Biology: Concepts and Investigations 5th Edition by Mariëlle Hoefnagels
TABLE OF CONTENTS Unit 1: Science, Chemistry, and Cells 1. The Scientific Study of Life 2. The Chemistry of Life 3. Cells 4. The Energy of Life 5. Photosynthesis 6. Respiration and Fermentation Unit 2: DNA, Inheritance, and Biotechnology 7. DNA Structure and Gene Function 8. DNA Replication, Binary Fission, and Mitosis 9. Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis 10. Patterns of Inheritance 11. DNA Technology Unit 3: The Evolution of Life 12. The Forces of Evolutionary Change 13. Evidence of Evolution 14. Speciation and Extinction 15. The Origin and History of Life Unit 4: The Diversity of Life 16. Viruses 17. Bacteria and Archaea 18. Protists 19. Plants 20. Fungi 21. Animals Unit 5: Plant Life
22. Plant Form and Function 23. Plant Nutrition and Transport 24. Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants Unit 6: Animal Life 25. Animal Tissues and Organ Systems 26. The Nervous System 27. The Senses 28. The Endocrine System 29. The Skeletal and Muscular Systems 30. The Circulatory System 31. The Respiratory System 32. Digestion and Nutrition 33. Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids 34. The Immune System 35. Animal Reproduction and Development Unit 7: The Ecology of Life 36. Animal Behavior 37. Populations 38. Communities and Ecosystems 39. Biomes 40. Preserving Biodiversity
Biology Concepts and Investigations 5th Edition Hoefnagels Test Bank CHAPTER 1: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The kingdom is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category. ⊚
true
⊚
2)
The cell is the basic unit of life.
⊚
true
⊚
false
false
3) The smallest scale of biological organization is represented by organelles. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Decomposers are a special group of primary producers. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) In an experiment designed to determine if a fertilizer increased crop yield in tomato plants, the number of tomatoes produced by each plant would be the independent variable. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) In an experiment designed to determine if a fertilizer increased crop yield in tomato plants, the number of tomatoes produced by each plant would be the dependent variable.
⊚
true
⊚
false
7) In an experiment designed to determine if a fertilizer increased crop yield in tomato plants, the amount of sunlight and water the plants received would be standardized variables. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) A theory is an advanced hypothesis that has been proven to be true. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Researchers can readily extract DNA from one organism and merge that DNA into another organism, applying genetic engineering as a possible cure to cancer or muscular dystrophy and other diseases. The scientific method can test a hypothesis to determine if this approach is morally right or wrong. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) Thinking about life's organizationalhierarchy in a biological system, which of the following is the correct
A) atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue B) molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell C) cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule D) organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell
sequence from the smallest unit to the largest unit?
E) atom organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
11) The hierarchy of life extends past individual organisms. Which of the following is the correct sequence,from least inclusive to most inclusive, following an individual organism?
A)
population - ecosystem - community - biosphere
E) ecosystem population - biosphere community
B) community - population - ecosystem - biosphere C) community - population - biosphere - ecosystem D) population - community - ecosystem - biosphere
12)
In living organisms, emergent properties
A) are functions that arise from interactions between a system's components. B) evolve new properties from other similar organisms. C) are produced in a new generation of offspring that will show the properties. D) are qualities of cells that disappear when in the
presence of other cells. E) functionally arise from larger successful parts working together for a stronger organism.
13) To be considered living, an organism must minimally consist of
A) DNA and proteins. B) one or more cells. C) RNA and proteins.
14)
D) atoms and molecules. E) DNA and RNA.
Which of these is not a required characteristic of life? C) A) homeostasis B) movement
structural
organization D) evolution E) energy use
15) Organisms that make their own food by capturing energy from nonliving resources (solar energy) are called
A) decomposers. B) parasites. C) primary producers.
D) consumers. E) detritivores.
16) Organisms that obtain energy and nutrients by eating either living or dead organisms are called
A) primary producers. B) plants. C) consumers.
D) autotrophs. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
17) Which of the following is an example of a characteristic of life?
A) Energy is needed to build, regulate, and conduct processes of life. B) Organisms are composed of atoms that make up cells. C) Organisms have the ability to reproduce, grow,
and develop. D) Organisms maintain internal constancy. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
18) The basic unit of classification in the taxonomic hierarchy, designating the organism "type," is the
A) species. B) domain.
C) genus. D) family. E) kingdom.
A) Bacteria, Fungi, Archaea, and Animalia. B) Bacteria, Protista, Plantae, and Animalia. C) Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. D) Archaea, Bacteria, Protista, and Animalia.
E) Archaea, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
20) A major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that whereas prokaryotes do not. A) have cell walls, eukaryotes do not. B) do not have a nucleus, eukaryotes have a nucleus in their cells. C) have DNA, eukaryotes only have RNA. D) have chloropasts for photosynthesis, eukaryotes
E) have mitochondria, eukaryotes do not.
21) Until the late 1970s, there was no "Domain" as the broadest category in taxonomy. Instead, there were five kingdoms: Protista, Plantae, Fungi, Animalia, and Monera, which included all bacteria-like organisms. Researchers proposed the domains to distinguish between the bacteria-like
organisms. Which information supported placing bacteria and archaea in separate domains?
A) Differences in DNA among the existing kingdoms showed a need for a broader naming category. B) More complex emergent properties developed after organisms were originally categorized into kingdoms. C) Cell shapes of bacteria and archaea were found to be more distinct, after microscope technology improved.
D) Evolution led to new adaptations and diversity of organisms. E) Organisms in the Bacteria and Archaea domains have a nucleus, whereas eukaryotes do not.
22) Which of the following is not a true statement about the scientific method?
A)
It is a general way of organizing an investigation.
B) It requires
testing a hypothesis. C) It begins with observations. D) It does not apply to problems encountered in everyday life.
23)
E) It is a framework to consider evidence in a repeatable way.
Which of the following is not true about a hypothesis?
A) It can be proven to be true. B) It can be rejected. C) It is a tentative explanation. D) Previous knowledge can help support it.
24) In an experimental procedure, the researcher has established multiple levels of a chemical, or amounts of light, or some other factor at the beginning of the experiment, in order to determine if and how much the biological system
A) standardized variable. B) control group. C) dependent variable. D) independent variable.
E) It must be testable to be useful.
responds. The manipulated factor at varying levels is the
E) Both control group and standardized variable are correct.
25) Examine this diagram. Note the structure of branches connecting groups of organisms. Called a phylogenetic tree, the branches propose relationships among organisms to each other, related to common ancestors. Although the proposed relationships can be described in sentences, the diagram summarizes
them visually. Which of the following statements is true based
A) The organisms in domain Archaea are more closely related to the organisms in domain Eukarya than those in domain Bacteria. B) All the organisms in this phylogenetic tree are equally related to one another. C) The organisms in domain Bacteria are more closely related to the organisms in domain Eukarya than those
26) In an experimental procedure, the researcher measures changes, such as cell growth rates, numbers of patients with a disease, etc. in response to factors manipulated at the beginning of the experiment. This measure of change in
A) independent variable. B) dependent variable. C) control group. D) standardized variable.
on this diagram?
in domain Archaea. D) The organisms in kingdom Protista are part of domain Bacteria. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
response to the initial conditions is the
E) Both dependent variable and standardized variable are correct.
27)
Which of the following would not be a "control" in an
A) a placebo group B) a known standard of comparison C) a normal (untreated) group D) an experimental group E) a "zero-value" group
experimental procedure?
28)
A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory
A) has more supportive research evidence than a hypothesis. B) is broader in scope than a hypothesis. C) has predictive power for similar phenomena that haven't been observed yet.
D) ties together many existing observations. E) All of the answer choicesare correct.
29) A structure, such as a flower in plants, or a liver in animals, consisting of tissues organized to carry out a specific function is a(n)
A) organ. B) cell.
C) population. D) molecule. E) organelle.
30) An ecosystem would include all of the following except
A) a community that may include primary producers, consumers, and decomposers. B) the biosphere, with its resources and functioning systems. C) populations of organisms in the same species.
31) A researcher collected a single-celled organism from birdbath water and grew the organism in a laboratory. The researcher observed the organism reproducing by cell division, which resulted in identical offspring generations.
A) asexual reproduction. B) reproduction that produces enormous genetic diversity among offspring
D) nonliving air, water, soil, and other components in an area. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
This organism exhibits a form of
C) reproduction occurring only in bacteria. D) sexual reproduction, mixing
genetic material from the parent cells. E) sexual reproduction of fungi.
32)
Homeostasis means that
A) a population changes over time. B) environmental conditions are held constant and do not change. C) cells have enough water. D) all organisms require an energy source.
33)
The correct sequence going from smallest to largest is
A) tissue - cell - organelle - molecule - atom. B) molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell. C) atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue. D) cell - tissue - organelle - molecule - atom.
34)
E) conditions inside a cell or organism remain within a constant range.
E) cell - molecule - tissue - organelle - atom.
All ecosystems
A) need a source of external energy. B) stay exactly the same once mature. C) are entirely self-sufficient.
D) consist of only living organisms. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
35) Which is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
A) make an observation - analyze results - form hypothesis - draw conclusions - design an experiment B) make an observation - analyze results - draw conclusion - design an experiment - form hypothesis
C) make an observation - form hypothesis - design an experiment - collect data analyze results
D) form hypothesis - make an observation - design an experiment - collect data - analyze results E) form hypothesis - make an observation - collect
data - analyze results design an experiment
36) A college student has a new job, and must balance classes and commute times to work. The student takes two weeks to drive from campus to the workplace by several routes, including a direct route through town, a highway route, and a route through a city park. Comparing the drive times affected by the route is possible. The dependent variable is the
A) average time in minutes it takes to drive from campus to workplace. B) distance in miles of each possible driving route from campus to workplace. C) the number of cars in the same route.
D) the time in minutes between walking from class to their vehicle. E) the type of vehicle the student is driving.
37) A golfer wants a new set of clubs to improve her game. In an experiment, she tests different drivers made from different materials. She compares the drivers to the distance of her shot. In this simple experiment, the independent variable is the
A)
wind direction when the experiment took place.
B) distance the golf ball traveled. C) type of material used to make the golf ball. D) swing speed of the golf club prior to striking the
golf ball. E) type of material used to make the drivers.
38) A golfer wants a new set of clubs to improve her game. In an experiment, she goes to the driving range and compares the distance she hits a bucket of golf balls with drivers of different materials in the clubs before making her
A)
wind direction when the experiment took place.
B)
force generated by her swing, when hitting the
C)
type of material used to make the golf ball.
ball.
39) Scientists have developed an ointment to decrease muscle inflammation after intense workouts or trainings. To test the product, 99 weight lifters are divided into three equal groups. Group 1 is given the actual ointment, Group 2 is given an inactive ointment that looks and smells like the
A) a placebo. B) an independent variable. C) a standardized variable.
purchase decision. In this simple experiment, the standardized variable is the
D) all of these except the type of material used to make the club. E) angle the ball was hit by the head surface of the club.
active ointment, and Group 3 is not allowed to use any treatment. Group 2 has been given
D) the active ointment. E) a controlvariable.
40) In an experiment, which of the following is not generally a true statement?
A)
The larger the sample size the more reliable the
B)
The smaller the sample size the more reliable the
C)
Without the proper control an experiment is not
D)
It is important to standardize aspects of an
results. results.
experiment that might affect the outcome, other than the independent variable. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
valid.
41)
What did Charles
Darwin propose after observing the 11-inch-long nectaries of the Angraecum sesquipedale orchid in Madagascar?
A) the existence of a pollinator moth with a proboscis of 10 –11 inches B) the presence of very small bees that can fit into a long nectar tube C) that the orchid must reproduce asexually D) that the orchid was an evolutionary dead end and
42) After observing variability among plant and animal species in various locations, Charles Darwin proposed an explanation for what he saw. The broad proposal included reasons that species could be modified through genetic variation, leading to measurable similarity and difference. Evidence for the proposal came from biological, geographic, and geological observations. His proposal allowed for the
A) a standardized variable. B) a theory. C) an independent variable.
43) Charles Darwin observed an orchid flower with very long, thin tubes that prevent many species from feeding on the flower nectar and pollinating the flower. He offered a prediction that some species of pollinators would eventually be found that can feed and pollinate through the small tube.You decide to test Charles Darwin's proposal by placing nets over some orchids that allow small pollinators to enter,
A) a dependent variable. B) a hypothesis. C) a theory.
could no longer reproduce E) that the orchid was a self-pollinator and required no assistance from an organism
prediction of new species that might be found in new settings, based on environmental conditions. Darwin's proposal is an example of
D) a dependent variable. E) a hypothesis.
but prevent the large sphinx moth from entering. You then compare the number of seeds produced by plants with and without the nets. The seed production is D) an independent variable. E) a standardized variable.
44) Darwin observed an orchid flower with petals arranged in very long, thin tubes, rather than broad and flat, as we might see in other common flowers. What is the advantage
to the orchid having an 11inch-long nectartube arrangement of the petals?
A) The flower can produce nectar more easily spread over a larger area to attract more pollinators. B) The flower nectartube can collect more rainwater to maintain health of the flower. C) The flower can only be pollinated by a specifically adapted pollinator, reducing cross-fertilization
among orchid species. D) The flower can collect more sunlight for photosynthesis. E) The long tube can trap insects as a source of nutrients.
45) What is the advantage to the sphinx moth Xanthopan morgani by having an 8-inch-long tongue? food. A) It is used to attract mates through sexual selection. B) It can only pollinate one type of flower. C) It makes flying more efficient. D) It can be used to capture other flying insects for
E) It can reach nectar that no other pollinator can reach.
46) Given basic information from observations of the orchid with a long nectary, and the moth with the long proboscis, what is the advantage to a plant like an orchid producing nectar over a plant like a pine tree that does not produce nectar?
A) Nectar helps disperse pollen by wind. B) Nectar attracts animals that perform pollination. C) Nectar provides food for the pollen and growing fruit. D)
Nectar helps disperse pollen by water.
E) Nectar provides a sticky surface for pollen to attach to, promoting fertilization.
47) You are feeling ill, so you visit a physician. The physician takes your temperature, blood pressure, and pulse and orders blood tests and urine analysis to determine more about your condition. The results of all of these observations and tests will help the physician assess why your body is
A) maintaining homeostasis. B) evolving.
48) Before biologists discovered the role of DNA and chromosomes,Gregor Mendel, a scientific researcher, studied the genetics of pea plants related to flower colors, pea colors, pea pod shapes, and other features of the plant.He numerically modeled the results he observed and published results, which eventuallyled to our basic understanding of how biological traits are passed to new generations of organisms.His work, however, was largely rejected for over 30 years, partly for
A) scientific evidence is harder to accept because of cultural biases and misunderstandings on the topic. B) Gregor Mendel's work wasn't valid until researchers later identified chromosomes and their role in reproduction. C) a unique, new way to propose a theory discredits the research until someone else proves findings to be true. D) only the most recent scientific investigations on a
49) Viruses are not considered an organism because they don't have cell membranes, organelles, and do not carry out vital life functions, although they do have a form of DNA (or similar RNA). A researcher proposing to categorize viruses in
A) propose a genetic relationship to living organisms and test how viruses lost life characteristics over time.
temporarily out of "normal" conditions, or when the body is not adequately
C) adapting. D) reproducing. E) organized.
minor record-keeping errors, and partly for the new approach of defining reproduction of organisms in terms of numerical probabilities. This demonstrates that
topic are useful in understanding biological conditions or processes. E) the color and shape of peas was not important to the scientific community.
the tree of life would need to
B) establish any virus as a control group for experimentation with
established domains of organisms. C) apply his/her proposal to any newly discovered virus, since others aren't currently considered organisms. D) remember that the scientific method will prevent any changes to the current taxonomy and tree of life.
E) show the importance of genetic information as a characteristic of life.
50) Health care and fitness professionals claim moderate exercise yields heart health.In an attempt to study the effect of moderate exercise on heart health, you track four groups of fellow students through a semester. One group is a control, who are not to change their exercise patterns. The three other groups are assigned to a 30-minute exercise once, twice, or three times a week.Results at the end of the semester show that average blood pressure and pulse rates are nearly the same for the control group as the once-a-week exercisers. Average blood pressure and pulse were slightly lower for the
two groups that exercised more often, but not every student showed any difference, and some actually had increased blood pressure and pulse rates.What conclusions can be drawn fromthe data collected?
A) Measured differences in the average blood pressure and pulse of the three experimental groups will not likely show a statistically significant difference from the control group. B) Measured differences in the average blood pressure and pulse of the once-a-week exercise group and the control group will likely show a statistically significant difference from the groups exercising more often. C) The individual student data variability and even increased blood pressure and pulse in the two groups exercising more often will not change the fact that the average data values will prove to be statistically significant in difference from the control group.
D) The measured blood pressure and pulse data values of the control group and three exercising groups in this study prove that moderate exercise does not have any beneficial impact on heart health. E) A conclusion cannot be drawn based on the information provided.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 51) You perform an experiment in which you take 16 pots of strawberry
plants and give half of them 1 gram of ammonium nitrate per liter of water and the other half just gets water. Each group is then split in half again, and exposed to either 8 or 16 hours of light each day. You monitor the height of the plants for four
weeks. You observe that increasing ammonium nitrate and light both increase plant height.
51.1) Which of the following is/are an independent variable(s) in this experiment?
A) the amount of ammonium nitrate and light B) the amount of ammonium nitrate C) the amount of light D) the height of the plants and amount of light
E) the height of the plants
51.2) Which of the following is/are a dependent variable(s) in this experiment?
A) the amount of ammonium nitrate and light B) the amount of ammonium nitrate C) the amount of light D) the height of the plants
E) the height of the plants and amount of light
51.3) In this experiment, you are working with available planter pots from the laboratory. You have choices of clay pots of different sizes, as well as biodegradable peat pots and others within lab equipment provided. To establish a standardized variable, you would
A) choose clay pots for the fertilized plants, and biodegradable pots for the unfertilized plants. B) monitor the strawberry growth rates and determine a mathematical correction to account for the type and size of pot used.
C) select all sixteen pots to be of the same material and size for the experiment. D) report the pot
type used, though recognizing the pot is not as important as fertilizer and light to the strawberries. E) select a variety of sizes based on the
initialstrawberry plant size.
51.4) A plant takes up nutrients like ammonium nitrate to maintain
A) asexual reproduction. B) sexual reproduction. C) natural selection.
51.5)
The leaf of a plant is
A) an organ. B) a molecule.
51.6)
D) evolution. E) homeostasis.
C) an organelle. D) a cell. E) an organism.
A plant is a
A) consumer. B) decomposer. C) primary producer.
D) consumer and decomposer. E) consumer and producer.
51.7) Organisms require energy to function. What is the energy source for the plants in your experiment?
A) ammonium nitrate B) light
C) water D) soil E) carbon dioxide
51.8)
As part of
observation in your scientific method, you discover that your strawberry plants are producing plantlets that are identical to the parent plant. This demonstrates that they reproduce by
A) asexual reproduction. B) sexual reproduction. C) development and adaptation.
D) development and maturation. E) fragmentation.
52) This figure shows graphed medical research results from a study on a new vaccine. The research was done in an effort to determine if a new vaccine would be effective in preventing potentially dangerous rotavirus infections in infants. Green data bars represent occurrence of infant cases that had normal rotavirus strains that aren't critically dangerous. Blue data bars represent occurrence of infant cases that had more dangerous rotavirus strains that can hospitalize
or lead to fatality of infants.
52.1) In this diagram, the vertical axis of the graph shows values of "Incidence of Illness" in infants. The varying numbers of infants getting sick with rotavirus represents the
A) dependent variable of this medical study. B) independent variable of this medical study.
C) standardized variable of this medical study.
D) control group of infants in this medical study. E) normal infant baseline for reference to results
from this medical study.
52.2) In the graph, interpret the data that are shown regarding the response of a large number of infants to vaccination from dangerous rotavirus infection. Which of the hypotheses is NOT supported by these data results?
A) The new vaccine is ineffective in protecting infants from any rotavirus infection. B) The high dose of the new vaccine does not offer any stronger protection from any rotavirus infection than the medium dose. C) The low dose of the vaccine reduces incidence of illness from any rotavirus in general, and also severe rotavirus. D) Medium and high doses of the vaccine are more effective at reducing severe rotavirus illnesses than
52.3) In the graph, the horizontal axis is showing different doses of vaccine, including "placebo," "low," "medium," and "high." These levels of vaccine were applied to different groups of babies to test if and how much the vaccination helped reduce the incidence of rotavirus, an illness that can quickly dehydrate infants
A) the independent variable. B) the standardized variable. C) the dependent variable.
reducing any rotavirus. E) Hypotheses about the vaccine doses can't be evaluated because the placebo group is biased, with high incidence of illness in those infants.
to critical or fatal levels. These dosages in this medical study represent
D) the control group. E) the placebo.
52.4) In this experiment, if the scientists administering the
treatments (low, medium, or high vaccine doses, as well as the placebo) did not know which dose they were administering, then this would be an example of a ⊚
true
⊚
false
double-blind experiment.
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 01 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) E 18) A 19) C
20) B 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) E 29) A 30) B 31) A 32) E 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) E 38) D 39) A 40) B
41) A 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) Section Break 51.1) A 51.2) D 51.3) C 51.4) E 51.5) A 51.6) C 51.7) B 51.8) A 52) Section Break 52.1) A
52.2) A 52.3) A 52.4) TRUE
CHAPTER 2: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The property of water demonstrated by a water strider, as it remains on top of the water, is that water molecules are held together by ionic bonds. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) If a molecule is added to a glass of water, and is easily dissolved by the water, the added molecule is described as hydrophilic. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Cohesion is a property of water in which water molecules tend to stick together. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) A peptide bond is a covalent bond formed between the amino group of one amino acid and the R group of another amino acid. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) A substance in which other substances dissolve is called a solute. ⊚
true
Version 1
⊚
false
1
6) Vegetable oil is an unsaturated fat from multiple plant sources. Because it is unsaturated, it is composed of at least ⊚
true
⊚
one pair of double-bonded carbons.
false
7) Of the 20 amino acids in all organisms, essential amino acids are obtained by food consumption. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) If a protein is denatured, its structure has been changed enough to make the protein nonfunctional. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Proteins store the genetic information of the cell and transmit it to the next generation. ⊚
true
⊚
false
CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) Algal phytoplankton are single-celled aquatic organisms that perform photosynthesis like plants. In a lake, summer growth of phytoplankton can change the water pH from pH 7.2 to 6.2. Select all of the following that are TRUE about this change.
A) The water at pH 6.2 is a stronger acid solution than before the phytoplankton growth. B) The lake water solution changed from slightly acidic to slightly basic in pH. C) The water at pH 6.2 has 10 times the hydrogen Version 1
(H+) concentration as before the phytoplankton growth. D) The growth of phytoplankton changed the pH of the water. 2
E) The water at pH 6.2 has twice the hydrogen (H+) concentration than before the phytoplankton growth.
11) Select all of the following that correctly describe differences between DNA and RNA.
A) DNA has a sugar-phosphate backbone, while RNA has a glycerol-phosphate backbone. B) DNA is a long double-stranded molecule, while RNA is a shorter single-stranded molecule. C) DNA and RNA are different in that RNA has uracil instead of thymine. D) DNA is a molecule that stores genetic
information, while RNA is a molecule that stores energy. E) DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose, while RNA contains the sugar ribose.
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12) The four most abundantelements needed by the human body are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. Because these are needed in large amounts to support our cells, these are referred to as
A) bulk elements. B) trace elements. C) isotopes.
D) buffers. E) essential elements.
13) In the 1700s, a French scientist, Antoine Lavoisier, gained new experimental information
Version 1
3
byreactinga metal and an acid. His observation of the results seemed to show that much of the metal had been lost in the chemical reaction.Upon weighing the products, the total amounts of materials had not changed during the reaction.This research resulted in thelaw of conservation of mass. This law also applies to biology, because the materials
A) matter B) energy
14) Water has unique properties which include its strength as a solvent; its three environmental stages of solid, liquid, and gas; and its temperature regulation. These properties are due to polarcovalent bonds between oxygen and hydrogen.
A) oxygen being more electronegativeand thereforeattracting more electrons than hydrogen. B) hydrogen being more electronegative and therefore attracting more electrons than oxygen. C) hydrogen and oxygen having equal electronegative strength and therefore have equal sharing of electrons. D) hydrogen being an electron donor and oxygen
we are made of are that change forms, but aren't truly lost through biochemical reactions.
C) solutions D) isotopes E) metals
The polar covalentbonds are aresult of
being an electron acceptor. E) there being a greater number of electrons in oxygen outermost shell than in hydrogen.
15) Compared to a glucose molecule, the starch molecule shown here
A)
Version 1
is used for energy storage in plant cells.
B) can provide structure for cells that
4
contain it. C) is a triglyceride and is composed of fatty acids. D) is composed of ribose monomers.
16)
The ring structure of glucose indicates that it is a(n)
A) monosaccharide. B) disaccharide.
17)
C) amino acid. D) nucleotide. E) fatty acid.
The primary elements making up living organisms are
A)
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, calcium, iron, and
iodine. B) carbon, oxygen, iron, chlorine, sulfur, and phosphorus. C) carbon, hydrogen, iron, sulfur, sodium, and calcium.
18)
E) is a disaccharide.
D) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen, and phosphorus. E) carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium, iron, and phosphorus.
The atomic number of an element is the number of
A) neutrons in the nucleus. B) electrons in the nucleus. C) protons in the nucleus.
19) Given this information from one element in the periodic table of elements, the number of neutrons plus
Version 1
D) neutrons in the orbitals. E) protons in the orbitals.
protons is
5
A) 14, which is approximately the same as the atomic weight. B) 7, which is approximately the same as the atomic weight. C) 14, which is also the atomic number.
20)
The mass number is defined as the total number of of an atom.
A) protons, neutrons, and electrons B) protons and electrons C) protons and neutrons
21)
D) 7, which is also the atomic number. E) unable to be determined with the information provided.
D) neutrons and electrons E) protons
An ion is an atom that has
A)
the same number of electrons as it does protons.
B) a net positive charge. C) a different number of neutrons from the number of protons. D) a net negative charge.
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E) a net negative or positive charge, with the number of electrons different from the number of protons.
6
C) four D) eight E) sixteen
A) one B) two
23) In the element neon, each atom contains eight electrons in its valence shell. The atoms of neon will be
A) highly reactive. B) not chemically stable. C) highly likely to combine with other atoms.
24)
stable.
In a covalent bond, atoms
A) share electrons. B) of opposite charges attract each other. C) share protons.
25)
D) not inert. E) chemically
D) both become highly electronegative. E) lose electrons.
In an ionic bond,
A) two atoms both become strongly electronegative and attract each other. B) atoms attract each other by sharing electrons to fill their valence shells. C) atoms, having gained or lost electrons, attract one another with opposite charges.
D) two atoms are attracted by partial positive and negative charges. E) two atoms are attracted by the same charges.
26) Carbon and hydrogen make up many biologically important molecules. Carbon has an electronegativity of 2.55, whereas hydrogen has an electronegativity of 2.2. Version 1
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Based on the electronegativity difference between the atoms, the carbon and hydrogens shown here have just formed
A) a nonpolar covalent bond. B) a polar covalent bond. C) an ionic bond.
D)
a hydrogen
E)
an element.
bond.
27) Which statement summarizes the distinction between nonpolar and polar covalent bonds?
A) Polar covalent bonds are formed when the atoms gain or lose electrons to bond and become oppositely charged ions. B) The difference in electronegativity of the atoms in a nonpolar covalent bond is very large. C) The electrons are more evenly and symmetrically distributed in orbit among atoms in a polar covalent bond.
D) The electrons are more evenly and symmetrically distributed in orbit among atoms in a nonpolar covalent bond.
28)
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Referring to the
8
ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine, which of the following is not a true statement?
A) Na is the chemical symbol for sodium. B) Chlorine donates an electron. C) Sodium donates an electron. D) Sodium becomes positively charged.
E) The bond that is formed is stronger than a hydrogen bond.
29) Water molecules exhibit cohesive and adhesive properties. What is the chemical bond characteristic that contributes to these and other numerous important properties of water molecules?
A) The covalent bond strengths of water molecules change with pH, temperature, or solute conditions present. B) The covalent bonds that form water molecules transform to ionic bonds in presence of other molecules, temperature changes, or pH. C) Hydrogen bonds form between water molecules, not requiring gain, loss, or sharing of electrons.
D) Bonds that form water are of the nonpolar covalent form. E) Ionic bonds between water molecules create increased surface tension.
30) You can painlessly wade into a pool, but doing a belly flop off of the high diving board hurts because of B) A)
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water's high density.
adhesion in
water.
9
C) water's high boiling point. D) water's neutral pH.
E)
cohesion in
water.
31) Within a single molecule of water, as shown, bonds are formed between oxygen and hydrogen.
C) hydrogen D) hydrophobic E) nuclear
A) ionic B) covalent
32)
Evaporation of water is a change of water from D) A) a liquid into a vapor. B) a solid into a vapor. C) a vapor into a liquid.
a vapor into a
solid. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
33) You collect and measure samples of ice and
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10
surrounding liquid water from a stream in the winter. You find that you collected the same number of water molecules in each form. The volume of the ice samples are larger than the
A) the hydrogen bonds between the water molecules being unstable and constantly forming and breaking that increases the volume and decreases the density of the ice. B) the hydrogen bonds between the water molecules being in a fixed position that increases the volume and decreases the density of the ice. C) the covalent bonds between the water molecules being unstable and constantly forming and breaking that increases the volume and decreases the density of the ice. D) the covalent bonds between the water molecules
liquid water samples. This is a result of
being in a fixed position that increases the volume and decreases the density of the ice. E) the ionic bonds between the water molecules being unstable and constantly forming and breaking that increases the volume and decreases the density of the ice.
34) In a chemical equation, which components of a chemical reaction are found on the left side of the arrows?
A) reactants B) products
35)
An acid
A) has a value above 7 on the pH scale. B) is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution. C) has a value of 7 on the pH scale.
36)
C) buffers D) reagents E) solvents
D) is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
A base
A) has a value of 7 on the pH scale. B) is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a Version 1
solution. C) is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions 11
from a solution. D) has a value below 7 on the pH scale.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
37) Organic molecules are defined as chemical compounds that contain in distinct ratios and structures.
A) carbon B) carbon and oxygen C) carbon and nitrogen
38)
D) carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen E) carbon and hydrogen
The four major groups of organic compounds are
A) fats, waxes, carbohydrates, and amino acids. B) carbohydrates, lipids, steroids, and monosaccharides. C) lipids, fats, waxes, and steroids. D) carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E) carbohydrates, proteins, amino acids, and nucleic acids.
39) In living cells, a process by which cells break polymers down into monomers with the addition of water is
A) hydrolysis. B) dehydration synthesis. C) reproduction.
D) reduction. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
40) Which of the following is not an example of a monosaccharide?
A)
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glucose
B) C)
ribose fructose
12
D) cellulose E) All of the answer choices are correct.
41) Blood is closely maintained at a pH of 7.4. A patient whose blood pH drops below 7.35 is suffering from metabolic acidosis and can go into a coma. What happens to the A) H + concentration is decreased ten fold. B) H + concentration is decreased two fold. C) H + concentration is increased two fold. D) H + concentration is decreased four fold.
42)
concentration of H + ions in a patient with a blood pH of 6.4? E) H + concentration is increased ten fold.
Which is not a lipid? C) a wax D) a steroid E) a starch
A) a triglyceride B) a phospholipid
43)
The primary building block (monomer) of proteins is
A) a glucose molecule. B) a fatty acid. C) a nucleotide.
44) of
D) an amino acid. E) a group of four interconnected rings.
An amino acid contains a structural "backbone" chain
D) A) nitrogens. B) nitrogens and carbons. C) carbons.
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phosphorus
atoms. E) carbon and phosphorus atoms.
13
45)
The bond that builds amino acid monomers into
A) a primary structural bond. B) a denatured hydrogen bond. C) a covalent bond also known as a peptide bond. D) an ionic bond also known as a peptide bond.
protein polymers is E) a covalent bond also know as a glycosidic bond.
46) The primary building block (monomer) of nucleic acids is
A) a nucleotide. B) a glucose molecule. C) a fatty acid.
47)
The three major components in a nucleotide are
A)
glucose, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate
group. B) glucose, a fatty acid, and glycerol. C) a nitrogenous base, a six-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group.
48)
D) an amino acid. E) a group of four interconnected rings.
D) a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar, and a phosphate group. E) a carboxyl group, an R group, and an amino group.
The four nitrogen bases found in RNA are
A) adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil. B) adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil. C) adenine, thymine, cytosine, and uracil. D) thymine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil.
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E) None of the answer choices are correct.
14
A) covalent B) ionic
50) polymer.
C) hydrogen D) hydrophobic E) nonpolar
bonds are formed between monomers to form a
A) Ionic B) Covalent
51) Saturated fats have long, straight tails of fatty acids and canclump tightly together in cells and animal bodies. Unsaturated fats have kinks in their tails due to double bonds, which preventthem from packing together as tightly.Animals that are ectotherms (their body temperature fluctuates with the
A) mostly unsaturated fats B) mostly saturated fats C) equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fats
C) Hydrogen D) Hydrophobic E) Nuclear
environment) need to keep their membranes fluid at cooler temperature and thus use in their membranes. D) carbohydrates E) proteins
52) Saturated fats have long, straight tails of fatty acids, whereas unsaturated fats from vegetables have kinks in their tails due to double bonds. These kinks prevent the fats from packing together as tightly. Hydrogenated vegetable oils, or trans fats, have hydrogens added back to the double bonds and thus behave like
A) unsaturated fats. B) waxes.
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C) carbohydrates. D) proteins. E) saturated fats.
15
53) The group of organic molecule polymers with the most complex and diverse three-dimensional structure is
A) saturated fats. B) unsaturated fats.
C) proteins. D) waxes. E) carbohydrates.
54) Which of these pairs does not correctly match a carbohydrate with its function?
A) Glycogen is the storage form of energy in animals. B) Starch is the storage form of energy in plants. C) Cellulose provides structural support for human hair.
D) Chitin provides an exoskeleton for insects. E) Starch provides long-term energy.
55) If a carbohydrate polymer is limited to two monomer units, such as sucrose made from glucose and fructose, it is called
A) a disaccharide. B) a polysaccharide. C) a monosaccharide.
D) an oligosaccharide. E) a complex carbohydrate.
56) Having the typical ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen of carbohydrates, the chemical formula for glucose is
A) C 6H 6O 6. B) C 12H 6O 12. C) C 12H 22O 11.
57)
D) C 6H 6O 12. E) C 6H 12O 6.
Which of the following is not a compound?
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A) water (H2O) B) a hydrogen ion (H+) C) sodium chloride (NaCl)
D) a protein E) All of the answer choices are correct.
58) How many hydrogen atoms are in the molecule methane (CH4)?
A) 1 B) 2
C) 4 D) 5 E) 0
59) Scientists from the University of Texas at Austin experimentally plugged the venom glands of tawny ants before exposing them to fire ants to test the hypothesis that
A) crazy ant venom makes fire ant venom less poisonous to crazy ants. B) crazy ant venom is more detrimental to humans than fire ant venom. C) fire ants outcompete crazy ants in the southern
60) After being exposed to fire ant venom, crazy ants that were treated with formic acid had a significantly greater survival rate than those treated with a water-based control. In
A) formic acid is not likely involved in deactivating fire ant venom. B) formic acid is most likely involved in detoxifying the fire ant venom. C) water is just as good as formic acid at detoxifying fire ant venom.
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United States. D) crazy ant venom has a high pH. E) fire ant venom is less potent than crazy ant venom.
this experiment, these results suggested that
D) no conclusions could be drawn from the data. E) formic acid is the main component of fire ant venom.
17
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 61) Refer to this diagram with common examples of
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substances and their pH.
18
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19
61.1) The correct functions of your lungs contribute to the normal pH level of between 7.35 and 7.45. If your lungs do not exchange and remove carbon dioxide from your blood, the blood pH will change. A pH 6.4 +
A) a health problem due to 10X higher H concentrations than normal in your body. B) a health problem due to 2X higher H+ concentrations than normal in your body. C) a health problem due to 10X higher OH– concentrations than normal in your body. D) a health problem due to 2X higher OH–
reading of your blood indicates
concentrations than normal in your body. E) no health risk, as part of normal pH changes in your body that in this case bring it closer to neutral pH.
62) Examine this image of the glucose molecule.
62.1) Based on the 1:2:1 proportions of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, it can be determined thatthe
glucose molecule is a(n)
A) carbohydrate. B) disaccharide.
C) triglyceride. D) polymer. E) amino acid.
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62.2) Starchy foods inour diets, such as rice and potatoes, consist of many glucosemolecules covalently
A) a complex carbohydrate. B) a simple sugar. C) a triglyceride.
bonded together to form D) a fatty acid chain. E) a protein.
63) Examine these two sugars, as shown prior to the chemical reaction that would bond them.
63.1) These glucose and fructose molecules will bond to form a monosaccharide with the removal of water. ⊚
true
⊚
false
63.2) The diagram shows the monomers, glucose and fructose, before occurs, which builds a
A) hydrolysis B) reproduction C) dehydration synthesis
polymer via the removal of water. D) evaporation E) oxidation
Answer Key
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Test name: Chapter 02 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) [A, C, D] 11) [B, C, E] 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) A
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22
20) C 21) E 22) B 23) E 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) C 30) E 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) E 38) D 39) A 40) D Version 1
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41) E 42) E 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) E 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) E 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) B 61) Section Break Version 1
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61.1) A 62) Section Break 62.1) A 62.2) A 63) Section Break 63.1) FALSE 63.2) C
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CHAPTER 3: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Endosymbiosis theory is proposed in large part because of the resemblance of mitochondria and chloroplast structures to prokaryotes. ⊚
true
⊚
2)
Prokaryotes are only found in the domain Bacteria.
⊚
true
⊚
false
false
3) The organelles mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own DNA and ribosomes. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Flagella move by way of dynein proteins that connect microtubules and force them to shift back and forth to bend or rotate the flagella. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Because mitochondria, chloroplasts, and other plastids have their own DNA and ribosomes within double ⊚
true
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⊚
membranes, they are also considered cells.
false
1
⊚
true
⊚
false
7) The reason that mitochondrial DNA in most mammals is inherited from the mother only is because a sperm cell contains no mitochondria. ⊚
true
⊚
8)
All living cells have a cell wall.
⊚
true
⊚
false
false
9) The Woese system of classification consists of a broad taxonomic grouping of organisms called the domain. ⊚
true
⊚
false
10) Most living cells are small in size because they need a small ratio of surface area to volume. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) The scientist given credit for first using the term "cell" to describe the basic unit of life using spun glass lenses is D) Antony van A) Theodore Schwann. B) Robert Hooke. C) Louis Pasteur. Version 1
2
Leeuwenhoek. E) Rudolf Virchow.
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3
12) The scientist(s) given credit for disproving the idea of spontaneous generation is/are
A) Robert Hooke. B) Louis Pasteur. C) Antony van Leeuwenhoek. D) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann.
E) Virchow.
Rudolf
13) Identify the largest distinction between the theory of spontaneous generation and the cell theory.
A) Spontaneous generation proposes life can form from available molecule components, while the cell theory explains how all cells are formed from preexisting cells. B) There is no distinct difference between the two theories. C) Spontaneous generation only happens with animalcules and germs, while cell theory applies to other, more complex organisms. D) Spontaneous generation can be observed with the
microscope, while cell theory is newer and has not yet been proven. E) Spontaneous generation is found in organisms that don't have cells, while cell theory happens in organisms that do have cells.
14) The scientist(s) given credit for formulating the first two components of "cell theory" is/are
A) Rudolf Virchow. B) Louis Pasteur. C) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann.
15) Which scientist(s) is/are given credit for making the first recorded observations of microorganisms, such as
A) Robert Hooke B) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann C) Antony van Leeuwenhoek
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D) Robert Hooke. E) Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
bacteria and protists, with their microscope? D) Louis Pasteur E) Rudolf Virchow
4
16) The scientist(s) given credit for adding the third component (which contradicted spontaneous generation) to the cell theory is/are
A) Antony van Leeuwenhoek. B) Rudolf Virchow. C) Louis Pasteur.
D) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann. E) Robert Hooke.
17) The original three components of the cell theory are that all organisms
A) are made of one or more cells, the cell is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells come from preexisting cells. B) have DNA, are made of cells, and all cells produce proteins. C) are made of one or more cells, all cells contain DNA, and all cells come from preexisting cells. D) have DNA, DNA is the fundamental unit of life,
and all cells come from preexisting cells. E) are made of one or more cells, the cell is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells have a nucleus.
18) Cells need increased surface area for diffusion of nutrients and wastes. Cells increase their surface area by
A) having microscopic extensions of the cell membrane. B) having a flattened shape. C) being long and thin. D) having specialized organelles to move
components throughout the cell. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
19) Thinking about the surface of cells, which of these cells has the largest problems due to surface area limitations? A) Version 1
An epithelial 5
cell lining any mammal arteries may be 0.03 millimeters, and has a very flat shape. B) A normal E. coli fecal cell in the digestive tract of animals may be 0.003 millimeters, in a rounded rod or cylinder shape. C) An amoeba cell in a lake may be 0.50 millimeters, and variable in shape with many long, narrow extensions of the cell. D) A human egg cell is often 0.13 millimeters, and
is spherical in shape. E) A normal Vibrio cholorea bacterium found in contaminated water may be 0.005 millimeters, in a long curved rod shape.
20) The primary structural molecule composing a cell membrane is a(n)
A) protein molecule. B) enzyme molecule. C) cholesterol molecule. D) phospholipid molecule.
21)
E) sugar molecule attached to a protein.
A phospholipid molecule has
A) hydrophobic tails that are attracted to water. B) a hydrophobic head that is repelled by water. C) a hydrophilic head that is repelled by water. D) a hydrophilic head that is attracted to water.
E) hydrophilic tails that are repelled by water.
22) Which of the following is not a description of the cell membrane?
A) It is a fluid structure. B) It is a rigid structure. C) It is composed of phospholipid molecules.
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D) It is a bilayered structure. E) It is a mosaic structure.
6
23)
Microscope rulers measure microorganisms in
micrometers (μm). How
A) 100,000 B) 100 C) 10 D) 1,000,000 E) 1,000
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7
24)
A prokaryotic cell
A) is at least 10 micrometers in diameter. B) has a nucleus. C) has a cell wall made of chitin. D) does not have a nucleus.
25) Consider that you have access to use fluorescent tagging of specific proteins and view cells in a confocal microscope. You isolate a cell with the fluorescent dyes, showing that a very tiny, single-celled organism that has a cell
A) a plant. B) a prokaryote.
26)
E) has membrane-bounded organelles.
membrane and a cell wall but lacks internal specialized compartments. You identify this as C) a eukaryote. D) a yeast. E) an animal.
A eukaryotic cell
A) has a cell wall with peptidoglycan. B) is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell. C) does not have membrane-bounded organelles. D) has membrane-bounded organelles.
27) In a class field trip, you scrape what looks like an organism off of a stream rock. Through the semester, with chemical analysis and electron microscopes, you determine that the cell has DNA, RNA, ribosomes, a cell membrane, and
E) does not usually have a nucleus.
cytoplasm. This helps you determine that
domain. A) this organism you collected is in the Eukarya domain. B) this organism you collected is in the Archaea domain. C) this organism you collected is in the Bacteria Version 1
8
D) this is an unusual plant that you collected from the stream. E) this is an organism with cells having common features with all life.
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9
28) are
The three domains in the Woese classification system
A) Monera, Bacteria, and Eukarya. B) Archaea, Eukarya, and Protista. C) Monera, Bacteria, and Animalia.
D) Fungi, Protista, and Animalia. E) Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.
29) Domain Eukarya is the most diverse of the three domains. This domain includes all of the following except
A) protists. B) fungi.
30)
C) animals. D) plants. E) bacteria.
Penicillin halts bacterial infections by
A) stimulating a person's immune system. B) damaging the cell membrane. C) interfering with the construction of the cell wall. D) causing the DNA of a bacterium to mutate.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
31) Some members of the Archaea domain are often referred to as extremophiles because many live in conditions of extreme
A) temperature. B) salinity. C) heat.
D) acidity. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
32) The theory of endosymbiosis is based on Version 1
10
A) similarities between chloroplasts and other organelles in animals. B) evidence from the fossil record. C) the knowledge that ribosomes are structures found in bacteria, plants, and animals. D) the experiments in which bacteria were made to
grow in plant cells forming chloroplasts. E) the observations that chloroplasts and mitochondria resemble bacteria.
33) An organelle found in plant cells and some members of the kingdom Protista but not in animal cells is a
A) mitochondrion. B) chloroplast. C) Golgi apparatus.
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum. E) lysosome.
34) The most prominent organelle visible in most eukaryotic cells is the
A) chloroplast. B) endoplasmic reticulum. C) mitochondrion.
35)
D) nucleus. E) cell membrane.
The function of the nucleolus is
A) the transport of material into and out of the nucleus. B) the assembly of ribosome components. C) protein synthesis.
D) the assembly of mRNA. E) photosynthesis.
36) Between the specialized functions of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, neither have the ability to A)
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produce
11
mRNA. B) produce lipids. C) detoxify poisons. D) form vesicles for transport to the Golgi apparatus.
37)
E) proteins.
produce
The Golgi apparatus is not D) A) involved with secretion of cellular substances. B) an organelle. C) studded with ribosomes.
a processing
center. E) a stack of membrane-enclosed sacs.
38) The main organelles and structures involved by distinct function with milk production and secretion in their correct sequence are
A) nucleus, smooth ER, rough ER, nuclear pore, transport vesicle, Golgi apparatus, and vesicle for secretion. B) nucleus, transport vesicle, rough ER, smooth ER, Golgi aparatus, and vesicle for secretion. C) nucleus, nuclear pore, Golgi apparatus, rough ER, transport vesicle, smooth ER, and vesicle for secretion.
D) nucleus, nuclear pore, rough ER, smooth ER, transport vesicle, Golgi apparatus, and vesicle for secretion. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
39) Which of the following organelles contain enzymes involved in cellular digestion?
A) lysosomes and chloroplasts B) peroxisomes and smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) lysosomes and peroxisomes D) chloroplasts and rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) lysosomes and Golgi apparatus
40) Liver cells help clean your blood with a
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wide range of digestive enzymes that hydrolyze toxic molecules. Which organelle in the cells would be responsible
A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome
41) You have macrophage white blood cells that can respond to injury and infection by moving to the site of the wound. They can ingest infectious bacteria or viruses, and digest the organic molecules of what they take in. The
A) vacuoles. B) lysosome. C) peroxisome.
42)
for removing these toxins from the blood? C) vesicle D) mitochondrion E) peroxisome
digestion organelle they have is the
D) Golgi apparatus. E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Chloroplasts are not
A) organelles that carry out photosynthesis. B) found in some members of the kingdom Protista. C) found in plants.
D) responsible for cellular respiration. E) glucose synthesizers.
43) Of the following, which statement is false regarding the characteristics of mitochondria?
A) Mitochondria are involved in extracting energy from food. B) Mitochondria have two membrane layers. C) Mitochondria carry out photosynthesis.
D) Mitochondria have cristae. E) Mitochondria have their own DNA.
44) A common hypothesis and casual Version 1
13
assumption is that dogs originated from wolves. Because of the wide range of body sizes and shapes, other hypotheses include dog ancestry of jackals, coyotes, dingoes, or other wild dog species. In recent years, several studies have been done to clear up the lineage. One study tested the Y chromosome DNA that can only be passed down from male to
A) the mitochondrial DNA contains genes that could code for dog size. B) the mitochondria perform cellular respiration, providing energy to speed up the DNA analysis. C) the mitochondrial DNA is only passed down through females to each new generation. D) the mitochondrial DNA records the inherited
male, and the other study tested the mitochondrial DNA because
genetics of all the male and female parents of each generation. E) the mitochondrial DNA is much smaller, easier, and faster to analyze for the dog lineage.
45) In most mammals the DNA found in mitochondria is inherited from
A) neither parent. B) either the mother or father depending on the result of meiosis. C) the mother and father.
46)
the father
E)
the mother
only. only.
A central vacuole of a mature plant cell
A) produces energy from food. B) produces mRNA. C) produces turgor pressure.
47)
D)
D) stores genetic information. E) produces protein.
Which are recycling centers for the cell?
A) ribosome and Golgi apparatus B) endoplasmic reticulum and chloroplast Version 1
C) mitochondria and nucleus D) central 14
vacuole and lysosome E) All of the answer choices are correct.
48)
A cytoskeleton is
A) a structure that aids in the process of cell division. B) composed of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments. C) found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
49)
D) a system of tracks used for intracellular transport. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Cilia in eukaryote cells can
A) beat in unison to help a single cell, such as a protist, to swim. B) be used in eukaryotes to do any of these functions. C) move in unison to establish a current to move objects, as with human eggs through the reproductive tract.
D) add surface area for senses such as taste, smell, balance, and hearing. E) assist digestive tract cells in absorbing food molecules.
50) Which of these is an incorrect comparison between flagella and cilia?
A) Flagella are found in all three domains of organisms, while cilia are found only in Eukarya. B) Flagella are longer structures than cilia. C) Flagella and cilia are both used for types of cellular movement. D) Flagella have essentially the same internal
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structure of cytoskeleton proteins as cilia. E) Flagella are used for propulsion, while cilia are used to attach cells to other cells or surfaces.
15
51)
A protein channel linking the cytoplasm of adjacent
animal cells is called a(n)
A) gap B) anchoring C) microtubular D) tight E) adhering
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16
52) Nuclear pores have proteins that open and close, controlling flow of cell solutions and molecules in and out of the nuclear envelope (a double-thick membrane). In this,
A) cilia. B) anchoring junctions. C) vacuoles.
nuclear pores are similar in structure and function to
D) gap junctions. E) cytoskeleton microtubules.
53) A structure found in cells of all three domains, prokaryotes and eukaryotes, is the
A) chloroplast. B) cilium.
C) mitochondria. D) cell wall. E) ribosome.
54) What is the selective advantage of a mature red blood cell being flat rather than a sphere?
A) The cell's surface area to volume will decrease, making it easier for the cell to fit through arteries and veins. B) It provides more membrane for the electron transport chains where oxygen is consumed. C) It maximizes the relative surface area available to exchange gases. D) It saves energy by making less membrane
relative to the volume of the cell. E) It provides more sites for the membrane-bound hemoglobin molecules which transport oxygen.
55) Eukaryotic cells are 10–100 times the size of prokaryotic cells. How do eukaryotic cells resolve the surface-area-to-volume limitations that favor smaller cells?
A) None of the biochemical reactions in prokaryotes occur in eukaryotes. B) They have membrane folding similar to some Version 1
prokaryotes. C) They have pumps that move gases and nutrients through the cell. 17
D) Gases are taken up by active transport. E) Organelles keep reactions compartmentalized and
concentrated.
56) You discover a new life-form, and study it under an electron microscope. You find that its cells have no organelles, a peptidoglycan cell wall, and fatty acids in its plasma membrane. You conclude that the new life-form is in which domain?
A) Bacteria B) Archaea
57) When phospholipids are mixed with water their interact with water and their are repelled by water,
A) hydrophilic heads; hydrophobic tails B) hydrophobic heads; hydrophilic tails C) hydrophilic tails; hydrophobic heads
C) Eukarya D) Protista E) Animalia
forming a lipid bilayer.
D) hydrophilic heads; hydrophilic tails E) hydrophobic tails; hydrophilic heads
58) In order for a milk protein to be secreted in mammals, these events must happen in the correct organelle function sequence.
A)
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DNA
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transcription in the nucleus; attaching and moving mRNA with cytoskeleton; translation to build proteins in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum; secrete the milk proteins from the cell B) production of proteins in the nucleus; passage of proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum; production of mRNA at the ribosome; packaging of proteins in the Golgi apparatus C) production of proteins in the nucleus; passage of proteins through the endoplasmic reticulum; packaging of proteins in the Golgi apparatus; activation of the proteins by the mitochondrion D) DNA transcription in the nucleus; passage of mRNA out of nucleus; translation of mRNA by the ribosome;
59) A wild duck needs a steady supply of energy to be able to fly for hours. Domesticated chickens rarely fly. As a result, you would expect to find in the breast muscles
A) more Golgi apparatus B) more cytoplasm C) fewer mitochondria
packaging of proteins by the endoplasmic reticulum E) DNA transcription in the nucleus; passage of mRNA to the Golgi apparatus; translation of mRNA by the ribosome; conversion of mRNA to proteins by the cytoskeleton
of wild ducks than in domesticated chickens.
D) more mitochondria E) less cytoplasm
60) How do vesicles carrying proteins destined for secretion move to the plasma membrane?
A) They swim with cilia. B) They swim with flagella. C) along microtubules
61)
D) by diffusion E) along actin
How do sperm move to fertilize eggs?
A) with cilia made of actin B) by diffusion C) with cilia made of microtubules
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D) with flagella made of actin E) with flagella made of microtubules
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62) In muscle contraction, slide across each other.
and myosin filaments
A) actin B) tubulin C) cilia
63) In a human, the intestines need to form a barrier to prevent bacteria and other microbes from moving into the bloodstream from the gut. Which of the following would
A) cell wall B) plasmodesmata C) anchoring junction
64) Plant growth and flowering are strongly controlled by root and stem signal chemicals. Which cell connection
A) cell wall B) tight junction C) plasmodesmata
65) In plants, this type of cell connection, lined by the cell membranes and allowing transport of molecules between
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D) intermediate filaments E) flagella
prevent bacteria from moving between intestinal cells? D) tight junction E) gap junction
transports these molecules between adjacent cells? D) anchoring junction E) gap junction
cells, is the
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A) tight junction. B) plasmodesma. C) adjacent junction.
D) anchoring junction. E) gap junction.
66) You are working on a forensics team and collect some cells from a crime scene. The cells are angular, rigid, and have a cell wall made up of cellulose. This sample most likely came from a(n)
A) protist. B) plant.
C) bacterium. D) animal. E) fungus.
67) What is the role of tubulin during mitosis in eukaryotic cells?
A) It maintains cell shape with an internal scaffold structure. B) It is used to bind some adjacent cells together in animal cell junctions. C) It is necessary for the cell to grow.
D) It is necessary for the DNA to replicate. E) It pulls a cell's chromosomes apart during cell division.
68) What is the role of actin in eukaryotic cells?
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A) It provides strength in stretching and compression of a cell. B) It is necessary for the DNA to replicate. C) It forms the spindle that pulls chromosomes apart. D) It forms the structures inside flagella that allow
the bending motion for cell motion (swimming). E) It forms the centromere that holds sister chromatids together.
69) How do some marine bacteria align themselves with Earth’s magnetic field lines?
A) The oxygen concentrations in the ocean help the bacteria determine magnetic north. B) The bacteria have “magnetosomes” - small lipid bilayer spheres containing high concentrations of magnetic iron crystals. C) The bacteria use the position of the sun to
70) Richard Frankel and colleagues at California Polytechnic State University found that the ability of some marine bacteria to align themselves with Earth’s magnetic
A) take a direct path to the optimal oxygen concentration in the ocean, thereby saving energy. B) find food more efficiently. C) sense other organisms, thereby avoiding negative encounters.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 71) Cells come in a range of sizes, and a variety of shapes. Assuming a cell type has a conservative cube shape, it may have limits to size, because of the need of materials to diffuse into or out of the cell through the surface area of the cell
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determine magnetic north. D) Ocean currents allow the bacteria to swim north and south only. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
field lines is adaptive because it allows them to
D) maintain their location in the ocean current. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
membrane. Calculate the numerical changes of a cube-shaped cell from an original size of 10 μm × 10 μm × 10 μm.
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71.1) If the cell was a cube and you doubled the height, width, and length of the cell, how much would
the surface area increase?
A) eight fold B) It would stay the same.
C) six fold D) four fold E) two fold
71.2) If the cell was a cube and you doubled the height, width, and length of the cell, how much would the volume increase? D) Two fold E) Eight fold
A) Four fold B) Nine fold C) It would stay the same.
71.3) As the cell doubles in dimensions from its original size, the surface area would increase much more than the internal volume of the cell. ⊚
true
⊚
false
72) Tay-Sachs disease is an inherited neurological disorder in which a defective enzyme prohibits the hydrolysis
of phospholipids called gangliosides.
72.1) In which organelle would the defective enzyme be found?
A) endoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondrion C) Golgi apparatus
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D) cytoplasm E) lysosome
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 03 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) B 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) E 19) D Version 1
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20) D 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) D 27) E 28) E 29) E 30) C 31) E 32) E 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) E Version 1
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41) B 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) E 46) C 47) D 48) E 49) B 50) E 51) A 52) D 53) E 54) C 55) E 56) A 57) A 58) D 59) D 60) C 61) E Version 1
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62) A 63) D 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) E 68) A 69) B 70) A 71) Section Break 71.1) D 71.2) E 71.3) FALSE 72) Section Break 72.1) E
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CHAPTER 4: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A raw peanut with almost 2 Calories of energy has 2,000 times the energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram water by 1°C. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) You are cold. Your body begins a shivering response. You quickly rub your hands together, and the friction produces a small amount of heat. The heat is evidence of increasing entropy. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Each protein in an electron transport chain is sequentially oxidized, then reduced, allowing small amounts of energy to be released for use by the cell during each transfer. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Cofactors, required to stabilize enzymes, are often in our diets as vitamins, minerals, and metals. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Whenever ATP is produced by a chemical reaction, some energy is lost into the surroundings as heat. ⊚
true
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⊚
false
1
6) The first and second laws of thermodynamics apply to nonliving systems like gasoline engines but do not apply to reactions in living cells. ⊚
true
⊚
false
7) Exergonic reactions do not require activation energy to get started. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) Reduction is the gain of electrons by an atom or molecule. ⊚
true
⊚
9)
An enzyme is a lipid that catalyzes chemical reactions.
⊚
true
⊚
false
false
10) When an end product of a reaction pathway is in excess and inhibits the first enzyme of the pathway, this is an ⊚
true
⊚
example of positive feedback.
false
11) A reason that some antibiotics harm bacteria but not humans is because these antibiotics inhibit enzymes only found in bacteria.
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