Page 1

Test Bank and Assessment Package to accompany

McWhorter

Essential Reading Skills Third Edition

Jeanne Michel Jones

New York Boston San Francisco London Toronto Sydney Tokyo Singapore Madrid Mexico City Munich Paris Cape Town Hong Kong Montreal


Test Bank and Assessment Package to accompany McWhorter, Essential Reading Skills, Third Edition Copyright ©2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. Printed in the United States of America. Instructors may reproduce portions of this book for classroom use only. All other reproductions are strictly prohibited without prior permission of the publisher, except in the case of brief quotations embodied in critical articles and reviews. This work is protected by United States copyright laws and is provided solely for the use of instructors in teaching their courses and assessing student learning. Dissemination or sale of any part of this work (including on the World Wide Web) will destroy the integrity of the work and is not permitted. The work and materials from it should never be made available to students except by instructors using the accompanying text in their classes. All recipients of this work are expected to abide by these restrictions and to honor the intended pedagogical purposes and the needs of other instructors who rely on these materials. ISBN: 0-321-44580-5 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10–OPM–08 07 06 05

ii


TABLE OF CONTE NTS Introduction Part One:

Chapter Review Quizzes

Test Bank 1 Chapter 1 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 2 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 3 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 4 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 5 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 6 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 7 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 8 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 9 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 10 .......................................................................................................... Chapter 11 .......................................................................................................... Answer Key to Chapter Review Quizzes—Test Bank 1 …………………………

1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23

Test Bank 2 Chapter 1 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 2 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 3 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 4 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 5 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 6 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 7 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 8 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 9 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 10 ……………………………………………………………………….. Chapter 11 .......................................................................................................... Answer Key to Chapter Review Quizzes—Test Bank 2 …………………………

29 31 33 35 37 39 41 43 45 47 49 51

Part Two:

Mastery Tests

Test Bank 1 Chapter 1 ............................................................................................................ 57 Chapter 2 ............................................................................................................ 61 Chapter 3 ............................................................................................................ 65 Chapter 4 ............................................................................................................ 71 Chapter 5 ............................................................................................................ 75 Chapter 6 ............................................................................................................ 79 Chapter 7 ............................................................................................................ 85 Chapter 8 ............................................................................................................ 91 Chapter 9 ............................................................................................................ 97 Chapter 10 .......................................................................................................... 101 iii


Chapter 11 .......................................................................................................... 107 Answer Key to Mastery Tests—Test Bank 1 ……………………………………. 111 Test Bank 2 Chapter 1 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 2 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 3 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 4 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 5 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 6 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 7 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 8 ............................................................................................................ Chapter 9 ………………………………………………………………………… Chapter 10 ……………………………………………………………………….. Chapter 11 .......................................................................................................... Answer Key to Mastery Tests—Test Bank 2 .......................................................

117 121 125 131 135 141 145 151 157 163 167 171

Part Three: Student Resource Guides Test Bank 1 Guide A .............................................................................................................. Guide B............................................................................................................... Online Resource Guide ....................................................................................... Answer Key to Student Resource Guides—Test Bank 1 ………………………..

177 179 181 183

Test Bank 2 Guide A .............................................................................................................. Guide B............................................................................................................... Online Resource Guide ....................................................................................... Answer Key to Student Resource Guides—Test Bank 2 ………………………...

187 191 193 197

Credits …………………………………………………………………………... 199

iv


INTRODUCTION This assessment package contains two types of assessment for each chapter in Essential Reading Skills, third edition: chapter review quizzes and mastery tests. These alternative measurements provide the instructor with a variety of opportunities to assess students’ ability to learn and apply techniques and strategies presented in the text. This package also includes quizzes and mastery tests for the Student Resource Guides at the end of Essential Reading Skills.

CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZZES The chapter review quizzes are intended primarily to provide an assessment of students’ knowledge and comprehension of chapter content. There are two sets of chapter review quizzes. Each set includes a ten-item multiple-choice quiz for each chapter. Although the concepts tested in each set are similar, the test questions are different. An answer key is provided for each multiple-choice test. Coverage The purpose of the chapter review quizzes is to assess whether students have acquired foundational knowledge of each chapter’s content to enable them to apply the skill. Although the focus of each quiz is knowledge and comprehension of chapter content, quizzes may include application questions that provide hypothetical situations for evaluating students’ ability to apply the skill. Instructional Uses Although the quizzes are intended as assessment tools, they can be used instructionally in several different ways: 1. Treat the quiz as an open-book exam, allowing students to locate the answers in the text. This activity will provide students with the opportunity to review chapter content and realize what skills are emphasized. 2. Ask students to predict or write questions they think will be on the quiz and then compare their predictions with the actual quiz. This activity will help students to determine what is important in each chapter, as well as to develop an important testtaking strategy. 3. Treat each quiz as a collaborative learning activity. Students can discuss each item and identify sections in the chapter that establish their choices as correct. 4. Use the quiz as a chapter preview. Allow students to skim or read the quiz questions before reading the chapter. The questions will establish an intent to remember chapter content.

v


MASTERY TESTS The mastery tests are designed to measure students’ ability to apply the skills learned in each chapter. Each test consists of a short excerpt from a college-level textbook followed by objective questions about vocabulary, comprehension, and the specific skills covered in that chapter. An answer key is provided for each test. The mastery tests can be used as additional practice exercises or as competency-based tests for evaluative purposes.

vi


PART ONE CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZZES TEST BANK 1


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 1 READING ACTIVELY Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. In order to develop a positive attitude toward college, you should a. send yourself positive messages. b. picture yourself succeeding. c. set long-term goals for yourself. d. do all of the above.

_____

2. The primary purpose of a distractions list is to a. keep you from becoming bored with an assignment. b. help you think of rewards for when you have finished studying. c. identify distracting information included in an assignment. d. help you eliminate distracting thoughts by writing them down.

_____

3. Previewing written material involves a. studying and memorizing the material. b. highlighting each paragraph. c. finding the most important ideas in the material. d. making notes on the first and last paragraphs only.

_____

4. An overview of the material in a textbook chapter is usually found in the a. first paragraph or introduction. b. subtitle. c. marginal notes. d. typographical aids.

_____

5. The best time to develop guide questions is a. before you preview. b. after you preview but before you read. c. while you are reading. d. after you read.

_____

6. To create a workable study environment, you should do all of the following except a. choose a place that has few distractions. b. keep the study supplies you need handy. c. make the area personal with photos and mementos. d. be able to control the noise level.

1


_____

7. In previewing an article called “Critical Issues in Marriage and the Family,” you could predict that the article will discuss all of the following topics except a. divorce. b. domestic violence. c. literacy. d. custody battles.

_____

8. The first sentence under a section heading usually provides a. more information about the heading. b. clues about the organization of the chapter or article. c. an explanation of typographical aids. d. the author’s qualifications.

_____

9. The most helpful guide question for a chapter titled “The Electoral College System” would be a. How does the electoral college system work? b. When was the electoral college created? c. Do other countries have an electoral college? d. Who created the electoral college system?

_____ 10. The least helpful guide question for an article titled “Churches and Checkbooks: The Role of Religion in Purchase Decisions” would be a. What kinds of purchase decisions are affected by religion? b. How are purchase decisions affected by religion? c. Who first identified the role of religion in purchase decisions? d. Why does religion affect purchase decisions?

2


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 2 USING YOUR DICTIONARY Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The etymology of a word gives information about its a. antonyms. b. part of speech. c. history. d. synonyms.

_____

2. The symbols given in parentheses after each word entry in a dictionary show you a. what the word means. b. how to pronounce the word. c. where to find related words. d. whether the word has an abbreviation.

_____

3. In a dictionary entry, a word’s meanings are grouped by a. alternate spellings. b. restrictive definitions. c. parts of speech. d. examples.

_____

4. When you are trying to choose the correct meaning of a word from the definitions listed in an entry, you should do all of the following except a. use parts of speech to rule out other meanings. b. try to find the word’s colloquial meaning first. c. skip over restrictive meanings that do not apply. d. test your choice by using it in a sentence.

_____

5. The phrase “beat around the bush” is an example of a. an idiom. b. a colloquial meaning. c. a gazetteer. d. slang.

3


Directions: Using a dictionary, write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

6. In pronouncing the word Neanderthal, the primary stress is placed on the letters a. ne. b. an. c. der. d. thal.

_____

7. The restrictive meaning of the word trivial in biology is a. of little significance or value. b. ordinary or commonplace. c. relating to or designating a species. d. the solution of an equation in which every variable equals zero.

_____

8. The abbreviation ICJ stands for a. Institute of Criminal Justice. b. International Coalition of Journalists. c. Illinois Collegiate Journal. d. International Court of Justice.

_____

9. The word fustigate is divided correctly into syllables as a. fus / ti / gate. b. fu / sti / gate. c. fust / i / gate. d. fus / tig / ate.

_____ 10. In parts of speech, the word convivial is a. a noun. b. a verb. c. an adjective. d. an adverb.

4


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 3 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING CONTEXT CLUES Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. When writers use examples as context clues, they often introduce them with the phrase a. “refers to.” b. “are called.” c. “such as.” d. “in contrast.”

_____

2. The process of figuring out the meaning of a word by using logic and reasoning skills is known as a. contrast. b. explanation. c. inference. d. context.

_____

3. A word that has the same meaning as another word is called a. a synonym. b. an antonym. c. a homonym. d. a context clue.

_____

4. The best synonym for the word bolster is a. distract. b. support. c. weaken. d. destroy.

_____

5. The best antonym for the word lethargic is a. lazy. b. sluggish. c. energetic. d. dull.

5


Directions: For each of the following sentences, write the letter of the choice that best defines the boldfaced word in the space provided. _____

6. We were in a quandary over our vacation plans; we wanted to go to the beach but the forecast called for rain. a. a state of uncertainty b. an argument c. a state of excitement d. complete agreement

_____

7. The verdant areas on the island of Hawaii present a dramatic contrast to the island’s stark and lifeless lava beds. a. empty b. green with growing plants c. dry and barren d. hot

_____

8. Greta refused to follow the club rules even though we urged her to comply. a. protest b. disagree c. obey d. leave

_____

9. He was considered an astute businessman, but he showed poor judgment in his personal life. a. dishonest b. wealthy c. difficult d. shrewd

_____ 10. The professor often used paradigms, or models, to illustrate difficult concepts. a. illustrated books b. mastery tests c. brief reviews d. typical examples

6


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 4 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING WORD PARTS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. All of the following statements about word parts are true except a. a word is usually built on at least one root. b. words always have a prefix and a suffix. c. suffixes may change the spelling of the root. d. prefixes change the meaning of the root.

_____

2. The prefix in the word immortality is a. im. b. immortal. c. mortality. d. ity.

_____

3. The suffix in the word deductible is a. de. b. deduct. c. duct. d. ible.

_____

4. The word friendship has a a. root only. b. prefix and a root. c. prefix, a root, and a suffix. d. root and a suffix.

_____

5. The word antibiotic has a a. root only. b. prefix and a root. c. prefix, a root, and a suffix. d. root and a suffix.

7


Directions: Each of the following words contains a root with a prefix and/or a suffix. Using your knowledge of word parts, choose the best definition for each word and write the letter of the choice in the space provided. _____

6. Incredible a. not able to speak b. not believable c. not able to hear d. within belief

_____

7. Circumsolar a. going under the sun b. going to the sun c. going across the sun d. revolving around the sun

_____

8. Tripod a. a one-legged object b. a two-legged object c. a three-legged object d. a four-legged object

_____

9. Vocalist a. a quality of sound b. one who hears c. pertaining to light d. one who sings

_____ 10. Subterranean a. many layered b. above the ground c. underground d. across a distance

8


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 5 LOCATING MAIN IDEAS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. In order to find the main idea of a paragraph, you should try to a. identify the topic. b. find the most general sentence in the paragraph. c. study the rest of the paragraph. d. do all of the above.

_____

2. The most likely place for a topic sentence to appear in a paragraph is a. first. b. second. c. in the middle of the paragraph. d. last.

_____

3. Sentences that explain the main idea of a paragraph are called a. topics. b. transitions. c. details. d. subjects.

_____

4. One clue to the topic of a paragraph is the a. first word of the paragraph. b. repeated use of a word throughout the paragraph. c. last word in the paragraph. d. frequent use of examples in the paragraph.

_____

5. The most general term in the following list of words is a. jogging. b. swimming. c. exercising. d. bicycling.

_____

6. The most general term in the following list of words is a. watercolor. b. photography. c. sculpture. d. art.

9


_____

7. The most general term in the following list of words is a. fiction. b. literature. c. drama. d. poetry.

_____

8. Of the following statements, the most general one is a. Beagles are highly social animals and consider their human family their “pack.” b. When choosing a dog, it is important to consider the breed’s level of sociability. c. Bloodhounds are sociable and friendly with family and strangers alike. d. Airedales are social within their human family but can be dominant to strangers.

_____

9. Of the following statements, the most general one is a. Giving up caffeine can be a difficult and painful undertaking. b. If you suddenly stop consuming caffeine, you may experience headaches and sleeplessness. c. Cutting down on your caffeine intake gradually may help you reduce the unpleasant effects of withdrawal. d. You may want to replace your morning cup of coffee with a less-caffeinated cup of tea or hot chocolate.

_____ 10. Of the following statements, the most general one is a. The national anthem often arouses feelings of patriotism and pride. b. Hearing Billie Holiday sing the blues can make us melancholy. c. Brahms’ Lullaby is comforting and soothing to children and adults alike. d. Music can elicit different emotions from people.

10


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 6 IDENTIFYING SUPPORTING DETAILS AND TRANSITIONS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The key details in a paragraph are those that a. are presented in the topic sentence. b. directly explain the main idea. c. consist entirely of facts. d. provide examples.

_____

2. The main purpose of transitions is to a. present support for the writer’s point of view. b. offer a visual way of organizing information. c. provide further information about the main idea. d. lead the reader from one idea to the next.

_____

3. The words first, second, third, and last indicate the type of transition called a. enumeration. b. comparison. c. cause-effect. d. example.

_____

4. All of the following transitional words indicate that the writer is continuing with the same idea except a. also. b. however. c. in addition. d. further.

_____

5. A paragraph has this topic sentence: “There are many different kinds of anxiety disorders.” All of the following details would support this topic sentence except a. One kind of anxiety disorder, called panic disorder, involves recurring panic attacks. b. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder that results from a traumatic experience. c. Multiple personality disorders have been the subject of popular films and books. d. Phobias, such as fear of heights or crowds, are another type of anxiety disorder.

11


Directions: Select the transitional word or phrase that best fits in the blank in each sentence, and write the letter of the choice in the space provided. _____

6. The flowers of many plants are edible. __________, violets and nasturtiums are sometimes used in salads. a. On the other hand b. For example c. However d. Another

_____

7. There are several aspects to becoming an effective listener. __________, be sure to give the speaker your full attention. a. Also b. First c. In contrast d. Because

_____

8. Many people believe that the use of animals in medical testing is unethical. __________, many of the medical treatments we take for granted today were made possible because of animal testing. a. Next b. To illustrate c. However d. Likewise

_____

9. After you buy something on the Internet, you may find yourself overwhelmed with e-mail offers and advertisements __________ the seller may provide your information to other marketers. a. in addition b. because c. in contrast d. finally

_____ 10. Samuel T. Clemens wrote under the name Mark Twain. __________, the writer Mary Anne Evans is best known as George Eliot. a. Similarly b. Next c. On the other hand d. Consequently

12


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 7 UNDERSTANDING IMPLIED MAIN IDEAS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. In comparison to supporting details, main ideas are usually a. larger. b. more important. c. more general. d. all of the above.

_____

2. An implied main idea is a. presented in the topic sentence. b. presented in the last sentence. c. suggested but not stated outright. d. mentioned in the previous paragraph.

_____

3. The first step in finding an implied main idea is to a. find the topic. b. find the transitions. c. decide how you feel about the topic. d. figure out what you already know about the topic.

_____

4. For the specific ideas “landscaping your yard, painting your house, adding a deck, remodeling the kitchen,” the general idea that best applies is a. inexpensive activities. b. home improvements. c. outdoor activities. d. daily chores.

_____

5. For the specific ideas “to research a variety of subjects, to shop, to find out about current events, to make travel plans,” the general idea that best applies is a. reasons to use the Internet. b. reasons to buy a cell phone. c. reasons to go to the mall. d. reasons to be well-informed.

13


Directions: For each of the following statements, write the letter of the choice that best explains what the writer is implying in the space provided. _____

6. When Genevieve arrived at class, the door was locked, the lights were out, and the room was empty. a. The class had been canceled. b. Genevieve was lost. c. The instructor was conducting an experiment. d. There was a power outage.

_____

7. I spent the entire cruise a prisoner in my cabin, trying unsuccessfully to ignore the never-ending motion of the sea. a. The writer was taken prisoner during the cruise. b. The writer was seasick. c. The ship was sinking. d. The writer did not want to meet anyone on the cruise.

_____

8. The television actress was treated like royalty in her hometown. a. The actress was from a royal family. b. The actress was considered the leader of her hometown. c. People in the town asked the actress for help. d. The actress was given special treatment.

_____

9. You couldn’t pay me to eat lunch in the school cafeteria. a. The cafeteria is too expensive. b. The food in the cafeteria is delicious. c. The writer is too proud to accept money. d. The food in the cafeteria is not good.

_____ 10. After the girls’ slumber party, the basement looked as though it had been hit by a tornado. a. It was very windy during the party. b. The girls were scared during the party. c. It was noisy during the party. d. The girls made a mess in the basement.

14


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 8 KEEPING TRACK OF INFORMATION Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. In order to highlight effectively, you should do all of the following except a. read the material before you highlight. b. make sure your highlighting accurately reflects the material. c. highlight at least 70 percent of the material. d. highlight important parts of the topic sentence.

_____

2. Marking is useful for when you want to a. circle words you don’t know. b. take notice of definitions. c. make notes to yourself. d. do all of the above.

_____

3. Of the following parts in an outline, the one closest to the left margin should be the a. major topic. b. major idea. c. key supporting detail. d. example.

_____

4. When you use outlining, you should a. always follow the exact outline format. b. never use complete sentences. c. use your own words. d. write as much as possible under each heading.

_____

5. One difference between outlining and mapping is that a. only outlining is used to show how ideas are related. b. mapping is less tightly structured. c. outlining includes different information. d. mapping is not a visual method of organization.

_____

6. The type of map that is used to show historical events in the order in which they occurred is called a. a process map. b. an overview. c. a time line. d. an organization chart.

15


_____

7. A summary of a paragraph should include a. all of the writer’s supporting details. b. a topic sentence stating the writer’s most important idea. c. ideas presented in a different order from the original material. d. the first and last sentence from the original material.

Directions: Read the following statements, then choose the answer that indicates the most important words to highlight in each statement. Write the letter of your choice in the space provided. _____

8. “Previewing is a fairly rapid technique; it should take only a minute or two to preview any reading selection in this book. In fact, previewing is so fast that you should not take time to highlight or make notes.” a. Previewing / rapid technique / should not / highlight or make notes b. Previewing / technique / minute or two / book / fast / highlight / make notes c. rapid technique / only a minute or two / in this book / In fact / so fast / take time d. Previewing is / rapid technique / should take / a minute or two / preview any reading selection in this book / previewing is so fast / you should not take time to highlight or make notes

_____

9. “Many words in the English language are made up of word parts called prefixes, roots, and suffixes. A prefix comes at the beginning of a word, and a suffix comes at the end of a word. The root—which contains a word’s basic meaning—forms the middle.” a. Many words / English language / made up / word parts called prefixes, roots, and suffixes. A prefix comes at / beginning of / word / a suffix comes at / end of / word / The root / which contains / word’s basic meaning / the middle b. words / English / made up / parts / prefix / beginning / suffix / end / root / middle c. Many words / English / parts called prefixes, roots, and suffixes / prefix / beginning / suffix / end / root / word’s basic meaning / middle d. English language / word parts / prefix / suffix / root

_____ 10. “The one general subject a whole paragraph is about is called the topic. The most important point a whole paragraph makes is called the main idea.” a. general subject / paragraph is about / topic / most important point / main idea b. The one / subject / whole paragraph / about / called the topic / The most important point / whole paragraph makes / called the main idea c. general subject / topic / important point / main idea d. The one general subject / a whole paragraph is about / called the topic / The most important point / a whole paragraph makes / called the main idea

16


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 9 RECOGNIZING THE BASIC PATTERNS OF ORGANIZATION Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. All of the following statements about patterns of organization are true except a. the example pattern is useful when explaining an unfamiliar subject. b. writers almost always use examples regardless of the overall pattern of organization. c. writers use the process pattern to explain how something is done or made. d. a piece of writing should only have one pattern of organization.

_____

2. When writers tell a story, they usually present events in a. chronological order. b. order of importance. c. alphabetical order. d. no particular order.

_____

3. The transition that indicates that an example will follow is a. another. b. in addition. c. for instance. d. also.

_____

4. In textbooks, definitions are often a. combined with examples. b. signaled by a term in boldfaced type. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

5. Textbook authors often use listing when the a. material must follow certain steps. b. material is related to time. c. material includes many definitions. d. order of the material is not important.

17


Directions: Read each of the following statements, then write the letter of the choice that best describes its pattern of organization in the space provided. _____

6. An ice-cap climate is a climate with extremely cold temperatures year-round. In regions with ice-cap climates, such as Antarctica and most of the Arctic, summer temperatures typically remain below freezing. a. chronological order b. definition and example c. process d. listing

_____

7. Our journey on the Appalachian Trail began on a sunny morning in early spring. After my mother delivered us to our starting point and we said our farewells, we began to hike. a. listing b. process c. chronological order d. definition

_____

8. The first step in marketing research involves defining the problem. Next, marketers must decide how they plan to collect information about the problem. Once they have decided on a research technique, they must gather the information and ensure its quality. Finally, they must interpret and apply the results. a. example b. listing c. process d. definition

_____

9. If you are interested in improving your vocabulary, three reference sources that can help you are a collegiate dictionary, a subject area dictionary, and a thesaurus. a. chronological order b. definition c. process d. listing

_____ 10. Because of the language barrier, many new immigrants are unable to get work in their former professions. For example, Rima was a schoolteacher in Lithuania, but in America she cleans houses. a. process b. definition c. listing d. example

18


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 10 RECOGNIZING COMPARISON/CONTRAST AND CAUSE/EFFECT PATTERNS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The organization pattern that writers use to explain how something is different from something else is a. comparison. b. contrast. c. process. d. cause/effect.

_____

2. The organization pattern indicated by the phrases due to and as a result is a. comparison. b. contrast. c. chronological order. d. cause/effect.

_____

3. All of the following words or phrases are used to show similarities except a. in common. b. in contrast. c. just as. d. likewise.

_____

4. A paragraph focusing on the differences between capitalism and communism would most likely be organized using a. comparison/contrast. b. comparison only. c. contrast only. d. cause/effect.

_____

5. In the statement, “In different parts of the world, El Niño has been linked to flooding, droughts, and reduced rainfall,” the cause is a. El Niño. b. flooding. c. droughts. d. reduced rainfall.

19


_____

6. In the statement, “Reasons for the low voter turnout among young adults include recent political scandals, lower-quality public education, and a sense of helplessness,� the effect is a. recent political scandals. b. lower-quality public education. c. a sense of helplessness. d. low voter turnout among young adults.

Directions: Read each of the following statements, then write the letter of the choice that best describes its pattern of organization in the space provided. _____

7. As a result of fast food diets and low-energy lifestyles, many American children are at risk of becoming obese. a. comparison b. contrast c. definition d. cause/effect

_____

8. One striking similarity between the state capitols in Georgia and Iowa is that the domes on both buildings are covered with gold. a. comparison b. contrast c. listing d. cause/effect

_____

9. Lewis and Clark began their historic journey from Missouri to the Pacific Ocean in the spring of 1804. By late fall, they had reached what is now North Dakota. a. process b. comparison/contrast c. cause/effect d. chronological order

_____ 10. In some cases, hearing loss is due to the frequent use of stereo headphones. a. chronological order b. comparison/contrast c. cause/effect d. listing

20


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 11 READING AND THINKING CRITICALLY Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. An educated guess or prediction about something unknown based on available facts and information is known as a. a connotation. b. a denotation. c. an inference. d. an opinion.

_____

2. The types of words that help reveal the writer’s attitude toward a subject are a. descriptive words. b. words that are very positive or negative. c. emotionally charged words. d. all of the above.

_____

3. The term tone refers to the a. characteristics that make a writer unique. b. attitude or feeling a writer expresses about a subject. c. writer’s reason or purpose for writing. d. evidence the writer uses to support the main idea.

_____

4. Of the following words, the one that has a positive connotation is a. cautious. b. timid. c. fearful. d. cowardly.

_____

5. Of the following words, the one that has a negative connotation is a. strong. b. beefy. c. athletic. d. mighty.

_____

6. The main difference between facts and opinions is that a. facts express the writer’s view about a topic. b. opinions are statements that can be verified. c. facts can be proven true or false. d. statements of opinion are objective.

21


Directions: Read each of the following sentences, then write the letter of the choice that best describes the writer’s tone in the space provided. _____

7. Always wear a helmet, knee and elbow pads, and wristguards when rollerblading. a. sympathetic b. instructive c. disapproving d. thankful

_____

8. Bob Dylan’s music continues to touch generations of new listeners more than 40 years after his career began. a. admiring b. critical c. humorous d. forceful

_____

9. The decision to replace the nature trails with a shopping center represents a giant leap backward for the citizens of this town. a. sympathetic b. instructive c. thankful d. critical

_____ 10. People with bipolar disorder typically experience alternating periods of depression and mania. a. informative b. sentimental c. persuasive d. sarcastic

22


AN SWER KEY TO CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZZES – TEST BANK 1

CHAPTER 1 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d d c a b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c c a a c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b c d a c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a b c d d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b d c d c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d b b a d

CHAPTER 2 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c b c b a

CHAPTER 3 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c c a b c

CHAPTER 4 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b a d d c

CHAPTER 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d a c b c

23


CHAPTER 6 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b d a b c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b b c b a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a b d d d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c b a c a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b c c d d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d d a d c

CHAPTER 7 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d c a b a

CHAPTER 8 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c d a c b

CHAPTER 9 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d a c c d

CHAPTER 10 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b d b c a

24


CHAPTER 11 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c d b a b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c b a d a

25


26


CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZZES TEST BANK 2

27


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 1 READING ACTIVELY Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. Of the following statements, the best one for building a positive attitude toward studying is a. “Maybe I’ll feel more like reading after I work out.” b. “There’s no way I can finish this assignment tonight.” c. “I know I can pass the test tomorrow.” d. “I can just see myself failing this assignment.”

_____

2. You can help yourself pay attention while reading by a. highlighting and taking notes. b. alternating your study activities. c. setting deadlines for yourself. d. doing all of the above.

_____

3. When previewing a textbook chapter, you should do all of the following except a. notice how the material is organized. b. take time to highlight and make notes. c. pay attention to typographical aids. d. find only the most important ideas in the material.

_____

4. The best way to deal with a difficult reading assignment is to a. reward yourself before beginning the assignment. b. experiment with different ways of completing it. c. try to complete it as quickly as possible. d. give up and work on another assignment instead.

_____

5. The most helpful guide questions are those that a. have one-word answers. b. begin with what, why, or how. c. are formed before previewing. d. can be answered with yes or no.

_____

6. The purpose of a chapter subtitle is to a. suggest additional perspectives on the subject. b. provide an overview of the subject. c. state the central thought of the section. d. summarize the reading.

29


_____

7. Creating a distractions list while studying helps you to a. assess the difficulty of an assignment. b. eliminate distracting thoughts. c. review important points. d. understand technical terms.

_____

8. Once you have formed guide questions, you should a. be able to answer them without reading the material. b. always write them down in the margin. c. highlight the answers as you read. d. move on to the next assignment.

_____

9. The most helpful guide question for an article titled “The End of the Cold War” would be a. When did the Cold War end? b. What countries were involved in the Cold War? c. Why did the Cold War end? d. When did the Cold War begin?

_____ 10. The least helpful guide question for a chapter titled “Erikson’s Psychosocial Stages” would be a. Who was Erikson? b. What are Erikson’s psychosocial stages? c. How many psychosocial stages did Erikson identify? d. How did Erikson identify these psychosocial stages?

30


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 2 USING YOUR DICTIONARY Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. In addition to the definition of a word, a dictionary entry usually provides information about the word’s a. pronunciation. b. etymology. c. parts of speech. d. all of the above.

_____

2. The pronunciation key in a dictionary is typically found a. inside the front cover. b. on the first page. c. on the last page. d. at the bottom of every or every other page.

_____

3. If a word has two accent marks, the one that is printed in a darker type indicates a. a heavier stress on that part of the word. b. no stress on that part of the word. c. a lighter stress on that part of the word. d. a different pronunciation for that part of the word.

_____

4. Restrictive meanings of words are definitions that a. give information about a word’s origin and development. b. apply only when the word is being used with respect to a specific topic or field of study. c. apply only when the word is being used as a noun. d. give information about the word’s synonyms.

_____

5. Of the following statements, the one that is an example of an idiom is a. The cake was beautiful but it tasted like chalk. b. Alice took the largest piece of cake at the reception. c. After a semester of difficult assignments, the final exam was a piece of cake. d. The bottom of the bird’s nest was caked with mud.

31


Directions: Using a dictionary, write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

6. A synonym for the word frangible is a. container. b. breakable. c. ready. d. copy.

_____

7. The etymology of the word syndrome is a. French. b. Latin. c. Greek. d. Middle English.

_____

8. The restrictive meaning of the word transcribe in computer science is a. to make a full written copy of. b. to transfer from one recording and storing system to another. c. to record for broadcast at a later date. d. to represent by phonetic symbols.

_____

9. The correct pronunciation of the word inchoate is a. IN chote. b. in CHOTE. c. in KO it. d. in ko ATE.

_____ 10. In parts of speech, the word coadunate is a. a noun. b. a verb. c. an adjective. d. an adverb.

32


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 3 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING CONTEXT CLUES Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The phrase “but� often indicates the type of concept clue known as a. definition. b. contrast. c. example. d. inference.

_____

2. The words around an unfamiliar word in a sentence are called a. context. b. inferences. c. synonyms. d. transitions.

_____

3. An antonym is a word that a. has the same meaning as another word. b. sounds the same as another word. c. has the opposite meaning of another word. d. is formed using the first letters of a series of words.

_____

4. The best synonym for the word ample is a. plenty. b. middle. c. limited. d. narrow.

_____

5. The best antonym for the word verify is a. believe. b. copy. c. deny. d. witness.

33


Directions: For each of the following sentences, write the letter of the choice that best defines the boldfaced word in the space provided. _____

6. There was enough debris from the construction site to fill three dump trucks. a. supplies b. rubble c. equipment d. tools

_____

7. I always scrutinize my bank statement to make sure there are no mistakes on it. a. examine carefully b. ignore c. put away d. understand

_____

8. Her excuse for being late was plausible, but still no one believed her. a. funny b. believable c. untrue d. imaginative

_____

9. My son emulates his favorite baseball player in several ways: he holds his bat the same way, he wears the same number on his jersey, and he chews pink bubble gum on the baseball field. a. describes b. imitates c. annoys d. avoids

_____ 10. Milo wanted to sit in his favorite chair, but the cat had already ensconced herself there. a. settled b. covered c. played d. departed

34


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 4 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING WORD PARTS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The part of a word that contains its basic meaning is known as the a. context. b. prefix. c. suffix. d. root.

_____

2. The prefix in the word reformation is a. re. b. reform. c. form. d. formation.

_____

3. The suffix in the word indispensable is a. in. b. dis. c. dispense. d. able.

_____

4. The word dishonorable has a a. root only. b. prefix and a root. c. prefix, a root, and a suffix. d. root and a suffix.

_____

5. The word childhood has a a. root only. b. prefix and a root. c. prefix, a root, and a suffix. d. root and a suffix.

35


Directions: Each of the following words contains a root with a prefix and/or a suffix. Using your knowledge of word parts, choose the best definition for each word and write the letter of the choice in the space provided. _____

6. Indescribable a. able to be written b. not able to be described c. able to be sensed d. not able to be heard

_____

7. Abiotic a. without life b. giving life c. unknown d. unseen

_____

8. Hypersensitive a. not at all sensitive b. wrongly sensitive c. overly sensitive d. opposite of sensitive

_____

9. Biennial a. lasting one year b. lasting two years c. lasting three years d. lasting ten years

_____ 10. Periotic a. in the ear b. around the ear c. on the ear d. not in the ear

36


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 5 LOCATING MAIN IDEAS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The most important point a paragraph makes is called the a. main idea. b. topic. c. subject. d. conclusion.

_____

2. The best way to find the topic of a paragraph is to a. ask yourself what the author is discussing throughout the paragraph. b. look for the repeated use of a word. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

3. All of the following statements about topic sentences are true except a. The topic sentence is the most general sentence in the paragraph. b. The topic sentence always comes first. c. The topic sentence must be broad enough to include all the other ideas in the paragraph. d. Writers may put the topic sentence at the beginning and the end of a paragraph to emphasize the main point.

_____

4. Writers use transitions in a paragraph to a. explain the main idea. b. clarify details. c. identify the topic. d. connect sentences.

_____

5. The most general term in the following list of words is a. tuna. b. trout. c. salmon. d. fish.

_____

6. The most general term in the following list of words is a. multiple-choice. b. true/false. c. test questions. d. fill-in-the-blank. 37


_____

7. The most general term in the following list of words is a. trees. b. elms. c. maples. d. willows.

_____

8. Of the following statements, the most general one is a. Set aside time to review material that will be tested. b. Preparing for an exam involves several steps. c. Find out what kind of exam you will be taking. d. Go over old quizzes and exams as part of your review.

_____

9. Of the following statements, the most general one is a. Lavender can be helpful in getting rid of a headache. b. Used externally, oregano is a remedy for itchy skin. c. Various herbs can be used as natural remedies. d. Rosemary is considered useful for treating an upset stomach.

_____ 10. Of the following statements, the most general one is a. Community service is an alternative to jail time. b. Instead of imprisonment, first-time offenders may receive alternative sentences. c. Some offenders are sentenced to boot camps. d. Offenders may be sentenced to probation with supervision.

38


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 6 IDENTIFYING SUPPORTING DETAILS AND TRANSITIONS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. Supporting details that directly explain the main idea of a paragraph are called a. key details. b. minor details. c. personal details. d. factual details.

_____

2. Transitions are used in a paragraph to a. alert you to what will come next. b. tell you that an example will follow. c. predict that an opposing idea is coming. d. do all of the above.

_____

3. The type of transition indicated by the phrase “on the other hand” is called a. time-sequence. b. cause-effect. c. contrast. d. enumeration.

_____

4. All of the following transitions indicate that an example will follow except a. for instance. b. to illustrate. c. in addition. d. such as.

_____

5. A paragraph has this topic sentence: “The National Security Council (NSC) is an essential part of the president’s policymaking team.” All of the following details would support this topic sentence except a. In addition to the president and vice president, the NSC consists of the secretary of state and the secretary of defense, as well as other informal members. b. The first lady has no official position in the government. c. The NSC coordinates the president’s military and foreign policy advisors. d. The NSC is located in the Executive Office Building next to the White House.

39


Directions: Select the transitional word or phrase that best fits in the blank in each sentence, and write the letter of the choice in the space provided. _____

6. In order to memorize the names of the Great Lakes, you can use an acronym. __________, take the initial letter of the name of each lake. a. First b. Also c. Like d. Thus

_____

7. Only juniors and seniors are allowed to have cars on campus; __________ many freshmen and sophomores rely on bicycles to get around. a. however b. for example c. therefore d. in addition

_____

8. Many people support the idea of bilingual education, especially in schools with large populations that do not speak English. __________, others argue that English should be the only language spoken by students and teachers in American schools. a. Also b. To illustrate c. Next d. However

_____

9. Near the beginning of his speech, the candidate mentioned his humble background. __________, he brought it up again, apparently hoping to win over voters. a. For instance b. Later c. On the other hand d. Since

_____ 10. The fundraising event featured lunch and a guest speaker. __________, several door prizes were awarded at the end of the event. a. Another b. However c. In addition d. Consequently

40


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 7 UNDERSTANDING IMPLIED MAIN IDEAS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. In order to find an implied main idea in a paragraph, the first question you should ask yourself is a. What is the one thing the writer is discussing throughout the paragraph? b. What do I know about the subject? c. What kind of supporting details does the writer use? d. Is there a topic sentence?

_____

2. In comparison to main ideas, supporting details typically are more a. general. b. important. c. specific. d. obvious.

_____

3. Expressing the implied main idea of a paragraph in your own words helps you to a. decide what larger idea is being explained. b. decide whether the information is presented accurately. c. determine the topic of the next paragraph. d. determine whether the transitions are used correctly.

_____

4. For the specific ideas “be confident, visualize success, set long-term goals, spend time reading,” the general idea that best applies is a. ways to study. b. ways to improve your attitude. c. ways to finish an assignment. d. ways to become a successful college student.

_____

5. For the specific terms “relaxing, traveling, reading books, going to movies, getting together with friends,” the general idea that best applies is a. ways to spend your vacation. b. ways to meet new people. c. ways to spend an evening. d. ways to learn about other places.

41


Directions: For each of the following statements, write the letter of the choice that best explains what the writer is implying in the space provided. _____

6. During the slide show, Charlotte could barely keep her eyes open. a. The slide show was scary. b. The room was too bright. c. The slide show was boring. d. Charlotte’s eyes were dry.

_____

7. Stephan wanted to help during the blood drive but he turned green at the sight of blood. a. Stephan was too busy to help. b. Seeing blood made Stephan want to donate money. c. Stephan was in too much of a hurry to help. d. Seeing blood made Stephan feel sick.

_____

8. People left the movie theater quietly, some wiping their eyes and others blowing their noses. a. The movie had been cancelled. b. The movie was sad. c. There was a problem with the air conditioning in the theater. d. Many people had colds.

_____

9. Dining out with a toddler is like bringing a monkey to a restaurant. a. It is entertaining. b. It is expensive. c. It is fun. d. It is difficult to manage.

_____ 10. During the first week of camp, Rosa wrote letters home every day and cried herself to sleep every night. a. Rosa was happy at camp. b. Rosa was homesick. c. The camp was for writers. d. Rosa was scared.

42


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 8 KEEPING TRACK OF INFORMATION Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. In general, you should highlight about a. 5 percent of the material. b. 20 to 30 percent of the material. c. 50 to 60 percent of the material. d. 75 percent of the material.

_____

2. The best methods for keeping track of confusing words or passages are a. highlighting and rereading. b. marking and annotating. c. outlining and reviewing. d. summarizing and reviewing.

_____

3. When you use outlining to keep track of what you have read, you should a. list major and minor ideas and show how they are related. b. follow the writer’s organization. c. indent the least important ideas the most. d. do all of the above.

_____

4. The information you place under each heading in an outline should always a. explain or support the heading. b. use the writer’s exact words. c. be written in complete sentences. d. follow the outline format exactly.

_____

5. When you draw diagrams to show how ideas in a paragraph or chapter are related, you are using the method called a. outlining. b. marking. c. mapping. d. processing.

_____

6. A process map is used to show a. historical events in the order in which they occurred. b. the steps involved in doing something. c. ideas in order of importance. d. examples for difficult ideas or concepts.

43


_____

7. In comparison to an outline, a summary usually a. is much shorter. b. is much longer. c. focuses on supporting details. d. does not follow the same order as the original material.

Directions: Read the following statements, then choose the answer that indicates the most important words to highlight in each statement. Write the letter of your choice in the space provided. _____

8. “In the United States, and in many other countries as well, thousands of parents have decided to home-school their children as an alternative to public education.” a. In / United States / in / other countries as well / thousands of parents / decided to home-school / children / an alternative to public education b. United States / other countries / thousands / home-school / alternative to public education c. United States / many other countries / thousands of parents / decided to homeschool / an alternative to / education d. In the United States / in many other countries / thousands of parents / decided to home-school / children / alternative / public education

_____

9. “The writer Isaac Bashevis Singer was born in Poland in 1904, and came to America in 1935. Most of his stories were originally written in Yiddish and reflected Jewish culture and folklore. Singer won the Nobel Prize for literature in 1978.” a. Isaac Bashevis Singer / born in Poland / 1904 / America / 1935 / stories / in Yiddish / Jewish culture and folklore / Nobel Prize for literature in 1978 b. writer Isaac Bashevis Singer / born in Poland / came to America / Most of his stories / written in Yiddish / reflected Jewish culture and folklore / Nobel Prize for literature c. writer Isaac Bashevis Singer was born / 1904 / came to America / 1935 / Most of his stories / originally written in Yiddish / reflected Jewish culture and folklore / Singer won the Nobel Prize for literature / 1978 d. Isaac Bashevis Singer / Poland / 1904 / America / 1935 / Nobel Prize / 1978

_____ 10. “Only two American presidents have actually been impeached: Andrew Johnson in 1868 and Bill Clinton in 1998. Both presidents were acquitted after a Senate trial.” a. American presidents / impeached / Andrew Johnson / Bill Clinton / acquitted b. American presidents / impeached / Andrew Johnson / 1868 / Bill Clinton / 1998 / acquitted / Senate trial c. impeached / Andrew Johnson / 1868 / Bill Clinton / 1998 / acquitted / Senate d. Only / impeached / Johnson in 1868 / Clinton in 1998 / Senate trial

44


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 9 RECOGNIZING THE BASIC PATTERNS OF ORGANIZATION Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. When you read a passage using the definition pattern of organization, you should ask yourself a. What is being defined? b. What makes it different from other items or ideas? c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

2. All of the following transitions indicate the chronological order pattern except a. first. b. such as. c. finally. d. next.

_____

3. The pattern that writers use when a particular order of events or items is not important is a. process. b. listing. c. chronological order. d. time sequence.

_____

4. Writers use the process pattern to explain a. how something is done or made. b. what an unfamiliar subject means. c. how one item causes another. d. when a sequence of events occurred.

_____

5. The transition for instance signals the reader that a. a definition will follow. b. an example will follow. c. the writer’s personal opinion will follow. d. a question will follow.

45


Directions: Read each of the following statements, then write the letter of the choice that best describes its pattern of organization in the space provided. _____

6. Three of the best-known composers of baroque music are Johann Sebastian Bach, George Frederick Handel, and Georg Philipp Telemann. a. chronological order b. process c. definition d. listing

_____

7. Dissolve yeast in warm water in a large bowl. Beat in dry milk, oil, salt, molasses, and eggs. Add flour and beat until a soft dough is formed, then knead until the dough is smooth. Let the dough rise. a. example b. process c. definition d. listing

_____

8. In late 1778, the British took Savannah, Georgia. During the next year, most of the other settled areas of Georgia fell, followed by the surrender of Charleston in 1780. a. chronological order b. definition c. listing d. process

_____

9. Metamorphosis is the process animals go through when they change from one developmental stage to the next. For example, caterpillars transform into butterflies during their particular metamorphosis. a. listing b. process c. definition and example d. chronological order

_____ 10. Well before European explorers arrived, several groups of Native Americans were already established throughout North America. Among them were the Iroquois in the Northeast, the Navajo, Apache, and Anasazi in the Southwest, and the Inuit and Aleuts in the Far North. a. process b. listing c. definition d. chronological order

46


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 10 RECOGNIZING COMPARISON/CONTRAST AND CAUSE/EFFECT PATTERNS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The best organization pattern for a writer who is concerned only with similarities is a. comparison. b. contrast. c. cause/effect. d. chronological order.

_____

2. A phrase that indicates the contrast organization pattern is a. in common. b. on the other hand. c. just as. d. likewise.

_____

3. Writers use the cause/effect pattern to explain a. how an event or action is similar to another event or action. b. how an event or action is different from another event or action. c. why an event or action causes another event or action. d. what characteristics of an event or action are most important.

_____

4. An article on the similarities and differences between Egyptian and Mayan pyramids would most likely be organized using a. comparison. b. contrast. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

5. In the statement, “Overcrowded classrooms lead to behavior problems among students, burnout among teachers, and an environment that does not promote learning,� the cause is a. overcrowded classrooms. b. behavior problems among students. c. burnout among teachers. d. an environment that does not promote learning.

47


_____

6. In the statement, “Low visibility, slick roads, and the large volume of commuters leaving the city resulted in a record number of traffic accidents on Friday,� the effect is a. low visibility. b. slick roads. c. the large volume of commuters leaving the city. d. a record number of traffic accidents.

Directions: Read each of the following statements, then write the letter of the choice that best describes its pattern of organization in the space provided. _____

7. Like his grandfather, Jake loves the game of baseball. However, the two differ when it comes to their favorite teams: Jake is a lifelong Braves fan and his grandfather remains loyal to the Cubs. a. cause/effect b. chronological order c. comparison/contrast d. process

_____

8. As a result of the mall construction project, a family of raccoons was left homeless before taking up residence in an old tool shed. a. chronological order b. comparison c. contrast d. cause/effect

_____

9. In contrast to the first Harry Potter book, the fourth book in the series is much darker and more disturbing in its themes. a. cause/effect b. comparison c. contrast d. process

_____ 10. After you have purchased the lumber for your patio table, the next step is to construct the base of the table by cutting four legs. a. cause/effect b. process c. comparison/contrast d. chronological order

48


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 11 READING AND THINKING CRITICALLY Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. Readers make inferences based on a. what the writer says directly. b. what the writer suggests or implies. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

2. Before you make an inference, you should be sure you a. understand the literal meaning of the material. b. agree with the writer’s attitude toward the subject. c. have your own opinion about the subject. d. have additional information about the subject.

_____

3. The kinds of details that will help you make an inference are a. descriptions. b. actions. c. conversations. d. all of the above.

_____

4. The main difference between facts and opinions is that opinions a. can be verified. b. contain objective information. c. are one person’s view about a topic. d. must be accepted by the reader.

_____

5. The characteristics that make a writer unique are known as the writer’s a. style. b. tone. c. bias. d. purpose.

49


_____

6. Of the following words, the one that has a positive connotation is a. strange. b. peculiar. c. quaint. d. odd.

_____

7. Of the following words, the one that has a negative connotation is a. youthful. b. immature. c. childlike. d. young.

Directions: Read each of the following sentences, then write the letter of the choice that best describes the writer’s tone in the space provided. _____

8. The main purpose of a process diagram is to show how something happens. a. persuasive b. informative c. sympathetic d. forceful

_____

9. The deep blue sky, the emerald green grass, and the smell of fresh-popped popcorn brought back memories of a happy time. a. informative b. humorous c. nostalgic d. instructive

_____ 10. To ease traffic congestion, more people should use the city’s rapid transit system and leave their cars at home. a. sympathetic b. thankful c. persuasive d. humorous

50


AN SWER KEY TO CHAPTER REVIEW QUIZZES – TEST BANK 2

CHAPTER 1 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c d b b b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a b c c c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b c b c c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b a b b a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b a b b b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d a b c b

CHAPTER 2 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d d a b c

CHAPTER 3 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b a c a c

CHAPTER 4 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d a d c d

CHAPTER 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a c b d c

51


CHAPTER 6 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a d c c b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a c d b c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c d b d b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b a b a b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d b a c b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d c d c b

CHAPTER 7 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a c a d a

CHAPTER 8 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b b d a c

CHAPTER 9 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c b b a b

CHAPTER 10 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a b c c a

52


CHAPTER 11 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c a d c a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c a b c c

53


PART TWO MASTERY TESTS TEST BANK 1

55


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 1 READING ACTIVELY TECHNOLOGY: THE GUTS OF THE DIGITAL MARKETPLACE While it’s certainly not necessary to fully understand the technology underlying the Internet to develop successful electronic marketing strategies, some basic knowledge

1

will serve you well. Digitization of Information. It seems that everything in our world has gone digital: cameras, cell phones, DVD players, and so on. In the simplest terms, digitization means that information is stored as a series of zeroes and ones. Thus we have digital photos, digital texts and digital music. In each case the image, the word, or the sound

2

has been transformed into lots of zeroes and ones, each referred to as a bit. When these digital codes are sent to a receiver, they can be converted back to their original form without losing any of the content—so we can enjoy crystal clear photos and recordings that sound just like the live version. Miniaturization of Chips. One major factor in the growth of the Internet is the continued miniaturization of computer chips, making it cheaper to store and use bits. In fact, for the last 30 years or so, the rate of miniaturization has been about 30% every 18

3

months. This means that firms have been able to introduce chips that are four times as powerful about every three years. The Value of Computer Networks. A computer network is a group of computers that are linked together. The Internet is made up of many different networks that allow millions of computers to communicate with each other. As the size of the network grows, its value increases exponentially. Think of it this way: If you had a telephone system that would allow you to reach only one friend, it would be of some value to you. But if you have a system that can reach ten friends, the value increases. What if the system allows thousands or millions of people to communicate? As the number of computers connected to the Internet continues to increase worldwide, its value to all of us grows. The more the merrier. 57

4


Bandwidth and the Internet. This refers to the speed with which digital content can be delivered across a network. One limit to transmission on the Internet is the bandwidth constraint. Most of us have access to the Internet through a telephone modem. Conventional telephone lines have limited capacity, which means that our

5

message is delayed in getting onto the Internet—especially when sending large files containing visuals or sound as well as text. Companies are scrambling to find ways to develop and offer new digital technologies that dramatically increase bandwidth. Marketing.com: The Brave New World of E-Commerce, Solomon and Stuart, p. 9

Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. describe the history of the Internet. b. provide basic knowledge about Internet technology. c. propose new ways to use the Internet. d. explain why people use the Internet.

_____

2. Digitization refers to the a. storing of information as a series of zeroes and ones. b. increasing value of Internet marketing. c. introduction of smaller, more powerful computer chips d. use of recordings that sound just like the live version.

_____

3. The miniaturization of computer chips has helped the Internet grow by a. eliminating the need for computer networks. b. increasing the capacity of telephone lines. c. making it cheaper to store and use bits. d. converting digital codes to their original form.

_____

4. The rate of miniaturization has been about a. 18% every 30 days. b. 18% every 30 months. c. 30% every 18 days. d. 30% every 18 months.

_____

5. The speed with which digital content can be delivered across a network is called a. modem. b. transmission. c. bandwidth. d. messaging. 58


USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT READING ACTIVELY _____

6. All of the following previewing aids are found in the selection except a. boldfaced type. b. underlining. c. italics. d. marginal notes.

_____

7. The title suggests that the selection’s general topic will be the a. products that are bought and sold in the digital marketplace. b. people who worked on creating the Internet. c. technology that forms the “guts” or internal workings of the Internet. d. growth of the Internet as a world marketplace.

_____

8. The most useful guide question for the heading “Digitization of Information” is a. How is information digitized? b. Who uses digitization? c. When did digitization come about? d. Is digitization used in music and photography?

_____

9. Each of the following guide questions would be useful for the heading “The Value of Computer Networks” except a. What are computer networks? b. How do computer networks work? c. How many computer networks are there? d. Why are computer networks valuable?

_____ 10. In paragraph 5, the word constraint means a. group. b. network. c. limit or restriction. d. message.

59


60


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 2 USING YOUR DICTIONARY FIREFLIES Male fireflies do most of the flashing. When a female sees flashes of light from a male of her species, she reacts with flashes of her own. If the male sees her flashes, he automatically gives another display and flies in the female’s direction. Members of both sexes are responding to particular patterns of light flashes characteristic of their species. Mating occurs when the female’s display leads a male to her, and most females

1

stop flashing after they mate. But in a few species, a mated female will continue to flash, using a pattern that attracts males of other firefly species. A veritable femme fatale, she waits until an alien male gets close, then grabs and eats him. Each of the 2000 or so species of firefly has its own way to signal a mate. Some flash more often than others or during different hours, while other species give fewer but longer flashes. Many species emit light of a characteristic color: yellow, bluish-

2

green, or reddish. In areas where fireflies congregate—often on lawns, golf courses, or open meadows—you can usually see several different species signaling. Because the insects respond instinctively to specific flash patterns, you can even attract males to artificial light if you flash it a certain way. From a biological standpoint, fireflies are poorly named. They are beetles, not flies, and their light is almost cold, not fiery. In fact, in emitting light, they give off only about one hundred-thousandth of the amount of heat that would be produced by a

3

candle flame of equal brightness. What happens in a firefly that makes this light? The light comes from a set of chemical reactions that occur in light-producing organs at the rear of the insect. Lightemitting cells in these organs contain luciferin and luciferase (both named from the

4

Latin for “light bearer”). In the presence of oxygen and chemical energy, luciferase catalyzes the conversion of luciferin to a molecule that emits light. Biology: Concepts and Connections, Campbell, Mitchell, Reece, pp. 70-71

61


Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. describe the different species of fireflies. b. discuss the mating habits of insects. c. compare the chemical reactions of different insects. d. explain how and why fireflies produce light.

_____

2. The reason fireflies flash light is to signal that they a. are hungry. b. are looking for a mate. c. have found a source of food. d. are being attacked by another species.

_____

3. The Latin root for the words luciferin and luciferase means a. “light bearer.” b. “lightning flash.” c. “candle flame.” d. “energy.”

_____

4. In some species, a mated female firefly will continue to flash in order to a. announce that she has found a mate. b. attract an alien male so she can eat him. c. indicate her location to her mate. d. warn other females away from her mate.

_____

5. According to the selection, fireflies are poorly named because a. they are beetles, not flies. b. their light is cold rather than fiery. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT DICTIONARIES _____

6. In parts of speech, the word display is used in paragraph 1 as a. a noun. b. an adjective. c. an adverb. d. a verb.

62


_____

7. The word veritable (paragraph 1) is divided correctly into syllables as a. ve / rit / a / ble. b. ver / i / ta / ble. c. ver / it / a / ble. d. ver / it / able.

_____

8. The etymology of the phrase femme fatale (paragraph 1) is a. Spanish. b. German. c. French. d. Italian.

_____

9. The best synonym for the word congregate (paragraph 2) is a. prevent. b. reproduce. c. work. d. gather.

_____ 10. The word in the selection that means “to bring about a chemical reaction� is a. patterns. b. species. c. catalyzes. d. emits.

63


64


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 3 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING CONTEXT CLUES THE GOOD MOTHER LIZARD Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. vegetated (paragraph 1) covered with plant life subtropical (paragraph 1) relating to the geographic areas near the Tropics; hot and humid in climate paleontologist (paragraph 2) a person who studies the life of past geologic periods as represented by fossils silt (paragraph 2) very fine particles of soil and sediment prey (paragraph 4) an animal hunted or caught for food carnivorous (paragraph 4) meat-eating Some 80 million years ago, the North American continent was split in half by a shallow inland sea, now called the Western Interior Seaway. West of the seaway, land that is now part of eastern Montana and the Dakotas rose gently toward the newly formed Rocky Mountains, creating a coastal plain some 400 kilometers wide. Today,

1

this region is arid and sparsely vegetated, with hot summers and cold winters. Eight million years ago, it was densely vegetated and subtropical—a dinosaur’s paradise, with warm rivers meandering down from the Rockies, carrying silt to seaside deltas. In the late 1970s, paleontologist Jack Horner and his colleagues at the Museum of the Rockies in Bozeman, Montana, made some startling discoveries on the dry plains east of the Rocky Mountains in Montana and Alberta. Near the small town of Choteau, Montana, they began unearthing entire dinosaur nesting grounds, with many large mud nests and fossil skeletons of duck-billed dinosaurs, also called hadrosaurs (Greek for “stout lizards”). Apparently, a large number of hadrosaurs had nested near a river, and 65

2


a flash flood devastated the area, covering everything with silt. The researchers named the species of hadrosaur Maiasaura peeblesorum, from the Greek maia for “good mother,” sauros for “lizard,” and peeblesorum for “of Peebles,” the owners of the land where the fossils were found. The “good mother lizard” was about 7 meters long, and its nests were about 2 meters wide and 1 meter deep. Maiasaura peeblesorum had a whole new story to tell about dinosaurs. Until its nesting grounds were unearthed, dinosaur eggs and nests were almost unheard of. A few had been found in the 1920s in the Gobi Desert in East Asia, but North America seemed to lack them altogether. Earlier prevailing opinion held that all dinosaurs, like many reptiles of today, laid their eggs, covered them with sand, and then promptly abandoned them. But some of the Maiasaura nests contained fossilized skeletons of well-developed young up to three months old, indicating that Maiasaura apparently

3

remained with its nest for at least this much time. Some of the nests also contained small bits of fossilized eggshells, another indication of parental care. Today, the nests of some birds that nurture their young contain similar shell fragments; the developing young pulverize the shell fragments as they move around in the nest. In contrast, we see much larger shell fragments in the nests of birds, such as ducks, whose hatchlings leave the nest almost immediately. Fossil finds like the Maiasaura nests have generated a lively debate about dinosaurs. Why were some groups, such as the hadrosaurs, so numerous and successful for millions of years? Was it because they lived in large groups and cared for their young? Hadrosaurs were prey to many carnivorous dinosaurs. Neither the young nor the adults were armored, and the structure of their skeleton indicates that they were not fast

4

runners. Adults and active young could seek safety in the water when attacked, and their island nesting sites undoubtedly afforded some protection. But, perhaps more often, a herd or large nesting group of adults discouraged predators by swinging their heavy tails and stamping their feet. This group behavior, coupled with parental feeding and care of the young, may have been key to their success. Biology: Concepts and Connections, Campbell, Mitchell, Reece, pp. 295-296

66


Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The main idea of this selection is that a. North America was split in half by an inland sea 80 million years ago. b. the dry plains of Montana used to be a subtropical paradise. c. the discovery of hadrosaur fossils has revealed a great deal about dinosaurs. d. the Rocky Mountains were formed more than 80 million years ago.

_____

2. The small town of Choteau, Montana, is where the a. Museum of the Rockies is located. b. dinosaur nesting grounds were found. c. paleontologist Jack Horner is from. d. Gobi Desert is located.

_____

3. The part of the hadrosaur’s name that means “good mother” is a. maia. b. sauros. c. peebles. d. sorum.

_____

4. An important part of the discovery of the hadrosaur fossils was the indication that a. all dinosaurs abandoned their eggs immediately after laying them. b. hadrosaurs built their nests in riverbeds. c. all dinosaurs were meat-eaters. d. the Maiasaura stayed with and cared for its young for at least three months.

_____

5. According to the selection, hadrosaurs may have been more successful than other dinosaur groups because of their a. thick armor. b. ability to run fast. c. group behavior in discouraging predators and caring for their young. d. aggressive attacks on other types of dinosaurs that threatened them.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT CONTEXT _____

6. The word arid (paragraph 1) means a. humid. b. dry. c. dangerous. d. cold.

67


_____

7. The word sparsely (paragraph 1) means a. directly. b. thickly. c. permanently. d. scarcely.

_____

8. The word meandering (paragraph 1) means a. winding. b. finding. c. affecting. d. freezing.

_____

9. The word unearthing (paragraph 2) means a. burying. b. destroying. c. digging up. d. marking.

_____ 10. The word devastated (paragraph 2) means a. replaced. b. searched. c. developed. d. destroyed. _____ 11. The word prevailing (paragraph 3) means a. coming after. b. most common. c. least well-known. d. out-of-date. _____ 12. The word pulverize (paragraph 3) means a. preserve. b. crush. c. punish. d. carry. _____ 13. The best synonym for the word predators (paragraph 4) is a. hunters. b. researchers. c. victims. d. friends. _____ 14. The best antonym for the word nurture (paragraph 3) is a. care. b. raise. c. neglect. d. feed. 68


REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 15. Veronica decided to become a _______________ after spending the summer studying fossils from the Ice Age. 16. After the flooding, there was a layer of _______________ covering everything. 17. A shark’s powerful sense of smell allows it to detect _______________ such as seals or other fish swimming nearby. 18. One example of a _______________ plant is the Venus flytrap, which gets its nutrients from trapping and digesting insects. 19. Parts of the island were so thickly _______________ that we had to hack our way through with a machete. 20. They were happy to leave the snow and ice of the Midwest behind as they headed for the _______________ climate of southern Florida.

69


70


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 4 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING WORD PARTS ART IN THE HIGH RENAISSANCE Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. patrons (paragraph 1) wealthy or influential supporters of something, such as the arts pagan (paragraph 1) not Christian, Moslem, or Jewish; professing no religion mythological (paragraph 1) relating to traditional stories dealing with supernatural beings or heroes; legendary or mythical secular (paragraph 1) not specifically relating to religion or to a religious body composition (paragraph 3) the arrangement of parts to form a whole artistic work By the time of the High Renaissance in Italy, when painting, sculpture, and architecture all reached a peak of perfection, the center of artistic activity had shifted from Florence to Rome. The popes were lavish patrons, and the greatest artists of the period worked in the Vatican at one time or another. It did not seem inconsistent to

1

popes and artists to include representations of pagan mythological figures in the decorations of the papal palace, and so the Vatican became filled with secular as well as religious art. The great triad of High Renaissance painters consists of Leonardo da Vinci, Raphael, and Michelangelo. In addition to painting, Leonardo da Vinci (1452-1519) was brilliant in a variety of fields, including engineering, mathematics, architecture, physiology, sculpture, music, and poetry. Unfortunately, because he loved the process of experimentation more than seeing all his projects through to completion, few of the projects he started were ever finished. One of Leonardo’s most famous paintings is La Gioconda, known as the Mona Lisa, a portrait of a woman whose enigmatic smile captures an air of tenderness and humility. 71

2


The second of the great triad of High Renaissance painters was Raphael (14831520). By the time he was summoned to Rome in 1508 to aid in the decoration of the Vatican, Raphael had absorbed the styles of Leonardo and Michelangelo. Raphael possessed neither Leonardo’s intellectuality nor Michelangelo’s power, but his work

3

has an appealing serenity, particularly evident in his lovely portraits of Mary, the mother of Jesus. His painting, Madonna of the Chair, is just one example of his mastery of perfect design and balanced composition. The individualism and idealism of the High Renaissance have no greater representative than Michelangelo Buonarroti (1475-1564). Stories of this stormy and temperamental personality have helped shape our definition of a genius. Indeed, there is something almost superhuman about Michelangelo and his art. His great energy 4 enabled him to paint in four years the entire ceiling of the Vatican’s Sistine Chapel, an area of several thousand square yards. Although Michelangelo considered himself first and foremost a sculptor, he also excelled as poet, engineer, and architect. Civilization Past and Present, Brummett et al, pp. 366-369

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. explain why most artistic activity in the High Renaissance took place in Italy. b. describe the paintings that decorate the Vatican. c. compare the art of the Renaissance to art from other periods. d. discuss three major artists of the High Renaissance.

_____

2. According to the selection, the Vatican contains a. religious artwork only. b. secular artwork only. c. both religious and secular artwork. d. neither religious nor secular artwork.

Directions: Match each work of art in Column B with the artist who created it in Column A. Write the letter of the choice in the space provided.

_____

Column A

Column B

3. Leonardo da Vinci

a. the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel 72


_____

4. Raphael

b. La Gioconda, or the Mona Lisa

_____

5. Michelangelo

c. Madonna of the Chair

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT WORD PARTS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

6. The word lavish (paragraph 1) means a. cheap. b. extravagant. c. careless. d. cruel.

_____

7. The word inconsistent (paragraph 1) means a. practical. b. attractive. c. not in agreement. d. predictable.

_____

8. The word triad (paragraph 2) means a. single. b. a pair. c. a group of three. d. a group of four.

_____

9. The word physiology (paragraph 2) refers to the study of a. the earth. b. the functions of living organisms. c. sound. d. stars.

_____ 10. The word enigmatic (paragraph 2) means a. difficult. b. ashamed. c. frightened. d. mysterious. _____ 11. The word humility (paragraph 2) means a. one who is humble. b. the state or condition of being humble. c. one who is not humble. d. one who humiliates another.

73


_____ 12. The word intellectuality (paragraph 3) means a. the condition or quality of intelligence. b. one who is intelligent. c. one who is unable to communicate. d. the condition of communicating. _____ 13. The word temperamental (paragraph 4) means a. moody. b. easygoing. c. cold-natured. d. practical. _____ 14. The word superhuman (paragraph 4) means a. ordinary or typical. b. beneath ordinary human ability. c. above or beyond ordinary human ability. d. looking back at human ability over the ages. _____ 15. The word excelled (paragraph 4) means a. performed at superior levels. b. competed. c. allowed. d. failed. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 16. As part of the class unit on _______________ figures, the students wrote about their heroes. 17. Although the wedding took place in a chapel, most of the music was _______________. 18. The new center for performing arts was named after Simon and Sophie Abercrombie, who were _______________ of the opera. 19. Before we began painting our self-portraits, the instructor discussed _______________. 20. The walls of the cave were covered with drawings and _______________ symbols.

74


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 5 LOCATING MAIN IDEAS THE VILLAGE OF LAHIC Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. gorges (paragraph 2) deep, narrow passages with steep, rocky sides artisanship (paragraph 3) referring to the ability of a craftsperson; craftsmanship bazaars (paragraph 4) markets consisting of a street lined with shops and stalls selling a variety of articles The village of Lahic is one of the world’s most extraordinary examples of an isolated community that has created and maintained a distinctive local culture. Lahic is a village of some 2,000 people, perched high on a ragged cliff surrounded by the towering Caucasus Mountains in the Republic of Azerbaijan. Nobody knows when this

1

village was first settled or who the first settlers were, but the unique local language provides a clue. It is a form of Persian (Iranian) that died out in Iran hundreds of years ago. Perhaps some ancient Iranian emperor sent settlers to Lahic to defend the empire’s borders against the peoples to the north. Still today Lahic is connected to the outside world by only a rugged dirt path that winds its way around precipitous gorges and is closed by rain and snow much of the year. Wires from Baku, the capital of Azerbaijan some 80 miles away, brought

2

electricity and telephone service to the village in the 1980s, but services are provided only a few hours a week. The desolate landscape of Lahic allows the people to raise livestock, but they cannot feed themselves, so long ago they developed a tradition of exchanging craftwork for food. In their isolation, the people of Lahic developed such artisanship that their handcrafted products are famous and prized around the world. Virtually every kind of 75

3


handcrafted object has been made here and exported for hundreds of years: objects in copper and brass, carpets, cutlery, clothing, and leather goods. Every home is a workshop. Lahic crafts have long been treasured by collectors throughout the Middle East and Europe. Traders discovered these crafts many centuries ago and sold them for high prices in bazaars in Baghdad and other great Middle Eastern cities. A display of

4

copperware made in Lahic won a gold medal at the Paris World Exposition in 1878. Today Lahic crafts are on display in museums from London and Paris to Moscow and Istanbul. Introduction to Geography, Bergman and Renwick, p. 206

Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. compare the crafts of Lahic with the crafts created in other countries. b. discuss the impact of civilization on the village of Lahic. c. describe how the village of Lahic has created and maintained its unique culture. d. explain the history of the village of Lahic.

_____

2. The village of Lahic is located a. on an island off the coast of Spain. b. in the mountains of Azerbaijan. c. near the suburbs of London. d. in a desert in Iran.

_____

3. According to the selection, the people of Lahic have developed a tradition of exchanging their craftwork for a. money. b. food. c. other crafts. d. tools and supplies.

_____

4. Today Lahic is connected to the rest of the world by a. a dirt path through the mountains. b. a local airport. c. a railroad. d. 24-hour telephone service.

76


_____

5. The local language is an important clue to the history of Lahic because it a. is a combination of several Middle Eastern languages. b. is spoken only by members of the royal family. c. has never been heard of before. d. is a form of Iranian that died out centuries ago.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT FINDING MAIN IDEAS _____

6. The topic of the first paragraph is a. cultures. b. the Republic of Azerbaijan. c. the village of Lahic. d. the country of Iran.

_____

7. In the first paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “The village.” b. “Lahic is.” c. “Nobody knows.” d. “Perhaps some.”

_____

8. The topic of the third paragraph is Lahic’s a. landscape. b. livestock. c. craftwork. d. workshops.

_____

9. In the fourth paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “Lahic crafts.” b. “Traders discovered.” c. “A display.” d. “Today Lahic.”

_____ 10. Of the following words from the selection, the most general one is a. carpets. b. leather goods. c. copperware. d. craftwork. USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word i solated (paragraph 1) means a. separate. b. cold. c. busy. d. poor.

77


_____ 12. The word d istinctive (paragraph 1) means a. ordinary. b. normal. c. unique. d. widespread. _____ 13. The word p recipitous (paragraph 2) means a. fast. b. smooth. c. gentle. d. steep. _____ 14. The word d esolate (paragraph 3) means a. strong. b. barren. c. rich. d. fortunate. _____ 15. The word e xported (paragraph 3) means a. purchased. b. created. c. spent. d. sold abroad. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 16. Aunt Harriett loves to shop for treasures in flea markets and antique _______________. 17. As we hiked near the _______________, we took extra care to stay on the path. 18. Each piece of pottery in the exhibit had been chosen for its remarkable _______________.

78


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 6 IDENTIFYING SUPPORTING DETAILS AND TRANSITIONS ALL ABOUT ATTITUDES Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. affect (paragraph 2) a feeling or emotion as distinguished from a thought or action cognition (paragraph 2) the mental process of knowing reinforcements (paragraph 3) conditions or events that increase the likelihood that a given response will recur in a similar situation Attitudes are evaluative judgments about objects, people, and thoughts. What is your attitude about AIDS, religion, soccer, opera, politicians, crossword puzzles, plastic surgery, and the death penalty? As these examples indicate, attitudes can be positive, negative, or neutral; they can also vary greatly in intensity. You may have attitudes of

1

differing intensity about a wide variety of subjects, and those attitudes influence many of your thoughts, behaviors, and interactions. For example, intense political attitudes influence our thoughts about society, our behavior toward others with dissimilar views, and the people whom we call our friends. The three components of an attitude are affect, cognition, and behavior. Let’s use rollerblading to illustrate these components. Say that you love rollerblading and strap on your “blades” whenever you have a chance. You also enjoy rollerblading because you know that it’s excellent exercise and a great way to stay in shape. You have a positive attitude about it. In this description, your love for rollerblading makes up the affective or emotional component of your attitude, your knowledge about the health benefits of rollerblading constitutes the cognitive component, and your action in putting on your blades illustrates the behavioral component.

79

2


Although it is easy to see that we all have attitudes, it is more difficult to understand why we have them and what their purpose is. Attitudes serve several distinct functions:

3

ego defense, adjustment, and knowledge. Ego Defense. Attitudes protect us from threats to the self or ego. For example, if a person makes statements that we perceive as threatening, we might say, “He makes comments like that because he’s a dumb jock (writer, bookworm, musician).” Attributing threatening statements to the type of individual making them allow us to avoid confronting the possibility that the statements are accurate. Adjustment. Attitudes are used to maximize reinforcements and minimize punishments from the environment. People and behaviors that yield reinforcement are viewed positively; those that yield unpleasant effects are viewed negatively. For example, an individual who is being reinforced on a new job would be likely to say, “I am very impressed with the supervisors on my new job. They are friendly, fair, and understanding people.” Knowledge. Attitudes can help bring order and meaning to one’s world. For example, the following attitudes may help a person who is trying to understand an apparently unjust situation: “Most football players have skills that others lack. That’s why they’re paid such incredibly high salaries.” Psychology, Davis and Palladino, pp. 678-680

Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. describe the components and functions of attitudes. b. explain how attitudes are formed. c. compare attitudes and judgments. d. contrast positive and negative attitudes.

_____

2. The part of an attitude that consists of the knowledge we have about something is called the a. affective component. b. emotional component. c. cognitive component. d. behavioral component. 80


_____

3. According to this selection, attitudes are a. always positive. b. always negative. c. always neutral. d. either positive, negative, or neutral.

_____

4. Attitudes are used for all of the following functions except to a. protect us from threats to our ego. b. help us maximize punishments from the environment. c. help us maximize positive reinforcements from the environment. d. bring order and meaning to our world.

_____

5. The typographical aids used in this selection include a. boldfaced type. b. italics. c. underlining. d. all of the above.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT SUPPORTING DETAILS _____

6. In the first paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “Attitudes are.” b. “What is your.” c. “As these examples.” d. “You may have.”

_____

7. In the first paragraph, the sentence that begins with the words “For example” is a a. main idea. b. key detail. c. minor detail. d. topic.

_____

8. In the second paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “The three.” b. “Let’s use.” c. “Say that.” d. “You have.”

_____

9. In the second paragraph, the transition that indicates the continuation of an idea is a. to illustrate. b. also. c. because. d. description.

81


_____ 10. In the third paragraph, all of the following are key details except the statement beginning with the words a. “Attitudes protect us.” b. “Attitudes are used to.” c. “For example, an individual.” d. “Attitudes can help.” USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word e valuative (paragraph 1) means a. one who evaluates or makes a judgment. b. a lack of evaluation or judgment. c. referring to a quality of evaluation or judgment. d. against or opposite of evaluation. _____ 12. The word d is similar (paragraph 1) means a. exactly the same. b. not the same. c. unpleasant. d. typical. _____ 13. The word c onstitutes (paragraph 2) means a. replaces. b. makes up. c. attempts. d. makes official. _____ 14. The word p erceive (paragraph 3) means a. ignore. b. agree. c. dislike. d. realize. _____ 15. The word a ttributing (paragraph 3) means a. allowing. b. arguing. c. denying. d. blaming. _____ 16. The word c onfronting (paragraph 3) means a. facing. b. overlooking. c. frightening. d. pushing.

82


_____ 17. The word y ield (paragraph 3) means a. complain. b. hide. c. provide. d. spoil. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Match each definition in Column B with the term that it corresponds to from the Vocabulary Preview in Column A. Write the letter of the choice in the space provided. Column A

Column B

_____ 18. Affect

a. Conditions or events that increase the likelihood that a given response will recur in a similar situation

_____ 19. Cognition

b. A feeling or emotion as distinguished from a thought or action

_____ 20. Reinforcements

c. The mental process of knowing

83


84


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 7 UNDERSTANDING IMPLIED MAIN IDEAS GROWTH OF A NATIONAL SPIRIT Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. Hessians (paragraph 2) German soldiers hired for service in the British army during the Revolutionary War militiaman (paragraph 3) a man who is a member of an army composed of ordinary citizens rather than professional soldiers frontier (paragraph 4) a region near the edge of a settled area Most modern revolutions have been caused by nationalism and have resulted in independence. In the case of the American Revolution, the desire to be free preceded any intense national feeling. The colonies entered into a political union not because

1

they felt an overwhelming desire to bring all Americans under one rule but because unity offered the only hope of winning a war against Great Britain. That they remained united after throwing off British rule reflects the degree to which nationalism had developed during the conflict. The new nationalism arose from a number of sources and expressed itself in different ways. Common sacrifices in war certainly played a part. The soldiers of the Continental Army fought in the summer heat of the Carolinas for the same cause that

2

had led them to brave the ice-clogged Delaware River in order to surprise the Hessians. Such men lost interest in state boundary lines; they became Americans. John Marshall of Fauquier County, Virginia, for example, was a 20-year-old militiaman in 1775. The next year he joined the Continental Army. He served in Pennsylvania, New Jersey, and New York and endured the winter of 1777-1778 at Valley Forge. “I found myself associated with brave men from different states who were risking life and everything valuable in a common cause,” he later wrote. “I was 85

3


confirmed in the habit of considering America as my country and Congress as my government.” (Marshall later became Chief Justice on the Supreme Court.) Andrew Jackson, child of the Carolina frontier, was only 9 when the Revolution broke out. One brother was killed in battle; another died as a result of untreated wounds. Young Andrew took up arms and was captured by the Redcoats. A British officer ordered Jackson to black his boots and, when the boy refused, struck him across

4

the face with the flat of his sword. Jackson bore the scar to his grave—and became an ardent nationalist on the spot. He and Marshall had very different ideas and came to be bitter enemies in later life. Nevertheless, they were both American nationalists—and for the same reason. Civilians as well as soldiers reacted in this way. A Carolina farmer whose home and barn were protected against the British by men who spoke with the harsh twang of New England adopted a broader outlook toward politics. When the news came that

5

thousands of Redcoats had stacked their arms in defeat after Yorktown, few people cared what state or section had made the victory possible—it was an American triumph. The American Nation, Garraty and Carnes, pp. 130-131

Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. explain the events that led up to the American Revolution. b. describe how feelings of nationalism developed during the Revolutionary War. c. compare and contrast American and British nationalism. d. describe the early life of Andrew Jackson.

_____

2. According to this selection, the American colonies became united because a. the colonists wanted to bring all Americans together under one rule. b. it was easier to be loyal to one country rather than thirteen different states. c. the colonists had strong feelings of nationalism about America. d. it was the only way they could win a war against Great Britain.

86


_____

3. In this selection, John Marshall was described as all of the following except a. a member of the Continental Army. b. a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. c. a Carolina farmer. d. a bitter enemy of Andrew Jackson.

_____

4. When the Revolution began, Andrew Jackson was a. a British officer. b. an officer in the Continental Army. c. a member of Congress. d. a child in the Carolina frontier.

_____

5. According to this selection, feelings of nationalism grew during the Revolution because of the a. common sacrifices in war. b. common cause. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

US I NG WHAT YOU KN OW AB OUT IM PLIED M AI N I DEAS _____

6. The main idea of the first paragraph is that a. the American Revolution was caused by nationalistic feelings. b. the sense of nationalism that developed during the war did not last. c. the colonies developed and maintained their sense of nationalism as a result of the war. d. most colonists were loyal to Great Britain rather than America.

_____

7. In the second paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “The new nationalism.” b. “Common sacrifices.” c. “The soldiers.” d. “Such men.”

_____

8. In the third paragraph, the transition that indicates that an example will follow is a. the next year. b. for example. c. and. d. later.

_____

9. The main idea of the fourth paragraph is that a. Andrew Jackson was very young at the beginning of the Revolution. b. Andrew Jackson suffered personal losses during the war. c. Andrew Jackson and John Marshall had very different ideas. d. both Jackson and Marshall became nationalists because of their common goal.

87


_____ 10. The main idea of the fifth paragraph is that a. New Englanders protected Carolina farmers from the British. b. American soldiers came from all over the colonies. c. Carolina farmers developed a broader outlook toward politics during the war. d. both civilians and soldiers became united as Americans against the British. USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word n ationalism (paragraph 1) refers to strong feelings about a. the world as a whole. b. a particular nation. c. a particular state. d. an organization. _____ 12. The word p receded (paragraph 1) means a. came after. b. came before. c. moved quickly. d. departed. _____ 13. The word c onfirmed (paragraph 3) means a. changed. b. allowed. c. upheld. d. disproven. _____ 14. The word a rdent (paragraph 4) means a. eager. b. indifferent. c. quiet. d. careless. _____ 15. The word c ivilians (paragraph 5) means a. soldiers. b. relatives. c. officers. d. non-soldiers. _____ 16. The word h arsh (paragraph 5) means a. gentle. b. attractive. c. rough. d. mean.

88


_____ 17. The word t wang (paragraph 5) means a. sound. b. music. c. twitch. d. slang. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 18. A person who belongs to an army made up of ordinary citizens rather than professional soldiers is called a _______________. 19. The _______________ is a region near the edge of a settled area. 20. German soldiers who were hired to serve in the British army during the Revolutionary War were known as _______________.

89


90


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 8 KEEPING TRACK OF INFORMATION SENSORY RECEPTORS Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. sensory receptors (title) specialized cells or groups of nerve endings that respond to sensory stimuli skeletal (paragraph 4) attached to or formed by a skeleton spectrum (paragraph 6) the full range of something, such as colors or electromagnetic wavelengths Based on the type of signals to which they respond, we can group sensory receptors into five general categories: pain receptors, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors,

1

chemoreceptors, and electromagnetic receptors. Probably all animals have pain receptors, although we cannot say what nonhuman perceptions of pain are like. Pain is important because it often indicates danger and

2

usually makes an animal withdraw to safety. Pain can also make us aware of injury or disease. All parts of the human body except the brain have pain receptors. Thermoreceptors in the skin detect either heat or cold. Other temperature sensors located deep in the body monitor the temperature of the blood. The hypothalamus in the brain is the body’s major thermostat. Receiving nerve signals from both surface and

3

deep sensors, the hypothalamus keeps a mammal’s or bird’s body temperature within a narrow range. Mechanoreceptors are highly diverse. Different types are stimulated by various forms of mechanical energy, such as touch and pressure, stretching, motion, and sound. In the human skin, for example, two types of mechanoreceptors detect light touch, a third type deeper in the skin is stimulated by strong pressure, and a fourth type located 91

4


around the base of a hair detects hair movements. Two other types of mechanoreceptors are blood pressure sensors, found in some of our blood vessels, and stretch receptors, found in our skeletal muscles. Chemoreceptors include the sensory cells in our nose and taste buds, which are attuned to chemicals in the external environment, as well as some internal receptors that detect chemicals in the body’s internal environment. Internal chemoreceptors

5

include sensors in some of our arteries that can detect changes in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. Electromagnetic receptors are sensitive to energy of various wavelengths, which takes such forms as electricity, magnetism, and light. Certain fishes locate prey by sensing electric fields produced by the prey’s muscle activity. The so-called electric fishes of Africa and Australia discharge electricity into the water, and electroreceptors

6

in their skin can detect nearby obstacles and animals. Photoreceptors, including eyes, are probably the most common type of electromagnetic receptor. Photoreceptors detect the electromagnetic energy we call light, which may be in the visible, infrared, or ultraviolet part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Biology: Concepts and Connections, Campbell, Mitchell, and Reece, pp. 588-589

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

1. The main point of this selection is that a. humans and animals feel pain differently. b. the hypothalamus lets mammals and birds maintain their body temperature. c. sensory receptors can be grouped into one of five categories. d. human skin contains several types of sensory receptors.

_____

2. The only part of the human body that does not have pain receptors is the a. liver. b. muscles. c. heart. d. brain.

_____

3. The body’s major thermostat is located in the a. skin. b. lungs. c. hypothalamus. d. arteries. 92


_____

4. The types of receptors that can detect changes in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood are a. pain receptors. b. chemoreceptors. c. electromagnetic receptors. d. photoreceptors.

_____

5. In the last paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “Electromagnetic receptors.” b. “Certain fishes.” c. “Photoreceptors, including eyes.” d. “Photoreceptors detect.”

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT KEEPING TRACK OF INFORMATION Directions: In the following outline based on the selection, the boldfaced type indicates where information is missing from the outline. In the exercise that follows, match the information given in Column B with its correct location in the outline in Column A. I.

Pain receptors A. Pain is important 1. [First key supporting detail] 2. Makes us aware of injury or disease B. All parts of the human body except the brain have pain receptors

II.

[Second major topic] A. Detect heat or cold B. Monitor the temperature of the blood C. Hypothalamus is body’s thermostat

III.

Mechanoreceptors A. Different types stimulated by different forms of energy 1. Touch and pressure 2. Stretching 3. [Third key supporting detail] 4. Sound B. Types 1. Human skin has four types 2. Blood pressure sensors 3. Stretch receptors

IV.

Chemoreceptors A. External chemoreceptors 1. In nose and taste buds B. [Second major idea] 1. In arteries 93


V.

[Fifth major topic] A. Sensitive to energy of various wavelengths 1. Electricity 2. Magnetism 3. Light B. Photoreceptors, including eyes, are most common type Column A

Column B

_____

6. First key supporting detail

a. Internal chemoreceptors

_____

7. Second major topic

b. Motion

_____

8. Third key supporting detail

c. Thermoreceptors

_____

9. Second major idea

d. Electromagnetic receptors

_____ 10. Fifth major topic

e. Indicates danger

USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____ 11. The word n o nhuman (paragraph 2) means a. like humans. b. not human. c. referring to humans. d. many humans. _____ 12. The word p erceptions (paragraph 2) means a. awareness. b. anger. c. ignorance. d. cooperation. _____ 13. The word m onitor (paragraph 3) means a. keep track of. b. change. c. prevent. d. harm. _____ 14. The word d iverse (paragraph 4) means a. similar. b. identical. c. different. d. active.

94


_____ 15. The word attuned (paragraph 5) means a. responsive. b. avoided. c. repeated. d. destructive. _____ 16. The word discharge (paragraph 6) means a. refuse. b. depart. c. release. d. use. _____ 17. The word obstacles (paragraph 6) means a. problems. b. barriers. c. delays. d. favors. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 18. As part of our body’s _______________ system, the rib cage protects the heart and the lungs. 19. The different colors that we see make up a fraction of the electromagnetic ______________. 20. The _______________ in our skin respond to heat, cold, touch, pressure, and pain.

95


96


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 9 RECOGNIZING THE BASIC PATTERNS OF ORGANIZATION THE GAMING INDUSTRY Casino gaming has experienced an explosive growth in popularity and availability across the United States and Canada during the past few years. Some type of gaming operation can now be found in 26 U.S. states and in nearly all Canadian provinces. In

1

fact, the increasing availability and ease of access to gaming locations has resulted in more Americans visiting casinos than attending major league and collegiate football games, arena concerts, symphony concerts, and Broadway shows combined. Five basic factors combine to explain the current success and future prospects of the gaming industry. First, voters have been increasingly willing to approve new gaming alternatives because these activities have come to be viewed as a “voluntary tax” or form of economic development while politicians have been unwilling or unable to pursue new taxes. Second, more people than ever before are choosing casino gaming as an acceptable leisure activity. Four out of five adults now report that they consider

2

casino gaming to be a “fun night out.” Third, retirees comprise the single largest segment of the casino market, and their numbers continue to grow. Fourth, casinos have devised marketing programs to attract the previously ignored “low roller,” and fifth, expanded availability of gaming opportunities is attracting many individuals who have never before visited casinos for entertainment. The development of new games and expanded gaming availability has given rise to several gaming segments, each with a profile somewhat different from the others and each with different benefits sought from gaming. Four broad segments appear to be emerging: 1. High rollers. This segment is composed of sophisticated gamblers (both domestic and foreign), to whom traditional gaming was originally targeted. These gamers tend to be wealthy, older, and male. High rollers tend to play games of skill rather than luck. 97

3


2. Day-trippers. Retirees dominate this segment. These gamers make several shortduration trips to operations within easy driving distance and wager relatively significant amounts per trip, but tend to play slot machines and other video gaming options. 3. Low-stakes/new adopters. Gamers in this segment have only recently discovered and accepted gaming as an interesting day or evening diversion when it is close to home or when traveling. Members of this segment are mainly part of the growing cadre of aging baby boomers and their retiree parents, with the time and money to enjoy the entertainment associated with gaming. 4. Family vacationers. Due in part to the development of complementary tourism attractions such as theme parks, this segment tends to gamble as an offshoot of a family vacation. Tourism: The Business of Travel, Cook, Yale, and Marqua, pp. 159-161

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided next to each statement about the selection, write T if the statement is True or F if it is False. _____

1. This selection focuses on casino gaming in the United States and Canada only.

_____

2. Retirees are no longer part of the casino gaming market.

_____

3. The traditional market for gaming casinos is the “low roller.”

_____

4. “Day-trippers” typically play slot machines and other video gaming options.

_____

5. Family vacationers tend to gamble as part of their visits to tourist attractions such as theme parks.

US I NG WHAT YOU KN OW AB OUT BASIC P ATTERNS OF OR G ANIZATION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

6. The overall organization pattern that the authors follow throughout most of the selection is a. chronological order. b. process. c. definition. d. listing. 98


_____

7. The authors signal the organization pattern in the second paragraph by a. organizing the material according to specific dates. b. using the words first, second, third, fourth, and fifth. c. placing events in the order in which they occurred. d. explaining specific terms using examples.

Directions: Complete the following map of the selection by writing in the letter from the map that corresponds to each word or phrase given below.

[A]: wealthy, older males

Daytrippers: [B] CASINO GAMING SEGMENTS

Family vacationers

Low-stakes / new adopters:

[C]

_____

8. Aging baby boomers and their retiree parents

_____

9. High-rollers

_____ 10. Retirees USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____ 11. The word e xplosive (paragraph 1) means a. loud. b. unfortunate. c. sudden. d. dangerous. _____ 12. The word a ccess (paragraph 1) means a. entry. b. oversupply. c. affordability. d. attempt.

99


_____ 13. The word p ro spects (paragraph 2) means a. locations. b. possibilities. c. buildings. d. profits. _____ 14. The word c omprise (paragraph 2) means a. share. b. allow. c. make up. d. receive. _____ 15. The word d evised (paragraph 2) means a. removed. b. created. c. damaged. d. bargained. _____ 16. The word p rofile (paragraph 3) means a. description. b. order. c. speech. d. activity. _____ 17. The word s op histicated (paragraph 3) means a. simple. b. difficult. c. experienced. d. immature. _____ 18. The word w ager (paragraph 3) means a. bet. b. provoke. c. request. d. prove. _____ 19. The word d iversion (paragraph 3) means a. accident. b. entertainment. c. profession. d. promotion. _____ 20. The word c adre (paragraph 3) means a. group. b. price. c. skill. d. report.

100


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 10 RECOGNIZING COMPARISON/CONTRAST AND CAUSE/EFFECT PATTERNS FOLK CULTURE AND POPULAR CULTURE Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. conservative (paragraph 1) favoring traditional views and values; tending to oppose change innovation (paragraph 4) something newly introduced norms (paragraph 4) typical or widespread practices, procedures, or customs homogeneity (paragraph 5) having the same or similar nature

The term folk culture refers to a culture that preserves traditions. Folk groups are often bound by a religion, national background, or language, and folk cultures are

1

conservative and resist change. Most folk cultures are rural; however, folk culture groups also include urban neighborhoods of immigrants struggling to preserve their native cultures in their new homes. Geographers have identified a surprising number of folk cultures across the United States. Folk geographic studies in the U.S. range from studies of songs, foods, medicine, and folklore, to objects as diverse as locally produced pottery, clothing,

2

tombstones, farm fencing, and even knives and guns. The architecture of houses, barns, and other structures built in distinct styles also reveal the origins of their builders. In North America, the Amish are an example of a folk culture. The Amish stand out because they wear plain clothing and shun modern education and technology. They prosper by specializing their farm production and marketing their produce, but they severely curtail the choice of goods that they will accept in return.

101

3


In contrast to folk culture, popular culture is the culture of people who embrace innovation and adapt to changing norms. Popular culture may originate anywhere, and

4

it tends to spread rapidly, especially wherever people have time, money, and the desire to indulge in it. Popular material culture usually means mass culture—that is, items such as clothing, processed food, books, tapes, and household goods that are mass produced for mass distribution. It is usually more closely related to social class, as defined by income and education, than folk cultures are. The popular culture of the United States shows a great

5

degree of national homogeneity, but individual consumer goods still win varying degrees of acceptance in different parts of the country. The soft drink Dr. Pepper, for example, originated in the U.S. South, and it still enjoys its greatest acceptance there. Geographers study not only popular material culture but aspects of popular social culture as well. These include new ways of living, working, and playing. Sport, for example, is an important part of popular culture, and geographers have identified popular culture regions defined by sporting preferences. Regions also differ in their

6

popular entertainments—a movie that is a big hit in Seattle, for instance, may play to empty houses in Houston. The radio stations in different regions across the United States play varying mixes of country, gospel, rock, classical, and other popular kinds of music. Geographers have investigated these and many more attributes of popular culture. Introduction to Geography, Bergman and Renwick, pp. 206-208

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. discuss the history of folk groups in America. b. explain how geographers study different cultural groups. c. contrast the characteristics of folk culture and popular culture. d. encourage the preservation of folk cultures in America.

102


_____

2. Geographers gain information about folk cultures by studying all of the following aspects except a. architecture. b. foods and medicine. c. sports. d. knives and guns.

_____

3. Popular material culture usually refers to items such as a. locally produced pottery. b. barns and other structures. c. farm produce. d. consumer goods that are mass produced for mass distribution.

_____

4. According to the selection, the Amish stand out because they a. wear plain clothing and shun modern education and technology. b. will accept anything in exchange for the goods they market. c. are an example of a popular culture. d. strive to adapt to changing norms.

_____

5. The main idea of the last paragraph is that a. sporting preferences are an important part of popular culture. b. regions differ in their choices of popular entertainment. c. different kinds of music are popular in various parts of the country. d. geographers learn about popular social culture through attributes including sports, entertainment, and music.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT OTHER PATTERNS Directions: In the space provided, write F if the description characterizes folk culture or P if the description characterizes popular culture. _____

6. Preserves traditions and resists change

_____

7. Embraces innovation

_____

8. Originates anywhere and spreads rapidly

_____

9. Mostly rural, although sometimes found in urban neighborhoods of immigrants

_____ 10. More closely related to social class, as defined by income and education

103


USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____ 11. The word p reserves (paragraph 1) means a. maintains. b. forbids. c. struggles. d. prevents. _____ 12. The word s hun (paragraph 3) means a. accept. b. deliver. c. trade. d. avoid. _____ 13. The word p ro sper (paragraph 3) means a. study. b. succeed. c. return. d. surprise. _____ 14. The word c urtail (paragraph 3) means a. want. b. promote. c. limit. d. charge. _____ 15. The word o riginate (paragraph 4) means a. begin. b. question. c. defeat. d. agree. _____ 16. The word a ttributes (paragraph 6) means a. arguments. b. abilities. c. features. d. compliments. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 17. One important _______________ for modern kitchens was the microwave oven. 18. The _______________ of restaurants in this area is disappointing for those with exotic taste. 104


19. The _______________ among many teenagers today include body piercings and tattoos. 20. The talk show featured a debate between the _______________ senator and her more liberal opponent.

105


106


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 11 READING AND THINKING CRITICALLY OREGON CHAI, INC. Heather Howitt had a mystical experience during a trip to celebrate her graduation from the University of California at Santa Cruz. While skiing through fog in the Himalayas, she came across a shack that offered chai tea, a sweet, milky beverage that

1

combines black tea, vanilla, honey, and spices such as cinnamon and ginger. The experience lingered with her, and in 1994 Heather started Oregon Chai, Inc. Heather and her colleagues hope to replace the Pacific Northwest’s love affair with coffee by convincing trendsetters to kick back with a nice chai instead. Other chai distributors tend to be “hippie” types who sell their wares out of the back of a VW bus. Oregon Chai is more businesslike. Its product is sold both to direct accounts such as cafes and through a network of traditional specialty food distributors. In addition, the company has developed sophisticated promotional materials and

2

encouraged people to spread the word by giving out loads of free samples. It’s too expensive for the company to ship the liquid concentrate form of Oregon Chai to individual consumers, but the company’s Web site (www.oregonchai.com) provides a map to help consumers locate a local retailer. Although most people still have never heard of chai, it’s starting to make inroads into the specialty coffee market. Part of the appeal is that retailers can squeeze out more net profit per cup of chai than they can for a latte: $1.85 for a 10-ounce hot steamed

3

chai versus $1.57 for an equivalent-costing latte. Coffee giant Starbucks is selling dry chai in a tea bag, and big companies such as Lipton are keeping an eye on the chai trend. At these prices, chai makes both financial and spiritual sense. Marketing: Real People, Real Choices, Solomon and Stuart, p. 338

107


Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. encourage people to try drinking chai instead of coffee. b. describe a person’s experience in starting a business. c. advertise the products of Starbucks, Lipton, and Oregon Chai, Inc. d. raise awareness of products from Asia and other cultures.

_____

2. The idea for Oregon Chai came from Heather Howitt’s experience a. working as an employee of Starbucks. b. drinking coffee in Oregon. c. skiing through the Himalayas. d. selling coffee from the back of her VW bus.

_____

3. According to the selection, the company sells its product a. to direct accounts such as cafes. b. through a network of traditional specialty food distributors. c. directly to individual consumers. d. a and b only.

_____

4. One advantage that chai has in the specialty coffee market is that a. most people are familiar with chai. b. chai is less expensive for customers than latte. c. retailers can make more net profit per cup of chai than for latte. d. big companies are not interested in competing for customers.

_____

5. In the second paragraph, the transition that indicates the continuation of an idea is a. other. b. both. c. such as. d. in addition.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT INFERENCE AND WRITER’S PURPOSE _____

6. One inference that can be made from the selection is that a. Heather Howitt and her colleagues are hippies. b. the first time Heather tasted chai was during her trip in the Himalayas. c. chai has no caffeine in it. d. the people offering chai in the Himalayas are Heather’s business partners.

108


_____

7. The tone of the selection can best be described as a. serious and formal. b. sentimental. c. instructive but casual. d. critical.

Directions: In the space provided, write F if the statement from the selection is a fact or O if the statement is an opinion. _____

8. “Heather Howitt had a mystical experience . . .”

_____

9. “. . . in 1994 Heather started Oregon Chai, Inc.”

_____ 10. “Oregon Chai is more businesslike.” USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____ 11. The word m ystical (paragraph 1) means a. frightening. b. mysterious. c. dangerous. d. humorous. _____ 12. The word c olleagues (paragraph 1) means a. students. b. schools. c. relatives. d. coworkers. _____ 13. The word t rendsetters (paragraph 1) refers to those who a. avoid attention. b. produce advertisements. c. promote the latest style or fad. d. hold onto traditional ways. _____ 14. The word w ares (paragraph 2) means a. goods. b. tools. c. ideas. d. attitudes.

109


_____ 15. The word i nroads (paragraph 3) means a. travels. b. progress. c. comments. d. problems.

110


AN SWER KEY TO M ASTERY TESTS – TEST BANK 1 CHAPTER 1 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b a c d c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d c a c c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a b c d c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b d a c d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b c c b d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

b a a c a

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c a c a d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

a c d b d

16. bazaars 17. gorges 18. artisanship

CHAPTER 2 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d b a b c

CHAPTER 3 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c b a d c

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

b b a c paleontologist

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

silt prey carnivorous vegetated subtropical

CHAPTER 4 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d c b c a

mythological secular patrons composition pagan

CHAPTER 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c b b a d

111


CHAPTER 6 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a c d b d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a c a b c

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

c b b d d

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

a c b c a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c a b d d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

b b c a d

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

c a militiaman frontier Hessians

CHAPTER 7 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b d c d c

CHAPTER 8 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c d c b a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

e c b a d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

b a a c a

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

c b skeletal spectrum sensory receptors

d b C A B

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

c a b c b

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

a c a b a

F P P F P

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

a d b c a

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

c innovation homogeneity norms conservative

CHAPTER 9 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

T F F T T

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

CHAPTER 10 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c c d a d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

112


CHAPTER 11 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b c d c d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b c O F O

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

b d c a b

113


114


MASTERY TESTS TEST BANK 2

115


116


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 1 READING ACTIVELY BIOLOGICAL THEORIES ON AGING Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. inherent (paragraph 2) established as an essential part of something deterioration (paragraph 3) the state of becoming worse in quality or condition infirmity (paragraph 4) a physical ailment or weakness mutation (paragraph 5) an alteration or change, as in nature, form, or quality dysfunction (paragraph 5) abnormal or impaired functioning, especially of a bodily system or organ Aging has traditionally been described as the patterns of life changes that occur in members of all species as they grow older. The study of individual and collective aging processes, known as gerontology, explores the reasons for aging and the ways in which

1

people cope with and adapt to this process. Of the various theories about the biological causes of aging, the following are among the most commonly accepted. The Wear-and-Tear Theory. This theory states that, like everything else in the universe, the human body wears out. Inherent in this theory is the idea that the more you abuse your body, the faster it will wear out. Fortunately, today’s elderly can

2

achieve high levels of fitness without having to be a marathoner. Strength training, walking, gardening, vigorous shopping, and other activities allow even the most out of shape to improve. The Cellular Theory. This theory states that at birth we have only a certain number of usable cells, and these cells are genetically programmed to divide or reproduce only a limited number of times. Once these cells reach the end of their reproductive cycle, they begin to die and the organs they make up begin to show signs of deterioration. The 117

3


rate of deterioration varies from person to person, and the impact of the deterioration depends on the system involved. The Autoimmune Theory. This theory attributes aging to the decline of the body’s immune system. Studies indicate that as we age, our immune systems become less effective in fighting disease. Eventually, bodies that are subjected to too much stress,

4

lack of sleep, and so on, especially if these are coupled with poor nutrition, begin to show signs of disease and infirmity. The Genetic Mutation Theory. This theory proposes that the number of cells showing unusual or different characteristics increases with age. Supporters of this theory believe that aging is related to the amount of mutational damage within the

5

genes. The greater the mutation, the greater the chance that cells will not function properly, leading to eventual dysfunction of body organs and systems. Access to Health, Donatelle and Davis, pp. 516-517, 521-522

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: Match each description in Column B with the term that it corresponds to in Column A. Write the letter of the choice in the space provided. Column A

Column B

_____

1. Wear-and-tear theory

a. Aging is related to the amount of mutational damage within the genes; the number of cells showing unusual or different characteristics increases with age

_____

2. Cellular theory

b. Aging can be attributed to the decline of the body’s immune system; as we age, our bodies are not as effective at fighting disease

_____

3. Autoimmune theory

c. The human body simply wears out; the more you abuse your body, the faster it will wear out

_____

4. Genetic mutation theory

d. The study of individual and collective aging processes; it explores the reasons for aging and the ways in which people cope and adapt to this process

_____

5. Gerontology

e. Once our usable cells reach the end of their limited reproductive cycle, they begin to die and the organs they make up begin to show signs of deterioration 118


US I NG WHAT YOU KN OW AB OUT READI NG ACTIVELY Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

6. The title indicates that this selection will describe a. social and psychological theories on aging. b. health care costs associated with aging. c. mental changes associated with aging. d. biological theories on aging.

_____

7. The two typographical aids used in this selection are a. italics and boldfaced type. b. boldfaced type and underlining. c. italics and underlining. d. numbering and boldfaced type.

_____

8. The most useful guide question for the heading “The Wear-and-Tear Theory” is a. Is this theory related to aging? b. What is the wear-and-tear theory? c. Do older people have more “wear and tear” than younger people? d. Has this theory been proven?

_____

9. The least useful guide question for the heading “The Genetic Mutation Theory” is a. What is a genetic mutation? b. Are genetic mutations related to aging? c. What does the genetic mutation theory propose? d. How are genetic mutations related to aging?

_____ 10. In the first paragraph, the word collective means a. individual. b. age-related. c. group. d. temporary. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 11. The old dog’s _______________ was apparent when there were puppies playing around her. 12. The barn reached such a state of _______________ that it had to be torn down. 13. After his kidney _______________ was treated, the patient made a full recovery. 14. The Golden Rule is _______________ to many religions. 15. Because of a genetic _______________, the fly had four wings instead of the normal two. 119


120


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 2 USING YOUR DICTIONARY READING A STORY The name tale is sometimes applied to any story, whether short or long, true or fictitious. Writers sometimes call their stories “tales” as if to imply something handed down from the past. But defined in a more limited sense, a tale is a story, usually short, that sets forth strange and wonderful events in more or less bare summary, without

1

detailed character-drawing. “Tale” implies a story in which the goal is revelation of the marvelous rather than revelation of character. In the English folk tale “Jack and the Beanstalk,” we take away a more vivid impression of the miraculous beanstalk and the giant who dwells at its top than of Jack’s mind or personality. Because such venerable stories were told aloud before someone set them down in writing, the storytellers had to limit themselves to brief descriptions. Probably spoken around a fire, such a tale tends to be less complicated and less closely detailed than a story written for the printed page, whose reader can linger over it. Still, such tales can be

2

complicated. It is not merely greater length that makes a short story different from a tale or a fable: a mark of a short story is a fully delineated character. Even modern tales favor supernatural or fantastic events: for instance, the tall tale, that variety of folk story which recounts the deeds of a superhero (Paul Bunyan, John Henry, Mike Fink) or of the storyteller. If the storyteller is telling about his own imaginary experience, his bragging yarn is usually told with a straight face to listeners

3

who take pleasure in scoffing at it. Although the fairy tale, set in a world of magic and enchantment, is sometimes the work of a modern author (notably Hans Christian Andersen), well-known examples are those German folktales which probably originated in the Middle Ages, collected by the brothers Grimm. The label fairy tale is something of a misnomer, for in the Grimm stories, though witches and goblins abound, fairies are a minority. Literature, Kennedy and Gioia, pp. 7-8

121


Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to explain a. how fiction differs from nonfiction. b. what makes a story a tale. c. how to write a short story. d. how stories are used to teach morals.

_____

2. The difference between a tale and a short story is that a short story features a a. fully delineated character. b. complicated plot. c. supernatural or fantastic event. d. magical setting.

_____

3. All of the following characters are examples of folk heroes except a. Paul Bunyan. b. Hans Christian Andersen. c. John Henry. d. Mike Fink.

_____

4. A storyteller who tells of his own imaginary experience usually expects listeners to a. believe his story. b. be frightened by his story. c. scoff at his story. d. linger over his story.

_____

5. The German folktales collected by the brothers Grimm are examples of a. tall tales. b. fairy tales. c. short stories. d. fables.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT DICTIONARIES _____

6. The word fictitious (paragraph 1) means a. forged. b. artificial. c. not true. d. factual.

_____

7. The best synonym for the word imply (paragraph 1) is a. suggest. b. inform. c. announce. d. report. 122


_____

8. A restrictive meaning given for the word revelation (paragraph 1) is in the field of a. law. b. theology. c. math. d. architecture.

_____

9. The etymology of the word vivid (paragraph 1) is a. English. b. Greek. c. French. d. Latin.

_____ 10. The verb form of the word venerable (paragraph 2) is a. veneration. b. venerator. c. venerate. d. venerably. _____ 11. The correct way to pronounce the word delineated (paragraph 2) is a. dee LINE ate ed. b. dee line EE ate ed. c. dee LIN ee ate ed. d. dee lin EAT ed. _____ 12. The prefix in the word supernatural (paragraph 3) means a. above or beyond. b. less than. c. without. d. against. _____ 13. In parts of speech, the word fantastic (paragraph 3) is a. a noun. b. a verb. c. an adjective. d. an adverb. _____ 14. The best synonym for the word recounts (paragraph 3) is a. leaves. b. describes. c. stores. d. listens. _____ 15. The word misnomer (paragraph 3) means a. a minor offense. b. an inaccurate explanation. c. an error made by a judge. d. a name that is unsuitable or wrong. 123


124


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 3 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING CONTEXT CLUES THE CATTLE KINGDOM Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. mineral (paragraph 1) relating to an element such as gold or silver that is extracted from the ground dominated (paragraph 1) had a commanding position or controlling power over something elementary (paragraph 2) relating to the most basic or simplest aspects of a subject agents (paragraph 3) people who act or do business for someone else marksmen (paragraph 5) men who are skillful at shooting a target While miners were digging out the mineral wealth of the West and railroaders were taking possession of much of its land, another group was exploiting endless acres of its grass. For 20 years after the Civil War cattlemen and sheep raisers dominated huge areas

1

of the High Plains, making millions of dollars by grazing their herds on lands they did not own. The expansion of the railroad network made it possible to move cattle cheaply over long distances. As the iron rails inched across the plains, astute cattlemen began to do some elementary figuring. Longhorns could be had locally for $3 and $4 a head. In the northern cities they would bring ten times that much, perhaps even more. Why not round them up and herd them northward to the railroads, allowing them to feed along the way on the abundant grasses of the plains? The land was unoccupied and owned by the federal government. Anyone could drive cattle across it without paying a fee or asking permission. The grass the cattle ate on the way swiftly renewed itself. In 1866 a number of Texans drove large herds northward toward Sedalia, Missouri, railhead of the Missouri Pacific. This route took the herds through wooded and settled 125

2


country and across Indian reservations, which provoked many difficulties. The next year the drovers led their herds north by a more westerly route to the Kansas Pacific line at

3

Abilene, Kansas. They earned excellent profits, and during the next five years about 1.5 million head made the “long drive” over the Chisholm Trail to Abilene, where they were sold to ranchers, feedlot operators, and the agents of eastern meat packers. The technique of the long drive, which involved guiding herds of two or three thousand cattle slowly across as much as a thousand miles of country, produced the American cowboy, renowned in song, in story, and on film. Half a dozen of these men

4

could control several thousand steers. Mounted on wiry ponies, they would range alongside the herd, keeping the animals on the move but preventing stampedes, allowing them time to rest yet steadily pressing them toward the yards of Abilene. The cowboy’s life was far more prosaic than it appears in modern legend, consisting mainly of endless hours on the trail surrounded by thousands of bellowing beasts. Cowboys virtually lived on horseback, for their work kept them far from human habitation for months on end. They were courageous—and expert marksmen, too, for

5

they lived amid many dangers and had to know how to protect themselves. Few grew rich, yet they were true representatives of their time—individualistic, contemptuous of authority, crude, and devoted to coarse pleasures. The American Nation, Garraty and Carnes, p. 492

Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to describe a. how cattle were moved across the country in the years after the Civil War. b. why cattlemen wanted to move their cattle cross-country. c. who was responsible for moving cattle across the country. d. all of the above.

_____

2. According to the selection, the development that made it possible to move cattle cheaply over long distances was the a. expansion of the railroad network. b. invention of the telephone. c. purchase of the grasslands by the private investors. d. creation of federal land laws. 126


_____

3. During the cattle drive, the cattle were fed a. grain supplied by the cattlemen. b. grass purchased from land owners along the drive. c. grass that they found growing on the plains. d. grain provided by the cowboys.

_____

4. According to the selection, after the cattle were driven northward they were sold to all of the following buyers except a. ranchers. b. feedlot operators. c. Indians. d. the agents of eastern meat packers.

_____

5. The town of Sedalia, Missouri, was the location of a. an Indian reservation. b. the railhead of the Missouri Pacific. c. the railhead of the Kansas Pacific. d. the Chisholm Trail.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT CONTEXT _____

6. The word exploiting (paragraph 1) means a. avoiding. b. enjoying. c. making selfish or unethical use of something. d. protecting.

_____

7. The word astute (paragraph 2) means a. clever. b. clumsy. c. foolish. d. careless.

_____

8. The word abundant (paragraph 2) means a. beautiful. b. plentiful. c. protected. d. scarce.

_____

9. The word provoked (paragraph 3) means a. entertained. b. criticized. c. promoted. d. stirred up.

127


_____ 10. The word renowned (paragraph 4) means a. removed. b. made famous. c. allowed. d. forgotten. _____ 11. The word wiry (paragraph 4) means a. strong. b. springy. c. unreliable. d. fearful. _____ 12. The word range (paragraph 4) means a. leave. b. get angry. c. roam. d. find. _____ 13. The word prosaic (paragraph 5) means a. exciting. b. painful. c. well-paying. d. dull. _____ 14. The word habitation (paragraph 5) means a. entertainment. b. settlement. c. desertion. d. attitude. _____ 15. The word contemptuous (paragraph 5) means a. humorous. b. considerate. c. polite. d. disrespectful. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 16. The five-time chess champion _______________ the competition. 17. Several ______________ demonstrated their skill at the Civil War reenactment last weekend. 18. After taking an introductory Spanish class, Duncan felt as though he had at least a(n) _______________ understanding of the language. 128


19. Investment brokers often serve as _______________ for people who want to invest in the stock market. 18. The _______________ deposits and formations along the cave walls were fascinating.

129


130


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 4 BUILDING VOCABULARY: USING WORD PARTS AQUATIC ECOSYSTEMS Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. aquatic (title) consisting of or relating to water ecosystems (title) biological communities and their physical environments, functioning as units in nature oceanic (paragraph 2) of or relating to the ocean The shallow zone at the edge of an ocean where seawater meets land is called the intertidal zone. This area is often flooded by high tides and then left dry during low tides, about every 12 hours. Intertidal zones vary from salt marshes to wave-splashed beaches. All of the intertidal zone is a type of wetland, an ecosystem that is intermediate between an aquatic ecosystem and a terrestrial one. Most wetlands have

1

soil that is saturated with water, either permanently or periodically. The highly productive wetlands of the intertidal zone are home to many sedentary organisms such as algae, barnacles, mussels, sea stars, and sea anemones. Intertidal organisms attach to rocks or vegetation, or burrow into mud or sand, and are thus prevented from being washed away. The intertidal zone is one of several oceanic zones. The ocean water itself, called the pelagic zone, supports communities dominated by highly motile animals such as fishes and squids, and marine mammals, including whales and dolphins. The pelagic zone is also home to phytoplankton and zooplankton; zooplankton eat phytoplankton and, in turn, are consumed by other animals, including fishes. The seafloor is called the benthic zone. Depending on depth and light penetration, the benthic community consists of attached algae, fungi, bacteria, sponges, burrowing worms, clams, crabs, 131

2


and fishes. Sunlight does not penetrate very far into the sea. On the submerged parts of continents called continental shelves, the pelagic and benthic communities usually receive some light, and nutrients from the seafloor circulate in the shallow water. Marine biologists often group the illuminated regions of the benthic and pelagic

3

communities together, calling them the photic zone. Underlying the photic zone is a vast, dark region called the aphotic zone. Life in the aphotic zone includes fishes and invertebrates, such as sea urchins and polychaete worms, that feed on organic matter that sinks from the lighted waters above. Biology: Concepts and Connections, Campbell, Mitchell, and Reece, pp. 686-687

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. describe the different oceanic zones and the organisms that live in each one. b. compare aquatic ecosystems to ecosystems on land. c. discuss the importance of ocean life to the life of the planet. d. explain how the tide works.

_____

2. A type of ecosystem that is intermediate between an aquatic ecosystem and a terrestrial one is called a. an oceanic zone. b. a wetland. c. a photic zone. d. a continental shelf.

Directions: Match each oceanic zone with the organisms that live in the zone by writing the first letter of the zone in the space provided. One zone will be used twice. I = Intertidal zone

P = Pelagic zone

B = Benthic zone

_____

3. Fishes, squids, whales, and dolphins

_____

4. Sea urchins and polychaete worms

_____

5. Sponges, burrowing worms, clams, crabs, and fishes

_____

6. Barnacles, mussels, sea stars, and sea anemones

_____

7. Phytoplankton and zooplankton 132

A = Aphotic zone


USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT WORD PARTS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

8. If the word photic means “lighted,” then the word aphotic (paragraph 3) means a. one who creates light. b. a condition of light. c. not lighted. d. within the light.

_____

9. If the word vertebrates means “animals with a backbone,” then the word invertebrates (paragraph 3) means animals that have a. no backbone. b. a false backbone. c. more than one backbone. d. a small backbone.

_____ 10. The prefix in the word intertidal (paragraph 1) means a. away. b. before. c. below. d. between. _____ 11. The root of the word terrestrial (paragraph 1) means a. star. b. light. c. study. d. earth. _____ 12. The prefix of the word submerged (paragraph 3) means a. across. b. under. c. above. d. around. _____ 13. The word saturated (paragraph 1) means a. soaked. b. dried out. c. avoided. d. protected. _____ 14. The word sedentary (paragraph 1) means a. delicate. b. nonmoving. c. fast-moving. d. single. 133


_____ 15. The word motile (paragraph 2) means a. capable of movement. b. capable of communicating. c. not able to swim. d. not able to breathe oxygen. _____ 16. The word circulate (paragraph 3) means a. leave. b. divide. c. move around. d. replace. _____ 17. The word illuminated (paragraph 3) means a. dark. b. deserted. c. uninhabited. d. lighted. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 18. Honolulu is the capital of the _______________ island of Oahu. 19. An entire floor of the museum is devoted to exhibits describing the _______________ life of Lake Michigan. 20. Hundreds of volunteers worked to save the _______________ after it was damaged by flooding.

134


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 5 LOCATING MAIN IDEAS DEFINING LANGUAGES Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. index (paragraph 1) something that reveals or indicates; a sign diction (paragraph 2) choice and use of words in speech or writing treaty (paragraph 4) a formal agreement between two or more states or governments stabilization (paragraph 5) referring to the state or quality of becoming stable or steadfast Many social scientists believe that language is the single most important cultural index. A language is a set of words, plus their pronunciation and methods of combining them, that is used and understood to communicate within a group of people. Each language has a unique way of dealing with facts, ideas, and concepts, and

1

variations in languages result in variations in how people think about time and space, about things and processes. Exact translation from one language to another is virtually impossible. The number of different languages recognized varies with the accepted definition of language. The term language is usually reserved for major patterns of difference in communication. Minor variations within languages are called dialects, but scholars do not agree on the amount of distinctiveness necessary for a pattern to be considered a language. Some scholars, for instance, accept Danish, Swedish, and Norwegian as distinct languages, but a speaker of any one of them can understand the others. Therefore, other scholars insist that these are three dialects of one language. A standard language is the way any language is spoken and written according to formal rules of diction and grammar, although many regular speakers and writers of any language may not always follow all those rules. A country’s official language is the one in which 135

2


official records are kept and government business is normally conducted. A pidgin language is a system of communication that has grown up among people who do not share a common language, but who want to talk with each other. Pidgins are marginal or mixed languages, and they usually disappear after a few years or else they evolve into a creole. A creole is a pidgin language that has survived long enough

3

to become a mother tongue. That usually takes a generation or two. An example of creole is Gullah, the English-based language used by some African Americans living along the U.S. Southeast coast. A lingua franca is a second language held in common for international discourse. Today English is the world’s leading lingua franca. By international treaty, air controllers and pilots in international aviation all speak English. Other languages have served as lingua franca in the past. Latin long served Western civilization, and Swahili

4

served throughout East Africa. Swahili developed among black peoples and in communication with Arab traders, so it has many Arab words. Today it is an official language in Tanzania and Kenya. Individual languages change through time, but religious classics or classics of literature can exert a powerful force for stabilization. In English, for example, the works of William Shakespeare and the 1612 King James translation of the Bible have

5

molded the language, and yet parts of even these works may be difficult for many English speakers to read today. Introduction to Geography, Bergman and Renwick, pp. 244-245

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: Match each definition in Column B with the term that it corresponds to in Column A. Write the letter of the choice in the space provided. Column A

Column B

_____

1. Dialect

a. The language in which a country’s official records are kept and government business is normally conducted

_____

2. Pidgin language

b. A minor variation within a language

_____

3. Official language

c. A system of communication that has grown up among people who do not share a common language, but who want to talk with each other 136


_____

4. Standard language

d. A second language held in common for international discourse

_____

5. Creole

e. The way any language is spoken and written according to formal rules of diction and grammar

_____

6. Lingua franca

f. A pidgin language that has survived long enough to become a mother tongue

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT FINDING MAIN IDEAS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

7. The topic of the first paragraph is a. language. b. culture. c. variations in languages. d. translations.

_____

8. In the second paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “The number.” b. “The term.” c. “Minor variations.” d. “Some scholars.”

_____

9. In the third paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “A pidgin language.” b. “Pidgins are.” c. “A creole is.” d. “Examples of.”

_____ 10. The topic of the fourth paragraph is a. international discourse. b. international treaties. c. international aviation. d. lingua franca. USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word c ultural (paragraph 1) means a. without culture. b. across cultures. c. one who is cultured. d. of or relating to culture.

137


_____ 12. The word v ariations (paragraph 1) means a. similarities. b. differences. c. imitations. d. problems. _____ 13. The word d istinctiveness (paragraph 2) means a. a quality of being different or distinct. b. disorganized. c. ordinary. d. commonness. _____ 14. The word s cholars (paragraph 2) means a. speakers. b. academic specialists. c. writers. d. principals. _____ 15. The word m arginal (paragraph 3) means a. at the edge of something. b. complete or whole. c. old-fashioned. d. numerous. _____ 16. The word e volve (paragraph 3) means a. disappear. b. force. c. develop. d. understand. _____ 17. The word d iscourse (paragraph 4) means a. disagreement. b. objection. c. limit. d. communication. _____ 18. The word a viation (paragraph 4) refers to a. politics. b. oceans. c. aircraft. d. religion. _____ 19. The word e xert (paragraph 5) means a. depart. b. put forth. c. change. d. weaken.

138


_____ 20. The word m olded (paragraph 5) means a. shaped. b. ruined. c. distressed. d. reduced. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 21. The leaders of both countries finally announced that a ________________ had been signed. 22. After the _______________ of his blood pressure, the patient improved dramatically. 23. The consumer price _______________ measures how the cost of basic goods and services changes in comparison to a fixed base period. 24. Each student’s speech was graded on originality, support, style, and _______________.

139


140


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 6 IDENTIFYING SUPPORTING DETAILS AND TRANSITIONS MATTER AND ENERGY IN EVERYDAY LIFE Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. matter (paragraph 1) something that occupies space and can be perceived by one or more senses molecules (paragraph 3) the smallest particles of matter that are the same chemically as the whole mass Broadly speaking, energy is what makes matter move. For Americans, the most familiar way of measuring energy is in calories, which we use to describe how much energy our bodies can draw from food. A typical adult uses about 2,500 calories of energy each day. Among other things, this energy keeps our hearts beating and our lungs

1

breathing, generates the heat that maintains our normal body temperature, and allows us to walk and run. Energy has many different forms. We have already talked about forms such as food energy and the energy of a beating heart. Fortunately, the many forms of energy can be

2

grouped into three basic categories. First, whenever matter is moving, it has energy of motion, or kinetic energy. (Kinetic comes from a Greek word meaning “motion.”) Falling rocks, the moving blades on an electric mixer, a car driving down the highway, and the molecules moving

3

in the air around us are all examples of objects with kinetic energy. The second basic category of energy is potential energy, or energy being stored for possible later conversion into kinetic energy. A rock perched on a ledge has gravitational potential energy because it will fall if it slips off the edge. Gasoline contains chemical potential energy, which a car engine converts to the kinetic energy of the moving car. Power companies supply electrical potential energy, which we use to 141

4


run dishwashers and other appliances. The third basic category is energy carried by light, or radiative energy. (The word radiation is often used as a synonym for light.) Plants directly convert the radiative energy of sunlight into chemical potential energy through the process of photosynthesis.

5

Radiative energy is fundamental to astronomy, because telescopes collect the radiative energy of light from distant stars. The Cosmic Perspective, Bennett, Donahue, Schneider, and Voit, p. 115

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

1. The topic of the first paragraph is a. calories. b. food. c. energy. d. matter.

_____

2. According to this selection, the type of potential energy contained in gasoline is a. gravitational. b. chemical. c. electrical. d. photosynthetic.

Directions: Match each definition in Column B with the term that it corresponds to in Column A. Write the letter of the choice in the space provided. Column A

Column B

_____

3. Kinetic energy

a. Energy carried by light

_____

4. Potential energy

b. Energy of motion

_____

5. Radiative energy

c. Energy being stored for possible later conversion

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT SUPPORTING DETAILS AND TRANSITIONS Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements.

142


_____

6. In the first paragraph, the sentence that begins with the words “A typical adult” is a. the paragraph’s main idea. b. the topic sentence. c. a key detail. d. a minor detail.

_____

7. In the second paragraph, the transition that indicates an example will follow is a. many different. b. such as. c. fortunately. d. three basic.

_____

8. The phrases “First,” “The second,” and “The third” (in paragraphs 3-5) indicate the type of transition known as a. time-sequence. b. enumeration. c. contrast. d. cause-effect.

_____

9. In the fourth paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “The second.” b. “A rock.” c. “Gasoline contains.” d. “Power companies.”

_____ 10. In the fifth paragraph, a key detail is found in the sentence beginning with the words a. “The third.” b. “The word.” c. “Plants directly.” d. “Radiative energy.” USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word b roadly (paragraph 1) means a. generally. b. plainly. c. specifically. d. spaciously. _____ 12. The word g enerates (paragraph 1) means a. agrees. b. produces. c. uses. d. limits.

143


_____ 13. The word c onversion (paragraph 4) means a. change. b. question. c. mistaken. d. comparison. _____ 14. The word f undamental (paragraph 5) means a. minor. b. temporary. c. expensive. d. essential. _____ 15. The root of the word t elescopes (paragraph 5) refers to a. hearing. b. seeing. c. feeling. d. writing. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 16. The smallest particles of matter that are the same chemically as the whole mass are called _______________. 17. The word _______________ refers to something that occupies space and can be perceived by one or more senses.

144


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 7 UNDERSTANDING IMPLIED MAIN IDEAS CHARLENE MARSHALL: MAKING A DIFFERENCE Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. segregation (paragraph 1) the policy and practice of imposing the social separation of races, as in schools, housing, and industry, especially so as to practice discrimination prejudice (paragraph 1) irrational suspicion or hatred of a particular group, race, or religion Charlene Marshall always knew she wanted to help people who had a difficult time helping themselves; she just had to work awfully hard to do it. Marshall was born into poverty in a northern West Virginia coal town in the middle of the Great Depression. When she was five years old, her father was killed doing the best job an AfricanAmerican man could get in the area—mining coal. At 17, her stepfather died the same

1

way. Marshall not only faced poverty and family crisis, but the legal segregation and racial prejudice that pervaded the rural South of the era. For example, she had to travel to the opposite side of the state (a 24-hour drive in those pre-interstate highway days) to attend one of the only state colleges that admitted African Americans. Marshall’s first efforts at improving the lot of the underdog were as a steelworkers’ union official at a northern West Virginia manufacturing plant in the 1960s. Even though she was the first African-American woman to work at the plant, her skills at

2

facilitating dialogue between adversaries made her a leader in achieving better conditions for workers there. She also worked actively in the local Democratic party organization, during which time she even met John Kennedy. After her plant closed, she took an administrative staff position at West Virginia University in Morgantown—the university that she could not attend as a young adult because of her race. In this position she was again active in union efforts to improve the 145

3


lot of workers, successfully lobbying university administrators and the state legislature to increase wages to at least the federal minimum wage. In 1990, Marshall was elected to the Morgantown city council, and later became mayor of the city. As mayor, Marshall was instrumental in developing excellent relations between the city, the university, and local businesses. She worked hard on things that mattered to city residents—such as getting the streets properly paved and helping rid the city of dilapidated and abandoned buildings—and also helped the city to

4

stabilize its financial condition. In 1998, Marshall was elected to the West Virginia House of Delegates (the lower house of the state legislature), the first AfricanAmerican woman to do so in 48 years. She continues to pursue her lifelong commitment to helping improve people’s lives. Government in America, Edwards, Wattenberg, and Lineberry, p. 697

Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. discuss the need for more African-American women in politics. b. describe the racial prejudice that existed during the Depression. c. criticize the state colleges that practiced segregation. d. describe how Charlene Marshall has helped improve people’s lives.

_____

2. According to this selection, the best job an African-American man could get in Marshall’s town during the Depression was a. farming. b. building roads. c. mining coal. d. working in a manufacturing plant.

_____

3. Marshall could not attend West Virginia University because a. it was too far away. b. it was too expensive. c. she didn’t know how to drive. d. the university did not admit African Americans.

_____

4. At West Virginia University, Marshall worked to improve work conditions by a. holding peace rallies and protest marches. b. convincing the university to hire more African Americans. c. lobbying to increase wages to at least the federal minimum wage. d. becoming active in the Democratic party organization. 146


_____

5. Marshall has worked as a. a steelworkers’ union official. b. the mayor of Morgantown, West Virginia. c. a representative in the West Virginia House of Delegates. d. all of the above.

US I NG WHAT YOU KN OW AB OUT IM PLIED M AI N I DEAS _____

6. The main idea of the first paragraph is that Charlene Marshall a. was born during the Great Depression. b. had lost her father and her stepfather by the age of 17. c. had to overcome several obstacles in her youth. d. had to drive 24 hours to get to her college.

_____

7. In the first paragraph, the sentence beginning with the words “For example” is a a. supporting detail. b. key detail. c. topic sentence. d. main idea.

_____

8. The main idea of the second paragraph is that a. Marshall’s first job was in a manufacturing plant. b. Marshall was the first African-American woman to work at the plant. c. Marshall met John Kennedy when she became active in the local Democratic party organization. d. Marshall was able to help improve working conditions through her work as a union official.

_____

9. In the last paragraph, the transition that indicates a time-sequence is a. later. b. such as. c. and. d. also.

_____ 10. The main idea of the last paragraph is that Marshall a. was elected to the city council of Morgantown. b. became mayor of Morgantown. c. was the first African-American woman in 48 years to be elected to the West Virginia House of Delegates. d. has used her elected positions to continue her commitment to helping people.

147


USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word p ervaded (paragraph 1) means a. limited. b. spread throughout. c. enjoyed. d. unheard of. _____ 12. The word f acilitating (paragraph 2) means a. forcing. b. assisting. c. attempting. d. complicating. _____ 13. The word d ialogue (paragraph 2) means a. difficulty. b. concern. c. conversation. d. questions. _____ 14. The word a dversaries (paragraph 2) means a. opponents. b. helpers. c. contestants. d. teachers. _____ 15. The word l obbying (paragraph 3) means a. leaving. b. building. c. ignoring. d. influencing. _____ 16. The word i nstrumental (paragraph 4) means a. disagreeable. b. entertaining. c. useful. d. angry. _____ 17. The word d ilapidated (paragraph 4) means a. run-down. b. renovated. c. discouraged. d. modern.

148


REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. 18. An irrational suspicion or hatred of a particular group, race, or religion is called _______________. 19. The Supreme Court made its landmark ruling on _______________ in schools in Brown v. Board of Education.

149


150


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 8 KEEPING TRACK OF INFORMATION THE PRODUCT LIFE CYCLE The life of a product may be measured in months or years. The humble zipper is an example of product that has managed to live an exceptionally long life. Invented in the 1800s for use on high-buttoned shoes, the zipper did not make its way onto a pair of

1

trousers until the 1930s; basically unchanged nearly seventy years later, the zipper continues to be an essential part of our wardrobes. From zippers to zip drives, the life of a product can be divided into four separate stages: introduction, growth, maturity, and decline. The first stage of the product life cycle is introduction, when customers get their first chance to purchase the good or service. During this early stage, a single company usually produces the product. If the product is accepted and profitable, competitors will follow with their own versions. The goal during this stage is to get first-time buyers to try the product. Sales increase at a steady but slow pace. The company does not make a

2

profit during this stage for two reasons: research and development costs and heavy spending for advertising and other promotional costs. How long the introduction stage lasts depends on a number of factors, including marketplace acceptance and producer willingness to support the product during its start-up. Not all products make it past the introduction stage. For a new product to be successful, consumers must first know about it. Then they must believe that the product is something they need. Thus, marketing during this stage often focuses on informing

3

consumers about the product, how to use it, and its benefits. Overall, 38 percent of all new products fail. The second stage in the product life cycle, the growth stage, sees a rapid increase in sales while profits increase and peak. The goal here is to encourage brand loyalty by convincing the market that this brand is superior to others in the category. When competitors appear, marketers must use heavy advertising and other types of 151

4


promotion. Price competition may develop, driving profits down. The maturity stage of the product life cycle is usually the longest. Sales peak and then begin to level off and even decline while profit margins narrow. Competition grows intense when remaining competitors fight for a piece of a shrinking pie. Because most customers have already accepted the product, sales are often to replace a “wornout” item or to take advantage of product improvements. To remain competitive and

5

maintain market share during the maturity stage, firms may tinker with the marketing mix by adding “bells and whistles” to their products’ features, or they may try to attract new users of the product. Many U.S. firms are finding new markets in Eastern Europe for products whose domestic sales are lagging. The decline stage of the product life cycle is characterized by a decrease in sales. Often this is because new technology has made the product obsolete, as when computers caused the decline of the typewriter. Although a single firm may still be profitable, the market as a whole begins to shrink, profits decline, and suppliers pull

6

out. In this stage, there are usually many competitors with no one having a distinct advantage. A firm’s major product decision in the decline stage is whether or not to keep the product. Once the product is no longer profitable, it drains resources from the firm—resources that could help develop newer products. Marketing: Real People, Real Choices, Solomon and Stuart, pp. 266-269

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

1. The topic of this selection is a. the zipper. b. new products. c. competition. d. the product life cycle.

_____

2. The stage of the product life cycle that is usually the longest is the a. introduction stage. b. growth stage. c. maturity stage. d. decline stage.

152


_____

3. The two stages in which profits typically peak are the a. introduction and growth stages. b. growth and maturity stages. c. introduction and maturity stages. d. maturity and decline stages.

_____

4. The primary goal during the introduction stage of a product is to a. get first-time buyers to try the product. b. encourage brand loyalty by convincing buyers that a particular brand is better than others in the category. c. persuade buyers to replace worn-out items or to take advantage of product improvements. d. decide whether or not to keep the product.

_____

5. In the last paragraph, the topic sentence begins with the words a. “The decline stage.” b. “Often this is.” c. “Although a single.” d. “Once the product.”

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT KEEPING TRACK OF INFORMATION Directions: Complete the following map of the events described in the selection by writing in the letter from the map that corresponds to each word given below. Introduction Stage

___[A]___ Stage

___[B]___ Stage

Slow, steady increase in sales, but company does not make a ___[C]___

Sales and profits increase and peak

Sales peak, level off, and ___[D]___; profit margins narrow

_____

6. Profit

_____

7. Market

_____

8. Maturity

_____

9. Decline

_____ 10. Growth 153

Decline Stage

___[E]___ begins to shrink, profits decline, suppliers pull out


USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word h umble (paragraph 1) means a. ordinary. b. embarrassing. c. complicated. d. original. _____ 12. The word e xceptionally (paragraph 1) means a. scarcely. b. realistically. c. falsely. d. unusually. _____ 13. The word e s sential (paragraph 1) means a. peculiar. b. necessary. c. colorful. d. questionable. _____ 14. The best synonym for the word p rofitable (paragraph 2) is a. poor. b. well-known. c. well-paying. d. disappointing. _____ 15. The best antonym for the word p eak (paragraph 4) is a. decline. b. change. c. climax. d. grow. _____ 16. The word s uperior (paragraph 4) means a. average. b. better. c. single. d. equal. _____ 17. The word t inker (paragraph 5) means a. experiment with. b. discontinue. c. replace. d. sell.

154


_____ 18. The word l agging (paragraph 5) means a. improving. b. slowing down. c. increasing. d. beginning. _____ 19. The word o bs olete (paragraph 6) means a. fancy. b. expensive. c. outdated. d. valuable.

155


156


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 9 RECOGNIZING THE BASIC PATTERNS OF ORGANIZATION FEDERAL POLICIES TOWARD NATIVE AMERICANS Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. genocide (paragraph 1) the deliberate and systematic destruction of a racial, political, or cultural group expulsion: (paragraph 3) the state of being driven out or forced to leave extermination: (paragraph 3) the process of getting rid of something by killing or completely destroying it assimilation: (paragraph 4) the blending of one racial or ethnic group with the culture and structure of society No one knows for sure how many Native Americans lived in North America when European settlers first began arriving—one estimate puts the number as high as 40 million, divided among 500 tribes. By the middle of the nineteenth century, however, diseases brought by European settlers, along with dislocation, warfare, genocide, and

1

impoverishment, had reduced the original Indian population to approximately 250,000 individuals. Policies set by the federal government largely determined the fate of Native Americans. These policies evolved through several stages, summarized as follows. The first stage was separation. The British began this policy during the 1600s, and under it, the Indian tribes were treated as nations. Britain claimed all lands east of the Appalachian Mountains, thereby ceding all western lands to Native Americans. With the American Revolution and the establishment of the United States, a new policy arose. Friction between settlers and Cherokee Indians led the Cherokee tribe to sue the state of Georgia, asking for recognition of the boundaries between the state and the Indian nation. The Supreme Court refused their claims, but that decision established the legal 157

2


principle of allowing Native Americans authority over matters within their territories. The second stage was expulsion and extermination. Under congressional approval granted in 1830, the federal government removed all Indians from the East Coast. Originally, this relocation was to be accomplished by making treaties with the Indian nations, but in practice, it was a forced, brutal migration. For example, thousands of

3

Cherokee Indians were forced to move from their traditional homelands to new lands in Oklahoma in 1838; nearly one-fourth of the Indians died along the way in what became known as the Trail of Tears. By 1850, Native Americans were being forcibly moved to territories west of the Mississippi River. Today, as a result, almost 90 percent of Indians live in the West. By the 1880s, the policy of relocation-extermination gave way to forced assimilation. Assimilation took place in two areas. One involved the redistribution of land, with the hope that Native Americans would enter the white economic system. This hope was

4

never realized on a large scale. The other involved a dissolution of Indian social structure and culture. For the next half-century, Indian tribal customs, institutions, and culture came under attack, becoming lost, forgotten, or destroyed. During the 1930s, government policy changed again. The new federal policy was tribal restoration. Under it, Native Americans were encouraged to restore their cultural roots, if they wished. Tribes were also urged to incorporate legally, to adopt some form

5

of constitutional government, and to establish businesses. The current view is that Native Americans can be self-sufficient, independent groups rather than wards of the government. Sociology for the Twenty-First Century, Curry, Jiobu, and Schwirian, pp. 177-179

Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION _____

1. The purpose of this selection is to a. criticize the federal government for its policies toward Native Americans. b. explain why most Native Americans live in the West. c. describe the federal government’s policies toward Native Americans. d. discuss the fate of groups like Native Americans in America today.

158


_____

2. The first stage of the federal government’s policies was a. expulsion. b. separation. c. assimilation. d. restoration.

_____

3. During the separation stage, the Indian tribes were a. treated as nations. b. encouraged to restore their cultural roots. c. forced to march to territories west of the Mississippi River. d. urged to enter the white economic system.

_____

4. The federal policy of forced assimilation involved a. the redistribution of land. b. a dissolution of Indian social structure and culture. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

5. According to this selection, the current view toward Native Americans is that a. tribes should be considered wards of the government. b. tribes should adopt a constitutional government. c. Native Americans should not be allowed authority over their territories. d. Native Americans can be self-sufficient and independent groups.

US I NG WHAT YOU KN OW AB OUT BASIC P ATTERNS OF OR G ANIZATION _____

6. The overall pattern of organization that the authors follow in this selection is a. chronological order. b. definition. c. process. d. listing.

_____

7. In the first paragraph, the transition that indicates that the authors are presenting a contrasting idea is a. first. b. by. c. however. d. which.

159


Directions: Complete the following time line of the events described in the selection. Put the events in the correct order by writing in the letter from the time line that corresponds to the event. Federal Policies Toward Native Americans 1600s [A]

1830

1850 1880s

Expulsion and extermination

1930s

Forced assimilation

[C]

[B]

_____

8. Tribal restoration

_____

9. Separation

_____ 10. Native Americans forcibly moved west USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word d islocation (paragraph 1) means a. left alone. b. taken apart. c. movement to a different place. d. kept the same. _____ 12. The word i mpoverishment (paragraph 1) means a. lack of education. b. made poor. c. removed difficulties. d. not able to work. _____ 13. The word c eding (paragraph 2) means a. admiring. b. worrying. c. keeping. d. giving.

160

Now Native Americans can be self-sufficient and independent


_____ 14. The word f riction (paragraph 2) means a. agreement. b. harmony. c. conflict. d. interaction. _____ 15. The word b rutal (paragraph 3) means a. bold. b. cruel. c. disorganized. d. willing. _____ 16. The word m igration (paragraph 3) means a. place. b. movement. c. permission. d. rebellion. _____ 17. The word d is solution (paragraph 4) means a. description. b. improvement. c. destruction. d. development. _____ 18. The word w ard s (paragraph 5) means a. guards. b. dependents. c. leaders. d. divisions. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Match each definition in Column B with the term that it corresponds to from the Vocabulary Preview in Column A. Write the letter of the choice in the space provided. Column A

Column B

_____ 19. Genocide

a. The state of being driven out or forced to leave

_____ 20. Expulsion

b. The blending of one racial or ethnic group with the culture and structure of society

_____ 21. Extermination

c. The deliberate and systematic destruction of a racial, political, or cultural group

_____ 22. Assimilation

d. The process of getting rid of something by killing it

161


162


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 10 RECOGNIZING COMPARISON/CONTRAST AND CAUSE/EFFECT PATTERNS AVOIDING THE DARK SIDE OF THE MEDIA Vocabulary Preview These are some of the difficult words in this passage. The definitions here will help you if you can’t figure out the meanings from the sentence context or word parts. stimulus (paragraph 1) something causing a response atrocity (paragraph 1) an appalling or atrocious situation or action sensationalism (paragraph 3) the use of material that arouses strong but usually superficial interest or emotion, especially in writing, journalism, or politics Too much bad news and negativity in any given day can sap our strength, diminish our spirit, and stress us out without our even knowing it is happening. While our technology-driven world has brought us many advances, the net effect of 24-hour cable

1

stations, up-to-the-second Internet sites, and all-day talk radio may be stimulus overload. Sitting down to dinner in front of the TV may be the best way to diet, as many of us are left nauseated and shaken from yet another atrocity in the world. What is the net effect on our mental, emotional, spiritual, and physical health? Researchers are just beginning to understand that too much of a bad thing, whether we experience it first-hand or second-hand, may cause stress. Having a sense of control

2

over your world is good for your health, while believing that you have no control can raise your vulnerability to disease. At what point will we all reach our breaking point and refuse to take it anymore? Clearly, we make choices every day about what news to watch and or what to read or listen to. Here are some possible actions that you can take to reduce your negative hits from the media. 1) Avoid all contact? This would be difficult. Not impossible, but difficult 163

3


nonetheless. While you can probably do this for a day or two, you may miss out on several important pieces of information. A better alternative would be to screen your shows and limit your news time each day to a predetermined amount. Try to find debates of issues that focus on both sides of a problem, rather than on one-sided, negative approaches. 2) Let media producers know when you object to something that is particularly offensive. Better yet, contact the companies who purchase ad time during the program. Let your actions speak for you. 3) Ask yourself: a. Is this important to me? b. Is there anything I can do about it? If the answer to either of these is “no,” turn off the TV or put down the paper and force yourself to focus on something else, such as reading a book or magazine instead. If you answer “yes” to either question, the least you can do is write to someone in public office, or to the persons responsible for the information. 4) Limit your contact with others who go on and on about the latest negative event seen on TV. These stress “carriers” may exacerbate your own stress response and force you to dwell on events that may be impossible to change. 5) Search for at least one positive thing in the news each day. Try to stay focused on that and tell others about it. 6) Try to focus on who is delivering the message. Are they doing it to point out the injustice so that people can change it, or is the “dirt” better news than the positive slant? Take action by not watching. Buy papers that have more good journalism and less sensationalism. And, if you ever get the chance to rate television broadcasts, express your opinions by voting for valuable, meaningful programming. Access to Health, Donatelle and Davis, p. 75

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements.

164


_____

1. The main idea of this selection is that a. an effective way to lose weight is to watch the news during dinner. b. having a sense of control over our world is good for our health. c. media producers are more interested in sensationalism than responsible journalism. d. too much bad news can have a negative effect on different aspects of our health.

_____

2. According to the selection, you can reduce the negative impact of the media by a. limiting the time you spend watching the news each day. b. limiting your contact with people who talk excessively about bad news. c. finding and focusing on at least one positive thing in the news each day. d. doing all of the above.

_____

3. If you find something offensive on a program, you should contact a. the media producers. b. the companies who advertise during the program. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

4. The organization pattern of the first two paragraphs is a. comparison/contrast. b. cause/effect. c. process. d. chronological order.

_____

5. The organization pattern of paragraph 3 is a. chronological order. b. process. c. listing. d. cause/effect.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT OTHER PATTERNS Directions: In the space provided, write C next to each item from the selection that is a cause and E next to each phrase that is an effect. _____

6. Bad news and negativity

_____

7. Stress

_____

8. 24-hour cable stations

_____

9. Increased vulnerability to disease

_____ 10. All-day talk radio

165


USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The word sap (paragraph 1) means a. sweeten. b. fool. c. drain. d. push. _____ 12. The word diminish (paragraph 1) means a. lessen. b. strengthen. c. disagree. d. distribute. _____ 13. The word vulnerability (paragraph 2) means a. power. b. susceptibility. c. protection. d. attention. _____ 14. The a. b. c. d.

word predetermined (paragraph 3) means already decided. accidental. given up. open to discussion.

_____ 15. The word exacerbate (paragraph 3) means a. worsen. b. entertain. c. improve. d. prevent. REVIEWING DIFFICULT VOCABULARY Directions: Complete each of the following sentences by inserting a word from the Vocabulary Preview in the space provided. A word should only be used once. 16. Each person charged with committing an _______________ during the war was sentenced to life in prison. 17. The tabloid newspaper was well-known for its _______________ before it went out of business. 18. A traffic light is a _______________ that causes us to stop.

166


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

CHAPTER 11 READING AND THINKING CRITICALLY THE BIGGEST MALL ON EARTH A mall is a mall is a mall. Not so! Imagine a shopping and entertainment paradise that covers over 110 acres and attracts over 20 million visitors a year. Now, imagine this attraction sitting on the plains of Canada in the city of Edmonton, Alberta. If you have

1

not visited this “shopping center,” then you have missed seeing and experiencing the biggest mall on Earth—West Edmonton Mall. This mammoth package of tourist services attracts people from all over the world in record numbers. The West Edmonton Mall is not like most other malls: It is massive in size and excites the imagination. Sure, it has shops, shops and more shops. In fact, it has more than 800 stores. But the mall has more than shops and shopping to attract visitors. Almost 40% of the mall’s space is dedicated to attractions as well as a hotel and more

2

than 100 food outlets, and it is all under one roof. It takes over 15,000 employees to accomplish all of the administrative and operating duties to keep this giant enterprise ticking. The Fantasyland Hotel has 355 guest rooms, but 127 of these rooms have been specially “themed” and decorated to fulfill guests’ desires for travel adventures. When it’s time to take a break from shopping there are a number of things to do and see, including Galaxyland Amusement Park, World Waterpark, Ice Palace, Europa

3

(miniature) golf course, Deep Sea Submarine Adventure, Dolphin Lagoon and Sea Life Caverns, a full-scale casino, a bowling emporium, three movie complexes, and a replica of one of the ships of Christopher Columbus. Deciding what to do can be as difficult as deciding what to buy. Viewing the many animal attractions exhibiting more than two hundred species of animals such as dolphins, fish, exotic birds, and a colony of breeding penguins takes you back to nature. A ride on the Mindbender roller coaster will find you dropping 14 floors at over 70 miles per hour, while the tranquility of the submarine ride will transport you to exotic 167

4


coral reefs. Or, you could splash down into the water park that covers an area the size of five NFL football fields. Tourism: The Business of Travel, Cook, Yale, and Marqua, p. 163

CHECKING YOUR COMPREHENSION Directions: In the space provided next to each statement about the selection, write T if the statement is true and F if the statement is false. _____

1. The West Edmonton Mall draws tourists but not people who want to shop.

_____

2. According to the selection, the West Edmonton Mall is the world’s biggest mall.

_____

3. The West Edmonton Mall contains five professional football fields.

_____

4. Some of the mall’s hotel rooms have been decorated with adventure themes.

_____

5. The West Edmonton Mall is located in Minnesota.

USING WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT INFERENCE AND WRITER’S PURPOSE Directions: In the space provided, write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements. _____

6. The author’s main purpose for writing this selection is to a. advertise particular shops and stores located in the mall. b. persuade retailers to consider opening a store at the mall. c. encourage people to spend their vacations at the mall. d. describe the mall and the variety of attractions within it.

_____

7. The tone of the selection can best be described as a. cynical. b. impersonal. c. enthusiastic. d. concerned.

_____

8. All of the following words help establish the author’s tone except a. paradise. b. excites. c. duties. d. desires.

_____

9. The author supports the main ideas in this selection by using a. facts and statistics. b. examples. c. descriptions. d. all of the above. 168


_____ 10. One inference that can be made from this selection is that a. the author thinks the mall sounds like fun. b. a shopping mall should not be considered a tourist attraction. c. most people do not enjoy travel adventures. d. the mall should hire more employees to support its services. USING CONTEXT AND WORD PARTS _____ 11. The best synonym for the word m ammoth (paragraph 1) is a. huge. b. expensive. c. complex. d. commercial. _____ 12. The best antonym for the word m assive (paragraph 2) is a. mammoth. b. tiny. c. fantastic. d. strange. _____ 13. The word r eplica (paragraph 3) means a. machine. b. part. c. copy. d. attachment. _____ 14. The word e xotic (paragraph 4) means a. common. b. unusual. c. large. d. light. _____ 15. The word t ranquility (paragraph 4) means a. ability. b. confusion. c. motion. d. peacefulness.

169


170


AN SWER KEY TO M ASTERY TESTS – TEST BANK 2 CHAPTER 1 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c e b a d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d b b b c

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

infirmity deterioration dysfunction inherent mutation

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c a b d c

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

c a c b d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c a b d b

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

a c d b d

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

dominated marksmen elementary agents mineral

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

I P c a d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

d b a b a

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

c d oceanic aquatic ecosystem

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d a a a d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

d b a b a

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

c d c b a

CHAPTER 2 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b a b c b

CHAPTER 3 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d a c c b

CHAPTER 4 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a b P A B

CHAPTER 5 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b c a e f

171

21. 22. 23. 24.

treaty stabilization index diction


CHAPTER 6 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c b b c a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d b b a c

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

a b a d b

16. molecules 17. matter

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c a d a d

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

b b c a d

16. 17. 18. 19.

c a prejudice segregation

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

C E B D A

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

a d b c a

16. 17. 18. 19.

b a b c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a c C A B

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

c b d c b

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

b c b c a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

C E C E C

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

c a b a a

16. atrocity 17. sensationalism 18. stimulus

CHAPTER 7 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d c d c d

CHAPTER 8 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d c b a a

CHAPTER 9 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c b a c d

21. d 22. b

CHAPTER 10 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d d c b c

172


CHAPTER 11 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

F T F T F

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d c c d a

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

a b c b d

173


174


PART THREE STUDENT RESOURCE GUIDES TEST BANK 1

175


176


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

GUIDE A INTRODUCTION TO COLLEGE TEXTBOOK READING Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The purpose of a textbook’s table of contents is to provide you with a. an introduction to the main topic of the book. b. a detailed outline of the book’s topics. c. an explanation of what makes the book unique. d. a list of key terminology and suggested readings.

_____

2. The first step in the SQ3R system involves a. prereading. b. summarizing. c. paraphrasing. d. self-testing.

_____

3. During the recite step of SQ3R, you should a. form questions that you can answer as you read. b. answer end-of-chapter questions. c. check your recall for each section. d. read each boldfaced heading aloud.

_____

4. Developing retrieval clues involves a. using sight, sound, and touch to take in information. b. selecting a word or phrase that summarizes several pieces of information. c. creating a detailed mental picture of information you want to learn. d. connecting new information with your personal experience.

_____

5. Immediate review should be done a. before you begin reading an assignment. b. periodically throughout the semester. c. right before a final exam. d. right after you finish reading an assignment.

Directions: Read the passage below using the SQ3R system, then write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements in the space provided. Body Work as Alternative Medicine Body work actually consists of several different forms of exercise. Feldenkrais work is a system of movements, floor exercises, and body work designed to retrain the central 177


nervous system to help it find new pathways around areas of blockage or damage. It is gentle and effective in rehabilitating trauma victims. Rolfing is a more invasive form of body work, aimed at restructuring the musculoskeletal system by working on patterns of tension held in deep tissue. The therapist applies firm pressure to different areas of the body. The pressure may be painful. Rolfing can release repressed emotions as well as dissipate muscle tension. Shiatsu is a traditional healing art from Japan that makes use of firm finger pressure applied to specific points on the body and is intended to increase the circulation of vital energy. The client lies on the floor, with the therapist seated alongside. Trager work, one of the least invasive forms of body work, employs gentle rocking and bouncing motions to induce states of deep, pleasant relaxation. –Health: The Basics, Donatelle, p. 449

_____

6. Surveying this passage indicates that it is about a. stress management. b. body work. c. mental therapy. d. weight loss.

_____

7. The most helpful guide question based on this passage is a. Where did the body work called Rolfing originate? b. Who developed the Feldenkrais form of body work? c. What are the different kinds of body work? d. Which is the least invasive form of body work?

_____

8. The basic organizational pattern of this passage is a. chronological order. b. example. c. process. d. listing.

_____

9. The type of body work that is intended to increase the circulation of vital energy is a. Feldenkrais work. b. Rolfing. c. Shiatsu. d. Trager work.

_____ 10. If you created a rhyme based on each type of body work, you would be using the learning strategy known as a. mnemonics. b. visualization. c. retrieval clues. d. periodic review. 178


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

GUIDE B A GUIDE FOR ESL (ELL) READERS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The part of a sentence that identifies who or what the sentence is about is the a. subject. b. predicate. c. modifier. d. synonym.

_____

2. The main part of the predicate is the a. noun. b. verb. c. adjective. d. adverb.

_____

3. The purpose of coordinate sentences is to a. emphasize the relationship between two or more ideas. b. indicate the equal importance of two or more ideas. c. make the material more concise and easier to read. d. do all of the above.

_____

4. An example of a coordinating conjunction is a. and. b. during. c. until. d. if.

_____

5. When you paraphrase, you should do all of the following except a. use your own words to express the author’s ideas. b. substitute synonyms for the original words. c. split lengthy, complicated sentences into shorter sentences. d. change the meaning of the author’s words.

Directions: Read the passage below, then write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements in the space provided. (1)

Egos are fragile and public speaking is extremely personal. (2) Speakers are all

like Noel Coward when he said, “I love criticism just as long as it’s unqualified praise.” (3)

A critic should try to strengthen the already positive aspects of someone’s public

speaking performance. (4) Positive criticism is particularly important in itself, but it’s 179


almost essential as a preface to negative comments. (5) There are always positive characteristics about any speech, and it’s more productive to concentrate on these first. (6)

Thus, instead of saying, “The speech didn’t do anything for me,” tell the speaker what

you liked first, then bring up some weakness and suggest how it might be corrected. (7)

When criticizing a person’s second or third speech, it’s especially helpful if you can

point out specific improvements. (8) Remember, too, that once you say something, you can’t take it back. (9) If in doubt, err on the side of gentleness. –The Essential Elements of Public Speaking, DeVito, p. 43

_____

6. The best synonym for the word fragile in sentence 1 is a. breakable. b. delicate. c. flimsy. d. brittle.

_____

7. In sentence 3, the subject is a. critic. b. should try. c. positive aspects. d. public speaking performance.

_____

8. In sentence 4, the coordinating conjunction is a. particularly. b. in. c. but. d. as.

_____

9. The best paraphrase of sentence 6 is a. Tell the speaker what you liked first, rather than beginning with a negative comment. Then you can mention a flaw and recommend how to correct it. b. Don’t say, “The speech didn’t do anything for me.” Tell the speaker what you liked first. Then bring up some weakness. Then tell how it might be corrected. c. Rather than saying, “The speech didn’t do anything for me,” tell the speaker what you liked about it first, then you can bring up any weaknesses that you noticed and give suggestions or ideas about how those might be corrected. d. Say what you liked about the speech before saying, “The speech didn’t do anything for me.” Then bring up some weakness and correct it.

_____ 10. In sentence 9, the predicate is a. doubt. b. err. c. side. d. gentleness.

180


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

ONLINE RESOURCE GUIDE TEST-TAKING: A REVIEW Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. Materials you should bring with you to an examination include a. a watch. b. extra pens and pencils. c. extra paper. d. all of the above.

_____

2. The best place to sit in an examination is a. near the door so you can leave as soon as you’ve finished. b. at the front of the room so you can start right away and avoid distractions. c. at the back of the room so you have more time before the exam starts. d. at the front of the room so you can see when others turn in their exams.

_____

3. When you are previewing an exam, you should do all of the following except a. try to answer as many questions as possible. b. notice the exam’s written directions. c. determine how many and what type of questions are on the exam. d. get an overview of the general topics covered on the exam.

_____

4. If you are unsure of the answer to a question on an objective exam, you should a. mark none of the answer choices. b. mark all of the answer choices. c. narrow the choices down to two and mark them both. d. mark what looks like the best answer and note the question number so you can return to it if you have time.

_____

5. On a multiple-choice exam, you can usually eliminate choices that contain a. qualifying words such as often and seldom. b. familiar terminology. c. obviously false information. d. the most detailed information.

_____

6. An example of a qualifying word that provides for some level of exception is a. always. b. never. c. completely. d. usually. 181


_____

7. On a standardized test, your performance is usually compared to that of a. the other people in your class. b. the other people at your college. c. large numbers of students throughout the state or country. d. students in other countries around the world.

Directions: Decide whether each of the following statement about standardized tests is True (T) or False (F) and write T or F in the space provided. _____

8. To prepare for a standardized test, you should take several practice tests, timing and scoring yourself.

_____

9. Plan on taking your time and finishing the test.

_____ 10. If you finish early, you should stop immediately and turn in your test.

182


ANSWER KEY TO STUDENT RESOURCE GUIDES – TEST BANK 1

GUIDE A 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

b a c b d

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b c d c a

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b a c a b

GUIDE B 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a b d a d

ONLINE RESOURCE GUIDE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

d b a d c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d c T F F

183


184


STUDENT RESOURCE GUIDES TEST BANK 2

185


186


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

GUIDE A INTRODUCTION TO COLLEGE TEXTBOOK READING Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The introduction to a textbook is found in the a. preface. b. table of contents. c. chapter outline. d. glossary.

_____

2. During the “S” step in the SQ3R system, you are a. summarizing. b. prereading. c. studying. d. highlighting.

_____

3. The “3R” steps of SQ3R stand for read, a. recite, and review. b. research, and reread. c. review, and rest. d. recite, and react.

_____

4. Periodic review consists of a. writing a summary of what you have read. b. creating an outline of each chapter you read. c. rereading chapter headings immediately after reading the material. d. quickly reviewing previously learned material on a regular basis.

_____

5. Making up a rhyme to help you remember difficult information is an example of a. visualization. b. retrieval. c. mnemonics. d. overlearning.

187


Directions: Read the passage below using the SQ3R system, then write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements in the space provided. Push and Pull Technologies on the Internet As the Internet becomes more commercialized, content providers are working to find the right balance between pull technology and push technology. Pull technology is a distribution technique whereby information is sent to a user on demand. Push technology is a distribution technique whereby information is sent to the user without the user’s prior permission. A Web browser is an example of a pull technology because you direct the browser to Web locations in order to pull requested Web pages to your local host, on demand. E-mail is an example of a push technology because e-mail messages are sent— pushed—to you whether or not you want them. When information comes to you automatically and periodically over some indefinite period, that’s a push delivery mechanism. When information comes to you in response to a specific request and the response has a clear conclusion after which no additional responses are expected, that’s a pull delivery mechanism. With pull technologies, information consumers have more control over the inflow of information. With push technologies, information providers have more control over the distribution of their information. Although the term push technology sounds vaguely obnoxious, push technologies can operate in unobtrusive ways, much like e-mail. You don’t need to bother with it unless you want to, and you can always choose to ignore it. –Light on the Web, Lehnert, p. 179

_____

6. Surveying this passage indicates that it is about a. the history of the Internet. b. e-mail. c. push and pull technologies. d. Web browsers.

_____

7. The most helpful guide question based on this passage is a. What are the differences between push and pull technologies? b. When did the Internet start becoming commercialized? c. Who uses push and pull technologies? d. Are information providers trying to find a balance between push and pull technologies?

188


Directions: Complete each of the following statements by underlining the correct word from the pair in parentheses. 8. E-mail is an example of a (push / pull) technology. 9. With (push / pull) technologies, consumers have more control over the inflow of information. 10. When information comes to you automatically and periodically over an indefinite period, that’s a (push / pull) delivery mechanism.

189


190


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

GUIDE B A GUIDE FOR ESL (ELL) READERS Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. The two parts of every sentence are the a. noun and the modifier. b. verb and the adverb. c. subject and the predicate. d. predicate and the verb.

_____

2. The purpose of the main part of the predicate is to a. identify the person or object the sentence is about. b. tell what the person or object is doing or has done. c. describe the person or object that the sentence is about. d. tie together two or more ideas.

_____

3. Sentences that express one key idea and a related but less important idea are called a. coordinate sentences. b. subordinate sentences. c. subjective sentences. d. modifier sentences.

_____

4. An example of a subordinating conjunction is a. because. b. and. c. but. d. or.

_____

5. Paraphrasing consists of a. using your own words to express an author’s ideas. b. substituting synonyms for the original words. c. splitting long, complicated sentences into shorter ones. d. all of the above.

191


Directions: Read the passage below, then write the letter of the choice that best completes each of the following statements in the space provided. (1)

From 6 to 60 mph, the roller coaster has always found itself at the center of

attention. (2) Thanks to Russian ingenuity and some early daredevils, the first ice slides were built in the 15th century. (3) The thrill of rocketing down steep ice slides in cars built of ice with straw seats created the desire for a year-round alternative. (4) The answer to this demand, the roller coaster, was introduced in St. Petersburg, Russia, in 1784. (5)

Some of these early roller coasters allowed riders to sit sideways and traveled

at a leisurely speed of 6 mph. (6) But riders wanted more speed and thrills, and the engineers went to work. (7) By 1817, speeds of 40 mph were reached in Paris and loops, twists, turns and breathtaking drops weren’t far behind. (8) Now speeds of 60 mph are common, and with a little more help from the engineers, opportunities for adventuresome fun-seekers to experience speeds of over 100 mph are on the horizon. –Tourism: The Business of Travel, Cook, Yale, and Marqua, p. 156

_____

6. In sentence 1, the subject is a. 6 to 60 mph. b. roller coaster. c. has found itself. d. center of attention.

_____

7. In sentence 2, the predicate is a. Russian ingenuity. b. early daredevils. c. ice slides. d. were built.

_____

8. The best paraphrase for sentence 8 is a. Now speeds of 60 mph are common, and with help from the engineers, opportunities for adventuresome fun-seekers to experience speeds of over 100 mph are on the horizon. b. Speeds of 60 mph are not unusual today. Soon, engineers may be able to give thrill-seekers the chance to experience a 100-mph roller coaster ride. c. Speeds of 60 mph are common. With a little more help from the engineers. Opportunities are on the horizon. Fun-seekers may reach speeds of 100 mph. d. In the world today, speeds of 60 mph are not that uncommon, and if the engineers will help work on it, there may be many, many chances for daring and adventurous fun-seekers to experience the thrill of roller coasters that are able to reach speeds of well over 100 mph. 192


_____

9. In sentence 7, the phrase “By 1817� is a a. coordinate sentence. b. subordinate sentence. c. modifier. d. conjunction.

_____ 10. The best synonym for the word leisurely in sentence 5 is a. rapidly. b. unhurriedly. c. restlessly. d. casually.

193


194


NAME:

DATE:

SECTION:

ONLINE RESOURCE GUIDE TEST-TAKING: A REVIEW Directions: Write the letter of the choice that best completes each statement in the space provided. _____

1. When timing your arrival at the examination room, you should try to be there a. a few minutes early so you have time to find a seat and get organized. b. at least a half hour early so you can get test-taking advice from classmates. c. at least an hour early so you can go over the material again with classmates. d. at the last minute so you don’t have time to worry before the exam starts.

_____

2. Before you answer any questions on an exam, you should a. read the directions. b. preview the exam. c. plan your time. d. do all of the above.

_____

3. The purpose of previewing an exam is to help you to a. get an overview of the whole exam. b. reduce your anxiety about the exam. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.

_____

4. All of the following statements about taking objective exams are true except a. Be sure you have answered every question before you turn in your exam. b. Try to anticipate hidden meanings and trick questions. c. Reserve time at the end of the exam for reviewing your answers. d. Do not change an answer unless you have a good reason.

_____

5. When taking a multiple-choice exam, you should do all of the following except a. try to answer the question before looking at the answer choices. b. stop reading the choices as soon as you think you have found the right answer. c. use logic and common sense to eliminate incorrect choices. d. treat each choice as a true or false statement.

_____

6. An example of a qualifying word that probably signals an incorrect answer choice is a. often. b. usually. c. most. d. always.

195


_____

7. Commercially prepared tests that are used to measure and compare the specific skills and abilities of large numbers of students are called a. standardized tests. b. international tests. c. subjective tests. d. objective tests.

Directions: Decide whether each of the following statement about standardized tests is True (T) or False (F) and write T or F in the space provided. _____

8. Because most standardized tests are timed, you should work at a fairly rapid pace.

_____

9. On standardized tests, you are expected to get most of the answers correct.

_____ 10. If there is no penalty for guessing, you should use the last few seconds to randomly fill in answers for the remaining items.

196


AN SWER KEY TO STUDE NT RESOURC E GUI DES – TEST BANK 2

GUIDE A 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a b a d c

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c a push pull push

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

b d b c b

GUIDE B 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

c b b a d

ONLINE RESOURCE GUIDE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a d c b b

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

d a T F T

197


198


CREDITS Chapter 1 Michael R. Solomon and Elnora W. Stuart, Marketing.com: The Brave New World of ECommerce. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 2001, pp. 9-10 Rebecca J. Donatelle and Lorraine G. Davis, Access to Health, 6th edition. Boston: Allyn and Bacon, 2000, pp. 516-517, 521-522 Chapter 2 Neil A. Campbell, Lawrence G. Mitchell, and Jane B. Reece, Biology: Concepts and Connections, 3rd edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, pp. 70-71 X. J. Kennedy and Dana Gioia, Literature, 3rd compact edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2003, pp. 7-8 Chapter 3 Neil A. Campbell, Lawrence G. Mitchell, and Jane B. Reece, Biology: Concepts and Connections, 3rd edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, pp. 295-296 John A. Garraty and Mark C. Carnes, The American Nation, 10th edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, p. 492 Chapter 4 Palmira Brummett, Robert B. Edgar, Neil J. Hackett, George F. Jewsbury, Alastair M. Taylor, Nels M. Bailkey, Clyde J. Lewis, and T. Walter Wallbank, Civilization Past and Present, 9th edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, pp. 367-369 Neil A. Campbell, Lawrence G. Mitchell, and Jane B. Reece, Biology: Concepts and Connections, 3rd edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, pp. 686-687 Chapter 5 Edward F. Bergman and William H. Renwick, Introduction to Geography: People, Places, and Environment. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 1999, pp. 206, 244-245

199


Chapter 6 Stephen F. Davis and Joseph J. Palladino, Psychology, 3rd edition. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 2000, pp. 678-680 Jeffrey Bennett, Megan Donahue, Nicholas Schneider, and Mark Voit, The Cosmic Perspective, 3rd edition. San Francisco: Pearson Education, Inc., 2004, p. 115 Chapter 7 John A. Garraty and Mark C. Carnes, The American Nation, 10th edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, pp. 130-131 George C. Edwards III, Martin P. Wattenberg, Robert L. Lineberry, Government in America: People, Politics, and Policy, 9th edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, p. 697 Chapter 8 Neil A. Campbell, Lawrence G. Mitchell, and Jane B. Reece, Biology: Concepts and Connections, 3rd edition. New York: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc., 2000, pp. 588-589 Michael R. Solomon and Elnora W. Stuart, Marketing: Real People, Real Choices, 2nd edition. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 2000, pp. 266-269 Chapter 9 Roy A. Cook, Laura J. Yale, and Joseph J. Marqua, Tourism: The Business of Travel. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 1999, pp. 159-161 Tim Curry, Robert Jiobu, and Kent Schwirian, Sociology for the Twenty-First Century, 3rd edition. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 2002, pp. 177-179 Chapter 10 Edward F. Bergman and William H. Renwick, Introduction to Geography: People, Places, and Environment. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 1999, pp. 206208 Rebecca J. Donatelle and Lorraine G. Davis, Access to Health, 6th edition. Boston: Allyn and Bacon, 2000, p. 75

200


Chapter 11 Michael R. Solomon and Elnora W. Stuart, Marketing: Real People, Real Choices, 2nd edition. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 2000, p. 338 Roy A. Cook, Laura J. Yale, and Joseph J. Marqua, Tourism: The Business of Travel. Upper Saddle River NJ: Prentice Hall, 1999, p. 163 Student Resource Guides Rebecca J. Donatelle, Health: The Basics, 5th edition. Cummings, 2003, p. 449

San Francisco: Benjamin

Joseph A. DeVito, The Essential Elements of Public Speaking. Boston: Allyn and Bacon, 2003, p. 43 Wendy J. Lehnert, Light on the Web. Boston: Addison Wesley Longman, Inc, 2002, p. 179

201


ENG 079 Essentials Test Bank  

ENG 079 Essential Reading Skills Test Bank

Read more
Read more
Similar to
Popular now
Just for you