheeks, characterized by a rosy coloration and caused by dilation of capillaries is: a. Eczema b. Rosacea c. Seborrhea d. Miliaria rubra 66. Skin a. b. c. d.
services should not be performed when _____________ is/are present Eczema Furuncles Carbuncles All of the choices listed
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67. An area of skin, usually on the hand or foot which has become relatively thick and hard, from rubbing and/or pressure : a. Is a callus b. Is a wart c. Is known as milia d. Is called dry scales 68. Sweat glands, oil glands, nails and hair are all: a. Layers of the skin b. Controlled by the cardiovascular system c. Organs of the body d. Appendages of the skin 69. With the exception of the prepuce and the labia minora, the ____________ has the thinnest skin of the whole body a. Scalp b. Fingertips c. Eyelid d. Areola 70. The epidermis layer doesnâ€&#x;t have: a. Nerves b. Blood vessels c. Sudoriferous glands d. Squamous epithelium 71. The cells located in the bottom layer of the skinâ€&#x;s epidermis and which produce pigment are: a. Keratinocytes b. Melanocytes c. Chromatophores d. Granulocytes 72. The _________ is the uppermost layer of the dermis, intertwined with the elongated rete ridges of the epidermis a. Reticular dermis b. Stratum germinativum c. Lamina densa d. Papillary dermis 73. ____________ is the interstitial, clear fluid that enters the lymph vessels by filtration through pores in the walls of capillaries and has immune functions a. Lymph b. Blood plasma c. Marrow d. Amylase
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74. A small circumscribed, solid elevation of the skin with no visible fluid, but may open when scratched and become infected and develop pus is a: a. Dry scale b. Plaque c. Tumor d. Papule 75. An abnormal growth of tissue that serves no physiological function; resulting from uncontrolled progressive multiplication of cells which can vary in shape, size and hue is a: a. Scar b. Fissure c. Papule d. Tumor 76. ______________ are benign, keratin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis; are commonly associated with newborn babies, but appear on people of all ages a. Milia b. Whiteheads c. Inflammatory papules d. Goose bumps 77. A scaly scurf of epidermal flakes formed on and shed from the scalp is known as: a. Crust b. Fissures c. Dandruff d. Thrush 78. When hardened sebum from a comedo turns black from being exposed to the environment, it: a. Is malignant b. Has oxidized c. Is contagious d. Has crystallized 79. The deepest layer of the dermis is the _____________ and is important in giving the skin its overall strength and elasticity, as well as housing epithelial derived structures such as glands and hair follicles a. Reticular layer b. Papillary layer c. Subdermal d. Basal layer
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80. Visible indications of aging skin are brought on by variable factors such as: a. Genetics b. Sun exposure c. Lifestyle d. All of the choices listed 81. What are the two forms of the sun‟s UV rays that reach the skin? a. UVB and UMC b. UVA and UVL c. UVB and UVA d. UVL1 and UVL2 82. __________ found in the papillary dermis are the „rubberband‟ fibers responsible for the „snap back‟ quality of young skin a. Collagen fibers b. Elastin fibers c. Connective fibers d. Protein fibers 83. Skin a. b. c. d.
sagging and wrinkling is caused by ___________ becoming weak Connective fibers and protein fibers Keratin fibers and elastin fibers Muscle tone and collagen cells Collagen fibers and elastin fibers
84. _____________ is a skin disorder affecting the scalp, face, and trunk causing scaly, flaky, itchy, red skin. It particularly affects the sebum-gland rich areas of skin a. Rosacea b. Histamine reaction c. Seborrhoeic dermatitis d. Anhidrosis 85. What is a slight or heavy kneading, squeezing and rolling of muscles? a. Effleurage b. Petrissage c. Tapotement d. Vibration 86. What is a slight slapping or tapping movement with the fingertips? a. Vibration b. Petrissage c. Effleurage d. Tapotement
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87. A drying mask that is made from a mineral powder is known as a: a. Clay pack b. Mud mask c. Mineral mask d. Siccative mask 88. The benefits of _____________ include tightening of the pores, hydration, and lessening of excess oil a. Toners b. Facial masks c. Astringents d. Effleurage 89. Which of the following help to cleanse the skin and return normal to dry skin to a normal pH? a. Toners b. Astringents c. Siccative masks d. Skin conditioners 90. _____________ blush is suitable for all skin types a. Cream b. Liquid c. Powder d. Cake 91. The client benefits from the following during a facial mask: a. Surface dirt removal b. The reduction of unwanted surface oil c. Smoothing of the skin d. All of the choices listed 92. Test a. b. c. d.
a color foundation by blending it on the clientâ€&#x;s: Jawline Hand Cheek Forehead
93. A lighter shade in corrective makeup is utilized in order to: a. Conceal moles b. Minimize a facial blemish c. Hide superfluous hair d. Emphasize a facial area
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94. During a facial ___________ should be applied before using a magnifying lamp a. Aromatherapy b. Exfoliation c. Eye pads d. A face mask 95. What are blackheads brought on by? a. Dirt trapped in open pores b. Heredity c. Dry skin d. Over exposure to heat 96. ____________ reduces fat cells in the subcutaneous tissue which assists in firming the clientâ€&#x;s skin a. A mineral mask b. An anti-aging lotion c. Exfoliation d. Massage 97. ____________ is a method of depilation a. Shaving b. Buffing c. Chemical hair removal d. All of the choices listed 98. The most traditional method of hair removal is: a. Tweezing b. Shaving c. Waxing d. Threading 99. Which of the following is/are Epilation? a. Threading b. Laser hair removal and electrolysis c. Waxing d. All of the choices listed 100. What is the hair removal technique that uses metal forceps to manually pull hair out by the root? a. Electrolysis b. Laser hair removal c. Tweezing d. Thermalthricholysis
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101. Which hair removal technique causes localized damage by selectively heating dark target matter, (melanin), in the follicle, while not heating the rest of the skin? a. Laser hair removal b. Electrolysis c. Waxing d. Electric tweezing 102. During this hair removal technique, a warm substance enters the follicle, allowing the hair to be pulled out from the root: a. Sugaring b. Chemical hair removal c. Waxing d. Electrolysis 103. This hair removal technique uses low-level electricity and a very fine needleshaped electrode or metal probe inserted into each hair follicle to kill, or render inactive, the hair follicles: a. Laser b. Waxing c. Thermalthricholysis d. Electrolysis 104. A method of producing heat in body tissues using high-frequency electrical currents is known as: a. Galvanic current b. Diathermy c. Ionization d. Electrolysis 105. The action of introducing solutions into body tissues through the use of galvanic current is: a. Galvanization b. Ion therapy c. Phoresis d. Diathermy
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Skin Histology & Services - Answers (1)c (2)a (3)b (4)d (5)a (6)c (7)b (8)c (9)d (10)d (11)a (12)b (13)c (14)a (15)b (16)b (17)a (18)b (19)a (20)d (21)d (22)d (23)c (24)d (25)d (26)c (27)a (28)b (29)d (30)d (31)a (32)c (33)d (34)c (35)d (36)c (37)c (38)d (39)a (40)a (41)b (42)d (43)d (44)c (45)d (46)c (47)a (48)d (49)b (50)a (51)a (52)b (53)c (54)a (55)c (56)a (57)a (58)c (59)c (60)d (61)a (62)b (63)c (64)c (65)b (66)d (67)a (68)d (69)c (70)b (71)b (72)d (73)a (74)d (75)d (76)a (77)c (78)b (79)a (80)d (81)c (82)b (83)d (84)c (85)b (86)a (87)d (88)b (89)a (90)b (91)d (92)a (93)d (94)c (95)a (96)d (97)d (98)b (99)d (100)c (101)a (102)c (103)d (104)b (105)c
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1. The function of hair is: a. To protect from the heat b. To protect from the cold c. To adorn d. All of the choices listed 2. In human hair, the only living cells are of the: a. Hair strand b. Hair bulb c. Hair ends d. Hair color 3. In straight hair the root sheath is normally: a. Flat b. Triangular c. Elliptical d. Oval 4. Mitosis occurs in the: a. Hair follicle b. Germinal matrix c. Sebaceous glands d. Hair shaft 5. Which of the following apply to the arrector pili muscle? a. Originates from the papillary dermis b. Assists with secretion of sebum c. Causes hair to stand upright when frightened d. All of the choices listed 6. Which of the following is filled with capillaries that nourish the cells around it? a. Papilla b. Hair shaft c. Sebaceous gland d. Follicular canal 7. Cell division is known as: a. Keratinazation b. Cellular Imitation c. Mitosis d. Organic duplication
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8. ________ is the phase of hair growth when the hair bulb doesnâ€&#x;t have an attached root sheath a. The active stage b. Elongation c. Proliferation d. Telogen 9. Out of the following, which affect the way hair functions? a. Heredity b. The environment c. Hair products d. All of the choices listed 10. It is a. b. c. d.
possible for structural organization of the hair to be affected by: Hair dryers Perms Shampoos All of the choices listed
11. Blond or fair-hair, is a hair color characterized by low levels of the dark pigment: a. Eumelanin b. Touw c. Flavus d. Blundus 12. What is melanin in black/brown hair? a. Melanoma b. Melanoproteins c. Eumelanin d. Almelanin 13. Where is the melanin in lighter colored hair found? a. Only in the cuticle b. Only in the cortex c. In both the medulla and the cuticle d. None of the choices listed 14. Congenital lack of pigmentation in eyes, skin, or hair is called: a. Alopecia b. Erythrism c. Albinism d. Vitiligo
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15. What term is used to describe the fineness or coarseness of the hair fiber? a. Fibrosis b. Elasticity c. Texture d. Trichonodosis 16. Hair a. b. c. d.
that has a typical capability to absorb moisture has ________ porosity Above average Average Reduced Intense
17. _________ is when hair is capable of being stretched and then return to its original shape without breaking a. Porosity b. Variable flexibility c. Elasticity d. Stretchability 18. Knotting of the hair by mechanical means such as vigorous towel rubbing, singeing or just washing is known as: a. Keratinization b. Trichonodosis c. Arrector pili formation d. Lanugo 19. _________ are pus-filled vesicles caused by animal parasites a. Ringworm b. Tapeworm c. Scabies d. Lice 20. What are epithelial cells that combine with sebum and stick to the scalp in clusters? a. Scabies b. Lice c. Dry dandruff d. Greasy dandruff 21. What is the silky, fine hair that is shed soon after birth called? a. Lanugo b. Superfluous c. Alopecia d. Eumelanin
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22. Hair a. b. c. d.
loss from a personâ€&#x;s repetitive self-pulling of hair is known as: Trichonodosis Trichophagia Alopecia Areata Trichotillomania
23. When the protein that grows from cells originating within the hair follicle journey up through the follicle, mature and then die â€“ this is known as: a. Colonization b. Reformation c. Restructuring d. Keratinization 24. The process in which cells change shape, dry out and form protein is known as: a. Keratinization b. Cell dehydration c. Trichonodosis d. Organic cellular formation 25. The acid mantle is formed when sebum mixes with: a. Oily residue b. Hemoglobin c. Perspiration d. Conditioners 26. Which layer of the hair fiber furnishes hair with pigment and elasticity? a. Cuticle b. Melanin c. Shaft d. Cortex 27. The ________ stage of hair growth normally lasts from two to six years a. Resting b. Telogen c. Anagen d. None of the choices listed 28. Matting of the hair is also known as: a. Traumatic Alopecia b. Pigtails c. Trichophagia d. Plica polonica
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29. The amount of movement in the hair strand known as either straight, wavy, curly, extremely curly or coiled is the: a. Wave pattern b. Stem pattern c. Hair texture d. Hair mobility 30. What percentage of the hair‟s length is the hair capable of being stretched? a. From 80 to 100 percent b. From 40 to 50 percent c. From 30 to 35 percent d. 20 percent 31. Premature shedding of hair in the resting phase is called: a. Traumatic Alopecia b. Premature Pelting c. Telogen effluvium d. Plica Polonica 32. What is the normal amount of hairs shed per day? a. 50 to 75 b. 100 to 500 c. 500 to 1000 d. 75 to 100 33. Hair a. b. c. d.
that flows in the same direction is: A whorl A cowlick A hair stream Terminal hair
34. Shampooing prior to chemical relaxing services that use hydroxide could result in: a. A burning sensation b. Burning c. Irritation d. All of the choices listed 35. You should always begin brushing your client‟s hair by: a. Starting from the apex b. Spraying it with water c. Brushing the ends first d. Sectioning the client‟s hair
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36. Most often found at the crown, this hair grows in a circular or swirling pattern a. A whorl b. A hair stream c. A cowlick d. A coil 37. Using cream rinses and conditioners too frequently can produce: a. A silky, shiny sheen b. Hair loss c. Lifeless and dull hair d. A tendency toward trichotillomania 38. For clients who are unable to receive a wet shampoo, you may use: a. Medicated shampoo b. Liquid dry or powder dry shampoo c. Anti-dandruff shampoo d. A vinegar rinse 39. Which of the following closes the cuticle after a color service and prevents color from fading? a. A medicated rinse b. A cuticle ointment c. An acid-balanced rinse d. A color enhancer 40. What can cracks in the cuticle result in? a. Split ends b. A burning sensation c. Itchiness d. Keratinization 41. Some cells _________ as they journey through the hair follicle a. Form medulla cells b. Turn out to be cuticle scales c. Make up the cortex d. All of the choices listed 42. Hair a. b. c. d.
____________ during the Telogen stage of hair growth Grows Becomes oily Loses melanin Falls out
43. Hair a. b. c. d.
growth can be affected by: Disease Vitamin deficiency Medications and drugs All of the choices listed
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44. Brushing or manipulating wet hair during styling can cause: a. Plica polonica b. Dandruff c. Arrector pili syndrome d. Abraded cuticles 45. Which of the following is a method of removing superfluous hair: a. Electrolysis b. Tweezing c. Waxing d. All of the choices listed 46. ___________ make/s hair fiber look like a string of beads a. Hypertrichosis b. Monilethrix c. Miniaturized follicles d. Cuticle scales 47. Androgenetic alopecia involves: a. Shorter and fewer hairs b. Thinner hairs c. Miniaturized follicles d. All the choices listed 48. Temporary diffuse telogen loss of scalp hair at the termination of pregnancy is known as: a. Alopecia areata b. Postpartum alopecia c. Postnatal effluvium d. Monilethrix 49. When performing a scalp massage for a client, it is important to: a. Maintain a rhythm b. Incorporate firm, controlled movements c. Maintain contact with your client d. All of the choices listed 50. A ____________ stands straight up and is normally found at the front hairline a. Cowlick b. Whorl c. Hair stream d. Tuft
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51. The medical term for greasy or waxy dandruff is: a. Seborrhoeic dermatitis b. Pityrosporum ovale c. Pityriasis steatoides d. Malassezia furfur 52. It is a. b. c. d.
possible for shampoos with a high pH to make hair: Coarse and thick Grow faster Dry and brittle Stop growing
53. There are two parts of a mature hair strand, they are the hair root and the hair: a. Plica b. Shaft c. Eumelanin d. Cortex 54. The hair ___________ is above the skin a. Bulb b. Follicle c. Shaft d. Sebaceous glands 55. The sebaceous glands, follicle, bulb and papilla are all a part of the hair: a. Cortex b. Furuncle c. Ends d. Root 56. Pheomelanin is a type of: a. Gland b. Disease c. Melanin d. Artificial hair color 57. Which hair type do Asians tend to have? a. Very straight hair b. Exceedingly wavy hair c. Overly curly hair d. Remi hair 58. Hair a. b. c. d.
that is overly curly grows in a _________ pattern Beaded Curvy but triangular Long twisted spiral Ribbon-like
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59. When overly curly hair breaks often and knots easily, it is often due to: a. Low elasticity b. Concentrated elasticity c. Oiliness d. Sulfur 60. A measurement of hair strands within one square inch is known as hair: a. Porosity b. Elasticity c. Texture d. Density 61. The capability of hair to absorb oil or water is known as: a. Porosity b. Suppleness c. Anagen Consistency d. Density 62. Hair a. b. c. d.
with low porosity needs ____________ during chemical services More acidic solutions Powder shampoo Very hot water applied More alkaline solutions
63. _______________ can often have the consequence of high porosity a. Over processing b. Over conditioning c. Obsessive combing d. Not shampooing enough 64. Hair a. b. c. d.
with typical elasticity will stretch up to _________ percent when wet Fifty Thirty Seventy five Ten
65. It is a. b. c. d.
possible for ______________ to cause dry hair and dry scalp conditions Neutral solutions Inactive sebaceous glands Powder shampoos Lack of eumelanin
66. Fine, nonpigmented hair that rarely has a medulla is known as: a. Vellus b. Terminal c. Axillary d. Monilethrix
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67. The phases of the hair growth cycle are Anagen, _________ and Telogen a. Catagen b. Jetagen c. Lanugo d. Keratinization 68. What is the average growth of scalp hair when it is healthy? a. One-half inch per month b. One-half inch per week c. 100,000 new hairs per day d. Three inches per year 69. Excessive body hair is also known as: a. Alopecia b. Hypertrichosis c. Hyperkeratinization d. None of the choices listed 70. A painful inflammation of a hair follicle, having a dead, suppurating inner core usually caused by a bacterial infection is known as a/an: a. Furuncle b. Ulcer c. Congested gland d. Callus 71. Eyelashes and eyebrows are _____________ hair a. Secondary terminal b. Primary terminal c. Vellus d. Lanugo 72. _____________ is the natural hair pigment in the cortex layer of the hair a. Melanoma b. Crimson c. Pigmentum d. Melanin 73. Hair a. b. c. d.
is made of a protein which grows from the cells that originate inside: The sebaceous gland The hair follicle The follicular throne The papule
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74. Chemicals need ______________ to penetrate a healthy cuticle hair layer a. To be very acidic b. A pH of 3.5 to 4.5 c. An alkaline pH d. Cuticle combusters 75. The hair shaft has three layers â€“ the Cortex, Medulla and the: a. Follicle b. Catagen c. Cuticle d. Nucleus 76. The long hair on the scalp is _______________ hair a. Secondary terminal b. Primary hair c. Vellus d. Lanugo 77. ________ is the stage of hair growth where new hair is produced a. Catagen b. Telogen c. Anagen d. Terminal 78. During the transitional _____________ phase of the hair cycle, the follicle shrinks, the hair bulb disappears and the follicle makes new germ cells a. Anagen b. Telogen c. Terminal d. Catagen 79. What is the technical term for abnormal hair loss? a. Miniaturization b. Areata c. Alopecia d. Syphilitica 80. The excessive production, shedding and buildup of surface cells called pityriasis capitis is also known as: a. Dandruff b. Pediculosis capitis c. Sycosis vulgaris d. A carbuncle
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81. The fungus called malassezia is what causes: a. Ringworm b. Dandruff c. Scabies d. Sycosis vulgaris 82. Head lice is also known as: a. Pediculosis capitis b. Pseudofolliculitis barbae c. Tinea capitis d. Pityriasis capitis simplex 83. Canities are: a. Parasites b. Brittle hair c. Gray hair d. Knotted hair 84. Knotted hair, also known as _______________ can be treated with conditioners and moisturizers a. Trichorrhexis nodosa b. Canities c. Sycosis vulgaris d. Pediculosis capitis 85. Fragilitas crinium is also known as: a. Brittle hair b. Razor bumps c. Terminal hair d. Knotted hair
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Trichology - Answers (1)d (2)b (3)d (4)b (5)d (6)a (7)c (8)d (9)d (10)d (11)a (12)c (13)b (14)c (15)c (16)b (17)c (18)b (19)c (20)d (21)a (22)d (23)d (24)a (25)c (26)d (27)c (28)d (29)a (30)b (31)c (32)d (33)c (34)d (35)c (36)a (37)c (38)b (39)c (40)a (41)d (42)d (43)d (44)d (45)d (46)b (47)d (48)b (49)d (50)a (51)c (52)c (53)b (54)c (55)d (56)c (57)a (58)c (59)a (60)d (61)a (62)d (63)a (64)a (65)b (66)a (67)a (68)a (69)b (70)a (71)b (72)d (73)b (74)c (75)c (76)a (77)c (78)d (79)c (80)a (81)b (82)a (83)c (84)a (85)a
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State Exam - Written Test Total Access Review