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Exam

: HP HP0-760

Title

: NonStop Kernel Advanced (Level 2)

Version : R6.1

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1. If a process does a PSEM and the semaphore is not available, what happens? A. A dispatcher interrupt occurs. B. The monitor process is invoked. C. The process is trapped out. D. The process sets a PCBWAIT bit. Answer: A 2. System globals (SGs) are primarily used to A. contain pointers to kernel data structures B. contain kernel data structures such as memory mapping tables C. keep data structures for memory management and file system operations D. allow shared memory Answer: A 3. A process needs to dynamically allocate, use, and deallocate buffers of different sizes. Which of the following is the most appropriate data structure? A. pool B. PCB entry C. finder table D. table Answer: A 4. How do Enscribe file partitions link? A. The primary partition points to all secondary partitions. B. Secondary partitions all point to the primary partition. C. Primary and secondary partitions all point to each other. D. The primary partition points to the first secondary partition, which points to the next secondary partition, and so forth. Answer: A 5. Which of the following statements is true for SQL programs? A. SQL programs are invalidated by UPDATE STATISTICS on tables the program access. B. SQL programs are defined in SQL user catalogs in the PROGRAMS table only. C. SQL programs contain SQL statements that can be recompiled dynamically at execution time. D. SQL programs cannot be compiled unless all associated tables are closed. Answer: C 6. Which FUP ALTER command option is used to change the BROKEN flag in the file label, allowing a non-audited file to be read? A. RESETBROKEN

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B. CLEARFLAG C. SETRECOVERY D. CLEARBROKEN Answer: A 7. What is the feature that distinguishes the SQL system catalog from other SQL catalogs? A. The system catalog must be TM/MP protected, whereas other catalogs need not be. B. The system catalog MUST reside on $SYSTEM.SQL. C. The system catalog contains an additional table, CATALOGS. D. The system catalog cannot contain references to user-defined tables. Answer: C 8. Which SQLCI command lists the contents of all rows in the table TEST? A. GET * FROM TEST; B. RETRIEVE * FROM TEST; C. LIST * FROM TEST; D. SELECT * FROM TEST; Answer: D 9. Which type of Enscribe file can contain multiple index levels? A. relative B. unstructured C. entry-sequenced D. key-sequenced Answer: D 10. Which type of Enscribe file is an alternate-key file? A. entry-sequenced B. relative C. unstructured D. key-sequenced Answer: D 11. Which Enscribe file type is created by the EDIT and TEDIT utilities? A. entry-sequenced B. relative C. unstructured D. key-sequenced Answer: C 12. The purpose of an alternate-key file is to

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A. provide additional file data storage capacity B. assist the sequential access of multiple block levels C. provide additional logical access paths to data D. allow alternate access from the backup physical disk path Answer: C 13. Data integrity in distributed transactions is provided by A. file partitioning across nodes B. nomadic disk configurations C. cooperating NonStop TM/MP subsystems D. RDF replication between nodes Answer: C 14. Which operating system software upgrade step requires a cold load? A. updating SP firmware B. performing a BUILD and APPLY C. running ZPHIRNM to rename files D. switching to a new OSIMAGE Answer: D 15. A persistent process in processor 2 is assigned the attribute:

CPU FIRSTOF (2,3).

Given this

configuration, what will occur if processor 2 fails? A. A persistence monitor will automatically restart the process in an available processor. B. Its backup process will take over with no loss of data. C. An operator will be instructed to restart this process in an alternative processor. D. When the processor is reloaded, the process will be restarted. Answer: A 16. A CRC character is present in each ServerNet packet. What is the meaning of the acronym CRC? A. certified reliability check B. circuit response code C. cycle response character D. cyclic redundancy check Answer: D 17. A Tetra 8 ServerNet topology A. incorporates 8 system enclosures B. has all processors directly connected C. does not allow I/O enclosures D. can support no more than 16 processors with limited I/O

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Answer: B 18. What is the benefit of running a program in a high PIN? A. High-PIN processes run at a higher priority than low-PIN processes. B. High-PIN processes are protected from marauding low-PIN processes. C. Only a high-PIN process can access high-PIN devices. D. There are more high PINs available than low PINs. Answer: D 19. What are the benefits of each processor in a multi-processor system having its own memory?

Select

TWO. A. linear scalability B. isolation of memory faults C. inherent load-balancing D. faster system startup E. simplified global table updates Answer: AB 20. Which of the following is a function of the FUP CHECKSUM command? A. performs CHECKSUM on both open and closed files B. rewrites CHECKSUM on all blocks in a file C. corrects block-level data errors in a file D. recalculates CHECKSUM on all blocks in a file Answer: D 21. NonStop TM/MP employs a "two-phased commit" protocol. The purpose of this protocol is to A. enforce simultaneous writes to both primary and mirror disks B. subdivide large transactions into standard size packages C. ensure transaction integrity across system boundaries D. support ANSI standard SQL features Answer: C 22. Why is a client/server design ideally suited to the NonStop Kernel architecture? A. The NonStop Kernel has been optimized to handle multiple input devices efficiently. B. The multi-threading capabilities of NonStop Kernel servers are ideally suited to the demands of multiple clients. C. Clustering allows servers to access enormous databases and thus serve the most demanding clients. D. Discrete units of work can be spread easily over processes and processors. Answer: D 23. The Tandem Development Suite (TDS) provides application programmers with the ability to

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A. write, compile, and test code on a PC platform without the use of the NonStop Himalaya system B. write and compile code on a PC platform and then use PC-based Visual Inspect to run code on NonStop Kernel C. write and syntax-check the code on a PC before shipping for compilation and testing on NonStop Kernel D. allow people familiar with Microsoft Visual Studio to develop code in an environment they know well Answer: B 24. You are upgrading a mirrored disk volume to one that has a larger capacity.

Which of the following

applies? A. The disk drive must not have opened SQL tables. B. The data on that named disk volume remains continually available. C. The opened files on the disk drive must be TMF protected. D. All files on the disk must be closed. Answer: B 25. An existing Pathway application designed for 6530 devices is to be deployed worldwide. What is one advantage of Web enabling this application? A. It can be accessed from any workstation with a Web browser. B. It will perform much faster as a Web application. C. It will add an extra layer of security to the application. D. It will increase application availability. Answer: A 26. What happens to an application when a single disk of a mirrored pair fails? A. Performance decreases because all subsequent reads are from the remaining drive. B. Databases on the failed drive are invalid and all accessing applications fail. C. The last write to the failed drive is lost unless the file was TMF protected. D. An application accessing the drive closes and reopens its database. Answer: A 27. You are adding new physical disk volumes while the system is running.

Which of the following

statements applies? A. Applications need to be quiesced. B. Reloading processors might be required. C. Applications can keep running. D. The COUP utility is used to configure the drive. Answer: C 28. A customer is running a low-PIN application and now needs to run more copies of the program. low-PINs in each of the processors have already been used. Which method solves the problem?

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All the


A. adding memory B. adding one or more disks C. adding processors D. configuring more low pins Answer: C 29. Which of the following is NOT a function of iTP WebServer? A. accessing CGI pathway programs B. accessing servlets C. searching the Web D. serving Web pages Answer: C 30. Which software product is NOT required to install NonStop Java? A. OSSFS B. NonStop Kernel C. C++ Run-Time Library D. NonStop DOM Answer: D 31. The pax utility in an OSS environment is used to A. print and examine a file B. copy a set of files to disk or tape C. transfer output to a fax device D. "purge all files except" Answer: B 32. Which utility or command is used to build, start, and stop an OSS fileset? A. mount B. mkdir C. SCF D. OSSCOM Answer: C 33. Which product can be used to allow you to create and access OSS files from a PC or workstation? A. APC B. RFS C. RPC D. NFS Answer: D

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34. OSS disk files can be of what type? A. relative B. unstructured C. key-sequenced D. entry-sequenced Answer: B 35. In the following command, what is the REVIVEINTERVAL? -> ALTER $DATA01, REVIVEBLOCKS 1, REVIVEINTERVAL 400 A. 0.4 minutes B. 4 seconds C. 400 seconds D. 400m seconds Answer: B 36. Which tool is used for predicting future hardware requirements? A. PEEK B. Guardian Performance Analyzer (GPA) C. Availability Statistics and Performance (ASAP) D. Tandem Capacity Model (TCM) Answer: D 37. Which of the following is the NetBatch-Plus command interpreter? A. NETBATCH B. BATCHCOM C. BATCHCAL D. NBEXEC Answer: B 38. Performance management of a system is meant to ensure that A. processor loads are balanced to within 5% of the mean processor utilization B. upgrades to system hardware happen on a regularly scheduled basis C. systems meet business needs as defined by service level agreements D. all disk drives on the system are fully utilized to minimize hardware inventory Answer: C 39. Which tool displays online usage of system resources such as processor utilization, processor queue length, page faulting, and dispatch rates? A. Measure B. Viewpoint

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C. Viewsys D. PEEK Answer: C 40. Click the Exhibit button to see the output of a DSAP command.

(Click the Tile button to view the

exhibit while reading the question.) Which command will successfully recover the "lost free space"?

A. SCF CONTROL DISK <volume name>, REBUILDDFS B. FUP CHECKSUM <volume name> C. DCOM <volume name>, VERIFY D. TMFCOM RECOVER FILES <volume name> Answer: A 41. Which method must be used to access a file on a labeled tape? A. a TAPE DEFINE B. MEDIACOM C. TMFCOM D. FUP COPY

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