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after he insisted and with the stipulation that only Macedonian kings would be allowed to participate in the Olympic Games. The rest of the Macedonian nation continued to be treated as a separate, that is to say “barbarian” nation. The fact is at that time that the Greeks found the recognition of Alexander I acceptable because Macedonia was for them potentially an ally against the continuing threat posed by the powerful Persian Empire. If this evidence is not sufficient, let us quote Herodotus himself. While on one hand he claims that Alexander I declared himself to be "Greek", on the other hand the same Herodotus (History, 8.142) wrote that the Spartan Greeks have characterized Alexander I as “suspicious stranger”. An even more telling proof that Alexander I was not "Greek" is the fact that the Greeks themselves announced him as "Philhellene" (friend of the Greeks, i.e. Greek devotee), after he helped them with information that facilitated their conquest of the Persians). Those titles were given to foreigners, i.e. to non-Greeks who performed services for the Greeks. Alexander I simply behaved in this manner to retain control of his then weak country. In this he succeeded. He preserved Macedonia, which, only a few generations later, militarily conquered the Greek city states and the whole of Persia.

Why then did Philip II participate in the Olympic Games? The signatories‟ letter continues by raising the issue of Philip II's (Alexander the Great‟s father) participation in the games on Olympia and Delphi: "Alexander‟s father, Philip, won several equestrian victories at Olympia and Delphi, the two most Hellenic of all the sanctuaries in ancient Greece where non-Greeks were not allowed to compete. Even more significantly, Philip was appointed to conduct the

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TIMELESS MACEDONIAN UNIQUENESS  
TIMELESS MACEDONIAN UNIQUENESS  

http://youtu.be/ROvmSazBczQ THE MOST VALID PROOF, SCIENCE, DNA-TEST, igenea.com CONFIRM, WE ARE MACEDONIANS AND NOTHING ELSE SINCE EVER FORE...

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