Grade 11 - Booklet

Page 1

ID


SAT Plan - G.11 1st Term Date

Class

Due

Demo

Classwork

Next

-

Mon

1

-

 Introduction

Passage = 1-A - 1-B

 HW-1

-

Tues

2

-

 Idioms

Passage = 2-A - 2-B

 Vocab.1

-

Mon

3

 Vocab.-1

Passage = 3-A - 3-B

 HW-2

-

Tues

4

 HW-1

Passage = 4-A - 4-B

 Vocab.2

-

Mon

5

 Vocab.-2

Passage = 5-A - 5-B

 HW-3

-

Tues

6

 HW-2

Passage = 6-A - 6-B

 Vocab.3

-

Mon

7

 Vocab.-3

Passage = 7-A - 7-B

 HW-4

-

Tues

8

 HW-3

Passage = 8-A - 8-B

 Vocab.4

-

Mon

9

 Vocab.-4

Passage = 9-A - 9-B

 HW-5

-

Tues

10

 HW-4

Passage = 10-A - 10-B

 Vocab.5

-

Mon

11

 Vocab.-5

Passage = 11-A - 11-B

 HW-6

-

Tues

12

 HW-5

Passage = 12-A - 12-B

 Vocab.6

-

Mon

13

 Vocab.-6

Passage = 13-A - 13-B

 HW-7

-

Tues

14

 HW-6

Passage = 14-A - 14-B

 Vocab.7

-

Mon

15

 Vocab.-7

Passage = 15-A - 15-B

 HW-8

-

Tues

16

 HW-7

Passage = 16-A - 16-B

 Vocab.8

-

Mon

17

 Vocab.-8

Passage = 17-A - 17-B

 HW-9

-

Tues

18

 HW-8

Passage = 18-A - 18-B

 Vocab.9

-

Mon

19

 Vocab.-9

Passage = 19-A - 19-B

 HW-10

-

Tues

20

 HW-9

Passage = 20-A - 20-B

 Vocab.10

-

Mon

21

 Vocab.-10

Passage = 21-A - 21-B

 HW-11

-

Tues

22

 HW-10

Passage = 22-A - 22-B

 Vocab.11

-

Mon

23

 Vocab.-11

 HW-12

-

Tues

24

 HW-11

Passage = 23-A - 23-B Passage = 24-A - 24-B

-

Mon

25

 Vocab.-12

Passage = 25-A - 25-B

 HW-13

-

Tues

26

 HW-12

-

Mon

27

 Vocab.-13

-

Tues

28

 HW-13

-

Mon

29

 Vocab.-14

-

Tues

30

 HW-14

-

Mon

31

 Vocab.-15

-

Tues

32

 HW-15

 Vocab Review  Reading Review  Graph  Redundancy (G)  Main Idea-1 (R)  Passive (G)  Meaning-1 (R)  Conditional (G)  Reason-1 (R)  Punctuation (G)  Inference-1 (R)  Adj-Adverb (G)  Tone-Attitude-1 (R)  Subject-Verb (G)  Review

Passage = 26-A - 26-B Passage = 27-A - 27-B Passage = 28-A - 28-B Passage = 29-A - 29-B Passage = 30-A - 30-B Passage = 31-A - 31-B Passage = 32-A - 32-B

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 Vocab.12  Vocab.13  HW-14  Vocab.14  HW-15  Vocab.15 -


Week

Topic

Literature Plan (G.11) Lord of the Flies Quarter (1) Homework

Prepare

1

 Chapter (1)

HW-1

 Notes (2)

2

 Chapter (2)

HW-2

 Notes (3)

3

 Chapter (3)

HW-3

 Notes (4)

4

 Chapter (4)

HW-4

 Notes (5)

5

 Chapter (5)

HW-5

 Notes (6)

6

 Chapter (6)

HW-6

 Review (1)

7

 Review (1)

-

 Review (2)

8

 Review (2)

-

-

1

 Chapter (7)

Lord of the Flies Quarter (2)  HW-7

 Notes (8)

2

 Chapter (8)

 HW-8

 Notes (9)

3

 Chapter (9)

 HW-9

 Notes (10)

4

 Chapter (10)

 HW-10

 Notes (11)

5

 Chapter (11)

 HW-11

 Notes (12)

6

 Chapter (12)

 HW-12

 Review (2)

7

 Review (1)

-

8

 Review (2)

-

 Review (3) -


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Vocabulary


Vocab. (1)

Vocabulary One  Abandon

2.

 Accelerate

3.

 accomplished

 to leave o The house was abandoned many years ago.  to move faster

o We need to accelerate climate action.  very successful — very skilled

o Orwell was an accomplished English writer.  exact

 Acquire

6.

 Adapt

7.

 Adequate

8.

 Adhere

9.

 Adjust

o He acquired the habit of thinking loudly.  to change o Some animals couldn’t adapt to climate changes and finally died.  enough

H

r. M 10.

 to get

M

5.

o We hope to become more accurate in predicting earthquakes.

y

 Accurate

an

4.

ah dy

1.

 Advantage

o She makes an adequate amount of money.  to obey - to follow o You should adhere to the rules.  to make small changes o I adjusted the volume on the radio.  a positive point o Speed is an advantage in most sports.


Vocab. (2)

Two 1.

 Adverse

 difficult o She lived in adverse conditions.  to support

 Advocate

o Doctors advocate healthy eating for the children.

 Affection

4.

 Allusion

 strong love

o She has deep affection for her parents.  an indirect reference

o He made an allusion to a secret plan.

M

3.

ah dy

2.

 another choice  Alternative

o We planned an outdoor wedding, but we have

y

5.

6.

an

an alternative location if it rains.  Ambiguous

 confusing

o I was confused by his ambiguous message.

7.

H

 having strong desire for success

 Ambitious

o The company was created by two ambitious

r.

young men.

 Analogous

M

8. 9.

10.

 Ancestor

 Anecdote

 similar o My situation is analogous to yours.  one from whom a person is descended o Her ancestors came to America in the 1850.  a short story o He told us many anecdotes about his childhood.


Vocab. (3)

Three  great sadness

2.

 Anguish

o He watched in anguish as fire spread through the house.  unknown

 Anonymous

ah dy

1.

o The donor wishes to remain anonymous.  to expect - to predict

 Anticipate

4.

 Approximately

5.

 Assert

o The organizers of the fair anticipate a large crowd.  nearly

o The cost will be approximately 500 euros.

M

3.

 to say that something is true

y

o He asserted that he was innocent.  a belief without proof

 Assumption

o Many scientific assumptions about Mars were wrong.

an

6.

 amazed

 Astonished

8.

 Attempt

M

r.

H

7.

9.

 Autonomy

o The doctors were astonished at the speed of his recovery.  trying o This is my second attempt at the exam.  independence o Our teacher encourages individual autonomy.  unfair preference

10.

 Bias

o The manager was fired because of his bias against the workers.


Vocab. (4)

Four 1.

 distract

 Blur

o The sentence blurs the focus of the essay.  increase

 Boost

3.

 Broad

o In order to boost profits, you need to look for new customers.  wide

o The store has a broad selection of cell phones.  a heavy load

 Burden

o A huge burden was lifted off my shoulders when I finished my exams.

M

4.

ah dy

2.

 hiding from enemies  Camouflage

6.

 Category

o The rabbit's white fur acts as a camouflage in the snow.

y

5.

an

 division

o The two cars belong to the same category.

 disorder

 Chaos

8.

 Cherish

r. M 9.

o When the police arrived, the streets were in total chaos.

H

7.

 Chronological

 to love - to value o I cherish my independence.  arranged in order of time o The movie features the World War II in chronological order.  to quote

10.

 Cite

o In his essay, Randy must cite the opinions of several experts.


Vocab. (5)

Five 1.

 to state without proof

 Claim

o He claimed that he saw a UFO.  unity

 Coherence

o My group walked in coherence; we all moved hand in hand.

ah dy

2.

 events happening at the same time by accident

3.

 Coincidence

4.

 Collaborate

5.

 Compelling

6.

 Compensate

7.

 Competent

o The competent mechanic managed to fix the engine in a short time.  to collect

8.

 Compile

o The publisher will compile 500 poems into one book.  including everything

o By coincidence, every child in the class has a twin.  to work together

M

o The two companies agreed to collaborate.  captivating

y

o It was a compelling movie about living on the moon.  to pay for work or damages

M

r.

H

an

o Nothing can compensate for the loss of one's home.  skilled

9.

 Comprehensive

10.

 Compromise

o Our software needs a comprehensive update.  settling a disagreement o After hours of negotiations, a compromise was reached.


Vocab. (6)

Six  Conceal

2.

 Concept

 principle - idea o She is familiar with basic concepts of physics.

5.

 Conduct

6.

 Confess

7.

 Conflict

8.

 Consequence

M

 Condemn

y

4.

o Many people are very concerned about the destruction of the rainforests.  to criticize strongly o We strongly condemn the attacks against civilians.  to carry out o The group conducted the research in Australia.  to admit

o He finally confessed his crime.  struggle o The theme of the book is the conflict between good and evil.  result o The earthquake had devastating consequences.  to regard - to think deeply o This man is considered a hero in Palestine

r.

H

an

 Concerned

 Consider

M 10.

o He had a spy camera concealed in his pocket.

 worried - interested

3.

9.

 to hide

ah dy

1.

 Considerable

 large o We received a considerable number of complaints.


Vocab. (7)

Seven 1.

 Contemplate

 to think deeply o He contemplated his future career.  modern

 Contemporary

o This magazine focuses on the contemporary fashion.

ah dy

2.

 the text before and after a word in a passage  Context

4.

 Contradict

o The meaning of this word can be understood in context.  to oppose

o The lab results contradict his theory.

M

3.

 to donate money or time

6.

 Controversy

7.

 Convenient

o Bill Gates has contributed billions of dollars to Africa.

y

 Contribute

 debate

an

5.

o VAR caused controversy at World Cup 2018.

H

 easy o It is very convenient to pay by credit card.  traditional

 Conventional

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Convey

 Convince

o Most of her books are conventional detective stories.

 to mean - to express o His look conveyed all the love he felt for his mother.  to persuade o I convinced him to leave immediately.


Vocab. (8)

Eight

2.

 Crisis

3.

 Criteria

4.

 Criticize

5.

 Crucial

ah dy

 Counterargument

M

1.

 an opposing point of view o In our conversation, I offered the obvious counterargument.  a critical situation o A year ago, our company was in crisis.  standards o What are the criteria for selecting the national team players?  to discuss the positive and negative points o The writer criticized the novel in his review.  Very important o Takeoff and Landing are the most crucial moments in any flight.

7.

 Declare

8.

 Decline

y

 Custom

o It is the custom for the bride to wear a white dress.

r.

H

an

6.

 tradition

 Deficient

10.

 Deliberate

M

9.

 to announce o America declared war on Japan in 1941.  to decrease o The numbers of the white tiger are declining.  not enough o A diet deficient in calcium can lead to weak bones.  intentional o The car accident seems to be deliberate.


Vocab. (9)

Nine

 Depict

3.

 Deplete

4.

 Deteriorate

5.

 Determine

6.

 Diction

7.

 Dignity

8.

 Diminish

ah dy

2.

M

 Demonstrate

 to decide

o I determined that one day I would be an actor.

y

1.

 to show clearly o Would you kindly demonstrate how the car engine works?  to describe o I like the way he depicts the characters in his novel.  to use up o Logging and mining deplete our natural resources.  to become worse o Rain and sun will gradually deteriorate the paint.

an

 choice of words

o The student's essay was full of clever diction.

 self-respect

r.

H

o He wished to quit the job with dignity.  to decrease - to reduce o The side effects of this medicine will diminish over time.  to hide o He disguised himself as a guard and could finally escape.  to refuse o Let’s not dismiss the idea without discussing it deeply.

 disguise

10.

 Dismiss

M

9.


Vocab. (10)

Ten  disagreement 1.

 Dispute

o We couldn’t settle our dispute over work

 Distinct

4.

 Distinguish

5.

 Distract

6.

 Diversity

o Each herb has its own distinct flavor.  to recognize the difference

o We can distinguish between right and wrong.  disturb

o I was distracted by the loud noise.  Variety

 Divert

8.

 Domestic

o The island has a great diversity in plant life.

 to redirect

M

r.

H

7.

9.

 clearly different

an

3.

o The barking dogs disrupted my sleep.

M

 Disrupt

y

2.

 to interrupt

ah dy

conditions.

 Dominate

o The traffic was diverted to a side street.

 related to home or country o My husband is an expert at domestic work.  to control o The team dominated the second half of the game.  inactive- asleep

10.

 Dormant

o Although the volcano remained dormant for 50 years, it suddenly erupted.


Vocab. (11)

Eleven  long-lasting 1.

 Durable

2.

 Efficiency

3.

 Ego

o I'm glad he got the job; he needed something to boost his ego.  to give more details

4.

 Elaborate

o Who can elaborate on the main theme of the short story?  remove

5.

 Eliminate

o Doctors seek to eliminate the causes of the disease.  to come out

6.

 Emerge

7.

 Eminent

9.

10.

ah dy

M

y

an

o The cat emerged from its hiding place behind the couch.  famous

H

r.  Emphasize

M

8.

o The washing machine is made of durable materials.  the good use of time, money, or energy o Sweden has shown the best model of energy efficiency.  self-esteem

 Endure  Engaging

o The eminent scientist was awarded the Nobel Prize.  to highlight o The SAT teacher emphasized the need for continuous practice.  to bear - to tolerate o I cannot endure another day; it’s been three weeks of exams!  charming o The children were watching an engaging movie.


Vocab. (12)

Twelve 1.

 Enhance

 to improve o Robots have enhanced automobile production.  a difficult project

 Enterprise

o Sending a spaceship to Mars is an expensive enterprise.  excited

 Entirely

5.

 Eradicate

6.

 Essential

7.

 Establish

 completely

M

4.

o He seems very enthusiastic about his role in the new play. o The house was entirely renovated.  to destroy completely

o The enemy has been completely eradicated.

y

 Enthusiastic

 very important

an

3.

ah dy

2.

o It's essential to make regular check-ups.

 to set up

H

o Harvard College was established in 1636.

 to calculate something roughly

 Estimate

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Eternal  Ethical

o We need to estimate how much paint we'll need for the room.  lasting forever o This life is not eternal.  moral o Is it ethical to employ children?


Vocab. (13)

Thirteen 1.

 Eventually

2.

 Evolve

3.

 Excavate

4.

 Exceed

5.

 Exhibit

 Finally o The racer could eventually finish the marathon.  to develop gradually

 to dig out

o The archaeologists excavated a new statue.  to go beyond  to show

M

o The cost will exceed 1000 dollars.

o The child exhibited some signs of the disease.  direct

o We were given explicit instructions to keep order.

y

 Explicit

an

6.

ah dy

o The company has evolved into a major technology corporation.

 to take selfish advantage of

 Exploit

o The factory owner exploited the workers; therefore, they went on a strike.

H

7.

 not protected

 Exposed

r.

8.

 Facilitate

M

9.

10.

 Figurative

o You should not be exposed to the sun all day long.

 to make easier o To facilitate learning, each class has no larger than ten students.  symbolic o The poem is full of figurative language.


Vocab. (14)

Fourteen  results o She published her findings in a medical journal.  to grow - to achieve success

 Findings

2.

 Flourish

o Technology markets have flourished in recent years.  to rise and fall in waves

3.

 Fluctuate

4.

 Forecast

o In the desert, the temperature fluctuates dramatically.  to predict

5.

 Foreshadow

o The dark clouds foreshadow an approaching storm.  basis

6.

 Foundation

7.

 Fragile

o The inspector discovered a crack in the house's foundation.  easily broken or damaged

8.

 Fragment

ah dy

1.

an

y

M

o Amazon forecasts high profits this year.  to give a warning

r.

H

o Be careful with that vase; it's very fragile.  a broken piece

 Fulfill

10.

 Fundamental

M

9.

o The road was covered with fragments of glass from the shattered window.

 to achieve o If we could buy this house, our dream would be fulfilled.  basic o We need to make some fundamental changes in our business.


Vocab. (15)

Fifteen  real - honest  Genuine

2.

 Gradual

3.

 Grief

o He has always shown a genuine concern for poor people.  happening slowly

ah dy

1.

o We noticed a gradual change in temperature.  great sadness

o Grief can cause a physical pain.  agreement

5.

 Hierarchy

6.

 Hostile

o The pilot and his copilot were working in harmony.

M

 Harmony

 ranking from highest to lowest o He was at the top of the company hierarchy.

y

4.

 related to an enemy

an

o He was entering hostile territory.

 false pretending

 Hypocrisy

o I hate the hypocrisy of those who say one thing but do another.

H

7.

 theory

 Hypothesis

M

r.

8. 9.

10.

 Identity

 illusion

o Scientists will set up some experiments to test out the new hypothesis.  name - character o The identity of the criminal is not known.  a false idea o A large mirror in a room can create the illusion of more space.


Vocab. (16)

Sixteen  to explain - to give an example  illustrate

2.

 immersed

o The diagram illustrates the bad effects of smoking on health.  deeply involved o He was immersed in his new project.

ah dy

1.

 Coming into another country to live permanently

 immigration

4.

 immortal

 impact

6.

 implicit

o No human is immortal.

an

y

o The goalkeeper has a great impact on the team.  indirect o There is a sense of moral duty implicit in her writings.

 to suggest

r.

H

 imply

 indicate

M

8.

 never dying  effect

5.

7.

o He plans an immediate immigration to Canada.

M

3.

9.

 inevitable

10.

 infamous

o What does the writer imply in the first paragraph?

 to show o The map indicates where the treasure is buried.  certain to happen o I think our loss is inevitable.  famous for evil actions o He is infamous for his war crimes. 


Vocab. (17)

Seventeen  to conclude

1.

 infer

2.

 influence

o What can you infer from the passage?

ah dy

 Initial

5.

 innovation

6.

 inquiry

7.

 integral

8.

 integrity

M

4.

o We need to spend more money on repairing the city infrastructure.  first o The initial earthquake was followed by a series of aftershocks.  a new idea, method, or device o This is the latest innovation in TV technology.  request - investigation

y

 infrastructure

an

o Facebook didn’t respond to our privacy inquiry.  very important o He played an integral role in the success of the company.  honesty

H

r. M 10.

o Her parents have a great influence on her.  structures needed for a society

3.

9.

 effect

 Interaction

 interpretation

o He was a man of the highest integrity.  communication o There's not enough interaction between the manager and the employees.  explanation o His email needs further interpretation.


Vocab. (18)

Eighteen  to occupy

 invade

o Germany invaded France in 1940.  to examine

 investigate

3.

 irony

4.

 irrational

o The police department is investigating the cause of the accident.  a situation that seems contrary to what you expect o When he went to the police station for help, he got arrested. What an irony!  unreasonable

ah dy

2.

M

1.

o Cats have irrational fear of cucumbers.  to put in danger

 Jeopardize

6.

 Judgment

7.

 Legacy

8.

 lethal

o His health has been jeopardized by poor nutrition.  opinion o In my judgment, we shouldn't change our plan.  something remaining from the past

an

y

5.

r.

H

o She left us a legacy of a five novels.

 Lethargy

10.

 Liability

M

9.

 deadly o These chemicals are lethal to fish.

 tiredness - drowsiness o The medicine causes loss of appetite and lethargy.  legal responsibility o He admitted liability for the accident.


Vocab. (19)

Nineteen  to keep - to continue  Maintain

o The pilot could easily maintain control of the aircraft.  to control something to your advantage

2.

 Manipulate

3.

 Mature

o She manipulated the media to make people believe she was innocent.  fully grown

 Meticulous

6.

 Migration

7.

 Modify

o He described the scene in meticulous details.  moving in winter to another place o Flocks of birds assemble before migration.  to make small changes o He modified the recipe by using oil instead of butter.

H

 Momentous

M

r.

8.

o I found him sitting alone, deep in meditation.  very careful

M

5.

 thinking carefully

y

 Meditation

o The grapes will be mature next month.

an

4.

ah dy

1.

9.

 Motivate

10.

 Multitude

 very important o My graduation was a momentous day in my life.  to encourage o Acting can motivate students to study literature.  a very large number o He was captivated by the multitude of stars in the sky.


Vocab. (20)

Twenty  shared between two people  Mutual

2.

 Narrator

3.

 Nocturnal

o Mutual respect is the key to their successful friendship.  storyteller

ah dy

1.

o The novel has a female narrator.  active at night

o Most owls are nocturnal.  famous for evil actions

 Nourish

o Our neighbor is notorious for his violent arguments.  to feed

o We need to nourish our brains with reading.

y

5.

 Notorious

M

4.

6.

an

 many

 Numerous

o He received numerous awards in his first season.

 Objective

r.

7.

H

 neutral

 Oblivious

M

8. 9.

10.

 Obscure  Obsessive

o I can't be objective when I'm judging my brother's work.

 unaware o The driver was oblivious of the speed limit.  unclear o The main idea of the passage is obscure.  thinking too much about something o He is obsessive about space travel.


Vocab. (21)

Twenty-One  something that blocks your way 1.

 Obstacle

o The major obstacle to open the restaurant is money.  very clear

 Obvious

3.

 Ominous

o Her doctor noticed the obvious signs of the disease.  suggesting evil

o The enemy spoke in an ominous tone.  chance

 Opportunity

o There are few job opportunities for students this summer.

M

4.

ah dy

2.

 showing hope for the future

6.

 Outline

 Paradox

M

8. 9.

10.

 to describe generally o He outlined his plan for the next game.

 to defeat

H

 Overcome

r.

7.

o He is optimistic about his chances of winning a gold medal.

y

 Optimistic

an

5.

 Partially  Perish

o I am trying to overcome my fear of flying.

 contradiction o “Every end is a new beginning.” What a paradox!

 not completely o The building was partially destroyed in the fire.  to die o Nobody perished in the accident.


Vocab. (22)

Twenty-Two  Permanent

2.

 Persistent

 unchanging - lasting forever o He was looking for a permanent job in NASA.  continuing despite difficulties o Be persistent; don't give up.  point of view

3.

 Perspective

ah dy

1.

o From a personal perspective, I think you should travel abroad.  expecting the worst to happen

5.

 Phenomenon

6.

 Phobia

7.

 Plausible

o Most doctors were pessimistic about the surgery.

M

 Pessimistic

 a rare event

o The lunar eclipse is a natural phenomenon.

y

4.

an

 having a strong fear o His fear of heights developed into a phobia.

H

 reasonable o Your suggestion is not plausible.

 a large amount

 Plenty

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Portion

 Posterity

o We have plenty of time to prepare for the graduation.

 part o A large portion of the city was flooded.  future generations o We must achieve freedom for ourselves and our posterity.


Vocab. (23)

Twenty-Three 1.

 to express admiration

 Praise

o He should be praised for his hard work.  to come before

 Precede

o Smoke and loud noises preceded the

ah dy

2.

volcanic eruption.

3.

 Precisely

 exactly

o I measured the length of the board precisely.  someone or something replaced by another

5.

 Preserve

o The new manager learned from his predecessor's mistakes.

M

 Predecessor

 to keep something protected o Salt can be used to preserve meat.

y

4.

an

 advantage - chance

 Privilege

7.

 Procedures

8.

 Proficient

r. M 9.

10.

o I had the privilege of meeting your grandfather.

 steps

H

6.

 Profound  Prohibit

o He failed to follow the safety procedures.

 skillful o She is proficient in two foreign languages.  deep o His knowledge of history is profound.  to prevent o Smoking is prohibited in this restaurant.


Vocab. (24)

Twenty-Four  Prominent

2.

 Promote

 well-known o The company became prominent in the 1990s.  to support - to advance o Good soil promotes plant growth.  to suggest

4.

 Prosper

5.

 Purchase

 Pursue

o He hopes his business will prosper.  to buy

o He purchased a new suit for his wedding.  goal

o The purpose of the new resort is to attract more tourists.

an

7.

 to grow - to achieve success

 to follow - to seek o The car was pursued by helicopters.

H

6.

 Purpose

o The city council proposed a plan for a new bridge.

M

 Propose

y

3.

ah dy

1.

 basic - extreme

 Radical

M

r.

8.

9.

10.

 Rapid

 Rational

o We need to make some radical changes to our apartment.  quick o Thank you for your rapid response to my question.  reasonable o Human beings are rational creatures.


Vocab. (25)

Twenty-Five  to protest

1.

 Rebel

2.

 Reclaim

3.

 Reconcile

4.

 Regulations

o You should rebel against injustice.  to get back  to end conflict

o We could finally reconcile our differences.  rules

o Each company has a set of regulations.

6.

 Reject

o The engineers built a new wall to reinforce the dam.

y

 Reinforce

M

 to support 5.

ah dy

o He reclaimed the title of world champion.

an

 to refuse

o Our offer was completely rejected.

 a release from worry

 Relief

8.

 Reluctant

9.

 Remedy

r. M 10.

o I felt such a sense of relief after I finished my exams.

H

7.

 Renovate

 unwilling o He is reluctant to talk about politics.  solution - medicine o The problem was beyond remedy.  to renew o We renovated the kitchen last summer.


Vocab. (26)

Twenty-Six  Renowned

2.

 Represent

3.

 Resemble

4.

 Restrained

5.

 Reveal

o Einstein was a renowned scientist.  to act in behalf of someone else o The lawyer represented his client in court.  to look like

o He resembles his father.  controlled

o He was admired for his restrained behavior.

M

 to make known - to show

o She would not reveal the secret.  to respect deeply

y

 Revere

o The family reveres old traditions.

an

6.

 famous

ah dy

1.

 using language effectively

 Rhetorical

8.

 Rural

r.

H

7.

 Seek

M

9.

10.

 Sentimental

o My question was rhetorical. I wasn't really expecting an answer.

 related to the countryside o Their cottage is in an amazing rural setting.

 to look for o You should visit your doctor and seek his advice.  emotional o When I think about my childhood, I get very sentimental.


Vocab. (27)

Twenty-Seven

 Simulate

 Simultaneously

4.

 Skeptical

5.

 Slightly

6.

 Solidarity

7.

 Solitude

8.

 Sophisticated

H

r. M 9.

10.

 at the same time o To drive a car, you learn to do several things simultaneously.  doubtful o When I said I finished reading the passage early, my teacher looked skeptical.  a little o He is slightly taller than his brother.  unity o There was a great feeling of solidarity between the students.  being alone

an

3.

o The model will be used to simulate the effects of an earthquake.

ah dy

2.

o The discovery has great significance to researchers.  imitate

M

 Significance

y

1.

 importance

 Speculation

 Spiritual

o She wished to work on her novel in solitude.  advanced - complex o The corporation has a sophisticated computer network.  guessing without evidence o The book has many speculations about the future.  related to the soul o Traditional ways of life focused on our spiritual needs.


Vocab. (28)

Twenty-Eight 1.

 Spontaneous

 done in a natural way o The audience began a spontaneous applause.  a collection of data

 Statistics

o The statistics show that women live longer than men.  very large

3.

 Substantial

o A substantial number of people lost their savings.

 Superficial

 not deep

y

5.

o We bought sufficient food for our camping trip. o I had a superficial knowledge of the topic.

an

 Sufficient

M

 enough 4.

ah dy

2.

 a number of questions asked to collect data

 Survey

H

6.

o The survey found some interesting facts about our eating habits.

 to doubt

 Suspect

r.

7.

 Suspicious

9.

 Symbol

10.

 Sympathy

M

8.

o If you suspect a gas leak do not strike a match or use electricity.  doubtful o She died in suspicious circumstances.  representation o A dove is a symbol of peace.  caring for the suffering of another person o We had great sympathy for the flood victims.


Vocab. (29)

Twenty-Nine  to happen at the same time - to update  Synchronize

 Temporary

3.

 Thesis

4.

 Thrilled

5.

 Thrive

o We disagreed with the thesis of the report.  excited - very happy

M

o I was thrilled to visit Paris again.  to grow - to achieve success

o These plants can thrive with little sunlight.

7.

 Transition

8.

 Treacherous

 to bear

o These ants can tolerate temperatures that would kill other species.  change

an

 Tolerate

o The country made a successful transition from agriculture to industry.  disloyal

H

r.  Trend

M 10.

o His job was temporary; he had to find another one.  the main idea - an academic paper

6.

9.

 for a short time

ah dy

2.

o The sound and picture have to synchronize perfectly.

y

1.

 Undermine

o We arrested a treacherous agent among us.  general direction - current style o Android technology is the latest trend in television.  to weaken o The flow of water undermined the pillars supporting the roof.


Vocab. (30)

Thirty  related to the city  Urban

o Pollution has reached high levels in some urban areas.  to make use of

2.

 Utilize

3.

 Validate

4.

 Vanguard

5.

 Vigilant

6.

 Vital

ah dy

1.

o You can utilize Microsoft Word to review the essay.  to prove to be true or legal  Pioneer

M

o The court validated the contract.

o He was the vanguard of country music.  alert

y

o The burglar was spotted by vigilant neighbors.

an

 very important

o Your heart is a vital organ.

 of free will - without payment

 Voluntary

8.

 Wary

r. M 9.

10.

o Participation in the program is completely voluntary.

H

7.

 Welfare

 Yield

 cautious o The store owner kept a wary eye on him.  well-being - happiness o The country provided free health coverage for the welfare of its citizens.  to give - to supply o We believe this soil will yield good crops.


Practice


1

1

Passage 1-A

SECTION 1: READING TEST 65 Minutes • 52 Questions TURN TO SECTION 1 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage (or pair of passages) below is followed by a number of multiple-choice questions. After reading each passage, select the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any supplementary material, such as a table, graph, chart, or photograph.

John James Audubon (1785–1851) is known primarily for his bird studies, but as this passage from Ornithological Biography shows, he wrote about the behavior of other animals as well. Black Bear The Black Bear (Ursus americanus), however clumsy in appearance, is active, vigilant, and persevering; possesses Line great strength, courage, and address; and 5 undergoes with little injury the greatest fatigues and hardships in avoiding the pursuit of the hunter. Like the Deer, it changes its haunts with the seasons, and for the same reason, namely, the desire of 10 obtaining suitable food, or of retiring to the more inaccessible parts, where it can pass the time in security, unobserved by man, the most dangerous of its enemies. During the spring months, it searches for 15 food in the low rich alluvial lands that border the rivers, or by the margins of such inland lakes as, on account of their small size, are called by us ponds. There it procures abundance of succulent roots, 20 and of the tender juicy stems of plants, on which it chiefly feeds at that season. During the summer heat, it enters the gloomy swamps, passes much of its time wallowing in the mud, like a hog, and 25 contents itself with crayfish, roots, and nettles, now and then, when hard pressed by hunger, seizing on a young pig, or perhaps a sow, or even a calf. As soon as the different kinds of berries which grow 30 on the mountain begin to ripen, the Bears

..............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

QUESTIONS 1–10 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

35

40

45

50

55

60

65

betake themselves to the high grounds, followed by their cubs. In such retired parts of the country where there are no hilly grounds, it pays visits to the maize fields, which it ravages for a while. After this, the various species of nuts, acorns, grapes, and other forest fruits, that form what in the western country is called mast, attract its attention. The Bear is then seen rambling singly through the woods to gather this harvest, not forgetting to rob every Bee tree it meets with, Bears being, as you well know, expert at this operation. You also know that they are good climbers, and may have been told, or at least may now be told, that the Black Bear now and then houses itself in the hollow trunks of the larger trees for weeks together, when it is said to suck its paws. You are probably not aware of a habit in which it indulges, and which, being curious, must be interesting to you. At one season, the Black Bear may be seen examining the lower part of the trunk of a tree for several minutes with much attention, at the same time looking around, and snuffing the air, to assure itself that no enemy is near. It then raises itself on its hind legs, approaches the trunk, embraces it with its forelegs, and scratches the bark with its teeth and claws for several minutes in continuance. Its jaws clash against each other, until a mass of foam runs down both sides of the mouth. After this it continues its rambles. In various portions of our country, many of our woodsmen and hunters who have seen the Bear performing the singular operation just described, imagine that it


1

2

75

80

85

does so for the purpose of leaving behind an indication of its size and power. They measure the height at which the scratches are made, and in this manner, can, in fact, form an estimate of the magnitude of the individual. My own opinion, however, is different. It seems to me that the Bear scratches on the trees, not for the purpose of showing its size or its strength, but merely for that of sharpening its teeth and claws, to enable it better to encounter a rival of its own species during the amatory season. The Wild Boar of Europe clashes its tusks and scrapes the earth with its feet, and the Deer rubs its antlers against the lower part of the stems of young trees or bushes, for the same purpose.

1 As used in line 4, “address” refers to (A) habitat. (B) focus. (C) skill. (D) direction. 2 What is the most likely reason that Audubon wrote about the black bear? (A) He wanted to provide more information about another animal to his readers. (B) He was fascinated by mammals. (C) He didn’t think his readers knew anything about bears. (D) He wanted to show the commonalities in behavioral patterns of bears and birds. 3 Which of the following quotes from the text provides evidence to support the idea that the bear migrates from one habitat to another? (A) Lines 7–8 (“Like … seasons”) (B) Line 19 (“it procures … roots”) (C) Lines 53–55 (“the Black Bear … tree”) (D) Line 65 (“After … rambles”)

........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

70

Passage 1-A

4 Huntsmen and woodsmen claim that the bear scratches tree bark with its teeth and claws to (A) sharpen its teeth. (B) mark the tree for winter hibernation. (C) ward off potential predators by showing its size. (D) mark the tree so that other animals can’t harvest its nuts and acorns. 5 What is the main rhetorical effect of lines 22–28? (A) To show that the bear is an exceptional predator (B) To explain why humans might want to hunt bears (C) To impress the reader with how varied a bear’s diet is (D) To create an image of a bear placidly foraging for food 6 What evidence in the text does Audubon use to support his theory about why bears mark a tree with their teeth and claws? (A) When foaming at the mouth, the bear scares off predators. (B) The marks indicate to predators the huge size and power of the bear. (C) Other animals have similar behaviors designed to strengthen the animal. (D) The practice makes the bear foam at the mouth, which is a sign of strength to other bears. 7 According to Audubon, how are the claws of the black bear like the tusk of the wild boar? (A) Both are parts of the body that serve to get food for the animal. (B) Both animals use these parts of their bodies as a sign of strength. (C) Both animals use these body parts to defend themselves from human predators. (D) Both are parts of the body that the animal sharpens to better compete for a mate.


1

3

(A) is a hunter himself. (B) has some sympathy for hunted bears. (C) does not believe that bears are dangerous. (D) thinks bears are more dangerous than people. 9 What evidence in the text shows that black bears are not vegetarians? (A) Lines 18–21 (“There it … that season”) (B) Lines 26–28 (“when hard … even a calf.”) (C) Lines 34–35 (“it pays … for a while”) (D) Lines 36–39 (“various species … its attention”) 10 How can you tell what assumptions Audubon makes about his reader? (A) He gives detailed descriptions, suggesting that the reader is interested. (B) He addresses the reader directly to provide information he thinks the reader doesn’t have. (C) Using comparisons to the deer shows that Audubon assumes readers are more familiar with deer than bears. (D) Using third-person narration and passive voice indicates that Audubon assumes all of the information is new to the reader.

........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

8 The fact that Audubon calls man the bear’s “most dangerous” enemy (line 13) indicates that he

Passage

1-A


2

Passage

4

SECTION 2: WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST 35 Minutes • 44 Questions TURN TO SECTION 2 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of multiple-choice questions. For some questions, you will need to consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage may be accompanied by one or more graphics—such as a chart, table, or graph—that you will need to refer to in order to best answer the question(s). Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage—it could be one word, a portion of a sentence, or the full sentence itself. Other questions will direct you to a particular paragraph or to certain sentences within a paragraph, or you’ll be asked to think about the passage as a whole. Each question number refers to the corresponding number in the passage. After reading each passage, select the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage follow the conventions of Standard Written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Select that option if you think the best choice is to leave that specific portion of the passage as it is.

While most American cities must adapt to constant growth, Detroit is undergoing change as a result of depopulation. A city of 139 square miles, with a long history of growth and middle-class success, Detroit now faces an unusual, though not entirely novel, situation for U.S. cities: depopulation. 1 Economic transformations caused by recessions, the loss of manufacturing, and other factors have wreaked havoc on the once prosperous city, driving away its middle class and 2 it left behind vast tracts of urban blight. The statistics 3 are staggering— since 1950, some 60 percent of the population has gone elsewhere, leaving the city with

..............................................................................................................................................................................................

QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

1 Which choice provides the most logical introduction to the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Civic growth caused by the depression (C) The improvement in living conditions (D) The decrease in pollution 2 (A) NO CHANGE (B) having left behind vast tracts of urban blight. (C) to leave behind vast tracts of urban blight. (D) leaving behind vast tracts of urban blight. 3 (A) NO CHANGE (B) are staggering since: 1950 some (C) are staggering, since 1950 some (D) are staggering since; 1950 some

1-B


2

Passage 1-B

5

left, thousands of businesses went with them. City planners have been responding to the challenge of depopulation. Over several years, they have studied their urban spaces and used varying and innovative techniques to 5 require the input of 6 some 30,000 of their residents. Planners have come up with what they call Detroit Future City, a vision that takes the long view and is projected to take some fifty years to implement. Within this plan are different strands of redevelopment, development, and—most dramatically—un-development. 7 Similarly, the strategic plan includes a concept not often seen in U.S. city planning: downsizing, or what some prefer to call “right sizing.” [1] One of the boldest suggestions of the plan is a basic conversion of about one third of all Detroit’s urban space. [2] Making the city more compact, the planners 8 reasoned, would save money on services and allow them to devote more resources to a smaller total area. 9 [3] Walking paths, parks, ponds for rainwater collection and retention (the city’s sewage system is overburdened), sports fields, meadows, forested areas, campgrounds,

........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

4 20,000 new residents. When the people

4 Which choice provides information that best supports the claim made by this sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) 100,000 vacant residences or lots (C) 50,000 more middle-class residents (D) 30,000 homeless people 5 (A) NO CHANGE (B) confirm (C) solicit (D) implore 6 (A) NO CHANGE (B) of some 30,000 of its residents (C) of some 30,000 of it’s residents (D) of some 30,000 of they’re residents 7 (A) NO CHANGE (B) In fact, (C) Nevertheless, (D) Besides, 8 (A) NO CHANGE (B) insisted (C) noted (D) commented 9 For the sake of the cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 3 should be placed (A) where it is now. (B) before sentence 1. (C) before sentence 2. (D) before sentence 5.


2

6

gradually transform the shutdown area. [4] Controversially, the plan suggests shutting down services in certain areas to drive current residents out of them and into neighborhoods being targeted for strengthening. [5] The plan also calls for remaining neighborhoods to be 10 transformed but–not by the traditional models of economic growth. [6] For example, the city, if organized carefully with viable public transportation options, hopes to create jobs right where people live. In part, the plan is predicated on the idea that within its own various redevelopment areas, or “natural economic zones,” people can both live and work in fields that every city 11 has; namely, healthcare, education, government, transportation, and local businesses that meet core needs, such as grocery stores and eating places. The plan is also predicated on the idea that the well-planned urban space generates its own economic success, as well as on the idea that such areas will eventually draw some outside business and industry. Debt-ridden Detroit is definitely going to need the latter. A recent NPR report on Detroit posited that commercial real estate taxes can make up a substantial 70 percent of the revenue for a city.

........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

and other green space initiatives would then

Passage 1-B

10 (A) NO CHANGE (B) transformed—but not by the (C) transformed but not—by the (D) transformed, but not by—the 11 (A) NO CHANGE (B) has; namely, healthcare and education; government and transportation, local businesses (C) has; namely, healthcare; education; government; transportation; and local businesses (D) has; namely, healthcare, education, government, transportation; and local businesses


1

7

Thomas Jefferson wrote in 1787 to his nephew, Peter Carr, a student at the College of William and Mary. Paris, August 10, 1787 Dear Peter, I have received your two letters of December 30 and April 18 and am very happy to find by them, as well as Line by letters from Mr. Wythe,* that you have 5 been so fortunate as to attract his notice and good will: I am sure you will find this to have been one of the more fortunate events of your life, as I have ever been sensible it was of mine. I enclose you a 10 sketch of the sciences to which I would wish you to apply in such order as Mr. Wythe shall advise: I mention also the books in them worth your reading, which submit to his correction. Many of these 15 are among your father’s books, which you should have brought to you. As I do not recollect those of them not in his library, you must write to me for them, making out a catalogue of such as you think you 20 shall have occasion for in 18 months from the date of your letter, and consulting Mr. Wythe on the subject. To this sketch I will add a few particular observations. 25

30

35

40

1. Italian. I fear the learning of this language will confound your French and Spanish. Being all of them degenerated dialects of the Latin, they are apt to mix in conversation. I have never seen a person speaking the three languages who did not mix them. It is a delightful language, but late events having rendered the Spanish more useful, lay it aside to prosecute that. 2. Spanish. Bestow great attention on this, and endeavor to acquire an accurate knowledge of it. Our future connections with Spain and Spanish America will render that language a valuable acquisition. The ancient history of a great part of America too is written in that language. I send you a dictionary.

........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

QUESTIONS 11–21 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 2-A

45

50

55

60

65

3. Moral philosophy. I think it lost time to attend lectures in this branch. He who made us would have been a pitiful bungler if he had made the rules of our moral conduct a matter of science. For one man of science, there are thousands who are not. What would have become of them? Man was destined for society. His morality therefore was to be formed to this object. He was endowed with a sense of right and wrong merely relative to this. This sense is as much a part of his nature as the sense of hearing, seeing, feeling; it is the true foundation of morality. … The moral sense, or conscience, is as much a part of man as his leg or arm. It is given to all human beings in a stronger or weaker degree, as force of members is given them in a greater or less degree. … State a moral case to a ploughman and a professor. The former will decide it as well, and often better than the latter, because he has not been led astray by artificial rules. *George Wythe, a well-respected scholar, the first American law professor, and one of the signatories of the Declaration of Independence, became an important teacher and mentor to Thomas Jefferson.

11 What is the best description of Mr. Wythe and his relationship to the Jefferson family? (A) (B) (C) (D)

Teacher Cousin Family friend Public servant

12 What is the purpose of Jefferson’s letter to his nephew? (A) To advise him about his education (B) To advise him about leading a moral life (C) To make sure he will learn a second language (D) To keep in touch with his family while abroad


1

Passage 2-A

8

14 Which of the following is the best example of the paternal tone Jefferson uses with his nephew? (A) (B) (C) (D)

Lines 6–8 (“I am sure … your life”) Lines 22–23 (“I will …observations.”) Line 41 (“I send … a dictionary.”) Line 49 (“Man was … society.”)

15 In lines 56–57, Jefferson compares conscience to a physical limb of the body to show (A) that it is natural and present in all human beings. (B) how easily we take it for granted. (C) that without it, humans are powerless. (D) how mental and physical states are integrated. 16 What country does Jefferson think will most closely aligned with the newly independent colonies in the future? (A) England B) France C) Italy D) Spain 17 By “lost time” (lines 42–43), Jefferson means (A) (B) (C) (D)

wasted time. the past. missing time. youth.

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13 What does Jefferson mean by “lay it aside to prosecute that” (lines 32–33)? (A) Support Spain as a world power (B) Bring legal action against Italy (C) Pursue studies of Spanish (D) Engage in the study of Italian

18 Jefferson tells his nephew not to study Italian because it’s (A) a degenerated dialect. (B) not necessary since he already knows French. (C) not useful to be multilingual. (D) too easy to get it mixed up with Spanish. 19 Which of the following best summarizes Jefferson’s overall view of morality? (A) Morality is a science that can be taught by professors and scholars. (B) Moral philosophy is self-taught. (C) A sense of morality is part of human nature. (D) Humans are moral beings who need rules to guide their behavior. 20 How does the family tree best explain Jefferson’s concern about Peter’s education? (A) (B) (C) (D)

Jefferson was Peter’s uncle. Jefferson didn’t have any sons. Peter’s father died when Peter was 3. Peter was the smartest student in the family.

21 Which of the following best describes the tone of Jefferson’s letter to his nephew? (A) (B) (C) (D)

Invested and paternal Concerned and worried Objective and matter-of-fact Distant and preoccupied

Three Generations of the Jefferson Family

Peter Jefferson (b: 1708; d: 1757) – [spouse] Jane Randolph (b: 1721; d: 1776) [children: 10]

Thomas (b: 1743; d: 1826) – [spouse] Martha Wales (b: 1748; d: 1782)

Martha (b: 1746; d: 1811) – [spouse] Dabney Carr [b: 1743; d: 1773]

[children: 6]

[children: 6]

(others died before reaching adulthood)

Martha (b: 1772; d: 1836)

Mary (b: 1778; d: 1782)

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Peter (b: 1770; d: 1815)


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In a public square on the Indonesian island of Java, dusk falls. Families gather; it is a festival day. Children dart around while, on the edges of the square, vendors 12 hawk snacks and toys. A large screen, lit from behind, stands prominently in the square. A twenty-piece percussion orchestra, or gamelan, prepares to play. 13 The scene is modern-day Java, or perhaps Java hundreds of years ago. The performance is wayang kulit, or shadow puppetry, one of the world’s oldest storytelling 14 traditions its origins stretch back to the ancient spiritual practices of Indonesia’s original inhabitants, who believed that the spirits of the ancestors governed the living world. Ceremonial puppet plays addressed the spirits, asking them to help the living. Over two thousand years ago, islands such as Java, Bali, and Sumatra saw their first 15 Indian migrants, a nation to which Indonesia was linked through trade relations. In the centuries that followed, Indian culture influenced every aspect of Indonesian life.

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 2-B

12 (A) NO CHANGE (B) stock (C) advertise (D) trade 13 At this point, the author is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) Yes, because it inserts an irrelevant opinion. (B) Yes, because it distracts from the main ideas of the paragraph. (C) No, because it provides a transition from the previous paragraph to this one. (D) No, because it explains what wayang kulit is. 14 (A) NO CHANGE (B) traditions and its origins stretch (C) traditions, its origins stretch (D) traditions. Its origins stretch 15 (A) NO CHANGE (B) migrants from India, a nation to which Indonesia (C) Indian migrants, to which a nation Indonesia (D) Indian migrants, a nation of people to which Indonesia


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changes. 16 They began to depict narratives from Hindu religious texts, including the Mahabharata, the Ramayana, and the Serat Menak. Traditional Indonesian stories were blended into Hindu epics or lost altogether. Later, when Islam began to spread throughout Indonesia, puppet plays again transformed. The Islamic religion 17 prohibited the display of gods in human form, so Indonesians adapted their art by making flat, leather puppets that cast shadows on a screen. The puppets 18 themselves remain unseen during the performance; only their shadows were visible. Wayang kulit was born. Java is particularly well-known for its continuation of the shadow puppet tradition. 19 Performances are epic events, lasting all night long from sunset to sunrise with no break at all. They take place in public spaces and are performed on holidays and at family celebrations. At the center is a large screen, backlit by a gas or electrical light. Behind this screen sits the dalang, or shadow master,

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The puppet plays reflected these cultural

Passage 2-B

16 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence. A master of shadow puppetry is called a dalang. Should the writer do this? (A) Yes, because it provides relevant and new information about the practice of wayang kulit. (B) Yes, because it adds an important fact to the paragraph’s focus on shadow puppetry. (C) No, because it repeats information that has already been given. (D) No, because it distracts from the paragraph’s focus on cultural changes. 17 (A) NO CHANGE (B) discouraged (C) hindered (D) restricted 18 (A) NO CHANGE (B) themselves will remain unseen during the performance (C) themselves remained unseen during the performance (D) themselves had been remaining unseen during the performance 19 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Performances are epic events, lasting from sunset to sunrise with no break. (C) Performances are epic events, lasting all night long from sunset to sunrise without taking a break. (D) Performances are epic events, lasting all night.


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puppets—sometimes more than a hundred of them in one show—with rods, voicing and singing all of the roles. 20 Simultaneously, he directs the gamelan, the large percussive orchestra, which consists of percussive instruments, some of which are played by mallets. Each puppet is carefully crafted, a flat figure that is perforated to project a detailed shadow. Artists begin creating a puppet by tracing the outline of a paper model on leather. The leather figure is painstakingly smoothed and treated before being passed onto another craftsperson, who paints it. Then, the puppet’s moving parts—the arms and hands—are added, along with the sticks used 21 to manipulate their parts. These puppets follow an established set of conventions: evil characters have grotesque faces, while noble ones have more refined features. They are highly stylized caricatures, rather 22 then realistic figures.

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traditionally a man. He manipulates the

Passage 2-B

20 Which choice most effectively maintains the paragraph’s focus on relevant information and ideas? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Simultaneously, he directs an orchestra. (C) Simultaneously, he directs an orchestra with instruments, some of which are played by mallets. (D) Simultaneously, he directs the gamelan, the large percussive orchestra. 21 (A) NO CHANGE (B) to manipulate his parts (C) to manipulate its parts (D) to manipulate her parts 22 (A) NO CHANGE (B) that (C) than (D) this


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This excerpt is from the article “New Link in the Food Chain? Marine Plastic Pollution and Seafood Safety,” by Nate Seltenrich. It has been reproduced from the journal Environmental Health Perspectives.

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World plastics production has experienced almost constant growth for more than half a century, rising from approximately 1.9 tons in 1950 to approximately 330 million tons in 2013. The World Bank estimates that 1.4 billion tons of trash are generated globally each year, 10% of it plastic. The International Maritime Organization has banned the dumping of plastic waste (and most other garbage) at sea. However, an unknown portion of the plastic produced each year escapes into the environment— instead of being landfilled, incinerated, or recycled—and at least some of it eventually makes its way to sea. Plastics that reach the ocean will gradually break down into ever-smaller pieces due to sunlight exposure, oxidation, and the physical action of waves, currents, and grazing by fish and birds. So-called microplastics—variably defined in the scientific literature and popular press as smaller than 1 or 5 mm in diameter—are understood to be the most abundant type of plastic in the ocean. The 5 Gyres’ authors* found microplastics almost everywhere they sampled, from near-shore environments to the open ocean, in varying concentrations, and they estimated that particles 4.75 mm or smaller—about the size of a lentil— made up roughly 90% of the total plastic pieces they collected. But the degradation of larger pieces of plastic is not the only way microplastics end up in the ocean. Nurdles—the plastic pellets used as a feedstock for producing plastic goods—can spill from ships or land-based sources, and “microbeads” used as scrubbing agents in personal care products such as skin cleansers, toothpastes, and shampoos, can escape water-treatment facilities and pass into water-sheds with treated water. (In June 2014, Illinois became the first US state to ban the manufacture and sale of products containing microbeads, which have been

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QUESTIONS 22–32 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING EXCERPT.

Passage 3-A

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documented in the Great Lakes and Chicago’s North Shore Channel.) Marine organisms throughout the food chain commonly consume plastics of various sizes. The tiniest microplastics are small enough to be mistaken for food by zooplankton, allowing them to enter the food chain at very low trophic levels. Some larger predators are thought to confuse nurdles (which typically measure less than 5 mm in diameter) with fish eggs or other food sources. Once plastics have been consumed, laboratory tests show that chemical additives and adsorbed pollutants and metals on their surface can desorb (leach out) and transfer into the guts and tissues of marine organisms …. Research has shown that harmful and persistent substances can both bioaccumulate (or increase in concentration as exposures persist) and biomagnify (or increase in concentration at higher trophic levels) within organisms as they assume some of the chemical burden of their prey or environment. Yet again, no research has yet demonstrated the bioaccumulation of sorbed pollutants in the environment. Three key questions remain to be determined. To what extent do plastics transfer pollutants and additives to organisms upon ingestion? What contribution are plastics making to the contaminant burden in organisms above and beyond their exposures through water, sediments, and food? And, finally, what proportion of humans’ exposure to plastic ingredients and environmental pollutants occurs through seafood? Researchers are moving carefully in the direction of answers to these questions. … New laws … could require handling plastics more responsibly at the end of their useful life through recycling, proper disposal, and extended producer responsibility. Rolf Halden, director of the Center for Environmental Security at the Biodesign Institute at Arizona State University, advocates for another solution: manufacturing more sustainable


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plastics from the start. “We need to design the next generation of plastics to make them more biodegradable so that they don’t have a long half-life, they don’t accumulate in the oceans, and they don’t have the opportunity to collect chemicals long-term,” he says. “There’s just no way we can shield people from all exposures that could occur. Let’s design safer chemicals and make the whole problem moot.” *The 5 Gyres Institute addresses plastic pollution in the ocean.

22 Which of the following is the most common type of plastic found in the ocean? (A) Nurdles (B) Microplastics (C) Microbeads (D) Plastic pellets 23 What evidence from the text helps explain why scientists think it is important to include the study of seafood in their investigations? (A) Lines 17–22 (“Plastics that … fish and birds.”) (B) Lines 51–53 (“Marine organisms … various sizes.”) (C) Lines 62–66 (“chemical additives … marine organisms”) (D) Lines 86–88 (“what proportion … through seafood?”)

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Passage 3-A

24 Which best describes the overall tone of the article? (A) Neutral and scientific (B) Emotional and persuasive (C) Personal and human (D) Subjective and opinionated 25 What solution does Rolf Halden support to decrease the effects of pollution from plastics on humans? (A) Passing laws to mandate more rigorous recycling (B) Developing plastics that are biodegradable (C) Making plastics that are safe to ingest (D) Requiring plastic manufacturers to be responsible for the effects of their products 26 This article was written to (A) share the author’s opinion about the environment. (B) inform the public of the problems of plastic in the ocean. (C) start a movement to halt all plastic production. (D) get people to clean up the oceans. 27 What does Halden mean when he says he wants to “make the whole problem moot” (lines 110–111)? (A) (B) (C) (D)

He wants to open it to more debate. He wants to make it go away. He wants it to be studied further. He wants to reduce its significance.


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Passage 3-A


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(A) Plastics enter the food chain when small fish eat small pieces of plastic. (B) Sunlight breaks down larger pieces of plastic that have been tossed in the ocean. (C) Unfiltered wastewater is often emptied directly into the ocean, even though it is illegal in many places. (D) People should only eat a limited amount of fish and seafood because they may contain unsafe levels of contaminants. 29 Why did Illinois ban the sale of certain personal care products? (A) Residues from the products were ending up in the ocean. (B) The containers couldn’t be recycled. (C) The products were determined to be carcinogenic. (D) The products contained microbeads that were getting into the water system. 30 Which of the following words would be most helpful in figuring out the meaning of the word “adsorbed” (line 63)? (A) Absolved (B) Adhered (C) Absorbent (D) Sorbet

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28 Which of the following statements could be learned from the diagram about how plastics disrupt the food chain?

Passage 3-A

31 What evidence does author use to support the idea that plastics in the ocean are a problem for humans? (A) Ten percent of the world’s trash are plastic. (B) Plastics transfer pollutants and additives to organisms upon ingestion. (C) Plastics were found in samples from all parts of the ocean. (D) Experts say we need to design a new kind of plastics that are biodegradable. 32 The main disagreement between the author and Rolf Halden about a solution to the problem of plastic pollution is that the author (A) advocates new laws and Halden advocates new ways to manufacture plastics. (B) thinks recycling will resolve the problem, but Halden doesn’t think we can ever be safe from exposure. (C) thinks the plastic manufacturers should be more responsible for their products, but Halden thinks this would be an undue burden on business. (D) thinks all plastics manufacturing should be stopped and Halden thinks research will find a solution.


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Water issues are hardly unknown to the American Southwest, but they have recently taken on a new urgency. The arid climate and limited water resources of the American Southwest 23 has always influenced the peoples of the region. The Anasazi, ancient people of some of the most inhospitable areas of the Southwest, made a series of accommodations to 24 they’re hot, arid environment by means of adaptive agricultural practices, cliff-side residences, and elaborate catchment systems. Today, the American Southwest, 25 simplistically defined in this document as encompassing all of Utah, Nevada, New Mexico, Arizona, and California, is the country’s fastest-growing 26 region. It is home to more than 50 million people who are the source of ever-increasing water demands. Yet, the region is dependent for its water on just two river systems, the Colorado and the Rio Grande, of which the former is unequivocally the primary. The Colorado supplies water to some 38 million users and irrigates some 300 million acres of farmland, much of it in 27 California! However, the mighty Colorado’s flow was apportioned almost one hundred years ago to include not just the southwestern United States but also Mexico.

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QUESTIONS 23–33 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE

23 (A) NO CHANGE (B) had always influence (C) have always influenced (D) is always influenced 24 (A) NO CHANGE (B) their hot, arid environment (C) there hot, arid environment (D) its hot, arid environment 25 Which choice provides the most relevant detail? (A) NO CHANGE (B) which has influenced painters as different as Georgia O’Keefe and Agnes Martin, (C) home to such Native American tribes as the Navajo and Apache, (D) generally considered a desirable tourist destination, 26 Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion? (A) region, but it is home (B) region; home (C) region, and it is home (D) region, home 27 (A) NO CHANGE (B) California. However, (C) California? However, (D) California, however,


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that simply does not exist in current years; for example, in the years 2001–2006, river water that had been 28 projected to flow versus river water that did flow came up a staggering 34 percent short. In 2014, the U.S. Department of the Interior warned that the Colorado River basin area “is in the midst of a fourteen-year drought nearly unrivaled in 1,250 years.” 29 It further noted that the river’s two major reservoirs, Lake Powell and Lake Mead—the once-massive backup systems for years in which drought occurs—were, alarmingly, more than 50 percent depleted. 30 Equally dire, if, more comfortably projected, predictions came out of a recent study, cited in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Science of the United States, that suggested a 50 percent chance of Lakes Powell and Mead reaching a level so low that they become inoperable by the 2020s. 31 For all intensive purposes, the Southwest’s water supply is drying up.

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It was also apportioned according to a volume

Passage 3-B

28 (A) NO CHANGE (B) hoped (C) desired (D) thought 29 At this point, the writer is considering deleting this sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) Yes, because it repeats information that has already been presented in the passage. (B) Yes, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus by introducing a new idea. (C) No, because it illustrates the severity of drought conditions with a specific example. (D) No, because it introduces the argument that the Southwest’s water supply is drying up. 30 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Equally dire, if more comfortably projected, (C) Equally dire if more comfortably projected (D) Equally dire if, more comfortably projected, 31 (A) NO CHANGE (B) For all intentional purposes, (C) For all intents and purposes, (D) For all intended purposes,


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increasing population, and an overly optimistic historical assessment of water resources are problems related to climate change. For example, between 2000 and 2013, temperatures in much of the Southwest rose as much as 33 2 degrees, increasing the negative effects of evapotranspiration, the evaporation of water from the soil. Finally, climate change and drought are leading to the greater prevalence and intensity of fires, including so-called “super fires,” a result, in part, of the beetle infestations and dying trees that are weakened by the lack of water.

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32 Compounding the problems of drought,

32 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Escalating (C) Inflating (D) Exaggerating 33 Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the map and its information below (A) NO CHANGE (B) 0.8 degrees (C) 1.2 degrees (D) 1.4 degrees

Average Temperatures in the Southwestern United States 2000–2014 Versus Long-Term Average

This map shows how the average air temperature from 2000 to 2014 has differed from the long-term average (1895–2014). To provide more detailed information, each state has been divided into climate divisions, which are zones that share similar climate features. Source: http://www.epa.gov/climatechange/science/indicators/weather-climate/southwest.html


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Passage 4-A

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Angel Decora was born Hinookmahiwikilinaka on the Winnebago Reservation in Nebraska in 1871. She worked as a book illustrator, particularly on books by and about Native Americans, and lectured and wrote about Indian art. The story from which this excerpt is taken, “The Sick Child,” may be autobiographical.

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It was about sunset when I, a little child, was sent with a handful of powdered tobacco leaves and red feathers to make an offering to the spirit who had caused the sickness of my little sister. It had been a long, hard winter, and the snow lay deep on the prairie as far as the eye could reach. The medicine-woman’s directions had been that the offering must be laid upon the naked earth, and that to find it I must face toward the setting sun. I was taught the prayer: “Spirit grandfather, I offer this to thee. I pray thee restore my little sister to health.” Full of reverence and a strong faith that I could appease the anger of the spirit, I started out to plead for the life of our little one. But now where was a spot of earth to be found in all that white monotony? They had talked of death at the house. I hoped that my little sister would live, but I was afraid of nature. I reached a little spring. I looked down to its pebbly bottom, wondering whether I should leave my offering there, or keep on in search of a spot of earth. If I put my offering in the water, would it reach the bottom and touch the earth, or would it float away, as it had always done when I made my offering to the water spirit? Once more I started on in my search of the bare ground. The surface was crusted in some places, and walking was easy; in other places I would wade through a foot or more of snow. Often I paused, thinking to clear the snow away in some place and there lay my offering. But no, my faith must be in nature, and I must trust to it to lay bare the earth.

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QUESTIONS 33–42 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

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It was a hard struggle for so small a child. I went on and on; the reeds were waving their tasselled ends in the wind. I stopped and looked at them. A reed, whirling in the wind, had formed a space round its stem, making a loose socket. I stood looking into the opening. The reed must be rooted in the ground, and the hole must follow the stem to the earth. If I poured my offerings into the hole, surely they must reach the ground; so I said the prayer I had been taught, and dropped my tobacco and red feathers into the opening that nature itself had created. No sooner was the sacrifice accomplished than a feeling of doubt and fear thrilled me. What if my offering should never reach the earth? Would my little sister die? Not till I turned homeward did I realize how cold I was. When at last I reached the house they took me in and warmed me, but did not question me, and I said nothing. Everyone was sad, for the little one had grown worse. The next day the medicine woman said my little sister was beyond hope; she could not live. Then bitter remorse was mine, for I thought I had been unfaithful, and therefore my little sister was to be called to the spirit-land. I was a silent child, and did not utter my feelings; my remorse was intense. My parents would not listen to what the medicine-woman had said, but clung to hope. As soon as she had gone, they sent for a medicine-man who lived many miles away. He arrived about dark. He was a large man, with a sad, gentle face. His presence had always filled me with awe, and that night it was especially so, for he was coming as a holy man. He entered the room where the baby lay, and took a seat, hardly noticing any one. There was silence saving only for the tinkling of the little tin ornaments on his medicine-bag. He began to speak: “A soul has departed from this house, gone to the spirit-land. As I came I saw luminous vapor above the house. It ascended, it grew less, it was


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gone on its way to the spirit-land. It was the spirit of the little child who is sick; she still breathes, but her spirit is beyond our reach…

33 The narrator wants to place her offering correctly because she (A) will have to explain her choice to everyone else. (B) wants to be trusted with similar tasks in the future. (C) thinks doing so will save her little sister’s life. (D) is afraid of being punished if she does it incorrectly. 34 How is the sentence “It was a hard struggle for so small a child” (lines 42–43) different from the rest of the passage? (A) It is a change in the voice. (B) It is a change in tone. (C) It is a change in tense. (D) It is a change in the setting. 35 Why didn’t the girl’s parents send for the medicine man in the first place? (A) He was busy helping another family at the time. (B) He had to come from a long distance. (C) They thought the medicine woman would be able to help their daughter. (D) They preferred a woman to cure their female child. 36 What evidence from the text shows the girl’s dilemma in following the medicine woman’s directions? (A) Lines 9–10 (“the offering … naked earth”) (B) Lines 19–20 (“But now … white monotony?”) (C) Lines 34–35 (“The surface … some places”) (D) Lines 42–43 (“It was … small a child.”)

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Passage 4-A

37 Which title best expresses a theme of the passage? (A) Life and Death on the Prairie (B) A Child’s Sacred Memory (C) Native American Culture (D) The Offering 38 When the girl says “bitter remorse was mine” (lines 70–71), she (A) is sorry that she hurt her sister. (B) feels badly because she didn’t listen to the medicine woman. (C) feels angry about being given so much responsibility. (D) feels guilty because she feels at fault. 39 Based on the passage, which choice best describes the narrator’s relationship with her parents? (A) The parents seem to treat the narrator as if she were an adult. (B) The narrator wishes her parents would give her more responsibility. (C) The parents love their youngest child, but not the narrator. (D) The narrator receives warmth and validation from her parents. 40 If you were to describe this story to someone who has not read it, which of the following sentences would best summarize it? (A) A Native American recalls her experience of losing her baby sister. (B) A Native American child is called upon to make an offering to the spirits. (C) A Native American family struggles with illness in the depths of winter on the Plains. (D) A Native American family uses their religious beliefs to try to save their daughter.


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(A) Excited (B) Frightened (C) Pierced (D) Saddened

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41 Which of the following best describes the meaning of “thrilled” in line 59?

Passage 4-A

42 What lines in the text might convince you that the passage is autobiographical? (A) Line 21 (“They had … the house.”) (B) Lines 34–35 (“The surface … was easy”) (C) Lines 62–63 (“Not till … cold I was”) (D) Lines 85–86 (“He entered … baby lay”)


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Women in Film: Troubling Inequalities 34 In a society in which television and movies have been well documented as 35 influences of social change, current data about women in the movies is far from reassuring. 36 Women simply can’t expect to play the leading roles men play or even, in general, to be on-screen for as many minutes as men are in any given film, while there seems to be no end of extraordinary acting talent among women in Hollywood. As for other categories of filmmaking, at least by Oscar standards, women seem barely to exist at all.

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QUESTIONS 34–44 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 4-B

34 Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? (A) There are many actresses in Hollywood with extraordinary talent, but they cannot seem to get the same roles as men. (B) Though women land far fewer leading roles than men, in other categories of filmmaking, they do a little better. (C) Women are not adequately represented in Hollywood, either by the roles they play or by the amount of time they appear on-screen. (D) The movie industry has the capacity to change, but it has not done so in the area of women in film. 35 (A) NO CHANGE (B) agents (C) necessities (D) factors 36 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Women simply can’t expect to play the leading roles men play or even, in general, while there seems to be no end of extraordinary acting talent among women in Hollywood, to be on-screen for as many minutes as men are in any given film. (C) Women simply can’t expect to play the leading roles men play or to be on-screen for as many minutes as men, and there seems to be no end of extraordinary acting talent among women in Hollywood in general. (D) While there seems to be no end of extraordinary acting talent among women in Hollywood, women simply can’t expect to play the leading roles men play or even, in general, to be on-screen for as many minutes as men are in any given film.


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in only 15 percent of the top grossing films of 2013, according to a study conducted at San Diego State University. Other study findings included the fact that when women are on-screen, 38 their marriage status is more identifiable than men. Also, males over age 40 are much more commonly represented on-screen than women in the same age group. Other inequities have been revealed by Cinemetrics, which strives to gather objective data on movies, and by other organizations. 39 For example, in 2013, lead actresses in full-length films spent 57 minutes on-screen, while lead actors spent 85 minutes on-screen. Compounding the inequity is the tendency of the camera to stay on a female actress longer in a single shot, or stare at 40 them passively, while the camera moves more actively when it shows a male character. In other aspects of films, women 41 are treated even more outrageously. Since the Oscars began in 1928, only 16 percent of all nominees have been women. In fact, there were no women nominees at all in seven categories of achievement for the 2014 Oscars. More significantly, Oscar trends do not seem to be improving over time.

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Indeed, 37 women were the protagonists

Passage 4-B

37 (A) NO CHANGE (B) women were the protagonist (C) a woman was the protagonists (D) the protagonists were a woman 38 (A) NO CHANGE (B) their marriage status is more identifiable than of a men. (C) their marriage status is more identifiable than that of men. (D) their marriage status is more identifiable than men’s marriage. 39 Which choice most effectively maintains support for claims or points in the text? (A) NO CHANGE (B) For example, women direct more documentaries than narrative films. (C) For example, the highest paid actress in 2013 made $33 million dollars. (D) For example, women buy about half of movie tickets purchased in the United States. 40 (A) NO CHANGE (B) him (C) her (D) us 41 (A) NO CHANGE (B) are taken advantage of. (C) are cheated. (D) fare even worse.


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shine despite these inequities. Actress Meryl Streep has been nominated for 19 Oscars as of 2015, easily outstripping both male and female competitors for the record of most Academy Award nominations. She is famous for her strong, authoritative roles; she portrayed a powerful—if terrifying—boss in The Devil Wears Prada (2006) and a 42 formidable leader in The Giver (2014). Streep has received 43 accolades for such parts, as 15 of her 19 Academy Award nominations were in the category of Best Actress in a Leading Role. Even Streep, however, is subject to the inequities of the film industry: in The Devil Wears Prada her 44 characters love life was brought to the forefront and depicted as a sacrifice that she, as a woman in power, had to continually make for the good of her career.

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Some women, however, have managed to

Passage 4-B

42 Which choice gives a second supporting example that is most similar to the example already in the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) a mild-mannered bakery owner in It’s Complicated (2009) (C) a talented country singer in A Prairie Home Companion (2006). (D) a struggling novelist in Manhattan (1979) 43 (A) NO CHANGE (B) privileges (C) recognition (D) attention 44 (A) NO CHANGE (B) character love life (C) character’s love life (D) character loves life

STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section.


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Passage 5-A

SECTION 1: READING TEST 65 Minutes • 52 Questions TURN TO SECTION 1 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage (or pair of passages) in this section is followed by a number of multiplechoice questions. After reading each passage, select the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any supplementary material, such as a table, graph, chart, or photograph.

The following passage has been taken from the “The Bride Comes to Yellow Sky,” by Stephen Crane. It is a western short story that was first published in 1898. The protagonist is Jack Potter, who returns to the town of Yellow Sky with his bride. The great Pullman was whirling onward with such dignity of motion that a glance from the window seemed simply Line to prove that the plains of Texas were 5 pouring eastward. Vast flats of green grass, dull-hued spaces of mesquite and cactus, little groups of frame houses, woods of light and tender trees, all were sweeping into the east, sweeping over the 10 horizon, a precipice. A newly married pair had boarded this coach at San Antonio. The man’s face was reddened from many days in the wind and sun, and a direct result of his new black 15 clothes was that his brick-colored hands were constantly performing in a most conscious fashion. From time to time he looked down respectfully at his attire. He sat with a hand on each knee, like a man 20 waiting in a barber’s shop. The glances he devoted to other passengers were furtive and shy. The bride was not pretty, nor was she very young. She wore a dress of 25 blue cashmere, with small reservations of velvet here and there, and with steel buttons abounding. She continually twisted her head to regard her puff sleeves, very stiff, straight, and high. 30 They embarrassed her. It was quite apparent that she had cooked, and that she

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QUESTIONS 1–10 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

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expected to cook, dutifully. The blushes caused by the careless scrutiny of some passengers as she had entered the car were strange to see upon this plain, underclass countenance, which was drawn in placid, almost emotionless lines. They were evidently very happy. “Ever been in a parlor-car before?” he asked, smiling with delight. “No,” she answered; “I never was. It’s fine, ain’t it?” “Great! And then after a while we’ll go forward to the diner, and get a big layout. Finest meal in the world. Charge a dollar.” “Oh, do they?” cried the bride. “Charge a dollar? Why, that’s too much— for us—ain’t it Jack?” “Not this trip, anyhow,” he answered bravely. “We’re going to go the whole thing.” Later he explained to her about the trains. “You see, it’s a thousand miles from one end of Texas to the other; and this train runs right across it, and never stops but for four times.” He had the pride of an owner. He pointed out to her the dazzling fittings of the coach, and in truth her eyes opened wider as she contemplated the sea-green figured velvet, the shining brass, silver, and glass, the wood that gleamed as darkly brilliant as the surface of a pool of oil. At one end a bronze figure sturdily held a support for a separated chamber, and at convenient places on the ceiling were frescoes in olive and silver. To the minds of the pair, their surroundings reflected the glory of their marriage that morning in San Antonio.


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1 The passage might best be described as (A) an analysis of a man’s acceptance of his social status. (B) an account of a couple’s anticipation of married life. (C) a description of train travel in nineteenth-century Texas. (D) a criticism of class consciousness in the nineteenth century. 2 It can be inferred from the passage that Jack (A) wants to impress his new bride. (B) is likely a farmhand or rancher. (C) is used to being treated as an inferior. (D) wants to change his station in life. 3 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 17–20 (“From time … barber’s shop.”) (B) Lines 23–30 (“The bride … embarrassed her.”) (C) Lines 43–52 (“‘Great! … whole thing.”) (D) Lines 69–75 (“To the … negro porter.”)

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Line 75

This was the environment of their new estate; and the man’s face in particular beamed with an elation that made him appear ridiculous to the negro porter. This individual at times surveyed them from afar with an amused and superior grin. On other occasions he bullied them with skill in ways that did not make it exactly plain to them that they were being bullied. He subtly used all the manners of the most unconquerable kind of snobbery. He oppressed them, but of this oppression they had small knowledge, and they speedily forgot that infrequently a number of travelers covered them with stares of derisive enjoyment. Historically, there was supposed to be something infinitely humorous in their situation.

Passage 5-A

4 As used in line 2, “dignity” most nearly means (A) splendor. (B) respectability. (C) superiority. (D) gracefulness. 5 Jack and his bride might best be described as (A) firm and resolute in their decisions. (B) nervous and fearful about their trip. (C) awkward and self-conscious in the setting. (D) amazed and bewildered by the landscape. 6 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 5–10 (“Vast flats … precipice.”) (B) Lines 17–22 (“From time … furtive and shy.) (C) Lines 41–46 (“‘No,’ she … a dollar’.”) (D) Lines 69–75 (“To the … negro porter”) 7 In lines 32–37 (“The blushes … emotionless lines.”), why does the narrator note that the bride’s blushing seemed so out of place on her face? (A) To emphasize the degree to which other passengers are staring (B) To express the bride’s extreme happiness with her marriage (C) To communicate that the bride is lacking in self-confidence (D) To underscore that the bride is strikingly unattractive


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(A) project. (B) interests. (C) property. (D) standing. 9 In lines 75–87 (“This individual … derisive enjoyment.”), the narrator maintains that the (A) porter mocks the couple, making Jack and his bride believe they are being catered to. (B) couple barely notices the contemptuous way they are treated by the porter. (C) porter is openly hostile to the couple, making the trip painful for them. (D) couple has become used to the rude behavior of the porter. 10 What is the main rhetorical effect of lines 14–18 (“and a … his attire”)? (A) To illustrate how nervous and awkward the groom is (B) To show how much the groom is used to using his hands (C) To convey how unaccustomed the groom is to wearing dress clothes (D) To show how happy the groom is about being married

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8 As used in line 73, “estate” most nearly means

Passage 5-A


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Passage 5-B

SECTION 2: WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST 35 Minutes • 44 Questions Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of multiple-choice questions. For some questions, you will need to consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage may be accompanied by one or more graphics—such as a chart, table, or graph—that you will need to refer to in order to best answer the question(s). Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage—it could be one word, a portion of a sentence, or the full sentence itself. Other questions will direct you to a particular paragraph or to certain sentences within a paragraph, or you’ll be asked to think about the passage as a whole. Each question number refers to the corresponding number in the passage. After reading each passage, select the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage follow the conventions of Standard Written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Select that option if you think the best choice is to leave that specific portion of the passage as it is.

Burma: has it truly changed? A 1 rigid red-and-white sign erected on a rural road in Burma reads, “[The Military] AND THE PEOPLE IN ETERNAL UNITY. ANYONE ATTEMPTING TO DIVIDE THEM IS OUR ENEMY.” It’s no wonder that Burma, also known as Myanmar, inspired two of the most wellknown books about totalitarianism: 2 Animal Farm and Nineteen Eighty-Four? The books sprang from the mind of a man who, as a teenager, sought adventure with the British Imperial Police Force in the 1920s. Five years after Eric Arthur Blair began his tour of duty in the far-flung, 3 obscure Asian colony, he returned to his homeland, shed his uniform, changed his name to George Orwell, and started a new career as a novelist.

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

1 (A) NO CHANGE (B) graphic (C) rare (D) stark 2 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Animal Farm and Nineteen EightyFour. (C) Animal Farm and Nineteen EightyFour, (D) Animal Farm and Nineteen EightyFour! 3 (A) NO CHANGE (B) darkened (C) obvious (D) uncertain


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land of haunting beauty, with its history of human rights violations, 4 had also sparked filmmaker Ron Fricke’s imagination. He and his crew traveled to 25 countries to shoot images for his non-verbal film “Samsara” (2013). Samsara means “the ever-turning wheel of life” in Sanskrit. The sequences shot in Bagan, Burma, are almost dreamlike in quality, especially because, as in the rest of the film, there is no dialogue or narration. 5 Only music accompanies scenes of hundreds of Buddhist temples as they seemingly float upon seas of green foliage. Watching these scenes, it is hard to believe that Burma has seen violent years of civil war, ethnic cleansing, and forced labor. But such problems, as well as those of economic stagnation and corruption, can usually be traced back to the military regime, which took power in 1962 through a coup. The military manages 6 the country’s major industries and has also been accused of controlling Burma’s substantial heroin exports. The Irish rock band U2 dedicated their song “Walk On” to Burmese academic Aung San Suu Kyi, who was under house arrest from 1989 until 2010 because of her pro-democracy stance. 7 The members of U2 have a history of incorporating their political views into their music. Her National League for Democracy (NLD) won the 1990 elections

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The contrasts Orwell saw still exist. This

Passage 5-B

4 (A) NO CHANGE (B) has also sparked (C) also sparked (D) will also spark 5 (A) NO CHANGE (B) As they seemingly float above seas of green foliage, only music accompanies scenes of hundreds of Buddhist temples. (C) Only music accompanies scenes, as they seemingly float above seas of green foliage, of hundreds of Buddhist temples. (D) Only music accompanies scenes, of hundreds of Buddhist temples, as they seemingly float above a sea of green foliage. 6 (A) NO CHANGE (B) the countries major industries (C) the countrys major industries (D) the countries’ major industries 7

The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this?

(A) Yes, because the sentence does not support the main idea of the paragraph. (B) Yes, because the sentence should be moved to the beginning of the paragraph. (C) No, because the sentence expands upon the main idea of the paragraph. (D) No, because the sentence introduces an important detail about Burma.


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not allowed to serve. In 1991, she received the Nobel Peace Prize, 8 an honor given out to people and organizations by the Nobel Committee since 1901. The lyrics of the song are about doing what’s right, even if it requires personal sacrifice. 9 Not surprisingly, the album was banned and not allowed to be distributed in Burma. Anyone caught attempting to smuggle it into the country would have been imprisoned for three to twenty years for smuggling.

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with an overwhelming majority, but she was

Passage 5-B

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Which choice most effectively maintains support for claims or points in the text?

(A) NO CHANGE (B) though she only heard about it on the radio while confined in her home. (C) but she was not able to accept the award until almost two decades later in 2012. (D) in recognition of her commitment to a nonviolent struggle for democracy in Burma. 9 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Not surprisingly, the album was banned. Anyone caught attempting to smuggle it into the country would have been imprisoned for three to twenty years. (C) Not surprisingly, the album was banned and not allowed to be distributed in Burma. Anyone caught attempting to smuggle it into the country would have been imprisoned for three to twenty years. (D) Not surprisingly, the album was banned. Anyone caught attempting to smuggle it into the country would have been imprisoned for three to twenty years for smuggling.


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Then-Secretary of State Hilary Clinton visited in 2011 and President Obama in 2012. The European Union has lifted sanctions against Burma and offered them financial aid. 10 There are signs that the country is emerging from 11 their isolation. However, it’s too soon to be sure that the people of this land are finally free of the ever-watching gaze of Big Brother.

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Military rule supposedly ended in 2011.

Passage 5-B

10 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: In 2010, things started to change in Burma with the end of house arrest for Aung San Suu Kyi. Should the writer make this addition here? (A) Yes, because it provides additional historical detail in the paragraph. (B) Yes, because it aids the flow of ideas in the paragraph. (C) No, because the sentence should be added at the beginning of the paragraph. (D) No, because the sentence provides information that is irrelevant to the paragraph and doesn’t support the main idea. 11 (A) NO CHANGE (B) its isolation (C) our isolation (D) your isolation


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The following passage has been taken from American Ornithology by Alexander Wilson, a Scottish-American naturalist. Dubbed “the Father of American Ornithology,” Wilson is regarded as the greatest American ornithologist after Audubon. His nine-volume American Ornithology was published between 1808 and 1814. About the twenty-fifth of April the Hummingbird usually arrives in Pennsylvania; and about the tenth of May Line begins to build its nest. This is generally 5 fixed on the upper side of a horizontal branch, not among the twigs, but on the body of the branch itself. Yet I have known instances where it was attached by the side to an old moss-grown trunk; 10 and others where it was fastened on a strong rank stalk, or weed, in the garden; but these cases are rare. In the woods it very often chooses a white oak sapling to build on; and in the orchard, or garden, 15 selects a pear tree for that purpose. The branch is seldom more than ten feet from the ground. The nest is about an inch in diameter, and as much in depth. A very complete one is now lying before me, 20 and the materials of which it is composed are as follows: —The outward coat is formed of small pieces of bluish grey lichen that vegetates on old trees and fences, thickly glued on with the saliva of 25 the bird, giving firmness and consistency to the whole, as well as keeping out moisture. Within this are thick matted layers of the fine wings of certain flying seeds, closely laid together; and lastly, the 30 downy substance from the great mullein, and from the stalks of the common fern, lines the whole. The base of the nest is continued round the stem of the branch, to which it closely adheres; and, when 35 viewed from below, appears a mere mossy knot or accidental protuberance. The eggs are two, pure white, and of equal thickness at both ends. … On a person’s approaching their nest, the little 40 proprietors dart around with a humming sound, passing frequently within a few inches of one’s head; and should the young be newly hatched, the female will resume her place on the nest even while 45 you stand within a yard or two of the

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QUESTIONS 11–21 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 6-A spot. The precise period of incubation I am unable to give; but the young are in the habit, a short time before they leave the nest, of thrusting their bills into the 50 mouths of their parents, and sucking what they have brought them. I never could perceive that they carried them any animal food; tho, from circumstances that will presently be mentioned, I think it 55 highly probable they do. As I have found their nest with eggs so late as the twelfth of July, I do not doubt but that they frequently, and perhaps usually, raise two broods in the same season. 60 The hummingbird is extremely fond of tubular flowers, and I have often stopt, with pleasure, to observe his maneuvers among the blossoms of the trumpet flower. When arrived before a thicket of 65 these that are full blown, he poises, or suspends himself on wing, for the space of two or three seconds, so steadily, that his wings become invisible, or only like a mist; and you can plainly distinguish 70 the pupil of his eye looking round with great quickness and circumspection; the glossy golden green of his back, and the fire of his throat, dazzling in the sun, form altogether a most interesting 75 appearance. The position into which his body is usually thrown while in the act of thrusting his slender tubular tongue into the flower, to extract its sweets, is exhibited in the figure on the plate. When 80 he alights, which is frequently, he always prefers the small dead twigs of a tree, or bush, where he dresses and arranges his plumage with great dexterity. His only note is a single chirp, not louder than 85 that of a small cricket or grasshopper, ‘ generally uttered while passing from flower to flower, or when engaged in fight with his fellows; for when two males meet at the same bush, or flower, a battle 90 instantly takes place; and the combatants ascend in the air, chirping, darting and circling around each other, till the eye is no longer able to follow them. The conqueror, however, generally returns to 95 the place, to reap the fruits of his victory. I have seen him attack, and for a few moments tease the King-bird; and have also seen him, in his turn, assaulted by a humble-bee, which he soon put to flight. 100 He is one of those few birds that are universally beloved; and amidst the sweet dewy serenity of a summer’s morning, his appearance among the arbours of honeysuckles, and beds of flowers, is 105 truly interesting.


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Passage 6-A

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(A) describing the characteristics of the hummingbird. (B) explaining how hummingbirds build their nests. (C) discussing the reasons hummingbirds are interesting. (D) interpreting the meaning of certain hummingbird behaviors. 12 Based on lines 1–4 (“About the twentyfifth of April … to build its nest.”), it can generally be assumed that hummingbirds (A) (B) (C) (D)

take two weeks to build their nests. migrate elsewhere for the winter. cannot be found in places farther north. are mostly solitary animals.

13 As used in line 5, “fixed” most nearly means (A) adjusted. (B) intended. (C) aligned. (D) fastened. 14 In lines 18–36 (“A very … protuberance.”), the author suggests that the hummingbird (A) uses nearby plant debris in the nest. (B) builds compact, complicated nests. (C) builds the nest over a period of time. (D) constructs a nest that is waterproof. 15 It can be inferred from the passage that hummingbirds (A) stay in the nest for a short period of time. (B) are fiercely protective of their eggs and young. (C) have a sweet, though notably quiet, song. (D) feed only on the sweet nectar of flowers. 16 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 38–46 (“On … the spot.”) (B) Lines 46–51 (“The … them.”) (C) Lines 51–55 (“I never … they do.”) (D) Lines 83–88 (“His only … fellows;”)

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11 The author is mostly concerned with

17 As it is used in line 82, “dresses” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D)

oils. clothes. shuffles. smooths.

18 In lines 68–69, the author notes that the hummingbird’s “wings become invisible, or only like a mist” to (A) show how transparent the wings are. (B) emphasize how fast the wings are moving. (C) point out that the sun reflects off the wings. (D) reiterate that the hummingbird is beautiful. 19 In lines 93–95 (“The conqueror … fruits of his victory.”), “fruits of his victory” refers to (A) the dead twigs of a tree. (B) a female hummingbird. (C) the nectar of a flower. (D) the other combatant. 20 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 1–4 (“About the twentyfifth … its nest.”) (B) Lines 75–79 (“The position … on the plate.”) (C) Lines 79–83 (“When he alights, … dexterity.”) (D) Lines 90–93 (“and the combatants … follow them.”) 21 The author most likely references both the kingbird and the bee in lines 96–99 (“I have seen him … put to flight.”) to (A) highlight the many dangers that confront hummingbirds. (B) describe how the hummingbird stays close to its nest. (C) show that the hummingbird’s size does not limit its ability to defend itself. (D) emphasize that the hummingbird is an especially aggressive bird.


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Passage 6-B

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John Dewey and Education John Dewey, an American educator and philosopher of education, was a prolific writer on the subject. He was particularly interested in the place of education in a democratic republic. The place of public education within a democratic society has been widely discussed and debated through the years. Perhaps no one has written more widely on the subject in the United States than John Dewey, 12 a philosopher and teacher, whose theories on education have a large social component, that is, an emphasis on education 13 as a social act, and the classroom or learning environment as a replica of society. Dewey defined various aspects or characteristics of education. First, 14 they were a necessity of life inasmuch as living beings needed to maintain themselves through a process of renewal. Therefore, just as humans needed 15 sleep; food; water; and shelter for physiological renewal, they also needed education to renew their minds, assuring that their socialization kept pace with physiological growth.

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

12 Which choice provides the most relevant detail? (A) NO CHANGE (B) sometimes called “the father of public education,” (C) the son of a grocer in Burlington, Vermont, (D) a university professor who taught ethics and logic, 13 (A) NO CHANGE (B) as a social act, and the classroom, or learning environment, as a replica of society (C) as a social act and the classroom or learning environment as a replica of society (D) as a social act and the classroom, or learning environment, as a replica of society 14 (A) NO CHANGE (B) it was (C) we were (D) he was 15 (A) NO CHANGE (B) sleep: food: water: and shelter (C) sleep, food, water; and shelter (D) sleep, food, water, and shelter


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Passage 6-B

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its social component, which was to be accomplished by providing the young with an environment that would provide a nurturing atmosphere to encourage the growth of their as yet undeveloped social customs. A third aspect of public education was the provision of direction to youngsters, who might otherwise 17 be left in uncontrolled situations without the steadying and organizing influences of school. Direction was not to be of an 18 autonomous nature, but rather indirect through the selection of the school situations in which the youngster participated. 19 On the other hand, Dewey saw public education as a catalyst for growth. Since the young came to school capable of growth, it was the role of education to provide opportunities for that growth to occur. The successful school environment is one in which a desire for continued growth is created—a desire that extends throughout one’s life beyond the end of formal education. …

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16 Another aspect of education was

16 The writer is considering revising the underlined portion of the sentence to read: A second aspect of education was its social component, Should the writer make this revision here? (A) Yes, because the change improves the organization. (B) Yes, because the change clarifies the aspects of education. (C) No, because the change eliminates information that supports the main idea of the paragraph. (D) No, because the change makes the organization of this part of the passage unclear. 17 (A) NO CHANGE (B) who might get wild and crazy if not for a teacher keeping them in check. (C) who might change direction, much like the wind, with no one to guide them. (D) who might be lost, forlorn without school to steer them toward moral clarity. 18 (A) NO CHANGE (B) uncertain (C) overt (D) abstract 19 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Finally, (C) In retrospect, (D) Therefore,


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Passage 6-B

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a means by which the past was recapitulated. Instead 20 education was a continuous reconstructions of experiences, grounded very much in the present environment. 21 The nature of the larger society that supports the educational system, since Dewey’s model places a heavy emphasis on the social component, is of paramount importance. The ideal larger society, according to Dewey, is one in which the interests of a group are all shared by all of its members and in which interactions with other groups are free and full. According to Dewey, education in such a society should provide members of the group a stake or interest in social relationships and the ability to 22 subjugate change without compromising the order and stability of the society.

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Neither did Dewey’s model see education as

20 (A) NO CHANGE (B) educations were continuous reconstructions of experiences (C) education was a continuous reconstruction of experience (D) education was experiences being continuously reconstructed 21 (A) NO CHANGE (B) The nature of the larger society that supports the educational system is of paramount important since Dewey’s model places a heavy emphasis on the social component. (C) Of paramount importance, since Dewey’s model places a heavy emphasis on the social component, is the nature of the larger society that supports the educational system. (D) Since Dewey’s model places a heavy emphasis on the social component, the nature of the larger society that supports the educational system is of paramount importance. 22 (A) NO CHANGE (B) negotiate (C) complicate (D) obfuscate


QUESTIONS 22–31 The passage is excerpted from National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Over half a mile taller … than Mt. Everest, Mauna Kea in Hawai’i is more than 6 miles tall, from its base on the Line ocean floor to its summit two miles above 5 the surface of the Pacific Ocean. This island mountain is only one of many features found on the ocean floor. Besides Line 10

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being the base for islands, the ocean floor also includes continental shelves and slopes, canyons, oceanic ridges, trenches, fracture zones, abyssal hills, abyssal plains, volcanoes, and seamounts. Not just rock and mud, these locations are the sites of exotic ecosystems that have rarely been seen or even explored.

Plate Tectonics and the Ocean Floor The shape of the ocean floor, its bathymetry, is largely a result of a process called plate tectonics. The outer rocky layer of the Earth includes about a dozen 20 large sections called tectonic plates that are arranged like a spherical jigsaw puzzle floating on top of the Earth’s hot flowing mantle. Convection currents in the molten mantle layer cause the plates 25 to slowly move about the Earth a few centimeters each year. Many ocean floor features are a result of the interactions that occur at the edges of these plates. The shifting plates may collide 30 (converge), move away (diverge), or slide past (transform) each other. As plates converge, one plate may dive under the other, causing earthquakes, forming volcanoes, or creating deep ocean 35 trenches such as the Mariana Trench. Where plates are pulled away (diverge) from each other, molten magma flows upward between the plates, forming mid-ocean ridges, underwater volcanoes, 40 hydrothermal vents, and new ocean floor crust. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of this type of plate boundary …. Marine Life and Exploration on the Ocean Floor

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Over the last decade, more than 1500 new species have been discovered in the ocean by marine biologists and other ocean scientists. Many of these newly discovered species live deep on the ocean floor in unique habitats dependent on processes resulting from plate movement, underwater volcanoes, and

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Passage 7-A

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cold water seeps. The discovery of deep ocean hydrothermal vent ecosystems in 1977 forced scientists to redefine living systems on our planet. Considered one of the most important scientific discoveries of the last century, organisms in this deep, dark ecosystem rely on chemicals and a process called chemosynthesis as the base of their food web and not on sunlight and photosynthesis as in other previously described ecosystems …. Hydrothermal vents form along midocean ridges, in places where the sea floor moves apart very slowly (6 to 18 cm per year) as magma wells up from below. (This is the engine that drives Earth’s tectonic plates apart, moving continents and causing volcanic eruptions and earthquakes.) When cold ocean water seeps through cracks in the sea floor to hot spots below, hydrothermal vents belch a mineral-rich broth of scalding water. Sometimes, in very hot vents, the emerging fluid turns black, creating a “black smoker,” because dissolved sulfides of metals (iron, copper, and several heavy metals) instantaneously precipitate out of solution when they mix with the cold surrounding seawater. Unlike plants that rely on sunlight, bacteria living in and around the dark vents extract their energy from hydrogen sulfide (HS) and other molecules that billow out of the seafloor. Just like plants, the bacteria use their energy to build sugars out of carbon dioxide and water. Sugars then provide fuel and raw material for the rest of the microbes’ activities.

Why is chemosynthesis important? Chemosynthetic deep-sea bacteria 90 form the base of a varied food web that includes shrimp, tubeworms, clams, fish, crabs, and octopi. All of these animals must be adapted to endure the extreme environment of the vents—complete 95 darkness; water temperatures ranging from 2°C (in ambient seawater) to about 400°C (at the vent openings); pressures hundreds of times that at sea level; and high concentrations of sulfides and other 100 noxious chemicals. Why is photosynthesis important? Aquatic and terrestrial plants form the base of varied food webs that may include small fish and crabs, larger fish, and eventually, humans.


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Passage 7-A

plume of black ‘smoke’ black smoker chimneys containing sulphides cold seawater

100 m

hydrothermal fluids enter ocean at up to 350°C or more

cold seawater (typically 2–4°C)

sulphides metalliferous sediment deposited in cracks and veins (stockwork) oceanic crust high permeability

seawater leaching of metal ions from rock

low permeability

seawater

high-temperature reaction zone heat from magma

(A) It shows how unusual and extraordinary some ocean features are. (B) It emphasizes that Mt. Everest is not the world’s tallest mountain. (C) It describes the geography of island mountains in the Pacific Ocean. (D) It compares the geography of Mt. Everest to that of Mauna Kea.

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22 Which best describes the function of the opening sentence (“Over half a mile taller … the Pacific Ocean.”)?

23 The author uses the simile “like a spherical jigsaw puzzle” (lines 21–22) to illustrate that (A) each plate plays a critical role. (B) the earth is sphere-shaped. (C) each plate is asymmetrical. (D) the plates fit together. 24 The movement of the earth’s tectonic plates is a function of (A) earthquakes and volcanoes. (B) the moving ocean currents. (C) new ocean floor crust. (D) the moving molten mantle layer.


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Passage 7-A

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(A) Before the discovery, scientists thought that all living systems relied on photosynthesis as the basis of their food web. (B) Before the discovery, scientists believed that deep ocean hydrothermal vents were caused by colliding plates. (C) After the discovery, scientists determined that some sea life can move easily between shallow waters and deep sea environments. (D) After the discovery, scientists sought ways to mine the minerals that spew from the hydrothermal vents. 26 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 43–46 (“Over the … ocean scientists.”) (B) Lines 54–61 (“Considered one … described ecosystems.”) (C) Lines 62–66 (“Hydrothermal vents … from below.”) (D) Lines 73–79 (“Sometimes, in … surrounding seawater.”) 27 As it is used in line 84, “billow” most nearly means (A) swell. (B) blow. (C) break. (D) spout.

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25 Which inference can you correctly make about the discovery of deep ocean hydrothermal vent ecosystems in 1977?

28 The author devotes the first half of the passage to an explanation of plate tectonics in order to (A) describe the geography of the ocean floor. (B) explain the conditions that create hydrothermal vents. (C) compare hydrothermal vents to underwater volcanoes. (D) argue that hydrothermal vents are a unique ecosystem. 29 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 8–12 (“Besides being … and seamounts.”) (B) Lines 46–51 (“Many of … water seeps.”) (C) Lines 62–66 (“Hydrothermal vents … from below.”) (D) Lines 66–69 (“This is the engine … and earthquakes.”) 30 As used in line 100, “noxious” most nearly means (A) harmful. (B) annoying. (C) offensive. (D) unusual. 31 Based on the diagram, what eventually happens to the dissolved sulfides of metals that belch out of the black smoker? (A) They are carried by ocean currents. (B) They are deposited on the sea bed. (C) They rise to the surface of the sea. (D) They drop back into the black smoker.


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The study of plant life is very different from the study of animal life because of unique plant characteristics. The following passage provides an overview of those characteristics, along with some plant classifications that are of interest to scientists. 23 Compared to animals, plants present unique problems in demographic studies. The idea of counting living individuals becomes difficult given perennials that reproduce vegetatively 24 by sending out runners or rhizomes, splitting at the stem base, or by producing arching canes that take root where they touch the ground. In these ways some individuals, given sufficient time, can extend out over a vast area. Each plant life span has a basic associated life form. Annual plants live for 1 year or less. Their average life span is 1–8 months, depending on the species and on the environment where they are located (the same desert plant may complete 25 its life cycle in 8 months one year and in 1 month the next, depending on the amount of rain it receives). Annuals with extremely short life cycles are classified as ephemeral plants. An example of an ephemeral is Boerrhavia repens of the Sahara Desert, which can go from seed to seed in just 10 days. Annuals are herbaceous, which means that they lack a secondary meristem that produces lateral, woody tissue. They complete their life cycle after seed production for several reasons: nutrient depletion, hormone changes, or inability of non-woody

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QUESTIONS 23–33 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 7-B

23 What choice provides the most logical introduction to the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) There are five typical plant life spans, and each presents (C) Plants are an important source of food, and they present (D) Annual is one type of plant, and it presents 24 (A) NO CHANGE (B) by sending out runners or rhizomes, a split at the stem base, or the production of arching canes that take root where they touch the ground. (C) by sending out runners or rhizomes, splitting at the stem base, or in the production of arching canes that take root where they touch the ground. (D) by sending out runners or rhizomes, splitting at the stem base, or producing arching canes that take root where they touch the ground. 25 (A) NO CHANGE (B) it’s (C) its’ (D) it is


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conditions following the growing season. A few species can persist for more than a year in uncommonly favorable conditions. Biennial plants are also herbaceous, but usually live for 2 years. 26 Their first year is spent in vegetative growth, which generally takes place more below ground than above. Reproduction occurs in the second year, and this is followed by the completion of the life cycle. Under poor growing conditions, or by experimental manipulation, the vegetative stage can be drawn out for more than 1 year. Herbaceous perennials typically live for 20–30 years, although some species have been known to live for 400–800 years. These plants die back to the root system and root crown at the end of each growing season. The root system becomes woody, but the above-ground system is herbaceous. 27 They bloom and reproduce yearly after an initial vegetative state, making them popular landscaping plants. Sometimes they bloom only once at the conclusion of their life cycle. Because herbaceous perennials have no growth rings, it is difficult to age them. Methods that have been used to age them include counting leaf scars and 28 reducing the rate of spread in tussock (clumped) forms. 29 Suffrutescent shrubs (hemixyles) falls somewhere between herbaceous perennials and true shrubs. They develop perennial,

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tissue to withstand unfavorable environmental

Passage 7-B

26 The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) Yes, because it doesn’t support the main idea of the paragraph. (B) Yes, because it is out of place in the paragraph. (C) No, because it describes vegetative growth. (D) No, because it describes what happens in the first year. 27 Which choice most effectively maintains the paragraph’s focus on relevant information and ideas? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Their initial vegetative state lasts 2–8 years, which is an adaptation that is not seen in animals. (C) Blooming and reproducing early, herbaceous perennials include such plants as hollyhocks, aster, and yarrow. (D) They have a juvenile, vegetative stage for the first 2–8 years, then bloom and reproduce yearly. 28 (A) NO CHANGE (B) hedging (C) estimating (D) valuing 29 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Suffrutescent shrubs (hemixyles) fall (C) Suffrutescent shrub (hemixyles) fall (D) Suffrutescent shrubs (hemixyles) has fallen


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30 stems. The rest of the shoot system is herbaceous and dies back each year. They are small and short-lived compared to true shrubs. 31 Woody perennials (trees and shrubs) have the longest life spans. Shrubs live on average 30–50 years. Broadleaf trees (angiosperm) average 200–300 years, and conifer (needles) trees average 500–1,000 years. Woody perennials spend approximately the first 10 percent of their life span in a juvenile, totally vegetative state before they enter a combined reproductive and vegetative state, achieving a peak of reproduction several years before the conclusion of their life cycle. 32 Irregardless of the life span, annual or perennial, one can identify about eight important age states in an individual plant or population. They are: (1) viable seed, (2) seedling, (3) juvenile, (4) immature, (5) mature, (6) initial reproductive, (7) maximum vigor (reproductive and vegetative), and (8) senescent. If a population shows all eight states, it is 33 stable and is most likely a part of a climax community. If it shows only the last four states, it may not maintain itself and may be part of a seral community.

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woody tissue only near the base of their

Passage 7-B

30 Which choice most effectively combines the two sentences at the underlined portion? (A) stems, the rest of the shoot system (B) stems because the rest of the shoot system (C) stems: the rest of the shoot system (D) stems; the rest of the shoot system 31 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Woody perennials—trees and shrubs—have the longest life spans. (C) Woody perennials, trees and shrubs, have the longest life spans. (D) Woody perennials “trees and shrubs” have the longest life spans. 32 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Regardless (C) Inregardless (D) Regarding less 33 Which choice is most consistent with the style and tone of the passage? (A) NO CHANGE (B) diminishing (C) ephemeral (D) uniform


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The passage is an excerpt from “How the Other Half Lives,” by Jacob Riis. It was published in 1890 and documented the squalid living conditions in the tenements of New York City. The old question, what to do with the boy, assumes a new and serious phase in the tenements. Under the best conditions Line found there, it is not easily answered. In 5 nine cases out of ten he would make an excellent mechanic, if trained early to work at a trade, for he is neither dull nor slow, but the short-sighted despotism of the trades unions has practically closed 10 that avenue to him. Trade-schools, however excellent, cannot supply the opportunity thus denied him, and at the outset the boy stands condemned by his own to low and ill-paid drudgery, held 15 down by the hand that of all should labor to raise him. Home, the greatest factor of all in the training of the young, means nothing to him but a pigeon-hole in a coop along 20 with so many other human animals. Its influence is scarcely of the elevating kind, if it have any. The very games at which he takes a hand in the street become polluting in its atmosphere. 25 With no steady hand to guide him, the boy takes naturally to idle ways. Caught in the street by the truant officer, or by the agents of the Children’s Societies, peddling, perhaps, or begging, to help out 30 the family resources, he runs the risk of being sent to a reformatory, where contact with vicious boys older than himself soon develop the latent possibilities for evil that lie hidden in him. The city has 35 no Truant Home in which to keep him, and all efforts of the children’s friends to enforce school attendance are paralyzed by this want. The risk of the reformatory is too great. What is done in the end is to 40 let him take chances—with the chances all against him. The result is the rough young savage, familiar from the street. Rough as he is, if any one doubt that this child of common clay have in him the

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QUESTIONS 32–42 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL.

Passage 8-A

45

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55

60

65

70

75

80

85

90

instinct of beauty, of love for the ideal of which his life has no embodiment, let him put the matter to the test. Let him take into a tenement block a handful of flowers from the fields and watch the brightened faces, the sudden abandonment of play and fight that go ever hand in hand where there is no elbow-room, the wild entreaty for “posies,” the eager love with which the little messengers of peace are shielded, once possessed; then let him change his mind. I have seen an armful of daisies keep the peace of a block better than a policeman and his club, seen instincts awaken under their gentle appeal, whose very existence the soil in which they grew made seem a mockery …. Yet, as I knew, that dismal alley with its bare brick walls, between which no sun ever rose or set, was the world of those children. It filled their young lives. Probably not one of them had ever been out of the sight of it. They were too dirty, too ragged, and too generally disreputable, too well hidden in their slum besides, to come into line with the Fresh Air summer boarders. With such human instincts and cravings, forever unsatisfied, turned into a haunting curse; with appetite ground to keenest edge by a hunger that is never fed, the children of the poor grow up in joyless homes to lives of wearisome toil that claims them at an age when the play of their happier fellows has but just begun. Has a yard of turf been laid and a vine been coaxed to grow within their reach, they are banished and barred out from it as from a heaven that is not for such as they. I came upon a couple of youngsters in a Mulberry Street yard a while ago that were chalking on the fence their first lesson in “writin’.” And this is what they wrote: “Keeb of te Grass.” They had it by heart, for there was not, I verily believe, a green sod within a quarter of a mile. Home to them is an empty name.


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(A) there are very few job opportunities available for poor people. (B) the condition of the tenements condemns children to lives of misery. (C) more education is needed to help elevate the children of the poor. (D) children who live in poverty naturally turn to crime to support themselves. 33 As it is used in line 24, “polluting” most nearly means (A) dirty. (B) dangerous. (C) corrupting. (D) rowdy. 34 In lines 13–14, “condemned by his own” means that the boy is (A) denounced because of his character. (B) criticized by his family members. (C) held back by his own community. (D) ridiculed by teachers in his school.

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32 The passage is mainly concerned with establishing that

Passage 8-A

35 In line 19, the author uses the metaphor of the pigeon coop to establish that the tenement (A) is as filthy as a cage for animals. (B) provides little privacy for its tenants. (C) is the only housing available for the boy. (D) provides no positive training or education. 36 As it is used in line 26, “idle” most nearly means (A) unproductive. (B) vain. (C) immature. (D) inactive. 37 The author suggests in lines 34–41 that a truant home (A) is no different from a reformatory. (B) does not enforce school attendance. (C) is full of vicious young boys. (D) is necessary but unavailable.


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(A) he has the capacity to appreciate exquisite things. (B) he is always bored and will play with anything. (C) there are few flowers growing in the tenements. (D) the policemen patrolling the tenements are brutal. 39 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 41–42 (“The result … the street.”) (B) Lines 44–47 (“Rough as … the test.”) (C) Lines 56–62 (“I have … a mockery.”) (D) Lines 63–66 (“Yet as … those children.”) 40 The author’s photos of tenement children best support which of the following ideas from his argument? (A) Tenement children never get to enjoy childhood. (B) Tenement children are always hungry and malnourished. (C) Tenement children are subject to police brutality. (D) Tenement children learn nothing at home. 41 The author provides the story of the “writin’” in the last paragraph to show that tenement children (A) do not know how to spell. (B) are in need of good schools. (C) have no access to green spaces. (D) are prone to vandalism.

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38 The author suggests taking flowers to the tenement child to show that

Passage 8-A

42 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 81–85 (“Has a … as they.”) B) Lines 85–88 (“I came … in writin’.”) C) Lines 89–90 (“And this … te Grass.”) D) Lines 92–93 (“Home to … empty name.”)


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Variations in wage 34 [1] Within certain fields, workers are especially likely to receive different salaries. [2] According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS), large differences in wages can be explained by a variety of factors. [3] Commercial pilots, for example, had a median annual wage 35 of $75,620: more than double the median for all occupations in May 2014. [4] But that median figure 36 diminishes the fact that the gap between the 90th percentile wage and the 10th percentile wage was more than $100,000. [5] In other words, just because someone chooses to be a commercial pilot does not necessarily mean he or she will earn as much as the top earners in the field. Why wages vary 37 Everyone is unique. Each person comes to a position with her own set of skills, a capacity for adapting to the demands of the

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QUESTIONS 34–44 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 8-B

34 For the sake of the cohesion of this paragraph, sentence 1 should be placed (A) where it is now. (B) after sentence 2. (C) after sentence 3. (D) after sentence 4. 35 (A) NO CHANGE (B) of $75,620 more than double (C) of $75,620; more than double (D) of $75,620—more than double 36 (A) NO CHANGE (B) contradicts (C) conceals (D) equivocates 37 The writer is considering revising the underlined sentence to read: Everyone likes to have a job that suits his or her own needs. Should the writer make this revision? (A) Yes, because this strengthens the relationship between the first sentence and the second. (B) Yes, because it is generally a true statement, and it adds detail to the paragraph. (C) No, because it does not support the main idea of the paragraph as described in the next sentence. (D) No, because it is just a restatement of the information provided in the next sentence.


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weaknesses. In addition, job titles can be 39 deceiving. No two jobs are identical. In some fields, this allows for opportunity to advance dramatically in terms of rank and earnings. There are the fields in which these differences are very obvious, such as professional sports or the entertainment field. In occupations with less variability among workers, wage differences are usually small. Fast food cooks, for example, earn similar wages. Workers in this occupation have fewer opportunities for advancement and 40 higher pay than other occupations. Nevertheless, there are a variety of factors that 41 effect how much you earn. Credentials. In some jobs, having advanced education is necessary for advancement. In other careers, holding a professional license or training credentials will increase a worker’s wage. Experience. Experienced workers usually earn more than those newer to the field. Employers will pay more for a skilled employee, especially in fields in which they are in high demand. Job tasks. 42 Jobs that are more complex or that demand more responsibility often pay more. Sometimes even within the same company, two workers with the same job title will be given different tasks and receive different wages as a result. Location. In the U.S., a worker doing the same job as another in a different state may

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job, and 38 their own personal strengths and

Passage 8-B

38 (A) NO CHANGE (B) our (C) its (D) her 39 (A) NO CHANGE (B) tenuous (C) impractical (D) incidental 40 (A) NO CHANGE (B) higher pay than workers with other opportunities (C) higher pay than workers in other occupations (D) higher pay than other workers with occupations 41 (A) NO CHANGE (B) affect (C) infect (D) reflect 42 Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? (A) The duties tied to a specific job often dictate the pay. (B) Wages among different companies can frequently vary. (C) Workers with the same job title are often given different tasks. (D) Variability in job titles often leads to differences in wages.


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factors behind this variation: cost of living and the local demand for the skill. For example, in New York City, the cost of living is high and workers will be paid more than their counterparts in Billings, Montana. Performance. In highly competitive fields, such as sports, only a small percentage of athletes will experience great success. There

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earn a very different salary. 43 Some of the

Passage 8-B

43 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Cost of living and the local demand for the skill: some of the factors behind this variation. (C) Some of the factors behind this variation, cost of living and the local demand for the skill. (D) Some of the factors behind this variation include cost of living and the local demand for the skill.

Actors(3) Athletes and sports competitors Producers and directors Broadcast news analysts Art directors Film and video editors Musicians and singers(3)

59,210 11,520 97,300 4,310 33,140 24,460 38,900

$41,230 43,350 69,100 61,450 85,610 57,210 50,250

$18,720 20,190 31,380 28,210 45,060 25,520 18,680

>$187,200 >187,200 >187,200 182,470 168,040 145,620 137,510

Wage difference(2)

90th percentile wage(1)

10th percentile wage

Occupation

Median wage

Employment

TABLE 1. ARTS, ENTERTAINMENT, AND SPORTS OCCUPATIONS WITH MORE THAN $100,000 WAGE DIFFERENCE, MAY 2014

>$168,480 >167,010 >155,820 154,260 122,980 120,100 118,830

Footnotes: (1) BLS does not publish specific estimates for percentile wages above $187,200 per year. Where the percentile wage is greater than $187,200, the wage is shown with a greater-than sign (>). (2) Wage differences with a greater-than sign (>) were calculated using $187,200, the highest percentile wage that BLS publishes. (3) In occupations in which workers typically are paid by the hour and work less than the standard 2,080 hours per year, BLS reports only hourly wages. For comparison purposes in calculating wage differences, the hourly wage was multiplied by 2,080 to get an annual wage. Source: Occupational Employment Statistics survey, Bureau of Labor Statistics


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or moderate success, 44 and consequently their median wage will rank below everyone except broadcast news analysts. Below are occupations in the field of arts, entertainment, and sports that had a wage difference of more than $100,000 in May 2014, higher than the $71,710 wage difference for all workers.

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will be many athletes who experience only little

Passage 8-B

44 Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the supplementary table? (A) NO CHANGE. (B) and consequently their median wage will rank below everyone except actors. (C) and consequently their median wage will rank above only singers and musicians. (D) and consequently their median wage will rank above only film and video editors.


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Passage 9-A

SECTION 1: READING TEST 65 Minutes • 52 Questions TURN TO SECTION 1 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each passage or pair of passages, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table, chart, or graph).

“A Menace to U.S. Public Health” was authored by Rob Wilkins, a member of the National Federation of Professional Trainers (NFPT). The NFPT certifies personal fitness trainers to understand the fundamental exercise science principles in order to provide safe and effective fitness programs to individuals or small groups. The following article is taken from the NFPT’s website, http://www.nfpt.com. “In the United States, even the Grim Reaper is flabby.” – Dr. Frank W. Booth, University of Missouri-Columbia Line Being fat and physically inactive now 5 has a name—Sedentary Death Syndrome or “SeDS.” Approximately 2.5 million Americans will die prematurely in the next ten years due to SeDS, a number greater than all alcohol, guns, motor 10 vehicles, illicit drug use, and sexual behavior related deaths combined. Research has identified SeDS as the second largest threat to public health (heart disease remains the number one 15 cause of death for Americans) and is expected to add as much as $3 trillion to healthcare costs over ten years, more than twice the tax cut recently passed by the U.S. Senate. Frank W. Booth, a professor 20 at the University of Missouri-Columbia, stated that he invented the term SeDS to emphasis his point that, in the United States, even the Grim Reaper is flabby. Professor Booth’s goal is to make the 25 public and the federal government pay more attention and spend more money on

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY CHART.

30

35

40

45

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60

65

getting the average American to become more physically active. “We knew that there were approximately 250,000 people in the United States each year dying of inactivity-related diseases, but the phrase inactivity-related disease lacks pizzazz,” Booth said. Without a catchy name, the condition wasn’t getting enough attention, he said. “One day while I was out jogging, it hit me: Why not call it SeDS?” Approximately two-thirds of American adults are currently overweight or obese according to the Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPI). Due to the fact that more than one-fourth of Americans are not physically active in their leisure time, obesity has doubled, and Type 2 diabetes (also known as adult-onset diabetes) has increased tenfold. Type 2 diabetes is a devastating disease that may lead to complications such as blindness, kidney failure, heart disease, circulatory problems that can result in amputation, and premature death. Between 1982–1994, one third of all new cases of Type 2 diabetes were among people ages 10–19. The then-Surgeon General of the United States recently observed that, “We are raising the most overweight youngsters in American history.” In 2011–2012, 8.4% of 2- to 5-year-olds had obesity compared with 17.7% of 6- to 11-year-olds, and 20.5% of 12- to 19-year-olds. Studies indicate that currently about 17% of the nation’s children are obese. This is not surprising, considering that the average American child spends 900 hours per year in school but 1,200 hours


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75

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90

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70

watching television, according to the TV-Turnoff Network. The problem is made worse by the fact that fewer than 3 in 10 high school students get at least 60 minutes of physical activity every day. Less than half (48%) of all adults meet the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines. “Our bodies were designed to be physically active,” said Scott Gordon of East Carolina University. The trouble is that hard work, from farming to simply doing household chores without appliances, is no longer part of ordinary life for most people, he said. Gordon called for activity to be put back in. “In adults, this may mean planning exercise into your daily routine,” he said. “However, it may be as simple as taking the stairs instead of the elevator a couple of times a day.” Booth and his supporters said a special effort must be made to reach children, so they won’t turn fat and weak like their parents and, also like their parents, get sick and die early. “Perhaps the greatest tragedy is that ailments previously associated with the

Passage 9-A

95

100

105

110

115

middle-aged and older population will now affect our children and will serve to drastically decrease their quality of life,” said researcher Ron Gomes of the University of Delaware. All Americans may incur a severe decline in their health due to consistent physical inactivity. Thirty-five known conditions are exacerbated by physical inactivity; they include arthritis pain, arrhythmias, breast cancer, colon cancer, congestive heart failure, depression, gallstone disease, heart attack, hypertension, obesity, osteoporosis, peripheral vascular disease, respiratory problems, Type 2 diabetes, sleep apnea, and stroke. Providing enjoyable experiences is a potent strategy for increasing activity levels in youth, their attitude about the value of exercise, and ultimately long-term health outcome. Introducing and making exercise fun for young children may help them develop commitment and a positive attitude toward physical activity as they go through adolescence and adulthood.

Number in Thousands of New Cases of Diagnosed Diabetes Among Adults Aged 18–79 Years, U.S. 1980–2011


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(A) investigates a faulty brake system in one of its models and issues a recall. (B) apologizes to its customers for a faulty brake system in one of its models and assures them that next year’s model has already been redesigned. (C) compensates all the customers whose brakes have failed by offering them a free paint job for their car. (D) gives classes to teach its customers how to install a fix for a faulty brake system in one of its models. 2 The structure of the article is designed to (A) present opinions backed up by factual detail. (B) frighten readers who are ignoring their weight issues. (C) offer testimonials from those who are most affected. (D) focus on statistical data and how it is being interpreted. 3 What effect on meaning and tone does the mention of the Grim Reaper add to the article? (A) It encourages weight loss by alluding to the Grim Reaper’s gaunt form. (B) It links preventable health issues with a symbol of mortality. (C) It uses a symbolic figure to make a humorous point. (D) It relies on valid scientific conclusions from past studies.

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1 The idea the author presents in lines 16–23 that the cost of SeDS is twice that of a recent tax cut is analogous to an automaker that

Passage 9-A

4 Based on the passage, which choice best describes the relationship between the design of our bodies and the fact that obesity has doubled? (A) Humans are naturally prone to obesity. (B) Weight gain is passed from parents to children. (C) People eat more in order to perform modern activities. (D) Hard work is no longer part of most people’s lives. 5 As used in line 5, “sedentary” most nearly means (A) inactive. (B) robust. (C) sudden. (D) obese. 6 In lines 12–15 (“Research has … for Americans.”), what is the most likely reason the author compares SeDS with heart disease? (A) To compare the symptoms of obesity with those of heart disease (B) To make readers think of the many warnings against heart disease (C) To demonstrate how heart disease often leads to issues with obesity (D) To emphasize that poor health is not the issue, but a fatal outcome is 7 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 6–11 (“Approximately … combined”) (B) Lines 35–36 (“One day … SeDS”) (C) Lines 53–57 (“The then-Surgeon … history”) (D) Lines 115–119 (“Introducing … adulthood”)


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(A) 1980. (B) 1988. (C) 1998. (D) 2009. 9 As used in line 32 , “pizzazz” most nearly means (A) research. (B) oomph. (C) seriousness. (D) action. 10 The passage most strongly suggests which of the following? (A) A catchy name will motivate people to lose weight. (B) Moving the body is essential to health. (C) Type 2 diabetes is another form of obesity. (D) Children can have good habits despite poor role models. 11 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 24–28 (“Professor … active”) (B) Lines 40–45 (“Due to … tenfold”) (C) Lines 45–50 (“Type 2 … death”) (D) Lines 91–97 (“Perhaps … Delaware”)

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8 It can reasonably be inferred from the passage and the chart that steady increases in new cases of Type 2 diabetes began around

Passage 9-A


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Passage 9-B

SECTION 2: WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST 35 MINUTES

• 44 QUESTIONS

TURN TO SECTION 2 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of multiple-choice questions. For some questions, you will need to consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage may be accompanied by one or more graphics—such as a chart, table, or graph—that you will need to refer to in order to best answer the question(s). Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage—it could be one word, a portion of a sentence, or the full sentence itself. Other questions will direct you to a particular paragraph or to certain sentences within a paragraph, or you’ll be asked to think about the passage as a whole. Each question number refers to the corresponding number in the passage. After reading each passage, select the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage follow the conventions of Standard Written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Select that option if you think the best choice is to leave that specific portion of the passage as it is.

Code Talking In September of 1992, a group of American heroes who had gone unrecognized for many years was honored by the United States Pentagon. 1 Consisted of thirty-five Navajo code talkers. During World War II, the United States Marines needed to develop a 2 code, for communicating top-secret information.

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

1 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Having consisted of (C) A group which were made of (D) It consisted of 2 (A) NO CHANGE (B) code for communicating (C) code, for communicating, (D) code for communicating,


2

Passage 9-B

55

have access to information about United States Marines tactics and troop movements, it was crucial that enemy forces not be able to decipher the code. The military recruited a small group of Navajos to create a code based on their language. 4 The Navajo language was chosen because many of the top military officials at the time were Navajo. First, it was extremely difficult to learn and virtually unknown outside the Navajo community in the American Southwest. 5 However, the Navajo language does not have a written form; it uses no alphabet. Its complexity and 6 obscurity made it the perfect basis for a code. The first group of Navajo recruits attended boot camp in 1942. Afterward, they set to work developing a vast dictionary of code words for military terms based on the Navajo language. Each code talker had to memorize the dictionary before being sent to a Marine unit. Once they were stationed with a unit, the code talkers used telephones and radios to transmit encoded orders and information.

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3 It being the case that they would then

3 (A) NO CHANGE (B) It was crucial to the United States, that enemy forces not be able to decipher the code, having access to information about Marines tactics and troop movements. (C) It was crucial that enemy forces be unable to decipher the code because, if they did, they would have access to information about the Marines’ tactics and troop movements. (D) Crucially, the enemy forces were unable to decipher the code, which would have access to the Marines’ tactics and troop movements. 4 Which choice most effectively sets up the information that follows? (A) NO CHANGE (B) The Navajo language was chosen because the Navajo people were famous for their military history. (C) The Navajo people had often been called on to help the American government in the past. (D) The Navajo language made an excellent code for several essential reasons. 5 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Furthermore (C) Likewise (D) As a result 6 (A) NO CHANGE (B) uncertainty (C) intricacy (D) clarity


While the Navajo language was complicated, the code was even more complex. A code talker receiving a message heard a stream of Navajo words. 7 The receiver had to translate the words into English. Then the receiver had to use the first letter of each English equivalent to spell out a word. Adding to the difficulty of breaking the code was the fact that most letters could be indicated by the code talkers with more than one Navajo word. Though able to crack the codes of other military branches, enemy forces never managed to 8 perceive what the Marines’ Navajo code talkers said. The code talkers were renowned for the 9 speed, and accuracy, with which they 10 worked. 11 Because the Navajo language was common only in the American Southwest, the work of the code talkers remained unacknowledged until quite recently. Half a century later, in 1992, thirty-five former code talkers and their families attended the dedication of the Navajo Code Talker Exhibit at the United States Pentagon, and officially took their place in military history.

Passage 9-B

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2

7 Which choice most effectively joins the two sentences? (A) The receiver had to translate the words into English, and then the receiver had to use the first letter of each English equivalent to spell out a word. (B) The receiver had to translate the words into English and then use the first letter of each English equivalent to spell out a word. (C) The receiver had to translate the words into English even though the receiver had to then use the first letter of each English equivalent to spell out a word. (D) The receiver had to translate the words into English because the receiver had to use the first letter of each English equivalent to spell out a word. 8

(A) NO CHANGE (B) fathom (C) elucidate (D) decipher

9 (A) NO CHANGE (B) speed, and accuracy (C) speed and accuracy (D) speed and accuracy, 10 (A) NO CHANGE (B) will work. (C) are working. (D) have been working. 11 Which choice provides information that best supports the claim made by the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) had to be translated into English words and letters (C) took a long time to decode by people who didn’t speak English (D) remained part of a classified code for many years


1 This passage is excerpted from Helen Hunt Jackson’s A Century of Dishonor, published in 1881. In 1879, Jackson became a Native American rights activist after witnessing a speech by Ponca chief Standing Bear. There are within the limits of the United States between two hundred and fifty and three hundred thousand Indians, exclusive of those in Alaska. The names of the different tribes and bands as entered in the statistical table, so the Indian Office Reports, number nearly three hundred. There is not among these three 10 hundred bands of Indians one which has not suffered cruelly at the hands either of the Government or of white settlers. The poorer, the more insignificant, the more helpless the band, the more certain the 15 cruelty and outrage to which they have been subjected. This is especially true of the bands on the Pacific slope. These Indians found themselves all of a sudden surrounded by and caught up in the great 20 influx of gold-seeking settlers, as helpless creatures on a shore are caught up in a tidal wave. There was not time for the Government to make treaties; not even time for communities to make laws. The 25 tale of the wrongs, the oppressions, the murders of the Pacific-slope Indians in the last thirty years would be a volume by itself, and is too monstrous to be believed. It makes little difference, however, 30 where one opens the record of the history of the Indians; every page and every year has its dark stain. The story of one tribe is the story of all, varied only by differences of time and place; but neither time nor 35 place makes any difference in the main facts. Colorado is as greedy and unjust in 1880 as was Georgia in 1830, and Ohio in 1795; and the United States Government breaks promises now as deftly as then, 40 and with an added ingenuity from long practice. One of its strongest supports in so doing is the wide-spread sentiment among the people of dislike to the Indian, 45 of impatience with his presence as a “barrier to civilization” and distrust of it as a possible danger. The old tales of the frontier life, with its horrors of Indian warfare, have gradually, by two

Line 5

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

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Passage 10-A

50

or three generations’ telling, produced in the average mind something like an hereditary instinct of questioning and unreasoning aversion which it is almost impossible to dislodge or soften.

55

President after president has appointed commission after commission to inquire into and report upon Indian affairs, and to make suggestions as to the best methods of managing them. The reports are filled with eloquent statements of wrongs done to the Indians, of perfidies on the part of the Government; they counsel, as earnestly as words can, a trial of the simple and unperplexing expedients of telling truth, keeping promises, making fair bargains, dealing justly in all ways and all things. These reports are bound up with the Government’s Annual Reports, and that is the end of them. The history of the Government connections with the Indians is a shameful record of broken treaties and unfulfilled promises. The history of the border white man’s connection with the Indians is a sickening record of murder, outrage, robbery, and wrongs committed by the former, as the rule, and occasional savage outbreaks and unspeakably barbarous deeds of retaliation by the latter, as the exception. Taught by the Government that they had rights entitled to respect, when those rights have been assailed by the rapacity of the white man, the arm which should have been raised to protect them has ever been ready to sustain the aggressor. The testimony of some of the highest military officers of the United States is on record to the effect that, in our Indian wars, almost without exception, the first aggressions have been made by the white man …. Every crime committed by a white man against an Indian is concealed and palliated. Every offense committed by an Indian against a white man is borne on the wings of the post or the telegraph to the remotest corner of the land, clothed with all the horrors which the reality or imagination can throw around it. Against such influences as these are the people of the United States need to be warned.

60

65

70

75

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Passage 10-A

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(A) believes the government recognizes the need to be fairer in its dealings with the Native Americans. (B) is doubtful that the government is inquiring into Native American affairs with the intention of making substantive changes. (C) supposes that presidents have been more critical of the government’s dealings with the Native Americans than the commissions. (D) acknowledges that the government understands the problem but is not equipped to determine a viable solution. 13 The author refers to different states and different times (lines 29–41) as a way of (A) citing specific abuses that were spread over a century. (B) pointing out which states had the worst records of abuse. (C) showing that these abuses no longer occur in America. (D) defining where abuses in the Pacific slope area occurred. 14 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 9–12 (“There is not … white settlers.”) (B) Lines 24–28 (“The tale … believed”) (C) Lines 29–32 (“It … stain”) (D) Lines 70–73 (“The history … promises”)

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12 The author’s description of government inquiries into the handling of Native American affairs in lines 55–69 suggests that the author

15 What explanation does the author give for the abuse of Native Americans as described in lines 22–28? (A) The author blames old tales of Native Americans attacks on the frontier. (B) The author cites a record of broken treaties and abuse of the laws. (C) The author says that the settlers surrounded Native Americans. (D) The author describes the Pacificslope area as lawless and chaotic. 16 In what year did serious abuses of Native Americans occur in Georgia? (A) 1795 (B) 1830 (C) 1855 (D) 1880 17 The author chose a text structure designed to (A) follow the historical chronology of how settlers in the United States dealt with Native Americans over time. (B) dispel some of the common misconceptions of the dealings between the United States and Native Americans. (C) categorize causes and effects in explaining the US government’s treatment of Native Americans. (D) present opposing viewpoints as to why the United States has had conflicts with Native Americans. 18 As used in line 94, “palliated” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D)

intensified. confused. eased. excused.


1 (A) The generals of the U.S. Army suggest that they had to be aggressive to keep Native Americans from defeating them and that sometimes there were crimes committed against Native Americans. Both sides spread their interpretation of events across the nation. (B) In court hearings, soldiers discussed how the white man often took the fight to Native Americans in order to move them off the land and that there were occasions when this resulted in savage behavior by both parties. (C) Proof that the white man was the aggressor in almost every conflict comes from the U.S. Army itself and the offenses of white men are disguised while the few offenses of Native Americans are widely exaggerated. (D) The history of the conflicts between Native Americans and white men is one of gross injustice and extreme crimes against the tribes most of the time, while horrible crimes against white people are generally few and far between. 20 The central theme of the passage is that (A) Native Americans have been victimized by the U.S. government. (B) what happened to one tribe happened to all the tribes eventually. (C) the U.S. government has done little to help Native Americans. (D) Native Americans and white settlers had conflicts with each other in the past.

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19 Which of the following summaries of the last paragraph is the most accurate?

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Passage 10-A

21 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 12–16 (“The poorer … subjected”) (B) Lines 29–32 (“It makes … stain”) (C) Lines 32–36 (“The story … facts”) (D) Lines 73–80 (“The history … exception”) 22 As used in line 79, “barbarous” most nearly means with (A) silent determination. (B) steadfast revenge. (C) calculated antagonism. (D) wild brutality.


QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. Who was Dian 12 Fossey. Dian Fossey was a researcher, a visionary, and a pioneer in the field of animal conservation. More specifically, Fossey dedicated her life to preserving Africa’s endangered mountain gorilla. Fossey 13 was born in San Francisco and made her first trip to Africa in 1963. At the time, she was 31 years old. In the course of her trip, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a 14 prominent archaeologist and anthropologist.

Passage 10-B

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2

12 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Dian Fossey? (C) Dian Fossey, (D) Dian Fossey! 13 The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion of the sentence. Should the writer make this deletion? (A) Yes, because this information should be provided earlier in the passage. (B) Yes, because this information doesn’t support the main idea of the paragraph. (C) No, because this information supports the main idea of the paragraph. (D) No, because this information is important to the organization of the passage. 14 (A) NO CHANGE (B) imminent (C) infamous (D) egregious


2 research on large apes and encouraged Fossey to undertake such a study. 15 After accepting the research challenge from Dr. Leakey, mountain gorillas became a research topic. Fossey began her work in the African country of Zaire, but was forced to leave because of political unrest. She moved to another African country, Rwanda, where she established a research camp in a national park. 16 They’re, she spent thousands of hours observing the behavior of gorillas. Her steadfast patience won the trust of the animals, and they began to 17 except her presence among them. As a result, she was able to observe behaviors that had never been seen by humans before. Spending so much time observing the gorillas, Fossey naturally distinguished among them and had particular favorites. One of these favorites was a young male gorilla named Digit. Digit was later killed by a poacher, an illegal hunter of protected animals. 18 Fossey was really, really sad. She began a public campaign to raise awareness about the problem of gorilla poaching, a practice that threatened their continued existence. 19 The rhinoceros, too, has faced grave danger from poaching. Fossey’s campaign earned worldwide attention and support, and she continued to live and work in Africa for many years thereafter.

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Dr. Leakey believed in the importance of

Passage 10-B

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15 (A) NO CHANGE (B) After accepting the research challenge from Dr. Leakey, Fossey chose mountain gorillas as the topic of her research. (C) Mountain gorillas, after accepting the research challenge from Dr. Leakey, became the topic of Fossey’s research. (D) Fossey chose mountain gorillas after accepting the research challenge from Dr. Leakey, as her research topic. 16 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Their (C) There (D) Where 17 (A) NO CHANGE (B) undertake (C) assume (D) accept 18 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Fossey was crushed. (C) Fossey was super-duper sad. (D) Fossey was stunned and saddened. 19 Which sentence most effectively fits with the main idea of the paragraph? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Organizations like the African Wildlife Foundation help to prevent poaching, too. (C) Mountain gorillas, after all, have a life expectancy of 35 years in the wild. (D) In 1989, it was predicted that there were only 620 mountain gorillas left.


2

62

at Cornell University and wrote a book, Gorillas in the Mist, that brought further attention to the 21 deteriorating numbers of mountain gorillas. Afterward, Fossey returned to Rwanda, and spent the rest of her life working to protect the mountain gorilla. Even after her mysterious death, Fossey’s work continued make an impact. Today, 22 the population of mountain gorillas in Rwanda is rising thanks to the legacy of Dian Fossey.

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20 In 1980, Fossey took a teaching position

Passage 10-B

20 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: She had always been interested in teaching and decided to seek employment at the university level. Should the writer make this addition here? (A) Yes, because this information provides information necessary to understand the paragraph. (B) Yes, because this information makes a good transition from the previous paragraph. (C) No, because this information is not necessary and doesn’t support the main idea of the paragraph. (D) No, because this information should be placed at the end of the passage. 21 (A) NO CHANGE (B) declining (C) demeaning (D) degrading 22 (A) NO CHANGE (B) the population of mountain gorillas in Rwanda are rising. (C) the population of mountain gorillas in Rwanda were rising. (D) the population of mountain gorillas in Rwanda rises.


QUESTIONS 23–32 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL. Robert E. Lee and his family lived on a plantation estate in Arlington, Virginia, up until 1861. When Civil War broke out, he and his family departed for safer quarters. Lee became the commander of the Rebel field forces in 1862. His former home is now a National Park site. The full-length text of the following passage, provided by the National Park Service, can be found at http://www.nps. gov/arho/learn/historyculture/slavery.htm. Slavery at Arlington From its earliest days, Arlington House was home not only to the Custis and Lee families who occupied the mansion, but Line to dozens of slaves who lived and labored 5 on the estate. For nearly sixty years, Arlington functioned as a complex society made up of owners and slaves, whites and blacks. To some observers, on the surface, 10 Arlington appeared as a harmonious community in which owner and slave often lived and worked side by side. Yet an invisible gulf separated the two, as slaves were the legal property of their 15 owners. The enslaved possessed no rights, could not enter into legally binding contracts, and could be permanently separated from their families at a moment’s notice. 20 In 1802, the first slaves to inhabit Arlington arrived with their owner, George Washington Parke Custis. The grandson of Martha Washington and adopted grandson of George Washington, 25 Custis had grown up at Mount Vernon, as had many of his slaves. Upon Martha Washington’s death, Custis inherited her slaves and purchased others who belonged to his mother. In all, Custis 30 owned nearly 200 slaves and as many as 63 lived and worked at Arlington. The others worked on his other two plantations near Richmond, Virginia.

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1

Passage 11-A Once at Arlington, the slaves constructed log cabins for their homes and began work on the main house. Using the red clay soil from the property and shells from the Potomac river, they made the bricks and stucco for the walls 40 and exterior of the house. The slaves also harvested timber from the Arlington forest, which was used for the interior flooring and supports. The slaves were responsible for keeping up the house and 45 laboring on the plantation, working to harvest corn and wheat, which was sold at market in Washington. Custis saw his daughter marry Lt. Robert E. Lee at Arlington in 1831. 50 Robert and Mary Anna came to call Arlington home and Custis was a prominent figure in the lives of the seven Lee children. In his later years, Custis did not stray far from Arlington. He made his 55 will in 1855, and he increasingly relied on his son-in-law, Col. Lee, to handle his tangled business affairs. Until his death, Custis retained his old bedchamber in the north wing of the mansion, where he died 60 after a short illness on October 10, 1857. Some slaves had very close relationships with the family members, though these relationships were governed by the racial hierarchy that existed 65 between slaves and slaveholders. Mr. Custis relied heavily on his carriage driver, Daniel Dotson, and Mrs. Lee had a personal relationship with the head housekeeper, Selina Gray. As Mary’s 70 arthritis increasingly restricted her activities through the years, she depended on Selina for assistance. As evidence of their close bond, Mrs. Lee entrusted Selina with the keys to the plantation at 75 the time of the Lees’ evacuation in May 1861. There is evidence that some slaves at Arlington had opportunities not widely afforded to slaves elsewhere. Mrs. Custis, 80 a devout Episcopalian, tutored slaves in basic reading and writing so that they could read the Bible. Mrs. Lee and her daughters continued this practice even though Virginia law had prohibited the 85 education of slaves by the 1840s. Mrs. Custis also persuaded her husband to free several women and children. 35


1

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105

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Some of these emancipated slaves settled on the Arlington estate, including Maria Carter Syphax who lived with her husband on a seventeen-acre plot given to her by the Custises at the time of her emancipation around 1826. While such allowances may have improved the quality of life for the Arlington slaves, most black men and women on the estate remained legally in bondage until the Civil War. In his will, Custis stipulated that all the Arlington slaves should be freed upon his death if the estate was found to be in good financial standing or within five years otherwise. When Custis died in 1857, Robert E. Lee—the executor of the estate—determined that the slave labor was necessary to improve Arlington’s financial status. The Arlington slaves found Lee to be a more stringent taskmaster than his predecessor. Eleven slaves were “hired out” while others were sent to the other estates. In accordance with Custis’s instructions, Lee officially freed the slaves on December 29, 1862.

Passage 11-A 23 What is the most likely purpose of the passage? (A) To inform people about the evils of slavery (B) To persuade people that slavery was not so terrible (C) To describe the history of Arlington House (D) To illustrate how slaves lived before the Civil War 24 Why did Mrs. Custis teach her slaves to read? (A) So they could teach other slaves and become self-sufficient (B) So they could read their contracts with their owners (C) So they could teach her children to read (D) So they could read the Bible

The room at the east end on the lower level housed the summer kitchen, with cooks’ quarters above. The center room at the lower level was a washroom, with the washerwoman’s quarters above. The rooms at the west end housed various domestic slaves, including the coachmen, gardener, and housekeeper.


1

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(A) (B) (C) (D)

Land and slaves Slaves A house with land and slaves Three plantations

26 How was the life of Selina Gray different from that of other slaves? (A) She didn’t have to work as hard. (B) She was trusted by Mrs. Lee. (C) She took care of the Lee children. (D) She ran the whole plantation. 27 Which of the following statements is true based on the graphic and the passage. (A) The slaves lived in one enormous house built just for slaves. (B) The slaves’ quarters were adequate for the needs of the slaves. (C) The slaves lived in very tight quarters. (D) The slave quarters were located next to the main house of the plantation. 28 How was Robert E. Lee related to George Washington? (A) Lee married the daughter of Washington’s grandson. (B) Lee married George Washington’s granddaughter. (C) Lee’s son married Martha Washington’s granddaughter. (D) Lee’s father was Martha Washington’s nephew.

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25 What did George Washington Parke Custis inherit from his grandmother Martha Washington?

Passage 11-A

29 What evidence in the passage suggests that Lee was more of a practical man than an idealist? (A) Lines 53–57 (“Custis did not … business affairs”) (B) Lines 79–85 (“Mrs. Custis … by the 1840’s”) (C) Lines 103–107 (“When Custis … financial status”) (D) Lines 112–113 (“Lee officially … December 29, 1862”) 30 Which of the following best illustrates that slaves were considered property in the era described in the passage? (A) Lines 6–9 (“Arlington functioned … and blacks”) (B) Lines 27–29 (“Custis inherited … his mother”) (C) Lines 82–85 (“Mrs. Lee … the 1840s”) (D) Lines 85–87 (“Mrs. Custis … and children”) 31 How does the author use the phrase “invisible gulf” (line 13)? (A) As a figure of speech—related to differences in stature (B) As a martime definition—related to a hidden body of water (C) As a geographical reference—related to a ravine or abyss (D) As an architectural description— related to building placement 32 In the context of the passage, what is the best definition of the word “afforded” (line 79)? (A) Spared or given up without risk (B) Had sufficient money to pay for (C) Provided or supplied (D) Purchased in exchange for


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Passage 11-B

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Tamarin Families Deep in the rainforests of Brazil, tiny creatures known as “kings of the jungle” inhabit the trees. These creatures, similar in size to squirrels, have bright, reddish-orange coats and hairless faces; their fur 23 obscures their faces like the mane of a lion. Accordingly, these highly endangered monkeys are called golden lion tamarins. Tamarins live in small family units of up to nine individuals. 24 Offspring are generally born in pairs, and all members of the group will pitch in to help care for them. Tamarins that participate in caring for their newborn siblings tend to become 25 better parents.

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QUESTIONS 23–33 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

23 (A) NO CHANGE (B) encircles (C) covers (D) marks 24 The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) No, because it provides information necessary to understand the next sentence. (B) No, because it explains why family units are relatively small. (C) Yes, because it should be placed earlier in the paragraph. (D) Yes, because this information interrupts the flow of the paragraph. 25 (A) NO CHANGE (B) better parents than tamarins that do not. (C) better parents than other tamarins. (D) better parents than older tamarins.


2

Passage 11-B

67

are active during the daytime. [2] At night, they seek shelter in tree hollows. [3] They are omnivorous, eating fruits, insects, and occasionally small lizards and snakes, which are 27 one in the same to them. [4] Tamarins spend their time in trees, using their fingers to grip the branches. 28 [5] However, they dislike direct sunlight, and so are well-suited to the dense foliage of the forest. Golden lion tamarins inhabit a distinct ecological 29 niche, they are found only in the eastern rainforests of Brazil. As farmers clear the rainforest to grow cash crops, the habitat of the tamarins has decreased drastically; as a result, the survival of the species is in extreme danger. Ecologists estimate that there are only one thousand tamarins remaining in the wild.

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[1] Tamarins are diurnal, meaning 26 they

26 (A) NO CHANGE (B) it is (C) he is (D) it will be 27 (A) NO CHANGE (B) one with the same (C) one and the same (D) one the same 28 To make this paragraph the most logical, sentence 5 should be placed (A) where it is now. (B) before sentence 1. (C) before sentence 2. (D) before sentence 4. 29 Which choice most effectively combines the two sentences at the underlined portion? (A) NO CHANGE (B) niche they, (C) niche they (D) niche; they


2

Passage 11-B

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was initiated to save the tamarins. The movement began as a collaboration between the National Zoological Park in Washington, the Smithsonian Institute, and the Rio de Janeiro Primate Center. 31 It has grown to address the problem from several angles, including managing and restoring the disappearing habitat of the tamarins, breeding tamarins in captivity and in the wild, and reintroducing tamarins into their natural environment. As part of this effort, a number of zoos around the world have participated in helping to breed tamarins in captivity. 32

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30 In the 1970s, a conservation campaign

30 Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of paragraph 5? (A) A collaborative effort to save the tamarins was established in 1970 and over time has developed a multifaceted approach to solving the problem of tamarin endangerment. (B) The effort to save the tamarins includes managing and restoring the disappearing habitat of the tamarins, breeding tamarins in captivity and in the wild, and reintroducing tamarins into their natural environment. (C) The collaborative effort to save tamarins includes the National Zoological Park in Washington, the Smithsonian Institute, and the Rio de Janeiro Primate Center. (D) The continued effort of zoos to breed the tamarin in captivity has saved the tamarin from extinction. 31 (A) NO CHANGE (B) The campaign (C) The problem (D) They 32 Which choice adds accurate data to the paragraph based on the graph (next page)? (A) Unfortunately, the participation rate among zoos has fallen dramatically while the tamarin population has climbed. (B) While the population of tamarins in captivity has fluctuated since 2000, the number of participating zoos has remained relatively steady. (C) Although the population of tamarins has fallen since 2000, the participation rate of zoos has risen substantially in recent years. (D) Sadly, both the number of participating zoos and the population of tamarins has fallen significantly since 2000.


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Passage 11-B

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their natural habitat have been 33 fruitful, making the golden lion tamarin one of very few species to be successfully reintroduced into the wild.

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So far, efforts to return these animals back into

33 (A) NO CHANGE (B) problematic (C) lucrative (D) delayed

Used with permission. Ballou, J. D., J. Mickelberg, D. Field, and N. Lindsey. 2009. Population Management Recommendations for the International Ex-situ Population of Golden Lion Tamarins (Leontopithecus rosalia). National Zoological Park, Washington, D.C.


1 Passage 1 is excerpted from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency website. Passage 2 is excerpted from the article “Science Has Spoken: Global Warming Is a Myth” by Oregon Institute of Science and Medicine chemists, Arthur B. Robinson and Zachary W. Robinson. This article was published in the Wall Street Journal in 1997. Passage 1 Climate change is happening Our Earth is warming. Earth’s average temperature has risen by 1.4°F over the past century and is projected Line to rise another 2 to 11.5°F over the 5 next hundred years. Small changes in the average temperature of the planet can translate to large and potentially dangerous shifts in climate and weather. The evidence is clear. Rising global 10 temperatures have been accompanied by changes in weather and climate. Many places have seen changes in rainfall, resulting in more floods, droughts, or intense rain, as well as more frequent and 15 severe heat waves. The planet’s oceans and glaciers have also experienced some big changes—oceans are warming and becoming more acidic, ice caps are melting, and sea levels are rising. As 20 these and other changes become more pronounced in the coming decades, they will likely present challenges to our society and our environment. Humans are largely responsible for 25 recent climate change. Over the past century, human activities have released large amounts of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The majority of greenhouse gases come 30 from burning fossil fuels to produce energy, although deforestation, industrial processes, and some agricultural practices also emit gases into the atmosphere.

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QUESTIONS 33–42 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGES.

Passage 12-A

70

35

40

45

50

55

60

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70

Greenhouse gases act like a blanket around Earth, trapping energy in the atmosphere and causing it to warm. This phenomenon is called the greenhouse effect and is natural and necessary to support life on Earth. However, the buildup of greenhouse gases can change Earth’s climate and result in dangerous effects to human health and welfare and to ecosystems. Our lives are connected to the climate. Human societies have adapted to the relatively stable climate we have enjoyed since the last ice age, which ended several thousand years ago. A warming climate will bring changes that can affect our water supplies, agriculture, power and transportation systems, the natural environment, and even our own health and safety.

Some changes to the climate are unavoidable. Carbon dioxide can stay in the atmosphere for nearly a century, so Earth will continue to warm in the coming decades. The warmer it gets, the greater the risk for more severe changes to the climate and Earth’s system. Although it’s difficult to predict the exact impacts of climate change, what’s clear is that the climate we are accustomed to is no longer a reliable guide for what to expect in the future. We can reduce the risks we will face from climate change. By making choices that reduce greenhouse gas pollution and preparing for the changes that are already underway, we can reduce risks from climate change. Our decisions today will shape the world our children and grandchildren will live in.


1

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Passage 2 [The global warming] hypothesis 75 predicts that global temperatures will rise significantly, indeed catastrophically, if atmospheric carbon dioxide rises. Most of the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide has occurred during 80 the past 50 years, and the increase has continued during the past 20 years. Yet there has been no significant increase in atmospheric temperature during those 50 years, and during the 20 years 85 with the highest carbon dioxide levels, temperatures have decreased. In science, the ultimate test is the process of experiment. If a hypothesis fails the experimental test, it must be 90 discarded. Therefore, the scientific method requires that the global warming hypothesis be rejected. Why, then, is there continuing scientific interest in “global warming”? 95 There is a field of inquiry in which scientists are using computers to try to predict the weather—even global weather over very long periods. But global weather is so complicated that 100 current data and computer methods are insufficient to make such predictions. Although it is reasonable to hope that these methods will eventually become useful, for now computer climate models 105 are very unreliable. So we needn’t worry about human use of hydrocarbons warming the Earth. We also needn’t worry about environmental calamities, even if the current, natural 110 warming trend continues: After all the Earth has been much warmer during the past 3,000 years without ill effects. But we should worry about the effects of the hydrocarbon rationing being 115 proposed at Kyoto. Hydrocarbon use has major environmental benefits. A great deal of research has shown that increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide accelerate the growth rates of plants and also permit 120 plants to grow in drier regions. Animal life, which depends upon plants, also increases.

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Passage 12-A

33 Upon which concepts do both passages fully agree? (A) That global warming has been proven by evidence (B) That an increase in overall temperature is manageable (C) That levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide have increased (D) That usual weather patterns have been affected 34 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 5–8 (“Small changes … and weather.”) (B) Lines 39–43 (“However, the … to ecosystems.”) (C) Lines 78–81 (“Most of the … 20 years.”) (D) Lines 113–115 (“But we should … at Kyoto.”)


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(A) One of scientists taking neutral positions (B) One of fanatics defending a cause (C) One of humans concerned for global well-being (D) One of debaters directly addressing readers as “you” 36 In making their arguments, the authors of both passages fail to (A) provide sources of proof for their claims. (B) account for recent advances in the field. (C) acknowledge dissenting opinions. (D) provide definitions for their terminology. 37 The word choice of the first passage (potentially dangerous, severe, challenges, dangerous effects) and the second passage (no significant, rejected, insufficient, unreliable) differ in that (A) the first is employing colorful language to describe, and the second is relying on simpler language to define. (B) Passage 1 uses scientific terms and Passage 2 uses layperson’s terms. (C) the first passage attempts to reassure readers, and the second passage tries to motivate them. (D) Passage 1 is sounding a warning, and Passage 2 is negating any cause for alarm. 38 As used in line 21, “pronounced” most nearly means (A) articulated. (B) announced. (C) inconspicuous. (D) noticeable.

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35 Which point of view characterizes both passages?

39 In both passages, the authors present information by (A) listing a sequence of events that begins in the past and continues into the future. (B) discussing the causes of a situation and the resulting effects or lack of effects. (C) comparing two different approaches to a problem and determining which will be most effective. (D) defining the problems the world faces and then offering solutions to them. 40 The essential difference between the arguments the two sets of authors present is whether or not (A) atmospheric hydrogen should be controlled. (B) climate and weather can be modified by humans. (C) atmospheric hydrogen poses a threat to human life. (D) the production of hydrocarbons is a natural result of human activity. 41 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 29–30 (“The majority … into the atmosphere.”) (B) Lines 55–58 (“Carbon dioxide … coming decades”) (C) Lines 74–77 (“The global … dioxide rises”) (D) Lines 116–120 (“A great … drier regions”) 42 As used in line 7, “translate” most nearly means (A) comprehend. (B) expand. (C) transform. (D) explain.


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Classical architecture, the origins of which can be traced to ancient Rome, is characterized by a strict and 34 terminable adherence to the principles of coherence, exactness, and detail. 35 The basis of the classical style was the manner in which a building’s space was divided so as to create a coherent whole. An example of a plan for the division of a building’s space was 36 the tripartite plan. This plan would divide the space in a particular building into three equal parts. Such a plan would be followed no matter what the purpose of the building—churches, homes, or public government buildings could all be designed with such a plan. Even gardens, designed in the classical style, might have a three-part plan.

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QUESTIONS 34–44 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

34 (A) NO CHANGE (B) inclement (C) rigorous (D) contentious 35 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: Over time, the classical tripartite plan spilled over from architecture to other arts—music, poetry, and dance—and it is not uncommon to have a three-part hierarchy within those artistic areas as well. Should the writer make this addition here? (A) Yes, because it adds interesting detail to the paragraph. (B) Yes, because it provides an accurate introduction to the paragraph. (C) No, because this information should be added at the end of the paragraph. (D) No, because this information does not support the main idea of the paragraph. 36 Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion? (A) the tripartite plan, and this plan would (B) the tripartite plan would (C) the tripartite plan, it would (D) the tripartite plan, which would


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Passage 12-B

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in the classical style was established, architectural elements were added. While 37 columns are fairly typical architectural element, there are five types in particular that are the most 38 common: the Doric, Ionic, Corinthian, Tuscan, and Composite. Each column was distinctive and of a certain specified proportion, base to top. Just as the building follows a tripartite plan, so the columns themselves have a three-part organization. Above the column is a horizontal piece, called the entablature; then comes the column itself, which is tall and cylindrical; and finally comes the platform, or crepidoma, upon which the column rests. Each of these elements also maintains a three-part organization. The entablature is divided into three parts— 39 cornice, the frieze, and the architrave. The column includes the capital, the shaft, and the base. 40

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Once the framework of a building designed

37 (A) NO CHANGE (B) columns are fairly typical architectural elements (C) column is a fairly typical architectural elements (D) columns is fairly typical architectural elements 38 (A) NO CHANGE (B) common: the Doric and Ionic, Corinthian, and Tuscan, and Composite. (C) common: the Doric; Ionic; Corinthian; Tuscan; and Composite. (D) common: the Doric and Ionic; Corinthian, Tuscan, and Composite. 39 (A) NO CHANGE (B) cornice, frieze, and the architrave. (C) the cornice, the frieze, and the architrave. (D) the cornice, the frieze, and architrave. 40 Which of the following choices supports the topic of the paragraph with relevant information? (A) The crepidoma was a single solid mass of steps that supported the rest of the column. (B) The crepidoma sometimes included a sloping ramp, particularly in large temples. (C) The crepidoma maintains the threepart division with its three steps. (D) The crepidoma, though, was not often used in Doric columns.


2 conventions that while not obvious to most viewers, become apparent upon closer analysis. For example, 41 classical buildings must stand free; it cannot touch the sides of other buildings because, in the view of the classicist, each building is a world within a world of 42 his own. Consequently, organizing groups of buildings became problematic for rule-following, classical architects because of 43 differentiated violations of spatial conventions. The classical mode required adherence to formal rules that were sometimes impossible to impose on groups of buildings. 44

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Classical architecture is filled with

Passage 12-B

75

41 (A) NO CHANGE (B) a classical building must stand free; we cannot touch (C) classical buildings must stand free; you cannot touch (D) classical buildings must stand free; they cannot touch 42 (A) NO CHANGE (B) their (C) its (D) the buildings 43 (A) NO CHANGE (B) perceived (C) comprehended (D) extricated 44 Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the final paragraph? (A) The rules of classical architecture, which become apparent on close examination, often organize a building and its features into tripartite groups of three. (B) Classical architects often had trouble following the rules and building groups of buildings. (C) A classical building must stand free and be a world unto itself, which is why no classical buildings connect to each other. (D) The numerous and strict conventions of classical architecture, such as the idea that a building must stand on its own, were not always easy for classical builders to abide by.


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SECTION 1: READING TEST 65 Minutes • 52 Questions TURN TO SECTION 1 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage (or pair of passages) below is followed by a number of multiple-choice questions. After reading each passage, select the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any supplementary material, such as a table, graph, chart, or photograph.

The U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) is a government agency whose goal is to provide reliable scientific information about the Earth, including minimizing loss from natural disasters. This excerpt is from the organization’s website. For the full passage, please visit http://earthquake.usgs.gov/learn. Earthquakes, Megaquakes, and the Movies Throughout the history of Hollywood, disaster films have been sure-fire winners for moviemakers …. With amazing special Line effects, it’s easy to get caught up in the 5 fantasy disaster epic. What makes a great science fantasy film often bears no relation to real facts or the hazards people truly face. The U.S. Geological Survey is the lead federal agency responsible for 10 researching, monitoring and forecasting geologic hazards such as earthquakes, volcanoes and landslides …. Let’s start with some science-based information on earthquakes. 15 Earthquakes are naturally occurring events outside the powers of humans to create or stop. An earthquake is caused by a sudden slip on a fault, much like what happens when you snap your 20 fingers. Before the snap, you push your fingers together and sideways. Because you are pushing them together, friction keeps them from slipping. When you apply enough stress to overcome this 25 friction, your fingers move suddenly, releasing energy. The same “stick-slip” process goes on in the earth. Stresses in the Earth’s outer layer push the sides of the fault together. The friction across

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

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the surface of the fault holds the rocks together so they do not slip immediately when pushed sideways. Eventually enough stress builds up and the rocks slip suddenly, releasing energy in waves that travel through the rock to cause the shaking that we feel during an earthquake. Earthquakes typically originate several to tens of miles below the surface of the Earth. It takes decades to centuries to build up enough stress to make a large earthquake, and the fault may be tens to hundreds of miles long. People cannot prevent earthquakes from happening or stop them once they’ve started—giant nuclear explosions at shallow depths, like those in some movies, won’t actually stop an earthquake. It’s well known that California, the Pacific Northwest, and Alaska all have frequent earthquakes, some of which are quite damaging. Some areas of the country are more at risk than others, but, in fact, 42 of the 50 states could experience damaging ground shaking from an earthquake in 50 years (which is the typical lifetime of a building), and 16 states have a relatively high likelihood of experiencing damaging ground shaking. The two most important variables affecting earthquake damage are the intensity of ground shaking and the quality of the engineering of structures in the region. The level of shaking is controlled by the proximity of the earthquake source to the affected region and the types of rocks that seismic waves pass through en route (particularly those at or near the ground surface). Generally,


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Passage 13-A

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100

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115 \

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the bigger and closer the earthquake, the stronger the shaking. But there have been large earthquakes with very little damage because they caused little shaking or because the buildings were built to withstand that shaking. In other cases, moderate earthquakes have caused significant damage because the shaking was locally amplified, or because the structures were poorly engineered. The idea of a “Mega-Quake”—an earthquake of magnitude 10 or larger—is very unlikely. Earthquake magnitude is based in part on the length of faults— the longer the fault, the larger the earthquake. The simple truth is that there are no known faults capable of generating a magnitude 10 or larger “mega-quake.” … Then there’s this business of California falling off into the ocean. NOT TRUE! The ocean is not a great hole into which California can fall, but is itself land at a somewhat lower elevation with water above it. It’s impossible that California will be swept out to sea. Instead, southwestern California is moving slowly (2 inches per year) towards Alaska. 15 million years (and many earthquakes) from now, Los Angeles and San Francisco will be next-door neighbors. Another popular cinematic and literary device is a fault that opens during an earthquake to swallow up an inconvenient character. But the ground moves parallel to a fault during an earthquake, not away from it. If the fault could open, there would be no friction. Without friction, there would be no earthquake. Shallow crevasses can form during earthquakeinduced landslides, lateral spreads, or other types of ground failures. Faults, however, do not gape open during an earthquake. So when you see the next big disaster film, rest assured that movies are just entertainment. Enjoy them! And then go learn about the real-world science behind disasters, and if you live in an area where hazards exist, take the suggested steps to protect you and your family.

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70

1 Which of the following best describes the author’s purpose in writing this article? (A) To counter the myths about earthquakes driven by fictional films (B) To explain to people the causes and effects of earthquakes (C) To show how Hollywood distorts science (D) To give people advice about what to do if an earthquake strikes 2 What is the main cause of an earthquake? (A) A fault in the Earth’s crust (B) Friction caused by stresses built up in rocks (C) Stresses in the Earth’s outer layer (D) Energy waves through the rocks in the Earth’s crust 3 Who is the target audience of the article? (A) The general public (B) Scientists (C) Filmmakers (D) Science teachers 4 How does the article counter the claim that in the future, part of California may fall off into the ocean? (A) It states that it would be a disaster. (B) It states that sea level rise will prevent it. (C) It explains the similarity between California and Alaska. (D) It explains how the ocean is just land covered by water.


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(A) Lines 91–94 (“The ocean … above it.”) (B) Lines 95–96 (“It’s impossible … out to sea.”) (C) Lines 96–98 (“Instead, southwestern … towards Alaska.”) (D) Lines 98–101 (“15 million years … neighbors.”) 6 As used in line 24, “stress” most nearly means (A) anxiety. (B) weight. (C) pressure. (D) emphasis. 7 Based only on information in the article, what is the most likely reason that Haiti experienced such extensive damage in the earthquake of 2010? (A) The earthquake source was very near the affected region and the buildings were poorly constructed. (B) Haiti has had earthquakes many times before, and they were all destructive. (C) The people are poor and were unprepared for the earthquake of 2010. (D) The faults were deep and numerous across the country. 8 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 17–29 (“An earthquake is … the fault together.”) (B) Lines 37–43 (“Earthquakes typically … miles long.”) (C) Lines 60–64 (“The two most important … in the region.”) (D) Lines 105–108 (“But the ground … be no friction”)

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5 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

9 In line 78, “amplified” most nearly means (A) lifted. (B) supplemented. (C) intensified. (D) augured. 10 How does the use of the phrase “inconvenient character”(lines 104–105) affect the tone of the passage? (A) It reveals a negative attitude about unscientific data. (B) It illustrates a mocking tone toward how the storylines are written. (C) It reveals a scholarly attitude about science. (D) It communicates a warning about inaccurate scientific information. 11 How does the author refute the idea that an earthquake could cause the earth to open up and swallow people and things? (A) By pointing out that the idea of the Earth opening up is portrayed in movies (B) By noting that there are no known faults capable of producing a “mega quake” (C) By explaining that the ground moves parallel to a fault during an earthquake (D) By suggesting that subsequent landslides can cause crevasses to open up


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Passage 13-B

SECTION 2: WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST 35 Minutes • 44 Questions TURN TO SECTION 2 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of multiple-choice questions. For some questions, you will need to consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage may be accompanied by one or more graphics—such as a chart, table, or graph—that you will need to refer to in order to best answer the question(s). Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage—it could be one word, a portion of a sentence, or the full sentence itself. Other questions will direct you to a particular paragraph or to certain sentences within a paragraph, or you’ll be asked to think about the passage as a whole. Each question number refers to the corresponding number in the passage. After reading each passage, select the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage follow the conventions of Standard Written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Select that option if you think the best choice is to leave that specific portion of the passage as it is.

Elizabeth Blackwell, the Doctor On January 23, 1849, in the town of Geneva, New York, Elizabeth Blackwell stepped onto the altar of the Presbyterian church and received her medical degree from the president of Geneva Medical College. 1 In doing so, she took her place in history. Blackwell had 2 denounced the expectations of most of her teachers and classmates to become the country’s first female doctor. As a young woman, Blackwell had worked as a school teacher, but she found herself unsatisfied. Once she realized that her dream was to be a doctor, she faced tremendous obstacles. There had never before been a

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

1 The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) Yes, because the historical importance of this event is irrelevant. (B) Yes, because Blackwell has already been introduced. (C) No, because it establishes the importance of Blackwell’s accomplishment. (D) No, because it tells us what Blackwell did to become famous. 2 (A) NO CHANGE (B) defied (C) incited (D) encountered


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educating a boy was considered 3 far more important than a girl. Blackwell’s education did not prepare her for the challenges of medical school, and she had to work hard just to catch up. 4 To make up for the gaps in her education, the household of a physician became her home for the next several years. There, she had access to educational resources and received some medical training. 5 As she prepared to apply to medical school, Blackwell sought advice from physicians in New York and Philadelphia. She found that they 6 doubted she would be admitted to medical school; at least one advisor went so far as to suggest that she might disguise herself as a man in order to gain admittance. 7 Their advisors were not far from wrong in their prediction. Blackwell applied to well over a dozen medical colleges, but she received admission to only one— Geneva Medical College.

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female physician in America. At the time,

3 (A) NO CHANGE (B) far more important than it was to a girl. (C) far more important than educating a girl. (D) far more important than opportunities for girls. 4 (A) NO CHANGE (B) A physician’s household, to make up for the gaps in her education, became her home for the next several years. (C) Her home for the next several years, to make up for the gaps in her education, became a physician’s household. (D) To make up for the gaps in her education, she arranged to live in the household of a physician for the next several years. 5 Which choice provides the most logical introduction to the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) After finishing medical school, (C) While attending university, (D) Before she applied to be a psychologist, 6 (A) NO CHANGE (B) debated (C) insisted (D) supposed 7 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Her (C) His (D) Your


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Passage 13-B

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become the first in a long line of obstacles for Blackwell. She discovered that her fellow 9 students all of whom were men had elected as a joke to admit her to the medical program and were astonished when she actually showed up at the college to enroll for classes. The students were embarrassed by her presence in lectures on topics—such as human anatomy— that they considered unsuitable for mixed company. Steadily, and with perseverance, Blackwell gained acceptance among the students and faculty. After she completed her degree, she continued 10 to face prejudice, biases against her because she was a woman, and outright barriers to her career. She was unable to establish the private practice she had hoped for. Nevertheless, Blackwell was successful, 11 but when she went to study at a hospital in Paris, she was assigned the same duties as young girls with no education at all.

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Gaining admission to the college 8 has

8 (A) NO CHANGE (B) becomes (C) became (D) will become 9 (A) NO CHANGE (B) students all, of whom, were men had (C) students all of whom, were men had (D) students, all of whom were men, had 10 (A) NO CHANGE (B) to face prejudice and outright barriers to her career (C) to face barriers, many of which included prejudice and bias against her (D) to face barriers that obstructed her career and included bias because she was a woman 11 Which choice most effectively maintains support for claims or points in the text? (A) NO CHANGE (B) but she is remembered for having been the first woman in America to receive a medical degree (C) and she had a distinguished career as a promoter of preventative medicine and as a champion of medical opportunities for women (D) but she lived an interesting life and had many opportunities to travel widely and meet new people


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Passage 14-A

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After the Constitution was drafted, it had to be ratified by at least nine of the thirteen the states. The following two passages illustrate the debate over ratification. Passage 1 is from a speech made on June 5, 1788 by Patrick Henry, the governor of Virginia, at the state’s convention, called specifically to ratify the Constitution. Passage 2 is from an essay written by James Madison, which first appeared in a New York newspaper on June 6, 1788, and later became part of what is now known as the Federalist Papers. Passage 1 If you make the citizens of this country agree to become the subjects of one great consolidated empire of Line America, your government will not have 5 sufficient energy to keep them together. Such a government is incompatible with the genius of republicanism. There will be no checks, no real balances, in this government. What can avail your 10 specious, imaginary balances, your ropedancing, chain-rattling ridiculous ideal checks and contrivances? But, sir, “we are not feared by foreigners; we do not make nations tremble.” Would this constitute 15 happiness or secure liberty? I trust, sir, our political hemisphere will ever direct their operations to the security of those objects. This Constitution is said to have 20 beautiful features; but when I come to examine these features, sir, they appear to me horribly frightful. Among other deformities, it has an awful squinting; it squints toward monarchy, and does 25 not this raise indignation in the breast of every true American? Your president may easily become king. Your Senate is so imperfectly constructed that your dearest rights may be sacrificed to what 30 may be a small minority; and a very small minority may continue for ever unchangeably this government, altho horridly defective. Where are your checks in this government? Your strongholds will 35 be in the hands of your enemies. It is on a

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING TWO PASSAGES.

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supposition that your American governors shall be honest that all the good qualities of this government are founded; but its defective and imperfect construction puts it in their power to perpetrate the worst of mischiefs should they be bad men; and, sir, would not all the world, blame our distracted folly in resting our rights upon the contingency of our rulers being good or bad? Show me that age and country where the rights and liberties of the people were placed on the sole chance of their rulers being good men without a consequent loss of liberty! I say that the loss of that dearest privilege has ever followed, with absolute certainty, every such mad attempt.

Passage 2 In order to lay a due foundation for that separate and distinct exercise of the 55 different powers of government, which to a certain extent is admitted on all hands to be essential to the preservation of liberty; it is evident that each department should have a will of its own; and 60 consequently should be so constituted that the members of each should have as little agency as possible in the appointment of the members of the others …. It is equally evident that the members of each 65 department should be as little dependent as possible on those of the others for the emoluments annexed to their offices. Were the executive magistrate, or the judges, not independent of the legislature 70 in this particular, their independence in every other would be merely nominal. But the great security against a gradual concentration of the several powers in the same department, consists in giving 75 to those who administer each department the necessary constitutional means and personal motives to resist encroachments of the others. The provision for defense must in this, as in all other cases, be made 80 commensurate to the danger of attack. Ambition must be made to counteract ambition. The interest of the man must be connected with the constitutional rights of the place. It may be a reflection on


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human nature, that such devices should be necessary to control the abuses of government. But what is government itself, but the greatest of all reflections on human nature? If men were angels, no government would be necessary. If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary. In framing a government which is to be administered by men over men, the great difficulty lies in this: you must first enable the government to control the governed; and in the next place oblige it to control itself. A dependence on the people is, no doubt, the primary control on the government; but experience has taught mankind the necessity of auxiliary precautions.

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Passage 14-A

12 Which of the following best represents the differences in point of view of the authors of the two passages? (A) Henry was concerned about the balance of power and Madison was concerned about concentration of wealth. (B) Henry worried about too much power in the hands of the government and Madison worried about too much power in any one branch of government. (C) Henry was focused on states’ rights and Madison was focused on adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution. (D) Henry was afraid of a return to monarchy and Madison was afraid of government corruption. 13 Which represents the best summary of Patrick Henry’s objection to the drafted Constitution? (A) Its structure is unstable and will lead to loss of liberty. (B) It leaves too much power in the hands of the people. (C) It does not centralize power enough. (D) It makes government dependent on people who are flawed.


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Passage 14-A

14 Examine the illustration that shows Patrick Henry delivering his most famous speech; the one in which he declared, “Give me liberty or give me death!” Choose the option that best explains how the artist’s portrayal applies to Henry’s speech about the Constitution. .....................................................................................

(A) The artist shows Henry as an important man with a message, surrounded by many people who react strongly his speech. Henry delivers his speech to the state Assembly as an important figure—governor of Virginia. (B) The artist shows Henry as a calm, persuasive speaker, using logic and reasoning to persuade his listeners. Henry uses order and reasoning in his speech about the Constitution. He asks his listeners logical questions to persuade them that he is right.

(C) The artist shows Henry standing on his feet making dramatic gestures and speaking with passion. In the speech about the Constitution, Henry uses dramatic phrases and figures of speech to try to persuade his listeners. (D) The artist shows Henry as an extremist so carried away by his own emotions that people think he’s a madman. This view contrasts sharply with Henry’s speech, in which he slowly builds his argument, appealing to the listener’s sense of patriotism.


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(A) Men are inherently flawed. (B) No one is perfect. (C) Government would ultimately be controlled by the people. (D) So long as the powers are separated, power will not be concentrated. 16 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 72–78 (“But the great … of the others.”) (B) Lines 81–82 (“Ambition must … counteract ambition.”) (C) Lines 89–90 (“If men were … would be necessary.”) (D) Lines 98–102 (“A dependence on … auxiliary precautions.”) 17 What do these two statements show about how their authors viewed human nature? Henry, lines 45–49: “Show me that age and country where the rights and liberties of the people were placed on the sole chance of their rulers being good men without a consequent loss of liberty!” Madison, lines 90–93: “If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary.” (A) Henry believed humans are naturally dishonest and self-interested and Madison believed that humans are basically honest and good, but not perfect. (B) Henry believed past rulers were generally good men who lost their way; Madison believed humans tend to be dishonest. (C) Henry didn’t trust ordinary men to be rulers and Madison believed all people could be trusted to rule. (D) Henry believed that government is unnecessary for a free people; Madison believed that government needs to be regulated.

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15 What was Madison’s strongest counterargument to those who were concerned about a strong central government?

18 Who is Patrick Henry quoting in lines 12–14 But, sir, “we are not feared by foreigners; we do not make nations tremble”? (A) An omniscient narrator (B) The framers of the Constitution (C) The general public (D) The people of Virginia 19 What kind of government does Henry think is best? (A) Monarchy (B) Republic (C) Autocracy (D) Plutocracy 20 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 3–4 (“one great … of America.”) (B) Line 7 (“the genius … republicanism.”) (C) Line 24 (“it squints … monarchy”) (D) Lines 26–27 (“Your president … become king.”) 21 As it is used in line 58, “department” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D)

an executive in the government. an office in the government. a level of government. a branch of government.

22 As used in line 80, “commensurate” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D)

proportional. provisional. dependent. relevant.


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Rachel Carson, Protector of the Environment Today we can hardly imagine a world without newspapers and magazines that express concern about the environment. 12 Carson, a former marine biologist for the Fish and Game Service, 13 ruffled the feathers of a ton of people who had a vested interest in maintaining the status quo where the environment was concerned. Her credibility as a scientist and her personal courage enabled Carson to withstand the criticism heaped on her during her lifetime.

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 14-B

12 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: But in 1962, when Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring was published, this was not the case. Should the writer do this? (A) Yes, because it provides the reader with an exact date. (B) Yes, because it establishes historical attitudes about the environment. (C) No, because it inserts irrelevant information about an unimportant book. (D) No, because it divides the paragraph’s focus between the book and Carson. 13 (A) NO CHANGE (B) aggravated a lot of folks (C) inflamed the outsized egos of those (D) disturbed many

The 10 most heavily pesticide active ingredients in 1968 included 5 insecticides and 5 herbicides (percentage total pounds active ingredient applied on 21 selected crops) 16% Atrazine (H)

13%

37%

Toxaphene (I) DDT (I) 2, 4-D (H) Methyl Parathion (I)

11%

Aldrin (I) Trifluralin (H) Propachlor (H) Dinoseb (H)

2% 2% 2% 2%

4%

4%

7%

Chloramben (I) Other a.i.

Note: H = herbicide, insecticide. Source: USDA, Economic Research Service using USDA, National Agricultural Statistics Service and proprietary data.


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did that was so 14 disturbing. She pointed out the dangers of 15 pesticides—DDT in particular—to the environment. DDT was designed to contain insect pests in gardens and on farmland after World War II. Most people considered it a “wonder chemical,” 16 and by 1968, they used DDT to cover approximately 11% of all farmland. Rachel Carson believed, however, that the pesticides were 17 dehydrating the soil and the rivers, and adhering to tree leaves and branches that were the home for birds and beneficial insects. She contended that the levels of chemical pesticides in plants, animals, and humans had already reached alarming levels. In her view, 18 they were so potent that they were able to penetrate systems and remain

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And what exactly was it that Rachel Carson

14 (A) NO CHANGE (B) disturbing? (C) disturbing! (D) disturbing: 15 (A) NO CHANGE (B) pesticides—DDT in particular to (C) pesticides DDT in particular, to (D) pesticides (DDT) in particular to 16 Which choice completes the sentence with accurate data based on the chart? (A) NO CHANGE (B) and in fact, by 1968, DDT accounted for 11% of all pesticides used. (C) as it was believed to contain approximately 11% of all garden pests. (D) though only about 11% of all farmers and gardeners actually used it. 17 (A) NO CHANGE (B) appropriating (C) transcending (D) permeating 18 (A) NO CHANGE (B) it was (C) the pesticides were (D) everything was


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Passage 14-B

88

improvements in general health and well-being. The furor caused by Carson’s writing was mostly felt by the chemical companies that produced pesticides. Not willing to 20 contradict the potential hazards of their products, they resisted by seeking to discredit Carson. And despite her credentials, Carson was discredited for a period of time. However, in 1970, with the establishment of the Environmental Protection Agency, the nation became more concerned with issues that Carson had raised. Since 2001, DDT has been banned for agricultural use worldwide except in small quantities and only as part of a plan to transition to safer alternatives. The only places in which DDT is still allowed are those countries in which it is being used to combat malaria. 21 Since malaria kills more than 800,000 people every year, most of the children in Sub-Saharan Africa, Carson has been blamed for “millions of deaths,” despite the studies that show that the pesticide can contribute to cancers, male infertility, miscarriages, developmental delay in children, and damage to the liver and nervous system. Were it not for those like Rachel Carson, 22 DDT would probably still be seen as “wonder chemicals,” and the only way to combat malaria. Though still controversial, she was a scientist of vision and determination who changed the course of history and brought environmental issues to the world’s attention.

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there for years, 19 giving way to possible

19 Which choice best completes the sentence and remains consistent with Carson’s argument about pesticides? (A) NO CHANGE (B) providing a definitive link between cancer and pesticides. (C) leading to an alarming decrease in local bird populations. (D) potentially leading to a breakdown in tissue and immune systems. 20 (A) NO CHANGE (B) acknowledge (C) propagate (D) solicit 21 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Although malaria kills 800,000 people every year, most of them children in Sub-Saharan Africa, Carson (C) Malaria kills 800,000 people every year, most of them children in SubSaharan Africa. Carson (D) Malaria kills 800,000 people every year, most of them children in SubSaharan Africa; however, Carson 22 (A) NO CHANGE (B) pesticides with DDT would probably still be seen as a “wonder chemical,” (C) DDT would probably still be seen as a “wonder chemical,” (D) DDT would probably still be seen as chemicals that are wondrous.


1 This article is excerpted from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Fisheries website (NOAA). The public agency provides science news and scientific findings related to the Earth and the Earth’s atmosphere. This article describes the finding of a tiny, rare shark. For the full passage, please visit www. nmfs.noaa.gov/stories. NOAA and Tulane researchers identify second possible specimen ever found. A very small and rare species of shark is swimming its way through scientific literature. But don’t worry, the chances of Line this inches-long vertebrate biting through 5 your swimsuit is extremely slim, because if you ever spotted one, you’d be the third person to ever do so.

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This species common name is the “pocket shark,” though those in the field of classifying animals refer to it by its scientific name Mollisquama sp., according to a new study published in the international journal of taxonomy Zootaxa. While it is small enough to, yes, fit in your pocket, it’s dubbed “pocket” because of the distinctive orifice above the pectoral fin—one of many physiological features scientists hope to better understand. “The pocket shark we found was only 5 and a half inches long, and was a recently born male,” said Mark Grace of NOAA Fisheries’ Pascagoula, Miss., Laboratory, lead author of the new study, who noted the shark displayed an unhealed umbilical scar. “Discovering him has us thinking about where mom and dad may be, and how they got to the Gulf. The only other known specimen was found very far away, off Peru, 36 years ago.”

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QUESTIONS 23–32 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL.

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Passage 15-A

89

35

40

45

50

55

60

65

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Interestingly, the specimen Grace discovered wasn’t found it the ocean, per se, but rather in the holdings of NOAA’s lab in Pascagoula. It was collected in the deep sea about 190 miles offshore Louisiana during a 2010 mission by the NOAA Ship Pisces to study sperm whale feeding. Grace, who was part of that mission after the rare shark was collected, and upon uncovering the sample at the lab years later, recruited Tulane University researchers Michael Doosey and Henry Bart, and NOAA Ocean Service genetics expert Gavin Naylor, to give the specimen an up-close examination. A tissue sample was collected, and by tapping into the robust specimen collection of Tulane University’s Biodiversity Research Institute, scientists were able to place the specimen into the genus Mollisquama. Further genetic analysis from Naylor indicates that pocket sharks are closely related to the kitefin and cookie cutter species, fellow members of the shark family Dalatiidae. Like other Dalatiidae shark species it is possible that pocket sharks when hungry may remove an oval plug of flesh from their prey (various marine mammals, large fishes, and squid). The specimen is part of the Royal D. Suttkus Fish Collection at Tulane University’s Biodiversity Research Institute in Belle Chasse, La., and it is hoped that further study of the specimen will lead to many new discoveries. Already, the specimen—when compared to the 1979 specimen taxonomic description—is found to have a series of glands along the abdomen not previously noted. Partners at the Smithsonian National Museum of Natural History in Washington, D.C., and American Natural History Museum in New York City have also contributed to the study of this shark. “This record of such an unusual and extremely rare fish is exciting, but it’s also an important reminder that we still have much to learn about the species that inhabit our oceans,” Grace added.


1 (A) Sometimes information can be lost for years but may be useful when found and shared. (B) Scientists conduct many different kinds of tests on animals to get information about them. (C) All scientific research is recorded in journals. (D) Scientists in different locations often share their findings. 24 Why were scientists surprised at finding the shark? (A) Scientists didn’t know about it before. (B) It was discovered by accident in a lab. (C) It was thought to be extinct. (D) Scientists thought it lived in colder waters. 25 Why was the finding reported in a journal of taxonomy? (A) Because scientists wanted to test the DNA of this shark (B) Because the scientific community was excited about a new species (C) Because the journal specializes in marine animals (D) Because scientists wanted to report such a rare species and how they classified it 26 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 25–26 (“the shark … umbilical scar.”) (B) Lines 50–56 (“scientists were … Dalatiidae.”) (C) Lines 66–67 (“the specimen … new discoveries.”) (D) Lines 68–72 (“Already, the … previously noted.”)

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23 What does the article illustrate about how scientific information is gathered?

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Passage 15-A

27 What information did scientists need to determine the species of the shark? (A) The length of the shark (B) The “pocket” feature that made it unique (C) Tissue samples to provide genetic information (D) Its position in the food chain 28 Based on the diagram above, where is the shark’s pocket located? (A) Above the pectoral fin (B) Between the eye and the pectoral fin (C) Above the eye on both sides of the shark (D) In the spiracle 29 Why were scientists excited about the find? (A) They expect to learn more about the habitat of the pocket shark. (B) They will be able to learn more about what they eat. (C) They can figure out how they are related to other sharks. (D) They expect to be able to discover many new things about sharks. 30 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 32–35 (“Interestingly … in Pascagoula”) (B) Lines 65–67 (“it is hoped that … new discoveries”) (C) Lines 52–55 (“Further genetic … cutter species”) (D) Lines 72–76 (“Partners at the … of this shark”)


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Credit: Dr. Mark Grace, Zootaxa 3948 (3): 587–600

(A) typical. (B) healthy. (C) varied. (D) distinguished. 32 As it is used in line 59, “plug” most nearly means (A) lump. (B) a protrusion. (C) obstruction. (D) scar.

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31 Based on its use in line 48, “robust” most nearly means

Passage 15-A


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Passage 15-B

92

A Mayan Worldview The ancient Mayans inhabited the area that now consists of 23 Mexico; Guatemala, Belize, Honduras; and El Salvador. Their rich civilization flourished from the third through the ninth centuries. 24 Among the many notable achievements of this society were the Mayan understanding of astronomy, which was manifest not only in Mayan science but in every aspect of the culture. Ancient Mayans kept meticulous records of the movements of 25 the Sun, Moon, the planets’ movement, and the stars that were visible to the naked eye. Based on the solar year, they created a calendar which they used to keep track of time. So 26 astute were the Mayans’ observations that they could predict such events as solar and lunar eclipses, and 27 the movement of the planets.

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QUESTIONS 23–33 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

23 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Mexico, Guatemala, Belize, Honduras, and El Salvador. (C) Mexico, Guatemala, Belize, Honduras; El Salvador. (D) Mexico; Guatemala; Belize; Honduras; El Salvador. 24 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Among the many notable achievements of this society are the Mayan understanding of astronomy, (C) Among the many notable achievements of this society is the Mayan understanding of astronomy, (D) Among the many notable achievements of this society was the Mayan understanding of astronomy, 25 (A) NO CHANGE (B) the Sun, Moon, planets, and the movement of the stars (C) the Sun, the Moon, the planets, and the stars (D) the Sun and Moon, the movement of the planets, and the stars 26 (A) NO CHANGE (B) inept (C) distinguished (D) profound 27 Which choice gives a supporting example that is most similar to the example already in the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) the migration of birds. (C) the direction of the winds. (D) the flow of the tides.


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Passage 15-B

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just a science; it was a combination of science, religion, and philosophy that found 28 it’s way into many aspects of their lives, including architecture. Mayan ceremonial buildings, for example, were exactly aligned with compass points, so that at the fall and spring equinoxes, light would flood the interior of the building. These buildings were designed and built as acts of worship to the 29 Mayan gods. Science, architecture, and religion, then, were all intricately and beautifully blended. Government, too, was 30 correspondingly linked with astronomy. The beginning and ending of the reigns of Mayan leaders appear to have been timed to coincide with astronomical events. Ancient Mayan artwork, carvings and murals show royalty wearing 31 symbols: relating to the sun, moon, and sky. The Mayans believed that the Sun and Moon were guided across the sky by benevolent gods, and that these gods needed human help to thwart the evil gods who wanted to stop them. Human intervention took the form of different rituals, including sacrifice. It was considered an honor to die for this cause, and those who were sacrificed were believed to have gained eternal life. The planet Venus, which can often be seen by the unaided eye, played a large role in Mayan life. The Mayans used the appearance of Venus in the sky as a means of timing when they attacked enemies. The night sky, among its other duties, could then serve as a 32 harvest calendar. 33 In short, the ancient Mayans, in looking to the night sky for guidance, discovered a natural order around which they were able to base a rich and textured civilization.

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For the ancient Mayans, astronomy was not

28 (A) NO CHANGE (B) its’ (C) its (D) its’s 29 Which choice most effectively combines the two sentences at the underlined portion? (A) Mayan gods: science (B) Mayan gods; science (C) Mayan gods, science (D) Mayan gods, but 30 (A) NO CHANGE (B) ostensibly (C) comparatively (D) inextricably 31 (A) NO CHANGE (B) symbols, relating to the sun, moon, and sky. (C) symbols relating to the sun, moon, and sky. (D) symbols; relating to the sun, moon, and sky. 32 Which choice provides information that best supports the focus of this paragraph? (A) NO CHANGE (B) reminder of the season (C) reference point for direction (D) call to war 33 (A) (B) (C) (D)

NO CHANGE However, Moreover, Incidentally,


1 Paul’s Case: A Study in Temperament It was Paul’s afternoon to appear before the faculty of the Pittsburgh High School to account for his various Line misdemeanors. He had been suspended 5 a week ago, and his father had called at the Principal’s office and confessed his perplexity about his son. Paul entered the faculty room suave and smiling. His clothes were a trifle outgrown, and the tan 10 velvet on the collar of his open overcoat was frayed and worn; but for all that there was something of the dandy in him, and he wore an opal pin in his neatly knotted black four-in-hand, and a red carnation in 15 his buttonhole. This latter adornment the faculty somehow felt was not properly significant of the contrite spirit befitting a boy under the ban of suspension. Paul was tall for his age and very 20 thin, with high, cramped shoulders and a narrow chest. His eyes were remarkable for a certain hysterical brilliancy, and he continually used them in a conscious, theatrical sort of way, peculiarly offensive 25 in a boy. The pupils were abnormally large, as though he was addicted to belladonna, but there was a glassy glitter about them which that drug does not produce. 30 When questioned by the Principal as to why he was there Paul stated, politely enough, that he wanted to come back to school. This was a lie, but Paul was quite accustomed to lying; found it, 35 indeed, indispensable for overcoming friction. His teachers were asked to state their respective charges against him, which they did with such a rancor and aggrievedness as evinced that this was not 40 a usual case. Disorder and impertinence were among the offenses named, yet each of his instructors felt that it was scarcely possible to put into words the cause of the trouble, which lay in a sort of 45 hysterically defiant manner of the boy’s; in the contempt which they all knew he felt for them, and which he seemingly made not the least effort to conceal. Once, when he had been making a synopsis 50 of a paragraph at the blackboard, his English teacher had stepped to his side and attempted to guide his hand. Paul had started back with a shudder and

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QUESTIONS 43–52

Passage R.1-A

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thrust his hands violently behind him. The astonished woman could scarcely have been more hurt and embarrassed had he struck at her. The insult was so involuntary and definitely personal as to be unforgettable. In one way and another he had made all of his teachers, men and women alike, conscious of the same feeling of physical aversion. In one class he habitually sat with his hand shading his eyes; in another he always looked out the window during the recitation; in another he made a running commentary on the lecture, with humorous intention. His teachers felt this afternoon that his whole attitude was symbolized by his shrug and his flippantly red carnation flower, and they fell upon him without mercy, his English teacher leading the pack. He stood through it smiling, his pale lips parted over his white teeth. (His lips were constantly twitching, and he had a habit of raising his eyebrows that was contemptuous and irritating to the last degree.) Older boys than Paul had broken down and shed tears under that baptism of fire, but his set smile did not once desert him, and his only sign of discomfort was the nervous trembling of the fingers that toyed with the buttons of his overcoat, and an occasional jerking of the other hand that held his hat. Paul was always smiling, always glancing about him, seeming to feel that people might be watching him and trying to detect something. This conscious expression, since it was as far as possible from boyish mirthfulness, was usually attributed to insolence or “smartness.”


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Passage R.1-A

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(A) It’s a character study. (B) It’s an account of a real-life character. (C) It’s a psychological story with a complicated plot. (D) It’s a story that emphasizes the setting. 44 What was the reason that Paul was asked to go to the principal’s office? (A) To explain to the teachers why he wanted to return to school (B) To explain to the faculty why he had been misbehaving (C) To explain to the principal why he was late for class (D) To explain to his parents why he had been suspended 45 Why did Paul wear a red carnation? (A) To show respect for the faculty regret (B) To show remorse (C) To make himself appear wealthy (D) To defy the faculty 46 We can infer from the passage that the feelings of Paul’s teachers toward him may be described as mostly (A) frustration and anger. (B) sadness and confusion. strong hatred (C) scorn and disdain. (D) hope and tenderness. 47 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 4–7 (“He had been … about his son.”) (B) Lines 15–18 (“This latter … ban of suspension.”) (C) Lines 36–40 (“His teachers … not a usual case.”) (D) Lines 59–62 (“In one way … physical aversion.”)

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43 Based on the passage, what is the best way to describe the story?

48 From whose perspective or viewpoint is the story told? (A) Paul (B) The narrator (C) A psychologist (D) The school principal 49 How does Cather show a connection between Paul’s feelings and his actions? (A) She describes how subtle signals reflect Paul’s mood or disposition. (B) She describes his reactions compared to how others would react in similar circumstances. (C) She gives details about his physical appearance and that of the teachers. (D) She provides details about his behavior and the way it is interpreted by others. 50 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 78–85 (“He stood … white teeth.”) (B) Lines 74–78 (“His lips were … last degree.”) (C) Lines 78–85 (“Older boys … his hat.”) (D) Lines 89–92 (“This conscious … or ‘smartness.’”) 51 Based on the passage, which meaning of the word “temperament” best fits the story? (A) (B) (C) (D)

Complexion Adjustment Mood Personality

52 As in line 12, “dandy” most nearly means someone who (A) (B) (C) (D)

is first-rate in his class. dresses with elegance and care. is carefree. without worries is brilliant.


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Passage R.1-B

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The Real World Our college employment counseling center recommended that students have mock interviews before setting out into the world for the real thing. 34 For reasons that I still don’t understand, I believed that this applied to other people but not to me. Midway 35 thorough my senior year of college, I sent out resumes to several law firms in the area. I didn’t consult with anybody about how to begin seeking a job. My plan was to work at a law firm for a couple of years before attending law school. I received a couple of responses and was thrilled to set up 36 our first interview, at a prestigious law firm that had offices all over the world. 37 It was exactly the type of environment in which I envisioned myself.

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QUESTIONS 34–44 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

34 Which choice provides the most logical introduction to the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Because I already had a job, (C) Now that I was ready, (D) Based on what they suggested, 35 (A) NO CHANGE (B) threw (C) though (D) through 36 (A) NO CHANGE (B) his (C) my (D) their 37 Which choice most effectively maintains the paragraph’s focus on relevant information and ideas? (A) NO CHANGE (B) I had heard from my aunt that my cousin once applied for a job there. (C) I had worked for other big companies, including a fast-food restaurant in high school. (D) Growing up, my next-door neighbor was a successful lawyer for a big law firm.


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Passage R.1-B

97

was a clerical job that, the interviewer made clear from the outset, would require long hours, late nights and a great deal of filing and photocopying. I confidently announced to the interviewer that I didn’t mind long hours and thankless assignments. 38 And then happily informed him that I wanted to work my way up and someday be his boss. I figured the surprised look on his face was because he wasn’t used to seeing young men as ambitious and 39 enigmatic as I was. I would have kept going, had he not suggested moving on to another topic. [1] I’m sorry to say that here I left nothing to the imagination. [2] I believed that my interviewer would value my stark honesty when I told him that my greatest 40 weakness’s included not getting along with other people very well and a tendency to make more enemies than friends. 41 [3] In the next phase of the interview, I was asked to list my strengths and weaknesses. [4] The interviewer raised his eyebrows but said nothing, and I was certain that he knew he’d found his candidate. [5] After all, 42 I could’ve cared less about getting along with other people and I figured I wouldn’t need to get along with people to photocopy and file, so I’d hit upon the perfect answer to a tricky question.

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The position for which I was interviewing

38 (A) NO CHANGE (B) After happily informing him that I wanted to work my way up and someday be his boss. (C) Which is why I happily informed him that I wanted to work my way up and someday be his boss. (D) Then I happily informed him that I wanted to work my way up and someday be his boss. 39 (A) NO CHANGE (B) articulate (C) conspicuous (D) incoherent 40 (A) NO CHANGE (B) weaknesses’ (C) weaknesses (D) weakness’ 41 For the sake of cohesion, sentence 3 of this paragraph should be placed (A) where it is now. (B) before sentence 1. (C) before sentence 2. (D) before sentence 5. 42 (A) NO CHANGE (B) I could have cared less (C) I could of cared less (D) I couldn’t have cared less


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Passage R.1-B

98

next several for which I interviewed at other firms. Eventually I paid a 44 deferred trip to the college job counseling office and got a few pointers on my technique. I am happy to say that while I never did end up going to law school, I have become a high school guidance counselor who specializes in helping students find internships in community businesses.

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43 I did not get offered that job, nor the

43 Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? (A) After being turned down for several jobs, the narrator eventually sought help for his interviewing technique and now helps students find internships. (B) Because the narrator was turned down for several jobs, he decided against becoming a lawyer and instead became a high school guidance counselor. (C) Because the narrator told the interviewer that he didn’t care about getting along with others, he was not offered the job. (D) The narrator eventually became a high school guidance counselor who specializes in helping his students find internships. 44 (A) NO CHANGE (B) belated (C) hastened (D) disparaged


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Passage 16-A

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SECTION 1: READING TEST 65 Minutes • 52 Questions TURN TO SECTION 1 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage (or pair of passages) below is followed by a number of multiple-choice questions. After reading each passage, select the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any supplementary material, such as a table, graph, chart, or photograph.

From his humble beginnings, Herbert Hoover made his fortune in the mining industry. He earned his reputation as a humanitarian and skilled administrator during and after World War I and later served as Secretary of Commerce under both Presidents Harding and Coolidge. In 1928, he was nominated for president by the Republican Party. The following is an excerpt from a speech he gave at the end of his campaign against the Democratic nominee, New York Governor Alfred E. Smith. During one hundred and fifty years we have builded up a form of self government and a social system which is Line peculiarly our own. It differs essentially 5 from all others in the world. It is the American system. … It is founded upon the conception that only through ordered liberty, freedom and equal opportunity to the individual will his initiative and 10 enterprise spur on the march of progress. And in our insistence upon equality of opportunity has our system advanced beyond all the world. During [World War I] we necessarily 15 turned to the government to solve every difficult economic problem. The government having absorbed every energy of our people for war, there was no other solution. For the preservation of 20 the state the Federal Government became a centralized despotism which undertook unprecedented responsibilities, assumed autocratic powers, and took over the business of citizens. To a large degree, we

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QUESTIONS 1–10 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL.

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regimented our whole people temporally into a socialistic state. However justified in war time, if continued in peace-time it would destroy not only our American system but with it our progress and freedom as well. When the war closed, the most vital of issues both in our own country and around the world was whether government should continue their wartime ownership and operation of many [instruments] of production and distribution. We were challenged with a … choice between the American system of rugged individualism and a European philosophy of diametrically opposed doctrines, doctrines of paternalism and state socialism. The acceptance of these ideas would have meant the destruction of self-government through centralization … [and] the undermining of the individual initiative and enterprise through which our people have grown to unparalleled greatness. … I would like to state to you the effect that … [an interference] of government in business would have upon our system of self-government and our economic system. That effect would reach to the daily life of every man and woman. It would impair the very basis of liberty and freedom. … Let us first see the effect on selfgovernment. When the Federal Government undertakes to go into commercial business it must at once set up the organization and administration of that business, and it immediately finds itself in a labyrinth. … Commercial


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Passage 16-A

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business requires a concentration of responsibility. Our government to succeed in business would need to become in effect a despotism. There at once begins the destruction of self-government …. Liberalism is a force truly of the spirit, a force proceeding from the deep realization that economic freedom cannot be sacrificed if political freedom is to be preserved. [An expansion of the government’s role in the business world] would cramp and cripple the mental and spiritual energies of our people. It would extinguish equality and opportunity. It would dry up the spirit of liberty and progress. … For a hundred and fifty years liberalism has found its true spirit in the American system, not in the European systems. I do not wish to be misunderstood. … I am defining general policy. … I have already stated that where the government is engaged in public works for purposes of flood control, of navigation, of irrigation, of scientific research or national defense … it will at times necessarily produce power or commodities as a by-product.

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Nor do I wish to be misinterpreted as believing that the United States is a freefor-all and devil-take-the-hindmost. The very essence of equality of opportunity and of American individualism is that there shall be no domination by any group or [monopoly] in this republic. … It is no system of laissez faire. … I have witnessed not only at home but abroad the many failures of government in business. I have seen its tyrannies, its injustices, its destructions of selfgovernment, its undermining of the very instincts which carry our people forward to progress. I have witnessed the lack of advance, the lowered standards of living, the depressed spirits of people working under such a system. … And what has been the result of the American system? Our country has become the land of opportunity to those born without inheritance, not merely because of the wealth of its resources and industry but because of this freedom of initiative and enterprise. Russia has natural resources equal to ours. … But she has not had the blessings of one hundred and fifty years of our form of government and our social system.

This map shows the electoral votes for each state in the presidential election of 1928, which Herbert Hoover won in a landslide.


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Passage 16-A

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(A) Socialism is justified during wartime, but not at other times. (B) Government cannot solve economic problems. (C) A strong government stifles individual liberty. (D) A democratic government is always superior to other governments. 2 Why did Hoover believe it was necessary to strengthen the federal government during wartime? (A) The United States was fighting despotism and therefore had to become despotic. (B) Only a socialistic government can function during wartime. (C) Most resources went toward the war effort, draining them for other uses in the economy. (D) Businesses acting by themselves could interfere with the war effort. 3 How does Hoover’s speech change in lines 83–110 (“I do not wish … under such a system.”)? (A) He changes his attitude. (B) He shows he wants to be understood. (C) He shows that his ideas are moderate. (D) He clarifies his position by providing details about his philosophy. 4 What is the most likely reason that Hoover includes lines 83–110 in his speech? (A) He wanted to appeal to more voters. (B) He wanted to preempt criticism. (C) He wanted to soften his position. (D) He wanted to provide context for his views.

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1 Based on the excerpt, which statement is true of Hoover’s ideas about government?

5 How did Hoover view European governments? (A) Tyrannical/despotic (B) Democratic/republican (C) Socialistic/paternalistic (D) Autocratic/monarchical 6 Based on the map, what is a landslide? (A) A popular vote (B) A close contest (C) A hard-won election (D) A decisive victory 7 Which of the following lines in the text explain how the U.S. changed course during WWI? (A) Lines 1–4 (“During one hundred … our own.”) (B) Lines 14–16 (“During [World War I] … economic problem.”) (C) Lines 53–54 (“That effect … and woman.”) (D) Lines 89–91 (“it will at times … a by-product.”) 8 How does Hoover indicate that he believes the American form of government is superior to others? (A) Lines 6–10 (“It is founded … of progress.”) (B) Lines 69–73 (“Liberalism is … be preserved.”) (C) Lines 99–100 (“It is no … laissez faire.”) (D) Lines 117–118 (“Our country … opportunity”) 9 As used in line 63, “labyrinth” most nearly means (A) maze. (B) cave. (C) bind. (D) landmine. 10 As used in line 25, “regimented” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D)

organized. militarized. bullied. established.


2

102

Passage 16-B

SECTION 2: WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST 35 Minutes • 44 Questions TURN TO SECTION 2 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of multiple-choice questions. For some questions, you will need to consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage may be accompanied by one or more graphics—such as a chart, table, or graph—that you will need to refer to in order to best answer the question(s). Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage—it could be one word, a portion of a sentence, or the full sentence itself. Other questions will direct you to a particular paragraph or to certain sentences within a paragraph, or you’ll be asked to think about the passage as a whole. Each question number refers to the corresponding number in the passage. After reading each passage, select the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage follow the conventions of Standard Written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Select that option if you think the best choice is to leave that specific portion of the passage as it is.

The Fight for African American Progress The struggle of African Americans to make economic and political progress within the socioeconomic structure of the United States has been long and filled with setbacks. The following passages document some of the events in that long struggle and seek to explain why it has been so difficult. The Economic Picture Slavery—which lasted until 1865—and inadequate education guaranteed that African Americans remained socioeconomically disadvantaged until well into the twentieth century. 1 Segregated schools were rarely on par with schools for whites; consequently, African Americans often found they could not compete with whites for jobs.

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL.

1 Which choice provides the most relevant detail? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Public schools afforded African Americans the opportunity to gain basic skills (C) Segregated schools remained an obstacle for equality (D) Public schools remained segregated until the Civil Rights Act in 1964


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followed in the wake of 2 the civil rights movement, African Americans were finally able to gain higher levels of education and achieve better positions in a variety of professions. In the 1980s, large numbers of African Americans moved into the upper middle class. Median Net Worth of Households, 2005 and 2009 in 2009 dollars 2009 Whites

$113,149

Hispanics

$6,325

Blacks

$5,677

2005 Whites Hispanics Blacks

$134,992 $18,359 $12,124

Source: Pew Research Center tabulation of Survey of Income and Program Particpation data PEW RESEARCH CENTER

3 However, by the 1990s, there was a noticeable gap between low-income African Americans and those who were able to improve their socioeconomic status. By 2010, the economic status of many African American households had declined, 4 with the median net worth in 2009 less than half of what it had been in 2005. Today, many low-income African Americans do not have a

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Increased opportunities for African Americans

2 (A) NO CHANGE (B) the civil rights movement and African Americans (C) the civil rights movement African Americans (D) the civil rights movement. African Americans 3 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Moreover, (C) To begin with, (D) Incidentally,

4 Which choice most effectively reflects information in the chart? (A) NO CHANGE (B) though the median net worth in 2009 was several times more than what it had been in 2005. (C) whereas the median net worth of white households grew by 50% from 2005 to 2009. (D) while the median net worth of white and Hispanic households grew modestly.


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and underlying racial prejudice, particularly in urban areas. 5 Too often, urban neighborhoods become a place of high crime, poor schools, and substandard housing. The Political Picture 6 Only, with the enforcement of the Reconstruction Act of 1867 and the ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment did African Americans first win seats in Congress. On February 25, 1870, Hiram Revels of Mississippi became the first African American Senator. Later that same year, Joseph Rainey of South Carolina became the first African American member of the House of Representatives. African Americans throughout the South became politically active soon after the close of the Civil War. A generation of African American leaders emerged, almost all of whom supported the Republican Party because 7 they had 8 discerned their rights. During the 1890s and early 1900s, however, no African American won election to

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place in the class structure because of poverty

5 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Too often, urban neighborhoods become places of high crime, poor schools, and substandard housing. (C) Too often, urban neighborhoods become a high-crime place with poor schools and substandard housing. (D) Too often, an urban neighborhood becomes places of high crime, poor schools, and substandard housing. 6 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Only with the enforcement of the Reconstruction Act of 1867, and the ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment, (C) Only with the enforcement of the Reconstruction Act of 1867 and the ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment (D) Only with the enforcement of the Reconstruction Act of 1867, and the ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment 7 (A) NO CHANGE (B) he (C) we (D) it 8 (A) NO CHANGE (B) evinced (C) championed (D) disputed


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state election codes in some southern states. During World War I and in the following decade, African Americans who migrated to northern cities created the foundations for political organization in urban centers. Over the next three decades, African Americans won congressional seats in New York City, Detroit, and Philadelphia. In the wake of the civil rights movement, African Americans regained seats in the South. 10 Since the 1930s, nearly all African American representatives have been Democrats. These members of Congress have traditionally served as advocates for all African Americans, not just their constituencies. During Reconstruction and the late nineteenth century, they worked to protect the voting rights of African Americans. They also called for expanded educational opportunities and land grants for freed slaves. In the midtwentieth century, they focused on urban communities and urged federal programs for improved housing and job training. 11 The Congressional Black Caucus demonstrated a special concern for the protection of civil rights, the guarantee of equal opportunity in education, employment, and housing, and a broad array of foreign and domestic policy issues.

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Congress, in part because of 9 restrictive

Passage 16-B

9 (A) NO CHANGE (B) conflicting (C) irrelevant (D) expansive 10 The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) No, because it provides relevant details about the main topic of the paragraph. (B) No, because it provides context for the following paragraph. (C) Yes, because it introduces a detail that is not directly related to the topic of the paragraph. (D) Yes, because it creates a transition to the next paragraph. 11 (A) NO CHANGE (B) The Congressional Black Caucus demonstrated a special concern for the protection of civil rights; the guarantee of equal opportunity in education, employment, and housing; and a broad array of foreign and domestic policy issues. (C) The Congressional Black Caucus demonstrated a special concern for the protection of civil rights—the guarantee of equal opportunity in education, employment, and housing—and a broad array of foreign and domestic policy issues. (D) The Congressional Black Caucus demonstrated a special concern for the protection of civil rights, the guarantee of equal opportunity in education; employment; and housing, and a broad array of foreign and domestic policy issues.


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Passage 1 is an excerpt from a letter written by Harriet Beecher Stowe, the abolitionist and author of the best-selling novel Uncle Tom’s Cabin (1852). The book describes the horrors of slavery and is said to have helped promote the abolitionists’ cause. The recipient of the letter, Mrs. Follen, a fellow abolitionist, was also a poet, editor, and novelist. Passage 2 is an excerpt from the memoir of Frederick Douglass, an active abolitionist who had escaped from slavery in 1838. After gaining his freedom, Douglass published Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, An American Slave, Written by Himself (1845). The passage describes how he planned his escape. Passage 1 Harriet Beecher Stowe, from a letter to Mrs. Follen (1853) I had two little curly-headed twin daughters to begin with, and my stock in this line was gradually increased, till I Line have been the mother of seven children, 5 the most beautiful and the most loved of whom lies buried near my Cincinnati residence. It was at his dying bed and at his grave that I learned what a poor slave mother may feel when her child is torn 10 away from her. In those depths of sorrow which seemed to me immeasurable, it was my only prayer to God that such anguish might not be suffered in vain. There were circumstances about his death of 15 such peculiar bitterness, of what seemed almost cruel suffering, that I felt that I could never be consoled for it unless this crushing of my own heart might enable me to work out some great good to 20 others …

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QUESTIONS 11–21 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING TWO PASSAGES AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL.

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I allude to this here because I have often felt that much that is in that book (“Uncle Tom”) had its root in the awful scenes and bitter sorrows of that summer. It has left now, I trust, no trace on my mind except a deep compassion for the sorrowful, especially for mothers who are separated from their children …. I am now writing a work which will contain, perhaps, an equal amount of matter with Uncle Tom’s Cabin. It will contain all the facts and documents upon which that story was founded, and an immense body of facts, reports of trial, legal documents, and testimony of people now living South, which will more than confirm every statement in Uncle Tom’s Cabin. I must confess that till I began the examination of facts in order to write this book, much as I thought I knew before, I had not begun to measure the depth of the abyss. The law records of courts and judicial proceedings are so incredible as to fill me with amazement whenever I think of them. It seems to me that the book cannot but be felt, and, coming upon the sensibility awaked by the other, do something. I suffer exquisitely in writing these things. It may be truly said that I suffer with my heart’s blood. Many times in writing Uncle Tom’s Cabin I thought my heart would fail utterly, but I prayed earnestly that God would help me till I got through, and still I am pressed beyond measure and above strength ….

Passage 2—Recollection of Frederick Douglass … It is impossible for me to describe my feelings as the time of my contemplated start grew near. I had a number of warm-hearted friends in 60 Baltimore,—friends that I loved almost as I did my life,—and the thought of being separated from them forever was painful beyond expression. It is my opinion that thousands would escape from slavery, 65 who now remain, but for the strong cords of affection that bind them to their


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friends. The thought of leaving my friends was decidedly the most painful thought with which I had to contend. The love of them was my tender point, and shook my decision more than all things else. Besides the pain of separation, the dread and apprehension of a failure exceeded what I had experienced at my first attempt. The appalling defeat I then sustained returned to torment me. I felt assured that, if I failed in this attempt, my case would be a hopeless one—it would seal my fate as a slave forever. I could not hope to get off with anything less than the severest

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punishment, and being placed beyond the means of escape. It required no very vivid imagination to depict the most frightful scenes through which I would have to pass, in case I failed. The wretchedness of slavery, and the blessedness of freedom, were perpetually before me. It was life and death with me. But I remained firm and according to my resolution, on the third day of September, 1838, I left my chains, and succeeded in reaching New York without the slightest interruption of any kind.

This map shows population and density of slaves in 1860. (Credit: Historical Map & Chart Collection, Office of Coast Survey, NOAA)

(A) Loss of close friends (B) Death in the family (C) Witness to cruelty of slavery (D) Permanent loss of loved ones

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11 What was the common thread of the experiences that stimulated the writing of Stowe and Douglass?

12 Why would Stowe be sympathetic to Douglass’ experience? (A) She was appalled at the idea of slavery. (B) She had lost a young child. (C) She knew freed slaves who told her their stories. (D) She had family members who had been enslaved.


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Passage 17-A

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(A) She wanted to earn her own money. (B) She wanted to document her own experience with slavery. (C) She wanted to show others why slavery should be abolished. (D) She wanted to express her concerns about freed slaves in the North. 14 Why did Stowe want to write another book after the success of Uncle Tom’s Cabin? (A) She wanted to show that her characters were real even though the work is a novel. (B) She wanted to confirm that Uncle Tom’s Cabin was based on the truth. (C) She needed to prove her point to sell more books. (D) She discovered that slavery was worse than she had thought. 15 What did Douglass think prevented more slaves from running away? (A) They wouldn’t be able to get jobs in the North and would be homeless. (B) They would get caught and severely punished. (C) They were too afraid of the difficult and dangerous journey. (D) They were afraid that they would never see their loved ones again. 16 Why might Douglass have given his narrative its title? (A) He was almost illiterate and liked the way it sounded. (B) He wanted people to know that he actually was the author. (C) He wanted to make sure no one else could take his identity. (D) He wanted to promote the abolitionist cause.

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13 What is the most likely reason that Stowe wrote Uncle Tom’s Cabin?

17 What do the passages suggest about the abolition movement in the mid-nineteenth century? (A) It was made up of people who opposed slavery based on reading about it. (B) There were many people writing to expose the evils of slavery in an effort to abolish it. (C) People in the North were angry that slavery was legal. (D) The conflict over slavery was heating up. 18 As used in line 48, “exquisitely” most nearly means (A) beautifully. (B) exhaustively. (C) delightfully. (D) intensely. 19 As used in line 69, “contend” most nearly means (A) struggle. (B) assert. (C) debate. (D) challenge. 20 What evidence suggests that Stowe’s abolitionist activism was a way to memorialize her lost child? (A) Lines 7–9 (“It was at … feel”) (B) Lines 16–20 (“that I felt … others”) (C) Lines 22–24 (“that book … summer”) (D) Lines 49–50 (“It may be … blood”) 21 Why does Stowe believe she needs to do research for her next book? (A) Lines 25–27 (“It has left … the sorrowful”) (B) Lines 40–42 (“much as I … the abyss.”) (C) Lines 42–43 (“The law records … so incredible”) (D) Lines 50–52 (“Many times … fail utterly”)


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Morocco has many rich musical traditions stemming from 12 their unique geographical conditions and a long history of intermingled cultures. For the past century, Morocco has attracted musicians and other artists from the west who wanted to learn from the country’s creative and hospitable people. For instance, Jimi Hendrix’s style of guitar playing was influenced by his travels to Marrakesh and Essaouira, where he discovered the rhythmic music of the Ganawa tribe. The Rolling Stones were fascinated with Morocco’s music and made several trips there to hear it. During one of the Stones’ stays, Brian Jones recorded an album of village folk music. 13 The Rolling Stones have also been influenced by such legendary African American musicians as Muddy Waters, Chuck Berry, and James Brown. Morocco is located on the northeastern corner of Africa, only a few miles from the southern tip of Spain across the Strait of Gibraltar. Mountain ranges from the “backbone” of the country, running from the northeast to the southwest. Fertile plains stretch from the northern side of these mountains to the Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic Ocean. 14 This area covered with farmland and several large cities and towns is the most prosperous part of the country. Although the mountains themselves are quite rugged and rocky, there is plenty of water to support fruit orchards and

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 17-B

12 (A) NO CHANGE (B) our (C) its (D) your 13 Which choice most effectively maintains the paragraph’s focus on relevant information and ideas? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Jazz musicians such as Pharaoh Sanders and Ornette Coleman have also made pilgrimages, in search of Morocco’s earthy, trance-inducing rhythms, and complex melodies. (C) The band once made a trip to Morocco in the late 1960s while waiting for the verdict on drug charges made against them in Great Britain. (D) Today, raj, a type of music from Algeria, is popular among young Moroccans for the way it mixes western rock with Jamaican reggae and Moroccan pop. 14 (A) NO CHANGE (B) This area covered with farmland and several large cities and towns, is the most prosperous part of the country. (C) This area, covered with farmland and several large cities and towns, is the most prosperous part of the country. (D) This area, covered with farmland and several large cities and towns is the most prosperous part of the country.


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Passage 17-B

110

side of the mountains is more arid, with rocky plateaus and several fertile river valleys descending gradually into the Sahara Desert. The river valleys are dotted with towns and villages that get smaller as the rivers dry up along the desert’s edge. Several nomadic tribes travel among the villages and desert oases. 15 Throughout the ages, the Berbers have been the largest ethnic group in Morocco. 16 There ancestors lived all along the North African coast until frequent invasions brought foreign rulers to many of the countries, including Morocco. However, invading Greeks, Romans, Vandals, and Turks found it all but impossible to control the Berbers who lived in the rugged and isolated mountain ranges. Despite ruling the country, foreigners could not conquer the stubborn Berber spirit. The Romans gave them their name, which eventually evolved into the term barbarian, although this is a 17 misnomer for such gracious and hospitable people. Beginning in the seventh century, Arab legions invaded Morocco on several occasions. These invasions began to affect the region not only politically, but religiously as well. Eventually the Berbers and most of the other 18 notorious tribes became Islamic and adopted some elements of Arabic culture, including classical Arabic music. The strongest Arabic musical influence is found in their lyrics, which often praise Allah or refer to the Qur’an.

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isolated villages of goatherds. The southern

15 Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? (A) Foreign invaders found it impossible to conquer the Berbers. (B) The Berbers have long been the largest ethnic group in Morocco. (C) Ancestors of the Berbers lived in rugged, isolated mountain ranges. (D) Berbers are hospitable people, despite the origins of their name. 16 (A) NO CHANGE (B) They’re (C) Theyre (D) Their 17 (A) NO CHANGE (B) euphemism (C) locution (D) reflection 18 (A) NO CHANGE (B) autonomous (C) indigenous (D) illustrious


2 Berbers were still able to maintain most of their own beliefs and traditions. Traditional Berber music was performed solo or in larger ensembles, sometimes accompanied by

dancers. Musicians could be found performing in the medina marketplaces in the older parts of towns. The musicians often got a performance started with improvisational banter, referring to one another and to people in the gathering crowd. Then they began to warm up their instruments as they continued jesting: 19 drum skins that had been heated over lanterns were thumped, someone played a few chords on a flute or a lute, some castanets clacked, or a few dance steps were stomped out. This buildup set the dramatic tone for the frenzied music about to be played; few more coins. Tribes of Saharan nomads, such as the Ganawa and the Tuareg, brought the music and musical traditions of West Africa to Morocco. 20 It traveled with the gold and salt caravans through Timbuktu and up to Marrakesh just across the Atlas Mountains. The most notable instruments were large, metal, double-castanets clapped between the fingers to make a galloping rhythm. Hand clapping, fast drumming, and harmonized chanting were also common elements of these southern Moroccan tribes.

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Despite these additional influences, the

it also encouraged the audience to toss out a

Passage 17-B

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19 (A) NO CHANGE (B) drummers thumped drum skins that had been heated over lanterns, someone played a few chords on a flute or a lute, some castanets clacked, or a few dance steps were stomped out. (C) drum skins that had been heated over lanterns were thumped, a few chords on a flute or a lute were played, some castanets were clacked, or dancers stomped out few dance steps. (D) drum skins that had been heated over lanterns were thumped, a few chords on a flute or a lute were played, some castanets were clacked, or a few dance steps were stomped out. 20 (A) NO CHANGE (B) They (C) This music (D) Everything


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influenced by the country’s northern neighbor, Spain. Arabs had lived in southern Spain for several centuries before they were driven out during the Spanish Inquisition. Arab musicians from the Spanish region of Andalusia brought a sophisticated and intricate style of music back to North Africa. Much of this Andalusian music was played on the oud, an Arabian lute with a pear-shaped body, three rounded sound holes, a short, fretless neck, and five pairs of strings. 21 Some researchers believe that Andalusian music found its way into the poetry of the troubadours. Andalusian music, with its distinctly western classic sound, had in fact influenced the troubadours who played in the medieval courts of Europe. A good deal of southern European folk music, such as Flamenco, was influenced by Andalusian music. Today many Moroccan musicians adeptly blend these various musical styles, perhaps playing an Andalusian melody over a Ganawa rhythm while chanting in praise of Allah. Their lively mixes are as naturally eclectic as the rest of Moroccan culture. A few musicians, such as Nouamane Lahlou, have taken practically the reverse path of Jimi Hendrix and Ornette Coleman, blending their Moroccan musical traditions with modern styles. 22 Yet the result is similar. They have created popular songs that have a more international appeal.

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Morocco’s musical traditions were additionally

Passage 17-B

21 Which choice gives a second supporting example that is most similar to the example that precedes it in the paragraph? (A) NO CHANGE (B) The rebec, a predecessor of the violin, was also an instrument in Andalusian musical traditions. (C) Today, there are two basic types of ouds: Arabic and Turkish. (D) Folk traditions of Andalusia were embedded in the music of the region. 22 Which choice most effectively combines the two sentences at the underlined portion? (A) similar; they (B) similar—they (C) similar: they (D) similar, they


1 The following passage is a news item published on May 4, 2015, from the Jet Propulsion Laboratory at the California Institute of Technology. The lab is part of NASA and is dedicated to the robotic exploration of space. Traffic Around Mars Gets Busy NASA has beefed up a process of traffic monitoring, communication, and maneuver planning to ensure that Mars Line orbiters do not approach each other too 5 closely. Last year’s addition of two new spacecraft orbiting Mars brought the census of active Mars orbiters to five, the most ever. NASA’s Mars Atmosphere and 10 Volatile Evolution (MAVEN) and India’s Mars Orbiter Mission joined the 2003 Mars Express from ESA (the European Space Agency) and two from NASA: the 2001 Mars Odyssey and the 2006 15 Mars Reconnaissance Orbiter (MRO). The newly enhanced collision-avoidance process also tracks the approximate location of NASA’s Mars Global Surveyor, a 1997 orbiter that is no longer 20 working. It’s not just the total number that matters, but also the types of orbits missions use for achieving their science goals. MAVEN, which reached Mars 25 on Sept. 21, 2014, studies the upper atmosphere. It flies an elongated orbit, sometimes farther from Mars than NASA’s other orbiters and sometimes closer to Mars, so it crosses altitudes 30 occupied by those orbiters. For safety, NASA also monitors positions of ESA’s and India’s orbiters, which both fly elongated orbits. …

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QUESTIONS 22–31 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL.

Passage 18-A

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Traffic management at Mars is much less complex than in Earth orbit, where more than 1,000 active orbiters plus additional pieces of inactive hardware add to hazards. As Mars exploration intensifies, though, and will continue to do so with future missions, precautions are increasing. The new process was established to manage this growth as new members are added to the Mars orbital community in years to come. All five active Mars orbiters use the communication and tracking services of NASA’s Deep Space Network, which is managed at JPL [Jet Propulsion Laboratory]. This brings trajectory information together, and engineers can run computer projections of future trajectories out to a few weeks ahead for comparisons. “It’s a monitoring function to anticipate when traffic will get heavy,” said Joseph Guinn, manager of JPL’s Mission Design and Navigation Section. “When two spacecraft are predicted to come too close to one another, we give people a heads-up in advance so the project teams can start coordinating about whether any maneuvers are needed.” The amount of uncertainty in the predicted location of a Mars orbiter a few days ahead is more than a mile (more than two kilometers). Calculating projections for weeks ahead multiplies the uncertainty to dozens of miles, or kilometers. In most cases when a collision cannot be ruled out from projections two weeks ahead, improved precision in the forecasting as the date gets closer will rule out a collision with no need for avoidance action. Mission teams for the relevant orbiters are notified in advance when projections indicate a collision is possible, even if the possibility will likely disappear in subsequent projections. This situation occurred on New Year’s weekend, 2015.


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Passage 18-A

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On Jan. 3, automated monitoring determined that two weeks later, MAVEN and MRO could come within about two miles (three kilometers) of each other, with large uncertainties remaining in the exact passing distance. Although that was a Saturday, automatic messages went out to the teams operating the orbiters. “In this case, before the timeline got short enough to need to plan an avoidance maneuver, the uncertainties shrank, and that ruled out the chance of the two spacecraft coming too near each other,” Guinn said. This is expected to be the usual pattern, with the advance warning kicking off higher-level monitoring and initial discussions about options. If preparations for an avoidance maneuver were called for, spacecraft commands would be written, tested, and approved for readiness, but such commands would not be sent to a

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spacecraft unless projections a day or two ahead showed probability of a hazardous conjunction. The amount of uncertainty about each spacecraft’s exact location varies, so the proximity considered unsafe also varies. For some situations, a dayahead projection of two craft coming within about 100 yards (100 meters) of each other could trigger a maneuver. The new formal collision-avoidance process for Mars is part of NASA’s Multi-Mission Automated Deep-Space Conjunction Assessment Process. A side benefit of it is that information about when two orbiters will be near each other—though safely apart—could be used for planning coordinated science observations. The pair could look at some part of Mars or its atmosphere from essentially the same point of view simultaneously with complementary instruments.

This graphic depicts the relative shapes and distances from Mars for five active orbiter missions plus the planet’s two natural satellites. It illustrates the potential for intersections of the spacecraft orbits.


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Passage 18-A

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(A) Gathering information from space requires careful and complex monitoring of spacecraft satellites. (B) The multiple satellites orbiting around Mars could collide even though they are not traveling in the same orbits. (C) Planning for space satellites around other planets takes skilled teamwork. (D) Monitoring traffic around the Earth is more complex than monitoring the traffic around Mars. 23 Which countries are involved in monitoring of the Mars satellites? (A) The United States, Russia, and India (B) Europe and the United States (C) India, Europe, and the United States (D) The United States, China, and Russia 24 According to information in the passage, what happened on New Year’s weekend 2015? (A) Data indicated that there could be a collision. (B) Data gave scientists new information about the orbit of the satellites. (C) The collision alert turned out to be a false alarm. (D) Two satellites almost collided. 25 Based on information given in the passage, which of the following career fields would the workers at the Jet Propulsion Lab most likely be qualified for? (A) Disaster preparedness planner (B) Meteorologist (C) Airplane pilot (D) Road construction worker 26 Which are the natural satellites of Mars? (A) (B) (C) (D)

MRO and Phobos Phobos an MAVEN Deimos and Odyssey Phobos and Deimos

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22 Which of the following is the best summary of passage?

27 Based on the graphic, which satellite is least likely to have collision problem? (A) Phobos, because it has a more elongated orbit (B) MOM, because its orbit extends farthest from Mars (C) Deimos, because it only intersects with one other satellite (D) MAVEN, because its path is controlled by NASA engineers 28 Which lines in the passage explain why scientists must constantly monitor the satellites’ orbits? (A) Lines 24–26 (“MAVEN, which … upper atmosphere”) (B) Lines 26–29 (“It flies … to Mars”) (C) Lines 35–36 (“Traffic management … Earth orbit”) (D) Lines 46–48 (“All five … Space Network”) 29 What evidence in the passage supports the idea that the distances between satellites are related to the degree of danger they pose? (A) Lines 75–78 (“Mission teams … is possible”) (B) Lines 83–85 (“MAVEN and … each other”) (C) Lines 106–109 (“The amount … also varies”) (D) Lines 113–116 (“The new formal … Assessment Process.”) 30 As used in line 106, “conjunction” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D)

connection between the satellites. divergence between orbits. linking of Mars and a satellite. alignment of two satellites.

31 As used in line 52, “projections” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D)

use of trajectory information. reference to future trajectories. comparisons to other trajectories. engineers can make comparisons.


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Heralded as “The Queen of Carbon,” Mildred Dresselhaus is a pioneer for women in science, especially physics and electrical engineering. 23 Born into a poor household in the Bronx, New York, Dresselhaus had 24 a stroke in luck when her brother won a scholarship to attend a music school in New York City. Dresselhaus soon joined him, and through music she became 25 cognizant of the fact that there were schools within the city that could offer her a better education. She secured a place at Hunter College High School—a school open only to girls. After high school, she attended Hunter College with the goal of becoming a teacher. 26 This was a common career path for women in this era. Fortunately, during her

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QUESTIONS 23–33 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 18-B

23 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: With all the honors Dresselhaus has received, she has never forgotten those who helped her, and she continues to help others pursue the field she loves. Should the writer make this addition here? (A) Yes, because it provides a detail to reinforce the passage’s main idea. (B) Yes, because it serves as an introduction to her childhood. (C) No, because it detracts from the main idea. (D) No, because it should be included later in the passage. 24 (A) NO CHANGE (B) stroke and luck (C) stroke of luck (D) stroke of lucky 25 (A) NO CHANGE (B) apprehensive (C) dismayed (D) astute 26 Which choice best supports the statement made in the previous sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Hunter College was established in 1870 and is located in New York City. (C) Dresselhaus later received her master’s degree from Radcliffe College. (D) By this point, she was not as interested in music.


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the celebrated Rosalyn Yalow—a woman who would eventually gain recognition for winning the Nobel Prize in Medicine. With 28 Yalows encouragement, Dresselhaus began to explore science and became passionate about physics. After seeing a notice on a bulletin board, Dresselhaus applied for a Fulbright Scholarship in physics, despite having already been accepted into a graduate program for math. To her delight, she won a scholarship. [1] The Fulbright Scholarship sent her to the Cavendish Laboratory in Cambridge, England. [2] In 1958, Dresselhaus received her Ph.D. in physics from the University of Chicago. 29 [3] There, only she had often been the woman in her classes. [4] Dresselhaus continued her research on the microwave properties of superconductors at Cornell University— after winning a two-year NSF post-doctoral fellowship. 30 [5] After Dresselhaus returned to the United States, her mentor Yalow persuaded her to continue her research. After her two years at Cornell, Dresselhaus accepted a position at MIT. She first worked as a researcher for Lincoln Laboratories and later as a visiting professor of electrical engineering and computer science. While at MIT, Dresselhaus shifted her research from semiconductors to the structure of semimetals, especially graphite.

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second year at Hunter, 27 Dresselhaus met

27 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Dresselhaus met Rosalyn Yalow—a woman who would eventually win the Nobel Prize in Medicine. (C) Dresselhaus met Rosalyn Yalow—a woman who would, a little later in her career, win one of the most prestigious awards in her field—the Nobel Prize in Medicine. (D) Dresselhaus met Rosalyn Yalow—a woman who would eventually, but later, win the Nobel Prize in Medicine. 28 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Yalows’ (C) Yalow (D) Yalow’s 29 (A) NO CHANGE (B) There, she had often been the only woman in her classes. (C) There, she had often only been the woman in her classes. (D) Only there, she had often been the woman in her classes. 30 For the sake of cohesion, sentence 5 of this paragraph should be placed (A) where it is now. (B) before sentence 1. (C) before sentence 2. (D) before sentence 3.


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condensed matter physics to engineering students, while continuing her research. Shortly thereafter, Dresselhaus began to achieve recognition for her work, recognition that has continued up to the present. She is celebrated as an 31 eminent scientist. In 2014, when President Obama awarded her the Medal of Freedom, he said, “Her influence is all around us, in the cars we drive, the energy we generate, the electronic devices that power our lives.” Although Dresselhaus is pleased to be recognized for her work in physics, perhaps her greatest enjoyment comes from her mentoring of numerous PhD 32 students— about 20 percent of them women. Despite her age, Dresselhaus’s 33 complacency with physics has not diminished. She says, “I am excited by my present research and am not yet anxious to stop working.”

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In 1968, she became a full professor, teaching

31 (A) NO CHANGE (B) immanent (C) imminent (D) emigrant 32 (A) NO CHANGE (B) students: about 20 percent of them women. (C) students; about 20 percent of them women. (D) students—about 20 percent of them: women. 33 (A) NO CHANGE (B) preoccupation (C) compulsion (D) fascination


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Potatoes were first cultivated in Peru by the Incas between 8000 and 5000 BCE. Today, potatoes make up the fourth largest food crop in the world. In a ground-breaking agreement between the International Potato Center (known by its Spanish acronym CIP), the nonprofit organization ANDES, and the Association of the Potato Park communities, scientists are helping Peruvian farmers test and monitor many varieties of potatoes. One of their goals is to ensure continued diversity in potatoes—an action that could prevent disasters such as the Irish Potato Famine. As world leaders gather in Lima to negotiate a new global climate deal at the UN Climate conference, this innovative, Line inclusive work shows the importance 5 of new kinds of partnerships between scientists and farmers for adaptation to climate change. In the Peruvian highlands near Cusco, climate change has already impacted 10 farmers in a fundamental way. Rising temperatures are correlated with increased pests and diseases, making it difficult to grow potatoes, their staple food. The effects of these temperature 15 changes are very pronounced in the Potato Park, a valley outside of Cusco, where just 30 years ago, cultivation of native potato was routinely done at 3,800 meters. 20

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Now, native potato cultivation starts at around 4,000 meters. In just 30 years, challenges associated with a warming climate have pushed potato cultivation up by 200 meters. The speed of this change in planting zones due to a warming climate is unprecedented as it is pushing the farmers to the top of the mountain, beyond which there is no more soil or land.

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QUESTIONS 32–42 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

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In addition to moving to higher elevation for potato cultivation, Quechua farmers in the Potato Park are also responding to this challenge by stewarding over 1,440 cultivars of native potato. These include their own varieties plus cultivars that different entities have provided to the Park, 410 of which have come from CIP. The five communities that make up the Potato Park are also working with CIP scientists in the characterization of potato diversity, monitoring changes in potato varieties used over time and testing of varieties in different parts of the landscape, a combined territory of over 9,000 hectares. Planting a diversity of potatoes provides a vital safeguard against crop failure–if disaster strikes, the farmers will always have food. This strategy to reduce risk comes from their ancestors. The agreement with CIP has brought back varieties which had been collected from the communities in the 1960s but had since been lost. The resulting landscape-based gene bank is actively managed by the five Potato Park communities. It provides a critical source of climateresilient crops for adaptation, both locally and globally. Although gene banks conserve many food crops, they cannot safeguard them all, and their collections are no longer evolving in response to climatic changes or accessible to farmers. Alejandro Argumedo, Director of Programs of the Peruvian NGO ANDES explained: “The landmark agreement between CIP and the Potato Park for repatriation and monitoring of native potatoes represents a fundamental shift in approach. Rather than only collecting


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32 What is the relationship between plant diversity and climate change? (A) Plant diversity can provide some protection from crop failure due to climate change. (B) Increasing plant diversity with ancient varieties of potatoes may be more resilient to the higher temperatures associated with climate change. (C) Some varieties of potatoes are more adaptable to climate change than others. (D) The potato gene bank tries to ensure plant diversity by saving seeds of all varieties from extinction.

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crops from farmers, scientists have also given farmers crops from their gene bank in return. The disease-free seeds and scientific knowledge gained have boosted food security, and the new varieties have enhanced income, enabling the communities to develop novel food products.” Head of the CIP Genetic ResourcesGenebank David Ellis said: “Through the agreement, first signed in 2004, CIP is increasing its understanding of how climate change is affecting potato diversity and agro-ecosystems, and through collaborative and mutually beneficial research with the farmers, it has continued to enhance knowledge, adaptation to climate change and capacity development for sustaining potato production and traditional knowledge. In Asia and Africa, hardy local landraces and livestock breeds are also proving a vital resource in the struggle to cope with more extreme weather such as droughts. Krystyna Swiderska, Principal Researcher at IIED [International Institute for Environment and Development] said: “From China to Kenya, farmers have improved both resilience and productivity by crossing resilient landraces with highyielding modern varieties.”

33 How are potato farmers trying to combat climate change? (A) They will be attending the UN summit on climate change. (B) They are forming new partnerships with scientists. (C) They are planting more diverse seeds and plants. (D) They are experimenting with a different kind of staple food. 34 What kind of climate is best suited for potatoes? (A) Tropical (B) Cool (C) Warm (D) Cold 35 How does plant diversity help reduce crop failure? (A) If one variety of plant fails, there are likely to be others that succeed. (B) Different communities of farmers can share their seeds to make sure at least some seeds germinate. (C) Some plants act as guards against others because they are more resistant to insects. (D) Different kinds of plants enable scientists to experiment with plants and save them in gene banks.


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(A) New farming techniques are helping Peruvian farmers adapt to a changing climate. (B) Peruvian farmers are part of an international group trying to fight the effects of climate change. (C) Ancestral growing techniques combined with new scientific methods are proving to be useful in combating the effects of climate change on Peruvian farmers. (D) Extreme weather conditions are proving difficult challenges for farmers all over the world. 37 What are the implications of climate change on world hunger? (A) It won’t be affected. (B) It may enable the development of new crops to feed the world. (C) With the right scientific intervention, it could alleviate hunger. (D) It may get worse. 38 Why would the Peruvian farmers want other nations to advocate for the UN summit to take steps to mandate that countries act to alleviate climate change? (A) Peru is a small country and doesn’t have much power. (B) Climate change is directly affecting their livelihoods and their ability to feed their population. (C) Peru won’t be attending the conference. (D) Because of its high altitude, climate change has a larger impact on Peruvian farmers.

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36 Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

39 What evidence in the passage illustrates the effects of climate change in Peru? (A) Lines 10–13 (“Rising temperatures … staple food”) (B) Lines 45–47 (“Planting a … crop failure”). (C) Lines 59–63 (“Although gene … climatic changes”) (D) Lines 85–86 (“CIP is … the farmers”) 40 What evidence does the text provide to show that potatoes were eaten by people thousands of years ago? (A) Lines 33–35 (“These include … the Park”) (B) Lines 38–41 (“Potato Park … over time”) (C) Lines 48–49 (“This strategy …their ancestors”) (D) Lines 50–53 (“The agreement … been lost”) 41 As used in line 32, “stewarding” most nearly means (A) managing. (B) controlling. (C) regulating. (D) developing. 42 As used in line 15, “pronounced” most nearly means (A) articulated. (B) official. (C) well-known. (D) noticeable.


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Sense of Smell Smell is considered to be the most delicate of our five senses. It has many practical functions—allowing us, for example, to determine whether food has gone bad or to detect smoke when something is burning. 34 Scent is integral to warning us of danger; our noses are powerful tools for recognizing familiar people and places or recalling old memories: smells can remind us of our aunt’s cooking or our second-grade classroom, just as an infant identifies the individual scents of its mother and father. Smell also factors into romance, which is why the perfume industry labors to extract and mix pleasureprovoking aromas. 35 The nose will even play a complementary role in tasting: if you plug your nose while eating, you will find that your food seems to lose some of its taste. It is certainly true that we can perceive much more subtle olfactory variations than visual or auditory ones. Despite all of these known applications, our knowledge of just how the nose knows 36 is less than the knowledge of our other senses. First of all, it’s often difficult to describe how something smells. It’s relatively easy to identify a D major chord or paint a verbal picture of something that is silvery-blue, but the fragrance of a rose is more 37 concordant. The scent of one rose might be “flowery and sweet, with a touch of citrus,”

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QUESTIONS 34–44 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

34 Which choice most effectively sets up the examples given at the end of the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Dogs have a stronger sense of smell; (C) It also offers emotional functions; (D) Other senses are more acute than smell; 35 (A) NO CHANGE (B) The nose even plays a complementary role in tasting: (C) The nose even played a complementary role in tasting: (D) The nose has played a complementary role in tasting: 36 (A) NO CHANGE (B) is less than our other senses. (C) is less than that of how our other senses operate. (D) is less than how our other senses operate. 37 (A) NO CHANGE (B) distinct (C) ineffable (D) elusive


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honey and freshly-cut grass.” 38 Therefore, scents have been classified by scientists into 10 groups, each of which is characterized by its volatile compounds. Sights and sounds are measured in terms of their wavelengths, 39 allowing us to perceive shades of color and decibels of sounds, which can be assessed with scientific instruments. Scent molecules are not as easy to quantify. 40 We know that molecules up to a certain mass have scents, but there are conflicting theories as to what determines their smell and how the nose records and transmits this information to the brain. Until recently, most experts believed us able to recognize a certain smell based on a molecule’s shape. Such a theory asserts that when a scent molecule of a certain shape enters the nose and touches a receptor, like a key, it unlocks and triggers a particular smell, which is then sent to the brain. Likewise, a variety of different scent molecules can open a combination of locks, sending a mixture of scent signals to the brain (“smells like this spaghetti sauce has basil and garlic in it”). This “lock-and-key” theory does hold true for the shape and smell of many molecules. For instance, most molecules that contain an amine group will have a fishy smell. There are, however, many instances of similarly shaped molecules with different smells, and vice versa. For example, two differently

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while that of another might be more “like

Passage 19-B

38 Which choice most effectively maintains support for claims or points in the text? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Even those employed in the perfume and food industries often have trouble agreeing on how to describe and categorize particular scents. (C) Yet many studies of scents attempt to classify new and interesting fragrance mediums. (D) Even wine aromas have been assigned to twelve different categories, each represented by a section of a wine aroma wheel. 39 The writer is considering deleting the underlined part of the sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) No, because it provides scientific details about the measurement of two of the senses. (B) No, because it provides comparative data about perception. (C) Yes, because it should be placed later in the passage. (D) Yes, because it adds irrelevant details. 40 (A) NO CHANGE (B) We know that molecules up to a certain mass have scents because there are (C) Since we know that molecules up to a certain mass have scents, there are (D) We know that molecules up to a certain mass have scents, and there are


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rotten eggs if they both contain sulfur. Luca Turin, a biophysicist and perfume enthusiast, questioned these discrepancies and resolved to form a new theory of his own. Turin has performed many experiments that 42 thwart the lock-and-key theory. He believes that out of literally millions of different smells, there are too many cases in which the shape does not determine the smell. He once demonstrated this assertion by comparing a hydrocarbon called camphane (the main component of camphor, sometimes used in cold medicines) with decaborane. Decaborane resembles camphane structurally, except that it has boron atoms where camphane has carbon atoms. According to the lock-and-key theory, both compounds should smell like camphor. However, the decaborane instead smells like rotten eggs (which is surprising, as it contains no sulfur). This example proves that molecular shape is not always the determining factor of smell.

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shaped compounds will still 41 stink like

41 (A) NO CHANGE (B) smell like rotten eggs (C) emit a disgusting odor like rotten eggs (D) have a nasty smell like rotten eggs 42 (A) NO CHANGE (B) sanction (C) instigate (D) refute


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factor—Turin theorizes that the vibration of a molecule’s atoms provides its signature smell. 44 The number of atoms and electrons connected within a molecule determine that molecule’s particular vibration. The result of these minute shakes and quivers can be recorded as a particular frequency. The receptors in the nose, therefore, actually record the vibration of the molecules and transmit that information to the brain as a scent. This theory puts smell in the same category as sight and sound. Colors can be measured along a spectrum of light according to their wavelengths; tones can be measured along a spectrum of octaves according to their wavelengths. Turin claims that the same types of measurements can be taken with smells. Although the frequencies of scents are much more complicated to measure, measuring them is exactly what Turin has set out to do.

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Then what exactly is the determining 43

43 (A) NO CHANGE (B) factor? (C) factor. (D) factor! 44 (A) NO CHANGE (B) The number of atoms and electrons within a molecule determines (C) The number of atoms and electrons within a molecule have determined (D) The number of atoms and electrons within a molecule will have determined


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SECTION 1: READING TEST 65 Minutes • 52 Questions TURN TO SECTION 1 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage (or pair of passages) below is followed by a number of multiple-choice questions. After reading each passage, select the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any supplementary material, such as a table, graph, chart, or photograph.

Snail-Sniffing Dogs in the Galapagos The Galapagos Islands, which belong to Ecuador, are located approximately 906 km (563 mi.) west of the mainland. Because of their isolation, these volcanic islands are home to a variety of unique species, such as gigantic land tortoises and marine iguanas. As more people have visited and settled on the islands, however, it has become increasingly difficult to protect the native plants and animals. The following text has been adapted from “Ecosystem Restoration: Invasive Snail Detection Dogs,” which was originally published by Galapagos Conservancy (www.galapagos.org). Galapagos Conservancy is a conservation group that collaborates with scientists worldwide to ensure protection of the Galapagos Islands. (For the complete article, see http://galapagos. org/conservation.) In Galapagos, native species are threatened by introduced, invasive species such as goats, rats, pigs, and cats, Line among many others. While much has 5 been accomplished in the management of existing invasive species, the islands are constantly at risk of new unwanted species arriving each day. The Giant African Land Snail (GALS)—the largest 10 species of snail found on land, growing to nearly 8 inches in length—is one such new invasive that has taken up residence in Galapagos. Known to consume at least 500 different types of plants, scientists 15 consider the GALS to be one of the most destructive snail species in the world. It

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

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now poses a serious threat to the native snails and plants of Galapagos. Invasive Giant African Land Snails were first detected on Santa Cruz Island in 2010, and currently less than 20 hectares (50 acres) are infested—but the snails are expanding their range every wet season. Experience has shown that once an invasive species becomes established, it is almost impossible to remove. At this point in time, it is still possible to eradicate the GALS from Galapagos if additional management techniques are integrated into current activities. Previously, staff from the Galapagos Agency for the Regulation and Control of Biosecurity and Quarantine (ABG) had to search for and collect GALS on rainy nights using headlamps—an extremely challenging and unsustainable solution to the permanent eradication of the snails. Dogs, on the other hand, have an incredible sense of smell and can be trained to detect scents imperceptible to the human nose, making them ideal for the detection of the GALS. Detection dogs have been used for finding contraband drugs and shark fins in Galapagos, but not for other purposes. This project entails utilizing two scent detection dogs to detect GALS in order to help clear currently affected areas and search for previously undetected populations in the islands. During the first phase of the project, which took place in the fall of 2014, two detection dogs were trained by Dogs for Conservation (DFC) in the United States to specifically detect GALS. Darwin, a


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golden Labrador retriever, was rescued after he was unable to successfully complete a service dog training program, and Neville, a black Labrador retriever, was saved from a shelter. Darwin and Neville were selected for this project based on their detection abilities and temperament for working with multiple handlers, in preparation for work with new handlers in Galapagos. In December of 2014, the dogs were brought to Galapagos where six ABG staff were trained as handlers for this and future detection projects. Many had never worked with dogs before and had to learn the basics of canine behavior, learning theory, scent theory, training methods, and handling skills. New kennels were built by ABG personnel with materials funded through this project in order to house the dogs. Both dogs required a period of acclimation to Galapagos and to their new roles. The dogs could only be trained on dead snails in the U.S. due to biosecurity risks for this highly invasive species, so additional training was needed upon their arrival in Galapagos to transition them to live snails and snail eggs. Darwin and Neville have now been fully trained to detect the invasive snails, and the dogs will be regularly assisting with GALS eradication and monitoring on Santa Cruz. DFC continues to provide guidance and support to the GALS K9 team, with whom they are in weekly communication. Future updates to the project will be posted â€Ś as they occur. This project is also serving as a pilot to establish a permanent canine detection program in the Galapagos. Expertly trained dogs and experienced handlers will be a highly cost-effective detection tool for ongoing biosecurity programs aimed at eliminating targeted invasive species that threaten the unique and fragile ecosystems of Galapagos.

Passage 20-A

1 What is the purpose of this article? (A) To bring tourists to the Galapagos (B) To raise money for the organization (C) To inform the public about the problems of invasive species (D) To persuade people that it is important to keep species of animals and plants from becoming extinct 2 Which statement best represents the main idea of the passage? (A) Dogs can help reduce invasive species in the Galapagos. (B) Dogs can be trained to hunt for snails. (C) Galapagos ecosystems include unique species. (D) Organizations are working together to rid the Galapagos of invasive species. 3 Why do the Galapagos have a unique ecosystem? (A) Islands can only support certain kinds of species. (B) There were no mammals there until humans brought them. (C) Only certain types of animals and plants can live there because of the climate. (D) It was isolated for a long time, so humans did not interfere with the native species. 4 Which best describes the threat of GALS to the Galapagos islands? (A) Their growth patterns (B) Their eating habits (C) Their ability to hide from detection (D) Their ability to survive in hot climates


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(A) They brought trained dogs to the islands. (B) They added to the wealth and attractiveness of the islands. (C) They introduced nonnative species to the islands. (D) They made others aware of the native species on the islands. 6 What evidence does the passage provide to explain the difficulty of maintaining the ecosystems in the Galapagos? (A) Lines 13–16 (“Known to … the world”) (B) Lines 24–26 (“Experience has … to remove”) (C) Lines 31–38 (“Previously, staff … the snails”) (D) Lines 79–81 (“The dogs … biosecurity risks”) 7 What information from the text answers the question of how dogs contribute to biosecurity in the Galapagos? (A) Lines 38–41 (“Dogs, on … human nose”) (B) Lines 52–55 (“Two detection … detect GALS”) (C) Lines 79–81 (“The dogs … invasive species”) (D) Lines 97–101 (“Expertly trained … invasive species”)

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5 How have people increased the fragility of the ecosystems in Galapagos?

Passage 20-A

8 Why did the scientists decide to try using dogs to find the GALS? (A) They are friendly animals that are easy to train. (B) They can also be trained to find illicit drugs. (C) They can smell things that humans can’t. (D) They didn’t require special training for the handlers. 9 As used in lines 80–100, “biosecurity” most nearly means (A) safe handling of animals. (B) safety from dangerous animals and plants. (C) protection to keep wildlife from extinction. (D) protection of an ecosystem from invasive species. 10 As used in line 78, “acclimation” is best defined as (A) adjusting to changes in the environment. (B) conforming to one’s surroundings. (C) adaptation of a species. (D) modification of behavior. 11 Why are dogs considered an invasive species to the Galapagos? (A) The dogs’ sense of smell helps them find native species and use them for food. (B) The dogs there required time to get acclimated to the environment. (C) The dogs did not inhabit the Galapagos until brought there by humans. (D) The dogs once thrived on the Galapagos, but they had depleted their limited food sources.


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SECTION 2: WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST 35 Minutes • 44 Questions TURN TO SECTION 2 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of multiple-choice questions. For some questions, you will need to consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage may be accompanied by one or more graphics—such as a chart, table, or graph—that you will need to refer to in order to best answer the question(s). Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage—it could be one word, a portion of a sentence, or the full sentence itself. Other questions will direct you to a particular paragraph or to certain sentences within a paragraph, or you’ll be asked to think about the passage as a whole. Each question number refers to the corresponding number in the passage. After reading each passage, select the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage follow the conventions of Standard Written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Select that option if you think the best choice is to leave that specific portion of the passage as it is.

The Glass Ceiling “The Glass Ceiling” is a metaphor that refers to the imperceptible and subversive forms of discrimination women in the workforce encounter when pursuing upper-level management positions. A popular phrase in the 1980s, it has become less widely used over the ensuing years. 1 Other phrases from past decades are still in frequent use. However, as recent data makes clear, “The Glass Ceiling” remains a solid barrier to women working in 2 America!

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QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

1 The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? (A) No, because it provides a detail that supports the main topic of the paragraph. (B) No, because it acts as a transition to the next paragraph. (C) Yes, because it repeats information that has been provided. (D) Yes, because it is a detail that is irrelevant to the main topic of the paragraph. 2 (A) NO CHANGE (B) America. (C) America? (D) America...


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of Labor Statistics and the Pew Research Center, women make up 57.2% of the nation’s workforce 3 but hold 5 percent only of CEO positions in Fortune 500 companies. Women also account for only 17% of board membership at Fortune 500 companies. While these percentages note a minimal increase in female leadership over the 4 passed thirty years, barriers still seem to exist. 5 In 1995, a bipartisan Federal Glass Ceiling Commission was formed; to determine the root of gender discrimination within corporate America. The committee, headed by Secretary of Labor Robert Reich, noted that “At the highest levels of corporations the promise of reward for preparation and pursuit of excellence is not equally available to members of all groups.” Two barriers that contributed most to “The Glass Ceiling” 6 effect were “supply barriers” and “internal business barriers.”

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According to data from the U.S. Bureau

3 (A) NO CHANGE (B) but hold only 5 percent of CEO positions in Fortune 500 companies (C) but hold 5 percent of only CEO positions in Fortune 500 companies (D) but hold 5 percent of CEO positions only in Fortune 500 companies 4 (A) NO CHANGE (B) passing (C) passive (D) past 5 (A) NO CHANGE (B) In 1995, a bipartisan Federal Glass Ceiling Commission, was formed to determine the root of gender discrimination within corporate America (C) In 1995, a bipartisan Federal Glass Ceiling Commission was formed to determine the root of gender discrimination within corporate America (D) In 1995 a bipartisan Federal Glass Ceiling Commission was formed to determine the root of gender discrimination; within corporate America. 6 (A) NO CHANGE (B) affect (C) effective (D) affection


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leadership, education, and experience women are given access to during high school and college. Corporations have viewed this lack of access as an educational reform issue, not a business issue, and 7 they do not think it’s their responsibility to fix it. However, corporations are equipped with both financial and educational resources to overcome this “supply barrier.” If corporations are serious about ending discrimination in the workplace, they need to invest in educational programs that train women to be future leaders. This includes creating more mentoring programs and school-to-work initiatives and providing more educational scholarships. 8 9 The difference between what corporate executives say they want to do. In regard to discrimination, and efforts being made (or not made) to end discriminatory practices is another issue. Talking the talk and not walking the walk is what the “internal business barrier” is all about. The reason for this discrepancy is that many white males working in the highly competitive corporate America believe they are “losing the corporate game, losing control, and losing opportunity.” In essence, white men in corporate leadership feel threatened by including women in their ranks.

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“Supply barriers” represent the lack of

7 Which choice provides information that best supports the claim made by this sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) they are working to provide more education. (C) they have not worked to eliminate these supply barriers. (D) they have noticed other barriers as well. 8 Which statement from this paragraph best supports the answer to the previous question? (A) “Supply barriers” represent the lack of leadership, education, and experience women are given access to during high school and college. (B) Traditionally, corporations have viewed this lack of access as an educational reform issue, not a business issue. (C) However, corporations are equipped with both financial and educational resources to overcome this “supply barrier.” (D) This includes creating more mentoring programs and school-towork initiatives, and providing more educational scholarships. 9 (A) NO CHANGE (B) The difference between what corporate executives say they want to do; in regard to discrimination, and (C) The difference between what corporate executives say they want to do and in regard to discrimination (D) The difference between what corporate executives say they want to do in regard to discrimination and


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in the workforce is an involved, complicated process. While many efforts have been made to prevent overt discriminatory practices, 65% of women still see gender bias as a barrier they have to overcome. 11 Until women can be as equals accepted in the corporate sphere, “The Glass Ceiling” will remain firmly intact.

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10 Ending discrimination against women

10 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Ending discrimination against women in the workforce is a process. (C) Ending discrimination against women in the workforce is a complicated process. (D) Ending discrimination and bias against women in the workforce is a complicated process. 11 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Until women can be accepted as equals in the corporate sphere, “The Glass Ceiling” will remain firmly intact. (C) Until women can be accepted as equally in the corporate sphere, “The Glass Ceiling” will remain firmly intact. (D) Until women can be accepted in the corporate sphere as equally, “The Glass Ceiling” will remain firmly intact.


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The following is an excerpt from a speech given by President Jimmy Carter, spoken and broadcast from the White House library two weeks after he took office. Prior to Carter’s election, the country had faced a severe oil shortage and rising prices for oil and related products. Report to the American People (February 2, 1977) The extremely cold weather this winter has dangerously depleted our supplies of natural gas and fuel oil and forced Line hundreds of thousands of workers off the 5 job. I congratulate the Congress for its quick action on the Emergency Natural Gas Act, which was passed today and signed just a few minutes ago. But the real problem—our failure to plan for the 10 future or to take energy conservation seriously—started long before this winter, and it will take much longer to solve. I realize that many of you have not believed that we really have an energy 15 problem. But this winter has made all of us realize that we have to act. Our program will emphasize conservation. The amount of energy being wasted which could be saved is 20 greater than the total energy that we are importing from foreign countries. We will also stress development of our rich coal reserves in an environmentally sound way; we will emphasize research on 25 solar energy and other renewable energy sources; and we will maintain strict safeguards on necessary atomic energy production. The responsibility for setting energy 30 policy is now split among more than 50 different agencies, departments, and bureaus in the Federal Government. Later this month, I will ask the Congress for its help in combining many of these agencies 35 in a new energy department to bring order out of chaos. Congressional leaders have already been working on this for quite a while. We must face the fact that the energy 40 shortage is permanent. There is no way we can solve it quickly. But if we all

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

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cooperate and make modest sacrifices, if we learn to live thriftily and remember the importance of helping our neighbors, then we can find ways to adjust and to make our society more efficient and our own lives more enjoyable and productive. Utility companies must promote conservation and not consumption. Oil and natural gas companies must be honest with all of us about their reserves and profits. We will find out the difference between real shortages and artificial ones. We will ask private companies to sacrifice, just as private citizens must do. All of us must learn to waste less energy. Simply by keeping our thermostats, for instance, at 65 degrees in the daytime and 55 degrees at night we could save half the current shortage of natural gas. There is no way that I, or anyone else in the Government, can solve our energy problems if you are not willing to help. I know that we can meet this energy challenge if the burden is borne fairly among all our people—and if we realize that in order to solve our energy problems we need not sacrifice the quality of our lives. The Congress has made great progress toward responsible strip-mining legislation, so that we can produce more energy without unnecessary destruction of our beautiful lands. My administration will support these efforts this year. We will also ask Congress for its help with legislation which will reduce the risk of future oil tanker spills and help deal with those that do occur. I would like to tell you now about one of the things that I have already learned in my brief time in office. I have learned that there are many things that a President cannot do. There is no energy policy that we can develop that would do more good than voluntary conservation. There is no economic policy that will do as much as shared faith in hard work, efficiency, and in the future of our system


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(A) He wanted to reassure people that as president he was going to make the United States energy independent. (B) As a new president, he wanted to start a dialogue with the people. (C) He wanted to explain the severity of the energy crisis and what needed to be done to address it. (D) He wanted people to understand the limitations of the president. 13 What is the theme of the speech? (A) The United States has a long-term energy problem. (B) There are many ways to conserve energy. (C) People need to use less energy in their homes. (D) The government cannot solve environmental problems. 14 Which of the following actions does Carter propose that the government take to help solve the problem? (A) Lowering the thermostats (B) Forming a new energy department (C) Developing coal reserves (D) Protecting the environment from oil spills 15 Which of the following best represents the belief system illustrated in Carter’s speech? (A) The idea that the United States should be energy independent (B) The concept of shared sacrifice (C) The idea that the environment needs to be protected by volunteers (D) The concept of equal powers among the three branches of government

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12 What is the most likely reason that Carter gave this speech?

Passage 21-A

16 What does Carter think should be the foundation for conserving energy? (A) The renewed use of strip mining to produce more energy (B) The reduction of indoor temperatures to conserve fuel (C) The use of solar and other renewable energy sources (D) A voluntary policy in which people share in creating efficiency 17 How does Carter try to convince the public that everyone needs to participate to solve the problem? (A) He describes how utility companies are also promoting conservation, not consumption. (B) He explains that people waste a lot of energy. (C) He tells the public to lower the thermostats in their homes, which can save natural gas. (D) He explains that sacrifices must be made by everyone alike. 18 Which of the following best explains the tone of the speech? (A) Carter speaks bluntly about the problem, but also tries to be persuasive and optimistic in order to encourage everyone to work together. (B) Carter is speaking on national television and wants his audience to keep listening to him, so his tone is light and informal, even though the topic is a serious one. (C) Carter is deeply concerned over the energy problem so the tone of the speech is stern and authoritative because he wants people to follow his requests. (D) Carter wants to be taken seriously, so he avoids persuasive language; instead, he speaks with informative, matter-of-fact neutrality.


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(A) Lines 21–28 (“We will … energy production”) (B) Lines 39–40 (“We must … is permanent”) (C) Lines 73–75 (“we can … beautiful lands”) (D) Lines 68–70 (“in order … our lives”) 20 Which of the following might be used by some people as evidence to claim that Carter was anti-business? (A) Lines 17–18 (“Our program … emphasize conservation”) (B) Lines 26–28 (“we will … energy production”) (C) Lines 39–30 (“We must … is permanent”) (D) Lines 49–52 (“Oil and … and profits”) 21 As used in line 2, “depleted” most nearly means (A) consumed. (B) replaced. (C) weakened. (D) wasted.

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19 What language in the speech indicates that Carter has great respect for the land and the concept of conservation?

Passage 21-A

22 Explain how the word “reserves” is used in line 21 and line 53. (A) In the first use, “reserves” refers to something protected in order to prevent easy access to it; in the second use, it refers to something that is difficult to obtain. (B) In the first use, “reserves” refers to something discarded; in the second use; it refers to something set aside in case of emergencies. (C) In the first use, “reserves” refers to something saved in case of future needs; in the second use, it refers to being set aside in order to raise prices. (D) In the first use, “reserves” refers to something not used because there is an excess; in the second use, it refers to something that belongs to someone else.


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The Library of Congress The Library of Congress is the world’s largest and most open library. 12 With collections numbering more than 158 million items on 838 miles of shelving, it includes materials in 470 languages; the basic manuscript collections of 23 Presidents of the United States; maps and atlases that have aided explorers and navigators in charting both the world and outer space; and the earliest motion pictures and examples of recorded sound, as well as the latest databases and software packages. 13 The Library’s services extend, not only to members and committees of Congress, but also to the executive, and judicial branches of government, to libraries throughout the nation and the world, and to scholars, researchers, artists, and scientists who use its resources. 14 This was not always the case. When President John Adams signed the bill that provided for the removal of the seat of government to the new capital city of Washington in 1800, he created a reference library for Congress only. The bill provided, among other items, $5,000 “for the purchase of such books as may be necessary for the use of Congress—and for putting up a suitable apartment for containing them therein … .”

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QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND SUPPLEMENTARY CHART.

Passage 21-B

12 Which choice provides the most logical introduction to the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) It is difficult to maintain such a vast collection— (C) Among the collections of (D) Already collections number 13 (A) NO CHANGE (B) The Library’s services extend not only to members and committees of Congress, but also to the executive and judicial branches of government; to libraries throughout the nation and the world; and to scholars, researchers, artists, and scientists (C) The Library’s services extend not only to members and committees of Congress, but also to the executive and judicial branches, of government, to libraries throughout the nation, and the world and to scholars, researchers, artists, and scientists (D) The Library’s services, extend not only to members and committees of Congress, but also to the executive and judicial branches of government to libraries, throughout the nation and the world, and to scholars, researchers, artists, and scientists 14 (A) NO CHANGE (B) A little history is in order here. (C) Nevertheless, John Adams signed a bill to create the library. D) We’re lucky we have this institution.


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destroyed by fire along with the Capitol building in 1814, former President Thomas Jefferson offered therein “… as a 15 substitute his personal library, accumulated over a span of fifty years.” It was considered to be one of the finest in the United States. Congress accepted Jefferson’s offer. Thus the foundation was laid for a great national library. By the close of the Civil War, the collections of the Library of Congress had grown to 82,000 volumes and were still principally used by members of Congress and committees. In 1864, President Lincoln appointed as Librarian of Congress a man who was to transform the Library: Ainsworth Rand Spofford, who opened the Library to the public and greatly expanded 16 it’s collections. Spofford successfully advocated a change in the copyright law so that the 17 Library would receive two, free copies of every book, map, chart, dramatic, or musical composition, engraving, cut, print, or photograph submitted for copyright. Predictably, Spofford soon filled all the Capitol’s library rooms, attics, and hallways. In 1873, he then won another lobbying effort, for a new building to permanently house the nation’s growing collection and reading rooms to serve scholars and the reading public. The result was the Thomas Jefferson Building, completed in 1897. Since then, two more buildings have been constructed to house the Library’s 18 ever-expanding collection.

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After this small congressional library was

Passage 21-B

15 (A) NO CHANGE (B) replacement (C) stand-in (D) copy 16 (A) NO CHANGE (B) it collections (C) its collections (D) its’ collections 17 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Library would receive two free copies of every book, map, chart, dramatic or musical composition engraving, cut, print, or photograph, submitted for copyright. (C) Library would receive two, free copies of every book, map, chart, dramatic or musical composition; engraving, cut, print, or photograph submitted for copyright (D) Library would receive two free copies of every book, map, chart, dramatic or musical composition, engraving, cut, print, or photograph submitted for copyright. 18 (A) NO CHANGE (B) ever-existing (C) ever-expending (D) ever-expounding


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a newspaperman with no previous library experience, John Russell Young. He quickly realized that the Library had to get control of the collections that had been overflowing the rooms in the Capitol. Young set up organizational units and devised programs that changed the Library. 19 Instead of being essentially an acquisitions operation, it became an efficient processing factory that organized the materials and made them useful. 20 Formerly head of the Boston Public Library, Herbert Putnam succeeded Young. Putnam served as Librarian of Congress for 40 years. While Librarian, Spofford had collected the materials, Young had organized them, and Putnam set out to ensure that they would be used. 21 They took the Library of Congress directly into the national library scene and made its holdings known and available to the smallest community library in the most distant part of the country. In about 1912, both Librarian Putnam and members of Congress became concerned about the distance that was widening between the Library and its employer, the Congress. Various states had begun to set up “legislative reference bureaus,” which brought together skilled teams of librarians, economists, and political scientists whose purpose was to respond quickly to questions that arose in the

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The first librarian in the new building was

Passage 21-B

19 Which choice most effectively sets up the information that follows? (A) NO CHANGE (B) In spite of being essentially an acquisitions operation, (C) Once it was essentially an acquisitions operation, (D) In addition to it being essentially an acquisitions operation, 20 Which choice represents the best transition between paragraphs? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Young was succeeded. Herbert Putnam had formerly been head of the Boston Public Library. (C) Young was succeeded by someone else—Herbert Putnam, former head of the Boston Public Library. (D) Young was succeeded after only two years by Herbert Putnam, formerly the head of the Boston Public Library. 21 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Them (C) He (D) We


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kind of service for itself, so Putnam designed such a unit for the Library of Congress. Called the Legislative Reference Service, it went into operation in 1914 to prepare indexes, digests, and compilations of law that the Congress might need, but it quickly became a specialized reference unit for information transfer and research. This service was the forerunner of the Library’s current Congressional Research Service. 22

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legislative process. Congress wanted the same

Passage 21-B

22 Which choice best describes a conclusion that can be drawn from the chart? (A) There are more public university than private university libraries that are similar in scope and scale to the Library of Congress. (B) University Libraries of the same scope and scale as the Library of Congress are more common than one would expect. (C) When it comes to university libraries of the same scope and scale as the Library of Congress, the private sector is doing more to create them than the public sector. (D) As the years go on, university libraries of the same scope and scale as the Library of Congress are rapidly increasing.

All higher education institutions 320 CONTROL Public 43 Private 277 LEVEL Total 4-year and above 115 Doctor’s 12 Master’s 35 Bachelor’s 68 Less than 4-year 205 SIZE (FTE ENROLLMENT) Less than 1,500 309 1,500 to 4,999 9 5,000 or more 2 CARNEGIE CLASSIFICATION (1994) Research I and II 0 Doctoral I and II 1 Master’s I and II 1 Baccalaureate I and II 1 Associate of Arts 150 Specialized 50 Not classified 117

1,000,000 or more

500,000–999,999

250,000–499,999

100,000–249,999

50,000–99,999

30,000–49,999

20,000–29,999

10,000–19,999

5,000–9,999

INSTITUTIONAL CHARACTERISTIC

Less than 5,000

NUMBER OF LIBRARIES IN VOLUME CATEGORY

158

241

450

450

691

747

275

153

160

57 101

77 136

145 96

297 153

362 329

231 516

146 129

106 47

109 51

48 6 19 23 110

90 8 24 58 123

89 5 22 61 152

155 14 39 102 295

361 35 177 148 330

673 131 378 164 74

273 83 151 39 2

151 93 51 7 2

160 151 9 0 0

138 20 0

186 26 1

193 47 1

257 185 8

352 249 90

363 297 87

36 135 104

4 36 113

1 7 152

0 0 0 5 75 33 45

0 0 3 5 85 67 53

0 0 4 6 150 60 21

0 0 3 26 317 82 2

0 0 47 178 328 116 22

1 10 211 292 74 126 33

1 20 164 66 2 21 1

10 44 76 17 1 3 2

113 35 9 3 0 0 0

Source: U.S. Department of Education, National Center for Education Statistics, 1996 Integrated Postsecondary Education Data System, “Academic Libraries Survey” (IPEDS-L: 1996).


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If there was one thing on which Golightly prided himself more than another, it was looking like “an Officer and a gentleman.” He said it was for the honor of the Service that he attired himself so elaborately; but those who knew him best said that it was just personal vanity. There was no harm about Golightly. … He recognized a horse when he saw one, … he played a very fair game at billiards, and was a sound man at the whist-table. Everyone liked him; and nobody ever dreamed of seeing him handcuffed on a station platform as a deserter. But this sad thing happened. He was going down from Dalhousie, at the end of his leave—riding down. He had cut his leave as fine as he dared, and wanted to come down in a hurry. It was fairly warm at Dalhousie [a town in India in the hills, used as a summer retreat for British personnel] and knowing what to expect below, he descended in a new khaki suit—tight fitting—of a delicate olive-green; a peacock-blue tie, white collar, and a snowy white solah [a plant made into fabric used in hat-making] helmet. He prided himself on looking neat even when he was riding post. He did look neat, and he was so deeply concerned about his appearance before he started that he quite forgot to take anything but some small change with him. He left all his notes at the hotel. His servants had gone down the road before him, to be ready in waiting at Pathankote with a change of gear. Twenty-two miles out of Dalhousie it began to rain—not a mere hill-shower, but a good, tepid monsoonish downpour. Golightly bustled on, wishing that he had brought an umbrella. The dust on the roads turned into mud, and the pony mired a good deal. So did Golightly’s khaki gaiters. But he kept on steadily and tried to think how pleasant the coolth was.

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His next pony was rather a brute at starting, and Golightly’s hands being slippery with the rain, contrived to get rid of Golightly at a corner. He chased the animal, caught it, and went ahead briskly. The spill had not improved his clothes or his temper, and he had lost one spur. He kept the other one employed. By the time

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QUESTIONS 23–32

Passage 22-A 55

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that stage was ended, the pony had had as much exercise as he wanted, and, in spite of the rain, Golightly was sweating freely. At the end of another miserable half-hour, Golightly found the world disappear before his eyes in clammy pulp. The rain had turned the pith of his huge and snowy solah-topee into an evil-smelling dough, and it had closed on his head like a halfopened mushroom. Also the green lining was beginning to run. Golightly did not say anything worth recording here. He tore off and squeezed up as much of the brim as was in his eyes and ploughed on. The back of the helmet

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was flapping on his neck and the sides stuck to his ears, but the leather band and green lining kept things roughly together, so that the hat did not actually melt away where it flapped. Presently, the pulp and the green stuff made a sort of slimy mildew which ran over Golightly in several directions— down his back and bosom for choice. The khaki color ran too … and sections of Golightly were brown, and patches were violet, and contours were ochre, and streaks were ruddy red, and blotches were nearly white, according to the nature and peculiarities of the dye. When he took out his handkerchief to wipe his face and the green of the hat-lining and the purple stuff that had soaked through on to his neck from the tie became thoroughly mixed, the effect was amazing. He went to the Station-Master to negotiate for a first-class ticket to Khasa, where he was stationed. The bookingclerk said something to the StationMaster, the Station-Master said something to the Telegraph Clerk, and the three looked at him with curiosity. They asked him to wait for half-an-hour, while they telegraphed to Umritsar for authority. So he waited, and four constables came and grouped themselves picturesquely round him. Just as he was preparing to ask them to go away, the Station-Master said that he would give the Sahib [term of respect; like calling someone “sir” in English] a ticket to Umritsar, if the Sahib would kindly come inside the bookingoffice. Golightly stepped inside, and the next thing he knew was that a constable was attached to each of his legs and arms, while the Station-Master was trying to cram a mailbag over his head.


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(A) (B) (C) (D)

Disgust Mocking Ironic Proud

24 Even though the author says “this sad thing happened,” which detail from the passage shows that Kipling considers Golightly to be responsible for what happened to him? (A) He did look neat, and he was so deeply concerned about his appearance before he started that he quite forgot to take anything but some small change with him. (B) He prided himself on looking neat even when he was riding post. (C) Golightly bustled on, wishing that he had brought an umbrella. (D) His next pony was rather a brute at starting, and Golightly’s hands being slippery with the rain, contrived to get rid of Golightly at a corner. 25 Which of the following best explains the identity and actions of the main character, Golightly? (A) He’s a proper military man leaving his post. (B) He’s a British soldier trying to escape capture by the Indian government. (C) He’s an outlaw trying to escape capture. (D) He’s a British businessman on a trip overseas. 26 How does Kipling make fun of his character Golightly? (A) His explanation of Golightly’s vanity is satiric. (B) His description of Golightly’s experience shows how he has trouble coping with the severe rainstorms in India. (C) He gives a detailed description of how silly Golightly looks. (D) He shows that Golightly had difficulty riding the horse.

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23 Which of the following best describes the tone of the story?

Passage 22-A

27 Why did Kipling provide such detail about Golightly’s looks? (A) To make fun of his vanity and usual appearance (B) To show how intense the climate is in India (C) To help the reader understand the setting (D) To describe the problems of the British military in India 28 How is lines 66–67 distinguished from the rest of the text in the passage? (A) Kipling describes the character’s verbal response to the situation. (B) The narrator interjects his own viewpoint. (C) It adds internal dialogue to the story. (D) The narrator describes Golightly’s thoughts rather than his appearance. 29 Which description of Golightly shows that Kipling was making fun of the char-acter? (A) Lines 50–51 (“He chased … ahead briskly”) (B) Lines 69–74 (“The back … it flapped”) (C) Lines 79–84 (“The khaki … the dye”) (D) Lines 84–89 (“When he … was amazing”) 30 Which of the following lines from the text show that Golightly is relatively wealthy? (A) Lines 4–6 (“He said … so elaborately”) (B) Lines 35–36 (“His servants … before him”) (C) Lines 47–48 (“His next … at starting”) (D) Lines 105–107 (“if the … the booking office”)


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(A) He dared to take leave without telling the authorities. (B) He arranged to take as much time as he could without getting in trouble. (C) He was daring in leaving the military post because it was dangerous. (D) He wanted to leave, but was afraid he’d get caught. 32 Which of the following surrounding words best help you figure out the meaning of the word “mired” (line 44)? (A) “the pony” (B) “roads turned into mud” (C) “wishing that he had brought an umbrella” (D) “So did Golightly’s khaki gaiters”

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31 What is the meaning of the sentence: “He had cut his leave as fine as he dared.” (lines 17–19)

Passage 22-A


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Lavinia & Emily The Homestead was quiet and still, a preternatural quiet Lavinia Dickinson had become all too accustomed to. Looking around her sister 23 Emily’s now forever empty bedroom that contained nothing, Lavinia recalled some verses penned by Emily many years ago: The bustle in a house The morning after death Is solemnest of industries Enacted upon earth, —

The sweeping up the heart, And putting love away We shall not want to use again Until eternity. 24 Some people wondered at Emily’s seeming preoccupation with death. But Lavinia found it natural for her 25 sisters inquisitive mind to be drawn to exploring this final journey in the cycle of life, especially since Emily had seen so many loved ones pass into eternal slumber. Emily had always had a curious mind, and a voracious appetite for learning. She also greatly enjoyed being in nature. Faith was something she refused to accept blindly, without thought, much to the chagrin of the Calvinist community around her. For Emily, faith was more than rote belief.

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QUESTIONS 23–33 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 22-B

23 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Emily’s now forever empty bedroom, Lavinia recalled some verses (C) Emily’s bedroom, Lavinia recalled some verses (D) Emily’s now forever empty bedroom, Lavinia recalled some verses and poetry 24 Which choice is a sentence that is not relevant to the main topic of the paragraph? (A) Some people wondered at Emily’s seeming preoccupation with death. (B) Emily had always had a curious mind and a voracious appetite for learning. (C) She also greatly enjoyed being in nature. (D) For Emily, faith was more than rote belief. 25 (A) NO CHANGE (B) sister’s. (C) sisters’ (D) sister


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For gentlemen who see; But microscopes are prudent In an emergency! 26 Emily had felt very fully her isolation as one “standing alone in rebellion” of faith. Reading 27 through her letters and the poems Emily had hidden away, Lavinia realized just how isolated her beloved sister had felt. Perhaps that was why the selfprofessed “belle of Amherst” had withdrawn so much from the public sphere. Emily felt, quite keenly, the limitations of womanhood. Lavinia still remembered the indignation Emily had expressed during the Whig Convention of 1852 when women were not allowed to be delegates. “Why can’t I be a Delegate? ...don’t I know all about Daniel Webster, and the Tariff and the Law?” 28 Yes, it seemed to Lavinia that her sister had most decidedly felt the trappings of being a woman. And, as much as 29 they tried to

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Faith is a fine invention

Passage 22-B

26 Which choice best expresses the main idea of the paragraph? (A) One reason for Emily’s sense of isolation was her resistance to common ideas of her time. (B) One reason for Emily’s sense of isolation was her refusal to take part in social events. (C) One reason for Emily’s sense of isolation was her need to be alone to write poetry. (D) One reason for Emily’s sense of isolation was her house’s remote location. 27 (A) NO CHANGE (B) tough (C) though (D) thought 28 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence: But Lavinia also knew that her sister was not cut out for politics and all the socializing and public display it would entail. Should the writer make this addition here? (A) Yes, because it adds more information about Emily’s personality. (B) Yes, because it explains the contrast between Emily’s words and actions. (C) No, because it detracts from the point about women’s issues. (D) No, because it is not relevant to Emily’s life. 29 (A) NO CHANGE (B) we (C) she (C) her


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Passage 22-B

145

mother, she still felt trapped by society’s strict bonds. ESCAPE. I never hear the word “escape” Without a quicker blood, A sudden expectation, A flying attitude.

I never hear of prisons broad By soldiers battered down, But I tug childish at my bars, — Only to fail again! Emily never understood the power of the gift she had been 31 given? THE DUEL. I took my power in my hand. And went against the world; ‘T was not so much as David had, But I was twice as bold.

I aimed my pebble, but myself Was all the one that fell. Was it Goliath was too large, Or only I too small? Sitting in the stillness of Emily’s room, surrounded by her internal monologue expressed through thousands of poems, 32 it was decided by Lavinia that it was time the world knew the full treasure her sister was. 33 And that world would never know what hit it.

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eschew them 30 by not becoming a wife or

30 Which choice best fits with the style and tone of the passage? (A) NO CHANGE (B) by never being a wife or mother (C) by postponing choosing to be a wife or mother (D) by refusing the role of wife or mother 31 (A) NO CHANGE (B) given! (C) given. (D) given; 32 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Lavinia decided (C) it had been decided by Lavinia (D) it was being decided by Lavinia 33 Which choice is most consistent with the style and tone of the passage? (A) NO CHANGE (B) That world was about to receive a gift it would long cherish. (C) That world would line up to thank Lavinia for years to come. (D) That world didn’t know it yet, but it would soon have a new superstar.


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Passage 1 is an excerpt from a speech modeled on the Declaration of Independence, written and read by Elizabeth Cady Stanton at the Woman’s Rights Convention, held in Seneca Falls, New York, July 19, 1848. About 300 people attended the event and about a third (68 women and 32 men) signed the declaration. Passage 2 is excerpted from The Narrative of Sojourner Truth, the memoir of a slave in pre-Civil War New York. Born into slavery as Isabella, after being freed in 1827, she took the name Sojourner Truth to express her strong faith. Because Truth was illiterate, she dictated her story to the writer Olive Gilbert, whom she had met in Massachusetts. The book was published in 1850 and was widely distributed by Abolitionists to help further their cause. Passage 1 Declaration of Sentiments The history of mankind is a history of repeated injuries and usurpations on the part of man toward woman, having Line in direct object the establishment of an 5 absolute tyranny over her. To prove this, let facts be submitted to a candid world. He has never permitted her to exercise her inalienable right to the elective franchise. 10 He has compelled her to submit to laws, in the formation of which she had no voice. He has withheld from her rights which are given to the most ignorant 15 and degraded men—both natives and foreigners. Having deprived her of this first right of a citizen, the elective franchise, thereby leaving her without representation in the 20 halls of legislation, he has oppressed her on all sides. He has made her, if married, in the eye of the law, civilly dead. He has taken from her all right in 25 property, even to the wages she earns.

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QUESTIONS 33–42 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING TWO PASSAGES AND SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL.

30

35

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45

50

55

Passage 23-A

He has made her, morally, an irresponsible being, as she can commit many crimes with impunity, provided they be done in the presence of her husband. In the covenant of marriage, she is compelled to promise obedience to her husband, he becoming, to all intents and purposes, her master—the law giving him power to deprive her of her liberty, and to administer chastisement. He has so framed the laws of divorce, as to what shall be the proper causes, and in the case of separation, to whom the guardianship of the children shall be given, as to be wholly regardless of the happiness of women—the law, in all cases, going upon a false supposition of the supremacy of man, and giving all power into his hands. After depriving her of all rights as a married woman, if single, and the owner of property, he has taxed her to support a government which recognizes her only when her property can be made profitable to it …. He has endeavored, in every way that he could, to destroy her confidence in her own powers, to lessen her selfrespect, and to make her willing to lead a dependent and abject life. …


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From: The Narrative of Sojourner Truth After emancipation had been decreed by the State, some years before the time fixed for its consummation, Isabella’s master told her if she would do well, 60 and be faithful, he would give her “free papers,” one year before she was legally free by statute. In the year 1826, she had a badly diseased hand, which greatly diminished her usefulness; but on the 65 arrival of July 4, 1827, the time specified for her receiving her “free papers,” she claimed the fulfillment of her master’s promise; but he refused granting it, on account (as he alleged) of the loss he had 70 sustained by her hand. She plead that she had worked all the time, and done many things she was not wholly able to do, although she knew she had been less useful than formerly; but her master 75 remained inflexible. Her very faithfulness probably operated against her now, and he found it less easy than he thought to give up the profits of his faithful Bell, who had so long done him efficient service. But Isabella inwardly determined that she would remain quietly with him only until she had spun his wool—about one hundred pounds—and then she would leave him, taking the rest of the time to 85 herself. “Ah!” she says, with emphasis that cannot be written, “the slaveholders are TERRIBLE for promising to give you this or that, or such and such a privilege, if you will do thus and so; and when the 90 time of fulfillment comes, and one claims the promise, they, forsooth, recollect nothing of the kind; and you are, like as not, taunted with being a LIAR; or, at best, the slave is accused of not having 95 performed his part or condition of the contract.” “Oh!” said she, “I have felt as if I could not live through the operation sometimes. Just think of us! so eager for our pleasures, and just foolish enough 100 to keep feeding and feeding ourselves up with the idea that we should get what had been thus fairly promised; and when we think it is almost in our hands, find ourselves flatly denied! Just think! how 105 could we bear it?” 80

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Passage 2

Passage 23-A

33 What was Stanton’s purpose in writing and speaking the Declaration of Sentiments? (A) She wanted to show that women could write important documents. (B) She wanted to shock the audience in upstate New York. (C) She wanted to show why women needed rights. (D) She wanted to gain support for equal protection of minorities. 34 What is the effect of repeating the phrase “He has”? (A) It shows how strongly she feels about how women were treated. (B) It emphasizes the transgressions of men against women. (C) It makes the speech dull because it repeats the same words. (D) It makes the speech more like the Declaration of Independence. 35 Which lines in the text are best illustrated by the graphic? (A) Lines 13–16: (“He has withheld … and foreigners”) (B) Lines 22–23: (“He has made … civilly dead.”) (C) Lines 42–44: (“ … going upon a … into his hands.”). (D) Lines 47–50: (“ … he has taxed … profitable to it”).


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(A) She explains that women can’t work outside the home. (B) She expresses anger at the idea that women are not allowed to vote. (C) She expresses dismay at how children can be taken from mothers in cases of divorce or separation. (D) She explains how marriage legally compels women to obey their husbands. 37 What does Stanton mean by “elective franchise” as used in line 18? (A) The sport of elections (B) The business of elections (C) The team needed for elections (D) The right to vote 38 What do the two passages suggest about what women and slaves had in common? (A) Neither women nor slaves could get paid for their work. (B) Both women and slaves had to take care of the children in a family. (C) Women had to obey their husbands; slaves had to obey their masters. (D) Men made and broke promises to both women and slaves. 39 Which of the following statements is true about the two passages? (A) They both display a tone of anger at their lack of freedom. (B) Stanton’s tone is angry and Truth’s tone is sad. (C) Truth’s tone is bitter; Stanton’s tone is outrage. (D) They both show a tone of frustration.

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36 How does Stanton support her argument that women have been forced into obedience?

Passage 23-A

40 Which of the following lines from the text indicate why Truth says her master did not want to let her be free as he had promised? (A) Lines 75–76 (“Her very faithfulness … her now.”) (B) Lines 76–78 (“he found it … faithful Bell”) (C) Lines 86–89 (“the slaveholders … thus and so”) (D) Lines 93–96 (“at best … of the contract.”) 41 What set Isabella’s master apart from other slaveholders? (A) He didn’t mistreat her. (B) He allowed her to learn to read and write. (C) He finally did set her free before he had to. (D) He made promises he didn’t keep. 42 In lines 75–76, Truth says that her “faithfulness probably operated against her.” What does she mean by this phrase? (A) Her faith in God would help her through the difficulties operating against her. (B) Her loyalty made her more important and valuable to her master. (C) She needed to be faithful to her God so that her master would not break his promises. (D) She needed to be faithful in the face of her master’s inflexibility.


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What Is Sleep? Scientists have known for some years that sleep is important to human health. In fact, cases of long-term sleep deprivation have even led to death. 34 Yet, scientists are still studying this unique state in which humans spend a third of their lives. 35 [1] It isn’t only current scientists who are intrigued with sleep. [2] Throughout history, people have attempted to understand this remarkable experience. [3] Many centuries ago, for example, sleep was regarded as a type of anemia of the brain. [4] Alcmaeon, a Greek scientist, believed that blood retreated into the blood vessels, and the partially starved brain went to sleep. [5] Plato supported the idea that the soul left the body during sleep, wandered through the world, and woke up the body when it returned. [6] During the twentieth century, great strides were made in the study of sleep. Recently, more scientific explanations of sleep have been proposed. Looking at them, we see a variety of ideas about the nature of sleep. 36 Research may be able to help people who have sleep disorders. According to one theory, the brain is put to sleep by a chemical agent that accumulates in the body when it is awake. Another theory is that weary branches of certain nerve cells break connections with neighboring cells. The flow of impulses required for staying awake is then

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QUESTIONS 34–44 ARE BASED ON THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE.

Passage 23-B

34 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Scientists are yet studying (C) Scientists are studying yet (D) Yet, scientists study still 35 Which sentence in this paragraph should be moved to the fourth paragraph to create a more logical sequence? (A) Sentence 1 (B) Sentence 2 (C) Sentence 4 (D) Sentence 6 36 Which choice most effectively sets up the information that follows? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Some of the newer ideas may yield important data about the science of sleep. (C) Although science has not yet solved the mysteries of sleep, breakthroughs are imminent. (D) However, some of the old ideas may prove to be correct.


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be subjected to laboratory research. Why do we sleep? Why do we dream? Modern sleep research is said to have begun in the 1920s with the 37 discovery of a machine that could measure brain waves, the electroencephalograph (EEG). The study of sleep was further enhanced in the 1950s, 38 and Eugene Aserinsky, a graduate student at the University of Chicago, and Nathaniel Kleitman, his professor, observed periods of rapid eye movements (REMs) in sleeping subjects. When awakened during these REM periods, subjects almost always remembered dreaming. 39 Nevertheless when awakened during non-REM phases of sleep, the subjects rarely could recall their dreams. Aserinsky and Kleitman used EEGs and other machines in an attempt to learn more about REMs and sleep patterns. 40 Guided by REMs, it became possible for investigators to “spot” dreaming from outside and then 41 awakening the sleeper to collect dream stories. They could also 42 altar the dreamers’ experiences with noises, drugs, or other stimuli before or during sleep. Thankfully, it appears the body takes care of itself by temporarily paralyzing muscles during REM sleep, preventing the dreamer from “acting out” dream activities.

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disrupted. These more recent theories have to

Passage 23-B

37 (A) NO CHANGE (B) invention (C) idea (D) suggestion 38 (A) NO CHANGE (B) when (C) or (D) so 39 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Even so, (C) As predicted, (D) On the other hand, 40 Which choice sets up the most logical introduction to the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Guided by EEGs, (C) No longer hampered by REMs, (D) Nevertheless, with REMs, 41 (A) NO CHANGE (B) quickly awakening (C) awakened (D) awaken 42 (A) NO CHANGE (B) alter (C) alternate (D) alternative


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Passage 23-B

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drawn into sleep laboratories. Initial studies attempted to answer questions about why people sleep and what happens in the brain and the body during sleep. There, bedrooms adjoin other rooms that contain EEGs and other equipment. The EEG amplifies signals from sensors on the face, head, and other parts of the body, which together yield tracings of respiration, pulse, muscle tension, and changes of electrical potential in the brain that are sometimes called brain waves. These recordings supply clues to the changes of the sleeping person’s activities. These sleep studies have changed long-held beliefs that sleep was an inactive, or passive, state only used for rest and recuperation. As scientists have learned more about the purpose of sleep and dreams during REM 44 sleep. They are now turning to the study of sleep disorders to learn more about problems during sleep.

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Since the mid-1950s researchers 43 has been

43 (A) NO CHANGE (B) were been drawn (C) have been drawn (D) was drawn 44 (A) NO CHANGE. (B) sleep—they (C) sleep; they (D) sleep, they


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Passage 24-A

Reading Test

 Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

FINDER Search and Rescue Technology Helped Save Lives in Nepal

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“For me as the developer of the technology, it was like sending a child off to college.” - Jim Lux, task manager for the FINDER project at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory In the wreckage of a collapsed textile factory and another building in the Nepalese village of Chautara, four men were rescued, thanks to a NASA technology that was able to find their heartbeats. A small, suitcase-sized device called FINDER helped uncover these survivors—two from each destroyed building—in one of the hardest-hit areas of the 7.8-magnitude earthquake that rattled Nepal on April 25 [2015]. The technology detected the men's presence even though they were buried under about 10 feet of brick, mud, wood, and other debris. FINDER, which stands for Finding Individuals for Disaster and Emergency Response, is a collaboration between NASA's [National Aeronautics and Space Agency] Jet Propulsion Laboratory, Pasadena, California, and the Department of Homeland Security's Science and Technology Directorate in Washington. "The true test of any technology is how well it works in a real-life operational setting," said DHS Undersecretary for Science and Technology Reginald Brothers. "Of course, no one wants disasters to occur, but tools like this are designed to help when our worst nightmares do happen. I am proud that we were able to provide the tools to help rescue these four men." The California Institute of Technology in Pasadena, which manages JPL for NASA, licensed a version of the technology to R4 Incorporated, Edgewood, Maryland. David Lewis, the company's president, brought two prototypes to Nepal and joined an international contingent of search-and-rescue personnel, which helped find the four men in Chautara. "It's very gratifying to have a piece of technology that we developed at JPL out in the field helping to save lives," said Lux . . . . In natural disasters such as earthquakes and avalanches, timing is everything. The faster victims can be found, rescued, and taken to safety and medical care, the more likely they are to survive. "FINDER is a tool that complements the other search methods, like canines, listening devices, and cameras, used by first responders," Lux said. "It provides another item in the toolbox for search and rescue." FINDER sends a low-powered microwave signal—about one-thousandth of a cell phone's output—through rubble and looks for changes in the reflections of those signals coming back from

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tiny motions caused by victims' breathing and heartbeats. In tests, FINDER has detected heartbeats through 30 feet of rubble or 20 feet of solid concrete. A rescue worker with FINDER, using a rugged laptop running the FINDER software, can specify a minimum and maximum range for detecting heartbeats in the vicinity. The program identifies whether the signal is stronger from the left or right as well, to further home in on victims' locations. The FINDER device weighs less than 20 pounds, so it can easily be transported by car or plane. FINDER detects the small motions using algorithms similar to those that JPL uses to measure the orbits of satellites at Jupiter and Saturn or changes in Earth's surface from orbiting satellites. It then displays the detected heart and respiration rates and a reliability score. FINDER's software can distinguish between the heartbeats of a human and those of animals or mechanical devices. The JPL team built four new FINDER prototypes in the last year, all of which have been tested by first-responder teams in California, Florida, Georgia, Indiana, New Jersey, Oklahoma, and Virginia. JPL engineers have participated in multi-day, full-scale exercises, embedded with search-and-rescue teams using FINDER in simulated disaster scenarios. Besides natural disaster settings, the device could be used to find people lost in a forest, trapped in a burning house, or buried in the wreckage of a collapsed building. "We've had countless people ask us for different applications," Lux said. "One of the more unusual was whether FINDER could detect rhinoceroses hidden in bushes for the purpose of protecting them. We haven't tried it for that, but in principle, it should work." There are many potential uses in medicine as well: A device based on FINDER could monitor the vital signs of someone who is trapped in a car or quarantined with an extremely contagious disease such as Ebola. In these situations, first responders could measure a patient's heartbeat without having to physically touch them. The next generation of this technology could combine FINDER with robotics and even small autonomous flying vehicles to get closer to victims and examine a wider area.


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1  Which of the following best expresses the big idea or theme of the passage? A. New government inventions can be tested in other countries. B. Science and technology can directly impact people's lives in significant ways. C. New inventions are important in the development of robotics. D. Technology can predict earthquakes and other natural disasters. 2  How could this article be used to support the idea that government spending can be beneficial? A. It is an example of a rescue mission, which is a function of the federal government. B. It is an example of government spending that was used for a rescue mission that saved lives. C. It shows how research in one area of study can lead to discoveries that are beneficial to unrelated disciplines. D. It shows that NASA funding should be increased. 3  Why is it so difficult to find people who have been affected by an earthquake? A. They can be buried deep in the rubble. B. They can be too far away from the rescue area. C. They are often seriously injured. D. d. They are often overlooked by dogs trained to find people. 4  What criteria do scientists use to judge the success of technology (lines 24-25)? A. How well it works B. How many people want to use it C. How successful it is operating outside the lab D. How well it solves problems 5  How is the quote in lines 1-2 different from the rest of the passage? A. It's the only quotation. B. It doesn't relate to the rescue mission. C. It's the only part of the passage that is related to college. D. It expresses emotion rather than states a fact. 6  How is the quote in lines 1-2 related to the theme of the passage? A. It summarizes the relationship of development to unpredictable applications. B. The simile indicates how expensive technology can be. C. It provides background information about the people who were part of the project. D. The simile implies the complexity of developing technology.

Passage 24-A 7  How is the FINDER device similar to other instruments used by JPL for space probes? A. FINDER and other JPL devices use the same algorithms. B. Like space probe instruments, FINDER measures tiny motions that could not be detected by other instruments. C. FINDER and other JPL devices both measure changes in the Earth's surface. D. Like space probe instruments, FINDER uses microwaves to penetrate hard and opaque surfaces. 8  Which of the following gives textual evidence to support the idea that the passage is an informational article? A. Lines 66–67 ("The FINDER . . . or plane") B. Lines 88–89 ("We've had . . . Lux said") C. Lines 9–13 ("FINDER helped . . . April 25") D. Lines 29–31 ("'I am . . . four men '")

9  Which of the following statements from the text suggests that FINDER was still experimental when used in Nepal? A. Lines 35–36 ("David Lewis . . . to Nepal") B. Lines 7–8 ("four men . . . their heartbeats") C. Lines 9–11 ("FINDER helped . . . destroyed building") D. Lines 81–84 ("JPL engineers . . . disaster scenarios") 10  In the context of the sentence, what is a "simulated disaster" (line 84)? A. A fake catastrophe. B. A terrible accident. C. A scientific experiment. D. A trial run-through. 11

What is the best synonym for the word contingent in the context of the sentence (lines 35–39)? A. B. C. D.

Possibility Crew Committee Dependency


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Passage 24-B

154

Writing and Language Test

 Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Samuel Breck and The Yellow Fever The streets of Philadelphia were quiet, eerily quiet,

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as merchant Samuel Breck 1) stepped out of. It was the summer of 1793 and the sun beat down on the capital 2) city, with a relentless oppressive energy. 3) As

Breck descended his front steps, the eerie stillness was

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broken by the rough clattering and scratching of wood on stone the body collectors were arriving for those souls who had not lasted the night. 3 Breck considered the recent words of poet Phillip Freneau: Hot, dry winds forever blowing, Dead men to the grave-yards going: 4) It was an accurate picture of life, or death, in

Philadelphia. The combination of heat and squalid conditions along the waterways had resulted in an epidemic of "yellow fever." Residents had been urged by the government to flee the city, and thousands had complied. Even President Washington had abandoned the city to its disease. 5) However, those who remained were given the ghoulish task of tending to those who had died and were dying.

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NO CHANGE stepped out of his home. hurriedly stepped out on. was stepping up to.

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE city (with a relentless oppressive energy). city with a relentless oppressive energy. city with a, relentless oppressive energy..

A. NO CHANGE B. As Breck descended his front steps the eerie stillness was broke by the rough clattering and scratching of wood on stone the body collectors were arriving for those souls who had not lasted the night. C. As Breck descended his front steps, the eerie stillness was broken by the rough clattering and scratching of wood on stone. The body collectors were arriving for those souls who had not lasted the night. D. As Breck descended his front steps they eerily broke the stillness with the rough clattering and scratching of wood on stone. The body collectors were arriving for those souls who had not lasted the night. Which choice most effectively sets up the information that follows? A. NO CHANGE. B. The poet creates a pleasant tableau of the citizens of Philadelphia enjoying the warm days of summer. C. It painted a picture that explained why citizens fled the city in droves that summer. D. The poet explains how yellow fever came to Philadelphia like a plague. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE Similarly As a result In contrast


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Breck shuddered as he recalled standing by the

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Passage 24-B

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bedside of a young woman afflicted with the pestilence. Her skin, stretched taut across her bones, was a 6) lovely, sunny yellow. Her dark eyes had sunken into

her head, giving her a skeletal appearance. When her

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mouth opened, it was to spew a foul-smelling blackness. It seemed to Breck that hundreds were dying each day. 7) Men who seemed to be in perfect health on Sunday

were lying dead on Monday. The same was true for women. Many doctors throughout the city were working tirelessly to cure those 8) conflicted with the disease. The great Dr. Benjamin Rush, signer of the Declaration of Independence, had stayed in the city to rally citizens to

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Which choice most effectively joins the two sentences? A. Men who seemed to be in perfect health on Sunday were lying dead on Monday, while the same was true of women. B. Men and women who seemed to be in perfect health on Sunday were lying dead on Monday. C. Men who seemed to be in perfect health on Sunday were lying dead on Monday and women too. D. While the same was true for women, men who seemed to be in perfect health on Sunday were lying dead on Monday. A. B. C. D.

fight the invisible foe. Dr. Rush put his patients through a vigorous regimen of 9) "leeching"—draining blood from an infected person's body, in order to remove the

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diseased toxins. Breck had been told by an acquaintance that Dr. Rush was seeing close to 100 patients a day. Of course, some of the other doctors among the elite College of Physicians disapproved of Rush's methods, classifying them as "barbaric." Breck wondered, secretly, if they weren't right. Breck 10) hears from a friend that one of the immigrants from Santo Domingo was a doctor—Deveze was his name. Instead of bleeding his patients, Dr. Deveze administered small doses of quinine and other stimulants. Breck felt that he would much prefer this medicine to leeching. Autumn was approaching, and with it would come the first frost. The prospect of a frost was the only spark of hope that remained for the city. The physicians believed that the frost would 11) force people to stay away from the city. Breck prayed that they were right.

NO CHANGE putrid deleterious golden

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NO CHANGE granted blessed afflicted

A. NO CHANGE B. "leeching" draining blood from an infected person's body in order to C. "leeching"—draining blood from an infected person's body in order to D. "leeching" draining blood from an infected person's body, in order to A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE did hear hearing had heard

11 The writer is considering revising the underlined portion of the passage to read:

kill off the germs swarming through the air. Should the writer make this change? A. Yes, because it provides a connection between the seasons and the prevalence of disease. B. Yes, because it describes a theory based on available medical knowledge. C. No, because it should have been placed earlier in the passage. D. No, because the writer believes that people coming to Philadelphia caused the disease.


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Passage 25-A

156

 Questions 12-21 are based on the following passage.

Sense & Sensibility

The following passage is an excerpt from her novel Sense & Sensibility (1811), which describes the love and heartbreak in the lives of two sisters, Marianne and Elinor Dashwood, at the end of the 19th century.

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"Why do you not ask Marianne at once," said she, "whether she is or she is not engaged to Willoughby? From you, her mother, and so kind, so indulgent a mother, the question could not give offence. It would be the natural result of your affection for her. She used to be all unreserve, and to you more especially." "I would not ask such a question for the world. Supposing it possible that they are not engaged, what distress would not such an enquiry inflict! At any rate it would be most ungenerous. I should never deserve her confidence again, after forcing from her a confession of what is meant at present to be unacknowledged to anyone. I know Marianne's heart: I know that she dearly loves me, and that I shall not be the last to whom the affair is made known, when circumstances make the revealment of it eligible. I would not attempt to force the confidence of any one; of a child much less; because a sense of duty would prevent the denial which her wishes might direct." Elinor thought this generosity overstrained, considering her sister's youth, and urged the matter farther, but in vain; common sense, common care, common prudence, were all sunk in Mrs. Dashwood's romantic delicacy. It was several days before Willoughby's name was mentioned before Marianne by any of her family; Sir John and Mrs. Jennings, indeed, were not so nice; their witticisms added pain to many a painful hour; but one evening, Mrs. Dashwood, accidentally taking up a volume of Shakespeare, exclaimed— "We have never finished Hamlet, Marianne; our dear Willoughby went away before we could get through it. We will put it by, that when he comes again—; But it may be months, perhaps, before that happens." "Months!" cried Marianne, with strong surprise. "No—nor many weeks." Mrs. Dashwood was sorry for what she had said; but it gave Elinor pleasure, as it produced a reply from Marianne so expressive of confidence in Willoughby and knowledge of his intentions. One morning, about a week after his leaving the country, Marianne was prevailed on to join her sisters in their usual walk, instead of wandering away by herself. Hitherto she had carefully avoided every companion in her rambles. If her sisters intended to walk on the downs, she directly stole away towards the lanes; if they talked of the valley, she was as speedy in climbing the hills, and could never be found when the others set off. But at length she was secured by the exertions of Elinor, who greatly disapproved such continual seclusion.

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They walked along the road through the valley, and chiefly in silence, for Marianne's mind could not be controlled, and Elinor, satisfied with gaining one point, would not then attempt more. Beyond the entrance of the valley, where the country, though still rich, was less wild and more open, a long stretch of the road which they had travelled on first coming to Barton, lay before them; and on reaching that point, they stopped to look around them, and examine a prospect which formed the distance of their view from the cottage, from a spot which they had never happened to reach in any of their walks before. Amongst the objects in the scene, they soon discovered an animated one; it was a man on horseback riding towards them. In a few minutes they could distinguish him to be a gentleman; and in a moment afterwards Marianne rapturously exclaimed— "It is he; it is indeed—I know it is!" and was hastening to meet him, when Elinor cried out— "Indeed, Marianne, I think you are mistaken. It is not Willoughby. The person is not tall enough for him, and has not his air." "He has, he has," cried Marianne, "I am sure he has. His air, his coat, his horse. I knew how soon he would come." She walked eagerly on as she spoke; and Elinor, to screen Marianne from particularity, as she felt almost certain of its not being Willoughby, quickened her pace and kept up with her. They were soon within thirty yards of the gentleman. Marianne looked again; her heart sunk within her; and abruptly turning round, she was hurrying back, when the voices of both her sisters were raised to detain her; a third, almost as well-known as Willoughby's, joined them in begging her to stop, and she turned round with surprise to see and welcome Edward Ferrars.


1 12 • From whose point of view is this excerpt written? A. Mrs. Dashwood B. Elinor C. an omniscient narrator D. Jane Austen 13 • What can be inferred from the passage about family life in this era? A. Some families had great wealth and privilege. B. Long walks were a form of recreation. C. Most families were fond of Shakespeare's plays. D. Families were very isolated.

14 • How are Elinor and Marianne different in personality? A. Elinor is quiet and shy; Marianne is extroverted and emotional. B. Elinor is intellectual, and Marianne is uninterested in matters outside of the family. C. Elinor is witty and sarcastic; Marianne is serious and kind. D. Elinor is practical and sensible, and Marianne is more emotional. 15 • What is Mrs. Dashwood's biggest concern about asking Marianne about her relationship to Willoughby? A. Fear she will offend her daughter B. Fear her daughter will stop confiding in her C. Fear her daughter will elope D. Fear she will lose her daughter's love 16 • Why does Mrs. Dashwood bring up the subject of Hamlet? A. She wants to tease out Marianne's feelings about Willoughby. B. She wants her daughters to go see the play. C. She wants the family to read the play together. D. She wants to find out when Willoughby is returning.

Passage 25-A

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Why is Elinor glad that her mother indirectly brought up the subject of Willoughby? A. She is jealous and wants to find out what Marianne's plans are. B. It provides Elinor with an opportunity to explain that Willoughby is not a good match for her sister. C. She wants her mother to see that she is wrong to encourage Marianne's relationship with Willoughby. D. It gives Elinor insight into Marianne's intentions about Willoughby. Which of the following lines from the text indicate(s) how Elinor is unlike her mother? A. Lines 5–6 ("It would . . . for her") B. Lines 1–3 ("Why do . . . to Willoughby?") C. Lines 24–26 ("common sense, . . . romantic delicacy") D. Lines 41–42 ("Mrs. Dashwood . . . Elinor pleasure") Which of the following provides evidence about how Marianne feels after Willoughby leaves the countryside? A. Lines 56–57 ("They walked . . . in silence") B. Lines 48–49 ("Hitherto she . . . her rambles") C. Lines 57–58 ("Marianne's. . . controlled") D. Lines 73–75 ("in a . . . is indeed—") Based on the context of the sentence (lines 24–26) what is the meaning of the phrase romantic delicacy? A. idealized fantasy B. maternal love C. weak character D. playful charm

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What is the best synonym for the word ungenerous (lines 10–11: At any rate it would be most ungenerous.) as used in the paragraph? A. Stingy B. Petty C. Unkind D. Unforgiving


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Passage 25-B

 Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.

Misty Copeland: Ballerina

When you see a ballerina leaping and twirling on

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stage, you see grace and 12) beauty you think it's magic. Of course, it isn't magic. It's more than magic. It's a lifetime of dedication built on of years of hard work and hours of practice.

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Today's most popular ballerina is Misty Copeland, 13) the first African American woman to become a principal

dancer for the American Ballet Theatre (ABT). How good is she? Suffice it to say, she holds the highest position at the 14) primal classical ballet company in America.

Misty Copeland has brought ballet to the attention

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of millions of Americans. 15) Seen more than 8 million times on YouTube, she was in an advertisement for Under Armour. She has been the focus of a segment on 60 Minutes, danced in a Prince video, appeared on late-night

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TV and magazine covers, and written an autobiography. After a performance, she is mobbed by fans wanting autographs and selfies with their heroine. Her fans come in every size, shape, age, and color. No one can resist the ballerina with muscles of steel and a heart that can overcome every challenge. And yes, 16) their have been

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challenges. Most ballerinas who have their 17) sites set on a career in dance, begin taking ballet classes at the age of three. Most are small, willowy, white, and from middle-

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to-upper-class families that can 18) shell out for the years of training. But Misty was none of these things. Not only was she 13 years old when she started taking lessons, but her family was so poor that they lived in a roadside motel. After trying out for a drill team, she was instantly asked to be captain of the 60-member squad. Seeing her talent, her coach, Elizabeth Cantine, suggested that she take a free ballet class at the Boys & Girls Club.

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A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE beauty! You beauty. You beauty? You

Which choice most effectively provides the most relevant detail? A. NO CHANGE B. who did not start dancing until she was 13 years old. C. who has overcome many challenges. D. who starred in an Under Armour advertisement. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE pioneer provocative preeminent

A. NO CHANGE B. She was in an advertisement for Under Armour that was seen more than 8 million times on YouTube. C. With more than 8 million views on YouTube, she was in an Under Armour advertisement. D. An advertisement for Under Armour was seen more than 8 million times. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE they're there they are

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE sights cites cytes

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE ill afford suck up pay for


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At the Boys & Girls Club, Misty met her first ballet

Passage 25-B 19

teacher, Cindy Bradley. 19) When the commute became too difficult for Misty, she moved in with Bradley's family. During the summer, Misty attended special sessions at the San Francisco Ballet. Despite her successes, Misty's mother felt that Misty was slipping away from the family and demanded that she return home. After a very public court case, Misty returned to her mother's home. As her body matured, Misty faced 20) economic

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challenges as well. She no longer had the "ideal" figure for ballet. At one point, she suffered a lower-vertebral fracture and, at another, had six stress fractures in one

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leg. 21) She was also appointed to the President’s Council on Fitness, Sports, and Nutrition. Despite these challenges, Misty continued to work at improving her skills, became a soloist for ABT, and eventually rose to become a principal dancer. For Misty, while dancing is magic, it has also been hard work. 22) Moreover, for the audience, her dancing is just pure magic.

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At this point, the author is considering adding the following sentence. Misty began taking classes five days a week at Bradley's studio. Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, because it shows that Copeland, like many kids, was a reluctant learner. B. Yes, because it supports the paragraph's focus on Copeland's early years and explains why Misty had to commute. C. No, because it blurs the paragraph's main point by introducing an unrelated idea. D. No, because it undermines the passage's claim that Copeland struggled. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE emotional physical philosophical

Which choice gives another supporting example that is most similar to the examples already given? A. NO CHANGE B. She endured an embarrassing court case. C. She was told that her leg muscles were too big for ballet. D. She once lived with her family in two rooms in a motel. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE But Consequently In conclusion,


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 Questions 22-30 are based on the following passage. Passage 1

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In 1859, German-born statesman Carl Schurz was invited to Boston for a public dinner. The legislature of Massachusetts had adopted an amendment to the state constitution which banned voting by foreigners until two years after they had become citizens of the United States. This amendment, generally known as the "two-years' amendment," was soon to be voted upon by the people of the state. This passage is an excerpt from his speech. A few days ago I stood on the cupola of your statehouse, and overlooked for the first time this venerable city and the country surrounding it …and a feeling of pride arose in my heart, and I said to myself, I, too, am an American citizen. There was Bunker Hill; there Charlestown, Lexington and Dorchester Heights not far off; there the harbor into which the British tea was sunk; there the place where the old liberty-tree stood; there John Hancock's house; there Benjamin Franklin's birthplace;—and now I stand in this grand old hall, which so often resounded with the noblest appeals that ever thrilled American hearts, and where I am almost afraid to hear the echo of my own feeble voice;—oh, sir, no man that loves liberty, wherever he may have first seen the light of day, can fail on this sacred spot to pay his tribute to Americanism. And here, with all these glorious memories crowding upon my heart, I will offer mine. I, born in a foreign land, pay my tribute to Americanism? Yes, for to me the word Americanism, true Americanism, comprehends the noblest ideas which ever swelled a human heart with noble pride. … still later, when ripening into manhood, … I saw my nation shake her chains in order to burst them, and I heard a gigantic, universal shout for Liberty rising up to the skies; and at last, after having struggled manfully and drenched the earth of Fatherland with the blood of thousands of noble beings, I saw that nation crushed down again, not only by overwhelming armies, but by the dead weight of customs and institutions and notions and prejudices which past centuries had heaped upon them, and which a moment of enthusiasm, however sublime, could not destroy; then I consoled an almost despondent heart with the idea of a youthful people and of original institutions clearing the way for an untrammeled development of the ideal nature of man. Then I turned my eyes instinctively across the Atlantic Ocean, and America and Americanism, as I fancied them, appeared to me as the last depositories of the hopes of all true friends of humanity.

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Passage 26-A Passage 2 With Irish and German immigration reaching record high numbers, many feared that foreigners could possibly take control of the country (Ireland produced one-third of all immigrants between 1830 and 1840). The majority of people who subscribed to this fear saw the Catholics, with their Pope, as the main concern. Samuel F.B. Morse, born in Massachusetts in 1791, was best known for developing the telegraph and Morse Code. He also ran unsuccessfully for mayor of New York City on an anti-immigrant and anti-Catholic “Nativist” party platform. This passage is an excerpt from his book, Foreign Conspiracy against the Liberties of the United States, published in 1835. DOES this heading seem singular? What, it will be said, is it at all probable that any nation or combination of nations, can entertain designs against us, a people so peaceable, and at the same time so distant? … Let me, nevertheless, ask attention, while I humbly offer my reasons for believing that a conspiracy exists, that its plans are already in operation, and that we are attacked in a vulnerable quarter which cannot be defended by our ships, our forts, or our armies. Who among us is not aware that a mighty struggle of opinion is in our days agitating all the nations of Europe; that there is a war going on between despotism on one side, and liberty on the other. … Americans, you indeed sleep upon a mine. … You have agents among you, men in the pay of those very foreign powers, whose every measure of foreign and domestic policy has now for its end and aim the destruction of liberty everywhere. To increase your peril, you have a press that will not apprise you of the dangers that threaten you; we can reach you with our warnings only through the religious journals; the daily press is blind, or asleep, or bribed, or afraid; at any rate, it is silent on this subject, and thus is throwing the weight of its influence on the side of your enemies. … Americans, if you depend on your daily press, you rely on a broken reed; it fails you in your need. It dare not, no, it dare not attack Popery. It dare not drag into the light the political enemies of your liberty, because they come in the name of religion. All despotic Europe is awake and active in plotting your downfall, and yet they let you sleep, and you choose not to be awaked; "a little more sleep, a little more slumber, a little more folding of the hands to sleep." And now like a man whose house is on fire, dreaming of comfort and security, you will perhaps repel with passion and reproach the friendly hand that would wake you in season to escape with your life.


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Passage 26-A Comparing the two passages, which of the following statements is true?

What is the common theme of the two passages? A. Liberty in the United States B. Immigration in the United States C. Voting rights in the United States D. Threats to the United States How are the two passages different in purpose? A. Schurz appeals to a live audience in a speech to defend immigrants; Morse appeals to readers to take over the press. B. Schurz wants to increase the number of voters; Morse wants to decrease the number of voters. C. Schurz wants people to remember their history; Morse wants people to pay attention to the present. D. Schurz advocates for equal treatment of citizens, regardless of where they were born; Morse warns of the danger of foreign intervention and influence on American politics. How is Morse's idea of liberty different from that of Schurz? A. Morse says people can't have liberty when under threat from foreign invasion; Schurz believes in freedom of individuals to grow and prosper. B. Schurz advocates for the freedom to vote in every election; Morse advocates for limiting the rights of foreigners so that Americans will have their freedom. C. Morse claims people will only have liberty when they are safe from others who want to attack the United States; Schurz suggests that people will have liberty if everyone can vote. D. Schurz says people will have liberty if the amendment is defeated; Morse pushes for freedom from foreign intervention. How did the backgrounds of Schurz and Morse contribute to shaping their views? A. Schurz was uneducated and Morse had a college education. B. Schurz was German and had ties to his homeland, while Morse was born in the United States and feared foreigners would take over the country. C. Schurz was foreign born and had experienced the destructive wars in Europe; Morse was American born and feared the problems of Europe would become American problems. D. Schurz's experience as an immigrant prompted him to fight for immigrants' rights; Morse's success as an inventor prompted him to try to ban the use of his inventions in Europe.

27

A. Schurz is respectful and complimentary; Morse is insulting. B. Schurz is passionate in his appeal; Morse quietly appeals to people's belief systems. C. Schurz appeals to the pride of the people of Massachusetts; Morse appeals to people's fears. D. Schurz is concerned about the status of immigrants; Morse is concerned about the status of the Pope.

What support does Schurz give for his argument that the amendment should be rejected?

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A. Schurz compares himself to other great statesmen in America's history to show he would vote for great Americans. B. Schurz proves that he knows a lot about American history and should be given the vote. C. As a foreigner, Schurz explains that he has witnessed the ravages of war and therefore cherishes liberty as much as or more than his fellow Americans. D. Schurz shows his own patriotism and love of country to prove that he is proud of his citizenship and the rights inherent in that honor.

Which wording illustrates the tone of passage 2? A. lines 70–72 ("is it . . . against us") B. lines 83–85 ("Americans, you . . . powers") C. lines 74–75 ("I humbly . . . conspiracy exists") D. lines 79–81 ("Who among . . . of Europe") Which of the following lines from the text indicate what Morse thinks is the most dangerous threat to the United States? A. Lines 70–72 ("any nation . . . so peaceable") B. Lines 76–78 ("we are attacked . . . armies.") C. Line 81–82 ("a war going on . . . on the other") D. Line 95–96 ("Americans, if you . . . reed.") As used in line 13, “venerable” most nearly means A. revered. B. historic. C. antiquated. D. wonderful. What is the best synonym for the word reproach as used in line 106? A. reject B. honor C. doubt D. approve


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Passage 26-B

 Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. The Heart and Its Functions 23) While seemingly simple, a heartbeat is actually

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the result of 24) an entangled set of operations that pumps the heart tens of thousands of times per day. The

The heart is a hard-working organ with functions that have intrigued physicians through the ages.

heart is really two pumps, each made up of two chambers. Despite a common misconception, the functions of these two pumps are not 25) one in the same. The right atrium and the right ventricle are two chambers that form one of the pumps. The right atrium receives oxygen-poor (blue) blood from the body and pumps 26) it into the right ventricle. Then the right ventricle sends this blood to the lungs to absorb more

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oxygen. The other pump consists of the left atrium and the left ventricle. The left atrium receives oxygen-rich (red) blood from the lungs and pumps it into the left ventricle. Then the left ventricle sends this blood to

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nourish the rest of the body. 27) [1] The "ignition key" to the heart's electrical

conducting system is its natural pacemaker, the sinoatrial node (SA node). [2] The SA node is able to set

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the normal pace of the heart's contractions without monitoring by the central nervous system; skeletal muscles receive their electrical signals from the central nervous system, but the SA node tells the heart to beat

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at a steady rate. 28) [3] Since the SA node dictates the heartbeat the heart will still maintain a beat during a heart transplant even though it is not connected to a body. [4] This steady rate is often modified according to the body's needs by the cardioregulatory center, which is located near the top of the spinal cord in the medulla oblongata. [5] The cardioregulatory center can send signals to speed up the heart during strenuous activity, or to slow the rate down while the body is resting.

At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence:

28

Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, because it functions as the topic sentence for this paragraph. B. Yes, because it sets up the explanation of a heartbeat. C. No, because it should be placed at the end of this paragraph. D. No, because the information in the sentence is not relevant to this paragraph or passage. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE an intricate a convoluted a perplexing

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE one of the same. one and the same. one but the same.

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE those them these

To make this paragraph most logical, this sentence should be placed A. where it is now. B. after sentence 2. C. after sentence 3. D. after sentence 4. A. NO CHANGE B. Since, the SA node dictates the heartbeat, the heart will still maintain a beat during a heart transplant even though it is not connected to a body. C. Since the SA node dictates the heartbeat, the heart will still maintain a beat during a heart transplant even though it is not connected to a body. D. Since the SA node dictates the heartbeat the heart will still maintain a beat during a heart transplant; even though it is not connected to a body.


2

The SA node is located on the wall of the right atrium, 29) where it originates the electrochemical stimulation for the heart. 30) It depolarizes itself about 70–80 times per minute. Each time it does so, an electrochemical signal is sent to the adjacent atrial muscle cells, depolarizing them as well. This wave of electrical conduction spreads through all of the muscle cells of the right atrium, then to the muscle cells of the left atrium, signaling them to contract. This atrial conduction also races along "highways" from the SA node to the atrioventricular node (AV node). The AV node is located at the base of the right atrium, where it connects to the right ventricle. The AV node controls the contractions of the ventricles, and does so by delaying the signals from the SA node by a fraction of a second. This delay allows the atria to contract, pushing more blood into the relaxed ventricles; the ventricles take the opportunity to fill with blood before the signal finally reaches them, causing them to contract and pump the blood back out of the heart. If the SA node becomes 31) rotten or damaged, then the AV node can take over as the heart's pacemaker, though the heart will beat at an abnormally slow rate of about 40–50 beats per minute. This is less than 50% of a normal person’s maximum heart rate. Another set of "highways" connects the AV node to the AV bundle. The AV bundle 32) will branch into two strips, one going down the length of each ventricle. From the AV bundle, the electrochemical signal to contract is distributed uniformly across the cells of the ventricles, ensuring regular pumping of the blood. If neither the SA node nor the AV node is functioning properly, then the AV bundle may act as a backup pacemaker, but its rhythm is only 20–40 beats per minute, 33) which is 10–20 beats per minute slower than a 20-year-old's target heart rate during exercise. Together, these various components combine to create the life-giving rhythm we call a heartbeat.

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Passage 26-B

The writer is considering deleting the underlined part of the sentence. Should the writer do this? A. Yes, because it does not relate to the placement of the SA node. B. Yes, because it adds information that does not relate to the rest of the paragraph. C. No, because it explains why the right atrium is important. D. No, because it provides information that supports the main idea of the paragraph. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE This The SA node The electrochemical stimulation

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE diseased robust run-down

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE branched has branched branches

Which rewrite provides accurate information according to the graph? A. NO CHANGE B. which is 100–110 beats per minute slower than a normal 20-year-old's target heart rate when exercising. C. which is 80–90 beats per minute slower than a normal 60-year-old's target heart rate when exercising. D. which is 100–120 beats per minute slower than a normal 35-year-old's target heart rate when exercising.


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Passage 27-A

Questions 32-41 are based on the following passage.

Watching Worms Will Help Humans Age More Gracefully

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The plot of many a science fiction TV series or movie revolves around the premise that people traveling long distances in space age more slowly than their counterparts on Earth. Now, tiny worms who spent time aboard the International Space Station could help humans understand more about the effects of aging in space for real. Many studies document changes that happen to the human body in microgravity, including a decrease in heart function and loss of bone and muscle. The mechanisms behind these changes still are not well-understood and also may play a role in the rate at which organisms—including astronauts—age in space. A recent study called Space Aging, with samples returning aboard the sixth SpaceX resupply mission, will compare the health and longevity of roundworms aboard the station with others remaining on Earth. The roundworm Caenorhabditis elegans (C. elegans) is about 1 millimeter (some 0.04 inches) long with a life span of only two months, making it an ideal model organism for such a study. “Aging rate and lifespan could be influenced by microgravity,” says principal investigator Yoko Honda, Ph.D., with the Tokyo Metropolitan Geriatric Hospital and Institute of Gerontology. “If that is correct, we may be able to identify novel genes that play a role in longevity.” Identification of such genes could contribute to development of new drugs to treat age-related illnesses such as neurodegenerative disease in humans. The worms were cultivated to all reach young adult stage at the same time. The ones sent to space were cultured inside boxes in the station’s Cell Biology Experiment Facility (CBEF), located inside the Japanese Experiment Module (JEM)— also known as Kibo, meaning hope in Japanese. The CBEF has one compartment under microgravity conditions and another compartment where a centrifuge provides artificial gravity. This allowed researchers to compare the aging rate of worms in microgravity, simulated gravity, and Earth’s gravity. Each box has four cameras, controlled from the ground in Tsukuba, Japan, that filmed the worms for three minutes each day. The researchers developed special software to analyze the activity level of each worm as a marker of its aging rate, given that older organisms typically move more slowly. Any roundworm that did not move for three minutes would be assumed to have died. Video images were transmitted to the ground daily for review, according to Sachiko Yano, Ph.D., life science mission scientist with the JEM Utilization Center at the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

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(JAXA). At the end of the expedition, the worms were frozen and stowed for return to the ground for gene analysis. Understanding how microgravity affects our aging process is critical to long-duration space missions such as those to Mars and other planets—not only to protect astronauts, but also any organisms used in life support hardware such as plants or bacteria in bioregenerative systems. Any such organisms adversely affected by microgravity-caused changes to aging processes would have limited usefulness for lengthy space travel. Even for those of us who never leave the Earth, this work on C. elegans could help realize those sci-fi dreams of living long and prospering.

Credit: JAXA/Tohoku University [caption: Photo A: A researcher prepares samples of the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency’s Epigenetics investigation at the Kennedy Space Center in Florida for launch on the fifth SpaceXresupply mission to the International Space Station.]

Credit: NASA. [caption: Photograph B: An astronaut in the space station shows her instruments.]


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Which statement best expresses a summary of the passage? A. Roundworms are one of the best organisms to use for study of medicine in space. B. Scientists are studying tiny roundworms to research the process of human aging. C. We can learn a lot from the space station because the aging process in space is different from that on Earth. D. Space stations produce scientific research that has application to life on Earth. How might studying the effects of space travel on the human body yield important medical information? A. It could show humans how to live healthier lives. B. It could help doctors find new ways to rehabilitate muscle loss. C. It could lead to new surgical methods for heart patients and extend people's lives. D. It could answer questions about aging, which could lead to developing new medications for age-related diseases. Why is the roundworm an ideal organism to use for this type of study? A. It has a short lifespan. B. It has a long lifespan. C. It shares the same gene structure as humans. D. It is portable. What happens to humans when they are not in a place where the gravity is the same as that of the Earth? A. They have shorter lives. B. They experience muscle loss, bone loss and decrease in heart function. C. They are more likely to get a neurodegenerative disease. D. They live longer.

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Passage 27-A

How do the two photographs together illustrate microgravity?

A. Both photographs illustrate gravity in a lab setting.

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B. Photograph A shows how gravity affects testing the samples. Photograph B shows how microgravity makes people float in air. C. Photograph A shows the effect of gravity on Earth as the researcher is standing in the Florida lab. Photograph B shows an astronaut in space where the microgravity makes her body float in the air. D. Photograph A shows how microgravity affects the samples being tested; photograph B shows the stability of the lab equipment when there is no gravity. Why were the worms frozen before being sent back to Earth? A. To stop the aging process B. To make sure they were all in the same condition when they returned to Earth C. To keep them from flying around in the space capsule D. To make handling them easier Which statement from the passage best describes the overall goal of the experiment with the roundworms? A. Lines 41–43 ("to compare . . . gravity") B. Lines 6–7 ("help humans . . . in space") C. Lines 27–28 ("to identify . . . in longevity") D. Lines 47–50 ("to analyze . . . more slowly") Which statement from the passage best explains how the experiment could help people live longer on Earth? A. Lines 8–11 ("studies document . . . muscle") B. Lines 18–22 ("The roundworm . . . a study") C. Lines 28–30 ("Identification of . . . illnesses") D. Lines 59–60 ("Understanding . . . missions") Based on the passage, what is the best definition of microgravity? A. An absence of any gravity B. A small amount of gravity C. The gravity of the moon D. The gravity of the Earth What is a marker, as used in line 48? A. A mark made on a worm B. A felt tipped pen used to write on a worm C. A notation made in a log book to indicate changes in the worm D. A way of recording each worm’s aging rate


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Passage 27-B

 Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage. Computer Science 34) Looking at the numbers, the field of computer

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sciences is booming. According to Code.org, there are currently more than 600,000 open computer science– related jobs in the U.S.—jobs that pay almost 85% more than the median minimum wage. Moreover, 35) the rate of job growth in the computer sciences is four times faster. While these statistics may make computer sciences a 36) lucrative career choice, education for

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these jobs is sorely lacking.

Currently, only 2.4% of college students graduate with a degree in computer sciences, and women and minorities are underrepresented. Data collected from

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the 2013 AP computer science test showed some 37) peculiar statistics: 38) in three states, no female

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students took the computer sciences exam, in eleven states, no black students took the exam, and in eight states, no Hispanic students took the exam.

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Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? A. There are over 600,000 computer science jobs open in the United States. B. The computer science sector is growing at a rate of four times the national average. C. The field of computer sciences is booming, but there doesn't seem to be enough education for these potentially well-paying jobs. D. In the field of computer sciences, women and minorities tend to be underrepresented because of a general lack of educational opportunities. A. NO CHANGE B. the rate of job growth in the computer sciences is four times faster than others. C. the rate of job growth in the computer sciences is four times faster than in other fields. D. the rate of job growth in the computer sciences is four times faster than otherwise. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE sweet challenging unprofitable

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE disconcerting surprising outdated

A. NO CHANGE B. in three states, no female students took the computer sciences exam—in eleven states, no black students took the exam—and in eight states, no Hispanic students took the exam. C. in three states no female students took the computer sciences exam in eleven states no black students took the exam and in eight states no Hispanic students took the exam. D. in three states, no female students took the computer sciences exam; in eleven states, no black students took the exam; and in eight states, no Hispanic students took the exam.


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39) These statistics point out the troubling discrepancy

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between work opportunities in computer sciences and the education available in order to qualify for those job. According to the College Board, more than 165,000 female students who took the PSAT demonstrated potential for success in AP Computer Sciences. 40) However, only 2.5% of these same students had

access to an AP computer sciences course. Similarly, only 4.7% of the over 33,000 black and Hispanic students

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who showed potential for success in AP Computer Sciences had access to the course. Says David Coleman, College Board President and CEO, "As a nation, we must do more to cultivate an interest in computer science among students of all backgrounds and ensure that 41) they have the preparation to pursue the computing

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jobs that will help power future economic growth." To that end, the College Board and Code.org have made it 42) our mission to help high schools across the

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nation address these educational deficiencies. Together, they are: 43) developing new computer science

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courses; encouraging the identification of underrepresented students who might excel in computer sciences; and they funded the professional development of new computer science teachers. While this is a step in the right direction, it is estimated that 44) only 5–10% of U.S. schools currently teach computer sciences. Unfortunately, for the foreseeable future, the growth rate for computer science–related jobs will continue to outpace the nation's ability to train students for these jobs. Estimates show that, if the current trend continues, by the year 2020 there will be 1 million more computerrelated jobs than there are qualified applicants who can fill them.

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Passage 27-B A. NO CHANGE B. These statistic point out the troubling discrepancy between work opportunities in computer sciences and the education available in order to qualify for those jobs. C. These statistics point out the troubling discrepancy between a work opportunity in computer sciences and the education available in order to qualify for those jobs. D. These statistics point out the troubling discrepancy between work opportunities in computer sciences and the education available in order to qualify for those jobs. The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted? A. Kept, because it provides a detail that supports the main topic of the paragraph. B. Kept, because it sets up the main topic of the paragraph that follows. C. Deleted, because it blurs the paragraph's main focus with a loosely related detail. D. Deleted, because it repeats information that has been provided in an earlier paragraph. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE we it she

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE my its their

A. NO CHANGE B. developing new computer science courses; encouraging the identification of under-represented students who might excel in computer sciences; and funding the professional development of new computer science teachers. C. developing new computer science courses; encouraging the identification of under-represented students who might excel in computer sciences; and fund the professional development of new computer science teachers. D. develop new computer science courses; encourage the identification of under-represented students who might excel in computer sciences; and funding the professional development of new computer science teachers. For the underlined phrase, which choice provides the most relevant detail? A. NO CHANGE B. more students will be seeking some form of postsecondary education after high school. C. more schools will be offering online training in the future. D. more high school students will have access to computers at school.


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 Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage.

Passage 28-A

Reading Test

- Passage 1 explains the causes and effects of malaria, a treatable disease that is not common in the United States. - Passage 2 describes the influenza pandemic of 1918 in the United States at the end of World War I. -

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Passage 1 Malaria—The Disease

Malaria and Influenza

Malaria is a serious and sometimes fatal disease caused by a parasite that commonly infects a certain type of mosquito that feeds on humans. People who get malaria are typically very sick with high fevers, shaking chills, and flu-like illness. . . . Although malaria can be a deadly disease, illness and death from malaria can usually be prevented. About 1,500 cases of malaria are diagnosed in the United States each year. The vast majority of cases in the United States are in immigrants and travelers returning from parts of the world where malaria transmission occurs, including subSaharan Africa and South Asia. Usually people get malaria by being bitten by an infective female Anopheles mosquito. Only Anopheles mosquitoes can transmit malaria, and they must have been infected through a previous blood meal taken from an infected person. When a mosquito bites an infected person, it takes a small amount of blood containing microscopic malaria parasites. About 1 week later, when the mosquito takes its next blood meal, these parasites mix with the mosquito's saliva and are injected into the person being bitten. Because the malaria parasite is found in red blood cells of an infected person, malaria can also be transmitted through blood transfusion, organ transplant, or the shared use of needles or syringes contaminated with blood. Malaria may also be transmitted from a mother to her unborn infant before or during delivery. Malaria is not spread from person to person like a cold or the flu, and it cannot be sexually transmitted. You cannot get malaria from casual contact with malaria-infected people, such as sitting next to someone who has malaria. Attempts at producing an effective malaria vaccine and vaccine clinical trials are ongoing. The malaria parasite is a complex organism with a complicated life cycle. The parasite has the ability to evade your immune system by constantly changing its surface, so developing a vaccine against these varying surfaces is very difficult. In addition, scientists do not yet totally understand the complex immune responses that protect humans against malaria. However, many scientists all over the world are working on developing an effective vaccine. Because other methods of fighting malaria, including drugs, insecticides, and insecticide-treated bed nets, have not succeeded in eliminating the disease, the search for a vaccine is considered to be one of the most important research projects in public health.

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Passage 2 The 1918 Influenza Pandemic

Throughout history, influenza viruses have mutated and caused pandemics or global epidemics. In 1918, most physicians and scientists mistakenly believed that influenza was caused by a bacteria, not a virus. . . . Most early twentieth-century 60) physicians were familiar with influenza and its symptoms. Diagnosis, however, was often difficult because physicians frequently confused the disease with another viral infection, the common cold. In 1918, diagnosing influenza 65) became even more difficult because an especially virulent form of the disease had erupted. 55)

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[R]eports of severe influenza trickled in from Europe. Young soldiers . . . were becoming ill in large numbers. Most of these men recovered quickly but some developed a secondary pneumonia of "a most virulent and deadly type." Within two months, influenza had spread from the military to the civilian population in Europe. From there, the disease spread outward—to Asia, Africa, South America and, back again, to North America. In Boston, dockworkers . . . were reported sick in massive numbers during the last week in August. Suffering from fevers as high as 105 degrees, these workers had severe muscle and joint pains. For most of these men, recovery quickly followed. But 5 to 10% of these patients developed severe and massive pneumonia. Death often followed. In October, Congress appropriated a million dollars for the Public Health Service (PHS). The money enabled the PHS to recruit and pay for additional doctors and nurses. The existing shortage of doctors and nurses, caused by the war [World War I], made it difficult for the PHS to locate and hire qualified practitioners. The virulence of the disease also meant that many nurses and doctors contracted influenza within days of being hired. During the fall of 1918, researchers from the Public Health Service . . . began looking for a vaccine. They were joined by researchers in many other countries. These researchers developed a range of vaccines that were then tested in communities all over the world. None of these vaccines proved effective. While researchers placed their hope in vaccines, many politicians and physicians came to believe that the spread of the disease could be contained by quarantines and bans on public gatherings, [so] schools, theaters, saloons, pool halls, and even churches were all closed. Across the United States, cities and counties also began to require or recommend that citizens wear gauze masks. Unfortunately, while masks are highly effective at preventing diseases that are caused by bacteria, they are less effective in providing protection against viral diseases. As a result, even in communities where the wearing of masks was made mandatory, influenza could not be contained. [T]wo months after the pandemic had erupted, the Public Health Service began reporting that influenza cases were declining. Communities slowly lifted their quarantines. Masks were discarded. Schools were re-opened and citizens flocked to celebrate the end of World War I. Communities and the disease continued to be a threat throughout the spring of 1919. By the time the pandemic had ended, in the summer of 1919, nearly 675,000 Americans were dead from influenza. Hundreds of thousands more were orphaned and widowed.


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169 How is malaria different from influenza? A. Malaria is only found in the tropics; influenza is found all over the world. B. Malaria can be prevented, but influenza cannot. C. Malaria is caused by a common mosquito bite, and influenza is a bacterial infection. D. Malaria is caused by a parasite carried by a mosquito; influenza is caused by a virus.

Passage 28-A 6

7 Based on the diagram, which human organ is affected by the malaria-carrying mosquito? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Liver D. Skin 8 Which of the following characteristics made the influenza outbreak in 1918 a pandemic? A. It killed thousands of people. B. It was spread around the world. C. It spread quickly by human contact and affected thousands of people. D. It couldn't be contained easily because there was no vaccine for it.

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Which of the following characteristics made the influenza outbreak in 1918 a pandemic? A. It killed thousands of people. B. It was spread around the world. C. It spread quickly by human contact and affected thousands of people. D. It couldn't be contained easily because there was no vaccine for it. Which of the following characteristics made the influenza outbreak in 1918 a pandemic? A. It killed thousands of people. B. It was spread around the world. C. It spread quickly by human contact and affected thousands of people. D. It couldn't be contained easily because there was no vaccine for it.

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Which of the following lines of the text explain the effects of malaria? A. Lines 29–31 ("Malaria may . . . during delivery") B. Lines 25–29 ("Because the . . . with blood") C. Lines 14–15 ("Usually, people . . . Anopheles mosquito") D. Lines 4–5 ("People who . . . flu-like illness") What is the meaning of the word evade as used in line 40? A. Enter into the bloodstream B. Avoid through clever changes C. Disappear without a trace D. Take over the immune system Which of the following are methods of transmitting malaria? A. Sneezing B. Sharing a glass C. Sharing needles or syringes D. Shaking hands Which of the following lines of the text explain why influenza killed so many people? A. Lines 82–83 ("But 5 to 10% . . . massive pneumonia") B. Lines 61–64 ("Diagnosis, however . . . common cold") C. Lines 87–90 ("The existing . . . qualified practitioners") D. Lines 97–100 ("These researchers . . . proved effective") What is the best substitute word or phrase for the word contracted as used in line 92? A. Reduced B. Came down with C. Signed an agreement D. Became smaller


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Passage 28-B

Writing and Language Test

 Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

Harper Lee and Me I was a fresh-faced freshman in high school the first

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time I read Harper Lee's To Kill a Mockingbird. 1) In my thinking about class and race in America, this book proved to be a turning point, growing up in a small, predominately white Midwestern town. Like many, I idolized Atticus Finch—the lone man standing tall for what was true and just and right in a world that was so

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cruel, unjust, and wrong. I took to heart 2) Atticus'es words to Scout, that "You never really understand a person until you consider things from his point of view . . .

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until you climb inside of his skin and walk around in it." 3) To Kill a Mockingbird marked the beginning of

my own personal journey to cross cultural and societal boundaries—to "climb inside" the skin of others and

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"walk around" a bit. 4) With a child-like innocence akin to Scout's, I believed that Atticus Finch was "the bravest man who ever lived." So, when news broke that a newly "discovered" novel by Harper Lee was being published that would take the reader back to Maycomb and portray a much altered Atticus Finch, I was nervous. What if Lee,

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the woman who had done so much to help shape my worldview, 5) underscored it with one stroke of the 6) pen.

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A. NO CHANGE B. This book proved to be a turning point in my thinking about class and race in America, growing up in a small, predominately white Midwestern town. C. Growing up in a small, predominately white Midwestern town, I saw this book as a pivotal turning point in my thinking about class and race in America. D. This book, growing up in a small, predominantly white Midwestern town, proved to be a pivotal turning point in my thinking about class and race in America. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE Atticuses' Atticus's Atticuses

Which choice most effectively sets up the information that follows? A. NO CHANGE B. I read To Kill a Mockingbird with a zeal that only a high school freshman can imagine. C. Harper Lee was able to catch my imagination as no other author had done before. D. After reading To Kill a Mockingbird, Atticus and Scout felt like family to me. Which choice most effectively maintains the paragraph's focus on relevant information and ideas? A. NO CHANGE B. Later, I would take a very different journey across the world in a real-world cross-cultural exploration. C. I still believe that Scout was one of the most reliable narrators in any book I have read. D. Until I read To Kill a Mockingbird, I had not really been aware of how much I appreciated Southern literature. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE envisaged immobilized eviscerated

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE pen! pen, pen?


2 Go Set a Watchman is Lee's self-professed "parent"

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book of To Kill a Mockingbird. 7) Written two years before Mockingbird, Watchman is the genesis for the beloved novel that would eventually come two years later. The first chapter of Watchman opens with Jean Louise Finch (Scout) returning home for a visit to Maycomb from New York City. Jean Louise takes the train

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instead of a plane because "the novelty of the experience amused her." 8) The long train ride from New York City to

Maycomb affords Jean Louise the opportunity to reminisce about her home, "a wilderness dotted with tiny settlements the largest of which was Maycomb, the county seat." She also fondly recalls a conversation with her father—the great and heroic Atticus Finch. Jean Louise expectantly awaits her reunion with her father as

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the train eases into Maycomb Junction. An uncomfortable pause follows this eager expectation as Jean Louise steps from the train. Lee sets the tone for the rest of the novel in one candid, 9) angry

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sentence: "Her father was not waiting for her." Unlike Mockingbird, this precursor of a novel is about 10) coming to term with our own flawed humanity and

accepting or rejecting those flaws in the people we love and admire most. 11) Since Watchman lacks the beauty and idealism of Mockingbird, I wonder, perhaps, if it isn't more honest.

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Passage 28-B

A. NO CHANGE B. Written two years before Mockingbird, Watchman is the genesis for the beloved novel that would eventually come. C. Written two years before Mockingbird, Watchman is the genesis for the beloved novel, which has its roots in Watchman. D. Written two years before Mockingbird, Watchman is the genesis for Mockingbird because Lee conceived of it first. Which choice most effectively establishes the main topic of the paragraph? A. The novel opens with Jean Louise (or Scout) thinking about her hometown and her father as she rides a train from New York City back to Maycomb, where her father waits to pick her up. B. The narrator considers how fond Jean Louise (or Scout) is of her father and how small the town of Maycomb, the setting for To Kill a Mockingbird, is. C. The opening scene of Watchman sets the tone for the novel: As Jean Louise arrives in Maycomb for a reunion with her father, she finds that her father has not shown up to meet her. D. In Watchman, the now-grown Scout lives in New York City, but reflects on Maycomb, the small town where she grew up, throughout the novel. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE labored stark apprehensive

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE coming to terms coming to turn coming to turns

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE Because If While


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Passage 29-A

 Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage. The Cost of Delaying Action to Stem Climate Change

Besides the physical changes to the Earth's environment brought about by climate change, there are also economic effects. This passage is an excerpt from a 2014 government report that studied the economic consequences of ignoring the problems of climate change.

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Delaying climate policies avoids or reduces expenditures on new pollution control technologies in the near term. But this short-term advantage must be set against the disadvantages, which are the costs of delay. The costs of delay are driven by fundamental elements of climate science and economics. Because the lifetime of CO2 [carbon dioxide] in the atmosphere is very long, if a mitigation policy is delayed, it must take as its starting point a higher atmospheric concentration of CO2. As a result, delayed mitigation can result in two types of cost, which we would experience in different proportions depending on subsequent policy choices. First, if delay means an increase in the ultimate end-point concentration of CO2, then delay will result in additional warming and additional economic damages resulting from climate change. . . . [E]conomists who have studied the costs of climate change find that temperature increases of 2° Celsius above preindustrial levels or less are likely to result in aggregate economic damages that are a small fraction of GDP [Gross Domestic Product: the total value of all goods and services]. This small net effect masks important differences in which some regions could benefit somewhat from this warming while other regions could experience net costs. But global temperatures have already risen nearly 1° above preindustrial levels, and it will require concerted effort to hold temperature increases to within the narrow range consistent with small costs. For temperature increases of 3° Celsius or more above preindustrial levels, the aggregate economic damages from climate change are expected to increase sharply. Delay that causes a climate target to be missed creates large estimated economic damages. For example, a calculation . . . based on a leading climate model . . . shows that if a delay causes the mean global temperature increase to stabilize at 3° Celsius above preindustrial levels, instead of 2°, that delay will induce annual additional damages of approximately 0.9 percent of global output. To put this percentage in perspective, 0.9 percent of estimated 2014 U.S. GDP is approximately $150

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billion. The next degree increase, from 3° to 4°, would incur greater additional annual costs of approximately 1.2 percent of global output. These costs are not one-time: they are incurred year after year because of the permanent damage caused by additional climate change resulting from the delay. The research shows that any short-run gains from delay tend to be outweighed by the additional costs arising from the need to adopt a more abrupt and stringent policy later. An analysis of the collective results from that research . . . suggests that the cost of hitting a specific climate target increases, on average, by approximately 40 percent for each decade of delay. These costs are higher for more aggressive climate goals: the longer the delay, the more difficult it becomes to hit a climate target. Furthermore, the research also finds that delay substantially decreases the chances that even concerted efforts in the future will hit the most aggressive climate targets.

This graph shows the increase in greenhouse gas (GHG) concentrations in the atmosphere over the last 2,000 years. Increases in concentrations of these gases since 1750 are due to human activities in the industrial era. Concentration units are parts per million (ppm) or parts per billion (ppb), indicating the number of molecules of the greenhouse gas per million or billion molecules of air.


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What is the purpose of the report?

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A. Describe how putting off dealing with climate change will greatly increase costs later B. Report the results of research about the effects of climate change C. Announce new climate change policies and explain why they are needed D. Explain what scientists expect to happen if action isn't taken to address climate change

According to the report, which of the following is a consequence of putting off efforts to reduce climate change? A. CO2 will stay in the atmosphere for a longer time. B. Global temperatures will rise steeply. C. It will cost a lot more money to reduce CO2 emissions later. D. Aggregate short-term cost savings will help until solutions are found. Which of the following situations is most analogous to the argument that it is very important to take action to address climate change now? A. Taking a vacation now or delaying it until you have more money B. Taking care of a toothache now or waiting a few months before seeing a dentist C. Buying a new coat now or waiting until next year to purchase it D. Doing your homework when you get home from school or putting if off until the morning

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Why is it more cost-effective to prevent further temperature rises?

A. The Earth will get hotter with every degree of increase. B. Atmospheric CO2 is easier to reduce at lower temperatures. C. The damages from higher temperatures are more expensive to fix than those from lower temperatures. D. Some damages due to climate change are permanent, making the costs to fix them continue to multiply.

What is the relationship between CO2 and rising temperatures? A. CO2 is more concentrated at higher temperatures. B. An increase in CO2 levels in the atmosphere triggers increased temperatures. C. A greater than 2° Celsius temperature increase will create bigger climate problems. D. Higher temperatures will incur higher costs because of permanent damage.

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Passage 29-A Based on the graph, what is the best description of the changes in atmospheric gases over the centuries?

A. GHG concentrations in the atmosphere did not begin to accelerate until the eighteenth century but the dramatic increase has taken place in the last century. B. Nitrous oxide has been a growing problem since the eleventh century. C. The concentration of CO2 and methane increased dramatically in the sixteenth century. D. The twenty-first century is set to experience the highest concentrations of GHG in human history.

Based on the graph, how has the relationship between the three greenhouse gases changed over the centuries?

A. They have all been under 280 ppm until the eighteenth century. B. The ratio of carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide was about the same until the middle of the nineteenth century. C. The concentration of nitrous oxide has not increased. D. The concentration of all three gases began to increase proportionally in the 1600s.

Which of the following statements in the text represents a logical conclusion of the report? A. B. C. D.

Lines 56–60 ("An analysis . . . of delay") Lines 53–56 ("The research . . . policy later") Lines 37–38 ("Delay that . . . damages") Lines 47–49 ("The next . . . global output")

Which of the following statements from the text supports the report's conclusion? A. B. C. D.

Lines 1–3("Delaying climate . . . near term") Lines 63–66 ("Furthermore, the . . . targets") Lines 7–11 ("Because the . . . of CO2") Lines 60–62 ("These costs . . . target")

Which of the following is the best definition of the word aggregate as used in line 34? A. Clusters in a group B. Total amount C. Individual units considered as one D. An equal amount

Which is the best synonym for induce as used in line 43? A. Stimulate B. Influence C. Produce D. Add


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Passage 29-B

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. The Physics of Baseball 12) Baseball has long been considered America’s

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favorite sport for a good reason. Babe Ruth. Hank Aaron. Mark McGwire. These are just a few of the names that spring to mind when considering Major League Baseball's celebrated club of 13) irrepressible home-run hitters. To hear the crack of a hitter's bat as it smacks against the baseball and to see the ball soar in a graceful arc across

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the field is a thing of sublime beauty for baseball fans. But how, exactly, do these magnificent home runs happen? Can physics help us understand a homerun? The answer

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is, yes. It all starts with two concepts: velocity and vibration. Newton's Second Law states that "the acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object." In laymen's terms, this means that an object accelerates depending on its mass and the speed at which 14) they hit the opposing force. Major league pitchers

can throw a baseball, which weighs 5 ounces, at an average speed of 90–92 mph. According to Newton's Second Law, 15) a 5-oz. baseball thrown at 90 mph exerts about 4,145 pounds of force. That's a lot to overcome. So how does a person ever hit a homerun?

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The writer is considering deleting the underlined sentence. Should the writer do this? A. Yes, because the information in the sentence should be placed at the end of the paragraph. B. Yes, because this information does not support the main idea of the paragraph. C. No, because this information supports the main idea of the paragraph. D. No, because this sentence provides an accurate introduction to the paragraph. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE illusive ostentatious elite

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE it hits he hits I hit

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE a 5-oz. baseball thrown at 90 mph exert 5-oz. baseball thrown at 90 mph exert 5-oz. baseball thrown at 90 mph exerts


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16) Newton's Third Law states that "whenever one

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object exerts force on a second object, the second exerts

Should the writer make this addition here?

when a baseball bat collides with a baseball, the bat's

A. Yes, because this sentence provides quantitative information to explain how a home run is hit. B. Yes, because this sentence introduces the paragraph by answering the question posed in the previous paragraph. C. No, because this sentence should be placed at the end of the paragraph, not the beginning. D. No, because this sentence introduces information that is irrelevant to the passage.

force 17) imparts the ball in the opposite direction. Therefore, when a baseball traveling at 90 mph collides with a bat, the force that it contains is transferred back to it. As a result, 18) it will travel at around 110 mph. 17

spot of impact makes a difference as well. When a baseball bat collides with a pitch, the bat vibrates at many

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different frequencies. To maximize distance, hitters need to strike the ball at the point of the bat where there are the fewest vibrations. This spot 20) (Node One) is located

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about six-and-a-half inches from the barrel of the bat. Hitting the ball in Node One allows the bat to transfer more energy to the ball, 21) enabling the batter to— kablam!—hit a homer. This spot is not a fixed point on

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the bat. 22) Moreover, All current methods of testing baseball and softball bat performance use the 6-inch point as the reference for locating Node One.

At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence. In order to hit a home run, a batter must use the bat to apply force to the ball.

an equal and opposite force on the first." Simply put,

19) Hitting home runs is not just a matter of velocity the

Passage 29-B

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A. NO CHANGE B. suppresses C. propels D. designates A. NO CHANGE B. the ball will travel away from the bat C. it will travel away from it D. it will travel away from the ball A. NO CHANGE B. Hitting homeruns is not just a matter of velocity, the spot of impact makes a difference as well. C. Hitting homeruns is not just a matter of velocity; the spot of impact makes a difference as well. D. Hitting homeruns: is not just a matter of velocity the spot of impact makes a difference as well. A. NO CHANGE B. , Node One, C. ; Node One; D. : Node One: A. NO CHANGE B. knocking that baby clear out of the park. C. which is what great batters do when they smack a round-tripper. D. creating more force, which leads to more distance. A. NO CHANGE B. However, C. In conclusion, D. As a result,


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Passage 30-A

Questions 32-41 are based on the following passage. Martin Luther King's Push for Civil Rights

The following is an excerpt from Dr. Martin Luther King's famous "I Have a Dream" speech, delivered on the steps of the Lincoln Memorial on August 28, 1963. During the civil rights movement, King was head of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference and was the movement's most eloquent spokesperson.

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We have . . . come to this hallowed spot to remind America of the fierce urgency of Now. This is no time to engage in the luxury of cooling off or to take the tranquilizing drug of gradualism. Now is the time to make real the promises of democracy. Now is the time to rise from the dark and desolate valley of segregation to the sunlit path of racial justice. Now is the time to lift our nation from the quicksands of racial injustice to the solid rock of brotherhood. Now is the time to make justice a reality for all of God's children. It would be fatal for the nation to overlook the urgency of the moment. This sweltering summer of the Negro's legitimate discontent will not pass until there is an invigorating autumn of freedom and equality. . . . Those who hope that the Negro needed to blow off steam and will now be content will have a rude awakening if the nation returns to business as usual. There will be neither rest nor tranquility in America until the Negro is granted his citizenship rights. The whirlwinds of revolt will continue to shake the foundations of our nation until the bright day of justice emerges. But there is something that I must say to my people, who stand on the warm threshold which leads into the palace of justice: In the process of gaining our rightful place, we must not be guilty of wrongful deeds. Let us not seek to satisfy our thirst for freedom by drinking from the cup of bitterness and hatred. We must forever conduct our struggle on the high plane of dignity and discipline. We must not allow our creative protest to degenerate into physical violence. Again and again, we must rise to the majestic heights of meeting physical force with soul force. The marvelous new militancy which has engulfed the Negro community must not lead us to a distrust of all white people, for many of our white brothers, as evidenced by their presence here today, have come to realize that their destiny is tied up with our destiny. And they have come to realize that their freedom is inextricably bound to our freedom. We cannot walk alone. And as we walk, we must make the pledge that we shall always march ahead. We cannot turn back. There are those who are asking the devotees of civil rights, "When will you be satisfied?"

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We can never be satisfied as long as the Negro is the victim of the unspeakable horrors of police brutality. . . . We cannot be satisfied as long as the Negro's basic mobility is from a smaller ghetto to a larger one. We can never be satisfied as long as our children are stripped of their selfhood and robbed of their dignity by signs stating "For Whites Only." We cannot be satisfied as long as a Negro in Mississippi cannot vote and a Negro in New York believes he has nothing for which to vote. No, no, we are not satisfied, and we will not be satisfied until "justice rolls down like waters and righteousness like a mighty stream." I am not unmindful that some of you have come here out of great trials and tribulations. Some of you have come fresh from narrow jail cells. And some of you have come from areas where your quest for freedom left you battered by the storms of persecution and staggered by the winds of police brutality. You have been the veterans of creative suffering. Continue to work with the faith that unearned suffering is redemptive. Go back to Mississippi, go back to Alabama, go back to South Carolina, go back to Georgia, go back to Louisiana, go back to the slums and ghettos of our northern cities, knowing that somehow this situation can and will be changed. Let us not wallow in the valley of despair. I say to you today, my friends, so even though we face the difficulties of today and tomorrow, I still have a dream.


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What does King mean by his statement that: "It would be fatal for the nation to overlook the urgency of the moment." (lines 12–13)? A. The government will be sorry if it doesn't address the concerns of African Americans immediately. B. The power of the civil rights movement is growing. C. Revolution is coming, and it could get violent if African Americans are not granted justice. D. Business as usual is no longer a choice. Which of the following is the best summary of King's argument? A. Gradual change is not adequate. B. White people are part of the civil rights movement. C. All protest must remain peaceful. D. Now that summer is ending, autumn will bring freedom and equality. What effect does the repeated use of the phrase "Now is the time" (paragraph 1) have on the overall speech? A. It makes it boring. B. It puts emphasis on the moment. C. It gives it urgency. D. It makes people listen more. What is the connotation of King's use of the words "creative suffering" (line 69), in reference to the work of protestors and activists? A. Their activities have been creative, and they don't deserve to suffer. B. The protestors have suffered for a just cause, and it will be rewarded. C. The protestors have been creative in their methods even though they sometimes resulted in violence. D. The civil rights movement is a creative way to make progress even if it involves suffering. Although King's speech reached hundreds of thousands of people, both in person and through an audio broadcast, what group of people was he directly addressing? A. African Americans B. Civil rights workers and protestors C. Government officials D. White Americans

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Passage 30-A Which statement is the best representation of the theme of the speech? A. Violence is not the path to justice for African Americans. B. The quest for equality and justice must be heard and addressed, and we must continue in spite of setbacks. C. We must all get along to ensure equal rights for African Americans. D. To strengthen the movement, we must infiltrate the South as well as the slums of the North. Which text represents King's use of metaphor to make his point? A. Lines 70–75 ("Go back . . . be changed") B. Line 43 ("We cannot walk alone") C. Lines 19–21 ("There will . . . rights") D. Lines 8–9 ("Now is . . . racial injustice") Which of the following lines from the speech illustrate King's point of view about protests? A. Lines 21–23 ("The whirlwinds . . . emerges") B. Lines 64–68 ("And some . . . police brutality") C. Lines 30–33 ("We must . . . physical violence") D. Lines 44–45 ("And as . . . march ahead") In the context of the passage, what is the best definition for hallowed (line 1)? A. An unfilled space or hole B. Consecrated C. Revered D. Disreputable In the context of the passage, what is the best definition of mobility (line 52)? A. The ability to use vehicles for transportation B. The ability to change appearance, mood, or purpose C. The capability of being moved D. The ability to change status within the levels of a society


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Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. Social Media in the Workplace 23) Social media sites are online platforms and

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applications that allow people to interact with one another. Over the past five years, social media sites have exploded into all facets of American 24) life—including the workplace. The prevalence of "smart" technology and the increasing availability of wireless networks make it easy for employees to stay connected to social media throughout the workday, but not all employers 25) will be happy about this. According to a 2013 Pew

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Research study, 94% of all American job-holders used the Internet at work. At the same time, 46% of employers blocked access to certain sites and developed rules about what employees could and could not post online. Issues of

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productivity and discriminatory practices permeate the conversation around the use of social media in the workplace. However, the overwhelming benefits of using social media in the workplace far outweigh the

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drawbacks. There is no conclusive evidence that supports the idea that social media use in the workplace decreases productivity. In fact, many employees find the opposite to be true. 26) According to a survey by Salary.com, 29% of employees spend 1–2 hours on non-work-related websites each day. Use of Internet tools, including social media, allows employees to expand their working hours. Where work was once confined to the chief operating hours of the office, the increased availability of technology and Internet access allows workers greater flexibility regarding when and where 27) you work.

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Which choice most effectively sets up the information that follows? A. NO CHANGE B. Almost every household has at least one computer that is online. C. Many schools now encourage students to do homework online through social media sites. D. Social media sites help people stay in touch with friends who have moved away.

A. NO CHANGE B. life: including C. life; including D. life including

A. NO CHANGE B. were happy C. are happy D. will have been happy

Which choice most effectively provides relevant support for claims or points in the text? A. According to a survey by Salary.com, 29% of employees spend 1–2 hours on non-work-related websites each day. B. Research suggests that some 3% of employees spend a total of 25% of their time on websites that are unrelated to work. C. Around 52% of employees report logging on to the social media site Facebook during work hours. D. According to Pew Research studies, 46% of employees say that Internet tools boost their productivity.

A. NO CHANGE B. they C. we D. I


2 [1] Social media also serves to increase communication

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within the workplace, the byproduct of which can be increased productivity. [2] Instead of sending out a memo or 28) written message, companies can post 29) sententious information directly to a social media

site, therefore ensuring instant notification and compliance. 30) [3] For instance, multiple people

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working on the same project in different departments and locations can utilize social media to create a "virtual" office environment in which collaboration can take place. [4] Furthermore, the use of social media

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within the workplace allows for greater collaboration between co-workers in real-time. Social media has benefits for employers beyond employee productivity. It can be an 31) authorized tool in discovering and hiring new talent. Employers can now

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post job vacancies to social media sites like Twitter. New applications designed for recruiting allow employers to create better online job candidate searches. Online career

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platforms, like LinkedIn, allow both employers and jobseekers to connect faster than ever before. 32) While there have been some validated instances of discriminatory hiring practices due to the availability of personal information, (like race, gender, and age), on social media sites, new laws are being enacted nationwide to help prevent this type of discrimination. As the technology of social media rapidly advances, so too must workplace attitudes. The days of the watercooler are well 33) passed. It is time for employers to embrace the new capabilities social media has to offer.

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Passage 30-B

Which choice gives a second supporting example that is most similar to the example already in the sentence? A. NO CHANGE B. company newsletter C. allowing employees to collaborate D. encouraging the withholding of information A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE imprudent pertinent punctilious

For the sake of cohesion, this sentence would best be placed A. where it is now. B. before sentence 1. C. before sentence 2. D. after sentence 4. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE instrumental unadorned gratuitous

A. NO CHANGE B. While there have been some validated instances of discriminatory hiring practices due to the availability of personal information (like race, gender, and age) on social media sites, new laws are being enacted nationwide to help prevent this type of discrimination. C. While there have been some validated instances of discriminatory hiring practices, due to the availability of personal information, (like race, gender, and age) on social media sites, new laws are being enacted nationwide to help prevent this type of discrimination. D. While there have been some validated instances of discriminatory hiring practices; due to the availability of personal information like race, gender, and age, on social media sites, new laws are being enacted nationwide to help prevent this type of discrimination.

A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE pass pasted d. past


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 Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage. Presidential Proclamation For the 100-year anniversary of the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory fire in New York City, President Obama issued a proclamation to commemorate the event. Following is the text of his proclamation.

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On March 25, 1911, a fire spread through the cramped floors of the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory in lower Manhattan. Flames spread quickly through the 8th, 9th, and 10th floors— overcrowded, littered with cloth scraps, and containing few buckets of water to douse the flames—giving the factory workers there little time to escape. When the panicked workers tried to flee, they encountered locked doors and broken fire escapes and were trapped by long tables and bulky machines. As bystanders watched in horror, young workers began jumping out of the windows to escape the inferno, falling helplessly to their deaths on the street below. By the time the fire was extinguished, nearly 150 individuals had perished in an avoidable tragedy. The exploited workers killed that day were mostly young women, recent immigrants of Jewish and Italian descent. The catastrophe sent shockwaves through New York City and the immigrant communities of Manhattan's Lower East Side, where families struggled to recognize the charred remains of their loved ones in makeshift morgues. The last victims were officially identified just this year. A century later, we reflect not only on the tragic loss of these young lives, but also on the movement they inspired. The Triangle Factory fire was a galvanizing moment, calling American leaders to reexamine their approach to workplace conditions and the purpose of unions. The fire awakened the conscience of our Nation, inspiring sweeping improvements to safety regulations both in New York and across the United States. The tragedy strengthened the potency of organized

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labor, which gave voice to previously powerless workers. A witness to the fire, Frances Perkins carried the gruesome images of that day through a lifetime of advocacy for American workers and into her role as the Secretary of Labor and our country's first female Cabinet Secretary. Despite the enormous progress made since the Triangle factory fire, we are still fighting to provide adequate working conditions for all women and men on the job, ensure no person within our borders is exploited for his or her labor, and uphold collective bargaining as a tool to give workers a seat at the tables of power. Working Americans are the backbone of our communities and power the engine of our economy. As we mark the anniversary of the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory Fire, let us resolve to renew the urgency that tragedy inspired and recommit to our shared responsibility to provide a safe environment for all American workers. NOW, THEREFORE, I, BARACK OBAMA, President of the United States of America, by virtue of the authority vested in me by the Constitution and the laws of the United States, do hereby proclaim March 25, 2011, as the 100th Anniversary of the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory Fire. I call upon all Americans to participate in ceremonies and activities in memory of those who have been killed due to unsafe working conditions.


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Based on the proclamation, which of the following most likely represents President Obama's views about workers' safety? A. Workers are still at risk at many kinds of factory jobs. B. Our workplaces are now safe because of legislation enacted in the past century. C. Workplace safety is much better than a century ago, but there is still room for improvement. D. New laws are needed to make sure appropriate safety measures are taken at all workplaces.

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Who were the victims of the fire? A. Mostly women and children B. Mostly women immigrants C. Union members and immigrants D. Men and women immigrants How did this event lead to a stronger labor movement? A. It brought attention to the terrible, unsafe conditions at many factories. B. Other workers started to join unions after the fire. C. Immigrants joined the labor movement, adding to their ranks. D. People started to feel guilty about how poorly workers were being treated. How does the photo illustrate the limitations of fire fighters at the time of the fire? A. They had no ladders that could extend to the top of the building. B. They had to use horse-drawn fire trucks. C. The hoses couldn't reach the top of building. D. The horses couldn't get there quickly enough before the fire spread. Why were women, in particular, motivated to organize after this event? A. Most of the workers who died in the fire were women. B. Only women worked in factories. C. After the fire, union membership was opened to women. D. The fire illustrated why women needed rights.

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Passage R.2-A What is the main idea of the president's proclamation? A. Fires can be tragic and we need stronger laws to improve working conditions to prevent them. B. Labor has made a lot of progress in the last 100 years. C. It is important to remember the past and use it to improve the future. D. We should not forget the tragedy of the fire and make sure all workers are safe. Which of the following words used in the proclamation indicate the president's sympathy for the workers' conditions? A. Describing the conditions as "overcrowded, littered" B. Describing the event as a "catastrophe" C. Describing the workers killed as a "tragic loss" D. Describing the legislation that followed as "inspiring sweeping improvements" Which of the following lines from the text indicate that fatalities could have been avoided? A. Lines 3–8 ("Flames spread . . . to escape") B. Lines 8–11 ("When the . . . bulky machines") C. Lines 15–16 ("By the . . . avoidable tragedy") D. Lines 34–37 ("The tragedy . . . workers") Which of the following lines from the text indicate that women and workers joined together after the fire? A. Lines 17–19 ("The exploited . . . descent") B. Lines 31–34 ("The fire . . . United States") C. Lines 37–41 ("A witness . . . Secretary") D. Lines 42–48 ("Despite the . . . of power") Which is the best synonym for the word exploited as used in line 17? A. Well utilized B. Unfairly disadvantaged C. Tricked D. Experienced Which of the following is the best definition of galvanizing as used in line 29? A. Energetic and exciting B. Steely and grave C. Touching and heart-warming D. Inspiring and stimulating


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 Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage. Ambassadors In this day of global politics, maintaining positive diplomatic relations between countries can be a difficult task. Because of this, diplomatic personnel, such as ambassadors, play a more 34) vital role than ever. 35) In Europe, ambassadors have been a part of politics since the Middle Ages. Whenever the rulers of two kingdoms needed to make a peace treaty, trade agreement, or other cooperative alliance, they sent ambassadors to do the job. Because an ambassador was himself a representative of his ruler, he was treated almost like royalty. The ambassador would 36) be given a luxurious place to stay, be invited to fabulous feasts, and showered with valuable gifts. If the ambassador was skillful enough to strike a deal that pleased both sides, then he might be rewarded with bags of gold to take back home. 37) However, the first ambassadors who actually stayed in 38) there host countries long-term were not always so fortunate. An ambassador's trip to his host country was slow and arduous, often taking several weeks or longer. For some destinations, an ambassador would travel on a small ship with several servants, horses, and supplies. Travel by sea was dreadful, and there were often delays because of a lack of wind or heavy storms. It was only at the end of the 1400s that rulers first offered permanent appointments to some ambassadors. Prior to this time, once an ambassadors' initial mission was complete, his or her ruler would just leave them in their host countries to serve as their eyes and ears rather than incurring the costs involved with bringing them back home. However, these first permanent ambassadors found that their hosts were not always as 39) hospitable once the "honeymoon" period was over.

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NO CHANGE distracting ambiguous dangerous

The writer would like to add relevant and accurate data from the graph in support of his paragraph's purpose. Which sentence accomplishes this goal? A. Countries such as Singapore maintain a small staff in very few countries. B. For example, it takes more than five thousand people to run the Japanese embassy in the United States. C. The total number of diplomatic personnel for the United States alone reaches nearly 20,000. D. For instance, China employs the greatest number of diplomatic personnel around the world. A. NO CHANGE B. be given a luxurious place to stay, be invited to fabulous feasts, and people showered him with valuable gifts. C. be given a luxurious place to stay, be invited to fabulous feasts, and be showered with valuable gifts. D. be given a luxurious place to stay, invited to fabulous feasts, and be showered with valuable gifts. At this point the writer is considering adding the following sentence. Most early ambassadors came from rich families and traveled long distances to their host countries.

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Should the writer make this addition here? A. Yes, because the sentence adds information that supports the main idea of the paragraph. B. Yes, because the sentence provides a logical transition from the previous paragraph. C. No, because the sentence introduces information that does not support the main idea of the paragraph. D. No, because the sentence should be placed at end of the paragraph, not the beginning. A. B. C. D.

NO CHANGE they're they re their

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NO CHANGE tenacious dilapidated ungenerous


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Living abroad was expensive, 40) and the letters that long-term ambassadors wrote home to their rulers often included requests for more money. One of the first permanent ambassadors to England, Dr. Rodrigo Gonzalez de Puebla of Spain, discovered for himself the monetary woes of his occupation. He was originally sent to London by King Ferdinand and Queen Isabella in 1495 to arrange a marriage between their daughter, Katharine, and King Henry VII's son, Arthur. Although the marriage lasted only six months, de Puebla's stay in England lasted several years. When his initial funds began to run out, de Puebla stayed at a modest inn that served simple meals, such as meat pies. He often visited the royal court for the sole purpose of enjoying a fine meal. Once, when King Henry VII asked what de Puebla's business was on a particular visit, the king's assistant replied that de Puebla was just there for the food. Despite their diplomatic responsibilities, one of an ambassador's principal tasks was to gather information—in other words, to spy. Gathering reliable information was 41) quite difficult. Public statements were not very useful, and private conversations were often full of deceptions. Since the ambassadors often did not understand much of each other's native tongues, they had to depend largely on being able to interpret one another's body language. Upon learning that ambassadors were judging and interpreting his every word and gesture, King Henry VII 42) became less expressive while holding court. Ironically, conversations in the court did not challenge ambassadors nearly as much as communication with their rulers back home. In de Puebla's case, after much pleading and complaining, he was finally allowed to return home. Simply put, 43) he had grown tired of spying on his host, begging for money from his ruler, and being so far away from his own family. Despite the drawbacks of ambassadorship, the positions, which were considered invaluable by rulers, continued to be filled. Little by little, as the art of diplomacy and the quality of transportation and communication improved, 44) the roles of being a permanent ambassador became an increasingly desirable one.

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The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion of the sentence. Should the writer do this? A. Yes, because this information does not support the main idea of the paragraph. B. Yes, because it doesn’t explain why de Puebla enjoyed the food served in King Henry VII’s court. C. No, because it provides detail that explains why de Puebla enjoyed the food served in King Henry VII’s court. D. No, because this information supports the discussion of de Puebla in King Henry VII’s court. Which choice most effectively combines the two sentences at the underlined portion? A. difficult! Public B. difficult, public C. difficult—public D. difficult: public A. NO CHANGE B. less expressive than he had previously been while holding court. C. less expressive while holding. D. less expressive while holding court than. A. NO CHANGE B. he had grown tired of; spying on his host, begging for money from his ruler, and being so far away from his own family. C. he had grown tired of spying on his host: begging for money from his ruler: and being so far away from his own family. D. he had grown tired of spying on his host—begging for money from his ruler—and being so far away from his own family. A. NO CHANGE B. the role of being a permanent ambassador became increasingly desirable ones. C. the role of being a permanent ambassador became an increasingly desirable one. D. the roles of being a permanent ambassador became an increasingly desirable one.


Homework


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Test 1

HW - 1

Reading Test 5 Questions 43-52 are based on the following passages. The following passages are about the No Child Left Behind Act of 2011. Passage 1 is an exce1pt from "A Guide to Education and No Child Left Behind, "Rod Paige, Secretary, U.S. Department of Education, 2004. Passage 2 is an excerpt from "Building on Results: A Blueprint for Strengthening the No Child Left Behind Act," Margaret Spellings, Secretary, U.S. Department ofEducation, 2007.

Passage 1 Education is one of the most important functions of government. It was a concern of the early settlers, and a focus of the Founding Fathers in writing the Constitution precisely because our 5 democracy is dependent on an educated public. The Founders did not want education for the elite or for the many. They wanted education for all. John Adams once exclaimed: "Education for every class and rank of people down to the lowest and the 1 o poorest." The Founding Fathers were correct: Education is necessary for the growth and prosperity of our country. As education has become more inclusive and of better quality, it has 15 enhanced American economic and political leadership. The task of educating the people has historically been left up to state and local governments. In the late 18th century and into the 20 19th century, some states, such as Virginia, Connecticut, and Pennsylvania, became known for the quality of their education systems. These school systems were the product of visionary contributions. Noah Webster worked to improve 25 public education through writing dictionaries, spellers, readers, and histories. Benjamin Rush championed public education for girls. Horace Mann initiated efforts to improve the physical facilities of schools and to develop the first teacher 30 training program. Thaddeus Stevens pushed through legislation for public support of education in Pennsylvania. New York State set up the first public high schools. Other states followed, and soon public education was available for children 35 across the country. Recognizing the universal importance of education, the federal government assumed a larger

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role in financing public schools with the passage of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act (ESEA) in 1965. Through subsequent reauthorizations, ESEA has continued to assist the states.

Passage 2 Five years ago, Americans united behind a revolutionary idea: Every child can learn. With these words, on Jan. 8, 2002, President Bush signed the landmark No Child Left Behind Act (NCLB) into law. The law, which reauthorized the 1965 Elementary and Secondary Education Act, signaled a fundamental and common-sense change in American education. Academic standards would be set by states, schools would be held accountable for results, and the federal government would support both with increased resources and flexibility. And it's working, with test scores rising and achievement gaps narrowing. All of these results point to the law's ultimate goal: steady academic gains until all students can read and do math at or above grade level, closing for good the nation's achievement gap between disadvantaged and minority students and their peers. "This law finally puts muscle behind the attempt to close that gap," said New York City Schools Chancellor Joel Klein. "We can no longer mask the deficiencies of some students with outsized gains by others." The law has helped revitalize the states' constitutional leadership role in education. Before NCLB was passed, less than half the states fully measured their students against clear academic standards. Today, every state and the District of Columbia hold schools accountable for improving academic achievement. Every state also participates Go on to the next page


Test 1

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in the National Assessment ofEducational Progress (NAEP)-the Nation's Report Card- allowing policymakers and parents alike to compare progress. "The premise ofNCLB is clear and

essential," said former Colorado Gov. Bill Owens. "All children can learn. Not just children from so homes of privilege, children from suburbia or children from a certain ethnic background."

43. What is the main reason the author of Passage 1 supports a government-funded educational system?

47. As used in line 27, "championed" most nearly means A) advertised. B) nourished. C) advocated. D) prescribed.

A) It upholds the ideals of the Founding Fathers. B) It strengthens the democratic system. C) It eliminates discrepancies in wealth. D) It is mandated through historical precedent.

48. According to Passage 2, how has the No Child Left Behind Act helped states?

44. What is the purpose of citing the educational changes of the nineteenth century in Passage 1?

A) It helps them to set clear academic standards. B) It allows them more constitutional freedom. C) It holds them accountable for their educational facilities. D) It standardizes communication between parents and policymakers.

A) To provide a historical context for educational policy B) To recognize individuals for outstanding achievements C) To compare past systems against current conditions D) To demonstrate the impact of the ideas of the Founding Fathers

49. As used in line 65, "mask" most nearly means A) ignore. B) transform. C) dismiss. D) hide.

45. What is the first example of federal involvement in education according to Passage l?

50. What is the author of Passage 2's main evidence that the No Child Left Behind Act has been successful?

A) The development of teacher training programs B) The creation of public high schools C) The funding of physical facilities D) The passage of the ESEA in 1965

A) A rise in test scores of all students (lines 55) B) A narrowing achievement gap between different groups of students (lines 56) C) The acclamation ofNCLB by Chancellor Joel Klein (lines 63-66) D) The participation of all states in the NAEP (lines 72-74)

46. What rhetorical purpose is served by referencing John Adams in the first paragraph (lines 1-10) of Passage 1? A) An appeal to pathos B) An appeal to authority C) Historical propaganda D) Deductive reasoning

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Test 1

51. What is the most likely purpose of Passage 2? A) To argue for the success ofNCLB B) To explain current educational policy C) To persuade legislators to fund NCLB D) To applaud the efforts of American educators

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52. What would the opinion of the author of Passage 1 be toward the No Child Left Behind Act? A) He would suggest it be completely supported. B) He would suggest it be further federalized. C) He would suggest it be further decentralized. D) He would suggest it be abandoned.

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Test 2

Reading Test 5 Questions 42-52 are based on the following passages. The following passages are about carbon sequestration. Passage 1 is an excerpt from "Carbon Sequestration" US. Geological Survey, 2011. Passage 2 is an excerpt from "Carbon Sequestration: risks, opportunities, and protection of drinking water: hearing before the Subcommittee on Environment and Hazardous Materials of the Committee on Energy and Commerce, House of Representatives, One Hundred Tenth Congress, second session, " 2008. Passage 1 The term "carbon sequestration" is used to describe both natural and deliberate processes by which C0 2 is either removed from the atmosphere or diverted from emission sources and stored in the ocean, terrestrial environments, and .geologic formations. Scientists at the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) are working to assess both the potential capacities and the potential limitations of the various forms of carbon sequestration and to evaluate their geologic, hydrologic, and ecological 10 consequences. In accordance with the Energy Independence and Security Act (EISA) of 2007, the USGS has developed scientifically based methods for assessment of biologic and geologic carbon sequestration capacities.

to assess the nation's resources for geologic carbon sequestration in oil and gas reservoirs and saline formations. The methodology estimates storage resource potential that can be applied uniformly to geologic formations across the United States. The assessed resource is the volume of pore space into 40 which C0 2 can be injected and retained for tens of thousands of years. 35

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Biologic carbon sequestration refers to the assimilation and storage of atmospheric carbon in vegetation, soils, woody products, and aquatic environments. Fluxes of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases (GHG) in ecosystems are a 20 function of natural ecosystem processes and anthropogenic activities.

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Section 712 of the EISA legislation mandates the U.S. Department of the Interior (DOI) to develop a methodology and conduct an 25 assessment of carbon storage, carbon sequestration, and fluxes of three principal GHG for the nation's ecosystems. The three principal GHG are C0 2, methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N20). An assessment methodology has been developed to 30 fulfill the first part of the EISA requirements. The national assessment for biological carbon sequestration and GHG fluxes is ongoing. The USGS has developed a methodology

Passage 2 In resolving one environmental issue, we need to make sure that we are not starting another. 45 The EPA has begun to explore what underground injection of carbon dioxide or C0 2 might mean for underground sources of drinking water. I want to commend Assistant Administrator Grumbles for getting out ahead on this issue. Let us understand these issues as soon as possible so that as the project developers design their systems that make whatever scientific parameters are necessary to protect our drinking water supplies, how liability is addressed under 55 CERCLA and RCRA, however, is very muddy water indeed. EP A's proposed rule from last week does not address any of the liability issues surrounding C0 2 sequestration and underground sources of drinking water. Without an 60 understanding of the liability framework, it is extremely difficult for members and their constituents to make an informed decision on the proposed rule.

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We also need to better understand the varieties of geologic formations, how they compare as suitable hosts for underground injection. If the best formations are not close to power plants capturing the C02 that raises a huge logistics issue. I think that the issues already identified in Mr. Grumble' s office and others with regard to injecting C02 into the ground should cause us to take another look at carbon dioxide conversion technology, converting C02 into a solid substance such as sodium

HW -2

bicarbonate or what most people would call baking 75 soda is already underway at an experimental site in my district, down in Texas. Large-scale application of this process would yield more baking soda than we probably need, but there are other applications too, and it is dramatically easier to store than the so gassiest form of C02. In short, Mr. Chairman, we have got a lot to learn in this area, and I am happy that our witnesses today are going to begin the process of educating us.

42. What is the purpose of mentioning both natural and human-directed sequestration in Passage 1?

44. As used in line 18, "fluxes" most nearly means A) chemicals. B) changes. C) processes. D) extensions.

A) To define the scope of what is being explained B) To recognize that natural sequestration is a complex topic C) To compare the benefits of the two different types D) To demonstrate the importance of the subject

45. What rhetorical purpose is served by referencing Section 712 of the EISA in the fourth paragraph (lines 18-27) of Passage 1? A) An appeal to pathos B) An appeal to authority C) Historical allusion D) Deductive reasoning

43. According to Passage 1, why are government officials investigating carbon sequestration? A) They need to know how much sequestration is possible and its effects. B) They passed a law requiring industry to sequester all of its carbon emissions. C) They are interested in discovering the possible negative consequences of sequestration. D) They want to encourage new research into natural forms of sequestration

46. Who is the most likely audience for Passage 1? A) Lawyers B) Historians C) Environmentalists D) Policy-makers

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Test 2

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4 7. What does the author of Passage 2 imply about carbon sequestration?

HW - 2 51. What is the most likely purpose of Passage 2? A) To argue that carbon sequestration needs more investigation B) To explain the benefits of using carbon to make baking soda C) To highlight differences between natural and human-directed sequestration D) To suggest there is a strong need to address environmental issues

A) It has already been used to solve environmental problems. B) It is unrelated to the production of greenhouse gases by industry. C) It could pose a threat to sources of drinking water. D) It is based on evidence that proves it is a good solution.

52. What would the opinion of the authors¡ of Passage 1 be towards the author of Passage 2?

48. According to Passage 2, what is a possible alternative to using carbon sequestration?

A) The author of Passage 2 gives good background information. B) The author of Passage 2 does not relate to Passage 1's concerns. C) The author of Passage 2 does not ask enough questions. D) The author of Passage 2 should be less critical.

A) Capturing greenhouse gases in solid form B) Injecting carbon into various sources of water C) Moving power stations closer to sequestration sites D) Lowering the amount of carbon that is naturally produced 49. As used in line 54, "liability" most nearly means A) method. B) process. C) decision. D) responsibility. 50. What is the author of Passage 2's main evidence that carbon sequestration is unnecessary? A) The growing need for more baking soda B) The increased use of water in carbon sequestration C) The large number of natural ways carbon dioxide is contained D) The existence of other methods of dealing with carbon dioxide

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Test 3

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HW - 3

Reading Test 5 Questions 42-52 are based on the following passages. The following passages are about the precautionary principle. Passage 1 is adapted from "The Perils of the Precautionary Principle: Lessons from the American and European Experience, "John D. Graham, Ph.D., Office ofInformation and Regulatory Affairs, U.S. Government, October 2003. Passage 2 is adapted from "The Precautionary Principle: World Commission on the Ethics of Scientific Knowledge and Technology," UNESCO, March 2005.

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The concept of a universal precautionary principle apparently has its origins in early German and Swedish thinking about environmental policy, particularly the need for policymakers to practice foresight in order to prevent long-range environmental problems. The United States government believes it is important to understand that, notwithstanding the rhetoric of our European colleagues, there is no such thing as the precautionary principle. Indeed, the Swedish philosopher Sandin has documented 19 versions of the precautionary principle in various treaties, laws, and academic writings. Although these versions are similar in some respects, they have major differences in terms of how uncertain science is evaluated, how the severity of consequences is considered, and how the costs and risks of precautionary measures are considered. The United States government believes that precaution is a sensible idea, but there are multiple approaches to implementing precaution in risk management. Many risk specialists in the USA regret some of the prior policy steps we have taken on the basis of precaution. In U.S. energy policy, for example, the Three Mile Island incident had a large policy impact, though even today there is no evidence of significant public health harm caused by the accident at Three Mile Island. In fact, there has been a de facto moratorium on the construction of new nuclear power plants in the USA. We have become more deeply dependent on fossil fuels for energy, and now precaution is being invoked as a reason to enact stricter rules on use of fossil fuels. Part of the answer may rest with clean coal technologies and renewable energy, but we should not foreclose the advanced nuclear option. There are two major perils associated with an extreme approach to precaution. One is that technological innovation will be stifled, and we all

recognize that innovation has played a major role in economic progress throughout the world. A second peril, more subtle, is that public health and the environment would be harmed as the energies of regulators and the regulated community would be 45 diverted from known or plausible hazards to speculative and ill-founded ones. For these reasons, please do not be surprised if the U.S. government continues to take a precautionary approach to calls for adoption of a universal precautionary principle 50 in regulatory policy. 40

Passage 2

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Some people fear that a more precautionary approach to forestalling potential hazards of a morally unacceptable nature may stifle innovation or hamper scientific progress. They point to the fact that new technologies typically introduce new risks. However, there are immense challenges to, and opportunities in, understanding complex and emergent systems while meeting human needs with lower health costs and lower ecological damages. Wider use of the precautionary principle (PP) can help stimulate both innovation and science, replacing nineteenth century technologies and the simple science of the first industrial revolution with the clean technologies and systems science of a new industrial revolution. This can help to achieve a better balance between the benefits of innovations and their hazards. Where many historical examples were about false negatives (absence of precautionary intervention that in hindsight was necessary), there is also a concern that an overly wide adoption of the PP may lead to too many false positives (precautionary intervention that later on proves unnecessary). The delicate balance between the two extremes needs to be determined on a case by case basis, and needs to be taken into consideration Go on to the next page


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when the proportionality of measures to be taken are decided. While the PP may indeed impose a "no-go" or a "go-slow" on certain directions of innovation and scientific progress, the PP at the same time acts as a stimulant for other innovations and clean technological progress. The PP promotes the development of innovation alternatives for potentially risky technologies. This was the case with CFCs that were banned because the hypothesis was deemed plausible that CFCs destroy the ozone layer. This ban triggered many innovations and led

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to cleaner alternatives for virtually all CFC applications. The PP inspires a diversification of technologies. The size and societal impacts of any future surprises will be smaller if there are several competing technologies that are being used to meet human needs, rather than just one global, near monopoly technology. Diverse technologies and alternative ways of meeting needs can help deal with the seemingly intractable problem of 'societal ignorance' and attendant surprises.

45. Why does the author of Passage 1 discuss the Three Mile Island power plant in the second paragraph (lines 22-36)?

42. What does the author of Passage 1 think about the precautionary principle? A) It is functional in Europe, but not applicable in the USA. B) Its protective benefits outweigh its costs. C) Its potential for harm will delay advancement. D) It is idealistic, but impractical due to its expense.

A) To provide historical context for use of the precautionary principle B) To exemplify an instance of the precautionary principle's misuse C) To persuade the audience of the superiority of nuclear technology D) To exempt nuclear technology from the precautionary principle

43. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 10-13 B) Lines 22-24 C) Lines 25-28 D) Lines 42-45

HW - 3

46. What is the tone of the author throughout Passage 1?

("Indeed ... writings") ("Many risk ... precaution") ("The Three ... accident") ("public ... hazards")

A) Impartial and direct B) Didactic and glib C) Logical and deliberate D) Mundane and dogmatic

44. As used in line 36, "foreclose" most nearly means

4 7. According to Passage 2, what is the most common worry associated with the precautionary principle?

A) prohibit. B) deprive. C) dispossess. D) avert.

A) Environmental destruction B) Stalled innovation C) Deterioration of public health D) Government overregulation

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Test 3

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48. Which of the following would be an example of a false negative?

HW - 3 51. Which point do the authors of Passage 1 and Passage 2 mainly disagree on?

A) A lack of boating safety inspections resulting in an oil spill B) The banning of computer technology after discovering carcinogens C) A boycotting of GMO foods necessary to reduce hunger D) The closure of a nuclear power plant found to be safe

A) Concern over environmental destruction B) Misapplication of the precautionary principle leading to false positives C) The impact of the precautionary principle on innovation D) The need for more stringent risk management procedures 52. What does the disagreement between the authors most likely reflect?

49. As used in line 80, "impose" most nearly means A) levy. B) appoint. C) inflict. D) presume.

A) They have read different scientific studies. B) They have opposing political beliefs on government regulation. C) They are writing for different audiences. D) They work for institutions with differing objectives.

50. According to Passage 2, all of the following are benefits of the precautionary principle EXCEPT A) improved public health services. B) technological innovation. C) increased market competition. D) decreased ecological damage.

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Test4

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HW - 4

Reading Test 5 Questions 42-52 are based on the following passages. The following passages are about genetically modified organisms (GMOs).

Passage 1 The global food crisis is painfully obvious even with only a cursory glance at the numbers. With our current population of 7 billion, 1.2 ( 17%) billion suffer from hunger. If 7 billion humans 5 cannot be fed at current agricultural output levels, how can we hope to feed the expected 10 billion in 2050? Faced with these bleak predictions if we maintain the status quo of agricultural production, it 10 follows that any action which improves on these dire outcomes will be preferable, even if the action itself is also negative. To use a metaphor: when trapped in a burning building, choosing to break a leg by jumping out of a window may not be ideal, 1S but it is still an improvement over remaining inside. The action in question, of course, is not breaking limbs but breaking natural sequences of DNA. By synthetically altering genetic material in edible species, it has been proven possible to make 20 these species more productive and less vulnerable to devastating natural phenomena such as droughts or plagues. With genetically modified organisms (GMOs), experiments have shown that higher crop 25 yields with more nutrients per capita are possible. In addition, GMOs offer the fringe benefit of reducing the need for environmentally damaging pesticides and fertilizers. For the critics concerned about yet-to30 materialize health consequences, it's important to note that GMOs have been on the market for approaching two decades with no significant fallout, and they have also passed stringent tests by the Food and Drug Administration and the World 3S Health Organization. Between the decision of the known enemy of certain starvation and the unknown enemy of

future health complications, the obvious advantage is to the latter.

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In the current GMO debate, it's an easy pigeon-hole for the proponents to limit policy options into two camps: embrace GMOs or face starvation. However, with a little historical context, this logical fallacy dissolves into hope for the future of the human population where healthy food and plentiful food are not mutually exclusive concepts. A similar do-or-die situation was faced in the energy sectors a few decades ago. Faced with exponentially expanding demands for power, policymakers had a difficult quandary with no clear win. As an example, the energy crisis could be solved by funding nuclear energy in place of coal technology. Unfortunately, nuclear energy was unstable and untested, and going nuclear had the potential to create irrevocable environmental and health disasters. But wasn't that better than the alternative of continued reliance on pollutioncreating coal, leaving the demand unmet and air quality degenerating? Fortunately, our policymakers saw beyond this dualistic bind. Instead of choosing between two negatives, they funded innovation. The result? A myriad of clean, alternative energy production possibilities that neatly averted the crisis. Instead of lying in bed with GMOs to avoid starvation (GMOs also have a mixed track record, including organ failures in test animals, pesticideresistant pests, and the inherent too-big-to-fail risks ofmonocropping with GMOs) let us fund innovation. With proper incentives, innovators will tinker with our agricultural procedures until a winwin solution is found.

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Test4

194

HW - 4

48. What is the main way that the author of Passage 2 supports his argument?

42. What is the main problem addressed by the author of Passage 1?

A) Analogical reasoning B) Didactic reasoning C) Case study D) Statistical analysis

A) The use of unsafe GMOs B) A lack of agricultural expansion C) An inability to feed the population D) The overpopulation of the planet

49. As used in line 62, ''bind" most nearly means

43. The author of Passage 1 uses the metaphor of being trapped in a burning building to

A) nuisance. B) dilemma. C) danger. D) woe.

A) argue for using GMOs. B) dispute using GMOs. C) support agricultural innovation. D) explain the expanding population.

50. Which of the following is an assumption made by the author of Passage 2?

44. As used in line 26, "fringe" most nearly means

A) There are health concerns associated with GM Os. B) Agricultural innovators will respond to financial incentives. C) Policymakers funded nuclear energy in the past. D) Starvation is not a serious concern in the future.

A) optional. B) necessary. C) additional. D) main 45. According to Passage 1, all of the following are potential benefits of GM Os EXCEPT A) higher crop yields. B) lower use of pesticides. C) increased nutrient output. D) shorter growing seasons.

51. What is the attitude of Passage 2 concerning the future? A) Optimistic B) Realistic C) Pessimistic D) Indifferent

46. What is the tone of Passage 1? A) Mocking B) Cynical C) Emphatic D) Conceited

52. How would the author of Passage 1 respond to Passage 2? A) GMOs do not present the risks alleged in the passage. B) The energy crisis is not analogous to the hunger crisis. C) Funding innovation is not guaranteed to increase output. D) The future is not as hopeless as Passage 2 suggests.

47. What solution does the author of Passage 2 offer for agriculture? A) Decrease use ofGMOs B) Increase use of GM Os C) Use alternative energy sources D) Fund agricultural innovation

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Test 5

195

HW - 5

Reading Test 5 Questions 43-52 are based on the following passages. The following passages are about Public Choice Theory.

Passage 1

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Public choice theory borrows a basic tenet of economics and applies it to the realm of politics. Proponents of the theory such as Nobel Prizewinning economist James M. Buchanan do not see voters and politicians idealistically. Instead, they push aside romantic idealism to see people for who they really are: rational actors who make decisions based on a desire to maximize their own wealth and comfort. In traditional economics, this way of seeing people's motives is not intended as a condemnation. Instead, the rational actor's behavior is understood to be not only self-centered but also beneficial for the community. In pursuing wealth, a businessperson provides valuable products and services to those around him or her, for example. Yet in public choice theory, a variety of problems are connected to the fact that the electorate and the government are made up of individual rational actors. Public choice theory explains, for example, why there is little to no long-term planning on the part of governments. Politicians really only worry about their own re-elections, and this leads them to favor actions that please voters. Long-term planning involves sacrifices in the present, often in the form of raised tax rates, in exchange for future benefits, such as improved infrastructure or educational standard. The theory also explains why voter turnout tends to be very low. In most elections, voters would need to invest a lot of time and energy into learning about the various issues and the candidates' election platforms before they could really know who to support. As rational actors, people have realized that the actual effect their vote will have on the outcome of the election is too small to warrant what eventually amounts to wasted effort.

Passage 2

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In What is Wrong with Public Choice, Steven Pressman presents a damning list of questions that advocates of the theory cannot answer. At the heart of his attack are the numerous instances in which public choice theory fails to explain or predict trends in American politics. Pressman begins by looking at voter registration and turnout and asking, "If voting is never rational, why are there people voting at all?" Also, he points out that the theory fails to explain why voter turnout has fluctuated over time. If voting is never rational and people are always rational actors, why would their voting behavior ever change? The existence of third party and fringe candidates also creates unanswerable questions. If a rational actor is disinclined to vote for any of the major candidates because their one vote has a negligible effect on the outcome, what explains people voting for candidates with no chance of winning at all? In his most damning sections, Pressman goes on to look at the ways the theory failed to predict and now cannot retroactively explain the rise of the neoliberal politician. If politicians really only ever worked for their own political power, what explains the large number of candidates running and winning on platforms of reducing the power of government? If the job of government is to entice the el~ctorate with handouts, why are so many elected officials focused on cutting spending? In the end, Pressman reveals the fundamental problem with public choice theory: it is and has always been an ideologically fueled mistrust of government looking for a theoretical framework with which to justify itself. By starting with the conclusion that government is bad, proponents of the theory painted themselves into very real comers.

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Test 5

HW - 5

196

43. What is the main reason the author of Passage 1 supports public choice theory?

48. What does the author of Passage 2 imply is the main reason people support public choice theory?

A) It is based on an honest assessment of how people think and act. B) It encourages people to do the right thing regardless of consequences. C) It provides many different solutions to common economic problems. D) It is directly related to well-established ideas from other areas of study.

A) It does a good job of predicting new trends in politics. B) It explains a wide variety of the reasons people run for office. C) It confirms pre-existing beliefs about the nature of government. D) It contains many ideas that have been later adopted by others.

44. What is the purpose of citing traditional economic thought in Passage 1?

49. According to Passage 2, public theory fails to explain all of the following EXCEPT

A) To argue that public choice theory more accurately explains behavior B) To explain one of the foundational ideas of public choice theory C) To compare public choice theory to other less popular theories D) To show that public choice theory is unique in how it portrays people

A) the number of people who vote changes each election. B) politicians sometimes promise to reduce the size of government. C) small parties also receive votes even though they will never get elected. D) there are people who choose not to vote in elections at all.

45. According to Passage 1, why do politicians tend to avoid long-term plans?

50. As used in line 57, "negligible" most nearly means A) important. B) negative. C) noticeable. D) insignificant.

A) They fail to understand that voters are rational actors. B) They prefer to make sacrifices for short-term goals. C) They cannot see the benefits to society in the future. D) They care only about being liked by the electorate.

51. What is the author of Passage 2 's main evidence that public choice theory is incorrect? A) The increase in voter turnout B) The popularity of a political platform C) The failures of economic theories D) The successes of long-term projects

46. What rhetorical purpose is served by referencing James M. Buchanan in the first paragraph (lines 1-9) of Passage 1?

52. What would the opinion of the author of Passage 1 be toward Passage 2?

A) Appeal to emotion B) Appeal to authority C) Appeal to historical precedent D) Appeal to logical reasoning

A) It is too personal of an attack against the theory's supporters. B) It does a good job of pointing out minor problems with the theory. C) It fails to address the strengths and weaknesses of the theory. D) It is a good introduction to recent developments related to the theory.

47. As used in line 37, "warrant" most nearly means A) justify. B) certify. C) allow. D) require.

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Test6

197

HW - 6

Reading Test 5 Questions 41-52 are based on the following passages. The following passages are about an experiment called Schrodinger 's Cat.

Passage 2

Passage 1

In the matter of Schrodinger' s Cat, there are two postulates: one that it supports the Copenhagen Interpretation of quantum mechanics and one that it does not. This is a tragic result of an experiment meant to bring clarity rather than 45 confusion to quantum principles. Let me be clear: Schrodinger' s Cat is dead, and Copenhagen cannot resurrect it with probability. According to the Copenhagen Interpretation, Schrodinger' s Cat is in a so superposition of both life and death because it is uncertain whether the nuclear material within the box decayed, due to the uncertainty of the particles. However, there are several problems with this interpretation, which the existence of the thought ss experience is within the macro-system. Since the thought experience needs to be in reality if it is to apply to reality, it must not be in a vacuum. Therefo~the radioactive substance in the experiment is subject to the particles in its external 60 environment. As the substance interacts with other particles, it is forced to collapse from its wave of potentialities into one reality. This process is known as decoherence. In a physical system large enough to include a cat, this interaction would 65 happen almost instantaneously. In the case of the cat, his poor fate would be determined in an instant as the radioactive substance enters decay or non-decay. Upon opening the box, therefore, the cat is either certainly dead or 70 certainly alive, but certainly not both.

In a box there is a cat, a radioactive substance, a Geiger counter, and a poison. If the decay of the radioactive substance, a function of probability, is detected by the Geiger counter, the s poison releases and the cat dies. But until the box is opened, is the cat dead or alive? This thought experiment, known as Schrodinger's Cat, demonstrates the quandary at the heart of quantum particle physics. Particles like 10 electrons do not have a fixed location and thus can only be measured in probability. In this way, particles really exist in waves of potentialities until they are observed, in-which the act of observation collapses the probability into one certainty. It is 1s analogous to flipping a coin, for until it lands, it is equally likely that the coin will be heads or tails, but must become one or either upon observation. Likewise, particles really exist as particles only on observation, otherwise remaining a wave of 20 probability. The point of Schrodinger's Cat is to demonstrate the impact of this conclusion discovered at the micro-level. If a particle's location is only probable and charted as wave 2s function in which it exists in all states at once, then the decay of the radioactive substance in the box is also only probable, existing in all states at once as wave. Does this theory affect things on a macrolevel? According to SchrOdinger's Cat, it does. If 30 the radioactive substance has both decayed and not decayed, according to its function, then the cat is both dead and undead at the same time in a state known as superposition. Macro-level objects are composed of 35 micro-level objects like particles, and as a result, unless an object is observed, it exists anywhere and everywhere at once. This is known as the Copenhagen Interpretation and applies to all objects in any physical system - even a cat.

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198

Test 6

41. What is the objective of Passage 1?

HW - 6

46. What best summarizes the main argument of Passage 2?

A) To explain the Copenhagen Interpretation of SchrOdinger' s Cat B) To dispute the quantum mechanics behind Schrodinger's Cat C) To argue that Schrodinger's Cat can only exist at the micro-level D) To suggest that it is never possible to know the fate of Schrodinger' s Cat 42. What is the most likely reason for the inclusion of lines 14-1 7 ("It. .. observation")?

A) Schrodinger's Cat is a proven thought experiment. B) Schrodinger's Cat cannot demonstrate particle uncertainty. C) The Copenhagen Interpretation doesn't account for macro-level reality. D) The Copenhagen Interpretation is statistically and logically invalid. 4 7. What is the tone of the author of Passage 2 towards the Copenhagen Interpretation?

A) To give a counterexample to Schrodinger's Cat B) To provide a clear analogy for a technical process C) To describe the inner mechanics of Schrodinger's Cat D) To dismiss claims that particles behave like coin flips

A) Enthusiastic and positive B) Patronizing and blunt C) Quizzical and introspective D) Calculating and indignant 48. As used in line 60, "interacts" most nearly means A) collaborates. B) attaches. C) transmits. D) engages.

43. As used in line 8, "quandary" most nearly means A) quagmire. B) plight. C) puzzle. D) impasse.

49. According to Passage 2, why can Schrodinger's Cat not exist in a vacuum? A) The~dioactive substance enters non-decay. B) The experiment does not reflect reality. C) The cat is too large. D) The physical system is too complex.

44. According to Passage 1, what happens ifthe radioactive material decays before the box is opened? A) The cat will die. B) The cat will live. C) The cat will enter superposition. D) It is impossible to know the cat's fate.

50. Which choice provides the best reasoning for the previous question? A) Lines 53-55 ("However ... macro-system") B) Lines 55-57 ("Since ... vacuum") C) Lines 60-62 ("As ... reality") D) Lines 63-65 ("In ... instantaneously")

45. According to Passage 1, what happens when a particle is observed? A) It begins to decay. B) It enters superposition. C) It collapses into a certainty. D) There is no change.

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Test 6

199

51. According to Passage 2, which of the following is NOT true?

HW - 6 52. What question from the field of particle physics are the authors of both passages most concerned with?

A) Decoherence involves a substance interacting with other particles. B) The cat cannot be both alive and dead when the box is opened. C) There are several problems with the Copenhagen Interpretation. D) The experiment must take place in a vacuum.

A) Do actions that occur on a micro-level happen on a macro-level in the same way? B) What are the implications of superposition for research in additional scientific fields? C) What is the effect of exposure to a radioactive substance on small mammals? D) Do experiments have to be carried out in a vacuum in order to produce valid results?

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Test 7

200

HW - 7

Reading Test 5 Questions 43-52 are based on the following passages. The following passages are about the Federal Reserve.

free market, but it is the best institution available for preventing disaster. Free market economies are a rough ride-let's not take off our safety belts.

Passage 1

Those who advocate the abolishment of the Federal Reserve (Fed) may have some grounds, but in comparison with the large service the institution has done for our overall economy, those grounds fade into s insignificance. To understand this necessitates an examination of the essential functions of the Fed and once that has been accomplished, the questionin~ of whether any future institution could achieve similar success. 10 Primarily, the Fed's responsibility for governing the money market and interest rates stabilizes the economy from its natural fluctuations or, in crisis points, rescues it from the point of no ' return. Inflation, the traditional bane of free-market 15 economies, is held in check by a solid ~onetary policy with the power to increase or decrease the interest rate, causing a correlating increase or decrease in the amount of liquidity available. Inflation caused by prosperous economic times can be checked with a 20 simple increase in the interest rate. Controlling inflation helps mitigate the natural boom-and-bust cycle of free-market economies. Of course, in times of natural downturn, the Fed can use its power to stabilize the economy, as it 25 did in the 2008 recession. Because a successful economy is perpetuated through consumption-be it consumer, corporate, or government-the Fed's role is to allow that spending to continue. Increasing the cost of credit by decreasing the interest rate is one 30 way to do this. Another way is by supporting the confidence that is necessary for consumption. This is done through bank regulation and the mandate of reserve requirements and insuring bank solvency. Occasionally in free-market systems, large financial 35 institutions lose their solvency. In the Great Depression, the consumer reaction exacerbated this situation, as people demanded their investments returned from the institution at the very time the institution needed the liquidity the most. In the 2008 40 recession, the Fed's backing of weakened institutions maintained consumer confidence, and the Fed restored them to good standing. Analysts say that this intervention prevented the worsening of an already bad period in the financial cycle. The Fed cannot 45 work miracles, nor change the uncertain reality of a

Passage 2 The existence of the Federal Reserve is so incompatible with the free-market system within the United States. A free market, by definition, runs without the intervention of the government. The Federal Reserve, with its goal of economic planning of the money market and regulation of banks and ss government financial institutions, is decidedly a controlled-dare I say centrally planned?-economy. In traditional free market economies businesses succeed because of their soundne~s and ability to make a profit. Unfit businesses fail because 60 others are more able to outperform them. This keeps the economy operating at peak efficiency. No business is too big to fail, not even banks; if they are failing, there is a problem with their business model and in the long run, the economy will be healthier f ~r 65 their failure. The Fed, for all its promises of shoring up the economy by bailing out these banks, is working for its destruction. Setting aside the fact that a regulated market is not a free market, if a democratic government 70 ?ecided it was in the best interest of its country to implement regulation, the aforesaid regulation should be run by the government to ensure the benefits extend equally to the entire population. Should the population desire changes or the abolition of the 75 regulation, the institution responsible would make the necessary changes. Not so with the Federal Reserve. The Fed is run as a private organization, scarcely r~sponsive to the democratic government at all, outside of a biannual Congressional hearing. Should a 80 policy grow unpopular, the Fed can remain aloof and unresponsive. . If the United States is to continue to purport itself as a democratic free market without abolishing or at least checking the power of the Fed, then it is 85 being hypocritical. An examination of the reality of the Fed's relationship to the economy shows our economic system is neither free-market nor democratic.

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Test 7

201

HW - 7

48. What is the main reason the author of Passage 2 suggests the United States' economy is not a free market?

43. Which choice best summarizes the opinion of the author of Passage 1? A) The Federal Reserve should be abolished due to its failure to regulate the economy. B) The Federal Reserve should be commended for its prevention of economic disaster. C) The Federal Reserve should more fully utilize its tools to regulate the economy. D) The Federal Reserve should decrease its influence in an unpredictable free-market system.

A) Bank investments are centrally planned by the Federal Reserve. B) Failed businesses are bailed out by the Federal Reserve. C) The Federal Reserve is unresponsive to the population's demands. D) The Federal Reserve limits the freedom of consumer purchases.

44. What does the author of Passage 1 argue is the main purpose of the Federal Reserve?

49. As used in line 58, "soundness" most nearly means

A) To control inflation B) To regulate banks C) To mitigate economic swings D) To bolster consumer confidence

A) harmony. B) responsibility. C) wisdom. D) stability.

45. As used in line 19, "checked" most nearly means

50. According to Passage 2, what is the main criticism towards the Federal Reserve?

A) offset. B) defined. C) examined. D) oppressed.

A) It fails to control for inflation. B) It is controlled undemocratically. C) It does not equally distribute its benefits. D) It is overly responsive to public demand.

46. Based on Passage 1, all of the following are mentioned as tools of the Federal Reserve EXCEPT

51. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) controlling monetary liquidity. B) controlling interest rates. C) ensuring bank solvency. D) regulating investment.

A) Lines 59-60 ("Unfit...them") B) Lines 65-67 ("The Fed ... destruction") C) Lines 71-73 ("The aforesaid ... population") D) Lines 77-78 ("The Fed ... all")

4 7. What is the attitude of the author of Passage 2 towards the Federal Reserve?

52. How would the author of Passage 1 likely respond to Passage 2?

A) Irrational and paranoid B) Benevolent and supportive C) Indignant and contemptuous D) Impartial and analytical

A) Passage 2' s concerns are unjustified and unsupported. B) Passage 2's concerns are justified but unimportant in comparison. C) Passage 2' s argument is justified but cannot practically be implemented. D) Passage 2 's argument is justified and should be adopted.

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Test 8

HW - 8

Reading Test 5 Questions 43-52 are based on the following passages. Passage 1 Adaptedfrom "Assessing Effects of Energy Development in Colorado and New Mexico, " USGS, 2011.

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Colorado and New Mexico are endowed with multiple energy resources: oil and gas, shale gas, coal bed methane, uranium, geothermal, wind, and solar, and thus represent a microcosm of issues that affect the Western United States. Increased demand for energy - renewable and nonrenewable - drives the intensified development of all forms of energy in the region. Much of the increased energy development occurs on public lands that represent about 40 percent of Colorado and New Mexico. The economies of both States benefit from the revenues produced by the development of their abundant energy resources. They also benefit from the rich array of historic, scenic, recreational, and ecologic resources that characterize the region. Resource managers and other decision makers are expected to balance the benefits of the rapid development of energy resources in light of their potential effects on these other resources. Decision makers in Colorado and New Mexico - in Federal, State, and local governments, as well as the private sector - need to make choices about developing or preserving sometimes competing resources. They currently make these decisions without the benefit of an integrated analysis to understand the cascade of effects from the various decision alternatives. Although aspects of the environmental implications of energy development have been studied, information is not synthesized in ways useful to decision making. Although aspects of the environmental implications of energy development have been studied, information is not synthesized in ways useful to decision making. USGS (United States Geological Survey) scientists will evaluate the environmental effects of energy development by using a multistep process - or framework - designed to allow decision makers to compare the cumulative effects and tradeoffs produced by different mixes of energy development. The evaluation will begin with

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estimates of the potentially available energy resources in Colorado and New Mexico. USGS produces energy resource assessments for nonrenewable energy resources, which will serve as the basis for these estimates. Quantifying potentially available energy resources will make it possible to estimate the amount of supporting infrastructure associated with development and extraction of a given type of energy resource. The required infrastructure of each different energy type has environmental implications. For example, well-pad density for oil and gas development has implications for water use and production, road networks to service the wells, and potential habitat fragmentation. Developing a framework for analysis of the various energy types and the environmental implications of their development will allow decision makers to compare multiple energy strategies and scenarios that involve different mixes of energy types.

Passage 2 Adapted/ram "Land-Use and Land-Cover Scenarios at the Regional Scale," USGS, 2012.

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Anthropogenic land-use and land-cover change has altered a large part of earth's ice-free land surface. Analyzing land-cover change is important because surface changes affect a wide variety of ecological processes. A thorough understanding of past and present land-cover change, in addition to an analysis of potential future change, is necessary in order to better manage potential effects on biodiversity, hydrology, carbon fluxes, climate change, and many other ecological processes. Many factors determine how human beings modify the earth's landscape. Projecting future land cover requires modelers to account for driving forces of land-cover change operating at scales from local to global, and how those driving forces interact over space and time. As a result of the high level of uncertainty associated with predicting future developments in complex socioenvironmental systems, a scenario framework is needed to represent a wide range of plausible future conditions.

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Test 8

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Urban development, forestry, agriculture, mining, and other land uses can substantially alter the Earth's surface. Land use and the resultant change in land cover have important effects on ecological systems and processes. Projecting future land-cover change allows for the optimization and migration of potential consequences on numerous ecosystem services such as biodiversity, water quality, and climate. Land-use change can eliminate or substantially alter natural habitats. Species such as the Upland Sandpiper have drastically declined in regions where native grasslands have been lost. Land-management activities such as tillage or fertilizing farm fields can affect water quality. Land-use change alters runoff patters, can change

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43. What is the objective of Passage 1?

HW - 8 stream flows, and can increase the likelihood of flood events. Land-use activities such as logging of forests or urban development can change surface reflectance and local weather patterns. Land-use change can also affect the carbon cycle, contributing to changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide and long-term climate. The U.S. Geological Survey is analyzing potential future land-cover change in the United States, using an approach based on scenario construction and spatially explicit land-covering modeling. Similar modeling is being used to model backwards in time. These efforts build on a long history within the USGS of serving as the Nation's provider of consistent land-cover data.

46. What is the goal of the USGS quantitative research initiative?

A) To persuade decision makers to increase energy production B) To inform decision makers about the dangers of unsafe energy harvesting C) To promise decision makers information for energy resource management D) To quantify for decision makers the environmental costs of extracting energy resources

A) To placate the concerns over environmental destruction B) To offer numerical support which validates energy policies C) To develop plans for necessary infrastructure construction D) To improve estimates of the total cost of resource extraction

44. What is the most likely reason for the inclusion of lines 11-16 ("The economies ... the region") in Passage 1?

4 7. Who is the most likely audience of Passage 1? A) Environmental activists B) The USGS C) State policymakers D) Energy companies

A) To outline the competing claims of land use available B) To describe the profit~ble natural resources of Colorado and New Mexico C) To advise caution against developing public lands due to potential destruction D) To promote the exploitation of natural resources for public benefit

48. According to Passage 2, why is studying land change important? A) So that the environment can be preserved B) So that its effects can be predicted and managed C) So that affected species can be protected D) So that human modification of land can be quantified

45. As used in line 27 of Passage 1, "integrated" most nearly means A) arranged. B) synthesized. C) manufactured. D) blended.

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Test 8

49. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 68-74 ("A thorough ... processes") B) Lines 80-85 ("As a ... conditions") C) Lines 91-93 ("Projecting ... services") D) Lines 96-98 ("Species .. .lost") 50. As used in line 92, "migration" most nearly means A) departure. B) transfer. C) journey. D) movement.

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HW - 8

51. According to Passage 2, all of the following are associated consequences of land-use change EXCEPT A) natural habitat alteration. B) increased flood likelihood. C) changed flight migration. D) new weather patterns. 52. What is the best description of the relationship between Passage 1 and Passage 2? A) The passages explain diverging types of land change. B) The passages present opposing policies for land and resource management. C) Passage 2 provides a counter to the argument of Passage 1. D) Passage 1 provides an example of general concerns of Passage 2.

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Test 9

205

HW - 9

Reading Test 5 Questions 43-52 are based on the following passages.

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The following passages are poems. The first passage is Matthew Arnold's "Dover Beach. " The second passage is Emily Dickenson 's "Shipwreck. " Of the night-wind, down the vast edges drear And naked shingles of the world. Passage 1 "Dover Beach" Ah, love, let us be true The sea is calm to-night, 30 To one another! for the world which seems The tide is full, the moon lies fair To lie before us like a land of dreams, Upon the straits; - on the French coast the light So various, so beautiful, so new, Gleams and is gone; the cliffs of England stand, Hath really neither joy, nor love, nor light, Glimmering and vast, out in the tranquil bay. Nor certitude, nor peace, nor help for pain; 35 And we are here as on a darkling plain Come to the window, sweet is the night-air! Only, from the long line of spray Swept with confused alarms of struggle and flight, Where the sea meets the moon-blanch'd land, Where ignorant armies clash by night. Listen! you hear the grating roar Of pebbles which the waves draw back, and fling, Passage 2 At their return, up the high strand, "Shipwreck" Begin, and cease, and then again begin, With tremulous cadence slow, and bring It tossed and tossed, The eternal note of sadness in. A little brig I knew, 40 O'ertook by blast, Sophocles long ago It spun and spun, Heard it on the Aegean, and it brought And groped delirious, for morn. Into his mind the turbid ebb and flow It slipped and slipped, Of human misery; we Find also in the sound a thought, As one that drunken stepped; Hearing it by this distant northern sea. 45 Its white foot tripped, Then dropped from sight. The sea of faith Ah, brig, good-night Was once, too, at the full, and round earth's shore To crew and you; Lay like the folds of a bright girdle furl' d. The ocean's heart too smooth, too blue, But now I only hear 50 To break for you. Its melancholy, long, withdrawing roar, Retreating, to the breath 44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? 43. Which conclusion would the author of Passage 1 most likely support? A) Lines 9-14 ("Listen! ... in") B) Lines 15-18 ("Sophocles ... misery") A) A destructive flood will soon sweep over the C) Lines 21-25 ("The sea ... withdrawing roar") earth. B) Most of the good things we see are only D) Lines 29-34 ("Ah, love ... for pain") temporary illusions. C) We will see a rebirth of faith in the near future. D) It is impossible to forget one's past.

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Test 9

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45. The phrase "moon-blanch'd" is mentioned (line 8) to explain something that is

HW - 9 50. In line 44 of Passage 2, why does the author refer to "one that drunken stepped"? A) To express what it must feel like to stand on the ship's deck B) To suggest that the captain may be responsible for the accident because of drunkenness C) To compare the ship's struggles to the awkwardness of a drunk person D) To indicate the feelings of the witness who is viewing the accident

A) made white by moonlight. B) shaped like a crescent moon. C) hidden from the moon. D) cursed by the power of the moon. 46. As used in line 11, "strand" most nearly means A) stones. B) thread. C) abandonment. D) beach.

51. What do the two passages have in common? A) They both express amazement at the beautiful spectacle of the sea. B) They both present a threatening aspect of the sea. C) They both describe storms at sea. D) They both use the sea as a metaphor for love.

47. In the last stanza of Passage 1 (lines 29-37), which of the following best summarizes the reasons lovers should "be true"? A) There is nothing else to rely on in our confused and faithless world. B) Death will bring an end to everything sooner than we think. C) For lovers life is beautiful, but without love it is all a bad dream. D) Love is a light to banish the darkness and bring us out of confusion.

52. Which of the following best describes the difference between Passage 1 and Passage 2? A) In Passage 1, the narrator is a soldier, but in Passage 2, the narrator is a sailor. B) In Passage 1, the sea is dark and noisy, but in Passage 2, the sea is blue and expresses deep emotion. C) In Passage 1, the author's mood is upset by the sight and sounds of the sea, but in Passage 2, the author witnesses a real tragedy. D) In Passage 1, the author relates his experience to something that all people feel, but in Passage 2, the author relates a rare event with something mysterious.

48. In Passage 2, how does the author seem to feel about the ocean? A) The ocean is intentionally cruel. B) The ocean is uncaring. C) The ocean is like a tyrant. D) The ocean is an agent of justice. 49. As used in line 4 7 of Passage 2, "brig" most nearly means A) captain. B) crew. C) ship. D) storm.

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Reading Test 5 Questions 42-52 are based on the following passages and supplementary material. The following passages are about the future of astronomy. The first passage is adapted from Prof' Edward C. Pickering's "The Future ofAstronomy, " Popular Science Monthly, August 1909. The second passage is adapted from Dr. David Todd's A New Astronomy, 1897.

Passage 1 It is claimed by astronomers that their science is not only the oldest, but that it is the most highly developed of the sciences. However this may be, there is no doubt that in recent years s astronomers have had granted to them greater opportunities for carrying on large pieces of work than have been entrusted to men in any other department of pure science. One might expect that the practical results of a science like physics would 10 appeal to the man who has made a vast fortune through some of its applications. The telephone, the electric transmission of power, wireless telegraphy and the submarine cable are instances of immense financial returns derived from the most abstruse 15 principles of physics. Yet there are scarcely any physical laboratories devoted to research, or endowed with independent funds for this object. My object in calling your attention to this matter is the hope that what I have to say of the 20 organization of astronomy may prove of use to those interested in other branches of science, and that it may lead to placing them on the footing they should hold. The practical value of astronomy in the 25 past is easily established. Without it, international commerce on a large scale would have been impossible. Without the aid of astronomy, accurate boundaries of large tracts of land could not have been defined and standard time would have been 30 impossible. The work of the early astronomers was eminently practical, and appealed at once to everyone. This work has now been finished. The investigations now in progress at the greatest observatories have little, if any, value in dollars and 35 cents. They appeal, however, to the far higher sense, the desire of the intellectual human being to determine the laws of nature, the construction of the material universe, and the properties of the heavenly bodies of which those known to exist far 40 outnumber those that can be seen. Many persons have given large sums to astronomy, and some day we shall find the man

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with broad views who will decide to have the advice and aid of the astronomers of the world, in his plans for promoting science, and who will thus expend his money, as he made it, taking the greatest care that not one dollar is wasted.

Passage 2 Many devoted lives have been grandly spent in pursuit of this branch of learning; and it so would hardly be possible for anyone who has given even a general glance at their unselfish history to make the vulgar inquiry, "What's the use?" By faithful study, even for a short time, it is possible to discover many of these uses. ss To specify in part the relations in which astronomy is useful: In chronology, fixing many disputed dates of ancient battles, the reigns of kings, and other important historic events, and establishing the exact length of the units of time 60 requisite for the calendar. For example, the surest basis of the chronology of ancient Assyria rests upon an eclipse of the sun observed in Nineveh in the middle of the reign ofJeroboam the Second, which modem astronomical calculations 65 prove to have taken place on the 15th of June, B.C. 7 63. In navigation! conducting ships from port to port, almost without risk, thereby saving human life and lessening the cost of many of the necessaries of existence. In geodesy and in surveying, enabling us 70 to ascertain the size of the earth, make accurate maps of its continents and oceans, and run boundaries of countries and estates. In determining exact time, a vast convenience in all the affairs of life, particularly in the operation of railways. In 75 many large cities, the dropping of a ball on a high tower indicates exact noon. Every good watch has been carefully rated by an accurate clock, which again has been corrected by observations of the fixed stars. so Indeed, it is hardly an exaggeration to say that there is no civilized person in existence whose comfort is not enhanced, whose life is not rendered more worth the living, or who is not affected, at 324

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least indirectly, by the work of astronomers, and by ss those who, though not astronomers, are yet practically applying the principles of this science to the affairs of everyday life.

Astronomical Calculations of Latitude

42. What is the main objective of Passage 1?

45. According to Passage 2, how does old astronomy differ from new astronomy?

A) To argue that astronomy should be valued equally with other sciences B) To emphasize that astronomy is a useful and practical science C) To outline the future of astronomical research D) To request support for future astronomical projects

A) Past astronomers were more primitive. B) Past astronomers were more idealistic. C) Past astronomers were better funded. D) Past astronomers were more practical. 46. According to Passage 2, how is astronomy useful in chronology? A) It dates events that predate calendars. B) It was used by kings in ancient battles. C) It was invented in Nineveh to measure time. D) It can predict eclipses of the sun.

43. What is the attitude of the author of Passage 1 towards astronomy? A) Imploring and pessimistic B) Benign and pragmatic C) Reverent and idealistic D) Critical and scathing

4 7. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 57-58 ("the reigns ... events") B) Lines 59-60 ("establishing ... calendar") C) Lines 61-62 ("the chronology ... sun") D) Lines 64-66 ("modem ... 763")

44. In line 31, "eminently" most nearly means A) obviously. B) curiously. C) vitally. D) regrettably.

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51. Based on the graphic, what information would an astronomer need to calculate to determine latitude?

48. In line 73, "affairs" most nearly means A) mysteries. B) events. C) troubles. D) scandals.

A) Distance to a star B) Distance to the North Pole C) Angle to a star D) Angle to the horizon

49. According to Passage 2, all of the following are practical contributions of astronomy EXCEPT

52. What is the main difference between Passage 1 and Passage 2?

A) naval navigation. B) measuring the earth. C) calculating gravity. D) synchronizing railroads.

A) They disagree on the practicality of future of astronomy. B) They disagree on the practicality of past astronomy. C) They advocate different projects for spending funds . D) There is little disagreement between the passages.

50. How would the author of Passage 2 describe those who question the use of astronomy? A) Uneducated B) Selfish C) Vulgar D) Misinformed

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1 Passage 1 is adapted from Michael Slezak, “Space Mining: the Next Gold Rush?” ©2013 by New Scientist. Passage 2 is from the editors of New Scientist, “Taming the Final Frontier.” ©2013 by New Scientist.

Passage 1

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Follow the money and you will end up in space. That’s the message from a first-of-its-kind forum on mining beyond Earth. Convened in Sydney by the Australian Centre for Space Engineering Research, the event brought together mining companies, robotics experts, lunar scientists, and government agencies that are all working to make space mining a reality. The forum comes hot on the heels of the 2012 unveiling of two private asteroid-mining firms. Planetary Resources of Washington says it will launch its first prospecting telescopes in two years, while Deep Space Industries of Virginia hopes to be harvesting metals from asteroids by 2020. Another commercial venture that sprung up in 2012, Golden Spike of Colorado, will be offering trips to the moon, including to potential lunar miners. Within a few decades, these firms may be meeting earthly demands for precious metals, such as platinum and gold, and the rare earth elements vital for personal electronics, such as yttrium and lanthanum. But like the gold rush pioneers who transformed the western United States, the first space miners won’t just enrich themselves. They also hope to build an off-planet economy free of any bonds with Earth, in which the materials extracted and processed from the moon and asteroids are delivered for space-based projects. In this scenario, water mined from other worlds could become the most desired commodity. “In the desert, what’s worth more: a kilogram of gold or a kilogram of water?” asks Kris Zacny of HoneyBee Robotics in New York. “Gold is useless. Water will let you live.” Water ice from the moon’s poles could be sent to astronauts on the International Space Station for drinking or as a radiation shield. Splitting water into oxygen and hydrogen makes spacecraft fuel, so ice-rich asteroids could become interplanetary refuelling stations.

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Questions 42-52 are based on the following passages.

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Companies are eyeing the iron, silicon, and aluminium in lunar soil and asteroids, which could be used in 3D printers to make spare parts or machinery. Others want to turn space dirt into concrete for landing pads, shelters, and roads. Passage 2

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The motivation for deep-space travel is shifting from discovery to economics. The past year has seen a flurry of proposals aimed at bringing celestial riches down to Earth. No doubt this will make a few billionaires even wealthier, but we all stand to gain: the mineral bounty and spin-off technologies could enrich us all. But before the miners start firing up their rockets, we should pause for thought. At first glance, space mining seems to sidestep most environmental concerns: there is (probably!) no life on asteroids, and thus no habitats to trash. But its consequences —both here on Earth and in space—merit careful consideration. Part of this is about principles. Some will argue that space’s “magnificent desolation” is not ours to despoil, just as they argue that our own planet’s poles should remain pristine. Others will suggest that glutting ourselves on space’s riches is not an acceptable alternative to developing more sustainable ways of earthly life. History suggests that those will be hard lines to hold, and it may be difficult to persuade the public that such barren environments are worth preserving. After all, they exist in vast abundance, and even fewer people will experience them than have walked through Antarctica’s icy landscapes. There’s also the emerging off-world economy to consider. The resources that are valuable in orbit and beyond may be very different to those we prize on Earth. Questions of their stewardship have barely been broached—and the relevant legal and regulatory framework is fragmentary, to put it mildly. Space miners, like their earthly counterparts, are often reluctant to engage with such questions. One speaker at last week’s space-mining forum in Sydney, Australia, concluded with a plea that regulation should be avoided. But miners have much to gain from a broad agreement on the for-profit exploitation of space. Without consensus, claims will be disputed, investments risky, and the gains made insecure. It is in all of our long-term interests to seek one out.

CO NTI N U E


1 In lines 9-17, the author of Passage 1 mentions several companies primarily to

A) note the technological advances that make space mining possible. B) provide evidence of the growing interest in space mining.

D) highlight the diverse ways to carry out space mining operations.

43 The author of Passage 1 indicates that space mining could have which positive effect? A) It could yield materials important to Earth’s economy. B) It could raise the value of some precious metals on Earth. C) It could create unanticipated technological innovations. D) It could change scientists’ understanding of space resources.

44 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 18-22 (“Within . . . lanthanum”) B) Lines 24-28 (“They . . . projects”) C) Lines 29-30 (“In this . . . commodity”) D) Lines 41-44 (“Companies . . . machinery”)

45 As used in line 19, “demands” most nearly means A) offers. B) claims. C) inquiries. D) desires.

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C) emphasize the large profits to be made from space mining.

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46 What function does the discussion of water in lines 35-40 serve in Passage 1? A) It continues an extended comparison that begins in the previous paragraph. B) It provides an unexpected answer to a question raised in the previous paragraph. C) It offers hypothetical examples supporting a claim made in the previous paragraph. D) It examines possible outcomes of a proposal put forth in the previous paragraph.

47 The central claim of Passage 2 is that space mining has positive potential but A) it will end up encouraging humanity’s reckless treatment of the environment. B) its effects should be thoughtfully considered before it becomes a reality. C) such potential may not include replenishing key resources that are disappearing on Earth. D) experts disagree about the commercial viability of the discoveries it could yield.

48 As used in line 68, “hold” most nearly means A) maintain. B) grip. C) restrain. D) withstand.

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Which statement best describes the relationship between the passages? A) Passage 2 refutes the central claim advanced in Passage 1. B) Passage 2 illustrates the phenomenon described in more general terms in Passage 1. C) Passage 2 argues against the practicality of the proposals put forth in Passage 1. D) Passage 2 expresses reservations about developments discussed in Passage 1.

50 The author of Passage 2 would most likely respond to the discussion of the future of space mining in lines 18-28, Passage 1, by claiming that such a future A) is inconsistent with the sustainable use of space resources. B) will be difficult to bring about in the absence of regulations. C) cannot be attained without technologies that do not yet exist. D) seems certain to affect Earth’s economy in a negative way.

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51 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 60-63 (“Some . . . pristine”) B) Lines 74-76 (“The resources . . . Earth”) C) Lines 81-83 (“One . . . avoided”) D) Lines 85-87 (“Without . . . insecure”)

52 Which point about the resources that will be highly valued in space is implicit in Passage 1 and explicit in Passage 2? A) They may be different resources from those that are valuable on Earth. B) They will be valuable only if they can be harvested cheaply. C) They are likely to be primarily precious metals and rare earth elements. D) They may increase in value as those same resources become rare on Earth.

STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section.


1 This passage is adapted from Geoffrey Giller, “Long a Mystery, How 500-Meter-High Undersea Waves Form Is Revealed.” ©2014 by Scientific American.

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Some of the largest ocean waves in the world are nearly impossible to see. Unlike other large waves, these rollers, called internal waves, do not ride the ocean surface. Instead, they move underwater, undetectable without the use of satellite imagery or sophisticated monitoring equipment. Despite their hidden nature, internal waves are fundamental parts of ocean water dynamics, transferring heat to the ocean depths and bringing up cold water from below. And they can reach staggering heights—some as tall as skyscrapers. Because these waves are involved in ocean mixing and thus the transfer of heat, understanding them is crucial to global climate modeling, says Tom Peacock, a researcher at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Most models fail to take internal waves into account. “If we want to have more and more accurate climate models, we have to be able to capture processes such as this,” Peacock says. Peacock and his colleagues tried to do just that. Their study, published in November in Geophysical Research Letters, focused on internal waves generated in the Luzon Strait, which separates Taiwan and the Philippines. Internal waves in this region, thought to be some of the largest in the world, can reach about 500 meters high. “That’s the same height as the Freedom Tower that’s just been built in New York,” Peacock says. Although scientists knew of this phenomenon in the South China Sea and beyond, they didn’t know exactly how internal waves formed. To find out, Peacock and a team of researchers from M.I.T. and Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution worked with France’s National Center for Scientific Research using a giant facility there called the Coriolis Platform. The rotating platform, about 15 meters (49.2 feet) in diameter, turns at variable speeds and can simulate Earth’s rotation. It also has walls, which means scientists can fill it with water and create accurate, large-scale simulations of various oceanographic scenarios.

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Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

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Peacock and his team built a carbon-fiber resin scale model of the Luzon Strait, including the islands and surrounding ocean floor topography. Then they filled the platform with water of varying salinity to replicate the different densities found at the strait, with denser, saltier water below and lighter, less briny water above. Small particles were added to the solution and illuminated with lights from below in order to track how the liquid moved. Finally, they re-created tides using two large plungers to see how the internal waves themselves formed. The Luzon Strait’s underwater topography, with a distinct double-ridge shape, turns out to be responsible for generating the underwater waves. As the tide rises and falls and water moves through the strait, colder, denser water is pushed up over the ridges into warmer, less dense layers above it. This action results in bumps of colder water trailed by warmer water that generate an internal wave. As these waves move toward land, they become steeper—much the same way waves at the beach become taller before they hit the shore—until they break on a continental shelf. The researchers were also able to devise a mathematical model that describes the movement and formation of these waves. Whereas the model is specific to the Luzon Strait, it can still help researchers understand how internal waves are generated in other places around the world. Eventually, this information will be incorporated into global climate models, making them more accurate. “It’s very clear, within the context of these [global climate] models, that internal waves play a role in driving ocean circulations,” Peacock says.

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CHANGES IN DEPTH OF ISOTHERMS* IN AN INTERNAL WAVE OVER A 24-HOUR PERIOD

0: 00 1: 12 2: 24 3: 36 4: 48 6: 00 7: 12 8: 24 9: 36 10 :4 12 8 :0 13 0 :1 14 2 :2 15 4 :3 16 6 :4 18 8 :0 19 0 :1 20 2 :2 21 4 :3 22 6 :4 24 8 :0 0

Time (hours)

Depth Below Surface (meters)

0 40 80 120 160

13°C

11°C

10°C

9°C

* Bands of water of constant temperatures Adapted from Justin Small et al., “Internal Solitons in the Ocean: Prediction from SAR.” ©1998 by Oceanography, Defence Evaluation and Research Agency.

The first paragraph serves mainly to A) explain how a scientific device is used. B) note a common misconception about an event. C) describe a natural phenomenon and address its importance. D) present a recent study and summarize its findings.

44 As used in line 19, “capture” is closest in meaning to A) control. B) record. C) secure. D) absorb.

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45 According to Peacock, the ability to monitor internal waves is significant primarily because A) it will allow scientists to verify the maximum height of such waves. B) it will allow researchers to shift their focus to improving the quality of satellite images. C) the study of wave patterns will enable regions to predict and prevent coastal damage. D) the study of such waves will inform the development of key scientific models.

46 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1-2 (“Some . . . see”) B) Lines 4-6 (“they . . . equipment”) C) Lines 17-19 (“If . . . this”) D) Lines 24-26 (“Internal . . . high”)

CO NTI N U E


1 As used in line 65, “devise” most nearly means A) create. B) solve. C) imagine. D) begin.

48 Based on information in the passage, it can reasonably be inferred that all internal waves A) reach approximately the same height even though the locations and depths of continental shelves vary. B) may be caused by similar factors but are influenced by the distinct topographies of different regions. C) can be traced to inconsistencies in the tidal patterns of deep ocean water located near islands. D) are generated by the movement of dense water over a relatively flat section of the ocean floor.

49 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 29-31 (“Although . . . formed”) B) Lines 56-58 (“As the . . . it”) C) Lines 61-64 (“As these . . . shelf”) D) Lines 67-70 (“Whereas . . . world”)

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50 In the graph, which isotherm displays an increase in depth below the surface during the period 19:12 to 20:24? A)

9°C

B) 10°C C) 11°C D) 13°C

51 Which concept is supported by the passage and by the information in the graph? A) Internal waves cause water of varying salinity to mix. B) Internal waves push denser water above layers of less dense water. C) Internal waves push bands of cold water above bands of warmer water. D) Internal waves do not rise to break the ocean’s surface.

52 How does the graph support the author’s point that internal waves affect ocean water dynamics? A) It demonstrates that wave movement forces warmer water down to depths that typically are colder. B) It reveals the degree to which an internal wave affects the density of deep layers of cold water. C) It illustrates the change in surface temperature that takes place during an isolated series of deep waves. D) It shows that multiple waves rising near the surface of the ocean disrupt the flow of normal tides.

STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section.


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This passage is adapted from Richard J. Sharpe and Lisa Heyden, “Honey Bee Colony Collapse Disorder is Possibly Caused by a Dietary Pyrethrum Deficiency.” ©2009 by Elsevier Ltd. Colony collapse disorder is characterized by the disappearance of adult worker bees from hives.

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Honey bees are hosts to the pathogenic large ectoparasitic mite Varroa destructor (Varroa mites). These mites feed on bee hemolymph (blood) and can kill bees directly or by increasing their susceptibility to secondary infection with fungi, bacteria or viruses. Little is known about the natural defenses that keep the mite infections under control. Pyrethrums are a group of flowering plants which include Chrysanthemum coccineum, Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium, Chrysanthemum marschalli, and related species. These plants produce potent insecticides with anti-mite activity. The naturally occurring insecticides are known as pyrethrums. A synonym for the naturally occurring pyrethrums is pyrethrin and synthetic analogues of pyrethrums are known as pyrethroids. In fact, the human mite infestation known as scabies (Sarcoptes scabiei) is treated with a topical pyrethrum cream. We suspect that the bees of commercial bee colonies which are fed mono-crops are nutritionally deficient. In particular, we postulate that the problem is a diet deficient in anti-mite toxins: pyrethrums, and possibly other nutrients which are inherent in such plants. Without, at least, intermittent feeding on the pyrethrum producing plants, bee colonies are susceptible to mite infestations which can become fatal either directly or due to a secondary infection of immunocompromised or nutritionally deficient bees. This secondary infection can be viral, bacterial or fungal and may be due to one or more pathogens. In addition, immunocompromised or nutritionally deficient bees may be further weakened when commercially produced insecticides are introduced into their hives by bee keepers in an effort to fight mite infestation. We further postulate that the proper dosage necessary to prevent mite infestation may be better left to the bees, who may seek out or avoid pyrethrum containing plants depending on the amount necessary to defend against mites and the amount already consumed by the bees, which in higher doses could be potentially toxic to them.

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Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

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This hypothesis can best be tested by a trial wherein a small number of commercial honey bee colonies are offered a number of pyrethrum producing plants, as well as a typical bee food source such as clover, while controls are offered only the clover. Mites could then be introduced to each hive with note made as to the choice of the bees, and the effects of the mite parasites on the experimental colonies versus control colonies. It might be beneficial to test wild-type honey bee colonies in this manner as well, in case there could be some genetic difference between them that affects the bees’ preferences for pyrethrum producing flowers.

Pathogen Occurence in Honey Bee Colonies With and Without Colony Collapse Disorder

Pathogen Viruses IAPV KBV Fungi Nosema apis Nosema ceranae All four pathogens

Percent of colonies affected by pathogen Colonies without Colonies with colony collapse colony collapse disorder (%) disorder (%) 83 100

5 76

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Adapted from Diana L. Cox-Foster et al., “A Metagenomic Survey of Microbes in Honey Bee Colony Collapse Disorder.” ©2007 by American Association for the Advancement of Science.

The table above shows, for colonies with colony collapse disorder and for colonies without colony collapse disorder, the percent of colonies having honey bees infected by each of four pathogens and by all four pathogens together.

CO NTI N U E


1 How do the words “can,” “may,” and “could” in the third paragraph (lines 19-41) help establish the tone of the paragraph? A) They create an optimistic tone that makes clear the authors are hopeful about the effects of their research on colony collapse disorder. B) They create a dubious tone that makes clear the authors do not have confidence in the usefulness of the research described. C) They create a tentative tone that makes clear the authors suspect but do not know that their hypothesis is correct. D) They create a critical tone that makes clear the authors are skeptical of claims that pyrethrums are inherent in mono-crops.

43 In line 42, the authors state that a certain hypothesis “can best be tested by a trial.” Based on the passage, which of the following is a hypothesis the authors suggest be tested in a trial? A) Honeybees that are exposed to both pyrethrums and mites are likely to develop a secondary infection by a virus, a bacterium, or a fungus. B) Beekeepers who feed their honeybee colonies a diet of a single crop need to increase the use of insecticides to prevent mite infestations. C) A honeybee diet that includes pyrethrums results in honeybee colonies that are more resistant to mite infestations. D) Humans are more susceptible to varroa mites as a result of consuming nutritionally deficient food crops.

44 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 3-5 (“These mites . . . viruses”) B) Lines 16-18 (“In fact . . . cream”) C) Lines 19-21 (“We suspect . . . deficient”) D) Lines 24-28 (“Without . . . bees”)

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45 The passage most strongly suggests that beekeepers’ attempts to fight mite infestations with commercially produced insecticides have what unintentional effect? A) They increase certain mite populations. B) They kill some beneficial forms of bacteria. C) They destroy bees’ primary food source. D) They further harm the health of some bees.

46 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1-2 (“Honey bees . . . mites”) B) Lines 6-7 (“Little . . . control”) C) Lines 31-35 (“In addition . . . infestation”) D) Lines 47-50 (“Mites . . . control colonies”)

47 As used in line 35, “postulate” most nearly means to A) make an unfounded assumption. B) put forth an idea or claim. C) question a belief or theory. D) conclude based on firm evidence.

48 The main purpose of the fourth paragraph (lines 42-50) is to A) summarize the results of an experiment that confirmed the authors’ hypothesis about the role of clover in the diets of wild-type honeybees. B) propose an experiment to investigate how different diets affect commercial honeybee colonies’ susceptibility to mite infestations. C) provide a comparative nutritional analysis of the honey produced by the experimental colonies and by the control colonies. D) predict the most likely outcome of an unfinished experiment summarized in the third paragraph (lines 19-41).

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An unstated assumption made by the authors about clover is that the plants A) do not produce pyrethrums. B) are members of the Chrysanthemum genus. C) are usually located near wild-type honeybee colonies. D) will not be a good food source for honeybees in the control colonies.

50 Based on data in the table, in what percent of colonies with colony collapse disorder were the honeybees infected by all four pathogens? A)

0 percent

B)

77 percent

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D) 100 percent

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51 Based on data in the table, which of the four pathogens infected the highest percentage of honeybee colonies without colony collapse disorder? A) IAPV B) KBV C) Nosema apis D) Nosema ceranae

52 Do the data in the table provide support for the authors’ claim that infection with varroa mites increases a honeybee’s susceptibility to secondary infections? A) Yes, because the data provide evidence that infection with a pathogen caused the colonies to undergo colony collapse disorder. B) Yes, because for each pathogen, the percent of colonies infected is greater for colonies with colony collapse disorder than for colonies without colony collapse disorder. C) No, because the data do not provide evidence about bacteria as a cause of colony collapse disorder. D) No, because the data do not indicate whether the honeybees had been infected with mites.

STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section.


1 This passage is adapted from Carolyn Gramling, “Source of Mysterious Medieval Eruption Identified.” ©2013 by American Association for the Advancement of Science.

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About 750 years ago, a powerful volcano erupted somewhere on Earth, kicking off a centuries-long cold snap known as the Little Ice Age. Identifying the volcano responsible has been tricky. That a powerful volcano erupted somewhere in the world, sometime in the Middle Ages, is written in polar ice cores in the form of layers of sulfate deposits and tiny shards of volcanic glass. These cores suggest that the amount of sulfur the mystery volcano sent into the stratosphere put it firmly among the ranks of the strongest climate-perturbing eruptions of the current geological epoch, the Holocene, a period that stretches from 10,000 years ago to the present. A haze of stratospheric sulfur cools the climate by reflecting solar energy back into space. In 2012, a team of scientists led by geochemist Gifford Miller strengthened the link between the mystery eruption and the onset of the Little Ice Age by using radiocarbon dating of dead plant material from beneath the ice caps on Baffin Island and Iceland, as well as ice and sediment core data, to determine that the cold summers and ice growth began abruptly between 1275 and 1300 C.E. (and became intensified between 1430 and 1455 C.E.). Such a sudden onset pointed to a huge volcanic eruption injecting sulfur into the stratosphere and starting the cooling. Subsequent, unusually large and frequent eruptions of other volcanoes, as well as sea-ice/ocean feedbacks persisting long after the aerosols have been removed from the atmosphere, may have prolonged the cooling through the 1700s. Volcanologist Franck Lavigne and colleagues now think they’ve identified the volcano in question: Indonesia’s Samalas. One line of evidence, they note, is historical records. According to Babad Lombok, records of the island written on palm leaves in Old Javanese, Samalas erupted catastrophically before the end of the 13th century, devastating surrounding villages—including Lombok’s capital at the time, Pamatan—with ash and fast-moving sweeps of hot rock and gas called pyroclastic flows. The researchers then began to reconstruct the formation of the large, 800-meter-deep caldera [a basin-shaped volcanic crater] that now sits atop the

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Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

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volcano. They examined 130 outcrops on the flanks of the volcano, exposing sequences of pumice—ash hardened into rock—and other pyroclastic material. The volume of ash deposited, and the estimated height of the eruption plume (43 kilometers above sea level) put the eruption’s magnitude at a minimum of 7 on the volcanic explosivity index (which has a scale of 1 to 8)—making it one of the largest known in the Holocene. The team also performed radiocarbon analyses on carbonized tree trunks and branches buried within the pyroclastic deposits to confirm the date of the eruption; it could not, they concluded, have happened before 1257 C.E., and certainly happened in the 13th century. It’s not a total surprise that an Indonesian volcano might be the source of the eruption, Miller says. “An equatorial eruption is more consistent with the apparent climate impacts.” And, he adds, with sulfate appearing in both polar ice caps—Arctic and Antarctic—there is “a strong consensus” that this also supports an equatorial source. Another possible candidate—both in terms of timing and geographical location—is Ecuador’s Quilotoa, estimated to have last erupted between 1147 and 1320 C.E. But when Lavigne’s team examined shards of volcanic glass from this volcano, they found that they didn’t match the chemical composition of the glass found in polar ice cores, whereas the Samalas glass is a much closer match. That, they suggest, further strengthens the case that Samalas was responsible for the medieval “year without summer” in 1258 C.E.

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1 Temperature variation*

+0.5 Little Ice Age 0 Medieval Warm Period

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Year *Variation from the 1961-1990 average temperature, in °C, represented at 0. Adapted from John P. Rafferty, “Little Ice Age.” Originally published in 2011. ©2014 by Encyclopedia Britannica, Inc.

42 The main purpose of the passage is to A) describe periods in Earth’s recent geologic history. B) explain the methods scientists use in radiocarbon analysis. C) describe evidence linking the volcano Samalas to the Little Ice Age. D) explain how volcanic glass forms during volcanic eruptions.

43 Over the course of the passage, the focus shifts from A) a criticism of a scientific model to a new theory. B) a description of a recorded event to its likely cause. C) the use of ice core samples to a new method of measuring sulfates. D) the use of radiocarbon dating to an examination of volcanic glass.

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Estimated Temperature in Central England 1000 CE to 2000 CE

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44 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 17-25 (“In 2012 . . . 1455 C.E.”) B) Lines 43-46 (“The researchers . . . atop the volcano”) C) Lines 46-48 (“They examined . . . material”) D) Lines 55-60 (“The team . . . 13th century”)

45 The author uses the phrase “is written in” (line 6) most likely to A) demonstrate the concept of the hands-on nature of the work done by scientists. B) highlight the fact that scientists often write about their discoveries. C) underscore the sense of importance that scientists have regarding their work. D) reinforce the idea that the evidence is there and can be interpreted by scientists.

46 Where does the author indicate the medieval volcanic eruption most probably was located? A) Near the equator, in Indonesia B) In the Arctic region C) In the Antarctic region D) Near the equator, in Ecuador

47 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1-3 (“About 750 . . . Ice Age”) B) Lines 26-28 (“Such a . . . the cooling”) C) Lines 49-54 (“The volume . . . the Holocene”) D) Lines 61-64 (“It’s not . . . climate impacts”)

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As used in line 68, the phrase “Another possible candidate” implies that A) powerful volcanic eruptions occur frequently. B) the effects of volcanic eruptions can last for centuries. C) scientists know of other volcanoes that erupted during the Middle Ages. D) other volcanoes have calderas that are very large.

49 Which choice best supports the claim that Quilotoa was not responsible for the Little Ice Age? A) Lines 3-4 (“Identifying . . . tricky”) B) Lines 26-28 (“Such a . . . cooling”) C) Lines 43-46 (“The researchers . . . atop the volcano”) D) Lines 71-75 (“But . . . closer match”)

50 According to the data in the figure, the greatest below-average temperature variation occurred around what year? A) 1200 CE B) 1375 CE C) 1675 CE D) 1750 CE

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51 The passage and the figure are in agreement that the onset of the Little Ice Age began A) around 1150 CE. B) just before 1300 CE. C) just before 1500 CE. D) around 1650 CE.

52 What statement is best supported by the data presented in the figure? A) The greatest cooling during the Little Ice Age occurred hundreds of years after the temperature peaks of the Medieval Warm Period. B) The sharp decline in temperature supports the hypothesis of an equatorial volcanic eruption in the Middle Ages. C) Pyroclastic flows from volcanic eruptions continued for hundreds of years after the eruptions had ended. D) Radiocarbon analysis is the best tool scientists have to determine the temperature variations after volcanic eruptions.

STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section.


1 Passage 1 is adapted from Stewart Brand, “The Case for Reviving Extinct Species.” ©2013 by the National Geographic Society. Passage 2 is adapted from the editors at Scientific American, “Why Efforts to Bring Extinct Species Back from the Dead Miss the Point.” ©2013 by Nature America, Inc.

Passage 1

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Many extinct species—from the passenger pigeon to the woolly mammoth—might now be reclassified as “bodily, but not genetically, extinct.” They’re dead, but their DNA is recoverable from museum specimens and fossils, even those up to 200,000 years old. Thanks to new developments in genetic technology, that DNA may eventually bring the animals back to life. Only species whose DNA is too old to be recovered, such as dinosaurs, are the ones to consider totally extinct, bodily and genetically. But why bring vanished creatures back to life? It will be expensive and difficult. It will take decades. It won’t always succeed. Why even try? Why do we take enormous trouble to protect endangered species? The same reasons will apply to species brought back from extinction: to preserve biodiversity, to restore diminished ecosystems, to advance the science of preventing extinctions, and to undo harm that humans have caused in the past. Furthermore, the prospect of de-extinction is profound news. That something as irreversible and final as extinction might be reversed is a stunning realization. The imagination soars. Just the thought of mammoths and passenger pigeons alive again invokes the awe and wonder that drives all conservation at its deepest level. Passage 2

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The idea of bringing back extinct species holds obvious gee-whiz appeal and a respite from a steady stream of grim news. Yet with limited intellectual bandwidth and financial resources to go around, de-extinction threatens to divert attention from the modern biodiversity crisis. According to a 2012 report from the International Union for Conservation of Nature, some 20,000 species are currently in grave danger of going extinct. Species today are vanishing in such great numbers—many from hunting and habitat

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Questions 38-47 are based on the following passages.

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destruction—that the trend has been called a sixth mass extinction, an event on par with such die-offs as the one that befell the dinosaurs 65 million years ago. A program to restore extinct species poses a risk of selling the public on a false promise that technology alone can solve our ongoing environmental woes—an implicit assurance that if a species goes away, we can snap our fingers and bring it back. Already conservationists face difficult choices about which species and ecosystems to try to save, since they cannot hope to rescue them all. Many countries where poaching and trade in threatened species are rampant either do not want to give up the revenue or lack the wherewithal to enforce their own regulations. Against that backdrop, a costly and flamboyant project to resuscitate extinct flora and fauna in the name of conservation looks irresponsible: Should we resurrect the mammoth only to let elephants go under? Of course not. That is not to say that the de-extinction enterprise lacks merit altogether. Aspects of it could conceivably help save endangered species. For example, extinct versions of genes could be reintroduced into species and subspecies that have lost a dangerous amount of genetic diversity, such as the black-footed ferret and the northern white rhino. Such investigations, however, should be conducted under the mantle of preserving modern biodiversity rather than conjuring extinct species from the grave.

38 The author of Passage 1 suggests that the usefulness of de-extinction technology may be limited by the A) amount of time scientists are able to devote to genetic research. B) relationship of an extinct species to contemporary ecosystems. C) complexity of the DNA of an extinct species. D) length of time that a species has been extinct.

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1 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 7-9 (“Thanks . . . life”) B) Lines 9-11 (“Only . . . genetically”) C) Line 13 (“It will be . . . difficult”) D) Lines 13-14 (“It will take . . . succeed”)

40 As used in line 27, “deepest” most nearly means A) most engrossing. B) most challenging. C) most extensive. D) most fundamental.

41 The authors of Passage 2 indicate that the matter of shrinking biodiversity should primarily be considered a A) historical anomaly. B) global catastrophe. C) scientific curiosity. D) political problem.

42 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 37-41 (“Species . . . ago”) B) Lines 42-45 (“A program . . . woes”) C) Lines 53-56 (“Against . . . irresponsible”) D) Lines 65-67 (“Such . . . grave”)

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43 As used in line 37, “great” most nearly means A) lofty. B) wonderful. C) large. D) intense.

44 The reference to the “black-footed ferret and the northern white rhino” (line 64) serves mainly to A) emphasize a key distinction between extinct and living species. B) account for types of animals whose numbers are dwindling. C) provide examples of species whose gene pools are compromised. D) highlight instances of animals that have failed to adapt to new habitats.

45 Which choice best states the relationship between the two passages? A) Passage 2 attacks a political decision that Passage 1 strongly advocates. B) Passage 2 urges caution regarding a technology that Passage 1 describes in favorable terms. C) Passage 2 expands on the results of a research study mentioned in Passage 1. D) Passage 2 considers practical applications that could arise from a theory discussed in Passage 1.

CO NTI N U E


1 How would the authors of Passage 2 most likely respond to the “prospect” referred to in line 21, Passage 1? A) With approval, because it illustrates how useful de-extinction could be in addressing widespread environmental concerns. B) With resignation, because the gradual extinction of many living species is inevitable. C) With concern, because it implies an easy solution to a difficult problem. D) With disdain, because it shows that people have little understanding of the importance of genetic diversity.

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47 Which choice would best support the claim that the authors of Passage 2 recognize that the “imagination soars” (line 24, Passage 1) in response to de-extinction technology? A) Lines 28-30 (“The . . . news”) B) Lines 30-33 (“Yet . . . crisis”) C) Lines 58-59 (“That . . . altogether”) D) Lines 61-63 (“For . . . diversity”)


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Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage.

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Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage. This passage is adapted from a speech given by President Richard Nixon when he resigned his office on August 9, 1974. His decision followed the revelation that five men connected to the Nixon administration were caught breaking into the headquarters of the opposing political party. At the time of Nixon’s resignation, proceedings had already begun in Congress to impeach him and seemed likely to succeed.

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Good evening. This is the 37th time I have spoken to you from this office, where so many decisions have been made that shaped the history of this Nation. Each time I have done so to discuss with you some matter that I believe affected the national interest. Throughout the long and difficult period of Watergate, I have felt it was my duty to persevere— to make every possible effort to complete the term of office to which you elected me. In the past few days, however, it has become evident to me that I no longer have a strong enough political base in the Congress to justify continuing that effort. As long as there was such a base, I felt strongly that it was necessary to see the constitutional process through to its conclusion; that to do otherwise would be unfaithful to the spirit of that deliberately difficult process, and a dangerously destabilizing precedent for the future. But with the disappearance of that base, I now believe that the constitutional purpose has been served. And there is no longer a need for the process to be prolonged. I would have preferred to carry through to the finish, whatever the personal agony it would have involved, and my family unanimously urged me to do so. But the interests of the nation must always come before any personal considerations. From the discussions I have had with Congressional and other leaders I have concluded that because of the Watergate matter I might not have the support of the Congress that I would consider necessary to back the very difficult decisions and carry out the duties of this office in the way the interests of the nation will require.

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I have never been a quitter. To leave office before my term is completed is abhorrent to every instinct in my body. But as President, I must put the interests of America first. America needs a full-time President and a full-time Congress, particularly at this time with problems we face at home and abroad. To continue to fight through the months ahead for my personal vindication would almost totally absorb the time and attention of both the President and the Congress in a period when our entire focus should be on the great issues of peace abroad and prosperity without inflation at home. Therefore, I shall resign the Presidency effective at noon tomorrow. Vice President Ford will be sworn in as President at that hour in this office. By taking this action, I hope that I will have hastened the start of that process of healing which is so desperately needed in America. I regret deeply any injuries that may have been done in the course of the events that led to this decision. I would say only that if some of my Judgments were wrong, and some were wrong, they were made in what I believed at the time to be the best interest of the Nation. As I recall the high hopes for America with which we began this second term, I feel a great sadness that I will not be here in this office working on your behalf to achieve those hopes in the next two and a half years. But in turning over direction of the Government to Vice President Ford, I know, as I told the nation when I nominated him for that office ten months ago, that the leadership of America would be in good hands. So let us all now join together in affirming that common commitment and in helping our new President succeed for the benefit of all Americans. I shall leave this office with regret at not completing my term but with gratitude for the privilege of serving as your President for the past five and a half years. These years have been a momentous time in the history of our nation and the world. They have been a time of achievement in which we can all be proud, achievements that represent the shared efforts CONTINUE


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of the administration, the Congress and the people. But the challenges ahead are equally great. And they, too, will require the support and the efforts of the Congress and the people, working in cooperation with the new Administration. May God’s grace be with you in all the days ahead.

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HW - 17

45 Nixon’s tone in the passage can best be described as A) regretful. B) hopeful. C) livid. D) uncertain.

43 Nixon’s primary purpose in delivering this speech was most likely to

46 Which of the following is NOT a reason Nixon gives for resigning the presidency?

A) ask the American public for their forgiveness for his mistakes.

A) He no longer feels he has enough congressional support.

B) announce his resignation and offer an explanation to the public.

B) He can’t fulfill his obligations as President while also fighting for his personal vindication in the Watergate scandal.

C) condemn the press for trying him in the court of public opinion before all the facts were available.

C) Vice President Ford stated he was ready to take on the duties of the presidency.

D) express his full confidence in Vice President Ford.

D) The United States faces great challenges in the coming years and requires a cooperative government to face them.

44 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

47

A) Lines 6-9 (“Throughout the ... me”)

The passage implies that Nixon

B) Lines 36-37 (“But as ... first”) C) Lines 40-45 (“To continue ... home”)

A) wanted to continue in his office, but felt obligated to resign.

D) Lines 46-48 (“Vice President ... office”)

B) was in fact relieved to step aside. C) resigned in order to spend more time with his family. D) was blackmailed into resigning by Congress.

CONTINUE


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50 Which of the following is an issue that Nixon states Americans must address in the coming years?

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1-4 (“This is ... Nation”) B) Lines 25-26 (“But the ... considerations”)

A) A potential economic collapse

C) Lines 62-66 (“But in ... hands”)

B) An overly powerful Congress

D) Lines 69-73 (“I shall ... years”)

C) A trial of those involved in Watergate D) A struggle for peace

49 Nixon’s use of the phrase “dangerously destabilizing precedent for the future” (lines 1718) is primarily meant to refer to

51 As used in line 35, “abhorrent” most nearly means A) pitiful.

A) forcing congress to initiate impeachment proceedings.

B) shocking.

B) permitting the president’s party to get away with crimes.

D) repugnant.

C) resigning too easily while he still had political support. D) finishing out his term in the face of serious accusations.

C) disgusting.

52 As used in line 67, “affirming” most nearly means A) stating. B) defending. C) upholding. D) swearing.


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Questions 42-52 are based on the following passages. Passage 1 is adapted from Andrew Steele, “Your phone screen just won the Nobel Prize in physics.” © Andrew Steele, 2014. Passage 2 is adapted from Sarah Zielinski, “The Potential Dark Side of Nobel-Winning LEDs: Pest Problems.” © Smithsonian Magazine, 2014.

Passage 2

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Blue LEDs are important for two reasons: First, the blue light has specific applications of its own and second, because it’s a vital component of the white light which makes white LEDs, and therefore LED computer and phone screens, possible. Blue light has a short wavelength, which allows the pits on a Bluray disc to be smaller and closer together than on a DVD, which is read with red light. This means we can pack over five times as much data onto a disk the same size as a DVD. Their biggest impact, however, is surely in giving us the ability to produce white LEDs. White light is actually a mixture of all the colors of the rainbow, as you can see if you split it up with a prism, or indeed if you catch a multicolored reflection in the surface of a Blu-ray disc, DVD or CD. However, the human eye has just three types of color receptor inside it: red, green and blue. We can therefore make something which looks like white light using only these three colors. Combining red and green LEDs with blue ones allows us to create highly efficient white lighting, providing around 20 times as much light as an equivalent incandescent bulb. White LEDs are slowly making their way onto ceilings of homes, shops and factories around the world, but their real ubiquity today is as the back-light for computer and phone screens. Unlock your phone or turn on a recent flat-screen monitor, and red, green and blue LEDs shining through a layer of liquid crystal allows you to browse the web and watch movies. The result is a technology which is all around us in the developed world, and making headway into the developing world too.

HW - 18

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The Nobel Prize in Physics was recently awarded to three scientists who invented blue light-emitting diodes. The work was crucial for producing bright white LED lighting, which is more energy-efficient than traditional incandescent bulbs. But there’s a possible downside to widespread use of LEDs: They could make light pollution worse. For decades streetlights have generally used yellow, highpressure sodium vapor lamps, which light up by sending an arc of electricity through vaporized sodium metal. Now, white LEDs are quickly replacing the sodium lamps, but a study published in Ecological Applications shows why that might be an environmental problem. “The main driver of the ecological impacts that result from a shift to white LED lighting will be the increase in emissions of short wavelength ‘blue’ light,” says Stephen Pawson, an entomologist at the New Zealand research institute Scion. “The behavior of many animals is influenced by light in the blue portion of the spectrum. For example, insects have specific photoreceptors for blue light. Thus largescale adoption of ‘white’ lighting is likely to increase the impacts of nighttime lighting on all species sensitive to ‘blue’ light.” In the study, Pawson and his Scion colleague Martin Bader looked at the effects of industrial white LEDs versus sodium lamps on insects. They set out the lamps in a field at night, placing sheets of a sticky material next to the lights to catch any insects that came near. On average, the white LEDs attracted 48 percent more flying invertebrates than the sodium lamps. The researchers hypothesized that certain white LEDs might be less attractive to invertebrates than others. Unfortunately, that wasn’t the case. If installed as currently designed, white LEDs could exacerbate pest problems, Pawson and Bader note in their study. Midge swarms, for instance, are already known to be more attracted to white lighting.

CONTINUE


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45 According to Passage 1, blue light is important for creating white LEDs because

Passage 1 presents blue LEDs primarily as A) a fascinating demonstration of littleunderstood physical principles.

A) blue LEDs are cheaper to manufacture than white LEDs.

B) a scientific curiosity of interest to select groups of people.

B) blue is one of the colors for which human eyes have receptors.

C) a major technological breakthrough that has already proven important.

C) all colors must be present for humans to perceive white light.

D) a promising prototype that may become highly significant. 43

D) blue light is the easiest to produce artificially.

46 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

Passage 2 primarily focuses on A) different kinds of evidence that suggest white LEDs are harmful.

A) Lines 8-10 (“This means … DVD”) B) Lines 12-16 (“White light … CD”)

B) what makes white LEDs different from sodium lights.

C) Lines 21-24 (“Combining red … bulb”)

C) the author’s opinion that we use too many white LEDs.

D) Lines 32-35 (“The result … too”)

D) a study demonstrating a specific effect of white LEDs.

44 As used in line 3, “vital” most nearly means A) lively. B) vigorous.

47

C) essential.

The researchers in Passage 2 are primarily concerned that white LEDs will

D) compelling.

A) result in significant losses of native insects. B) disrupt the habitats of nocturnal animals. C) cause an increase in invertebrate populations. D) attract more pests than sodium lamps do.

CONTINUE


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48

HW - 18

51 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the two passages?

A) Lines 42-46 (“For decades … metal”)

A) Passage 2 describes a new application of the technology explained in Passage 1.

B) Lines 61-63 (“In the … insects”)

B) Passage 2 highlights a potential downside of the innovation described in Passage 1.

C) Lines 66-68 (“On average … lamps”) D) Lines 74-75 (“Midge swarms … lighting”)

C) Passage 2 details an experiment performed to test the tools discussed in Passage 1.

49

D) Passage 2 criticizes the researchers profiled in Passage 1.

As used in line 40, “traditional” most nearly means A) standard. 52

B) time-honored.

The authors of both passages would probably agree that

C) habitual. D) conservative.

A) the most significant use of blue LEDs is in making white LEDs.

50 Which of the following is the best example of one of the “impacts of nighttime lighting” mentioned in line 59? A) Insects can be caught in sheets of sticky material placed near lights. B) White LEDs are likely to emit more blue light than sodium lamps.

B) blue LEDs could be dangerous and should be used with caution. C) the primary harm blue LEDs might cause would be to humans. D) blue LEDs are too difficult to manufacture to be used widely.

C) Light sources often attract unwanted pests, such as midge swarms. D) Insects are drawn to things they have not seen before.

STOP If you complete this section before the end of your allotted time, check your work on this section only. Do NOT use the time to work on another section.


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Questions 39–47 are based on the following passage. (45)

Halley’s Comet

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U N I T

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Much like Old Faithful at Yellowstone National Park—by far the most well-known of the American geysers—Halley’s Comet is neither the most visually brilliant nor the largest of its kind; its renown derives from the dependable frequency with which it can be observed. Halley’s falls into a category called Great Comets, which are those that become bright enough during their passage near Earth to be observed by the naked eye. Predicting whether or not a comet will be

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HW - 19 “great” has proven to be a treacherous task even for the most talented of astronomers and astrophysicists. The comet must pass through a relatively small expanse of space near enough to the Sun to reflect a large amount of light but remain close enough to Earth for the light to reach and penetrate our atmosphere. Moreover, it is thought that a Great Comet must possess a large and active nucleus, though the exact physics of comet nuclei—which consist of dust, ice, and perhaps particulate minerals—are still poorly understood. Even so, comets meeting these criteria have on occasion failed to achieve “greatness.” To date, the most recent Great Comet was C/2006 P1, which appeared in January 2007 and was the brightest in more than 40 years. The intrinsic difficulty of predicting a comet’s greatness makes the consistency of Halley’s visibility all the more remarkable. Most Great Comets will pass near Earth only once every several thousand years, while Halley’s does so on a cycle of about 75 years—making it the only Great Comet with the potential to appear twice in a human lifetime. With an eccentricity of 0.967, the orbit of Halley’s Comet is extremely elliptical; at one end of its major axis, Halley’s is roughly the same distance from the Sun as Pluto. At the other end, it passes between the orbits of Mercury and Venus. The highly elliptic character of Halley’s orbit means that, apart from having one of the highest velocities of any body in our solar system, it passes near Earth both during its approach and its return from the Sun. Though becoming visible during only one of these passes, the two near points of the orbit make Halley’s the parent body of two annual meteor showers: the Eta Aquariids in early May and Orionids of late October. Though humans have likely marveled at the spectacle of Halley’s Comet for thousands of years (the Talmudic astronomers of the 1st century describe a star that appears once every 70 years to wreak havoc on nauti-

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cal navigation), it was little more than 300 years ago that Edmond Halley—a friend of Sir Isaac Newton’s—used Newton’s newly conceived laws of gravity to explain the motion and predict the periodicity of comets. By using these equations in tandem with historical records, Halley surmised that the comets observed in 1531 by German Humanist Petrus Apianus, in 1607 by Johannes Kepler, and by himself and Newton in 1683 were one and the same. Moreover, he predicted its return in 1758. Halley passed away in January 1742 at the age of 85, nearly 16 years to the day short of seeing his prediction confirmed firsthand. Yet, in an almost poetic cyclicity, Halley’s Comet—the periodicity of which Halley had derived from the observations of two German astronomers—was observed and documented by German farmer and amateur astronomer Johann Palitzsch on Christmas Day, 1758. The confirmation of Halley’s theory constituted the first occasion in which Western science had proven that any bodies apart from planets orbit the Sun. Halley’s Comet has been visible in our sky just three times since Palistzch’s observation, but it will return again sometime in the summer of 2061.

39. The overall tone of the passage is best characterized as one of (A) solemn pessimism. (B) playful whimsy. (C) analytical curiosity. (D) religious fervor.

HW - 19 41. It can reasonably be inferred that “Old Faithful” (line 1) and Halley’s Comet share what aspect that primarily contributes to their fame? (A) Presence of water (B) High eccentricity (C) Nuclear particulates (D) Periodic observability 42. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 5–7 (“Its . . . observed”) (B) Lines 14–19 (“The . . . atmosphere”) (C) Lines 20–23 (“Large . . . minerals”) (D) Lines 38–39 (“With . . . elliptical”) 43. According to the passage, which characteristic of a comet is most essential to its being categorized as a “Great Comet”? (A) Whether it has a significant proportion of dust and ice in its core (B) Whether it has an orbital eccentricity greater than zero (C) Whether humans can observe it without a telescope (D) Whether it contributes to meteor activity visible by astronomers 44. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 7–10 (“Halley’s . . . eye”) (B) Lines 21–23 (“Though . . . minerals”) (C) Lines 38–39 (“With . . . elliptical”) (D) Lines 48–53 (“Though . . . October”)

40. As it is used in line 4, “brilliant” most nearly means (A) luminous. (B) showy. (C) intellectual. (D) august.

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(A) discuss the physical definition of elliptical eccentricity. (B) provide scientific justification for the rarity of Halley’s predictable visibility. (C) give historical evidence of human observation of Halley’s velocity. (D) differentiate Halley from other celestial bodies, such as planets and meteors.

47. The scientist Halley’s relationship to the ideas of Newton most resembles the relationship between (A) a musician who uses music theory to enable creative compositions. (B) a politician who uses philosophical maxims to predict societal outcomes. (C) a mathematician who uses scientific data to justify algebraic theories. (D) an engineer who uses the laws of physics to build long-lasting constructions.

46. As used in line 65, “surmised” most nearly means (A) fancied. (B) conjectured. (C) knew. (D) foretold.

U N I T

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45. The primary purpose of the second paragraph (lines 30–53) in the passage as a whole is to

HW - 19

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Questions 38–47 are based on the following passage and table.

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Color Photography

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We tend to think of color photography as a profoundly modern innovation, belonging to an era no earlier than the 1950s. Although it is true that it was not until the mid-twentieth century that compact devices like the Kodak Kodachrome and Polaroid instant camera made color photography widely available to the American public, the first known color photograph was developed about one hundred years prior, in the early 1840s. Pioneers of color photography such as American intellectual Levi Hill and renowned French physicist A. E. Becquerel were hampered in their efforts by a fidelity to the then-popular daguerreotype method, which slowly imprints a direct-positive image onto a metal plate treated with light-sensitive iodine and bromine crystals. Colloquially, these photographs were known as “tintypes.” Color variants of this method—such as Hill’s toilsome “heliochromy”—often took several days to develop and yielded only dim images

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HW - 20 with colors that faded rapidly when exposed to direct light. A new approach was required before color photography could emerge as a truly viable artistic and documentary medium. Such an approach was theorized just ten years later. While Hill’s and Becquerel’s labors had emphasized the search for a novel, chameleonic compound to assume any spectral wavelength shown upon it, Scottish physicist James Clerk Maxwell used as his model the color sensitivity of the human eye. We are able to perceive colors because of specialized photoreceptor cells lining our retinas called “cones.” Generally, humans possess three types of cone cells, each of which produces a distinct, transmembrane photopsin protein. Depending on the particular chromophore compound associated with the cell’s photopsins, the cone will have a peak absorbance of electromagnetic radiation at wavelengths of 420–440 nm, 534–545 nm, or 564–580 nm. On the visible spectrum, these peaks correspond to the colors red, green, and blue, respectively. The brain’s integration of photons absorbed by these three types of cones allows us to perceive colored light with wavelengths between roughly 400 and 700 nanometers, which comprises the entire visible spectrum. Because of this mechanism, humans are said to possess “trichromatic vision.” In light of this phenomenon, Maxwell noted that any hue of visible light could be reproduced by a specific combination of three colors. Thus, three black-and-white transparencies of a single scene taken through red, blue, and green filters will, when projected as a composite image, reproduce with impressive accuracy the original, fullcolor subject. Problems remained, however, when it came time to develop these negatives onto paper in that the dyes used by photographers were ineffective in expressing certain colors, particularly those comprised of lower wavelengths. By trial and error, it was discovered by Becquerel and German

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chemist Hermann Vogel that the addition of dyes made of aniline—an aromatic amine— and chlorophyll to photographic emulsions helped to reflect the reds and yellows that previous dyes had simply absorbed. Into the early 20th century, color cameras themselves remained somewhat unwieldy; this owed largely to the logistical complexities of exposing three separate, individually filtered plates on the same subject. One design used a system of prisms and mirrors to split the lens image through three internal filters, which in turn exposed three plates simultaneously. A more compact and less delicate device designed by German photographer Adolf Miethe simply included a rotating filter disk, which allowed three photographs to be taken in rapid succession. From 1909 to 1915, Miethe’s design was used by his Russian protégé, Sergei ProkudinGorsky, in a project appointed to him by Czar Nicholas II to document visually the history, culture, and modernization of the Russian Empire. His extensive and compelling work in the Russian provinces constitutes the first major series of color photojournalism. However, whenever a moving object was included in the frame—particularly water— the shortcomings of Miethe’s design became obvious. The consecutive exposure of plates, however swift, would always leave some room for visual conflict between the three images. The issues of both convenience and synchronous exposure were eventually solved by two professional, classical musicians— Leopold Mannes and Leopold Godowsky, Jr.—working recreationally for the Eastman Kodak Company. Together they designed a film that consisted of three separate emulsion layers mounted on a single flexible base, each of which captured and individually filtered the lens image. Their design was marketed by Kodak under the name “Kodachrome” and was the first system to make the use of color film widely available to lay photographers.

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HW - 20

Wave Type

Wavelength in Meters

Gamma

1 3 10–11

X-ray

1 3 10–9

Ultraviolet

2 3 10–8

Infrared

1 3 10–6

Radio

1.0

38. The passage outlines the evolution of the color photography process from being (A) time consuming and unmanageable to efficient and compact. (B) an object of widespread interest to a mere curiosity by elites. (C) the province of artists to the focus of musicians. (D) a modern innovation to a widespread convenience. 39. The evidence used in the essay is primarily comprised of (A) esoteric psychological analysis. (B) chemical and physical description. (C) scientific and historical anecdotes. (D) cross-cultural comparative study. 40. The passage suggests that which of the following kept Hill and Becquerel from further innovations in color photographic technology? (A) A lack of scientific training (B) Cultural bias toward Euro-American philosophy (C) A failure to understand past successes (D) Loyalty to a widespread approach

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239 41. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 11–13 (“Pioneers . . . French”) (B) Lines 14–15 (“hampered . . . method”) (C) Lines 20–24 (“Color . . . light”) (D) Lines 32–34 (“Scottish . . . eye”) 42. As used in line 61, “composite” most nearly means (A) crafted. (B) visual. (C) combined. (D) quality. 43. As used in line 76, “unwieldy” most nearly means (A) unsightly. (B) cumbersome. (C) expensive. (D) precise. 44. The passage suggests that Maxwell was able to make a scientific breakthrough in photographic technology by shifting his focus from (A) chemistry to biology. (B) anthropology to astronomy. (C) physics to mathematics. (D) artistry to geometry.

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45. Based on lines 83–102, it can be logically inferred that a Miethe-designed camera could most successfully photograph a river under what weather conditions? (A) At high noon on a summer day with a light breeze (B) On a rainy, blustery day with mild flooding (C) On a freezing, windless day (D) It will capture any form of water with equally low quality 46. Based on the information in the passage and in the table, light visible to humans would have wavelengths between which two types of waves? (A) Gamma and X-rays (B) X-rays and ultraviolet (C) Ultraviolet and infrared (D) Infrared and radio 47. The originators of the Kodachrome film process are best described as (A) serendipitous tinkerers. (B) scholarly thinkers. (C) scientific masterminds. (D) mathematical prodigies.

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HW - 21

Questions 38–47 are based on the following passages. Both Passage 1 and Passage 2 discuss vaccines and relative benefits and risks of administering them to children.

Passage 2

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Despite the first vaccination having been administered in the United States as long ago as 1800, it still remains one of the most divisive topics in the United States today. But the fact that vaccinations have continued to be administered at increasing rates despite such strong, long-held opposition is an indicator of their efficacy. Physicians strongly encourage families to follow the prescribed vaccination schedule for their young children for a variety of reasons. But there is one reason that is more prominent than others: vaccines work. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, “most child vaccines are 90%-99% effective in preventing disease.” And by “effective” these physicians don’t just mean that the vaccines have cut down on the rate of flu and measles infection, which is like a more severe version of the chicken pox. It is estimated that between 1994 and 2014 alone 732,000 American children were saved from death due to vaccinations, and 322 million cases of childhood illnesses were prevented. This is not to say that there are no drawbacks to vaccinations whatsoever. On the contrary, physicians are quick to acknowledge that vaccinations do not come without risk. However, this risk is strictly minimal. Adverse reactions, such as anaphylaxis, illness, or even death, occur so infrequently it is difficult to determine exact numbers. The American Academy of Pediatrics estimates the number to somewhere between “one per several hundred thousand to one per million vaccinations.” For the sake of the general population, this number is not great enough to argue against widespread vaccination. It is believed that if enough people were to become vaccinated against any one disease, that disease could eventually be eradicated. This would work out well for both those who are pro-vaccine and anti-vaccine; because vaccines are so effective, there would no longer be a need for them. Speaking as an American with children of my own, it is in our best interest to everyone around to the idea of mandatory child vaccination.

3 6   |   Workout for the New PSAT

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The Greek philosopher Socrates is credited with having said “I know that I know nothing.” These are wise words from a wise man, and should be kept in mind whenever dealing with “scientific fact.” The truth is that despite the leaps and bounds we have made over the course of human history, especially in the medical sciences, we in truth know very little. And there is never a time that this fact is as salient as when it comes to the health of the most vulnerable in our society. This is exactly the problem with a vaccine, which is defined as a preparation of killed microorganisms, living attenuated organisms, or living fully virulent organisms. There is a great deal that is unknown about vaccines, both in terms of the general public and the scientific community. The general public knows very little about what goes into vaccines and how they function, while the scientific community knows very little about the range of effects vaccines may have. Although vaccinations have been in use for some time, the composition of them has changed drastically over the last several decades. Certain flu vaccines have been found to contain trace amounts of thimerosal, an organic mercury compound, which may have adverse neurological impacts on young children. Aluminum, which is found in many vaccines, can also cause neurological damage to humans in excess amounts. Because the recommended vaccine schedule calls for so many vaccines to be administered in quick succession, it is difficult to tell what amount of aluminum may exist in the child’s body and for how long. Some vaccines even contain the carcinogen formaldehyde, even though no studies have been conducted to determine the long-term effect of its use on future health. The short term effects of formaldehyde are known, however, and can include cardiac impairment, central nervous system depression, anaphylactic shock, and comas in some who receive it. The question is not “do vaccines help?” Undoubtedly they do, that we know. The question is, or at least it should be “do vaccines harm?” The answer here is equally clear: undoubtedly they do. We just don’t know to what extent.


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42 Passage 1 most strongly suggests that which of the following is true of the author?

The author of Passage 2 refers to Socrates in order to A) use a prominent scholar the reader is familiar with to validate her argument.

A) She believes more research is needed to convince those who are anti-vaccine that vaccines are indeed safe.

B) illustrate a point that discussed throughout the remainder of the passage.

B) She thinks that the worldwide use of vaccines would eliminate all instances of childhood death.

C) explain how one man has greatly influenced our approach to scientific and medical research.

C) She herself is likely to vaccinate her own children.

D) dismiss the notion that it is safe to use drugs before they are approved by the FDA.

D) She was vaccinated as a child.

43

39 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

As used in line 50, “salient” most nearly means

A) Lines 17-21 (“It is . . . prevented”)

B) smart.

A) relevant.

B) Lines 39-41 (“Speaking as . . . mandatory”)

C) related.

C) Lines 4-7 (“But the . . . efficacy”)

D) welcome.

D) Lines 57-60 (“The general . . . have”) 44

40

The author of Passage 2 refers to formaldyhyde in order to

As used in line 66, “adverse” most nearly means

A) demonstrate the ways in which doctors manipulate patients and parents into accepting vaccines with harmful chemicals.

A) other. B) contradictory. C) confrontational.

B) assert that a vaccine without formaldyhyde may be safe to use, but those that contain it should be avoided.

D) undesirable.

C) provide an example of an ingredient found in vaccines that has known and possibly unknown harmful side-affects.

41 What claim about vaccination is best supported by the third paragraph in Passage 1?

D) offer proof that vaccines can kill the patients who receive them.

A) Vaccines should be used despite the fact that they do harm some individuals. B) Sciencists give a wide range of numbers of those harmed from vaccines in order to avoid accountability for the harmful effects of vaccines. C) Physicians are very strict regarding the vaccination schedule parents should adhere to for their children. D) The goal of administering any vaccine is to eliminate a specific type of disease once and for all.

45 In the final paragraph of Passage 2, the author A) undermines her argument. B) offers a concession. C) quotes scientific evidence. D) compares doctors who vaccinate to those who do not. Reading Test Drill 1  |   3 7


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HW - 21

47 The central ideas of the passages differ in that Passage  1

Both passages contain which of the following?

A) reviews the positive aspects of vaccinations while Passage 2 examines specific instances of vaccinations having been harmful after being administered.

B) A similie

B) is against the uninformed use of vaccinations while Passage 2 states the benefits of vaccinations far outweigh the risks. C) offers an argument in favor of vaccines, while Passage 2 contests that our understanding of vaccines is deficient. D) is ambivalent regarding the use of vaccinations on the recommended schedule, while Passage 2 states not enough is known of the long-term effects of vaccines.

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A) A definition C) A question D) A quotation


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Questions 38–47 are based on the following passage.

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The following passage is excerpted from the article “How to grow mussels,” originally published by the National Science Foundation on September 25, 2014.

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Blue mussels, mytilus edulis, live on northern Atlantic shores in the area between high and low tides. “Mussels are one of the most significant filterfeeders in the marine environment,” said Brian Beal, a marine ecologist at the University of Maine at Machias. “They are responsible not only for efficiently producing high-quality protein but for cleaning the waters around them through their feeding activities.” Because many creatures—especially humans— enjoy eating blue mussels, farmers grow mussels using aquaculture, or aquatic farming. More than 650,000 pounds of blue mussels were cultured and harvested in Maine in 2012, according to the state’s Department of Marine Resources. Young mussels may be cultivated in the wild, or they may grow on ropes that are submerged in culture tanks, where they are protected from storms and predators. Once the mussels reach a certain size, they are moved into ocean pens to mature. But practitioners often struggle in their efforts to increase the number, size and overall health of their mussels. Like many farmers, they turn to science and engineering to improve their harvest. Beal, along with a team of National Science Foundation (NSF)-funded researchers at the University of Maine at Machias and the Downeast Institute, is investigating the growing conditions and practices that will reliably yield healthy and plentiful blue mussels. “Our goal is to develop methods in the hatchery to create consistent quantities of seed-size mussel juveniles,” Beal said. “At present, mussel farmers rely on wild settlement, which can be very spotty from year to year and from place to place.” Maine’s annual harvest of cultured blue mussels commonly varies by hundreds of thousands of pounds. Young mussels go through several stages of development. After swimming for their first few weeks of life, mussel larvae adhere to an underwater surface such as a rope. They attach themselves using byssus threads, which are flexible strands of protein. “A narrow range of seawater temperatures combined with relatively high salinities results in healthy, active juveniles,” Beal said, “and different

7 0   |   Workout for the New PSAT

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phytoplankton diets fed to the swimming larvae affect their ability to settle effectively onto substrates such as rope.” Beal’s team plans to use what they learn about blue mussel development to optimize how many and how well larvae secure themselves to rope used in aquaculture. They are now conducting field studies to examine the effects of stocking densities on mussel growth and survival. The researchers also are investigating exactly when to transition the young mussels into ocean pens, and where in the pens they grow best. With better understanding of their cultivation, the researchers and their partner New DHC, an aquaculture company, hope to improve commercial prospects for sustainably grown blue mussels. “A consistent seed supply also will allow aquaculturists to create business plans that project their annual production more realistically,” Beal explained. The collaboration is supported by the NSF Partnerships for Innovation program, which stimulates regional innovation based on science and engineering discoveries. In speaking of Beal, NSF program director Sally Nerlove said, “His life’s work is of tremendous potential importance to the economy and the ethos of region, and, at the same time, his accomplishments track the evolution of the NSF Partnerships for Innovation program.”

38 The quotes included in the second paragraph primarily serve to A) establish the main motivation behind the commercial farming of blue mussels. B) demonstrate the important role a species plays that the reader may not be aware of C) encourage the reader to decrease their personal consumption of blue mussels. D) indicate the expertise of a scientist quoted later in the passage.


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43 According to the fourth paragraph, growing mussels in culture tanks helps to

The passage most strongly suggests that researchers from the University of Maine at Machias and the Downeast Institute share which assumption?

A) enhance their size.

A) Mussels prefer to attach to rope as opposed to other materials after maturing past the larvae stage of development.

B) increase their maturity. C) prepare them for the wild. D) protect them from harm.

B) Blue mussels are the most important species for maintaining a clean ocean environment. C) Because farmers are unwilling to wait for mussels to fully develop they often sacrifice a great deal of their potential crop as seed supply.

40 As used in line 19, “mature” most nearly means A) marinate.

D) That wild settlement is not the most reliable method to farming blue mussels.

B) mellow. C) develop. D) stabilize.

44 What is the primary purpose of the ninth paragraph? A) Illustrate the way in which blue mussel development differs from other ocean life such as phytoplankton.

41 What claim about blue mussels is best supported by the passage?

B) Review previously known information that has been utilized by the mussel farming industry for decades.

A) Were it not for their commercial importance, researchers would not be interested in sustainable growth for mussels.

C) Provide an example of the insight the researchers have gained on aspects of mussel development.

B) Blue mussels grow best in ocean pens rather than the open water.

D) Offer a comprehensive review of the developmental needs of mussels determined by the research team.

C) Mussels have multiple natural predators. D) Immediately after birth, mussels must attach to a physical object to increase their chances of survival. 45 42 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 56-59 (“With better . . . mussels”) B) Lines 9-11 (“Because many . . . farming”) C) Lines 53-55 (“The researchers . . . best”) D) Lines 39-40 (“They attach . . . protein”)

The stance that Brian Beal takes in the passage could best be described as A) an environmentalist fighting for a species’ survival. B) a capitalist searching for the most efficient answer to a problem C) an academic writing a book on a scientific matter for public consumption. D) a scholar investigating a series of hypotheses.

Reading Test Drill 2  |   7 1


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47 As used in line 54, “transition” most nearly means

The central idea of the passage is that

A) shift.

A) a more efficient aqua-farming approach for raising blue mussels would greatly benefit the mussel species, commercial farming productivity, and the marine environment.

B) evolve. C) modify. D) alter.

B) if something is not done soon, it is likely that blue mussels will soon be extinct due to overconsumption by humans. C) the larger a mussel is, the better it is at filterfeeding the environment around it. D) the optimal conversion point between larvae development, where mussels attach to rope, to ocean pens is one question researchers are focused on.

7 2   |   Workout for the New PSAT


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Questions 39-47 are based on the following passage. The following is adapted from a speech given by Emma Goldman in 1917, as the United States was entering World War I. Goldman was a political activist and anarchist active in the early twentieth century. In this speech, entitled “Against Conscription and War,� Goldman is responding to the conviction of two men for obstructing the draft.

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Of course, friends, of course since the war was declared by a country in whose interest it is that the American boy shall be sacrificed it was not to the interest of that country to put the war to a test and therefore conscription had to be imposed upon you. Don't you know that during the Spanish-American War when the people believed in the war there was no need of asking the young men of the country, at the point of the bayonet and gun and club, to put on an American uniform? They flocked to the war because they believed in it. And whether they were American citizens or were residents of America, the people of America were all willing to give their lives for something they considered right and just. But because the people of America do not believe in this war, because the people of America have not been asked whether there shall be war, that is why they do not flock to the colors and that is why you in America are doing as the Russians used to do, as the German Kaiser is doing, as all the Imperialistic tyrants are doing. But you are forgetting one thing, gentlemen of the law, you are driving a horse to water but you cannot compel him to drink. You will put the young manhood of America in the uniform, you will drag them to the battlefield and into the trenches, but while they are there, there is going to be a bond of anti-militarism among the people of the world. No, friends, you cannot compel human beings to take human life, if you give them the chance to reason and to think, to investigate and to analyze.

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And now we come down to the tragedy that was committed in the United States Court in the State of New York yesterday, when two boys were sentenced. It is not only a tragedy because they were sentenced. Such things happen every day; hundreds, thousands of innocent working men are sent to the prison and the penitentiary, thousands of unfortunates throughout the world as well as here in so-called free America and nobody ever hears anything about it. It is an ordinary, commonplace thing to do. But the tragedy of yesterday is in the fact that a Judge, supported as you have been told by your money, protected by public opinion, protected by the President, the tragedy of it is that that Judge had the impudence and audacity to insult Kramer and Becker after he gave them the sentence of such horrible dimensions. Think of a man like that who sits there in judgment on other human beings. Think what must be his character, what must be his mind, what must be his soul, if he can spit human beings in the face, only because he has got the power. I wish to say here, and I don't say it with any authority and I don't say it as a prophet, I merely tell you—I merely tell you the more people you lock up, the more will be the idealists who will take their place; the more of the human voice you suppress, the greater and louder and the profounder will be the human voice. At present it is a mere rumbling, but that rumbling is increasing in volume, it is growing in depth, it is spreading all over the country until it will be raised into a thunder and people of America will rise and say, we want to be a democracy, to be sure, but we want the kind of democracy which means liberty and opportunity to every man and woman in America.

CONTINUE


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42 The tone of the passage is best described as

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) joyous. B) frightened.

A) Lines 36-41 (“Such things ... it”)

C) apathetic.

B) Lines 42-48 (“But the ... dimensions”)

D) zealous.

C) Lines 49-52 (“Think what ... power”) D) Lines 59-66 (“At present ... America”)

40 Goldman is most likely addressing

43 Which of the following best represents Goldman’s views on America’s participation in WWI?

A) a judge at the author’s own trial. B) a group of people at a protest.

A) It is unacceptable because the American people do not believe in the cause.

C) an unsympathetic press. D) a crowd of politicians she is seeking to sway.

B) It is unfortunate but necessary, since sacrifices must be made for peace. C) It is unfair because the government cannot conscript individuals, who alone have the right to fight and bear arms.

41 Why did Goldman bring up the trial of the two workingmen?

D) It is welcome as long as individuals understand the reasons for their participation.

A) She wanted to show how judges have too much power to determine sentences in America. B) She hoped to convince her audience that not all anarchists are as troublesome as the two workingmen. C) She offered the trial as proof of her claim that American authorities were acting tyrannically and oppressively. D) She wished to raise funds and support for the defense of Kramer and Becker.

44 Which of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 6-10 (“Don’t you ... uniform”) B) Lines 14-21 (“But because ... doing”) C) Lines 48-49 (“Think of ... beings”) D) Lines 53-59 (“I wish ... voice”)

CONTINUE


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47 As used in line 46, “audacity” most nearly means

As used in line 57, “suppress” most nearly means

A) rudeness.

A) stifle.

B) fearlessness.

B) conquer.

C) bravery.

C) withhold.

D) gall.

D) control.

46 Goldman condemns the judge in the passage mostly because he A) condemned and then insulted two innocent people. B) sentenced the two people without waiting for all the relevant facts. C) assaulted the two people after the trial. D) does not exhibit appropriate moral or spiritual values.

STOP If you complete this section before the end of your allotted time, check your work on this section only. Do NOT use the time to work on another section.


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Questions 39-47 are based on the following passage. This passage is adapted from Robert Louis Stevenson, “Story of the House with the Green Blinds,” originally published in 1878.

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Francis Scrymgeour, a clerk in the Bank of Scotland at Edinburgh, had attained the age of twenty-five in a sphere of quiet, creditable, and domestic life. Francis, who was of a docile and affectionate disposition, devoted himself heart and soul to his employment. He grew rapidly in favor with his superiors, and enjoyed already a salary of nearly two hundred pounds a year, with the prospect of an ultimate advance to almost double that amount. One day he received a note from a well-known firm of Writers to the Signet, requesting an immediate interview with him. The letter was marked “Private and Confidential,” and had been addressed to him at the bank, instead of at home— two unusual circumstances which made him obey the summons with more alacrity. The senior member of the firm made him gravely welcome, requested him to take a seat, and proceeded to explain the matter in hand in the picked expressions of a veteran man of business. A person, who must remain nameless, but of whom the lawyer had every reason to think well, desired to make Francis an annual allowance of five hundred pounds. There were conditions annexed to this liberality, but he was of opinion that his new client would find nothing either excessive or dishonorable in the terms; and he repeated these two words with emphasis, as though he desired to commit himself to nothing more. Francis asked their nature. “The conditions,” said the Writer to the Signet, “are, as I have twice remarked, neither dishonorable nor excessive. At the same time I cannot conceal from you that they are most unusual. Indeed, the whole case is very much out of our way; and I should certainly have refused it had it not been for the reputation of the gentleman who entrusted it to my care.”

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Francis entreated him to be more specific. “They are two,” replied the lawyer, “only two; and the sum, as you will remember, is five hundred a year.” And the lawyer raised his eyebrows at him with solemn gusto. “The first,” he resumed, “is of remarkable simplicity. You must be in Paris by the afternoon of Sunday, the 15th; there you will find, at the box-office of the Comedie Francaise, a ticket for admission taken in your name and waiting you. You are requested to sit out the whole performance in the seat provided, and that is all.” “The other is of more importance,” continued the Writer to the Signet. “It regards your marriage. My client, taking a deep interest in your welfare, desires to advise you absolutely in the choice of a wife. Absolutely, you understand,” he repeated. “Sir,” said Francis, “after a piece of news so startling, you must grant me some hours for thought. You shall know this evening what conclusion I have reached.” The lawyer commended his prudence; and Francis, excusing himself upon some pretext at the bank, took a long walk into the country. He fully considered the different steps and aspects of the case. His whole carnal man leaned irresistibly towards the five hundred a year, and the strange conditions with which it was burdened; he began to despise the narrow and unromantic interests of his former life. When once his mind was fairly made up, he walked with a new feeling of strength and freedom.

CONTINUE


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42 In the beginning of the passage, Francis is portrayed as

As used in line 9, “ultimate” most nearly means

A) a man who works hard and has been rewarded for his efforts.

B) fundamental.

A) eventual. C) elemental.

B) a scholar who enjoys the finer things in life.

D) quintessential.

C) an orphan who has achieved success at a young age. D) a clerk who dislikes his job but makes a lot of money.

43 The Writer clearly finds the deal he is offering Francis to be A) incredibly exciting, but unusual.

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B) of solemn importance, but markedly simple.

The passage most strongly suggests that Francis finds the offer

C) commendable in size but questionable given its origin.

A) attractive because he has been struggling financially despite his dedication to his work.

D) strange, but still worth considering given its source.

B) tempting because of both its large sum and the excitement of the conditions attached to it. C) unambiguously appealing given the conditions and amount.

44 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

D) upsetting due to the fact that he will lose control over choosing his own spouse.

A) Lines 12-16 (“The letter … alacrity”) B) Lines 33-36 (“Indeed, the … care”)

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C) Lines 37-39 (“They are … year”) Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 6-9 (“He grew … amount”) B) Lines 31-33 (“At the … unusual”) C) Lines 53-54 (“Sir, said … thought”) D) Lines 61-65 (“His whole … life”)

D) Lines 41-42 (“The first … simplicity”)

45 As used in line 17, “gravely” most nearly means A) badly. B) concernedly. C) menacingly. D) solemnly.

CONTINUE


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47 Which of the following is the reason the lawyer commends Francis on his “prudence” (line 57)?

Francis most likely “walked with a new feeling of strength and freedom” (line 66-67) because he had decided

A) Francis decides not to take the offer. B) Francis asks for some time to think over the offer.

A) to take the offer and was excited about the choice he had made.

C) Francis’s employer speaks highly of him.

B) to take the offer and was nervous about what would come next.

D) Francis does not care what the conditions of the offer are.

C) not to take the offer and was relieved to be done with the matter. D) not to take the offer and was second-guessing that decision.

STOP If you complete this section before the end of your allotted time, check your work on this section only. Do NOT use the time to work on another section.


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Questions 39-47 are based on the following passage. This passage is adapted from Robert Louis Stevenson, “The Adventure of the Hansom Cabs,” originally published in 1878. Brackenbury is a lieutenant who has recently returned to London.

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The night was already advanced when a plump of cold rain fell suddenly out of the darkness. Brackenbury caught sight of a hansom cabman making him a sign that he was disengaged. The circumstance fell in so happily to the occasion that he at once raised his cane in answer, and had soon ensconced himself in the London gondola. “Where to, sir?” asked the driver. “Where you please,” said Brackenbury. And immediately, at a pace of surprising swiftness, the hansom drove off through the rain into a maze of villas. There was so little to distinguish the deserted lamp-lit streets through which the flying hansom took its way that Brackenbury soon lost all idea of direction. He would have been tempted to believe that the cabman was amusing himself by driving him round and round about a small quarter, but there was something business-like in the speed which convinced him of the contrary. The man had an object in view—he was hastening towards a definite end; and Brackenbury was at once astonished at the fellow’s skill in picking a way through such a labyrinth, and a little concerned to imagine the occasion of his hurry. Did the driver belong to some treacherous association? And was he himself being whirled to a murderous death? The thought had scarcely presented itself, when the cab swung sharply round a corner and pulled up before the garden gate of a villa. The house was brilliantly lighted up. Another hansom had just driven away, and Brackenbury could see a gentleman being admitted at the front door and received by several servants. He was surprised that the cabman should have stopped so immediately in front of a house where a reception was being held;

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he did not doubt it was the result of accident, and sat placidly where he was, until he heard the trap thrown open over his head. “Here we are, sir,” said the driver. “Here!” repeated Brackenbury. “Where?” “You told me to take you where I pleased, sir,” returned the man with a chuckle, “and here we are.” It struck Brackenbury that the voice was smooth and courteous for a man in so inferior a position; he remembered the speed at which he had been driven; and now it occurred to him that the hansom was more luxuriously appointed than the common run of public conveyances. “I must ask you to explain,” said he. “Do you mean to turn me out into the rain? My good man, I suspect the choice is mine.” “The choice is certainly yours,” replied the driver; “but when I tell you all, I believe I know how a gentleman of your figure will decide. There is a gentlemen’s party in this house. I do not know whether the master be a stranger to London and without acquaintances of his own; or whether he is a man of odd notions. But certainly I was hired to kidnap single gentlemen in evening dress. You have simply to go in and say that Mr. Morris invited you.” “Are you Mr. Morris?” inquired the Lieutenant. “Oh, no,” replied the cabman. “Mr. Morris is the person of the house.” “It is not a common way of collecting guests,” said Brackenbury: “but an eccentric man might very well indulge the whim without any intention to offend. Suppose that I refuse Mr. Morris’s invitation,” he went on, “what then?” “My orders are to drive you back where I took you from,” replied the man, “and set out to look for others. Those who have no fancy for such an adventure, Mr. Morris said, were not the guests for him.” These words decided the Lieutenant on the spot. “After all,” he reflected, as he descended from the hansom, “I have not had long to wait for my adventure.”

CONTINUE


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42

The passage primarily focuses on

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) Brackenbury’s evolving nature.

A) Lines 3-4 (“Brackenbury caught … disengaged”)

B) the unusual events of an evening. C) Brackenbury’s personal history.

B) Lines 4-7 (“The circumstance … gondola”)

D) the curious life of the cabman.

C) Lines 10-12 (“And immediately … villas”) D) Lines 28-30 (“The thought … villa”)

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Over the course of the passage, the main focus of the narrative shifts from a

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Which of the following choices best describes the interactions between Brackenbury and the cabman?

A) character’s fear of the unknown to a character’s new excitement about taking risks. B) description of a lonely character to a depiction of a joyful community.

A) Cold, due to irreconcilable differences

C) character’s aimlessness to a character’s bold decision.

B) Cordial, despite a peculiar situation

D) meditation on the need for stimulation to an ode to security.

D) Intimate, as a result of a shared experience

C) Adversarial, in light of a conflict of interests

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Brackenbury decided to get into the cab because he A) wanted to ride around the countryside. B) wanted to get out of the rain. C) had been expecting just such an adventure. D) needed to get to a party.

The rhetorical effect of the word “flying” in line 13 is to A) indicate that the wheels of the cab occasionally lifted off the pavement. B) suggest that Brackenbury is comparing the cab to an airplane. C) describe the cab as traveling very quickly. D) demonstrate Brackenbury’s fear to the reader.

CONTINUE


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As used in line 75, “decided” most nearly means A) chose.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 68-69 (“Suppose that … then”)

B) convinced.

B) Lines 70-72 (“My orders … others”)

C) answered.

C) Lines 72-74 (“Those who … him”)

D) adjudicated.

D) Lines 76-78 (“After all … adventure”) 46

The passage most strongly suggests that Brackenbury will A) attend the party. B) search for adventure elsewhere. C) seek revenge against the cab driver. D) return to downtown London.

STOP If you complete this section before the end of your allotted time, check your work on this section only. Do NOT use the time to work on another section.


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Questions 39-47 are based on the following passages. Passage 1 This passage is adapted from Cynan Ellis-Evans, “First Direct Evidence of Microbial Life Under 1 km of Antarctic Ice.” © 2014 by Cynan Ellis-Evans.

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Microbial life can exist in the most extreme environments on Earth. In a recent study, researchers reported the first direct evidence of life in a lake located almost a kilometer below an ice sheet in Antarctica. The ice provides an effective “duvet,” trapping the heat naturally emitted through the Earth’s crust. There is growing evidence that many of the Antarctic lakes are connected by a network of channels. These channels control the flow of overlying ice streams, and liquid water at the base of ice sheets lubricates the passage of ice. The lakes associated with ice streams are thought to act as reservoirs for this lubrication process, filling and partly emptying on a fairly regular basis so the water in the lake is replaced every few years. Subglacial Lake Whillans, described in the study, is an example of a dynamic subglacial lake. It receives no light to support photosynthesis, has constantly low temperatures (just a little below zero) and is under pressure eighty times atmospheric pressure due to the 800m of overlying ice. With relatively frequent changing of the lake water the availability of organic matter, which humans and many other life forms—collectively termed heterotrophs—use for energy and growth, will be limited. The only things that can support the heterotrophs in this ecosystem are the underlying ancient seabed geology, which can provide small amounts of organic carbon from the rock material, and the recycling of carbon from dead microbes. Thus, what a dynamic subglacial ecosystem such as this needs to really succeed is to also use the much more plentiful non-organic energy sources. When the samples were analyzed, the researchers found that the lake contained organisms from both Bacteria and Archaea trees of life. While some of

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the organisms could be identified from gene databases as also occurring elsewhere, particularly in 40 cold environments, many of the lake’s microbes appear to be completely new. Along with a range of heterotrophic microbes, the most prevalent organisms were those that can consume inorganic chemicals, such as iron, manganese, sulfur and, 45 especially, nitrogen. These organisms are called chemoautotrophs. The “chemoautotrophic” lifestyle is representative of the earliest life on Earth. This existed long before photosynthesis created an 50 oxygen-rich world and powered the explosion of biological diversity and organic carbon biomass to support the heterotrophic lifestyle dominating the modern Earth. Passage 2 This passage is adapted from Ceridwen Fraser, “Antarctic Volcanoes Help Preserve Life in the Freezer.” © 2014 by Ceridwen Fraser.

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These days, Antarctica is 99.7% covered in ice, and the 0.3% of land that is ice-free is home to diverse and unique ecosystems on considerably smaller scales, made up of mosses, lichens and various invertebrate animals such as mites and tiny nematode worms. New evidence provides an intriguing solution to the mystery of how Antarctic species could have clung on through ice ages. There are many volcanoes in Antarctica and some have large magma chambers that can provide heat to the surface for hundreds of thousands of years. When we examined species richness patterns across the whole continent, we found there are more species close to these volcanoes, and fewer further away. These patterns indicate that the volcanoes have sheltered diverse life over long periods, including during ice ages. The volcanoes would have provided warmth, and helped to ward off the encroaching ice, as the planet entered a period of deep freeze. As well as melting areas of ice on the surface, steam from volcanoes can cause the formation CONTINUE


1 of extensive cave systems beneath the glaciers, tens of degrees warmer than outside. These geothermally warmed environments could have supported biodiversity through the most intense 80 glacial periods. Then, as the world warmed and more ice-free areas became available, chance events would have allowed some species to disperse away, stepping-stone style, to new habitats. 85 The further away from the source, the fewer the species that would be likely to establish, leading to the diversity gradient we see today, with decreasing species richness away from volcanoes. Most people think of volcanoes as 90 destructive and frightening, but this research shows that for many species in icy regions, volcanoes might represent something much more positive—a chance for survival in an extreme and harsh climate.

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Based on the passage, which of the following environments would likely be more hospitable to chemoautotrophs than other organisms? A) A biodiverse but polluted tropical ocean B) An island only seasonally populated by birds C) A mineral-rich but otherwise barren lake bed D) The intestinal tract of a large mammal

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Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 27-31 (“The only … microbes”) B) Lines 32-34 (“Thus, what … sources”) C) Lines 37-41 (“While some … new”) D) Lines 42-45 (“the most … nitrogen”)

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As used in line 1, “extreme” most nearly means A) sensational. B) drastic. C) dangerous. D) fanatical.

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Which of the following is NOT a reason the author of Passage 1 gives to support his statement that Lake Whillans is an extreme environment?

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Passage 2 serves primarily to A) argue that Antarctica is more diverse than once previously thought. B) explain how many species were able to survive in Antarctica during glacial periods. C) protest the intense drilling disrupting the life in Antarctica’s sheltered caves. D) illustrate the author’s experiments with volcanic life in Antarctica.

A) It receives no sunlight. B) It has subzero temperatures. C) It contains no oxygen. D) It is under enormous pressure.

CONTINUE


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46

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

As used in line 88, “richness” most nearly means

A) Lines 54-59 (“These days … worms”)

B) decadence.

B) Lines 68-70 (“These patterns … ages”)

C) abundance.

C) Lines 74-77 (“As well … outside”)

D) luxuriance.

A) affluence.

D) Lines 85-89 (“The further … volcanoes”) 47 45

Based on the information in Passage 2, which of the following would the author likely agree with? A) Once the volcanoes in Antarctica become active again, Antarctica will move out of its latest glacial age. B) Species closest to the volcanoes occasionally suffer from heat exposure. C) Both the heat of the volcanoes and the coldness of the glaciers are required to support life in Antarctica. D) When temperatures in Antarctica rise, species can spread to larger parts of the continent.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the two passages? A) Passage 1 focuses on life adapted to extreme environments, while Passage 2 focuses on environments that have sheltered life from extreme conditions. B) Passage 1 argues that life can exist in extreme conditions, while Passage 2 argues that life requires warmth to survive. C) Passage 1 states that most Antarctic species date back thousands of years, while Passage 2 states that most of Antarctica’s diversity is recent. D) Passage 1 fears melting ice will destroy current species in Antarctica, while Passage 2 suggests warmth could boost survival.

STOP If you complete this section before the end of your allotted time, check your work on this section only. Do NOT use the time to work on another section.


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Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage. Passage 1 is adapted from Theodore S. Melis, Ed., “Effects of Three High-Flow Experiments on the Colorado River Ecosystem Downstream from Glen Canyon Dam, Arizona,” published in 2011 by the U.S. Geological Survey. Passage 2 is adapted from Paul E. Grams, “A Sand Budget for Marble Canyon, Arizona—Implications for Long-Term Monitoring of Sand Storage Change,” published in 2013 by the U.S. Geological Survey.

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Passage 2 45

Passage 1

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At the time Glen Canyon Dam was constructed (1956–63), little consideration was given to how dam operations might affect downstream resources in Grand Canyon National Park. In fact, the dam was completed before enactment of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and the Endangered Species Act of 1973. By the late 1950s, public values began to shift, and throughout the 1960s and 1970s recognition of the environmental consequences of Glen Canyon Dam and its operation grew. National Park Service and U.S. Geological Survey scientists and river recreationists observed the physical transformation of the river in Grand Canyon, including the loss of large beaches used for camping, narrowing of rapids so as to reduce navigability, and changes in the distribution and composition of riparian vegetation. The humpback chub and Colorado pikeminnow, species found only in the Colorado River Basin, were listed as endangered in 1967 by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, which concluded in 1978 that the dam and its operation jeopardized the continued existence of humpback chub in Grand Canyon. Annual spring snowmelt floods were the defining attribute of the pre-dam flow regime. Before the Colorado River was regulated by dams, streamflow gradually increased from mid-December to March, precipitously increased in April and May, and reached its peak in early June. Pre-dam floods disturbed the aquatic ecosystem, and native fish species developed strategies to survive periods when the velocity in the main part of the channel was high and large amounts of suspended sediment were being transported. For example, several of the native fish species share unusual body shapes, including a large adult body size, small depressed skulls, large humps on their backs, and small eyes, which presumably developed as adaptations to life in a

4 9 0   |   Cracking the New SAT

turbid and seasonably variable riverine environment. Sandbars, riverbanks, and their accompanying aquatic habitats were reshaped during floods. Additionally, the increased elevation of the river surface during floods provided water to native riparian vegetation otherwise principally dependent on precipitation.

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Decline in the size and abundance of sandbars since the pre-Glen Canyon Dam era has been documented by analysis of old aerial and ground-level photographs and by topographic surveys that began in the mid-1970s. Scientists have estimated that sandbar area in the upstream 100 miles of Glen, Marble, and Grand Canyons was 25 percent less in 2000 than in average pre-dam years. This decline occurred because releases of water from Lake Powell are virtually free of sediment. The tributaries that enter the Colorado River downstream from the dam supply only a fraction of the pre-dam sand supply, and the capacity of the postdam river to transport that sand greatly exceeds this limited supply. Normal dam operations, therefore, tend to erode, rather than build, sandbars. By experimentation, scientists have learned that controlled floods, if released from the reservoir immediately following large inputs of sand from tributaries, can build sandbars. These sandbars are built during controlled floods when sand is carried from the riverbed and temporarily suspended at high concentration in the flow. The suspended sand is transported into eddies where it is then deposited in areas of low stream-flow velocity. Sandbars enlarged by this process provide larger camping beaches for river-rafting trips and create backwater habitats used by native fish. Newly deposited sandbars also provide areas for riparian vegetation to grow and are a source of windblown sand. Windblown sand carried upslope from sandbars helps to cover and potentially preserve some of the culturally significant archeological sites in Grand Canyon. Scientists have also learned that controlled floods may erode sandbars if the concentration of suspended sand during a controlled flood is too low. The concentration of sand during a flood is directly proportional to the amount of the riverbed covered by sand and the size of that sand. Higher concentrations of suspended sand occur when the sand is relatively fine and large amounts of the riverbed are covered by sand. These findings are incorporated in the current


1 reservoir-release management strategy for Glen Canyon Dam, which involves releasing controlled floods— administratively referred to as High Flow Experiments (HFEs)—whenever the Paria River 90 has recently delivered large amounts of sand to the Colorado River. The magnitude and duration of the controlled floods is adjusted to transport just the amount of sand that has recently been delivered from the Paria River.

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45 Passage 1 suggests that the humpback chub A) is now extinct in the Grand Canyon. B) has a small, depressed skull. C) can survive in changing environments. D) thrives in high velocity river channels.

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As used in line 25, “regime” most nearly means The author of Passage 1 most likely believes that the Glen Canyon Dam

A) government. B) tenure.

A) is a useful tool for managing scarce water resources.

C) system. D) management.

B) was built with a lack of foresight. C) has decimated native fish populations. D) has had a calming effect on the aquatic ecosystem.

47 As used in line 65, “suspended” most nearly means A) stopped.

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B) mixed.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

C) withheld. D) hanging.

A) Lines 1-4 (“At the time . . . Park”) B) Lines 17-23 (“The humpback . . . Canyon”) C) Lines 24-25 (“Annual . . . regime”) D) Lines 30-34 (“Pre-dam floods . . . transported”)

48 It is reasonable to conclude that controlled floods A) successfully simulate pre-dam snowmelt floods. B) contain large amounts of suspended sediment.

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C) may be detrimental to the health of the Colorado River.

The author of Passage 1 mentions scientists and river recreationists primarily to

D) should be done during the months that snowmelt floods typically occur.

A) provide support for the idea that post-dam river looks drastically different. B) draw a contrast between scientific observations and casual observations of river conditions. C) emphasize the spirit of collaboration between the science community and the public in conservation efforts. D) prove that the Glen Canyon Dam has had a ruinous effect on the river.

49 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 58-59 (“Normal . . . sandbars”) B) Lines 66-68 (“The suspended . . . velocity”) C) Lines 71-73 (“Newly . . . sand”) D) Lines 77-79 (“Scientists . . . low”)


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HW - 27 52

The author of Passage 1 would most likely respond to the High Flow Experiments described in Passage 2 by

Which of the following statements is true of Passage 1, but not of Passage 2?

A) appreciating the efforts of scientists to maintain the sand supply below the dam.

A) The passage gives details of scientific studies conducted on the river.

B) warning of the calamity of interfering with the river ecosystem.

B) The passage offers documented evidence of topographic change in the river.

C) questioning the ability of controlled floods to build up sandbars.

C) The passage indicates the importance of floods to the river ecosystem.

D) worrying that reshaped habitats will harm native fish.

D) The passage gives specific examples of species affected by the dam.

51 Which of the following best describes the structure of the two passages? A) Passage 1 introduces a problem, and Passage 2 proposes a solution to the problem. B) Passage 1 offers a historical discussion, and Passage 2 describes the implications of a scientific practice. C) Passage 1 gives background information, and Passage 2 details recent changes. D) Passage 1 describes an experiment, and Passage 2 offers suggestions for future action.

ST O P

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HW - 28

Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage. This passage is adapted from David P. Hill, Roy A. Bailey, James W. Hendley II, Peter H. Stauffer, Mae Marcaida, “California’s Restless Giant: The Long Valley Caldera.” © 2014 by U.S. Geological Survey.

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About 760,000 years ago a cataclysmic volcanic eruption in the Long Valley area of eastern California blew out 150 cubic miles—600 cubic kilometers (km3)—of magma (molten rock) from a depth of about 4 miles (6 km) beneath the Earth’s surface. Rapid flows of glowing hot ash (pyroclastic flows) covered much of east-central California, and airborne ash fell as far east as Nebraska. The Earth’s surface sank more than 1 mile (1.6 km) into the space vacated by the erupted magma, forming a large volcanic depression that geologists call a caldera. Long Valley Caldera is part of a large volcanic system in eastern California that also includes the Mono-Inyo Craters chain. This chain extends from Mammoth Mountain at the southwest rim of the caldera northward 25 miles (40 km) to Mono Lake. Eruptions along this chain began 400,000 years ago, and Mammoth Mountain was formed by a series of eruptions ending 58,000 years ago. The volcanic system is still active—eruptions occurred in both the Inyo Craters and Mono Craters parts of the volcanic chain as recently as 600 years ago, and small eruptions occurred in Mono Lake sometime between the mid1700s and mid-1800s. Although no volcanic eruptions are known to have occurred in eastern California since those in Mono Lake, earthquakes occur frequently. These are caused by movement along faults and by the pressure of magma rising beneath the surface, two closely related geologic processes. In 1872, a magnitude 7.4 earthquake centered 80 miles (125 km) south of Long Valley was felt throughout most of California, and moderate (magnitude 5 to 6) earthquakes have shaken the Long Valley area since 1978. In 1978, a magnitude 5.4 earthquake struck 6 miles southeast of the caldera, heralding a period of geologic unrest in the Long Valley area that is still ongoing. That temblor ended two decades of low quake activity in eastern California. The area has since experienced numerous swarms of earthquakes, especially in the southern part of the caldera and the adjacent Sierra Nevada.

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The most intense of these swarms began in May 1980 and included four strong magnitude 6 shocks, three on the same day. Following these shocks, scientists from the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) began a reexamination of the Long Valley area, and they soon detected other evidence of unrest—a domelike uplift within the caldera. Measurements showed that the center of the caldera had risen almost a foot (30 centimeters) since the summer of 1979—after decades of stability. This swelling, which by 2014 totaled more than 2.5 feet (75 centimeters) and affected more than 100 square miles (250 km2), is caused by new magma rising beneath the caldera. In response to this increased unrest, USGS intensified its monitoring in the Long Valley region. Today, a state-of-the-art network of seismometers and geodetic equipment closely monitors earthquake activity and the swelling in the caldera. Data from these instruments help scientists to assess the volcanic hazard in the Long Valley area and to recognize early signs of possible eruptions. During the early 1990s, trees began dying at several places on Mammoth Mountain on the southwest edge of Long Valley Caldera. Studies conducted by USGS and U.S. Forest Service scientists showed that the trees are being killed by large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2) gas seeping up through the soil from magma deep beneath Mammoth Mountain. Such emissions of volcanic gas, as well as earthquake swarms and ground swelling, commonly precede volcanic eruptions. When they precede an eruption of a “central vent” volcano, such as Mount St. Helens, Washington, they normally last only a few weeks or months. However, symptoms of volcanic unrest may persist for decades or centuries at large calderas, such as Long Valley Caldera. Studies indicate that only about one in six such episodes of unrest at large calderas worldwide actually culminates in an eruption. Over the past 4,000 years, small to moderate eruptions have occurred somewhere along the MonoInyo volcanic chain every few hundred years, and the possibility remains that the geologic unrest in the Long Valley area could take only weeks to escalate to an eruption. Nonetheless, geologists think that the chances of an eruption in the area in any given year are quite small.


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What is the reason geologists have increased their monitoring of the Long Valley Caldera?

Cumulative Counts

Earthquakes per Week

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A) It has been more than 150 years since the last eruption. B) Eruptions happen frequently in volcanic chains of such size. C) The area is experiencing geologic activity indicative of an impending eruption.

Long Valley Caldera cumulative earthquakes between 1983 and 2015, USGS. The vertical bars on the graphs above correspond with the left-side y-axis and represent the number of earthquakes per week. The thicker gray line indicates the cumulative number of earthquakes and corresponds with the right-side y-axis.

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D) The swelling of the caldera may damage the sensitive geodetic equipment. 47

As used in line 10, “depression” most nearly means

Which choice provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) dejection.

A) Lines 19-24 (“The volcanic . . . mid-1800s”)

B) decrease.

B) Lines 38-39 (“That temblor . . . California”)

C) crater.

C) Lines 58-60 (“Today, . . . caldera”)

D) trouble.

44 The authors use the phrase “as recently as 600 years ago” (line 22) primarily to

D) Lines 70-72 (“Such emissions . . . eruptions”) 48 In the context of the passage as a whole, what is the primary purpose of the last paragraph?

A) suggest that there will be another eruption this century.

A) To suggest that geologists believe danger from an eruption is not imminent

B) convey a sense of the magnitude of geologic time.

B) To explain how quickly geologic unrest can turn into a catastrophic eruption

C) communicate irony, because 600 years ago is not recent.

C) To warn of the dire impact of another eruption like Mount St. Helens

D) indicate that the word ‘recently’ is a relative term.

D) To emphasize the impact of the earthquakes discussed earlier in the passage

45 As used in line 38, “temblor” most nearly means A) drum. B) earthquake. C) eruption. D) caldera.

49 It can be inferred from the passage that Mammoth Mountain A) erupted most recently around 600 years ago. B) is an active volcano that the USGS is monitoring for early signs of eruption. C) shows signs that the larger volcanic system to which it belongs is still active. D) was formed 760,000 years ago by pyroclastic flows from a volcanic eruption.


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HW - 28 52

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

Which of the following claims is supported by information in the graph?

A) Lines 1-5 (“About 760,000 . . . surface.”)

A) Long Valley Caldera had experienced more than 120,000 cumulative earthquakes by 2015.

B) Lines 19-24 (“The volcanic system . . . mid-1800s) C) Lines 25-27 (“Although no . . . frequently.) D) Lines 75-77 (“However, symptoms . . . Caldera”)

51 Which of the following situations is most analogous to the recent swelling of the Long Valley Caldera?

B) Long Valley Caldera experienced roughly 30,000 earthquakes per week in 1990. C) By 2012, Long Valley Caldera had experienced 1.2 cumulative earthquakes. D) By 1988, Long Valley Caldera had experienced over 2,500 cumulative earthquakes.

A) Many small tremors along a particular fault precede a large, magnitude 8 earthquake. B) A scientist discovers a new species of insect by chance while observing snakes in the Amazon rainforest. C) Bad road conditions cause a collision between two cars, and poor visibility contributes to a multi-car pile-up. D) A doctor is unable to give a definitive diagnosis to a patient after assessing symptoms typical of a particular disease.

ST O P

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HW - 29

Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage. This first passage is adapted from an article from Imperial College London published in 2010, and the second is adapted from an article from Reuters published in 2013. Both discuss the different factors that may have contributed to the extinction of the dinosaurs.

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Passage 1: Asteroid killed off the dinosaurs, says international scientific panel

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A panel of 41 international experts reviewed 20 years’ worth of research to determine the cause of the Cretaceous-Tertiary (KT) extinction, which happened around 65 million years ago. The extinction wiped out more than half of all species on the planet, including the dinosaurs, bird-like pterosaurs and large marine reptiles, clearing the way for mammals to become the dominant species on Earth. The new review of the evidence shows that the extinction was caused by a massive asteroid slamming into Earth at Chicxulub (pronounced chick-shooloob) in Mexico. The asteroid, which was around 15 kilometers wide, is believed to have hit Earth with a force one billion times more powerful than the atomic bomb at Hiroshima. It would have blasted material at high velocity into the atmosphere, triggering a chain of events that caused a global winter, wiping out much of life on Earth in a matter of days. Scientists have previously argued about whether the extinction was caused by the asteroid or by volcanic activity in the Deccan Traps in India, where there were a series of super volcanic eruptions that lasted approximately 1.5 million years. These eruptions spewed 1,100,000 km3 of basalt lava across the Deccan Traps, which would have been enough to fill the Black Sea twice, and were thought to have caused a cooling of the atmosphere and acid rain on a global scale. In the new study, scientists analyzed the work of paleontologists, geochemists, climate modelers, geophysicists and sedimentologists who have been collecting evidence about the KT extinction over the last 20 years. Geological records show that the event that triggered the extinction destroyed marine and land ecosystems rapidly, according to the researchers, who conclude that the Chicxulub asteroid impact is the only plausible explanation for this. Dr. Joanna Morgan, co-author of the review from the Department of Earth Science and Engineering at Imperial College London, said: “We now have great confidence that an asteroid was the cause of the KT

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extinction. This triggered large-scale fires, earthquakes measuring more than 10 on the Richter scale, and continental landslides, which created tsunamis. However, the final nail in the coffin for the dinosaurs happened when blasted material was ejected at high velocity into the atmosphere. This shrouded the planet in darkness and caused a global winter, killing off many species that couldn’t adapt to this hellish environment.” Ironically, while this hellish day signaled the end of the 160-million-year reign of the dinosaurs, it turned out to be a great day for mammals, who had lived in the shadow of the dinosaurs prior to this event. The KT extinction was a pivotal moment in Earth’s history, which ultimately paved the way for humans to become the dominant species on Earth. Passage 2: Asteroid may have killed dinosaurs more quickly than scientists thought

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Dinosaurs died off about 33,000 years after an asteroid hit the Earth, much sooner than scientists had believed, and the asteroid may not have been the sole cause of extinction, according to a study released Thursday. Earth’s climate may have been at a tipping point when a massive asteroid smashed into what is now Mexico’s Yucatan Peninsula and triggered cooling temperatures that wiped out the dinosaurs, researchers said. The time between the asteroid’s arrival, marked by a 110-mile-(180-km-) wide crater near Chicxulub, Mexico, and the dinosaurs’ demise was believed to be as long as 300,000 years. The study, based on highprecision radiometric dating techniques, said the events occurred within 33,000 years of each other. Other scientists had questioned whether dinosaurs died before the asteroid impact. “Our work basically puts a nail in that coffin,” geologist Paul Renne of the University of California Berkeley said. The theory that the dinosaurs’ extinction about 66 million years ago was linked to an asteroid impact was first proposed in 1980. The biggest piece of evidence was the so-called Chicxulub crater off the Yucatan coast in Mexico. It is believed to have been formed by a six-mile(9.6-km-) wide object that melted rock as it slammed into the ground, filling the atmosphere with debris that eventually rained down on the planet. Glassy spheres known as tektites, shocked quartz and a layer of iridium-rich dust are still found around the world today.


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Renne and colleagues reanalyzed both the dinosaur extinction date and the crater formation event and found they occurred within a much tighter window in time than previously known. The study looked at tektites from Haiti, tied to the asteroid impact site, and volcanic ash from the Hell Creek Formation in Montana, a source of many dinosaur fossils. “The previous data that we had ... actually said that they (the tektites and the ash) were different in age, that they differed by about 180,000 years and that the extinction happened before the impact, which would totally preclude there being a causal relationship,” said Renne, who studies ties between mass extinctions and volcanism. The study, published in Science, resolves existing uncertainty about the relative timing of the events, notes Heiko Pälike of the Center for Marine Environmental Sciences at the University of Bremen, Germany. Renne, for one, does not believe the asteroid impact was the sole reason for the dinosaurs’ demise. He says ecosystems already were in a state of deterioration due to a major volcanic eruption in India when the asteroid struck. “The Chicxulub impact then provided a decisive blow to ecosystems,” Renne and his co-authors wrote in Science.

44 As used in line 24, “spewed” most nearly means A) conflagrated. B) disgorged. C) exhumed. D) siphoned.

45 Based on the information in Passage 1, it can be reasonably inferred that A) fires, earthquakes, and tsunamis killed most of the dinosaurs. B) lowered temperatures decimated many species. C) the impact of the asteroid caused volcanoes to erupt. D) there is no consensus on what caused the KT extinction.

46 As used in line 44 and line 73, the phrases “final nail in the coffin,” and “nail in that coffin” in both passages refer to

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A) a profound deduction.

In the first paragraph of Passage 1, the author suggests that mammals

B) a deadly result. C) a gruesome metaphor.

A) were the only species that survived the KT extinction.

D) a terminating event.

B) were very rare until 65 million years ago. C) were not the dominant species on earth before the asteroid hit. D) were wiped out after an asteroid hit the earth.

HW - 29

47 The author’s reference to the “high-precision radiometric dating techniques” in lines 68-69 primarily serves to A) propose a new theory.

43 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

B) validate the study’s data.

A) Lines 1-4 (“A panel . . . ago”)

D) counter the assumption.

B) Lines 4-8 (“The extinction . . . Earth”) C) Lines 9-12 (“The new . . . Mexico”) D) Lines 53-56 (“The KT . . . Earth”)

C) prove the conclusion right.


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HW - 29 51

As used in line 97, “preclude” most nearly means

The passages differ in that Passage 1

A) cause.

A) describes the size of the asteroid, while Passage 2 only mentions its impact.

B) limit.

B) concludes that the extinction happened before the asteroid hit, while Passage 2 says the extinction happened after the asteroid hit.

C) bar. D) tap.

C) explains how mammals were affected by the KT extinction, while Passage 2 does not.

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D) contradicts the previous theory concerning the KT extinction, while Passage 2 supports it.

The author of Passage 2 mentions tektites (line 83) primarily in order to A) explore another cause for the KT extinction. B) diminish the role of the asteroid in the demise of the dinosaurs.

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C) substantiate that the volcanoes caused the most damage. D) contrast with volcanic ash in order to support the new theory.

Is the main conclusion of the study described in Passage 2 consistent with the panel’s conclusion, as described in Passage 1? A) Yes, since the asteroid caused earthquakes and volcano eruptions that shrouded the earth in debris. B) Yes, since the asteroid is considered the primary cause of the KT extinction by both parties.

50 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

C) No, since the study in Passage 2 conveys doubt about the timing of the asteroid impact.

A) Lines 19-23 (“Scientists have previously . . . years”)

D) No, since Passage 1 concludes that the asteroid impact led to the growth of mammal populations.

B) Lines 61-65 (“Earth’s climate may . . . said”) C) Lines 92-97 (“The previous data . . . relationship”) D) Lines 106-108 (“He says ecosystems . . . struck”)

ST O P

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Questions 43-52 are based on the following passage.

HW - 30 45

The following article is adapted from Robert Martone, “Scientists Discover Children’s Cells Living in Mothers’ Brains,” in Scientific American (December 4, 2014).

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The link between a mother and child is profound, and new research suggests a physical connection even deeper than anyone thought. The profound psychological and physical bonds shared by the mother and her child begin during gestation when the mother is everything for the developing fetus, supplying warmth and sustenance, while her heartbeat provides a soothing constant rhythm. The physical connection between mother and fetus is provided by the placenta, an organ built of cells from both the mother and fetus, which serves as a conduit for the exchange of nutrients, gasses, and wastes. Cells may migrate through the placenta between the mother and the fetus, taking up residence in many organs of the body including the lung, thyroid, muscle, liver, heart, kidney and skin. These may have a broad range of impacts, from tissue repair and cancer prevention to sparking immune disorders. It is remarkable that it is so common for cells from one individual to integrate into the tissues of another distinct person. We are accustomed to thinking of ourselves as singular autonomous individuals, and these foreign cells seem to belie that notion and suggest that most people carry remnants of other individuals. As remarkable as this may be, stunning results from a new study show that cells from other individuals are also found in the brain. In this study, male cells were found in the brains of women and had been living there, in some cases, for several decades. What impact they may have had is now only a guess, but this study revealed that these cells were less common in the brains of women who had Alzheimer’s disease, suggesting they may be related to the health of the brain. We all consider our bodies to be our own unique being, so the notion that we may harbor cells from other people in our bodies seems strange. Even stranger is the thought that, although we certainly consider our actions and decisions as originating in the activity of our own individual brains, cells from other individuals are living and functioning in that complex structure. However, the mixing of cells from genetically distinct individuals is not at all uncommon. This condition is called chimerism after

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the fire-breathing Chimera from Greek mythology, a creature that was part serpent, part lion, and part goat. Naturally occurring chimeras are far less ominous though, and include such creatures as the slime mold and corals. Microchimerism is the persistent presence of a few genetically distinct cells in an organism. This was first noticed in humans many years ago when cells containing the male “Y” chromosome were found circulating in the blood of women after pregnancy. Since these cells are genetically male, they could not have been the women’s own, but most likely came from their babies during gestation. In this new study, scientists observed that microchimeric cells are not only found circulating in the blood, they are also embedded in the brain. They examined the brains of deceased women for the presence of cells containing the male “Y” chromosome. They found such cells in more than 60 percent of the brains and in multiple brain regions. Since Alzheimer’s disease* is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies, they suspected that the number of fetal cells would be greater in women with AD compared to those who had no evidence for neurological disease. The results were precisely the opposite: there were fewer fetal-derived cells in women with Alzheimer’s. The reasons are unclear. Microchimerism most commonly results from the exchange of cells across the placenta during pregnancy; however, there is also evidence that cells may be transferred from mother to infant through nursing. In addition to exchange between mother and fetus, there may be exchange of cells between twins in utero, and there is also the possibility that cells from an older sibling residing in the mother may find their way back across the placenta to a younger sibling during the latter’s gestation. Women may have microchimeric cells both from their mothers as well as from their own pregnancies, and there is even evidence for competition between cells from grandmother and infant within the mother. *a neurogenerative disease that, among other symptoms, causes problems with memory.


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Organ

Presumed cell type

Brain Neurons(murine) Lymph node Hematopoietic cells Epithelial cells, thyrocytes Thyroid Tcells, Bcells, monocytes/ macrophages, NK cells, Blood granulocytes Blood Lymphoid progenitor cells Heart Cardiac myocytes Skin Endothelial cells Skin Keratinocytes Spleen Hematopoletic cells Kidney Renal tubular cells Pancreas Islet beta cells Liver Hepatocytes Gallbladder Epithelial cells Epithelial cells Intestine Epithelial cells Cervix

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HW - 30 45 What is the primary purpose of the passage? A) To explain how, while we each have a unique genetic code, cells from other unique individuals may live inside our bodies

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B) To suggest that Alzheimer’s disease is caused by cells with “Y” chromosomes

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C) To illustrate the difficulty of drawing conclusions from scientific research D) To show how the common conception of the bond between mothers and children is wrong

Various types of microchimerisms affect humans. The common mother-Mc and fetus-Mc and the organs/presumed cell types affected by them are shown.

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As used in line 22, “autonomous” most nearly means

What is the rhetorical effect of the opening line of the passage?

A) self-governing. B) reliant.

A) To elicit a response from the reader about his or her personal experience

C) independent. D) sovereign.

B) To cast doubt on a cliché idea that is now outmoded C) To introduce a well-known topic to which the author will add new information D) To question the fallacy that a mother is closer to her children than a father is

47 According to the passage, what is one potential outcome of a woman’s brain containing dormant male cells? A) Women with such cells may be less susceptible to memory disorders.

44 Which of the following models the structure of the author’s argument throughout the passage? A) He outlines a common misconception, shows new evidence to the contrary, then offers a new solution. B) He presents his own original research, discusses his methods for acquiring it, then critiques earlier studies. C) He questions a new set of data, shows its inconsistencies, then offers his own new hypothesis. D) He starts from a point of basic agreement, introduces new information, and speculates about that new information.

B) Women with such cells are less likely to suffer from immune disorders. C) Women with such cells tend to be more aggressive and physically stronger. D) Women with such cells are more likely to live with men for several decades at a time.


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Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?

A) Lines 16-18 (“These . . . disorders”)

A) Lines 55-57 (“Since . . . gestation”)

B) Lines 30-34 (“What . . . brain”)

B) Lines 64-69 (“Since . . . disease”)

C) Lines 51-54 (“This . . . pregnancy”)

C) Lines 76-81 (“In addition . . . gestation”)

D) Lines 72-76 (“Microchimerism . . . nursing”)

D) Lines 81-85 (“Women . . . mother”)

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52 Which idea best describes the function of the statement “We all . . . strange” (lines 35-37)? A) Many people with certain disorders prefer not to come into contact with strangers.

Based on the information in the passage and the graphic, which of the following most accurately describes an effect of microchimerism?

B) After birth, children often help their mothers and fathers through difficult times.

A) It is possible that a mother’s cells would be found in the brain of an infant to whom she has given birth.

C) The idea that everyone is unique in some way is no longer scientifically provable.

B) A women and her fetus exchange an equal number of liver cells during gestation.

D) The notion of total individuality may be inconsistent with scientific reality.

C) It has been firmly established that fetus cells can migrate to the brain of the mother, as well as to several other organs.

50 According to the passage, non-twin siblings may have some cells in common because they

D) It is due to the lack of cells produced and transferred from mother to fetus that children can be born with immune disorders.

A) share at least the mother’s half of their genetic makeup. B) are present for one another’s significant illnesses. C) are less likely to suffer from the memory disorders that afflict the elderly. D) may have exchanged unique cells as the younger sibling was in the womb.

ST O P

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. 7 7 6   |   Cracking the New SAT