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: SUN 310-100


: Sun Certified Data Management Engineer

Version : R6.1    

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1. Which three features does Solstice DiskSuite provide? (Choose three.) A. DiskSet B. Disk Mirroring C. Disk Concatenation D. Automatic Data Recovery Answer: ABC 2. Which Solstice DiskSuite technology writes the same data to two or more disk drives at the same time? A. striping B. mirroring C. UFS logging D. concatenating Answer: B 3. Which types of partitioning or slicing do Solstice DiskSuite and Volume Manager use? A. soft and soft respectively B. soft and hard respectively C. hard and soft respectively D. hard and hard respectively Answer: C 4. Which two statements are true about Solstice DiskSuite 4.2? (Choose two.) A. It supports all SPARCstorage Array disks. B. It runs on all SPARC and x86 systems running Solaris. C. It is compatible with all prior versions of Solstice DiskSuite. D. It is backward compatible with all previous Online Solstice DiskSuite 2.0.1 and 3.0 products. Answer: AB 5. Which file is the default event log file in RAID Manager 6? A. "/etc/syslog.conf" B. "/kernel/drv/sd.conf" C. "/usr/lib/osa/rmlog.log" D. "/kernel/drv/syslog.conf" Answer: C 6. In a drive replacement procedure, what will the Recovery Guru perform automatically? A. It will check if the host system is shutdown. B. It will check if the drive is installed and spun up. C. It will check if the hot spare is in standby status. D. It will check if the drive has the correct firmware.    

Answer: B 7. Which three are characteristics of an RM6 hot spare drive? (Choose three.) A. Hot spare drives are not dedicated to a specific drive group or LUN. B. Hot spare drives must be of equal or greater capacity than the disks in the array. C. There can be multiple drive failures in a single LUN if there are enough hot spares available. D. After a hot spare has been activated, the administrator must issue a command to evacuate the contents of the hot spare after the failed drive has been replaced and the recovery process is complete. Answer: ABC 8. What would be the most likely performance difference between software RAID 5 and RAID 1+0 for an application that was 100% small reads? A. +/- 10% B. +/- 11 to 25% C. +/- 26 to 50% D. +/- 51 to 100% Answer: A 9. Which statement is true about creating a hot spare drive? A. The hot spare drive must be as big as the largest configured LUN. B. The hot spare drive must be allocated from the unassigned drive group. C. The hot spare drive is most commonly used to add redundancy to a RAID 0 LUN. D. The hot spare drive can be created as an add-on LUN if there is available space. Answer: B 10. What is the name of Volume Manager's kernel thread daemon? A. "vxio" B. "vxrelod" C. "vxrelocd" D. "vxconfigd" Answer: A 11. Which RAID configuration can hot spare drives be used with? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 only C. RAID 3 only D. RAID 1, RAID 3, and RAID 5 Answer: D 12. Which two are features of RAID 1? (Choose two.) A. It requires double the storage.    

B. Loss of a drive results in almost no performance change. C. Performance will always suffer compared to non-mirrored data. D. Sun implements only software RAID 1 which requires sending two write requests. Answer: AB 13. What is the function of the RAID Manager RDAC driver? A. It allows manual disk replacement. B. It allows manual controller fail-over. C. It manages automatic disk replacement. D. It manages automatic controller fail-over. Answer: D 14. Which three items are included in drive hardware topology? (Choose three.) A. heads B. tracks C. buffer D. cylinders Answer: ABD 15. If a loop integrity test passes, yet systems errors continue to be reported at low rates, what is a potential cause of this symptom? A. dead disk drive B. dead FC-AL Hub C. load-related failure D. dead GBIC on a primary path Answer: C 16. Which describes RAID 5? A. mirroring B. striping plus mirroring C. striping with dedicated parity D. striping with distributed parity Answer: D 17. How many free partition table entries must a disk have before being initialized or encapsulated? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 7 Answer: B    

18. In what directory are the Solstice DiskSuite binaries located? A. "/sbin" B. "/usr/opt" C. "/var/opt" D. "/usr/sbin" Answer: B 19. What would you see on the partition table of a disk that is in the free disk pool? A. the root partition B. the swap partition C. the home partition D. a private region partition Answer: D 20. A subdisk is a sub-section of which part of a Volume Manager disk? A. VTOC B. file System C. public region D. private region Answer: C 21. What does the Sun StorEdge A1000 RAID Controller provide? A. host controller numbering B. Fibre Channel connectivity C. software RAID functionality D. hardware RAID functionality Answer: D 22. Which three statements are true about disk groups? (Choose three.) A. Disk groups enable high availability. B. VxVM objects can span disk groups. C. VxVM objects' records are held in a disk group configuration. D. Disk groups represent management and configuration boundaries. Answer: ACD 23. What does Sun's StorEdge T3 utilize to configure LUNs? A. RAID Manager B. Veritas Volume Manager C. the "luxadm" command D. Plug-in Silicone Operating System    

Answer: D 24. Which is an ability of the D1000 back plane? A. It can be split into two with individual external SCSI ports. B. It can be split into four with individual external SCSI ports. C. It can accept SCSI connections from four different hosts. D. It can be manually switched from SCSI to fibre connections. Answer: A 25. Which type of information does a Dirty Region Log contain? A. bits B. bytes C. pointers D. volume data Answer: A 26. Which type of SCSI does the RSM storage array support? A. Fast B. Fast Wide C. Ultra Wide D. Differential Wide Answer: D 27. What does free space pool in a disk group refer to? A. the disks that are not yet initialized by Volume Manager B. the disks that are initialized but that are not used in a disk group C. the space on all disks which are part of all disk groups on the system D. the space on all disks within the disk group that has not been reserved or allocated as subdisks Answer: D 28. In addition to high availability, which two characteristics does fault tolerance have? (Choose two.) A. FT systems guarantee 100% uptime. B. FT provides a guarantee against data corruption. C. FT can cost a lot more than H/A for a small benefit in overall uptime. D. A hardware disruption will not result in any loss of access to data in an FT system. Answer: CD 29. A plex is a structured or ordered collection of ___________. A. plexes B. mirrors C. volumes    

D. subdisks Answer: D 30. How many independent I/O buses does an A3X00 RAID Controller have access to? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 10 Answer: B 31. Which is an example of a virtual volume device pathname? A. "/dev/dsk/c1t3d0s3" B. "/dev/rdsk/c1t2d0s3" C. "/dev/vx/rdsk/testdg" D. "/dev/vx/dsk/testdg/testvol" Answer: D 32. What do the Sun StorEdge A1000 and D1000 Arrays both provide for? A. a CPU B. caching C. up to 12 drives D. RAID functionality Answer: C 33. How many Sun StorEdge A5x00 arrays can physically be connected to a single host system's controller with no address conflicts and supported? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 Answer: C 34. What speed is the fibre interface on the A3500FC? A. 50mb/sec B. 60mb/sec C. 100mb/sec D. 128mb/sec Answer: C 35. When using Dynamic Multipathing, how does the Host Channel attached to the alternate master in a T3 partner pair behave?    

A. It is a passive channel waiting for a master channel to fail. B. It performs load balancing between the master and alternate arrays. C. It can access both master and alternate controlled LUNs at administrator direction. D. It operates as the primary channel for the volumes configured within the alternate master array. Answer: D 36. What is the maximum number of FC-AL nodes supported per loop? A.8 B.57 C.127 D.1024 A. 8 B. 57 C. 127 D. 1024 Answer: C 37. Which statement defines RAID 1+0? A. It is disk sets that are striped and then mirrored. B. It is disk sets that are mirrored and then striped. C. It is disk sets that are mirrored, striped, and have dedicated parity. D. It is disk sets that are striped, mirrored, and have distributed parity. Answer: B 38. Given a bus width of 16 bits, what is the clock speed and transfer rate of Ultra-Wide SCSI HBAs? A. 20 MHz, 20 Mbytes/sec B. 20 MHz, 40 Mbytes/sec C. 40 MHz, 40 Mbytes/sec D. 40 MHz, 80 Mbytes/sec Answer: B 39. Which command will create a three-way mirrored volume? A. "vxassist -g testdg make testvol mirror ncol=3" B. "vxassist -g testdg make testvol layout=mirror ncol 3" C. "vxassist -g testdg make testvol layout=mirror nmirror=3" D. "vxassist -g testdg make testvol layout=mirror disk1 disk2 disk3 disk4" Answer: C 40. Which type of volume can be created using "vxassist" with one physical disk? A. striped B. RAID 5 C. mirrored D. concatenated Answer: D    

41. Plaiding is a Sun supported configuration on which three devices? (Choose three.) A. the T3 B. the A5x00 C. the A1000 D. the A3500 Answer: ACD 42. Which RAID should you choose if you need to have an implementation that is fast and inexpensive, and you are not as concerned with safety? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1+0 C. software RAID 3 D. software RAID 5 Answer: A 43. What is the smallest logical unit of storage in Volume Manager? A. disk B. plex C. volume D. subdisk Answer: D 44. Which statement about a RAID 5 log and Dirty Region log is true? A. Both types of logs contain volume data. B. Both types of logs are added to a volume by default. C. Both types of logs speed up recovery of the volume during volume creation. D. Both types of logs speed up recovery of the volume after a system crash/reboot. Answer: D 45. Which keyword is required to remove a volume with the "vxedit" command? A. "rm" B. "del" C. "remove" D. "dispose" Answer: A 46. Which utility can remove a mirror from a volume? A. "vxdg" B. "vxvol" C. "vxdisk"    

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