Grade 9 - Booklet

Page 1

Manarat El-Maadi American School

ID


Plan – G.9  Introduction

Classwork Passage 1-A & 1-B

HW HW-1

Next Vocab Vocab-1

Vocab-1

 Graph (R)

2-A & 2-B

HW-2

Vocab-2

HW-2

Vocab-2

 Grammar Tips

3-A & 3-B

HW-3

Vocab-3

4.

HW-3

Vocab-3

 Main Idea-1 (R)

4-A & 4-B

HW-4

Vocab-4

-

5.

HW-4

Vocab-4

 SAT Robot (G)

5-A & 5-B

HW-5

Vocab-5

-

6.

HW-5

Vocab-5

 Meaning-1 (R)

6-A & 6-B

HW-6

Vocab-6

-

7.

HW-6

Vocab-6

 Wordiness (G)

7-A & 7-B

HW-7

Vocab-7

-

8.

HW-7

Vocab-7

 Reason-1 (R)

8-A & 8-B

HW-8

Vocab-8

-

9.

HW-8

Vocab-8

 Adj-Adv (G)

9-A & 9-B

HW-9

Vocab-9

-

10.

HW-9

Vocab-9

 Tone-Attitude-1 (R)

10A & 10-B

HW-10

Vocab-10

-

11.

HW-10

Vocab-10

 Tenses (G)

11-A & 11-B

HW-11

Vocab-11

-

12.

HW-11

Vocab-11

 Inference-1 (R)

12-A & 12-B

HW-12

Vocab-12

-

13.

HW-12

Vocab-12

 Subject-Verb (G)

13-A & 13-B

HW-13

Vocab-13

-

14.

HW-13

Vocab-13

 Comparison-1 (R)

14-A & 14-B

HW-14

Vocab-14

-

15.

HW-14

Vocab-14

 Conjunctions (G)

15-A & 15-B

HW-15

Vocab-15

-

Review

HW-20

Vocab-20

 Review

Review

-

-

-

16.

HW-15

Vocab-15

 Meaning-2 (R)

16-A & 16-B

HW-16

Vocab-16

-

17.

HW-16

Vocab-16

 Idioms (G)

17-A & 17-B

HW-17

Vocab-17

-

18.

HW-17

Vocab-17

 Reason-2 (R)

18-A & 18-B

HW-18

Vocab-18

-

19.

HW-18

Vocab-18

 Punctuation (G)

19-A & 19-B

HW-19

Vocab-19

-

20.

HW-19

Vocab-19

 Comparison-2 (R)

20-A & 20-B

HW-20

Vocab-20

-

21

HW-20

Vocab-20

 Pronouns (G)

21-A & 21-B

HW-21

Vocab-21

-

22

HW-21

Vocab-21

 Main Idea-2 (R)

22-A & 22-B

HW-22

Vocab-22

-

23

HW-22

Vocab-22

 Parallelism (G)

23-A & 23-B

HW-23

Vocab-23

-

24

HW-23

Vocab-23

 Tone-Attitude-2 ( R)

24-A & 24-B

HW-24

Vocab-24

-

25

HW-24

Vocab-24

 Comparison (G)

25-A & 25-B

HW-25

Vocab-25

-

26

HW-25

Vocab-25

 Inference-2 (R)

26-A & 26-B

HW-26

Vocab-26

-

27

HW-26

Vocab-26

 Modifiers (G)

27-A & 27-B

HW-27

Vocab-27

-

28

HW-27

Vocab-27

 Main Idea-3 (R)

28-A & 28-B

HW-28

Vocab-28

-

29

HW-28

Vocab-28

 Diction-2 (G)

29-A & 29-B

HW-29

Vocab-29

-

30

HW-29

Vocab-29

 Reading Review

30-A & 30-B

HW-30

Vocab-30

-

Review

HW-30

Vocab-30

 Writing Review

Review

-

-

Date

Class

-

1.

HW -

-

2.

HW-1

-

3.

-

Due Vocab. -

Demo


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Vocabulary


Vocab. (1)

Vocabulary One  Abandon

2.

 Accelerate

3.

 accomplished

 to leave o The house was abandoned many years ago.  to move faster

o We need to accelerate climate action.  very successful — very skilled

o Orwell was an accomplished English writer.  exact

 Acquire

6.

 Adapt

7.

 Adequate

8.

 Adhere

9.

 Adjust

o He acquired the habit of thinking loudly.  to change o Some animals couldn’t adapt to climate changes and finally died.  enough

H

r. M 10.

 to get

M

5.

o We hope to become more accurate in predicting earthquakes.

y

 Accurate

an

4.

ah dy

1.

 Advantage

o She makes an adequate amount of money.  to obey - to follow o You should adhere to the rules.  to make small changes o I adjusted the volume on the radio.  a positive point o Speed is an advantage in most sports.


Vocab. (2)

Two 1.

 Adverse

 difficult o She lived in adverse conditions.  to support

 Advocate

o Doctors advocate healthy eating for the children.

 Affection

4.

 Allusion

 strong love

o She has deep affection for her parents.  an indirect reference

o He made an allusion to a secret plan.

M

3.

ah dy

2.

 another choice  Alternative

o We planned an outdoor wedding, but we have

y

5.

6.

an

an alternative location if it rains.  Ambiguous

 confusing

o I was confused by his ambiguous message.

7.

H

 having strong desire for success

 Ambitious

o The company was created by two ambitious

r.

young men.

 Analogous

M

8. 9.

10.

 Ancestor

 Anecdote

 similar o My situation is analogous to yours.  one from whom a person is descended o Her ancestors came to America in the 1850.  a short story o He told us many anecdotes about his childhood.


Vocab. (3)

Three  great sadness

2.

 Anguish

o He watched in anguish as fire spread through the house.  unknown

 Anonymous

ah dy

1.

o The donor wishes to remain anonymous.  to expect - to predict

 Anticipate

4.

 Approximately

5.

 Assert

o The organizers of the fair anticipate a large crowd.  nearly

o The cost will be approximately 500 euros.

M

3.

 to say that something is true

y

o He asserted that he was innocent.  a belief without proof

 Assumption

o Many scientific assumptions about Mars were wrong.

an

6.

 amazed

 Astonished

8.

 Attempt

M

r.

H

7.

9.

 Autonomy

o The doctors were astonished at the speed of his recovery.  trying o This is my second attempt at the exam.  independence o Our teacher encourages individual autonomy.  unfair preference

10.

 Bias

o The manager was fired because of his bias against the workers.


Vocab. (4)

Four 1.

 distract

 Blur

o The sentence blurs the focus of the essay.  increase

 Boost

3.

 Broad

o In order to boost profits, you need to look for new customers.  wide

o The store has a broad selection of cell phones.  a heavy load

 Burden

o A huge burden was lifted off my shoulders when I finished my exams.

M

4.

ah dy

2.

 hiding from enemies  Camouflage

6.

 Category

o The rabbit's white fur acts as a camouflage in the snow.

y

5.

an

 division

o The two cars belong to the same category.

 disorder

 Chaos

8.

 Cherish

r. M 9.

o When the police arrived, the streets were in total chaos.

H

7.

 Chronological

 to love - to value o I cherish my independence.  arranged in order of time o The movie features the World War II in chronological order.  to quote

10.

 Cite

o In his essay, Randy must cite the opinions of several experts.


Vocab. (5)

Five 1.

 to state without proof

 Claim

o He claimed that he saw a UFO.  unity

 Coherence

o My group walked in coherence; we all moved hand in hand.

ah dy

2.

 events happening at the same time by accident

3.

 Coincidence

4.

 Collaborate

5.

 Compelling

6.

 Compensate

7.

 Competent

o The competent mechanic managed to fix the engine in a short time.  to collect

8.

 Compile

o The publisher will compile 500 poems into one book.  including everything

o By coincidence, every child in the class has a twin.  to work together

M

o The two companies agreed to collaborate.  captivating

y

o It was a compelling movie about living on the moon.  to pay for work or damages

M

r.

H

an

o Nothing can compensate for the loss of one's home.  skilled

9.

 Comprehensive

10.

 Compromise

o Our software needs a comprehensive update.  settling a disagreement o After hours of negotiations, a compromise was reached.


Vocab. (6)

Six  Conceal

2.

 Concept

 principle - idea o She is familiar with basic concepts of physics.

5.

 Conduct

6.

 Confess

7.

 Conflict

8.

 Consequence

M

 Condemn

y

4.

o Many people are very concerned about the destruction of the rainforests.  to criticize strongly o We strongly condemn the attacks against civilians.  to carry out o The group conducted the research in Australia.  to admit

o He finally confessed his crime.  struggle o The theme of the book is the conflict between good and evil.  result o The earthquake had devastating consequences.  to regard - to think deeply o This man is considered a hero in Palestine

r.

H

an

 Concerned

 Consider

M 10.

o He had a spy camera concealed in his pocket.

 worried - interested

3.

9.

 to hide

ah dy

1.

 Considerable

 large o We received a considerable number of complaints.


Vocab. (7)

Seven 1.

 Contemplate

 to think deeply o He contemplated his future career.  modern

 Contemporary

o This magazine focuses on the contemporary fashion.

ah dy

2.

 the text before and after a word in a passage  Context

4.

 Contradict

o The meaning of this word can be understood in context.  to oppose

o The lab results contradict his theory.

M

3.

 to donate money or time

6.

 Controversy

7.

 Convenient

o Bill Gates has contributed billions of dollars to Africa.

y

 Contribute

 debate

an

5.

o VAR caused controversy at World Cup 2018.

H

 easy o It is very convenient to pay by credit card.  traditional

 Conventional

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Convey

 Convince

o Most of her books are conventional detective stories.

 to mean - to express o His look conveyed all the love he felt for his mother.  to persuade o I convinced him to leave immediately.


Vocab. (8)

Eight

2.

 Crisis

3.

 Criteria

4.

 Criticize

5.

 Crucial

ah dy

 Counterargument

M

1.

 an opposing point of view o In our conversation, I offered the obvious counterargument.  a critical situation o A year ago, our company was in crisis.  standards o What are the criteria for selecting the national team players?  to discuss the positive and negative points o The writer criticized the novel in his review.  Very important o Takeoff and Landing are the most crucial moments in any flight.

7.

 Declare

8.

 Decline

y

 Custom

o It is the custom for the bride to wear a white dress.

r.

H

an

6.

 tradition

 Deficient

10.

 Deliberate

M

9.

 to announce o America declared war on Japan in 1941.  to decrease o The numbers of the white tiger are declining.  not enough o A diet deficient in calcium can lead to weak bones.  intentional o The car accident seems to be deliberate.


Vocab. (9)

Nine

 Depict

3.

 Deplete

4.

 Deteriorate

5.

 Determine

6.

 Diction

7.

 Dignity

8.

 Diminish

ah dy

2.

M

 Demonstrate

 to decide

o I determined that one day I would be an actor.

y

1.

 to show clearly o Would you kindly demonstrate how the car engine works?  to describe o I like the way he depicts the characters in his novel.  to use up o Logging and mining deplete our natural resources.  to become worse o Rain and sun will gradually deteriorate the paint.

an

 choice of words

o The student's essay was full of clever diction.

 self-respect

r.

H

o He wished to quit the job with dignity.  to decrease - to reduce o The side effects of this medicine will diminish over time.  to hide o He disguised himself as a guard and could finally escape.  to refuse o Let’s not dismiss the idea without discussing it deeply.

 disguise

10.

 Dismiss

M

9.


Vocab. (10)

Ten  disagreement 1.

 Dispute

o We couldn’t settle our dispute over work

 Distinct

4.

 Distinguish

5.

 Distract

6.

 Diversity

o Each herb has its own distinct flavor.  to recognize the difference

o We can distinguish between right and wrong.  disturb

o I was distracted by the loud noise.  Variety

 Divert

8.

 Domestic

o The island has a great diversity in plant life.

 to redirect

M

r.

H

7.

9.

 clearly different

an

3.

o The barking dogs disrupted my sleep.

M

 Disrupt

y

2.

 to interrupt

ah dy

conditions.

 Dominate

o The traffic was diverted to a side street.

 related to home or country o My husband is an expert at domestic work.  to control o The team dominated the second half of the game.  inactive- asleep

10.

 Dormant

o Although the volcano remained dormant for 50 years, it suddenly erupted.


Vocab. (11)

Eleven  long-lasting 1.

 Durable

2.

 Efficiency

3.

 Ego

o I'm glad he got the job; he needed something to boost his ego.  to give more details

4.

 Elaborate

o Who can elaborate on the main theme of the short story?  remove

5.

 Eliminate

o Doctors seek to eliminate the causes of the disease.  to come out

6.

 Emerge

7.

 Eminent

9.

10.

ah dy

M

y

an

o The cat emerged from its hiding place behind the couch.  famous

H

r.  Emphasize

M

8.

o The washing machine is made of durable materials.  the good use of time, money, or energy o Sweden has shown the best model of energy efficiency.  self-esteem

 Endure  Engaging

o The eminent scientist was awarded the Nobel Prize.  to highlight o The SAT teacher emphasized the need for continuous practice.  to bear - to tolerate o I cannot endure another day; it’s been three weeks of exams!  charming o The children were watching an engaging movie.


Vocab. (12)

Twelve 1.

 Enhance

 to improve o Robots have enhanced automobile production.  a difficult project

 Enterprise

o Sending a spaceship to Mars is an expensive enterprise.  excited

 Entirely

5.

 Eradicate

6.

 Essential

7.

 Establish

 completely

M

4.

o He seems very enthusiastic about his role in the new play. o The house was entirely renovated.  to destroy completely

o The enemy has been completely eradicated.

y

 Enthusiastic

 very important

an

3.

ah dy

2.

o It's essential to make regular check-ups.

 to set up

H

o Harvard College was established in 1636.

 to calculate something roughly

 Estimate

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Eternal  Ethical

o We need to estimate how much paint we'll need for the room.  lasting forever o This life is not eternal.  moral o Is it ethical to employ children?


Vocab. (13)

Thirteen 1.

 Eventually

2.

 Evolve

3.

 Excavate

4.

 Exceed

5.

 Exhibit

 Finally o The racer could eventually finish the marathon.  to develop gradually

 to dig out

o The archaeologists excavated a new statue.  to go beyond  to show

M

o The cost will exceed 1000 dollars.

o The child exhibited some signs of the disease.  direct

o We were given explicit instructions to keep order.

y

 Explicit

an

6.

ah dy

o The company has evolved into a major technology corporation.

 to take selfish advantage of

 Exploit

o The factory owner exploited the workers; therefore, they went on a strike.

H

7.

 not protected

 Exposed

r.

8.

 Facilitate

M

9.

10.

 Figurative

o You should not be exposed to the sun all day long.

 to make easier o To facilitate learning, each class has no larger than ten students.  symbolic o The poem is full of figurative language.


Vocab. (14)

Fourteen  results o She published her findings in a medical journal.  to grow - to achieve success

 Findings

2.

 Flourish

o Technology markets have flourished in recent years.  to rise and fall in waves

3.

 Fluctuate

4.

 Forecast

o In the desert, the temperature fluctuates dramatically.  to predict

5.

 Foreshadow

o The dark clouds foreshadow an approaching storm.  basis

6.

 Foundation

7.

 Fragile

o The inspector discovered a crack in the house's foundation.  easily broken or damaged

8.

 Fragment

ah dy

1.

an

y

M

o Amazon forecasts high profits this year.  to give a warning

r.

H

o Be careful with that vase; it's very fragile.  a broken piece

 Fulfill

10.

 Fundamental

M

9.

o The road was covered with fragments of glass from the shattered window.

 to achieve o If we could buy this house, our dream would be fulfilled.  basic o We need to make some fundamental changes in our business.


Vocab. (15)

Fifteen  real - honest  Genuine

2.

 Gradual

3.

 Grief

o He has always shown a genuine concern for poor people.  happening slowly

ah dy

1.

o We noticed a gradual change in temperature.  great sadness

o Grief can cause a physical pain.  agreement

5.

 Hierarchy

6.

 Hostile

o The pilot and his copilot were working in harmony.

M

 Harmony

 ranking from highest to lowest o He was at the top of the company hierarchy.

y

4.

 related to an enemy

an

o He was entering hostile territory.

 false pretending

 Hypocrisy

o I hate the hypocrisy of those who say one thing but do another.

H

7.

 theory

 Hypothesis

M

r.

8. 9.

10.

 Identity

 illusion

o Scientists will set up some experiments to test out the new hypothesis.  name - character o The identity of the criminal is not known.  a false idea o A large mirror in a room can create the illusion of more space.


Vocab. (16)

Sixteen  to explain - to give an example  illustrate

2.

 immersed

o The diagram illustrates the bad effects of smoking on health.  deeply involved o He was immersed in his new project.

ah dy

1.

 Coming into another country to live permanently

 immigration

4.

 immortal

 impact

6.

 implicit

o No human is immortal.

an

y

o The goalkeeper has a great impact on the team.  indirect o There is a sense of moral duty implicit in her writings.

 to suggest

r.

H

 imply

 indicate

M

8.

 never dying  effect

5.

7.

o He plans an immediate immigration to Canada.

M

3.

9.

 inevitable

10.

 infamous

o What does the writer imply in the first paragraph?

 to show o The map indicates where the treasure is buried.  certain to happen o I think our loss is inevitable.  famous for evil actions o He is infamous for his war crimes. 


Vocab. (17)

Seventeen  to conclude

1.

 infer

2.

 influence

o What can you infer from the passage?

ah dy

 Initial

5.

 innovation

6.

 inquiry

7.

 integral

8.

 integrity

M

4.

o We need to spend more money on repairing the city infrastructure.  first o The initial earthquake was followed by a series of aftershocks.  a new idea, method, or device o This is the latest innovation in TV technology.  request - investigation

y

 infrastructure

an

o Facebook didn’t respond to our privacy inquiry.  very important o He played an integral role in the success of the company.  honesty

H

r. M 10.

o Her parents have a great influence on her.  structures needed for a society

3.

9.

 effect

 Interaction

 interpretation

o He was a man of the highest integrity.  communication o There's not enough interaction between the manager and the employees.  explanation o His email needs further interpretation.


Vocab. (18)

Eighteen  to occupy

 invade

o Germany invaded France in 1940.  to examine

 investigate

3.

 irony

4.

 irrational

o The police department is investigating the cause of the accident.  a situation that seems contrary to what you expect o When he went to the police station for help, he got arrested. What an irony!  unreasonable

ah dy

2.

M

1.

o Cats have irrational fear of cucumbers.  to put in danger

 Jeopardize

6.

 Judgment

7.

 Legacy

8.

 lethal

o His health has been jeopardized by poor nutrition.  opinion o In my judgment, we shouldn't change our plan.  something remaining from the past

an

y

5.

r.

H

o She left us a legacy of a five novels.

 Lethargy

10.

 Liability

M

9.

 deadly o These chemicals are lethal to fish.

 tiredness - drowsiness o The medicine causes loss of appetite and lethargy.  legal responsibility o He admitted liability for the accident.


Vocab. (19)

Nineteen  to keep - to continue  Maintain

o The pilot could easily maintain control of the aircraft.  to control something to your advantage

2.

 Manipulate

3.

 Mature

o She manipulated the media to make people believe she was innocent.  fully grown

 Meticulous

6.

 Migration

7.

 Modify

o He described the scene in meticulous details.  moving in winter to another place o Flocks of birds assemble before migration.  to make small changes o He modified the recipe by using oil instead of butter.

H

 Momentous

M

r.

8.

o I found him sitting alone, deep in meditation.  very careful

M

5.

 thinking carefully

y

 Meditation

o The grapes will be mature next month.

an

4.

ah dy

1.

9.

 Motivate

10.

 Multitude

 very important o My graduation was a momentous day in my life.  to encourage o Acting can motivate students to study literature.  a very large number o He was captivated by the multitude of stars in the sky.


Vocab. (20)

Twenty  shared between two people  Mutual

2.

 Narrator

3.

 Nocturnal

o Mutual respect is the key to their successful friendship.  storyteller

ah dy

1.

o The novel has a female narrator.  active at night

o Most owls are nocturnal.  famous for evil actions

 Nourish

o Our neighbor is notorious for his violent arguments.  to feed

o We need to nourish our brains with reading.

y

5.

 Notorious

M

4.

6.

an

 many

 Numerous

o He received numerous awards in his first season.

 Objective

r.

7.

H

 neutral

 Oblivious

M

8. 9.

10.

 Obscure  Obsessive

o I can't be objective when I'm judging my brother's work.

 unaware o The driver was oblivious of the speed limit.  unclear o The main idea of the passage is obscure.  thinking too much about something o He is obsessive about space travel.


Vocab. (21)

Twenty-One  something that blocks your way 1.

 Obstacle

o The major obstacle to open the restaurant is money.  very clear

 Obvious

3.

 Ominous

o Her doctor noticed the obvious signs of the disease.  suggesting evil

o The enemy spoke in an ominous tone.  chance

 Opportunity

o There are few job opportunities for students this summer.

M

4.

ah dy

2.

 showing hope for the future

6.

 Outline

 Paradox

M

8. 9.

10.

 to describe generally o He outlined his plan for the next game.

 to defeat

H

 Overcome

r.

7.

o He is optimistic about his chances of winning a gold medal.

y

 Optimistic

an

5.

 Partially  Perish

o I am trying to overcome my fear of flying.

 contradiction o “Every end is a new beginning.” What a paradox!

 not completely o The building was partially destroyed in the fire.  to die o Nobody perished in the accident.


Vocab. (22)

Twenty-Two  Permanent

2.

 Persistent

 unchanging - lasting forever o He was looking for a permanent job in NASA.  continuing despite difficulties o Be persistent; don't give up.  point of view

3.

 Perspective

ah dy

1.

o From a personal perspective, I think you should travel abroad.  expecting the worst to happen

5.

 Phenomenon

6.

 Phobia

7.

 Plausible

o Most doctors were pessimistic about the surgery.

M

 Pessimistic

 a rare event

o The lunar eclipse is a natural phenomenon.

y

4.

an

 having a strong fear o His fear of heights developed into a phobia.

H

 reasonable o Your suggestion is not plausible.

 a large amount

 Plenty

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Portion

 Posterity

o We have plenty of time to prepare for the graduation.

 part o A large portion of the city was flooded.  future generations o We must achieve freedom for ourselves and our posterity.


Vocab. (23)

Twenty-Three 1.

 to express admiration

 Praise

o He should be praised for his hard work.  to come before

 Precede

o Smoke and loud noises preceded the

ah dy

2.

volcanic eruption.

3.

 Precisely

 exactly

o I measured the length of the board precisely.  someone or something replaced by another

5.

 Preserve

o The new manager learned from his predecessor's mistakes.

M

 Predecessor

 to keep something protected o Salt can be used to preserve meat.

y

4.

an

 advantage - chance

 Privilege

7.

 Procedures

8.

 Proficient

r. M 9.

10.

o I had the privilege of meeting your grandfather.

 steps

H

6.

 Profound  Prohibit

o He failed to follow the safety procedures.

 skillful o She is proficient in two foreign languages.  deep o His knowledge of history is profound.  to prevent o Smoking is prohibited in this restaurant.


Vocab. (24)

Twenty-Four  Prominent

2.

 Promote

 well-known o The company became prominent in the 1990s.  to support - to advance o Good soil promotes plant growth.  to suggest

4.

 Prosper

5.

 Purchase

 Pursue

o He hopes his business will prosper.  to buy

o He purchased a new suit for his wedding.  goal

o The purpose of the new resort is to attract more tourists.

an

7.

 to grow - to achieve success

 to follow - to seek o The car was pursued by helicopters.

H

6.

 Purpose

o The city council proposed a plan for a new bridge.

M

 Propose

y

3.

ah dy

1.

 basic - extreme

 Radical

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Rapid

 Rational

o We need to make some radical changes to our apartment.  quick o Thank you for your rapid response to my question.  reasonable o Human beings are rational creatures.


Vocab. (25)

Twenty-Five  to protest

1.

 Rebel

2.

 Reclaim

3.

 Reconcile

4.

 Regulations

o You should rebel against injustice.  to get back  to end conflict

o We could finally reconcile our differences.  rules

o Each company has a set of regulations.

6.

 Reject

o The engineers built a new wall to reinforce the dam.

y

 Reinforce

M

 to support 5.

ah dy

o He reclaimed the title of world champion.

an

 to refuse

o Our offer was completely rejected.

 a release from worry

 Relief

8.

 Reluctant

9.

 Remedy

r. M 10.

o I felt such a sense of relief after I finished my exams.

H

7.

 Renovate

 unwilling o He is reluctant to talk about politics.  solution - medicine o The problem was beyond remedy.  to renew o We renovated the kitchen last summer.


Vocab. (26)

Twenty-Six  Renowned

2.

 Represent

3.

 Resemble

4.

 Restrained

5.

 Reveal

o Einstein was a renowned scientist.  to act in behalf of someone else o The lawyer represented his client in court.  to look like

o He resembles his father.  controlled

o He was admired for his restrained behavior.

M

 to make known - to show

o She would not reveal the secret.  to respect deeply

y

 Revere

o The family reveres old traditions.

an

6.

 famous

ah dy

1.

 using language effectively

 Rhetorical

8.

 Rural

r.

H

7.

 Seek

M

9.

10.

 Sentimental

o My question was rhetorical. I wasn't really expecting an answer.

 related to the countryside o Their cottage is in an amazing rural setting.

 to look for o You should visit your doctor and seek his advice.  emotional o When I think about my childhood, I get very sentimental.


Vocab. (27)

Twenty-Seven

 Simulate

 Simultaneously

4.

 Skeptical

5.

 Slightly

6.

 Solidarity

7.

 Solitude

8.

 Sophisticated

H

r. M 9.

10.

 at the same time o To drive a car, you learn to do several things simultaneously.  doubtful o When I said I finished reading the passage early, my teacher looked skeptical.  a little o He is slightly taller than his brother.  unity o There was a great feeling of solidarity between the students.  being alone

an

3.

o The model will be used to simulate the effects of an earthquake.

ah dy

2.

o The discovery has great significance to researchers.  imitate

M

 Significance

y

1.

 importance

 Speculation

 Spiritual

o She wished to work on her novel in solitude.  advanced - complex o The corporation has a sophisticated computer network.  guessing without evidence o The book has many speculations about the future.  related to the soul o Traditional ways of life focused on our spiritual needs.


Vocab. (28)

Twenty-Eight 1.

 Spontaneous

 done in a natural way o The audience began a spontaneous applause.  a collection of data

 Statistics

o The statistics show that women live longer than men.  very large

3.

 Substantial

o A substantial number of people lost their savings.

 Superficial

 not deep

y

5.

o We bought sufficient food for our camping trip. o I had a superficial knowledge of the topic.

an

 Sufficient

M

 enough 4.

ah dy

2.

 a number of questions asked to collect data

 Survey

H

6.

o The survey found some interesting facts about our eating habits.

 to doubt

 Suspect

r.

7.

 Suspicious

9.

 Symbol

10.

 Sympathy

M

8.

o If you suspect a gas leak do not strike a match or use electricity.  doubtful o She died in suspicious circumstances.  representation o A dove is a symbol of peace.  caring for the suffering of another person o We had great sympathy for the flood victims.


Vocab. (29)

Twenty-Nine  to happen at the same time - to update  Synchronize

 Temporary

3.

 Thesis

4.

 Thrilled

5.

 Thrive

o We disagreed with the thesis of the report.  excited - very happy

M

o I was thrilled to visit Paris again.  to grow - to achieve success

o These plants can thrive with little sunlight.

7.

 Transition

8.

 Treacherous

 to bear

o These ants can tolerate temperatures that would kill other species.  change

an

 Tolerate

o The country made a successful transition from agriculture to industry.  disloyal

H

r.  Trend

M 10.

o His job was temporary; he had to find another one.  the main idea - an academic paper

6.

9.

 for a short time

ah dy

2.

o The sound and picture have to synchronize perfectly.

y

1.

 Undermine

o We arrested a treacherous agent among us.  general direction - current style o Android technology is the latest trend in television.  to weaken o The flow of water undermined the pillars supporting the roof.


Vocab. (30)

Thirty  related to the city  Urban

o Pollution has reached high levels in some urban areas.  to make use of

2.

 Utilize

3.

 Validate

4.

 Vanguard

5.

 Vigilant

6.

 Vital

ah dy

1.

o You can utilize Microsoft Word to review the essay.  to prove to be true or legal  Pioneer

M

o The court validated the contract.

o He was the vanguard of country music.  alert

y

o The burglar was spotted by vigilant neighbors.

an

 very important

o Your heart is a vital organ.

 of free will - without payment

 Voluntary

8.

 Wary

r. M 9.

10.

o Participation in the program is completely voluntary.

H

7.

 Welfare

 Yield

 cautious o The store owner kept a wary eye on him.  well-being - happiness o The country provided free health coverage for the welfare of its citizens.  to give - to supply o We believe this soil will yield good crops.


Practice


Reading

1

Passage 1-A

Reading Test 60 MINUTES, 47 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage or paired set of passages is accompanied by a number of questions. Read the passage or paired set of passages, then use what is said or implied in what you read and in any given graphics to choose the best answer to each question.

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.

25

This passage is adapted from Claire Cain Miller, “Where Young College Graduates Are Choosing to Live.” © 2014 by The New York Times Company.

Line 5

10

15

20

When young college graduates decide where to move, they are not just looking at the usual suspects, like New York, Washington and San Francisco. Other cities are increasing their share of these valuable residents at an even higher rate, led by Denver, San Diego, Nashville, Salt Lake City, and Portland, Ore. And as young people continue to spurn the suburbs for urban living, more of them are moving to the very heart of cities—even in economically troubled places like Buffalo and Cleveland. The number of college-educated people age 25 to 34 living within three miles of city centers has surged, up 37 percent since 2000, even as the total population of these neighborhoods has slightly shrunk. Even as Americans over all have become less likely to move, young, college-educated people continue to move at a high clip—about a million cross state lines each year, and these so-called “young and restless” don’t tend to settle down until their mid-30s. Where they end up provides a map of the cities that have a chance to become future economic powerhouses.

30

35

40

45

50

About 25 percent more young college graduates live in major metropolitan areas today than in 2000, which is double the percentage increase in cities’ total population. All the 51 biggest metros, except Detroit, have gained young talent, either from net migration to the cities or from residents graduating from college. Denver has become one of the most powerful magnets. Its population of the young and educated is up 47 percent since 2000, nearly double the percentage increase in the New York metro area. And 7.5 percent of Denver’s population is in this group, more than the national average of 5.2 percent and more than anywhere but Washington, the Bay Area, and Boston. Denver has many of the tangible things young people want, economists say, including mountains, sunshine and jobs in booming industries like tech. Perhaps more important, it also has the ones that give cities the perception of cultural cool, like bike-sharing. Other cities that have had significant increases in a young and educated population and that now have more than their share include San Diego, Baltimore, Pittsburgh, Indianapolis, Nashville, Salt Lake City, and Portland. At the other end of the spectrum are the cities where less than 4 percent of the population are young college graduates. Among those, Detroit lost about 10 percent of this group, while Providence CONTINUE


Reading

2

gained just 6 percent and Memphis 10 percent. Atlanta, one of the biggest net gainers of young 55 graduates in the 1990s, has taken a sharp turn. Its young, educated population has increased just 2.8 percent since 2000, significantly less than its overall population. It is suffering the consequences of overenthusiasm for new houses 60 and new jobs before the crash, economists say. How many eventually desert the city centers as they age remains to be seen, but demographers predict that many will stay. They say that could not only bolster city economies, but also lead to 65 decreases in crime and improvements in public schools. If the trends continue, places like Pittsburgh and Buffalo could develop a new reputation—as role models for resurgence.

Passage 1-A

1 The passage primarily focuses on which of the following? A) Why recent college graduates prefer urban over suburban living environments B) Why most American cities are experiencing a significant influx of college-aged students C) Which cities recent graduates are flocking to and why D) Whether metropolitan areas will show a rebound in population growth in the near future

2 The author suggests that an increased population of young graduates will likely lead to which of the following in those cities?

Percent Change in the Number of College Graduates aged 25 to 34, from 2000 to 2012 Houston Nashville Denver Austin Portland Washington Buffalo Baltimore Los Angeles Pittsburgh St. Louis New York Top 51 metro areas, average Minneapolis Chicago Boston San Francisco Memphis Providence Atlanta Cleveland Detroit

50% 48% 47% 44% 37% 36% 34% 32% 30% 29% 26% 25% 25% 21% 17% 12% 11% 10% 6% 3% 1%

A) Economic growth B) Risk of overpopulation C) Severe pollution D) Increased jobs in technology

3 Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 7-11 (“And as ... Cleveland”) B) Lines 21-23 (“Where they ... powerhouses”) C) Lines 41-43 (“Perhaps more ... bike-sharing”) D) Lines 58-60 (“It is ... say”)

-10%

CONTINUE


Reading

4

3

Passage 1-A

7 The author suggests that the reason for the demographic change in most cities is due to young graduates’ desire to

The primary purpose of lines 16-21 (“Even as ... mid-30s”) is to A) warn that the current data on population demographics will soon be out of date.

A) escape more crowded centers such as New York and San Francisco.

B) cite a reason why this particular demographic makes for an intriguing study.

B) save on living costs by moving to inexpensive urban centers.

C) characterize younger generations as fickle and irresponsible.

C) pursue economic and recreational opportunities.

D) suggest it is easier to study older and more settled populations.

D) branch out from the more familiar territories of their youth. 8 5 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

Which of the following is NOT a reason the author gives for why Denver is an enticing city for young college graduates?

A) Lines 1-3 (“When young … San Francisco”)

A) Its cultural attractions

B) Lines 38-41 (“Denver has … tech”)

B) Its terrain and weather

C) Lines 43-48 (“Other cities … Portland”)

C) Its thriving economy

D) Lines 66-68 (“If the … resurgence”)

D) Its affordable housing

6

9 As used in line 8, “spurn” most nearly means

As used in line 64, “bolster” most nearly means

A) reject.

A) maintain.

B) despise.

B) encourage.

C) jilt.

C) strengthen.

D) defy.

D) defend.

CONTINUE


Reading

4

Passage 1-A

10 It can reasonably be inferred from the graphic that A) Houston has more recent college graduates than any other major American city. B) New York and St. Louis have roughly the same percentage of college graduates relative to the rest of their populations. C) the population of college graduates aged 25-34 of Cleveland and Atlanta are aging relatively slowly compared to the same demographic in other major metropolitan areas. D) Minneapolis, Chicago, and Boston saw population growth within the 25-34 year age bracket, but at slower rates than the national average.

CONTINUE


Writing

5

Passage 1-B

Writing and Language Test 35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage comes with a set of questions. Some questions will ask you to consider how the writer might revise the passage to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider correcting potential errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. There may be one or more graphics that you will need to consult as you revise and edit the passage. Some questions will refer to a portion of the passage that has been underlined. Other questions will refer to a particular spot in a passage or ask that you consider the passage in full. After you read the passage, select the answers to questions that most effectively improve the passage's writing quality or that adjust the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English. Many questions give you the option to select "NO CHANGE." Select that option in cases where you think the relevant part of the passage should remain as it currently is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

1 A) NO CHANGE

All of a Sudden: The Avalanche

B) gentle call of a chickadee rings

The mountain air is still. The 1 gentle, call of a

C) gentle call, of a chickadee rings

chickadee rings out into the clear evening. If there were

D) gentle call, of a chickadee, rings

any people on the mountain, they would certainly be able to see their breath—it’s January, and it’s cold. Just a few hours ago, a snowstorm raged over the rocks and trees of northern Colorado, leaving fourteen inches of new snow over the mountain pass. This new snow settled on top of the 2 snowpack—the rest of the snow and ice from dozens of earlier storms and flurries adding new pressure to the already tenuous connection between a layer of ice and snow about eight

2 A) NO CHANGE B) snowpack—the rest of the snow and ice from dozens of earlier storms and flurries, adding C) snowpack, the rest of the snow and ice from dozens of earlier storms and flurries, adding D) snowpack; the rest of the snow and ice from dozens of earlier storms and flurries, adding

feet down.

CONTINUE


Writing

Suddenly, the snow below 3 give out. It breaks

6

Passage 1-B

3

off from the icy layer underneath it and immediately

A) NO CHANGE

starts pulling all the snow on top of it down the

B) will give

mountain. The early evening stillness is 4 toppled.

C) gives

This is a slab avalanche, beginning many feet under the

D) gave

surface of the snow and disturbing enormous chunks of snow and ice that tumble down the mountain. Within

4

five seconds, the avalanche is moving at 130

A) NO CHANGE

kilometers per hour (80 miles per hour).

B) dismantled

As the large chunks of snow fall, 5 they break

C) shattered

into smaller and smaller pieces, as large chunks of rock

D) impaired

might break up during rockslides. A cloud of ice particles rises high above the descending white mass. The avalanche instantly buries everything in its path.

5

Over 200,000 cubic meters of snow are released and

Which of the following choices best improves the focus of the passage?

rapidly picking up speed—they reach 320 kilometers

A) NO CHANGE

per hour (200 miles per hour) at their peak velocity.

B) they break into smaller and smaller pieces. C) they are like large chunks of rock breaking up during rockslides. D) they break into smaller and smaller pieces, as large chunks of rock might break up during rockslides, which are often caused by rainstorms.

CONTINUE


Writing

[1] While visually dramatic, slough avalanches do

7

Passage 1-B

6

little to disrupt the rest of the mountain’s snow

A) NO CHANGE

structure. [2] Had this been a slough (or “sluff”)

B) that a slough avalanche will do so.

avalanche, starting on the surface of the snow and

C) the lesser strength of a slough avalanche.

traveling down on top of the rest of the snowpack, it

D) the way slough avalanches behave.

would have been far less powerful. [3] The slab avalanche, however, completely disrupts the snow underneath. [4] It is much more likely that a slab avalanche will tear down buildings and trees than 6 a slough avalanche. 7..

7 For the sake of the logical progression of this paragraph, sentence 1 should be placed A) where it is now. B) after sentence 2. C) after sentence 3. D) after sentence 4.

CONTINUE


Writing

8 As it starts approaching the foot of the

8

Passage 1-B

8

mountain, the avalanche 9 wanes in strength, and a

A) NO CHANGE

runout zone formed where the snow and debris begin to spread out. Shortly thereafter the deposition

B) Beginning its approach of the foot of the mountain,

zone .10. forms, where everything comes to rest.

C) As it approaches the foot of the mountain, D) It approaches, and

9 A) NO CHANGE B) waned in strength, and a runout zone forms C) is waning in strength, and a runout zone formed D) wanes in strength, and a runout zone forms

10 A) NO CHANGE B) forms, the place where everything comes to rest. C) forms, where everything comes to rest and stays. D) forms, where everything comes to rest in a deposition zone.

CONTINUE


Writing

.11. The whole event lasted less than a minute. Thankfully, there were no skiers today, otherwise they

9

Passage 1-B

11

would have been buried under the immense white

Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph?

blanket left in the aftermath of the avalanche. After the

A) The avalanche was brief, but will have an

last snow chunks settle, the cloud of icy particles also

impact on the flora and terrain of the

comes to rest. The night is clear and cold, and the air is

mountainside for years to come.

still again.

B) Almost as abruptly as it began, the avalanche comes to a halt. C) Many avalanches are caused when people dislodge snow while skiing or snowboarding. D) The avalanche was mighty, imposing, and deadly.

CONTINUE


Reading

10

Questions 11-19 are based on the following passage. Passage 1 Passage 1 is adapted from Beth Skwarecki, “Where Do Baby Sea Turtles Go?” © 2014 by Scientific American. Passage 2 is adapted from James Gorman, “Tracking Sea Turtles as They Swim for Their Lives.” © 2014 by The New York Times

Company.

Line 5

10

15

20

25

30

35

After baby loggerhead turtles hatch, they wait until dark and then dart from their sandy nests to the open ocean. A decade or so later they return to spend their teenage years near those same beaches. What the turtles do and where they go in those juvenile years has been a mystery for decades. Marine biologists call the period the “lost years.” Following the tiny turtles has proved to be difficult. Researchers tried attaching bulky radio tags, but the devices impeded the turtles’ ability to move. The size of the tags shrank over time, yet the batteries remained stubbornly large. Then Kate Mansfield, a marine biologist at the University of Central Florida, got the idea to go solar. She saw that other wildlife researchers were tracking birds with small solar panels. So her team decided to use similar tags with a matchbook-size panel, bringing the weight down to that of a couple of nickels. Mansfield’s group tagged 17 turtles that ranged from three to nine months old. The scientists then plopped them off the coast of Florida and into the Gulf Stream, which is part of the North Atlantic Gyre, a system of currents that flows clockwise up the U.S. East Coast. Bryan Wallace, a marine biologist at Stratus Consulting and Duke University who was not involved in the work, said the study is likely to be remembered as a seminal paper in sea turtle biology. “Based on long-standing hypotheses, we’d expect that the turtles would remain in the outer gyre currents and head toward the Azores,” an archipelago off Portugal, Mansfield says. As the team tracked subjects over a few months, however, it found the turtles did not stick to this itinerary. Many of them swam into the center of the gyre,

Passage 2-A

where seaweed accumulates. The turtles forage in the seaweed and use it for shelter. The turtles also traveled faster than predicted, reaching the waters off North Carolina within three 40 weeks. At that speed, they could easily reach the Azores in less than a year. Although that timeline agrees with estimates based on passive drifting, the turtles take many side trips, which means their actual speed of locomotion is impressive. Another surprise: 45 the tags’ temperature sensors consistently read several degrees higher than the turtles’ local water temperature, which suggests that the seaweed mats keep these cold-blooded reptiles warm, an important condition for growth. Passage 2 50

55

60

65

70

When loggerhead turtles hatch on the beach of Boavista, the easternmost of the Cape Verde islands, they head for the water to begin what biologists call a swimming frenzy. The beach and coastal waters are full of predators, and the babies are tasty, nutritious and defenseless. They need to reach ocean currents as quickly as they can, to be carried to less dangerous waters. This is the pattern of baby sea turtles in general, and scientists have had a good idea of what currents they ride. But they haven’t had a reliable way to track the turtles’ swims and see exactly how they manage their first hours. With the help of a new gadget called a nano-tag, a miniature acoustic device that weighs less than two-hundredths of an ounce, Rebecca Scott and several colleagues for the first time got detailed records of the early hours of baby turtles, information that adds to understanding of this internationally endangered species. “We were able to track newly hatched turtles from the beach to the open ocean,” said Dr. Scott, a researcher at the Geomar Helmholtz Center for Ocean Research in Kiel, Germany. “We’ve always known they’ve been swept away by ocean currents, but this is the first time we’ve been in the sea with them.”

CONTINUE


Reading

She attached the tiny acoustic transmitters to 11 hatchlings on Boavista. Researchers then followed the baby turtles in a boat for as long as eight hours, listening to the pings sent by the transmitters. The turtles swam as far as nine miles 80 to reach the open ocean. The initial swimming frenzy stayed constant for 24 hours and declined strongly the night of the second day. And after that, the hatchlings slept at night and didn’t swim. “They are born knowing what they should do,” Dr. Scott said. 75

11

Passage 2-A

13 The author of the first passage supports the assertion that turtles swim faster than expected by A) mentioning experimental results from a study in North Carolina that support this theory. B) extrapolating from a small measured segment of the turtles’ journey, including projected detours. C) creating a detailed map of the turtles’ journey while accounting for occasional bouts of passive drifting.

11

D) using the radio tags to measure the real-time pace of the turtles as they journey into the water.

Dr. Mansfield got the idea to use solar panels when she A) wanted to use a more environmentally-friendly technology for her research. B) was looking for ways to cut experimental costs. C) realized that they were being used successfully in other branches of her discipline. D) discovered that their use would likely secure government funding for her work.

14 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 8-9 (“Following the ... difficult”) B) Lines 29-32 (“Based on ... says”) C) Lines 41-44 (“Although that ... impressive”) D) Lines 44-49 (“Another surprise ... growth”)

12 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 11-12 (“The size ... large”) B) Lines 14-16 (“She saw ... panels”) C) Lines 20-24 (“The scientists ... Coast”) D) Lines 38-40 (“The turtles ... weeks”)

CONTINUE


Reading

15

12

Passage 2-A

18 Marine biologists’ use of the phrase “lost years” (line 7) is primarily meant to convey

Which of the following best describes the difference between the experiment described in Passage 1 and the experiment described in Passage 2?

A) the gap in research on sea turtles before it was taken up by Dr. Mansfield and her team.

A) Dr. Mansfield used solar-powered radio tags to track turtles, while Dr. Scott used nano-tags.

B) the long decades that sea turtles spend hibernating in the ocean after departing from their nests.

B) Dr. Mansfield had no issue tracking the turtles, while Dr. Scott struggled to do so.

C) the unknown location and activities of sea turtles between their hatching as babies and return home as adults.

C) Dr. Mansfield tracked adult turtles, while Dr. Scott tracked adolescent turtles.

D) the lives of baby sea turtles which are attacked by predators on their way to the ocean and do not survive.

16

D) Dr. Mansfield tracked turtles in an artificial environment, while Dr. Scott tracked them in their natural environment.

19 In lines 24-28, Dr. Wallace’s attitude towards Dr. Mansfield’s work might best be described as

Both passages suggest that tracking sea turtles after they hatch will

A) skeptical.

A) help ensure the safety and permanence of this endangered species.

B) overwhelmed. C) patronizing. D) impressed.

17 As used in line 42, “passive” most nearly means

B) shed light on a little-researched period in the turtles’ life. C) aid researchers’ understandings of the flow of ocean currents. D) rejuvenate interest in this underappreciated organism.

A) idle. B) unreceptive. C) submissive. D) apathetic.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.

13

Passage 2-B

12 A) NO CHANGE

The Pacific's First Explorers

B) traveled eastward

Three thousand years ago, the islands of the Remote

C) traveled in an eastward direction

Pacific were completely uninhabited by human beings.

D) traveled out on a journey to the east

Then, over the course of a few hundred years, the Lapita people explored and settled the islands over a spread of millions of square miles of the Pacific Ocean.

13

They began in Papua New Guinea and .12. traveled

Which of these options most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion?

east by journeying eastward in canoes. After a few

A) the Lapita people, but they crossed

generations, they had spread as far as Fiji and

B) the Lapita people; they crossed

Polynesia. There were probably never more than a few

C) the Lapita people who crossed

thousand of .13. the Lapita people. They crossed

D) the Lapita, but then the people crossed

uncharted waters, spread their language and culture, and left an enduring legacy.

CONTINUE


Writing

.14. Not overcrowded or lacking in resources,

14

Passage 2-B

14

historians can only guess as to why the Lapita people

A) NO CHANGE

originally left New Guinea. The most common

B) Historians, not overcrowded or lacking in resources, can only guess as to why the Lapita people originally left New Guinea.

conjecture is simply that they were curious about the world and had a sense of adventure. However, the

C) Historians can only guess as to why the Lapita people, not overcrowded or lacking in resources, originally left New Guinea.

Lapita also colonized the islands they discovered. They brought seedling plants on boats to develop their agriculture on new islands. .15. The Lapita also

D) Historians can only guess as to why the Lapita people originally left New Guinea, not overcrowded or lacking in resources.

brought pigs, dogs, and fowl. Not only are the animals present on the islands today, but their bones are found in many archeological dig sites. The Lapita discovered and colonized hundreds of islands, sometimes settling in the interior of the islands and sometimes building houses on poles directly over the water in lagoons.

15 The writer wants to insert a sentence here to provide supporting evidence for the claim that the Lapita brought plants with them to new islands. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A) Evidence suggests that the Lapita people enjoyed a varied diet of plants, fish, game, and meat from domesticated animals. B) Over-hunting on newly explored islands caused some animal species to go extinct, so food crops came in handy. C) Some plants present on the islands today are biologically incapable of spreading on their own, and must have been spread in this manner. D) The Lapita did not bring these plants along merely to eat on the voyage, but to propagate on new islands as food crops.

CONTINUE


Writing

16 They decorated 17 there clay pots by pressing

15

Passage 2-B

16

carved stamps into the wet clay before it dried.

Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph?

Archeologists recently discovered a Lapita cemetery in the northern Philippines containing sixty-two skeletons and a variety of pottery fragments. There, they

A) Lapita skeletons were found in an area called Efete.

discovered a clay pot burial urn with bird figurines

B) Birds were sometimes a feature of Lapita art.

around the top that the Lapita had modeled to appear as

C) The Lapita are known for their distinctive pottery.

if 18 they were looking down at the human bones

D) The Lapita’s ritual burial practices provide clues about their religion and culture.

inside. This type of nuanced artistry 19 attests for a complex and imaginative culture. 17

A) NO CHANGE B) their C) they’re D) they

18 A) NO CHANGE B) the archeologists C) the birds D) those

19 A) NO CHANGE B) attests of C) attests to D) attests

CONTINUE


Writing

All of our knowledge about the Lapita comes from

16

Passage 2-B

20

minimal clues; archeologists and historians glean what

A) NO CHANGE

information they can from small pieces of pottery,

B) They’re hoping so much to find

obsidian flakes, animal bones, and geochemical

C) They endeavor without rest to find

data. .20. They hope to find new Lapita sites to

D) I hope they find

increase the wealth of knowledge about these influential and adventurous people.

21

The 21 Lapitas’ descendants are the more widely

A) NO CHANGE

heard of Polynesians: the Hawaiians, the Tahitians, and

B) Lapita descendants

the people of Easter Island. Their common language

C) Lapita’s descendants

and culture were passed down from their Lapita

D) Lapitas’s descendants

ancestors, and they continued to spread the legacy of the original navigators as they spread further and further throughout the Pacific. 22 By the time

22

Europeans arrived in the Pacific, every habitable island

Which of the following choices provides the best transition in the final sentence?

was already inhabited by the descendants of the Lapita.

A) NO CHANGE B) However, when Europeans arrived in the Pacific C) Although when the Europeans arrived in the Pacific D) Though Europeans arrived in the Pacific

CONTINUE


Reading

17

Questions 20-28 are based on the following passage.

Passage 3-A

40

This passage is adapted from G.K. Chesterton, The Wisdom of Father Brown, originally published in 1914.

Line 5

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15

20

25

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35

The consulting-rooms of Dr. Orion Hood, the eminent criminologist and specialist in certain moral disorders, lay along the sea-front at Scarborough, in a series of very large and well-lighted French windows, which showed the North Sea like one endless outer wall of blue-green marble. Dr. Hood paced the length of his string of apartments. His hair was heavily shot with grey, but growing thick and healthy; his face was lean, but sanguine and expectant. Everything about him and his room indicated something at once rigid and restless, like that great northern sea by which (on pure principles of hygiene) he had built his home. The door opened inwards and there shambled into the room a shapeless little figure, the very embodiment of all that is homely and helpless. The doctor regarded the newcomer with a restrained astonishment, not unlike that he would have shown if some huge but obviously harmless sea-beast had crawled into his room. The newcomer regarded the doctor with that beaming but breathless geniality which characterizes a corpulent charwoman who has just managed to stuff herself into an omnibus. With an unimpaired smile on his round face, he spoke simultaneously as follows: “My name is Brown. Pray excuse me. I’ve come about that business of the MacNabs. I have heard, you often help people out of such troubles. Pray excuse me if I am wrong.” “I hardly understand you,” replied the scientist, with a cold intensity of manner. “I fear you have mistaken the chambers. I am Dr. Hood, and my work is almost entirely literary and educational. It is true that I have sometimes been consulted by the police in cases of peculiar difficulty and importance, but—” “Oh, this is of the greatest importance,” broke in the little man called Brown. “Why, her mother won’t let them get engaged.”

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75

The brows of Dr. Hood were drawn down darkly, but the eyes under them were bright with something that might be anger or might be amusement. “And still,” he said, “I do not quite understand.” “You see, they want to get married,” said the man with the clerical hat. “Maggie MacNab and young Todhunter want to get married. Now, what can be more important than that?” At the last plea of the ingenuous priest a chuckle broke out of Dr. Hood from inside, and he threw himself into an arm-chair in an ironical attitude of the consulting physician. “Mr. Brown,” he said gravely, “it is quite fourteen and a half years since I was personally asked to test a personal problem: then it was the case of an attempt to poison the French President at a Lord Mayor’s Banquet. It is now, I understand, a question of whether some friend of yours called Maggie is a suitable fiancée for some friend of hers called Todhunter. Well, Mr. Brown, I am a sportsman. I will take it on. I will give the MacNab family my best advice, as good as I gave the French Republic and the King of England. I have nothing else to do this afternoon. Tell me your story.” The little clergyman called Brown thanked him with unquestionable warmth, and began his recital: “There is a very honest but rather sharp-tempered member of my flock, a widow called MacNab. She has one daughter, and she lets lodgings. At present she has only one lodger, the young man called Todhunter; but he has given more trouble than all the rest, for he wants to marry the young woman of the house.” “And the young woman of the house,” asked Dr. Hood, with huge and silent amusement, “what does she want?” “Why, she wants to marry him,” cried Father Brown, sitting up eagerly. “That is just the awful complication.” “It is indeed a hideous enigma,” said Dr. Hood.

CONTINUE


Reading

20

18

Passage 3-A

24 Which of the following best describes the initial reactions of Father Brown and Dr. Hood upon meeting?

Why does Dr. Hood agree to hear Father Brown’s case? A) He pities the priest and wants to help him.

A) Dr. Hood was delighted, while Father Brown was hesitant.

B) He is bored and the priest’s plea amuses him. C) His practice is failing and he needs the money.

B) Dr. Hood was bemused, while Father Brown was apologetic.

D) He realizes the case is of utmost importance.

C) Dr. Hood was surprised, while Father Brown was pleased.

21

D) Dr. Hood was frightened, while Father Brown was aggressive.

Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 32-33 (“I am … educational”) B) Lines 37-38 (“Oh, this ... Brown”)

25 Why does Dr. Hood bring up his previous work on the poison attempt on the French President?

C) Lines 48-51 (“At the ... physician”) D) Lines 52-56 (“Mr. Brown … Banquet”)

A) To prove his qualifications for the case B) To demonstrate the significance of his usual cases

22 As used in line 2, “certain” most nearly means A) particular.

C) To show his work expands beyond the literary and educational

B) unquestionable.

D) To suggest that they are all in danger

C) positive. D) indisputable.

26 As used in line 65, “unquestionable” most nearly means

23 In lines 10-13 (“Everything about … home”), the author compares Dr. Hood and the ocean in order to A) suggest elements of Dr. Hood’s character. B) highlight Dr. Hood’s favorite natural landscape.

A) genuine. B) dependable. C) certain. D) absolute.

C) foreshadow the arrival of Father Brown. D) hint at secrets Dr. Hood is hiding beneath the surface.

CONTINUE


Reading

27

19

Passage 3-A

28 Dr. Hood’s use of the phrase “hideous enigma” (line 79) most strongly suggests that he

Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) believes the case to be unsolvable.

A) Lines 64-65 (“The little … recital”)

B) is humoring Father Brown.

B) Lines 68-72 (“At present … house”)

C) finds this unimportant case distasteful.

C) Lines 73-75 (“And the … want”)

D) doubts many of the facts of the case.

D) Lines 76-77 (“Why, she … eagerly”)

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.

20

Passage 3-B

23 A) NO CHANGE

Epic

B) women at that particular time.

George Eliot was one of the most prominent writers

C) women who were writing at the time.

of the Victorian era. She was born Mary Ann Evans

D) at the time.

but used a male pen name because, according to her, she wanted to keep her work from being associated

24

with the light-hearted romance novels written by

A) NO CHANGE

many .23. women at the time. Although she followed

B) forebears

acclaimed British female novelist .24. antecedents like

C) ancestors

Jane Austen and the Bronte sisters, she made her way

D) predecessors

in a literary field dominated by men. [1] Eliot’s novel Middlemarch is widely considered a modern epic—a text in the line of Homer’s Odyssey, Virgil’s Aeneid, and Dante’s Inferno. [2] Inferno is followed by Purgatorio and Paradiso. [3] At close to eight hundred pages, Middlemarch depicts the interwoven lives of an entire community with intricate nuance and immense scope. [4] The modern epic is not about crashing battles or dealings with gods; instead, it handles the inner lives of individuals, ordinary but

25 That writer plans to delete a sentence in this paragraph in order to improve its focus. Which sentence should be deleted in order to improve the focus of this paragraph? A) Sentence 1 B) Sentence 2 C) Sentence 3 D) Sentence 4

meaningful. .25..

CONTINUE


Writing

One of the central characters in Middlemarch,

21

Passage 3-B

26

Dorothea, ardently longs to fulfill her potential in a

A) NO CHANGE

society that does not allow women opportunities to

B) stimulating, challenging, and meaningful

expend their energy in 26 stimulating; challenging;

C) stimulating, challenging, meaningful, and

meaningful ways. Furthermore, part of the novel’s

D) stimulating—challenging, meaningful

project is to question the possibility of the existence of heroes of either gender in the modern 27 age? She

27

writes of the “unhistoric acts” that make up the lives of

A) NO CHANGE

so many people in the nineteenth century, lives without

B) age…

“a constant unfolding of far-resonant action.”

C) age;

Eliot is basically right—in the modern age, there is

D) age.

less room for heroism. For the most part, people do not set out on adventures, 28 creating new religious

28

orders, or embark on journeys, like the Ancient Greeks

A) NO CHANGE

or Romans, or people in the Middle Ages. With no

B) do not create

satisfying outlet for their ardor, people end up

C) create

living .29. unextraordinarily, and if they make the

D) are not creating

world better they do so only through their “unhistoric acts.”

29 The writer would like to divide this sentence into two sentences at the underlined portion. Which choice most effectively accomplishes this goal? A) unextraordinarily, and they make the world better. So, only B) unextraordinarily, and they make the world better. They do so only C) unextraordinarily. If they make the world better, they do so only D) unextraordinarily, and they make the world better if they do so. Only

CONTINUE


Writing

30 Although in Middlemarch Eliot demonstrates

22

Passage 3-B

30

how difficult it is to do great things, particularly for

A) NO CHANGE

women at that time, she herself made something

B) However, in

exceptional and enduring. Thus, despite how

C) Because in

extraordinarily successful her piece is at relaying her

D) In conclusion, in

questions and meaning, her very act of writing the book complicates its premise. She, a woman and an

31

individual in the modern age, exerted herself to create

A) NO CHANGE

something 31 epic in scale and lasting in impact. Her

B) eternal and of the highest order.

means of doing so reflects the changing state of the

C) better than the average novel.

world: the age of warriors and adventurers is past, so

D) subversive and objectionable to the modest Victorians.

her historic act is writing a book. Her “far-resonant” act is of a 32 quieter more domestic kind, but it is still a triumph. 33 .

32 A) NO CHANGE B) quieter, more C) quieter: more D) quieter—more

33 The writer is considering inserting the following phrase at the end of the final sentence: “achieved a few decades after the height of the Industrial Revolution.” Should the phrase be inserted? A) Yes, because it provides the historical context which is necessary to understand Eliot’s accomplishment. B) Yes, because it serves as a reminder of the triumphs of Eliot’s contemporaries. C) No, because it does not relate to the significance of Eliot’s work. D) No, because the historical nature of the Industrial Revolution conflicts with the passage’s theme of “unhistoric acts.” CONTINUE


Reading

23

Questions 29-38 are based on the following passage.

Passage 4-A

40

This passage is adapted from Gretchen Reynolds, “How Music Can Boost a High-Intensity Workout.” © 2014 by The New York Times Company.

Line 5

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15

20

25

30

35

Intense, highly demanding exercise has many health benefits and one significant drawback: it can be physically unpleasant, which deters many people from beginning or sticking with an intense exercise program. An encouraging new study, however, suggests that listening to music may nudge people into pushing themselves harder than they had thought possible. Strenuous exercise, especially in the form of high-intensity interval training, has interested many scientists and exercisers in recent years. Highintensity intervals are brief bouts of hard, draining exercise interspersed with rest periods. Past studies have shown that 15- or 20-minute sessions of interval training improve people’s fitness and reduce their risk for many chronic diseases as effectively as much longer bouts of moderate, continuous endurance training. In other words, high-intensity interval training promises a hefty fitness bang from a small time investment. But as those of us who have experimented with this type of exercise quickly learn, that time, short as it may be, is punishing. Many people find the experience “aversive,” said Matthew Stork, a graduate student at McMaster University in Hamilton, Ontario, who led the new study. Mr. Stork and his colleagues at McMaster, who have conducted many studies of high-intensity interval training, wondered if it would be possible to find ways to modify people’s perceptions of how little they were enjoying the exercise. Immediately, they thought of music. Many past studies have found that listening to music changes people’s experience of exercise, with most people reporting that listening to energetic songs makes a workout feel easier and less monotonous. But those studies have generally involved standard endurance exercise, such as 30 minutes or

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so of continuous jogging or cycling. Few have examined the effect that music might have during intense intervals, in part because many exercise scientists have suspected that such training is too draining. The physiological noise bombarding people from their own muscles and lungs during intervals, many scientists have thought, would drown out the music, making any effect negligible. But Mr. Stork was unconvinced. So he recruited 20 young, healthy adult volunteers, brought them into the lab, and had them follow a precise regimen. Using stationary bicycles, they completed four 30second bouts of what the researchers call “all-out” pedaling, at the highest intensity that each volunteer could stand. Each 30-second bout was followed by four minutes of recovery time, during which the volunteers could pedal gently or climb off the bike and sit or walk about. Throughout the all-out intervals, meanwhile, the scientists tracked the volunteers’ pedaling power output and asked them how hard the exercise felt. After that workout, the volunteers sat down and listed their favorite songs, which the researchers then downloaded and used to create custom playlists for each volunteer. Then each volunteer returned twice more to the lab, grunting through two additional sessions of the highintensity intervals. During one, they listened to their chosen playlist. In the other, they did not listen to music. Afterward, the researchers compared the riders’ power outputs and reported feelings about the workout’s difficulty. The volunteers all reported that the intervals had been hard. In fact, their feelings about the difficulty were almost identical, whether they had been listening to music or not. Interestingly, though, their power output had been substantially greater when they were listening to music. They were pedaling much more ferociously than without music, but they did not find that effort to be more unpleasant. The intensity increased but not the discomfort. How music affects performance and perceptions during intense exercise remains unclear, Mr. Stork

CONTINUE


24

Reading

said, but it likely involves “arousal responses.” The body responds to the rhythm of the music with a physiological revving that prepares it for 85 the demands of the intervals. People may also turn to music in hopes of ignoring their body’s insistent messages of discomfort. Music cannot, of course, override those messages altogether, Mr. Stork pointed out. But it may mute them and 90 make you more eager to strain through another session of intervals, sweat and playlist streaming.

Passage 4-A

29 The author makes use of which of the following to support the passage’s claims? A) Anecdotal evidence from close friends B) Research studies from credible sources C) Polls from various groups of exercisers D) Data from her own experiments

30

Peak Power in Exercise Bouts With and Without Music

Based on the passage, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?

580

Peak Power (Watts)

560 540

A) Music is more helpful during high-intensity interval training than in endurance training.

520 500

B) Music will likely increase the effectiveness, if not the ease, of high-intensity interval training.

480 460

C) More research on music and high-intensity interval training is needed before any conclusions can be drawn.

440 420 400 Bout 1

Bout 2 Music

Bout 3

No Music

Mean Power in Exercise Bouts With and Without Music

31 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

520 500

Mean Power (Watts)

D) Music has a negligible effect on enjoyment and output in exercise.

Bout 4

A) Lines 47-49 (“So he ... regimen”)

480

B) Lines 50-53 (“Using stationary ... stand”)

460

C) Lines 74-76 (“Interestingly, though ... music”)

440

D) Lines 87-89 (“Music cannot ... out”)

420 400 380 360 Bout 1

Bout 2 Music

Bout 3

Bout 4

No Music

CONTINUE


Reading

32

25

Passage 4-A

35 Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude towards high-intensity interval training?

Which hypothetical situation is most analogous to adding music to a high intensity workout routine?

A) It is a good substitute for those without time for more rigorous exercise like long-distance endurance training.

A) An engineer upgrades his workshop machinery to improve the quality of his work, but at a significant cost.

B) It is a popular though dangerous form of exercise.

B) A construction worker uses a power tool that allows him to do more work, but is just as hard to use as a hand-tool.

C) It is a difficult but highly beneficial form of exercise.

C) A homeowner switches to more energyefficient electricity providers in order to save on maintenance costs.

D) It is often unpleasant and thus not an ideal form of exercise.

D) A writer listens to music while working to gain inspiration and get more pleasure out of her work.

33 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

36

A) Lines 1-5 (“Intense, highly ... program”) B) Lines 9-11 (“Strenuous exercise ... years”)

As used in line 76, “ferociously” most nearly means

C) Lines 43-46 (“The physiological ... negligible”)

A) viciously. B) intensely.

D) Lines 56-59 (“Throughout the ... felt”)

C) dreadfully. D) brutally.

34 According to the passage, how does Matthew Stork’s research differ from most other research on exercise and music?

37 As used in line 89, “mute” most nearly means

A) It focuses on high-intensity interval training.

A) deaden.

B) It tests the effects of both fast-paced and slowpaced music on exercise.

B) smother.

C) It has research participants exercise on stationary bikes, while most research has them run on treadmills.

D) silence.

C) dampen.

D) It allows participants to choose their music, while most other studies have pre-set playlists.

CONTINUE


Reading

26

Passage 4-A

38 Information from the graph best supports which of the following statements? A) Music affected peak performance more than average performance. B) The difference in power for the two workouts increased with each bout. C) The effects of music on exercise were strongest later in a workout. D) Overall, music had no impact on performance.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.

27

Passage 4-B

34 A) NO CHANGE

The Work of a Mechanical Engineer

B) technically problem-solving

If you enjoy critical thinking, practical science, and

C) technical problem-solving

34 solving technical problems, 35 they may be

D) problem-solving technically

interested in becoming a mechanical engineer. Possessing an inherent curiosity about how things work

35

and using strong math and science skills, mechanical

A) NO CHANGE

engineers develop the technology for devices that

B) one

many people use daily and take for granted.

C) we

[1] Mechanical engineers study and refine their

D) you

skills for years. [2] A bachelor’s degree is required, as well as additional licensure in numerous states. [3]

36

Many mechanical engineers go on to pursue master’s

A) NO CHANGE

or doctoral degrees in their specific areas of interest.

B) them.

[4] Along with studying physics, electricity,

C) these skills.

thermodynamics, design, and manufacturing,

D) skills, attributes, and abilities.

mechanical engineering students must develop the problem-solving skills necessary to invent new devices, or adapt existing devices to meet new goals.

37

[5] Mechanical engineers must be able to work well in

To make this paragraph most logical, sentence [7] should be placed

teams. [6] The trial and error necessary for the work

A) where it is now.

requires patience and attention to detail. [7] This is

B) before sentence 2.

because a group environment is frequently essential for

C) after sentence 4.

complex projects, which demand the combined efforts

D) after sentence 5.

of a team of engineers. [8] Mechanical engineering programs help students develop 36 competence in these particular skill sets. 37 .

CONTINUE


Writing

Compared to the work of some other professions,

28

Passage 4-B

38

.38 the profession of mechanical engineering is often

A) NO CHANGE

more 39 tangible; the day-to-day work of many

B) mechanical engineers are

mechanical engineers involves hands-on

C) the work of mechanical engineers is

experimentation and fabrication. The projects that

D) the hands-on nature of the work is

mechanical engineers work on 40 varies enormously, from designing airplanes and spaceships to developing

39

prosthetic limbs and medical implants.

A) NO CHANGE B) genuine C) actual D) certain

40 A) NO CHANGE B) vary C) varied D) varying

CONTINUE


29

Writing

41 Medical implants replace missing components

Passage 4-B

41

of the body or support damaged ones. Mechanical

The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the sentence be deleted or kept?

engineers can specialize their skill sets in order to work on projects that excite them personally, from 3D

A) Kept, because the example provided helps to develop the idea that mechanical engineers’ work is socially important.

printers to smartphones, and from wind turbines to robots. However, plenty of mechanical engineers also

B) Kept, because it provides valuable additional information about the day-to-day work of mechanical engineers.

work outside of product development, using their training in fields such as consulting, administration, and defense. 42 Most recent graduates find

C) Deleted, because additional information about medical implants is unnecessary and distracting.

employment in manufacturing, but many other fields are open to them and they can apply their skills in a

D) Deleted, because it does not contain enough specific details about the relationship between medical implants and other products.

variety of settings as their professional interests develop over time. Employment Sectors of Recent Mechanical Engineering Graduates

19%

Manufacture

A) NO CHANGE

8%

Utilities & Transport

Job Sector Entered

7%

IT & Communications

C) Recent graduates most often enter the field of manufacturing,

1%

Business & Management Consultancy

12%

Other Business Activities

6%

Public Administration/Defence

1%

D) Less than 20% of recent graduates will find employment in relevant fields,

13%

Education Others

B) The majority of recent graduates find jobs in manufacturing,

18%

Technical Consultancy/R&D

Accountancy

Which of the following completes the sentence with the most accurate information based on the graphic?

10%

Oil/Mining

42

5% 0%

10%

20%

Graduates

CONTINUE


Writing

43 The field anticipates growth and the creation of

30

Passage 4-B

43

thousands of new jobs, making it a practical choice for

Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph?

career-minded students. Average salaries for mechanical engineers also exceed the national average,

A) Mechanical engineers play a valuable role in society.

and are rising faster than average.

B) Mechanical engineers should think carefully about their job prospects before committing to this career path.

However, mechanical engineering isn’t merely a practical choice for those considering their job prospects: it’s an opportunity to change the way people

C) In our changing world, engineers will be at the forefront of the development of alternative fuels.

live. The work of mechanical engineers is everywhere in our society, from cars to power tools to computers.

D) The career outlook for mechanical engineers is promising.

Everybody feels the effects of new technological devices without necessarily understanding how much ingenuity and skill goes into creating 44 it. We have mechanical engineers to thank for much of the technology that makes our world work.

44 A) NO CHANGE B) either C) them D) that


Reading

31

Passage 5-A

Reading Test 60 MINUTES, 47 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage or paired set of passages is accompanied by a number of questions. Read the passage or paired set of passages, then use what is said or implied in what you read and in any given graphics to choose the best answer to each question.

Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage.

25

This passage is adapted from a speech delivered by President William Jefferson Clinton. The speech was given to Congress as his State of the Union Address in 1998.

Line 5

10

15

20

Because of the hard work and high purpose of the American people, these are good times for America. We have more than 14 million new jobs, the lowest unemployment in 24 years, the lowest core inflation in 30 years. Incomes are rising, and we have the highest homeownership in history. Crime has dropped for a record five years in a row and the welfare rolls are at their lowest level in 27 years. Our leadership in the world is unrivaled. Ladies and gentlemen, the state of our union is strong. But with barely 700 days left in the 20th Century, this is not a time to rest; it is a time to build, to build the America within our reach. An America where everybody has a chance to get ahead with hard work. Where families are strong, schools are good, and all our young people can go on to college. An America where every child can stretch a hand across a keyboard and reach every book ever written, every painting ever painted, every symphony ever composed. An America which leads the world to new heights of peace and prosperity.

30

35

40

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This is the America we have begun to build; this is the America we can leave to our children if we join together to finish the work at hand. Rarely have Americans lived through so much change, in so many ways, in so short a time. Quietly but with gathering force, the ground has shifted beneath our feet, as we have moved into an Information Age, a global economy, a truly new world. The Information Age is first and foremost an education age in which education must start at birth and continue throughout a lifetime. Last year from this podium I said that education has to be our highest priority. I laid out a ten-point plan to move us forward and urged all of us to let politics stop at the schoolhouse door. Since then, this Congress, across party lines, and the American people have responded in the most important year for education in a generation, expanding public school choice, opening the way to 3,000 new charter schools, working to connect every classroom in the country to the information superhighway, committing to expand Head Start to a million children, launching America Reads, sending literally thousands of college students into our elementary schools to make sure all our 8-year-olds can read. Last year I proposed and you passed 220,000 new Pell Grant scholarships for deserving students. Student loans are already less expensive and easier to repay. Now you get to deduct the interest. CONTINUE


Reading

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Families all over America now can put their savings into new tax-free education IRAs. And this year for the first 2 years of college families will get a $1,500 tax credit, a Hope Scholarship that will cover the cost of most community college tuition. And because of these actions, I have something to say to every family listening to us tonight: your children can go on to college. Because of the things that have been done, we can make college as universal in the 21st century as high school is today. And, my friends, that will change the face and future of America. We have opened wide the doors of the world’s best system of higher education. Now we must make our public elementary and secondary schools the world’s best as well by raising standards, raising expectations, and raising accountability.

1

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Passage 5-A

2

Clinton supports the assertion that the country is thriving by A) listing sections of his previous ten-point development plan that have finally been realized. B) listing facts and figures that compare the present with other times in the nation’s history. C) sharing a personal anecdote of how his own life has improved within the past year. D) appealing to his listeners’ emotions by discussing the impressive history of the nation.

3

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 7-9 (“Crime has … years”)

Clinton’s tone is best described as

B) Lines 12-14 (“But with … reach”)

A) serene.

C) Lines 24-26 (“This is … hand”)

B) anxious.

D) Lines 53-54 (“Families all … IRAs”)

C) optimistic. D) arrogant.

CONTINUE


Reading

4

33

Passage 5-A

7

In lines 19-21, why does Clinton describe an America where every child can “reach every book ever written, every painting ever painted, every symphony ever composed”?

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 32-34 (“The Information … lifetime”) B) Lines 49-50 (“Last year … students”)

A) He wants to emphasize the importance of the humanities, and not just the sciences, in the new education system. B) He is concerned about falling literacy rates among the youngest members of the population and hopes computers can help.

C) Lines 62-64 (“Because of … today”) D) Lines 67-71 (“Now we … accountability”)

8

In the passage, Clinton’s use of the phrase “let politics stop at the schoolhouse door” (lines 37-38) is meant to convey the idea that

C) He fears changes in the Information Age will make students less likely to seek out cultural knowledge and experiences.

A) while Congress should legislate on access to education, they should refrain from legislating on curricula.

D) He is looking forward to a time when children will have unprecedented access to information to further their education.

B) politicians should refrain from visiting schools during election season to avoid improper influence.

5

C) Congress should pay attention to education when coming up with an agenda for the year.

As used in line 29, “force” most nearly means A) violence.

D) members of Congress should not let political differences prevent them from working together on education reform.

B) influence. C) momentum. D) dynamism. 9 6

According to the passage, which of the following best expresses the relationship between education and the Information Age?

According to the passage, one reason college will be within reach for many students is because A) student loans have been universally forgiven by the Pell Grants.

A) Education and the Information Age will grow in tandem.

B) new Hope Scholarships will cover the entire cost of a college education.

B) Education is a necessary prerequisite for the Information Age.

C) interest on student loans is at an all-time low.

C) Education and the Information Age are mutually exclusive.

D) a new type of IRA will help families save for college.

D) Breakthroughs in education have led to the Information Age. CONTINUE


Writing

34

Passage 5-B

Writing and Language Test 35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage comes with a set of questions. Some questions will ask you to consider how the writer might revise the passage to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider correcting potential errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. There may be one or more graphics that you will need to consult as you revise and edit the passage. Some questions will refer to a portion of the passage that has been underlined. Other questions will refer to a particular spot in a passage or ask that you consider the passage in full. After you read the passage, select the answers to questions that most effectively improve the passage's writing quality or that adjust the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English. Many questions give you the option to select "NO CHANGE." Select that option in cases where you think the relevant part of the passage should remain as it currently is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

1 A) NO CHANGE

Sports Accounting: A Numbers Game

B) professions do, however, overlap

Everyone knows accountants and star athletes have

C) professions however do overlap

nothing in common; one group crunches numbers

D) professions do. However, overlap

while the other group crushes the competition. These ..1.. professions do however overlap in the

2

business offices of the professional sports industry,

A) NO CHANGE

where accountants play ..2.. an essential role behind the

B) a fundamental

scenes, helping to make what happens on the field

C) an imperative

possible.

D) an obligatory

CONTINUE


Writing

[1] Beyond just tracking debits and credits, sports

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Passage 5-B

3

accountants perform such tasks as analyzing costs,

A) NO CHANGE

developing budgets, creating financial statements, and

B) with incentives for high performance bonuses for meeting specific conditions and penalties for violating codes of conduct.

more. [2] All sports franchises have accountants who are involved in every aspect of the financial life of the

C) with; incentives, for high performance, bonuses, for meeting specific conditions, and penalties, for violating codes of conduct.

team. [3] One particularly complex task in the field of sports accounting is payroll. [4] Athletic contracts can be very complex, ..3.. with: incentives for high

D) with incentives for high performance, bonuses for meeting specific conditions, and penalties for violating codes of conduct.

performance; bonuses for meeting specific conditions; and penalties for violating codes of conduct. [5] Overseeing the compensation of athletes can be a challenging task, but one component may be something

4 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 2 should be placed

sports accountants already love: tracking the stats of players on their favorite teams. ..4.. To qualify for a job as a sports accountant, a

A) where it is now.

candidate needs a minimum of a four-year degree in

B) after sentence 3. C) before sentence 1.

accounting, though an additional degree, ..5.. such as

D) after sentence 4.

an MBA degree, may provide an edge. That edge can help prospective accountants to land exactly the jobs they want, but there are many opportunities in the field.

5

Every major team ..6.. need accountants and so does

A) NO CHANGE

smaller teams and many private clubs. One potential

B) such as an MBA

dream job for the sports-fan accountant hoping for

C) an MBA is an advantage

direct contact with a star athlete would be working

D) candidates with an MBA

with a sports agent or manager. 6 A) NO CHANGE

B) need accountants, and so do C) needs an accountant, and so does D) needs an accountant, and so do

CONTINUE


Writing

Accountants in general tend to be well-

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Passage 5-B

7

compensated, so accounting is a practical choice for

A) NO CHANGE

those who consider good compensation to be a high

B) their counterparts, in

priority. Accountants in the spectator sports industry

C) their counterparts in

tend to accept slightly lower salaries on average

D) their counterparts in,

than ..7.. their counterparts; in other corporate environments, ..8.. whereas it is still a very sensible

8

choice. The Bureau of Labor Statistics reported that the

A) NO CHANGE

average salary for all accountants was $68,000 in 2011,

B) but

while that of sports accountants in particular was

C) because

$70,000.

D) as

..9.. Anyone who gets to work in this field is in a fortunate position. The perks include tickets to games

9

and the chance to rub elbows with elite athletes. Best

A) NO CHANGE

of all, perhaps, .10. was that sports accounting

B) Beyond financial rewards, there are also other benefits to working as a sports accountant.

provided an opportunity for sports fans to be a part of their favorite teams. For some people, that makes

C) How much an accountant gets paid depends, to a large degree, on where they work.

sports accounting an .11. acceptable profession.

D) Nearly every profession also has certain nonfinancial benefits.

10 A) NO CHANGE

B) is that sports accounting provides C) was that sports accounting provides D) is that sports accounting provided

11 A) NO CHANGE

B) awesome way to make a living C) amazing gig D) excellent career choice

CONTINUE


Reading

37

Questions 10-19 are based on the following passage.

Passage 6-A

40

This passage is adapted from Elizabeth Bernstein, “How You Make Decisions Says a Lot About How Happy You Are.” ©2014 by Dow Jones & Company.

Line 5

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Psychology researchers have studied how people make decisions and concluded there are two basic styles. “Maximizers” like to take their time and weigh a wide range of options—sometimes every possible one—before choosing. “Satisficers” would rather be fast than thorough; they prefer to quickly choose the option that fills the minimum criteria (the word “satisfice” blends “satisfy” and “suffice”). “Maximizers are people who want the very best. Satisficers are people who want good enough,” says Barry Schwartz, a professor of psychology at Swarthmore College in Pennsylvania. In a study published in 2006 in the journal Psychological Science, Dr. Schwartz and colleagues followed 548 job-seeking college seniors at 11 schools from October through their graduation in June. Across the board, they found that the maximizers landed better jobs. Their starting salaries were, on average, 20% higher than those of the satisficers, but they felt worse about their jobs. “The maximizer is kicking himself because he can’t examine every option and at some point had to just pick something,” Dr. Schwartz says. “Maximizers make good decisions and end up feeling bad about them. Satisficers make good decisions and end up feeling good.” Dr. Schwartz says he found nothing to suggest that either maximizers or satisficers make bad decisions more often. Satisficers also have high standards, but they are happier than maximizers, he says. Maximizers tend to be more depressed and to report a lower satisfaction with life, his research found. The older you are, the less likely you are to be a maximizer— which helps explain why studies show people get happier as they get older. Dr. Schwartz says he found men are no more or less likely than women to be either satisficers or maximizers. He hasn’t researched whether people

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tend to pair up with mates who have similar, or opposite, decision-making styles—or how they make decisions with a partner. People with opposite styles might be better off together because they balance each other out, he theorizes. Standards will be high, but decisions will get made. “If you are both maximizers, neither of you will be able to relinquish your standards,” Dr. Schwartz says. David Gerzof Richard makes quick, decisive choices. His wife, Brooke, likes to research every option. The spouses say they didn’t learn to make decisions together until after an event early in their marriage that they refer to as “the car.” Mr. Richard decided the couple needed a new car to replace their old one. He spent a few days researching SUVs, found a good deal on an Audi Q5 and signed the lease—without telling his wife. Ms. Richard wasn’t happy when he told her. At her insistence, the spouses spent the weekend testdriving five more cars. The couple stuck with the Q5—Ms. Richard agreed that it remained the best deal—but they both learned something about how their decision-making styles could complement each other’s. “His decision-making makes it so we can get it done faster and don’t lose opportunities,” Ms. Richard says. “And my decision-making makes sure we are truly not forgetting to consider what is important.” In most cases, whoever cares most about the result should choose, Dr. Schwartz says. This isn’t the same as always letting the maximizer decide. If the maximizer is paralyzed with indecision, it can work best if the satisficer chooses, Dr. Schwartz says. Many mismatched couples find it helps to let the person with the higher standards decide—lest the satisficer pick something that isn’t up to the maximizer’s standards. Either way, couples should talk about the decision and narrow down the possibilities together.


Reading

38

Reactions to Increasing Choice

Passage 6-A

12

Positive emotions

0

It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that A) a couple consisting of two satisficers will make decisions quickly.

Number of Choices

B) a couple consisting of two satisficers will never fight. C) a couple consisting of two maximizers will make better decisions than a couple consisting of two satisficers.

Negative emotions

D) a couple consisting of two satisficers will be unhappier than a couple consisting of two maximizers.

10 Which of the following best describes the structure of the passage as a whole? A) The author defines two personality traits, elaborates on the differences between them, and uses an example to show how they can create both conflict and harmony.

13 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 5-8 (“‘Satisficers would’ … suffice”)

B) The author states a thesis, discounts much of that thesis using statistics, then ultimately disagrees with that thesis.

B) Lines 29-30 (“Satisficers also … says”) C) Lines 38-41 (“He hasn’t … partner”) D) Lines 72-75 (“Many mismatched … standards”)

C) The author defines different ways that people make decisions and explains that these decisions can lead to a happier marriage. D) The author uses personal examples to describe how people with different decision-making personalities can come to agreement.

11 According to the passage, on average younger people are more likely than older people to A) seek relationships with a satisficer. B) take their time weighing all options. C) be satisficers themselves. D) make bad decisions.

14 Which of the following is most analogous to the author’s description of a maximizer in lines 3-5 (“‘Maximizers’ like … choosing”)? A) A couple wishing to buy a home visits two houses in a neighborhood in one morning and chooses one that afternoon. B) A man buys two different ties because he can wear them both to different events. C) A student studies a wide range of math problems to prepare for her calculus test. D) A teenager visits a sporting goods store multiple times over a few months to test different baseballs before making a purchase.

CONTINUE


Reading

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39

Passage 6-A

18 As used in line 4, “weigh” most nearly means

As used in line 70, “paralyzed” most nearly means

A) measure.

A) shocked.

B) assay.

B) rendered immobile.

C) count.

C) overwhelmed.

D) consider.

D) dazed.

16

19 Which best summarizes the story of Mr. and Ms. Richards? A) A maximizer and satisficer will have many arguments in their marital life. B) Although it can be hard, a maximizer and satisficer can learn to make decisions together. C) A maximizer may feel compelled to accept his or her spouse’s rash decisions. D) While they might disagree at first, maximizers and satisficers always agree in the end.

17 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

Based on the graphic and passage, which of the following could be a reason why satisficers tend to be happier than maximizers? A) Increasing choice creates more good feelings as well as more bad feelings, and maximizers make more choices. B) Increasing choice creates more bad feelings than good feelings, and satisficers consider fewer options. C) Increasing choice creates more bad feelings than good feelings, and satisficers avoid making choices. D) Increasing choice creates more good feelings than bad feelings, and satisficers are able to make more choices than maximizers.

A) Lines 44-46 (“If you … says”) B) Lines 49-51 (“The spouses … car”) C) Lines 58-62 (“The couple … other’s”) D) Lines 69-72 (“If the … says”)

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage:

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Passage 6-B

12 A) NO CHANGE

King Philip’s War

B) had met

In late January of 1675, a Native American who had

C) he met

taken the name John Sassamon disappeared. Sassamon,

D) met

just weeks before, .12. he had met with the leader of the governor of the Plymouth Colony, Josiah Winslow.

13

The purpose of this meeting was to warn Winslow that

A) NO CHANGE

the Wampanoag chief Metacom (whom the English

B) icy pond. Based on

called “King Philip”) was hoping to join forces with

C) icy pond and based on

other Native American leaders to drive the English

D) icy pond, based on

settlers out of New England. Winslow sent Sassamon away, certain that the warning was some kind of trick.

14

Shortly after his disappearance, Sassamon’s body was

A) NO CHANGE

found submerged in an .13. icy pond based on the

B) of

condition of his corpse, it was determined that he had

C) through

been murdered. Within months, three Native American

D) for

men were accused of, convicted of, and executed .14. by Sassamon’s murder. Within weeks of the executions of the alleged murderers, King Philip’s War began.

CONTINUE


Writing

Known also as Metacom’s Rebellion, this conflict

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Passage 6-B

15

was the last in a series of efforts by the Native

Which choice, inserted here, results in the most effective transition to the information that follows in the paragraph?

Americans to rid New England of the colonists. .15. The Wampanoags themselves had actually been among

A) Metacom, or Metacomet, was a Native American leader, but before the conflict he had appeared in Plymouth to request an English name, and received the name “Philip.”

the first Native Americans to befriend the members of the Plymouth Colony. .16. Shockingly, Philip was the son of Massasoit, the leader who had greeted the Mayflower pilgrims. Massasoit was probably

B) The reasons for conflicts are always complex, but Metacom’s Rebellion was an exception.

responsible for helping teach the pilgrims to plant corn,

C) Thus, Sassamon’s murder was not merely an isolated tragedy; rather, it was the catalyst for a whole cascade of tragic outcomes.

which was essential to their survival, and it is said that he was the one who invited the Pilgrims to the First Thanksgiving.

D) However, the Native Americans involved in the conflict had not always been opposed to English presence.

16 A) NO CHANGE

B) It’s unbelievable that Philip C) Even more surprising, Philip D) In fact, Philip

CONTINUE


Writing

What, then, were the causes of King Philip’s War?

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Passage 6-B

17

Some historians claim the conflict was .17. inevitable;

A) NO CHANGE

it was a clash of cultures that simply could not have

B) predicted

been avoided. .18. The English and Native Americans

C) interminable

had never lived so closely, and tensions were high.

D) preordained

Others place the blame on features of the Pilgrims’ culture. They believed that the New World had been

18

divinely promised to them, and expanded their

The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the underlined sentence be kept or deleted?

settlements rapidly. There is no single cause agreed upon by historians. .19. In light of these facts, this war

A) Kept, because it helps to establish the timeline of important events leading up to the war

was probably the bloodiest of all these so-called uprisings.

B) Kept, because it provides support for the claim that the war resulted from a clash of cultures C) Deleted, because it doesn’t provide support for the alleged causes of the war D) Deleted, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus on the reasons for tensions between the English settlers and the Native Americans

19 A) NO CHANGE

B) Whatever its causes, C) In spite of these factors, D) In conclusion,

CONTINUE


Writing

Over the course of the fourteen-month war, twelve

43

Passage 6-B

20

towns were destroyed and around 5,000 people

A) NO CHANGE

had .20. died, approximately three-quarters of them,

B) died, approximately three-quarters were Native Americans.

were Native Americans. The devastation faced by

C) died approximately three-quarters of them were Native Americans.

Native Americans .21. were not confined to death, though. Some survivors escaped to Canada, uprooted

D) died, approximately three-quarters of whom were Native Americans.

and displaced, while others were captured. 180 of those survivors were sent to the Caribbean on a ship named the Seaflower. .22.

21 A) NO CHANGE

B) have not been C) are not D) was not

22 The writer wants to conclude the passage with a sentence that somberly emphasizes the tragic fate of the Native Americans on the Seaflower. Which choice would best accomplish this goal? A) This ship, with a name so similar to the Mayflower that brought the Pilgrims to freedom, now carried the descendants of Massosoit and other Native Americans to slavery. B) The name of the ship echoes that of the Pilgrim’s Mayflower, but the Seaflower is far less well-known and served a very different purpose. C) Those survivors weren’t going down to the islands for a Caribbean vacation, they were being sent as slaves! D) In summary, while the causes of the war may remain a mystery, its outcomes are all too clear: the bloody conflict left many dead on both sides, and many others in slavery.

CONTINUE


Reading

44

Questions 20-28 are based on the following passage.

Passage 7-A

40

This passage is adapted from Pam Belluck, “To Improve a Memory, Consider Chocolate.” ©2014 by The New York

Times Company.

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20

25

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Science recently edged closer to showing that an antioxidant in chocolate appears to improve some memory skills that people lose with age. In a small study healthy people, ages 50 to 69, who drank a mixture high in antioxidants called cocoa flavanols for three months performed better on a memory test than people who drank a low-flavanol mixture. On average, the improvement of high-flavanol drinkers meant they performed like people two to three decades younger on the study’s memory task, said Dr. Scott A. Small, a neurologist at Columbia University Medical Center and the study’s senior author. They performed about 25 percent better than the low-flavanol group. The findings support recent research linking flavanols, especially epicatechin, to improved blood circulation, heart health and memory in mice, snails and humans. But experts said the new study, although involving only 37 participants and partly funded by Mars Inc., the chocolate company, goes further and was a wellcontrolled, randomized trial led by experienced researchers. Besides improvements on the memory test—a pattern recognition test involving the kind of skill used in remembering where you parked the car or recalling the face of someone you just met— researchers found increased function in an area of the brain’s hippocampus called the dentate gyrus, which has been linked to this type of memory. “This is really interesting to see it in three months,” said Dr. Steven DeKosky, a neurologist and visiting professor at the University of Pittsburgh. “They got this really remarkable increase in a place in the brain that we know is related to age-related memory change.” There was no increased activity in another region, the entorhinal cortex, which is impaired early in Alzheimer’s disease. That reinforces the idea that age-related memory decline is different and suggests

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that flavanols might not help Alzheimer’s, even though they might delay normal memory loss. But unless you are stocking up for Halloween, do not rush to buy Milky Way or Snickers bars. To consume the high-flavanol group’s daily dose of epicatechin, 138 milligrams, would take eating at least 300 grams of dark chocolate a day—about seven average-sized bars. Or possibly about 100 grams of baking chocolate or unsweetened cocoa powder, but concentrations vary widely depending on the processing. Milk chocolate has most epicatechin processed out of it. “You would have to eat a large amount of chocolate,” along with its fat and calories, said Hagen Schroeter, director of fundamental health and nutrition research for Mars, which funds many flavanol studies and approached Dr. Small for this one. “I nearly threw them out,” said Dr. Small, who added that he later concluded that the company employed serious scientists who would not bias the research. “Candy bars don’t even have a lot of chocolate in them,” Dr. Schroeter said. And “most chocolate uses a process called dutching and alkalization. That’s like poison for flavanol.” Mars already sells a supplement, CocoaVia, which it says promotes healthy circulation, including for the heart and brain. It contains 20 to 25 milligrams of epicatechin per serving, Dr. Schroeter said. Epicatechin is also in foods like tea and apples, although may be less absorbable. The Columbia study had important limitations. For example, the only daily dietary requirements were either 900 milligrams of flavanols with 138 milligrams of epicatechin or 10 milligrams of flavanols with less than two milligrams of epicatechin, so participants could have eaten other things that played a role. And while researchers also had half of the healthy but sedentary participants in each group exercise four days a week, surprisingly, the exercise had no effects on memory. Dr. Small, whose research previously found that exercise helped hippocampal function in younger people, suggested maybe more vigorous exercise is needed to affect older brains.

CONTINUE


Reading

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More extensive research is planned. As for why flavanols would help memory, one theory is that they improve brain blood flow. Another, 85 favored by Dr. Small, is that they cause dendrites, message-receiving branches of neurons, to grow.

Passage 7-A

21 Which of the following, according to the passage, is the least efficient way to get the dose of epicatechin shown to improve memory in test subjects? A) Eating dark chocolate

Antioxidants in Beverages

B) Eating baking chocolate or unsweetened cocoa powder

Antioxidants (milligrams)

1400 1200

C) Eating milk chocolate

1000

D) Drinking the high-antioxidant mixture from the study

800 600 400

22

200

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

0 Cocoa Epicatechin equivalents

Red wine

Green tea

Gallic acid equivalents

A) Lines 41-42 (“But unless … bars”) B) Lines 42-46 (“To consume … bars”)

20

C) Lines 49-50 (“Milk chocolate … it”)

The main point of the passage is that A) a new study provides evidence that ingesting large amounts of an antioxidant found in chocolate can delay age-related memory loss.

D) Lines 58-59 (“Candy bars … said”)

23

B) experts agree that a new study that links cocoa flavanols to improved memory is somewhat flawed.

In the passage, Dr. Small implies that he

C) drinking large amounts of an antioxidant found in chocolate can improve memory loss in people of any age.

B) was overwhelmed at work and initially considered not taking on a new project.

D) Mars, Inc. is one of several chocolate companies trying to spur research into chocolate’s positive effects.

A) was initially skeptical that the Mars Inc. study would be unbiased.

C) originally held negative opinions about antioxidants before this study. D) does not believe that Mars Inc. is a reputable company.

CONTINUE


Reading

24

46

Passage 7-A

27 Which choice provides evidence for the answer to the previous question?

As used in line 80, “vigorous” most nearly means

A) Lines 8-13 (“On average … author”)

B) intense.

B) Lines 55-58 (“I nearly … research”)

C) vibrant.

C) Lines 77-81 (“Dr. Small … brains”)

D) vital.

A) sturdy.

D) Lines 84-86 (“Another, favored … to grow”) 28 25 Which provides the best summary of the researchers’ findings? A) High-flavonol drinkers had improved memory test results and increased function of the dentate gyrus. B) High-flavonol drinkers had improved memory test results in spite of decreased function in the dentate gyrus. C) High-flavonol drinkers had increased function in the dentate gyrus and increased blood flow. D) High-flavonol drinkers had improved memory test results and increased function in the dentate gyrus and entorhinal cortex.

26 As used in line 63, “promotes” most nearly means A) advertises.

It can be inferred from the passage and graphic that A) while cocoa has more antioxidants and higher concentrations of epicatechin than chocolate bars, it does not have as many antioxidants as green tea and red wine. B) while scientists have been focusing on the health benefits of epicatechin in a variety of foods, they should begin shifting to a focus on gallic acid as it may provide even greater health benefits. C) although cocoa has more epicatechin than red wine and green tea, it would not be conducive to good health to use it as an exclusive source of antioxidants. D) cocoa, green tea, and red wine all contain almost identical proportions of epicatechin and gallic acid, meaning green tea and red wine provide equal flavonoid benefits to cocoa.

B) encourages. C) raises. D) stimulates.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage:

47

Passage 7-B

23 A) NO CHANGE

“Show And Tell”

B) writing, and in

“Show, don’t tell.” This is the singular imperative

C) writing; and in

in writers’ workshops, in articles about .23. writing, in

D) writing, and; in

Composition 101. There is wisdom in that rule. .24. By showing rather than telling, a writer creates a more

24

accessible story for her readers. Readers want to have

A) NO CHANGE

access to the scene into which they are being

B) By showing rather than telling, a more accessible story is created by the writer for her readers.

invited; .25. we want to get involved in the action and to feel as if they can almost touch the characters and

C) A more accessible story is created by the writer for her readers, showing rather than telling.

the scenery. However, “showing” or, more accurately, narrative, does only half the job of the writer involved in memoir or personal essay. .26. Without insight born

D) By showing rather than telling, readers can find a writer’s story to be more accessible.

of exposition, no matter how evocative the narrative, the result is simply “words on paper.” 25

A) NO CHANGE

B) one wants C) they want D) she wants

26 Which sentence, inserted here, best helps to establish the main point of the paragraph? A) To fully tell the story, the writer needs to create a rich setting. B) If the writer only uses narrative, there will be something missing from the essay. C) The writer has to also have a certain amount of insight into the subject. D) That writer must “tell as well as show,” by using exposition to provide the essential element of the genre: insight.

CONTINUE


Writing

One writer who succeeds at both telling and

48

Passage 7-B

27

showing is the .27. notorious Joan Didion, a celebrated

A) NO CHANGE

novelist and journalist. A specific example of her

B) renowned

success is her essay, “In Bed.” This essay explores

C) infamous

what it is like to suffer from migraines. .28. The essay

D) acknowledged

tells the story of Didion’s specific experience of migraine. However, it also contains a great deal of

28

factual exposition, explaining what migraine is (and is not), presenting a case against the perception that those

Which choice would result in the most effective transition to the following sentences?

who suffer from migraines are “malingerers,” .29. and

A) NO CHANGE

providing information about the treatment of the

B) The essay provides both a personal story and information about migraines.

malady. The tone she uses throughout is authoritative;

C) As a migraine sufferer, Didion undoubtedly has strong feelings about the topic, but manages to temper her feelings with facts.

Didion presents herself as an expert on .30. this and her intention seems to be to educate those who are not affected by the malady. Though she is telling a

D) The essay is an interesting and compelling piece of writing.

personal tale, Didion seems to be examining the event of a migraine from a distance in order to express an idea directly while placing her ideas about the event

29

outside of time.

The writer wants to complete the sentence with a third example that best reflects Didion’s use of exposition. Which choice most effectively accomplishes this goal? A) NO CHANGE

B) and telling stories about how other people experience migraines. C) and making the reader feel as though they have a personal connection with Didion. D) and using vivid imagery to draw the reader into the story.

30 A) NO CHANGE B) migraines C) this point D) that

CONTINUE


Writing

[1] “In Bed” is not merely a dry recitation of facts,

49

Passage 7-B

31

though. [2] There is a great story being told, complete

A) NO CHANGE

with all the necessary .31. parts she uses setting,

B) parts, she

characters, and specific details that bring the story

C) parts, which she

alive. [3] Didion is such a master of the writing craft

D) parts. She

that, even with minimal narrative, she makes a reader feel as if they have been given a guided tour of a

32

foreign country. [4] She also offers up a startling insight: that there is a kind of peace to be found in

Which sentence should be deleted to improve the focus of the paragraph?

giving in to the magnified anxiety and pain that cannot

A) Sentence 1

be ignored. .32.

B) Sentence 2

.33. Admittedly, that is the most surprising thing of

C) Sentence 3

all. Through her sparing use of narrative amidst all that

D) Sentence 4

exposition, Joan Didion delivers a revelation about something beyond her apparent subject.

33 A) NO CHANGE B) Furthermore, C) Therefore, D) Ultimately,

CONTINUE


Reading

50

Passage 8-A

Questions 29-38 are based on the following passage. Passage 1 is adapted from Christine Gorman, “FDA Was Right to Block 23andMe.” ©2013 by Scientific American. Passage 2 is adapted from Katherine Harmon, “Genome Sequencing for the Rest of Us.” ©2010 by Scientific American.

Passage 2

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Passage 1

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30

A few techno-libertarians are up in arms over the FDA’s letter warning the genetics company 23andMe to stop selling its personalized genome services kit. But a quick search shows federal regulators have been targeting various low-cost genetic testing ventures to provide the necessary analysis that goes along with a proper genetic screening for at least the past three years. At present, getting raw data about your personal genome is worse than useless, as Nancy Shute pointed out in a Scientific American article that I edited back in 2012. “[E]ach individual’s genetic readout must be compared with lots and lots of other people’s readouts for doctors to understand which genetic patterns are important indicators of disease and which can be safely ignored,” she wrote. Shute further quoted Euan A. Ashley, an assistant professor of cardiology at the Stanford University School of Medicine as saying, “‘Generating the sequence now is fast and cheap. . . But the analysis? Wow. That’s not going to be fast, and that’s not going to be cheap.’” Using home gene kits to imagine where your ancestors might hail from is one thing. That’s basically the 21st century equivalent of looking up your horoscope—entertaining but not really a matter of life and death. Cheap sequence data from 23andMe and other gene testing companies has much greater potential to harm without the proper interpretation of the results. Unfortunately, this is still quite difficult and expensive in most cases.

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In the quest to better know one’s self, more and more people are turning to genome sequencing to uncover information about their ancestral histories, impending health risks, and disorders of potential progeny. Despite the completion of the generalized human genome draft a decade ago, connections between diseases and genetic variations have proved to be complex and elusive. Some conditions, such as cystic fibrosis (pinpointed even before the completion of the human genome), are caused by single gene mutations, and clinical genetic tests for these types of diseases have been useful diagnostic tools. But other diseases, such as Alzheimer’s, have no uniform genetic signature leaving many to wonder about the science and utility behind the results many genome scans offer casual consumers. Even for genetic tests that offer just a snapshot of relatively common disease-linked variations, the amount of data such a scan generates is immense and requires distillation before relevant information can be presented to consumers. This process of interpretation, however, is one place where the science can get murky. Most companies offer genetic data in terms of relative risk for particular conditions. Some provide links to scientific studies about genetic variants that appear in your genome, allowing a customer to judge what a particular difference might mean for them. That approach could have limitations for much of the public who might not be interested in sifting through a decade of scientific literature about a particular mutation they carry. Another challenge to consumer genetic testing has been consistency. Although most sequencing processes are similar, and the DNA itself is a unique code, reports from various groups for a single person can have striking differences. “People interpret the information that comes out of the sequence differently,” notes John Boyce, co-founder of Delphi Bio, a biotech consulting firm. CONTINUE


Reading

The main problem, as explained by Boyce and 75 others, is that solid, predictive biomarkers have not been agreed on for most conditions. “The sample populations are not large enough to truly find the predictive biomarkers,” Boyce says. Another company Boyce is involved with, 80 GnuBio, aims to drop the cost of sequencing to $30 per genome in the next two years. With fast and cheap sequencing, he expects the number of logged genomes will skyrocket. “Once the numbers [of genomes] are high enough,” Boyce 85 says, “we should… find the predictive biomarkers.”

51

Passage 8-A

31 The tone of the author of Passage 1 is best described as A) horrified. B) frustrated. C) academic. D) critical.

32 As used in line 30, the word “interpretation” most closely means A) understanding.

29 The main point of Passage 1 is that

B) exposition.

A) obtaining raw data about one’s personal genome is likely prohibitively costly and could be incorrect.

C) portrayal.

B) home genome sequencing kits are unhelpful and could have serious drawbacks. C) the medical community agrees that the costs of genome testing currently far outweigh the benefits. D) the FDA has been actively trying to come up with more cost-effective ways to test genetic sequences.

D) rendition.

33 As used in line 52, “distillation” most nearly means A) cleansing. B) purification. C) clarification. D) condensation.

30 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 4-8 (“But a … years”) B) Lines 9-12 (“At present … 2012”) C) Lines 24-27 (“That’s basically … death”) D) Lines 27-30 (“Cheap sequence … results”)

CONTINUE


Reading

34

52

Passage 8-A

36 Which of the following would provide the best evidence in support of the argument in lines 74-78 of Passage 2 (“The main … says”)?

All of the following are mentioned in either Passage 1, Passage 2, or both as potential benefits of genome sequences EXCEPT

A) Scientists have reached some consensus regarding most predictive biomarkers.

A) researching where family ancestors are from.

B) Special computer programs can easily hypothesize expected predictive biomarkers from a small sample size.

C) determining what health risks descendants may be prone to.

B) looking for genetic indicators of disease.

D) extending the average life span.

C) Predictive biomarkers could be assembled from years of currently assembled genomes. D) Finding predictive biomarkers is a surprisingly expensive endeavor.

37 In response to Shute’s critique of genome sequencing in lines 12-22 of Passage 1, the author of Passage 2 would likely argue that

35 Which best describes the relationship between the two passages?

A) companies are working to reduce the cost of sequencing, which will simultaneously allow more genomes to be logged.

A) Both passages recognize the current limitations of genome sequencing, but Passage 2 is more hopeful about its potential benefits.

B) there are actually more predictive biomarkers than Shute acknowledges and the difficulty lies in interpreting the data with these markers.

B) Neither Passage 1 nor Passage 2 discusses any benefits to personalized genome sequencing.

C) most diseases, like cystic fibrosis, can be readily determined without comparing one’s genome to others’.

C) Passage 2 notes some of the common problems with home genome sequencing that Passage 1 discusses in depth. D) Passage 1 appears to have been written as a response to Passage 2.

D) Shute has overemphasized the importance of comparing one’s genetic sequence to others’.

38 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 40-44 (“Some conditions … tools”) B) Lines 57-61 (“Some provide … them”) C) Lines 70-73 (“People … firm”) D) Lines 81-83 (“With fast … skyrocket”)

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage:

53

Passage 8-B

34 A) NO CHANGE

Masting Maples: Seeds, Syrup, and Sap

B) Therefore

In March and April each year, just as winter

C) Furthermore

releases its grip on the eastern half of the U.S. and

D) However

Canada, an army equipped with spouts, hooks, buckets, and miles of plastic tubing takes to the woods. .34.

35

Consequently, this army is not going into battle; these

A) NO CHANGE

are sugarmakers, and their forays into the woods signal

B) waffles, maple syrup.

the start of sugaring season. Their goal is to capture the

C) waffles. Maple syrup.

sap of sugar maples, the source of the most beloved

D) waffles: maple syrup.

topping for pancakes and .35. waffles maple syrup. [1] Traditionally, sugarmakers have attributed sap

36

production to weather conditions. [2] It takes

A) NO CHANGE

approximately forty gallons of maple sap to make one

B) flexes

gallon of syrup. [3] However, the amount of syrup each

C) instabilities

tree yields varies from one year to another depending

D) volatilities

on the amount of sap produced. [4] Extreme cold during the winter or the early advent of warm temperatures in the spring can lead to decreased sap production. [5] Yet when researchers looked at data for several years of syrup production, weather alone was not sufficient explanation for .36. fluctuations in syrup yields year-to-year. .37.

37 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 1 should be placed A) NO CHANGE B) after sentence 3. C) after sentence 4. D) after sentence 2.

CONTINUE


Writing

.38. Maple trees are a mast species: they tend to

54

Passage 8-B

38

seed in synchronized cycles, with all of the trees in a stand seeding together in the same year. Mast

Which choice, inserted here, provides the most effective transition between paragraphs?

years .39. led to a depletion of available energy stores,

A) These fluctuations are a serious problem:

sugarmakers have tight budgets, and unexpected losses can have a serious impact.

and long intervals of low-seed years in which the trees replenish their stores. Those same energy stores likely

B) It’s notable, however, that temperatures are the best predictor of daily sap yields.

determine the amount of sugar present in the sap of the .40. trees. Following a mast year, then, the amount

C) Obligate seeders die back in fire or other disasters, and resprout from buried roots or dormant seeds, claiming land from nearby plants.

of sugar in the sap may be lower, thus .41. affecting syrup production.

D) Recently, however, scientists have been exploring whether it is possible to predict the amount of syrup maple trees will produce by looking at the seed cycles of the trees.

39 A) NO CHANGE B) leads C) lead D) leading

40 A) NO CHANGE B) trees’ C) tree’s D) trees’s

41 A) NO CHANGE B) effecting C) affected D) effected

CONTINUE


Writing

55

.42. Because syrup is produced by boiling off the

Passage 8-B

42

sap water in order to produce syrup, higher ratios of

A) NO CHANGE

sugar in sap mean increased output of syrup. That

B) Boiling off the sap water is necessary

means that information about seeding should be able to help predict syrup output. When researchers examined

C) In order to produce syrup, the sap water is boiled off, therefore

data on seed production and syrup yields in subsequent

D) Because the sap water is boiled off

years, their results seemed to show that .43. more trees seeding in one year means more sap sugar in the next

43

year.

Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the graphs?

Since the harvest lasts only about two months and requires long work days, up to 16 hours, knowing

A) NO CHANGE

ahead of time whether it’s going to be a “good syrup

B) more sap sugar in one year means more seeds in the next year.

year” could make a world of difference to the

C) more syrup in one year means less sap sugar in the next year.

sugarmakers. Predicting sap yields more accurately would allow sugarmakers to better forecast profits for a

D) more trees seeding in one year means less syrup in the next year.

specific stand of trees in a specific year, making it easier for .44. one to budget more effectively. 44

Syrup Production (year t)

0.4 0.3

A) NO CHANGE

0.2

B) they

0.1

C) them

0

D) whom

-0.1 -0.2 -0.3 -0.4 0

0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 Proportion Trees Seeding (year t –1)

0.5

This table shows the relationship of syrup production in year t to seed production in the previous year, year t – 1.


Reading

56

Passage 9-A

Reading Test 60 MINUTES, 47 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage or paired set of passages is accompanied by a number of questions. Read the passage or paired set of passages, then use what is said or implied in what you read and in any given graphics to choose the best answer to each question.

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

25

This passage is adapted from Maria Konnikova, “What’s Lost as Handwriting Fades.” ©2014 by The New York Times

Company.

Line 5

10

15

20

Psychologists and neuroscientists say it is too soon to declare handwriting a relic of the past. New evidence suggests that the links between handwriting and broader educational development run deep. Children not only learn to read more quickly when they first learn to write by hand, but they also remain better able to generate ideas and retain information. In other words, it’s not just what we write that matters—but how. “When we write, a unique neural circuit is automatically activated,” said Stanislas Dehaene, a psychologist. “There is a core recognition of the gesture in the written word, a sort of recognition by mental simulation in your brain. It seems that this circuit is contributing in unique ways we didn’t realize. Learning is made easier.” A 2012 study lent support to that view. Children who had not yet learned to read and write were presented with a letter or a shape on an index card and asked to reproduce it in one of three ways: trace the image on a page with a dotted outline, draw it on a blank white sheet, or type it on a computer. They

30

35

40

45

50

were then placed in a brain scanner and shown the image again. The researchers found that the initial duplication process mattered. When children had drawn a letter freehand, they exhibited increased activity in areas of the brain that are activated in adults when they read and write. By contrast, children who typed or traced the letter or shape showed no such effect. The activation was significantly weaker. Dr. James attributes the differences to the messiness inherent in free-form handwriting: not only must we plan and execute the action in a way that is not required when we have a traceable outline, but we are also likely to produce a result that is highly variable. That variability may itself be a learning tool. “When a kid produces a messy letter,” Dr. James said, “that might help him learn it.” Our brain must understand that each possible iteration of an “a” is the same, no matter how we see it written. Being able to decipher the messiness of each “a” may be more helpful in establishing that eventual representation than seeing the same result repeatedly. The effect goes beyond letter recognition. A study that followed children in grades two through five demonstrated that printing, cursive writing, and typing on a keyboard are all associated with separate brain patterns. When the children composed text by hand, they consistently produced more words more CONTINUE


57

Reading

60

65

70

75

1

The passage primarily focuses on A) how the brain develops as children learn to read. B) the need to limit young adults’ use of keyboards. C) the role that writing by hand plays in learning. D) the importance of having good handwriting.

2

The passage most strongly suggests that doubts about the findings of the new handwriting research A) need to be more widely acknowledged by language researchers. B) are irrelevant and not worth addressing. C) have not stopped scientists from beginning to take the topic seriously. D) are widespread among teachers in the United States.

3 Note-Taking Method and Performance Number of Correct Answers on Comprehension Test

55

quickly than they did on a keyboard, and expressed more ideas. And brain imaging suggested that the connection between writing and idea generation went further. When these children were asked to come up with ideas for a composition, the ones with better handwriting exhibited greater neural activation in areas associated with working memory, and increased overall activation in the reading and writing networks. Two psychologists have reported that in both laboratory settings and classrooms, students learn better when they take notes by hand than when they type on a keyboard. The new research suggests that writing by hand allows the student to process a lecture’s contents and reframe it. Not every expert is persuaded that the longterm benefits of handwriting are all that significant. Still, one such skeptic, psychologist Paul Bloom, says the new research is, at least, thought-provoking. “With handwriting, the very act of putting it down forces you to focus on what’s important,” he said. He added, after pausing to consider, “Maybe it helps you think better.”

Passage 9-A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 26-27 (“The researchers … mattered”) B) Lines 33-34 (“Dr. James … handwriting”)

Laptop Paper

0

5 10 Number of Students

C) Lines 66-68 (“The new … it”) D) Lines 71-73 (“Still … thought-provoking”)

15

This data is from a study in which college students took lecture notes either on paper or on a laptop, then took a comprehension test about the content they had just heard.

CONTINUE


Reading

4

58

Passage 9-A

8

According to the passage, variation in handwritten letters

As used in line 18, “lent” most nearly means

A) is helpful for ultimately learning to recognize them.

B) loaned.

B) is confusing for students learning to read and write.

D) adapted.

C) should be eliminated by more handwriting practice in the classroom.

A) furnished. C) gave.

9

D) leads to increased activation in parts of the brain.

Which best summarizes lines 47-62? A) A study suggests that writing by hand and typing are completely unrelated processes.

5

B) A study suggests that better handwriting is linked to better academic performance.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

C) A study suggests that writing by hand enhances mental speed and creativity.

A) Lines 9-10 (“In other … how”)

D) A study suggests that children should not type before the fifth grade.

B) Line 18 (“A 2012 … view”) C) Lines 43-46 (“Being able … repeatedly”) D) Lines 47-51 (“A study … patterns”)

10

It can reasonably be inferred from the passage and the graphic that

6

As used in line 8, “generate” most nearly means A) provoke. B) produce. C) promote. D) precipitate.

7

In lines 11-17, Dr. Dehaene’s tone is best described as A) explanatory.

A) the way students take notes does not markedly affect how well they retain information. B) students who write notes by hand do better in school than students who type their notes on laptops. C) students who take notes by hand demonstrate better understanding than students who type their notes. D) studies regarding the effects of note-taking method on information retention have been inconclusive.

B) pedantic. C) demonstrative. D) zealous.

CONTINUE


Writing

59

Passage 9-B

Writing and Language Test 35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage comes with a set of questions. Some questions will ask you to consider how the writer might revise the passage to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider correcting potential errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. There may be one or more graphics that you will need to consult as you revise and edit the passage. Some questions will refer to a portion of the passage that has been underlined. Other questions will refer to a particular spot in a passage or ask that you consider the passage in full. After you read the passage, select the answers to questions that most effectively improve the passage’s writing quality or that adjust the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English. Many questions give you the option to select “NO CHANGE.” Select that option in cases where you think the relevant part of the passage should remain as it currently is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. The Search for Other Worlds

One of the most exciting frontiers in astronomy is the study of planets outside our solar system. Though

1 A) NO CHANGE B) visit: they C) visit. However, they D) visit, they

these exoplanets orbit distant stars that humans may never ..1.. visit. They are of great interest to any scientists and members of the general public who want to know if other worlds may harbor life. Despite the scientific value in finding and studying exoplanets, few governments provide enough funding for this type of astronomical research. More attention should be paid to this important line of scientific inquiry.

CONTINUE


Writing

..2.. [1] Because they are usually too distant and

60

Passage 9-B

2

dim to be spotted and photographed directly,

Which choice most effectively expresses the main topic of this paragraph?

exoplanets must often be detected by indirect techniques. [2] However, both of these techniques rely

A) Many exoplanets have unusual characteristics that make them very unlike Earth.

on high-quality observations of stars. [3] One such

B) Scientists use a variety of methods to find exoplanets.

technique is the transit method, which finds planets by spotting the changes in brightness they cause when

C) Only a few astronomers have the expertise needed to identify exoplanets.

they pass in front of the stars they orbit. [4] Another is the radial velocity method, which notes small

D) Other astronomical objects can often be confused with exoplanets.

movements of stars caused by the gravity of an orbiting planet. [5] When scientists applied these methods to observations from Earth-bound telescopes, which are

3

limited by interference from the atmosphere, they ..3..

A) NO CHANGE

find only “hot Jupiters.” [6] These enormous planets

B) are finding

have orbits much smaller ..4.. than Earth, and are

C) would find

unlikely to be hospitable to life. ..5..

D) found

4 A) NO CHANGE B) than Earth’s C) than Earth is D) than the Earth

5 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 2 should be placed A) where it is now. B) after sentence 3. C) after sentence 4. D) after sentence 6.

CONTINUE


Writing

In the hopes of finding more Earth-like exoplanets,

61

Passage 9-B

6

the National Aeronautics and Space Administration

A) NO CHANGE

(NASA) launched an orbital telescope called

B) that was launched for

Kepler ..6.. that was launched in order to make better

C) to make

observations of stars in our galaxy. This mission was

D) make

extraordinarily successful; Kepler enabled hundreds of exoplanets to be detected by the transit method in

7

2014. Based on ..7.. it’s findings, scientists estimated

A) NO CHANGE

that as many as 40 billion potentially habitable Earth-

B) its

sized planets could exist in our galaxy.

C) their

However, the Kepler mission has been

D) they’re

consistently ..8.. ravaged by problems due to NASA’s limited funding. The project was delayed several times

8

before the telescope’s ..9.. launch, as a result of

A) NO CHANGE

funding cuts. In addition, mechanical failures have

B) defiled

damaged Kepler in orbit, crippling its ability to rotate

C) plagued

and endangering its mission to collect data.

D) disfigured

9 A) NO CHANGE B) launch: as a C) launch; as a D) launch as a

CONTINUE


Writing

This is hardly surprising given the budget cuts

62

Passage 9-B

10

NASA has suffered. .10. In the past, when the US

The writer wants to include a sentence that provides evidence that NASA’s budget problems are a result of changing government priorities. Which choice would best accomplish this goal?

government made space exploration a higher priority, NASA used its ample funding to produce valuable new technologies and important scientific findings.

A) NASA’s budget as a percentage of the United States federal budget has decreased eightfold since the 1960s.

Moreover, NASA’s highly visible accomplishments, including landing astronauts on the moon in 1969, inspired a generation of .11. scientists so more support

B) Like any government agency, sometimes NASA has to balance its objectives against its available budget.

for NASA in its mission to find exoplanets would deliver untold benefits to science and to the American

C) NASA needed $17 million to be able to really explore the existence of exoplanets.

people.

D) The U.S. federal government needs to provide NASA with enough money to launch successful missions.

11 A) NO CHANGE B) scientists. So more C) scientists, so more D) scientists. More

CONTINUE


Reading

63

Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

Passage 10-A

40

This passage is adapted from Carl Zimmer, “In a Mother’s Milk, Nutrients, and a Message, Too.” ©2014 by The New

York Times Company.

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10

15

20

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30

35

Milk is not just food. Along with nutrients like protein and calcium, milk contains immune factors that protect infants from disease. It hosts microbes, some of which may colonize the guts of babies and help them digest food. Now it turns out milk also contains messages. A new study of monkeys demonstrates that a hormone present in milk, cortisol, can profoundly affect how babies develop. Infant monkeys rely on cortisol to detect the condition of their mothers, the authors suggest, then adjust their growth and even shift their temperaments. Katie Hinde, a behavioral biologist, and her colleagues studied 108 rhesus macaque mothers nursing infants. The researchers collected samples of milk, measuring how much energy each provided and the cortisol it contained. They also measured how much weight each nursing monkey gained and tracked its behavior. Cortisol is best known as a stress hormone. When cortisol courses through our bodies, it prepares us to handle fearful situations, increasing the brain’s consumption of glucose and suppressing the digestive system. The cortisol in a mother’s body can also end up in her milk. Babies appear to be sensitive to the hormone as they nurse. Scientists found that drinking milk causes infants to build receptors in their intestines for detecting cortisol. The same shift doesn’t happen when babies drink formula. Among the macaques, some mothers delivered a lot of cortisol to their babies, while others delivered a little. High-cortisol milk made babies put on weight faster, and they were more nervous and less confident. To make sense of these results, the scientists looked for factors that might determine how much cortisol a mother produced in her milk. One stood out: how many other offspring she had.

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New mothers had high cortisol levels in their milk. Hormone levels were much lower in mothers who had had about 10 babies. When female monkeys start having babies, they can’t store as much energy in their milk. New mothers are still small, so their bodies can’t provide many of the raw ingredients for milk. Their mammary glands are also underdeveloped, so they can’t convert those ingredients efficiently into milk. Monkey mothers who have had more babies are able to supply new infants with more energy. Dr. Hinde suspects that the cortisol that newer mothers give their babies serves as a warning that they shouldn’t expect a lot of milk, or energy. She sums up the message: “Prioritize growth, kiddo. You can’t really afford to be exploratory and playful. Once you spend a calorie on that, it’s a calorie you can’t use to grow.” The babies fed high-cortisol milk develop a nervous temperament, focusing their limited energy on putting on weight. They grow faster, despite getting less energy from their inexperienced mothers. Cortisol in breast milk may influence human infants as well. But Melissa Thompson, an anthropologist, cautioned that the differences between monkeys and humans make comparisons difficult. Infant monkeys, for example, cling to their mothers and nurse whenever they want. Human mothers balance breast-feeding with many other tasks. “We should expect the relationship between maternal stress, breast milk and infant temperament in humans to be relatively complex,” said Dr. Thompson.

CONTINUE


64

Reading

Baby Monkeys’ Cortisol Intake and Confidence Levels

3

Passage 10-A

13

The passage most strongly suggests that

Confidence Factor

2 1

A) human breast milk is complex and not completely understood.

0

B) infant formula needs to be improved. C) mothers should try to decrease their stress and cortisol levels.

-1 -2

D) research findings about monkeys are irrelevant to humans.

-3 -4 3

4

5

6

14

Peak Cortisol Concentration in Milk

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 26-28 (“Scientists found … cortisol”)

11

The passage primarily focuses on which of the following aspects of mothers’ milk?

B) Lines 35-37 (“To make … milk”)

A) The nutrients it provides to babies

D) Lines 68-71 (“We should … Thompson”)

B) The hormonal signals it facilitates between mothers and babies

C) Lines 48-49 (“Monkey mothers … energy”)

15

C) The myriad ways it benefits the digestive systems of babies

As used in line 3, “hosts” most nearly means A) welcomes.

D) The effects it has on mothers’ moods and stress levels

B) contains. C) moderates. D) receives.

12

The passage serves primarily to A) present and interpret the findings of a new study.

16

As used in line 21, “courses” most nearly means

B) relay a perspective on a hotly-debated controversy.

A) tracks.

C) announce and celebrate the achievement of a research scientist and her team.

C) flows.

D) further a debate by adding evidence from a new study to the discussion.

B) pours. D) rolls.

CONTINUE


Reading

17

65

Passage 10-A

19

According to the passage, what is the relationship between cortisol and the health of baby monkeys?

Dr. Thompson would probably agree that the research on baby monkeys

A) The faster baby monkeys grow, the more cortisol they will receive from their mothers.

A) suggests important ideas about human development.

B) The less cortisol baby monkeys receive from their mothers, the more likely they are to be even-tempered.

B) should be taken into account by companies that make baby formulas. C) is interesting but not necessarily directly relevant to human babies.

C) The more cortisol baby monkeys receive from their mothers, the weaker their immune systems will be. D) The less cortisol baby monkeys receive, the greater their physical strength will be.

D) was not conducted very well and should be ignored.

20

According to the passage and the graphic

18

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 33-35 (“High-cortisol … confident”) B) Line 39 (“New mothers … milk”) C) Lines 49-52 (“Dr. Hinde suspects … energy”) D) Lines 61-62 (“Cortisol in … well”)

A) baby monkeys who consumed milk with less cortisol became less confident over time. B) baby monkeys who consumed milk with higher cortisol levels generally exhibited more confident behavior than baby monkeys who consumed milk with lower cortisol levels. C) baby monkeys who consumed milk with lower cortisol levels generally exhibited more confident behavior than baby monkeys who consumed milk with higher cortisol levels. D) the cortisol concentration in mother monkeys’ milk decreased over time.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.

66

Passage 10-B

12 A) NO CHANGE

Haruki Murakami and the Literature of Japan

B) novels and short stories, and nonfiction

Haruki Murakami is one of Japan’s best-known

C) novels, and short stories, nonfiction

authors. In a career spanning almost 40 years, he has

D) novels, short stories, and nonfiction

produced an enormous body of work including .12. novels, and short stories, and nonfiction. Many of his

13

works have been translated into languages other than

A) NO CHANGE

Japanese and are popular internationally.

B) inspired

Murakami began writing at the age of 29. Though

C) conspired

he had never before been .13. aspired to write, he was

D) transpired

suddenly struck with the idea that he could and should write a novel. His first few novels, published in the early 1980s, were moderately successful, but Murakami did not become widely known until several years later, with the release of Norwegian Wood in 1987. This novel explored the lives and relationships of a group of Japanese college students. It was immensely popular with young readers both in Japan and abroad and is considered Murakami’s breakout work.

CONTINUE


Writing

[1] Murakami’s more recent works .14. are viewed

67

Passage 10-B

14

as really good by readers and critics due to their unique

A) are liked a lot by

style and subject matter. [2] For instance, his novel

B) have earned praise from

Kafka on the Shore features an elderly man who can

C) get a lot of love from

talk to cats and a teenage runaway who stumbles into

D) are super popular with

the afterlife while still alive. [3] Many of his novels and stories feature characters who are outsiders in

15

Japanese society, lacking steady jobs or strong social

The author is considering adding a sentence that emphasizes Murakami’s use of outsiders as characters. Which choice would best accomplish this goal?

ties. [4] For example, the protagonists of his novel After Dark are Mari, a loner and student, and Takahashi, a slacker and jazz musician. .15. [5] Such

A) Several of the other characters in After Dark, such as the night hotel owner Kaoru, are also on the margins of Japanese society.

characters allow Murakami to criticize conformist aspects of Japanese culture and .16. he also explores themes of isolation and alienation. [6] Murakami is

B) However, the main character of his novel Sputnik Sweetheart holds a respectable job.

also well known for his use of magical realism, a

C) Murakami drew on his experience as the former owner of a jazz club to write about Takahashi’s love of jazz.

literary style that blends fantastical and surreal elements with the everyday. [7] These stylistic flourishes give his work a distinctive flavor. .17.

D) Similarly, an increasing number of Japanese youth find themselves without secure jobs.

16 A) NO CHANGE B) also exploring C) explore D) exploration of

17 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 2 should be placed A) where it is now. B) after sentence 3. C) before sentence 5. D) before sentence 7.

CONTINUE


Writing

.18. Some of his fellow Japanese authors criticize

68

Passage 10-B

18

the strong influence of Western culture on his work.

Which choice most effectively conveys the main topic of this paragraph?

For instance, his work contains numerous references to Western jazz and classical .19. music. He also pays

A) Murakami’s writing draws from an eclectic set of influences and sources.

little attention to classical Japanese culture.

B) Additional criticisms of Murakami’s novels focus on cultural issues. C) However, Murakami’s writing has attracted criticism as well. D) Japanese history and current events have informed much of Murakami’s work.

19 Which choice most effectively contrasts the emphasis given to Western and Japanese culture in Murakami’s work? A) NO CHANGE B) music, although he pays a little attention C) music, with little attention paid D) music. However, he also alludes

CONTINUE


Writing

Murakami’s novels and nonfiction have also, at

69

Passage 10-B

20

times, addressed controversial topics. His novel The

A) NO CHANGE

Wind-up Bird Chronicle, for example, discusses war

B) World War II, considered

crimes committed by Japan during .20. World War II;

C) World War II: considered

considered a delicate subject by many. His nonfiction

D) World War II considered

work Underground, which contains interviews with people affected by a domestic terrorist attack on a

21

Tokyo subway in 1995, was also somewhat

A) NO CHANGE

contentious. Some thought this book was harshly .21.

B) critical in

critical to Japan’s culture and media. .22. In light of

C) critical at

such criticisms, Murakami remains highly popular in

D) critical of

Japan and to this day enjoys an enormous readership and international acclaim.

22 A) NO CHANGE B) In spite of C) Irrespective of D) In addition to

CONTINUE


Reading

70

Questions 21-29 are based on the following passage.

Passage 11-A

40

This passage is adapted from a speech given in 1920 by lawyer and activist Crystal Eastman after the ratification of the 19th Amendment, which gave women the right to vote.

Line 5

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35

In fighting for the right to vote most women have tried to be either non-committal or thoroughly respectable on every other subject. Now they can say what they are really after; and what they are after, in common with all the rest of the struggling world, is freedom. What is the problem of women’s freedom? It seems to me to be this: how to arrange the world so that women can be human beings, with a chance to exercise their infinitely varied gifts in infinitely varied ways, instead of being destined by the accident of their sex to one field of activity— housework and child-raising. Second, if and when they choose housework and child-raising, to have that occupation recognized by the world as work, requiring a definite economic reward and not merely entitling the performer to be dependent on some man. This is not the whole of feminism, of course, but it is enough to begin with. “Oh, don’t begin with economics,” my friends protest. “Woman does not live by bread alone. What she needs first of all is a free soul.” I can agree that women will never be great until they achieve a certain emotional freedom, a strong healthy egotism, and some un-personal sources of joy—that in this inner sense we cannot make woman free by changing her economic status. What we can do is to create conditions of outward freedom in which a free woman’s soul can be born and grow. It is these outward conditions with which an organized feminist movement must concern itself. Freedom of choice in occupation and individual economic independence for women: how shall we approach this next feminist objective? First, by breaking down all remaining barriers, actual as well as legal, which make it difficult for women to enter or succeed in the various professions, to go into and get on in business, to learn trades and practice them,

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to join trades unions. Chief among these remaining barriers is inequality in pay. Second, we must institute a revolution in the early training and education of both boys and girls. It must be womanly as well as manly to earn your own living, to stand on your own feet. And it must be manly as well as womanly to know how to cook and sew and clean and take care of yourself in the ordinary exigencies of life. I need not add that the second part of this revolution will be more passionately resisted than the first. As far as we can see ahead people will always want homes, and a happy home cannot be had without a certain amount of rather monotonous work and responsibility. How can we change the nature of man so that he will honorably share that work and responsibility and thus make the homemaking enterprise a song instead of a burden? Fundamentally it is a problem of early training—we must bring up feminist sons. But is there any way of ensuring a woman’s economic independence while child-raising is her chosen occupation? It seems that the only way we can keep mothers free, at least in a capitalist society, is by the establishment of a principle that the occupation of raising children is peculiarly and directly a service to society, and that the mother upon whom the necessity and privilege of performing this service naturally falls is entitled to an adequate economic reward from the government. It is idle to talk of real economic independence for women unless this principle is accepted. But with a generous endowment of motherhood provided by legislation, with the feminist ideal of education accepted in home and school, and with all special barriers removed in every field of human activity, there is no reason why woman should not become almost a human thing.

CONTINUE


Reading

21

71

Passage 11-A

24

As used in line 15, “recognized” most nearly means

The author of this passage primarily aims to A) celebrate progress towards gender equality.

A) remembered.

B) outline further goals that must be achieved for gender equality.

B) placed. C) realized.

C) berate those who stifle the progress of gender equality. D) call those who ignore the need for gender equality to act.

D) acknowledged.

25

The author most strongly suggests that

22

A) women are predisposed to certain careers more than others.

Which of the following situations is most analogous to the historical moment presented in the passage?

B) women should not be content taking care of children at home.

A) A band of adventurers already far from home have the endurance to travel an even greater distance.

C) women are capable of pursuing diverse occupations. D) men are less naturally suited to take care of children than women.

B) An underdog politician surprises critics by having the foresight to prepare well for the future. C) A group of workers wins the right to unionize, enabling them to begin further negotiations. D) A battered troop of soldiers is unprepared for an enemy ambush.

26

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1-3 (“In fighting … subject”) B) Lines 7-11 (“It seems … ways”)

23

C) Lines 28-30 (“What we … grow”) Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

D) Lines 44-47 (“And it … life”)

A) Lines 3-6 (“Now they … freedom”) B) Lines 22-23 (“What she … soul”) C) Lines 34-37 (“First by … professions”) D) Lines 59-61 (“But is … occupation”)

CONTINUE


Reading

27

72

Passage 11-A

28

In lines 35-36, what is the most likely reason Eastman makes the distinction, “actual as well as legal?”

In the context of the passage, the author’s use of the word “song” (line 56) is primarily meant to A) propose that singing songs while performing daily chores will make the activity more appealing.

A) To demonstrate how the legal system affects women on a daily basis B) To list the specific types of discouragement women face when trying to gain success in the workplace

B) suggest that equitable homemaking could be as light and harmonious as a song. C) compare homemaking to a performance which requires training and rehearsal.

C) To indicate that there are factors that inhibit women’s success in the workplace other than laws D) To imply that having children makes it difficult to gain traction in a career

D) ask a rhetorical question which illustrates the magnitude of the challenges ahead.

29

The author’s attitude in lines 75-76 is best described as A) righteous. B) sardonic. C) delighted. D) skeptical.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.

73

Passage 11-B

23 A) NO CHANGE

Ignaz Semmelweis, Pioneer of Modern Medicine

B) took absolutely forever to be noticed

The development of modern medicine was a long

C) went unnoticed for many years

and slow process. Doctors and other caregivers

D) languished in utter obscurity

accumulated knowledge by fits and starts, and in many cases, important breakthroughs .23. took a pretty long

24

time to get noticed. No story demonstrates this better

A) NO CHANGE

than that of Ignaz Semmelweis, a Hungarian doctor

B) being

whose contributions to our modern understanding of

C) was

disease .24. are known to far too few people today.

D) is

After completing his medical studies at the University of Vienna in 1844, Semmelweis went to

25

work in the Vienna General Hospital. There, he was a

A) NO CHANGE

specialist in obstetrics, focusing on caring for pregnant

B) the child

women and delivering .25. their child. At that time,

C) their children

childbirth was more dangerous for mothers than it is

D) the children

today; some women died from infections that doctors did not know how to treat.

CONTINUE


Writing

Semmelweis noticed that new mothers were much

74

Passage 11-B

26

more likely to die of infection after giving birth in the

A) NO CHANGE

hospital’s First Clinic than in the Second Clinic.

B) bifurcation

Applying scientific reasoning, he collected data on the

C) difference

two clinics and set about trying to determine the reason

D) departure

for the .26. divergence. He realized that the First Clinic employed medical students, who performed autopsies,

27

while the Second Clinic employed midwives, who .27.

A) NO CHANGE

did not perform any autopsies. Concluding that the

B) did not perform autopsies

medical students were infecting new mothers with

C) did not perform any

“cadaverous particles,” .28. the medical students were

D) did not

ordered by Semmelweis to wash their hands before delivering infants. As a result, the First Clinic’s mortality rate dropped dramatically.

28 A) NO CHANGE B) Semmelweis ordered the medical students to wash their hands C) hand washing was ordered for the medical students by Semmelweis D) the medical students washed their hands, by order of Semmelweis,

CONTINUE


Writing

.29. [1] The prevailing belief among medical

75

Passage 11-B

29

professionals was that diseases were caused by

Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of this paragraph?

exposure to “bad air” and imbalances in levels of certain bodily fluids. [2] Doctors at that time were

A) Soon, the First Clinic was just as safe as the Second Clinic for new mothers.

totally unaware of the role that bacteria and viruses

B) Semmelweis wondered what the nature of these so-called “cadaverous particles” might be.

play in transmitting disease. [3] The medical community thus .30. deluded Semmelweis’s ideas about “cadaverous particles” as unscientific. [4]

C) The practice of hand washing took a long time to catch on at other hospitals.

Semmelweis expressed more and more outrage as other doctors ignored his results, and was eventually accused

D) Unfortunately, the wider community of doctors and scientists refused to accept Semmelweis’s findings.

of having gone insane. [5] Some doctors also felt insulted by his suggestion that they might have been “unclean” in some way. [6] He died in 1865 shortly after being committed to an asylum. .31.

30 A) NO CHANGE B) diluted C) denuded D) derided

31 To make the order of this paragraph most logical, sentence 5 should be placed A) where it is now. B) after sentence 1. C) before sentence 3. D) after sentence 6.

CONTINUE


Writing

Of course, we know today that Semmelweis’s

76

Passage 11-B

32

method for preventing infection was effective and

A) NO CHANGE

vitally important. Later scientists built on

B) Pasteur who helped

Semmelweis’s understanding to help reduce mortality

C) Pasteur: who helped

from infections. Sadly, these later scientists and their

D) Pasteur helping

discoveries have overshadowed Semmelweis’s name and accomplishments. For example, .32. Louis Pasteur helped discover the role of bacteria and viruses in disease. .33. Semmelweis’s discoveries about basic sanitation prefigure such contributions, and he deserves to be remembered alongside other pioneers of modern medicine as a savior of millions of lives.

33 The writer wants to include a second example that supports the claim that Semmelweis’s method was overshadowed by discoveries by other researchers. Which choice most effectively accomplishes this goal? A) Pasteur also invented the process of “pasteurization,” a technique still used today to keep food and beverages from spoiling. B) Joseph Lister developed antiseptic techniques to clean surgical instruments, making surgery safer for patients. C) Unfortunately, mortality rates from postchildbirth infections are still relatively high in much of the developing world. D) That is why, nowadays, hand sanitizer is commercially available and can be found almost anywhere in the United States.

CONTINUE


Reading

77

Questions 30-38 are based on the following passages. Passage 1 is adapted from Gina Solomon, “Agent Orange in Your Backyard: The Harmful Pesticide 2,4-D.” ©2012 by The Atlantic Monthly Group. Passage 2 is adapted from Andrew Pollack, “Paper Tying Rat Cancer to Herbicide is Retracted.” ©2013 by The New York Times Company.

Line 5

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35

Passage 12-A

damaging plants downwind, and contaminating homes. The Natural Resources Defense Council petitioned the Environmental Protection Agency to cancel registrations for 2,4-D. The EPA still hasn’t 40 responded, so the NRDC filed a lawsuit against the agency for its delay on this important issue.

Passage 1

Passage 2

This weekend, I walked the aisles of a home supply store. On the shelves were an array of weed killers and “weed and feed” products marketed to keep your lawn looking great. I was hunting for a pesticide known as 2,4-D. I found it—in several different products. 2,4-D was invented in the chemical boom during World War II, making it one of the oldest pesticides that’s still legally on the market today. It was one of the two active ingredients in Agent Orange, the notorious Vietnam War defoliant. Despite decades of studies showing links to lymphoma in humans and dogs, this chemical thrives as one of the top three pesticides sold in the United States today. Newer science shows that it’s not just a cancer problem; this pesticide interferes with several essential hormones, thereby increasing the risks of birth defects and neurologic damage in children. Studies in wheat-growing areas where 2,4-D is heavily used have shown increased rates of certain birth defects. Many people don’t realize that many weed and feed products contain a toxic pesticide. People also don’t realize that after they apply the product to their lawn, the chemical residues are tracked indoors on shoes or pet paws, and contaminate the carpets. Because 2,4-D is broken down by direct sunlight, once the residues get into the house the pesticide lingers for months or even years. Kids who play on the floor are at particular risk, since they accidentally ingest the chemical when they put their hands in their mouths. 2,4-D is used on athletic fields, golf courses, landscaping, timber land, and crops. The airborne chemical can even travel significant distances,

A food safety journal has retracted a paper that seemed to show that genetically modified corn and the herbicide Roundup can cause cancer and premature death in rats. The editor of the journal said in a letter to the paper’s author that the study’s results, while not incorrect, were “inconclusive, and therefore do not reach the threshold of publication.” The paper has been cited by opponents of biotech foods and proponents of labeling such foods. But it has been criticized as flawed, sensationalistic and possibly even fraudulent by many scientists, some allied with the biotechnology industry. The main author of the study, Gilles-Eric Séralini, had done other studies challenging the safety of genetically engineered foods, some of which had also been questioned. In his letter to Dr. Séralini, the editor of the journal, A. Wallace Hayes, said that “unequivocally” he had found “no evidence of fraud or intentional misrepresentation of the data.” However, he said there was “legitimate cause for concern” that the number of rats in the study was too small and that the strain of rat used was prone to cancer. That made it difficult to rule out that the results were not explained by “normal variability,” he said. The study followed 200 rats for two years. The rats that ate either the corn or the Roundup tended to have more tumors and die earlier than the 20 rats in the control group, which were fed nonengineered corn and plain water. Dr. Séralini and other scientists defended the paper in letters to the journal. They said the same strain of rats was used in a 90-day feeding study that led to European approval of the corn. They also said that even though the rats had a high natural rate of

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CONTINUE


Reading

cancer, what mattered was the difference in tumor incidence between the rats fed the corn or herbicide and the controls.

78

Passage 12-A

33

Which of the following best describes the structure of Passage 2? A) A description of a scientific study and the results of the study

30

The author of Passage 1 would most likely agree that

B) A presentation of a decision with an explanation of why the decision was made

A) the need to protect people from the harmful effects of 2,4-D has not yet been adequately addressed.

C) An informative essay with hypotheses about future events D) A dialog expressing multiple conflicting points of view

B) the benefits of using 2,4-D outweigh the drawbacks of doing so. C) 2,4-D should only be used in some parts of the country.

34

D) there should be a complete ban on the manufacture of all chemical pesticides.

As used in line 65, “rule out” is closest in meaning to A) exclude the possibility.

31

B) include the possibility. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

C) ignore the possibility. D) ascertain the possibility.

A) Lines 2-4 (“On the … great”) B) Line 6 (“I found … products”) C) Lines 29-32 (“Kids who … mouths”) D) Lines 39-41 (“The EPA … issue”)

32

As used in line 29, “lingers” most nearly means A) dawdles. B) remains. C) dwells. D) protracts.

35

Based on the information in Passage 2, which of the following changes to the design of the study would best address the concerns expressed by A. Wallace Hayes? A) Instituting careful oversight to eliminate any possibility that Dr. Séralini’s team might falsify or misinterpret data B) Using a larger population of rats to help rule out natural variability as the source of the findings C) More carefully calculating the difference in tumor incidence to control for the rats’ high natural rates of cancer D) Removing any rats that develop tumors naturally from the experiment

CONTINUE


Reading

36

79

Passage 12-A

38

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

Passage 1 and Passage 2 both discuss

A) Lines 58-61 (“In his … data”)

B) individuals affected by herbicides.

B) Lines 61-64 (“However, he … cancer”) C) Lines 67 (“The study … years”)

C) action being taken to counteract the effects of herbicides.

D) Lines 73-75 (“They said … corn”)

D) scientists who study the effects of herbicides.

A) the possible health dangers of herbicides.

37

What is the relationship between Passages 1 and 2? A) Passage 1 makes claims about an herbicide and Passage 2 negates those claims. B) Passage 1 reports the dangers of an herbicide and Passage 2 reports doubt regarding a study about another herbicide. C) Passage 1 addresses the concerns about herbicides presented in Passage 2. D) Passage 1 discusses the drawbacks of an herbicide and Passage 2 discusses the drawbacks of an alternative herbicide.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.

80

Passage 12-B

34 A) NO CHANGE

Directing: Where Performance and Visual Arts Meet

B) their work!

Directors play a crucial role in the fields of theater

C) their work…

and film. These professionals work to develop a

D) their work?

creative vision for a movie or stage production and turn that vision into reality. Though this is a difficult and

35

complex task, directors enjoy both the reward of seeing

A) NO CHANGE

their ideas realized and the acclaim that successful

B) he or she needs

productions earn.

C) you need

What skills do directors need to succeed in .34. their

D) they need

work. First, .35. one needs to be able to read and interpret fiction. Their first task is always to analyze

36

the script of a film or play and determine how best to

A) NO CHANGE

bring it to life. In order to do this, directors must be

B) suggestions

skilled in understanding the intentions of authors and

C) nuances

recognizing the .36. refinements in their writing.

D) shadows

In addition, directors must .37. really have it together. They usually coordinate the many different

37

aspects of a production. In theater, this may include

A) NO CHANGE

overseeing set design, orchestral performance, and

B) be really on top of everything

arrangements for lighting and sound. In film, directors

C) be highly organized

must also consider how best to shoot their films, edit

D) really have everything organized

them into their final forms, and score them with music.

CONTINUE


Writing

Finally, directors need to be good at communicating

81

Passage 12-B

38

and working with .38. other’s. They work with large

A) NO CHANGE

crews that are responsible for the technical aspects of a

B) others’

production, and must be able to give these crews clear

C) others

and effective instructions. Directors must also instruct

D) others’s

actors in order to .39. be ensured that they give the best performances possible. .40. Furthermore, directors are

39

sometimes required to be the public face of a

A) NO CHANGE

production, especially in theater and “art house” film.

B) ensure

As a result, their ability to communicate with the press

C) be sure

about their work is very important. .41. Often, directors

D) be certain to

will hire other professionals to choose actors who seem like they would be suited for the part.

40 A) NO CHANGE B) Even so, C) Without a doubt, D) Despite this,

41 The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence to improve the focus of the passage. Should the underlined sentence be kept or deleted? A) Kept, because it supports the claim that directors must handle communications with many different people in many different roles. B) Kept, because it helps establish the claim that directing requires organization, attention to detail, and flexibility. C) Deleted, because it distracts from the paragraph’s central claim that directors should have strong communication skills. D) Deleted, because the sentence does not specify what sort of professionals directors may hire to assist in the casting process.

CONTINUE


82

Writing

There is no formal educational requirement to begin

Passage 12-B

42

working as a director, but the field is very competitive.

A) NO CHANGE

Aspiring directors may benefit from undergraduate and

B) made

graduate degrees in film, drama, or related fields.

C) will make

While pursuing degrees, it’s a good idea to seek out

D) make

additional opportunities to build practical skills and .42. making connections in the field. Many

43

directors work on small shows or films independently

The writer is considering inserting a sentence to support the claim that working on productions independently of degree programs can be beneficial for directors’ careers. Which choice would best accomplish that goal?

before beginning their degree program, or in addition to their coursework. .43. Aspiring directors should be passionate about the work of directing itself. The career is challenging, and

A) The requirements of stage and film projects are very different, even on small-scale productions.

the field is highly competitive. For those who love the .44. work, while directing can be a fulfilling career:

B) Small-scale, low-cost projects can be a fulfilling experience for artists and audiences alike.

creative, engaging, and rewarding.

C) Building a portfolio of projects and a network of colleagues early on can help directors to secure further work in their field. D) Working as assistant directors on larger projects can also be an excellent opportunity for aspiring directors to learn the craft of directing.

44 A) NO CHANGE B) work, though, directing C) work, and directing D) work, but directing

STOP If you complete this section before the end of your allotted time, check your work on this section only. Do NOT use the time to work on another section.


Reading

83

Passage 13-A

Reading Test 60 MINUTES, 47 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage or paired set of passages is accompanied by a number of questions. Read the passage or paired set of passages, then use what is said or implied in what you read and in any given graphics to choose the best answer to each question.

Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage. This passage is adapted from Lilith, a novel by George MacDonald, originally published in 1895.

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I had just finished my studies at Oxford, and was taking a brief holiday from work before assuming definitely the management of the estate. My father died when I was yet a child; my mother followed him within a year, and I was nearly as much alone in the world as a man might find himself. The house as well as the family was of some antiquity. It contained a fine library, whose growth began before the invention of printing, and had continued to my own time, greatly influenced, of course, by changes of taste and pursuit. The library, although duly considered in many alterations of the house and additions to it, had nevertheless, like an encroaching state, absorbed one room after another until it occupied the greater part of the ground floor. In the evening of a gloomy day of August I was sitting in my usual place, my back to one of the windows, reading. I cannot tell what made me turn and cast a glance to the farther end of the room, when I saw, or seemed to see, a tall figure reaching up a hand to a bookshelf. The next instant, my vision apparently rectified by the comparative dusk, I saw no one, and concluded that my optic nerves had been momentarily affected from within.

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I resumed my reading, and would doubtless have forgotten the vague, evanescent impression, had it not been that, having occasion a moment after to consult a certain volume, I found but a gap in the row where it ought to have stood, and the same instant remembered that just there I had seen, or fancied I saw, the old man in search of a book. I looked all about the spot but in vain. The next morning, however, there it was, just where I had thought to find it! I knew of no one in the house likely to be interested in such a book. I rang the bell; the butler came; I told him all I had seen, and he told me all he knew. He had hoped, he said, that the old gentleman was going to be forgotten; it was well no one but myself had seen him. He had heard a good deal about him when first he served in the house, but by degrees he had ceased to be mentioned, and he had been very careful not to allude to him. “The place was haunted by an old gentleman, was it?” I said. He answered that at one time everybody believed it, but the fact that I had never heard of it seemed to imply that the thing had come to an end and was forgotten. I questioned him as to what he had seen of the old gentleman.

CONTINUE


Reading

He had never seen him, he said, although he had been in the house from the day my father was 55 eight years old. My grandfather would never hear a word on the matter, declaring that whoever alluded to it should be dismissed without a moment’s warning, but old Sir Ralph believed in nothing he could not see or lay hold of. Not one of 60 the maids ever said she had seen the apparition, but a footman had left the place because of it. “I hope it was but a friendly call on the part of the old gentleman!” he concluded, with a troubled smile.

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Passage 13-A

3

Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 22-25 (“The next … within”) B) Lines 29-32 (“I found … book”) C) Lines 37-38 (“I rang … knew”) D) Lines 45-46 (“The place … said”)

4

The author’s use of the phrase “encroaching state” (line 14) is primarily meant to convey that the library

1

Why has the narrator returned to his estate?

A) has been relegated to a smaller and smaller portion of the house.

A) He has agreed to help his aging grandfather manage the estate’s affairs.

B) was originally built to extend over almost the entire bottom half of the house.

B) He is taking a brief holiday from school and hoping to relax.

C) is growing in unwelcome and worrisome ways.

C) He needs to oversee his parents’ funeral after finishing his studies.

D) is slowly expanding to encompass more of the downstairs.

D) He is preparing to take over management of the estate. 5

2

When the narrator first sees the figure of the old gentleman, he thinks it is A) his ancestor’s ghost coming back to haunt him. B) a thief trying to steal from his family’s ancient library. C) only a momentary misperception. D) his butler tidying up the shelves.

Which of the following clues leads the narrator to reconsider the presence of the old gentleman? A) He spotted the old gentleman again when his optic nerves had adjusted to the dark. B) He has a vague impression of another presence with him. C) He found the book he saw the old gentleman perusing missing from the library. D) He hears of a footman who just left his service after spotting the old gentleman.

CONTINUE


Reading

6

85

Passage 13-A

8

As used in line 23, “rectified” most nearly means

Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) corrected. B) resolved.

A) Lines 51-52 (“I questioned … gentleman”)

C) settled.

B) Lines 53-55 (“He had … old”)

D) repaired.

C) Lines 59-61 (“Not one … it”) D) Lines 62-64 (“I hope … smile”)

7

When the narrator brings up the old gentleman, the butler’s attitude may best be described as A) bemused. B) skeptical. C) uneasy. D) confused.

9

Why did the narrator’s grandfather insist that whoever alluded to the old gentleman should be dismissed without warning? A) He was a religious man and disapproved of superstition. B) He feared the wrath of the ghost if spoken of. C) He worried servants would quit if they heard about the ghost. D) He refused to entertain the possibility that there was an apparition.

CONTINUE


Writing

86

Passage 13-B

Writing and Language Test 35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS . Every passage comes with a set of questions. Some questions will ask you to consider how the writer might revise the passage to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider correcting potential errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. There may be one or more graphics that you will need to consult as you revise and edit the passage. Some questions will refer to a portion of the passage that has been underlined. Other questions will refer to a particular spot in a passage or ask that you consider the passage in full. After you read the passage, select the answers to questions that most effectively improve the passage's writing quality or that adjust the passage to follow the conventions of standard written English. Many questions give you the option to select "NO CHANGE." Select that option in cases where you think the relevant part of the passage should remain as it currently is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. The (Appropriately Named) Supremes

In 1958, three junior high school girls from Detroit started 1 singing together and performing at

1 A) NO CHANGE B) to sing together and were performing C) singing together and were performing D) to sing and performing

sockhops and talent shows. Within ten years, Diana Ross, Florence Ballard, and Mary Wilson would become The Supremes. Producing more number one Billboard hits than any other vocal group to date, they were the most successful American vocal group of the twentieth century.

CONTINUE


Writing

Originally 2 called themselves The Primettes,

87

Passage 13-B

2

Ross, Ballard, and Wilson performed popular songs at

A) NO CHANGE

small venues in the Detroit area throughout junior high

B) calling

and high school. They developed a local fan base and

C) had called

wanted to break into the recording 3 industry, Ross

D) being called

had been the neighbor of Smokey Robinson, the lead singer of The Miracles, when she was young. She

3

asked him if he could try to get The Primettes an

A) NO CHANGE

audition with Berry Gordy, the head executive at

B) industry. Ross

Motown Records. 4 Gordy attributes his success to

C) industry … Ross

the lessons he learned about the importance of grit and

D) industry? Ross

determination while training as a boxer in his youth. When the girls auditioned, Gordy gave them positive

4

feedback but said that they should come back when

The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?

they had finished high school. 5 Refusing, to back down, The Primettes went to his recording studio every

A) Kept, because it provides background information about Berry Gordy

day after school and convinced him to let them sing back up vocals and clap on other artists’ tracks.

B) Kept, because it sheds light on qualities that can lead to success

Eventually, he signed them with the label, although

C) Deleted, because it does not provide enough details about Gordy’s youth

under the condition that they change their group name. Thus, they became The Supremes.

D) Deleted, because it does not relate to The Supremes

5 A) NO CHANGE B) Refusing to back, down, C) Refusing to back down, D) Refusing, to back, down,

CONTINUE


Writing

After finding minimal success during their first two

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Passage 13-B

6

6 years; The Supremes began to work with the

A) NO CHANGE

songwriting team Holland-Dozier-Holland and Gordy

B) years,

decided that Ross would sing lead vocals for the group.

C) years:

7 These changes had a major impact: in 1964, the

D) years

group skyrocketed to the top of the Billboard charts with four consecutive number one hits. Touring

7

domestically and around the world, Diana Ross and the 1965. They sang on the soundtracks of movies and

Which choice results in the most effective transition to the information that follows in the paragraph?

were frequently asked to endorse products—they even

A) NO CHANGE

had a brand of bread named after

B) Then it turned out that

. 9 them. Can you believe it?

C) Despite their initial challenges,

Supremes were an international 8 . impression by

D) Thus,

8 A) NO CHANGE B) sensation C) experience D) feeling

9

A) NO CHANGE B) them, for goodness’ sake. C) their name! D) them.

CONTINUE


Writing

The achievements of Ross, Ballard, and Wilson

89

Passage 13-B

10

were 10 historically and socially significant. They

Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion?

were also musically significant. The Supremes were one of the first African-American female groups to

A) significant historically, significant socially, and significant musically.

gain widespread popularity with both African-

B) historically and socially significant and significantly musical.

American and White audiences. Their complete crossover success led the way for other groups like

C) historically and socially significant, and musically significant.

Martha Reeves and The Vandellas to achieve enormous mainstream popularity.

D) historically, socially, and musically significant.

Eventually, Ross went on to have her own solo career, and there was some changeover between the other members of the group. In 1977, The Supremes formally disbanded after nearly twenty years of musicmaking. 11.

11 The writer wants to conclude the passage with a sentence that emphasizes the enduring legacy of The Supremes’ work. Which choice would best accomplish this goal? A) Motown Records made major contributions to American music and is still operating today. B) Diana Ross’s successful solo career solidified her reputation as a formidable performer in her own right. C) However, their songs remain widely played, and their influence on generations of musicians can still be heard today. D) When Holland-Dozier-Holland left Motown Records because of a financial dispute, The Supremes produced fewer high-ranking songs.

CONTINUE


Reading

90

Passage 14-A

Questions 10-19 are based on the following passage and supplementary material. This passage is adapted from Managers of the Arts, “Backgrounds, Recruitment, and Careers,” a publication of the National Endowment for the Arts.

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Many of the most critical managerial problems facing American arts institutions concern the careers of the individuals who manage them. An artistic discipline must induce capable managers to enter career paths that lead to executive positions. It must provide these individuals with the experience and knowledge they need to perform effectively as top executives, and it must reward talented executives sufficiently so they will remain in the field. In short, for a field to attract and retain talented managers, it must provide careers—sequences of jobs that lead to desired end points—to motivate people to participate. Orderly careers allow individuals to compare their progress with that of their peers, to seek goals with some certainty that they will lead to valued outcomes, and to work from day to day with some confidence that competent performance will be rewarded. In fields where careers are chaotic (the paths to higher positions being irregular and unpredictable) or where opportunities are few, it is difficult to attract talented managers or to persuade them to stay. Individuals and service organizations in all artistic disciplines are concerned about administrative recruitment. But, as yet, we have known little about who art managers are: their background, their education, their preparation, and their success (or lack of success) in their chosen fields. Where concern is great and information meager, stereotypes abound. Managerial careers in the arts are said to be characterized by instability and job-hopping. Arts managers are sometimes portrayed as failed artists, frustratedly accepting executive positions for which they are unqualified as substitutes for artistic roles they would rather play. Or, alternatively, arts administrators are alleged to be “just” managers, knowledgeable about

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accounting and marketing but insensitive to the particular needs of their artistic disciplines. The results of our research, however, suggest that these stereotypes are not well-founded. Each set of administrators was divided into four quartiles based on the dollar operating budget of their institutions. Not surprisingly, managers of the largest institutions by and large had spent more years in their fields than administrators of small organizations, which suggests that the latter group tends either to move to larger organizations or to leave the field. Managers of wealthy institutions also tended to be slightly older than managers of small organizations, especially in the case of the resident theaters. Directors of the largest art museums were more likely than other directors to have attended private secondary schools and colleges in the northeast, and to have earned Ph.D.s; most striking was the finding that almost 40 percent of art museum directors from the largest museums and more than 25 percent of those from the next largest hold undergraduate or graduate degrees awarded by a specific American university, compared with just 5 percent of those from smaller museums. Data from this study reveal that careers—i.e., ordered sequences of jobs leading from conventional entry portals to predictable destinations—did not exist in these fields. Further, mobility within organizations is limited by size: relatively few arts institutions have enough levels of management to routinely promote all competent personnel. The disorderly nature of managerial careers in these artistic fields may provide opportunities for organizations to hire talented individuals from unusual backgrounds and for individuals willing to take risks to build successful careers. But many people find it stressful to work in environments in which promotion opportunities are few and career strategies obscure and poorly understood. Such individuals, if they face career stagnation or uncertainty, may choose to leave arts administration for other pursuits.

CONTINUE


91

Reading

Budget Ranges by Category and Discipline (in thousands of dollars) Lowest quartile

2nd quartile

3rd quartile

Top quartile

Theaters

Less than 260

260-500

501-1200

More than 1200

Orchestras

Less than 320

320-700

701-1700

More than 1700

Art Museums

Less than More than 500-1000 1001-2000 500 2000

CAAs*

Less than 50

Discipline

50-100

101-300

More than 300

Passage 14-A

12

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 5-9 (“It must … field”) B) Lines 13-18 (“Orderly careers … rewarded”) C) Lines 18-22 (“In fields … stay”) D) Lines 25-29 (“But, as … fields”)

13

According to the passage, arts administrators

*CAAs = Community Arts Agencies

A) enjoy relatively stable, linear careers in theaters, orchestras, and museums.

10

B) are failed artists who then turn to management.

The passage primarily focuses on which of the following?

C) suffer from some unfair assumptions about their careers.

A) The backgrounds and career paths of art managers

D) are vocal about their disgust for the jobhopping they must do.

B) The incentives that art centers use to recruit and maintain talent C) The decreasing salary and benefits of managers in the arts D) The differences between jobs in theaters, museums, and orchestras 11

The author’s attitude toward jobs in the arts can best be described as A) dismissive.

14

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 23-25 (“Individuals and … recruitment”) B) Lines 30-32 (“Managerial careers … jobhopping”) C) Lines 39-41 (“The results … well-founded”) D) Lines 44-49 (“Not surprisingly … field”)

B) supportive. C) amused. D) frightened.

CONTINUE


Reading

15

92

Passage 14-A

18

As used in line 55, “striking” most nearly means

It can reasonably be inferred from the graphic that

A) magnificent.

A) the salaries of art museum managers were the highest in the business.

B) surprising.

B) budget ranges for theaters were, on average, lower than those for orchestras.

C) distinctive. D) obvious.

C) 25% of orchestras earned less than $320,000 per year.

16

D) theater and orchestra managers are often incentivized to transfer to art museums.

As used in line 63, “conventional” most nearly means A) mainstream. B) prevalent. C) orthodox. D) common.

17

The primary purpose of lines 73-79 is to A) argue that only the entrepreneurial and strongwilled should undertake careers in the arts. B) suggest that arts organizations need to provide better stress management techniques for employees. C) reveal why arts organizations are rapidly losing top talent to environmental careers. D) warn that talented candidates may choose different careers unless certain issues are remedied.

19

Information from the graphic and passage best supports which of the following statements? A) Orchestra managers in organizations with budgets of $701,000-$1,700,000 have likely spent more years in their fields than orchestra managers in organizations with budgets of less than $320,000. B) Theater managers in organizations with budgets of $701,000-$1,700,000 have likely spent more years in their fields than orchestra managers in organizations with budgets of less than $320,000. C) Art museum managers in organizations with budgets of over $1,700,000 likely have the same amount of experience as theater managers in organizations with the same budgets. D) Art museum managers in organizations with budgets of over $1,700,000 likely have less experience than theater managers in organizations with the same budgets.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.

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Passage 14-B

12 A) NO CHANGE

In Defense of Termites

B) they think

When many people think about termites, 12 you

C) we think

think about having to call the exterminator. It’s true

D) one thinks

that termites cause serious structural damage to homes and crops—they cost the United States $2 billion

13

annually in 13 repairs. However, to say that termites

A) NO CHANGE

are just pests that cause more harm than good would be

B) repairs? However,

entirely inaccurate. Out of the three thousand or so

C) repairs, however

species of termites, only a few cause problems for

D) repairs however

people. The rest are crucial to the health of many ecosystems and are largely responsible for the successful growth of vegetation, upon which all animal life depends. Furthermore, they are capable of astonishing feats of construction and participate in sophisticated social structures.

CONTINUE


Writing

14 From woodlands to a desert to rainforests,

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Passage 14-B

14

termites 15 augment entire ecosystems. As they dig

A) NO CHANGE

through the dirt, they create holes called macropores,

B) From woodlands to deserts to rainforests,

which allow rain to soak deeply into the ground instead

C) From woodlands to a desert to a rainforest,

of evaporating or running off. The 16 termite’s

D) From woodlands to deserts to a rainforest,

excretions provide the soil with additional structural integrity, helping to prevent erosion. 17 Furthermore

15

as termites dig, they mix organic matter like leaves,

A) NO CHANGE

dead insects, and the remains of other organisms with

B) benefit

inorganic clay and sand, helping the soil 18 preserve

C) promote

and retain its nutrients.

D) bless

16 A) NO CHANGE B) termites C) termite D) termites’

17 A) NO CHANGE B) Furthermore as termites dig C) Furthermore, as termites dig, D) Furthermore, as termites dig

18 A) NO CHANGE B) in the preservation of its nutrients. C) in the retention of its nutrients. D) preserve its nutrients.

CONTINUE


Writing

19 [1] Termite mounds can reach up to thirty feet

95

Passage 14-B

19

high. [2] To provide some perspective: termites are a

Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph?

quarter of an inch long and build structures that are approximately 1,500 times their height. [3] The

A) Termites are able to survive in many different climates.

human-scale equivalent would be building a skyscraper

B) Termites have engineered more complicated structures than those designed by humans.

over 8,000 feet tall, but the tallest skyscraper in the world is not even 3,000 feet tall. [4] The enormous

C) Some termites build immense mounds that are structural marvels and that benefit a multitude of other organisms.

mounds support local ecosystems, allowing water to penetrate deep into the ground and creating moist oases where plants can flourish in arid terrain. [5] Animals

D) Tourists visiting countries where termites build mounds are often in awe of these extraordinary structures.

also benefit from the presence of the mounds. [6] Many animals, including lizards, aardvarks, and mongooses, burrow into these mounds and use them as homes. 20. 20

To make the paragraph most logical, sentence 4 should be placed A) where it is now. B) after sentence 1. C) before sentence 3. D) after sentence 5.

CONTINUE


Writing

Termites were among the first animal species to

96

Passage 14-B

21

organize socially, and for the last two hundred million years have developed a sophisticated system of labor

Which choice best completes the sentence with accurate information based on the graphic?

distribution. The queen 21 gives birth to nymphs,

A) NO CHANGE

sometimes 20,000-30,000 per day. After hatching, the

B) develops wings

nymphs differentiate into classes with distinct tasks.

C) lays eggs

Soldiers protect the mound from ant invasions.

D) differentiates into workers, soldiers, and reproductives

Reproductives fly off to form new colonies. Workers build mounds, care for nymphs, and tend fungal gardens that feed the colony. When termites need to

22

evacuate the mound, they do not panic, trample each

A) NO CHANGE

other, and get stuck in exits as humans often do.

B) Instead, they do form orderly lines

22 .Instead, they form orderly lines and wait their turn

C) Instead, they form lines that are orderly

to leave. If one termite falls, the rest wait for it to stand

D) They are forming, instead, orderly lines

back up and then they all continue on together. Having termites in your house is a problem, but they are remarkable, accomplished creatures that make the world habitable for us all.

CONTINUE


Reading

97

Questions 20-28 are based on the following passage.

Passage 15-A

40

The following is adapted from a presidential campaign speech given by Theodore Roosevelt in 1912.

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The great fundamental issue now before our people can be stated briefly. It is: are the American people fit to govern themselves, to rule themselves, to control themselves? I believe they are. My opponents do not. I believe in the right of the people to rule. I believe that the majority of the plain people of the United States will, day in and day out, make fewer mistakes in governing themselves than any smaller class or body of men, no matter what their training, will make in trying to govern them. I believe, again, that the American people are capable of self-control and of learning by their mistakes. Our opponents pay lip-loyalty to this doctrine; but they show their real beliefs by the way in which they champion every device to make the nominal rule of the people a sham. I have scant patience with this talk of the tyranny of the majority. Wherever there is tyranny of the majority, I shall protest against it with all my heart and soul. But we are today suffering from the tyranny of minorities. It is a small minority that is grabbing our coal-deposits, our water-powers, and our harbor fronts. A small minority is battening on the sale of adulterated foods and drugs. It is a small minority that lies behind monopolies and trusts. It is a small minority that stands behind the present law of master and servant, the sweatshops, and the whole calendar of social and industrial injustice. It is a small minority that is today using our convention system to defeat the will of a majority of the people in the choice of delegates to the Chicago Convention. This is the question that I propose to submit to the people. How can the prevailing morality or a preponderant opinion be better and more exactly ascertained than by a vote of the people? The people know what their own morality and their own opinion is.

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The only tyrannies from which men, women, and children are suffering in real life are the tyrannies of minorities. If the majority of the American people were in fact tyrannous over the minority, if democracy had no greater self-control than empire, then indeed no written words which our forefathers put into the Constitution could stay that tyranny. No sane man who has been familiar with the government of this country for the last twenty years will complain that we have had too much of the rule of the majority. The trouble has been a far different one. At many times and in many localities, there have been men who held public office in the States and in the nation who have, in fact, served not the whole people, but some special class or special interest. I am not thinking only of those special interests which by grosser methods, by bribery and crime, have stolen from the people. I am thinking as much of their respectable allies and figureheads, who have ruled and legislated and decided as if in some way the vested rights of privilege had a first mortgage on the whole United States, while the rights of all the people were merely an unsecured debt. Am I overstating the case? Have our political leaders always, or generally, recognized their duty to the people as anything more than a duty to disperse the mob, see that the ashes are taken away, and distribute patronage? Have our leaders always, or generally, worked for the benefit of human beings, to increase the prosperity of all the people, to give each some opportunity of living decently and bringing up his children well? The questions need no answer.

CONTINUE


Reading

20

98

Passage 15-A

23

Which of the following best represents Roosevelt’s views on the tyranny of the majority?

The tone of the passage is best described as A) optimistic.

A) He is determined to fight against this prevalent problem with all his heart and soul.

B) despondent. C) fervent.

B) It is behind such pressing issues as monopolies, trusts, and sweatshops.

D) resigned.

C) Along with the tyranny of the minority, it is responsible for the loss of resources like coal, water, and certain foods.

21

Which situation is most analogous to the problem Roosevelt presents in the passage?

D) It is not a major problem in America, despite the talk of many political figures.

A) A town assembly with an overfilled agenda B) A sports team with an unpopular captain C) A boss who only accepts feedback from managers

24

Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

D) A club that has instituted a democratic voting process

A) Lines 11-13 (“I believe … mistakes”) B) Lines 18-19 (“I have … majority”) C) Lines 55-57 (“I am … people”)

22

In the context of the passage, Roosevelt’s use of the phrase “pay lip-loyalty” in line 14 is meant to convey the idea that his opponents A) agree that Americans are capable of selfcontrol and self-improvement.

D) Lines 64-68 (“Have our … patronage”)

25

As used in line 46, “stay” most nearly means

B) say they agree that Americans are capable of self-control while acting otherwise.

A) halt.

C) support the American people’s right to rule but make exceptions during wartime.

C) remain.

B) visit. D) delay.

D) give many speeches in support of the doctrine that Americans are capable of self-control and learning.

CONTINUE


Reading

26

99

Passage 15-A

28

Which of the following does Roosevelt use to illustrate how leaders have served the interests of only a small minority?

Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 47-50 (“No sane … majority”)

A) A list of named offenders

B) Lines 51-55 (“At many … interest”)

B) A financial metaphor

C) Line 64 (“Am I … case”)

C) A commissioned report

D) Lines 68-72 (“Have our … well”)

D) A recent trial

27

Roosevelt asserts that some men in public office have A) listened too much to the rule of the majority. B) focused too much on social policy at the expense of economic policy. C) exaggerated their accomplishments to the upper classes. D) often favored the privileged portions of the population.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.

100

Passage 15-B

23 Which choice best maintains the sentence pattern already established in the paragraph?

Bringing it to a Boil

A) NO CHANGE

A river dam needs reinforcement. A nuclear reactor

B) Steel tubes cut with a gas torch are necessary for a construction company.

dome at a power plant needs to be repositioned. 23. Steel tubes are being cut by a gas torch as needed by a

C) Steel tubes need to be cut with a gas torch for a construction company.

construction company. What do these tasks have in common? They are all responsibilities of boilermakers.

D) Cutting steel tubes with a gas torch meets a construction company’s needs.

Boilers are large containers for liquids such as water, chemicals, and oil, or for gases such as steam and methane, and are used to create power and heat.

24

Boilermakers build, install, and fix boilers, as well as

The writer wants to complete the sentence with a third example of the work of boilermakers in industrialized countries. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?

forging and welding other metal products. The work of boilermakers can be found just about everywhere in industrialized countries: furnaces provide heat during cold weather to many homes and businesses, power

A) NO CHANGE

plant facilities generate energy for cities and towns,

B) groups of boilermakers gather at refineries and other field sites.

and 24 other technical sites are responsible for

C) wrenches, pliers, bull pins, and chisels are used to treat boiler metal.

additional services. Many of these structures require continual repairs to address 25 stress fractures, leaks,

D) water treatment facilities retain and prepare water for community use.

and a corroded part.

25 A) NO CHANGE B) stress fractures, leak, and corroded parts. C) stress fracture, leaks, and corroded parts. D) stress fractures, leaks, and corroded parts.

CONTINUE


Writing

26 [1] Most students learn the trade through a

101

Passage 15-B

26

four-year apprenticeship with experienced

Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph?

boilermakers. [2] Compared to liberal arts universities or colleges, 27 boilermakers receive more specialized,

A) Boilermakers embarking on their careers can look forward both to learning the trade and to developing strong community ties.

vocational training. [3] Students gain practical experience and hands-on knowledge through working

B) Unions have historical and contemporary significance in the lives of technical workers.

on projects with advanced professionals, as well as putting in a minimum of 144 classroom hours per year.

C) Many trades require apprenticeship programs so that students can learn by doing.

[4] In class, students learn about the physical and chemical properties of the liquids and gases with which

D) Boilermaking bears similarities to blacksmithing and forging.

they will be working. [5] Once they are prepared to join the workforce, they can join the boilermakers’ union, which 28 create supportive local communities

27

and advocates for the rights and welfare of all its

A) NO CHANGE

members. [6] Local unions foster the development of

B) these programs provide

young boilermakers by sponsoring many of the

C) these students receive

aforementioned apprenticeships. 29.

D) practical experience necessitates

28 A) NO CHANGE B) are creating C) creates D) are in charge of creating

29 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 4 should be placed A) where it is now. B) before sentence 1. C) after sentence 5. D) after sentence 6.

CONTINUE


Writing

30 Thus, boilermaking is not for those 31 adverse

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Passage 15-B

30

to physical activity. Boilermakers work with their

A) NO CHANGE

hands just about every day and are often outside.

B) Boilermaking

32 As large as 750,000 gallons and requiring tall

C) Subsequently, boilermaking

ladders to access, at times boilermakers construct and

D) In fact, boilermaking

repair structures at extreme heights. Physical strength is 33 super important for boilermakers, as they load

31

and unload heavy materials, assemble scaffolding, and

A) NO CHANGE

erect steel support beams. They must be comfortable

B) avert

enough working in these environments to calmly and

C) averse

critically assess the conditions of their structures,

D) overt

discern what must be done in each individual circumstance, and make a plan to accomplish their

32

goals. For people who like to move around and use

A) NO CHANGE

their hands as well as their intellect, boilermaking can

B) At times boilermakers work at extreme heights; the structures they construct and repair can be as large as 750,000 gallons and require tall ladders to access.

present an excellent opportunity for active, thoughtful work.

C) The structures boilermakers construct and repair can be at extreme heights; they can be as large as 750,000 gallons and require tall ladders to access. D) Boilermakers construct and repair structures at extreme heights; they can be as large as 750,000 gallons and require tall ladders to access.

33 A) NO CHANGE B) a big deal for C) of markedly high value for D) an important characteristic of

CONTINUE


Reading

103

Questions 29-38 are based on the following passage and supplementary material. This passage is adapted from Yoel Stuart, “Invasive Species Trigger Rapid Evolution for Lizards in Florida.” © 2014 by Yoel Stuart.

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Invasive species colonize and spread widely in places where they are not normally found. Invasives often affect native species by eating them, outcompeting them and introducing unfamiliar parasites and pathogens. For example, the invasive kudzu plant, native to southeast Asia, overgrows seemingly anything in its path in the southeast US. Natural selection wrought by invasive species can often be strong, and natives will either go extinct or adapt. During adaptation, selection will favor those individuals with characteristics that best allow them to survive and reproduce in the face of the invader. The offspring of the survivors will inherit their parents’ beneficial traits, and the population will evolve. In the 1950s, the brown anole lizard, Anolis sagrei, arrived in South Florida from Cuba. The effects of this invasion might not be very noticeable to humans. But the brown anole certainly makes an impression on Florida’s only native anole species, the green anole, Anolis carolinensis. This is because the green and the brown anoles enjoy similar lifestyles. They eat similar food—mostly insects and spiders—and use similar habitats—the ground and lower parts of trees and bushes. Because of these similarities, we expect the invasive brown anole to impose strong natural selection on the native green. Previous researchers had observed that green anoles living with brown anoles tend to live higher up in the trees, presumably to escape competition for food and space. To obtain definitive evidence, our research team conducted an experiment on the small, man-made islands near Cape Canaveral. In 1995, we introduced the brown anole to three islands that— until then—had only green anoles. Within a few months, the green anole moved up into the trees and stayed there.

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Fifteen years later, we wondered whether the green anoles had adapted anatomically to their new life up in the trees. We were specifically interested in toepads on their feet; other anole species that live high in trees tend to have large toepads, the better to grasp smoother, narrower branches higher up. We would have liked to study toepad evolution in the same populations we’d looked at earlier. But the original control islands, with only green anoles, had been invaded by the brown anole by the time we revisited them in 2010. So instead, we chose five large islands that had just green anoles. We compared their green anoles to the green anoles on six large islands that had been naturally invaded by the brown anole. We did know that the brown anoles had hit the scene sometime between 1995 and 2010 because we had surveyed the islands in 1995 and found them free of brown anoles at that time. We found that on the invaded islands, green anoles evolved larger toepads. It took only 20 generations—less than 15 years—for the toepads to increase by about 5%. That may not sound like much, but that’s a rapid evolutionary pace. Our findings further support the notion that when natural selection is strong, evolution can proceed quite quickly. Why did selection favor larger toepads? Like geckos, anoles’ toes have specialized scales with fine hairs on them that cling to surfaces. Anoles with larger toepads are better at clinging. We think that the green anoles were under selection to get better at maneuvering on narrow, flexible and slippery twigs and leaves high in trees. Thus, green anole hatchlings that were born with larger toepads were better able to grow, survive, and reproduce. In this case, it appears that the green anole has been able to adapt to coexist with the brown anole.

CONTINUE


Reading

Toepad Area Increase in Green Anoles

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Based on the passage, which choice best describes the relationship between brown anoles and green anoles in Florida?

Corrected Increase in Toepad Area

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A) Brown anoles are an invasive species, and green anoles are a native species. B) Green anoles are an invasive species, and brown anoles are a native species.

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C) Brown and green anoles are native species, and geckos are an invasive species. D) Geckos are a native species, and brown and green anoles are invasive species. -0.1 31

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 2-5 (“Invasives often … pathogens”) B) Lines 19-21 (“But the … carolinensis”)

-0.2 Un-invaded islands Invaded islands This graph shows an increase in toepad area in green anoles caught on invaded islands.

C) Lines 23-25 (“They eat … bushes”) D) Lines 29-32 (“Previous researchers … space”)

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Which choice best describes the structure of the passage as a whole? A) An anecdote from a scientist with a personal stake in his research B) A description of a region’s wildlife and topography C) An impassioned argument supported by experimental evidence D) A broad discussion of a phenomenon followed by a specific example

CONTINUE


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As used in line 10, “favor” most nearly means

Based on the passage, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?

A) accommodate. B) care for.

A) Though native species adapt in the face of invasive species, they do so slowly over a long period of time. B) Native species have the ability to adapt surprisingly quickly in the face of pressure from invasive species.

C) prefer. D) like.

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The author lists the brown and green anoles’ similarities in order to

C) Invasive species adapt in unpredictable but surprisingly rapid ways when introduced into new environments.

A) explain why they expected to see adaptations in the green lizards.

D) Though invasive species adapt to their new environments, they do so slowly over many years.

B) show the compatibility of the species to coexist. C) argue that previous distinctions between the species are arbitrary.

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D) suggest that both species are uniquely suited to the environment in South Florida.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 13-15 (“The offspring … evolve”) B) Lines 39-41 (“Fifteen years … trees”) C) Lines 46-49 (“But the … 2010”) D) Lines 55-57 (“It took … 5%”)

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As used in line 27, “impose” most nearly means A) exploit. B) urge. C) charge.

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The primary purpose of lines 5-7 (“For example … US”) is to

D) inflict.

A) show that not all invasive species are domestic. B) suggest that the country needs more stringent controls on foreign plants. C) illustrate the problem of native weeds in America. D) provide an example of an invasive plant in a new environment.

CONTINUE


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Information from the graph best supports which of the following statements? A) Toepad size of green anoles increased in environments shared with brown anoles. B) Toepad size of both green and brown anoles increased in environments they shared. C) Toepad size of green anoles was almost twice that of brown anoles. D) Toepad size of green anoles decreased when they moved to isolated islands.

CONTINUE


Writing

Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.

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34 A) NO CHANGE

The King’s Flight

B) covert

After weeks of 34 convert planning and indecisive

C) covet

delays, on June 20, 1791, the royal family was ready.

D) convent

In the middle of the night, King Louis XVI, his wife Marie Antoinette, their children, and a few other close

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relations huddled into a small carriage and fled the city

A) NO CHANGE

of Paris.

B) hardships

The king left behind a letter to his political rivals, outlining his 35 injustices with the new Constitution

C) resentments D) grievances

that diminished the power of the monarchy and of the Catholic Church. Now disguised as a middle-class family and their servants, the family headed toward the Belgium border to join Loyalist troops and other nobles in the hopes of initiating a counter-revolution.

CONTINUE


Writing

[1] The carriage was cramped as they drove

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through forests and past small towns. [2] In the small

A) NO CHANGE

town of Sainte-Menehould, the postmaster was outside

B) nor

after dinner and saw the carriage driving by. [3] They

C) but

traveled for about one hundred miles over the course of

D) so

the day, only stopping occasionally so that the horses could rest. [4] He had seen the queen before and

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thought that he recognized her, and observed that the

A) NO CHANGE

man next to her looked very much like the image of the

B) beating the coach

king on the coins in his pocket. [5] Suspicious 36 for

C) surpassing and beating the coach

not wanting to cause a false alarm, he did not say

D) beating the coach before it got

anything to the coachmen. [6] However, he quickly took a back road with the intention of 37 beating the

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coach and surpassing it before it got to the next town,

A) NO CHANGE

Varennes. [7] He succeeded, and there he told men at a

B) the bridge

local inn that he thought the king would be arriving

C) the coach

soon and that something strange was going on. [8]

D) the national guard

They blocked off the bridge on the other side of town so that 38 it would not be able to proceed, gathered some men from the national guard, and awaited the king’s arrival. 39.

39 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 2 should be placed A) where it is now. B) before sentence 1. C) after sentence 3. D) after sentence 4.

CONTINUE


Writing

40 Just before midnight, the coach arrived, and the

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men questioned 41 its inhabitants. The queen said that

Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph?

she was the Baroness de Korff, and that she was on her way to Frankfurt, Germany. She said that she was in a

A) The royal family would not make it much farther on their journey before being forced back to the capital.

hurry and hoped to be allowed to pass shortly. The soldiers took the family to the district attorney’s house

B) The royal family demonstrated an inability to understand the priorities and needs of the majority of their subjects.

for the night, where the king revealed his identity. The next day the family was forced back to Paris by the national guard, accompanied by hundreds of angry

C) The king overestimated the peasant farmers’ loyalty to the monarchy.

villagers.

D) With her lavish wardrobe and jewels, the queen had alienated the peasants during their struggles with poor crops and perpetual hunger.

41 A) NO CHANGE B) it’s C) its’ D) its’s

CONTINUE


Writing

Before this attempted escape, many French people

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had been open 42 with the idea of creating a

A) NO CHANGE

constitutional monarchy, which would allow Louis to

B) for

retain the throne but seriously limit his power.

C) to

However, this perceived betrayal destroyed whatever

D) on

credibility the king still had. 43 Moreover, the Legislative Assembly suspended the king’s powers in

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favor of the creation of a republic. In December of

A) NO CHANGE

1792, the royal family was convicted of treason, and in

B) On the other hand,

January of 1793, the king was sent to the guillotine.

C) Not to mention,

44 .

D) Shortly thereafter,

44 The writer is considering deleting the final paragraph. Should the paragraph be kept or deleted? A) Kept, because it provides insight about the views of the French people, thus offering an alternative interpretation of the events of the passage B) Kept, because it helps to place the episode in a broader historical context and provides information about its consequences C) Deleted, because the events depicted in the final paragraph took place after the king’s flight to Varennes, which is the main focus of the passage D) Deleted, because it brings up the previouslyunmentioned Legislative Assembly, which may be distracting for the reader


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Reading Test 60 M I NU TES, 4 7 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or graph).

This passage is adapted from Jane Austen, Emma, originally published in 1815.

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Emma Woodhouse, handsome, clever, and rich, with a comfortable home and happy disposition, seemed to unite some of the best blessings of existence; and had lived nearly twenty-one years in the world with very little to distress or vex her. She was the youngest of the two daughters of a most affectionate, indulgent father, and had, in consequence of her sister’s marriage, been mistress of his house from a very early period. Her mother had died too long ago for her to have more than an indistinct remembrance of her caresses, and her place had been supplied by an excellent woman as governess, who had fallen little short of a mother in affection. Sixteen years had Miss Taylor been in Mr. Woodhouse’s family, less as a governess than a friend, very fond of both daughters, but particularly of Emma. Between them it was more the intimacy of sisters. Even before Miss Taylor had ceased to hold the nominal office of governess, the mildness of her temper had hardly allowed her to impose any restraint; and the shadow of authority being now long passed away, they had been living together as friend and friend very mutually attached, and Emma doing just what she liked; highly esteeming Miss Taylor’s judgment, but directed chiefly by her own.

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Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage.

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The real evils indeed of Emma’s situation were the power of having rather too much her own way, and a disposition to think a little too well of herself; these were the disadvantages which threatened alloy to her many enjoyments. The danger, however, was at present so unperceived, that they did not by any means rank as misfortunes with her. Sorrow came—a gentle sorrow—but not at all in the shape of any disagreeable consciousness.—Miss Taylor married. It was Miss Taylor’s loss which first brought grief. It was on the wedding-day of this beloved friend that Emma first sat in mournful thought of any continuance. The wedding over and the bride-people gone, her father and herself were left to dine together, with no prospect of a third to cheer a long evening. Her father composed himself to sleep after dinner, as usual, and she had then only to sit and think of what she had lost. The event had every promise of happiness for her friend. Mr. Weston was a man of unexceptionable character, easy fortune, suitable age and pleasant manners; and there was some satisfaction in considering with what self-denying, generous friendship she had always wished and promoted the match; but it was a black morning’s work for her. The want of Miss Taylor would be felt every hour of every day. She recalled her past kindness—the kindness, the affection of sixteen years—how she had taught and how she had played with her from five years old—how she had devoted all her powers to attach and amuse her in health—and how nursed her through the various illnesses of childhood. A large

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debt of gratitude was owing here; but the intercourse of the last seven years, the equal footing and perfect unreserve which had soon followed Isabella’s marriage on their being left to each other, was yet a dearer, tenderer recollection. It had been a friend and companion such as few possessed, intelligent, well-informed, useful, gentle, knowing all the ways of the family, interested in all its concerns, and peculiarly interested in herself, in every pleasure, every scheme of her’s;—one to whom she could speak every thought as it arose, and who had such an affection for her as could never find fault. How was she to bear the change?—It was true that her friend was going only half a mile from them; but Emma was aware that great must be the difference between a Mrs. Weston only half a mile from them, and a Miss Taylor in the house; and with all her advantages, natural and domestic, she was now in great danger of suffering from intellectual solitude. She dearly loved her father, but he was no companion for her. He could not meet her in conversation, rational or playful. The evil of the actual disparity in their ages (and Mr. Woodhouse had not married early) was much increased by his constitution and habits; for having been a valetudinarian* all his life, without activity of mind or body, he was a much older man in ways than in years; and though everywhere beloved for the friendliness of his heart and his amiable temper, his talents could not have recommended him at any time. * a person in weak health who is overly concerned with his or her ailments

1 The main purpose of the passage is to A) describe a main character and a significant change in her life. B) provide an overview of a family and a nearby neighbor. C) discuss some regrettable personality flaws in a main character. D) explain the relationship between a main character and her father.

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2 Which choice best summarizes the first two paragraphs of the passage (lines 1-14)? A) Even though a character loses a parent at an early age, she is happily raised in a loving home. B) An affectionate governess helps a character to overcome the loss of her mother, despite the indifference of her father. C) Largely as a result of her father’s wealth and affection, a character leads a contented life. D) A character has a generally comfortable and fulfilling life, but then she must recover from losing her mother.

3 The narrator indicates that the particular nature of Emma’s upbringing resulted in her being A) despondent. B) self-satisfied. C) friendless. D) inconsiderate.

4 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1-5 (“Emma . . . her”) B) Lines 9-14 (“Her . . . affection”) C) Lines 28-32 (“The real . . . enjoyments”) D) Lines 32-34 (“The danger . . . her”)

5 As used in line 26, “directed” most nearly means A) trained. B) aimed. C) guided. D) addressed.

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As used in line 54, “want” most nearly means A) desire. B) lack. C) requirement. D) request.

7 It can most reasonably be inferred that after Miss Taylor married, she had A) less patience with Mr. Woodhouse. B) fewer interactions with Emma. C) more close friends than Emma. D) an increased appreciation for Emma.

8 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Line 37 (“Miss . . . married”) B) Lines 47-48 (“The event . . . friend”) C) Lines 60-65 (“A large . . . recollection”) D) Lines 73-79 (“How . . . solitude”)

9 Which situation is most similar to the one described in lines 83-91 (“The evil . . . time”)? A) A mother and her adult son have distinct tastes in art and music that result in repeated family arguments. B) The differences between an older and a younger friend are magnified because the younger one is more active and athletic. C) An older and a younger scientist remain close friends despite the fact that the older one’s work is published more frequently. D) The age difference between a high school student and a college student becomes a problem even though they enjoy the same diversions.

Passage 17-A

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Writing

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Passage 17-B

Writing and Language Test 35 M I NU TES, 4 4 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing decisions. Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole. After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

A Nod to Nodding Off With 30 percent of United States workers not getting enough sleep at night, according to the Wall Street Journal, US companies 1 lose a yearly sum of $63.2 billion annually due to the drop in employee productivity resulting from sleep deprivation. Sleep-deprived workers generally have lower morale and are less able to retain information than their better-rested colleagues.

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Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

1 A) NO CHANGE B) see an annual loss of $63.2 billion each year C) lose $63.2 billion annually D) have a yearly loss of $63.2 billion annually

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of sleep is the work itself. [2] To combat the problem of sleep deprivation in a demanding work environment, some companies have begun allowing workers to take naps. [3] The hours the average American 3 spend working have increased dramatically since the 1970s, making it hard for many workers to get a good night’s sleep. [4] Although employees who sleep on the job are often considered lazy and unproductive, napping in the workplace has been shown to improve workers’ efficiency and quality of life. [5] As long as companies continue to demand long hours from 4 workers, and managers should champion napping as a means to keep employees happy, healthy, and functional. 5

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[1] One of the 2 big reasons behind workers’ lack

Passage 17-B

2 A) NO CHANGE B) main things leading up to C) huge things about D) primary causes of

3 A) NO CHANGE B) have spent C) spends D) are spent

4 A) NO CHANGE B) workers; managers C) workers, managers, D) workers, managers

5 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 3 should be placed A) where it is now. B) before sentence 1. C) after sentence 1. D) after sentence 4.

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Writing

in fact, allowing employees to nap could save companies hours of lost productivity. Studies reveal that napping improves memory and boosts wakefulness for the remainder of the day. 6 Napping can also have a positive effect on mood and overall job satisfaction, while constant drowsiness reduces reaction time and hampers one’s ability to concentrate. Employee naps might also lead to reduced health care costs for companies, since regular napping leads to long-term health benefits, 7 and it improves workers’ average weekly attendance.

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Such a proposition may seem counterintuitive, but,

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Passage 17-B

6 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence. Even fifteen-minute power naps improve alertness, creativity, and concentration. Should the writer make this addition here? A) Yes, because it demonstrates that the benefits of napping can be gained without sacrificing large amounts of work time. B) Yes, because it explains the methodology of the studies mentioned in the previous sentence. C) No, because a discussion of the type of nap workers take is not important to the writer’s main point in the paragraph. D) No, because it contradicts the writer’s discussion of napping in the previous sentences.

7 Which choice provides a supporting example that reinforces the main point of the sentence? A) NO CHANGE B) including a lower risk of cardiovascular problems such as heart attack and stroke. C) which are essential in an era of rising health care costs. D) in addition to making employees more efficient.

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Writing

advocates in the worlds of technology, finance, and news media, and some businesses are beginning to set aside special nap rooms. A few companies, such as Google, have even invested in high-tech nap pods that block out light, play soothing music, and 8 gently waking nappers. Zephrin Lasker, CEO of the mobile-advertising firm Pontiflex, has observed that employees are happier and more productive since he created a nap room in the company’s Brooklyn headquarters. Ryan Hodson of Kodiak Capital Group and Arianna Huffington of the Huffington Post Media Group have promoted napping 9 throughout their workers and have been effusive about the results. In light of the benefits not only to employees’ efficiency 10 and again to their health and sense of well-being, these executives’ enthusiasm is not surprising. 11 These executives are among the most successful leaders in their respective fields.

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Napping at work has already won corporate

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Passage 17-B

8 A) NO CHANGE B) gently wake C) gently to wake D) gentle waking of

9 A) NO CHANGE B) among C) between D) into

10 A) NO CHANGE B) but it benefits C) as also to D) but also to

11 The writer wants a concluding sentence that restates the main argument of the passage. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A) NO CHANGE B) Clearly, employers should consider reducing employees’ hours when they are overworked. C) Companies should consider employee schedules carefully when implementing a napping policy. D) More businesses should follow their lead and embrace napping on the job.

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Questions 10-19 are based on the following passage and supplementary material. This passage is adapted from Marina Gorbis, The Nature of the Future: Dispatches from the Socialstructed World. ©2013 by Marina Gorbis.

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Visitors to the Soviet Union in the 1960s and 1970s always marveled at the gap between what they saw in state stores—shelves empty or filled with things no one wanted—and what they saw in people’s homes: nice furnishings and tables filled with food. What filled the gap? A vast informal economy driven by human relationships, dense networks of social connections through which people traded resources and created value. The Soviet people didn’t plot how they would build these networks. No one was teaching them how to maximize their connections the way social marketers eagerly teach us today. Their networks evolved naturally, out of necessity; that was the only way to survive. Today, all around the world, we are seeing a new kind of network of relationship-driven economics emerging, with individuals joining forces sometimes to fill the gaps left by existing institutions—corporations, governments, educational establishments—and sometimes creating new products, services, and knowledge that no institution is able to provide. Empowered by computing and communication technologies that have been steadily building village-like networks on a global scale, we are infusing more and more of our economic transactions with social connectedness. The new technologies are inherently social and personal. They help us create communities around interests, identities, and common personal challenges. They allow us to gain direct access to a worldwide community of others. And they take anonymity out of our economic transactions. We can assess those we don’t know by checking their reputations as buyers and sellers on eBay or by following their Twitter streams. We can look up their friends on Facebook and watch their YouTube videos. We can easily get people’s advice on where to find the best shoemaker in Brazil, the best

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empowered with technologies and the collective intelligence of others in their social network—can take on many functions that previously only large organizations could perform, often more efficiently, at lower cost or no cost at all, and with much greater ease. Socialstructing is opening up a world of what my colleagues Jacques Vallée and Bob Johansen describe as the world of impossible futures, a world in which a large software firm can be displaced by weekend software hackers, and rapidly orchestrated social movements can bring down governments in a matter of weeks. The changes are exciting and unpredictable. They threaten many established institutions and offer a wealth of opportunities for individuals to empower themselves, find rich new connections, and tap into a fast-evolving set of new resources in everything from health care to education and science. Much has been written about how technology distances us from the benefits of face-to-face communication and quality social time. I think those are important concerns. But while the quality of our face-to-face interactions is changing, the countervailing force of socialstructing is connecting us at levels never seen before, opening up new opportunities to create, learn, and share.

The following graph, from a 2011 report from the International Data Corporation, projects trends in digital information use to 2015 (E=Estimated).

Global Digital Information Created and Shared, 2005–2015E Digital information created and shared (zettabytes)

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programmer in India, and the best apple farmer in our local community. We no longer have to rely on bankers or venture capitalists as the only sources of funding for our ideas. We can raise funds directly from individuals, most of whom we don’t even know, through websites that allow people to post descriptions of their projects and generate donations, investments, or loans. We are moving away from the dominance of the depersonalized world of institutional production and creating a new economy around social connections and social rewards—a process I call socialstructing. Others have referred to this model of production as social, commons-based, or peer-to-peer. Not only is this new social economy bringing with it an unprecedented level of familiarity and connectedness to both our global and our local economic exchanges, but it is also changing every domain of our lives, from finance to education and health. It is rapidly ushering in a vast array of new opportunities for us to pursue our passions, create new types of businesses and charitable organizations, redefine the nature of work, and address a wide range of problems that the prevailing formal economy has neglected, if not caused. Socialstructing is in fact enabling not only a new kind of global economy but a new kind of society, in which amplified individuals—individuals

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Note: 1 zettabyte = 1 trillion gigabytes

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As used in line 10, “plot” most nearly means A) mark. B) form. C) plan. D) claim.

11 The references to the shoemaker, the programmer, and the apple farmer in lines 37-40 (“We can easily . . . community”) primarily serve to A) illustrate the quality of products and services in countries around the world. B) emphasize the broad reach of technologies used to connect people. C) demonstrate that recommendations made online are trustworthy. D) call attention to the limits of the expansion of the global economy.

12 The passage’s discussion of life in the Soviet Union in the 1960s and 1970s primarily serves to A) introduce the concept of social networking. B) demonstrate that technology has improved social connections. C) list differences between the Soviet Union and other countries. D) emphasize the importance of examining historical trends.

13 As used in line 45, “post” most nearly means A) publish. B) transfer. C) assign. D) denounce.

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14 The author indicates that, in comparison to individuals, traditional organizations have tended to be A) more innovative and less influential. B) larger in size and less subject to regulations. C) less reliable and less interconnected. D) less efficient and more expensive.

15 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 22-26 (“Empowered . . . connectedness”) B) Lines 40-42 (“We no longer . . . ideas”) C) Lines 47-50 (“We are moving . . . socialstructing”) D) Lines 66-72 (“amplified . . . ease”)

16 The author recognizes counterarguments to the position she takes in the passage by A) acknowledging the risks and drawbacks associated with new technologies and social networks. B) admitting that some people spend too much time unproductively on the Internet. C) drawing an analogy between conditions today and conditions in the Soviet Union of the 1960s and 1970s. D) conceding that the drawbacks of socialstructing may prove over time to outweigh the benefits.

17 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 35-37 (“We can look . . . videos”) B) Lines 74-76 (“a world . . . hackers”) C) Lines 79-84 (“They . . . science”) D) Lines 85-87 (“Much . . . time”)

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Which statement best summarizes the information presented in the graph? A) Far more people around the world own computers and cell phones today than in 2005. B) The number of people sharing digital information has more than tripled since 2005. C) The volume of digital information created and shared has increased tremendously in recent years. D) The amount of digital information created and shared is likely to be almost 8 zettabytes in 2015.

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19 According to the graph, which statement is true about the amount of digital information projected to be created and shared globally in 2012? A) Growth in digital information creation and sharing was projected to be wildly out of proportion to growth in 2011 and 2013E. B) The amount of digital information created and shared was projected to begin a new upward trend. C) The amount of digital information created and shared was projected to peak. D) The amount of digital information created and shared was projected to pass 2 zettabytes for the first time.

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Vanishing Honeybees: A Threat to Global Agriculture Honeybees play an important role in the agriculture industry by pollinating crops. An October 2006 study found that as much as one-third of global agriculture depends on animal pollination, including honeybee 12 pollination—to increase crop output. The importance of bees 13 highlights the potentially disastrous affects of an emerging, unexplained crisis: entire colonies of honeybees are dying off without warning. 14 They know it as colony collapse disorder (CCD), this phenomenon will have a detrimental impact on global agriculture if its causes and solutions are not determined. Since the emergence of CCD around 2006, bee mortality rates have 15 exceeded 25 percent of the population each winter. There was one sign of hope: during the 2010–2012 winter seasons, bee mortality rates decreased slightly, and beekeepers speculated that the colonies would recover. Yet in the winter of 2012–2013, the 16 portion of the bee population lost fell nearly 10 percent in the United States, with a loss of 31 percent of the colonies that pollinate crops.

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Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

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Passage 18-B

12 A) NO CHANGE B) pollination: this is C) pollination, D) pollination;

13 A) NO CHANGE B) highlights the potentially disastrous effects C) highlight the potentially disastrous effects D) highlight the potentially disastrous affects

14 A) NO CHANGE B) Known as colony C) It is known as colony D) Colony

15 Which choice offers the most accurate interpretation of the data in the chart? A) NO CHANGE B) been above the acceptable range. C) not changed noticeably from year to year. D) greatly increased every year. 16 Which choice offers an accurate interpretation of the data in the chart? A) NO CHANGE B) portion of bees lost was double what it had been the previous year, rising to C) number of losses, which had fallen within the acceptable range the previous year, rose to D) portion of total colonies lost rose almost 10 percentage points, with a loss of

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40%

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Managed Honey Bee Colony Losses in the US

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09 08 13 07 10 11 12 20 – 20 – 20 – 20 – 20 – 20 – 20 – 06 007 008 009 010 011 012 2 2 20 2 2 2 2 Winter seasons

Adapted from Dennis van Engelsdorp et al., “Preliminary Results: Honey Bee Colony Losses in the United States, Winter 2012-2013.” ©2013 by the Bee Informed Partnership.

17 Studies have offered several possible reasons that bees are vanishing. One reason that is often cited is the use of pesticides called neonicotinoids, which are absorbed by plants and linger much longer than do topical pesticides. 18 Chemicals such as herbicides and fungicides may also play a role, contaminating the pollen that bees typically feed on and inhibiting healthy insect maturation.

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Percent total-colony winter loss

Writing

Passage 18-B

17 Which choice most smoothly and effectively introduces the writer’s discussion of studies of CCD in this paragraph? A) NO CHANGE B) Bees are vanishing, and according to studies there are several possible reasons for this trend. C) Several possible reasons, offered by studies, may explain why bees are vanishing. D) DELETE the underlined sentence.

18 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence. Prolonged exposure to neonicotinoids has been shown to increase bees’ vulnerability to disease and parasitic mites. Should the writer make this addition here? A) Yes, because it provides support for the claim made in the previous sentence. B) Yes, because it introduces a new idea that will become important later in the passage. C) No, because it would be better placed elsewhere in the passage. D) No, because it contradicts the main idea of the passage.

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Writing

impact of this loss of hives on fruit, vegetable, seed, and nut crops 19 is not to be scoffed at. A reduction in bee numbers leads to less pollination, which in turn leads to smaller harvests and higher food prices. Some farmers have resorted to renting hives from beekeepers to pollinate their 20 crops; when there is a shortage of bees this being an expensive proposition. Other farmers have increased 21 they’re dependence on costly hand-pollination by human workers. Furthermore, there may be sociological repercussions. Agroecologist Alexandra-Maria Klein has suggested that rising produce prices could lead to an increase in obesity as people turn to cheaper, less wholesome fare. Though the precise causes of CCD are yet unclear, some commonsense measures may be taken. A decrease in the use of certain pesticides, herbicides, and fungicides, as well as greater attention to the nutrition, habitat, and genetic diversity of managed hives, could begin a shift in a favorable direction. 22

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Given the role that honeybees play in agriculture, the

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Passage 18-B

19 A) NO CHANGE B) is a pretty big deal. C) can’t be put on the back burner. D) cannot be ignored.

20 A) NO CHANGE B) crops, this is an expensive proposition when there is a shortage of bees. C) crops, an expensive proposition when there is a shortage of bees. D) crops; an expensive proposition when there is a shortage of bees.

21 A) NO CHANGE B) there C) their D) its

22 The writer wants a conclusion that addresses the future of efforts to combat CCD. Which choice results in the passage having the most appropriate concluding sentence? A) NO CHANGE B) Still, bee colonies have experienced such devastating losses that the consequences of the issue have been felt worldwide. C) Although CCD is a relatively new phenomenon, scientists have been studying other aspects of honeybees for over a century. D) Genetic variation in bee colonies generally improves bees’ productivity, disease resistance, and ability to regulate body temperature.

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This passage is adapted from Tina Hesman Saey, “Lessons from the Torpid.” ©2012 by Society for Science & the Public.

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Understanding how hibernators, including ground squirrels, marmots and bears, survive their long winter’s naps may one day offer solutions for problems such as heart disease, osteoporosis and muscular dystrophy. Nearly everything about the way an animal’s body works changes when it hibernates, and preparations start weeks or months in advance. The first order of business is to fatten up. “Fat is where it’s at for a hibernator,” says Matthew Andrews, a molecular biologist at the University of Minnesota Duluth who studies 13-lined ground squirrels. “You bring your own lunch with you.” Packing lunch is necessary because the animals go on the world’s strictest diet during the winter, surviving entirely off their white fat. “They have their last supper in October; they don’t eat again until March,” Andrews says. Bigger fat stores mean a greater chance of surviving until spring. “If they go in really chunky, nice and roly-poly, that’s going to be a good hibernator,” he says. Bears also watch their waistlines expand in the months before settling in for the season. The brown bears cardiologist Ole Fröbert studies pack on the pounds by chowing down on up to 40 kilograms of blueberries a day. Such gluttony among humans could have severe consequences: Obesity is associated with a greater risk of heart attack and diabetes, among other ailments. To see how fattening up affects Scandinavian brown bears, Fröbert and his colleagues ventured into the wilds of Sweden following signals given off by radio transmitters or GPS devices on tagged bears. Bears can be dangerous close-up. Even hibernating bears can rouse to action quickly, so scientists tracking down bears in the winter use darts to tranquilize the animals from a distance. Scientists studying the bears in the summer tranquilize them from a helicopter.

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Questions 20-28 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

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Passage 19-A

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Once a bear is under the tranquilizer’s influence (which takes about five minutes), the scientists have 60 minutes max to get the animal from its den, weigh and measure it, draw blood samples and do minor surgeries to collect fat and other tissues. The bear is returned to its den by minute 61. Precious materials collected during this high-pressure encounter need to be analyzed within 24 hours, so the researchers often test for levels of cholesterol or certain proteins in the blood while working in the snow or at a nearby research station. A pilot sometimes flies samples from field sites to a lab in Denmark in order to meet the deadline, Fröbert says. Samples such as bones and arteries that can’t be collected from live bears come from bears killed by hunters during the legal hunting season. Recent analyses revealed that Scandinavian brown bears spend the summer with plasma cholesterol levels considered high for humans; those values then increase substantially for hibernation, Fröbert and his colleagues reported. These “very, very fat” bears with high cholesterol also get zero exercise during hibernation. Lolling about in the den pinches off blood vessels, contributing to sluggish circulation. “That cocktail would not be advisable in humans,” Fröbert says. It’s a recipe for hardened arteries, putting people at risk for heart attacks and strokes. Even healthy young adult humans can develop fatty streaks in their arteries that make the blood vessels less flexible, but the bears don’t build up such artery-hardening streaks. “Our bears, they had nothing,” Fröbert says. It’s not yet clear how the bears keep their arteries flexible, but Fröbert hopes to find some protective molecule that could stave off hardened arteries in humans as well.

541 Milligrams/deciliter

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Total Plasma Cholesterol in Seven Bears

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maximum desirable level for humans hibernation

active

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126

The passage is written from the perspective of someone who is A) actively involved in conducting hibernator research. B) a participant in a recent debate in the field of cardiology. C) knowledgeable about advances in hibernator research. D) an advocate for wildlife preservation.

21 It is reasonable to conclude that the main goal of the scientists conducting the research described in the passage is to A) learn how the hibernation patterns of bears and squirrels differ. B) determine the role that fat plays in hibernation. C) illustrate the important health benefits of exercise for humans. D) explore possible ways to prevent human diseases.

22 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1-5 (“Understanding . . . dystrophy”) B) Lines 10-13 (“Fat . . . squirrels”) C) Lines 31-35 (“To . . . bears”) D) Lines 42-46 (“Once . . . tissues”)

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Passage 19-A

23 What main effect do the quotations by Andrews in lines 10-18 have on the tone of the passage? A) They create a bleak tone, focusing on the difficulties hibernators face during the winter. B) They create a conversational tone, relating scientific information in everyday language. C) They create an ominous tone, foreshadowing the dire results of Andrews’s research. D) They create an absurd tone, using images of animals acting as if they were human.

24 As used in line 19, “stores” most nearly means A) preservatives. B) reserves. C) stacks. D) shelters.

25 Based on the passage, what is Fröbert’s hypothesis regarding why bears’ arteries do not harden during hibernation? A) The bears’ increased plasma cholesterol causes the arteries to be more flexible. B) Sluggish circulation pinches off the blood vessels rather than hardening the arteries. C) Bears exercise in short, infrequent bursts during hibernation, which staves off hardened arteries. D) Bears possess a molecule that protects against hardened arteries.

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Reading

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 19-20 (“Bigger . . . spring”) B) Lines 24-27 (“The brown . . . day”) C) Lines 69-72 (“Even . . . streaks”) D) Lines 73-76 (“It’s . . . well”)

27 What information discussed in paragraph 10 (lines 58-68) is represented by the graph? A) The information in lines 58-62 (“Recent . . . reported”) B) The information in lines 62-64 (“These . . . hibernation”) C) The information in lines 64-65 (“Lolling . . . circulation”) D) The information in lines 67-68 (“It’s . . . strokes”)

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Passage 19-A

28 Which statement about the effect of hibernation on the seven bears is best supported by the graph? A) Only one of the bears did not experience an appreciable change in its total plasma cholesterol level. B) Only one of the bears experienced a significant increase in its total plasma cholesterol level. C) All of the bears achieved the desirable plasma cholesterol level for humans. D) The bear with the lowest total plasma cholesterol level in its active state had the highest total plasma cholesterol level during hibernation.

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128

Lunar Farming Late last autumn, Giuseppe Ferrua 23 stood, on the hillside he farms overlooking Italy’s Serchio River valley, a landscape of low mountains dotted 24 with vineyards. Ferrua grows grapes and olives, and he does so according to the phases of the Moon. He didn’t always farm this way. When he began, he exercised modern, one-size-fits-all farming methods but says he soon became convinced that “plants are completely prone to elements in the cosmos, the rhythms of day and night.” Following the lunar calendar, this type of farming is driven by the belief that the Moon influences levels of moisture in the soil, just as the Moon’s gravitational pull affects great bodies of water. Lunar farmers believe, 25 for example, that from the new Moon to quarter Moon phases, when the Moon is waxing, a soil’s moisture content increases, whereas drier periods occur during the waning phase. 26 Although moisture influences seed germination, a lunar guide on when to plant and weed can be advantageous to a grower.

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Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.

Passage 19-B

23 A) NO CHANGE B) stood; C) stood— D) stood

24 A) NO CHANGE B) inside C) for D) on

25 A) NO CHANGE B) however, C) by contrast, D) thereafter,

26 A) NO CHANGE B) Given that C) So D) DELETE the underlined portion and begin the sentence with a capital letter.

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Writing

Roman naturalist Pliny the Elder stated in his Natural History that the Moon “replenishes the Earth; when she approaches it, she fills all bodies, while, when she recedes, she empties them.” Chinese and Egyptian people performed agricultural tasks according to the lunar calendar for millennia, and, to this day, the vaunted Old Farmer’s Almanac includes regional lunar calendars and advice on 28 when to conduct farm chores. The 29 almanacs editor, Janice Stillman, says, “That information is of value to our readers who practice these traditional methods—and claim great success.”

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27 Nature has been around forever. First-century

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Passage 19-B

27 Which choice most effectively sets up the paragraph? A) NO CHANGE B) People all over the world farm by the Moon. C) Farming by the Moon is not new. D) Talk of the Moon’s influence is far-reaching.

28 Which choice provides the most specific information on the type of advice a lunar calendar offers? A) NO CHANGE B) actions relevant to farming. C) points in time at which to undertake certain tasks. D) optimal times to plant, weed, prune, and harvest.

29 A) NO CHANGE B) almanacs’s C) almanac’s D) almanacs’

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130

of the method’s efficacy. Recalling advice he received on the best lunar time to plant potatoes, an English farmer says his first reaction was “Hoopla.” Current mainstream agriculture does not factor the Moon into 31 their practices, so the concept might seem quaint or irrational. Additionally, lunar farming is based in astrology as opposed to astronomy, and no extensive scientific studies have yet been conducted that measure the Moon’s overall influence on farming, 32 so supporters continue to wait for their practices to be verified scientifically. Stillman says, “We are of the mind that you accept or believe by choice.” Indeed, despite his doubts, the skeptical English farmer wound up planting his potatoes according to the lunar cycle and claims they were “the best I have tasted.” Agricultural professor Jennifer Coffman has a similar response to Ferrua’s bounty in Italy. 33 “Smell this rosemary,” she says. “Smell how amazingly fragrant that is.” At this stage, one could say that the evidence must be experienced to be believed.

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Lunar farming has its 30 skeptics, who are not sure

Passage 19-B

30 A) NO CHANGE B) skeptics, who have yet to be convinced. C) skeptics—those who doubt the method. D) skeptics.

31 A) NO CHANGE B) those C) it’s D) its

32 The writer wants to conclude the paragraph effectively while also reinforcing the point that skepticism toward lunar farming still exists. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A) NO CHANGE B) and therefore no sound scientific data on the subject exist to date. C) yet many continue to practice lunar farming. D) leading many to conclude that the practice is based in folklore, not fact.

33 Which choice gives an additional supporting example that emphasizes the importance of the senses in judging the success of the lunar farming method? A) NO CHANGE B) She has taken photographs of the grapevines and landscape. C) She takes careful notes about Ferrua’s farming methods, asking Ferrua to clarify how he prepares the soil. D) She dips bread into Ferrua’s olive oil as he explains a soil preparation he does in the fall.

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131

This passage is from Andrew Carnegie, "Wealth," originally published in 1889. Arriving penniless in Pennsylvania from Scotland in 1848, Carnegie became one of the richest people in the United States through the manufacture of steel.

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The problem of our age is the proper administration of wealth, that the ties of brotherhood may still bind together the rich and poor in harmonious relationship. The conditions of human life have not only been changed, but revolutionized, within the past few hundred years. In former days there was little difference between the dwelling, dress, food, and environment of the chief and those of his retainers. . . . The contrast between the palace of the millionaire and the cottage of the laborer with us to-day measures the change which has come with civilization. This change, however, is not to be deplored, but welcomed as highly beneficial. It is well, nay, essential, for the progress of the race that the houses of some should be homes for all that is highest and best in literature and the arts, and for all the refinements of civilization, rather than that none should be so. Much better this great irregularity than universal squalor. Without wealth there can be no Maecenas.* The “good old times” were not good old times. Neither master nor servant was as well situated then as to-day. A relapse to old conditions would be disastrous to both—not the least so to him who serves—and would sweep away civilization with it. But whether the change be for good or ill, it is upon us, beyond our power to alter, and, therefore, to be accepted and made the best of. It is a waste of time to criticize the inevitable. It is easy to see how the change has come. One illustration will serve for almost every phase of the cause. In the manufacture of products we have the whole story. It applies to all combinations of human industry, as stimulated and enlarged by the inventions of this scientific age. Formerly, articles were manufactured at the domestic hearth, or in small shops which formed part of the household. The master and his apprentices worked side by side,

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Questions 29-37 are based on the following passage.

Passage 20-A

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the latter living with the master, and therefore subject to the same conditions. When these apprentices rose to be masters, there was little or no change in their mode of life, and they, in turn, educated succeeding apprentices in the same routine. There was, substantially, social equality, and even political equality, for those engaged in industrial pursuits had then little or no voice in the State. The inevitable result of such a mode of manufacture was crude articles at high prices. To-day the world obtains commodities of excellent quality at prices which even the preceding generation would have deemed incredible. In the commercial world similar causes have produced similar results, and the race is benefited thereby. The poor enjoy what the rich could not before afford. What were the luxuries have become the necessaries of life. The laborer has now more comforts than the farmer had a few generations ago. The farmer has more luxuries than the landlord had, and is more richly clad and better housed. The landlord has books and pictures rarer and appointments more artistic than the king could then obtain. The price we pay for this salutary change is, no doubt, great. We assemble thousands of operatives in the factory, and in the mine, of whom the employer can know little or nothing, and to whom he is little better than a myth. All intercourse between them is at an end. Rigid castes are formed, and, as usual, mutual ignorance breeds mutual distrust. Each caste is without sympathy for the other, and ready to credit anything disparaging in regard to it. Under the law of competition, the employer of thousands is forced into the strictest economies, among which the rates paid to labor figure prominently, and often there is friction between the employer and the employed, between capital and labor, between rich and poor. Human society loses homogeneity. The price which society pays for the law of competition, like the price it pays for cheap comforts and luxuries, is also great; but the advantages of this law are also greater still than its cost—for it is to this law that we owe our wonderful material development, which brings improved conditions in its train. * Gaius Maecenas (70–8 B.C.E.) was a great patron of the arts.

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Reading

Which choice best describes the structure of the first paragraph? A) A personal history is narrated, historical examples are given, and a method is recommended. B) A position is stated, historical context is given, and earnest advice is given. C) Certain principles are stated, opposing principles are stated, and a consensus is reached. D) A historical period is described, and its attributes are reviewed.

30 The author most strongly implies which of the following about “the ties of brotherhood” (line 2)? A) They were always largely fictitious and are more so at present. B) They are stronger at present than they ever were before. C) They are more seriously strained in the present than in the past. D) They will no longer be able to bring together the rich and the poor.

31 The author uses “dwelling, dress, food, and environment” (lines 7-8) as examples of A) things more valued in the present than in the past. B) bare necessities of life. C) things to which all people are entitled. D) possible indications of differences in status.

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Passage 20-A

32 The author describes the people who live in the “houses of some” (line 15) as interested in the A) materials from which their houses are constructed. B) size of their homes. C) advantages of culture. D) pedigree of their guests.

33 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 9-10 (“the palace . . . laborer”) B) Lines 15-16 (“all . . . arts”) C) Lines 18-19 (“Much . . . squalor”) D) Lines 19-20 (“Without . . . Maecenas”)

34 The author uses the phrase “good old times” (line 20) as an example of A) a cliché that still has life and usefulness left in it. B) a bit of folk wisdom from his childhood. C) something said by those who have acquired great riches. D) something said by people who do not share his viewpoint.

35 What is the author’s main point about the disadvantages of the modern economic system? A) It provides only a few people with the advantages of culture. B) It replicates many of the problems experienced in the past. C) It creates divisions between different categories of people. D) It gives certain people great material advantages over others.

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Reading

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 37-39 (“The master . . . conditions”) B) Lines 43-45 (“There was . . . State”) C) Lines 46-47 (“The inevitable . . . prices”) D) Lines 65-66 (“All intercourse . . . end”)

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Passage 20-A

37 As used in line 82, “in its train” is closest in meaning to A) before it. B) with it. C) anticipating it. D) advancing it.

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Writing

Recipes for History: The Szathmary Cookbook Collection In 1990, chef Louis Szathmary, a voracious collector of cookbooks, donated approximately 20,000 culinary artifacts to the University of Iowa library. The gift included more than 100 manuscript recipe books 34 —collections of recipes handwritten by the people who used them. The manuscripts, some of which date back to the seventeenth century, are an invaluable resource for food historians as well as the general public. 35 Because of the astonishing size and range of Szathmary’s 36 donation to the University of Iowa, making this cornucopia of information available to readers was a challenge. Working in conjunction with the library, the University of Iowa Press published volumes as varied as The P.E.O. Cookbook, written in rural Iowa in 1908, and Ladie Borlase’s Receiptes Booke, written in the English countryside from 1665 to 1822. Librarians were happy to show the Szathmary collection to people who were able to visit the library, 37 so the manuscripts, too delicate to be checked out to library patrons, remained largely unexplored.

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Questions 34 -44 are based on the following passage.

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Passage 20-B

34 The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion (ending the sentence with a period). Should the writer make this deletion? A) Yes, because the underlined portion detracts from the paragraph’s focus on the Szathmary collection. B) Yes, because the information in the underlined portion is provided in the previous sentence. C) No, because the underlined portion defines a term that is important to the passage. D) No, because the underlined portion gives an example of a particular culinary artifact.

35 A) NO CHANGE B) Regardless of C) In contrast to D) In addition to

36 A) NO CHANGE B) donation of so many culinary artifacts, C) massive donation of cookbooks, D) donation,

37 A) NO CHANGE B) for C) and D) but

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university expanded its DIY History Project (“DIY” stands for “do it yourself”) to include the manuscripts. The project enlists volunteers to transcribe the recipes: working from 38 our home computers, the volunteers type up the scanned handwritten recipes. After a page is transcribed and proofread, it is digitized and becomes part of a searchable online archive. Volunteer transcribers need no particular expertise; 39 prosaic directives are provided on the DIY History website. Transcribing is easy. The ingredients (one recipe requires something called “ringon root”) and measurements (a “ditto” of baking soda), 40 moreover, can be puzzling. The goal is to digitize all the manuscripts in the Szathmary collection, making them available to anyone with 41 access of a computer and the Internet.

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This all started to change in 2012, when the

Passage 20-B

38 A) NO CHANGE B) his or her C) their D) one’s

39 A) NO CHANGE B) simple directions C) bare-bones how-tos D) facile protocols

40 A) NO CHANGE B) therefore, C) however, D) in short,

41 A) NO CHANGE B) access to C) excess of D) excess to

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project and encourage the public to try the recipes. [2] It has formed a club dedicated to cooking manuscript recipes. [3] Some recipes don’t fare well in the twenty-first century (one club member called her 1800s gingerbread a “molasses-laden brick”), while others 42 had worked just fine. [4] In another instance of library outreach, a competition at the 2013 Iowa State Fair, contestants baked desserts in three categories— 43 almond cheesecake, summer mince pie, and Marlborough pie—using recipes from the Szathmary collection. 44 The efforts of the library and the volunteers are clearly bearing fruit. By January 2014, more than 38,000 manuscript pages had been transcribed, thanks to the volunteers who answered DIY History’s call to “help build the historical record by doing it yourself.”

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[1] The library is working hard to publicize the

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Passage 20-B

42 A) NO CHANGE B) work C) worked D) could have worked

43 A) NO CHANGE B) almond, cheesecake summer, mince, C) almond cheesecake summer, mince D) almond, cheesecake, summer, mince,

44 The writer plans to add the following sentence to this paragraph. The judges reported that the entries were delicious. To make this paragraph most logical, the sentence should be placed A) after sentence 1. B) after sentence 2. C) after sentence 3. D) after sentence 4.


Reading

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Passage 21-A

Reading Test

 Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.

Passage 1 was taken from the book A Practical Treatise on the Hive and Honey-bee, by Rev. Lorenzo Lorraine Langstroth. L.L. Langstroth is considered by many to be the Father of American Beekeeping. A Practical Treatise was first published in 1857 and is still in print today. Passage 1 Passage 2 Age of Bees Honey Bee Health and Colony Collapse Disorder

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The queen bee will live four, and sometimes, though very rarely, five years. As the life of the drones is usually cut short by violence, it is not easy to ascertain its precise limit. The workers are 5 supposed to live six or seven months. Their age depends, however, very much upon their greater or less exposure to injurious influences and severe labors. Those reared in the spring and early part of summer, and on whom the heaviest labors of 10 the hive must necessarily devolve, do not appear to live more than two or three months, while those which are bred at the close of summer, and early in autumn, being able to spend a large part of their time in repose, attain a much greater age. 15 . . . [Bees] appear to die rather suddenly, and often spend their last days, and sometimes even their last hours, in useful labors. . . . The age which individual members of the community may attain, must not be confounded with that of the colony. 20 Bees have been known to occupy the same domicile for a great number of years. I have seen flourishing colonies which were twenty years old. . . . In some cases, the bees must take down and 25 reconstruct the old combs, for if they did not, the young issuing from them would always be dwarfs . . . . That they do not always renew the old combs must be admitted, as the young from some old hives are often considerably below the 30 average size. On this account, it is very desirable to be able to remove the old combs occasionally, that their place may be supplied with new ones. It is a great mistake to imagine that the brood combs ought to be changed every year. In my 35 hives, they might, if it were desirable, be easily changed several times in a year, but once in five or six years is often enough; oftener than this requires a needless consumption of honey to replace them, besides being for other reasons 40 undesirable. . . .

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Honey bees, which are a critical link in U.S. agriculture, have been under serious pressure from a mystery problem: Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD), which is defined as a dead colony with no 45 adult bees or dead bee bodies but with a live queen and usually honey and immature bees still present. No scientific cause for CCD has been proven. But CCD is far from the only risk to the health of honey bees and the economic stability of 50 commercial beekeeping and pollination operations in the United States. Since the 1980s, honey bees and beekeepers have had to deal with a host of new pathogens from deformed wing virus to nosema fungi, new parasites, pests like small hive 55 beetles, nutrition problems from lack of diversity or availability in pollen and nectar sources, and possible sublethal effects of pesticides. These problems, many of which honey bees might be able to survive if each were the only one, are often 60 hitting in a wide variety of combinations and weakening and killing honey bee colonies. CCD may even be a result of a combination of two or more of these factors and not necessarily the same factors in the same order in every instance.  Why Should the Public Care About What Happens to Honey Bees? 65 Bee pollination is responsible for more than $15 billion in increased crop value each year. . . . Commercial production of many specialty crops like almonds and other tree nuts, berries, fruits, and vegetables depend on pollination by honey 70 bees. Almonds are completely dependent on honey bees for pollination. The total number of managed honey bee colonies has decreased from 5 million in the 1940s to only 2.5 million today. At the same time, the call for 75 hives to provide pollination services has continued to increase. This means honey bee colonies are being transported over longer distances than ever before. Colony losses from CCD are a very serious 80 problem for beekeepers. If losses continue, it could threaten the economic viability of the bee pollination industry. Honey bees would not disappear entirely, but the cost of honey bee pollination services would rise, and those increased 85 costs would ultimately be passed on to consumers through higher food costs.


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What is the main idea of passage 2? A. Honey bees are dying and no one knows why. B. Bees are an important part of our agricultural system. C. CCD is a problem for beekeepers. D. Bee colony collapse affects agriculture, food, and economics. What is the distinction Langstroth makes between individual bees and colonies? A. The queen bee is an individual that lives for several years in the same colony. B. Individual bees only live for a short time, but their colonies are maintained for many generations. C. The honeycombs are produced by the thousands of individual worker bees in a colony. D. Bee colonies can't support all the individual worker bees so they die within a few months. Why are some bees in a colony undersized? A. Bees hatched in old combs are smaller. B. Bees hatched in the summer are smaller even though they live longer. C. Bees affected by fungus infections are smaller. D. Bees affected by nutritional problems are smaller. How are the two passages different in their perspectives about bees? A. Both discuss bee colonies, but only passage 1 is concerned about the death of bees. B. Passage 1 is concerned only about individual bees; passage 2 describes concerns about the colonies. C. Both passages discuss bee colonies, but only passage 1 is focused on the bee population. D. Passage 1 is written from personal observations; passage 2 is a report of research about commercial bees. What is the difference in tone between the two passages? A. Passage 1 is cheerful, and passage 2 is pessimistic. B. Passage 1 is condescending; passage 2 is neutral. C. Passage 1 is personal but matter of fact; passage 2 is impersonal but worried. D. Passage 1 is warm, and passage 2 shows no emotion.

Passage 21-A

6

7

8

9

10

Which line or lines of passage 1 provide evidence that the author is a beekeeper? A. Lines 4–5 ("The workers . . . seven months") B. Lines 21–23 ("I have . . . years old") C. Lines 34–40 ("In my . . . reasons undesirable") D. Lines 27–30 ("That they . . . average size") What evidence is there in passage 2 from which you could conclude that the cost of honey is probably going to go up? A. Lines 72–74 ("The total . . . 2.5 million today") B. Lines 82–86 ("Honey bees . . . food costs") C. Lines 65–66 ("Bee pollination . . . each year") D. Lines 79–80 ("Colony losses . . . for beekeepers") What is the best definition of sublethal? A. Less than deadly B. Not obvious C. Secondary D. Under the skin Which of the following best defines repose, as used in line 14? A. At peace B. Hidden C. At rest D. Undisturbed Based on the information from Passage 2 and the graph, which of the following statements can reasonably be inferred? A. Production per colony determines the level of total U.S. honey production. B. Honey production in the U.S. will continue to decrease. C. The greater the number of bees in the U.S., the greater the amount of honey the U.S. produces. D. If output per colony is low, increasing the number of colonies would increase overall output.


Writing

139

Passage 21-B

Writing and Language Test

 Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Industrial-Organizational Psychologists In January 2014, the U.S. Department of Labor

1

released a list of the fastest growing jobs in America. The results are somewhat surprising. Topping the list, with a projected growth rate over the next ten years of 53%, are industrial-organizational psychologists. 1) While the projected growth rate is somewhat misleading there are only about 160,000 industrial-organizational psychologists currently practicing in the United States the fact that the career field is expected to double over the next decade warrants some study of what the field entails. According to the American Psychological Association, industrial-organizational psychology (I/O Psychology for short) is "the scientific study of human behavior in organizations and the work place." 2) The Society for Industrial and Organizational Psychology

2

(SIOP) further defines this field as "the scientific study of working and the application of that science to workplace issues facing individuals, teams, and organizations." I/O psychologists help corporations and organizations make human resource decisions, engage employees, and increase overall work efficiency. The companies they work for often give I/O psychologists nice offices so people feel comfortable talking with them. 3)

3

A. NO CHANGE B. While the projected growth rate is somewhat misleading there are only about (160,000) industrial—organizational psychologists currently practicing in the United States, the fact that the career field is expected to double over the next decade warrants some study of what the field entails. C. While the projected growth rate is somewhat misleading, there are only about 160,000 industrial—organizational psychologists currently practicing in the United States; the fact that the career field is expected to double over the next decade warrants some study of what the field entails. D. While the projected growth rate is somewhat misleading, there are only about 160,000 industrial—organizational psychologists— currently practicing in the United States —the fact that the career field is expected to double over the next decade warrants some study of what the field entails. The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? A. Yes, because it introduces a new idea that does not support the purpose of the paragraph. B. Yes, because it repeats information that has already been provided. C. No, because it provides relevant information that builds on the previous sentence. D. No, because it establishes the main topic of the paragraph. In order to improve cohesion and focus, the author is thinking about deleting the last sentence of this paragraph. Is this a good choice? A. Yes. It introduces an irrelevant detail that does not follow the focus of the paragraph. B. Yes. While relevant, it is illogical when placed at the end of the paragraph. C. No. It expands and elaborates on the topic of the paragraph. D. No. While tangential, it provides an interesting detail that is worth keeping.


Writing

140 4) Psychologists working in this field may

4

screen company recruits, develop on-the-job training and development programs, conduct employee engagement surveys, provide performance feedback to employees, create coaching programs, help corporations with diversity training, and devise employee retention

Passage 21-B

Which choice provides the most logical introduction to the sentence? A. NO CHANGE B. Child psychologists are hired to C. Some of the jobs human resources people do is D. Sara Lee hires psychologists to

5

programs. 5) Companies such as Sara Lee, Merck, and the company Land O' Lakes employ and hire I/O psychologists to lead 6) their human resource departments. Says the SIOP, "Just as finance advises organizations how to maximize their financial 7) capitol,

6

I/O psychologists teach organizations how to maximize their human assets." In the competitive world of corporate America, this can be a strategic advantage. 8) Furthermore, before rushing out in pursuit of a

7

highly lucrative I/O psychologist position, potential candidates should consider the following information. First, while the average I/O psychologist makes an average $83,000 per year, qualified candidates for an I/O

8

position must obtain a minimum of a master's degree in psychology. Many practicing I/O psychologists have a Ph.D. in the field. With costs of higher education rising, pursuing an advanced degree can be 9) rewarding.

9

Also, with greater demand comes greater supply. 10) Positions will be highly competitive and more and

more candidates enter the field of I/O psychology. Compounding matters further, I/O psychology professor

10

Rob Sitzer notes on the APA website that "This field has expanded so much in recent years that people from other fields, including MBA's and organizational development specialists, have also started moving into these work areas." As competition for I/O psychology positions 11) intensify within the corporate arena, potential

candidates must evaluate whether the cost of education is worth the gamble involved in landing a job.

11

A. NO CHANGE B. Companies such as Sara Lee, Merck, and Land O' Lakes employ I/O psychologists C. Companies such as Sara Lee, Merck, and Land O' Lakes employ and give jobs to I/O psychologists D. Companies such as Sara Lee, Merck, and the company Land O' Lakes employ I/O psychologists A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE there theirs they're

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE Capitol capital capitalist

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE Subsequently, However, Therefore,

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE laughable impossible daunting

A. NO CHANGE B. Positions will be highly competitive but more and more candidates enter the field of I/O psychology. C. While more and more candidates enter the field of I/O psychology, positions will become highly competitive. D. As more and more candidates enter the field of I/O psychology, positions will become highly competitive. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE have been intensifying intensifies d. have intensified


Reading

141

Passage 22-A

 Questions 11-21 are based on the following passage. Nurse and Spy: Thrilling Story of the Adventures of a Woman who Served as a Union Soldier

At the beginning of the U.S. Civil War, Canadian-born Sara Emma E. Edmonds disguised herself as a man and enlisted in the Union army, where she served as a male field nurse. In this excerpt from her book, she has "disguised" herself as an Irish female peddler, selling pastries to the army as she crossed enemy lines in order to spy on the Confederacy.

5)

10)

15)

20)

25)

30)

35)

40)

With no medicine, no food, and consequently little strength, I was nearly in a state of starvation. My pies and cakes were spoiled in the basket, in consequence of the drenching they had received in crossing the river, and now I had no means of procuring more. But something must be done; I could not bear the thought of thus starving to death in that inglorious manner; better die upon the scaffold at Richmond, or be shot by the rebel pickets; anything but this. So I thought and said, as I rallied all my remaining strength to arrange my toilette preparatory to emerging from my concealment in the swamp. It was about nine o'clock in the morning of the third day after crossing the river, when I started, as I thought, towards the enemy's lines, . . . . I traveled from that time until five o'clock in the afternoon, and was then deeper in the swamp than when I started. My head or brain was completely turned. I knew not which way to go, nor did I know east from west, or north from south. It was a dark day in every sense of the word—and I had neither sun nor compass to guide me. At five o'clock the glorious booming of cannon reverberated through the dense wilderness, and to me, at that hour, it was the sweetest and most soul-inspiring music that ever greeted my ear. I now turned my face in the direction of the scene of action, and was not long in extricating myself from the desert which had so long enveloped me. Soon after emerging from the swamp I saw, in the distance, a small white house, and thither I bent my weary footsteps. I found it deserted, with the exception of a sick rebel soldier, who lay upon a straw-tick on the floor in a helpless condition. I went to him, and assuming the Irish brogue, I inquired how he came to be left alone, and if I could render him any assistance. He could only speak in a low whisper, and with much difficulty, said he had been ill with typhoid fever a few weeks before, and had not fully recovered when General Stoneman attacked the rebels in the vicinity of Coal Harbor, and he was ordered to join

45)

50)

55)

60)

65)

70)

75)

80)

85)

his company. He participated in a sharp skirmish, in which the rebels were obliged to retreat; but he fell out by the way, and fearing to fall into the hands of the Yankees, he had crawled along as best he could, sometimes on his hands and knees, until he reached the house. He had not eaten anything since leaving camp, and he was truly in a starving condition. . . . exhausted as I was, I soon kindled a fire, and in less than fifteen minutes a large hoe-cake was before it in process of baking, and a sauce-pan of water heating. . . . After searching about the premises, I found some tea packed away in a small basket, . . . . My cake being cooked, and tea made, I fed the poor famished rebel as tenderly as if he had been my brother, and he seemed as grateful for my kindness, and thanked me with as been my brother, and he seemed as grateful for my kindness, and thanked me with as much politeness, as if I had been Mrs. Jeff Davis. . . . After making my toilet and adjusting my wig in the most approved Irish style, I approached the sick man. . . . He was a man about thirty years of age, was tall and had a slight figure, regular features, dark hair and large, mournful, hazel eyes; altogether he was a very pleasing and intelligent looking man. . . . if I had had nothing more important to attend to, I should have enjoyed the privilege of caring for him until he recovered. It is strange how sickness and disease disarm our antipathy and remove our prejudices. There lay before me an enemy to the Government for which I was daily and willingly exposing my life and suffering unspeakable privation . . . and yet . . . I did not feel the least resentment, or entertain an unkind thought toward him personally, but looked upon him only as an unfortunate, suffering man, whose sad condition called forth the best feelings of my nature, and I longed to restore him to health and strength; not considering that the very health and strength which I wished to secure for him would be employed against the cause which I had espoused.


Reading 11

12

13

14

15

16

What is Edmonds' relationship to the rebel soldier? A. They are enemies. B. They are old friends. C. They are fellow travelers. D. They are fellow soldiers. What does her treatment of the soldier indicate about her character? A. She is kind and caring. B. She is fearful and obedient. C. She is strong and willful. D. She is patriotic and loyal. Which of the following is the best description of the theme of the excerpt? A. War is terrible and causes pain and suffering on both sides. B. Prejudices are learned but can be overcome. C. War divides people and makes them enemies. D. People find humanity even in the midst of the horrors of war. What was Edmonds' point of view about the Civil War? A. She was conflicted about it, because it inflicted such hardship on everyone. B. She thought it was a cause worth fighting for. C. She thought that wars were useless and not worth the pain and suffering. D. She thought it was destructive and pointless. Why does Edmonds disguise herself as an Irish peddler? A. She liked to cook and knew she could sell her baked goods to hungry soldiers. B. It was an easy disguise to use as a woman. C. She wanted to penetrate enemy lines without being suspected of being a Union soldier. D. It made her role as a spy more believable. Why does Edmonds refer to the sound of gunfire as "the sweetest and most soul-inspiring music"? A. It reinforced her love of being a soldier. B. She had been lost and the gunfire indicated that she would be able to find her way. C. It meant that she would be able to get through enemy lines. D. She could follow it to spy on the rebels and find out what they were doing.

142 17

18

19

20

21

Passage 22-A

How does Edmonds create a mood of calm in the face of pending doom? A. Although she is fearful, her empathy toward the soldier overrides her fear. B. She is strong and persistent and continues on in the face of danger. C. Her tone is matter of fact as she relates her dire situation. D. She uses words that show empathy and create a tone of serenity. Which of the following lines from the text illustrate a lesson that might be considered a parable? A. Lines 6–10 ("But something . . . but this") B. Lines 16–19 ("I traveled . . . I started") C. Lines 72–74 ("It is . . . our prejudices") D. Lines 57–63 ("My cake . . . Mrs. Jeff Davis") Which words from the text exemplify Edmonds' relationship with the rebel soldier? A. Lines 64–66 ("After making . . . sick man") B. Lines 69–70 ("He was . . . looking man") C. Lines 78–86 ("I did . . . had espoused") D. Lines 57–63 ("My cake . . . Mrs. Jeff Davis") What does Edmonds mean when she says she did not want to die in "that inglorious manner" (line 8)? A. Death by starvation would be shameful and dishonorable. B. Starving to death would be respectable. C. Hanging would be preferable to starvation. D. There would be glory in being shot in battle. Which is the best synonym for the word antipathy (Line 74)? A. Fearfulness B. Animosity C. Good will D. Sympathy


143

Writing

Passage 22-B

 Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. The First Nuclear Bomb 12) It was early in the morning in the hot New

12

Mexico desert. Most people slept soundly in their beds, dreaming away the dawn of a new day. At 5:29 a.m., a blinding white light flashed across the New Mexico sky, followed by an explosion that shattered the sleepy silence, catapulting people from their beds. Authorities quickly responded to the concerns of citizens, many of 13) whom were clearing away debris from shattered windows. People were told that an ammunitions dump

13

had exploded. The truth, however, was that the explosion had come from something much bigger. On July 16, 1945, the U.S. military tested a nuclear

14

bomb it had been working on for the past four years. 14) The blast of the Fat Man, the most common name for the device generated heat four times greater than the interior of the sun. 15) It created a pressure of 100 billion atmospheres and could be seen up to 250 miles away. The force of the blast was equivalent to all of the bombs dropped on London by the Luftwaffe during the Blitz. Said physicist Robert Oppenheimer, the mastermind behind the project, "I am become death, the shatterer of worlds."

15

Which choice best supports the main topic of the first paragraph? A. The New Mexico desert is very hot, and ammunition explosions are quite common. B. One early morning, citizens of New Mexico were startled awake by a huge blast that they were told was caused by an exploding ammunition dump. C. On July 16, 1945, the people of New Mexico were awoken by a test of the first nuclear weapon. D. At 5:29 a.m., a blinding white light flashed across the New Mexico sky, and no one was sure what caused it. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE who they them

A. NO CHANGE B. The blast of the Fat Man, the most common name for the device, sent out heat four times that found in the interior of the sun. C. The blast, of the Fat Man the most common name for the device, sent out heat four times that found in the interior of the sun. D. The blast of the Fat Man the most common name for the device, sent out heat four times that found in the interior of the sun. In order to make sure she is including only the most relevant support for her argument, the author is considering deleting this sentence. Is this a good choice? A. Yes. It introduces an irrelevant detail that does not follow the focus of the paragraph. B. Yes. While relevant, it is illogical when placed at the end of the paragraph. C. No. It expands and elaborates on the topic of the paragraph. D. No. While tangential, it provides an interesting detail that is worth keeping.


Writing

With a massive blast load equivalent to almost 18,000

144 16

tons of TNT, the explosion 16) damaged the tower enclosing the device; one mile away from the detonation point, the temperature was over 750 degrees Fahrenheit. 17) So much radiation poured into the

17

atmosphere so much so that 50 years later radiation levels at the test 18) sight were still ten times greater than levels in surrounding areas. The Manhattan Project—the code name given to the development of an atomic bomb—was a triumphant success. The U.S. government spent nearly 19) $29

18

million on heavy water plants in their endeavor to beat the Germans to the bomb. When the Fat Man exploded over the desert on July 16, turning surrounding sand into

19

glass, U.S. military officials saw the opportunity to end WWII in 20) one felled swoop. Only one month later, two atomic bombs, including one reconstructed from the wreckage of Fat Man, were dropped on Japan. The first fell on the city of Hiroshima. Days later, a second bomb fell on Nagasaki. Historians

20

estimate that almost 350,000 people were killed as a result of these two bombs— 21) the only ever to be used nuclear weapons in warfare. By 1949, the U.S. government had stockpiled over

21

200 atomic bombs. By the end of the Cold War, the worldwide atomic weapons count was over 70,000. 22) For better or worse, the beginning of the atomic age was marked on July 16, 1945. 22

Passage 22-B

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE destroyed collapsed cracked

A. NO CHANGE B. So much radiation poured into the atmosphere that 50 years later C. So much radiation gushed and poured into the atmosphere that 50 years later D. Radiation poured into the atmosphere, so much and so quickly, that 50 years later A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE sights site sites

Which choice provides the most relevant detail? A. NO CHANGE B. a total of $2 billion developing the atomic bomb C. $76 million to modify B—29 bombers to carry the bomb D. $3.3 trillion over the course of WWII A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE one fallen swoop one foul swap one fell swoop

A. NO CHANGE B. ever to be used the only nuclear weapons in warfare. C. the only nuclear weapons ever to be used in warfare. D. the only ever nuclear weapons to be used in warfare. A. NO CHANGE B. For better or worse, the start of the atomic age had been marked on July 16, 1945. C. For better or worse, the beginning of the atomic age was being marked on July 16, 1945. D. For better or worse, July 16, 1945, marked the beginning of the atomic age.


Reading

145

Passage 23-A

 Questions 33-42 are based on the following passage.

20,000 Leagues Under the Sea

This passage was excerpted from 20,000 Leagues Under the Sea. This book (1873) tells the story of three men whose ship is damaged when they find and attack the sea monster (whale) they had been looking for. Pierre Aronnax is a marine biologist and narrates the story. Conseil (French for counsel) is Arronax's servant.

5)

10)

15)

20)

25)

30)

35)

40)

45)

The next day, the 22nd of March, at six in the morning, preparations for departure were begun. The last gleams of twilight were melting into night. The cold was great, the constellations shone with wonderful intensity. In the zenith glittered that wondrous Southern Cross—the polar bear of Antarctic regions. The thermometer showed 120 below zero, and when the wind freshened it was most biting. Flakes of ice increased on the open water. The sea seemed everywhere alike. Numerous blackish patches spread on the surface, showing the formation of fresh ice. Evidently the southern basin, frozen during the six winter months, was absolutely inaccessible. What became of the whales in that time? Doubtless they went beneath the icebergs, seeking more practicable seas. As to the seals and morses [walrus], accustomed to live in a hard climate, they remained on these icy shores. These creatures have the instinct to break holes in the ice-field and to keep them open. To these holes they come for breath; when the birds, driven away by the cold, have emigrated to the north, these sea mammals remain sole masters of the polar continent. But the reservoirs were filling with water, and the Nautilus was slowly descending. At 1000 feet deep it stopped; its screw beat the waves, and it advanced straight towards the north at a speed of fifteen miles an hour. Towards night it was already floating under the immense body of the iceberg. At three in the morning I was awakened by a violent shock. I sat up in my bed and listened in the darkness, when I was thrown into the middle of the room. The Nautilus, after having struck, had rebounded violently. I groped along the partition, and by the staircase to the saloon, which was lit by the luminous ceiling. The furniture was upset. Fortunately the windows were firmly set, and had held fast. The pictures on the starboard side, from being no longer vertical, were clinging to the paper, whilst those of the port side were hanging at least a foot from the wall. The Nautilus was lying on its starboard side perfectly motionless. I heard footsteps, and a confusion of voices; but Captain Nemo did not appear. As I was leaving the saloon, Ned Land and Conseil entered.

50)

55)

60)

65)

70)

75)

85)

90)

95)

"What is the matter?" said I, at once. "I came to ask you, sir," replied Conseil. "Confound it!" exclaimed the Canadian, "I know well enough! The Nautilus has struck; and, judging by the way she lies, I do not think she will right herself as she did the first time in Torres Straits." "But," I asked, "has she at least come to the surface of the sea?" "We do not know," said Conseil. "It is easy to decide," I answered. I consulted the manometer [pressure gauge]. To my great surprise, it showed a depth of more than 180 fathoms. "What does that mean?" I exclaimed. "We must ask Captain Nemo," said Conseil. "But where shall we find him?" said Ned Land. "Follow me," said I, to my companions. We left the saloon. There was no one in the library. At the centre staircase, by the berths of the ship's crew, there was no one. I thought that Captain Nemo must be in the pilot's cage. It was best to wait. We all returned to the saloon. For twenty minutes we remained thus, trying to hear the slightest noise which might be made on board the Nautilus, when Captain Nemo entered. He seemed not to see us; his face, generally so impassive, showed signs of uneasiness. He watched the compass silently, then the manometer; and, going to the planisphere [instrument for charting the stars], placed his finger on a spot representing the southern seas. I would not interrupt him; but, some minutes later, when he turned towards me, I said, using one of his own expressions in the Torres Straits: "An incident, Captain?" "No, sir; an accident this time." "Serious?" "Perhaps." "Is the danger immediate?" "No." "The Nautilus has stranded?" "Yes." "And this has happened—how?" "From a caprice of nature, not from the ignorance of man. Not a mistake has been made in the working. But we cannot prevent equilibrium from producing its effects. We may brave human laws, but we cannot resist natural ones."


Reading 33

34

35

36

37

Which of the following is the best example of why the novel is science fiction? A. The temperature was 120 degrees below zero. B. After being hit, the ship lay still on its right (starboard) side. C. The Nautilus traveled 1000 feet below the ocean surface. D. The men on board lived comfortably on the ship.

146

38

Which detail makes the story believable even though it is science fiction? A. Charting direction by the stars B. The name of the submarine (Nautilus) C. Men trapped on a big ship D. Descriptions of monsters in the sea

39

What is the best description of the mood of the story? A. Adventurous B. Foreboding C. Festive D. Mournful

40

Which of the following statements best describes the submarine? A. It was large, with several levels and rooms, including a library. B. It was small, with cramped quarters where everyone slept. C. It had large picture windows so the men could see under the surface of the ocean. D. It was large but felt cramped because there were no windows. How does Nemo explain the cause of the submarine hitting something? A. Human error B. Supernatural force C. Rough seas D. Natural laws of the universe

41

42

Passage 23-A

What does Nemo mean when he identifies this event as an accident as opposed to an incident? A. An incident is minor, and this situation is very dangerous. B. This event was an accident caused by nature. C. The accident put the Nautilus in immediate danger. D. The incident stranded the ship because of careless work. Which part of the text illustrates that Nemo is the captain? A. Lines 50–51 ("'I know well enough'") B. Lines 44–46 ("I heard . . . not appear") C. Line 62 ("'We must' . . . said Conseil") D. Lines 55–56 ("But," I asked . . . 'the sea'") What text indicates Aronaxx's profession? A. Lines 5–7 ("In the . . . Antarctic regions") B. Lines 21–25 ("To these . . . polar continent") C. Line 29–31 ("Towards night . . . the iceberg") D. Line 58–59 ("I consulted . . . [pressure gauge]") What is the meaning of the word berth as used in line 66? A. Sleeping place B. Beginning of something new C. A kind of family D. Docking space for a ship Which of the following is the best synonym for the word caprice as used in line 91? A. Freakishness B. Inspiration C. Steady hand D. d. Unpredictable change


147

Writing

Passage 23-B

 Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. Benefits of a Liberal Arts Degree When I was a junior in high school, I had a road-

23

map to success planned out. I would attend a large fouryear university, study education, and get a teaching degree. It came as a surprise to me—and my family— when my thoughts turned away from that path and

24

settled on something less concrete. After spending two weeks at a small Midwestern liberal arts college attending a special precollege camp, my eyes were opened to the larger possibilities of education. I liked

25

being on my own, and I felt like an adult. Instead of looking at education 23) as a mean to an end, I suddenly saw education as an opportunity to build solid foundational skills in thinking and leadership that would transfer to any career field I chose to pursue. This is the philosophy that 24) lays at the heart of liberal arts education. 25) Traditionally, liberal arts education referred to any four-year university program in which students studied a broad range of subjects. The traditional goal of liberal

26

arts education was to develop well-rounded scholars and thinkers. Over time, that definition has evolved. 26) Today, the Association of American Colleges and

Universities defines a liberal arts education as "learning that empowers individuals and prepares them to deal with complexity, diversity, and change." Liberal arts education helps students develop valuable 27) skills in communication leadership and complex

problem-solving that will transfer to any twenty-firstcentury career.

27

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE as mean to an end as meant to an end as a means to an end

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE lies has laid lie

In order to make sure the essay is cohesive and focused, the author is considering deleting the last sentence. Is this a good choice? A. Yes. It introduces an irrelevant detail that does not follow the focus of the paragraph. B. Yes. While relevant, it is illogical when placed at the end of the paragraph. C. No. It elaborates on information presented and provides a useful transition to the main topic of the essay. D. No. While tangential, it provides an interesting detail that is worth keeping. The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? A. Yes, because it provides unnecessary details that are irrelevant to the focus of the paragraph. B. Yes, because this information has already been provided. C. No, because it quotes a credible source that supports the paragraph’s focus. D. No, because it introduces an important new idea. A. NO CHANGE B. skills in communication, leadership, and complex problem—solving C. skills, in communication, leadership and complex problem—solving D. skills in communication leadership, and complex problem—solving


Writing

Critics of liberal arts education believe that the

148 28

pursuit of a liberal arts degree puts students at a disadvantage in the workforce. With a greater national focus on and funding for STEM (science, technology, engineering, and math) programs, some argue that

29

workers with a degree in a STEM-related field will earn more than a worker with a liberal arts degree. This point of view is heard frequently in circles where such debates take place. However, recent data from the Association of American Colleges disproves this argument. According to the AACU data, workers with a degree in humanities and social sciences earn more, directly out of college, than workers with STEM degrees. Furthermore, 93% of employers surveyed state that they value a 28) workers ability to think critically, communicate clearly, and solve complex problems unrelated to a person's undergraduate major. 29)

30

When I was an undergrad at a liberal arts college, I was 30) coerced to take a variety of classes in fields that had nothing to do with my major. In doing so, I learned the principles of macroeconomics, the philosophies of children and young adults, the science of plate tectonics, 31) the basics of speaking German. 32) While I has little

32

need to converse in German, the critical thinking and problem-solving skills I developed when learning the language have served me well in all areas of my life. 33) It would blow your mind to know how many times

I've used that knowledge!

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE workers' worker's worker

The author would like to add one more piece of evidence to support her argument. Which choice best accomplishes that goal? A. The median earnings of engineering graduates are consistently higher than the earnings of all other degree holders. B. Workers with liberal arts degrees earn on average about $2000 more per year than those who majored as undergraduates in professional or pre—professional fields. C. The unemployment rate for liberal arts graduates is 0.04 percent higher than the rates for those with a professional or pre— professional degree. D. Graduates with liberal arts degrees are overrepresented in social services professions such as social work or counseling. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE suppressed concussed required

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE focused solely on education classes learned how to do one thing well had a lack of educational focus

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE while I have little needs while I have little need while I has little needs

31

major world religions, the psychological development of the intricacies of interpersonal communication, and

Passage 23-B

33

Which choice maintains the style and tone of the passage? A. NO CHANGE B. Would you believe it took me (such a dunce!) so long to learn something so simple? C. It totally seems obvious today, but back then I had no idea what I was doing. D. To this day, I am grateful for that all— important decision I made back in college.


Reading

149

Passage 24-A

 Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage.

Address at Rice University on the Nation's Space Effort

When John F. Kennedy (1917–1963) took office in 1961, the country was in the midst of the Cold War, heavily competing with the Soviet Union in a race to dominant space. The Soviets had already succeeded in being first to send a man into space, but President Kennedy made it clear that the United States would be the leader. He took his proposal to Congress, vowing that before the end of the decade the country would send a man to the moon and back. To many people at the time, the proposal seemed like science fiction. Killed by an assassin, the president did not live to see the country reach his goal.

… Despite the striking fact that most of the

We set sail on this new sea because there is new

scientists that the world has ever known are alive and working today, despite the fact that this 5)

knowledge to be gained, and new rights to be 40)

Nation's own scientific manpower is doubling

progress of all people. For space science, like

every 12 years in a rate of growth more than three

nuclear science and all technology, has no

times that of our population as a whole, despite

conscience of its own. Whether it will become a

that, the vast stretches of the unknown and the

force for good or ill depends on man, and only if

unanswered and the unfinished still far outstrip our

45)

collective comprehension.

ocean will be a sea of peace or a new terrifying

have come, but condense, if you will, the 50

theater of war. I do not say that we should or will

thousand years of man's recorded history in a time

go unprotected against the hostile misuse of space

span of but a half-century. Stated in these terms,

50)

hostile use of land or sea, but I do say that space

except at the end of them advanced man had

can be explored and mastered without feeding the

learned to use the skins of animals to cover [him].

fires of war, without repeating the mistakes that

emerged from his caves to construct other kinds

man has made in extending his writ around this 55)

of shelter. Only five years ago man learned to

We choose to go to the moon. We choose to go to the moon . . . (interrupted by applause) we choose

began less than two years ago. The printing press

to go to the moon in this decade and do the other

came this year, and then less than two months

things, not because they are easy, but because 60)

organize and measure the best of our energies and

of power.

skills, because that challenge is one that we are

Newton explored the meaning of gravity. Last automobiles and airplanes became available. Only

willing to accept, one we are unwilling to postpone, and one which we intend to win, and 65)

last week did we develop penicillin and television

the others, too. It is for these reasons that I regard the decision

and nuclear power, and now if America's new

last year to shift our efforts in space from low to

spacecraft succeeds in reaching Venus, we will

high gear as among the most important decisions

have literally reached the stars before midnight tonight. This is a breathtaking pace, and such a pace cannot help but create new ills as it dispels 35)

they are hard, because that goal will serve to

history, the steam engine provided a new source

month electric lights and telephones and

30)

globe of ours. . . .

write and use a cart with wheels. Christianity

ago, during this whole 50-year span of human 25)

any more than we go unprotected against the

we know very little about the first 40 years,

Then about 10 years ago, under this standard, man

20)

the United States occupies a position of preeminence can we help decide whether this new

No man can fully grasp how far and how fast we

10)

15)

won, and they must be won and used for the

old, new ignorance, new problems, new dangers. Surely the opening vistas of space promise high costs and hardships, as well as high reward. . . . -

that will be made during my incumbency in the 70)

office of the Presidency.


Reading 43

44

45

46

What is the most likely reason that Kennedy gave this speech? a. To tell the public about the space program b. To warn the public that the Soviets were ahead of the United States in the space race c. To tell Congress to fund science and math d. To tie making advances in science to the Cold War Which of the following best represents the theme of the speech? A. Science is moving at a very fast pace, and the United States is falling behind the Soviet Union. B. The United States has the capacity to put a man on the moon and become the world leader in the new frontier of space exploration. C. New scientific investigation of space exploration is the most important issue of our time. D. We must put a man on the moon within the next decade.

150 47

48

Why does Kennedy talk about condensing time in paragraphs 2 and 3? A. To show how science has advanced civilization throughout human history and landing a man on the moon will continue on that same path B. To remind people that the most progress has been made in the most recent years of human civilization C. To compare progress now with progress in the past D. To illustrate what a time capsule can do when applied to science

49

Why did President Kennedy think the United States could meet what seemed like an impossible goal? A. He believed that we had the best scientific community in the world. B. He thought that if all of the scientists in the United States worked together, they could beat the Soviet Union to the moon. C. He believed the growth of our scientific community and the natural quest for exploration of the unknown would lead to success. D. He thought the pace of scientific advancement would naturally produce the ability to go to the moon.

51

50

52

Passage 24-A

What argument does Kennedy use to support the idea that the space program for a moon landing will determine the future of the United States? A. The rapid increase in American scientists working toward a moon landing will decrease the Soviet threat. B. Pure science has no loyalty to nations, so whoever finds a solution first will emerge the new world leader. C. The United States will win the Cold War and lead the world because Americans have always been bound by hard work. D. The United States has to be number one in order to determine whether space exploration will proceed peacefully or involve wars. What is the effect of the use of repetition of specific words and phrases in Kennedy's speech? A. It ensures that the public understands his points. B. It emphasizes his ideas and helps inspire the audience. C. It proves that he knows the subject. D. It shows that idioms are useful for communicating important ideas. Which line indicates that Kennedy wanted to make space the "new frontier"? A. Lines 10–13 ("No man . . . a half-century") B. Lines 38–41 ("We set . . . all people") C. Lines 43–48 ("Whether it . . . of war") D. Lines 56–65 ("We choose . . . others, too") Which of the following shows that Kennedy thinks space travel is a high priority for the country? A. Lines 56–65 ("We choose . . . others, too") B. Lines 43–48 ("Whether it . . . of war") C. Lines 33–35 ("This is . . . new dangers") D. Lines 38–41 ("We set . . . all people") What is the best definition of the word theater as used in line 48? A. A place where dramas are performed B. A room for assemblies of people for a specific purpose C. A place where war games are played D. An area where battles take place Which is the best definition of the word writ as used in line 54? A. Legal influence B. Written documents C. Power granted by an order D. Written permission


Writing

151

Passage 24-B

 Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage. Concussions and Young Athletes Each year, almost 300,000 sport-related injuries are 34 reported. The majority of these injuries are concussions. Concussions are a form of traumatic brain injury that occurs when a sudden blow or jolt to the head causes the brain to rock back and forth, altering the way that the brain functions. 34) Between the ages of 15–24, concussions are the second leading cause of traumatic brain injury in young adults in the United States. New

35

studies are underway investigating the link between concussions and long-term brain disease. According to information from the Sports and

36

Fitness Industry Association, participation in youth sports is on the decline, 35) rising 11% over the last 10 years. The leading factor in decreased participation is, says ESPN, a concern over injury. While steps have been put in place to protect young players from traumatic brain injury, many experts agree that more needs to be done. 36 37) [1] Part of the dilemma in youth sports has

always been the proper training of coaches, many of whom are volunteers. [2] Few states have certification requirements for youth sports coaches, and studies have found that many volunteer coaches have little knowledge of sports safety. [3] Most observers agree that training

37

youth coaches better would greatly help young athletes. [4] As a result, some concerned policy makers believe that certification and training should be 38) optional for all youth coaches. 38

A. NO CHANGE B. Concussions are the leading second cause of traumatic brain injury in young adults in the United States between the ages of 15–24. C. In the United States, between the ages of 15–24, concussions are the leading second cause of traumatic brain injury in young adults. D. In the United States, concussions are the second leading cause of traumatic brain injury in young adults between the ages of 15–24.

Which choice provides information that best supports the claims made by this sentence and paragraph? A. NO CHANGE B. dropping 4% in five years C. increasing since the early 2000s D. but recovering steadily over the last 4 years The author would like to add one more piece of relevant support to this paragraph. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A. According to a Boston University study, former NFL players who played tackle football as young children were more likely to have thinking and memory problems as adults. B. The LA84 Foundation added criteria to its grant application stating that it would no longer provide support to community organizations that offered tackle football before age 9. C. The New York City Council on Friday held a public hearing over a proposal to require doctors to be present at all youth games, and trainers or doctors at all full—contact practices. D. From 2008 to 2013, the number of children ages 6 to 12 participating regularly in football fell 29 percent to 1.3 million, according to the Sports and Fitness Industry Association. In order to improve the logic of this paragraph, this sentence should be placed A. where it is now. B. after sentence 2. C. after sentence 3. D. after sentence 4.

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE offered to presented to mandatory for


152

Writing

39) Training programs for youth sports coaches are

now being offered by many colleges and universities. Critics argue that volunteer coaches have neither time nor money to participate in these programs. 40) However: formal college training is unnecessary in the implementation of a certification program—there are viable alternatives. In an effort to address this issue, the Centers for Disease Control has 41) compelled a training booklet for youth football coaches that contains valuable information about recognizing and responding to possible traumatic brain injuries. The booklet notes that coaches should look for the following concussion symptoms in young athletes: glassy eyes, confusion, lack of balance and coordination, mood changes, and 42) improved focus. The CDC also offers a five-step reintegration process for coaches to follow when bringing athletes back to the playing field following a concussion. The process begins with light aerobic activity and moves into heavier noncontact physical activity before allowing a participant to fully engage in the sports process. In order to protect youth sports participants from traumatic brain injury, parents must take a proactive role as well. It is imperative that any player who suffers a possible concussion be immediately evaluated by a trained medical professional. For most athletes, symptoms disappear within ten days of the concussion. However, it is not uncommon for symptoms— 43) a bad headache, feeling fatigue, and getting dizzy—to last for several months. Parents must be advocates for their young athletes and make sure their children get the immediate and long-term care required. 44)

31 and over 24-30 19-23

14-18

31 and over

24-30

19-23 14-18

6-10 1-15

6-10 1-15

39

40

41

42

43

44

Passage 24-B

A. NO CHANGE B. Many colleges and universities are now offering training programs for youth sports coaches. C. Many colleges and universities to youth sports coaches are now offering training programs. D. Training programs for youth sports coaches are among programs being offered by many colleges and universities. A. NO CHANGE B. However, formal college training is unnecessary in the implementation of a certification program—there are viable alternatives. C. However—formal college training is unnecessary in the implementation of a certification program, there are viable alternatives. D. However; formal college training is unnecessary in the implementation of a certification program; there are viable alternatives. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE complied compiled compulsed

Which choice gives another supporting example that is most similar to the examples already in the sentence? A. NO CHANGE B. heavy coughing C. existing diseases D. memory loss A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE a headache, feeling fatigue and getting dizzy like headaches, fatigue, and dizziness like headaches, fatigue, and feeling dizzy

The author would like to add relevant and accurate support from the graph to her essay. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A. 6— to 18—year—olds account for more than 20% of all non—sports—related concussions. B. Adults 31 and over account for 46.3% of all non— sports—related concussions. C. Adults 31 and over account for less than 10% of all sports—related concussions. D. 6— to 18—year—olds account for more than 80% of all sports—related concussions.


Reading

153

Passage 25-A

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is adapted from, “An Introduction to the Prose and Poetical Works of John Milton” by Hiram Corson. Originally published in 2014.

An Introduction to the Prose and Poetical Works of John Milton John Milton’s prose works are perhaps not read, at the present day, to the extent demanded by their great and varied merits. Some of his poetical works are extensively “studied” in the schools, and a somewhat (5) reasonable stab at the study of some of his prose works is made in departments of rhetoric, but his prose works cannot be said to be read in the best sense of the word,—that is, with all faculties focused upon the subject-matter as one of major importance, with an (10) openness of heart, and with an accompanying interest in the general loftiness of Milton’s diction. In short, everyone should train himself or herself to read any great author with the fullest loyalty to the author— by which is not meant that all the author’s thoughts, (15) opinions and beliefs are to be accepted, but that what they really are be adequately apprehended. In other words, loyalty to an author means that every reader fully attempt to understand and receive the work’s intended meaning and spirit. (20) Mark Pattison, in his Life of Milton, while fully recognizing the grand features of the prose works as monuments of the English language, undervalues, or rather does not value at all, Milton’s services to the cause of political and religious liberty as a polemic prose (25) writer, and considers it a thing to be much regretted that he engaged at all in the great contest for political, religious, and other forms of liberty. This seems to be the one unacceptable feature of his very able life of the poet. Looking upon the life of Milton the (30) politician merely as a sad and ignominious interlude in the life of Milton the poet, Pattison cannot be expected to entertain the idea that the poem is in any sense the work of the politician. Yet we cannot help thinking that the tension and elevation which Milton’s (35) nature had undergone in the mighty struggle, together with the heroic dedication of his faculties to the most serious objects, must have had not a little to do both with the final choice of his subject and with the tone of his poems.

(40) Milton’s great Puritan poetry could hardly have been written by anyone but a militant Puritan. Milton was writing prose when, some think, he should have been writing poetry, and, as Pattison claims, these works of Milton had no influence (45) whatsoever on current events. But they certainly had an influence, and a very great influence, on current events not many years after. The restoration of Charles II did not mean that the work of Puritanism was undone, and that Milton’s pamphlets were to be (50) of no effect. It was in a large measure due to that work and to those pamphlets that in a few years—only fourteen after Milton’s death—the constitutional basis of the monarchy underwent a radical change for the better,—a change which would have been a great (55) pleasure to Milton, if he could have lived to see it. A man constituted as Milton was could not have kept himself apart from the great conflicts of his time. Although the direct subjects of his polemic prose works may not hold a huge interest for the general (60) reader in the present-day, they are all, independently of their subjects, charged with inherent truth and as profoundly expressive as his poetry. All of Milton’s work, both poetry and prose, are full of bright gems of enduring truth.


Reading

154

1. The main purpose of the first paragraph is A. to describe a failure to appreciate Milton’s prose. B. to explain how readers can understand what an author intends. C. to criticize Pattison for missing the importance Milton’s politics had on his poetry. D. to explain the lasting impact and value of Milton prose. 2. Why does the author use quotation marks around the word “studied” in line 4? A. To show that most English teachers are not qualified for their positions. B. To explain why Milton is little understood by the general public. C. To indicate students rarely complete their homework on poets such as Milton. D. To emphasize the incompleteness with which Milton is understood and examined. 3. As used in the first sentence of paragraph 2, “polemic” most nearly means A. having an intricate or exquisite quality. B. contrary and difficult by nature. C. socially engaged in activism. D. incongruously political. 4. Which sentence best represents the author’s criticism of Mark Pattison’s work? A. Line 20-24 (“Mark…liberty.”) B. Line 27-30 (“This…politician.”) C. Line 33-39 (“Yet…poems.”) D. Line 40-45 (“Milton’s…events.”) 5. The author included the sentence, “But they ----- after” lines 45-47 in order to A. refute the sentence immediately before it. B. change to a new topic before ending the essay. C. praise the far-reaching impact of Pattison’s work. D. introduce a criticism that has not yet been discussed.

Passage 25-A

6. The primary purpose of this passage is to A. compare Milton’s poetry to his prose works, and emphasize the latent value of the latter. B. decry the unwarranted criticism Milton’s prose works have received. C. recommend a reevaluation of Milton’s prose works by Pattison and similar scholars. D. criticize Pattison’s interpretation of Milton’s motives and emphasize the true value of his prose work. 7. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s interpretation of Pattison’s work on Milton? A. It does not appreciate Milton’s writing. B. It is regrettable and ignominious. C. It is impressive but inadequate. D. It fails to consider both Milton’s poetical and prose contributions. 8. The author of the passage implies all of the following about Milton EXCEPT A. Milton’s polemical writing favored the ideals of the Puritan movement. B. Milton’s interest in polemic prose did not influence his poetry. C. Milton was actively engaged in the politics of his day. D. Milton likely opposed monarchism and totalitarian rule. 9. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A. Lines 33-39 (“Yet…poems.”) B. Lines 42-47 (“Milton…after.”) C. Lines 47-55 (“The restoration…it.”) D. Lines 56-62 (“A man…poetry.”) 10. As used in paragraph 3, the word “constituted” most nearly means A. with a repetitive behavioral pattern. B. initiated in a particular manner. C. with a certain composition. D. in a position of leadership.


155

Writing

Passage 25-B

Writing and Language Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. The Bureau of Labor Statistics The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) provides information about education and training requirements for hundreds of occupations. The BLS uses a system to assign categories for entry-level education, work experience in a related occupation, and typical on-the-job training to each occupation for which BLS publishes projections data. (1) The assignments allow BLS to group occupations in order to create estimates of the outlook for occupations with various types of education and training needs. This classification system (2) were first used with the 2010–20 projections and replaced an earlier system that (3) was used between 1995 and 2008. (4) The two systems are not comparable. BLS assigns occupations to a designation within three categories: (5) typical entry-level education, work experience in a related occupation, and typical on-thejob training. The categories and assignments within each are as follows: Typical education needed for entry—represents the typical education level most workers need to enter an occupation. The assignments for this category are the following: • Doctoral or professional degree • (6) Masters degree, Bachelors degree, or Associates degree • Postsecondary non-degree award • Some college, no degree • High school diploma or equivalent • No formal educational credential

1.

Which choice best maintains the sentence pattern already established in the paragraph? A. NO CHANGE B. The BLS allows the assignments to group occupations and to create estimates of the outlook for occupations with various types of education and training needs. C. The BLS groups occupations using these assignments in order to create estimates of the outlook for occupations with various types of education and training needs. D. In order to create estimates of the outlook for occupations with various types of education and training needs, BLS uses the assignments to group occupations 2. A. NO CHANGE B. had been first used C. were used first D. was first used 3. A. NO CHANGE B. were C. is D. are 4. Which choice results in the most effective transition to the information that follows in the paragraph? A. NO CHANGE B. The Labor Bureau does not frequently change its classification system, but when it does, there has always been a significant need for the change. C. Grouping occupations is important in order to give analysts the ability to make sense of such a large amount of data. D. DELETE the underlined portion. 5. A. NO CHANGE B. typical entry-level education, related-occupation work experience, and typical on-the-job training C. entry-level education that is typical, work experience in a related occupation, and typical on-the-job training D. entry-level typical education, occupationally related work experience, and on-the-job training that is typical

6.

A. NO CHANGE B. Masters’ degree, Bachelors’ degree, or Associates’ degree C. Master’s degree, Bachelor’s degree, or Associate’s degree D. Masters’, Bachelors’, or Associates’ degrees


Writing

156

Work experience in a related occupation—indicates (7) if work experience in a related occupation are commonly considered necessary by employers for entry into the occupation, and are a commonly accepted substitute for formal types of training. The assignments for this category are the following: • 5 years or more • Less than 5 years • None Typical on-the-job training—indicates the typical on-the-job training needed to attain competency in the skills needed in the occupation. The assignments for this category are the following: • Internship/residency • Apprenticeship • Long-term on-the-job training: more than 12 months • Moderate-term on the job training: more than 1 month (8) and also up to 12 months • Short-term on-the-job training: 1 month or less • None

7.

8.

9.

10.

In some cases, assigning education and training categories can be straightforward. Some occupations, such as physicians and lawyers, are governed by federal and state laws and regulations that give clear guidelines, regarding the education or training required for a given occupation. (9) Similarly, the choice of categories is less clear. BLS economists determine the typical path to entry for an occupation and apply it across all three categories. The education categories in the table presented here reflect only the highest level of education attained. (10) They do not take into account completion of training programs in the form of apprenticeships and other on-the-job training, which may also influence earnings and unemployment rates. (11)

Passage 25-B

11.

A. NO CHANGE B. whether or not work experience in a related occupation is commonly considered necessary by employers for entry into the occupation, or commonly are a C. whether work experience in a related occupation is considered, by employers, necessary for entry into the occupation, or commonly is a D. if work experience in a related occupation is commonly considered necessary by employers for entry into the occupation, or is a commonly A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE and up to 12 months and also up to 12 months or a year or up to 12 months or a year

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE For instance In other cases Furthermore

The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted? A. Kept, because it provides additional information about the graphic provided that is necessary for its interpretation. B. Kept, because it provides significant details about how the BLS categorizes its data. C. Deleted, because it doesn’t give specific examples of how the education data is gathered and organized. D. Deleted, because it does not relate to any other part of the passage. Which of the following sentences are accurate based on the data provided in the graphic? A. More doctors were employed in 2014 than individuals with only a high school diploma. B. People with an associate’s degree had a median income that was less than half that of people with a professional degree in 2014. C. Among individuals 25 years old and under, people with some college but no degree had a higher rate of unemployment than people with bachelor’s degrees. D. Individuals with a high school diploma were less unemployed than individuals with some college but no degree.


Reading

157

Passage 26-A

Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage. Markets The earliest markets were established on the borders between tribes, villages, or nations as a common ground where strangers met to trade. At such markets were brought together from sparsely settled districts a (5) comparatively large number of merchants and customers. Buyers had the opportunity of wide selection both in goods and quality, and the sellers found a large number of customers gathered at one point. Throughout the Middle Ages, purchases were made by the more (10) prosperous farmers in great quantities once a year at the fairs or markets. As both the buyers and sellers came from widely separated places, there existed in most respects, the conditions of a competitive market. The number of buyers and sellers that can constitute (15) a single market is limited both directly and indirectly by the means of transportation. A dense population cannot usually be maintained without easy means of transportation to bring in a large supply of goods and to carry back manufactured goods great distances. The (20) remarkable growth in the means of commerce since the invention of the wheel, and much later, the railroad, made it possible for goods to be gathered from extremely distant points. A market implies a common understanding Q. 13 among traders. Q. 12 (25) Modern means of communication, such as newspapers, television, the Internet, e-mail, are diffusing information widely. As a result of these changes, there has been a widening of the traditional village-market to the Q. 11 markets of the province, of the nation, and finally of the (30) world. While a part of every one’s purchases Q. 16 continues to be made within a local neighborhood, a Q. 17 greater and greater portion of total business is done by traders who are widely separated and who are members of the world market. Various articles produced in the same (35) locality may seek different markets. If a given product of any community is sold in different markets, the net Q. 14 prices secured must be very nearly equal. “Normal price” is the price which, apart from exceptional conditions, is expected to prevail, and to (40) which actual prices seem constantly striving to adjust themselves. As actual prices are nearly always either more or less than so-called normal price, and only momentarily ever correspond with it, the term “normal” would appear

to be something of a misnomer. Moreover, as the (45) circumstances of production change, this normal price itself is altered so that what is normal one day may be quite abnormal the next. The thought of “normal price” is an abstract one, but despite the inadequacy of the word it is not without some (50) practical validity in today’s world market.


Reading

158

11. With which of the following statements would the author of the passage most likely agree? A. Normal prices are predictably variable. B. Population density is a direct result of easy transportation of goods. C. Markets are steadily widening through the improvement of means of communication and transportation. D. The markets of the Middle Ages were just as competitive as today’s world markets. 12. According to the passage, all of the following are true about a market except? A. They are more competitive when a variety of consumers and producers are present. B. The number of its buyers and sellers is directly proportional to the ability to transport goods. C. It primarily represents a physical location for conducting trade. D. No matter how wide the world market grows, consumers will still purchase some goods locally. 13. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A. Lines 23-24 (“A market…traders.”) B. Lines 25-27 (“Modern…widely.”) C. Lines 27-30 (“As…world.”) D. Lines 30-34 (“While…market.”) 14. As used in line 35, “locality” most nearly means A. specific jurisdiction. B. general vicinity. C. similar state. nearby D. adjacent region. 15. Which of the following is the function of the fourth paragraph? A. Reveal the relationship between two common business terms. B. Describe the conditions of the earliest markets. C. Define an aspect of the market economy that prevailed in the past. D. Explore the connotation of a certain economic phrase.

Passage 26-A

16. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the author’s description of locally produced products in the modern world market? A. Farmers sell their wheat to large buyers in distant cities, while they sell their fruit and eggs in the village near their farm. B. Niche toy producers sell the vast majority of their products via Amazon and eBay. C. Military contracts once awarded to private armies are now available to governments worldwide. D. Independent music artists who once sold their cassette tapes and CD demos after shows now sell their music to a wider audience via iTunes. 17. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A. Lines 20 --- 24 (“The…traders.”) B. Lines 25 --- 27 (“Modern…widely.”) C. Lines 27 --- 35 (“As…markets.”) D. Lines 35 --- 37 (“If…equal.”) 18. Based on the two graphics provided, what inference can be drawn between population growth and world trade? A. Trade had a significant effect on population growth. (Reversed) B. Trade and population growth are directly proportional. C. Population growth had a significant effect on trade expansion. D. Trade and population growth are inversely proportional. 19. Which of the following is true about the first graph? A. It shows that between 1000 and 1500, China’s economic growth remained relatively stagnant. B. It shows that the GDP per capita for the U.S. in 1800 was more than twice that of China in 1800. C. It shows the GDP per capita for Eastern Europe in 1700 was more than three times that of India in the same year. D. It shows that Western European economic growth expanded more quickly than that of China and Japan during 1600-1800. 20. At the point in time where the “?” symbol appears on the second graphic, what portion of the world had the lowest GDP per capita? A. United States B. Japan C. Eastern Europe D. India


159

Writing

Passage 26-B

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. Basquiat: A Springboard to Deeper Truths Jean-Michel Basquiat (12) begins as a graffiti artist

12.

in the Lower East Side of Manhattan, New York City in the late 1970s. His father, Gerard Basquiat, was born in Port-au-Prince, Haiti, and his mother, Matilde

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE had begun did begin began

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE Basquiat, of Afro-Puerto Rican descent, was born Basquiat was born of Afro-Puerto Rican descent Basquiat of Afro-Puerto Rican descent had been born

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE and was taking him by taking him for she took him

13.

(13) Basquiat of Afro-Puerto Rican descent was born in Brooklyn, New York. Matilde instilled a love for art in her young son (14) and did take him to art museums in Manhattan and enrolling him as a junior member of the

14.

Brooklyn Museum of Art. Basquiat was a precocious (15) child who learned how to read and write by age four and was a gifted artist. His teachers noticed his

15. A. NO CHANGE B. child, who learned how to read and write by age four, C. child who, by the age of four, had learned how to read and write D. child and learned how to read and write by age four

artistic abilities, and his mother encouraged her son’s artistic talent. In September 1968, when he was about 8, (16) a car hit Basquiat while playing in the street. His arm was broken ; he suffered several internal

16. A. NO CHANGE B. Basquiat was hit by a car while playing in the street; and his arm was broken C. a car hit Basquiat while it was playing in the street; his arm was broken D. Basquiat was hit by a car while playing in the street. His arm was broken

injuries, and he eventually underwent a splenectomy. (17) Although he was recuperating from his injuries, his mother brought him the Gray’s Anatomy book to keep him occupied. This book would prove to be influential in his future artistic outlook. When he was 11, his mother was committed to a mental institution. At 15, Basquiat ran away from home. He slept on park benches in Washington Square Park.

17. Which choice results in the most effective transition to the information that follows in the paragraph? A. Although B. While C. Since D. Despite the fact that


Writing

160

Beginning his career as a graffiti artist, Basquiat

18. A. NO CHANGE B. 1981; yet by 1982, spurred by the NeoExpressionist art boom C. 1981. By 1982, it was spurred by the NeoExpressionist art boom D. 1981, and 1982; spurred by Neo-Expressionist art boom

often incorporated words into his paintings. He produced punk-inspired postcards for sale on the street, and became known for the political–poetical graffiti under the name of SAMO. Basquiat sold his first painting in (18) 1981; by 1982, spurred by the NeoExpressionist art boom, his work was in great demand. By the mid-1980s, his work was exhibited

19.

internationally in galleries and museums, and (19) were labelled Neo-expressionist and Primitivist paintings. Basquiat’s art focused on “suggestive dichotomies,” such as wealth versus poverty, integration versus segregation, and (20) inner appropriated poetry, drawing and painting, and married 21.

historical information mixed with contemporary critique. Basquiat used social commentary in his paintings as a “springboard to deeper truths about the individual”, (21) as well as attacking on power structures and systems of racism. On February 10, 1985, he appeared on the cover of The New York Times Magazine in a feature entitled “New Art, New Money: The Marketing of an American Artist”. He was a success, but his growing heroin addiction began to (22) intersperse with his personal relationships. Basquiat died of a heroin overdose at the age of 27 in 1988. In 1992 the Whitney Museum of American Art held a retrospective of Basquiat’s art.

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE would was is

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE experience that is inner with outer inner experience versus outer experience inner versus outer experience

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE as well as attacks and additionally attacking but also attacks

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE augment interfere befuddle

20.

experiences as opposed to outer ones. Basquiat text and image, abstraction and figuration, and

Passage 26-B

22.


Reading

161

Passage 27-A

Questions 21-31 are based on the following passage. The House of Mirth Selden paused in surprise. In the afternoon rush of the Grand Central Station his eyes had been refreshed by the sight of Miss Lily Bart. It was a Monday in early September, and he was (5) returning to his work from a hurried dip into the country; but what was Miss Bart doing in town at that season? If she had appeared to be catching a train, he might have inferred that he had come on her in the act of transition between one and another of the country-houses which disputed her (10) presence after the close of the Newport season; but her desultory air perplexed him. She stood apart from the crowd, letting it drift by her to the platform or the street, and wearing an air of irresolution which might, as he surmised, be the mask of a very definite purpose. It struck him at once that (15) she was waiting for someone, but he hardly knew why the idea arrested him. There was nothing new about Lily Bart, yet he could never see her without a faint movement of interest: it was characteristic of her that she always roused speculation, that her simplest acts seemed the result of far(20) reaching intentions. An impulse of curiosity made him turn out of his direct line to the door, and stroll past her. He knew that if she did not wish to be seen she would contrive to elude him; and it amused him to think of putting her skill to the test. (25) “Mr. Selden—what good luck!” She came forward smiling, eager almost, in her resolve to intercept him. One or two persons, in brushing past them, lingered to look; for Miss Bart was a figure to arrest even the suburban traveller rushing to his last train. (30) Selden had never seen her more radiant. Her vivid head, relieved against the dull tints of the crowd, made her more conspicuous than in a ball-room, and under her dark hat and veil she regained the girlish smoothness, the purity of tint, that she was beginning to lose after eleven years of late (35) hours and indefatigable dancing. Was it really eleven years, Selden found himself wondering, and had she indeed reached the nine-and-twentieth birthday with which her rivals credited her? “What luck!” she repeated. “How nice of you to come (40) to my rescue!” He responded joyfully that to do so was his mission in life, and asked what form the rescue was to take. “Oh, almost any—even to sitting on a bench and talking to me. One sits out a cotillion—why not sit out a train? It isn’t (45) a bit hotter here than in Mrs. Van Osburgh’s conservatory—and some of the women are not a bit uglier.” She broke off, laughing, to explain that she had come up to town from Tuxedo, on her way to the Gus Trenors’ at Bellomont, and had missed the three-fifteen train to (50) Rhinebeck. “And there isn’t another till half-past five.” She consulted the little jewelled watch among her laces. “Just two hours to wait. And I don’t know what to do with myself. My maid came up this morning to do some shopping

for me, and was to go on to Bellomont at one o’clock, and my aunt’s house is closed, and I don’t know a soul in town.” She (55) glanced plaintively about the station. “It IS hotter than Mrs. Van Osburgh’s, after all. If you can spare the time, do take me somewhere for a breath of air.” He declared himself entirely at her disposal: the adventure struck him as diverting. As a spectator, he had (60) always enjoyed Lily Bart; and his course lay so far out of her orbit that it amused him to be drawn for a moment into the sudden intimacy which her proposal implied. “Shall we go over to Sherry’s for a cup of tea?” She smiled assentingly, and then made a slight grimace. (65) “So many people come up to town on a Monday—one is sure to meet a lot of bores. I’m as old as the hills, of course, and it ought not to make any difference; but if I’M old enough, you’re not,” she objected gaily. “I’m dying for tea— but isn’t there a quieter place?” (70) He answered her smile, which rested on him vividly. Her discretions interested him almost as much as her imprudences: he was so sure that both were part of the same carefully-elaborated plan. In judging Miss Bart, he had always made use of the “argument from design.” (75) “The resources of New York are rather meagre,” he said; “but I’ll find a hansom first, and then we’ll invent something.” He led her through the throng of returning holiday-makers, past sallow-faced girls in preposterous hats, and flat-chested women struggling with paper bundles and (80) palm-leaf fans. Was it possible that she belonged to the same race? The dinginess, the crudity of this average section of womanhood made him feel how highly specialized she was. A rapid shower had cooled the air, and clouds still hung refreshingly over the moist street. (85) “How delicious! Let us walk a little,” she said as they emerged from the station. They turned into Madison Avenue and began to stroll northward. As she moved beside him, with her long light step, Selden was conscious of taking a luxurious pleasure in her (90) nearness: in the modelling of her little ear, the crisp upward wave of her hair—was it ever so slightly brightened by art?—and the thick planting of her straight black lashes. Everything about her was at once vigorous and exquisite, at once strong and fine. He had a confused sense that she must (95) have cost a great deal to make, that a great many dull and ugly people must, in some mysterious way, have been sacrificed to produce her. He was aware that the qualities distinguishing her from the herd of her sex were chiefly external: as though a fine glaze of beauty and fastidiousness (100) had been applied to vulgar clay. Yet the analogy left him unsatisfied, for a coarse texture will not take a high finish; and was it not possible that the material was fine, but that circumstance had fashioned it into a futile shape?


Reading 21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

162

As used in line 2, the word “refreshed” most nearly means A. recalled. B. reiterated. C. recalibrated. D. reinvigorated. Over the course of the passage, the main focus of the narrative shifts from the A. curiosity a character has about a person he has just run into to a growing fondness the character has for that person’s beauty. B. annoyance a character feels about the volatile nature of another character to the character’s recognition of the common ground between the two characters. C. nervousness a character feels regarding another person to the character’s concern that that their romantic feelings are not reciprocated. D. value a character attaches to the wonders of the natural world to a rejection of that sort of beauty in favor of human artistry. In the context of the passage, the author’s use of the sentence, “There was nothing new about Lily Bart,” (Line 16) is primarily meant to convey the idea that A. Lily Bart’s income doesn’t allow her to keep up with the latest fashions. B. Lily Bart is twenty-nine years old, and older than most of Selden’s peers. C. Selden and Lily have been acquaintances for some time. D. Lily’s manner and behavior has a timeless quality in Selden’s eyes. The description in the second paragraph indicates that what Selden values most about Lily is her A. physical attractiveness. B. ability to incite curiosity. C. kind and generous nature. D. way of standing out in a crowd.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A. Lines 1-5 (“Selden…season?”) B. Lines 6-11 (“If…perplexed him.”) C. Lines 11-16 (”She…arrested him.”) D. Lines 16-20 (“There…intentions.”) 26. The author includes the following detail: “it amused him to think of putting her skill to the test” (paragraph 3) in order to A. indicate Lily has some experience in avoiding unwanted conversations. B. imply Lily has had numerous suitors in the past. C. reveal Lily has snubbed Selden on previous occasions. D. show Lily has a strong and stubborn sense of pride.

Passage 27-A 27. What is implied by the author’s inclusion of the detail, “she regained the girlish smoothness, the purity of tint, that she was beginning to lose after eleven years of late hours and indefatigable dancing” (Lines 33-35)? A. Though attractive, Lily Bart was not as energetic and youthful as she had been. B. Lily’s skin and hair were as smooth as Selden had remembered them to be years earlier. C. Selden had not seen Lily for eleven years. D. Lily had been participating in the social activities of high society for quite some time. 28.

The author’s statement that, “his course lay so far out of her orbit,” (Lines 60-61) mainly has which effect? A. It explains why Selden has not run into Lily in several years. B. It describes how inferior Selden feels in relation to Lily. C. It shows they do not live in the same neighborhood in London. D. It reveals that they move in different social circles.

29. Based on the details from the passage, who are the Trenors? A. Members of Lily’s social class. B. Personal friends of Selden. C. London acquaintances of both Lily and Selden. D. Members of Lily’s extended family. 30. Why does Selden say, “”The resources of New York are rather meagre…but I’ll find a hansom first, and then we’ll invent something” (Lines 75-77)? A. Selden is frustrated with the speed of the city’s public transportation. B. Selden is making a joke for Lily’s benefit. C. Selden is confident is his ability to impress Lily. D. There is nowhere close by where they can have tea. 31.

The final sentence of the passage (Lines 100-104) foreshadows A. the theory that Selden may see Lily’s true nature better than most of her peers. B. the marriage proposal that Selden will eventually make towards Lily. C. the idea that despite Lily’s alluring qualities, they may not lead her to a happy life. D. the notion that Lily’s interior life may not be as captivating as her exterior features.


163

Writing

Passage 27-B

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. The History of Blue Laws (23) 23 [1] The first occurrence of the phrase “blue law” is in the New-York Mercury of March 3, 1755, where the writer imagines a future newspaper praising the revival of “our Connecticut’s old Blue Laws”. [2] In his 1781 book General History of (24) Connecticut—the Reverend Samuel Peters used it to describe various laws first

23. To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 1 should be placed A. where it is now B. after sentence 2 C. after sentence 3 D. at the beginning of the second paragraph 24. A. NO CHANGE B. Connecticut the C. Connecticut; the D. Connecticut, the

enacted by Puritan colonies in the 17th century that prohibited various (25) activities, recreational, as well as commercial, on Sunday. [3] Sometimes the sale of

25. A. NO CHANGE B. activities, recreational as well as commercial, C. activities: recreational as well as commercial D. activities—recreational as well as commercial,

certain types of merchandise was prohibited, and in some cases all retail and business activity. (26) Not all Americans greeted these

26. A. NO CHANGE B. Blue laws contributed to the emergence of an American political tradition—minority-rights politics—which forces Americans to consider whether the majority should always rule. C. Contrary to popular belief, there is no evidence that blue laws were originally printed on blue paper. D. Some individuals claimed that blue laws violated the protections of religious liberty enshrined in state and national constitutions.

developments with enthusiasm; numerous shopkeepers and tavern-owners blatantly stayed open on Sundays and ignored the blue laws. Rather, the word blue was used in the 17th century as a disparaging reference to rigid moral codes and those who observed them. This is also the origin of the word, “blue-stocking,” meaning an individual with a strict personal code. (27)

27. The writer wants to add a sentence with additional information on the origin of the word “blue” to this paragraph. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A. Blue laws continued to be popular well into the 20th century. B. Rooted in the basic Christian tenet that Sunday is to be reserved as “the Lord’s day,” blue laws were originally enacted across the United States to encourage church attendance. C. The first blue law, although not called that at the time, was enacted in colonial Virginia in 1610. D. Another etymological possibility is the similarly called “Bloody Laws” of medieval England.


Writing

164

Southern and mid-western states also passed numerous laws to protect Sunday during the mid to late 19th (28) century. Laws targeted numerous (29) groups including saloon owners, Jews, Seventh-day Adventists, as well as non-religious people. These Sunday laws enacted at the state and local levels (30) would sometimes carry penalties for doing non-religious

Passage 27-B

28. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion? A. century; laws that targeted B. century laws, but targeted C. century, targeting D. century; from targeting laws 29. A. NO CHANGE B. groups; including C. groups including, D. groups such as

activities on Sunday as part of an effort to enforce religious observance and church attendance. Numerous people were arrested for playing cards, baseball, and even fixing wagon wheels on Sunday. In Texas, for

30. A. NO CHANGE B. did sometimes carry C. had sometimes carried D. were sometimes carrying

example, blue laws prohibited selling housewares such as pots, pans, and washing machines on Sunday until 1985. In the United States, the U.S. Supreme Court

31. A. NO CHANGE B. has held blue laws C. was holding blue laws D. were holding blue laws

(31) have held blue laws as constitutional numerous times due to secular rationales, even though the original rationales for the blue laws were religious in nature. The Supreme Court of the United States held in its landmark

32. A. NO CHANGE B. basis, promoting C. basis and to promote D. basis, while promoting

case, McGowan v. Maryland (1961), that Maryland’s blue laws violated neither the Free Exercise Clause nor the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment to the United States Constitution. It approved the state’s blue law restricting commercial activities on Sunday, noting that while such laws originated to encourage attendance at Christian churches, the contemporary Maryland laws were intended to serve “to provide a uniform day of rest for all citizens” on a secular (32) basis and promoting the secular values of “health, safety, recreation, and general well-being” through a common day of rest. (33)

33. The writer wants to conclude the passage with a sentence that emphasizes the enduring legacy of the blue laws. Which choice would best accomplish this goal? A. Today, 38 states permit Sunday retail sales of distilled spirits products. B. Interestingly, other states continue to limit other commercial activity, and a handful, including Colorado, Indiana, Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Illinois, have even prohibited car sales on Sundays. C. Today, only a handful of blue laws remain, and most of these regulate the sale of alcohol. D. Many states allow local communities to enact stricter liquor laws than those proscribed by the State, and in some cases to even prohibit the sale of alcohol entirely.


165

Reading

Passage 28-A

Questions 32-41 are based on the following passage. What We Feel It would seem to be folly for anyone to maintain that grass is not green, that sugar is not sweet, that the rose has no odor and the trumpet no tone. A man would seem to be out of his senses deliberately to (5) doubt what the world thinks to be simple truths. Is grass green? First, let us consider what “green” really is,—what “color” is. Light is understood to be an undulation of the interstellar ether, that inconceivably rare, elastic expanse of matter which occupies all (10) space,—an undulation communicated by the incandescent envelope of suns. It moves with such wondrous rapidity as to traverse hundreds of thousands of miles in a second. Such is the generally received explanation of the phenomenon of light; but there is (15) much yet to be explained for which this simple undulation of matter seems to be an insufficient cause. These waves of motion have different lengths and rates of velocity; but the union of them all gives to the human eye the impression of white light. The chart below (20) shows how energy and wavelengths relate to one another.

Green

Color, then, is the sensation of the brain, responsive to the touch of the motion of ether; and the brain is only thus affected when these waves are (25) thrown back from some object to the eye. The multiplicity of tints and hues are reflections from the objects which appear to possess them as structural characters. Some of the waves pass into the objects and through them, others are arrested by them and (30) absorbed, others rebound from them like a ball from a wall; and these last, breaking upon the optic nerve, give to it certain sensations which we designate as colors. A wave of a certain velocity and length gives us a certain sensation which we call blue; another

(35) awakens the sensation we call yellow. The two series of waves, mingling, produce a new sensation which we call green. The necessity of reflection for the production of these sensations is evident. The mingled waves have (40) no color in their incident flow; but, striking some object, these waves become separated, some being absorbed, and the reflected ones produce the peculiar sensation we call color. One of the ancient philosophies maintained that all Nature is but the (45) phantasm of our senses. Had it, after first granting that the senses themselves were evidences of matter and motion, maintained that Nature was only evident to us through them, it would have been simple truth.


166

Reading 32.

Which of the following is a statement with which the author would most likely agree? A. Fragrance is not an inherent quality, but a cerebral sensation. B. Grass is not actually green. C. Reflection is unnecessary in a sensory-deprived environment. D. Interstellar ether is required for the optic nerve to perceive color.

33.

The author is primarily concerned with A. revealing the complexities of human perception. B. discussing the details of a new theory. C. criticizing a long-established scientific fact. D. challenging a common assumption.

34.

What function does the discussion of tints and hues in Paragraph 2 serve? A. Narrowing the scope of a question previously posed. B. Comparing and contrasting scientific wavelengths. C. Changing a preconceived idea about Nature. D. Defining a common term using specific terminology.

35.

According to the passage, which qualities can be attributed to waves of light? A. Rare and expansive. B. Malleable and pervasive. C. Variable and commingled. D. Tactile and finite.

36.

The passage implies that which of the following is true of the ancient philosophies? A. In general, they had a limited perception of Nature. B. Their proponents may have failed to consider a fundamental paradox. C. They neglected to take into account the true origin of sense memory. D. They focused more on the Nature of Man than on the earth sciences.

Passage 28-A 37.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A. Lines 6-11 (“First…suns.”) B. Lines 16-13 (“Such…cause.”) C. Lines 25-33 (“The…colors.”) D. Lines 43-48 (“One…simple truth.”)

38.

As used in line 12, the word “wondrous” most nearly means A. benevolent. B. deleterious. C. prodigious. D. doubtful.

39.

The graphic accompanying the passage indicates that as wavelengths decrease A. energy decreases. B. energy increases. C. visible light decreases. D. visible light increases.

40.

Based on the graphic, which choice gives a wavelength for the color green? A. 280nm B. 400nm C. 530nm D. 610nm

41.

According to the graphic, which type of wave has the most energy? A. Gamma rays B. Ultraviolet light C. Visible light D. TV waves


Writing

167

Passage 28-B

Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.

My First Trip to Paris The first time my parents took me to Paris, I was 34. A. NO CHANGE B. and ten years old. I had never been to a foreign country C. for D. nonetheless before, (34) but my older brother was studying abroad 35. for a semester while in college, and so my parents The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted? A. Kept, because it allows greater insight into the character of decided we would visit him. I was an awkward and shy child, and was incredibly nervous about leaving our hometown. (35) It was my first airplane ride, and that also made me nervous. After we got off the airplane at Orly airport and gathered our suitcases at baggage claim, my mother (36) decided we would take public transportation from the terminal to the city center. As I held her hand, I gazed in awe at the terminal’s shops and signs. I had never imagined what it would be like to see everything around me written in an unknown language! I was in such a daze, I let go of my mother and wandered over to a perfume and cosmetics shop. (37) It’s sweet-smelling exterior lured me in (38) like the luring of Odysseus by the Sirens. (39) Inside, several elegant women wearing furs, scarves, a couple of them clutching poodles, strolled the aisles. They looked nothing like the women I saw in the grocery store back home. All around me were bottles of

the narrator. B. Kept, because it adds additional information about the narrator’s trip. C. Deleted, because it repeats previously stated information. D. Deleted, because it describes something out of character for the narrator.

36. Which of the following would be the most logical way to complete the sentence? A. NO CHANGE B. and I rushed through the terminal. C. was hoping we would have time do some shopping. D. left me by the shops while she exchanged some money. 37. A. NO CHANGE B. Its’ C. Its D. It is 38. A. NO CHANGE B. just as the Sirens lured Odysseus C. just as Odysseus was lured by the Sirens D. like Odysseus was lured by the Sirens 39. Which choice most effectively combines the underlined sentences? A. Inside, wearing furs, scarves, and couple of them clutching poodles, several elegant women strolled the aisles, they looked nothing like the women I saw in grocery stores back home. B. Inside, several elegant women strolled the aisles, wearing furs, scarves, and couple of them clutching poodles, which looked nothing like the women I saw in grocery stores back home. C. Inside, strolling the aisles, were several elegant women wearing furs, scarves, and a couple of them clutching poodles, looking nothing like the women I saw in grocery stores back home. D. Inside, wearing furs, scarves, a couple of them clutching poodles, several elegant women strolled the aisles, looking nothing like the women in grocery stores back home.


Writing

168

sweet-smelling colognes with exotic (40) names such as: “Yves Saint Laurent,” “Givenchy,” and “Christian Dior.” I picked up one in a sleek, pink, square bottle. The label said, “Chanel No. 5.” I inhaled deeply. A burst of lemons and flowers filled my nostrils. I imagined myself wearing high heels with a big round hat, driving a convertible along twisting mountain roads in the south of France. The scent reminded me of the women in old black-andwhite movies my grandmother used to watch on cable. I was completely lost to the olfactory charms of the liquid. Suddenly, I heard a loud crash. Startled, I opened my eyes, and looked down. The beautiful bottle had slipped from my hands (41) during I was lost in my fantasy and lay on the floor of the store, shattered in pieces. I was horrified. (42) The salesgirl, dressed in a pencil skirt and tight bun, marched over to me, and she was scowling. “Qu’est-ce que vous avez fait?,” she hissed, and sharply pulled me by the arm away from the display. My cheeks turned bright red, and I opened my mouth to apologize, but I had no idea what to say. I did not even know the French word for “sorry”! “Eh bien , qu’est-ce que vous avez à dire pour vous-même?,” she exclaimed sharply, obviously annoyed at my silence. I could feel the tears start to form in the corner of my eyes, and my nose began to go numb, as it always did when I was embarrassed. “Uh…uh…,” I stammered. Suddenly, one of the women I (43) had seen earlier stepped towards me and placed a well-manicured hand on my shoulder. “C’est ma fille. Elle est tellement désolé. Ici, ce sera de couvrir le coût?,” she purred at the salesgirl, before reaching into her Louis Vuitton handbag and extracting a large bill. She handed the money over to the salesgirl, who nodded and turned back towards the register. Even though I did not understand what she had said, I could tell from her kind eyes and warm smile that she had fixed everything. “Thank you,” I said to her. “Ah, non!” she replied, with a twinkle in her eye, and went on in English, “Here we say, ‘merci.’” I smiled at her. “Merci,” I said. Before I (44) was saying anything else, I heard my mother calling me from the front of the store. I had many unforgettable experiences during that twoweek trip to Paris, but I have never forgotten the first French person I met and her kindness to me. To this day, Chanel No. 5 is still one of my favorite scents.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

Passage 28-B

A. NO CHANGE B. names, such as Yves Saint Laurent, Givenchy, and Christian Dior. C. names: “Yves Saint Laurent,” “Givenchy,” and “Christian Dior.” D. names such as Yves Saint Laurent, Givenchy, and Christian Dior. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE for while DELETE the underlined portion.

A. NO CHANGE B. The salesgirl dressed in a pencil skirt and tight bun, marched over to me, and she was scowling. C. Dressed in a pencil skirt and tight bun, the salesgirl marched over to me, scowling. D. The salesgirl, she was scowling, dressed in a pencil skirt and tight bun, marched over to me. A. NO CHANGE B. did see C. saw D. have seen A. NO CHANGE B. could say C. had the opportunity to say D. had said


169

Test 9

Passage 29-A

Reading Test 1 Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage. This passage is about agricultural revolutions.

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

Modem agriculture represents the third step in the evolution of food production. Unlike Darwin's slow and steady changes across generations, however, agriculture's history is marked by fairly radical leaps. The first revolution began with the invention of farming on the most basic level. There were in fact many factors that contributed to some nomadic tribes switching to cultivating their food instead of hunting and foraging. One was a general change in the climate. After the end of the last ice age, the earth warmed and life became easier overall. There was more game and wild vegetation, which made basic survival less demanding and time-consuming. People had the security to begin to experiment with new ways of feeding themselves. One result of these experiments was the domestication of plants. In the wild, plants spread their seeds either through the wind or the actions of animals. Domesticated plants, however, hold onto their seeds until full maturation, which allowed primitive farmers to save them for future crops. They no longer needed to spend time looking for edible plants; they could control both their location and life cycle. Primitive farmers used fire to bum away the existing vegetation and could quickly clear a small section of land, with the added benefit of the remaining ash adding to the land's fertility. These small plots became laboratories for the farmers, where they learned about weeding and land fertility. The first revolution was labor-intensive, with almost all the work being performed by hand. In contrast, the second revolution in agriculture was marked by its close relationship with machines. Starting with the Industrial Revolution, more and more rural communities were being abandoned for factory jobs in the cities. This created a demand for

40

45

50

55

60

65

70

large-scale, tools-based production, because there were suddenly more people to feed and fewer of them living and working on farms. The seed drill was invented, which saved seeds by placing them more uniformly into the soil. The discreet rows of plants also greatly simplified the job of weeding as well as fertilizing crops. The shape of the plough was also changed, and because they were now able to get deeper underground, farmers could create better drainage systems. Productivity increased dramatically. Unlike the second revolution, which was in many ways connected specifically to the United Kingdom, the third revolution was a global phenomenon. Here, instead of focusing on how crops were being harvested, farmers made changes to what was being harvested. The goal was to address the issue of famine by making available to farmers around the world genetically engineered seeds and scientifically formulated fertilizers. By the 1970s, the third revolution, commonly called the Green Revolution, did in fact find some success. The rate of production increased faster than the rate of population growth. However, its ability to end world hunger was severely limited by the realities of global wealth distribution. The third generation was commonly called The Green Revolution, and over time this name has become ironic. Nowadays, the term "green" is associated with products and services that are environmentally friendly. However, the yields of the third generation, with their reliance on genetically modified crops which could only flourish when twinned with a broad spectrum of herbicides, have actually led to a rising interest in more traditional farming methods.

(

282

Go on to the next page


Test 9

Passage 29-A

170

1. What is the main purpose of the passage?

6. According to the passage, what social development led to the second revolution?

A) To address newly discovered problems with farming B) To provide an overview of farming's long history C) To advocate for new and improved methods in farming D) To explain the limits of a popular new trend in farming

A) The economy was moving toward factory production. B) The invention of new tools made farming much easier. C) The increase in the population made land more valuable. D) The number of people moving away from cities was declining.

2. As used in line 5, "radical" most nearly means 7. As used in line 43, "uniformly" most nearly means

A) small. B) predictable. C) sweeping D) biological.

A) carefully. B) consistently. C) separately. D) quickly.

3. What topic sentence would best work for the third paragraph (lines 17-25)?

8. How does the sixth paragraph (lines 42-49) function in the context of the passage?

A) Primitive farmers managed to develop a number of sophisticated tools. B) Primitive farmers began to focus on finding new areas to farm. C) Primitive farmers tried a variety of crops before settling on root vegetables. D) Primitive farmers discovered how to manipulate their surroundings to fit their needs.

A) It explains the reasons behind a new global trend. B) It summarizes a new way of understanding a topic. C) It details the steps in creating a new invention. D) It provides examples of new technologies.

4. All of the following are true about the first revolution EXCEPT

9. According to the passage, in what way was the third revolution considered a failure?

A) it led to the development of new seeds and plants. B) it required large investments of time and energy. C) it was dependent on new weather patterns. D) it involved burning areas for new farmland.

A) It did not increase the number of farms around the world. B) It did not boost production of crops in the United Kingdom. C) It did not eliminate the problem of people going hungry. D) It did not help produce enough food for the global population.

5. The inclusion of the detail about the Industrial Revolution serves which function in the fourth paragraph (lines 26-31 )?

10. What rhetorical mode does the author use? A) Argumentative B) Informative C) Persuasive D) Dismissive

A) Explanation of a result B) Evidence of an error C) Refutation of a claim D) Proof of a theory

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Passage 29-B

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Test 9

Writing and Language Test 1 Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. Karl Marx Karl Marx is one of the most

CD inconspicuous

philosophers and economists in history. Marx's criticisms of capitalism and his ideal of socialism still have relevance today.® Despite this in many countries, he is solely associated with the Soviet Union and the failure of communism. Marx's ideas have influenced the world in much broader ways and his writings® continued to properly evaluate the problems which were occurring in modem capitalist states.

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1. A) NO CHANGE B) inspiring C) meaningful D) influential 2. A) NO CHANGE B) Despite this, in many countries, he C) Despite this in many countries he, D) Despite this in many, countries he 3. A) NO CHANGE B) continued to properly evaluate the problems occurring C) continue to properly evaluate the problems which occur D) continue to properly evaluate the problems which occurred

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Test 9

Passage 29-B

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@For most in the West (including North America and

4. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of this paragraph?

Europe), Karl Marx is commonly seen as a misguided @ philosopher. Karl Marx argued for revolution and the establishment of communist states. His criticisms of capitalism are not generally taught nor are his works outside of The Communist Manifesto. This misunderstanding of Marx @ arises from both complications historical and cultural.

Marx's association with the Soviet Union brought his ideas into the cultural Cold War. Americans were taught to abhor communism and socialism and thus treated Marx with (]) disdain. The same effect occurred in Western Europe with its proximity to Soviet action in Eastern Europe. This historical linkage and cultural upbringing has allowed generations of students to ignore Marx's criticisms of capitalism.

A) Marx became hated in the West in the aftermath of World War II because of his German heritage. B) Marx's writings were disparaged in the West due to unique circumstances in the United States and Europe. C) Marx's writings faced criticism because of poor translations and difficult ideology. D) Marx was discriminated against during his lifetime and had to flee to escape conflict. 5. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion? A) philosopher, Karl Marx argued B) philosopher, whom argued C) philosopher which D) philosopher who argued 6. A) NO CHANGE B) arises from both historical and cultural complications. C) arose from both historical and cultural complications. D) arise from complications both historical and cultural. 7. A) NO CHANGE B) snobbishness C) sympathy D) abuse

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As capitalism has continued to grow, even in historically communist countries such as China, it has become easier to see the problems with the ideology. While Marx understood that capitalism was better than previous systems (such as feudalism), he also knew that it still had

® superficial flaws.

One of the largest flaws was the development of classes and conflict between them. This occurs

® through loss of one's

control over individual labor and through the accumulation of the means of production by a few individuals. As a result, the owners of production hold more capital than others and continue to take advantage of workers in the lower class. Additionally, Marx stated that capitalism is unstable and prone to fluctuation and collapse. Lastly, he predicted that capitalists would invest

® fewer money in labor and more in

technology. While Marx was incorrect about the collapse of capitalism and the establishment of socialist states, he was

Passage 29-B 8. A) NO CHANGE B) indigenous C) inherent D) unalienable 9. A) NO CHANGE B) through loss of one control over individual labor C) through loss of their control over individual labor D) through loss of its control over individual labor 10. A) NO CHANGE B) less money in labor and greater in technology. C) less money in labor and more in technology. D) fewer money in labor and greater in technology. 11. A) NO CHANGE B) capital, and should a system ultimately C) capital and that a system ultimately D) capital, and such a system ultimately

correct in many of his critiques of capitalism. There is indeed a growing divide between classes, and the middle class has continued to shrink. Both capital and the means of production are concentrated in a small portion of the global population and individuals have little power. Workers are taken advantage of because of this lack of representation and capitalist economies have indeed been subject to repeated depressions and booms. Today, especially, employers invest less money in employees and spend more developing technological means to boost profit. The end goal of capitalism is merely to secure more @ capital and what a system ultimately provides little benefit for the common person.

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Passage 30-A

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Test 9

Reading Test 2 Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage and supplementary material. This passage is adapted from "Tracking Pacific Walrus: Expedition to the Shrinking Chukchi Sea Ice" from the US. Geological Survey, 2012. Background

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The Chukchi Sea is a region of the Arctic Ocean north of the Bering Strait. The region lies between northeastern Siberia and the coast of Alaska. The Chukchi Sea is in a state of constant flux, as the waters freeze over in autumn and winter, and the ice breaks up in spring and summer. Many species inhabit the region, and migratory animals, including the Pacific walrus, enter the region seasonally to forage for food. The walruses that participate in the annual migration number in the hundreds of thousands. There is significant variability in the amount of ice coverage in the region from year to year, and recent climate change has resulted in earlier ice-breakup and a smaller region of Arctic Ocean ice coverage. Current methods for measuring the area of ice coverage are accurate for locales where ice covers 15% or more of the surface.

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A Changing Arctic Climate Means Changing Arctic Ecosystems

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Arctic sea ice is melting faster than forecasted by many of the top climate models: the first ice-free summer is now predicted to occur by 2035, perhaps as soon as 2025. But warming temperatures are causing other changes as well - increased coastal erosion, deteriorating permafrost, and major changes in the dynamics of freshwater flows. These changes influence biological communities and the ways in which human communities interact with them. For example, the longer open water season in the Arctic is allowing increased shipping, tourism, energy production and other human activities in this remote region. As part of the USGS Changing Arctic Ecosystems initiative, USGS researchers are identifying and investigating the linkages among physical processes (such as sea ice melting at a faster rate), ecosystems and wildlife

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populations. By understanding the degree to and manner in which wildlife species adapt to rapid environmental change, resource managers and policy makers will have a better foundation for making critical decisions now and in the future. New Research on Pacific W alms and Sea Ice The information gained through tracking large marine mammals, such as polar bears and walruses, is helping USGS scientists understand how disappearing Arctic sea ice is affecting the region's ecosystems and the species that inhabit these ecosystems. For example, recently published research by USGS and Russian scientists revealed that diminishing summer sea ice in the Arctic over the past 5 years has caused behavioral changes in Pacific walruses. The population-level effects of these changes are unknown and the subject of active investigation by USGS. Using a simple darting system, scientists attached radio-tracking tags to 251 walruses in the Chukchi Sea. The tags transmitted the animals' whereabouts and whether they were in the water and feeding. Using the tagging data gathered from 2008-2011, scientists created detailed maps of the walruses' seasonal movements and feeding patterns relative to the location and amount of sea ice.

When Chukchi Sea Ice Retreats North of the Continental Shelf Edge, Walruses Haul Out The study found that due to earlier melting of the ice in the summer, walruses arrived 70 earlier in their northern feeding grounds on the broad continental shelf of the Chukchi Sea. When the sea ice over the continental shelf melted completely in the fall, however, they "hauled out" onshore in large aggregations and foraged for 75 food closer to shore. [Hauling out refers to the behavior associated with seals and walruses of temporarily leaving the water for sites on land or ice.] The specific effects of these behavioral so changes are not yet understood; however, 284

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scientists do know that while onshore, young walruses are susceptible to mortality from trampling. USGS has recently published a study that examined the population effects of this type of mortality, finding that loss of young animals to haul-out mortality has a greater effect on the population than loss of adult females in the harvest. In light of this finding, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is increasing its ongoing efforts to protect hauled-out walruses from disturbance. Additionally, hauling out onshore and using nearshore feeding areas may require more energy for animals used to simply diving off their sea-ice platforms for food at the bottom of the shallow Chukchi Sea.

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Passage 30-A Data from this study will provide resource managers with basic information on areas important for walruses, such as the Hanna Shoal region, as human activities in the Arctic increase. The areas of walrus foraging observed in this study overlap with oil and gas lease blocks leased by BOEM (Bureau of Ocean Energy Management). The study, published as this month's feature article in the journal Marine Ecology Progress Series, is part of the USGS Changing Arctic Ecosystems initiative at the Alaska Science Center.

Arctic Sea Ice Extent

{Area of ocean with at least 15% sea ice)

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National Snow and Ice Data Center, 2014.

11. According to the passage, what is the most likely effect of a faster melting of Arctic sea ice on walrus populations?

12. According to the passage, what is one practical value of conducting research on changes in the Arctic ecosystem? A) It can lead to a better understanding of how other species, including humans, can adapt to adverse climate conditions. B) It can help scientists determine the ideal conditions for walrus preservation. C) It can provide useful information to resource managers and policy makers. D) It can reveal that diminishing summer sea ice has caused behavioral changes in walruses.

A) The population of walruses is expected to decline. B) The effect on the walrus population is unknown. C) This phenomenon will lead to the endangerment or extinction of Pacific walruses. D) The walrus population will remain the same, but may need to migrate to new areas.

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13. Which statement about energy production in the Arctic is best supported by the passage?

Passage 30-A

18. What data would be most helpful for further understanding the effects of climate change on walrus populations?

A) The leasing of blocks for oil and gas production is interfering with walrus foraging. B) A higher rate of energy production can assist walruses that use nearshore feeding areas. C) The exploitation of energy resources in the area is contributing to climate change. D) Longer periods without ice will make it easier to extract energy resources from the region.

A) Data on a greater number of tagged walruses B) Effects of climate change on the species that walruses rely on for food C) Average daily temperatures in the Chukchi Sea region during the period studied D) Projections for the amount of ice loss in the Arctic in the long-term future 19. Using information in the graphic and the passage, and assuming other factors such as total walrus population remain constant, it can reasonably be inferred that

14. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 21-25 ("Arctic sea ice ... 2025") B) Lines 32-35 ("the longer. .. region") C) Lines 91-95 ("hauling out.. .Chukchi Sea") D) Lines 100-102 ("The areas ... BOEM")

A) young walruses faced a greater risk of death by trampling in 2012 than in an average year between 1981and2010. B) the rate of "hauling out" of walruses in 2014 was within two standard deviations of the thirty year mean from 1981 to 2010. C) in both 2012 and 2014, walruses foraged for food with less than 15% sea ice coverage more frequently than in the period from 1981 to 2010. D) more data on the migration of walrus populations will be necessary to determine the full extent of change in Arctic sea-ice coverage.

15. As used in line 28, "erosion" most nearly means A) freezing over. B) wearing away. C) soil cohesion. D) wind exposure. 16. As used in line 82, "susceptible to" most nearly means

20. Assume that, between 1981and2010, the migration of walruses to the continental shelf of the Chukchi Sea occurred on August 21st in the average year. Based on the graphic and the passage, what can reasonably be assumed about the migration in 2014?

A) in need of protection from. B) likely to. C) under the influence of. D) at risk of harm from. 17. What is the most reasonable inference that can be made about polar bears based on the passage?

A) It occurred within the first week of August. B) It occurred earlier than August 21st. C) It occurred later than August 21st. D) It occurred within two weeks of August 21st

A) Nothing can be inferred about polar bears from this passage. B) Polar bears are in competition with walruses for food in the Arctic. C) The article focuses on walruses because polar bear behavior was not included in the Russian study. D) Polar bears are also affected by diminishing amounts of ice in the Arctic sea.

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Passage 30-B

Writing and Language Test 2 Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. Work-Life Balance

Workers around the @ world maintaining regularly struggle a positive work-life balance. Situations can change based on culture, government regulations, supply and demand, the power of unions, and many other causes. Achieving a balanced life requires @ inertia from both the employee and the employer. Ultimately, the goal of balance is to work

12. A) NO CHANGE B) world struggle regularly to maintain C) world regularly maintain to struggle D) world maintain regularly to struggle 13. A) NO CHANGE B) propositions C) input D) commotion

enough@ to support their personal life and their individual goals but to not make work the sole or primary activity of life. The two primary factors influencing work-life balance tend to be economics and culture. Economic influence

® can

be seen in looking at the United States and China. The supply of labor and the demand for products heavily influence the amount of jobs and the @conferring power of an employee. In the United States, where many jobs require high levels of education and experience, workers typically @ had more choice and influence in acquired employment. Educated and experienced employees are in more demand. In China, where the majority of jobs are in factories and less-developed industries, @education and training is not as necessary. Workers are therefore largely uneducated and can be easily replaced. There is high demand for products made there, but workers have little power.

14. A) NO CHANGE B) to support one's personal life and their individual goals C) to support one's personal life and individual goals D) to support one's personal life and one's individual goals 15. A) NO CHANGE B) can be seen in C) can be seen in looking in D) can be seen in a look at 16. A) NO CHANGE B) dispatching C) trading D) negotiating 17. A) NO CHANGE B) had more choice and influence in acquiring employment. C) have more choice and influence in acquiring employment. D) have more choice and influence in employment acquiring. 18. A) NO CHANGE B) education and training are not as necessary. C) education and training isn't as necessary. D) training and education as are not necessary.

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Test 9

In terms of culture, certain countries have historical

influences and @ fundamentals which encourage or discourage high volumes of work. South Korea and Japan both stand as extreme examples of this. Workers in these two countries regularly work some of the highest hours in the developed world. Cultural hierarchy at work alongside a Confucian work ethic strongly urge@) employees to devote themselves to the company or organization. In contrast, in a country like France, workers take a more relaxed attitude and typically work fewer hours. The United States leans more towards the Asian model of overworking due to its

® derived

from the Puritan work ethic working culture, though this is not universal within the country. As a broad overview, Western

Passage 30-B 19. A) NO CHANGE B) tenets C) assumptions D) ideologies 20. A) NO CHANGE B) employees to devote their selves to the company or organization. C) employees to be themselves devoted to the company or organization. D) employees to devote oneself to the company or organization. 21. A) NO CHANGE B) working culture which is derived from the Puritan work ethic C) working culture derived from Puritan's work ethic D) working culture which derives from the work ethics of Puritans

Europe and East Asia can be seen as opposites in terms of cultural workplace practices. Europeans have a much more balanced life while Asian employees are often wholly devoted to the workplace.

22. A) NO CHANGE B) conquest C) venture D) consummation

Of course culture and economics are not the only two factors that determine a work-life balance. The ability of workers to unionize and the power achieved by these unions can play a key role, as seen in Europe. Also, government regulations can heavily influence work hours and the control employers have over employees. In the end, all of these factors and many more converge to create a unique situation for each employee. Achieving work-life balance remains a difficult@ feat in the modem world, particularly when global recessions occur and workers have little power.

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Passage 31-A

Reading Test 3 Questions 21-31 are based on the following passage. This passage is about nanotechnology.

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The next big thing is small: Nanotechnology could lead to radical improvements in space exploration. When it comes to taking the next "giant leap" in space exploration, NASA is thinking small - really small. In laboratories around the country, NASA is supporting the burgeoning science of nanotechnology. The basic idea is to learn to deal with matter at the atomic scale - to be able to control individual atoms and molecules well enough to design molecule-size machines, advanced electronics, and "smart" materials. If visionaries are right, nanotechnology could lead to robots you can hold on your fingertip, self-healing spacesuits, space elevators, and other fantastic devices. Some of these things may take 20+ years to fully develop; others are taking shape in the laboratory today. Simply making things smaller has its advantages. Imagine, for example, if the Mars rovers Spirit and Opportunity could have been made as small as a beetle, and could scurry over rocks and gravel as a beetle can, sampling minerals and searching for clues to the history of water on Mars. Hundreds or thousands of these diminutive robots could have been sent in the same capsules that carried the two desk-size rovers, enabling scientists to explore much more of the planet's surface - and increasing the odds of stumbling across a fossilized Martian bacterium! When scientists can deliberately order and structure matter at the molecular level, amazing new properties sometimes emerge. An excellent example is that darling of the nanotech world, the carbon nanotube. Carbon occurs naturally as graphite - the soft, black material often used in pencil leads - and as diamond. The only difference between the two is the arrangement of the carbon atoms. When scientists arrange the same carbon atoms into a "chicken wire" pattern and roll them up into miniscule tubes only 10 atoms across, they create nanotubes. Scientists have proposed using these tubes for a wide range of applications: in the highstrength, low-weight cable needed for a space elevator; as molecular wires for nano-scale

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electronics; embedded in microprocessors to help siphon off heat; and as tiny rods and gears in nanoscale machines, just to name a few. A chemical sensor one company developed using nanotubes is scheduled to fly a demonstration mission into space aboard a Navy rocket next year. This tiny sensor can detect as little as a few parts per billion of specific chemicals - like toxic gases - making it useful for both space exploration and homeland defense. The company also developed a way to use nanotubes to cool the microprocessors in personal computers, a major challenge as CPUs get more and more powerful. If these near-term uses of nanotechnology seem impressive, the long-term possibilities are truly mind-boggling. For example, one recent NASA-funded a feasibility study of nanoscale manufacturing - in other words, using vast numbers of microscopic molecular machines to produce any desired object by assembling it atom by atom! Such a "nanofactory" could produce, say, spacecraft parts with atomic precision, meaning that every atom within the object is placed exactly where it belongs. The resulting part would be extremely strong, and its shape could be within a single atom's width of the ideal design. Ultrasmooth surfaces would need no polishing or lubrication, and would suffer virtually no "wear and tear" over time.

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Test 9 21. What is the main purpose of the passage?

26. According to the passage, why are nanotubes useful in sensors?

A) To defend spending on untested ideas. B) To show the benefits of government research C) To inform about a new area of science D) To argue against the use of a new technology

A) They can be extremely strong in relation to their size. B) They can sense very small amounts of a substance. C) They can be used in large groups to cover an area completely. D) They can help make computers extremely powerful.

22. As used in line 7, "burgeoning" most nearly means A) growing. B) complex. C) unproven. D) recent.

27. As used in line 48, "siphon" most nearly means A) initiate. B) transform. C) conduct. D) remove.

23. The inclusion of the detail about water on Mars serves which function in the fourth paragraph (lines 21-33)? A) Counterpoint to a common argument B) Support for a general statement C) Example of a recurring theme D) Evidence against a controversial claim

28. Who is the most likely audience for this passage? A) Science-fiction writers B) Government officials C) High school students D) Scientific researchers

24. What topic sentence would best work for the fifth paragraph (lines 19-30)? A) But nanotech is about more than just shrinking things. B) New nanotubes also show a lot of future promise. C) Scientists have created new materials using old ones. D) When things get small, things also get really interesting.

29. How does the eighth paragraph (lines 60-62) function in the context of the passage? A) It gives specific examples of general ideas. B) It explains the counterarguments to prior claims. C) It begins the transitions to a new topic. D) It summarizes the key points already discussed.

25. Based on the passage, all of the following are true about carbon nanotubes EXCEPT

30. What rhetorical mode does the author use? A) Argumentative B) Informative C) Persuasive D) Accusative

A) they are made up of carbon atoms arranged into a Wlfe.

B) they are already being used in experimental products. C) they are the same hardness as diamonds. D) they are created from a naturally occurring material.

31. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about nanotechnology? A) There is a need for much more research into its negative effects. B) Scientists are just beginning to understand the possible applications. C) The technology will mostly be used in space exploration.

D) Nanotubes will eventually become much cheaper to produce.

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Passage 31-B

Writing and Language Test 3 Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. Iconic Monuments Iconic monuments exist throughout the world @ and have been being built throughout human history. Each one represents a certain time period or cultural achievement and can also act as a @ personal representation of a certain country or group of people. Monuments are popular tourist attractions and have been admired worldwide since ancient times. Some have

23. A) NO CHANGE B) and have been built C) and were being built D) and being built 24. A) NO CHANGE B) allegoric C) symbolic D) eccentric

been built simply for the purpose of remembrance or the projection of power, while others @have immense value historical and have accrued additional value over time.

25. A) NO CHANGE B) have historical value immense C) have immense historical value D) have historical immense value

[ 1] Perhaps the oldest and most famous monuments in the world are in the deserts of Egypt. [2] Its face is said to represent the ruler of Egypt at the time. [3] Both the pyramids and the Great Sphinx provide a look into Egypt's past and demonstrate the skill and @ ineptitude at work in ancient times. [4] The Sphinx is likely the world's oldest monument® as it was constructed in the 2500s BCE. [5] Alongside the Sphinx are

26. A) NO CHANGE B) reliability C) callowness D) craftsmanship 27 . A) NO CHANGE B) as it was being constructed C) as it was constructing D) as it were constructed

the pyramids, which were erected as burial sites for Egypt's kings. [6] These monuments have fascinated people throughout the centuries, spurred careers in archaeology and Egyptology, and brought millions of tourists to Cairo.

28. For the sake of the cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 2 should be placed

® A) where it is now. B) after sentence 3. C) before sentence 5. D) after sentence 6

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Some structures which @ were built around other purposes have turned into modern-day monuments.@ Examples of this include the Great Wall of China, which was built as a protective barrier against invasion. Today, however, it is a monument to China's past@ handsomeness and continually draws visitors to the country. Other examples are Angkor Wat in

Passage 31-B 29. A) NO CHANGE B) were built in other purposes C) were built for other purposes D) were built by other purposes 30. A) NO CHANGE B) An example of this is C) An example of this include D) An example of this would includes

Cambodia, Stonehenge in the UK, the Coliseum in Rome, St. Basil's Cathedral in Moscow, and the Acropolis in Athens. These were built with another purpose in mind but now have come to @ represent the countries in which they exist. The historical background and presence of these buildings generate interest and serve as a way to educate others about a country's culture. In more modern terms, there are numerous buildings built specifically for the purpose of being a monument. The most famous of these may include the Statue of Liberty in New York City, built by the French as a gift to the United States in the late 1800s. Other major monuments in the United States are the Washington Monument and Mount Rushmore. When thinking of France, one often conjures an image of the Eiffel Tower,@ just as it might picture Christ the Redeemer when thinking about Brazil. This demonstrates the power of monuments in common thought. These structures spring to mind when picturing a

31. A) NO CHANGE B) grandeur C) luxuriousness D) circumstance 32. A) NO CHANGE B) be representing the countries in which they exist. C) represent the countries where they exist in. D) represent their countries in which they are existing. 33. A) NO CHANGE B) just as he might picture Christ the Redeemer when thinking about Brazil. C) just as they might picture Christ the Redeemer when thinking about Brazil. D) just as one might picture Christ the Redeemer when thinking about Brazil.

country and serve as a mental representation of its culture and history. Iconic monuments are deeply important in human history and remain powerful methods of remembrance and cultural transmission.

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Passage 32-A

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Reading Test 4 Questions 32-42 are based on the following passage. This passage is adapted from "The Athenian Constitution, " which is thought to have been written by Aristotle or one of his disciples. The passage tells the story of the tyranny ofPisistratus.

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Part 15 ... After his victory in the battle at Pallene [Pisistratus] captured Athens, and when he had disarmed the people he at last had his tyranny securely established, and was able to take Naxos and set up Lygdamis as ruler there. He effected the disarmament of the people in the following manner. He ordered a parade in full armour in the Theseum, and began to make a speech to the people. He spoke for a short time, until the people called out that they could not hear him, whereupon he bade them come up to the entrance of the Acropolis, in order that his voice might be better heard. Then, while he continued to speak to them at great length, men whom he had appointed for the purpose collected the arms and locked them up in the chambers of the Theseum hard by, and came and made a signal to him that it was done. Pisistratus accordingly, when he had finished the rest of what he had to say, told the people also what had happened to their arms; adding that they were not to be surprised or alarmed, but go home and attend to their private affairs, while he would himself for the future manage all the business of the state. Part 16 Such was the origin and such the vicissitudes of the tyranny of Pisistratus. His administration was temperate, as has been said before, and more like constitutional government than a tyranny. Not only was he in every respect humane and mild and ready to forgive those who offended, but, in addition, he advanced money to the poorer people to help them in their labours, so that they might make their living by agriculture. In this he had two objects, first that they might not spend their time in the city but might be scattered over all the face of the country, and secondly that, being moderately well off and occupied with their own business, they might have neither the wish nor the time to attend to public affairs. At the same time his revenues were increased by the thorough cultivation of the country, since he imposed a tax of one tenth on all the produce. For the same reasons he instituted the local justices, and often made expeditions in person

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into the country to inspect it and to settle disputes between individuals, that they might not come into the city and neglect their farms. It was in one of these progresses that, as the story goes, Pisistratus had his adventure with the man ofHymettus, who was cultivating the spot afterwards known as 'Taxfree Farm'. He saw a man digging and working at a very stony piece of ground, and being surprised he sent his attendant to ask what he got out of this plot of land. 'Aches and pains', said the man; 'and that's what Pisistratus ought to have his tenth of. The man spoke without knowing who his questioner was; but Pisistratus was so pleased with his frank speech and his industry that he granted him exemption from all taxes. And so in matters in general he burdened the people as little as possible with his government, but always cultivated peace and kept them in all quietness. Hence the tyranny of Pisistratus was often spoken of proverbially as 'the age of gold'; for when his sons succeeded him the government became much harsher. But most important of all in this respect was his popular and kindly disposition. In all things he was accustomed to observe the laws, without giving himself any exceptional privileges. Once he was summoned on a charge of homicide before the Areopagus, and he appeared in person to make his defence; but the prosecutor was afraid to present himself and abandoned the case. For these reasons he held power long, and whenever he was expelled he regained his position easily. The majority alike of the upper class and of the people were in his favour; the former he won by his social intercourse with them, the latter by the assistance which he gave to their private purses, and his nature fitted him to win the hearts of both. Moreover, the laws in reference to tyrants at that time in force at Athens were very mild, especially the one which applies more particularly to the establishment of a tyranny. The law ran as follows: 'These are the ancestral statutes of the ATHENIANs; if any persons shall make an attempt to establish a tyranny, or if any person shall join in setting up a tyranny, he shall lose his civic rights, both himself and his whole house.

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32. According to the passage, how did Pisistratus establish his rule?

Passage 32-A

3 7. What does the story of "the man of Hymettus" (lines 45-57) suggest about the character of Pisistratus?

A) He redistributed farmlands to the poor. B) He gave a persuasive speech that won popular support for his regime. C) He was democratically elected. D) He tricked the people and stole their weapons.

A) He could sometimes change his policies when confronted with a logical argument, though he was otherwise a vain man. B) He had the greatest respect for those whose labors yielded the greatest profits. C) He was more interested in maintaining authority by peaceful means than in protecting his personal dignity. D) He wanted the people to farm in the mountains because they were even more remote from the city.

33. Pisistratus continued in power for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) he avoided violent and oppressive measures. B) he established tax-free farming to gain political support. C) he respected the law and did not hold himself above it. D) he encouraged people to see to their own business and avoid politics.

38. If the man ofHymettus had spoken to one of Pisistratus's sons in this same way after they came to power, what would have been the most likely outcome?

34. As used in line 26, "temperate" is closest in meaning to

A) He would be paid a bribe to maintain his silence. B) He would be relocated to a farm with better soil. C) He would be treated just as Pisistratus had treated him. D) He would be punished for his insolence.

A) oppressive. B) volatile. C) warm. D) mild. 3 5. Which choice could contradict the argument that Pisistratus was a temperate leader?

39. Why was Pisistratus' reign considered "the age of gold" (line 62)?

A) Lines 29-31 ("he advanced .. .labours") B) Lines 40-41 ("he imposed ... produce") C) Lines 69-71 ("the prosecutor ... case") D) Lines 75-76 ("the former ... them")

A) He had a kind and gentle demeanor. B) He settled local conflicts peacefully. C) He enacted widespread tax reforms. D) He eased financial burdens of the poor.

36. As used in line 30, "advanced" is closest in meaning to A) gave. B) lent. C) delivered. D) progressed.

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Test 9

185

40. The author would most likely support which conclusion about tyranny?

Passage 32-A 42. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 2-4 ("when he . . . established") B) Lines 25-27 ("His administration ... tyranny") C) Lines 35-38 ("being . . . affairs") D) Lines 65-67 ("In all... privileges")

A) Tyranny can never be maintained for more than one generation. B) Democracy is always a superior form of government to tyranny. C) Whether tyranny is good or bad depends on the character of the tyrant. D) Tyrants are usually passionately supported by the noble class of citizens. 41. Today's United States Constitution protects the rights of individuals. Which Amendment is valuable to the protection of democracy, based on the example of the tyranny of Pisistratus? A) First Amendment: Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press. B) Second Amendment: A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed. C) Eighth Amendment: Excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted. D) Ninth Amendment: The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.

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186

Test 9

Passage 32-B

Writing and Language Test 4 Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

The passage is adapted from "A New View of the Red Planet" from the U.S. Geological Survey, 2014.

Pro-Noachkan Noathian

-4.500

-4,000

Amazonian

Hespeda:n

-3,000

-3,500

-2,000

-2,500

-1.500

-1,000

-500

0

Geological Periods of Mars (Millions of years ago)

Adapted from the "Geological Map of Mars," United States Geological Survey, 2014.

The USGS-led mapping effort reveals that the Martian surface is® older generally than thought previously. Three times as much surface area dates to the first major geologic time period - the Early Noachian Epoch - than was previously mapped. This timeframe is the earliest part of the

® Noachian

Period, which ranges from about 4 .1 to about 3. 7 billion years MQ__,_

and was characterized by high rates of meteorite impacts,

widespread

® spoiling of the Martian surface and the likely @

presence of surface abundant water.

34 A) NO CHANGE B) generally older than previously thought. C) older than thought generally previously. D) generally previously older than thought. 3 5. Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the graphic? A) NO CHANGE B) Noachian Period, which ranges from about 3.7 to 2.1 billion years ago, C) N oachian Period, which ranges from about 3.0 to 2.0 billion years ago, D) Noachian Period, which ranges from about 4 .1 to 3.1 billion years ago, 36. A) NO CHANGE B) consumption C) erosion D) scuffing 37. A) NO CHANGE B) surface water presence abundance. C) abundant presence of water surface. D) presence of abundant surface water.

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187

Test 9

The Martian surface has been the subject of scientific observation since the @ 1600s, first by Earth-based telescopes, and later by fly-by missions and orbiting spacecraft. The Mariner 9 and Viking Orbiter missions produced the first planet-wide views of Mars'@ surface. This enabled the publication of the first global geologic maps (in 1978 and 198687, respectively) of a planetary surface other than the Earth and the Moon. A new generation of sophisticated scientific instruments flown on the Mars Global Surveyor, Mars Odyssey, Mars Express, and Mars Reconnaissance Orbiter spacecraft @) have provided diverse, high quality data sets that enable more sophisticated remapping of the global-scale geology of Mars.

The production of planetary cartographic products has been a @ ruling point of research at the USGS Astrogeology Science Center since its inception in the early 1960s. The USGS

Passage 32-B 38. A) NO CHANGE B) 1600s first by Earth based telescopes C) 1600s first, by earth based telescopes D) 1600s first by earth, based telescopes, 39. Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion? A) surface, but this enabled B) surface, enabling C) surface, and enables D) surface; and enabled 40. A) NO CHANGE B) has provided diverse, high quality data sets C) will provide diverse, high quality data sets D) were providing diverse, high quality data sets 41. A) NO CHANGE B) intrinsic C) intuitive D) focal

began producing planetary maps in support of the Apollo Moon landings, and continues to help establish a framework@ for integrating and for comparing past studies and for future studies of extraterrestrial surfaces. In many cases, these planetary geologic maps show that, despite the many differences between bodies in our solar system, there are many notable similarities that link the evolution and fate of our planetary system together.

The mission of the USGS Astrogeology Science Center is to serve the nation, the@ planetary international science community, and the general public's pursuit of new knowledge of our solar system. The team's vision is to be a national resource @ for the integration of planetary geosciences, cartography, and remote sensing. As explorers and surveyors with a unique heritage of proven expertise and international leadership, USGS astrogeologists enable the ongoing successful investigation of the solar system for humankind.

302

42. A) NO CHANGE B) for integrating and comparing for past and future studies of extraterrestrial surfaces. C) for integrating and comparing past and future studies of extraterrestrial surfaces. D) for integrating and for comparing for past and future studies of extraterrestrial surfaces. 43. A) NO CHANGE B) international planetary science community C) international science planetary community D) planetary community's international science 44. A) NO CHANGE B) for the integration of planetary geosciences, for cartography, and for remote sensing. C) for the integration of planetary geosciences and cartography and remote sensing. D) for the integration of planetary geosciences with cartography for remote sensing.

STOP


Homework


188

HW - 1

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.

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30

35

The American Civil War was an enormous tragedy in the history of the United States. To prevent secession by the Southern states, the American public found itself fighting its own people rather than foreign invaders. Sparked in 1861, this terrible war included many bloody battles with severe casualties. In fact, the body count was so high that the South had started running out of manpower when the war finally ended four years later in 1865. While the war did unite America, was it truly worth the price? There are many reasons that both historians and laymen have stated that the American Civil War was “not worth it.” Of these, the three most commonly cited reasons are the lasting racial legacy, the high death toll, and the destruction visited upon the South. In the case of the first, legal freedom for African Americans did not translate into actual societal advancement or increased rights. Moreover, the death toll of hundreds of thousands of Americans seems too steep for any cause. Finally, the economic and social devastation wrought upon half the nation had a profound impact that wasn’t alleviated until the Second World War. The most common argument for those who believe that the war was necessary is that President Abraham Lincoln freed the slaves. In reality, at the conclusion of the Civil War, the Emancipation Proclamation still allowed the ownership of slaves in areas that had not seceded or otherwise rebelled against the Union. (It was only with the passing of the 13th Amendment, not the Appomattox Armistice, that slavery became outlawed in the United States.) This continued subjugation of the Southern states served as a rallying cry for Southern agitators who expressed their dissatisfaction by conducting acts of violence against African Americans and

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their Northern supporters. During Reconstruction, political and social groups, such as the Ku Klux Klan and the White League, were formed to affirm white supremacy, oppress blacks, and enact laws that codified inequality. Thus, the use of force to exact the end of slavery perversely fueled the very mechanisms—such as Jim Crow laws and poll taxes—that perpetuated racial inequality until the Civil Rights Era. This extreme level of racial hostility was nothing new. After all, differing opinions over the rights of African Americans are what provoked the South to secede in the first place. The South refused to yield power to a pro-abolitionist government that would only bolster the powers of the national government, while many in the North were intolerant of the South’s “peculiar institution.” With the North and South so firmly entrenched in their positions, it is no wonder that the Civil War was so long and the body count was so high. Neither side, however, could have predicted the unprecedented violence at battles such as Shiloh, Antietam, and Gettysburg that shocked citizens and international observers alike. An estimated 620,000 men—roughly 2 percent of the population—lost their lives in the line of duty over the course of four years. Spurred in part by anger over mounting casualties, the Union war effort from 1864–1865 increasingly included efforts to, as William T. Sherman said, make “the South howl.” President Lincoln knew that he had to leave no doubt that the North had defeated the South to claim victory in the Civil War. The Union armies marched through the region confiscating whatever they desired and destroying everything else. Aside from the high number of

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75

80

85

90

casualties that the South endured, the emancipation further reduced the workforce. Moreover, many of the farm animals that had not been confiscated by the Union died from disease or famine, further restricting the food supply and labor. In the aftermath, the region lay in ruins and the South was locked into a cycle of poverty. Despite attempts at Reconstruction, it took over a century for the South to recover from the destruction wrought by the Union armies. Outfitted with more men and material to fight the war, the North overpowered the Confederacy and claimed victory in the end. However, the win came at far too high a price. Racial oppression, an astonishing body count, and the crippling of half of the nation’s economy are difficult points to overcome. With the nation in tatters, it would take generations before Americans would agree that the Union had been preserved.

1. Which of the following best describes the author’s opinion of the Civil War?

HW - 1

2. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 2-5 (“To . . . invaders”) B) Lines 16-20 (“In . . . cause”) C) Lines 63-69 (“Spurred . . . War”) D) Lines 83-91 (“Outfitted . . . preserved”) 3. As used in line 23, “alleviated” most nearly means A) mitigated. B) exacerbated. C) differentiated. D) ignored. 4. In lines 24-45 (“The most common . . . Civil Rights Era”), what is the author’s central idea about the Civil War and its effect on African Americans living in the South?

A) The war took a heavy toll on the country, but the North’s victory made it worth the price.

A) Slavery was naturally dying out in the South, so fighting a war to end it was unnecessary.

B) The war wrought destruction and generations of racial oppression and poverty in the South, outweighing any benefits resulting from the ­conflict.

B) African Americans greatly benefited from the outcome of the war.

C) It is hard to say if the Civil War was worth the price America paid; while slavery was outlawed and the country reunited, there was also much destruction and lasting negative effects. D) It is a tragedy that the South lost the Civil War because Southerners had many good ideas about how the country should be run.

C) Contrary to popular belief, African Americans did not enjoy an improvement in their status after the war. D) It is impossible to say whether ­African Americans benefited from the North’s victory. 5. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 41-45 (“Thus . . . Era”) B) Lines 46-49 (“This . . . place”) C) Lines 56-62 (“Neither . . . years”) D) Lines 83-86 (“Outfitted . . . price”)

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6. The author most likely includes lines ­63-69 (“Spurred in part . . . Civil War”) to A) connect the Northern rationale for the strategy used in the South to the following paragraph, which details the lasting damage done to the region.

HW - 1

9. The author emphasizes the number of casualties in the Civil War—for example, in lines 60-62 (“An estimated . . . four years”)—to A) demonize Abraham Lincoln.

B) counter claims that the South did not suffer much damage during the war.

B) overshadow any benefits from the North’s victory by citing the death and destruction caused by the war.

C) support the author’s earlier claims that the war did not necessarily advance African American causes.

C) give the reader an idea of the size of the American population in the 1860s.

D) distract the reader from the author’s main point.

D) change the reader’s views on slavery.

7. As used in line 52, “intolerant of ” most nearly means

10. All of the following are cited as reasons why the Civil War was not worth the price EXCEPT

A) indifferent to.

A) continued racial oppression.

B) scared of.

B) legal freedom for African Americans.

C) opposed to.

C) the high number of casualties.

D) supportive of.

D) Southern economic upheaval.

8. According to the passage, the Emancipation Proclamation—mentioned in lines 26-30 (“In reality . . . the Union”)—served to free A) all enslaved people in North America. B) slaves in colonial territories controlled by the United States. C) the few remaining slaves in the North. D) slaves held in states that had seceded from the United States.

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191

HW - 2

Business Entities In the business sector of New York City, giant corporations conduct

6. A) NO CHANGE

their business in colossal towers. But what about the individual who wants

B) Never fear,

to operate a business without being subject to the whims of corporate

C) Don’t worry,

shareholders? How can such an individual realize her dreams to own a business, perhaps not equal in size to large corporations but at least their rival in ambition?

6

Life goes on, for the eager entrepreneur has two

For the confident entrepreneur looking to succeed on her own, there is sole proprietorship. In a sole proprietorship, there is one owner who is

operation. Of course, as with all choices in life,

8

7

it’s

this does not come

without its share of disadvantages. Sole proprietorships aren’t seen as separate

9

7. A) NO CHANGE B) their C) its

options.

“solely” responsible for the business and any decisions regarding

D) In fact,

from their owners, so credit may be a problem, especially if

D) its’ 8. A) NO CHANGE B) sole proprietorship C) business D) this operation 9. A) NO CHANGE B) with

you don’t have a lot of financial assets on hand. You’re fine if the business

C) between

is lucrative, but if not, sole proprietorships can be a scary proposition

D) by

since being the only boss also means taking on any and all debt that your

B) who’s

business incurs. If our entrepreneur is lucky enough to have a group of like-minded acquaintances with

10. A) NO CHANGE

10

who to start her company, she and her associates

might instead opt to form a partnership. A partnership sacrifices some of the operational freedom that comes with a sole proprietorship, as you now have a bunch of “friends” to convince before you can have things your way on any business decisions that need to be

11

C) whose D) whom 11. A) NO CHANGE B) made, however C) made; however, D) made, however,

made however

these same individuals will also be chipping in on expenses and sharing responsibility for any debt that the business may incur.

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12. A) NO CHANGE

12 12 Profits are shared with your partners on payday, but the ­extra support they can provide if the business struggles helps to make up for that.

13

Partnerships, however, are less lucrative for the indi-

vidual than sole proprietorships. While the partnership seems to alleviate many of the problems that plague the sole proprietorship, it does have its share of disadvantages. In a sole proprietorship, the business could be sold if you, the owner, desire it, but a partnership requires consent from your partners before

14

this

can take place. Moreover, unlike corporations, which come with limited liability for their shareholders, if the business runs deeply into debt, you are still responsible for your complete share of the debt, even if you do have others to share that debt with. When viewed in this light, the “evil

Average Net Income per Individual

corporations” surrounding us may be a necessary evil indeed.

90,000 80,000 70,000 60,000 50,000 40,000 30,000 20,000 10,000 $0

Partnership Versus Sole Proprietorship Net Income, 2002–2005

B) You will share profits with your partners C) Profits will be shared with your partners D) Partners will share your profits 13. Which choice best reflects the data in the graph? A) NO CHANGE B) Sole proprietorships, however, are more lucrative for the individual than partnerships. C) Partnerships, however, have a lower net income per person than sole proprietorships. D) Partnerships are also more lucrative for the individual than are sole proprietorships. 14. A) NO CHANGE B) this partnership C) this consent D) this sale

2002

2003

Sole proprietorships

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HW - 2

2004

2005

Partnerships

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Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

1. A) NO CHANGE B) an avoidance of

The North American Suburb

C) a response to

The North American suburb is an architectural and civic phenomenon distinct from suburban areas in any other part of the world. It was 1

HW - 3

a counterreaction to the need, especially keen after World War II, to

“get away” from the city and all the noise, pollution, and general nastiness that went along with it. Cities were where the factories were, and

D) an intensifier of 2. A) NO CHANGE B) get out many did. C) get out . . . many did. D) get out; many did. 3. A) NO CHANGE

the factories before modern pollution and safety standards were horrific

B) self-sufficient.

things to behold. Of those who could

C) entirely sufficient by themselves to support life.

2

get out, many did.

Suburban communities, however, were not

3

sufficient by them-

selves to support life. The people who lived in them needed to work, shop, and socialize, and most of the active part of their lives remained fixed in urban centers.

4

Paradoxically, suburbs were clustered around their par-

ent cities, with the suburban inhabitants avoiding the city center.

D) sufficiently able to adequately support life by themselves. 4. A) NO CHANGE B) Therefore, suburbs were unnecessarily far from their parent cities, hampering suburban inhabitants’ intent to commute to the city for work and play. C) Therefore, suburbs were clustered around their parent cities, with suburban inhabitants commuting daily to the city center for work and play. D) Suburbs therefore developed the amenities needed for suburbanites who were unwilling to ever go back into the city.

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All this seems perfectly logical and inevitable. The suburb should

HW - 3

5. A) NO CHANGE

be the ambiguous halfway point between city and country—away from

B) drawbacks

the noise, congestion, and pollution but not so far away that there’s no

C) perils

access to culture, to income, to all the exciting

5

pitfalls of urban life.

In reality, though, few suburbs have actually approached this ideal. Moreover, the structure of the

6

modern suburb, while offering a

respite from city pollution, has created health and environmental risks of its own. Suburban zoning laws

7

have forced the separation of living

and commercial spaces. As such, the city dweller’s fond experience of walking down the block to the neighborhood café may be rare or entirely alien to a suburbanite. Should a suburb dweller, on a Saturday morning, desire a change of scenery and a cup of coffee, she must get in her car and drive some distance.

8

Come to think of it, nearly

everything aside from the other houses and the occasional neighborhood park requires an automobile trip. All of this driving comes at the cost of pollution and a lack of daily exercise. Surely, we must begin to balance the appeal and freedom of the car with ecological and civic ­responsibility.

D) benefits 6. A) NO CHANGE B) modern suburb while offering a respite from city pollution has ­created C) modern suburb (while offering a respite from city pollution) has ­created D) modern suburb; while offering a respite from city pollution; has ­created 7. A) NO CHANGE B) has C) having D) had 8. A) NO CHANGE B) As fate would have it, nearly ­everything C) Contrary to popular belief, nearly everything D) In fact, nearly everything

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[1] Some have charged that America doesn’t need any more of these bland developments, that these projects line construction companies’ pockets without contributing much to the value and diversity of American culture. [2]

9

I, however, think that the problem of suburbs

can be described as one of degree rather than kind. [3] We don’t need to abandon suburbs altogether; we instead need to more knowingly pursue

HW - 3

9. A) NO CHANGE B) I, however, believe that the problem of the suburbs should be described as one of degree rather than kind. C) I, however, see the problem of suburbs as one of degree rather than kind. D) I, however, think that one can see the problem of suburbs as one of degree rather than kind.

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196

HW - 3

10. Which answer choice best describes the data in the graph as fascinating and beautiful places; we need only exercise our power it relates to the passage? that ideal of the best of city and country. [4] Suburbs could be

Population Growth (%)

to determine the nature of the places in which we live.

1.6 1.4 1.2 1.0 0.8 0.6 0.4 0.2 0

City and Suburb Rates of Growth

Annual Avg. Growth 2000–2010

Annual Avg. Growth 2010–2011

Primary cities

Suburbs

10 11

A) Despite the growing awareness of the shortcomings of suburban living, America’s suburban population continues to grow faster than that of the country’s primary cities. B) It also seems that Americans’ opinions of the suburbs are quantifiably changing—from 2010 to 2011, population growth in cities outstripped growth in the suburbs. C) Suburbs may have their naysayers, but the fact remains that it is hard to detect any change in where Americans are settling. D) Contrary to continued positive perceptions of the suburbs, population growth swung back in favor of primary cities in the early twenty-first century. 11. What is the best placement for the sentence featured in the answer to the previous question? A) After sentence 1 B) After sentence 2 C) Before sentence 4 D) After sentence 4

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HW - 4

Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage. The following is adapted from a short story first published in 1921. The author was a Native American woman.

Line 5

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15

20

25

30

It was summer on the western plains, and fields of golden sunflowers, facing eastward, greeted the rising sun. Blue-Star Woman, with windshorn braids of white hair over each ear, sat in the shade of her log hut before an open fire. Lonely but unmolested, she dwelt here like the ground squirrel that took its abode nearby—both through the easy tolerance of the landowner. As the Indian woman held a skillet over the burning embers, a large round cake, with long slashes in its center, baked and crowded the capacity of the frying pan. In deep abstraction, Blue-Star Woman prepared her morning meal. “Who am I?” had become the obsessing riddle of her life. She was no longer a young woman, being in her fifty-third year; yet now it was required of her, in the eyes of the white man’s law, to give proof of her membership in the Sioux tribe in order to get her share of tribal land. The unwritten law of heart prompted her naturally to say, “I am a being. I am Blue-Star Woman. A piece of earth is my birthright.” It was taught for reasons now forgotten that an Indian should never pronounce his or her name in answer to any inquiry. It was probably a means of protection in the days of black magic; be that as it may, Blue-Star Woman lived in times when this teaching was disregarded. It gained her nothing, however, to pronounce her name to the government official to whom she applied for her share of tribal land. His persistent question was always, “Who are your parents?” Blue-Star Woman was left an orphan at a tender age, so she did not remember them. They were long-gone to the spirit-land—and she could not understand why they should be recalled

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to earth on her account. It was another one of the old, old teachings of her race that the names of the dead should not be idly spoken—in fact, it was considered a sacrilege to mention carelessly the name of any departed one, especially in disputes over worldly possessions. The unfortunate circumstances of her early childhood, together with the lack of written records of a roving people, placed a formidable barrier between her and her heritage. The fact was, events of far greater importance to the tribe than her reincarnation had passed unrecorded in books. The verbal reports of the old-time men and women of the tribe were varied—some were contradictory. Blue-Star Woman was unable to find even a twig of her family tree. . . . Blue-Star Woman was her individual name. For untold ages the Indian race had not used family names—a newborn child was given a brand-new name. Blue-Star Woman was proud to write her name for which she would not be required to substitute another’s upon her marriage, as is the custom of civilized peoples. “The times are changed now,” she muttered under her breath. “My individual name seems to mean nothing.” Looking out into space, she saw the nodding sunflowers, and they acquiesced with her. . . . With fried bread and black coffee she regaled herself, and once again her mind reverted to her riddle. “This also puzzles me,” thought she to herself. “Once a wise leader of our people, addressing a president of this country, said: ‘I am a man. You are another. The Great Spirit is our witness!’ This is simple and easy to understand, but the times are changed—the white man’s laws are strange.”

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1. The primary purpose of the passage is to A) highlight the differences between the laws of two cultures. B)

describe the impact of a changing world on a woman.

C) illustrate the danger of living apart from society. D) show the futility of preserving ancient myths in modern times. 2. The author most likely mentions the “ground squirrel” in line 6 in order to A) suggest Blue-Star Woman’s profound relationship with nature. B) C)

demonstrate Blue-Star Woman’s keen observation of her surroundings. show Blue-Star Woman’s adaptability to squalid living conditions.

D) indicate Blue-Star Woman’s overwhelming loneliness. 3. As used in line 8, “tolerance” most nearly means A) neglect. B)

fortitude.

C) permission. D) open-mindedness.

HW - 4

5. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 22-24 (“It . . . inquiry”) B)

Lines 26-28 (“Blue-Star Woman . . . name”)

C) Lines 46-48 (“The . . . contradictory”) D)

Lines 63-68 (“Once . . . strange”)

6. As used in line 12, “abstraction” most nearly means A) reverie. B)

happiness.

C)

uncertainty.

D)

self-reflection.

7. The second paragraph suggests that “the white man’s law” in lines 16-17 differ from the “unwritten law of heart” in line 19 in that the latter A) suggests that every person deserves land of his or her own. B)

has practical consequences for BlueStar Woman.

C)

considers each human being to be different.

D) places restrictions on who can and cannot own land.

4. The phrase in lines 57-58 (“My individual name seems to mean nothing”) most nearly reflects Blue-Star Woman’s A) devastating loss of privilege and good reputation among her people. B) sad comprehension that cherished old customs are losing their relevance. C)

great dismay that she has no children to carry on the family name.

D) unsettling realization that no member of the tribe remembers her.

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HW - 4

8. Which choice best describes the government official’s treatment of Blue-Star Woman’s situation? A) The official tries his best to accommodate Blue-Star Woman’s circumstances. B)

The official lacks cultural empathy and is unwilling to understand BlueStar Woman’s difficulties.

C)

The official solves Blue-Star Woman’s dilemma by the end of the passage.

D) The official is suspicious of Blue-Star Woman’s motives. 9. Which choice provides the best support for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 12-14 (“In . . . life”) B)

Lines 27-30 (“It . . . land”)

C) Lines 30-32 (“His . . . them”) D) Lines 35-40 (“It . . . possessions”)

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HW - 5

Questions 7-14 are based on the following passage.

The Taj Mahal 7

Some places are so beautiful that it’s hard to believe they are

real, and not some glimpse into another world or paradise. Lying on the bank of the Yamuna River in northern India is one such place, one of the world’s most famous and beautiful buildings—the Taj Mahal. Built by the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan as a burial home for his favorite consort, Arjumand Banu Bagam (known as Mumtaz Mahal, “the Elect of the Palace”),

8

construction started soon after her death in 1631.

The mausoleum was completed by about 1643, and the surrounding complex of buildings and gardens was completed about ten years later.

7. The author believes that the introduction is wordy as written. To make it more concise without losing important information, the author should A) omit the first two sentences. B) combine the first two sentences. C) remove any mention of the death of Arjumand Banu Bagam. D) omit “(known as Mumtaz Mahal, “the Elect of the Palace”).” 8. A) NO CHANGE B) plans for its construction started soon after her death in 1631 C) the Taj Mahal’s construction started soon after her death in 1631 D) this ornate tomb saw its construction started soon after her death in 1631

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9

The Taj Mahal is an expression of love and loss. Its architect

employed centuries of Iranian and Central Asian

10

mausoleum design.

He thereby constructed a breathtakingly symmetrical representation of heaven. The mausoleum is set within a square garden 1,002 feet on each side. The garden is bounded by red sandstone walls. Canals divide the garden into four smaller

11

squares, each of which contains fountains,

flower beds, and cypress trees—Mughal symbols of death. The canals converge on a large, rectangular pool in which the white marble mausoleum appears to float. Flanking the mausoleum are two identical red sandstone buildings. One of these buildings is a mosque; the other is a replica (Jawab, or “answer”) of the mosque placed there to

12

conserve the complex’s

unearthly proportionality. One can see this proportionality in the

HW - 5

9. A) NO CHANGE B) In addition, the Taj Mahal is C) Nonetheless, the Taj Mahal is much more than D) The Taj Mahal, given its beauty, is 10. A) NO CHANGE B) mausoleum design to construct C) mausoleum design; he therein sought to construct D) mausoleum design, and at the same time was able to construct 11. A) NO CHANGE B) squares, each of which containing fountains, flower beds, and cypress trees—Mughal symbols of death C) squares, containing fountains, flower beds, and cypress trees—Mughal symbols of death D) squares, containing Mughal symbols of death 12. A) NO CHANGE B) attenuate C) preserve D) reserve

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design of the mausoleum’s exterior.

13

In the most basic analysis, the

mausoleum is essentially a cube set upon a raised, marble platform of approximately 313 square feet. Minarets (towers) jut skyward from the platform’s corners. The mausoleum has four identical façades, each of which contains a large, recessed, pointed arch 108 feet in height. On top of the cube rests a 240-foot-high onion dome. Four smaller domes lie next to this dome. They are situated along the diagonal axes formed by the top square face of the mausoleum, thus mirroring the placement of the minarets on the square platform. A sense of serene majesty pervades the mausoleum’s interior. Sunlight enters the octagonal hall through delicately carved, jewel-studded marble screens. Mumtaz Mahal’s gemencrusted tomb lies in the center. Her beloved’s equally opulent crypt lies at its side. 14

The Taj Mahal complex is one of the supreme human achieve-

ments. As an architectural representation of the afterlife, it is unmatched. The heaven it portrays is one of serenity and symmetry. A perfect balance is struck between the mausoleum’s curves and straight lines, between its bulges and recesses—even between the solidity of its marble and the form that marble gives to the empty space around it. This equilibrium pervades the surrounding gardens, where the constant,

HW - 5

13. A) NO CHANGE B) In the most basic analysis, the mausoleum is a cube C) By a basic analysis, the mausoleum is essentially a cube D) The mausoleum is essentially a cube 14. Which answer choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? A) We should appreciate the Taj Mahal for its supremacy above all other structures. B) The Taj Mahal is pervaded by a sense of serene majesty. C) The symmetry and balance of the Taj Mahal’s design create a sense of peace after death. D) The Taj Mahal exemplifies what human achievement can accomplish through experience of love and loss.

gentle flow of water mixes with the aroma of flowers to produce the sense of peace after death yearned for by all cultures.

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HW - 6

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Women’s Music in the 19th Century In the aftermath of the French Revolution, political and social currents in Europe brought with them significant developments in the world of music. Patronage of the arts no longer exclusively belonged to the

1

aristocracy. The increasingly prosperous middle class flocked

to public concerts and music

2

festivals, contributing to the develop-

ment of Romanticism. Furthermore, the elevated status of the middle class increased the participation of women in the musical field, which had traditionally been associated with men. Families encouraged their daughters to study voice or piano, since this would improve their marriage prospects. traditional notions.

3

Singing, in particular, was favored because of

1. A) NO CHANGE B) aristocracy, and the increasingly C) aristocracy; the increasingly D) aristocracy: the increasingly 2. A) NO CHANGE B) festivals. Furthermore, the elevated C) festivals, as well as developing Romanticism. Furthermore, the elevated D) festivals, giving us Romanticism. Furthermore, the elevated 3. A) NO CHANGE B) Singing, in particular, was favored because of traditional notions that women were not gifted singers. C) Singing, in particular, was favored because of the traditional notion that a mother’s singing benefited her child. D) Singing, in particular, was favored because of old-fashioned, traditional notions.

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4

Female musical professionals were still uncommon. Husbands

and fathers could forbid even the most competent women to appear in public, publish music under their own names, or accept fees for their teaching.

5

Permission from a man was, ridiculously, still required for

a woman’s musical career regardless of her talent.

HW - 6

4. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? A) In this new era of possibility, women were afforded unprecedented opportunities to pursue music professionally. B) Despite social progress, women did not become professional musicians. C) Women took full advantage of the new openness in music, and many started successful composing careers. D) Although society was beginning to accept musical education and activities for women, female musical professionals were still uncommon. 5. A) NO CHANGE B) Permission from a man was still required C) Permission from a man was, outrageously, still required D) Permission from a man was, reasonably, still required

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[1]

6

Opinions (constraining women musicians) can be traced

back to influential eighteenth-century writers who believed that women did not possess the capacity to create as artists. [2] Jean-Jacques Rousseau, for example, asserted, “women, in general, possess no artistic sensibility . . . nor genius.” [3] Furthermore, it was held that musical knowledge detracted from the business of being a wife and mother. [4] In Johann Campe’s view, “Among a hundred praiseworthy female composers hardly one can be found who fulfills simultaneously all the duties of a reasonable and good wife, an attentive and efficient housekeeper, and a concerned mother.”

7

HW - 6

6. A) NO CHANGE B) Opinions (constraining women musicians) are traced C) Opinions constraining women musicians can be traced D) Opinions—constraining women musicians—can be traced 7. For the sake of the cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 2 should be placed A) where it is now. B) before sentence 1. C) before sentence 4. D) after sentence 4.

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Nineteenth-century society agreed with these sentiments. Women who performed publicly or attempted creative work suffered not only societal censure, but also internal conflicts about their own aspirations. Even the great composer Clara Schumann, encouraged both by her husband and the musical public, expressed doubts about her creative ability: “I once believed that I possessed creative talent, but I have given up this idea.” 9

8

Schumann were, in fact, a

10

trailblazer—one of the first female

composers to construct large-scale orchestral works. At the time, the “art song”—a type of chamber music—was considered to be a “safe” genre for women composers. They also chose the art song as a medium of expression because its composition required less training than that of a symphony. Defying convention, Schumann composed the “masculine” orchestral piece Piano Concerto in A Minor. Although not considered her finest, this work

11

demonstrates to the women who followed Schu-

mann that their musical creativity was free from society’s bonds.

HW - 6

8. Which choice most effectively summarizes Schumann’s dilemma to best serve as the paragraph’s concluding sentence? A) Schumann was embarrassed by her successes, which overshadowed those of her male relatives. B) Schumann had mixed feelings about being a successful female composer in a society that preferred women to pursue maternal duties. C) Views on proper feminine behavior were so entrenched that Schumann could not appreciate her own accomplishments. D) Societal norms proved so powerful that Schumann eventually abandoned composing music. 9. A) NO CHANGE B) Schumann is, in fact, C) Schumann will, in fact, D) Schumann was, in fact, 10. A) NO CHANGE B) guinea pig C) anomaly D) flash in the pan 11. A) NO CHANGE B) demonstrated C) demonstrate D) demonstrating

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HW - 7

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage. This passage, excerpted from the writing of W.E.B. Du Bois, a pioneer in sociology and historiography and one of America’s greatest African American leaders, was published in 1903. Easily the most striking thing in the history of African Americans since 1876 is the ascendancy of Mr. Booker T. Washington. His programme of Line industrial education, conciliation of the South, 5 and submission and silence as to civil and political rights, was not wholly original. . . . But Mr. Washington . . . put enthusiasm, unlimited energy, and perfect faith into this programme, and changed it from a by-path into a veritable Way of Life. . . . It 10 startled the nation to hear someone advocating such a programme after many decades of bitter complaint; it startled and won the applause of the South, it interested and won the admiration of the North; and after a confused murmur of protest, it silenced 15 if it did not convert African Americans themselves. [That is because] Mr. Washington represents in thought the old attitude of adjustment and submission. . . . [I]n our own land, the reaction from the sentiment of war-time has given impetus to 20 race-prejudice against blacks, and Mr. Washington withdraws many of the high demands of blacks as men and American citizens. In other periods of intensified prejudice African Americans’ tendency to self-assertion has been called forth; at this period 25 a policy of submission is advocated. In the history of nearly all other races and peoples the doctrines preached at such crises has been that manly selfrespect is worth more than lands and houses, and

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30

35

40

that a people who voluntarily surrender such respect, or cease striving for it, are not worth civilizing. In answer to this it has been claimed that all blacks can survive only through submission. Mr. Washington distinctly asks that black people give up, at least for the present, three things—First, political power; Second insistence on civil rights; Third, higher education of black youth—and concentrate all their energies on industrial education, and accumulation of wealth, and the conciliation of the South. This policy has been courageously and insistently advocated for over fifteen years, and has been triumphant for perhaps ten years. As a result of this tender of the palm-branch, what has been the return? In these years there have occurred:

1. The disfranchisement* of African Americans. 45

2. The legal creation of a distinct status of civil inferiority of African Americans. 3. The steady withdrawal of aid from institutions for the higher training of African Americans.

50

These movements are not, to be sure, direct results of Mr. Washington’s teachings; but his propaganda has, without a shadow of a doubt, helped their speedier accomplishment. The question then comes: Is it possible, and probable, that nine millions of men can make effective progress in

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55

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economic lines if they are deprived of political rights, made a servile caste, and allowed only the most meagre chance for developing their exceptional men? If history and reason give any distinct answer to these questions, it is an emphatic No. . . . They [who disagree with Mr. Washington] do not expect that the free right to vote, to enjoy civil rights and to be educated, will come in a moment. They do not expect to see the bias and prejudice of years disappear at the blast of a trumpet. But they are absolutely certain that the way for a people to gain their reasonable rights is clear. Blacks must insist continually . . . that voting is necessary to modern [citizenship], that color discrimination is barbarism, and that black children need education as well as white children. In failing thus to state plainly and unequivocally the legitimate demands of their people, even at the cost of opposing an honored leader, the thinking classes of African Americans would shirk a heavy responsibility. . . . The growing spirit of kindliness and reconciliation between the North and South after the frightful differences of a generation ago ought to be a source of deep congratulation to all, and especially to those whose mistreatment caused the war; but if that reconciliation is to be marked by the industrial slavery and civic death of those same black men, with permanent legislation into a position of inferiority, then those black men, if they are really men, are called upon by every consideration of patriotism and loyalty to oppose such a course by all civilized methods, even though such opposition involves disagreement with Mr. Booker T. Washington. We have no right to sit silently by while the inevitable seeds are sown for a harvest of disaster to our children, black and white. *disfranchisement: deprivation of the right to vote

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HW - 7

1. The author’s attitude toward the “veritable Way of Life” mentioned in line 9 would most likely be A) wholehearted endorsement. B) qualified acceptance. C) cautious skepticism. D) vigorous disapproval. 2. According to the passage, a major obstacle to changing the policy mentioned in lines 32-39 was caused by A) entrenched attitudes about Washington. B) Washington’s ascendancy since 1876. C) reluctance to oppose Washington. D) Washington’s teaching and propaganda. 3. As used in line 42, “tender” most nearly means A) offer. B) soft. C) caretaker. D) money. 4. According to the passage, the choice between the author’s position and Washington’s position can best be summarized as a choice between A) kindliness and reconciliation. B) silence and conversion. C) demands and prejudice. D) self-assertion and submission.

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5. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

HW - 7

9. The stance the author takes in the passage is most similar to that of

A) Lines 14-15 (“And . . . themselves”)

A) a philosopher outlining his theory.

B) Lines 18-22 (“In . . . citizens”)

B) an activist imploring others to join his cause.

C) Lines 22-25 (“In . . . advocated”) D) Lines 75-80 (“The . . . war”) 6. The purpose of the fourth paragraph is to A) argue that Washington was not responsible for the outcomes cited in lines 44-48. B) contrast the results of Washington’s teachings with those of his propaganda. C) assert that Washington’s goals cannot be met in the condition he helped to create. D) advocate a “wait-and-see” attitude before judging Washington’s accomplishments.

C) a debater seeking to defeat his opponent. D) a politician defining his platform. 10. In the sixth paragraph, the author suggests that the failure to act would be most harmful to A) an honored leader (line 73). B) the thinking classes (lines 73-74). C) the North and South (lines 75-86). D) our children, black and white (lines 90-91).

7. The author suggests that Washington is in favor of each of the following EXCEPT A) submission and silence. B) industrial education. C) political power. D) accumulation of wealth. 8. As used in line 55, “lines” most nearly means A) areas. B) queues. C) borders. D) products.

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HW - 8

Questions 8-15 are based on the following passage.

Dinosaur Extinction Theories The question of why dinosaurs became extinct has puzzled paleontologists since the first dinosaur fossil was found almost two centuries ago.

8

Fossil records suggest that perhaps as many as five “mass extinc-

tions” have occurred in the last five million years. Various explanations for this have been offered, ranging from disease to sudden, catastrophic cooling, but definitive proof has remained elusive.

8. Which choice most effectively clarifies the main topic of this paragraph? A) NO CHANGE B) These great reptiles dominated the earth for almost 160 million years but mysteriously died out approximately 65 million years ago. C) In 1841, British scientist Richard Owens coined the term “Dinosauria,” meaning “terrible lizard.” D) Scientists estimate that over 98% of all known species are extinct today.

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In 1980, Luis Alvarez

9

HW - 8

suggested a novel explanation: cosmic

extinction. According to Alvarez and his geologist son Walter, a huge meteor

10

crashing into the earth’s surface 65 million years ago, send-

ing up a massive cloud of dust and rock particles. The cloud blocked out sunlight for a period of months or even years, disrupting plant photosynthesis and, by extension, the global food chain. The lack of vegetation, coupled with a significant drop in temperature, resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs. Alvarez based his theory on a curious piece of evidence: the presence of a thin layer of iridium that had recently been discovered in geologic sediments laid down at approximately the time the dinosaurs died out. The metal iridium is rarely found on the earth’s

11

surface

and Alvarez reasoned that it had either come up from the earth’s core by volcanic action or been deposited from space through the fall of one or more meteorites. He found the latter explanation more likely, given the even distribution of the iridium layer worldwide. But paleontologists scoffed at the Alvarez extinction theory. Neither Luis nor Walter Alvarez was a paleontologist, yet they claimed to have solved a mystery that had defied the efforts of paleontologists for over a century. Professional hostility was also fueled by the somewhat abrasive style of the elder Alvarez.

12

A similar objection to the Alvarez theory

9. The author is considering adding the following phrase “ . . . , winner of the Nobel Prize in Physics, . . . ” at this point. Should this phrase be added? A) Yes, because it provides a relevant detail about Alvarez’s credibility as a scientist. B) Yes, because it provides an example of Alvarez’s importance to modern science. C) No, because it detracts from the paragraph’s focus on the explanation for the extinction. D) No, because it does not provide any relevant support for the author’s purpose. 10. A) NO CHANGE B) crashes C) crashed D) had crashed 11. A) NO CHANGE B) surface; Alvarez C) surface, Alvarez D) surface Alvarez 12. Which choice provides information most relevant to the focus of this paragraph? A) NO CHANGE B) Another C) The final D) But the most important

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was evidential. In order to create worldwide fallout on the scale suggested by Alvarez, the “doomsday” meteorite would have had to be on the border of five miles in diameter; its impact would have formed a crater perhaps a hundred miles wide.

13

Finally, a decade after the cosmic extinction theory was first proposed, the crater was found. Lying on the northern edge of Mexico’s Yucatan Peninsula, the crater is 110 miles wide. Long buried under sediment, it had actually been discovered

14

in 1981 by oil geologists, but

HW - 8

13. Which of the following clarifies the main objection to the Alvarez theory and could conclude this paragraph? A) Earth has been struck by meteors many times. B) The meteor crater in Arizona is less than a mile wide. C) The largest crater on the moon is nearly 1,400 miles in diameter. D) Where was the crater? 14. The author is considering omitting the underlined section. Should the section be kept or omitted? A) Kept, because it provides an example of how recently oil geologists discovered the crater. B) Kept, because it provides a relevant detail about the confirmation of the Alvarez theory. C) Omitted, because the information it provides is irrelevant to the author’s purpose. D) Omitted, because it shifts the focus from the Alvarez theory to oil geology.

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datings of nearby rock samples taken at that time suggested that it was significantly older than 65 million years. New samples of melted rock from the crater itself were recently analyzed

15

by a team in California,

HW - 1 scientists however, and were found to be 64.98 million years old. Many now feel that, thanks to the Alvarez theory, the mystery of dinosaur extinction has finally been solved.

HW - 8

15. The author wants to add an additional detail explaining why scientists found the new samples convincing. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A) NO CHANGE B) based on the radioactive decay of an element C) by an advanced dating process D) using a process called geochronology

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HW - 9

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

1. A) NO CHANGE

Math and Computers At their desks, restless children

1

sullenly await their math test.

At the teacher’s signal, an intelligent student turns over his test paper to reveal the first question, a multiplication problem that asks “What does 6 × 7 = ?” Without thinking, he, like his classmates,

2

reaches for his

calculator. He pushes a few buttons. Then he copies the numbers on the screen. [1] From the calculators in our classrooms to the smartphones in our pockets, computers have become an integral part of our lives. [2] Often, their presence is a great boon to society, improving our productivity both in the workplace and at home. [3] They serve as our traffic lights, our bank tellers, and even our security systems. [4] Tedious chores can now be handled with little effort on our part. [5] Vacuuming, for example, used to take hours of pushing a heavy machine around the house, but now with a simple push of a button a robot will happily vacuum for you. [6] Despite all these benefits, the advent of computers, with our increasing dependence upon them, also has disadvantages.

3

As computers become an increasingly important aspect of our lives, children are exposed to them at increasingly younger ages. 4

This is appropriate; as children are better able to learn and master

B) nervously C) unsuccessfully D) angrily 2. A) NO CHANGE B) reaches for his calculator, pushes a few buttons, and copies the numbers C) reaches for his calculator and pushes a few buttons. Then he copies the numbers D) reaches for his calculator. Then he pushes a few buttons and copies the numbers 3. To make sure the paragraph follows a logical progression, sentence 6 should be placed A) where it is now. B) before sentence 1. C) after sentence 1. D) after sentence 3. 4. A) NO CHANGE B) This is appropriate. As children are C) This is appropriate, as children are D) This is appropriate—as children are

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concepts introduced to them at an earlier age.

5

Kids don’t stay kids

forever, and they soak up knowledge the younger they are. Unfortunately, there is such a thing as “too early” in this case—when knowledge of the use of a seemingly harmless electronic assistant starts competing with the necessity to master basic fundamentals that are no less important to know.

6

As part of this push to familiarize young children with computers, our public school system encourages the use of calculators on tests.

7

While devices capable of performing calculations are always

at hand, children no longer need to learn even basic math skills. How far will this go? How long before we have a generation that, without a calculator, is completely bewildered by the simplest math? This trend is

HW - 9

5. A) NO CHANGE B) The “window of learning” closes fast, so you should be teaching them as young as possible. C) The early bird gets the worm, as they say, and that saying applies to teaching new ideas. D) Because the optimal window for learning is all too short, earlier is usually better. 6. Which sentence most effectively establishes the central idea of the paragraph? A) Teaching young children to use computers can have benefits, preventing them from learning fundamental skills. B) Children are learning to use computers at an early age, which can make them computer experts faster. C) Computers are becoming easier to use, which allows young children to learn how to operate them. D) Children who don’t learn the basic fundamentals at an early age will have problems later in life. 7. A) NO CHANGE B) Unless C) When D) Because

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indeed frightening, but it is only the beginning.

8

Today, the need to

know basic math has been removed. Years from now, will this extend to complex math and even science? Already, proper spelling and grammar have lost importance on the Internet! How long will it be before the human race is but a mindless hive, incapable of anything beyond pushing a button?

9

[1] The advent of computers has indeed made a significant impact upon our lives. [2] The solution is not to remove calculators and computers from the classroom. [3] These marvelous machines have made life easier

10

by reducing the total amount of work that may be required

for the most boring, menial tasks. [4] But is their coming a beneficial thing? 11

HW - 9

8. A) NO CHANGE B) Next C) Then D) In years past 9. Which piece of evidence from paragraph 4 provides the LEAST support for the central idea of the paragraph? A) Our public school system encourages the use of calculators on tests. B) Devices capable of performing calculations are always at hand. C) Children no longer need to learn even basic math skills. D) Proper spelling and grammar have lost importance on the Internet. 10. A) NO CHANGE B) by reducing tasks, which will reduce work needed on menial tasks C) by reducing the amount of work required for menial tasks D) by reducing menial tasks 11. Which sentence is least relevant to the central idea of the paragraph? A) Sentence 1 B) Sentence 2 C) Sentence 3 D) Sentence 4

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HW - 10

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage. The following passage is adapted from an article on the importance of bacteria to modern life.

Line 5

10

15

20

25

30

There is a whole category of life that is fascinating, versatile, useful, and surprisingly varied and populous, and it’s overlooked by a majority of people. Bacteria make up one and possibly two overarching categories of life, as biologists currently classify it. Prokaryotes, or true bacteria, are organisms without an organized cell nucleus. Archaebacteria were originally classified as prokaryotes, but recent studies have revealed differences in their cellular structure that might necessitate a whole new category to describe them. Bacteria are incredibly numerous; it may be that all the species we have ever catalogued make up only 5 percent of the total number of species of bacteria. They are everywhere in our world, from our dirt to our food to the very insides of our bodies. The fact that we can’t see them makes them easy to ignore, but their impact on our lives is undeniable and probably extends into more aspects of living than scientists are currently even aware of. Perhaps the most remarkable thing about bacteria is their ability to survive in extreme environmental conditions. The oldest fossils scientists have discovered are fossilized bacteria; they were on Earth when the planet was unbearably hot and carried no oxygen in its atmosphere. It was through bacteria evolving to adapt the sun’s light into nutrients, and their subsequent development of the same kind of photosynthesis that plants use today, that oxygen and carbon dioxide were introduced to our atmosphere as waste products, allowing plants and animals to find a toehold on an otherwise inhospitable planet. One thing that makes bacteria such hardy survivors is their ability to alter their living DNA

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35

40

45

50

55

60

65

by exchanging their own with that in the environment around them or with that of other bacteria using methods called, respectively, transformation and conjugation. In this way, they can acquire the genes necessary to protect themselves from extreme conditions like exceptionally hot, acidic, or airless environments; they can also acquire resistance to a particular antibiotic from another bacterium that already has that resistance. With these DNA-trading tactics, bacteria can benefit from evolutionary progress made by other species simply by assuming it as their own. The most common response to the word bacteria is to think of disease. While bacteria are the cause of many annoying and deadly diseases, most species are harmless, and many are actually beneficial. Bacteria are indispensable to many aspects of modern industry and production. We use bacteria to culture cheese and give each type its distinctive flavor, to treat sewage by breaking down harmful toxins into methane gas, to extract the desirable metal from other minerals in mines in a more environmentally friendly process than smelting, and to improve the nutrient absorption and therefore the yield of food crops. Bacteria are also the basis for biotechnology; by combining bacteria with human DNA, we can use bacterial reproduction to manufacture important hormones like insulin or antibodies that fight disease. Despite all their beneficial uses, of course, the negative impacts of some bacteria cannot be ignored. While one strain of bacteria might give your smoked gouda its distinctive flavor, another species could very well be working on spoiling it, covering it with mold. Much of the bacteria in pretreated sewage

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70

75

80

can cause deadly diseases. Some bacteria accelerate rusting, especially in metals containing iron. Other species will kill a farm’s entire crop. If canned food is not heated to 250° Fahrenheit during preservation, it could be infected with botulism, a deadly toxin. With all their dangers, ironically enough, bacteria are supporting other industries, such as those devoted to antibacterial cleaning products, sterilization, and controlling the growth of dangerous species. Our relationship with bacteria is not a simple one, but it is an important one and one that is highly, if invisibly, ingrained into our daily way of life.

1. The passage most strongly suggests that bacteria stand out from other organisms because of their ability to A) alter their living DNA. B) survive in extreme conditions. C) exist without an organized cell nucleus. D) manufacture important hormones. 2. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

HW - 10

3. As used in line 13, “catalogued” most nearly means A) filed. B) indexed. C) identified. D) listed. 4. The author wants to be more specific by replacing the word “thing” as it appears in lines 21 and 33. Which pair of words is most appropriate? A) article . . . point B) idea . . . preference C) remark . . . problem D) fact . . . attribute 5. The passage suggests that A) photosynthesis resulted from the process of transformation. B) bacteria are the cause of most deadly diseases.

A) Lines 6-7 (“Prokaryotes . . . nucleus”)

C) bacteria can cause great harm and can provide great benefits.

B) Lines 21-23 (“Perhaps . . . conditions”)

D) other species benefit from the DNA of bacteria.

C) Lines 33-38 (“One . . . conjugation”) D) Lines 59-62 (“Bacteria . . . disease”)

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6. Based on the passage, it can be most reasonably inferred that archaebacteria, mentioned in lines 7-8, A) evolved from prokaryotes. B) have an organized cell nucleus. C) are more numerous than prokaryotes. D) represent fewer than 5 percent of all bacteria species. 7. Based on the evidence in the second paragraph, it can be inferred that A) waste products from bacteria are a leading cause of global warming. B) bacteria acquired photosynthesis from plants by conjugation. C) extreme heat can be directly correlated to lower oxygen levels. D) bacteria are some of the oldest known life forms on earth. 8. All of the following are discussed as benefits resulting from bacteria EXCEPT A) introducing oxygen into the atmosphere.

HW - 10

9. Which of the following situations is most similar to “the methods of transformation and conjugation” referred to in lines 37-38? A) A chef prepares an original recipe and serves it in her restaurant. B) An artist draws a series of sketches and uses them to inspire a painting. C) A student interviews the mayor for a civics project and asks a classmate for help with math homework. D) An archeologist discovers the remains of an ancient civilization and hires a team to help explore the site. 10. The author mentions “botulism” in line 73 in order to A) explain how to safely preserve food. B) refute the claim that bacteria are harmless. C) call attention to a dangerous but little known food-borne illness. D) provide an example of a potential negative impact of bacteria.

B) producing the distinctive flavors of cheese. C) breaking down harmful toxins. D) promoting healthy digestion.

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HW - 11

Questions 9-16 are based on the following passage.

Sapphira and the Slave Girl Sapphira and the Slave Girl was the last novel of Willa Cather’s illustrious literary career.

9

It began in the late summer of 1937 and

finally completed in 1941. It is often regarded by critics as one of her most personal works. Although the story takes place in 1856, well before her own birth, she drew heavily on both vivid childhood memories and tales

10

passed down by older relatives to describe life in rural

northern Virginia in the middle of the 19th century. She even went on an extended journey to the area to give the story a further ring of

11

authenticity and realism.

9. Which choice most effectively combines the two sentences? A) NO CHANGE B) Begun in the late summer of 1937 and finally completed in 1941, it is often regarded by critics as one of her most personal works. C) It was begun in the late summer of 1937 and finally completed in 1941 and is often regarded by critics as one of her most personal works. D) Begun in the late summer of 1937 and finally completed in 1941, and it is often regarded by critics as one of her most personal works. 10. A) NO CHANGE B) given C) received D) understood 11. A) NO CHANGE B) authenticity C) realistic flair D) realness

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Of all of Cather’s many novels, Sapphira and the Slave Girl is the one most concerned with providing an overall picture of day-to-day life in a specific era. A number of the novel’s characters, it would seem, are included in the story only because they are representative of the types of people to be found in 19th-century rural Virginia; indeed, a few of them play no part whatsoever in the unfolding of the plot. For instance, we are introduced to a poor white woman, Mandy Ringer, who is portrayed as intelligent and content, despite the fact that she has no formal education and must toil constantly in the fields.

12

There’s also Dr. Clevenger.

He is a country doctor with nice manners who reminds you of the antebellum South. The title, however, accurately suggests that the novel is

13

mainly

about slavery. Cather’s attitude toward this institution may best be summed up as

14

flip-floppy. On the one hand, she displays almost

total indifference to the legal and political aspects of slavery when she

HW - 11

12. A) NO CHANGE B) And Dr. Clevenger, the country doctor with nice manners who evokes a strong image of the pre– Civil War South. C) In addition, we meet Dr. Clevenger, a country doctor who, with his patrician manners, evokes a strong image of the pre–Civil War South. D) You will also meet Dr. Clevenger, a country doctor who, with his patrician manners, evokes a strong image of the pre–Civil War South. 13. A) NO CHANGE B) solely

misidentifies certain crucial dates in its growth and development. Nor

C) only

does she ever really offer a direct condemnation of slavery. Yet, on the

D) also

other hand, the evil that was slavery gets through to us, albeit in typi-

14. A) NO CHANGE

cally subtle ways. Those characters, such as Mrs. Blake, who oppose the

B) one-sided

institution are portrayed in a sympathetic light. Furthermore, the suffer-

C) somewhat ambivalent

ing of the slaves themselves and the

D) somewhat ambiguous

15

petty, nasty, often cruel behavior

of the slaveowners are painted in stark terms.

15. A) NO CHANGE B) cruel C) somewhat cruel D) unbelievably cruel

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HW - 11

Although Sapphira and the Slave Girl was certainly not meant to be a political tract, the novel is sometimes considered to be a denunciation of bygone days. Nothing could be further from the truth.

16

If anything,

Willa Cather, in spite of her acknowledgement of her willingness that particular aspects of the past were far from ideal, was a romantic. Especially in the final years of her life, an increasing note of anger about the emptiness of the present crept into her writings. Earlier generations, she concluded, had been the real heroes, the real creators of all that was good in America.

16. A) NO CHANGE B) In spite of her willingness to acknowledge that particular aspects of the past were far from ideal, Willa Cather was, if anything, a bit of a romantic. C) Willa Cather, a bit of a romantic, in spite of her willingness to acknowledge that particular aspects of the past were far from ideal, if anything. D) Even though she was willing to acknowledge that particular aspects of the past were far from ideal, she was romantic, if anything.

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HW - 12

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Antarctica Think of a place as remote as the far side of the Moon, as strange as

1. A) NO CHANGE

Saturn, and as inhospitable as Mars, and that will convey some idea of

B) ice-free

what Antarctica is like. A mere 2.4 percent of its 5.4 million square-mile

C) icefree

landmass (50 percent larger than the United States) is

1

ice free, and

2. A) NO CHANGE

that only lasts for a few months a year. Scientists estimate that 70 percent of the world’s freshwater is locked away in Antarctica’s cap; if it were ever to melt, sea levels might rise 200 feet,

3

2

ice

drenching

coastal lands together with their major cities. In Antarctica, winds can blow at better than 200 mph, and temperatures can plummet below zero as many as 128.6 degrees (Fahrenheit). There’s not a single town,

D) ice, free

4

and

there is also not a tree, bush, or blade of grass on the entire continent.

B) ice cap—if C) ice cap: if D) ice cap, if 3. A) NO CHANGE B) blanketing C) dousing D) inundating 4. A) NO CHANGE B) nor is there a C) neither is there a D) and also there is not a

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5

The continent’s vast ice fields reflect sunlight back into space,

preventing the planet from overheating. The cold water that the icebergs generate flows north and mixes with equatorial warm water, 6

produces currents and clouds and ultimately creates complex weather

patterns. Antarctic seas

7

teem with life—from microscopic phyto-

plankton and tiny krill at the bottom of the food chain to killer whales and leopard seals at the top—making them an important link in the world food chain. The frigid waters of the Southern Ocean that lap the continent’s edge are home to species of birds and mammals that are found nowhere else.

HW - 12

5. Which choice is the most effective topic sentence for the paragraph? A) It is, therefore, not surprising that we only know basic details about this mysterious landmass. B) Despite its otherworldly qualities, scientists have been able to learn much about the continent in recent history. C) Nevertheless, Antarctica is vital to life on Earth. D) Nevertheless, Antarctica was once home to a diverse ecosystem of plants and animals. 6. A) NO CHANGE B) produce currents and clouds and ultimately create complex weather patterns. C) produced currents and clouds and ultimately created complex weather patterns. D) producing currents and clouds and ultimately creating complex weather patterns. 7. A) NO CHANGE B) barely support life C) bulge with life D) are devoid of life

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8

The uninhabitable state of Antarctica and its entombment in

ice make it a challenging place for scientific research. Clues to ancient climates

9

lay buried deep in layers of Antarctic ice—clues such as

trapped bubbles of atmospheric gases, which can help predict whether global warming poses a real threat or whether the planet is actually on the verge of a new ice age.

10

Until recently, most scientists accepted as

fact that Antarctica has been covered by ice for 40 million to 52 million years and that the present ice cap is about 15 million years old. However, a recent discovery of remnants of a beech forest near the head of the Beardmore glacier, approximately 250 miles from the South Pole, provides conclusive proof that Antarctica was both ice-free and much more temperate 2.5 million to 3 million years

11

ago similar fossil

finds made elsewhere indicate that western Antarctica was completely ice-free as recently as 100,000 years ago. The conclusion is already being drawn that ice ages take place much more frequently than previously supposed—perhaps as often as once every one million years.

HW - 12

8. A) NO CHANGE B) Although Antarctica is nearly pristine and relatively inaccessible, scientific discoveries on the continent have been rare. C) The near pristine state of Antarctica and its relative inaccessibility make it an invaluable place for scientific research. D) Given that Antarctica is mostly inaccessible and its contours under the ice are unknown, scientists are debating the value of studying this frozen continent. 9. A) NO CHANGE B) lie C) laid D) lain 10. A) NO CHANGE B) As unlikely as it may seem C) A long time ago D) However 11. A) NO CHANGE B) ago—similar C) ago, similar D) ago. Similar

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HW - 13

Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage. In the following excerpt from a novella, Rosemary, an elderly woman, reminisces about her childhood as she waits for her grandson to wake up.

Line 5

10

15

20

25

30

Rosemary sat at her kitchen table, working a crossword puzzle. Crosswords were nice; they filled the time, and kept the mind active. She needed just one word to complete this morning’s puzzle; the clue was “a Swiss river,” and the first of its three letters was “A.” Unfortunately, Rosemary had no idea what the name of the river was, and could not look it up. Her atlas was on her desk, and the desk was in the guest room, currently being occupied by her grandson Victor. Looking up over the tops of her bifocals, Rosemary glanced at the kitchen clock: It was almost 10 am. Land sakes! Did the boy intend to sleep all day? She noticed that the arthritis in her wrist was throbbing, and put down her pen. At 87 years of age, she was glad she could still write at all. She had decided long ago that growing old was like slowly turning to stone; you couldn’t take anything for granted. She stood up slowly, painfully, and started walking to the guest room. The trip, though only a distance of about 25 feet, seemed to take a long while. Late in her ninth decade now, Rosemary often experienced an expanded sense of time, with present and past tense intermingling in her mind. One minute she was padding in her slippers across the living room carpet, the next she was back on the farm where she’d grown up, a sturdy little girl treading the path behind the barn just before dawn. In her mind’s eye, she could still pick her way among the stones in the darkness, more than 70 years later. . . . Rosemary arrived at the door to the guest room. It stood slightly ajar, and she peered through the opening. Victor lay sleeping on his side, his arms bent, his

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35

40

45

50

55

60

65

expression slightly pained. Get up, lazy bones, she wanted to say. Even in childhood, Rosemary had never slept past 4 am; there were too many chores to do. How different things were for Victor’s generation! Her youngest grandson behaved as if he had never done a chore in his life. Twenty-one years old, he had driven down to Florida to visit Rosemary in his shiny new car, a gift from his doting parents. Victor would finish college soon, and his future appeared bright—if he ever got out of bed, that is. Something Victor had said last night over dinner had disturbed her. Now what was it? Oh yes; he had been talking about one of his college courses—a “gut,” he had called it. When she had asked him to explain the term, Victor had said it was a course that you took simply because it was easy to pass. Rosemary, who had not even had a high school education, found the term repellent. If she had been allowed to continue her studies, she would never have taken a “gut” . . . The memory flooded back then, still painful as an open wound all these years later. It was the first day of high school. She had graduated from grammar school the previous year, but her father had forbidden her to go on to high school that fall, saying she was needed on the farm. After much tearful pleading, she had gotten him to promise that next year, she could start high school. She had endured a whole year of chores instead of books, with animals and rough farmhands for company instead of people her own age. Now, at last, the glorious day was at hand. She had put on her best dress (she owned two), her heart racing in anticipation.

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70

75

80

But her father was waiting for her as she came downstairs. “Where do you think you’re going?” he asked. “To high school, Papa.” “No you’re not. Take that thing off and get back to work.” “But Papa, you promised!” “Do as I say!” he thundered. There was no arguing with Papa when he spoke that way. Tearfully, she had trudged upstairs to change clothes. Rosemary still wondered what her life would have been like if her father had not been waiting at the bottom of the stairs that day, or if somehow she had found the strength to defy him. . . . Suddenly, Victor stirred, without waking, and mumbled something unintelligible. Jarred from her reverie, Rosemary stared at Victor. She wondered if he were having a nightmare.

1. Rosemary’s attitude toward the physical afflictions of old age can best be described as one of A)

acceptance.

B)

sadness.

C)

resentment.

D)

anxiety.

2. Rosemary’s walk to the guest room in lines 21-28 reveals that she

19_PSAT_CB_ch19.indd 444

A)

feels nostalgia for her family.

B)

is anxious about Victor.

C)

is determined to conquer her ailments.

D)

has an elastic perception of time.

HW - 13

3. Rosemary’s memory of the day she finally prepared to start high school indicates that she had A)

anticipated her father’s command to stay home.

B)

hesitated over her choice of clothes.

C)

done especially well in grammar school.

D)

strongly desired to continue her education.

4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A)

Lines 10-13 (“Looking up . . . day”)

B)

Lines 47-51 (“When she . . . repellent”)

C)

Lines 59-60 (“After much . . . high school”)

D)

Lines 81-84 (“Suddenly . . . nightmare”)

5. The author includes Rosemary’s thoughts regarding her grandson in lines 38-43 (“Her youngest . . . that is”) in order to A)

emphasize Rosemary’s dislike of her grandson.

B)

demonstrate that Rosemary’s grandson does not appreciate how fortunate he is.

C)

set up a juxtaposition between Rosemary’s grandson’s opportunities with Rosemary’s own struggles.

D)

explain why Rosemary is waiting for him to get out of bed.

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6. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

8. “If he ever got out of bed” in line 43 suggests that Rosemary thinks Victor

A)

Lines 1-3 (“Rosemary sat . . . active”)

A)

lacks a sense of humor.

B)

Lines 34-38 (“Get up . . . generation”)

B)

is ashamed of what he said last night.

C)

Lines 51-53 (“If . . . ‘gut’”)

C)

is promising but undisciplined.

D)

Lines 64-66 (“She had . . . anticipation”)

D)

works himself to exhaustion.

7. As used in line 27, “sturdy” most nearly means

19_PSAT_CB_ch19.indd 445

HW - 13

A)

stoic.

B)

physically strong.

C)

capable.

D)

flighty.

9. The passage as a whole is most concerned with A)

Rosemary’s affectionate concern for Victor.

B)

Rosemary’s struggle to suppress painful memories.

C)

the abusive treatment Rosemary suffered at the hands of her father.

D)

the interplay in Rosemary’s mind between past and present.

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HW - 14

Questions 8-15 are based on the following passage.

Museums City museums are places where people can learn about various

8.

A) NO CHANGE

cultures by studying objects of particular historical or artistic value. The

B) museums; the

increasingly popular “design museums” that are opening today perform

C) museums: the

quite a different function. Unlike most city

8

museum displays and assesses objects that are readily available to the general public. These museums place everyday household items under 9

spotlights. Breaking down the barriers between commerce and crea-

tive invention. Critics have argued that design museums are often manipulated to serve as advertisements for new industrial technology. Their

10

role

however is not simply a matter of merchandising—it is the honoring of 11

D) museums, the

museums the design

impressive, innovative products. The difference between the window

9.

A) NO CHANGE B) spotlights; breaking C) spotlights, breaking D) spotlights breaking

10. A) NO CHANGE

B) role; however, is C) role, however is D) role, however, is 11. A) NO CHANGE

of a department store and the showcase in a design museum is that the

B) impressive innovative

first tries to sell you something, while the second informs you of the

C) impressive, and innovative

success of the attempt.

D) impressively innovative

One advantage that the design museum has over other civic museums is that design museums are places where people feel familiar with the exhibits. Unlike the average art gallery patron, a design

12

museums visitors rarely feel intimidated or disoriented. This is partly because design museums clearly illustrate how and why mass-produced consumer objects work and look as they

13

do, and show how

design contributes to the quality of our lives. For example, an exhibit

12. A) NO CHANGE

B) museums’ visitors C) museum’s visitors D) museum visitor’s 13. A) NO CHANGE

B) do and show C) do: show D) do—show

involving a particular design of chair would not simply explain how it functions as a chair. It would also demonstrate how its various features combine to produce an artistic effect or redefine our manner

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230

of performing the basic act of being seated. Thus, the purpose of such an exhibit would be to present these concepts in novel 14

ways and to challenge, stimulate, and inform the viewer. An art

gallery exhibit, on the other hand, would provide very little information about the chair and charge the visitor with understanding the exhibit on some abstract level. Within the past decade, several new design museums have opened their doors. Each of these museums has responded in totally

HW - 14

14. A) NO CHANGE

B) ways to challenge, C) ways; to challenge, D) ways—to challenge, 15. A) NO CHANGE

B) Society’s C) Societys’ D) Societie’s

original ways to the public’s growing interest in the field. London’s Design Museum, for instance, displays a collection of mass-produced objects ranging from Zippo lighters to electric typewriters to a show of Norwegian sardine-tin labels. The options open to curators of design museums seem far less rigorous, conventionalized, and preprogrammed than those open to curators in charge of public galleries of paintings and sculpture.

15

Societies humorous aspects are better represented in the

display of postmodern playthings or quirky Japanese vacuum cleaners in pastel colors than in an exhibition of Impressionist landscapes.

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231

HW - 15

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

1.

The Modern Professional

B) complain; they

Despite the honor accorded them by society and the usually sub-

C) complain, and they

stantial monetary rewards they enjoy for their work, many modern professionals

1

complain and they feel demoralized. They don’t command

A) NO CHANGE

D) complain that they 2.

A) NO CHANGE

the respect of the public or enjoy special privileges as members of exclu-

B) professional

sive groups to the extent that professionals once did. This decline in the

C) professions’

profession’s status is difficult for them to bear because, they vehe-

D) professions

2

mently

3

maintain, the knowledge and unique skills of professionals

3.

B) maintain the

are as vital and indispensable to society as they have ever been.

C) maintain. The

Originally, being a professional meant practicing in one of the “learned professions,” a category that included only law, theology, university scholarship, and (eventually) medicine

4

—long consid-

D) maintain; the 4.

C) —for a long while considered to be a practical art

from the rest of society by their possession of certain special knowledge that brought with it power and abilities most others could not even 5

a specifically tailored system of ethics to prevent the misuse of professional powers. The special deference and privileges these professionals received were their reward for using their knowledge in the service of others rather than of themselves.

28_PSAT_CB_ch28.indd 590

D) OMIT the underlined portion.

Aspirants, to a profession, were required not only to

devote themselves to a demanding life of learning but also to adhere to

A) NO CHANGE B) — considered a practical art

ered a practical art. Members of these groups distinguished themselves

fully fathom.

A) NO CHANGE

5.

A) NO CHANGE B) Aspirants to a profession were C) Aspirants to a profession, were D) Aspirants, to a profession were

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232

6

Because many of today’s professionals would argue that this

HW - 15

6.

B) As a result

description still applies to them, the truth of the matter is that the

C) In addition

professional scene has changed quite a bit since the days of the “learned professions.” When the members of the professions began to organize themselves in the nineteenth century, establishing work standards and

D) Although 7.

C) whom

for them, they proclaimed that they were doing this for the good of 7

that emerged from this

A) NO CHANGE B) who

policing themselves to prevent the government from cleaning house

the public. The professional associations

A) NO CHANGE

D) when 8.

A) NO CHANGE

structuring proved to be, however, far more advantageous to the profes-

B) populace because the

sionals than to the general

C) populace, and the

tion as

9

8

populace. The associations began to func-

D) populace; the

lobbies, and interest groups.

A further consequence of this organizing was that the elevated position of the professional gradually eroded as members of other occupations

10

jumped on the bandwagon. When just about any group could

organize itself and call itself a profession, the concept of the professional as the possessor of special knowledge and abilities didn’t seem to be as valid. Thus, many professions have had to struggle to

11

sustain and

preserve the notion that their members provide a critical service to society that no one else can.

9.

A) NO CHANGE B) lobbies and, interest groups. C) lobbies and interest groups. D) lobbies, interest groups.

10. Which choice most effectively maintains the tone and style of the passage as a whole? A) NO CHANGE B) claimed professional status C) joined in on the fun D) stated their wishes to be seen professionally 11. A) NO CHANGE B) sustain, and preserve C) preserve and sustain D) sustain

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HW - 16

Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage. This passage is an excerpt adapted from the novel You Can’t Go Home Again by Thomas Wolfe. (©1934, 1937, 1938, 1939, 1940 by Maxwell Perkins as Executor of the Estate of Thomas Wolfe. Reprinted by permission of HarperCollins Publishers.)

Line 5

10

15

20

25

30

It was late afternoon and the shadows were slanting swiftly eastward when George Webber came to his senses somewhere in the wilds of the upper Bronx. . . . All he could remember was that suddenly he felt hungry and stopped and looked about him and realized where he was. His dazed look gave way to one of amazement and incredulity, and his mouth began to stretch into a broad grin. In his hand he still held the rectangular slip of crisp yellow paper. . . . It was a check for five hundred dollars. His book had been accepted, and this was an advance against his royalties. So he was happier than he had ever been in all his life. Fame, at last, was knocking at his door and wooing him with her sweet blandishments. . . . The next weeks and months were filled with the excitement of the impending event. The book would not be published till the fall, but meanwhile there was much work to do. Foxhall Edwards had made some suggestions for cutting and revising the manuscript, and, although George at first objected, he surprised himself in the end by agreeing with Edwards. . . . George had called his novel Home to Our Mountains, and in it he had packed everything he knew about his home town in Old Catawba. . . . He had distilled every line of it out of his own experience of life. And, now that the issue was decided, he sometimes trembled when he thought that it would only be a matter of months before the whole world knew what he had written. He loathed the thought of giving pain to anyone, and that he might do so had never occurred to him until now. . . . Of course it was fiction, but it was made as all

20_PSAT_CB_ch20.indd 459

35

40

45

50

55

60

65

honest fiction must be, from the stuff of human life. Some people might recognize themselves and be offended, and then what would he do? Would he have to go around in smoked glasses and false whiskers? He comforted himself with the hope that his characterizations were not so true as, in another mood, he liked to think they were, and he thought that perhaps no one would notice anything. Rodney’s Magazine, too, had become interested in the young author and was going to publish a story, a chapter from the book. . . . This news added immensely to his excitement. He was eager to see his name in print, and in the happy interval of expectancy he felt like a kind of universal Don Juan, for he literally loved everybody—his fellow instructors at the school, his drab students, the little shopkeepers in all the stores, even the nameless hordes that thronged the streets. Rodney’s, of course, was the greatest and finest publishing house in all the world, and Foxhall Edwards was the greatest editor and the finest man that ever was. George had liked him instinctively from the first, and now, like an old and intimate friend, he was calling him Fox. George knew that Fox believed in him, and the editor’s faith and confidence . . . restored his self-respect and charged him with energy for new work. Already his next novel was begun and was beginning to take shape within him. . . . He dreaded the prospect of buckling down in earnest to write it, for he knew the agony of it. . . . While the fury of creation was upon him, it meant sixty cigarettes a day, twenty cups of coffee, meals snatched anyhow and anywhere and at whatever time of day or night

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70

75

80

85

he happened to remember he was hungry. It meant sleeplessness, and miles of walking to bring on the physical fatigue without which he could not sleep, then nightmares, nerves, and exhaustion in the morning. As he said to Fox: “There are better ways to write a book, but this, God help me, is mine, and you’ll have to learn to put up with it.” When Rodney’s Magazine came out with the story, George fully expected convulsions of the earth, falling meteors, suspension of traffic in the streets, and a general strike. But nothing happened. A few of his friends mentioned it, but that was all. For several days he felt let down, but then his common sense reassured him that people couldn’t really tell much about a new author from a short piece in a magazine. The book would show them who he was and what he could do. . . . He could afford to wait a little longer for the fame which he was certain would soon be his.

1. Through describing George Webber’s experiences, what central idea does the author establish about life as a writer? A) Like most professions, work as a writer eventually settles into predictable routine that usually requires hardly any exhaustive effort to maintain. B) A young author’s big break—such as getting your first book published—is a complex experience that can have the writer at the mercy of the full range of human emotions. C) A young author’s big break is usually the final hurdle one must overcome to bask in the fame and money that being a successful author brings. D) A traditional marker of success such as getting one’s first book published does not always lead to a long career as an author—in fact, many young authors never again publish.

20_PSAT_CB_ch20.indd 460

HW - 16

2. Throughout the passage, George Webber is described as A) a young author who is hungry for the fame, recognition, and wealth that a career as a fiction writer could potentially provide. B) a young author who is wary of the corrupting influences of fame, recognition, and wealth. C) a seasoned writer who has grown tired of the literary and publishing worlds. D) a nonfiction author who chronicles life in small-town America. 3. George’s new book, Home to Our Mountains, is described as A) a memoir about George’s time growing up in his home town, Old Catawba. B) a novel that was inspired by George’s time growing up in his hometown, Old Catawba. C) a novel based on life in a small town George once visited. D) set in a small town, most of the details of which were invented by George to suit the purposes of his story. 4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 10-12 (“His . . . royalties”) B) Lines 17-22 (“The . . . Edwards”) C) Lines 23-27 (“George . . . life”) D) Lines 75-79 (“When . . . all”)

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5. As used in line 7, “incredulity” most nearly means

HW - 16

8. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) nonbelief.

A) Lines 1-6 (“It . . . was”)

B) repudiation.

B) Lines 60-71 (“Already . . . morning”)

C) conviction.

C) Lines 75-78 (“When . . . strike”)

D) fatigue.

D) Lines 83-86 (“The . . . his”)

6. Based on lines 27-41 (“And, now . . . notice anything”), what can the reader infer about the details of George’s soonto-be-released novel? A) George’s experiences in Old Catawba informed his writing only sparingly, providing inspiration for bland details such as time and place.

9. As used in line 63, “fury” most nearly means A) indignation. B) agitation. C) serenity. D) animosity.

B) George based most of the novel’s contents on experiences he had after he left his hometown, even though the novel is set in a town like Old Catawba. C) Most of the novel is based on real events, and the characters on real people, from the time of George’s childhood in Old Catawba. D) George looked beyond Old Catawba when he sought inspiration for the novel. 7. When writing a new work, George A) has a different creative process for every work he creates. B) has a creative process that is arduous and difficult, but he relishes the opportunity to produce something new. C) has learned how to control his creative periods, resulting in pleasantly predictable experiences when he writes new work. D) has a creative process that takes a heavy toll on his mind and body and is not necessarily something he looks forward to.

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HW - 17

Questions 7-14 are based on the following passage. Economic Regulation 7

Senator John Sherman of Ohio introduced the Sherman Anti-

trust Act into Congress, and, after being first rewritten by pro-business Eastern senators, was passed into law in 1890. The Act made illegal “every contract, combination in the form of trust or otherwise, or conspiracy in the restraint of trade.” Many have charged, at that time and since, that the decidedly vague wording introduced by the pro-business revisers

results in the emasculation of the law’s anti-monopoly mes-

8

sage. Nevertheless, the Act was the first law to fight, even symbolically, against economic monopolies in the “open” market economy of the United States. From the birth of the nation, many politicians and influential business leaders had felt that the most

9

natural and ideal democratic

economy was one in which the government played a very limited role in regulating commerce. It was argued that, by permitting businesses to pursue their own interests, the government was promoting the interests of the nation as a whole, or as GM chairman Charles E. Wilson reportedly quipped, “What’s good for General Motors is good for the nation.” Many of the leaders of trusts and monopolies in the 1800s co-opted the then cutting-edge terminology of Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection,

7. A) NO CHANGE B) The Sherman Antitrust Act was introduced into Congress by Senator John Sherman of Ohio C) Senator John Sherman of Ohio introducing the Sherman Antitrust Act into Congress D) By Senator John Sherman of Ohio the Sherman Antitrust Act was introduced into Congress 8. A) NO CHANGE B) had resulted C) resulted D) has resulted 9. A) NO CHANGE B) naturally and ideal C) natural and ideally D) naturally and ideally 10. A) NO CHANGE B) they argue

they argued that in an unrestrained economy, power and

C) to argue

wealth would naturally flow to the most capable according to the prin-

D) arguing

10

ciples of “Social Darwinism.” Their monopolies were thus natural and efficient outcomes of economic development.

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Toward the close of the 1800s, however, an increasingly large and

HW - 17

11. A) NO CHANGE

vocal number of lower- and middle-class dissenters felt that the

B) exploits

laissez-faire policies of the federal government allowed monopolistic

C) exploited

trusts like Standard Oil to manipulate consumers by fixing prices, 11

exploiting workers by cutting wages, and threaten democracy by

corrupting politicians. Most directly, the trusts and monopolies completely destroyed the opportunities for competitors in their industries to do business effectively. The concerns of these working-class dissenters thus created a groundswell of support for the Sherman Antitrust Act, 12

and attempted to outlaw these monopolies and trusts. Even more

D) exploit 12. A) NO CHANGE B) which attempted C) and attempt D) which attempt 13. A) NO CHANGE B) realizing finally C) had finally realized

important than the direct effects of the Act, however, was the sign of a

D) realizing

new era of reform against monopolistic economic corruption and the

14. A) NO CHANGE

rise of deliberate economic regulation in America. The federal govern-

B) they

ment

C) one

13

finally realizing that

14

it had to take a more active role in

the economy in order to protect the interests and rights of consumers,

D) we

workers, and small businesses while tempering the dominating power of big business.

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HW - 18

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Mannerism 1

The Mannerist style, which reached its

2

well in Europe in

the sixteenth century, incorporated highly exaggerated form elements that were common to other periods. The intense colors of Mannerist paintings, for instance, were certainly present in earlier Renaissance works, but never in such jarring and eccentric juxtaposition.

3

Though

some called Mannerist art indulgent, the Mannerists believed that they were carrying on the tradition of high technical mastery that had been the pride of early Renaissance artistry.

1. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph and the passage? A) At its core, Mannerism was a reversion back to early Renaissance techniques. B) Mannerism was the introduction of a jarring stoicism to Western art. C) The essence of Mannerism was excess. D) The essence of Mannerism was a synthesis of Western and non-Western traditions. 2. A) NO CHANGE B) plateau C) zenith D) valley 3. A) NO CHANGE B) While some called C) Yet no one called D) Despite the fact that some called

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[1]As an aesthetic movement, Mannerism was based on several fundamental convictions—

4

that complexity and caprice are beauti-

ful, that brilliance in technique should be encouraged, and that art need not apologize for its extravagances. [2] Mannerists cultivated beauty in every imaginable context. [3] They placed a heavy emphasis on the aesthetic appreciation of art and were just as high-minded in doing so as artists of other periods who had exalted either the function or the message of their work. [4] Even the suits of armor they designed were elegant and intricate.

5

The confidence of the Mannerists

6

are evident if we examine

their treatment of nature (a term that, in this particular context, is best defined as “the world as it truly exists”). The word Mannerism is derived from the Italian maniera, stylishness, which implies a departure from naturalness in works of art. It is this apparent

7

bumping up of style

over nature that has fueled the ire of critics. One of the most ardent critics of Mannerism was Bellori, a classicist who complained of Mannerist artists “poisoning art with maniera, a fantastic ideal based on fancy

HW - 18

4. A) NO CHANGE B) that complexity and caprice are beautiful—that brilliance in technique should be encouraged— and that art need not apologize for its extravagances. C) that complexity and caprice are beautiful that brilliance in technique should be encouraged and that art need not apologize for its extravagances. D) that complexity and caprice are beautiful; that brilliance in technique should be encouraged; and that art need not apologize for its extravagances. 5. For the sake of cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 4 should be placed

rather than imitation.” But Bellori was mistaken. In fact, the imitation of

A) where it is now.

nature was very much a part of Mannerism. If naturalism does not seem

B) before sentence 1.

an appropriate label for most Mannerists, it is because they believed

C) after sentence 1. D) after sentence 2. 6. A) NO CHANGE B) is C) am D) were 7. A) NO CHANGE B) elevation C) uplifting D) degradation

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that the artist should improve upon nature, not because they were 8

Bellori’s opinion is a classic illustration of how over-conceptualizing, or attempting to endow the period with a false unity, is detrimental 9

Mannerism is effectively iso-

lated from both the past and the future by characterizations so rigid and narrow. But Mannerism is related, however indirectly, to the art that preceded and followed

10

it. It evolved, in fact, largely as an outgrowth of

early Renaissance art, as artists reshaped Renaissance forms to suit their own very different ends. In the later works of Michelangelo and Raphael, we witness the creation of a

11

8. A) NO CHANGE B) averse

incapable of imitating nature.

to a true understanding of Mannerism.

HW - 18

new visual language . . . these two artists

were the inventors of the first vocabulary of the Mannerist style.

C) capable D) ignorant 9. A) NO CHANGE B) Mannerism is effectively isolated by characterizations so rigid and narrow. C) Characterizations such as Bellori’s are rigid and narrow and isolate Mannerism. D) Such characterizations are so rigid and narrow that they effectively isolate Mannerism from both the past and the future. 10. A) NO CHANGE B) them C) us D) him 11. A) NO CHANGE B) new visual language: these two artists C) new visual language; these two artists D) new visual language. These two artists

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HW - 19

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage. The following passage is adapted from a psychologist’s discussion of the development of the human brain.

Line 5

10

15

20

25

30

35

Although the brain comprises only 2 percent of the human body’s average weight, the billions of neurons and trillions of synaptic connections that are the human brain constitute a truly impressive organ. In terms of what it can do, the human brain is in some ways unable to match the brain functioning of “lower” animals; in other ways, its capabilities are quite unrivaled. Salmon, caribou, and migrating birds, for example, have navigational abilities unparalleled in our own species, and even dogs and cats have senses of hearing and smell known only, in human form, to comic book superheroes. Yet no other animal on the planet can communicate, solve problems, or think abstractly about itself and the future as we do. While these relative strengths and weaknesses can be attributed to the unique and complex structure of the human brain, neuroscientists also have traced these characteristics to the human brain’s remarkable flexibility, or what researchers call plasticity. Encased in a hard, protective skull that by the age of two is already 80 percent of its eventual adult size, the human brain has little room for size expansion even while the rest of the body, especially during adolescence, is experiencing significant changes in physical appearance. The first few years of a child’s life are a time of rapid brain growth. At birth, each neuron in the cerebral cortex has an estimated 2,500 synapses; by age three, this number blossoms to 15,000 synapses per neuron. The average adult, however, has about half that number of synapses. Nevertheless, the human brain’s plasticity allows for marked capacity changes because of usage, practice, and experience throughout one’s life. This idea that the human brain continues to develop and, some

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might say, improve over the course of one’s life is a relatively new concept. Neuroscientists, even after brain size was no longer considered a direct determiner of brain capacity, once believed that the basic structure and abilities of the adult brain are developed early in life and not subject to change. But, as early as 1890, psychologist William James suggested that “organic matter, especially nervous tissue, seems endowed with a very extraordinary degree of plasticity.” However, this idea went largely ignored for many years. Then, several provocative experiments dramatically complicated conventional thinking about the human brain. In the 1920s, researcher Karl Lashley provided evidence of changes in the neural pathways of rhesus monkeys. By the 1960s, researchers began to explore cases in which older adults who had suffered massive strokes were able to regain functioning, demonstrating that the brain was much more malleable than previously believed. Modern researchers have also found evidence that the brain is able to rewire itself following damage. One of these experiments, for example, examined the various effects an enriched environment, in this case an “amusement park” for rats, could have on brain development. Researchers kept one group of rats in an empty cage, devoid of any stimulus, while another group lived in a cage filled with ladders, platforms, boxes, and other toys. Over the course of the experiment, researchers used magnetic resonance imaging technology to observe the brain development of the two groups. Those rats that lived in the enriched environment full of stimuli developed heavier, thicker brains with more neurons and synaptic connections—the cellular activity by which the

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brain functions—than those that were deprived. Such results were then found to be even more noticeable in humans. Whereas it was once believed that the brain’s physical structure was permanent, this experiment and other contemporary findings show that the brain continues to create new neural pathways and alter existing ones in order to adapt to new experiences, learn new information, and create new memories. As we gain new experiences, some connections are strengthened while others are eliminated in a process called “synaptic pruning.” Frequently used neurons develop stronger connections; those rarely (or never) used eventually die. By developing new connections and pruning away weak ones, the brain is able to adapt to the changing environment, thus confirming an essential point: one’s life experiences and environment not only mold the brain’s particular architecture but can also continue to expand its capacity to function.

1. What is the author’s central idea in this passage?

2. According to the passage, which choice best describes the number of synapses per neuron of a three-year-old, compared to that of an average adult? A) Three-year-olds have twice as many synapses per neuron as the average adult. B) Three-year-olds have half as many synapses per neuron as the average adult. C) Three-year-olds and adults tend to have about the same number of synapses per neuron. D) Scientists are unable to tell how many synapses per neuron people have. 3. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 21-26 (“Encased in . . . physical appearance”) B) Lines 27-31 (“At birth . . . number of synapses”)

A) The brain’s capability to grow and develop is greatly limited after childhood.

C) Lines 51-55 (“By the 1960s . . . previously believed”)

B) The science of studying the brain has come a long way in the past century.

D) Lines 79-83 (“As we gain . . . eventually die”)

C) The human brain is remarkably flexible and is able to develop new synapses and pathways well into adulthood. D) Despite many decades of studying brain development and dynamics, scientists are no closer to unlocking the brain’s secrets than they were a hundred years ago.

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HW - 19

4. As used in line 17, “complex” most nearly means A) messy. B) intricate. C) unknowable. D) challenging.

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5. Based on lines 57-73 (“One of these experiments . . . noticeable in humans”), the reader can conclude that A) experiments with rats tell us little about the human brain. B) scientists were mistaken in their hypothesis that an enriched environment would affect brain growth. C) surprisingly, environments devoid of enrichment actually boost brain growth. D) an enriched environment abundant in stimuli positively impacts the development of brains in rats as well as humans. 6. As used in line 33, “marked” most nearly means A) pronounced. B) modest.

HW - 19

8. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 15-20 (“While these . . . plasticity”) B) Lines 37-48 (“Neuroscientists . . . human brain”) C) Lines 61-67 (“Researchers . . . two groups”) D) Lines 84-90 (“By developing . . . function”) 9. As used in line 59, “enriched” most nearly means A) wealthy. B) enhanced. C) streamlined. D) clean. 10. As used in line 88, “architecture” most nearly means

C) infinitesimal.

A) silhouette.

D) eye-catching.

B) façade.

7. Which choice best describes the scientific consensus on brain flexibility and development beyond childhood?

C) edifice. D) configuration.

A) No one suspected the brain’s ability to develop and grow throughout a person’s life until the past fifty years. B) Scientists have been convinced of the brain’s flexibility for a very long time, but the experiments to prove this flexibility were only recently developed. C) The brain’s flexibility was hypothesized more than a century ago, but the concept did not gain proof until later in the twentieth century. D) Few scientists are convinced that the human brain retains any elasticity beyond childhood.

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HW - 20

questions 9-16 are based on the following passage.

1929 Stock Market Crash

9

On October 29, 1929, the stock market crashed in one of the

9. A) NO CHANGE

most worst financial panics in American history. The ensuing

B) most worse

economic meltdown, known as the Great Depression, left Americans

C) worst

thinking about what went wrong and how to ensure that it would never

D) more worse

happen again. To this day, economists study the speculative boom of the Roaring ’20s, the crash, and the Great Depression, trying to find patterns that can be applied to today’s economy. After World War I, America, having proven itself a world power, began to reap the benefits of new technologies and investments opening everywhere. Mass production made all types of new gadgets, such as 10

vacuum cleaners and automobiles, available to more Americans

because of cheaper prices. The same was true of stocks and bonds. Throughout the 1920s, many Americans, not just the rich, played the stock market. Laws of the day made this investment possible by requiring only 10 percent, or a “margin,” of an investment to be paid immediately,

10. A) NO CHANGE B) the vacuum cleaner and the automobiles C) the vacuum cleaner and automobiles D) vacuum cleaners or automobiles 11. A) NO CHANGE B) the C) her D) his 12. A) NO CHANGE B) barely afford

with the rest payable over time. If something went wrong, however, the

C) scarcely afford

investor would have to pay back the balance of

D) afford

11

their loan.

Economists of the time worried about how much investing was being done by people who could not

12

hardly afford the losses if the

market crashed, but government policy of the day called for nonintervention into business matters. Economists, nonetheless, sought a way to wean the people away from margin investing, but no laws were implemented for fear of causing a panic. As long as the stock prices continued to go up and investors continued to benefit, no one was willing to take action.

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History has taught us, however, that markets are cyclical in nature, and eventually even the strongest bull market* will begin to fail. In this case,

13

tension as investors

it came in 1929. The year was filled with nervous 14

which had bought a great quantity of stock

on credit sought a way out of a market that was declining. Finally, on October 29, the pressure

15

in everyone trying to sell stock became

too much, and the market began a downward spiral from which there would be no easy recovery. The lessons of 1929 have taught investors that the stock market

HW - 20

13. A) NO CHANGE B) the bull market C) the failure D) the cycle 14. A) NO CHANGE B) who C) whom D) those of whom who 15. A) NO CHANGE B) when

is no game. Laws have been passed that significantly reduce margin

C) on

investing. In addition, many safeguards have been implemented to stem

D) of

financial panic when the

16

market starts to decline. Although the

16. A) NO CHANGE

economy will always have high and low points, the hope is that by mod-

B) markets starts

erating people’s behavior, the raw panic that allowed the crash of ’29 and

C) market start

the Great Depression to occur can be prevented.

D) market started

*bull market: a successful market with confident investors

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HW - 21

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Violence in Children’s Entertainment [1] In recent years, many parents have expressed concern that the atmosphere of violence

1

propagated by the American entertainment

industry may be having a harmful effect on their children. [2] Certainly these parents are correct that

2

violent acts such as murder, have

become the pervasive theme of everything from feature films to television cartoons. [3] But is this kind of depravity altogether new to the world of the

3

child. [4] Haven’t parents for centuries been exposing their

children to fairy tales that are at least as gory and violent?

4

1. A) NO CHANGE B) secreted C) populated D) advocated 2. A) NO CHANGE B) violent acts; such as murder; have become C) violent acts, such as murder have become D) violent acts, such as murder, have become 3. A) NO CHANGE B) child? C) child! D) child; 4. For the sake of cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 2 should be placed A) where it is now. B) before sentence 1. C) after sentence 3. D) after sentence 4.

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5

Consider, for example, the tale of “Little Red Riding Hood,”

a story of murder and mayhem that has been told to children—and repeated by them—for at least 300 years. In the earliest known version of the tale, both Granny and Little Red are devoured.

6

Little Red

is engaged in one of the most terrifying conversations in all literature when the wolf, having already eaten dear old Granny, says: “But, Granny, what large eyes . . . what sharp teeth . . . what big claws you have.” Even Charles Dickens, an author whose own fictional world was hardly free of brutality against children, confessed that he deplored “the

HW - 21

5. A) NO CHANGE B) Consider, for example, the tale of “Little Red Riding Hood,” a story of murder and mayhem. C) Consider, for example, the tale of “Little Red Riding Hood.” D) Consider, for example, the tale of “Little Red Riding Hood,” a story told to children—and repeated by them—for at least 300 years. 6. A) NO CHANGE B) Little Red is engaged in one of the most terrifying conversations in all literature when the wolf says to her C) The wolf, having already eaten dear old Granny, engages Little Red in one of the most terrifying conversations in all literature D) The wolf, having already eaten dear old Granny, says to Little Red

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cruelty and treachery of that dissembling wolf who ate [Little Red’s] grandmother without making any impression on his appetite, and then ate her [Little Red], after making a ferocious joke about his teeth.” 7

Believe it or not, but the version where both Grandmother and Little

Red are eaten was not the worst version of the tale circulating in Charles Dickens’s time. In other parts of the world, children heard an even more horrifying story that concluded with the wolf collecting the grandmother’s blood in bottles.

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HW - 21

7. A) NO CHANGE B) Yet that was not the worst version of the tale circulating in Dickens’s time. C) Yet the version where both Grandmother and Little Red are eaten was not the worst version of the tale circulating in Dickens’s time. D) Believe it or not, that was not the worst version of the tale circulating in Dickens’s time.

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8

One theory suggests that fairy tales represent an attempt to deal

with realistic threats in

9

fantastic terms. Living conditions for most

families from Elizabethan times to the early nineteenth century made it impossible to shelter children from many of the harsher aspects of adult life. Families lived in cramped quarters that precluded

10

any

form of privacy. While prevailing notions of criminal justice required

HW - 21

8. Which choice most effectively establishes the central idea of the paragraph? A) So why did the writers and tellers of fairy tales continually gloss over unsavory stories, avoiding themes of homicide, maiming, and lunacy? B) So why did Dickens continue to study—and mimic—the fairy tales he claimed to dislike? C) Theories for why fairy tales continually revisit these themes are hard to find. D) So why did the writers and tellers of fairy tales continually produce such unsavory stories, with their thinly veiled themes of homicide, maiming, and lunacy? 9. A) NO CHANGE B) caustic C) existent D) plausible 10. A) NO CHANGE B) any form of privacy, while prevailing notions C) any form of privacy while prevailing notions D) any form of privacy; while prevailing notions

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that punishment—whether flogging or imprisonment in stocks or even hanging or disembowelment—be conducted as a public spectacle. Fairy tales distanced this grisly reality by placing it in a context of unreal fantasies. But at the same time, the tales made children aware of dangers and wary of evil temptations.

11

HW - 21

11. Which choice most effectively concludes the paragraph and the passage? A) Indeed, fairy tales of old could do little to protect a child from the harshness of life and, at best, could only serve as a brief escape from the drudgery and danger that typified reality for most people. B) Thus, the fictionalized violence of fairy tales was simply the ancestor of the American entertainment industry. C) Far from harming children, then, the fictionalized violence of fairy tales—as deplorable as it may seem in principle—was possibly one of the things that prepared children for survival in a violent world. D) Far from harming children, then, the fictionalized violence of fairy tales—as deplorable as it may seem in principle—is comparable to the film industry’s violence today, in that it seems to have little effect on raising healthy children.

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HW - 22

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage. From the vantage point of the 21st century, most people look back with dismay on the expansionist fever that gripped Americans in the 1840s, Line known as “Manifest Destiny.” While at first glance, 5 proponents of this concept made it seem reasonable, Manifest Destiny was, and continues to be, a controversial idea. Many Americans believe the damage caused by Manifest Destiny far outweighed its benefits. It is even considered to be one of the 10 main factors that led to the Civil War. Manifest Destiny wasn’t an official policy of the new American settlers, nor was it ever written down in law. The term “Manifest Destiny” was coined by a journalist named John L. O’Sullivan 15 in the 1840s. In one of his articles on the subject, he stated, “Our country is destined to be the great nation of futurity.” By this, he implied that new settlers had the God-given right to create a lasting, “civilized” nation that could be a model for the 20 world. This desire to create such a nation was held by many people of European descent. They believed they were the only civilized people in the Americas, and their goal was to settle the entire continent of North America, from the Atlantic to the Pacific. Another major factor fueling Manifest Destiny 25 was the need for more land. By the early 1800s, the eastern United States was becoming overcrowded, and Americans whose primary source of income was agriculture needed more land to cultivate. The 30 desire to expand, egged on by the politicians of the time, pushed people westward. Manifest Destiny played a large role in the Oregon territory dispute between the United States and Britain. In the 1840s, settlers poured into the 35 Oregon territory, hoping to overtake the entire area. Britain was opposed to this, because the Oregon territory was jointly ruled by Britain and the United

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45

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States. James Polk, a presidential candidate at the time, was in favor of Manifest Destiny, and told Britain that the United States wanted control of the entire Oregon territory, which extended all the way to what is now Alaska. Though the British were upset, they saw that the vast number of new settlers tipped the balance in America’s favor. Eventually, the United States and Britain compromised, and soon the Americans had control of much of the territory, which included what is now the state of Washington. During this time, there was a larger fight over territory brewing farther south. This fight had to do with the United States’ annexation of Texas in 1845, which Mexico disputed. Though many Americans were certain it was their right to annex Texas, there were some who were opposed to this idea, especially since it would expand slavery. O’Sullivan wrote an article in favor of annexation, stating that those opposed were trying to halt “the fulfillment of our Manifest Destiny to overspread the continent allotted by Providence for the free development of our yearly multiplying millions.” The thorny issue of Texas annexation was used as justification to start the Mexican-American War. When the war was over, the United States gained full control of Texas, as well as what is now the southwestern United States, in what is known as the Mexican Cession. The fever of Manifest Destiny came at a great cost to many. The relentless westward push of European settlers forced Native Americans from their lands and often destroyed their culture in the process. Some believers in Manifest Destiny justified their actions by arguing that Native Americans were too uncivilized to live in the East, and would be better off in the West. Eventually, Native Americans were forced to settle on reservations.

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Manifest Destiny also created a strong desire in the Southern states to expand the slave trade. As the settlers pushed west, a debate raged over whether slavery should be allowed in the new territories. The issue created hostility between slave owners and abolitionists, and contributed to the onset of the Civil War. Many modern historians believe Manifest Destiny was not divine will, but rather a justification for Americans to take land that they did not control. With the near-destruction of Native-American culture, and the expansion of slavery, it is hard to deny that there is a prejudiced, or possibly even racist, component to Manifest Destiny. People who defend Manifest Destiny could point to the fact that we wouldn’t have the country we have today without westward expansion. But for the majority of Americans, the price paid in lives and civil rights was too high.

1. Which of the following best describes the author’s main point in this passage? A)

While an important concept to historians, Manifest Destiny was not in the public consciousness during the era of westward expansion.

B)

Manifest Destiny gave the United States its modern geographic dimensions, but it came at a high cost of lives and oppression that many feel was it was not worth.

C) Many people—mostly Native Americans and African Americans—were harmed by the Manifest Destiny era, but most people feel it was worth it for the United States to expand. D) Contrary to commonly repeated claims, few people were harmed by the westward expansion of the Manifest Destiny era.

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HW - 22

2. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A)

Lines 7-10 (“Many Americans . . . Civil War”)

B) Lines 29-31 (“The desire . . . people westward”) C)

Lines 52-55 (“Though many Americans . . . expand slavery”)

D) Lines 75-78 (“Manifest Destiny . . . new territories”) 3. Manifest Destiny was A)

an official foreign policy doctrine of the United States, articulated and empowered by acts of Congress.

B) a populist sentiment shared by many white Americans that it was the “destiny” of the United States to rule the continent. C) a treaty entered into by the United States and Great Britain that allowed the two countries to evenly split up the contested Oregon Territory. D) the slogan of James Polk’s presidential campaign. 4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A)

Lines 1-10 (“From the vantage point . . . Civil War”)

B) Lines 13-21 (“The term . . . European descent”) C) Lines 34-38 (“In the 1840s . . . United States”) D) Lines 84-88 (“With the near-destruction . . . Manifest Destiny”)

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5. As used in line 30, “egged on” most nearly means

HW - 22

8. As used in line 60, “thorny” most nearly means

A)

discouraged.

A)

problematic.

B)

insulted.

B) oppressive.

C) courted.

C) straightforward.

D) instigated.

D) worrisome.

6. Based on lines 49-65 (“During this time . . . Mexican Cession”), what can the reader infer about the outcome of the MexicanAmerican War? A)

B)

The Mexican-American War was an exhausting undertaking for the countries involved, greatly depleting the resources and armies of both Mexico and the United States. Mexico defeated the United States in the war, maintaining its territorial integrity.

C) The United States soundly defeated Mexico and claimed a large swath of Mexican territory as the spoils of victory. D) The United States defeated Mexico, but little was gained as a result of the victory. 7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A)

Lines 42-48 (“Though the British . . . state of Washington”)

B)

Lines 50-52 (“This fight . . . Mexico disputed”)

C) Lines 62-65 (“When the war . . . Mexican Cession”) D) Lines 67-70 (“The relentless westward push . . . the process”)

9. Which of the following best describes Manifest Destiny’s impact on the practice of slavery? A) America’s westward expansion relegated slavery to the back burner during the 1840s, as most white Americans were preoccupied with claiming land in newly acquired territories. B)

The Manifest Destiny era had no effect on the slavery debate, as new lands in the West were off limits to the expansion of slavery.

C) Manifest Destiny and westward expansion intensified divisions over slavery, as countless slaves escaped to the new territories with the help of Northern abolitionists. D) Manifest Destiny and westward expansion intensified divisions over slavery, as Americans debated whether slavery would expand to the new territories in the West. 10. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 7-10 (“Many Americans . . . Civil War”) B) Lines 17-21 (“By this . . . European descent”) C) Lines 66-73 (“The fever . . . better off in the West”) D) Lines 75-81 (“Manifest Destiny . . . Civil War”)

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254

HW - 23

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.

The Science of Us In 1908, heavy rains flooded the land near the town of Folsom, New

23. A) NO CHANGE

Mexico, in the southwestern United States. In one washed-out arroyo,

B) layer

cowboy George McJunkin noticed a

C) cache

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tier of bones sticking out of the

exposed earth. He recognized them as looking like bison bones,

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and

much larger than bison of that time. 25

The Folsom site was remote, and therefore, difficult for the

scientists to reach. Prior to the investigation of the Folsom site, it was believed that humans had been in North America only since approximately 5,000 years before the present day. But projectile points found embedded between the ribs of the bison remains suggested that humans had hunted the animal. Using carbon dating techniques, the bones were determined to be approximately 12,000 years old.

D) shroud 24. A) NO CHANGE B) so that C) although D) therefore 25. A) NO CHANGE B) Radiocarbon dating was first used to estimate the age of plants and animals in the late 1960s. C) Located in Union County, Folsom is a virtual ghost town except for its museum established in 1966. D) The site wasn’t excavated until 1927, but what was discovered there rewrote the history of modern humans in the Americas.

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255

This important discovery analysis was the work of archaeologists. Archaeology is the study of human history through material remains. 26

From fossils uncovered in remote parts of the world to buildings still

standing in Europe and America, archaeology analyzes physical sites and artifacts to understand human culture. 27

[1] Archaeology is a cross-disciplinary science in that it incor-

porates chemistry, geology, and biology. [2] Chemistry is used when artifacts, such as bones, are dated by analyzing their chemical makeup. [3] Biology comes into play when human and animal remains

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are

discovered: archaeologists can apply what they know about people to tell them what happened to people of the past, such as the impact of a species going extinct. [4] Geology is essential to archaeology because the composition of the earth at a historic site, such as a Roman coliseum or tribal burial site, can tell us a lot about the time period when the site was erected and used.

HW - 23

26. A) NO CHANGE B) From fossils excavated and uncovered in remote, unknown parts of the world to buildings still standing in Europe and America, archaeology analyzes physical sites and artifacts to understand human culture. C) From fossils uncovered in remote parts of the world to homes, playhouses, arenas, and buildings of all kinds still standing in Europe and America, archaeology analyzes physical sites and artifacts to understand human culture. D) From fossils uncovered in remote parts of the world to buildings still standing in Europe and America, archaeology analyzes the excavated physical sites, materials found, and artifacts to understand human culture. 27. To enhance the logical sequence of paragraph 4, sentence 4 should be placed A) where it is now. B) before sentence 1. C) after sentence 1. D) before sentence 3. 28. A) NO CHANGE B) are discovered archaeologists C) are discovered, archaeologists D) are discovered . . . archaeologists

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HW - 23

256

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Human history is extensive and varied, so archaeology has many

29. A) NO CHANGE

parts. Prehistoric archaeology focuses on cultures that did not have

B) divisions

written language—prehistoric means prior to that which is recorded by historical record.

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There is also classical archaeology, which centers

mainly on Greek and Roman ruins, and biblical archaeology. Which explores sites described in the Bible. Maritime archaeology studies ship-

C) categories D) subfields 30. A) NO CHANGE B) There is also classical archaeology, which centers mainly on Greek and Roman ruins and biblical archaeology, which explores sites described in the Bible. C) There is also classical archaeology; which centers mainly on Greek and Roman ruins and biblical archaeology, which explores sites described in the Bible. D) There is also classical archaeology, which centers mainly on Greek and Roman ruins. And biblical archaeology, which explores sites described in the Bible.

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257

wrecks that provide clues to the culture and the people who built and sailed the ships.

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The importance of archaeology to humankind’s understanding of itself cannot be overstated. Without the scientists who

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carefully

dig, preserved, and interpreted sites around the world, we would not know all that we do about the Incas, Egyptians, and Native Americans. Archaeologists are like translators of the story of human existence on Earth, from the language of of life.

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innate material into the language

HW - 23

31. Which sentence adds supporting information to paragraph 5? A) Written language changed how all cultures recorded historic events in their individual societies. B) Greek and Roman ruins are more popular as tourist destinations than the sites described in the Bible. C) There is also a whole branch of underwater archaeology in which cities and harbors that are now submerged are studied. D) Some archaeologists consider the temples of ancient Greece to be easier to excavate than the ruins of ancient Rome. 32. A) NO CHANGE B) dug, preserve, and interpret C) digs, preserving, and interprets D) dug, preserved, and interpreted 33. A) NO CHANGE B) inert C) inept D) adept

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Reading

HW-24

258

Questions 32-42 are based on the following passage. The following is an excerpt from “Satellite Tracking and Geospatial Analysis of Feral Swine and Their Habitat Use in Louisiana and Missisippi.” Copyright © 2012 by U.S. Geological Survey.

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Feral swine (Sus scrofa) is an invasive species that was fi st introduced to the continental United States in the 1500s by European explorers. Also known as feral hogs or feral pigs, the animals typically weigh about 200 pounds (up to 400 pounds), have characteristic tusks up to 3 inches long, are territorial, and live in groups, except for the boars, who are solitary and typically interact with sows only to breed. They have an average litter size of 5–6 piglets and occasionally two litters per year, and because they have few natural predators, survival of their young can be nearly 100 percent. Feral swine root, or dig, for food and create wallows, thereby destroying sensitive vegetation, displacing native wildlife, and ultimately leading to loss of habitat quality and value. In coastal wetlands, their rooting decreases underground production and expansion of the root zone, exacerbating coastal erosion and land loss. Rooting activities in forested habitats impact forest regeneration and vegetation structure and may lead to increases in invasive plants, including Chinese tallow tree (Triadica sebifera) and cogon grass (Imperata cylindrical). Hurricane protection levees and other water control structures that protect human communities have been severely damaged by rooting. In agricultural lands, feral swine consume crops, damage crop fi lds, prey on livestock, and create potentially hazardous conditions for the operation of farm equipment. Feral swine compete for food directly with many native animals—such as ducks, deer, squirrels, turkeys, and bears—and destroy habitats for many other wildlife species, including ground-nesting birds. Their omnivorous diet includes ground-nesting birds and eggs, reptiles, and amphibians. Further, feral swine are known to spread more than 30 diseases and 37 parasites, including swine brucellosis and pseudorabies, which can have devastating effects on livestock, wildlife, and humans. Because of the detrimental impacts of this invasive species, many public lands implement feral swine control programs on an annual basis. In Louisiana, several wildlife refuges allow swine trapping by permitted individuals and hunting by licensed

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individuals. Th s activity is not enough to control or prevent an increase in swine populations, however, because of their distribution beyond the boundaries of public lands. Currently, little is known about feral swine populations, their habitat use and movement patterns, and the resulting habitat destruction in Louisiana and Mississippi. To abate this lack of knowledge, researchers at the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) National Wetlands Research Center (NWRC)—in cooperation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, the Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries, and several large landholding companies—are using collars equipped with Global Positioning System (GPS) receivers to track feral swine in Louisiana and Mississippi to examine population movement patterns, document destruction of habitat and wildlife, and help increase and facilitate removal—the preferred control measure for feral swine populations. The NWRC researchers are using the “Judas pig” system of attaching GPS-satellite telemetry collars to select feral swine to (1) track movement patterns on the landscape, (2) document habitat destruction and effects on native wildlife, and (3) improve removal rates. Once a collar has been attached to an individual, usually a large boar or sow, it is released and returns to its group. The group’s movements and locations can then be tracked through the movement of the collared individual, the “Judas pig,” allowing researchers and managers to better target removal efforts. The use of GPS telemetry will allow the NWRC researchers to monitor feral swine movements daily. The results of this research will provide natural resource managers with more information for managing and responding to the impacts of this invasive species.


Reading 32

HW-24

259 36

The primary purpose of the passage is to

The phrase “survival of their young can be nearly 100 percent” (lines 11-12) most directly suggests that

A) describe an innovative way to use technology for animal research.

A) The feral pig population is maintained at a constant rate.

B) explore the bio-ethics of controlling an animal population.

B) The feral pig did not thrive until coming to the United States.

C) educate the reader about the feral hog and the steps being taken to control its population.

C) The feral pig population can grow quite large.

D) provide a detailed history of the feral swine in the central-southern United States.

D) The work put into maintaining the feral pig population has been successful.

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37 The author’s attitude toward feral swine is best described as one of

As used in line 14, “wallows” most nearly means

A) academic interest.

B) miseries.

A) hills.

B) personal concern.

C) stumbles.

C) natural outrage.

D) depressions.

D) subtle fondness. 38

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What does the author suggest is a negative way feral hog populations affect human communities?

According to the passage, which of the following is true?

A) Feral hogs cause damage to farm equipment while it is stored.

A) Feral swine populations move as a nuclear family of boar, sow, and off pring.

B) Feral hogs destroy the natural habitats of a variety of other animals.

B) Feral swine are indigenous to the centralsouthern area of the United States.

C) Feral hogs do not stay on public land, decreasing the ability to hunt them.

C) We have a limited working knowledge of how feral swine populations navigate the environment.

D) Feral hogs can destroy protective structures such as levees.

D) Consuming pig meat that carries diseases can have a devastating effect for the human population. 39

35 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 3-8 (“Also known . . . breed”) B) Lines 16-19 (“In coastal . . . loss”) C) Lines 35-38 (“Further, feral . . . humans”) D) Lines 48-51 (“Currently, little . . . Mississippi”)

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 23-26 (“Hurricane protection . . . rooting”) B) Lines 26-29 (“In agricultural . . . equipment”) C) Lines 29-33 (“Feral swine . . . birds”) D) Lines 44-47 (“Th s activity . . . lands”)


Reading

HW-24

260

40

42 As used in line 42, “refuges” most nearly means A) evacuees. B) sanctuaries. C) exiles. D) safeties.

41 Which of the following does the author suggest about the GPS collars mentioned in lines 62-73 (“The NWRC researchers . . . target removal eff rts”)? A) One collar on a single pig may provide information on an entire group’s movements. B) The ethical use of collars has been debated by the scientific c mmunity. C) Hunters know to release trapped pigs that have a collar rather than kill them. D) Scientists try to collar younger pigs in order to learn about both pig movement and life cycle.

The most likely purpose of the use of quotations around the term “Judas pig” in lines 63 and 72 is A) to demonstrate personifi ation. B) to indicate an allusion. C) to establish irony. D) to clarify a metaphor.


Reading

HW-25

261

Reading Test 65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. DIRECTIONS Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or graph).

Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.

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This passage is adapted from Jane Austen’s Persuasion, originally published in 1818.

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Sir Walter Elliot, of Kellynch Hall, in Somersetshire, was a man who, for his own amusement, never took up any book but the Baronetage; there he found occupation for an idle hour, and consolation in a distressed one; there his faculties were roused into admiration and respect, by contemplating the limited remnant of the earliest patents; there any unwelcome sensations, arising from domestic affairs changed naturally into pity and contempt as he turned over the almost endless creations of the last century; and there, if every other leaf were powerless, he could read his own history with an interest which never failed. This was the page at which the favorite volume always opened: ELLIOT OF KELLYNCH HALL. “Walter Elliot, born March 1, 1760, married, July 15, 1784, Elizabeth, daughter of James Stevenson, Esq. of South Park, in the county of Gloucester, by which lady (who died 1800) he has issue Elizabeth, born June 1, 1785; Anne, born August 9, 1787; a still-born son, November 5, 1789; Mary, born November 20, 1791.” Precisely such had the paragraph originally stood from the printer’s hands; but Sir Walter had improved it by adding, for the information of himself and his family, these words, after the date of Mary’s birth— “Married, December 16, 1810, Charles, son and heir of Charles Musgrove, Esq. of Uppercross, in the county of Somerset,” and by inserting most accurately the day of the month on which he had lost his wife.

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Then followed the history and rise of the ancient and respectable family, in the usual terms; how it had been first settled in Cheshire; how mentioned in Dugdale, serving the office of high sheriff, representing a borough in three successive parliaments, exertions of loyalty, and dignity of baronet, in the first year of Charles II, with all the Marys and Elizabeths they had married; forming altogether two handsome duodecimo pages, and concluding with the arms and motto: “Principal seat, Kellynch Hall, in the county of Somerset,” and Sir Walter’s handwriting again in this finale: —“Heir presumptive, William Walter Elliot, Esq., great grandson of the second Sir Walter.” Vanity was the beginning and the end of Sir Walter Elliot’s character; vanity of person and of situation. He had been remarkably handsome in his youth; and, at fifty-four, was still a very fine man. Few women could think more of their personal appearance than he did, nor could the valet of any new made lord be more delighted with the place he held in society. He considered the blessing of beauty as inferior only to the blessing of a baronetcy; and the Sir Walter Elliot, who united these gifts, was the constant object of his warmest respect and devotion. His good looks and his rank had one fair claim on his attachment; since to them he must have owed a wife of very superior character to anything deserved by his own. Lady Elliot had been an excellent woman, sensible and amiable; whose judgment and conduct, if they might be pardoned the youthful infatuation which made her Lady Elliot, had never required indulgence afterwards. She had humored, or softened, or concealed


Reading

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his failings, and promoted his real respectability for seventeen years; and though not the very happiest being in the world herself, had found enough in her duties, her friends, and her children, to attach her to life, and make it no matter of indifference to her when she was called on to quit them. Three girls, the two eldest sixteen and fourteen, was an awful legacy for a mother to bequeath, an awful charge rather, to confide to the authority and guidance of a conceited, silly father. She had, however, one very intimate friend, a sensible, deserving woman, who had been brought, by strong attachment to herself, to settle close by her, in the village of Kellynch; and on her kindness and advice, Lady Elliot mainly relied for the best help and maintenance of the good principles and instruction which she had been anxiously giving her daughters. This friend, and Sir Walter, did not marry, whatever might have been anticipated on that head by their acquaintance. Thirteen years had passed away since Lady Elliot’s death, and they were still near neighbors and intimate friends, and one remained a widower, the other a widow.

HW-25

262 3

The author most likely includes the phrase “with all the Marys and Elizabeths they had married” in the description of the family history in the fourth paragraph (lines 30-38) in order to A) indicate that such family histories often read very repetitively. B) establish the type of woman most commonly married by the elite. C) inform the reader of the most common British names for women. D) provide the reader with as much detailed information as possible.

4 Sir Walter can best be described as A) the head of one of the most foremost families in England. B) a man known to be a voracious reader. C) one who values personal beauty second only to title.

1

D) someone who takes great pride in the vanity of his family.

The main purpose of the passage is to A) describe a main character and his personal and family history. B) provide an overview of a family and a nearby neighbor.

5 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

C) discuss some unfortunate traits in a main character’s nature.

A) Lines 1-3 (“Sir Walter . . . Baronetage”)

D) explain the relationship between a main character and his deceased wife’s friend.

B) Lines 22-29 (“Precisely such . . . wife.”) C) Lines 30-31 (“Then followed . . . terms.”) D) Lines 50-54 (“He considered . . . devotion.”)

2 Which choice best summarizes the first two paragraphs of the passage (lines 1-21)?

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A) A prominent and important family has had its history recorded for posterity’s sake.

As used in line 47, “fine” most nearly means

B) A long-established family is celebrated in one of the most popular books in England.

B) attractive.

C) Published family lineages were historically brief accounts, with many details omitted. D) A widower takes a great deal of pleasure in reading an account of his own family history.

A) adequate. C) reasonable. D) light.


Reading 7

HW-25

263 9

It can most reasonably be inferred that Lady Elliot

Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph (lines 79-84)?

A) had a positive effect on Sir Walter.

A) The idea that Sir Walter and Lady Russell might wed occurred to those who knew them.

B) died after a long illness. C) suffered from unhappiness most of her life.

B) Sir Walter and Lady Russell are likely to wed in the future due to deaths of their respective spouses.

D) was surrounded by friends who supported and guided her.

C) Lady Russell was prevented by her close relationship with Lady Elliot from accepting the hand of Sir Elliot.

8

D) Lady Russell’s beauty was not equal to that of Sir Walter’s, which prevented the likelihood of their marriage.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 58-62 (“Lady Elliot . . . afterwards”) B) Lines 62-64 (“She had . . . years”) C) Lines 64-68 (“And though . . . them”) D) Lines 72-75 (“She had . . . Kellynch”)

10 As used in line 80, “head” most nearly means A) face. B) countenance. C) possibility. D) inevitably.


Reading

HW-26

264

Questions 22-31 are based on the following passage. The following passage is an excerpt from a speech given by John Stuart Mill to the British House of Commons in April 1868. In it, Mill argues that a proposed ban on capital punishment by that legislative body should not be approved.

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. . . Aggravated murder is now practically the only crime which is punished with death by any of our lawful tribunals; and we are even now deliberating whether the extreme penalty should be retained in that solitary case. When there has been brought home to any one, by conclusive evidence, the greatest crime known to the law; and when the attendant circumstances suggest no palliation of the guilt, no hope that the culprit may even yet not be unworthy to live among mankind, nothing to make it probable that the crime was an exception to his general character rather than a consequence of it, then I confess it appears to me that to deprive the criminal of the life of which he has proved himself to be unworthy—solemnly to blot him out from the fellowship of mankind and from the catalogue of the living—is the most appropriate, as it is certainly the most impressive, mode in which society can attach to so great a crime the penal consequences which for the security of life it is indispensable to annex to it. I defend this penalty, when confined to atrocious cases, on the very ground on which it is commonly attacked—on that of humanity to the criminal; as beyond comparison the least cruel mode in which it is possible adequately to deter from the crime. If, in our horror of inflicting death, we endeavor to devise some punishment for the living criminal which shall act on the human mind with a deterrent force at all comparable to that of death, we are driven to inflictions less severe indeed in appearance, and therefore less efficacious, but far more cruel in reality. Few, I think, would venture to propose, as a punishment for aggravated murder, less than imprisonment with hard labor for life; that is the fate to which a murderer would be consigned by the mercy which shrinks from putting him to death. But has it been sufficiently considered what sort of a mercy this is, and what kind of life it leaves to him? If, indeed, the punishment is not really inflicted—if it becomes the sham which a few years ago such punishments were rapidly becoming—then, indeed, its adoption would be almost tantamount to giving up the attempt to repress murder altogether. But if it really is what it professes to be, and if it is realized in all its rigor

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by the popular imagination, as it very probably would not be, but as it must be if it is to be efficacious, it will be so shocking that when the memory of the crime is no longer fresh, there will be almost insuperable difficulty in executing it. What comparison can there really be, in point of severity, between consigning a man to the short pang of a rapid death, and immuring him in a living tomb, there to linger out what may be a long life in the hardest and most monotonous toil, without any of its alleviations or rewards—debarred from all pleasant sights and sounds, and cut off from all earthly hope, except a slight mitigation of bodily restraint, or a small improvement of diet? Yet even such a lot as this, because there is no one moment at which the suffering is of terrifying intensity, and, above all, because it does not contain the element, so imposing to the imagination, of the unknown, is universally reputed a milder punishment than death—stands in all codes as a mitigation of the capital penalty, and is thankfully accepted as such.

22 Which choice best describes the structure of the first two paragraphs? A) A general rule is given, the attempt to end that rule is acknowledged, and a description of when that rule should apply is explained. B) The application of a law is given, followed by the history of that law, and then the modern use of the law. C) A belief is established and a counterargument to that belief is reviewed. D) A punishment is acknowledged, a description of the punishment is provided, and a rejection of that punishment is stated.

23 The author most strongly implies which of the following about the “criminal” who has committed aggravated murder (line 13)? A) Society must value his life despite his actions. B) There may be evidence exonerating him. C) He no longer deserves to live due to his actions. D) It is likely that he is sorry for what he has done.


Reading 24

HW-26

265 28

The purpose of the third paragraph is to

The author of this passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

A) relate an anecdote.

A) Capital punishment is more merciful than life imprisonment because it is more immediate.

B) attack a rival. C) offer a concession.

B) Life imprisonment is a more economical punishment than capital punishment.

D) qualify a position.

C) Life in prison gives the criminal time to repent of his sins while capital punishment does not.

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D) Neither capital punishment nor life imprisonment is a good way to deter crime.

The author believes that the punishment of “imprisonment with hard labor for life” (lines 32-33) is A) the less cruel approach to punishing aggravated murder. B) the likely alternate choice to capital punishment.

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C) the best deterrent to future crime.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

D) the next best alternative to capital punishment.

A) Lines 30-33 (“Few, I . . . life”) B) Lines 38-42 (“If, indeed . . . altogether”) C) Lines 48-56 (“What comparison . . . diet”)

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D) Lines 56-63 (“Yet . . . such”)

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 20-22 (“I defend . . . criminal”) B) Lines 22-24 (“as beyond . . . crime”)

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C) Lines 33-35 (“that is . . . death”)

The author compares life in prison to a “living tomb” because those imprisoned

D) Lines 36-37 (“But has . . . to him?”)

A) have no hope at all. B) suffer from a fear of the unknown. C) are cut off from enjoyable sensory experiences.

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D) face execution for their crimes.

The author poses the question at the beginning of the fourth paragraph (lines 36-63) in order to A) point out the innately cruel natures of those with whom he disagrees. B) emphasize that alternate punishments leave criminals a merciful life.

31 As used in lines 56-57, “such a lot” most nearly means A) such an area.

C) indicate that his opponents may not have fully considered the consequences of an alternative.

B) such a condition.

D) request that his audience help him in understanding the argument it is making.

D) so much.

C) such a group.


Reading

HW-27

266

Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage. Passage 1 is adapted from Randall J. Hunt, “Do Created Wetlands Replace the Wetlands that are Destroyed?” Passage 2 is adapted from T.M. Lee, K.H. Haag, P.A. Metz, and L.A. Sacks, “Comparative Hydrology, Water Quality, and Ecology of Selected Natural and Augmented Freshwater Wetlands in West-Central Florida.”

Passage 1

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Wetlands are often considered “kidneys of the landscape” because of their role in filtering the effects of surrounding land use, and have widely recognized functions that include storm/flood water retention, shoreline protection, water-quality improvement, and wildlife habitat. In fact, more than one-third of our endangered species are associated with wetlands even though wetlands comprise less than five percent of the landscape! We have lost vast areas of the pre-settlement wetland acreage—more than 50 percent nationally and more than 95 percent in some states. Increasing population, development, farming, and landowners’ rights have resulted in increasing amounts of our wetland resource being destroyed and have increased the pressure on the wetlands that remain. In the broadest sense, mitigation is a process that focuses on: 1) avoiding wetland loss, 2) minimizing the effect of wetland loss, and 3) compensating for unavoidable wetland loss. In general usage, however, mitigation has become synonymous with number 3 and now refers to replacing the function and structure of a destroyed wetland by creating, restoring or enhancing a wetland somewhere else. This mitigation of wetland loss has been mandated by federal law, and there have been numerous large and small wetland mitigation projects in every part of the nation. It is not widely accepted that mitigation projects are successful. Although the current wetland permit programs assume that wetland loss is being ameliorated, no long-term, interdisciplinary research shows unequivocally that a created wetland has fully replaced the lost function resulting from a wetland’s destruction. Secondly, there is a concern that created wetlands do not provide in-kind compensation. That is, many hard-to-create wetland types (such as fens, bogs and sedge meadows) are being replaced with common, easy-to-create wetland types (cattail marsh), or the “quality” of the resulting mitigation wetland is not equal to the wetland that was destroyed. A third concern is that placing mitigation projects in areas distant from the destroyed wetland will result in the wetland

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functions being replaced in areas away from where they are needed and/or in areas that are not wetland deficient. Finally, there is great interest in mitigation “banks”—large wetland restoration or creation projects that can serve as compensation credit for wetland losses elsewhere in a given region. The people agree that while large intact wetland acreage is desirable, there is some concern that mitigation banking projects will not provide meaningful mitigation of the cumulative effects of widely distributed, small-acreage wetland loss. Passage 2

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Augmentation has maintained some of the functional capacity of the four augmented wetlands located within the well fields during the augmentation period (which began in the early 1980s). Without augmentation, the four augmented wetlands would have been dry during the majority of this period. The historical flooding pattern of W29 Impaired Marsh illustrated the most optimistic flooding regime that could have been expected in the absence of augmentation: 20 percent or less of the total wetland area was inundated for most of the time, and entirely dry conditions prevailed for as much as 80 percent of the time. In addition, the soil moisture comparisons at the natural and impaired marshes, together with the hydrogeologic sections of the augmented wetlands, indicate that without augmentation, the water table would have been too deep below the wetlands to provide the soil moisture conditions necessary for aquatic algae, wetland plants, and freshwater macroinvertebrates to survive. Wetland plants would likely have been replaced with upland vegetation, as occurred at W29 Impaired Marsh where slash pines became established throughout the marsh during prolonged dry conditions (Haag and others, 2005). Cypress tree mortality would have been widespread, as was evident in W19 Impaired Cypress. Moreover, because both of the impaired wetlands were affected less severely by ground-water withdrawals than the four augmented wetlands prior to their augmentation, even more severe deterioration could have been expected.


Reading 42

HW-27

267 46

The author of Passage 1 suggests that wetland mitigation is unsuccessful due to

The reference to the “W29 Impaired Marsh” (lines 5859) serves mainly to

A) increasing population growth destroying natural wetlands.

A) highlight how well an augmented marsh did during flooding.

B) the very small percentage of land categorized as natural wetland.

B) account for the establishment of an historical flood pattern.

C) the fact that mitigation banks are overly large and wasteful.

C) demonstrate how a wetland is eventually destroyed. D) provide an example of the flood patterns of a natural, non-augmented marsh.

D) the distance that may exist between created wetlands and destroyed natural wetlands. 47

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As used in line 59, “regime” most nearly means

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) establishment. B) organization.

A) Lines 1-6 (“Wetlands are . . . habitat”)

C) condition.

B) Lines 11-15 (“Increasing population . . . remain”)

D) scheme.

C) Lines 39-44 (“A third . . . deficient”) D) Lines 44-51 (“Finally, there . . . loss”) 48

It can be inferred from the second paragraph of Passage 2 (lines 65-82) that wetland augmentation was successful because it

44 As used in line 15, “pressure” most nearly means A) weight.

A) helped prevent plants associated with dry land from developing within the wetland area.

B) demands.

B) eradicated many invasive cypress trees .

C) force.

C) significantly deepened the water table as compared to previous flooding occurrences.

D) difficulty.

D) forced groundwater withdrawals. 45 The primary purpose of the second paragraph (lines 16-26) is to

49

A) argue against the efficacy of wetland mitigation projects.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

B) describe how specific wetland mitigation projects are accomplished.

A) Lines 65-72 (“In addition . . . survive”) B) Lines 72-76 (“Wetland plants . . . conditions”)

C) offer three reasons wetland mitigation is necessary.

C) Lines 77-78 (“Cypress tree . . . Cypress”)

D) offer insight into the purpose of wetland mitigation processes.

D) Lines 78-82 (“Moreover, because . . . expected”)


Reading

HW-27

268

50

52 Which choice best states the relationship between the two passages? A) Passage 2 provides evidence which refutes a stance taken in Passage 1. B) Passage 2 offers a cautionary tale regarding a practice that Passage 1 describes in favorable terms. C) Passage 2 attacks the results of a research study mentioned in Passage 1. D) Passage 2 considers a theoretical solution to a problem, while Passage 1 offers an application of that solution.

51 In lines 27-28, the author of Passage 1 implies that not all mitigation projects are successful. How would the authors of Passage 2 respond to this implication? A) With endorsement, as the results from the study in Passage 2 found augmented wetlands offered no benefit to the environment. B) With limited agreement, as the study in Passage 2 did not show that augmented wetlands fully replaced the functions of natural wetlands. C) With contempt, as Passage 1 implies that there is no solution to a problem that has already been solved. D) With confusion, because Passage 1 seems to be discouraging scientists and the public from trying to save the wetlands.

Which choice would best support the claim that the author of Passage 1 recognizes the importance of the successful retention of aquatic algae, wetland plants, and freshwater macroinvertebrates) mentioned in Passage 2? A) Lines 6-9 (“In fact . . . landscape”) B) Lines 19-23 (“In general . . . else”) C) Lines 34-39 (“That is . . . destroyed”) D) Lines 47-51 (“The people . . . loss”)


Reading

HW-28

269

Reading Test 65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. DIRECTIONS Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or graph). Questions 1–10 are based on the following passage.

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The following passage is an excerpt from a memoir written by writer John Burke, about the novelist Joseph Heller.

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I became a fan of Joseph Heller’s writing while I was a student in high school in the 1970s. His most famous book, Catch-22, was practically an anthem for my friends and me. We had dissected it, sitting in the park outside school, reciting certain key passages aloud and proclaiming to anyone who would listen that this was quite possibly the best book ever written. Nearly twenty years later I am not sure that we were wrong. Heller created a modern-day anti-hero who was a soldier trying to stay sane in the midst of a war in which he no longer believed. This spoke to my generation, growing up as we did during the turmoil of Vietnam, and—however you felt about the issue—his ideas were considered important. I had spent many hours imagining what the man who had created the savage wit and brilliant imagery of that book would be like in person. I was soon to find out. To this day, I have no idea how it was arranged, but somehow an invitation to speak at my high school was extended and duly accepted. On the day, I made sure to be near the gate of the school to see him arrive. I was looking for a limousine, or perhaps an entourage of reporters surrounding the man whose dust-jacket picture I had scrutinized so often. But suddenly, there he was, completely alone, walking hesitantly toward the school like just a normal person. He walked by me, and I was amazed to see that he was wearing rather tattered sneakers, down at the heel.

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When he began speaking in the auditorium, I was dumbfounded, for he had a very heavy speech impediment. “That can’t be him,” I whispered loudly to a friend. “He sounds like a dork.” My notions of a brilliant man at that time did not extend to a speech impediment—or any handicap whatsoever. Ordinary people were handicapped, but not men of brilliance. There was, in fact, a fair amount of whispering going on in the auditorium. And then somehow, we began to listen to what he was saying. He was completely brilliant. He seemed to know just what we were thinking and articulated feelings that I had only barely known that I had. He spoke for forty minutes and held us all spellbound. I would not have left my seat even if I could. As I listened, I began to feel awaken in me the possibility of being more than I had supposed that I could be. With some difficulty I managed to get to the school gate again and waited for twenty minutes while I suppose he signed autographs and fielded questions inside the auditorium. Eventually, he came out, as he had come in, alone. I screwed up all my courage and called to him, “Mr. Heller.” He almost didn’t stop but then he turned around and came over to me. “I just wanted to say how much I enjoyed your book. “


Reading

60

He looked down at me in my wheelchair, smiled as if it was the most normal thing in the world and shook my hand. I think that day may have been very important in the future direction of my life.

HW-28

270 4

The author uses the phrase “however you felt about the issue” (line 13) to signal A) that not all critics agreed with the author’s assessment of Catch-22’s excellence.

1

B) that the book was valued by the author and his friends because of its ability to stir up debate.

The main purpose of the passage is to

C) that the Vietnam War was the subject of much debate.

A) illustrate that authors do not make as much money as people may expect.

D) that books can generate strong emotional responses in readers.

B) describe an event that may have changed the author’s perception of himself. C) prove that Catch-22 is the best book ever written. D) provide insight into the contrast between how people expect the famous to behave and how they actually do.

5 The author quotes his own comment to his friend in lines 33–34 primarily in order to A) emphasize the strength of his initial reaction to Heller’s speech.

2

B) suggest that the reason Heller almost didn’t stop as he was leaving was that he had overheard this comment.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 4–7 (“We . . . written”)

C) highlight the author’s suspicion that Heller had sent a stand-in to deliver his speech.

B) Lines 22–25 (“I was . . . often”) C) Lines 41–42 (“He was . . . . thinking”)

D) inject some humor to counterbalance the overall somber nature of the passage.

D) Lines 61–62 (“I think . . . life”)

3

6 Based on the information the passage provides about Heller’s novel, Catch-22 can best be described as

The author describes Heller’s speech (lines 30–45) primarily in order to

A) a provocative book that appealed almost exclusively to young men.

A) show that the students’ initial skepticism was overcome by their interest in what he was saying.

B) a memoir whose appeal depended on readers’ proximity to the events that had influenced its creation.

B) illustrate the powerful effect a good speaker can have.

C) a novel whose brilliance might appeal to people who were not directly affected by US involvement in Vietnam. D) an inspiring and realistic account of one soldier’s valor.

C) provide a warning not to judge people by how they speak. D) respond to charges that Heller’s work is overrated.


Reading 7

HW-28

271 9

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

In line 50, “fielded” most nearly means

A) Lines 30–32 (“When . . . impediment”)

B) evaded.

A) answered.

B) Lines 38–39 (“There . . . auditorium”)

C) asked.

C) Lines 40–41 (“And then . . . brilliant”)

D) caught.

D) Lines 43–44 (“He . . . spellbound”) 10

8 In the context of the passage as a whole, it can be inferred that the most likely cause of the “difficulty” (line 48) the author had in returning to the school gate was the A) effect of the emotions Heller’s speech had generated. B) crowd of other students who were waiting to see Heller’s departure. C) injury the author had sustained in the Vietnam War. D) fact that he has limited physical mobility.

It can be inferred from the passage that the most likely reason the author had to “screw up all [his] courage” was that A) he was embarrassed about his own speech impediment. B) he greatly admired Heller. C) he was afraid Heller would not respond to him. D) he thought Heller would be annoyed to deal with another student.


Reading Questions 11–21 are based on the following passage. The following two passages present two views of the funeral industry in the United States. The first passage is an excerpt from a book written in 1963 by a journalist and takes a hard look at funeral practices at the time. The second passage was written in the 1980s by a member of the funeral business and looks at the changes in the industry since the first book appeared.

Passage 2 40

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Passage 1

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Oh death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory? Where, indeed. Many a badly stung survivor faced with the aftermath of some relative’s funeral has ruefully concluded that the victory has been won hands down by a funeral establishment—in disastrously unequal battle. Much has been written of late about the affluent society in which we live, and much fun poked at some of the irrational “status symbols” set out like golden snares to trap the unwary consumer at every turn. Until recently, little has been said about the most irrational and weirdest of the lot, lying in ambush for all of us at the end of the road—the modern American funeral. If the dismal traders (as an eighteenth-century English writer calls them) have traditionally been cast in a comic role in literature, a universally recognized symbol of humor from Shakespeare to Dickens to Evelyn Waugh, they have successfully turned the tables in recent years to perpetrate a huge, macabre, and expensive practical joke on the American public. It is not consciously conceived of as a joke, of course; on the contrary, it is hedged with admirably contrived rationalizations. Gradually, almost imperceptibly, over the years, the funeral men have constructed their own grotesque cloud-cuckoo-land where the trappings of Gracious Living are transformed, as in a nightmare, into the trappings of Gracious Dying. The same familiar Madison Avenue language has seeped into the funeral industry. So that this too, too solid flesh might not melt, we are offered “solid copper—a quality casket which offers superb value to the client seeking long-lasting protection,” or the “colonial Classic Beauty—18 gauge lead-coated steel, seamless top, lap-jointed welded body construction.” Some caskets are equipped with foam rubber, some with innerspring mattresses. One company actually offers “the revolutionary PerfectPosture bed.”

HW-29

272

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In the past 20 years, many of the questionable excesses of the funeral trade have been curbed: legislation and self-policing by funeral home associations have brought some measure of regulation to an industry that was at one time sadly deficient. And yet, if the sharp practices of shoddy morticians are no longer cause for customers to “whirl in their urns,” as Jessica Mitford once put it so trenchantly, I fear that we may have somehow tilted too far in the other direction. True, the costs of funerals in the 1960s were escalating out of all proportion to real value, but I am convinced that in our search for economy and avoidance of discomfort we have weakened a very important family rite. Consider the case of one funeral “park” in Southern California that has instituted “drive-in” funerals. Believe it or not, you can view the remains, attend the chapel service, and witness the interment—all without leaving your car. To the extent that measures such as these have cut costs, I would applaud, but in my opinion these measures have also produced a disconnection from the real purposes of a funeral. The process of spending time mourning the dead fills a real need for the bereaved. There is a purpose to each of the steps of a funeral, and if there is a commensurate cost to those steps, then so be it. These days it is possible to have a funeral without a service for friends and family to gather, without a graveside interment, even without a casket. More frequently now, families will ask that contributions to charity be made in lieu of flowers and wreaths—without recognizing that buying flowers provides a chance for friends and relatives to show their concern in a more tangible way than a gift to charity. Let us not forget that feelings are as important as economy.


Reading

HW-29

273

11

14 The first paragraph suggests that the “sting” referred to in the question, “Oh death, where is thy sting?” (line 1) is

The examples provided in the last paragraph of passage 1 primarily serve to

A) the suffering from which the dead are released.

A) illustrate how many different casket options are available.

B) the consequence of the bitterness when heirs fight over an inheritance.

B) demonstrate that modern undertakers have a sense of humor.

C) the challenges and costs of dealing with the funeral industry.

C) point to some ironies in the way modern funeral trappings are marketed.

D) the painful recognition of all that the dying leave behind.

D) highlight the extent to which some caskets will delay the decaying of a corpse.

15

12

The primary purpose of the second passage is to

It can be inferred from the passage that the “dismal traders” (line 14) are

A) condemn some new practices as ineffective in terms of addressing the escalating costs of funerals.

A) undertakers. B) shopkeepers.

B) speculate on how Jessica Mitford might respond to the recent changes in the funeral industry.

C) famous writers. D) practical jokers.

C) argue that recent cost-cutting measures have had a detrimental effect on how funerals serve the mourners.

13

D) suggest that the purposes of each step in a funeral be spelled out more clearly.

The phrase “Madison Avenue language” is used by the author of passage 1 to describe language aimed at A) distracting mourners from the pain of their losses. B) persuading people to buy things they don’t need.

16

C) evoking the nightmarish aftermath of sudden death.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

D) helping people to live graciously even in their suffering.

A) Lines 40–41 (“In the . . . curbed”) B) Lines 49–53 (“True . . . rite”) C) Lines 55–57 (“Believe . . . car”) D) Lines 68–70 (“More . . . wreaths”)

17 In line 41, “curbed” most nearly means A) brought under control. B) made public. C) eliminated. D) allowed to proliferate.


Reading 18

HW-29

274 20

According to the second passage, the excesses of the funeral trade have been changed for the better as a result of the

The phrase “in lieu of” (line 69) most nearly means A) instead of. B) as well as.

A) passage of time.

C) because of.

B) institution of services such as drive-in funerals.

D) in the form of.

C) elimination of flowers and wreaths at services. D) actions of legislators and trade associations. 21 19 The author of passage 2 cites the example of “drive-in funerals” (line 55) in order to A) illustrate the kind of practices that are detrimental to an essential function of funerals. B) condemn people who consent to mourn this way. C) demonstrate the ways the funeral industry has changed for the better. D) rebut claims that the funeral industry has failed to change in the past twenty years.

The authors of both passages are likely to agree that the funeral industry A) preys on the suffering of the bereaved. B) is unlikely to change. C) engages in widespread shoddy practices. D) was in a troubled state in the 1960s.


Reading

HW-30

275

Questions 43–52 are based on the following passage. Adapted from Bradley J. Phillips, Coronal Mass Ejections: New Research Directions. Journal of Solar Research, 2009.

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The idea that the sun has an almost unambiguously benign effect on our planet appears, on the surface, to be an incontrovertible one. Few people realize, however, that certain events on the sun can have disastrous consequences for life here on Earth. The geomagnetic storm is one such phenomenon. These storms begin on the surface of the sun when a group of sunspots creates a burst of electromagnetic radiation. These bursts thrust billions of tons of ionized gas, known as plasma, into space; scientists refer to these solar projections as coronal mass ejections (CMEs). After this initial explosion, the CME gets caught up in a shower of particles, also known as a “solar wind,” that continuously rains down on the Earth from the sun. The last recorded instance of a major CME occurred in 1989, when the resulting geomagnetic storm knocked out an entire electrical power grid, depriving over six million energy consumers of power for an extended period. As we become increasingly dependent on new technologies to sustain ourselves in our day-to-day activities, the potential havoc wrought by a major CME becomes even more distressing. Scientists conjecture that a “perfect storm” would have the potential to knock out power grids across the globe and create disruptions in the orbit of low-altitude communication satellites, rendering such satellites practically useless.

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What troubles scientists most about these “perfect storms” is not only their potential for interstellar mischief, but also the fact that they are so difficult to forecast. For one thing, remarkable though these solar occurrences might be, they are still a relatively rare phenomenon, and the few existing records regarding major CMEs provide researchers with scant information from which to draw conclusions about their behavior. Solar storm watchers are frustrated by yet another limitation: time. CMEs have been known to travel through space at speeds approaching 5 million miles per hour, which means they can cover the 93 million miles between the sun and the Earth in well under 20 hours. (Some have been known to travel the same distance in as little as 14 hours.) The difficulties created by this narrow window of opportunity are compounded by the fact that scientists are able to determine the orientation of a CME’s magnetic field only about 30 minutes before it reaches the atmosphere, giving them little or no time to predict the storm’s potential impact on the surface. Some world governments hope to combat this problem by placing a satellite in orbit around the sun to monitor activity on its surface, in the hopes that this will buy scientists more time to predict the occurrence and intensity of geomagnetic storms. In the meantime, many energy providers are responding to the CME threat by installing voltage control equipment and limiting the volume of electricity generated by some power stations.


Reading

HW-30

276 Geomagnetic Storm Activity as Measured by Change in Disturbance Storm index (DST) 0

Greatest Change in DST (nano-Tesla)

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-20

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45 Over the course of the passage, the focus shifts from

With which of the following statements would the author of the passage be most likely to agree?

A) detailing the more positive aspects of an astronomical phenomenon to enumerating the counterbalancing costs of the phenomenon.

A) If more people knew about the harm that CMEs might cause, governments would be better able to implement their plans to offset the dangers.

B) describing a phenomenon in layman’s terms to explaining the same phenomenon in scientific language.

B) The negative effects of CMEs on humans are likely to continue to worsen.

C) introducing a relatively unknown danger to explaining the more challenging aspects of trying to address that danger.

C) Scientists will not be able to overcome the challenges created by the great speed at which CMEs travel.

D) warning of the dangers of a new phenomenon to celebrating the steps taken by governments to combat the dangers of that phenomenon.

D) The term perfect storm is fittingly ironic when applied to a storm that can cause such immense damage.

44

46 The phrase “almost unambiguously benign” in lines 1–2 describes

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) the effect of the sun on the surface of Earth.

A) Lines 3–5 (“Few . . . Earth”)

B) a failure to understand the effects of ultraviolet rays.

B) Lines 19–22 (“As we . . . distressing”)

C) most people’s understanding of the effects of the sun on Earth.

C) Lines 23–27 (“Scientists . . . useless”)

D) solar projections that are referred to as coronal mass ejections.

D) Lines 37–41 (“CMEs . . . hours”)


Reading

HW-30

277

47

50 Based on information in the passage, which of the following best describes the relationship between CMEs and geomagnetic storms?

As used in line 52, “buy” most nearly means A) provide. B) earn.

A) Scientists know that CMEs occur daily, whereas the frequency of geomagnetic storms has not been accurately determined. B) A geomagnetic storm is defined by changes in the DST, whereas a CME is a cause of changes in the DST.

C) waste. D) purchase.

51 Which of the following statements is consistent with information in the passage and the graph?

C) The term CME refers to particularly large ejections of plasma, whereas the term geomagnetic storm applies to all ejections of plasma.

A) In the period from 1980 to 2007, the most major CME and its correspondingly bad geomagnetic storm occurred in 2001.

D) Coronal mass ejections are the solar phenomena that result in geomagnetic storms on Earth.

B) In the years covered by the graph, the 6-year period in which CMEs most affected Earth was between 1980 and 1986.

48

C) Another very strong CME was due to occur in the years between 2007 and 2010.

As used in line 44, “compounded by” most nearly means

D) The DST measure is inversely proportional to the strength of geomagnetic storm activity.

A) derived from. B) undone by C) combined with. D) worsened by.

49 According to the passage, some governments seek to address the challenges of predicting when and how a CME will affect Earth by A) developing a coordinating network of solar storm watchers to ensure that every CME is spotted as soon as it occurs. B) moving as much as possible of the electrical power grid infrastructure underground. C) placing a satellite in orbit around the sun. D) installing voltage control equipment and increasing the volume of electricity generated by some power stations.

52 Which statement is best supported by the data presented in the graph? A) One troubling aspect of CMEs is the difficulty in predicting when one will occur. B) CMEs travel through space at speeds that approach 5 million miles per hour. C) Only a storm as massive as the one that occurred at the end of the 1980s could wreak major havoc on the United States. D) Scientists are currently able to determine the orientation of a CME’s magnetic field less than an hour before the storm reaches Earth’s atmosphere.


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B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

45

A

B

C

D

Reading

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID 10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

46

A

B

C

D

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

47

A

B

C

D

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

48

A

B

C

D

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

49

A

B

C

D

14

A

B

C

D

32

A

B

C

D

50

A

B

C

D

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D

51

A

B

C

D

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

52

A

B

C

D

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

0

0

0

0

1

1

1

1

2

2

2

2

3

3

3

3

4

4

4

4

5

5

5

5

6

6

6

6

D

7

7

7

7

D

8

8

8

8

9

9

9

9


Name

Grade

Quiz

1

A

B

C

D

19

A

B

C

D

37

A

B

C

D

2

A

B

C

D

20

A

B

C

D

38

A

B

C

D

3

A

B

C

D

21

A

B

C

D

39

A

B

C

D

4

A

B

C

D

22

A

B

C

D

40

A

B

C

D

5

A

B

C

D

23

A

B

C

D

41

A

B

C

D

6

A

B

C

D

24

A

B

C

D

42

A

B

C

D

7

A

B

C

D

25

A

B

C

D

43

A

B

C

D

8

A

B

C

D

26

A

B

C

D

44

A

B

C

D

9

A

B

C

D

27

A

B

C

D

10

A

B

C

D

28

A

B

C

D

0

0

0

0

11

A

B

C

D

29

A

B

C

D

1

1

1

1

12

A

B

C

D

30

A

B

C

D

2

2

2

2

13

A

B

C

D

31

A

B

C

D

3

3

3

3

14

4

4

4

B

C

D

32

4

A

A

B

C

D 5

5

5

5

15

A

B

C

D

33

A

B

C

D 6

6

6

6

16

A

B

C

D

34

A

B

C

D

7

7

7

7

17

A

B

C

D

35

A

B

C

D

8

8

8

8

18

A

B

C

D

36

A

B

C

D

9

9

9

9

Writing

HanyMahdy.net

Date

Student ID