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According to the number of them all - Sons and daughters. Perhaps an additional sacrifice for each one of them. The Septuagint renders this, "according to their numbers, êáéì ìïìó÷ïí å%ìíá ðåñéÌ á%ìáðôéìáò ðåñéÌ ôù í øõ÷ù í áõ*ôù í kai moschon hena peri hamartias peri toðn psuchoðn autoðn - a young bullock for sin or a sin-offeringfor their souls." It may be that my sons have sinned - He had no positive or certain proof of it. He felt only the natural apprehension which every pious father must, that his sons might have been overtaken by temptation, and perhaps, under the influence of wine, might have been led to speak reproachfully of God, and of the necessary restraints of true religion and virtue. And cursed God in their hearts - The word here rendered curse is that which is usually rendered "bless" áÈøÇêÀ baðrak. It is not a little remarkable that the same word is used in senses so directly opposite as to "bless" and "to curse." Dr. Good contends that the word should be always rendered "bless," and so translates it in this place, "peradventure my sons may have sinned, "nor" blessed God in their hearts," understanding the Hebrew prefix å (v) as a disjunctive or negative participle. So too in Job_2:9, rendered in our common translation, "curse God and die," he translates it, "blessing God and dying." But the interpretation which the connection demands is evidently that of cursing, renouncing, or forgetting; and so also it is in Job_2:9. This sense is still more obvious in 1Ki_21:10: "Thou didst "blaspheme" áÈøÇêÀ baðrak God and the king." So also 1Ki_21:13 of the same chapter - though here Dr. Good contends that the word should be rendered "bless," and that the accusation was that Naboth "blessed" or worshipped the gods, even Moloch - where he supposes the word îÆìÆêÀ melek, should be pointed îÉìÆêÀ mo8lek and read "Molech." But the difficulty is not removed by this, and after all it is probable that the word here, as in Job_2:9, means to "curse." So it is understood by nearly all interpreters. The Vulgate indeed renders it singularly enough, "Lest perhaps my sons have sinned, and have blessed God (et benedixerint Deo) in their hearts." The Septuagint, "Lest perhaps my sons in their mind have thought evil toward God" - êáêáÌ å*íåïìçóáí ðñïÌò Èåïìí kaka enenoeðsan pros Theon. The Chaldee, "Lest my sons have sinned and provoked YAHWEH (éäåä åàøâéæã÷ãí) in their hearts." Assuming that this is the sense of the word here, there are three ways of accounting for the fact that the same word should have such opposite significations. (1) One is that proposed by Taylor (Concor.), that pious persons of old regarded blasphemy as so abominable that they abhorred to express it by the proper name, and that therefore by an "euphemism" they used the term "bless" instead of "curse." But it should be said that nothing is more common in the Scriptures than words denoting cursing and blasphemy. The word àÈìÈä 'a8la8h, in the sense of cursing or execrating, occurs frequently. So the word âÈãÇó ga8daph, means to blaspheme, and is often used; 2Ki_19:6, 2Ki_19:22; Isa_37:6, Isa_37:23; Psa_44:16. Other words also were used in the same sense, and there was no necessity of using a mere "euphemism" here. (2) A second mode of accounting for this double use of the word is. that this was the common term of salutation between friends at meeting and parting. It is then supposed to have been used in the sense of the English phrase "to bid farewell to." And then, like that phrase, to mean "to renounce, to abandon, to dismiss from the mind, to disregard." The words ÷áéìñåéí chairein, in Greek, and "valere" in Latin, are used in this way. This explanation is suggested by Schultens,

(Job 1  

offered: Job_42:8; Gen_8:20; Exo_18:12, Exo_24:5; Lev_1:3-6 cursed: Job_1:11, Job_2:9; Lev_24:10-16; 1Ki_21:10, 1Ki_21:13 according: 1Ki_18:...

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