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MCQ QUESTION  BANK  2012   IV  BDS  –  IMPLANTOLOGY    BD4J   Multiple  choice  questions   30x1=  30  marks  


1. Density of available bone in an edentulous site has a primary influence on: a. Healing time b. Surgical approach c. Implant design d. All the above

(d)

2. Requirement necessary for initial rigid fixation in implant. a. Absence of movement at the interface during healing b. Atraumatic bone preparation c. Close approximation of living bone to the biocompatible implant surface d. All the above

(d)

3. Who listed four bone qualities found in the anterior region of jaw bone? a. Branemark b. Lekholm and Zarb c. Hounfield d. Misch

(b)

4. According to Misch, region that considered in anterior maxilla as one type of bone density: a. Canine to canine b. 1st premolar to 1st premolar c. 2nd premolar to 2nd premolar d. Lateral incisor to lateral incisor

(c)


5. Lekholm and Zarb listed bone quality according to which region? a. Anterior and posterior region of maxilla and mandible b. Anterior region of maxilla and mandible c. Posterior region of maxilla and mandible d. Anterior of maxilla and posterior of mandible

(b)

6. Bone density MOST precisely determined before surgery by _________________. a. Periapical radiograph b. Lateral cephalometric image c. Computed tomography d. OPG

(c)

7. What can be determined during implant osteotomy? a. Density of trabecular bone b. Presence of a crestal cortical bone c. Thickness of crestal cortical bone d. All the above

(d)

8. Presence of cortical bone is true , except a. Increase overall strength b. Increase modulus of elasticity c. Decrease resorption d. D4 has little or no cortical bone

(c)


9. Strength of the bone from strong to weak. a. D2, D4, D1, D3 b. D1, D2, D3, D4 c. D4, D3, D2, D1 d. D3, D1, D4, D2

(b)

10. Histological composition of D1 bone: a. Dense lamellar bone b. Complete haversian system c. Highly mineralized d. All the above

(d)

11. Method of preventing overheating during osteotomy, except a. 50ml/min of sterile physiologic saline b. Intravenous dextrose solution( D W) c. Intermittent pressure on drill d. Distilled water

12. Factors related to heat generated during implant osteotomy, except a. Amount of bone being prepared b. Amount of bleeding c. Drill speed

(d)


d. Variation in cortical thicknes

(b)

13. Reason of using bone tap in D1 bone a. Allow passive implant fit b. Removes drill remnants c. Short of full osteotomy depth d. All the above

(d)

14. How much higher the temperature from normal (40°C) can caused necrosis of the bone? a. 1°C b. 3°C c. 4°C d. 5°C

(b)

15. Following colour of bone shaving is true, except a. Yellowish indicates healthy bone b. Beige colouration indicates excessive heat being generated c. Brownish indicates bone cell death d. Reddish indicates vital bone

16. Bone tap should used with a _______________ in D1 bone a. Handpiece b. Surgical mallet and irrigation

(a)


c. Hand ratchet and irrigation d. Hand wrench and irrigation

(c)

17. Ideal implant length for D1 bone using 4mm diameter implant a. 8mm b. 10mm c. 12mm d. 13mm

(c)

18. Blood supply for D1 bone is from ____________ a. Blood vessels b. Bone marrow c. Periosteum d. Lymphatic

(c)

19. Advantages of D2 bone, except a. Provides excellent implant interface healing b. Copious cooled sterile is not needed c. Allow more bleeding d. Provides initial rigid interface

20. Duration for healing of D2 bone

(b)


a. 1 month b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

(b)

21. Duration of time required for bone healing from short to long duration: a. D4, D3, D2, D1 b. D1, D2, D3, D4 c. D2, D3, D4, D1 d. D1, D4, D3, D2

(a)

22. Higher risk to lower risk of overheating during osteotomy preparation: a. D4, D3, D2, D1 b. D1, D2, D3, D4 c. D2, D3, D4, D1 d. D1, D4, D3, D2

(b)

23. Disadvantages of D3 bone a. Anterior maxilla often is narrow b. Oversize by mistake c. One time implant placement d. All the above

24. Final size drills, number and speed for D3 bone

(d)


a. Increase number in sequence Increase speed 2500 rpm b. Manufacturer’s protocol 1500-2500rpm c. Decrease final size, decrease number 2500 rpm d. Minimum number, decrease final size, Osteotome

(c)

25. Time frame for atraumatic healing for D3 bone: a. 2 months and more b. 3 months and more c. 4 months and more d. 5 months and more

(d)

26. Disadvantage of D4 bone, except, a. implant need coating b. one time implant placed c. increased find width and length d. additional implant indicated

(c)

27. For D4, ___________ are used after the initial pilot drill to prepare the osteotomy. a. Bone compaction b. Bone tap


c. Handpiece d. Surgical mallet

(a)

28. Reason that caused more time for healing of D4 bone, except a. Amount of osteoblast is less b. Allow bone to remodel at the surface c. To intensify its trabecular pattern d. Advanced bone mineralization and increased strength

(a)

29. Implant choice I the wide posterior maxilla with D4 bone, except a. Greater diameter b. Smaller diameter c. Rougher surface d. H-A coated threaded

30.ADVANTAGES OF IMPLANT SUPPORTED OVERDENTURES ARE: a.

MINIMUM BONE LOSS

b.

DECREASED OCCLUSAL EFFICIENCY

c.

INCREASED PROSTHESIS SIZE

d.

LESS SUPPORT

ANS: A 31) A PROSTHESIS WITH HINGE AND APICAL MOVEMENT IS: a.

PM-1

b.

PM-2

c.

PM-3

(b)


d.

PM -4

ANS: C 32) A PM-4 IS RARELY CREATED WITH AN OVERDENTURE SYSTEM BECAUSE OF: a.

RANGE OF MOTION

b.

RESTORATION MAY BE REMOVED

c.

EXPENSIVE

d.

BOTH a. AND b.

ANS: D 33) ANTERIOR MANDIBLE IS THE PREFERRED SITE BECAUSE OF: a.

RETENTION

b.

GREATEST AVAILABLE HEIGHT

c.

OPTIMUM DENSITY OF BONE

d.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

ANS: D 34) THE TYPE OF ATTACHMENT USED IN OD- 1 IS a.

O- RING DESIGN

b.

DOLDER BAR

c.

HADER BAR

d.

CLIP ATTACHMENT

ANS: A 35) PATIENT SELECTION CRITERIA FOR OD-1 IS: a.

TAPERED ARCH FORM

b.

COST

c.

IMPROVED HYGIENE

d.

ADDITIONAL IMPLANTS TO BE INSERTED IN 3YRS TIME

e.

ALL THE ABOVE


ANS: E 36) DISADVANTAGE OF THE OD-1 COMPARED TO OTHERS: a.

SUPPORT AND STABILITY

b.

EASY MAINTENANCE

c.

BONE LOSS

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: A

37 ) PROSTHESIS MIGHT NOT ENGAGE ONE IMPLANT PROPERLY BECAUSE OF: a.

IMPROPER ANGULATION

b.

EQUAL DISTANCE

c.

IMPROPER HEIGHT

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: A 38) FOR IDEAL INSERTION AND FUNCTION THE TWO IMPLANTS SHOULD BE: a.

PARALLEL

b.

PERPENDICULAR TO THE OCCLUSAL PLANE

C.

EQUAL DISTANCE OFF THE MIDLINE

D.

ALL THE ABOVE

ANS: d 39) ADVANTAGE OF OD-1 OVER OD-2 IS:

ANS: C

a.

DECREASED COST

b.

ATTACHMENT OF CANTILEVER BAR

c.

REDUCED LOADING FORCES

d.

INCREASED RESORPTION


40) THE ADVANTAGE OF PLACING CLIPS NEAR THE IMPLANT IS: a.

PREVENTS THE ROTATION OF THE PROSTHESIS

b.

RETENTION

c.

BETTER ATTACHMENT ON A CURVED BAR

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: A

41)

THE DISTANCE BETWEEN A & E IMPLANT REPRESENTS A SPAN OF: a.

4 TEETH

b.

7 TEETH

c.

6 TEETH

d.

8 TEETH

ANS: C 42)

INCREASE IN SUPERSTRUCTURE MOVEMENT MAY RESULT IN: a.

POOR RETENTION

b.

FLEXIBILITY

c.

ROTATION

d.

LOOSENING OF THE COPING SCREWS

ANS: D 43)

THE FLEXURE OF SUPERSTRUCTURE IS

ANS: C

a.

7 times

b.

6 times

c.

5 times

d.

2 times

GREATER THAN B&D LOCATIONS


44)

THE ADVANTAGE OF IMPLANTS AT A&E OVER B&D ARE: a.

GREATER POTENTIAL LOAD PER SURFACE AREA

b.

MORE LATERAL STABILITY

c.

INCREASED BITE FORCE POSTERIORLY

d.

ALL THE ABOVE

ANS: D 45)

USE OF ADDITIONAL IMPLANT CAUSES: a.

INCREASED COST

b.

BONE RESORPTION

c.

DECREASE IMPLANT and PROSTHETIC RISKS

d.

LESS MOVEMENTS

ANS: C 46)

RISK FACTORS IN TREATMENT OPTION: a.

LENGTH OF EDENTULOUS SPAN

b.

POSITION OF CONNECTING BAR

c.

FORCES ON ABUTMENTS

d.

FLEXURE OF METAL SPAN

e.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

ANS: E 47) IN OVERDENTURE OPTION-3 THREE ROOT FORM IMPLANTS ARE PLACED AT:

ANS: C

a.

B , D &E POSITIONS

b.

C, D& E POSITIONS

c.

A, C & E POSITIONS

d.

A, D & E POSITIONS


48) ADVANTAGES OF 3 ROOT IMPLANTS OVER B&D ARE: a.

LESS SCREW LOOSENING

b.

SIXFOLD REDUCTION IN SUPERSTRUCTURE FLEXURE

c.

INCREASED FORCES

d.

BOTH a & b

ANS: D 49)

THE TREATMENT OPTION FOR PATIENTS WITH RETENTION & STABILITY AS PRIMARY CONCERN IS: a.

OD-1

b.

OD- 2

c.

OD- 3

d.

OD- 4

ANS: C 50)

IF THE POSTERIOR RIDGE FORM IS POOR , THE BEST PLACE FOR IMPLANT POSITIONS ARE: a.

ABC POSITION

b.

BCD POSITION

c.

CDE POSITION

d.

BCE POSITION

ANS: B 51)

OD-4 PROVIDESSUFFICIENT SUPPORT TO INCLUDE A DISTAL CANTILEVER UPTO a.

5mm ON EACH SIDE

b.

5mm ON ONE SIDE AND 6mm ON THE OTHER SIDE

c.

10mm ON EACH SIDE

d.

12mm ON EACH SIDE

ANS: C 52)

THE ONLY FACTOR TO DETERMINE THE LENGTH OF THE CANTILEVER IS: a.

RIDGE EXTENSION


b.

NUMBER OF IMPLANTS

c.

QUALITY OF THE RIDGE

d.

A-P SPREAD

ANS: D 53) FOR OD-4 THE CANTILEVER MAY BE a.

3 TIMES

b.

1.5 TIMES

c.

2 TIMES

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

TIMES THE A-P SPREAD:

ANS: B 54)

THE TREATMENT OPTION FOR CONTINUED BONE LOSS AND DEMANDING PATIENT WILL BE a.

OD- 3

b.

OD- 4

c.

OD- 5

d.

NONE OF THE ABOVE

ANS: C

55. Following are the patients factors affecting the stress environment of implant, except:A)crown-height space B)arch position C)shape of arch D)nature of opposing arch Ans-c 56. Parafunctional forces are due to


a) Functional tooth contact b) No tooth contact c) Non functional tooth contact d) None Ans-c 57. The clinical signs of bruxism includes:a)increase in size of temporal and masseter muscle b) deviation of lower jaw on opening c) scalloped border of tongue d) a and b ans- d 58. The most common complication of implant prosthesis restored along “pathway of distruction� in a bruxism patient are:a) Crestal bone loss b) Periodontal problem c) Alveolar bone fracture d) None Ans a 59. Fatigue fractures of implant prosthesis along the fatigue curve are common in:a. Severe attrition b. Opposing restorations c. Parafunctional habits d. None Ans- c


60. The most commonest clinical sign of parafunctional habit are:a) Vertical fracture of root b)

Vertical fracture of crown

c)

Horizontal cervical abfraction lines

d)

Horizontal fracture of crown

Ans- c 61. The commonest cause of implant failure in a soft tissue supported prosthesis are:a) Skeletal discrepancies b) Poor oral hygiene c) Parafunction d) Occlusal anomalies Ans- c 62. The ideal crown height space required for a fixed implant prosthesis ranger from:a) 6-10 mm b) 8-12mm c) 3-4 mm d) 4-6 mm Ans- b 63. Crown height space in implant dentistry is measured from:a) From occlusal table to subgingival margins b) From occlusal plane to crest of the bone c) From cusp tip to subgingival margin d) From cusp tip to crest of bone Ans- b


64. Excessive crown height space, a) Cause excessive stress on crestal bone leading to implant failure b) Increase mechanical complications in fixed prosthesis c)

Results from excessive vertical loss of alveolar bone

d) All of the above Ans- d 65. Surgical treatment of excessive crown height:a) Bone augmentation b) Distraction osteogenesis c) Bone graft d) All the above Ans- d 66. Maximum bite forces are greater in:a) Anterior region of region of jaw b) Posterior region of jaw c) Both are equal Ans-b 67. Masticatory muscle dynamics depends on a) Age b) Sex c) Diet d) All the above Ans- d 68. The ideal arch position for an implant placement


a) Posterior maxilla b) Anterior maxilla c) Posterior mandible d) Anterior mandible Ans – d 69. The arch position which is at risk for failure of an implant (least favourable) a) Posterior maxilla b) Posterior mandible c) Anterior maxilla d) Anterior mandible Ans – a 70. The best method to reduce the risk of biomechanical overload on implant is to a) Increase the tissue support area b) Increase the number of implant c) Increase the surface area of implant d) Decrease in the diameter of the implant Ans – b 71. The muscle that is more often over used by a bruxing or clenching patient a) Masseter b) Temporalis c) Lateral pterygoid d) Medial pterygoid Ans – c 72. Common cause of implant failure during healing


a) Infection b) Suppuration c) Parafunction d) Poor oral hygiene Ans – c 73. Creep (deformation of material) is seen mainly in a) Bruxism b) Clenching c) Tongue thrusting d) All the above Ans – b 74. Stresses during clenching episodes can be reduced by a) Surgical covering of implants with soft tissue during healing b) Using night guard with acrylic shell and soft resilient liner c) Relieving the high stress area d) None Ans – b 75. Nonfunctional wear facets on incisal edges may occur in a) Clenching b) Tongue thrusting c) Bruxism d) All the above Ans – a 76. Bruxism patient is at greater risk of fatigue fracture because


a) The magnitude of forces increases over time as muscles become stronger b) The number of cycles increases on prosthetic component c) Both a and b d) None Ans – c 77. Implant treatment plan when inserted in posterior region in a bruxism patient a) Additional implants that are wider in diameter b) Additional implants that are shorter in diameter c) By avoiding posterior interferences during excursions d) Both a and c e) Both b and c Ans – d 78. Benefits of eliminating posterior lateral occlusal contacts during excursive movements in bruxism patient are a) Because lateral forces increases stress at implant bone interfaces b) Elimination diminishes the negative effect of angle forces during bruxism c) All muscle fibers during excursions contract and place higher forces on anterior implants d) All the above Ans – d 79. Force magnifiers includes a) Screw b) Pulley c) Inclined plane d) Lever


e) All the above Ans – e 80. Bite force acting on each tooth a) 20 – 30 psi b) 30 – 40 psi c) 50 – 55 psi d) 60 – 70 psi Ans – a 81. Patient factors that are absolute contraindication for an implant prosthesis a) Bruxism b) Clenching c) Tongue thrusting d) None Ans – d 82. Indicated fixed prosthesis for an excessive crown – height space a) FP 1 b) FP2 c) FP3 d) All of the above Ans – c

83. Perioral forces of tongue and circum load musculature may generate low but frequent ______ on implant abutment.

a. Harizontal load


b. Virtual load c. Occlusal load d. All the above Ans: a 84.

Dominant clinical loading axis exist in implant dentistry is

a. Mesiodistal b. Faciolingual c. Occlusoapial d. All the above Ans: d 85.

The Process by which 3 dimensional forces are broken down into their component parts is

referred to

a. Lateral loading b. Vector resolution c. Implant failure d. None of the above Ans: b

86.

Shear forces on implant causes

a. Pushing b. Tension c. Pulling d. Sliding Ans: d

87.

Offset loading on single tooth or multiple abutment restoration results in

a. bone loss


b. Shear forces c. Implant failure d. Bending load Ans: d

88.

Magnitude of stress depends on

a. Force b. Cross sectional area over force is dissipated c. Both a &b d. Implant placement Ans: c

89.

Magnitude of the force may be decreased by reducing

a. Cantilever length b. Offset loads c. Crown height d. All the above Ans: d

90.

A functional cross – sectional area is defined as that surface that participates significantly in load

bearing of stress dissipation may be optimized by

a. Increasing the number of implants for a given edentulous site b. Decreasing the circumference areas c. Decreasing the implant height d. None of the above Ans: a


91.

Load applied to a dental implant may induce

a. Displacement b. Mobility c. Deformation d. Pain Ans: c

92.

Poisson’s ratio (u) for tensile loading is

a. Lateral Strain / Axial Strain b. Axial Strain / Lateral Strain c. Axial Strain / Tenside Strain d. Tensile Strain / Axial Strain Ans: a

93.

Excessively long cantilever bridge or bar sections may result in

a. Bone resorption b. Prosthetic screw loosening c. Bridge or bar fracture d. All the above Ans: d

94.

Which arch form has the longest cantilever design?\

a. Square arch b. Tapered arch c. Rectangular arch d. Square & Tapered arch


Ans: b

95.

The stress level below which and implant biomaterial can be loaded indefinitely is referred to

a. Stress limit b. Fatigue limit c. Endurance limit d. None of the above Ans: c

96

Magnitude of loads on dental implants can be reduced by careful consideration of

a. Size of implant b. Length of implant c. Bone density d. Arch position Ans: d

97.

-------- tend to maintain the integrity of a bone implant interface

a. Compressive force b. tensile force c. Shear force d. All the above Ans: a

98.

Corticol bone is weakest in

a. Tensile force b. Compressive force


c. Shear force d. None of the above Ans: c

99.

The manner in which a force is distributed over a surface is referred to as

a. Strain b. Mechanical stress c. Occlusal load d. All the above Ans: b

100.

Peak Stressor occur when the stress element is positioned in a particular orientation in which all

shear stress components are

a. Above 90o b. Below 90o c. Zero d. Above 45o Ans: c

101.

Elongation of biomaterials used for surgical dental implants ranger from

a. 0 – 55 b. 10 – 20 c. 15 – 40 d. 60 – 72 Ans: a


102..

Titanium is less flexible than

a. Alveolar bone b. Surrounding tissue c. Cortical bone d. All the above Ans : c

103.

When stress magnitude increases, the relative stiffness difference between bone & titanium

a. Increases b. Decreases c. Equal d. None of the above Ans: a

104.

Factors influencing fatigue failure in implant dentistry

a. Bio material b. Macrogeometry c. Force magnitude d. All the above Ans: d

105.

Decreasing stress in soft bone because

a. Softer bone exhibits lower ultimate strength b. Softer bone exhibits higher ultimate strength c. There will be loss of alveolar bone d. None of the above


Ans: a

106) Establishment of a soft tissue seal around the ____of the implant can enhance its success

a) Surface b) Transmucosal portion c) None of the above d) Both a and b

Ans: (d)

107) Clinical findings of failing implants include

a) Inflammation b) Pockets c) Progrssive bone loss d) All of the above

108) A history of ___ has a greater impact on the Success / failure of implants

a) Traumatic extraction

Ans: (d)


b) Pre-prosthetic surgery c) Periodontitis d) Dental caries

109) Specific pathogens in implant pockets, greater

Ans: (c)

than 6mm include

a) P. intermedia b) Bacteroides c) T.forsythia d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

110) Which of the following statements are true?

a) Natural dentition with implants are at a lesser risk for implant infections completely edentulous patients b) Early colonizers are- gram positive cocci c) Current chemotherapeutics cannot penetrate thick biofilm d) Both ‘b’ and’c’ are true

Ans: (d)

111) Recommendations for maintenance of titanium implants include:

a) Use of sonic and ultrasonic scalers b) Use of non-metallic, plastic and Teflon coated instruments c) Use of stainless steel tipped instruments d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

compared with


112) A thorough review of ____ is essential before commencing any maintenance procedures

a) Patient’s oral hygiene b) Age c) Mucoepithelial attachment d) All of the above

113) Removal of ____ with the use of a tooth brush composition of sub-gingival microbiota

Ans: (c)

can significantly reduce the amount and

a) Food debris b) Supra gingival plaque c) Sub gingival plaque d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

114) When choosing and recommending implements for Oral hygiene, the clinician should take into Consideration, all except:

a) Patient’s habits b) Manual dexterity of the patient c) Location, length and angulation of abutments d) None of the above 115) Plaque biofilm of failing implants consists largely of? a) Gram positive rods b) Gram negative rods

Ans: (d)


c) Gram positive cocci d) Gram negative cocci

Ans: (b)

116) The following are the features of peri- implantitis a) Associated with plaque biofilm b) reversible c) loss of bone d) none of the above

Ans : (c)

117) Vertical bone loss should be less then ___ for the success of an implant a) 0.2mm b) 0.4mm c) 0.6mm d) 0.8mm

Ans: (a)

118) All are ideal clinical conditions for natural teeth except a) Absence of pain b) Less than 0.65mm of secondary mobility c) Less than 0.5mm of initial horizontal mobility d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

Ans: (d)

119) The implant quality scale based on clinical evaluation was agreed upon by Congress of Implantologists in a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2008

Ans: (c)

120) Clinical resolution of peri-implant mucositis can be achieved by a) Antibiotic therapy b) Mechanical therapy alone

the International


c) Mechanical therapy with chlorhexidine d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

Ans: (d)

121) Progression of periodontitis with major loss of alveolar bone support increased tooth mobility, furcation involvement in multi-rooted teeth is

usually accompanied by

a) Gingivitis b) Moderate periodontitis c) Advanced periodontitis d) Refractory progressive periodontitis

Ans: (d)

122) In slight periodontitis, periodontal probing depth is a) 1-2mm b) 2-3mm c) 3-4mm d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

123) Which of the following is a criteria to suggest compromised health of the implant a) Probing depth >5mm b) Radiographic bone loss >4mm c) Presence of mobility d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

124) Gingivoplasty can be used for management of a) Satisfactory health b) Compromised health c) Clinical or absolute failure

Ans: (d)

implants with


d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

125) No history of exudates is seen in implants with a) Optimum health b) Satisfactory health c) Compromised health d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

126) Mobility of the implant is seen in a) Clinical/ absolute failure b) Compromised health c) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’ d) Optimum health

Ans: (b)

127) In the implant quality scale, arrange the following groups in order A. Failure B. Satisfactory health C. Compromised health D. Success

a) A,B,C,D b) D,C,B,A c) D,B,C,A d) C,B,D,A 128) Management of compromised health of the implant involves

Ans: (c)


a) Reduction of stresses b) Drug therapy c) Change in prosthesis d) All of the above

Ans: (d)

129) In case of failure, the conditions in which the implant should be removed are a) Pain on palpation b) Mobility >0.5mm c) None of the above d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

130) In case of rapid bone changes a) Add additional implants b) Switch to removable prosthesis c) Occlusal splint therapy d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Ans: (d)

131) Treatment in presence of exudates involves a) Removal of implant b) Topical and systemic antibiotics c) Culture and sensitivity if symptoms do not subside d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

Ans: (d)

132) Following treatment of an active infection with radiographically visible bone loss, the repaired implant should be left uncovered and out of function for


a) 5-6 wks b) 7-8 wks c) 9-10 wks d) 10-12 wks

Ans: (d)

133) If the defect cannot be closed by primary intention healing with soft tissue, the following should be used a) Resorbable membrane b) 3- poly tetrafluoroethyl membrane c) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’ d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

134) The intact HA surface should be detoxified using a) Tetracycline b) 30% citric acid c) 40% citric acid d) Any of the above

Ans: (C)

135) Citric acid should not be left on the HA surface for a) >1min b) >2min c) >3min d) >4min

Ans: (a)

136. Following are true about the labial cortical plate in the anterior except:

a) Labial cortical plate over the natural teeth is much thinner than the lingual part. b) Dehiscence of the labial plate may occur as a consequence of tooth eruption,


orthodontic therapy. c) Labial plate is the last to remodel or resorb after tooth extraction, disease. d) Periodontal disease creates infrabony defects on the lingual aspect of the supporting bone but often causes complete loss of the labial alveolar process. ANS: C 137. Keys to bone grafting:

a) Absence of infection. b) Soft tissue infection. c) Regional acceleratory phenomenon. d) All of the above. ANS: D 138. Following are true about antibiotics used in bone grafting except:

a) Tetracycline used in PDL bone grafting to improve collagen formation. b) Tetracycline chelates calcium and arrests bone formation process. c) Parenteral penicillin, cephalosporin or clindamycin mixed into graft material, which affects the bone regeneration process. d) Both A and B ANS: C 139. Soft tissue flap design:

a) Should have the margins of the wound over host bone rather than on the bone graft. b) Margins distal to the elevated flap should have maximal reflection. c) Palatal flap and facial tissue distal to the reflected flap should not be elevated from the palatal bone. d) Both A and C are correct. ANS: D 140 . Sub mucosal space technique:


a) Very effective to achieve tension free closure over large graft sites. b) Does not have side effects. c) Soft tissue grafts or vestibuloplasties is not required after bone grafting when within the esthetic zone. d) Sharp dissection technique is used to create tunnel apical to the vestibule and above unreflected periosteum. ANS: A 141. Suture material used after bone grafting:

a) Silk. b) Chromic gut. c) Polyglycolic acid. d) All of the above. ANS: C 142. Horizontal mattress suture is used:

a) In mandible when the floor of the mouth in proximity to the lingual flap and the tissue is thin. b) Facial flap with strong muscle pull on soft tissue. c) In combination with continuous suture to close large soft tissue spans. d) All of the above. ANS: D 143. Following are true about space maintenance except:

a) Space refers to anatomical size and contour of desired augmentation. b) Maintenance refers to space must exist enough for bone to bone to fill desired region. c) Tent screw, titanium reinforced membranes and graft material beneath membrane is not advocated to maintain the desired space during augmentation process. d) ‘Barrier by bulk’ concept is best when larger graft volumes, still allow primary soft tissue


closure. ANS: C 144. In regional acceleratory phenomenon, host silk during a bone graft procedure should be decorticated by drilling holes in the cortical bone. These holes provide access for trabecular bone blood vessels to graft site, expeditive revascularization:

a) Both the statements are false. b) Both the statements are true. c) First statement is true and the second is false. d) First statement is false and the second is true. ANS: B 145. in regional acceleratory phenomenon, host bone decortications is done using a bone drill:

a) 20:1 lower speed hand piece at 2500rpm. b) 20:1 high speed hand piece at 5000rpm. c) 5:1 lower speed hand piece at 2500rpm. d) 5:1 high speed hand piece at 5000rpm. ANS: A 146. Regional acceleratory phenomenon is either delayed or not initiated in following conditions except:

a) Rheumatoid phenomenon. b) Secondary osteoporosis. c) Excessive heat d) Non-infectious inflammatory injuries. ANS: D 147. Bone growth factors:

a) Enhances formation and mineralization of bone. b) Binds to specific receptors on the surface of target cells.


c) Priming present in bone matrix and releases during remodeling or after trauma. d) All of the above. ANS: D 148. Which of the following is not true about host bone blood vessels?

a) Host cortical bone contains very few arterioles, whereas cancellous bone has intensely vascular network. b) For blood vessels to penetrate into the autologous bone graft site the cortical plate has to be perforated. c) Blood vessels from the soft tissue populate the graft site with osteoblast. d) Tooth extraction socket fills with bone because the blood vessels form bone granulation tissue in the site and prevent epithelial cells from migrating into the site. ANS: C 149. Prolonged healing time is seen in following conditions except:

a) Less autogenous bone in the graft. b) More number of bony walls surrounding the site. c) Diabetes. d) Paget’s disease. ANS: B 150. Bone graft material-collagen:

a) Type V collagen first product synthesized by body when bone formation occurs. b) Source of collagen is bovine collagen from ‘Achilles’ tendon in the leg. c) Does not have chemotectic and haemostatic properties. d) Decreases healing over an extraction site. ANS: B 151. Autologous bone graft:

a) Only graft material that directly forms bone from transplanted trabecullar cells.


b) Contributes to bone graft with several growth factors that are released into the environment during in cooperation of the graft and form bone through induction. c) Should be used immediately or stored in sterile saline. d) All of the above are correct. ANS: D 152. Osteogenesis:

a) Growth of bone from viable cells transferred within the graft. b) Bone growth by apposition from surrounding bone. c) New bone formation from progenitor cells derived from primitive mesenchymal cells under the influence of inducing agents emanating from bone matrix. d) Allogenous is the only graft material available with osteogenic property. ANS: A 153. Autologous graft is stored in:

a) Blood. b) Distilled water. c) Lactated Ringer’s solution. d) Both A and B are correct. ANS: C 154. Distilled water is contraindicated as a storage media for autologous graft, as the hypotonicity results in cell lysis.

a) Both the statements are false. b) Both the statements are true. c) First statement is true and the second statement is false. d) First statement is false and the second statement is true. ANS: B 155. Following are true about the mechanism of autogenous bone graft except:


a) Phase I: osteogenesis. b) Phase II: osteoinduction. c) Phase I is related to number of cells transplanted initially dictates the amount of new bone formation that will directly form beyond the original dimensions. d) Phase IV: osteoconduction. ANS: D 156. Phase II bone formation:

a) It’s an osteoinductive process. b) Less cellular, more mineralized and organized. c) Begins after approximately 6 weeks and lasts as long as 6 months. d) All of the above are correct. ANS: D 157. Most commonly used allograft:

a) Freeze dried bone graft. b) Frozen bone graft. c) Calcium phosphate. d) Calcium sulphate. ANS: A 158. Freeze dried bone graft acts primarily through an osteoconductive process because inductive proteins are slowly released after resorption of the mineral and often found only in minute quantities:

a) Both the statements are false. b) Both the statements are true. c) First statement is true and the second statement is false. d) First is false and the second is true. ANS: B


159. Allograft:

a) Osseous transplanted tissue from the same species as the recipient bit of different genotype. b) Are fabricated from inorganic portion of the bone from animals other than human. c) Exclusively synthetic, biocompatible product developed to cover a broad range of indications. d) There is no risk of rejection and disease transmission. ANS: A 160. Bone morphogenic protein:

a) Distinct from growth factors in that they may be found in extracellular bone matrix and can induce mesenchymal cell differentiation into chondroblasts or osteoblasts. b) Have antigenic properties. c) First identified BMP’s and showed their role in inducing ectopic bone formation with DFDB. d) Both A and C are correct. ANS: D

161. Bioinert ceramics:

a) Exhibits direct bonding with the host bone and are mechanically in contact to bone. b) Example is calcium phosphate. c) Example is aluminium oxide. d) Both A and C are correct. ANS: D 162. Bioactive ceramic material:

a) Synthetic hydroxyapetite. b) Tricalcium phosphate


c) Calcium carbonate. d) All of the above. ANS: D 163. Following are true about Dense HA except:

a) Nonresorbable. b) In presence of direct bone – HA interface is observed. c) Organic substance. d) Used for placement on the facial or crestal aspect of a ridge around implants to improve soft tissue contour. ANS: C

164. Natural barrier material:

a) Thick cortical plate on the graft. b) Prevent infiltration of epithelium and connective tissue into the graft site. c) Phase IV of bone grafting. d) All of the above are correct. ANS: D

165.The frontal section of an adult skull shows the bilateral symmetry of bone morphology and functional loading, because of a.)tension loaded on the cranium by amniotic fluid. b.)human genome. c.)equal distribution of osteocytes. d.)all the above.

(b)


166.The maxilla has relatively thin cortices and are interconnected by a network of trabeculae . The maxilla is structurally similar to the body of vertebra. a.)both the statements are true b.)first statement is true and the second statement is false. c.) both the statements are false. d.)first statement is false and second

statement is true.

(a)

167.After the subcondylar fracture the condylar head is pulled medially by the superior pterygoid muscle and resorbs , then the favarable treatement is a.)bone graft followed by reduction. b.)new condyle forms if interocclusal relationship is maintained c.) bone graft followed by calcium supplement. d.)all the above.

(b)

168.The orientation of collagen fibres in bone matrix is assessed accurately by, a.)gross examination by staining. b.)rosaniline dyes like methke methyl violet. c.)periodic acid Schiff. d.)birefringence of polarized light.

(d)

169.Orthodontic tooth movement involves a.)cytokine mediated bone adaptation. b.)movement assessed by periodontal ligament. c.)bone modelling and remodelling by cytokine. d.)all the above.

170.Woven bone serves a crucial role in wound healing by all ,except

(a)


a.)rapidly filling osseous defect. b.)providing initial continuity for fractures osteotomy segment and endosseous implant. c.)strengthening the bone weakened by surgery or trauma. d.)intrusion of calcium for wound healing.

(d)

171)The one which does not come under the classification of bone tissue is, a.)composite bone. b.)bundle bone. c.)complex bone. d.)lamellor bone.

(c)

172) First generation blade implants,were thought to form a ligamentous attachement to bone , which was deemed a.)periodontium. b.)periodontal collagen fibre. c.)pseudoperiodontium. d.)periodontal ligament fibres.

(c)

173) Osteoblast, osteoclast and possibly their precursors are thought to communicate by chemical messengers known as, a.)integrins. b.)cadherin. c.)intercellular adhesion molecule. d.)coupling factors.

174) According to enlow,the overall pattern of growth of bone occurs by,

(d)


a.) external bone remodelling. b.) external bone remodelling and internal resorption. c.)only by internal resorption. d.)bone remodelling and resorption externally.

(d)

175.)Three most stable osseous landmark for superimposition of cephalomeric radiographs are all except, a.)anterior curuvature of sella turcica. b.)cribriform plate. c.)petrous part of temporal bone. d.)internal curuvature of the frontal bone.

(c)

176.)According to noorda s study, a.)remodelling is the maturation of collagen fibres. b.)remodelling is the deposition of bone. c.)remodelling is the time dependent maturation of primary cortical bone. d.) remodelling is the deposition and resorption of bone

(c)

177.)All the following are the controlling factors for bone modelling, except a.)mechanicl factors. b.)endocrine factors. c.)paracrine and autocrine factors. d.)neural factors.

178.)The rate of bone turn over is made by a.)testosterone.

(d)


b.)estrogen. c.)parathyroid hormone. d.)both (a)&(b).

(d)

179.)The primary metabolic calcium reserves of the body found in trabecular bone and in the endosteal half of the cortices.so the stiffness of the bone is directly related. a.)both the statements are true b.)first statement is true and the second statement is false. c.) both the statements are false. d.)first statement is false and second

statement is true. to the cross section area.

(d

180.)When a relatively rigid material such as bone or wire is doubled in diameter , the stiffness increases by, a.)6 times. b.)16 times. c.)4 times. d.)14 times.

(b)

181.)Implantology is a a.)bone remodelling theraphy. b.) bone manipulative theraphy. c.)both (a)&(b). d.)none of the above.

182.)Calcium homeostasis is supported by all the mechanisms, except

(b)


a.)rapid flux of calcium from bone fluid. b.)long term control of bone turnover. c.)short term response by osteoclast and osteoblast. d.)long term response by osteoclast and osteoblast.

(d)

183.)Pick out the uncorrect statement a.)formation of bone requires PTH,1,25-DHCC and calcitonin. b.)parathyroid hormone is the primary regulator of the frequency of remodelling. c.)PTH-mediated activation frequency determines mean age of bone. d.)non calcific hormones does not have any influence on bone modelling.

(d)

184.)The ideal metabolic state for maintaining skeletal mass is a.)positive calcium balance. b.)negative calcium balance. c.)zero calcium balance. d.)neutral state of calcium balance with positive calcium balance when required.

(c)

185.Dietary calcium recommended for adultosents and young adults with mean age of 11- 24 years is, a.)1000-1400 mg/day. b.)1200-1500 mg/day. c.) 1200-1500 g/day. d.) 1000-1400 g/day.

186.Most commonly calcium deficiency seen in patients with

(b)


a.)intolerance to lactose. b.)old adults>65 yrs. c.)post menopausal women. d.)obesity patients.

(a)

187.)Dentist should be aware of treating patients(implant fixation treatement) with all the following except, a.)smoking. b.)low skeletal mass. c.)osteopenia with corrective medical theraphy started. d.)metabolic bone disease.

(c)

188)Risk factors for osteoporosis / metabolic bone disease are all except, a.)smoking. b.)liver disease. c.)lack of or little physical activity. d.)excessive loading and excessive strain to the bones(less than 200µ€)

(d)

189.)Increase in modelling and concamitent decrease in remodelling takes place when, a.)less than 200µ€ is loaded. b.)200-2500 µ€ is loaded. c.)2500 µ€ is loaded. d.)4000 µ€ is loaded.

(c)

190)When flexture (strain) exceeds the normal physiologic range,bones compensate by adding new bone tissue at the,


a.)sub periosteal surface. b.)periosteal surface. c.)supra periosteal surface. d.)no mineralization occurs.

(b)

191.)Occlusal prematurities or parafunction may lead to compromise of periodontal bone support and leads to localized fatigue failure and this is a factor in all except, a.)periodontal clefting. b.)alveolar recession. c.)attrition on the occlusal surface. d.)TMJ arthrosis.

(c)

192.)The important mediators of skeletal adaptation to craniofacial growth and biochemical theraphy is, a.)cytokines. b.)facial sutures. c.)cartilaginous growth. d.)hormonal factors.

(b)

193.)The widened periodontal ligament in adjacent central incisor resulted in direct ostogenic induction of new bone , which results in , a.)expanded adjacent suture with experienced haemorrhage and necrosis. b.)neutrophil infiltration into the expanded suture. c.)expansion with haemorrhage without necrosis. d.)invasion of blood clot merely seen in the expanded suture.

(a)

194)Bone modelling and remodelling reactions occurs not only adjacent to the suture but also throughout


the nasal bones by, a.)increased turnover rate. b.)calcium intrusion. c.)injection of multiple flrochrome labels. d.)none of the above.

(c)

195)Osseointegrated implants are exceIlent abutments for sutural expansion mediated by loads as large as, a.)2N. b.)3N. c.)4N. d.) 5N .

(b)

196)For rigid orthodontic and orthopaedic anchorage, a.)tranosseous implant used. b.)rigid endosseous implant used. c.)subperisteal implant used. d.)any of the above can be used.

(b)

197.)Direct bone apposition at the endosseous interface results in, a.)rigid fixation. b.)osseintegration. c.)both (a)&(b). d.)none of the above.

198.)For internal abutment mechanism,

(c)


a.)0.019 Ă— 0.025 inch titanium molebdenum alloy anchorage wire is used. b.) titanium molebdenum alloy of any size is used. c.) 0.19 Ă— 0.25 inch titanium molebdenum alloy anchorage wire is used. d.) 0.19 Ă— 0.25 inch stainless steel wire is used.

(a)

199.)Internal abutment approach has number of advantages that includes all except, a.)minimal surgery. b.)poor oral hygine. c.)immediate loading. d.)more versatile intrusive force.

(b)

200.)Miniature screws and plates anchorage-Introduced by kanomi.effective anchorage is achieved with this. a.)both the statements are true b.)first statement is true and the second statement is false. c.) both the statements are false. d.)first statement is false and second

statement is true.

(a)

201. Which of the following is found in the premaxilla region? A) Thin porous cortical bone B) Dense cortical bone C) Fine trabecular bone D) None of the above

(c)


202. If a patient desires a fixed restoration, implants are required in the following combinations: A) The first premolar, canine and lateral incisor B) The canine ,lateral incisor and central incisor C) The canine, first premolar and second premolar D) All of the above combinations

(D)

203. An ovoid dentate arch form has implants in the canine and an additional implant in the premaxilla. When posterior teeth are missing , additional posterior implants splinted to the anterior component are necessary. A) Both statements are true B) Both statements are false C) Only the first statement is true D) Only the second statement is true

(A)

204. Which of the following dental arch form is subjected to the greatest anterior movement forces? A) Tapered dentate arch B) Ovoid dentate arch C) Square dentate arch D) All of the above

(A)

205. Which of the following is true? Dentate arch  form  

Number of  implants  

A) Square

2

B) Ovoid

3

C) Tapered

4


D) All of the above

(A)

206. Which dental arch form has the largest interimplant distance? A) Square dentate arch B) Ovoid dentate arch C) Tapered dentate arch D) None of the above

(d)

207. The usual range of interimplant papillary height is: A) 2 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 4 mm B) 4 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 6 mm C) < 2 mm D) > 6mm

(c)

208. Minimum interimplant distance: A) 1mm B) 2mm C) 3mm D) 4mm

209. Which has the lowest implant survival rate? A) Edentulous maxilla B) Edentulous mandible C) Partially dentulous mandible

(a)


D) Partially dentulous maxilla

(c)

210. The maxillary lip should be 1 to 2mm in front of the lower mandibular lip. The chin should be 2mm behind the lower lip position. A)

Both statements are true

B)

Both statements are false

C)

Only the first statement is true

D)

Only the second statement is true

(a) Â

211. Which of the following is used for lip support? A) Accelular tissue graft (AlloDerm) B) Dense hydroxyapatite (HA) C) Bone graft D) All of the above

(a)

212. Characteristics of an ideal anterior bone (Division A maxillary region) for the successful placement of a standard diameter endosteal implant: A) 6mm in width B) 12mm in height C) Crown : residual bone height is < 1 D) All of the above

213. A surgical template is placed to : A) To guide the position and angulation of the implant

(d)


B) To identify the incisal edges and the mesiodistal tooth positon in the final prosthesis C) Both A and B D) None of the above

(d)

214. The incisive foramen often expands laterally within the palatal bone and the central incisor implant osteotomy may encroach on this structure, resulting in fibrous tissue at the interface. This is prevented by : A) Placing the implant distally B) Placing the implant mesially C) Placing the implant labially D) Placing the implant palatally

(c)

215. Which of the following is true of the stop on the direction indicator? A) 4mm in diameter B) Used to evaluate the final implant position C) Used to evaluate the bone volume around the final implant site D) All of the above

(a)

216. Which of the following is true? A) FP 1 prosthesis à requires abundant bone 3mm below the future implant crown and abundant soft tissue B) FP 2 and FP 3 prosthesis à level of the soft tissue and bone is not relevant C) Both A and B D) None of the above

(d)


217. Subtraction soft tissue technique is used for : A) Recontours tissue B) Creates an emergence profile C) Increases the height of the bone D) A and B

(c)

218. Who developed the idea of bone spreading? A) Higuchi B) Dahlin C) Nkenke D) Tatum

(d)

219. The softer the trabecular bone, the lower the elastic modulus and the greater the viscoelastic nature of the ridge. Therefore, the less dense the bone, the easier the bone expansion. A) Both statements are true B) Both statements are false C) Only the first statement is true D) Only the second statement is true

220. Which division of bone is ideal for bone spreading? A) Division A B) Division B C) Both A and B

(d)


D) None of the above

(a)

221. In a c-h premaxilla, the nasal floor can be elevated : A) 0 – 4 mm in the central or lateral incisor B) 4mm in the canine region C) 5mm in the canine region D) Both A and B

(a)

222. The nasal floor is : A) 1 – 3 mm below the inferior turbinate B) 4 – 5 mm below the inferior turbinate C) 5 – 9 mm below the inferior turbinate D) 9 – 12 mm below the inferior turbinate

(d)

223. Which of the following is true about the Kiesselbach’s plexus? A) Common region for nose bleeds B) Extends to the lower and central part of the cartilaginous septum C) Subnasal graft is positioned anterior to this region D) All of the above

224. Which cranial nerve innervates the region of the subnasal graft? A) Olfactory B) Trochlear C) Trigeminal

(c)


D) Facial

(d)

225. Complications of nasal elevations include : A) Implant extending into nasal proper B) Tearing of the nasal mucosa C) Infections D) All of the above

(c)

226. Length of the incisive canal is : A) 1 – 2mm B) 10 – 20mm C) 4 – 26mm D) 20 – 30mm

(d)

227. Size of an incisive foramen implant : A) > 5mm B) Greater than the diameter of the foramen C) A and B D) None of the above

(c)

228. Complications of incisive foramen implant include : A) Implant may be pushed through the incisive canal into the nasal proper B) Bleeding from the incisive foramen C) Enucleation of the soft tissue from the foramen


D) All of the above

(c)

229. Management of bleeding from the incisive canal include the following : A) A blunt bone tap is placed into the canal and a bone mallet is used to crush bone over the artery B) Insertion of the implant C) Both A and B D) None of the above

(d)

230. Contraindication for dental implant treatment includes a. Diabetic patients b. Osteoporosis c. Patients undergoing radiation therapy d. Smokers Ans: (c)

231. An absolute contraindication for implant treatment is a. Atrophic maxilla b. Current infection c. Periodontal disease d. None of the above Ans: (d)

232. Reason why patient undergoing radiation therapy is contraindicated for implant


treatment a. Osteoporosis b. Osteoradionecrosis c. Osteomalacia d. Both (a) and (c) Ans: (b)

233. Osteoradionecrosis is a. Exposure and infection of bone following soft tissue dehiscence b. Exposure and infection of bone without soft tissue necrosis c. Formation of multiple small cavitations inside the bone d. None of the above Ans: (a)

234. Surgeries in patients undergoing radiation therapy can alleviate risk of osteoradionecrosis by the use of a. Nascent oxygen b. Hyperbaric oxygen c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above Ans: (b)

235. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of dental implant therapy? a. Psychological and mental conditions


b. Substance abuse c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above Ans: (c)

236. The parafunctional habit that must be carefully evaluated prior to implant treatment is a. Thumb sucking b. Tongue thrusting c. Bruxism d. Lip/Cheek biting Ans: (c)

237. Type I primary osteoporosis is caused by a. Age-related changes b. Malnutrition c. Menopausal changes d. Idiopathic causes Ans: (c)

238. The fundamental problem in all types of osteoporosis is a. Decreased bone mineral density b. Macroscopic porosities inside bone c. Exposure and infection of bone


d. All of the above Ans: (a)

239. Smoking and tobacco use can lead to failure of implant because a. Smoking is a known risk for osteoporosis b. Poor healing capacity c. Infection due to impaired organ function d. All of the above Ans: (d)

240. It is very important to evaluate this anatomical structure before placement of an implant in the posterior maxilla a. Posterior palatal seal area b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Maxillary sinus d. Both (a) and (c) Ans: (c)

241. Anatomical structures of maxilla pertinent to treatment planning of an implant patient a. Maxillary sinus and canine fossa b. Incisive papilla, labial and buccal frenum c. Canine fossa and incisive foramen d. Both (a) and (c) e. Both (a) and (b)


Ans: (d)

242. Anatomical structures of mandible pertinent to treatment planning of an implant patient a. Mandibular canal and submandibular fossa b. Mental foramen and lingual inclination of alveolar ridge c. Mental foramen and retromolar pad area d. Both (a) and (c) e. Both (a) and (b) Ans: (e)

243. Which of the following is recommended in a pre-implant surgery? a. Alloplast b. Autograft c. Allograft d. Xenograft Ans: (b)

244. Most common site for autograft a. Chin and ramus b. Ileac crest c. Tibia and fibula d. All of the above


Ans: (d)

245. Small bone dehiscence defects can be corrected by a. Bone graft followed by guided tissue regeneration membrane placement b. Induce bleeding from healthy bone and place guided tissue regeneration membrane c. Bone graft followed by guided bone regeneration membrane placement d. Induce bleeding from healthy bone and place guided bone regeneration membrane Ans: (a)

246. Pneumatisation is a. Reduction in bone volume due to downward growth of maxillary sinus b. Scalloping of maxillary sinus along root tips of maxillary posterior teeth c. Decrease in bone volume due to Lateral growth of maxillary sinus d. All of the above Ans: (a)

247. Contraindication for maxillary sinus elevation and bone augmentation is a. Tumor of maxillary sinus b. Allergic rhinitis/sinusitis c. Chronic topical steroid use d. Both (a) and (b) e. All of the above Ans: (e)


248. Maxillary sinus is lined by a. Motile cilia b. Specialised respiratory membrane c. Schneidarian membrane d. All of the above Ans: (d)

249. Sinus elevation by osteotome technique is used when amount of available bone is a. Less than 10mm but greater than 7mm b. Less than 7mm but greater than 4mm c. Less than 4mm but greater than 2mm d. Less than 10mm but greater than 6mm Ans: (a)

250. Bone augmentation procedure with higher success rate a. Vertical bone augmentation b. Horizontal bone augmentation c. Vertical=Horizontal d. Distraction osteogenesis Ans: (b)

251. Formation of bone by osteoblasts from the margins of the defect on the bone graft material is


a. Osteoconduction b. Osteoinduction c. Osteogenesis d. Osteoprogenesis Ans: (a)

252. Osteoinduction is a. Formation of bone by osteoblasts from the margins of the defect on the bone graft material b. Formation of bone by stimulation of osteoprogenitors from the defect c. Formation of bone through living osteoblasts from bone graft material d. Formation of bone by stimulation of osteoprogenitors from the graft Ans: (b)

253. Formation of bone through living osteoblasts from bone graft material is a. Osteoinduction b. Osteoprogenesis c. Osteoconduction d. Osteogenesis Ans: (d)

254. Complication of localized ridge augmentation a. Exposure of bone transplants b. Growth of keratinized tissues into bone space


c. Decubital ulcers d. All of the above e. Only (a) and (b) And: (d)

255. Revascularisation is better in a. Particulate bone graft b. Monocortical block graft c. Decalcified freeze dried bone d. Sectional block graft Ans: (a)

256. Primary indication to determine pre-implantation procedure evaluation a. Occlusal radiographs b. Lateral cephalometric c. Panoramic radiograph d. CT scan Ans: (d)

257. The kind of force that accelerate bone loss a. Torquing force b. Vertical force c. Lateral force d. All the above


Ans: (a)

258. Greater moment of force is formed when a. Crown:root ratio is increased b. Crown:root ratio is decreased c. Crown:root ratio is equal d. Is not affected by crown:root ratio Ans: (a)

Bone response to mechanical load

259. Mechanotransduction is a process that includes

A)mechanocoupling and biochemical B)mechanocoupling,biochemical,and effector cell response c)biochemical,mechanocoupling,effector cell response,signal transfer d)biochemical effector cell response

(d)

260. Bone response to __________ regulation A)biochemical b) physical c)biomechanical and hormonal d)hormonal

(c)


261. Osteocytes have __________ sensitivity to mechanical stimulation than osteoblasts a) higher b)lower c)no d)none of the above

(a)

262. turner et al and turner summerized the rules of bone governing bone adaptation as a)dynamic loading drives bone adaptation b)short term loading has an anabolic effect,whereas increased duration degrades bone adaptation c)abnormal strains evoke bone adaptation,whereas bone becomes accustomed to routine strain and remodelling ceases d)all of the above

(d)

263. alternate axial compression and distraction is called a)anisotropy b)dynamization c)orthrotropy d)deformation

(b)

264. in general, cell surface receptors relay information by activating a chain of events that alters the concentration of one or more smaller intercellular signalling molecule often referred to as__________ a)primary messengers b)second messengers c)tertiary messengers


d)none of the above

(b)

265. most commonly used intercellular mediators a)cyclic amp b)ca2+ c)cyclic gmp d)all of the above

(d)

266. osteoblasts forms bone by secreting____________a) type 1 collagen b) osteopontin c) osteoclastin d) all of the above

(d)

267. __________ used as a marker for bone metabolism A) Osteopontin B) Osteoclastin C) Osteocalcin D) Osteonectin

(b)

268. The term matrix protein refers to A) Collagenous protein B) Non-collagenous protein C) Collagenous and non-collagenous protein


D) None of the above

(c)

269. The most abundant protein in oraganic matrix of bone A) Type II collagen B) Type I collagen C) Type III collagen D) Type IV collagen

(b)

270. The degree to which the mechanical properties of cortical bone are dependant on its structure is reffered to as a) Anisotropy b) Isotropy c) Orthrotropy d) None of the above

(a)

271. A material is said to be orthropic if it exhibits a) Same property in all three direction b) Different properties in all three direction c) Same properties in two direction d) Different properties in two direction

(b)

272. Transversely isotropic describe a material in which _____________ exhibits the same mechanical properties a)one of the three direction


b) two of the direction c)all three direction d)none of the above

273.

(b)

isotropic exhibits____________ properties in all three direction

a)different b)same c)two same and one different d) none of the above

(b)

274. __________ is a new method used to measure the material property of bone at microstructural level a)nanoindentation b) dynamization c)indentation d)none of the above

(a)

275. A material is said to be ________if its mechanical behaviour dependant on th rate of load application a) Stiff b) Viscoelastic c) Elastic d) Deformed

(b)

276. ____________ refers to the phenomenon whereby a material continues to exhibit increasing deformation as a function of time when subjected to a constant load


A) Stress B) Strength C) Creep D) Strain

(c)

277. Fatigue strength of a material refers to a) Ultimate strength below which the material maybe repetitively subjected for an infinite number of cycles without failure b) Material continues to exhibit increasing deformation as a function of time when subjected to a constant load c) The chemical behaviour is dependant on the rate of load application d) None of the above

(a)

278. In edentulous mandible trabecular bone is continuous with the inner surface of the ______ A) Cortical plate B) Cortical shell C) Alveolar bone D) None of the above

(b)

279. In dentate mandible trabecular bone is surrounded by a A) Dense alveolar bone B) Thick cortical shell C) Both D) None of the above 280. Trabecular bone is a) Porous

(c)


b) Dense c) Porous, structurally anisotropic and inhomogenous material d) All of the above

(c)

281. Misch defined two types of trabecular bone in his clinical classification scheme for maxilla and mandible I)coarse (division 2) in anterior mandible II) fine trabecular bone in posterior mandible III) fine in anterior mandible IV) coarse trabecular bone a) I and II b) II and III c) III and Iv d) All of the above

(a)

282. Which hormone plays a vital role in bone adaptation to mechanical stimuli A) Growth hormone B) Parathyroid hormone C) Thyroid stimulating hormone D) None of the above

(b)

283. Intergrins are composed of glycoprotein subunits called A) Alpha B) Beta C) Alpha and beta D) None of the above

(b)

284. Rapid increase in c-fos mrna expression is indicative of increase proliferation and rapid __________ of mrna levels and coding bone matrix protein


a) Increase b) Decline c) Static d) None of the above

(b)

285. Osteocalcin is a) Collagenous protein b) Non collagenous c) Matrix protein d) None of the above

(b)

286. Chondrogenesis at the periosteum of the long bone possesses a) Osteogenic b) Chondrogenic c) Both d) None of the above

(c)

287. ___________ paracines that are released by osteoblast in response to mechanical strain A) Prostacyclin B) Osteocyclin C) Byglycan D) Decorin

(a)

288. Non linearity of trabecular bone measured as percent reduction in Tangent modulus

strain

A)0.4%

o.6%

b)0.2%

0.4%


c)o.1%

0.6%

d)0.5%

0.8%

(b)

289. In which division of bone loss in the maxilla, the infraorbital foramen is in close relation to the crest of alveolar ridge? A] Division A

C] Division C

B] Division B

D] Division D

(d)

290. Maxillary nerve leaves the middle cranial fossa by passing through the foramen__________. A] Ovale

C] Rotundum

B] Spinosum

D] Magnum

(c)

291. The muscle which is rarely of concern to implant surgeon is A] Levator anguli oris

C] Levator labii superioris

B] Incisivus labi superioris

D] Buccinator

(c)

292. WITCHâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;S CHIN is caused due to complete reflection of ______ Muscle for extension of subperiosteal implant A] Medial pterygoid

C] Mentalis

B] Lateral pterygoid

D] Masseter

(c)

293. Circulation of blood within long bones in young a individual is____ A] Centripetal

C] Central

B] Centrifugal

D] Both A&B

(b)

294. Abnormal circulation existing in the maxilla or mandible is ______ circulation. A] Centripetal

C] Reverse

B] Centrifugal

D] Abnormal

(a)


295. Circulation of blood within the bone in older patients_____ A] Centripetal

C] Reverse

B] Centrifugal

D] Abnormal

(a)

296. Osteonal bone is the major type of bone found in_____ of Jaws A] Cortical bone

C] Cortical & Trabecular

B] Trabecular bone

D] Fibrous

(a)

297. Bone bleeding is controlled by the use of A] cotton and gauze

C] bone wax

B] bone grafting

D] Both A&C

(c)

298. Connective tissue that surrounds the nerve is called A] Epineurium

C] Ectoneurium

B] Perineurium

D] Supraneurium

(a)

299.Mucoperiosteal flap reflection for subperiosteal implant usually exposes_____ of body of mandible A] 50%

B] 66%

C] 75%

D] 90%

(c)

300. Infraorbital foramen is located between Levator labii superioris muscle and_______ A] Orbicularis occuli

C] Levator anguli oris

B] Orbicularis oris

D] Incisivus labii superioris

(c)

301. Which is not a mandibular portion of maxillary artery A] Tympanic

C] Deep auricular

B] Masseteric

D] Middle meningeal

(b)

302. Which is not a Pterygoid portion of maxillary artery A] Masseteric

C] Medial pterygoid

B] deep auricular

D] deep temporal

(b)


303. Which is not a Pterygopalatine portion of maxillary artery A] Posterior superior alveolar

C] Sphenopalatine

B] Middle superior alveolar

D] Descending palatine

(b)

304. During Orthognathic surgery the surgeon cuts the _______artery Without compromising blood supply to maxilla A] Anterior superior alveolar

C] Posterior superior alveolar

B] Middle superior alveolar

D] All the above

(d)

305. Detaching the _____& medial pterygoid muscles without reattaching it could result in necrosis of the ramus of the mandible A] Masseter

B] Temporalis

C] Buccinator D] Lateral pterygoid

(a)

305. Buccal mucoperiosteum of the maxilla is supplied by A] Anterior superior alveolar artery

C] Buccal artery

B] Posterior superior alveolar artery

D] All the above

(d)

306. Nerve fibres of PNS show _______ capacity for regeneration to the nerves of CNS A] Greater B] Lesser

C] Equal D] both A&C

(a)

307. The main muscle of the floor of the mouth A] Hyoglossus B] Mylohyoid

C] Geniohyoid D] Genioglossus

(b)

308. Which is not a Infraorbital portion of maxillary artery A] anterior superior alveolar

C] posterior superior alveolar

B] middle superior alveolar

D] Labial

(c)

309. Muscle rarely used in implant surgery A] Masseter

C] Medial pterygoid

B] Temporalis

D] Lateral pterygoid

310. The powerful elevator and retractor is

(d)


A] Masseter

C] Medial pterygoid

B] Temporalis

D] Lateral pterygoid

(b)

311. Caninus muscle is also called A] Levator anguli oris B] Levator labii superioris

C] Incisive labii superioris D] orbicularis oris

(a)

312. Maxillary sinus opens into A] Medial wall

C] Superior meatus

B] Lateral wall

D] Middle meatus

(d)

313. Mandibular nerve passes through A] Foramen Ovale

C] Foramen Rotundum

B] Foramen Spinosum

C] Foramen Magnum

(a)

314. Main artery supplying the mandible A] Mandibular artery B] Jugular artery

C] Inferior alveolar artery D] Trigeminal artery

(c)

315. Posterior superior alveolar artery & Infra orbital artery is a branch of A] Maxillary artery

C] Mandibular artery

B] Ophthalmic artery

D] Inferior alveolar artery

(a)

316. Intraoral part of maxilla is limited by the mucobuccal fold &_____ A] Orbicularis oris

C] Levator anguli oris

B] Buccinator

D] Levator labii superioris

(a)

317. Medial wall of maxilla provides attachment to______ A] Superior nasal concha

C] Anterior nasal concha

B] Inferior nasal concha

D]Posterior nasal concha

(b)


318.Extraoral donor site of autogenous bone in implant include, A. Iliac crest B. Tibia C. tuberosity D. All the above Ans : d

319. Jaw construction in autogenous bone alone has been characterized by rapid and advance bone resorption during the ___________ years after the procedure A. 1 to 5 B. 2 to 5 C. 3 to 7 D. 3 to 5 Ans : d

320. When any discrepancy of hard tissues exist that cannot render predictable implant prosthesis treatment, the dentist can, A. Select traditional rehabilitation B. Modify patients mind by lowering expectation C. Improve available bone to the amount and form needed D. All the above Ans : d

321.

Autogenous bone graft are autogenous and able to form bone in a

A. Osteoinduction


B. Osteoconduction C. Barrier membrane approach D. All the above Ans : d

322.

Advantage of trabecular graft is _________, except,

A. Solid block form B. Permits contouring and adaptation to the recipient bone anatomy C. Maintain greater volume of bone D. Cortical bone of the outside of the graft does not act as a barrier membrane Ans : d

323.

The fibrous tissue is prevented from invading the graft site because

A. Provides additional time for angiogenesis B. Provides additional time for new bone formation below the cortical layer C. Both A and B D. None of the above Ans : c

324.

Quality of the bone formed around of implant is greater except,

A. Increase in strength B. Increase in BIC C. Decrease in modulus of elasticity D. All the above


Ans : c

325.

Advantage of iliac crest graft is, its

A. Small volume of bone B. Outer cortical bone with abundant trabecular bone beneath C. Does not fill larger bony voids D. Permits shaping of entire mandible and maxilla Ans : b

326. Major disadvantage of iliac crest graft is 30 to 90 % of rapid bone resorption, other treatment of option which often been considered is , A. Zygomatic implant in maxilla B. Pterygoid implant in maxilla C. 7 to 9mm implant in anterior mandible D. All the above Ans : d

327.

Advantage of delayed implant placement is, except,

A. Gives more strength to the prosthesis B. Graft maturation C. Possibility to address eventual post operative complication D. Precise placement of implants for intended prosthesis Ans: a

328.

Causes of implant losses include,

A. Poor implant placement at the time grafting B. Parafunctional and trauma form the overlying removal prosthesis


C. Advance uncontrolled bone lost D. All the above Ans : d

329. In iliac crest grafting, the 1st 5 to 10 months, events which occurs are, except, A. Consolidation B. Remodelling C. Revascularization D. Modelling of new bone Ans : c

330.

In maxillary bone graft, poor implant position are due to, except

A. Maxilla resorps to the distal and mandible resorps to the lingual B. Implant are placed to lingual n the maxilla C. Implant are placed to facial in the mandible D. Maxilla resorps to the mesial and manbile resorps to the facial Ans : a

331.

The subcrestal window technique has been described by,

A. Carl E.Misch B. Lymann and Miles C. Behairy and Al-Sebai D. Francine and Miles Ans : c

332.

Harvest of the iliac crest tricorticol block is used because, except


A. Prevent cortical deformities B. Limits hematoma formation C. Minimum to moderate ridge of cortical bone D. Limits the herniation of abdominal content Ans : c

333.

The best harvest site of ileum is,

A. Anterior crest B. Mid crest C. Inferior crest D. Posterior crest Ans : a

334.

Width of the division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; C bone

A. 0 to 1 mm B. 0 to 0.5 mm C. 0 to 2 mm D. 0 to 2.5 mm Ans : d

335.

Height of the division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; C bone

A. > 12mm B. < 12mm C. > 17mm


D. < 17mm Ans : b

336.

Division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; D bone are, except

A. < 20mm crown height B. Severe atrophy C. Basal bone lost D. Flattened bone Ans : a

337.

Division â&#x20AC;&#x201C; B bone height is

A. > 12mm B. < 12mm C. > 17mm D. < 17mm Ans : a

338.

Post operative analgesic in iliac crest bone grafting is,

A. Bupivacaine B. Articaine C. Cocaine D. Lidocaine Ans : a

339. Iliac crest post operative analgesic is administered through a catheter every ________ hours as needed for relieve of pain. A. 2 to 3


B. 4 to 6 C. 8 to 10 D. 6 to 12 Ans : d

340.

Iliac crest bone graft complication includes,

A. Pain B. Herniation of abdominal content C. Fracture D. Neuralgia E. All the above Ans : e

341. Improper incision at harvesting site may cause neurologic problems with injury to A. IANB ( inferior alveolar nerve block ) B. LFCN ( lateral fumerol cutaneous nerve ) C. Facial nerve D. All the above Ans : b

342. To avoid injury to LFCN during incision at the harvesting site, incisions can be made, A. Medial to the crest B. Lateral to the crest


C. A and B D. None of the above Ans : c

343.

The donor site of tibial bone grafting is approximately

A. 5 to 10mm and 2mm thick in diameter B. 2mm diameter and 5 to 10mm thick C. 2 to 10mm diameter and 5mm thick D. 10 to 15mm diameter and 2mm thick Ans: a

344. Tibial bone graft is contraindicated in __________ because possible distruption of epiphyseal growth center A. Adult B. Children C. Adolescent D. Both B and C Ans : d

345.

Division E can be due to

A. Trauma B. Disease or pathologic causes C. Surgery D. Genetics E. All the above Ans : e


346.

Vascularised bone grafts are most common indicated when

A. Blood supply is severely compromised to the graft site B. When recipient bed is scarred C. Division E bone anatomy D. All the above Ans : d

347.

Distraction osteogenesis referres to,

A. Formation of new fibrous tissues between the vascular bone surfaces B. Formation of new bone between the vascular bone surfaces created by osteotomy C. Formation of new bone between the vascular bone surfaces created by trauma D. None of the above Ans : b

348.

What are the mesiodistal length for the division A bone

A. > 7mm B. < 7mm C. > 6mm D. < 6mm Ans : a

349.

Angulations of the occlusal load for division A bone

A. < 20 degrees B. > 20 degrees


C. < 25 degrees D. < 30 degrees Ans : c

350.

Division A abundant bone often forms__________ after the extraction

A. 1 to 3 years B. Soon after extraction C. 3 to 5 years D. None of the above Ans : b

351. Which prosthesis is most often the option selected in the anterior division A bone A. FP1 B. FP2 C. FP3 D. All the above Ans : c

352.

In division A bone, the largest diameter implant lead to

A. Fracture B. Less likely to fracture C. No fracture D. Better strength Ans : b

353.

In division bone A, one piece implants require an


A. One stage approach restoration B. Submerged restoration C. Immediate restoration D. All the above Ans : c

354.

In division bone A the emergence profile angle of the crown is related to

A. Implant diameter B. Crown height space C. Implant height D. Implant mesiodistal width Ans : a

355.

What are the mesiodistal length for the division b bone

A. > 7mm B. < 7mm C. > 6mm D. < 6mm Ans : c

356.

Angulation of occlusal load for division b bone

A. < 20 degree B. < 30 degree C. < 25 degree


D. < 30 degree Ans : a

357.

What are B minus width ( b-w) in division B bone

A. 2.5 to 4mm B. 4 to 8mm C. 1.5 to 3mm D. None of the above Ans : a

358.

Treatment options are available for the division b edentulous ridge are

A. Modify the existing division b ridge to another division by osteoplasty B. Insert a narrow division b root form implant C. Modify the existing into division A by augmentation D. All the above Ans : d

359.

In division B root form less overall space means that

A. Vertical load B. Lateral loads C. Horizontal load D. All the above Ans : b

360. In division B , the distinction between B and B-W is especially important when A. Osteoplasty


B. Augmentation C. Either a and b D. None of the above Ans : c

361.

In division b, crown emergence profile is least aesthetic except for

A. Maxillary lateral or mandibular incisors B. Maxillary canine or mandibular canine C. Maxillary central incisors D. Mandibular central incisors Ans : a

362.

An alternative for the augmentation approach for division b bone

A. grafting B. bone spreading C. either A and B D. none of the above Ans : b

363. The treatment option maybe influenced by the region to be restored. Example, A. In the partially edentulous anterior maxilla, augmentation is most often selected B. Edentulous anterior mandible osteoplasty is common C. Premolar region of the posterior mandible, division B root form implant are often preferred D. All the above


Ans : d

364.

The division C ridge is deficient in

A. Width and height B. Angulations C. Length D. All the above Ans : d

365.

Angulations for occlusal load for division C bone

A. < 20 degrees B. > 20 degrees C. > 15 degrees D. < 15 degrees Ans : b

366.

Treatment option for division C bone are

A. Osteoplasty B. Root form implant C. Supraperiosteal implant D. Disc design implant E. All the above Ans : e


367.

Crown height space in division c bone are

A. > 15mm B. < 15mm C. < 20mm D. > 20mm Ans : a

368.

Width of the division C bone

A. 0 to 1mm B. 0 to 0.5 mm C. 0 to 2 mm D. 0.25 mm Ans : d

369.

Height of division C bone is

A. > 12mm B. < 12mm C. > 17mm D. < 17mm Ans : b

370. Sinus grafting is often prescribed _____________ implants in the C-H posterior maxilla A. After B. Before

placing endosteal


C. At D. None of the above Ans : b

371.

Shorter endosteal implants are the common option in the

A. Division A bone B. Division B bone C. Division C bone D. Division D bone Ans : c

372.

RP4 overdenture prosthesis is contraindicated with

A. Posterior root form in square arch form B. Anterior root forms in square arch forms C. Anterior root forms in U arch forms D. Posterior root form in U arch form Ans : b

373.

Division D bone are__________, except

A. < 20mm crown height B. Severe atrophy C. Basal bone lost D. Flattened bone Ans : a


374.

Severe atrophy can be seen in

A. Division C bone B. Division D bone C. Division E bone D. All the above Ans : b

375.

The best harvest site of the ileum is

A. Anterior crest B. Mid crest C. Posterior crest D. Inferior crest Ans : a

376. In iliac crest grafting in division D, the 1st % to 10 months events which occurs are, except A. Consolidation B. Revascularization C. Remodeling D. Modeling of the new bone Ans : b

377.

Division E can be due to,

A. Trauma B. Surgery


C. Disease D. All the above Ans : d

378.

Types of Failures of an Implant includes

a. Osseous healing fracture b. Surgical c. Early loading d. All the above d

379.

Early loading failure is

a. The period from abutment placement to the first year b. High pressure applied to the abutment c. Acts as a prosthetic abutment d. Both a and c d

380. What is the management of the implant which became prematurely exposed during the first 6 weeks after the placement? a. Soft tissue will be surgically repositioned to recover the implant once again b. Removal of implant c. Wait for another 6 weeks followed by surgical procedure d. None of the above a


381. Primary reason(s) to have the implant covered with soft tissue for 3 to 6 months a. Reduce risk of infection and apical migration of the tissues b. Reduce risk of loading or movement during initial healing c. Both a and b d. Either a or b c

382.

Stage II surgery permits

a. Indirect evaluation of bone condition b. Direct evaluation of bone condition c. Direct evaluation of hard and soft tissues d. None of the above c

383.

Early exposure of an implant causes

a. The bone becomes weak b. Cells exhibit Hyperparakeratosis and acanthosis c. Implant becomes flexible d. Spontaneous bleeding b

384. Organisms which has higher incidence to occur around the exposed implant.. a. Prevotella intermedia b. Streptococcus mutans c. Streptococcus beta hemolysin d. Both a and c


e. All the above d

385.

Procedures involved in Uncovery:

a. Soft tissue incision b. Bone-to-implant interface evaluation c. Ridge augmentation d. Both a and b e. All the above d

386.

Osteoplasty is done when there is

a. Vertical bony defect of >3mm b. Horizontal bony defect of <3mm c. Vertical bony defect of <3mm d. Horizontal bony defect of >3mm c

387. Treatment option(s) available for the management of horizontal bony defect which is more than half of implant height. a. Position the soft tissue apically; graft autogenous bone b. Osteoplasty c. Remove the implant d. Convert into vertical defect by levelling off bone c

388.

Causes of bone loss at Stage II uncovery

a. Premature implant exposure


b. Excess torque during implant insertion c. Crestal bone trauma at surgery d. All the above d

389.

A second method(s) to correct a vertical defect less than 3mm

a. Curette the defect and fill the region with an autograft b. Expose the implant with permucosal extension c. Cover the implant by a membrane with addition of the desired thickness of soft tissues d. All the above d

390.

An useful test to determine implant micromovements.

a. Mobility test b. Periotest c. Compressive test d. Vertical force (lateral) test b

391.

Indications for implant removal.

a. Prosthesis converted from a fixed restoration to a removable restoration b. For placement of an additional implant c. A larger diameter implant inserted simultaneously at different angulation d. All the above d

392.

Advantages of Reverse Torque Testing at Stage II Surgery?


a. Biomechanical measure of initial stability b. Definitive verification of initial osteointegration c. Either a or b d. Both a and b d

393. Healing abutment wider than the implant crest module may be selected when a. Implant is not countersunk below the bone b. Implant is countersunk below the bone c. Implant is not countersunk above the bone d.

Implant is countersunk above the bone

a

394.

Advantage(s) of using a wider healing abutment than crest module

a. Perimucosal tissue heals with a larger diameter than the final abutment b. Reduce risk of implant micromovement during healing c. Wider space remains around the abutment for less than 30minutes d. Both a and c d

395. The Probing depth that provide an environment that is conducive primarily to aerobic bacteria.. a. 1.5 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 4mm b. 2 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 2.5mm c. 1.5mm d. None of the above


a

396. When the maxillary lip or pontic position requires a greater support, dense hydroxyapatite is added to the.... a. Palatal bone surface of the fixed prosthesis b. Labial bone surface of the fixed prosthesis c. Labial bone surface of the removable prosthesis d. Both a and b b

397.

The natural tooth with the least amount of keratinized tissue.

a. Mandibular first premolar b. Mandibular central incisor c. Maxillary canine d. Maxillary lateral a

398.

Two main tissues that surrounds the natural teeth.

a. Attached, keratinized b. Unattached, keratinized c. Unattached, non-keratinized d. Both a and c d

399.

Types of oral mucosa found around an implant.

a. Non-keratinized, non-mobile tissue b. Non-keratinized, mobile tissue c. Keratinized, mobile tissue


d. All the above d

400.

Mothod(s) of increasing the zone of keratinized tissue.

a. Place dense hydroxyapatite around permucosal extension b. Place acellular tissue grafts over the implant c. Place an indirect coping d. Both a and b d

401.

The surrounding gingival may be recontoured by

a. Gingivoplasty b. Irreversible hydrocolloid c. Permucosal extension d. Both a and b a

402. Gingivoplasty is done with _____ bur to shape the interdental papilla around the implant abutment for FP-1 prosthesis. a. Trephine bur b. Diamond bur c. 169L bur d. Both a and b b

403.

Criteria for evaluation of a successful implants at stage II Uncovery:

a. Absence of crestal bone loss b. Adequate zone of keratinized gingival


c. Sulcus depth of 4mm d. All the above d

404.

Bone removal over or adjacent to the crestle module can be achieved by

a. Bone profile in a low-speed handpiece b. Gingivoplasty c. Bone profile in a high-speed handpiece d. None of the above

405.

a

Long term failure, describes

a. Failures between 5-10 years b. Failures between stage I and II surgery c. Failures after 10 years d. Failures during surgery c

406.

A second option to increase zone of keratinized tissue at stage II surgery.

a. Split-thickness excision at time of uncovery b. Gingivoplasty c. Split thickness incision at time of uncovery d. None of the above c

407.

An implant has a greater risk of an anaerobic environment, when

a. Flushing the region with Clorhexidine 0.12% b. Permucosal extension is done


c. Both a and b d. None of the above

d

408)Who gave the specific instructions for extracting teeth using a dental elavator? a)Chauliac b)Albukasim

c)Pierre Fauchard d)None of the above (Answer:-C)

409)Indications for atraumatic tooth extraction. a)Orthodontic Failure

c)Prosthetic Related

b)Peridontal Problem

d)All of the above (Answer:-D)

410)Connective tissue fibers surrounds the tooth indifferent places.of which,how many of them are directly inserted into the cementum of the tooth above the bone? a)9

c)6

b)13

d)4 (Answer:-C)

411)A period of 10 to 30 seconds is allowed to elapse while the extracting instrument is in place.Why is it so? a)To allow proper positioning of the instrument b)To allow wedging effect to take over c)To allow biomechanical creep to occur d)None of the above (Answer:-C) 412)The dental extractor uses which class lever mechanics? a)First Class

b)Second Class

c)Third Class

d)All of the above


(Answer:-A) 413)The socket with five bony walls are regenerates bone by a)Primary Intention

c)A and B

b)Secondary Intention

d)None of the above (Answer:-B)

414)Healing sequence in a hard tissue. a)Epithelialization,Fibroplasia,Inflammation and Remodeling b)Fibroplasia,Remodeling,Inflammation and Epithelialization c)Epithelialization,Inflammation,Fibroplasia and Remodeling d)Inflammation,Epithelialization,Fibroplasia and Remodeling (Answer:-D) 415)The new bone formation stage begins as early as a)Third day after extraction

c)Third week after extraction

b)First week after extraction

d)Sixth day after extraction (Answer:-C)

416)The complete process of a healthy socket healing takes a)4-6 months

c)2-3 weeks

b)2-3 months

d)None of the above (Answer:-A)

417)Socket Grafting can be done using these materials except a)Alloplast

b)FDB

c)Allograft

d)None of the above (Answer:-D)

418)Graft material used for five wall bony defect a)Alloplast

c)FDB


b)PDGF

d)None of the above (Answer:-D)

419)Which of these landmarks acts as a donor site for maxillary sinus grafting? a)Posterior Palatal Slopes of Residual Alveolar Ridge b)Maxillary Tuberosity c)Buccal Shelf Area d)Hamular Notch (Answer:-B) 420)Primary category of absorbable BM for GDP a)Collagen Membrane b)Polyactic/Polyglycolic Acid Membrane c)Acellular Dermal Matrix d)All of the above (Answer:-D) 421)Increased levels of IL-2 are found during a)loss of attachment within the scope of peri-implantitis b)proinflammatory cellular response in the peri-implantitis soft tissue c)microvascular permeability and angiogenesis d)All of the above (Answer:-A) 422)Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor(VEGF) found in significantly higher concentrations in a)Proinflammatory cellular response b)Peri-implantitis c)Inflammatory gingival tissue d)None of the above


(Answer:-C) 423)Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor(VGEF) is excreted during every wound healing by a)Prosthaglandins

c)Macrophages

b)Keratinocytes

d)Cytokines (Answer:-B)

424)The most predictable topography for a barrier membrane bone graft is for a)Division B bone volume b)An extraction socket missing one wall of bone c)An implant insertion missing one wall of the bone d)All of the above (Answer:-D) 425)The tent screws are fixation screws inserted into the host site which has the primary function of a)Visual indication of autograft that should be harvested b)Maintain space under the barrier membrane during the bone formation c)A and B d)None of the above (Answer:-C) 426)The barrier membrane should be placed ____________ from the sulcus of the tooth. a)1-2 mm

c)2-3 mm

b)3-4 mm

d)1-1.5 mm (Answer:-C)

427)How much of bone should be less in the facial side,if 0.5mm of bone is grown on the lingual aspect for adequate bone width for an implant? a)0.5 mm

c)0.25 mm

b) 1 mm

d)0.75 mm (Answer:-A)


428)IL-1 is produces by a)Macrophages and Prosthaglandins b)Cytokines and Interleukins c)Monocytes and Macrophages d)Monocytes and Cytokines (Answer:-C) 429)The main stimulus of extracellular matrix catabolism production of collagenase and proteinase and degranulation of neutrophil granulocytes is a)Interleukin 1 b)Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor c)Transforming Growth Factor-B d)All of the above (Answer:-A) 430)The disadvantage of acellular dermal matrix a)10-20 minute preparation time b)The dermal matrix swells in thickness and size c)Disintegration d)A and B (Answer:-A) 431)Materials used to seal fresh extraction socket a)Connective tissue and Trabecular bone b)Connective tissue,Periosteum and Trabecular bone c)Periosteum and Lamellae bone d)Trabecular bone,Periosteum and Lamellae bone (Answer:-B) 432)The most common site for the intraoral bone graft harvest is


a)Buccal Shelf Area

c)Hamular Notch

b)Maxillary Tuberosity

d)Alveolar Ridge (Answer:-B)

433)When does the oroantral opening closes on its own? a)Within 3 months

b)Within 2 weeks

c)Within 3 weeks

d)Within 1 month (Answer:-D)

434)The bone growth stage starts a)4 to 5 weeks after extraction b)3 to 5 weeks after extraction c)2-3 weeks after extraction d)None of the above (Answer:-A) 435)The inflammatory stage of healing is initiated by a)Extraction trauma

b)Infection

c)Bone Grafting

d)All of the above (Answer:-A)

436)Advantage of absorbable membrane are a)Second stage surgery is not required b)Fewer incision line opening complications c)A and B d)None of the above (Answer:-C) 437)The extraction of the natural tooth starts with a)observe the crown and root anatomy

b)incision within the sulcus


c)A and B

d)None of the above (Answer:-B)

438) Death in dental practice has been related to a) Air emboli b) Spread of infection c) Air emboli and spread of infection d) None of the above (c) 439) Stages in the development of infection in head and neck region a) Development b) Extension c) Complication stages d) All of the above

(d)

440) Developmental stage permits a) Periosteal abscess b) Sub-periosteal abscess c) Dentoalveolar abscess d) Alveolar abscess

(b)

441) Before sub periosteal abscess develops a) Pus b) Purulent exudates c) Exudates d) All of the above

(b)


442) Implant placed in an infected immediate extraction site may become involved by a) Infection b) Retro grade infection c) Cancer d) None of the above

(b)

443) Extension stage of the development of infection occurs when the sub periosteal abscess penetrates the periosteum and extends to the facial spaces producing a) Cellulitis b) Peri apical cyst c) Peri apical abscess d) Pulpitis

(a)

444) Extension stage has been observed in a) Sub lingual region b) Sub mental region c) Sub mandibular region d) None of the above

(b)

445) Infection may spread to the walls of the veins and cause a) Blood loss b) Thrombophlebitis c) Vessel damage d) All of the above 446) Sub periosteal implants often extend beyond a) Muscle attachments b) Fascial planes

(b)


c) Muscle attachments and fascial planes d) All of the above

(c)

447) Acute supprative peri apical abscess in the maxilla may penetrate a) Mucosa b)

Alveolar bone

c) Blood vessel d) Periosteum

(b)

448) If the abscess penetrates the periosteum above the attachment of the buccinators a) Peri apical abscess b) Peri apical cyst c) Buccal abscess d) Dento alveolar abscess

(c)

449) If the abscess continues to spread it may involve the a) Skin b) Mucosa c) Bone d) Periosteum

(a)

450) If abscess spreads and involves skin forming a a) Sinus b) Cutaneous abscess c) Fistula d) Sebaceous cyst 451) If infection progress superiorly in maxilla it involves A) Zygomatic region

(b)


B) Temporal region C) Infra orbital region D) Frontal region

(b)

452) If infection is extending downwards it may involve a) Sub mandibular space b) Sub lingual space c) Sub mental space d) All of the above

(a)

453) Dental abscess that erode and perforate the fascial alveolar compact bone involves a) Upper lip and ala of the nose b) Cheek and ala of the nose c) Upper lip and cheek d) Ala of the nose

(c)

454) Maxillary dental infection involves a) One region b) Two regions c) Three regions d) Four regions

(d)

455) Four regions that involve in maxillary dental infection a) Canine fossa b) Buccal space c) Upper lip and infratemporal space d) All of the above 456) Treatment of lip infection is

(d)


a) Excision b) Incision c) Resection d) Incision and drainage

(d)

457) Infection of the canine fossa is commonly caused by spread of infection from the a) Maxillary lateral incisors b) Maxillary canine c) Maxillary premolars d) Maxillary canines and premolars

(d)

458) Abscess of the second and third maxillary molars above the attachment of the buccinators frequently involve a) Mental space b) Buccal space c) Lingual space d) Masseteric space

(b)

459) Infection of the maxillary teeth or endosteal implants exending above the attachment of the buccinator muscle can spread into the a) Temporal space b) Infra temporal space c) Infra orbital space d) Buccal space 460) Infra temporal space infection may involve the a) Infra orbital nerve b) Temporal branch of facial nerve c) Pterygoid plexus of veins

(b)


d) Maxillary nerve

(c)

461) Temporal fossa which is almost completely filled by, covered by a) Temporalis muscle, temporal fascia b) Temporal fascia c) Temporal fascia, temporal muscle d) Temporal muscle

(a)

462) Incision and drainage is usually by a) Intraoral approach b) Extraoral approach c) Temporal approach d) All of the above

(a)

463) Which infection involves four regions a) Maxillary dental b) Mandibular dental c) TMJ d) None of the above

(a)

464) Which is termed as supra clavicular lymphnode a) Deep cervical lymph nodes b) Upper cervical lymph nodes c) Preauricular lymph nodes d) Submental lymph nodes 465) Deep cervical lymph node is also known as a) Sub mandibualr lymph nodes b) Sub mental lymph nodes

(a)


c) Supra clavicular lymph nodes d) Pre auricular lymph nodes.

(c)

466) Godacre et al compiled a review which stated that – (a) Restorations associated with the edentulous maxilla have the highest early implant failure rate (b) Restorations associated with the edentulous mandible have the highest early implant failure rate (c) Restorations associated with the edentulous maxilla and the mandible have equal early implant failure rate (d) None of the above

ans:a

467) Overdentures in maxillary arch averaged – (a) 10% (b) 19% (c) 39% (d) 29%

ans:b

468) Fixed prostheses in the edentulous maxilla had an early implant failure of – (a) 10% (b) 19% (c) 39% (d) 29%

ans:a

469) Mandibular overdentures or fixed restorations demonstrated – (a) 10% (b) 7% (c) 5% (d) 3%

ans:d


470) Anterior ridge loses – (a) 25% of its width within the first year after tooth loss and 40%-50% over 1 year (b) 20% of its width within the first year after tooth loss and 40%-50% over 1 year (c) 25% of its width within the first year after tooth loss and 30%-40% over 1 year (d) None of the above

ans:a

471) As the bone resorbs in the anterior edentulous mandible, the cross section of the residual ridge is – (a) Semi-circular (b) Knife-edged (c) Triangular (d) None of the above

ans:b

472) Bone augmentation is – (a) Required more in the posterior maxilla compared with the anterior mandible (b) Required more in the anterior maxilla compared with the posterior mandible (c) Required more in the anterior maxilla compared with the anterior mandible (d) None of the above

ans:b

473) The trabecular bone of D3 is – (a) 45%-55% weaker than the trabecular bone of D2 (b) 45%-65% weaker than the trabecular bone of D2 (c) 45%-65% stronger than the trabecular bone of D2 (d) 45%-65% weaker than the trabecular bone of D3

ans:c

474) The farther forward the maxillary anterior teeth are positioned from the implants, (a) The lesser the moment force leverage on the bone-implant interface


(b) The greater the moment force leverage on the bone-implant interface (c) The greater the amount of torque on the bone-implant interface (d) None of the above

ans:c

475) Contraindications to fixed partial denture include – (a) Long edentulous spans (b) Poor abutment support (c) Inadequate edentulous bone for proper prosthetic contour (d) All of the above

ans:b

476) The facial surfaces of the central incisors are – (a) 12.5 mm from the most anterior aspect of the incisive papilla (b) 11.5 mm from the most posterior aspect of the incisive papilla (c) 12.5 mm from the most posterior aspect of the incisive papilla (d) None of the above

ans:b

477) The farther forward the labial flange and teeth position, (a) The higher the resting position of the lip (b) The greater the incisal edge exposure (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)

ans:a

478) The maxillary anterior region with multiple teeth missing is restored with – (a) FP-1 (b) FP-2 (c) FP-3 (d) RP-4

ans:c

479) Implants are required when the following adjacent teeth are missing –


(a) The first premolar, canine and lateral incisor (b) The canine, lateral incisor and central incisor (c) The canine, first premolar and second premolar (d) All of the above

ans:d

480) The bite force in the first molar natural tooth surface region increases to – (a) 150 lb (b) 200 lb (c) 250 lb (d) 300lb

ans:c

481) Degidi and Misch have found that – (a) The vertical defect width may be 0.5-1 mm (b) The vertical defect width may be 0.5 mm (c) The vertical defect height may be 0.5 mm (d) The vertical defect width may be 1 mm

ans:d

482) When two implants are used to replace two adjacent central incisors, the implant diameter should be – (a) The implant diameter should be 3.8 mm (b) The implant diameter should be 3-4 mm (c) The implant diameter should be 3.5 mm (d) None of the above

ans:b

483) The minimum implant number for a completely edentulous maxillary fixed or RP-4 prosthesis is – (a) Seven in the ovoid arch form (b) Eleven in the ovoid arch form (c) Seven in the square arch form


(d) Eleven in the square arch form

ans:b

484) Adjacent implants should have ____ mm minimum distance between them – (a) 2 mm (b) 2.5 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 3.5 mm

ans:c

485) The modulus of elasticity for an implant of size greater than 6 mm is too great and causes – (a) Stress shielding (b) Unfavourable forces (c) Bone loss (d) Both (a) and (c)

ans:a

486) An excessive crown height may cause greater prosthesis failure through – (a) Vertical cantilever (b) Metal and porcelain shrinkage after casting (c) Increases the weight and the cost of the prosthesis (d) All of the above

ans:c

487) Jemt and Lekholm reported the survival rates of implants in – (a) Mandibular was 95.4% and maxillary was 72.4% (b) Maxillary was 94.5% and mandibular was 72.4% (c) Mandibular was 94.5% and maxillary was 72.4% (d) Mandibular was 94.5% and maxillary was 74.2% 488) Misch’s study on RP-4 and implants revealed – (a) 97% implant survival

ans:d


(b) 95% implant survival (c) 100% prosthesis survival (d) Both (a) and (c)

ans:d

489) The minimum number of implants for an RP-5 maxillary overdenture should be – (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six

ans:c

490) The benefits of an RP-5 maxillary overdenture are – (a) Retention and stability (b) Stability and support (c) Retention and support (d) None of the above

ans:d

491) The occlusal scheme for RP-4 restoration is – (a) Centric occlusion around the arch (b) Only anterior contact during mandibular excursions (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

ans:b

492) The model is scored ___ mm wide and ___ mm deep with a round bur – (a) 1.5, 1 (b) 1, 1.5 (c) 1, 1 (d) 0.5, 1 493) The anterior implants, connection bar and attachments should be –

ans:a


(a) Lingual to the position of the anterior teeth (b) Labial to the position of the anterior teeth (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of the above

494. The most common complication for single tooth implant failure is: a)abutment screw loosening b)prosthesis loosening c)implant fracture d)infection ans:a 495)Success rate of a single tooth implant as reported by Misch ef al is? a)99% b)75% c)55% d)67% ans:a 496)Technique done to reduce the risk of screw loosening is... a)Use of nobel metal as screw b)use of higher torque in tightening the screw c)less friction between screw and implant d)flexible screw ans:b 497 )Ideal diameter of a single toothed implant depends on the: a)type of implant

ans:c


b)length of implant c)screw design d)mesiodistal dimension of the missing teeth ans:d 498)Diameter of natural premolar tooth root is? a)7.5 mm b)6.5 mm c)4.2 mm d)7.7 mm ans:c 499)The molar mesiodistal diameter usually ranges from? a)7 to 31 mm b)10 to 11 mm c)8 to 12 mm d)12 to 15 mm ans:c 500)surgical approach of posterior single tooth implant surgery are? a)two stage surgery b)one stage surgery c)direct(flapless)one stage surgery d)all of the above ans:d 501)Advantages of 2 staged surgery are? a)direct observation of crestal bone volume before osteotomy b)direct observation during osteotomy


c)ability to graft the time of implant placement d)all of the above ans:d 502)Element placed in conclusion of a implant surgery (one stage) a)periradicular element b)permucosal healing element c)soft tissue element d)all of the above ans:b 503)Advantages of 1 stage surgery are: a)permits the restoration to be fabricated with complete assessment of the soft tissue profile b)second surgical procedure not needed c)less appointment d)all of the above ans:d 504)Disadvantages of direct(flapless) one stage surgery: a)inability to assess the volume of bone before surgery b)access blood loss during surgery c)discomfort,tenderness and swelling maximum d)all of the above ans:a 505)Advantage of direct(flapless one stage technique a)less soft tissue trauma b)less appointments c)minimal discomfort,tenderness,and swelling


d)all of the above ans:d 506)Drills used in osteotomy during implant placement: a)straight fissure bur b)pilot drill c)flame shaped drill d)ball shaped drill ans:b 507)Drills used in osteotomy except: a)twist drill b)pilot drill c)sequential drill d)flame shaped drill ans:d 508 )Angulation of the maxillary canine root distally: a)32 degree b)33 degree c)11 degree d)34 degree ans:c 509)The first premolar implant should be placed ________ to the root of the canine. a)110 b)90 c)190 d)122


ans:b 510)Advantage of one stage surgery compared with direct one stage approach is: a)Stronger then the direct approach b)less failure rate c)the attached keratinized tissue can be repositioned d)all of the above ans:c 511)Ideal implant size from the adjacent tooth is: a)2 to 5 mm b)1.5 to 2 mm c)2 to 3 mm d)3 to 3.5 mm ans:b 512)Advantage of threaded implant over cylinder a)more thickness then cylinder b)less torque c)greater functional surface area d)all of the above ans:c 513)Mesiodistal dimension of the missing tooth determines the: a)type of implant b)ideal diameter of a implant c)screw design d)length of the screw ans:b


514)Permucosal healing element is used in a)one stage b)two stage c)direct(flapless)one stage d)all of the above ans:b 515)Drill used in the initial osteotomy depth establishment a)pilot drill b)twist drill c)sequential drill d)periosteal drill ans:a 516)Distance between the implant and neurovascular canal a)>2mm b)<2mm c)>11mm d)<11mm ans:a 517)Implant thread design is shallow in what type of bone: a)thick b)porous c)soft d)all of the above ans:c


25)Which of the statement is true: a)The lingual border of osteotomy is often higher then facial b)distance between osteotomy is 5mm c)the less prepared osteotomy the better retention d)all of the above ans:a 518)Post operative instruction after impant surgery: a)use of periodic ice in the region for 3days b)use of mouth wash after surgery c)normal diet can be continued d)all of the above ans:a 519)Direct one stage surgery is only done in bone with: a)>8 mm b)<8mm c)>10mm d)<10 mm ans:a 520)The drill is not used when the bone density is a)D3 b)D4 c)D1 d)a and b ans:d


521.

The goals of implant dentistry are to replace a patientâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s missing teeth to

a) Normal contour b) Comfort and function c) Esthetics and speech d) All the above Ans:d 522. Following is not true for the advantage of removable implant supported prosthesis in the completely edentulous patient a) Long treatment if no bone augmentation is required b) Fewer implant may be required c) Less bone augmentation may be necessary before implant insertion d) Long term treatment of complication is facilitated Ans: a 523.

FP1 definition ?

a) Replace the crown and portion of the root b) Replaces only the crown c) Replaces the missing crown and portion of edentulous site d) Both a and c Ans: b 524. Following is not true for the advantage of fixed restoration in the partially edentulous patient a) Psychological b) Fewer implant may be required c) Less food entrapment


d) All the above Ans:b

525.

RP4 definition?

a) Replaces only the crown b) Replaces the crown and portion of root c) Overdenture supported completely by implant d) Both a and b Ans ; c

526.

The chance of food entrapment under a removable overdenture is

a) Often greater than for a fixed restoration b) Less than for a fixed restoration c) None d) Both a and b Ans: a 527.

Who proposed five prosthetic option for implant dentistry

a) Devan b) Cummer c) Misch d) Kennedy Ans:c 528.

Following is not true for FP1

a) Replaces the crown b) Must be minimal loss of hard and soft tissue


c) Most often desired in maxillary anterior region d) None Ans; d

529.

Cervical diameter of maxillary central incisor is

a) 6.5mm b) 7.5mm c) 7.0mm d) 10mm Ans: a 530.

Implant abutment is _________in diameter(FP1)

a) 4mm b) 3mm c) 5mm d) 6mm Ans: a 531.

Material of choice for FP1 prosthesis ___

a) Porcelain to noble metal alloy b) Porcelain c) Metal alloy to porcelain d) Both b and c Ans: a 532.

FP2?

a) Replaces the crown


b) Restore the anatomical crown and portion of root c) Portion of the edentulous site d) Both a and c Ans: b 533.

Material of choice for an FP2 prosthesis

a) Metal to porcelain b) Metal alloy c) Porcelain d) Porcelain to noble metal alloy Ans ; d

534.

Following is not true for FP2 prosthesis

a) Replaces the crown and position of roof b) Material of choice porcelain c) It should be placed in the correct facial lingual position d) Both a and c Ans - b 535. A multiple unit FP2 restoration does not require as specific an implant position a) In mesial or distal position b) Labial and lingual c) Only labial position d) Both a and c Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; a 536.

FP3 replace


a) The teeth crown and portion of roof b) Crown c) Portion of soft tissue d) Both b and c Ans – d 537.

Approaches for an FP3 prosthesis

a) Hybrid restoration of denture teeth and acrylic and metal subs true b) A porcelain metal restoration c) A porcelain to noble metal alloy restoration d) Both a and b Ans – d 538.

Porcelain thickness will not be greater than _____ thickness

a) 3mm b) 6mm c) 1mm d) 2mm Ans – d 539.

The completely edentulous mandibular over denture may have

a) Two Ant implants independent of each other b) Splinted implant in the canine c) 3 splinted implant in premolar and central incisor d) All of the above Ans – d 540.

RP5


a) Replaces the crown and roof b) Only the crown c) Portion of edentulous site d) Over denture supported by both soft tissue and implant Ans – d 541.

Following are true for FP1 except

a) Minimal loss of hard and soft tissue b) Desired in the maxillary and ant region c) Replaces only the anatomical crown d) Material of choice metal to porcelain Ans – d 542.

Following are true for FP2 except

a) Replaces the portion of edentulous site b) Replaces the crown and root c) Material of choice metal to porcelain d) All the above Ans – a 543.

Following are true for RP4 except

a) Completely supported by the implants , teeth or both b) Restoration is rigid when inserted c) Usually 5 or 6 six- implant in the mandible d) 6 to 11 implants in the maxilla required Ans – d 544.

Following are true for FP3 except


a) Pink colored restorative material b) To replace a portion of soft tissue c) Replace the edentulous site d) Rarely has the patient’s inter dental papilla and soft tissue around the emergence of crown Ans – c 545. Relines and occlusal adjustments every few are common maintenance requirements of an a) RP5 b) RP4 c) FP3 d) Both a and c Ans – a 546.

Labial contour of removable restoration can replace

a) Lost bone width and height b) Support the labial soft tissue without hygiene c) Anatomical crown d) Both a and b Ans – d

547.

Fixed implant restoration may be indicated for

a) Completely edentulous patient b) Partially edentulous patient c) Both Ans – c


548.

Completely implant supported over denture requires the

a) Less number of implant as a fixed implant restoration b) More number of implant as a fixed implant restoration c) Same number of implant d) None Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; c 549.

Chance of food entrapment under a removable over denture is

a) Often greater than for a fixed restoration b) Less than for fixed restoration c) None Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; a 550.

Misch proposed five prosthetic options for implant. When ?

a) 1988 b) 1989 c) 1991 d) 1979 Ans â&#x20AC;&#x201C; b 551.

Ideal treatment plan for a partially edentulous patient includes

a. b. c. d.

Teeth supported fixed prosthetic restoration Independent implant restoration Treatment partial denture+ None of the above

Ans b

552.

complications of Teeth supported fixed prosthetic restoration is :


a. Delay on the tooth spliced in a fixed partial denture b. Endodontic related c. Risk of uncertain restoration d. All the above Ans d 553.

Increase in number of abutment

a. Increase the risk of uncertain restoration b. Decrease the risk of uncertain restoration c. No effect on restoration d. None Ans b

554.

Key positions when adjacent teeth are missing

a. Ist molar & Ist premolar site b. Focusers & premolar site c. Canine & Ist molar site d. All the above. Ans c

555.

According to Misch,Arch is divided in to

a. 4 segments b. 5 segments c. 2 segment d. 0 segment Ans b 556. When a 25 lb fore is applied on a 10mm continence, the moment fore on the abutment.

a. b. c. d. ans b

same as 25 lb increase to 250 lb reduce to zero none of the above


557.

Which abutment receives maximum forces in cantilever positions?

a. b. c. d. Ans a

closest abutment to the continence farthest abutment to the continence both a & b None of the above.

558 .. The length of the continence (effort arm) divided by resistance arm represents The a) Mechanical advantage b) Biological advantage c) Both a & b d) None of the above Ans b

559. The ideal key implant position when 2 adjacent teeth are missing

a)one implant b) one implant per tooth c)both a & b e)None of the above. Ans b

560. Cantilevers is the most prudent option for

a) edentulous mandible available Bone in the posterior regions b) single missing tooth c) edentulous site supported by 2 abutments d) None of the above. Ans a 561. The greater the span between the abutments.


a) b) c) d) Ans d

greater the load greater the flexure swear the tensile loads on the abutment All the above.

562. Arch may be divided in to 5 segments

a) (2 central incisors, 2 lateral incisors) 1 segment canines( independent segment) premolar & molar one each side( 2 segment) b) 2 CI – 1 segment, 2 LIS canine – 2 segment pre molar & molar – 2 segment. c) CI,LI,canine – 1 segment premolar(both side ) 2 segment, molar (both side - 2 segments. d) None of the above. Ans a

563. when multiple adjacent missing tooth extend beyond one of the open pentagon

a) b) c) d) Ans a

key implant portion needs to be with each segment 2 in each segment One on either side of the arch Both b & c

564. which is best in a 12 unit fixed prosthesis

a) b) c) d) Ans b

4 key implant portion 8 key implant potion 2 key implant portion Non of the above

565. A male patient who bruxes severely requires

a) One imp lent for each missing tooth b) One imp lent for each missing root

segments


c) No imp lent at all d) None of the above. Ans b 566. Cantilevers in the mandible should be projected

a) b) c) d) Ans a

one on one posterior quadrant on both posterior quadrant not place in mandible none of the above

567. The primary advantage of restoring implants as independent units . a) b) c) d) Ans a

Inter proximal hygiene Cost factor Both a & b None of the above.

568. increased risk of porcelain fracture is present in

a) b) c) d) Ans a

independent units splinted units both a& b none of the above

569.Endodontic risk are increased

a) in independent unit b) splinted teeth c) both a & b d) none of the above. Ans b

570. Advantage of splinting implants together

a) increases functional surface area of support


b) c) d) e) Ans e

increased Ap distance increases cement retention decreases risk of abutment screw loosing all of the above.

571. The highest prosthetic complication with single tooth implant is

a) b) c) d) Ans a

abutment screw loosing marginal bone loss implant fracture none of the above.

572.

Ideal implant size should be based on:

a) Esthetic b) Physiologic c) Biomechanics d) Both A & C Ans: (d) 573

Average Mesiodistal dimension for central incisor in male is

a) 8.1mm b) 8.9 mm c) 7.6 mm d) 8.6 mm Ans: (d) 574

Surgeon would select longer implant in anterior region of mouth & shorter one in posterior

because:s-


a) Limit of Mandibular canal & Nasal sinus b) Extension of Mandibular Canal & Maxillary sinus c) Limit of floor of nasal septum & Mandibular canal d) Limit of Mandibular Canal & Maxillary sinus Ans:- (d) 575.

Dental Implant function to:-

a) Preserve tissue b) Transfer loads to surrounding biological tissues c) Preservation of bone &tissues d) Both b & c Ans:- (b) 576.

Average bite force range from:-

a) 100 to 2501b b) 50 to 3001b c)

10 to 10001b

d) 10 to 3501b

Ans:- (d) 577.

Magnitude of force is least in:-

a) Anterior incisor b) Anterior lateral c) Ant canine d) Lower canine

Ans:- (a)


578.

After substained periods of edentulism, bone foundation often becomes

a) More dense b) More compact c) Less dense d) Both b & c Ans: (c) 579.

Boneâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s ultimate strength is highly dependent on

a) Density b) Force c) Surrounding structure d) All above Ans:- (a) 580.

Implant body width is directly related to:-

a) Magnitude of implant b) Forces taken by implant c) Strength of implant d) All above

Ans:- (c)

581.

Bone is stronger when loaded in

a) Tension b) Compression c) Shear d) Force


Ans:- (b)

582.

Forces to an implant body are typically greatest at

a) Crestal bone interfere b) Crestal tissue interfere c) Both d) None

Ans:- (a) 583.

To decrease the effect of an applied load on implant body:-

a) Decrease in diameter b) Increase in diameter c) Increase in size d) Both a & c Ans: (b) 584.

Most important factor to decrease stress to implant bone interface is usually

a) Increase in implant diameter b) Increase in Implant number c) Increase in implant bulk d) All above

Ans:- (b)

585.

Implants are _____ mm are usually are considered ideal for most situation

a) 10 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 15 mm b) 8 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 20 mm


c) 12 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 15 mm d) 12 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 18 mm Ans:- (c) 586.

Which bone is primarily present in posterior region of jaw:-

a) D3 b) D2 c) D4 d) Both a & c Ans:- (d) 587.

Posterior short implant may have a higher failure rate after loading compared with longer

implants:-

a) Higher bite forces b) Bone density in region c) Increase crown height d) All above Ans:- (d) 588.

Advantage of short implants:

a) No surgical risk of sinus perforation b) No surgical risk of paresthesia c) More strength d) A &B Ans:- (d)

589.

st

Implant body diameter of 3.75 mm was 1 introduced by:-


a) Carl E. Misch b) Jent c) Branemark d) Htimmlova

Ans:- (c)

590.

Surgical advantage of wide â&#x20AC;&#x201C; diameter implant

a) Surgical rescue implant b) Failed implant c) Tooth erection d) All above Ans:- (d) 591.

Loading Advantage of wide diameter implants

a) Compensate for bone density b) Enhance surface for longer implants c) Both d) Maximize cantilever for angled implant Ans:- (a) 592.

Based on force factors, in implant placed in nursing ------------- should be longer in diameters:

a) Old b) Young Female c) Young Male d) None Ans:- (c)

593.

All are the disadvantage of wide diameter implants:-


a) Bone from drill sequence b) Improves emergence profile c) Stress shielding d) Too close to adjacent tooth Ans: (b) 594.

Which has largest diameter & surface area:-

a) Maxillary molar b) Maxillary premolar c) Mandibular PM d) Mandibular Molar Ans:- (a) 595.

Bone level of natural teeth is ---------------- below the CEJ

a) 1 mm b) 1.5 mm c) 3 mm d) 2 mm Ans:- (d) 596.

Implant size collection criteria in posterior moseilla

a) 1.5 mm from adjacent tooth b) 3 mm from adjacent implant c) 4 mm from adjacent implant d) Both a & b

Ans:- (d)


597.

Narrowest implant is found in:-

a) Anterior moseilla b) Posterior mandible c) Anterior mandible d) Posterior moseilla

Ans:- (c)

598.

The trabeculae bone is used to:

a) Equalize force b) Dissipate force c) Stress – equalization d) All

Ans: (b) 599.

What is the indication for classification of partially edentulous arches? a)

To formulate a good treatment plan

b)

Allows the profession to visualize and communicate the relationship of hard

and soft structure c)

To anticipate the difficulties’ commonly to occur for that particular design

d)

All the above Ans:- (d)

600.

Who originally proposed the theory of partially indentions arches? a)

Neurohs

b)

Godfrey’s classification

c)

Mauk’s d)

Cummu, Kennedy, Bailyn Ans:- (d)

601.

Keney classified the partially idenlulow arches into:a)

Two classes

c)

Four Classes


d)

Three Classes

d)

Both a & b

ans; c

602.

The …………… rules helps to classify the system a)

Applegates

b)

Neurohs

c)

Cummer

d)

Both b & c

ans ; a

603.

604.

Applegate’s rules are divided into ………….. principles in implant dentistry a)

Three

b)

Eight

c)_

Five

d)

Four

Ans:- (b)

What is the first principle in Applegate’s rules a)

If should follow rather than precede extractions that might after the

classification b)

Most posterior edentulous area always determines the classification

c)

Edentulous area, other than those determining the classification are referred to

as modifications. d)

Both a & b

605.

The second principle in Applegate’s rule is:a)

It should follow rather than precede extractions that might after the

classifications b)

Most posterior identifulow area always determine the classification

c)

Identiflow area other than those determining the classification are referred to

as modification.

e) None Ans: (b) 606.

The implant dentistry bone volume classification developed by: a)

Misch & Judy in 1985

b)

Kenedy in 1980

c)

Cummu 1970

d)

None


607.

Class I for partially edentulous arches:a)

Partially edentulous arch with bilateral edentulous area

b)

Partially edentulous arch with unilateral edentitours area with natural

remaining anterooms &posterior c)

Partially edentulous are unilateral edentulous area posterior to remaining

d)

None

teeth

608.

609.

610.

Ans (a)

Division a for class I is a)

Edentulous area have abundant bone width (>6 mm)

b)

Bone width (2.5 to 6 mm)

c)

Inadequate available bone

d)

Reversely reserved ridges

Ans(a)

Crown height <15 mm come in a)

Class II

b)

Class I div B

c)

Class I div D

d)

Class III

Ans:- (b)

indication for root form implant a)

Class I

c)

Class I div B

b)

Class I div A

d)

Class II Ans:- (b)

611.

612.

Class I surgical options is indicated for a)

Div A

c)

Div B & Div D

b)

Div B

d)

Div A &Div B

Root forms with augmentation and / or nerve repositioning is indication for a)

Div A class I

c)

Class I Div C

b)

Class I Div B

d)

Class I Div D Ans:- (c)

613.

Augmentation procedure is required for


a)

to improve posterior bone volume

b)

to increase implant surface areas

c)

to permit the fabrications of an independent implant restoration

d)

All the above Ans (a)

614.

615

An independent implant supported fixed prosthesis is usually indicated in a)

Class I div A

c)

Class I Div C

b)

Class I div B

d)

Class I Div D

Completely edentulous classification include the classification of a)

Lekholm & Zarb

c)

Misch Judy

b)

Kenty & Loursiana dental school d)

None Ans:- (a)

616.

What is Type 1 div A (Edentulous) a)

Ridge with abundant bone in all three directions, as many root forms as needed

may be inserted. b)

Ridge present adequate bone in all three erections in which to place narrow

diameter root form implant.

c)

Both a & b d)

None Ans: Type I (a)

617.

In Kenedy Applegateâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s class I medications I patient with anterior missing teeth are often

resorted with a)

Anterior FPD & Post RPD

c)

Anterior FPD

b)

Anterior RPD & Post FPD

d)

None Ans: (a)

618.

In Kenedy Applegate class I Modification I patient restored with Anterior FPD and post RPD

will prevent

619. .

a)

Rocking of prosthesis

c)

b)

Decreases the forces transmitted to abutment

d)

Both a & b

Prevent rotation of prosthesis

Ans: d)

If no canine implant is inserted, then lack of anterior support can cause


a)

Rotation of the prosthesis

c)

Both a &b

b)

Accelerate posterior implant Loss

d)

Rocking Prosthesis Ans (c )

620.

Following are the most common antimicrobials used in implant dentistry

a) Antifungal and antimicrobial rinses b) Antibiotic and antimicrobial rinses c) Only antimicrobial rinses d) Both a and b Ans – b 621.

the use of prophylactic antibodies in dentistry

a) prevent rheumatic fever b) prevent oral microbial disease c) prevent development of infectious endocarditis d) a and c ans – c 622.

The disadvantages with use of antibiotics include

a) Infectious endocarditis b) Development of resistant bacteria c) Adverse reactions d) Both b and c Ans – d 623.

According to ESPOSITO and HARISCH, main cause of implant failure is

a) Para functional habits


b) Poor oral hygiene c) Bacterial contamination d) All the above Ans – c 624. Which of the following are systemic factors associated with increased risk of infection for implant procedure a) Diabetes b) Smoking c) Hypothyroidism d) All the above

Ans – d 625. Elective dental implant surgery falls under which class of surgical wound classification with associated infection rates a) Class III b) Class IV c) Class I d) Class II Ans – d 626. Local factors associated with increased risk of infection in implant procedures are a) Periodontal disease b) Type of grafting material c) Odontogenic infections d) All the above


Ans – d 627. Surgical factors associated with increased risk of infection in implant procedure a) Poor aseptic technique b) Increased duration of surgery c) Skill of surgeon d) All the above

Ans – d 628.

The antibiotic used for surgical procedure must be ideally

a) Bacteriostatic b) Bactericidal c) Both a and b Ans – b 629.

Advantages of bactericidal over bacteriostatic medications are

a) Results are faster b) Greater flexibility with dosage intervals c) Bacteria destroyed by the antibiotic alone d) All the above Ans – d 630.

The complications of antibiotic prophylaxis are

a) Allergic reactions b) Gastrointestinal complications c) Respiratory complications


d) Only a and b e) All the above Ans: d 631. An unusual but increasing complication of antibiotic prophylaxis in general population is a) Gastrointestinal complication b) Cross reactions c) Pseudomembranous colitis d) Allergic reactions Ans: c 632. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused due to intestinal flora being altered and colonized by a) Clostridium tetani b) Clostridium difficile c) E.coli d) Both a and b Ans: b 633.

The most common beta-lactam antibodies used in dentistry are

a) Penicillinâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s b) Capholosporin c) Both a and b d) None Ans: c 634. To counteract the activity of beta-lactamase distruction of penicillin by resistant bacteria, which antibiotic was sysnthesized


a) Amoxicillin b) Cephalosporin c) Augmentin d) None Ans: c 635.

Which combination of antibiotics was synthesized to form augmentin

a) Amoxicillin and cephalosporin b) Amoxicillin and clavulonic acid c) Amoxicillin and erythromycin d) None Ans: 636.

Which of the following statements are true

1. Combination of amoxicillin and clavulonic acid is augmentin 2. This combination has an affinity for penicillinase producing bacteria and functions as suicide molecule that inactivates resistant bacteria a) Both 1 and 2 are false b) 1 is true, 2 is false c) Both 1 and 2 are true d) 1is false, 2 is true Ans: c 637.

Which of the following is the most common macrolide used in dentistry

a) Amoxicillin b) Erythromycin c) Clindamycin


d) None Ans: b 638. Acute postoperative infections are shown to occur _____________days after surgery a) 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 2 days b) 3 - 4 days c) One week d) 2 - 3 days Ans: b 639.

Uses of chlorhexidine in oral implantology are

a) Patient presurgical rinse b) Postsurgical rinse c) Peri-implant maintenance on daily basis d) All the above

Ans: e 640.

NSAIDâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s reduce inflammation by

a) inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandis from arachidonic acid b) by altering the connective tissue response to injury c) causing lysis by binding to bacterial cell membrane d) all the above Ans: a 641.

Adrenal suppression occurs after ____days of steroid administration

a) 2-3 days


b) 4-5 days c) 1-2 days d) 7-10 days Ans: d

642.

The use of synthetic steroids should be based on the____________

a) Hg% b) Production of hydrocortisone in body c) Production of RBCs in body d) None Ans: b 643.

The opiod analgesics among the following are

a) NSAIDâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s b) Codeine c) Glucocorticoids d) Meperidin e) Both b and d Ans: e 644.

The non-opioid analgesics used in dentistry are

a) Acetaminophen b) Hydrocodone c) Glucocorticoids d) Codiene Ans: a

645.

The following side effects occur due to use of NSAIDâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s except


a) Dyspepsia b) Ulcerations c) Cardiac affects d) Respiratory depression Ans: d 646.

The main advantage of COX-2 inhibitors is

a) Lack of gastrointestinal side effects b) Lack of rinal side effects c) Lack of cardiac effects d) All the above Ans: a

647.

In addition to relieving pain, morphine may cause the following except

a) Euphoria b) Respiratory depression c) Constipation d) Diarrhea Ans: d 648.

Signs and symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity are

a) Talkativeness b) Lethargy c) Lack of muscle tone d) Only b and c e) All the above Ans: e


649.

The U or V shaped transosteal around an implant is called a. Ditching b. Saucerisation ans-d c. Neither d. Both a and b

650.

Primary failure of an implant to integrate initially with bone is due to a. Operator inefficiency or inexperience b. Bone pathology ans-c c. Excessive heat during osteotomy and pressure at implant-bone Interface d. Micro movement of implant

651.

Which of the following is not a biomechanical failure of implant a. Early loading failure b. Micro movement

ans-c

c. Healing failure d. Engineering failure 652.

In early loading failure of implant the time period within which it fails is a. 6 to 18 months b. 3 to 6 months c. Within the first year d. The next day

653.

Which of the following is false about screw loosening a. Greater stress to prosthesis, greater risk of screw loosening

ans-a


b. Height of the implant body does not affect the amount of force ans-b c. Cantilevers increase risk of screw loosening d. Height of the crown affects the amount of force applied 654.

Which of the following are the effects of crestal bone loss a. Early implant failure b. Prosthetic screw loosening

ans-d

c. Abutment screw loosening d. All of the above 655.

Periosteal reflection leads to a. Vertical bone loss of reflected residual ridge b. Horizontal bone loss of reflected residual ridge ans-b c. Ditching d. Both a and c

656.

Primary cause of bone loss around natural teeth is a. Due to bacteria alone b. Due to occlusal trauma alone c. Due to both trauma and occlusal trauma d. Neither

657.

Exudate around an implant is more likely to be present when a. Probing depth is greater than 5 mm b. Aerobic environment exists around the implant ans-c c. Both a and b

ans-c


d. None of the above 658.

Which of the following is false about biological width of natural teeth a. Width is actually a height dimension b. Biological width does not allow gingival fibres to make contact with natural teeth c. Average biological is 2.04 mm ans-b d. Greater dimension in posterior than in anterior

659.

The crevice between the implant and the abutment connection is called a. Microgap b. Macrogap

ans-a

c. Nanogap d. Both a and c 660.

The amount of strain in a material is a. Directly proportional to the stress applied

ans-d

b. Inversely proportional to the stress applied c. Measured in percentages d. Both a and c 661.

Which of the following are true about modulus of elasticity a. It is the relationship between stress and strain b. Represents stiffness of a material

ans-d

c. Conveys the amount of dimensional change in a material for a given stress level d. All of the above 662.

A decrease in bone remodelling can lead to


a. Increase in bone loss b. Decrease in bone loss ans-b c. No bone loss d. Could be all of the above 663.

An increase in bone density is related a. Bone strength b. Elastic modulus ans-d c. Bone remodelling d. All of the above

664. Which of the following refers to the bone resorption that occurs around both cemented and uncemented orthopaedic implant a. Osseodisintegration b. Osseoradionecrosis

ans-c

c. Osteolysis d. None of the above 665.

Rate of bone loss ______ after the first year of loading a. Increases b. Rapidly increases

ans-c

c. Decreases d. Rapidly decreases 666.

Which of the following statements are true a. Woven bone is unorganized and weaker than lamellar bone ans-d b. Lamellar bone develops after woven bone has replaced devitalized bone


c. Fine trabecullar bone is less dense than coarse trabecullar bone d. All of the above 667.

Marginal bone loss is a. Less in the mandible compared to the maxilla b. Less in the maxilla compared to the mandible ans-a c. Equal in both maxilla and mandible d. Differs in different individuals

668.

Bone is strongest under a. Tensile forces b. Compressive forces

ans-b

c. Shear forces d. Gravitational forces 669. The stress treatment theorem states that treatment related to the science of implant dentistry should be centered around a. Biological aspects of stress b. Prosthetic aspects of stress

ans-c

c. Biomechanical aspects of stress d. All of the above 670. is

Of the factors that influence the amount of patient stress the most significant

a. Bruxism b. Clenching c. Tongue thrusting d. Crown height

ans-a


671.

In a 3-4 unit restoration the most important abutments are a. Intermediate abutments b. Terminal abutments

ans-b

c. Neither d. Both 672.

Most effective way to increase the surface are of implant support is a. Decreasing the number of implants used to support the prosthesis b. Increasing the number of implants used to support the prosthesis ans-d c. Reducing the number of pontics d. Both b and c

673. A threaded implant with 10 threads for 10 mm has_____ surface area than one with 5 threads a. Less b. More

ans-b

c. The same d. None of the above 674.

If biomechanical stress is not dealt with, it will lead to a. Psychological stress b. Implant failure

ans-c

c. Both a and b d. Neither 675. With improper biochemical management _____implants may have higher failure rates a. Longer b. Shorter


ans-b c. Both a and b d. Neither 676. The overall stress to the implant system may be reduced by _____the area over which the force is applied a. Decreasing then increasing b. Increasing then decreasing

ans-d

c. Decreasing d. Increasing 677.

Dense cortical bone is ___ times stronger than fine trabecullar bone a. 100 times b. 20 times

ans-c

c. 10 times d. 5 times 678.

Stress treatment theorem sequence for treatment planning includes a. Prosthesis design b. Patient force factors c. Bone density in implant sites d. All of the above

679.

Available bone greatly influences the following factors: a. Soft tissue drape b. Implant size c. Implant position

ans-d


d. Final esthetic outcome e. All of the above Answer is: E

680. A traditional two piece implant should be at least _____ away from the adjacent tooth. a. 1.5mm b. 3.0mm c. 5.0mm d. 7.0mm Answer is: A

681. The bone level on natural teeth is ______ below the cemento-enamel junction. a. 1mm b. 2mm c. 4mm d. 8mm Answer is: B

682. The faciopalatal position of an implant is dictated by the available bone on either side. Implants are placed 1mm or more palatally to provide of lack of facial bone. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

683.

Three faciopalatal angulations of implant body are suggested.


a. Facial angulation so emergence of final crown is similar to adjacent teeth b. Under incisal edge of final restoration c. Within cingulum position of implant crown d. All of the above. Answer is: D

684. If the implant is placed too facially the crown appears too long and facial. After insertion soft tissue grafts and bone augmentation cannot improve the condition of poor placement. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

685.

Soft tissue contouring consists of one or more of the following: a. Soft tissue graft before bone augmentation b. Soft tissue graft in conjunction with bone graft before implant surgery c. Nonresorbable hydroxyapatite graft d. All of the above

Answer is: D

686. Interproximal soft tissue in implant site may be classified as except one of the following: a. Acceptable height in edentulous area b. Less than acceptable height c. One papilla is acceptable and other is depressed


d. Excess papilla is seen in both Answer is: D

687. When papilla are depressed in edentulous site, vertical-release incisions are made at adjacent teeth. When papilla have acceptable height, â&#x20AC;&#x153;papilla-savingâ&#x20AC;? incisions are made adjacent to teeth. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

688.

The first drill to enter the bone is termed the _____ a. Twist drill b. Penetration drill c. Misch drill d. Pilot drill

Answer is: D

689. After final osteotomy diameter and depth are prepared, a bone tap is used with the following speed and torque: a. 30rpm and 70N-cm b. 500rpm and 30N-cm c. 10,000rpm and 100-Ncm d. 250,000rpm and 50N-cm Answer is: A

690.

The function of a bone tap is to produce:


a. Final implant depth b. ‘Tap’ the implant into the bone c. Produce threads within the bone d. Distribute stress by reducing sides of bone Answer is: C

691.

The threaded implant may be placed by: a. Using a handpiece at 30rpm b. Using a hand wrench c. Using the surgeon’s fingers d. All of the above

Answer is: D

692. The surgeon may utilized the following when less than 1.5mm facial bone is present a. Particulate graft b. Particulate graft and resorbable membrane c. Autograft collected from osteotomy d. All of the above e. B and C only Answer is: E

693.

The following options may be utilized as a transitional prosthesis: a. Resin-bonded fixed restoration b. Essix appliance


c. Cantilevered transitional FPD d. Denture tooth with attached brackets if requiring orthodontics e. All of the above Answer is: E

694. Five diagnostic keys given by ______ regarding immediate implant insertion after extraction: a. Mark Davidson b. Bandhu c. Kois d. G. George Answer is: C

695.

Advantages for delayed implant placement in extraction site include: a. Increased surgical control, position and angulation b. Increased hard tissue quality c. Increased success d. All of the above

Answer is: D

696.

Advantages of immediate implant placement in extraction site include: a. Increased surgery b. Decreased time c. Increased maintenance of soft tissue d. All of the above e. B and C only

Answer is: E


697.

Examples of Class I lever forceps in tooth removal include: a. Physics forceps b. Dentagone forceps c. Instaout forceps d. All of the above

Answer is: A

698.

Soft tissue procedures in Stage II surgery may be classified as: a. Subtractive b. Addition c. Combination of Each d. All of the above

Answer is: D

699.

The split-finger technique may be described as: a. Incisions looping the adjacent teeth and splitting the palatal to form four interlacing fingers. b. Using the index finger divided by two as a measure of appropriate width c. Holding the facial flap with a finger and tearing the palatal mucosa d. None of the above.

Answer is: A

700. Four surgical time sequences exist to address interproximal height except one of the following a. Before bone graft with connective tissue graft b. In conjunction with bone graft


c. At implant insertion d. 6 months post implant uncover Answer is: D

701. The following treatment options exist for replacement of anterior single missing tooth: a.

Removable partial denture

b. Resin-bonded prosthesis c. Implant prosthesis d. All of the above Answer is: D

702.

Prosthetic options for soft tissue contouring and emergence profile include: a. Wide healing abutment b. Temporary contouring through provisional restoration c. Anatomical abutment d. Pink porcelain on abutment e. All of the above

Answer is: E

703. The crest module of an implant measures 3.5mm therefore the mesiodistal width of available bone should be at least: a. 3.5mm b. 4.5mm c. 6.5mm d. 10mm Answer is: C


704. of:

Local contraindications for anterior single-implant include with the exception

a. Inadequate bone height of less than 9mm b. Inadequate crown height c. Mobility of 2 to 4 adjacent teeth d. Inadequate faciopalatal bone width of less than 10mm Answer is: D

705. A cantilever fixed partial denture is indicated when the lateral incisor is missing. The canine is the only source for abutment support for a cantilever fixed partial denture. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false Answer is: C

706. The following features limit the most common complication in single tooth; abutment screw loosening except: a. Lack of anti-rotational feature b. Accuracy of component fit c. Abutment screw design d. Number of threads Answer is: A

707. If the interproximal bone is higher than the normal position of 2mm below the CEJ of adjacent teeth, it should be scaplloped ______ more incisal than midcrestal portion. a. 2mm b. 3mm


c. 5mm d. 7mm Answer is: B 708 .BONE DENSITY QUALITY OF BONE IS OFTEN DEPENDENT ON A.WIDTH OF ARCH B.ARCH POSITION C.HEIGHT OF ARCH D.QUALITY OF ARCH

ans: b

709 .MANDILBLE AS AN INDEPENDENT STRUCTURE IS A. FORCE DISTIBUTION UNIT B.FORCE ABSORBTION UNIT C.FORCE REPULSIVE UNIT D.BOTH A AND B

ans: b

710 .MAXILLA IS A A. B. C. D.

FORCE FORCE FORCE BOTH A

DISTIBUTION ABSORBTION REPULSIVE AND B

UNIT UNIT UNIT ans: a

711 . BONE DENSITY CHANGE IS GREATER AFTER TOOTH LOSS A. B. C. D.

ANTERIOR MANDIBLE ANTERIOR MAXILLA POSTERR MANDIBLE POSTERIOR MAXILLA

ans: d

712 .REMODILLS IS A PROCESS OF A.RESORPTION B. FORMATION C. PHASE OF BONE RENEWAL D.BOTH A AND B

ans: d

713 .THE GREAT THE MAGNITUDE OF STRESS A.THE LESSER THE STRAIN B.THE GREATER THE STRAIN C.STRAIN IS UNAFFECTED D,NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: b

714 .SAFETY RANGE FOR BONE STRENGTH IS A,INCREASED during REPAIR B. REDUCED DURING REPAIR C.UNAFFACTED DURING REPAIR D.SAFETY RANGE BECCOME NIL WHILE REPAIR

ans:b


715 .PATHOLOGIC OVERLOAD ZONE ARE REACHED WHEN A,GREATER THAN 5000 UNIT B.GREATE THAN 4000 UNIT C.LESS THAN 3000 UNIT D. GREATER THAN 3000 UNIT

ans: d

716 .CLASS ONE BONE STRUCTURE IS A.EVENLY SPACED TRABECULEA WITH SMALL CONCELLED SPACE B.EVENLY SPACED TRABEULEA WITH LARGER CONCELLED SPACE C.LESS UNIFORM OF OSSEOUS PATTERN D.LARGE MARROW FILLED SPACE ans: a 717. CLASS 2 BONE STRUCTURE IS A.EVENTS SPACED TRABULAR WITH SMALL CONCELLED SPACE B.LARGER CANCELLATED SPACE WITH LESS UNIFORMITY C.EVENTLY SPACED TRABULA WITH LARGE CONCELLED SPACE D. LARGE NARROW FILLED SPACE ans: b 718 . CLASS 3 BONE STRUCTURE IS A.EVENTLY SPACED TRABULAR WITH SMALL CONCELLED SPACE B.LARGER CONCELLATED SPACE WITH LENSE UNIFORM C. EVENTLY SPACED TRABULA WITH LARGE CONCELLED SPACE D. LARGE NARROW FILLED SPACE ans: d 719 . MOST IDEAL FOUNDATION FOR IMPLANT ARE A,CLASS 3 B.CLASS 2 C,CLASS 1 D.BOTH CLASS 3 AND 2 720, STATES THE FOUR QUALITY OF BONE IN 1985 A,LEKHLOM B.LINKNOW C.ZARB D.LEKHLOM AND ZORB

ans: c

ans :d

721 .QUALITY 1 IS IMPOSED OF A.HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE C. THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE D.THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW TRABULAR BONE Ans: a 722 .QUALITY 2 IS A.HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABECULAR BONE C.THIN LAYER OF CONFICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE D.THIN LAYER OF CONFICIAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW DENSE TRABULAR BONE Ans: b


723 .QUALITY 3 IS A.HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE C.THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABECULAR BONE D. THIN LAYER OF CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW DENSE TRABECULAR BONE Ans: c 724 .QUALITY 4 IS A. HOMOGENOUS COMPACT BONE B.COMPACT BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABULAR BONE C.THIN LAYER CORTICAL BONE SURROUNDED BY DENSE TRABECULAR BONE D.THIN LAYER OF CORTICIAL BONE SURROUNDED BY LOW DENSE TRABECULAR BONE Ans: d 725 .D1 IS A. DENSE CORTICAL B.POROUS CORTICIAL & COARSE TRABECULA C.POORUS CORTICAL & FINE TRABECULA D.FINE TRABECULA

ans: a

726 .D2 IS A.DENSE CORTICAL B.POROUS CORTICAL OF COARSE TRABECULA C.POROUS CORTICAL OF FINE TRABULA D.FINE TRABULA

ans: b

727 .D3 IS A,DENSE CORTICAL B. POROUS CORTICAL OF COARSE TRABECULA C.POROUS CONFICAL OF FINE TRABECULA D.FINE TRABCULA 728 .D4 IS A.DENSE CORTICAL B.POROUS CORTICAL OF CORSE TRABECULA C. POROUS CORTICAL OF FINE TRABECULA D.FINE TRABECULA

ans: c

ans: d

729 .A VERY SOFT BONE WILL IN COMPLEX MINERAL AND LARGE INTERTRABULA SPACE A.D1 B.D3 C.D4 D.D5 ans: d 730 .D3 IS VERY COMMON IN A.MANDIBLE B. MAXILLA C.ANTERIOR REGION OF MAXILLA D.POSTERIOR REGION OF MAXILLA

ans: c


731 .VERY SOFT BONE OBSERVED AFTER SOME IMMEDIATE BONE GRAFTS MAY BE A,80 TO 100 UNITS B.50 TO 200 UNITS C.100 TO 200 UNITS D.50 TO 150 UNITS ans: b 732 .D2 EXHIBITED GROWTH COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH OF WITH D3 A.47 TO 57% B.48 TO 63% C.47 TO 68% D,54 TO 67% 733 .APPAERENT DENSITY OF BONE IS -------------A.DIRECT PROPORTION TO ELASTIC MODULUS B.INVERSLY PROPORTION TO ELASTIC MODULUS C.DOUBLE THE ELASTIC MODULE D.TRIPLE THE ELASTIC MODULE

734 . SURFACE IS SUGGESTED IN SOFT BONE A.SMOOTH B.ROUGH C.NONE OF THE ABOVE D .BOTH A AND B

ans: c

ans: a

ans :b

BIO MATERIALS FOR DENTAL IMPLANTS

735 .THE MOST CRITICAL ASPECT OF BIOCOMPATIBILITY IS DEPENDENT ON THE BASIC BULK AND OF THE BIO MATERIAL A.CHEMICAL PROPERTIES B.MECHANICAL PROPERTIES C. SURFACE PROPERTIES D.PHYSICAL PROPERTIES

ans: c

736 .COMPRESIVE STRENGTH OF IMPLANT MATERIALS ARE GREATER THAN A.SHEAR STRENGTH B.TENSILE STRENGTH C.BOTH SHEAR AND TENSILE STRENTH D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: c

737 . ------------------- CAN BE GREATLY TERMINATED TO LONGEVITY BECAUSE OF MECHANICAL PROPERTIES SUCH AS MAXIMUM YIELD STRENGTH DUCILITY ETC


A.PARAFUNCTION B.FUTIGUE C.COLLISION D.CREEP 738 .

ans: a

OF IMPLANTS HAVE NO LONGER LIMIT IN TERMS OF ENDURANCE FATIGUE STRENGTH

A.METALLIC STRENGTH B.POLYMERIC SYSTEM C.CERAMIC SYSTEM D.ALL OF THE ABOVE

ans: b

739 .HIGH MECHANICAL STRESS PLUS EXPOSURE TO CORROSIVE ENVIRONMENT RESULT IN CRACKING NEITHER CONDITION ALONE WOULD CAUSE THE FAILURE A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE TRUE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE FALSE

ans: a

740 .THE TRANSFORMATION OF PRIMARY PRODUCTS IS ON THE LEVEL OF A.MELTING POINT B.SOLIBILITY C.SATURATION CAPACITY D.SOLUBILITY OF TRANSFER

ans: d

741 . ---------------- ALLOYS ARE MOST OFTEN USED IN AN AS CAST OF ANNEALED METALLURGY A.-IRON - NICKEL -CHROMIUM BASED ALLOYS B.-COBALT-CHROMIUM-MOLYBEDENUM BASED ALLOYS C.-TITANIUM ALLOYS D.-OTHERS Ans: b

742 . SECONDARY PHASES PROVIDE STRENGTH THAT IS A.1*THAT OF COMPACT BONE B.2*THAT OF COMPACT BONE C.3*THAT OF COMPACT BONE D.4*THAT OF COMPACT BONE

ans: d

743 . -------------------- ALLOY IS USED MOST OFTEN IN A WROUGHT AND HEAT TREATED METALLIC CONDITION WHICH RESULTS IN HIGH STRENGTH AND HIGH DUCTILITY ALLOY A. -IRON - CHROMIUM-NICKEL BASED B.-COBALT-CHROMIUM-NICKEL BASED C.-TITANIUM ALLOY BASED D.-OTHERS ALLOYS

ans : a


744 .OXIDE CERAMIC WERE INTRODUCED FOR SURGICAL IMPLANT DEVICES BECAUSE OF THEIR A.INERTNESS TO BIODEGRADATION B.HIGH STRENGTH C.MINIMAL CONDUCTIVITY D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

ans: d

745 . -----------------HAS RESULTED IN LIMITATION OF CERAMICS A.COLOUR B. THICKNESS C.INHERRENT BRITTLENESS D. ALL THE ABOVE

ans: c

746 . -------------STERILIZATON IS RECOMMENDED FOR MOST CERAMICS A.COLD B.AUTOENCLAVE C,CHEMICAL D,DRY HEAT

ans: d

747 .STEAM AUTOCLAVING CAN SIGNIFICANTLY CHANGE THE BASIC STRUCTURE AND PROPERTIES OF CPC THIS MAY RESULT IN AN UNKNOWN BIMATERIAL CONDITION AT THE TIME OF IMPLANTATION A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE FALSE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE 748 .CERAMICS ARE BRITTLE MATERIAL AND EXHIBIT HIGH ---------------------- STRENGTH

ans: d

STRENGTH COMPARED WITH--

A.TESILE,COMPRESSIVE B.SHEAR.TENSILE C.ENSILE, SHEAR D.COMPRESSIVE, TENSILE

ans: d

749. IN GENERAL SOLUBILITY IS GREATER FOR TCP THEN FOR HYDROXYAPPATITE SMALLER THE PARTICLE SIZE LONGER THE MATERIAL WILL REMAIN AT A AUGUMENTED SITE A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE TRUE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE FALSE

ans: b


750 . CARBON COMPONENT ARE CLASSIFIED AS CERAMICS BECAUSE OF THEIR AND ABSENCE OF A. CHEMICAL INERTNESS,DUCTILITY B.COLOUR,DURABILITY C.THICKNESS, DURABILITY D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: a

751 .IN GENERAL THE POLYMERS HAVE A.LOW STRENGTH AND ELASTIC MODULUS B.HIGH SRENGTH AND ELASTIC MODULUS C. LOW STRENGTH AND EXPANSION D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: a

752 .POLYMERS ARE RESISTANT TO A.CORROSION B.BIODEGRADATION C.ERROSION D.ABRASION

ans: b

753 .OXIDES ON IMPLANTS ARE PRIMARLY AMORPHOUS IN ATOMIC STRUCTURE OXIDES ARE USUALLY THIN AND ADHERE A.BOTH STATMEMTS ARE TRUE B.THE FIRST STATEMENT IS TRUE THE SECOND STATEMENT IS FALSE C.THE SECOND STATEMENT IS TRUE THE FIRST STATEMENT IS FALSE D.BOTH THE STATEMENTS ARE FALSE

ans: b

754 . ___________SHOWED THAT FLUORIDE GELS LEAD TO DEGRADATION OF TITANIUM OXIDE LAYER A.LEMORS,MARSHALL B.MARSHALL,ROSTOKER C.ROSTOKER,PRETZELL D,COHEN,BURDAIRON

ans: d

755 .SURFACE QUALITY CAN BE RELATED TO ________AND_________ A.TISSUE INTEGRATION,CLINICAL LONGEVITY B.SHINE AND SMOTHNESS C.ALL THE ABOVE D.NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: a

756 . ___________SUTURES HAVE BEEN FABRICATED BY PLASMA SPRAYING A POWDER OF MOLTEN DROPLETS AT HIGH TEMPARETURE A.SMOOTH AND UNIFORM B. ROUGH AND POROUS


C.ROUGH AND UNIFORM D,. NONE OF THE ABOVE

ans: b

757 .HYDROXYAPATIPE COATING BY PLASMA SPRAYING WAS INTRODUCED BY

A.KAY ET AL B.LEMORS C.DE GROOT D.BLOCK ET AL

SCIENTIFIC    RATIONALE  OF  DENTAL  IMPLANT

ans: a

                                                                                                                             

758 .The presence of fibrous tissue a. Decrease long term survival of root form implant b. increase long term survival of root form implant c. Both A and B d.None of the above ans.A 759 .Excessive loads on osseointegrated implant can cause a.Mobility of supporting device b. Mobility of Implant body c.Both A and B d. None of the above ans.A 760 . Bite force can range from a. 50 to 1000 N b.42 to 1245 N c. 60 to 800 N


d. 100 to 500 N ans.B 761. Magnitude of FORCE is greater in a. Canine region b. Anterior region c. Molar region d. None of the above ans.C 762 . Titanium â&#x20AC;&#x201C;aluminium-vanadium alloy exhibit a. Mechanical properties b. Physical properties c. Corrosion resistance d. All the above ans.D 763 . Bone is strongest when loaded in a. Compression c. Shear

b. Tension d. None of the above

ans.A 764 . Implant to bone interface cause a. Microscopic retention

b. Macroscopic retention

c. both A and B

d. None of the above

ans.A 765 . Reduction in shear load at thread to bone interface a. Decrease overload

b. Increase overload

b. Inadequate load

d. None of the above

ans.A


766.

As the load increases the stresses around the implant a. Decrease

b. Increase

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

ans.B 767 . implant failure occur more in a. D1

b. D2

c. D3

d. D4

ans.D 768 . Initial stability of implant provides a. Functional surface area b. Total surface area c. Passive area d. None of the above ans.A 769 . Functional surface area is also called as a. Active surface area

b.Passive surface area

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

ans.A 770 . Total surface area is also called a. Active surface area c. None of the above

b.Passive surface area d. osseo surface area

ans.B 771. Functional surface area is a. per unit length of implant b. per unit width of implant c. surface area of implant


d. None of the above ans.A 772. Total surface area reduce a. Mechanical stress b. Compressive stress c. Tensile stress d. All the above ans.A 773 .Larger the taper a. greater the compressive load b. lesser the compressive load c. greater the tensile load d. lesser the tensile load ans.A 774 . Tapered thread implant has a. less thread

b. deep thread

c. more thread

d. Both a and b

ans.B 775 .Functional surface area per unit length of implant modified a. thread pitch

b. thread depth

c. thread shape

d. All the above

ans.D 776. which is stongest and deepest bone A. D2 Ans.B

b. D1

C. D3

d. D4


778 . primary cause of implant failure is a. bone over heating

b. over instrumentation

c. soft tissue impingement

d. none of the above

ans.A 779.crest module is characterized by a. decrease conncentartion of tensile stress b. increase concentration of mechanical stress c. both a and b d. none of the above ans.B 780 . who described microstain a.frost

b. branemark

c. Robert et el d. Davidson

ans.A 781. advantage of TPS a.increase the surface area b. less corrosion of metal c. increase roughness for initial stability d. Both A and C ans.D 782 . advantage of hydroxyapatite a.faster healing bone interface b. stronger interface than TPS c. less corrosion of metal d. All the above ans.D 783. disadvantage of coating cause


a. flaking

b. cracking c. scaling d.all the above

ans.D 784 . who investigated implant supported prosthesis a. barbier

b. schepies

c. barbier and schepies

d. frost

ans.C

785.According to  Misch,Arch  is  divided  in  to     a) 4  segments   b) 5  segments   c) 2  segment   d) 0  segment                                    Ans  b   786.Increase  in  number  of  abutment   e) Increase  the  risk  of  uncertain  restoration     f) Decrease  the  risk  of  uncertain  restoration     g) No  effect  on  restoration     h) None                                                                                      Ans;a   787.Cantilever in prosthesis is least preferred in a.Central Incisor b.Lateral Incisor c. Molar d. both a and B

ans; B

788.when the span of the edentulous area increases a. No of replaced teeth increses b. no of replaced tooth reduces c. same as the missing tooth d. none of the above

ans ; a

           789.          Diagnostic  casts  helps  in  analysing  the  following  except:  


a) arch  relationships.                                                                      b)  curve  of  wilson  &  curve  of  spee.   c)  opposing  dentition.                                                                  d)  balanced  occlusion     Ans;d   790.          The  distance  from  the  hinge  axis  to  the  central  incisor  range  from:                    a)  10-­‐20mm                                                                                                    b)60-­‐80mm                    c)87-­‐120mm                                                                                                  d)127-­‐200mm   Ans;c        791.          A  unique  facebow  transfer,  that  corresponds  to  the  facial  midline  and  horizontal  plane,   to  the                        100mm  distance  of  conditional  hinge  position  was  developed  by:                        a)  misch                                                                                                                    b)snow                        c)Bennett                                                    d)kois   Ans;d          792.        The  underlying  bone  volume  can  be  estimated  using:                        a)  radiographic  surveys                                                                b)  diagnostic  casts                        c)  neither  of  a  &  b                                                                                  d)  both  a  &  b   d   793.                In  a  case,where  there  is  bone  loss  and  where  in  grafting  is  not  possible  and  change  in  the   angulation  of  the  implant  is  preffered  in  which  area  of  bone?                        a)  mandibular  first  molar  area                                          b)  maxillary  first  molar  area                        c)maxillary  anterior  area                                                              d)  mandibular  anterior  area   a   794.              The  ideal  requirements  of  a  surgical  template  includes:                        a)  size                                                                                                                                b)  surgical  asepsis                        c)  both  a  &  b                                                                                                        d)  none  of  the  above   c   795.                An  implant  placed  adjacent  to  a  natural  tooth  should  remain_______away  from  the   inter  proximal    cement  enamel  junction.                        a)2-­‐4mm                                                                                      b)1.5-­‐2mm                    c)0-­‐1mm       d)1-­‐1.5mm   Ans;b   796.                Modification  of  a  radiographic  guide  to  a  surgical  guide  allows  for  a  precision  of  less   than______at  the  implant  apex  for  a  good  control  of  angulation.                        a)  1mm                                                                                                                                  b)  2mm                        c)  3mm                                                                                                                                  d)  4mm   Ans;a   797.              Advanced  surgical  guides  requires  the  following  as  a  prerequisite  for  analysis.                        a)  MRI  scanning                                                                                                    b)  CT  scanning                        c)  ultra  sound                                              d)  PET   Ans;b   798.            Software  rendering  that  includes  CT  data  and  implant  planning  that  can  be  exported  later   to_______                                      software  


a) CAA                                                                                                                                        b)  CAP                        c)  CAD                                                                                                                                        d)  CAT   Ans;c       790.          The  first  category  of  surgical  guidance  includes  the  use  of                      a)  navigation  techniques                                                                                b)  virtual  planning  of  implant  positions                      c)  computer  aiding  manufacturing  of  guides            d)  both    b  &  c   Ans;d   791.          Temporary  implants  must  be  inserted  for  _______type  of  patients  to  obtain  a  stable   reference  guide.                      a)  dentulous                                                                                                                            b)edentulous                        c)  partially  edentulousd)all  the  above   Ans;b   792.        Which  of  the  following  systems  offers  a  real  time  3D  capture  of  the  arch  via  ultra  sound   probe.                      a)  stereoscope  system                                                                                        b)  virtual  scope  system                        c)  both  a  &  b                                                                                                                          d)  none  of  the  above   Ans;b   793.        Computer-­‐aided  manufacturing  process  is  called  as:                      a)  tomography                                                                                                                      b)  photolithography                      c)  cryptography                                                                                                                  d)  stereolithography   Ans;d   794.          Which  of  the  following  system  features  an  advanced  registration  method  allowing  for   elimination  of  positioning  markers  during  CT  scanning.                      a)  stereoscope  system                                                                                              b)  radioscopic  system                      c)  virtual  scope  system                                                                                            d)  all  the  above   Ans;c   795.            In  the  image  guided  implantology,based  on  the  system  reported  by  wanschitz  et.al.  the   handpiece  mandible  are  positions  using______                      a)  LCD’s                                                                                                                                                  b)  LED’s                      c)  both  a  &  b                                                                                                                                d)    none  of  the  above   Ans;b   796.            IGI  stands  for:                        a)  implant  guided  image                                                                                        b)  implant  guided  imagiology                        c)  image  guided  implant                                                                                        d)  image  guided  implantology   Ans;d   797.          CAD/CAM  stands  for:                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                     a)computer  assisted  disk/computer  assisted  machine.          b)computer  aided  display/computer   aided  machine.c)computer  aided  design/computer  aided  manufacturing.                                                                                                                                                               d)computer  aided  design/computer  aided  machine.  


Ans; c   798.            A)  Diagnostic  cast  evaluation  for  the  prosthodontics  crieteria  is  done  only  in  the  presence   of  the                    patient.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        B)  Diagnostic  casts  permits  an  open  discuission  of  treatment  with  other  practioners  and   laboratory                              technicians  for  consultation.                          a)  both  a&b  are  true                                                                                                b)  a  is  true  b  is  false                          c)  a  is  false  b  is  true                                                                                                      d)  both  a&b  are  false   Ans;c   799.            The  following  things  can  be  analysed  using  a  diagnostic  cast.                          a)  inter  arch  space                                                                                                          b)  arch  form  &  symmetry                                c)both  a  &  b                                                                d)  none  of  the  above   Ans;c   800.            Modification  of  preston’s  clear  splint  is  an  easy  method  to  fabricate                          a)  crown’s                                                                                                                                      b)  surgical  splint’s                            c)  surgical  guide                                                    d)  denture  base   Ans;c       801.            Modification  of  preston’s  clear  splint  is  used  for  the  diagnosis  of                          a)  tooth  contours                                                                                                              b)  tooth  position                          c)  occlusal  form                                                                                                                  d)  all  the  above   Ans;d   802.          Which  of  the  following  designs  require  the  most  ideal  implant  placement.                          a)  Fp1                                                                                                                                                      b)  Fp2                          c)  Fp3                                                                                                                                                      d)  both  a  &  b                                  ans;  d     803.          The  distance  between  the  pilot  hole  and  a  natural  tooth  would  be                          a)  2mm                                                                                                                                                b)  3mm                            c)  4mm                                                                                                                                                d)  0.5mm   Ans;c   804.            To  place  a  4.1  mm  diameter  implant,the  distance  between  the  pilot  hole  and  the  natural   tooth  should  be                          a)  2mm                                                                                                                                                  b)  4.1mm                            c)  4mm                                                                                                                                                  d)  8.2mm   Ans;c   805.          The  distal  inclination  of  the  canine  root  on  an  average  is                          a)  5  degrees                                                                                                                                    b)  8  degrees                            c)  10  degrees                                                                                                                                d)  11  degrees   Ans;d   806.            Assertion(A):  The  premolar  implant  is  angled  to  follow  the  root  of  the  canine.                                               Reason(R):  The  premolar  implant  is  angled  to  prevent  contact  with/perforation  of  natural  root.  


a) Both  (A)  &  (R)  are  true  but  (R)  does  not  explain  (A)          b)  Both  (A)  &  (R)  are  true  and  (R)    explains  (A)          c)  (A)  is  true  (R)  is  false          d)  Both  (A)  and  (R)  are  false   Ans;b  

807.          Assertion(A):  Advanced  surgical  guides  require  CT  scanning  as  a  prerequisite  for  analysis.                                                                                       Reason(R):  Computer  tomography  (CT)  provides  superior  precision  when  compared  to  all  other             radiographic  techniques.            a)  Both  (A)  &  (R)  are  true  but  (R)  does  not  explain  (A)          b)  Both  (A)  &  (R)  are  true  and  (R)    explains  (A)          c)  (A)  is  true  (R)  is  false          d)  Both  (A)  and  (R)  are  false   Ans;b   808.          Surgical  plans  can  be  created  by  using  the  following  softwares.                      a)  sim  plant                                                                                                                                            b)  CSI-­‐Materialise                        c)  Leuven                                                                                                                                                    d)  all  the  above   Ans;d   809.          The  surgical  template  offers  the  following  except:                      a)  support  for  repetitive  forces  of  occlusion                            b)  esthetics                        c)  hygine  requirements                                                                                                    d)  occlusal  centric  relation  position   Ans;d     810.Panoramic radiographs / computed tomography (CT) scan imaging is evaluated for all except   a) b) c) d)

Potential pathology Bone volume   Anatomical landmarks   all the above

Ans: D


811.What are the benefits of using a long-acting anesthetic : a) b) c) d)

Added volume of anesthetic increases success of the mandibular block Repeated injections at the end of the surgery are less indicated.   Reduces postoperative pain.   All of the above Ans: D  

812 Advantages of Akinosi Nerve Block are true except: a. b. c. d.

813

Ans: D

Intraoral & extraoral scrubbing should be done with : a. b. c. d.

High success rate Reduced incidence of trismus , paresthesia   Reduced pain   No additional injections of anesthesia is needed

Povidone-iodine ( Betadine) 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate   A and B   None of the above

Ans: C

814. If less than 3mm of attached gingival exists on the ridge, full thickness incision is placed so that at least ....... of attached tissue is to the facial aspect of the incision line. a. b. c. d.

815

816.

817.

Achieve hemostasis To keep lingual flap out of surgical site   To aid in proper healing   None of the above

Ans: B

The advantages of lingual flap a. b. c. d.

Ans: B

Retraction ( tieback) sutures with 2-0 silk are used to : a. b. c. d.

1.0 mm 1.5 mm   2.0 mm   2.3mm

Improves visibility Negates repeated surgical retraction efforts during the procedure   Reduces trauma to the thin lingual periosteal tissues   Allof the above Ans: D  

Overzealous reflection causes a.

Increases soft tissue trauma


b. c. d.

818.

Ans: D

At least ........ of mesiodistal bone are required for each 4mm diameter implant a. b. c. d.

Delay bone callus formation Impair crestal bone healing   All of the above

5mm 6mm   7mm   •

8mm

Ans: C

819 Which instrument can be used to determine the presence of an anterior loop to the mandibular canal.   a. b. c. d.

820.

b. c. d. 821

822

823.

Bone rongeur High torque handpiece with surgical 703 bur   Crestal reduction bur under copious cooled saline irrigation   All of the above Ans:D  

What is the primary criteria in implant site preparation: a. b. c. d.

Eliminates fibrous osseous tissue on the crest & ensures adequate width for implant placement Removes unwanted bony prominences   Ensure proper positioning of implants   To ensure success in placement of implant Ans:A  

Osteoplasty can be accomplished with: a. b. c. d.

Ans: D

Purpose of osteoplasty procedure: a.

Periodontal probe Straight probe   Explorer   Naber’s 2N Probe

Ensures proper hemostasis is achieved Limit soft tissue trauma   Limit thermal / mechanical trauma to the surrounding hard tissue   Ensure proper incisons are made Ans:C  

Factors critical to minimal heat during osteotomy preparation a. b. c.

Cooling fluid Bone quality   Depth  


d.

824

Ans:D

Depth of initial pilot drill a. b. c. d.

All of the above

3mm 4mm   5mm   6mm

Ans:C

  825

a. b. c. d.

826

827

828

Ans: B

Posterior mandible Middle lingual of mandible   Anterior lingual of mandible   All of the above

Ans:D

Treatment of hemorrhage of implant site a. b. c. d.

Round bur End cutting bur   Straight fissure bur   Tapered flat-ended bur

Bleeding site during implant osteotomy can occur from a. b. c. d.

Lateral perforations can be prevented using

Finger pressure at the site Compression ,cautery or ligation   Bone graft   All of the above

Ans: D

Treatment of bleeding occurring from invading the mandibular canal a. b. c. d.

Finger pressure Surgical ligation of facial & lingual arteries   Cautery   Bone graft

Ans:D

829 If bone drill becomes locked in the bone during preparation, the handpiece should not be wiggled back & forth to disengage the drill because : a. b. c. d.

May increase site of the bone preparation Cause injury & necrosis to the bone   Seperate the drill above or below the bone   All of the above

Ans:D


830

Bone tap is used at less than ....... with a high torque hand piece or hand ratchet a. b. c. d.

20 rpm 30 rpm   40 rpm   50 rpm

Ans: B

831

a. b. c. d.

832

833

25

834

Peripheral radiograph CT scan   Panoramic radiograph   MRI

Ans: C

> 15mm >10mm   >20mm   >9mm

Ans:A

Numerous unpleasant sensations may be described by the patient as a. b. c. d.

Ans:D

There is obviously enough bone height over the canal & foramen when it is measured as a. b. c. d.

Microfractures Compromise entire thread-to-bone profile   Compromise interface development   Bone resorption

Initial method to determine height of the bone available over the mandibular canal a. b. c. d.

Excessive tightening of implant causes all except

Numbness Sharp & constant / periodic pain   Crawling feeling   All of the above

Ans: D

Types of sensory testing includes all except a. b. c. d.

Sharp needle test Pulp testing teeth   Blunt cotton swab test   Anesthetic testing

Ans:D


835

Treatment of neuropraxia a. b. c. d.

Corticosteroids NSAIDs   A and B   None of the above

Ans:C

836

Neuropraxia can be caused by a. b. c. d.

837

Pressure from retractor Traumatic soft tissue reflection   Hydraulic pressure   All of the above

Ans: D

Neurotmesis is suspected when anesthesia is present / hypesthesia has lasted for more

than a. b. c. d.

838.

1 month 2 months   3 months   4 months

Ans:C

Advantages of removable restoration for multiple missing tooth loss include: a) b) c) d) e)

Ease of daily care of adjacent teeth Ability to have soft tissue replacement around the tooth   Maxillary lip support in gross defects   Minimal preparation of abutment teeth   All of the above  

Answer is: E 839.

Two primary reasons for the patient to consent for removable prosthesis in posterior teeth

are; a) b) c) d) e)

Esthetics Fear of teeth shifting   Functionality   A and B only   All of the above  

Answer is: D 840.

Resin-bonded fixed partial denture offers the following advantages except: a) Minimal preparation of adjacent teeth   b) Reduced cost  


c) Long span dentition can be corrected d) Good for young patients   Answer is: C     841 Poor abutment teeth support is a contraindication for use of FPD. Young patients with large pulp horns are indicated for FPD.   a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  

Answer is: A 842

Of the 5 treatment options; which exhibits the highest survival rates: a) b) c) d) e)

Removable partial denture Resin-bonded prosthesis   Space maintainer   Implant prosthesis   Fixed partial denture  

Answer is: D 843

Additional space in posterior implant placement may be obtained by the following: a) b) c) d)

Enameloplasty of the adjacent teeth’s proximal surface Orthodontics to upright tilted 2nd molars   One implant placed buccally and the other on a diagonal toward the lingual.   All of the above  

Answer is: D         844

Causes of maxillary anterior single tooth loss may be attributed to: a) b) c) d)

Agenesia Trauma   Endodontic Failure   All of the above  

Answer is: D 845

Maxillary anterior single tooth replacement options include except: a) b) c) d)

Traditional fixed prosthetic devices Cantilever FPD   Removable prosthetic devices   Space maintainers  


Answer is: D 846 A cantilever fixed partial denture is indicated when the lateral incisor is missing. The canine is the only source for abutment support for a cantilever fixed partial denture.   a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  

Answer is: C 847

Contraindications for resin-retained fixed partial dentures include with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Thin enamel on abutment teeth Mobile abutment   Vertical Overlap   Favorable occlusal relationships  

Answer is: D 848

Local contraindications for anterior single-implant include with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Inadequate bone height of less than 9mm Inadequate crown height   Mobility of 2 to 4 adjacent teeth   Inadequate faciopalatal bone width of less than 10mm  

Answer is: D       849 A transitional prosthesis is often removable; lacking stability and retention. A transitional prosthesis has also been termed flipper.   a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  

Answer is: C 850 Endodontic therapy is often warranted for internal root resorption. However if structural failure occurs or is likely; the choice of treatment is orthodontic extraction.   a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  

Answer is: C 851. When the missing tooth is a central incisor the following options may be carried out in relation to tooth symmetry:  


a) b) c) d) e)

Orthodontic correction if less space available is less than the adjacent tooth width Extraction of the adjacent tooth and replacement with two identical implants   Veneer modification of adjacent tooth   All of the above   A and C only  

Answer is: E 852

Types of maxillary anterior tooth shape include: a) b) c) d) e) f)

Square Ovoid   Triangular   Rectangular   All of the above   All except D  

Answer is: F 853

The height of the maxillary lip when smiling is known as: a) b) c) d)

High lip line Low lip line   Misch-Anderson lip line   Norland’s variable process  

Answer is: A   854

Common complications of anterior tooth implant replacement are: a) b) c) d) e)

Abutment screw loosening Crestal bone loss   Maxillary sinus penetration   All of the above   A and B only  

Answer is: E 855

Factors which influence the size of the implant include with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Mesiodistal dimension of the missing tooth Distance from adjacent tooth root   Height of interseptal bone   none of the above  

Answer is: D 856 Papilla height is affected as a result of lack of interpromixal contact with missing tooth. The use of a soft tissue removable prosthesis does not accelerate the collapse of soft tissue.   a) b) c) d) Answer is:A  

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  


857

The growth of the maxilla occurs in three distinct planes with the exception of: a) b) c) d)

Transverse Sagital   Vertical   Diagonal  

Answer is: D   858 Anterior diastema can be corrected with resin-retained FPD. Bruxism is a contraindication for resin-retained FPD.   a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  

Answer is: B 859 The following features limit the most common complication in single tooth; abutment screw loosening except:   a) b) c) d)

Lack of anti-rotational feature Accuracy of component fit   Abutment screw design   Number of threads  

Answer is: A 860

Advantages of Single-tooth implants include: a) b) c) d) e)

Less risk of caries Psychological needs addressed   Improved hygiene conditions   Decreased cold or contact sensitivity   All of the above  

Answer is: E 861 Two implants are used to restore a single posterior tooth. A distance of 14mm is required between the two adjacent teeth.   a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  

Answer is: C 862 It is often disadvantageous to replace the mandibular second molar. Extrusion and loss of maxillary second molar is the most appropriate reason for not replacing.   a) b) c) d)

First statement is true Second statement is true   Both the statements are true   Both the statements are false  


Answer is: C

  863 .Maxillaryimplant supported removable prosthesis may provide advantage over full arch restorations such as _____ and easy maintenance of removable prosthesis.   a.aesthetic   b.upper lip support for aesthetic   c.lower lip support for aesthetic   d.all of the above     Answer: B       864.Dentures are border moulded to the muscle attachment level to allow the floor of the mouth to raise during ____.   a.swallowing   b.food accumulation   c.deglutation   d.none of the above     Answer: A       865.The mandible flexes towards the midline on opening or during protrusive movement as a result of the ____ to the ramus.   a.internal pterygoid muscle   b.external pterygoid muscle   c.lateral pterygoid muscle  


d.none of the bove   Answer: C     866 .The most common number of implants between the mental foramen for Branemark approach   a.one   b.three   c.two   d.five     Answer: D     867.What is the implant survival for 5 years after 1 year of loading in Branemark approach   a.70-80%   b.20-30%   c.30-40%   d.80-90%     Answer: D       868.Treatment plan option 4 for fixed full arches prosthesis also may include ____ implants as long they are not splinted together in the prosthesis   a.bilateral posterior   b.unilateral posterior   c.bilateral anterior   d.unilateral anterior  


Answer: A   869.In treatent option 4, implants are placed in ____ of the mandible.   a.one segment   b.two segment   c.three segment   d.five segment     Answer: C     870.Treatment option 5 the anterior region of the mandible may have ____ implants.   a.3-4   b.4-5   c.1-2   d.5-6     Answer: B     871.A slight variation of the ad modum Branemark protocol is to be placed additional implants above the ____.   a.submental   b.mental foramina   c.foramen ovale   d.none of te above     Answer: B  


872.The distance from the centre of the most anterior implant to the line joining the distal aspect of the most distal implant on each side is called ____. a.A-P distance   b.A-P width   c.A-P length   d.none of the above     Answer: A       873.The most common scenario for option 5 is when the posterior mandible is _____ volume and a circumferential subperiosteal (or) design and implant is used as the 2nd premolar & 1st molar implant abutment support.   a.c-h bone   b.b-c bone   c.D-h bone   d.A-c bone     Answer: A       874.Mandibular overdentures may be removed at night to decrease the risk of the _____.   a.noctural parafunction overload   b.parafunction load   c.noctural   d.overload    


Answer: A   875.The amplitude of the mandibular body flexure towards the midline has been measured to be as much as _____ micro metre in the 1st molar to the first molar region.   a.700 micro metre   b.800 micro metre   c.900 micro metre   d.1000 micro metre     Answer: B     876.In a study by _____ on deformation of the mandible in subjects with fixed dental implants prosthesis, medial convergence up to 41 micro metre waz observed.   a.Hobkirk   b.Torsion   c.Force factors   d.none of the above     Answer: A     877.In a complete mandibular subperiosteal implants, pain upon opening was noted in 25% of the patients at the suture removal appointment when a rigid bar connected _____ region.   a.premolar - premolar   b.canine to canine   c.molar to molar   d.all of the above     Answer: C  


878.A minimum recommended implant height of ____ mm and a greater diameter or an enhanced surface area design are recommended to compensate for the reduced length. a.7 mm   b.9 mm   c.8 mm   d.both a. and c.     Answer: B     879.When the patient has natural tooth and implants in maxilla, more implants usually indicated for the ____ prosthesis to reduce the risk of occlusal overload.   a.maxillary fixed   b.mandibular fixed   c.both a. and c.   d.none of the above     Answer: B     880.____ and ____ noted that there were 3 times more maintenance and adjustments for removable prosthesis compared with fixed restorations.   a.Walton & Mc Entee   b. Torsion and medial movement   c.Force and Torsion   d.both b. and c.     Answer: A     881.Although porcelain fracture with a fixed restoration may be costly to repair over a lifetime, the implant


supported removable prosthesis may be ____. a.more expensive   b.less expensive   c.none of the above   d.both a. and b.     Answer: A     882.The increased torsion may stimulate the posterior mandibular body to increase in size as reported by ____ and ____.   a.Wright and Reddy   b.Reddy and Hobkirk   c.Reddy and Wright   d.none of the above     Answer: C                                                                                                                                                      883.    What  is  the  preoperative  threshold  of    Hemoglobin  used  as  a  baseline  for  surgery  ?    a.      12g/dl          b.  11g/dl        c.  10g/dl    or    d.  9g/dl   Ans:      C   884.    Dental    Implants      are      contraindicated      in      area    of…………………………………………                                                                                                                                                                                                        a.    Active  bony  Lesions      b.  Passive  bony    Lesions    c.  No  bony  lesions      d.  Periradicular   Lesions   Ans  :    A          885.    The  Most    Significant  risk  associated  with  placing    Implant    into    irradiated    bone  is…………                                                  a.  Osteoporisis      b.  Osteopetrosis      c.  Osteitis    d.    osteradionecrosis   ANS  :    D  


886.  Hyperbaric    oxygen    Therapy    is  used  to    treat  ……………………………………………….                                            a.  Osteroradionecrosis    b.  Osteroporosis    c.  Osteitisdeformans    d.  Osteomyelitis   Ans:    A   887.    What  Type    of    Implants    is    the    best    suited    for    patients    with    Endocarditis?                                                a.  Transosteal      b.    Periosteal    c.  Endosteal    d.  Intramoucosal   Ans  :    C   889.      Normal    creatinine    Level                                              a.  0.7  to  1.5mg/dL        b.  0.5  to  2.5mg/dl        c.3.5  to  4.5mg/dL        d.  2.5  to  3.5mg/dL   Ans:    A     890.      The    Standardised    test    for    bleeding    time    is    ………………………………………………..                                                a.  Lance  Method      b.  Ivy  Method    c.  Ricky`sMethod      d.  Gracey`s    Method   Ans:  B       891.        Heart      pumps      about    -­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐      gallons    of    blood    per    day  to  others    organs                      a.  1000      b.    2000      c.    3000        d.    4000   Ans  :    B   892.        Glycosylated    Hemoglobin    is  known    as  ………………………………..                          a.  HbAlc        b.    HbA2d    c.  HbBld        d.    HbA3b   Ans:  A   893.            The    Anticoagulant      is    usually    prescribed    for    renal    dialysis      is………   a.Warfarin      b.  Dysparin        c.  Coumarin          d.  Heparin   Ans:    D   894.            Treatment    forosteomalacia    is…………………………………………                            a.  Vitamin    C    b.  Vitamin  D            c.    Vitamin  B          d.    Vitamin  A   Ans:  B  


895.          Types    of    Nitrogen    containing    bisphophonates    are…………………..                          a.    Etidronate    b.    Clodronate      c.  Tiludronate      d.  Alendronate   Ans:    D   896.          Types    of  Non  -­‐  Nitrogen  containing    bishonates    are………………….                              a.  Alendronate        b  .Etidronate      c.    Zoledronate      d.    Risendronate   Ans:  B   897.                Patients    with    renal    calculi    should  avoid                              a.  phosphorous  supplements          b.Zinc      Supplements                                    c.  Tin    Supplements                    d.    Calcium    Supplements   Ans:    D      898.              Most    Common    intraoral    feature    off      EctodernalLysplisia    is-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐                              a.  Hypodontia          b.    hyperdontia        c.    Oligodontia      d.  Exodontia   Ans  :  A    899.              Butterfly    rash    is    seen    in    -­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐                                a.  H  I  V                b.  Scleroderma                    c.  S  L  E              d.    Sjogren`s  Syndrome   Ans:    C    900.                What      type      of      Prosthesis      is      recommended      for      Scleroderma                                a.  Removable                b.  Fixed                    c.  Partially      Fixed                d.    Loose  fit   Ans  :  B   901.                  If    C  T  X  Value(pg/ml)    is    300  -­‐    600  risk  for  ostenecrosis-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐                                    a.  None      b.  None  to  minimal      c.  Moderate        d.    High   Ans:    A    902.                    Cummulative    radiation  effect    is    calculated    by….                                  a.  Total  Time  of  TX                x          (  Dose  per  TX)          x    (  no  of  TXs  )                                          -­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐-­‐  


903.( no    of  TXS  )   a. b. c.

Total Time    of  TX              x        (  Dose  per  TX  )    x  (  no  of  TXs)  x  10   Total  Time    of  TX              x          (Dose  per  TX  )    x    5   Total  time    of  TX                x          (D0se  per  TX  )    x  (  no  of  TX  )    x    7                  

Ans :  A     904

Advantages of non-submerged implant procedure or one stage surgery a) b) c) d)

Eliminates second stage implant unrecovery surgery Eliminates tissue discomfort and healing associated from second stage surgery   Eliminates surgical time for unrecovery and suture removal   All of the above  

Ans: D 905

Define immediate occlusal loading protocol a)

An implant supported temporary or definitive restoration in occlusal contact within 2 weeks of implant insertion b) An implant supported restoration in occlusion between 2 weeks and 3 months after implant placement and may use the time period in parentheses   c) An implant prosthesis with an occlusal load after more than 3 months after implant insertion   d) An implant prosthesis with no direct occlusal load within 2 weeks of implant insertion and is considered in partially edentulous patients   Ans: A   906

What is the advantage of splinting implants together in the immediate occlusal loading protocol? a) Decreases the stress on all the developing interfaces   b) Decreases risk of overload   c) Increases retention, strength and stability of the transitional prosthesis during the initial healing phase   d) All of the above   Ans: D  

907

Among the following which is the rationale for implant immediate loading a) b) c) d) Ans: C  

Surgical trauma Bone loading trauma   Both A and B   None of the above  

908

What does the surgical process of the implant osteotomy preparation cause? a) b) c) d)

Regional bone repair around the implant interface Bone resorption around the implant interface   Inflammation around the implant interface   All of the above  


Ans: A 909 insertion?  

910

Which part of the complex is the weakest and at most risk of overload after surgical

a) b) c) d) Ans: C

Bone in the preparation site Newly placed implant   Implant bone interface   All of the above  

Why is the implant-bone interface the weakest after surgical insertion? a) b) c) d)

Because none remodelling happens at the interface that is least mineralized and organized Because of presence of mineralized bone   Because of presence of organized lamellar bone   All of the above  

Ans: A 911

What are the causes of surgical trauma? a) b) c) d)

Thermal injury and microfracture of bone Mechanical insult   Inefficiency of clinician   All of the above  

Ans: A 912

What are the effects of surgical trauma and thermal injury? a) b) c) d)

Osteonecrosis Fibrous encapsulation around implant   Devital zone of bone for 1mm of more around the implant   All of the above  

Ans: D 913

Eriksson and Albrektson have reported bone cell death at temperatures as low as a) b) c) d)

30˚ 40˚   50˚   60˚  

Ans: B 914

What is the method to decrease the risk of immediate occlusal overload? a)

Decrease the surgical trauma and the amount of initial bone remodelling at implant placement b) To prepare less amount of bone   c) To use a self tapping implant   d) To use a sharp drill   Ans: A   915

Which of the following is not a feature of lamellar bone?


a) b) c) d)

Highly mineralized Strongest bone type   Low modulus of elasticity   Organized  

Ans: C 916

Why is lamellar bone preferred over woven bone in immediate loading? a) Lamellar bone can sustain occlusal load   b) Lamellar bone is much stronger than woven bone   c) Lamellar bone has high modulus of elasticity   d) All of the above   Ans: D  

917

What is the rate of lamellar and woven bone formation per day?

LAMELLAR BONE (µ/day) a. b. c. d.

• • • •

WOVEN BONE (µ/day) 0-1 1-5 6-10 15-20

50 60   70   80  

Ans: B 918

Fibrous tissue formation at an implant interface may result a) b) c) d)

Clinical mobility Rigid fixation   Microdamage at interface   All of the above  

Ans: A 919

Which of the following are factors that decrease risk of immediate occlusal loading? a) b) c) d)

Bone microstain Increased surface area   Mechanical properties of bone   All of the above  

Ans: D 920

Where are non-functional immediate teeth (N-FIT) contraindicated? a) b) c) d)

Ans: C 921

Partially edentulous patients with centric occlusion contacts D1, D2, D3 bone regions in implant   Patients with parafunctional habits   Screw shaped implant bodies     What are the advantages of non-functional immediate teeth?  

a) b) c) d)

Patient has a fixed tooth replacement after stage I surgery No stage II surgery   No parafunctional forces from occlusion are possible   All of the above  


Ans: D 922

What are the disadvantages of non-functional immediate teeth? a) b) c) d)

Micromovement of implant can cause crestal bone loss Parafunction from tongue and foreign habits may cause trauma and crestal bone loss   Impression material may become trapped under tissue or between implant and crestal bone   All of the above  

Ans: D 923

Option of the transitional restoration for a single tooth immediate implant restoration is a) b) c) d)

Acrylic crown Metal crown   Ceramic crown   All of the above  

Ans: A 924

The single tooth implant is considered for immediate restoration when

a) b) c) d) Ans: D

The natural tooth is in esthetic zone The soft tissue drape in its current form is ideal   The natural tooth requires extraction and is still present in the mouth   All of the above  

925 • loading?

How does increased number of implants help in decreasing risk of immediate occlusal

a) b) c) d)

Increases retention of restoration Decrease in pontics   Increase in functional surface area   All of the above  

Ans: D 926

Disadvantages of tapered implant design include the following except a)

Implant does not engage the bone physically until the implant is seated almost completely in the bone site b) Less overall surface area compared with a parallel walled threaded implant   c) More thread depth near the apical portion of implant   d) Less likely to engage lateral cortical bone in the apical half of the implant   Ans: C   927

Fatigue strength of an implant is affected by

• a) b) c) d)

Ans: D

Diameter of implant Implant material   Amount of force applied to the system   All of the above  


928

How many grades of titanium are used for implants? a) b) c) d)

4 5   6   7  

Ans: B 929 • Which grade implant material should be used when small diameter implants are used to permanently replace a natural tooth?   a) b) c) d)

Grade 2 Grade 3   Grade 4   Grade 5  

Ans: D 930

Advantages of one piece small diameter implants includes a) b) c) d)

Eliminates risk of abutment screw loosening No microgap exists between abutment and implant   Amount of crestal bone loss is reduced   All of the above  

Ans: D 931

932

Disadvantages of immediate loading

a) b) c) d) Ans: D

Risk of implant failure Greater crestal bone loss   Requirement of bone graft as bone width does not regenerate   All of the above  

Post surgical instructions after stage 1 surgery are as following except a) b) c) d)

Patient instructed to eat soft food (Eg: fish, pasta, cooked meat) No raw vegetables or hard bread until final prosthesis delivery   When possible patient should practice chewing food in implant region   No oral habits permitted  

Ans: C   933.A hole in the medial wall of the maxillary sinus due to sinus infection may cause the following   a.loss of graft materials through the nares   b.expansion of the sinus   c.heamorrhage due to internal pressure   d.all of the above  


Answer: A   934.The lateral wall of the maxillary sinus gives acess for the _____ .   a.expansion of the maxillary sinus   b.Tatum sinus elevation   c.subantral augmentation procedure   d. answer b & c     Answer: D   935.The medial sinus of the maxillary sinus drains through the ____.   a.sphenopalatine vein   b.internal jugular vein   c.cavernous sinus   d.none of the above   Answer: A     936.The infundibulum is a narrow passage which represents the ____.   a.supero medial axtension of the ostium   b.lateral expansion of the maxillary sinus   c.drainage of the maxillary antrum   d.none of the above     Answer: A     937.Which of the following is the better prognosis observed after sinus elevation and bone graft procedures in edentulous patients.  


a.improved blood circulation b.improved sinus drainage   c.less infection occurance   d.lighter skull weight     Answer: B     938.Patients with a history of sinusitis may have undergone irreversible mucousal changes such as   a.mucousal fibrosis   b.polypoid growth   c.loss of cilia   d.all of the above     Answer: D         939.The lining of the maxillary sinus is paler suggesting _____.   a.fewer blood vessels present   b.presence of cilia   c.larger air filled sacs in maxillary ssinus   d.none of the above     Answer: A     940.Vascularization and innervation of the maxillary sinus is shared with which of the following tooth   a.maxillary tooth  


b.mandibular tooth c.maxillary and mandibular tooth   d.none of the above     Answer: A     941.With the loos of teeth in the maxilla, the maxillary antrum expands and ____________.   a.sinus floor become consistent with the crest of the residual alveolar ridge   b.floor becomes more prone to infection   c.sinus expands and allows more loss of tooth in the maxilla   d.all of the above     Answer: A  

    Thread  Geometry.   942.Implant  thread  designs  are  meant  to   a) Maximize  initial  contact.   b) Enhance  surface  area   c) Facilitate  dissipation  of  stress   d) All  the  above.                                                                                                                                      Ans:  d   943 Stress  of  implant  retention  after  initial  healing  is  determined  by:   a) Major  &  Minor     b) Thread  pitch   c) Length.   d) All  the  above.                                                                                                                          Ans:d   944 Major  diameter  of  the  implant  fixture  is  characterized  as   a) Crest   b) Root   c) Pitch   d) Height                                                                                                                                                      ans:a   945 Minor  diameter  of  the  implant  fixture  is  characterized  as   a) Crest     b) Root  


c) Pitch d) Base                                                                                                                                                                  ans:  a   946 Angulation  between  2  crests  or  major  diameters  is   0 a) 60   0 b) 50   0 c) 45   0                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                          ans”  c               d) 90   947 In  which  region  of  the  mandible  is  it  advisable  to  insert  an  implant  fixture  with  shallow  threads?   a) Anterior   b) Parasymphysial  arc   c) Posterior   d) Full  mandibular  arc    Ans:  b         948 The  greater  the  thread  depth   a) Greater  the  surface  area  of  the  implant   b) More  prone  for  fracture   c) Surgically  easier  to  place   d) All  the  above.   Ans:  a   949 Longer  implants  are  not  recommended  in  the  DI  bone  area  of  mandible  as:   a) Encroachment  of  neurovascular  canal                         b)        Bicortical  stabilization   c) Bone  overheating  during  surgery   d) All  the  above   Ans  :d   950 Shorter  implants  are  less  successful  compared  to  long  implants  as:   a) Less  stability  under  lateral  loading  conditions.   b) Less  functional  stress  area.   c) Need  of  grafting  or  surgical  augmentation  of  bone.   d) A  &  b   Ans:  d   951 Square  shape  thread  produces  better  results  compared  to  V-­‐shaped  &  reverse  buttress  shape  threads   because   a) Less  stress  in  compressive  &  shear  forces.   b) Higher  reverse  torque  after  initial  healing.   c) Less  prone  for  fracture.   d) A  &B   Ans:  a      


952 Advantage of  titanium  plasma  spray  coated  implant  is:   a) Increase  the  tensile  strength  of  the  bone  to  implant  interface.   b) Resist  shear  force   c) Improves  local  transfer.   d) All  the  above.   Ans:  d   953 Porous  surface  area  produced  by  TPS  is     a) 150-­‐400µm   b) 400-­‐600µm   c) 600-­‐750µm   d) 750-­‐900µm                              Ans  :  a     954 Hydroxyapatite  crystals  are  more  preferred  than  TPS  because   a) Similar  roughness  &  functional  surface  cue.   b) Better  bone  bond   c) Increase  strength  of  hydroxyapatite  to  bone  interface   d)  B  &  C   Ans:c   955 Advantages  of  TPS  &  Hydroxypaptite  coatings   a) Increased  surface  cue.   b) Increased  roughness  of  initial  stability.   c) Stronger  bone  to  implant  interface.   d) All  the  above  mentioned.     Ans:  d   956 Advantages  of  Hydroxyapatite  over  TPS.   a) Faster  healing  bone  interface.   b) Stronger  interface  than  TPS   c) Less  corrosion  of  metal   d) All  the  above.   Ans:  d   957 The  most  biological  coating   a) TPS   b) Hydroxyapatite   c) No  coating   d) TPS  +  Hydroxyapatite.   Ans:b   958 Disadvantage  of  hydroxyapatite   a) Delamination   b) Technique  sensitive   c) Fragile   d) All  the  above   Ans:a   959 Problem  associated  with  surface  coating   a) Break  of  continuity  during  placement.  


b) Poor bonding.   c) Fracture  of  implant   d) No  disadvantage.   Ans:  a       960 Which  acid  etchant  is  more  beneficial  to  bone  development   a) HCl   b) HF   c) H2SO4   d) H3PO4   Ans:  b   961 Which  acid  etchant  causes  scoliosis  of  bone   a) HCl   b) HF   c) H2PO4   d) H3PO4   ans:b   962 Titanium  plasma  spray  is  pure  titanium  heated  at:   0   a) 1500 C   0   b) 1800 C   0   c) 1600 C   0 d) 1900  C   Ans:  a   963 Common  material  for  surface  characterization   a) Aluminum  grit   b) Titanium  grit   c) Zirconia  grit   d) A  &  B.   Ans:  a   964 Most  grit  material  to  bone   a) Alumina   b) Titanium   c) Zirconia     d) All  the  above     Ans:  a     965 Why  is  surface  characterization  of  implant  surface  indicated   a) Better  adaptation   b) Osseousintegration  


c) Better healing   d) All  the  above.   Ans:  b     IMPLANT;  NOT  A  TOOTH   966 Orbital  success  of  implant  are  determined  by:   a) An  individual  unattached  implant  is  immovable  when  tested  clinically   b) Radiograph  does  not  demonstrate  any  evidence  of  per  implant  radiolucency.   c) Ventral  bone  loss  is  less  than  0.2mm  annually    after  the  first  year  of  service  of  the   implant.   d) All  the  above.   Ans:  c   967 Longevity  of  implant  is  determined  by:   a) Post  operative  evaluation.   b) Pre  &  post  prosthetic  placement  evaluation   c) Case  evaluation   d) All  the  above.   Ans:  d   968 Pain  is  usually  caused  or  illicited  when  ;   a) Entrapment  of  soft  tissues  in  the  abutment  to  implant  connection.   b) Pain  on  pressure  due  to  healing  in  the  proximity  of  a  nerve.   c) Parafunctional  activities  causing  lateral  distention  of  force.   d) A  &  B   Ans:  d   969 Percussion  is  a  test  to  indicate   a) Sensitive  to  function   b) Progression  to  abscess.   c) Periimplantitis   d) All  the  above.     Ans:  d   970 Bone  at  the  interface  at  2mm  of  base  &  16mm  of  bone  implant  interface  sounds   a) Almost  identical   b) Dull   c) Sharp   d) Hollow   Ans:  a   971 Marginal  bone  loss  after  the  first  year  of  function  is   a) 0-­‐0.2mm   b) 0-­‐0.3mm   c) 0-­‐0.4mm   d) 0-­‐1mm   Ans:  a   972 If  parafunctional  activity  on  the  transitional  prosthesis   a) Night  guards  


b) Occlusal reduction   c) Increased  healing  time   d) All  the  above.   Ans:  a   973 Minimum  requirement  of  keratinized  gingival   a) 2mm   b) 3mm   c) 4mm   d) 6mm   Ans:  a   974 Minimum  requirement  of  attached  gingival   a) 1mm   b) 2mm   c) 3mm   d) 4mm   Ans:a       975 A  bleeding  index  is  an  indicator  of   a) Sulcularhealth   b) Gingival  health   c) Osseous  health   d) Implant  health   Ans:a   976 Primary  cause  of  bleeding  when  probing  represents  inflammation  from   a) Plaque   b) Calculus   c) Tartar   d) Implant   Ans:  a   977 Most  common  bleeding  gingival  index  used  for  implants  is   a) Loe&Silness   b) Branemark   c) Banner   d) Parker   ans:a   978 Gingivitis  is  always  associated  with  plaque  and  can  be  classified  as   a) Acute  necrotizing   b) Ulcerative   c) Hormonal   d) All  of  the  above.   Ans:d   979 Loss  of  bone  around  an  implant  is   a) Stress  induced  


b) Bacteria induced   c) Combination  of  both   d) All  the  above   Ans:d   980 Short  term  antibiotic  treatment  for  peri  implantitis   a) Aggressive  topical  application  of  chlorohexidine   b) Topical  application  of  local  antibiotics   c) Soft  tissue  therapy   d) A  &  B   ans:  d:     981 After  prosthesis  delivery  ,  early  crestal  bone  loss  avoid  an  implant  is  not  caused  by     a) Bacteria   b) Stress   c) Surgery   d) Prosthesis   Ans:  a   982 When  the  sulcus  depth  is  less  than  5mm  &  the  bleeding  index  increases,  use  of   a) Chlorhexidine   b) Oral  prophylaxis   c) Surgery   d) Removal   Ans:  a   983 Scratching  the  implant  with  a  probe,  a  plaque  _________  is  formed   a) Highway   b) Pathway   c) Route   d) Road   Ans:a   984 Early  bone  loss  may  occur  on  the  ________  aspect   a) Facial  aspect   b) Lingual  aspect   c) Mesial  aspect   d) Distal  aspect   Ans:  a   985 _______  collagen  tissue  is  present  between  gingival  &  implant   a) Type  III   b) Type IV   c) Type  V   d) Type VII                                                                                      Ans:  a     986 A  per  implant  radiolucency  indicates  the  presence  of  surrounding  soft  tissue  &  is  a     a) Sign  of  Fracture  


b) Inflammation c) Infection   d) Granulation  tissue   Ans:  a  

987 Crestal bone  loss  is  evaluated  best  with  ___________  radiograph   a) Ventral  bitewing   b) Peri  apical  radiographs   c) CT  scan   d) A  &  B  

Ans:  d  

988 Implant fixture  is  adapted  to   a) Bone   b) Periodontal  ligament   c) Gingiva   d) All  the  above   Ans:  a   989 Probing  the  implant  site  may  lead  to   a) Periimplantitis   b) Abscess   c) Plaque  accumulation   d) Only  A   Ans:  a   990 Force/Pressure  required  to  percuss  implant   a) 500g   b) 600g   c) 700g   d) 800g   Ans:  a   991 Healthy  implant  moves  less  than   a) 73µm   b) 80µm   c) 90µm   d) 99µm   Ans:  a     `   992. Perioral  forces  exerted  on  teeth  are:-­‐   a) Horizontal     b) Maximum  on  swallowing   c) Maximum  on  smiling   d) All  the  above  


Ans-­‐d 993. The  anterior  biting  force  is  increased   a) In  the  presence  of  centric  occlusion   b) In  eccentric  occlusion   c) In  absence  of  posterior  tooth  contact   d) In  presence  of  posterior  tooth  contact   Ans  –  c   994.  Implant  depth  position  of  lesser  than  4  mm  is  _____   a. Too  Deep   b. Too  Shallow   c. Ideal  Depth.   d. None  of  the  above   Ans  ;  B    995.    Which  is  not  a  Infraorbital  portion  of  maxillary  artery                    A]  anterior  superior  alveolar                C]  posterior  superior  alveolar                    B]  middle  superior  alveolar                    D]  Labial                                                                                                                    ans;c    996.  .    Muscle  rarely  used  in  implant  surgery                    A]  Masseter                                                        C]  Medial  pterygoid                    B]  Temporalis                                                  D]  Lateral  pterygoid  

                 ans  ;  b  

997.  

Passive mechanical  loads  applied  to  dental  implants  during  healing  stage  due  to   a.

Occlusal forces  

b.

Mandibular flexure  

c.

Implant surgery  

d.

None of  the  above  

Ans:-­‐ b   998.  

999.

Only way  to  control  the  strain  experienced  by  the  tissues  is     a.

Change the  density  of  bone  

b.

Increase in  diameter  of  implant  

c.

Use of  threaded  implant  

d.

None of  the  above                                                                                                      ans:  c  

Loss of  crestal  bone  due  to  moment  loads  develop  where  there  is  a   a.

Decrease in  occlusal  height  


b.

Increase in  occlusal  height(abutment)  

c.

No change  in  occlusal  height  

d.

None of  the  above  

Ans: b   1000.  

cortical  bone  is  strongest  in     a.

Tensile force  

b.

Shear force  

c.

Compressive force  

d.

All the  above  

Ans: c   1001.  

1 Sq.ft  is     a.

10.764 Sq.m2  

b.

0.093 m2  

c.

6.542 x  10 m2  

d.

10.128 x  10 m2  

-­‐4

-­‐6

Ans: b   1002.  

Treaded or  finned  dental  implant  impart  a  combination  of  all  three  forces  types  at  the  interface  

conversion is  controlled  by?     a.

Occlusal height  

b.

Implant geometry  

c.

Resultant force  

d.

All the  above  

Ans: b   1003.Implant  prosthesis  opposing  a    natural  teeth    require:   a. b. c. d. Ans:  (a)  

Implant protected  occlusion   No  occlusion   Balanced  occlusion   None  of  the  above  


1004.)  PROBLEMS  OF  THE  IMPLANTS  NOT  PLACED  IN  PARALLEL  POSTIONS:   a. b. c. d.

MEDIAL IMPLANT-­‐  WEARS  OFF                         DISTAL  RECIEVES  MORE  OCCLUSAL  LOAD   BOTH  A  &  B                                                           INCREASED  BONE  RESORPTION  

ANS: C   1005. Crestal  bone  loss  can  be  appreciated  in     a. IOPA  showing  interproximal  crestal  bone   b. IOPA  showing  buccal  and  lingual  crestal  bone   c. Occlusal  Radiographs   d. All  the  above                 ans:  A   1006. Implant  treatment    plan  incorporated  to  decrease  the  most  common  complication  related  to   a. Compression  of  prosthesis   b. Shear  stress   c. Remodeling   d. None  of  the  above                 ans:b     1007. Speed  of  electric  motor  for  osteotomy  is  ;   a.  depends  on  bone  quality   b.  it  does  not  depend  on  bone  quality   c.  it  depends  on  the  electric  motor   d.  none  of  the  above  

ans; a  

1008.  Safe  torque  in  a  threaded  implant  is     a.  35  N-­‐cm   b.29  N  –  cm   c.  90  N  –  cm   d.  23  N  –  cm   1008. ANTERIOR  MANDIBLE  IS  THE  PREFERRED  SITE  BECAUSE  OF:   e. RETENTION                   f.  GREATEST  AVAILABLE  HEIGHT     g.  OPTIMUM  DENSITY  OF  BONE             h. ALL  OF  THE  ABOVE   ANS:  D   1009. PRIMARY  CONCERN  IN  DESIGNING  AN  OVERDENTURE  IS:   a. STABILITY                     b.  RETENTION   c. PROSTHESIS  MOVEMENT     d. ALL    OF  THE  ABOVE     1010.    THE  DISTAL  BAR  OF  THE  MOST  POSTERIOR  IMPLANT  ON  EACH  SIDE  REPRESENT     a. IDEAL  DISTANCE  


b. c. d.

A –  P  SPREAD   14-­‐  15mm   P  –  A  spread  

ANS: B                1011.)            THE  IDEAL  DISTANCE  BETWEEN  TWO  IMPLANTS  IS   a. b. c. d.

1 mm   2  mm   3  mm   4  mm  

ANS: c                    1012).which  of  the  following  are  true  about  maxillary  sinus?    a.reaches  the  full  size  at  about  fourth  month  of  featal  life    b.formed  by  the  alveolar  process  which  forms  the  apex      c.largest  paranasal  sinus    d.all  of  the  above     Answer:  C                    1013).The  following  are  true  about  maxillary  sinus  except:    a.largest  paranasal  sinus    b.its  nasal  wall  presents  a  large  irregular  aperture  communicating  with  nasal  cavity    c.it  is  a  triangular  cavity  at  the  body  of  the  maxilla    d.alveolar  process  forms  the  floor     Answer:  C     1014.Which  of  the  following  canal  projects  into  maxillary  sinus  as  a  well  marked  ridge  extending  from   the  roof  to  the  anterior  wall?    a.nasal  canal    b.infraorbital  canal  


c.maxillary canal    d.mandibular  canal     Answer:  B     1015.Which  of  the  following  communicates  with  the  anterosuperior  part  of  the  maxillary  sinus?    a.lower  part  of  hiatus  semilunaris    b.eusthacian  orrifice    c.nasolacrimal  duct    d.all  of  the  above     Answer:  A     1016.Which  of  the  following  is  the  nerve  supply  through  the  maxillary  sinus    a.inferior  alveolar  nerve    b.superior  alveolar  nerve    c.mandibular  nerve    d.middle  laryngeal  nerve     Answer:  B     1017.Which  of  the  following  lines  the  maxillary  sinus    a.parakeratinised  squamous  epithelium    b.keratinised  squamous  epithelium    c.pseudo  ciliated  columnar  epithelium    d.none  of  the  above  


Answer: C     1018.Which  of  the  following  is  the  venous  drainage  of  the  maxillary  sinus      a.facial  and  pterygoid  plexus  of  vein    b.internal  jugular  vein    c.all  of  the  above    d.none  of  the  above     Answer:  A     1019.Maxillary  sinus  is  also  known  as    a.intranasal  cavity    b.antrum  of  Highmore    c.sinus  mandibularis    d.antrum  of  Hunter     Answer:  B     1020.Which  of  the  following  bounds  inferiorly  to  hiatus  semilunaris    a.eusthacian  orrifice      b.sharp  concave  margin  of  uncinate  process  of  ethmoid  bone    c.maxillary  bone    d.none  of  the  above     Answer:  B  


1021.Who described  the  relation  between  dental  pathology  and  spread  of  the  infection    a.Mark  Euchian    b.Highmore    c.John  Keating    d.John  Hunter       Answer:  D     1022.Which  of  the  following  allows  filtration  of  bacteria  and  other  particles    a.septum    b.nasal  cavity    c.cilia    d.all  of  the  above     Answer:  C     1023.Which  of  the  following  the  size  of  the  maxilary  sinus    a.transverse  breadth  =  3.75  cm    b.anteroposterior  depth  =  8  cm    c.transverse  breadth  =  15  cm    d.vertical  height  opposite  first  molar  =  8  cm     Answer:  A     1024.Which  of  the  following  are  true  about  maxillary  sinus  


a.anteroposterior depth  i  15  cm    b.largest  paranasal  sinus    c.maxillary  sinus  also  known  as  antrum  of  Hunter    d.all  of  the  above     Answer:  B     1025.Which  of  the  following  tooth  roots  approximate  with  the  maxillary  sinus    a.2nd  molars    b.canines    c.lateral  incisors    d.central  incisors     Answer:  A     1026.Which  of  the  following  might  cause  oroantral  fistula    a.acute  sinusitis    b.periapical  infection  of  the  tooth      c.extraction  of  3rd  molars    d.none  of  the  following     Answer:  B     1027.Tenderness  to  pressure  over  the  infraorbital  foramen  may  indicate  the  following  to  maxillary   antrum.    a.expansion  of  the  maxillary  sinus    b.inflammation  of  the  sinus  membrane  from  infection  or  trauma  


c.heammorhage in  the  surrounding  tissues    d.none  of  the  above     Answer:  B     1028.The  infraorbital  neurovascular  structures  may  be  less  than  ____  from  the  crest  of  severe  atropic   anterior  maxilla.    a.20  mm    b.5  cm    c.4  cm    d.10  mm     Answer:  D     1029.Dehiscence  in  the  maxillary  sinus  results  in  direct  contact  between  ____  and  the  sinus  mucousa.    a.infraorbital  structures    b.mandibular  nerve    c.nasal  structures    d.ethmoid  arteries     Answer:  A     1030.The  posterior  wall  of  the  maxillary  sinus  corresponds  to  the  ____  .    a.infraorbital  foramen    b.maxillary  artery    c.pterygomaxillary  region    d.nasal  concha  


Answer: C     1031.Which  of  the  following  is  the  main  opening  through  which  maxillary  sinus  drains  itz  secretion  into   the  nasal  cavity.    a.maxillary  antrum    b.infraorbital  foramen      c.maxillary  ostium    d.nasal  fossa     Answer:  C  

1032.  The  success  criteria  established  by  the  conference  in  the  end  of  5  years  is;   a.    70  years     b.75  years   c.80  years     a. 85  years   ans  ;  b   1033.Instrument  used  to  evaluate  the  mobility  of  the  implant  is;   a.  implantest     b.  abutmentest   c.  periotest     d.  implant  mobility  scale   ans;  c   1034.Pain  during  percussion  of  the  implant  is  usually     a.  Infection   b.no  significance  finding  


c. Lack  of  gingival  attachment   d.  trauma  from  occlusion     ans;c   1035.  Maximum  mobility  of  a  healthy  implant  is   a.500  microns   b.1000  microns   c.75  microns   d.  750  microns   ans;c   1036.Implant  mobility  scale  of  3  denotes   a.  slight  movement   b.severe  horizontal  movement  greater  than  0.5mm   c.visible  moderate  to  severe  horizontal  and  visible  vertical  movement   d.moderate  visible  mobility  upto  0.5mm   ans;b   1037.  Periotest  values  of  healthy  tooth  is     a.  5-­‐9   b.10-­‐15   c.0-­‐5   d.15-­‐20   ans;a   1038.  Periotest  of  implant  ranges  from     a.  -­‐8   b.  +8   c.+18  


d.+28 ans;a   1039.  Any  amount  of  bone  loss  after  first  year  of  implant  is   a.  0.05  mm   b.  0.1mm   c.0.5mm   d.  1  mm   ans;a   1040  .  Amount  of  reduction  in  bone  density  required  for  a  defect  to  be  visible  in  a   radiograph  is     a.40%   b.80%   c.60%   d.40%                                                                              ans;d   1041.  According  to  misch  bone  loss  around  the  implant  is  called   a.  resorption   b.resolution   c.  periimplantitis   d.periodontitis   ans;  c   1042.  Optimum  depth  of  implant  gingival  sulcus  is   a.2  mm   b.  4mm   c.  6mm   d.  8mm  


ans;b 1043.  The  following  condition  can  always  lead  to  bone  loss  around  the  implant   a.bleeding  on  probing’   b.  plaque  and  calculus  +  bleeding  on  probing   c.  exudate   d.  pain  on  percussion   ans;c   1044.  Vertical  movement  on  application  of  400  grams  of  force  indicates   a.implant  success   b.  compromised  implant  success   c.  implant  failure   d.  all  the  above   ans;c   1045.  Implant  infection  begins  from  the     a) b) c) d)

Permucosal region   Mucosal  region   Apical  region   Permucosal  region  and  spreads  in  an  apical  direction  

Ans; d   1046.Sub  periosteal  implants  often  extend  beyond   e) f) g) h)

Muscle attachments   Fascial  planes   Muscle  attachments  and  fascial  planes   All  of  the  above  

Ans;c  

1047. The  primary  cause  for  failure  of  the  crown  is  all  of  the  following  except   a. Endontic  therapy  


b. Porcelain or  tooth  fracture   c. Uncemented  restoration   d. Physiological  breakdown   Answer  is:  D    

1048.The following  treatment  options  exist  for  replacement  of  posterior  single  missing   tooth:   a. b. c. d.

Removable  partial  denture   Resin-­‐bonded  prosthesis   Space  Regainer   Implant  prosthesis  

 

1049.Disadvantages of  Replacing  a  Mandibular  Second  Molar  include  except:   e. f. g. h.

Not in  esthetic  zone   Less  than  5%  chewing  efficiency   10%  bite  force  increase   Zero  occlusal  disturbances  

Answer is:  D   1050.All  of  the  following  are  true  of  unfavourable  outcomes  of  FPD  with  the  exception  of:   i. j. k. l. Answer  is:  B              

Loss of  abutment  tooth   Decreased  plaque  retention  at  pontic   Mean  span  of  10  to  15  years   Esthetics  in  anterior  regions  


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Implantology mcqs final (3)  

Implantology mcqs final (3)  

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