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Exam

: HP HP0-794

Title

: Implementing Windows 2003 on HP ProLiant Clusters

Version : R6.1

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1. What is the maximum number of drive letters per cluster for shared drives with Microsoft Windows Server 2003? A. 18 B. 19 C. 20 D. 23 Answer: D 2. What is least likely to fail in a Windows Server 2003 network environment? A. hardware B. applications C. operating system D. operational issues E. infrastructure (building, power, network) Answer: A 3. Which tasks have been identified by HP as important when planning network capacity and the graceful failover and failback of cluster resources and services? Ensure that: ______.

Select TWO.

A. each cluster node has processors of sufficient speed to handle the maximum client load of the entire cluster B. the surviving node network speed and protocol will handle the maximum number of I/Os necessary to support critical services C. the throughput of the NIC on the surviving node is sufficient to handle the maximum network load for peak load cluster services D. each individual cluster node can handle the maximum number of clients that can attach to the cluster E. the shared storage capacity is sufficient to handle the load of the entire cluster Answer: BD 4. The HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000 supports how many additional storage enclosures? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 Answer: C 5. Which HP PCI-to-Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) uses the small form factor transceiver connection and supports the MSA1000? A. 32-bit/33MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset

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B. 64-bit/33MHz HBA using the Emulex chipset C. 64-bit/66MHz FCA-2101 HBA using the QLogic chipset D. 64-bit/66MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset Answer: C 6. The ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA500 supports how many additional storage enclosures? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 Answer: C 7. Which SQL Server clustering requirement changed between SQL 7.0 and SQL 2000? A. Only licenses for the first node in the cluster were required for SQL 7.0; all nodes must have licenses for SQL 2000. B. Multiple virtual SQL servers could not run on the same set of disks for SQL 7.0, but can run on the same set of disks for SQL 2000. C. Binaries are on the shared disk for SQL 7.0, but on the local disk for SQL 2000. D. Microsoft Transaction Server and Microsoft Queue Manager are no longer included as components of SQL 2000. Answer: C 8. Cluster.exe can be used to _______. A. launch the Cluster Monitor utility B. administer clusters C. launch Microsoft Cluster Administrator D. power down the cluster Answer: B 9. Which adjustments should be made to the network adapter that has been set to Internal Cluster Communications Only? Select THREE. A. Designate the adapter as the primary NIC in a fault-tolerant team. B. Remove all protocols other than TCP/IP and disable the Media Sense feature. C. Set the adapter to a specific speed of 10Mb/s or 100Mb/s. D. Set the adapter to use NetBIOS. E. Set the adapter duplex mode to half duplex. F. Use the auto-detect setting on the network adapter for the private interconnect. Answer: BCE 10. Which description accurately depicts an HP Multi-Server Card?

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A. It supports up to 64 network devices within a single UPS group and provides unattended, sequential shutdown of every device in that group, regardless of the operating system. B. It enables each load segment to function as a separate UPS with individual shutdown schedules and load segment configurations. C. It detects and warns users of power failures and manages a safe system shutdown before the backup power supply is exhausted. D. It allows for the safe installation of new batteries through the front panel, without powering down the connected equipment. Answer: B 11. Which component of Insight Manager 7 enables you to browse cluster and component status in a tree hierarchy? A. Systems Manager B. Cluster Monitor C. Cluster Manager D. Management Services Answer: B 12. When creating a clustered volume mount point on a cluster node, which requirement must be met? The partition to be mounted must be ______. A. created on the Quorum disk B. mounted to a shared disk in a different group C. created on a non-clustered disk D. formatted using NTFS Answer: D 13. ProLiant clusters can achieve availability levels 2 and 3 of the standard availability levels defined by the industry and adopted by HP. What is a characteristic of these availability levels? A. Work stops. B. Performance degradation can result. C. Transactions must be rerun. D. Shutdown is uncontrolled. Answer: B 14. What is the leading cause of downtime? A. hardware failures B. operational activities C. software failures D. infrastructure problems

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Answer: D 15. What enables restoring Exchange databases to an online production server? A. Shadow Backup Copy B. Recovery Storage Group C. Mailbox Recovery Center D. Mobile Exchange Solution Package Answer: B 16. What is one of the functions of the cluster node command? A. Rename a cluster node. B. Check the status of node resources. C. Pause a cluster node. D. Power down a cluster node. Answer: C 17. You are the administrator of a Windows Server 2003 server cluster. You need to manage the cluster remotely, which utilities should you use to perform this task? Select TWO. A. Cluster.exe B. Intelligent Cluster Administrator C. Comclust.exe D. Cluadmin.exe E. Cluster Manager Answer: AD 18. Which components are included in the reliability testing of HP ProLiant clustering solutions? Select THREE. A. application software B. system management software C. storage system D. interconnect options E. backup software F. on-off switch G. keyboard Answer: BCD 19. What will happen if you use the osql utility to stop a clustered SQL Server? A. The clustered SQL Server instance will stop gracefully. B. The Cluster service will assume a failure and then attempt to either restart the SQL Server automatically or fail it over to the other node.

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C. The Cluster service will stop managing the SQL Server instance. D. The Cluster service enables SQL Server to ignore osql utility commands; therefore the osql utility cannot stop a clustered SQL Server. E. The command will trigger a remote stored procedure to all active SQL Server nodes causing disconnect of all users, followed by an immediate shutdown. Answer: B 20. What is a SQL Server pre-installation requirement? A. The group must initially contain at least two disk resources. B. The group requires a shared IP address. C. Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator must be configured for the cluster. D. The SQL Server Agent must be installed. Answer: C 21. What type of disk access support do SQL Server 2000 and the Cluster service provide? A. Dynamic disk B. Shared disk C. Mutual disk D. Shared-nothing disk Answer: D 22. Which clustering technology builds middle-tier clusters to load balance COM+ components? A. Network Load Balancing (NLB) B. Component Load Balancing (CLB) C. Cluster service D. N-tier balancing Answer: B 23. During the configuration of a virtual SQL server, what does the Failover Cluster wizard prompt you for? A. The name and IP address of the virtual SQL server. B. The name and IP address of the ProLiant server where Windows Server 2003 is installed. C. The user account and password. D. The port or socket number used by the virtual SQL server. Answer: A 24. Your company needs a cluster solution that is transparent to users during a failover and does not interrupt work or degrade system performance. Which availability level meets these requirements? A. AL1 B. AL2 C. AL3

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D. AL4 Answer: D 25. When cluster nodes share a physical storage system but cannot access the same logical drives simultaneously, which basic cluster model is being used? A. shared-server B. shared-disk C. shared-nothing D. shared-everything Answer: C 26. What is the maximum number of SQL Server instances allowed per node? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 16 Answer: D 27. Your customer with an Exchange Server 2003 system is concerned about availability. They have decided to purchase an additional server and cluster it with the original one. The new server hardware and operating system have been installed and the cluster service has been configured. Both servers are now part of a failover cluster. What must be done next in order to cluster Exchange Server 2003? A. uninstall and reinstall Exchange B. add the Information Store resource to a cluster group C. add the System Attendant resource to a cluster group D. add the Exchange POP3 Virtual Server resource to a cluster group Answer: A 28. Which ProLiant PCI-to-Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) supports the HSV110 array controller? Select TWO. A. 32-bit/33MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset B. 64-bit/33MHz HBA using the Emulex chipset C. 64-bit/66MHz FCA-2101 HBA using the QLogic chipset D. 64-bit/66MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset E. 2114 Answer: BC 29. What is the maximum number of nodes that can participate in a Network Load Balancing cluster? A. 2 B. 4

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C. 16 D. 32 Answer: D 30. Which tool is a component of Insight Manager 7 SP2? A. Cluster Monitor B. Virtual Replicator C. Event Viewer D. Intelligent Cluster Administrator E. Microsoft Cluster Administrator Answer: A 31. Identify standard features of the HP StorageWorks MSA1000 storage system. Select TWO. A. 2Gb/s maximum transfer speeds B. Maximum of 84 HP Universal 1-inch Ultra3 drives supported C. Embedded 6-port 2Gb/s Fabric Switch D. Advanced Data Guarding (ADG) support E. Native Fibre Channel design Answer: AD 32. Which Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition feature enhances availability over Windows 2000 Advanced Server? A. eight-node failover support B. disk signatures C. plug-and-play support D. Windows File Protection E. Hyper-Threading technology Answer: A 33. What determines the state of each resource when a group fails over? A. The rights of the resource within that group. B. The dependencies of the resource on the other resources in the group. C. The group assignments of the group in the Cluster Administrator. D. The IP address within the failed group. Answer: B 34. Which task does the Array Configuration Utility allow you to perform? Select TWO. A. Configure an array remotely. B. Troubleshoot the storage subsystem. C. Specify the path used to access the Fibre Channel storage system.

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D. Expand existing storage capacity. E. Upgrade the firmware on the array controller. Answer: AD 35. Identify a feature of the HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array storage system. A. Maximum of 84 HP Universal 1-inch Ultra3 drives supported B. SANworks Management Appliance for management duties C. HSG80 array controller support D. Embedded 6-port 2Gb/s Fabric Switch Answer: B 36. An e-commerce company experiences seasonal revenues, with the greatest sales volume occurring at the end of the year. Revenues were down last season however, making it difficult to forecast the coming fiscal year. How should the company determine whether upgrading its cluster is justifiable in terms of cost? A. Average the profits and expenses historically and compare with the cost of the upgrade. B. Determine areas where costs can be reduced to allow room in the budget for the upgrade. C. Estimate the cost of lost business resulting from planned and unplanned downtime and add that figure to other operating expenses to calculate the profit margin. D. Calculate the cost of downtime resulting from troubleshooting and maintaining the existing cluster and compare with the cost of the upgrade. Answer: D 37. The majority of cluster administrative tasks, including creation and deletion of resources, can be performed by using _______. A. Cluster Monitor B. Systems Insight Manager C. Comclust utility D. Microsoft Cluster Administrator Answer: D 38. Typing cluster network at the command line will ______. A. allow you to edit the properties of the cluster network interface B. allow you to edit the properties of the cluster network C. display the status and properties of the cluster network interface D. display the status and properties of the cluster network Answer: D 39. Which are dependent directly on the System Attendant and facilitate faster Exchange Virtual Server failovers in Exchange Server 2003 compared to previous versions of exchange? A. Internet protocols

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